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  <FDSYS>
    <CFRTITLE>12</CFRTITLE>
    <CFRTITLETEXT>Banks and Banking</CFRTITLETEXT>
    <VOL>4</VOL>
    <DATE>2000-01-01</DATE>
    <ORIGINALDATE>2000-01-01</ORIGINALDATE>
    <COVERONLY>false</COVERONLY>
    <TITLE>FEDERAL DEPOSIT INSURANCE CORPORATION</TITLE>
    <GRANULENUM>III</GRANULENUM>
    <HEADING>CHAPTER III</HEADING>
    <ANCESTORS>
      <PARENT HEADING="Title 12" SEQ="0">Banks and Banking</PARENT>
    </ANCESTORS>
  </FDSYS>
  <CHAPTER>
    <TOC>
      <TOCHD>
        <PRTPAGE P="3"/>
        <HD SOURCE="HED">CHAPTER III—FEDERAL DEPOSIT INSURANCE CORPORATION</HD>
      </TOCHD>
      <SUBCHAP>
        <HD SOURCE="HED">SUBCHAPTER A—PROCEDURE AND RULES OF PRACTICE</HD>
      </SUBCHAP>
      <PTHD>Part</PTHD>
      <PGHD>Page</PGHD>
      <CHAPTI>
        <PT>300-302</PT>
        <RESERVED>[Reserved]</RESERVED>
        <PT>303</PT>
        <SUBJECT>Filing procedures and delegations of authority</SUBJECT>
        <PG>5</PG>
        <PT>304</PT>
        <SUBJECT>Forms, instructions and reports</SUBJECT>
        <PG>68</PG>
        <PT>305-306</PT>
        <RESERVED>[Reserved]</RESERVED>
        <PT>307</PT>
        <SUBJECT>Notification of changes of insured status</SUBJECT>
        <PG>72</PG>
        <PT>308</PT>
        <SUBJECT>Rules of practice and procedure</SUBJECT>
        <PG>72</PG>
        <PT>309</PT>
        <SUBJECT>Disclosure of information</SUBJECT>
        <PG>135</PG>
        <PT>310</PT>
        <SUBJECT>Privacy Act regulations</SUBJECT>
        <PG>148</PG>
        <PT>311</PT>
        <SUBJECT>Rules governing public observation of meetings of the Corporation's Board of Directors</SUBJECT>
        <PG>153</PG>
        <PT>312</PT>
        <SUBJECT>Assessment of fees upon entrance to or exit from the Bank Insurance Fund or the Savings Association Insurance Fund</SUBJECT>
        <PG>158</PG>
      </CHAPTI>
      <SUBCHAP>
        <HD SOURCE="HED">SUBCHAPTER B—REGULATIONS AND STATEMENTS OF GENERAL POLICY</HD>
      </SUBCHAP>
      <CHAPTI>
        <PT>323</PT>
        <SUBJECT>Appraisals</SUBJECT>
        <PG>164</PG>
        <PT>324</PT>
        <RESERVED>[Reserved]</RESERVED>
        <PT>325</PT>
        <SUBJECT>Capital maintenance</SUBJECT>
        <PG>168</PG>
        <PT>326</PT>
        <SUBJECT>Minimum security devices and procedures and Bank Secrecy Act compliance</SUBJECT>
        <PG>213</PG>
        <PT>327</PT>
        <SUBJECT>Assessments</SUBJECT>
        <PG>215</PG>
        <PT>328</PT>
        <SUBJECT>Advertisement of membership</SUBJECT>
        <PG>234</PG>
        <PT>329</PT>
        <SUBJECT>Interest on deposits</SUBJECT>
        <PG>238</PG>
        <PT>330</PT>
        <SUBJECT>Deposit insurance coverage</SUBJECT>
        <PG>241</PG>
        <PT>331</PT>
        <SUBJECT>Asset and liability backup program</SUBJECT>
        <PG>255</PG>
        <PT>332</PT>
        <RESERVED>[Reserved]</RESERVED>
        <PT>333</PT>
        <SUBJECT>Extension of corporate powers</SUBJECT>
        <PG>264</PG>
        <PT>334</PT>
        <RESERVED>[Reserved]</RESERVED>
        <PT>335</PT>
        <SUBJECT>Securities of nonmember insured banks</SUBJECT>
        <PG>265</PG>
        <PT>336</PT>
        <SUBJECT>FDIC employees</SUBJECT>
        <PG>271</PG>
        <PT>337</PT>
        <SUBJECT>Unsafe and unsound banking practices</SUBJECT>
        <PG>275</PG>
        <PT>338</PT>
        <SUBJECT>Fair housing</SUBJECT>
        <PG>287</PG>
        <PT>339</PT>
        <SUBJECT>Loans in areas having special flood hazards</SUBJECT>
        <PG>292<PRTPAGE P="4"/>
        </PG>
        <PT>340</PT>
        <RESERVED>[Reserved]</RESERVED>
        <PT>341</PT>
        <SUBJECT>Registration of securities transfer agents</SUBJECT>
        <PG>296</PG>
        <PT>342-343</PT>
        <RESERVED>[Reserved]</RESERVED>
        <PT>344</PT>
        <SUBJECT>Recordkeeping and confirmation requirements for securities transactions</SUBJECT>
        <PG>298</PG>
        <PT>345</PT>
        <SUBJECT>Community reinvestment</SUBJECT>
        <PG>305</PG>
        <PT>346</PT>
        <RESERVED>[Reserved]</RESERVED>
        <PT>347</PT>
        <SUBJECT>International banking</SUBJECT>
        <PG>324</PG>
        <PT>348</PT>
        <SUBJECT>Management official interlocks</SUBJECT>
        <PG>347</PG>
        <PT>349</PT>
        <SUBJECT>Reports and public disclosure of indebtedness of executive officers and principal shareholders to a State nonmember bank and its correspondent banks</SUBJECT>
        <PG>351</PG>
        <PT>350</PT>
        <SUBJECT>Disclosure of financial and other information by FDIC-insured State nonmember banks</SUBJECT>
        <PG>353</PG>
        <PT>351</PT>
        <RESERVED>[Reserved]</RESERVED>
        <PT>352</PT>
        <SUBJECT>Nondiscrimination on the basis of handicap</SUBJECT>
        <PG>356</PG>
        <PT>353</PT>
        <SUBJECT>Suspicious activity reports</SUBJECT>
        <PG>361</PG>
        <PT>357</PT>
        <SUBJECT>Determination of economically depressed regions</SUBJECT>
        <PG>363</PG>
        <PT>359</PT>
        <SUBJECT>Golden parachute and indemnification payments</SUBJECT>
        <PG>363</PG>
        <PT>360</PT>
        <SUBJECT>Resolution and receivership rules</SUBJECT>
        <PG>371</PG>
        <PT>361</PT>
        <SUBJECT>Minority and Women Outreach Program—Contracting</SUBJECT>
        <PG>374</PG>
        <PT>362</PT>
        <SUBJECT>Activities of insured State banks and insured savings associations</SUBJECT>
        <PG>377</PG>
        <PT>363</PT>
        <SUBJECT>Annual independent audits and reporting requirements</SUBJECT>
        <PG>398</PG>
        <PT>364</PT>
        <SUBJECT>Standards for Safety and Soundness</SUBJECT>
        <PG>406</PG>
        <PT>365</PT>
        <SUBJECT>Real Estate Lending Standards</SUBJECT>
        <PG>412</PG>
        <PT>366</PT>
        <SUBJECT>Contractor conflicts of interest</SUBJECT>
        <PG>417</PG>
        <PT>367</PT>
        <SUBJECT>Suspension and exclusion of contractor and termination of contracts</SUBJECT>
        <PG>423</PG>
        <PT>368</PT>
        <SUBJECT>Government securities sales practices</SUBJECT>
        <PG>432</PG>
        <PT>369</PT>
        <SUBJECT>Prohibition against use of interstate branches primarily for deposit production</SUBJECT>
        <PG>435</PG>
      </CHAPTI>
    </TOC>
    <SUBCHAP TYPE="N">
      <PRTPAGE P="5"/>
      <HD SOURCE="HED">SUBCHAPTER A—PROCEDURE AND RULES OF PRACTICE</HD>
      <PART>
        <RESERVED>PARTS 300-302[RESERVED]</RESERVED>
      </PART>
      <PART>
        <EAR>Pt. 303</EAR>
        <HD SOURCE="HED">PART 303—FILING PROCEDURES AND DELEGATIONS OF AUTHORITY</HD>
        <CONTENTS>
          <SECHD>Sec.</SECHD>
          <SECTNO>303.0</SECTNO>
          <SUBJECT>Scope.</SUBJECT>
          <SUBPART>
            <HD SOURCE="HED">Subpart A—Rules of General Applicability</HD>
            <SECTNO>303.1</SECTNO>
            <SUBJECT>Scope.</SUBJECT>
            <SECTNO>303.2</SECTNO>
            <SUBJECT>Definitions.</SUBJECT>
            <SECTNO>303.3</SECTNO>
            <SUBJECT>General filing procedures.</SUBJECT>
            <SECTNO>303.4</SECTNO>
            <SUBJECT>Computation of time.</SUBJECT>
            <SECTNO>303.5</SECTNO>
            <SUBJECT>Effect of Community Reinvestment Act performance on filings.</SUBJECT>
            <SECTNO>303.6</SECTNO>
            <SUBJECT>Investigations and examinations.</SUBJECT>
            <SECTNO>303.7</SECTNO>
            <SUBJECT>Public notice requirements.</SUBJECT>
            <SECTNO>303.8</SECTNO>
            <SUBJECT>Public access to filing.</SUBJECT>
            <SECTNO>303.9</SECTNO>
            <SUBJECT>Comments.</SUBJECT>
            <SECTNO>303.10</SECTNO>
            <SUBJECT>Hearings and other meetings.</SUBJECT>
            <SECTNO>303.11</SECTNO>
            <SUBJECT>Decisions.</SUBJECT>
            <SECTNO>303.12</SECTNO>
            <SUBJECT>General rules governing delegations of authority.</SUBJECT>
            <SECTNO>303.13</SECTNO>
            <SUBJECT>Delegations of authority to officials in the Division of Supervision and the Division of Compliance and Consumer Affairs.</SUBJECT>
          </SUBPART>
          <SUBPART>
            <HD SOURCE="HED">Subpart B—Deposit Insurance</HD>
            <SECTNO>303.20</SECTNO>
            <SUBJECT>Scope.</SUBJECT>
            <SECTNO>303.21</SECTNO>
            <SUBJECT>Filing procedures.</SUBJECT>
            <SECTNO>303.22</SECTNO>
            <SUBJECT>Processing.</SUBJECT>
            <SECTNO>303.23</SECTNO>
            <SUBJECT>Public notice requirements.</SUBJECT>
            <SECTNO>303.24</SECTNO>
            <SUBJECT>Application for deposit insurance for an interim institution.</SUBJECT>
            <SECTNO>303.25</SECTNO>
            <SUBJECT>Continuation of deposit insurance upon withdrawing from membership in the Federal Reserve System.</SUBJECT>
            <SECTNO>303.26</SECTNO>
            <SUBJECT>Delegation of authority.</SUBJECT>
            <SECTNO>303.27</SECTNO>
            <SUBJECT>Authority retained by the FDIC Board of Directors.</SUBJECT>
          </SUBPART>
          <SUBPART>
            <HD SOURCE="HED">Subpart C—Establishment and Relocation of Domestic Branches and Offices</HD>
            <SECTNO>303.40</SECTNO>
            <SUBJECT>Scope.</SUBJECT>
            <SECTNO>303.41</SECTNO>
            <SUBJECT>Definitions.</SUBJECT>
            <SECTNO>303.42</SECTNO>
            <SUBJECT>Filing procedures.</SUBJECT>
            <SECTNO>303.43</SECTNO>
            <SUBJECT>Processing.</SUBJECT>
            <SECTNO>303.44</SECTNO>
            <SUBJECT>Public notice requirements.</SUBJECT>
            <SECTNO>303.45</SECTNO>
            <SUBJECT>Special provisions.</SUBJECT>
            <SECTNO>303.46</SECTNO>
            <SUBJECT>Delegation of authority.</SUBJECT>
          </SUBPART>
          <SUBPART>
            <HD SOURCE="HED">Subpart D—Merger Transactions</HD>
            <SECTNO>303.60</SECTNO>
            <SUBJECT>Scope.</SUBJECT>
            <SECTNO>303.61</SECTNO>
            <SUBJECT>Definitions.</SUBJECT>
            <SECTNO>303.62</SECTNO>
            <SUBJECT>Transactions requiring prior approval.</SUBJECT>
            <SECTNO>303.63</SECTNO>
            <SUBJECT>Filing procedures.</SUBJECT>
            <SECTNO>303.64</SECTNO>
            <SUBJECT>Processing.</SUBJECT>
            <SECTNO>303.65</SECTNO>
            <SUBJECT>Public notice requirements.</SUBJECT>
            <SECTNO>303.66</SECTNO>
            <SUBJECT>Delegation of authority.</SUBJECT>
            <SECTNO>303.67</SECTNO>
            <SUBJECT>Authority retained by the FDIC Board of Directors.</SUBJECT>
          </SUBPART>
          <SUBPART>
            <HD SOURCE="HED">Subpart E—Change in Bank Control</HD>
            <SECTNO>303.80</SECTNO>
            <SUBJECT>Scope.</SUBJECT>
            <SECTNO>303.81</SECTNO>
            <SUBJECT>Definitions.</SUBJECT>
            <SECTNO>303.82</SECTNO>
            <SUBJECT>Transactions requiring prior notice.</SUBJECT>
            <SECTNO>303.83</SECTNO>
            <SUBJECT>Transactions not requiring prior notice.</SUBJECT>
            <SECTNO>303.84</SECTNO>
            <SUBJECT>Filing procedures.</SUBJECT>
            <SECTNO>303.85</SECTNO>
            <SUBJECT>Processing.</SUBJECT>
            <SECTNO>303.86</SECTNO>
            <SUBJECT>Public notice requirements.</SUBJECT>
            <SECTNO>303.87</SECTNO>
            <SUBJECT>Delegation of authority.</SUBJECT>
          </SUBPART>
          <SUBPART>
            <HD SOURCE="HED">Subpart F— Change of Director or Senior Executive Officer</HD>
            <SECTNO>303.100</SECTNO>
            <SUBJECT>Scope.</SUBJECT>
            <SECTNO>303.101</SECTNO>
            <SUBJECT>Definitions.</SUBJECT>
            <SECTNO>303.102</SECTNO>
            <SUBJECT>Filing procedures and waiver of prior notice.</SUBJECT>
            <SECTNO>303.103</SECTNO>
            <SUBJECT>Processing.</SUBJECT>
            <SECTNO>303.104</SECTNO>
            <SUBJECT>Delegation of authority.</SUBJECT>
          </SUBPART>
          <SUBPART>
            <HD SOURCE="HED">Subpart G—Activities of Insured State Banks</HD>
            <SECTNO>303.120</SECTNO>
            <SUBJECT>Scope.</SUBJECT>
            <SECTNO>303.121</SECTNO>
            <SUBJECT>Filing procedures.</SUBJECT>
            <SECTNO>303.122</SECTNO>
            <SUBJECT>Processing.</SUBJECT>
            <SECTNO>303.123</SECTNO>
            <SUBJECT>Delegation of authority.</SUBJECT>
          </SUBPART>
          <SUBPART>
            <HD SOURCE="HED">Subpart H—Activities of Insured Savings Associations</HD>
            <SECTNO>303.140</SECTNO>
            <SUBJECT>Scope.</SUBJECT>
            <SECTNO>303.141</SECTNO>
            <SUBJECT>Filing procedures.</SUBJECT>
            <SECTNO>303.142</SECTNO>
            <SUBJECT>Processing.</SUBJECT>
            <SECTNO>303.143</SECTNO>
            <SUBJECT>Delegation of authority.</SUBJECT>
          </SUBPART>
          <SUBPART>
            <HD SOURCE="HED">Subpart I—Mutual-to-Stock Conversions</HD>
            <SECTNO>303.160</SECTNO>
            <SUBJECT>Scope.</SUBJECT>
            <SECTNO>303.161</SECTNO>
            <SUBJECT>Filing procedures.</SUBJECT>
            <SECTNO>303.162</SECTNO>
            <SUBJECT>Waiver from compliance.</SUBJECT>
            <SECTNO>303.163</SECTNO>
            <SUBJECT>Processing.</SUBJECT>
            <SECTNO>303.164</SECTNO>
            <SUBJECT>Delegation of authority.</SUBJECT>
          </SUBPART>
          <SUBPART>
            <HD SOURCE="HED">Subpart J—International Banking</HD>
            <SECTNO>303.180</SECTNO>
            <SUBJECT>Scope.</SUBJECT>
            <SECTNO>303.181</SECTNO>
            <SUBJECT>Definitions.</SUBJECT>
            <SECTNO>303.182</SECTNO>
            <SUBJECT>Establishing, moving or closing a foreign branch of a State nonmember bank; § 347.103.</SUBJECT>
            <SECTNO>303.183</SECTNO>
            <SUBJECT>Investment by insured state nonmember banks in foreign organizations; § 347.108.</SUBJECT>
            <SECTNO>303.184</SECTNO>
            <SUBJECT>Moving an insured branch of a foreign bank.<PRTPAGE P="6"/>
            </SUBJECT>
            <SECTNO>303.185</SECTNO>
            <SUBJECT>Mergers transactions involving foreign banks or foreign organizations.</SUBJECT>
            <SECTNO>303.186</SECTNO>
            <SUBJECT>Exemptions from insurance requirement for a state branch of a foreign bank; § 347.206.</SUBJECT>
            <SECTNO>303.187</SECTNO>
            <SUBJECT>Approval for an insured state branch of a foreign bank to conduct activities not permissible for Federal branches; § 347.213 .</SUBJECT>
          </SUBPART>
          <SUBPART>
            <HD SOURCE="HED">Subpart K—Prompt Corrective Action</HD>
            <SECTNO>303.200</SECTNO>
            <SUBJECT>Scope.</SUBJECT>
            <SECTNO>303.201</SECTNO>
            <SUBJECT>Filing procedures.</SUBJECT>
            <SECTNO>303.202</SECTNO>
            <SUBJECT>Processing.</SUBJECT>
            <SECTNO>303.203</SECTNO>
            <SUBJECT>Applications for capital distribution.</SUBJECT>
            <SECTNO>303.204</SECTNO>
            <SUBJECT>Applications for acquisitions, branching, and new lines of business.</SUBJECT>
            <SECTNO>303.205</SECTNO>
            <SUBJECT>Applications for bonuses and increased compensation for senior executive officers.</SUBJECT>
            <SECTNO>303.206</SECTNO>
            <SUBJECT>Application for payment of principal or interest on subordinated debt.</SUBJECT>
            <SECTNO>303.207</SECTNO>
            <SUBJECT>Restricted activities for critically undercapitalized institutions.</SUBJECT>
            <SECTNO>303.208</SECTNO>
            <SUBJECT>Delegation of authority.</SUBJECT>
          </SUBPART>
          <SUBPART>
            <HD SOURCE="HED">Subpart L—Section 19 of the FDI Act (Consent to Service of Persons Convicted of Certain Criminal Offenses)</HD>
            <SECTNO>303.220</SECTNO>
            <SUBJECT>Scope.</SUBJECT>
            <SECTNO>303.221</SECTNO>
            <SUBJECT>Filing procedures.</SUBJECT>
            <SECTNO>303.222</SECTNO>
            <SUBJECT>Service at another insured depository institution.</SUBJECT>
            <SECTNO>303.223</SECTNO>
            <SUBJECT>Applicant's right to hearing following denial.</SUBJECT>
            <SECTNO>303.224</SECTNO>
            <SUBJECT>Delegation of authority.</SUBJECT>
          </SUBPART>
          <SUBPART>
            <HD SOURCE="HED">Subpart M—Other Filings</HD>
            <SECTNO>303.240</SECTNO>
            <SUBJECT>General.</SUBJECT>
            <SECTNO>303.241</SECTNO>
            <SUBJECT>Reduce or retire capital stock or capital debt instruments.</SUBJECT>
            <SECTNO>303.242</SECTNO>
            <SUBJECT>Exercise of trust powers.</SUBJECT>
            <SECTNO>303.243</SECTNO>
            <SUBJECT>Brokered deposit waivers.</SUBJECT>
            <SECTNO>303.244</SECTNO>
            <SUBJECT>Golden parachute and severance plan payments.</SUBJECT>
            <SECTNO>303.245</SECTNO>
            <SUBJECT>Waiver of liability for commonly controlled depository institutions.</SUBJECT>
            <SECTNO>303.246</SECTNO>
            <SUBJECT>Insurance fund conversions.</SUBJECT>
            <SECTNO>303.247</SECTNO>
            <SUBJECT>Conversion with diminution of capital.</SUBJECT>
            <SECTNO>303.248</SECTNO>
            <SUBJECT>Continue or resume status as an insured institution following termination under section 8 of the FDI Act.</SUBJECT>
            <SECTNO>303.249</SECTNO>
            <SUBJECT>Truth in Lending Act—relief from reimbursement.</SUBJECT>
            <SECTNO>303.250</SECTNO>
            <SUBJECT>Management official interlocks.</SUBJECT>
            <SECTNO>303.251</SECTNO>
            <SUBJECT>Modification of conditions.</SUBJECT>
            <SECTNO>303.252</SECTNO>
            <SUBJECT>Extension of time.</SUBJECT>
          </SUBPART>
          <SUBPART>
            <HD SOURCE="HED">Subpart N—Enforcement Delegations</HD>
            <SECTNO>303.260</SECTNO>
            <SUBJECT>Scope.</SUBJECT>
            <SECTNO>303.261</SECTNO>
            <SUBJECT>Issuance of notification to primary regulator under section 8(a) of the FDI Act (12 U.S.C. 1818(a)).</SUBJECT>
            <SECTNO>303.262</SECTNO>
            <SUBJECT>Issuance of notice of intention to terminate insured status under section 8(a) of the FDI Act (12 U.S.C. 1818(a)).</SUBJECT>
            <SECTNO>303.263</SECTNO>
            <SUBJECT>Cease-and-desist actions under section 8(b) of the FDI Act (12 U.S.C. 1818(b)).</SUBJECT>
            <SECTNO>303.264</SECTNO>
            <SUBJECT>Temporary cease-and-desist orders under section 8(c) of the FDI Act (12 U.S.C. 1818(c)).</SUBJECT>
            <SECTNO>303.265</SECTNO>
            <SUBJECT>Removal and prohibition actions under section 8(e) of the FDI Act (12 U.S.C. 1818(e)).</SUBJECT>
            <SECTNO>303.266</SECTNO>
            <SUBJECT>Suspension and removal action under section 8(g) of the FDI Act (12 U.S.C. 1818(g)).</SUBJECT>
            <SECTNO>303.267</SECTNO>
            <SUBJECT>Termination of insured status under section 8(p) of the FDI Act (12 U.S.C. 1818(p)).</SUBJECT>
            <SECTNO>303.268</SECTNO>
            <SUBJECT>Termination of insured status under section 8(q) of the FDI Act (12 U.S.C. 1818(q)).</SUBJECT>
            <SECTNO>303.269</SECTNO>
            <SUBJECT>Civil money penalties.</SUBJECT>
            <SECTNO>303.270</SECTNO>
            <SUBJECT>Notices of assessment under section 5(e) of the FDI Act (12 U.S.C. 1815(e)).</SUBJECT>
            <SECTNO>303.271</SECTNO>
            <SUBJECT>Prompt corrective action directives and capital plans under section 38 of the FDI Act (12 U.S.C. 1831o) and part 325 of this chapter.</SUBJECT>
            <SECTNO>303.272</SECTNO>
            <SUBJECT>Investigations under section 10(c) of the FDI Act (12 U.S.C. 1820(c)).</SUBJECT>
            <SECTNO>303.273</SECTNO>
            <SUBJECT>Unilateral settlement offers.</SUBJECT>
            <SECTNO>303.274</SECTNO>
            <SUBJECT>Acceptance of written agreements.</SUBJECT>
            <SECTNO>303.275</SECTNO>
            <SUBJECT>Modifications and terminations of enforcement actions and orders.</SUBJECT>
            <SECTNO>303.276</SECTNO>
            <SUBJECT>Enforcement of outstanding enforcement orders.</SUBJECT>
            <SECTNO>303.277</SECTNO>
            <SUBJECT>Compliance plans under section 39 of the FDI Act (12 U.S.C. 1831p-1) (standards for safety and soundness) and part 308 of this chapter.</SUBJECT>
            <SECTNO>303.278</SECTNO>
            <SUBJECT>Enforcement matters where authority is not delegated.</SUBJECT>
          </SUBPART>
        </CONTENTS>
        <AUTH>
          <HD SOURCE="HED">Authority:</HD>

          <P>12 U.S.C. 378, 1813, 1815, 1816, 1817, 1818, 1819 (Seventh and Tenth), 1820, 1823, 1828, 1831a, 1831e, 1831<E T="03">o</E>, 1831p-1, 1835a, 3104, 3105, 3108, 3207; 15 U.S.C. 1601-1607.</P>
        </AUTH>
        <SOURCE>
          <HD SOURCE="HED">Source:</HD>
          <P>63 FR 44713, Aug. 20, 1998, unless otherwise noted.</P>
        </SOURCE>
        <SECTION>
          <SECTNO>§ 303.0</SECTNO>
          <SUBJECT>Scope.</SUBJECT>

          <P>(a) This part describes the procedures to be followed by both the FDIC and applicants with respect to applications, requests, or notices (filings) required to be filed by statute or regulation. Additional details concerning processing are explained in related FDIC statements of policy. This part also sets forth delegations of authority from the FDIC's Board of Directors to the Directors of the Division of Supervision (DOS), the Division of Compliance and Consumer Affairs (DCA), the General <PRTPAGE P="7"/>Counsel of the Legal Division, the Executive Secretary, and, in some cases, their designees to act on certain filings and enforcement matters.</P>
          <P>(b) Additional application procedures may be found in the following FDIC regulations:</P>
          <P>(1) 12 CFR part 327—Assessments (Request for review of assessment risk classification);</P>
          <P>(2) 12 CFR part 328—Advertisement of Membership (Application for temporary waiver of advertising requirements);</P>
          <P>(3) 12 CFR part 345—Community Reinvestment (CRA strategic plans and requests for designation as a wholesale or limited purpose institution);</P>
        </SECTION>
        <SUBPART>
          <HD SOURCE="HED">Subpart A—Rules of General Applicability</HD>
          <SECTION>
            <SECTNO>§ 303.1</SECTNO>
            <SUBJECT>Scope.</SUBJECT>
            <P>This subpart A prescribes the general procedures for submitting filings to the FDIC which are required by statute or regulation. This subpart also prescribes the procedures to be followed by the FDIC, applicants and interested parties during the process of considering a filing, including public notice and comment. This subpart explains the availability of expedited processing for eligible depository institutions (defined in § 303.2(r)). Certain terms used throughout this part are also defined in this subpart. Finally, this subpart sets forth general principles governing delegations of authority by the FDIC's Board of Directors.</P>
          </SECTION>
          <SECTION>
            <SECTNO>§ 303.2</SECTNO>
            <SUBJECT>Definitions.</SUBJECT>
            <P>For purposes of this part:</P>
            <P>(a) <E T="03">Act</E> or <E T="03">FDI Act</E> means the Federal Deposit Insurance Act (12 U.S.C. 1811 <E T="03">et seq.</E>).</P>
            <P>(b) <E T="03">Adjusted part 325 total assets</E> means adjusted 12 CFR part 325 total assets as calculated and reflected in the FDIC's Report of Examination.</P>
            <P>(c) <E T="03">Adverse comment</E> means any objection, protest, or other adverse written statement submitted by an interested party relative to a filing. The term adverse comment shall not include any comment concerning the Community Reinvestment Act (CRA), fair lending, consumer protection, or civil rights that the appropriate regional director or deputy regional director (DCA) determines to be frivolous (for example, raising issues between the commenter and the applicant that have been resolved). The term adverse comment also shall not include any other comment that the appropriate regional director or deputy regional director (DOS) determines to be frivolous (for example, a non-substantive comment submitted primarily as a means of delaying action on the filing).</P>
            <P>(d) <E T="03">Amended order to pay</E> means an order to forfeit and pay civil money penalties, the amount of which has been changed from that assessed in the original notice of assessment of civil money penalties.</P>
            <P>(e) <E T="03">Applicant</E> means a person or entity that submits a filing to the FDIC.</P>
            <P>(f) <E T="03">Application</E> means a submission requesting FDIC approval to engage in various corporate activities and transactions.</P>
            <P>(g) <E T="03">Appropriate FDIC region, appropriate FDIC regional office, appropriate regional director, appropriate deputy regional director, appropriate regional counsel</E> mean, respectively, the FDIC region, and the FDIC regional office, regional director, deputy regional director, and regional counsel, which the FDIC designates as follows:</P>
            <P>(1) When an institution or proposed institution that is the subject of a filing or administrative action is not and will not be part of a group of related institutions, the appropriate region for the institution and any individual associated with the institution is the FDIC region in which the institution or proposed institution is or will be located; or</P>
            <P>(2) When an institution or proposed institution that is the subject of a filing or administrative action is or will be part of a group of related institutions, the appropriate region for the institution and any individual associated with the institution is the FDIC region in which the group's major policy and decision makers are located, or any other region the FDIC designates on a case-by-case basis.</P>
            <P>(h) <E T="03">Associate director</E> means any associate director of the Division of Supervision (DOS) or the Division of Compliance and Consumer Affairs (DCA) or, in the event such titles become obsolete, <PRTPAGE P="8"/>any official of equivalent authority within the respective divisions.</P>
            <P>(i) <E T="03">Book capital</E> means total equity capital which is comprised of perpetual preferred stock, common stock, surplus, undivided profits and capital reserves, as those items are defined in the instructions of the Federal Financial Institutions Examination Council (FFIEC) for the preparation of Consolidated Reports of Condition and Income for insured banks.</P>
            <P>(j) <E T="03">Comment</E> means any written statement of fact or opinion submitted by an interested party relative to a filing.</P>
            <P>(k) <E T="03">Corporation</E> or <E T="03">FDIC</E> means the Federal Deposit Insurance Corporation.</P>
            <P>(l) <E T="03">CRA protest</E> means any adverse comment from the public related to a pending filing which raises a negative issue relative to the Community Reinvestment Act (CRA) (12 U.S.C. 2901 <E T="03">et seq.</E>), whether or not it is labeled a protest and whether or not a hearing is requested.</P>
            <P>(m) <E T="03">Deputy Director</E> means the Deputy Director of the Division of Supervision (DOS) or the Deputy Director of the Division of Compliance and Consumer Affairs (DCA) or, in the event such titles become obsolete, any official of equivalent or higher authority within the respective divisions.</P>
            <P>(n) <E T="03">Deputy regional director</E> means any deputy regional director of the Division of Supervision (DOS) or the Division of Compliance and Consumer Affairs (DCA) or, in the event such titles become obsolete, any official of equivalent authority within the same FDIC region of DOS or DCA.</P>
            <P>(o) <E T="03">DCA</E> means the Division of Compliance and Consumer Affairs or, in the event the Division of Compliance and Consumer Affairs is reorganized, such successor division.</P>
            <P>(p) <E T="03">DOS</E> means the Division of Supervision or, in the event the Division of Supervision is reorganized, such successor division.</P>
            <P>(q) <E T="03">Director</E> means the Director of the Division of Supervision (DOS) or the Director of the Division of Compliance and Consumer Affairs (DCA) or, in the event such titles become obsolete, any official of equivalent or higher authority within the respective divisions.</P>
            <P>(r) <E T="03">Eligible depository institution</E> means a depository institution that meets the following criteria:</P>
            <P>(1) Received an FDIC-assigned composite rating of 1 or 2 under the Uniform Financial Institutions Rating System (UFIRS) as a result of its most recent federal or state examination;</P>
            <P>(2) Received a satisfactory or better Community Reinvestment Act (CRA) rating from its primary federal regulator at its most recent examination, if the depository institution is subject to examination under part 345 of this chapter;</P>
            <P>(3) Received a compliance rating of 1 or 2 from its primary federal regulator at its most recent examination;</P>
            <P>(4) Is well-capitalized as defined in the appropriate capital regulation and guidance of the institution's primary federal regulator; and</P>
            <P>(5) Is not subject to a cease and desist order, consent order, prompt corrective action directive, written agreement, memorandum of understanding, or other administrative agreement with its primary federal regulator or chartering authority.</P>
            <P>(s) <E T="03">Filing</E> means an application, notice or request submitted to the FDIC under this part.</P>
            <P>(t) <E T="03">General Counsel</E> means the head of the Legal Division of the FDIC or any official within the Legal Division exercising equivalent authority for purposes of this part.</P>
            <P>(u) <E T="03">Insider</E> means a person who is or is proposed to be a director, officer, organizer, or incorporator of an applicant; a shareholder who directly or indirectly controls 10 percent or more of any class of the applicant's outstanding voting stock; or the associates or interests of any such person.</P>
            <P>(v) <E T="03">Institution-affiliated party</E> shall have the same meaning as provided in section 3(u) of the Act (12 U.S.C. 1813(u)).</P>
            <P>(w) <E T="03">NEPA</E> means the National Environmental Policy Act of 1969 (42 U.S.C. 4321 <E T="03">et seq.</E>).</P>
            <P>(x) <E T="03">NHPA</E> means the National Historic Preservation Act of 1966 (16 U.S.C. 470 <E T="03">et seq.</E>).<PRTPAGE P="9"/>
            </P>
            <P>(y) <E T="03">Notice</E> means a submission notifying the FDIC that a depository institution intends to engage in or has commenced certain corporate activities or transactions.</P>
            <P>(z) <E T="03">Notice of assessment of civil money penalties</E> means a notice of assessment of civil money penalties, findings of fact and conclusions of law, and order to pay issued pursuant to sections 7(a)(1), 7(j)(15), 8(i) or 18(h) of the Act (12 U.S.C. 1817(a)(1), 1817(j)(15), 1818(i), or 1828(h)), section 106(b) of the Bank Holding Company Act (12 U.S.C. 1972), section 910(d) of the International Lending Supervision Act of 1983 (12 U.S.C. 3909), or any other provision of law providing for the assessment of civil money penalties by the FDIC.</P>
            <P>(aa) <E T="03">Notice of charges</E> means a notice of charges and of hearing setting forth the allegations of unsafe or unsound practices or violations and fixing the time and place of the hearing issued under section 8(b) of the Act (12 U.S.C. 1818(b)).</P>
            <P>(bb) <E T="03">Notice to primary regulator</E> means the notice described in section 8(a)(2)(A) of the Act concerning termination of deposit insurance (12 U.S.C. 1818(a)(2)(A)).</P>
            <P>(cc) <E T="03">Regional counsel</E> means a regional counsel of the Legal Division or, in the event the title becomes obsolete, any official of equivalent authority within the Legal Division. The authority delegated to a regional counsel may be exercised, when confirmed in writing by the regional counsel, by a deputy regional counsel, or any official of equivalent or higher authority in the Supervision and Legislation Branch of the Legal Division.</P>
            <P>(dd) <E T="03">Regional director</E> means any regional director in the Division of Supervision (DOS) or the Division of Compliance and Consumer Affairs (DCA), or in the event such titles become obsolete, any official of equivalent authority within the respective divisions.</P>
            <P>(ee) <E T="03">Section 8 orders:</E>
            </P>
            <P>(1) <E T="03">Section 8(a) order</E> means an order terminating the insured status of a depository institution under section 8(a) of the Act (12 U.S.C. 1818(a)).</P>
            <P>(2) <E T="03">Section 8(b) order, cease-and-desist order</E> means a final order to cease and desist issued under section 8(b) of the Act (12 U.S.C. 1818(b)).</P>
            <P>(3) <E T="03">Section 8(c) order, temporary cease-and-desist order</E> means a temporary order to cease and desist issued under section 8(c) of the Act (12 U.S.C. 1818(c)).</P>
            <P>(4) <E T="03">Section 8(e) order</E> means a final order of removal or prohibition issued under section 8(e) of the Act (12 U.S.C. 1818(e)).</P>
            <P>(5) <E T="03">Section 8(e)(3) order, temporary order of suspension</E> means a temporary order of suspension or prohibition issued under section 8(e)(3) of the Act (12 U.S.C. 1818(e)(3)).</P>
            <P>(6) <E T="03">Section 8(g) order</E> means an order of suspension or order of prohibition issued under section 8(g) of the Act (12 U.S.C. 1818(g)).</P>
            <P>(ff) <E T="03">Standard conditions</E> means the conditions that any FDIC official acting under delegated authority may impose as a routine matter when approving a filing, whether or not the applicant has agreed to their inclusion. The following conditions, or variations thereof, are standard conditions:</P>
            <P>(1) That the applicant has obtained all necessary and final approvals from the appropriate federal or state authority or other appropriate authority;</P>
            <P>(2) That if the transaction does not take effect within a specified time period, or unless, in the meantime, a request for an extension of time has been approved, the consent granted shall expire at the end of the specified time period;</P>
            <P>(3) That until the conditional commitment of the FDIC becomes effective, the FDIC retains the right to alter, suspend or withdraw its commitment should any interim development be deemed to warrant such action; and</P>
            <P>(4) In the case of a merger transaction (as defined in § 303.61(a)), including a corporate reorganization, that the proposed transaction not be consummated before the 30th calendar day (or shorter time period as may be prescribed by the FDIC with the concurrence of the Attorney General) after the date of the order approving the merger transaction.</P>
            <P>(gg) <E T="03">Tier 1 capital</E> shall have the same meaning as provided in § 325.2(t) of this chapter.</P>
            <P>(hh) <E T="03">Total assets</E> shall have the same meaning as provided in § 325.2(v) of this chapter.</P>
          </SECTION>
          <SECTION>
            <PRTPAGE P="10"/>
            <SECTNO>§ 303.3</SECTNO>
            <SUBJECT>General filing procedures.</SUBJECT>
            <P>Unless stated otherwise, filings should be submitted to the appropriate regional director (DOS). Forms and instructions for submitting filings may be obtained from any FDIC regional office (DOS). If no form is prescribed, the filing should be in writing; be signed by the applicant or a duly authorized agent; and contain a concise statement of the action requested. For specific filing and content requirements, consult the appropriate subparts of this part. The FDIC may require the applicant to submit additional information.</P>
          </SECTION>
          <SECTION>
            <SECTNO>§ 303.4</SECTNO>
            <SUBJECT>Computation of time.</SUBJECT>

            <P>For purposes of this part, the FDIC begins computing the relevant period on the day after an event occurs (<E T="03">e.g.,</E> the day after a substantially complete filing is received by the FDIC or the day after publication begins) through the last day of the relevant period. When the last day is a Saturday, Sunday or federal holiday, the period runs until the end of the next business day.</P>
          </SECTION>
          <SECTION>
            <SECTNO>§ 303.5</SECTNO>
            <SUBJECT>Effect of Community Reinvestment Act performance on filings.</SUBJECT>
            <P>Among other factors, the FDIC takes into account the record of performance under the Community Reinvestment Act (CRA) of each applicant in considering a filing for approval of:</P>
            <P>(a) The establishment of a domestic branch;</P>
            <P>(b) The relocation of the bank's main office or a domestic branch;</P>
            <P>(c) The relocation of an insured branch of a foreign bank;</P>
            <P>(d) A transaction subject to the Bank Merger Act; and</P>
            <P>(e) Deposit insurance.</P>
          </SECTION>
          <SECTION>
            <SECTNO>§ 303.6</SECTNO>
            <SUBJECT>Investigations and examinations.</SUBJECT>
            <P>The Board of Directors, Directors of (DOS) or (DCA), the associate directors, or the appropriate regional director or appropriate deputy regional director (DOS) or (DCA) acting under delegated authority may examine or investigate and evaluate facts related to any filing under this chapter to the extent necessary to reach an informed decision and take any action necessary or appropriate under the circumstances.</P>
          </SECTION>
          <SECTION>
            <SECTNO>§ 303.7</SECTNO>
            <SUBJECT>Public notice requirements.</SUBJECT>
            <P>(a) <E T="03">General.</E> The public must be provided with prior notice of a filing to establish a domestic branch, relocate a domestic branch or the main office, relocate an insured branch of a foreign bank, engage in a merger transaction, initiate a change of control transaction, or request deposit insurance. The public has the right to comment on, or to protest, these types of proposed transactions during the relevant comment period. In order to fully apprise the public of this right, an applicant shall publish a public notice of its filing in a newspaper of general circulation. For specific publication requirements, consult subparts B (Deposit Insurance), C (Branches and Relocations), D (Merger Transactions), E (Change in Bank Control), and J (International Banking) of this part.</P>
            <P>(b) <E T="03">Confirmation of publication.</E> The applicant shall mail or otherwise deliver a copy of the newspaper notice to the appropriate regional director (DOS) as part of its filing, or, if a copy is not available at the time of filing, promptly after publication.</P>
            <P>(c) <E T="03">Content of notice.</E> (1) The public notice referred to in paragraph (a) of this section shall consist of the following:</P>
            <P>(i) Name and address of the applicant(s). In the case of an application for deposit insurance for a de novo bank, include the names of all organizers or incorporators. In the case of an application to establish a branch, include the location of the proposed branch or, in the case of an application to relocate a branch or main office, include the current and proposed address of the office. In the case of a merger application, include the names of all parties to the transaction. In the case of a notice of acquisition of control, include the name(s) of the acquiring parties. In the case of an application to relocate an insured branch of a foreign bank, include the current and proposed address of the branch;</P>
            <P>(ii) Type of filing being made;</P>
            <P>(iii) Name of the depository institution(s) that is the subject matter of the filing;</P>

            <P>(iv) That the public may submit comments to the appropriate FDIC regional director (DOS);<PRTPAGE P="11"/>
            </P>
            <P>(v) The address of the appropriate FDIC regional office (DOS) where comments may be sent (the same location that where the filing will be made);</P>
            <P>(vi) The closing date of the public comment period as specified in the appropriate subpart of this part; and</P>
            <P>(vii) That the nonconfidential portions of the application are on file in the regional office and are available for public inspection during regular business hours; photocopies of the nonconfidential portion of the application file will be made available upon request.</P>

            <P>(2) The requirements of paragraphs (c)(1)(iv) through (vii) of this section may be satisfied through use of the following notice:
            </P>
            <EXTRACT>
              <P>Any person wishing to comment on this application may file his or her comments in writing with the regional director (DOS) of the Federal Deposit Insurance Corporation at its regional office [insert address of regional office] not later than [insert closing date of the public comment period specified in the appropriate subpart of part 303]. The non-confidential portions of the application are on file in the regional office and are available for public inspection during regular business hours. Photocopies of the nonconfidential portion of the application file will be made available upon request.</P>
            </EXTRACT>
            
            <P>(d) <E T="03">Multiple transactions.</E> The FDIC may consider more than one transaction, or a series of transactions, to be a single filing for purposes of the publication requirements of this section. When publishing a single public notice for multiple transactions, the applicant shall explain in the public notice how the transactions are related. The closing date of the comment period shall be the closing date of the longest public comment period that applies to any of the related transactions.</P>
            <P>(e) <E T="03">Joint public notices.</E> For a transaction subject to public notice requirements by the FDIC and another federal or state banking authority, the FDIC will accept publication of a single joint notice containing all the information required by both the FDIC and the other federal agency or state banking authority, provided that the notice states that comments must be submitted to the FDIC and, if applicable, the other federal or state banking authority.</P>
            <P>(f) Where public notice is required, the FDIC may determine on a case-by-case basis that unusual circumstances surrounding a particular filing warrant modification of the publication requirements.</P>
          </SECTION>
          <SECTION>
            <SECTNO>§ 303.8</SECTNO>
            <SUBJECT>Public access to filing.</SUBJECT>
            <P>(a) <E T="03">General.</E> For filings subject to a public notice requirement, any person may inspect or request a copy of the non-confidential portions of a filing (the public file) until 180 days following final disposition of a filing. Following the 180-day period, non-confidential portions of an application file will be made available in accordance with paragraph (c) of this section. The public file generally consists of portions of the filing, supporting data, supplementary information, and comments submitted by interested persons (if any) to the extent that the documents have not been afforded confidential treatment. To view or request photocopies of the public file, an oral or written request should be submitted to the appropriate regional director (DOS). The public file will be produced for review not more than one business day after receipt by the regional office of the request (either written or oral) to see the file. The FDIC may impose a fee for photocopying in accordance with § 309.5(c) of this chapter at the rates the FDIC publishes annually in the <E T="04">Federal Register</E>.</P>
            <P>(b) <E T="03">Confidential treatment.</E> (1) The applicant may request that specific information be treated as confidential. The following information generally is considered confidential:</P>
            <P>(i) Personal information, the release of which would constitute a clearly unwarranted invasion of privacy;</P>
            <P>(ii) Commercial or financial information, the disclosure of which could result in substantial competitive harm to the submitter; and</P>
            <P>(iii) Information, the disclosure of which could seriously affect the financial condition of any depository institution.</P>

            <P>(2) If an applicant requests confidential treatment for information that the FDIC does not consider to be confidential, the FDIC may include that information in the public file after notifying the applicant. On its own initiative, the FDIC may determine that certain information should be treated as <PRTPAGE P="12"/>confidential and withhold that information from the public file.</P>
            <P>(c) <E T="03">FOIA requests.</E> A written request for information withheld from the public file, or copies of the public file following closure of the file 180 days after final disposition, should be submitted pursuant to the Freedom of Information Act (5 U.S.C. 552) and part 309 of this chapter to the FDIC, Office of the Executive Secretary, 550 17th Street, N.W., Washington, D.C. 20429.</P>
          </SECTION>
          <SECTION>
            <SECTNO>§ 303.9</SECTNO>
            <SUBJECT>Comments.</SUBJECT>
            <P>(a) <E T="03">Submission of comments.</E> For filings subject to a public notice requirement, any person may submit comments to the appropriate FDIC regional director (DOS) during the comment period.</P>
            <P>(b) <E T="03">Comment period</E>—(1) <E T="03">General.</E> Consult appropriate subparts of this part for the comment period applicable to a particular filing.</P>
            <P>(2) <E T="03">Extension.</E> The appropriate regional director or deputy regional director (DOS) may extend or reopen the comment period if:</P>
            <P>(i) The applicant fails to file all required information on a timely basis to permit review by the public or makes a request for confidential treatment not granted by the FDIC that delays the public availability of that information;</P>
            <P>(ii) Any person requesting an extension of time satisfactorily demonstrates to the FDIC that additional time is necessary to develop factual information that the FDIC determines may materially affect the application; or</P>
            <P>(iii) The appropriate regional director or deputy regional director (DOS) determines that other good cause exists.</P>
            <P>(3) <E T="03">Solicitation of comments.</E> Whenever appropriate, the appropriate regional director (DOS) may solicit comments from any person or institution which might have an interest in or be affected by the pending filing.</P>
            <P>(4) <E T="03">Applicant response.</E> The FDIC will provide copies of all comments received to the applicant and may give the applicant an opportunity to respond.</P>
          </SECTION>
          <SECTION>
            <SECTNO>§ 303.10</SECTNO>
            <SUBJECT>Hearings and other meetings.</SUBJECT>
            <P>(a) <E T="03">Matters covered.</E> This section covers hearings and other proceedings in connection with filings and determinations for or by:</P>
            <P>(1) Deposit insurance by a proposed new depository institution or operating non-insured institution;</P>
            <P>(2) An insured state nonmember bank to establish a domestic branch or to relocate a main office or domestic branch;</P>
            <P>(3) Relocation of an insured branch of a foreign bank;</P>
            <P>(4)(i) Merger transaction which requires the FDIC's prior approval under the Bank Merger Act (12 U.S.C. 1828(c));</P>
            <P>(ii) Except as otherwise expressly provided, the provisions of this section shall not be applicable to any proposed merger transaction which the FDIC Board of Directors determines must be acted upon immediately to prevent the probable failure of one of the institutions involved, or must be handled with expeditious action due to an existing emergency condition, as permitted by the Bank Merger Act (12 U.S.C. 1828(c)(6));</P>
            <P>(5) Nullification of a decision on a filing; and</P>
            <P>(6) Any other purpose or matter which the FDIC Board of Directors in its sole discretion deems appropriate.</P>
            <P>(b) <E T="03">Hearing requests.</E> (1) Any person may submit a written request for a hearing on a filing:</P>
            <P>(i) To the appropriate regional director (DOS) before the end of the comment period; or</P>
            <P>(ii) To the appropriate regional director (DOS or DCA), pursuant to a notice to nullify a decision on a filing issued pursuant to § 303.11(g)(2)(i) or (ii).</P>
            <P>(2) The request must describe the nature of the issues or facts to be presented and the reasons why written submissions would be insufficient to make an adequate presentation of those issues or facts to the FDIC. A person requesting a hearing shall simultaneously submit a copy of the request to the applicant.</P>
            <P>(c) <E T="03">Action on a hearing request.</E> The appropriate regional director (DOS or DCA), after consultation with the Legal Division, may grant or deny a request for a hearing and may limit the issues that he or she deems relevant or material. The FDIC generally grants a hearing request only if it determines <PRTPAGE P="13"/>that written submissions would be insufficient or that a hearing otherwise would be in the public interest.</P>
            <P>(d) <E T="03">Denial of a hearing request.</E> If the appropriate regional director (DOS or DCA), after consultation with the Legal Division, denies a hearing request, he or she shall notify the person requesting the hearing of the reason for the denial. A decision to deny a hearing request shall be a final agency determination and is not appealable.</P>
            <P>(e) <E T="03">FDIC procedures prior to the hearing</E>—(1) <E T="03">Notice of hearing.</E> The FDIC shall issue a notice of hearing if it grants a request for a hearing or orders a hearing because it is in the public interest. The notice of hearing shall state the subject and date of the filing, the time and place of the hearing, and the issues to be addressed. The FDIC shall send a copy of the notice of hearing to the applicant, to the person requesting the hearing, and to anyone else requesting a copy.</P>
            <P>(2) <E T="03">Presiding officer.</E> The presiding officer shall be the Regional Director (DOS or DCA) or his or her designee or such other person as may be named by the Board or the Director (DOS or DCA). The presiding officer is responsible for conducting the hearing and determining all procedural questions not governed by this section.</P>
            <P>(f) <E T="03">Participation in the hearing.</E> Any person who wishes to appear (participant) shall notify the appropriate regional director (DOS or DCA) of his or her intent to participate in the hearing no later than 10 days from the date that the FDIC issues the Notice of Hearing. At least 5 days before the hearing, each participant shall submit to the appropriate regional director (DOS or DCA), as well as to the applicant and any other person as required by the FDIC, the names of witnesses, a statement describing the proposed testimony of each witness, and one copy of each exhibit the participant intends to present.</P>
            <P>(g) <E T="03">Transcripts.</E> The FDIC shall arrange for a hearing transcript. The person requesting the hearing and the applicant each shall bear the cost of one copy of the transcript for his or her use unless such cost is waived by the presiding officer and incurred by the FDIC.</P>
            <P>(h) <E T="03">Conduct of the hearing</E>—(1) <E T="03">Presentations.</E> Subject to the rulings of the presiding officer, the applicant and participants may make opening and closing statements and present and examine witnesses, material, and data.</P>
            <P>(2) <E T="03">Information submitted.</E> Any person presenting material shall furnish one copy to the FDIC, one copy to the applicant, and one copy to each participant.</P>
            <P>(3) <E T="03">Laws not applicable to hearings.</E> The Administrative Procedure Act (5 U.S.C. 551 <E T="03">et seq.</E>), the Federal Rules of Evidence (28 U.S.C. Appendix), the Federal Rules of Civil Procedure (28 U.S.C. Rule 1 <E T="03">et seq.</E>), and the FDIC's Rules of Practice and Procedure (12 CFR part 308) do not govern hearings under this section.</P>
            <P>(i) <E T="03">Closing the hearing record.</E> At the applicant's or any participant's request, or at the FDIC's discretion, the FDIC may keep the hearing record open for up to 10 days following the FDIC's receipt of the transcript. The FDIC shall resume processing the filing after the record closes.</P>
            <P>(j) <E T="03">Disposition and notice thereof.</E> The presiding officer shall make a recommendation to the FDIC within 20 days following the date the hearing and record on the proceeding are closed. The FDIC shall notify the applicant and all participants of the final disposition of a filing and shall provide a statement of the reasons for the final disposition.</P>
            <P>(k) <E T="03">Computation of time.</E> In computing periods of time under this section, the provisions of § 308.12 of the FDIC's Rules of Practice and Procedure (12 CFR 308.12) shall apply.</P>
            <P>(l) <E T="03">Informal proceedings.</E> The FDIC may arrange for an informal proceeding with an applicant and other interested parties in connection with a filing, either upon receipt of a written request for such a meeting made during the comment period, or upon the FDIC's own initiative. No later than 10 days prior to an informal proceeding, the appropriate regional director (DOS or DCA) shall notify the applicant and each person who requested a hearing or oral presentation of the date, time, and place of the proceeding. The proceeding may assume any form, including a meeting with FDIC representatives at <PRTPAGE P="14"/>which participants will be asked to present their views orally. The appropriate regional director (DOS or DCA) may hold separate meetings with each of the participants.</P>
            <P>(m) <E T="03">Authority retained by FDIC Board of Directors to modify procedures.</E> The FDIC Board of Directors may delegate authority by resolution on a case-by-case basis to the presiding officer to adopt different procedures in individual matters and on such terms and conditions as the Board of Directors determines in its discretion. Such resolution shall be made available for public inspection and copying in the Office of the Executive Secretary under the Freedom of Information Act (5 U.S.C. 552(a)(2)).</P>
          </SECTION>
          <SECTION>
            <SECTNO>§ 303.11</SECTNO>
            <SUBJECT>Decisions.</SUBJECT>
            <P>(a) <E T="03">General procedures.</E> The FDIC may approve, conditionally approve, deny, or not object to a filing after appropriate review and consideration of the record. The FDIC will promptly notify the applicant and any person who makes a written request of the final disposition of a filing. If the FDIC denies a filing, the FDIC will immediately notify the applicant in writing of the reasons for the denial.</P>
            <P>(b) <E T="03">Authority retained by FDIC Board of Directors to modify procedures.</E> In acting on any filing under this part, the FDIC Board of Directors may by resolution adopt procedures which differ from those contained in this part when it deems it necessary or in the public interest to do so. The resolution shall be made available for public inspection and copying in the Office of the Executive Secretary under the Freedom of Information Act (5 U.S.C. 552(a)(2)).</P>
            <P>(c) <E T="03">Expedited processing.</E> (1) A filing submitted by an eligible depository institution as defined in § 303.2(r) will receive expedited processing as specified in the appropriate subparts of this part unless the appropriate regional director or deputy regional director (DOS) determines to remove the filing from expedited processing for any of the reasons set forth in paragraph (c)(2) of this section. Except for filings made pursuant to subpart J of this part (International Banking), expedited processing will not be available for any filing that the appropriate regional director (DOS) does not have delegated authority to approve.</P>
            <P>(2) <E T="03">Removal of filing from expedited processing.</E> The appropriate regional director or deputy regional director (DOS) may remove a filing from expedited processing at any time prior to final disposition if:</P>
            <P>(i) For filings subject to public notice under § 303.7, an adverse comment is received that warrants additional investigation or review;</P>
            <P>(ii) For filings subject to evaluation of CRA performance under § 303.5, a CRA protest is received that warrants additional investigation or review, or the appropriate regional director (DCA) determines that the filing presents a significant CRA or compliance concern;</P>
            <P>(iii) For any filing, the appropriate regional director (DOS) determines that the filing presents a significant supervisory concern, or raises a significant legal or policy issue; or</P>
            <P>(iv) For any filing, the appropriate regional director (DOS) determines that other good cause exists for removal.</P>
            <P>(3) For purposes of this section, a significant CRA concern includes, but is not limited to, a determination by the appropriate regional director (DCA) that, although a depository institution may have an institution-wide rating of satisfactory or better, a depository institution's CRA rating is less than satisfactory in a state or multi-state metropolitan statistical area, or a depository institution's CRA performance is less than satisfactory in a metropolitan statistical area as defined in 12 CFR 345.12 (MSA) or in the non-MSA portion of a state in which it seeks to expand through approval of an application for a deposit facility as defined in 12 U.S.C. 2902(3).</P>
            <P>(4) If the FDIC determines that it is necessary to remove a filing from expedited processing pursuant to paragraph (c)(2) of this section, the FDIC promptly will provide the applicant with a written explanation.</P>
            <P>(d) <E T="03">Multiple transactions.</E> If the FDIC is considering related transactions, some or all of which have been granted expedited processing, then the longest processing time for any of the related <PRTPAGE P="15"/>transactions shall govern for purposes of approval.</P>
            <P>(e) <E T="03">Abandonment of filing.</E> A filing must contain all information set forth in the applicable subpart of this part. To the extent necessary to evaluate a filing, the FDIC may require an applicant to provide additional information. If information requested by the FDIC is not provided within the time period specified by the agency, the FDIC may deem the filing abandoned and shall provide written notification to the applicant and any interested parties that submitted comments to the FDIC that the file has been closed.</P>
            <P>(f) <E T="03">Appeals and requests for reconsideration.</E>—(1) <E T="03">General.</E> Appeal procedures for a denial of a change in bank control (subpart E of this part), change in senior executive officer or board of directors (subpart F of this part) or denial of an application pursuant to section 19 of the FDI Act (subpart L of this part) are contained in 12 CFR part 308, subparts D, L, and M, respectively. For all other filings covered by this chapter for which appeal procedures are not provided by regulation or other written guidance, the procedures specified in paragraphs (f) (2) through (5) of this section shall apply. A decision to deny a request for a hearing is a final agency determination and is not appealable.</P>
            <P>(2) <E T="03">Filing procedures.</E> Within 15 days of receipt of notice from the FDIC that its filing has been denied, any applicant may file a request for reconsideration with the appropriate regional director (DOS), if the filing initially was submitted to DOS, or the appropriate regional director (DCA), if the filing initially was submitted to DCA.</P>
            <P>(3) <E T="03">Content of filing.</E> A request for reconsideration must contain the following information:</P>
            <P>(i) A resolution of the board of directors of the applicant authorizing filing of the request if the applicant is a corporation, or a letter signed by the individual(s) filing the request if the applicant is not a corporation;</P>
            <P>(ii) Relevant, substantive information that for good cause was not previously set forth in the filing; and</P>
            <P>(iii) Specific reasons why the FDIC should reconsider its prior decision.</P>
            <P>(4) <E T="03">Delegation of authority for requests for reconsideration.</E> (i) Authority is delegated to the Director and Deputy Director (DOS) and (DCA), as appropriate and, where confirmed in writing by the appropriate Director, to an associate director and the appropriate regional director and deputy regional director, to grant a request for reconsideration, after consultation with the Legal Division.</P>
            <P>(ii) Authority is delegated to the Director and Deputy Director (DOS) and (DCA), as appropriate and, where confirmed in writing, to an associate director, to deny a request for reconsideration, after consultation with the Legal Division. Such a denial is a final agency decision and is not appealable.</P>
            <P>(5) <E T="03">Reconsideration of the filing.</E> If a request for reconsideration is granted pursuant to this paragraph (f), the filing will be reconsidered as follows:</P>
            <P>(i) The Board of Directors will reconsider any such filing if the filing was originally denied by the Board of Directors.</P>
            <P>(ii) Authority is delegated to the FDIC's Supervisory Appeals Review Committee to reconsider any such filing if the filing was originally denied by the Director or Deputy Director or an associate director (DOS) or (DCA), and to make the final agency decision on such filing, after consultation with the Legal Division.</P>
            <P>(iii) Authority is delegated to the Director or Deputy Director (DOS) or (DCA), as appropriate, to reconsider any such filing that was originally denied by a regional director or deputy regional director, and to make the final agency decision on such filing, after consultation with the Legal Division.</P>
            <P>(iv) Notwithstanding paragraphs (f)(5)(ii) and (iii) of this section, no reconsideration of a filing that originally required Legal Division concurrence may be acted upon without Legal Division concurrence.</P>
            <P>(6) <E T="03">Processing.</E> The appropriate regional director (DOS or DCA) will notify the applicant whether reconsideration will be granted or denied within 15 days of receipt of a request for reconsideration. If a request for reconsideration is granted pursuant to this paragraph (f), the FDIC will notify the applicant of the final agency decision <PRTPAGE P="16"/>on such filing within 60 days of its receipt of the request for reconsideration.</P>
            <P>(g) <E T="03">Nullification, withdrawal, revocation, amendment, and suspension of decisions on filing.—</E>(1) <E T="03">Grounds for action.</E> (i) Except as otherwise provided by law or regulation, the FDIC may nullify, withdraw, revoke, amend or suspend a decision on a filing if it becomes aware at anytime:</P>
            <P>(A) Of any material misrepresentation or omission related to the filing or of any material change in circumstance that occurred prior to the consummation of the transaction or commencement of the activity authorized by the decision on the filing; or</P>
            <P>(B) That the decision on the filing is contrary to law or regulation or was granted due to clerical or administrative error.</P>
            <P>(ii) Any person responsible for a material misrepresentation or omission in a filing or supporting materials may be subject to an enforcement action and other penalties, including criminal penalties provided in Title 18 of the United States Code.</P>
            <P>(2) <E T="03">Notice of intent and temporary order.</E> (i) Except as provided in paragraph (g)(2)(ii) of this section, before taking action under this paragraph (g), the FDIC shall issue and serve on an applicant written notice of its intent to take such action. A notice of intent to act on a filing shall include:</P>
            <P>(A) The reasons for the proposed action; and</P>
            <P>(B) The date by which the applicant may file a written response with the FDIC.</P>
            <P>(ii) The FDIC may issue a temporary order on a decision on a filing without providing an applicant a prior notice of intent if the FDIC determines that:</P>
            <P>(A) It is necessary to reevaluate the impact of a change in circumstance prior to the consummation of the transaction or commencement of the activity authorized by the decision on the filing; or</P>
            <P>(B) The activity authorized by the filing may pose a threat to the interests of the depository institution's depositors or may threaten to impair public confidence in the depository institution.</P>
            <P>(iii) A temporary order shall provide the applicant with an opportunity to make a written response in accordance with paragraph (g)(3) of this section.</P>
            <P>(3) <E T="03">Response to notice of intent or temporary order.</E> An applicant may file a written response to a notice of intent or a temporary order within 15 days from the date of service of the notice or temporary order. The written response should include:</P>
            <P>(i) An explanation of why the proposed action or temporary order is not warranted; and</P>
            <P>(ii) Any other relevant information, mitigating circumstance, documentation, or other evidence in support of the applicant's position. An applicant may also request a hearing under § 303.10. Failure by an applicant to file a written response with the FDIC to a notice of intent or a temporary order within the specified time period, shall constitute a waiver of the opportunity to respond and shall constitute consent to a final order under this paragraph (g).</P>
            <P>(4) <E T="03">Effective date.</E> All orders issued pursuant to this section shall become effective immediately upon issuance unless otherwise stated therein.</P>
            <P>(5) <E T="03">Retained and delegated authority.</E> The FDIC Board of Directors retains authority to issue notices of intent and temporary and final orders under this paragraph (g), as to any decision on a filing originally acted on by the Board. For decisions on filings under this paragraph (g) that were not originally acted on by the Board, authority is delegated to the Director and Deputy Director (DOS and DCA) and, where confirmed in writing by the appropriate Director, to an associate director or the appropriate regional director or deputy regional director, to issue notices of intent and final orders, after consultation with the Legal Division. Authority is delegated to the Director and Deputy Director (DOS and DCA) and, where confirmed in writing by the appropriate Director, to an associate director, to issue temporary orders under this paragraph (g), after consultation with the Legal Division. This delegated authority may be exercised only by the official who acted on the original filing or an official of equivalent or higher authority.</P>
          </SECTION>
          <SECTION>
            <PRTPAGE P="17"/>
            <SECTNO>§ 303.12</SECTNO>
            <SUBJECT>General rules governing delegations of authority.</SUBJECT>
            <P>(a) <E T="03">Scope.</E> This section contains general rules governing the FDIC Board of Director's delegations of authority under this part. These principles are procedural in nature only and are not substantive standards. All delegations of authority, confirmations, limitations, revisions, and rescissions under this part must be in writing and maintained with the Office of the Executive Secretary.</P>
            <P>(b) <E T="03">Authority not delegated.</E> Except as otherwise expressly provided, the FDIC Board of Directors does not delegate its authority.</P>
            <P>(1) The FDIC Board of Directors retains and does not delegate the authority to act on agreements with foreign regulatory or supervisory authorities, matters that would establish or change existing Corporation policy, matters that might attract unusual attention or publicity, or involve an issue of first impression notwithstanding any existing delegation of authority.</P>
            <P>(2) The FDIC Board of Directors retains the authority to act on any filing or enforcement matter upon which any member of the Board of Directors wishes to act, even if the authority to act on such filing or enforcement matter has been delegated.</P>
            <P>(c) <E T="03">Exercise of delegated authority not mandated.</E> Any FDIC official with delegated authority under this part may elect not to exercise that authority.</P>
            <P>(d) <E T="03">Action by FDIC officials.</E> In matters where the FDIC Board of Directors has neither specifically delegated nor retained authority, FDIC officials may take action with respect to matters which generally involve conditions or circumstances requiring prompt action to protect the interests of the FDIC and to achieve flexibility in and expedite its operations and the exercise of FDIC functions under this part.</P>
            <P>(e) <E T="03">Construction.</E> The delegations of authority contained in this part are to be broadly construed in favor of the existence of authority in FDIC officials who act under delegated authority. Any exercise of authority under this part by an FDIC official is conclusive evidence of that official's authority.</P>
            <P>(f) <E T="03">Written confirmations, limitations, revisions or rescissions.</E> Where the FDIC Board of Directors has delegated authority to the Director (DOS), Director (DCA) or the General Counsel, or their respective designees, each shall have the right to confirm, limit, revise, or rescind any delegation of authority issued or approved by them, respectively, to any subordinate official(s).</P>
          </SECTION>
          <SECTION>
            <SECTNO>§ 303.13</SECTNO>
            <SUBJECT>Delegations of authority to officials in the Division of Supervision and the Division of Compliance and Consumer Affairs.</SUBJECT>
            <P>(a) <E T="03">CRA protests.</E> Where a CRA protest is filed and remains unresolved, authority is delegated to the Director and Deputy Director (DCA) and, where confirmed in writing by the Director, to an associate director or the appropriate regional director or deputy regional director to concur that approval of any filing subject to CRA is consistent with the purposes of CRA.</P>
            <P>(b) <E T="03">Adequacy of filings.</E> Authority is delegated to the Director and Deputy Director (DOS) and, where confirmed in writing by the Director, to an associate director and the appropriate regional director and deputy regional director, to determine whether a filing is substantially complete for purposes of commencing processing.</P>
            <P>(c) <E T="03">National Historic Preservation Act.</E> Authority is delegated to the Director and Deputy Director (DOS) and, where confirmed in writing by the Director, to an associate director and the appropriate regional director and deputy regional director, to enter into memoranda of agreement pursuant to regulations of the Advisory Council on Historic Preservation which implement the National Historic Preservation Act of 1966 (16 U.S.C. 470).</P>
            <P>(d) <E T="03">Modification of publication requirements.</E> Authority is delegated to the Director and Deputy Director (DOS) and, where confirmed in writing by the Director, to an associate director and the appropriate regional director and deputy regional director, to modify the publication requirements for a particular filing where the unusual circumstances surrounding the filing warrant such modification.</P>
          </SECTION>
        </SUBPART>
        <SUBPART>
          <PRTPAGE P="18"/>
          <HD SOURCE="HED">Subpart B—Deposit Insurance</HD>
          <SECTION>
            <SECTNO>§ 303.20</SECTNO>
            <SUBJECT>Scope.</SUBJECT>
            <P>This subpart sets forth the procedures for applying for deposit insurance for a proposed depository institution or an operating noninsured depository institution under section 5 of the FDI Act (12 U.S.C. 1815). It also sets forth the procedures for requesting continuation of deposit insurance for a state-chartered bank withdrawing from membership in the Federal Reserve System and for interim institutions chartered to facilitate a merger transaction. Related delegations of authority are also set forth.</P>
          </SECTION>
          <SECTION>
            <SECTNO>§ 303.21</SECTNO>
            <SUBJECT>Filing procedures.</SUBJECT>
            <P>(a) Applications for deposit insurance shall be filed with the appropriate regional director (DOS). The relevant application forms and instructions for applying for deposit insurance for an existing or proposed depository institution may be obtained from any FDIC regional office (DOS).</P>
            <P>(b) An application for deposit insurance for an interim depository institution shall be filed and processed in accordance with the procedures set forth in § 303.24, subject to the provisions of § 303.62(b)(2) regarding deposit insurance for interim institutions. An interim institution is defined as a state- or federally-chartered depository institution that does not operate independently but exists solely as a vehicle to accomplish a merger transaction.</P>
            <P>(c) A request for continuation of deposit insurance upon withdrawing from membership in the Federal Reserve System shall be in letter form and shall provide the information prescribed in § 303.25.</P>
          </SECTION>
          <SECTION>
            <SECTNO>§ 303.22</SECTNO>
            <SUBJECT>Processing.</SUBJECT>
            <P>(a) <E T="03">Expedited processing for proposed institutions.</E> (1) An application for deposit insurance for a proposed institution which will be a subsidiary of an eligible depository institution as defined in § 303.2(r) or an eligible holding company will be acknowledged in writing by the FDIC and will receive expedited processing unless the applicant is notified in writing to the contrary and provided with the basis for that decision. An eligible holding company is defined as a bank or thrift holding company that has consolidated assets of $150 million or more, has an assigned composite rating of 2 or better, and has at least 75 percent of its consolidated depository institution assets comprised of eligible depository institutions. The FDIC may remove an application from expedited processing for any of the reasons set forth in § 303.11(c)(2).</P>
            <P>(2) Under expedited processing, the FDIC will take action on an application within 60 days of receipt of a substantially complete application or 5 days after the expiration of the comment period described in § 303.23, whichever is later. Final action may be withheld until the FDIC has assurance that permission to organize the proposed institution will be granted by the chartering authority. Notwithstanding paragraph (a)(1) of this section, if the FDIC does not act within the expedited processing period, it does not constitute an automatic or default approval.</P>
            <P>(b) <E T="03">Standard processing.</E> For those applications that are not processed pursuant to the expedited procedures, the FDIC will provide the applicant with written notification of the final action when the decision is rendered.</P>
          </SECTION>
          <SECTION>
            <SECTNO>§ 303.23</SECTNO>
            <SUBJECT>Public notice requirements.</SUBJECT>
            <P>(a) <E T="03">De novo institutions and operating noninsured institutions.</E> The applicant shall publish a notice as prescribed in § 303.7 in a newspaper of general circulation in the community in which the main office of the depository institution is or will be located. Notice shall be published as close as practicable to, but no sooner than five days before, the date the application is mailed or delivered to the appropriate regional director (DOS). Comments by interested parties must be received by the appropriate regional director (DOS) within 30 days following the date of publication, unless the comment period has been extended or reopened in accordance with § 303.9(b)(2).</P>
            <P>(b) <E T="03">Exceptions to public notice requirements.</E> No publication shall be required in connection with the granting of insurance to a new depository institution established pursuant to the resolution of a depository institution in default, or to an interim depository institution <PRTPAGE P="19"/>formed solely to facilitate a merger transaction, or for a request for continuation of federal deposit insurance by a state-chartered bank withdrawing from membership in the Federal Reserve System.</P>
          </SECTION>
          <SECTION>
            <SECTNO>§ 303.24</SECTNO>
            <SUBJECT>Application for deposit insurance for an interim institution.</SUBJECT>
            <P>(a) <E T="03">Application required.</E> Subject to § 303.62(b)(2), a deposit insurance application is required for a state-chartered interim institution if the related merger transaction is subject to approval by a federal banking agency other than the FDIC. A separate application for deposit insurance for an interim institution is not required in connection with any merger requiring FDIC approval pursuant to subpart D of this part.</P>
            <P>(b) <E T="03">Content of separate application.</E> A letter application for deposit insurance for an interim institution, accompanied by a copy of the related merger application, shall be filed with the appropriate regional director (DOS). The letter application shall briefly describe the transaction and contain a statement that deposit insurance is being requested for an interim institution that does not operate independently but exists solely as a vehicle to accomplish a merger transaction which will be reviewed by a federal banking agency other than the FDIC.</P>
            <P>(c) <E T="03">Processing.</E> An application for deposit insurance for an interim depository institution will be acknowledged in writing by the FDIC. Final action will be taken within 21 days after receipt of a substantially complete application, unless the applicant is notified in writing that additional review is warranted. If the FDIC does not act within the expedited processing period, it does not constitute an automatic or default approval.</P>
          </SECTION>
          <SECTION>
            <SECTNO>§ 303.25</SECTNO>
            <SUBJECT>Continuation of deposit insurance upon withdrawing from membership in the Federal Reserve System.</SUBJECT>
            <P>(a) <E T="03">Content of application.</E> To continue its insured status upon withdrawal from membership in the Federal Reserve System, a state-chartered bank shall submit a letter application to the appropriate regional director (DOS). A complete application shall consist of the following information:</P>
            <P>(1) A copy of the letter, and any attachments thereto, sent to the appropriate Federal Reserve Bank setting forth the bank's intention to terminate its membership;</P>
            <P>(2) A copy of the letter from the Federal Reserve Bank acknowledging the bank's notice to terminate membership;</P>
            <P>(3) A statement regarding any anticipated changes in the bank's general business plan during the next 12-month period; and</P>
            <P>(4)(i) A statement by the bank's management that there are no outstanding or proposed corrective programs or supervisory agreements with the Federal Reserve System.</P>
            <P>(ii) If such programs or agreements exist, a statement by the applicant that its Board of Directors is willing to enter into similar programs or agreements with the FDIC which would become effective upon withdrawal from the Federal Reserve System.</P>
            <P>(b) <E T="03">Processing.</E> An application for deposit insurance under this section will be acknowledged in writing by the FDIC. The appropriate regional director (DOS) shall notify the applicant, within 15 days of receipt of a substantially complete application, either that federal deposit insurance will continue upon termination of membership in the Federal Reserve System or that additional review is warranted and the applicant will be notified, in writing, of the FDIC's final decision regarding continuation of deposit insurance. If the FDIC does not act within the expedited processing period, it does not constitute an automatic or default approval.</P>
          </SECTION>
          <SECTION>
            <SECTNO>§ 303.26</SECTNO>
            <SUBJECT>Delegation of authority.</SUBJECT>
            <P>(a) <E T="03">Proposed depository institutions.</E> (1) Authority is delegated to the Director and the Deputy Director (DOS) and, where confirmed in writing by the Director, to an associate director and the appropriate regional director and deputy regional director, to approve applications for deposit insurance for proposed depository institutions. For the delegate to exercise this authority, the criteria in paragraphs (a)(1)(i) through <PRTPAGE P="20"/>(a)(1)(v) of this section must be satisfied and the applicant shall have agreed in writing to comply with any conditions imposed by the delegate, other than those listed in paragraph (d) of this section which may be imposed without the applicant's consent:</P>
            <P>(i) The factors set forth in section 6 of the Act (12 U.S.C. 1816) have been considered and favorably resolved;</P>

            <P>(ii) No unresolved management interlocks, as prohibited by the Depository Institution Management Interlocks Act (12 U.S.C. 3201 <E T="03">et seq.</E>), part 348 of this chapter or any other applicable implementing regulation, exist;</P>
            <P>(iii) The application is in conformity with the standards and guidelines for the granting of deposit insurance established in the FDIC statement of policy “Applications for Deposit Insurance” (2 FDIC Law, Regulations and Related Acts (FDIC) 5349; see § 309.4(a) and (b) of this chapter for availability);</P>
            <P>(iv) Compliance with the CRA, the NEPA, the NHPA and any applicable related regulations, including 12 CFR part 345, has been considered and favorably resolved; and</P>
            <P>(v) No CRA protest as defined in § 303.2(l) has been filed which remains unresolved or, where such a protest has been filed and remains unresolved, the Director (DCA), Deputy Director (DCA), an associate director (DCA) or the appropriate regional director (DCA) or deputy regional director (DCA) concurs that approval is consistent with the purposes of the CRA and the applicant agrees in writing to any conditions imposed regarding the CRA.</P>
            <P>(2) Authority is delegated to the Director and Deputy Director (DOS) and, where confirmed in writing by the Director, to an associate director and the appropriate regional director and deputy regional director, to approve applications for deposit insurance filed by or on behalf of proposed interim depository institutions formed or organized solely for the purpose of facilitating a merger transaction which will be reviewed by a responsible agency as defined in section 18(c)(2) of the FDI Act. For the delegate to exercise this authority, the criteria in paragraphs (a)(1)(i) through (a)(1)(v) of this section must be satisfied and the applicant must agree in writing to comply with any conditions imposed by the delegate, other than those listed in paragraph (d) of this section which may be imposed without the applicant's consent.</P>
            <P>(b) <E T="03">Operating noninsured depository institutions.</E> Authority is delegated to the Director and the Deputy Director (DOS) and, where confirmed in writing by the Director, to an associate director and the appropriate regional director and deputy regional director, to approve applications for deposit insurance by operating noninsured depository institutions. For the delegate to exercise this authority, the following criteria must be satisfied and the applicant must have agreed in writing to comply with any condition imposed by the delegate, other than those listed in paragraph (d) of this section which may be imposed without the applicant's consent:</P>
            <P>(1) The applicant is determined to be eligible for federal deposit insurance for the class of institution to which the applicant belongs in the state (as defined in section 3(a) of the Act (12 U.S.C. 1813(a)) in which the applicant is located;</P>
            <P>(2) The factors set forth in section 6 of the Act (12 U.S.C. 1816) have been considered and favorably resolved;</P>

            <P>(3) No unresolved management interlocks, as prohibited by the Depository Institution Management Interlocks Act (12 U.S.C. 3201 <E T="03">et seq.</E>), part 348 of this chapter or any other applicable implementing regulation, exist;</P>
            <P>(4) The application is in conformity with the standards and guidelines for the granting of deposit insurance to operating noninsured depository institutions established in the FDIC statement of policy “Applications for Deposit Insurance” (2 FDIC Law, Regulations and Related Acts (FDIC) 5349);</P>
            <P>(5) Compliance with the CRA, the NEPA, the NHPA, and any applicable related regulations, including 12 CFR part 345, has been considered and favorably resolved; and</P>

            <P>(6) No CRA protest as defined in § 303.2(l) has been filed which remains unresolved or, where such a protest has been filed and remains unresolved, the Director (DCA), Deputy Director (DCA), an associate director (DCA) or the appropriate regional director (DCA) <PRTPAGE P="21"/>or deputy regional director (DCA) concurs that approval is consistent with the purposes of the CRA and the applicant agrees in writing to any conditions imposed regarding the CRA.</P>
            <P>(c) <E T="03">Continuation of deposit insurance upon withdrawing from membership in the Federal Reserve System.</E> Authority is delegated to the Director and Deputy Director (DOS) and, where confirmed in writing by the Director, to an associate director and the appropriate regional director and deputy regional director to approve continuation of federal deposit insurance where the applicant has agreed in writing to comply with any conditions imposed by the delegate, other than the standard conditions defined in § 303.2(ff) which may be imposed without the applicant's written consent.</P>
            <P>(d) <E T="03">Conditions that may be imposed under delegated authority.</E> Following are conditions which may be imposed by a delegate in approving applications for deposit insurance without affecting the authority granted under paragraphs (a) and (b) of this section:</P>
            <P>(1) The applicant will provide a specific amount of initial paid-in capital;</P>
            <P>(2) With respect to a proposed depository institution that has applied for deposit insurance pursuant to this subpart, the Tier 1 capital to assets leverage ratio (as defined in the appropriate capital regulation and guidance of the institution's primary federal regulator) will be maintained at not less than eight percent throughout the first three years of operation and that an adequate allowance for loan and lease losses will be provided;</P>
            <P>(3) Any changes in proposed management or proposed ownership to the extent of 10 percent or more of stock, including new acquisitions of or subscriptions to 10 percent or more of stock shall be approved by the FDIC prior to the opening of the depository institution for business;</P>
            <P>(4) The applicant will adopt an accrual accounting system for maintaining the books of the depository institution;</P>
            <P>(5) Where applicable, deposit insurance will not become effective until the applicant has been granted a charter as a depository institution, has authority to conduct a depository institution business, and its establishment and operation as a depository institution have been fully approved by the appropriate state and/or federal supervisory authority;</P>
            <P>(6) Where deposit insurance is granted to an interim institution formed or organized solely to facilitate a related transaction, deposit insurance will only become effective in conjunction with consummation of the related transaction;</P>
            <P>(7) Where applicable, a registered or proposed bank holding company, or a registered or proposed thrift holding company, has obtained approval of the Board of Governors of the Federal Reserve System or the Office of Thrift Supervision to acquire voting stock control of the proposed depository institution prior to its opening for business;</P>
            <P>(8) Where applicable, the applicant has submitted any proposed contracts, leases, or agreements relating to construction or rental of permanent quarters to the appropriate regional director for review and comment;</P>
            <P>(9) Where applicable, full disclosure has been made to all proposed directors and stockholders of the facts concerning the interest of any insider in any transactions being effected or then contemplated, including the identity of the parties to the transaction and the terms and costs involved. An insider is one who is or is proposed to be a director, officer, or incorporator of an applicant; a shareholder who directly or indirectly controls 10 or more percent of any class of the applicant's outstanding voting stock; or the associates or interests of any such person;</P>
            <P>(10) The person(s) selected to serve as the principal operating officer(s) shall be acceptable to the appropriate regional director (DOS);</P>
            <P>(11) The applicant will have adequate fidelity coverage;</P>

            <P>(12) The depository institution will obtain an audit of its financial statements by an independent public accountant annually for at least the first three years after deposit insurance is effective, furnish a copy of any reports by the independent auditor (including any management letters) to the appropriate FDIC regional office within 15 <PRTPAGE P="22"/>days after their receipt by the depository institution and notify the appropriate FDIC regional office within 15 days when a change in its independent auditor occurs; and</P>
            <P>(13) Any standard condition defined in § 303.2(ff).</P>
          </SECTION>
          <SECTION>
            <SECTNO>§ 303.27</SECTNO>
            <SUBJECT>Authority retained by the FDIC Board of Directors.</SUBJECT>
            <P>Without limiting the Board of Director's authority, the Board of Directors retains authority to deny applications for deposit insurance and approve applications for deposit insurance where the applicant does not agree in writing to comply with any condition imposed by the FDIC, other than the standard conditions listed in §§ 303.2(ff) and 303.26(d), which may be imposed without the applicant's written consent.</P>
          </SECTION>
        </SUBPART>
        <SUBPART>
          <HD SOURCE="HED">Subpart C—Establishment and Relocation of Domestic Branches and Offices</HD>
          <SECTION>
            <SECTNO>§ 303.40</SECTNO>
            <SUBJECT>Scope.</SUBJECT>
            <P>(a) <E T="03">General.</E> This subpart sets forth the application requirements, procedures and the delegations of authority for insured state nonmember banks to establish a branch, relocate a branch or main office, and retain existing branches after the interstate relocation of the main office subject to the approval by the FDIC pursuant to sections 13(f), 13(k), 18(d) and 44 of the FDI Act.</P>
            <P>(b) <E T="03">Merger transaction.</E> Applications for approval of the acquisition and establishment of branches in connection with a merger transaction under section 18(c) of the FDI Act (12 U.S.C. 1828(c)), are processed in accordance with subpart D (Merger Transactions) of this part.</P>
            <P>(c) <E T="03">Insured branches of foreign banks and foreign branches of domestic banks.</E> Applications regarding insured branches of foreign banks and foreign branches of domestic banks are processed in accordance with subpart J (International Banking) of this part.</P>
            <P>(d) <E T="03">Interstate acquisition of individual branch.</E> Applications requesting approval of the interstate acquisition of an individual branch or branches located in a state other than the applicant's home state without the acquisition of the whole bank are treated as interstate bank merger transactions under section 44 of the FDI Act (12 U.S.C. 1831a(u)), and are processed in accordance with subpart D (Merger Transactions) of this part.</P>
          </SECTION>
          <SECTION>
            <SECTNO>§ 303.41</SECTNO>
            <SUBJECT>Definitions.</SUBJECT>
            <P>For purposes of this subpart:</P>
            <P>(a) <E T="03">Branch</E> includes any branch bank, branch office, additional office, or any branch place of business located in any State of the United States or in any territory of the United States, Puerto Rico, Guam, American Samoa, the Trust Territory of the Pacific Islands, the Virgin Islands, and the Northern Mariana Islands at which deposits are received or checks paid or money lent. A branch does not include an automated teller machine, an automated loan machine, or a remote service unit. The term branch also includes the following:</P>
            <P>(1) A <E T="03">messenger service</E> that is operated by a bank or its affiliate that picks up and delivers items relating to transactions in which deposits are received or checks paid or money lent. A messenger service established and operated by a non-affiliated third party generally does not constitute a branch for purposes of this subpart. Banks contracting with third parties to provide messenger services should consult with the appropriate regional director (DOS) to determine if the messenger service constitutes a branch.</P>
            <P>(2) A <E T="03">mobile branch,</E> other than a messenger service, that does not have a single, permanent site and uses a vehicle that travels to various locations to enable the public to conduct banking business. A mobile branch may serve defined locations on a regular schedule or may serve a defined area at varying times and locations.</P>
            <P>(3) A <E T="03">temporary branch</E> that operates for a limited period of time not to exceed one year as a public service, such as during an emergency or disaster situation.</P>
            <P>(4) A <E T="03">seasonal branch</E> that operates at various periodically recurring intervals, such as during state and local fairs, college registration periods, and other similar occasions.<PRTPAGE P="23"/>
            </P>
            <P>(b) <E T="03">Branch relocation</E> means a move within the same immediate neighborhood of the existing branch that does not substantially affect the nature of the business of the branch or the customers of the branch. Moving a branch to a location outside its immediate neighborhood is considered the closing of an existing branch and the establishment of a new branch. Closing of a branch is covered in the FDIC Statement of Policy Concerning Branch Closing Notices and Policies (2 FDIC Law, Regulations, Related Acts 5391; see § 309.4 (a) and (b) of this chapter for availability).</P>
            <P>(c) <E T="03">De novo branch</E> means a branch of a bank which is established by the bank as a branch and does not become a branch of such bank as a result of:</P>
            <P>(1) The acquisition by the bank of an insured depository institution or a branch of an insured depository institution; or</P>
            <P>(2) The conversion, merger, or consolidation of any such institution or branch.</P>
            <P>(d) <E T="03">Home state</E> means the state by which the bank is chartered.</P>
            <P>(e) <E T="03">Host state</E> means a state, other than the home state of the bank, in which the bank maintains, or seeks to establish and maintain, a branch.</P>
          </SECTION>
          <SECTION>
            <SECTNO>§ 303.42</SECTNO>
            <SUBJECT>Filing procedures.</SUBJECT>
            <P>(a) <E T="03">General.</E> An applicant shall submit an application to the appropriate regional director (DOS) on the date the notice required by § 303.44 is published, or within 5 days after the date of the last required publication.</P>
            <P>(b) <E T="03">Content of filing.</E> A complete letter application shall include the following information:</P>
            <P>(1) A statement of intent to establish a branch, or to relocate the main office or a branch;</P>
            <P>(2) The exact location of the proposed site including the street address. With regard to messenger services, specify the geographic area in which the services will be available. With regard to a mobile branch specify the community or communities in which the vehicle will operate and the manner in which it will be used;</P>
            <P>(3) Details concerning any involvement in the proposal by an insider of the bank as defined in § 303.2(u), including any financial arrangements relating to fees, the acquisition of property, leasing of property, and construction contracts;</P>
            <P>(4) A statement on the impact of the proposal on the human environment, including, information on compliance with local zoning laws and regulations and the effect on traffic patterns for purposes of complying with the applicable provisions of the NEPA and the FDIC Statement of Policy on NEPA (2 FDIC Law, Regulations, Related Acts 5185; see § 309.4 (a) and (b) of this chapter for availability);</P>
            <P>(5) A statement as to whether or not the site is eligible for inclusion in the National Register of Historic Places for purposes of complying with applicable provisions of the NHPA and the FDIC Statement of Policy on NHPA (2 FDIC Law, Regulations, Related Acts 5175; see § 309.4 (a) and (b) of this chapter for availability) including documentation of consultation with the State Historic Preservation Officer, as appropriate;</P>
            <P>(6) Comments on any changes in services to be offered, the community to be served, or any other effect the proposal may have on the applicant's compliance with the CRA;</P>
            <P>(7) A copy of each newspaper publication required by § 303.44, the name and address of the newspaper, and date of the publication;</P>
            <P>(8) When an application is submitted to relocate the main office of the applicant from one state to another, a statement of the applicant's intent regarding retention of branches in the state where the main office exists prior to relocation.</P>
            <P>(c) <E T="03">Undercapitalized institutions.</E> Applications to establish a branch by applicants subject to section 38 of the FDI Act (12 U.S.C. 1831<E T="03">o</E>) also should provide the information required by § 303.204. Applications pursuant to sections 38 and 18(d) of the FDI Act (12 U.S.C. 1831<E T="03">o</E> and 1828(d)) may be filed concurrently or as a single application.</P>
            <P>(d) <E T="03">Additional information.</E> The appropriate regional director (DOS) may request additional information to complete processing.</P>
          </SECTION>
          <SECTION>
            <SECTNO>§ 303.43</SECTNO>
            <SUBJECT>Processing.</SUBJECT>
            <P>(a) <E T="03">Expedited processing for eligible depository institutions.</E> An application <PRTPAGE P="24"/>filed under this subpart by an eligible depository institution as defined in § 303.2(r) will be acknowledged in writing by the FDIC and will receive expedited processing, unless the applicant is notified in writing to the contrary and provided with the basis for that decision. The FDIC may remove an application from expedited processing for any of the reasons set forth in § 303.11(c)(2). Absent such removal, an application processed under expedited processing will be deemed approved on the latest of the following:</P>
            <P>(1) The 21st day after receipt by the FDIC of a substantially complete filing;</P>
            <P>(2) The 5th day after expiration of the comment period described in § 303.44; or</P>
            <P>(3) In the case of an application to establish and operate a de novo branch in a state that is not the applicant's home state and in which the applicant does not maintain a branch, the 5th day after the FDIC receives confirmation from the host state that the applicant has both complied with the filing requirements of the host state and submitted a copy of the application with the FDIC to the host state bank supervisor.</P>
            <P>(b) <E T="03">Standard processing.</E> For those applications which are not processed pursuant to the expedited procedures, the FDIC will provide the applicant with written notification of the final action when the decision is rendered.</P>
          </SECTION>
          <SECTION>
            <SECTNO>§ 303.44</SECTNO>
            <SUBJECT>Public notice requirements.</SUBJECT>
            <P>(a) <E T="03">Newspaper publications.</E> For applications to establish or relocate a branch, a notice as described in § 303.7(b) shall be published once in a newspaper of general circulation. For applications to relocate a main office, notice shall be published at least once each week on the same day for two consecutive weeks. The required publication shall be made in the following communities:</P>
            <P>(1) <E T="03">To establish a branch.</E> In the community in which the main office is located and in the communities to be served by the branch (including messenger services and mobile branches).</P>
            <P>(2) <E T="03">To relocate a main office.</E> In the community in which the main office is currently located and in the community to which it is proposed the main office will relocate.</P>
            <P>(3) <E T="03">To relocate a branch.</E> In the community in which the branch is located.</P>
            <P>(b) <E T="03">Public comments.</E> Comments by interested parties must be received by the appropriate regional director (DOS) within 15 days after the date of the last newspaper publication required by paragraph (a) of this section, unless the comment period has been extended or reopened in accordance with § 303.9(b)(2).</P>
            <P>(c) <E T="03">Lobby notices.</E> In the case of applications to relocate a main office or a branch, a copy of the required newspaper publication shall be posted in the public lobby of the office to be relocated for at least 15 days beginning on the date of the last published notice required by paragraph (a) of this section.</P>
          </SECTION>
          <SECTION>
            <SECTNO>§ 303.45</SECTNO>
            <SUBJECT>Special provisions.</SUBJECT>
            <P>(a) <E T="03">Emergency or disaster events.</E> (1) In the case of an emergency or disaster at a main office or a branch which requires that an office be immediately relocated to a temporary location, applicants shall notify the appropriate regional director (DOS) within 3 days of such temporary relocation.</P>
            <P>(2) Within 10 days of the temporary relocation resulting from an emergency or disaster, the bank shall submit a written application to the appropriate regional director (DOS), that identifies the nature of the emergency or disaster, specifies the location of the temporary branch, and provides an estimate of the duration the bank plans to operate the temporary branch.</P>
            <P>(3) As part of the review process, the appropriate regional director (DOS) will determine on a case by case basis whether additional information is necessary and may waive public notice requirements.</P>
            <P>(b) <E T="03">Redesignation of main office and existing branch.</E> In cases where an applicant desires to redesignate its main office as a branch and redesignate an existing branch as the main office, a single application shall be submitted. The appropriate regional director (DOS) may waive the public notice requirements in instances where an application presents no significant or novel policy, supervisory, CRA, compliance or legal concerns. A waiver will be <PRTPAGE P="25"/>granted only to a redesignation within the applicant's home state.</P>
            <P>(c) <E T="03">Expiration of approval.</E> Approval of an application expires if within 18 months after the approval date a branch has not commenced business or a relocation has not been completed.</P>
          </SECTION>
          <SECTION>
            <SECTNO>§ 303.46</SECTNO>
            <SUBJECT>Delegation of authority.</SUBJECT>
            <P>(a) <E T="03">Approval of applications.</E> (1) Where the applicant agrees in writing to comply with any conditions imposed by the delegate, other than the standard conditions defined in § 303.2(ff) which may be imposed without the applicant's written consent, authority is delegated to the Director and Deputy Director (DOS) and, where confirmed in writing by the Director, to an associate director and the appropriate regional director and deputy regional director, to approve the following applications:</P>
            <P>(i) Establish a branch;</P>
            <P>(ii) Establish and operate a de novo branch in a state that is not the applicant's home state and in which the applicant does not maintain a branch;</P>
            <P>(iii) Relocate a main office (including an application to relocate a main office to another state and retain existing branches); and</P>
            <P>(iv) Relocate a branch.</P>
            <P>(2) For the delegate to exercise this authority, the criteria in paragraphs (c)(1) through (c)(7) of this section must be satisfied.</P>
            <P>(3) Where the applicant does not agree in writing to comply with any condition imposed by the delegate, authority is delegated to the Director and Deputy Director (DOS) and, where confirmed in writing by the Director, to an associate director to approve the applications listed in paragraph (a)(1) of this section.</P>
            <P>(b) <E T="03">Denial of applications.</E> (1) Authority is delegated to the Director and Deputy Director (DOS) and, where confirmed in writing by the Director, to an associate director and the appropriate regional director and deputy regional director, to deny an application to establish a temporary branch.</P>
            <P>(2) Authority is delegated to the Director and Deputy Director (DOS) and, where confirmed in writing by the Director, to an associate director to deny an application for consent to:</P>
            <P>(i) Establish a branch;</P>
            <P>(ii) Establish and operate a de novo branch in a state that is not the applicant's home state and in which the applicant does not maintain a branch;</P>
            <P>(iii) Relocate a main office (including an application to relocate a main office to another state and retain existing branches); and</P>
            <P>(iv) Relocate a branch.</P>
            <P>(c) <E T="03">Criteria for delegated authority.</E> The following criteria must be satisfied before the authority delegated in paragraph (a) of this section may be exercised:</P>
            <P>(1) The factors set forth in section 6 of the FDI Act (12 U.S.C. 1816) have been considered and favorably resolved except that this criterion does not apply to applications to establish messenger services and temporary branches;</P>
            <P>(2) The applicant meets the capital requirements set forth in 12 CFR part 325 and the FDIC “Statement of Policy on Capital Adequacy” (12 CFR part 325, appendix B) or agrees in writing to increase capital so as to be in compliance with the requirements of 12 CFR part 325 before or at the consummation of the transaction which is the subject of the filing, except that this criterion does not apply to applications to establish messenger services and temporary branches, or to relocate branches or main offices;</P>
            <P>(3) Any financial arrangements which have been made in connection with the proposed branch or relocation and which involve the applicant's insiders are fair and reasonable in comparison to similar arrangements that could have been made with independent third parties;</P>
            <P>(4) Compliance with the CRA, the NEPA, the NHPA, and any applicable related regulations, including 12 CFR part 345, has been considered and favorably resolved;</P>

            <P>(5) No CRA protest as defined in § 303.2(l) has been filed which remains unresolved or, where such a protest has been filed and remains unresolved, the Director (DCA), Deputy Director (DCA), an associate director (DCA) or the appropriate regional director or deputy regional director (DCA) concurs that approval is consistent with the purposes of the CRA and the applicant <PRTPAGE P="26"/>agrees in writing to any conditions imposed regarding the CRA;</P>
            <P>(6) An applicant with one or more existing branches in a state other than the applicant's home state has not failed the credit needs test in a host state under section 109 of the Riegle-Neal Interstate Banking and Branching Efficiency Act of 1994 (12 U.S.C. 1835a);</P>
            <P>(7) Additionally, for applications submitted to establish and operate a de novo branch in a state that is not the applicant's home state and in which the applicant does not maintain a branch:</P>
            <P>(i) Confirmation by the appropriate regional director (DOS) that the applicant has complied with that state's filing requirements and that the applicant also has submitted to the host state bank supervisor a copy of its FDIC filing to establish and operate a de novo branch;</P>
            <P>(ii) Determination by the FDIC that the applicant is adequately capitalized as of the date of the filing and will continue to be adequately capitalized and adequately managed upon consummation of the transaction;</P>
            <P>(iii) Confirmation that the host state has in effect a law that meets the requirements of section 18(d)(4)(A) of the FDI Act (12 U.S.C. 1828(d)(4)(A)); and</P>
            <P>(iv) Compliance with section 44(b)(3) of the FDI Act (12 U.S.C. 1831u(b)(3)); and</P>
            <P>(8) Additionally, for applications submitted to relocate a main office from one state to another where the applicant seeks to retain branches in the state where the applicant's main office exists prior to an interstate relocation of the main office, confirmation that the filing meets the requirements of section 18(d)(3)(B) of the FDI Act (12 U.S.C. 1828(d)(3)(B)).</P>
          </SECTION>
        </SUBPART>
        <SUBPART>
          <HD SOURCE="HED">Subpart D—Merger Transactions</HD>
          <SECTION>
            <SECTNO>§ 303.60</SECTNO>
            <SUBJECT>Scope.</SUBJECT>
            <P>This subpart sets forth the application requirements, procedures, and delegations of authority for transactions subject to FDIC approval under the Bank Merger Act, section 18(c) of the FDI Act (12 U.S.C. 1828(c)). Additional guidance is contained in the FDIC “Statement of Policy on Bank Merger Transactions” (2 FDIC Law, Regulations, Related Acts (FDIC) 5145; see § 309.4 (a) and (b) of this chapter for availability).</P>
          </SECTION>
          <SECTION>
            <SECTNO>§ 303.61</SECTNO>
            <SUBJECT>Definitions.</SUBJECT>
            <P>For purposes of this subpart:</P>
            <P>(a) <E T="03">Merger transaction</E> includes any transaction:</P>
            <P>(1) In which an insured depository institution merges or consolidates with any other insured depository institution or, either directly or indirectly, acquires the assets of, or assumes liability to pay any deposits made in, any other insured depository institution; or</P>
            <P>(2) In which an insured depository institution merges or consolidates with any noninsured bank or institution or assumes liability to pay any deposits made in, or similar liabilities of, any noninsured bank or institution, or in which an insured depository institution transfers assets to any noninsured bank or institution in consideration of the assumption of any portion of the deposits made in the insured depository institution.</P>
            <P>(b) <E T="03">Corporate reorganization</E> means a merger transaction between commonly-owned institutions, between an insured depository institution and its subsidiary, or between an insured depository institution and its holding company, provided that the merger transaction would have no effect on competition or otherwise have significance under the statutory standards set forth in section 18(c) of the FDI Act (12 U.S.C. 1828(c)). For purposes of this paragraph, institutions are commonly-owned if more than 50 percent of the voting stock of each of the institutions is owned by the same company, individual, or group of closely-related individuals acting in concert.</P>
            <P>(c) <E T="03">Interim merger transaction</E> means a merger transaction (other than a purchase and assumption transaction) between an operating depository institution and a newly-formed depository institution or corporation that will not operate independently and that exists solely for the purpose of facilitating a corporate reorganization.</P>
            <P>(d) <E T="03">Optional conversion</E> (Oakar transaction) means a merger transaction in which an insured depository institution assumes deposit liabilities insured <PRTPAGE P="27"/>by the deposit insurance fund (either the Bank Insurance Fund (BIF) or the Savings Association Insurance Fund (SAIF)) of which that assuming institution is not a member, and elects not to convert the insurance covering the assumed deposits. Such transactions are covered by section 5(d)(3) of the FDI Act (12 U.S.C. 1815(d)(3)).</P>
            <P>(e) <E T="03">Resulting institution</E> refers to the acquiring, assuming or resulting institution in a merger transaction.</P>
          </SECTION>
          <SECTION>
            <SECTNO>§ 303.62</SECTNO>
            <SUBJECT>Transactions requiring prior approval.</SUBJECT>
            <P>(a) <E T="03">Merger transactions.</E> The following merger transactions require the prior written approval of the FDIC under this subpart:</P>
            <P>(1) Any merger transaction, including any corporate reorganization, interim merger transaction, or optional conversion, in which the resulting institution is to be an insured state nonmember bank; and</P>
            <P>(2) Any merger transaction, including any corporate reorganization or interim merger transaction, that involves an uninsured bank or institution.</P>
            <P>(b) <E T="03">Related provisions.</E> Transactions covered by this subpart also may be subject to other provisions or application requirements, including the following:</P>
            <P>(1) <E T="03">Interstate merger transactions.</E> Merger transactions between insured banks that are chartered in different states are subject to the provisions of section 44 of the FDI Act (12 U.S.C. 1831u). In the case of a merger transaction that consists of the acquisition by an out of state bank of a branch without acquisition of the bank, the branch is treated for section 44 purposes as a bank whose home state is the state in which the branch is located.</P>
            <P>(2) <E T="03">Deposit insurance.</E> An application for deposit insurance will be required in connection with a merger transaction between a state-chartered interim institution and an insured depository institution if the related merger application is being acted upon by a federal banking agency other than the FDIC. If the FDIC is the federal banking agency responsible for acting on the related merger application, a separate application for deposit insurance is not necessary. Procedures for applying for deposit insurance are set forth in subpart B of this part. An application for deposit insurance will not be required in connection with a merger transaction (other than a purchase and assumption transaction) of a federally-chartered interim institution and an insured institution, even if the resulting institution is to operate under the charter of the federal interim institution.</P>
            <P>(3) <E T="03">Deposit insurance fund conversions.</E> Procedures for conversion transactions involving the transfer of deposits from BIF to SAIF or from SAIF to BIF are set forth in subpart M of this part at § 303.246.</P>
            <P>(4) <E T="03">Branch closings.</E> Branch closings in connection with a merger transaction are subject to the notice requirements of section 42 of the FDI Act (12 U.S.C. 1831r-1), including requirements for notice to customers. These requirements are addressed in the “Interagency Policy Statement Concerning Branch Closings Notices and Policies” (2 FDIC Law, Regulations, Related Acts (FDIC) 5391).</P>
            <P>(5) <E T="03">Undercapitalized institutions.</E> Applications for a merger transaction by applicants subject to section 38 of the FDI Act (12 U.S.C. 1831<E T="03">o</E>) should also provide the information required by § 303.204. Applications pursuant to sections 38 and 18(c) of the FDI Act (12 U.S.C, 1831<E T="03">o</E> and 1828(c)) may be filed concurrently or as a single application.</P>
            <P>(6) <E T="03">Certification of assumption of deposit liability.</E> An insured depository institution assuming deposit liabilities of another insured institution must provide certification of assumption of deposit liability to the FDIC in accordance with 12 CFR part 307.</P>
          </SECTION>
          <SECTION>
            <SECTNO>§ 303.63</SECTNO>
            <SUBJECT>Filing procedures.</SUBJECT>
            <P>(a) <E T="03">General.</E> Applications required under this subpart shall be filed with the appropriate regional director (DOS). The appropriate forms and instructions may be obtained upon request from any DOS regional office.</P>
            <P>(b) <E T="03">Merger transactions.</E> Applications for approval of merger transactions shall be accompanied by copies of all agreements or proposed agreements relating to the merger transaction and <PRTPAGE P="28"/>any other information requested by the FDIC.</P>
            <P>(c) <E T="03">Interim merger transactions.</E> Applications for approval of interim merger transactions and any related deposit insurance applications shall be made by filing the forms and other documents required by paragraphs (a) and (b) of this section and such other information as may be required by the FDIC for consideration of the request for deposit insurance.</P>
            <P>(d) <E T="03">Optional conversions.</E> If the proposed merger transaction is an optional conversion, the merger application shall include a statement that the proposed merger transaction is a transaction covered by section 5(d)(3) of the FDI Act (12 U.S.C. 1815(d)(3)).</P>
          </SECTION>
          <SECTION>
            <SECTNO>§ 303.64</SECTNO>
            <SUBJECT>Processing.</SUBJECT>
            <P>(a) <E T="03">Expedited processing for eligible depository institutions</E>—(1) <E T="03">General.</E> An application filed under this subpart by an eligible depository institution as defined in § 303.2(r) and which meets the additional criteria in paragraph (a)(4) of this section will be acknowledged by the FDIC in writing and will receive expedited processing, unless the applicant is notified in writing to the contrary and provided with the basis for that decision. The FDIC may remove an application from expedited processing for any of the reasons set forth in § 303.11(c)(2).</P>
            <P>(2) Under expedited processing, the FDIC will take action on an application by the date that is the latest of:</P>
            <P>(i) 45 days after the date of the FDIC's receipt of a substantially complete merger application; or</P>
            <P>(ii) 10 days after the date of the last notice publication required under § 303.65; or</P>
            <P>(iii) 5 days after receipt of the Attorney General's report on the competitive factors involved in the proposed transaction; or</P>
            <P>(iv) For an interstate merger transaction subject to the provisions of section 44 of the FDI Act (12 U.S.C. 1831u), 5 days after the FDIC receives confirmation from the host state (as defined in § 303.41(e)) that the applicant has both complied with the filing requirements of the host state and submitted a copy of the FDIC merger application to the host state's bank supervisor.</P>
            <P>(3) Notwithstanding paragraph (a)(1) of this section, if the FDIC does not act within the expedited processing period, it does not constitute an automatic or default approval.</P>
            <P>(4) <E T="03">Criteria.</E> The FDIC will process an application using expedited procedures if:</P>
            <P>(i) Immediately following the merger transaction, the resulting institution will be “well-capitalized” pursuant to subpart B of part 325 of this chapter; and</P>
            <P>(ii)(A) All parties to the merger transaction are eligible depository institutions as defined in § 303.2(r); or</P>
            <P>(B) The acquiring party is an eligible depository institution as defined in § 303.2(r) and the amount of the total assets to be transferred does not exceed an amount equal to 10 percent of the acquiring institution's total assets as reported in its report of condition for the quarter immediately preceding the filing of the merger application.</P>
            <P>(b) <E T="03">Standard processing.</E> For those applications not processed pursuant to the expedited procedures, the FDIC will provide the applicant with written notification of the final action taken by the FDIC on the application when the decision is rendered.</P>
          </SECTION>
          <SECTION>
            <SECTNO>§ 303.65</SECTNO>
            <SUBJECT>Public notice requirements.</SUBJECT>
            <P>(a) <E T="03">General.</E> Except as provided in paragraph (b) of this section, an applicant for approval of a merger transaction must publish notice of the proposed transaction on at least three occasions at approximately equal intervals in a newspaper of general circulation in the community or communities where the main offices of the merging institutions are located or, if there is no such newspaper in the community, then in the newspaper of general circulation published nearest thereto.</P>
            <P>(1) <E T="03">First publication.</E> The first publication of the notice should be as close as practicable to the date on which the application is filed with the FDIC, but no more than 5 days prior to the filing date.</P>
            <P>(2) <E T="03">Last publication.</E> The last publication of the notice shall be on the 25th day after the first publication or, if the newspaper does not publish on the 25th <PRTPAGE P="29"/>day, on the newspaper's publication date that is closest to the 25th day.</P>
            <P>(b) <E T="03">Exceptions—</E>(1) <E T="03">Emergency requiring expeditious action.</E> If the FDIC determines that an emergency exists requiring expeditious action, notice shall be published twice. The first notice shall be published as soon as possible after the FDIC notifies the applicant of such determination. The second notice shall be published on the 7th day after the first publication or, if the newspaper does not publish on the 7th day, on the newspaper's publication date that is closest to the 7th day.</P>
            <P>(2) <E T="03">Probable failure.</E> If the FDIC determines that it must act immediately to prevent the probable failure of one of the institutions involved in a proposed merger transaction, publication is not required.</P>
            <P>(c) <E T="03">Content of notice</E>—(1) <E T="03">General.</E> The notice shall conform to the public notice requirements set forth in § 303.7.</P>
            <P>(2) <E T="03">Branches.</E> If it is contemplated that the resulting institution will operate offices of the other institution(s) as branches, the following statement shall be included in the notice required in § 303.7(b):
            </P>
            <EXTRACT>
              <P>It is contemplated that all offices of the above-named institutions will continue to be operated (with the exception of [insert identity and location of each office that will not be operated]).</P>
            </EXTRACT>
            
            <P>(3) <E T="03">Emergency requiring expeditious action.</E> If the FDIC determines that an emergency exists requiring expeditious action, the notice shall specify as the closing date of the public comment period the date that is the 10th day after the date of the first publication.</P>
            <P>(d) <E T="03">Public comments.</E> Comments must be received by the appropriate regional director (DOS) within 30 days after the first publication of the notice, unless the comment period has been extended or reopened in accordance with § 303.9(b)(2). If the FDIC has determined that an emergency exists requiring expeditious action, comments must be received by the appropriate regional director within 10 days after the first publication.</P>
          </SECTION>
          <SECTION>
            <SECTNO>§ 303.66</SECTNO>
            <SUBJECT>Delegation of authority.</SUBJECT>
            <P>(a) <E T="03">General</E>—(1) <E T="03">Bank Merger Act approval.</E> Subject to paragraphs (a)(3) and (e) of this section, authority is delegated in paragraphs (b), (c), and (d) of this section to the designated FDIC officials to approve under the Bank Merger Act, 18(c) of the FDI Act (12 U.S.C. 1828(c)), applications filed under this subpart.</P>
            <P>(2) <E T="03">Interstate merger approval.</E> With respect to an interstate merger transaction covered by section 44 of the FDI Act (12 U.S.C. 1831u), in addition to the authority delegated to any official in paragraph (b), (c), or (d) of this section to approve the merger transaction under the Bank Merger Act, authority is also delegated to such official to approve the merger transaction under section 44. This delegation is subject to paragraph (a)(3) of this section and to the condition that the merger transaction is eligible for FDIC approval under section 44.</P>
            <P>(3) <E T="03">Combined approvals.</E> The delegations in paragraphs (a)(2), (b), (c), and (d) of this section do not apply to an interstate bank merger transaction covered both by section 44 and by the Bank Merger Act unless the merger transaction is being approved pursuant to delegated authority under both section 44 and the Bank Merger Act.</P>
            <P>(b) <E T="03">Basic delegation.</E> Authority is delegated to the Director and Deputy Director (DOS) and, where confirmed in writing by the Director, to an associate director, and the appropriate regional director and deputy regional director to approve applications under the Bank Merger Act. For the delegate to exercise this authority, the following criteria must be satisfied:</P>
            <P>(1) The resulting institution would meet all applicable capital requirements upon consummation of the transaction (or, where the resulting entity is an insured branch of a foreign bank, would be in compliance with 12 CFR 347.211 upon consummation of the transaction); and</P>
            <P>(2) The factors set forth in section 18(c)(5) of the Act (12 U.S.C. 1828(c)(5)) have been considered and favorably resolved; and</P>
            <P>(3)(i) The merging institutions do not operate in the same relevant geographic market(s); or</P>

            <P>(ii) In each relevant geographic market in which more than one of the merging institutions operate, the resulting institution upon consummation <PRTPAGE P="30"/>of the merger transaction would hold no more than 15 percent of the total deposits held by banks and/or other depository institutions (as appropriate) in the market; or</P>
            <P>(iii) In each relevant geographic market in which more than one of the merging institutions operate, the resulting institution upon consummation of the merger transaction would hold no more than 25 percent of the total deposits held by banks and/or other depository institutions (as appropriate) in the market, and the Attorney General has notified the FDIC in writing that the proposed merger transaction would not have a significantly adverse effect on competition; and</P>
            <P>(4) Compliance with the CRA and any applicable related regulations, including 12 CFR part 345, has been considered and favorably resolved; and</P>
            <P>(5) No CRA protest as defined in § 303.2(l) has been filed which remains unresolved or, where such a protest has been filed and remains unresolved, the Director (DCA), Deputy Director (DCA), associate director (DCA), the appropriate regional director (DCA), or deputy regional director (DCA) concurs that approval is consistent with the purposes of the CRA, and the applicant agrees in writing to any conditions imposed regarding the CRA; and</P>
            <P>(6) The applicant agrees in writing to comply with any conditions imposed by the delegate, other than the standard conditions defined in § 303.2(ff), which may be imposed without the applicant's written consent.</P>
            <P>(c) <E T="03">Additional delegations.</E> In addition to the delegations otherwise provided for in this section, and subject to the criteria set forth in paragraphs (b)(1), (2), (4), (5), and (6) of this section, authority is delegated to the Director and to the Deputy Director (DOS) and, where confirmed in writing by the Director, to an associate director, to approve an application for a merger transaction upon the consummation of which the resulting institution would hold not more than 35 percent of the total deposits held by banks and/or other depository institutions (as appropriate) in any relevant geographic market in which more than one of the merging institutions operate, and the Attorney General has notified the FDIC in writing that the merger transaction would not have a significantly adverse effect on competition.</P>
            <P>(d) <E T="03">Corporate reorganizations; interim merger transactions.</E> In addition to the delegations otherwise provided for in this section, authority is delegated to the Director and to the Deputy Director (DOS) and, where confirmed in writing by the Director, to an associate director and the appropriate regional director and deputy regional director, to approve:</P>
            <P>(1) An application for a corporate reorganization or an interim merger transaction that satisfies the criteria set forth in paragraphs (b)(5) and (6) of this section; and</P>
            <P>(2) Any related application for deposit insurance.</P>
            <P>(e) <E T="03">Limitations.</E> The delegations in paragraphs (b) through (d) of this section do not apply if:</P>
            <P>(1) The Attorney General has determined that the merger transaction would have a significantly adverse effect on competition; or</P>
            <P>(2) The FDIC has made a determination pursuant to section 18 (c)(6) of the FDI Act (12 U.S.C. 1828(c)(6)) that an emergency exists requiring expeditious action or that the transaction must be consummated immediately in order to avoid a probable failure.</P>
            <P>(f) <E T="03">Review of competitive factors reports.</E> In deciding whether to approve a merger transaction under the authority delegated by this section, the delegate shall review any reports provided by the Attorney General, the Comptroller of the Currency, the Board of Governors of the Federal Reserve System, or the Director of the Office of Thrift Supervision in response to a request by the FDIC for reports on the competitive factors involved in the proposed merger transaction.</P>
            <P>(g) <E T="03">Competitive factor reports provided by the FDIC.</E> Authority is delegated to the Director and the Deputy Director (DOS) and, where confirmed in writing by the Director, to an associate director and the appropriate regional director and deputy regional director, to furnish requested reports to the Board of Governors of the Federal Reserve System, the Comptroller of the Currency, or the Director of the Office of Thrift Supervision on the competitive <PRTPAGE P="31"/>factors involved in any merger transaction subject to approval by one of those agencies, if the delegate determines that the proposed merger transaction would not have a substantially adverse effect on competition.</P>
          </SECTION>
          <SECTION>
            <SECTNO>§ 303.67</SECTNO>
            <SUBJECT>Authority retained by the FDIC Board of Directors.</SUBJECT>
            <P>Without limiting the authority of the Board of Directors, the Board of Directors retains authority to act on applications covered by this subpart if the criteria or other conditions for delegation are not satisfied. This includes the retention of authority to deny applications for merger transactions. It further includes retention of authority to approve applications for merger transactions where:</P>
            <P>(a) The limitations specified in § 303.66(e) preclude action under delegated authority;</P>
            <P>(b) The applicant does not agree in writing to comply with any conditions imposed by the delegate, other than the standard conditions defined in § 303.2(ff), which may be imposed without the applicant's written consent; or</P>
            <P>(c) The resulting institution, upon consummation of a merger transaction other than a corporate reorganization, would have more than 35 percent of the total deposits held by banks and/or other depository institutions (as appropriate) in any relevant geographic market in which more than one of the merging institutions operate.</P>
          </SECTION>
        </SUBPART>
        <SUBPART>
          <HD SOURCE="HED">Subpart E—Change in Bank Control</HD>
          <SECTION>
            <SECTNO>§ 303.80</SECTNO>
            <SUBJECT>Scope.</SUBJECT>
            <P>This subpart sets forth the procedures for submitting a notice to acquire control of an insured state nonmember bank pursuant to the Change in Bank Control Act of 1978, section 7(j) of the FDI Act (12 U.S.C. 1817(j)), and delegations of authority regarding such filings.</P>
          </SECTION>
          <SECTION>
            <SECTNO>§ 303.81</SECTNO>
            <SUBJECT>Definitions.</SUBJECT>
            <P>For purposes of this subpart:</P>
            <P>(a) <E T="03">Acquisition</E> means a purchase, assignment, transfer, pledge or other disposition of voting shares, or an increase in percentage ownership of an insured state nonmember bank resulting from a redemption of voting shares.</P>
            <P>(b) <E T="03">Acting in concert</E> means knowing participation in a joint activity or parallel action towards a common goal of acquiring control of an insured state nonmember bank, whether or not pursuant to an express agreement.</P>
            <P>(c) <E T="03">Control</E> means the power, directly or indirectly, to direct the management or policies of an insured bank or to vote 25 percent or more of any class of voting shares of an insured bank.</P>
            <P>(d) <E T="03">Person</E> means an individual, corporation, partnership, trust, association, joint venture, pool, syndicate, sole proprietorship, unincorporated organization, and any other form of entity; and a voting trust, voting agreement, and any group of persons acting in concert.</P>
          </SECTION>
          <SECTION>
            <SECTNO>§ 303.82</SECTNO>
            <SUBJECT>Transactions requiring prior notice.</SUBJECT>
            <P>(a) <E T="03">Prior notice requirement.</E> Any person acting directly or indirectly, or through or in concert with one or more persons, shall give the FDIC 60 days prior written notice, as specified in § 303.84, before acquiring control of an insured state nonmember bank, unless the acquisition is exempt under § 303.83.</P>
            <P>(b) <E T="03">Acquisitions requiring prior notice</E>—(1) <E T="03">Acquisition of control.</E> The acquisition of control, unless exempted, requires prior notice to the FDIC.</P>
            <P>(2) <E T="03">Rebuttable presumption of control.</E> The FDIC presumes that an acquisition of voting shares of an insured state nonmember bank constitutes the acquisition of the power to direct the management or policies of an insured bank requiring prior notice to the FDIC, if, immediately after the transaction, the acquiring person (or persons acting in concert) will own, control, or hold with power to vote 10 percent or more of any class of voting shares of the institution, and if:</P>
            <P>(i) The institution has registered shares under section 12 of the Securities Exchange Act of 1934 (15 U.S.C. 78l); or</P>

            <P>(ii) No other person will own, control or hold the power to vote a greater percentage of that class of voting shares immediately after the transaction. If <PRTPAGE P="32"/>two or more persons, not acting in concert, each propose to acquire simultaneously equal percentages of 10 percent or more of a class of voting shares of an insured state nonmember bank, each such person shall file prior notice with the FDIC.</P>
            <P>(c) <E T="03">Acquisitions of loans in default.</E> The FDIC presumes an acquisition of a loan in default that is secured by voting shares of an insured state nonmember bank to be an acquisition of the underlying shares for purposes of this section.</P>
            <P>(d) <E T="03">Other transactions.</E> Transactions other than those set forth in paragraph (b)(2) of this section resulting in a person's control of less than 25 percent of a class of voting shares of an insured state nonmember bank are not deemed by the FDIC to constitute control for purposes of the Change in Bank Control Act.</P>
            <P>(e) <E T="03">Rebuttal of presumptions.</E> Prior notice to the FDIC is not required for any acquisition of voting shares under the presumption of control set forth in this section, if the FDIC finds that the acquisition will not result in control. The FDIC will afford any person seeking to rebut a presumption in this section an opportunity to present views in writing or, if appropriate, orally before its designated representatives at an informal meeting.</P>
          </SECTION>
          <SECTION>
            <SECTNO>§ 303.83</SECTNO>
            <SUBJECT>Transactions not requiring prior notice.</SUBJECT>
            <P>(a) <E T="03">Exempt transactions.</E> The following transactions do not require notice to the FDIC under this subpart:</P>
            <P>(1) The acquisition of additional voting shares of an insured state nonmember bank by a person who:</P>
            <P>(i) Held the power to vote 25 percent or more of any class of voting shares of that institution continuously since March 9, 1979, or since that institution commenced business, whichever is later; or</P>
            <P>(ii) Is presumed, under § 303.82(b)(2), to have controlled the institution continuously since March 9, 1979, if the aggregate amount of voting shares held does not exceed 25 percent or more of any class of voting shares of the institution or, in other cases, where the FDIC determines that the person has controlled the bank continuously since March 9, 1979;</P>
            <P>(2) The acquisition of additional shares of a class of voting shares of an insured state nonmember bank by any person (or persons acting in concert) who has lawfully acquired and maintained control of the institution (for purposes of § 303.82) after complying with the procedures of the Change in Bank Control Act to acquire voting shares of the institution under this subpart;</P>
            <P>(3) Acquisitions of voting shares subject to approval under section 3 of the Bank Holding Company Act (12 U.S.C. 1842(a)), section 18(c) of the FDI Act (12 U.S.C. 1828(c)), or section 10 of the Home Owners’ Loan Act (12 U.S.C. 1467a);</P>
            <P>(4) Transactions exempt under the Bank Holding Company Act: foreclosures by institutional lenders, fiduciary acquisitions by banks, and increases of majority holdings by bank holding companies described in sections 2(a)(5), 3(a)(A), or 3(a)(B) respectively of the Bank Holding Company Act (12 U.S.C. 1841(a)(5), 1842(a)(A), and 1842(a)(B));</P>
            <P>(5) A customary one-time proxy solicitation;</P>
            <P>(6) The receipt of voting shares of an insured state nonmember bank through a pro rata stock dividend; and</P>
            <P>(7) The acquisition of voting shares in a foreign bank, which has an insured branch or branches in the United States. (This exemption does not extend to the reports and information required under paragraphs 9, 10, and 12 of the Change in Bank Control Act of 1978 (12 U.S.C. 1817(j) (9), (10), and (12)).</P>
            <P>(b) <E T="03">Prior notice exemption.</E> (1) The following acquisitions of voting shares of an insured state nonmember bank, which otherwise would require prior notice under this subpart, are not subject to the prior notice requirements if the acquiring person notifies the appropriate regional director (DOS) within 90 calendar days after the acquisition and provides any relevant information requested by the regional director (DOS):</P>
            <P>(i) The acquisition of voting shares through inheritance;</P>

            <P>(ii) The acquisition of voting shares as a bona fide gift; or<PRTPAGE P="33"/>
            </P>
            <P>(iii) The acquisition of voting shares in satisfaction of a debt previously contracted in good faith, except that the acquiror of a defaulted loan secured by a controlling amount of a state nonmember bank's voting securities shall file a notice before the loan is acquired.</P>
            <P>(2) The following acquisitions of voting shares of an insured state nonmember bank, which otherwise would require prior notice under this subpart, are not subject to the prior notice requirements if the acquiring person notifies the appropriate regional director (DOS) within 90 calendar days after receiving notice of the acquisition and provides any relevant information requested by the regional director (DOS):</P>
            <P>(i) A percentage increase in ownership of voting shares resulting from a redemption of voting shares by the issuing bank; or</P>
            <P>(ii) The sale of shares by any shareholder that is not within the control of a person resulting in that person becoming the largest shareholder.</P>
            <P>(3) Nothing in paragraph (b)(1) of this section limits the authority of the FDIC to disapprove a notice pursuant to § 303.85(c).</P>
          </SECTION>
          <SECTION>
            <SECTNO>§ 303.84</SECTNO>
            <SUBJECT>Filing procedures.</SUBJECT>
            <P>(a) <E T="03">Filing notice.</E> (1) A notice required under this subpart shall be filed with the appropriate regional director (DOS) and shall contain all the information required by paragraph 6 of the Change in Bank Control Act, section 7 (j) of the FDI Act, (12 U.S.C. 1817(j)(6)), or prescribed in the designated interagency form which may be obtained from any FDIC regional office.</P>
            <P>(2) The FDIC may waive any of the informational requirements of the notice if the FDIC determines that it is in the public interest.</P>
            <P>(3) A notificant shall notify the appropriate regional director (DOS) immediately of any material changes in a notice submitted to the regional director (DOS), including changes in financial or other conditions.</P>
            <P>(4) When the acquiring person is an individual, or group of individuals acting in concert, the requirement to provide personal financial data may be satisfied by a current statement of assets and liabilities and an income summary, as required in the designated interagency form, together with a statement of any material changes since the date of the statement or summary. The appropriate regional director (DOS) may require additional information if appropriate.</P>
            <P>(b) <E T="03">Other laws.</E> Nothing in this subpart shall affect any obligation which the acquiring person(s) may have to comply with the federal securities laws or other laws.</P>
          </SECTION>
          <SECTION>
            <SECTNO>§ 303.85</SECTNO>
            <SUBJECT>Processing.</SUBJECT>
            <P>(a) <E T="03">Acceptance of notice.</E> The 60-day notice period specified in § 303.82 shall commence on the date of receipt of a substantially complete notice. The regional director (DOS) shall notify the person or persons submitting a notice under this subpart in writing of the date the notice is accepted for processing. The FDIC may request additional information at any time.</P>
            <P>(b) <E T="03">Time period for FDIC action; consummation of acquisition.</E> (1) The notificant(s) may consummate the proposed acquisition 60 days after submission to the regional director (DOS) of a substantially complete notice under paragraph (a) of this section, unless within that period the FDIC disapproves the proposed acquisition or extends the 60-day period.</P>
            <P>(2) The notificant(s) may consummate the proposed transaction before the expiration of the 60-day period if the FDIC notifies the notificant(s) in writing of its intention not to disapprove the acquisition.</P>
            <P>(c) <E T="03">Disapproval of acquisition of control.</E> Subpart D of 12 CFR part 308 sets forth the rules of practice and procedure for a notice of disapproval.</P>
          </SECTION>
          <SECTION>
            <SECTNO>§ 303.86</SECTNO>
            <SUBJECT>Public notice requirements.</SUBJECT>
            <P>(a) <E T="03">Publication—</E>(1) <E T="03">Newspaper announcement.</E> Any person(s) filing a notice under this subpart shall publish an announcement soliciting public comment on the proposed acquisition. The announcement shall be published in a newspaper of general circulation in the community in which the home office of the state nonmember bank to be acquired is located. The announcement shall be published as close as is practicable to the date the notice is filed with the appropriate regional director <PRTPAGE P="34"/>(DOS), but in no event more than 10 calendar days before or after the filing date.</P>
            <P>(2) <E T="03">Contents of newspaper announcement.</E> The newspaper announcement shall conform to the public notice requirements set forth in § 303.7.</P>
            <P>(b) <E T="03">Delay of publication.</E> The FDIC may permit delay in the publication required by this section if the FDIC determines, for good cause, that it is in the public interest to grant such a delay. Requests for delay of publication may be submitted to the appropriate regional director (DOS).</P>
            <P>(c) <E T="03">Shortening or waiving notice.</E> The FDIC may shorten the public comment period to a period of not less than 10 days, or waive the public comment or newspaper publication requirements of this paragraph, or act on a notice before the expiration of a public comment period, if it determines in writing either that an emergency exists or that disclosure of the notice, solicitation of public comment, or delay until expiration of the public comment period would seriously threaten the safety or soundness of the bank to be acquired.</P>
            <P>(d) <E T="03">Consideration of public comments.</E> In acting upon a notice filed under this subpart, the FDIC shall consider all public comments received in writing within 20 days following the required newspaper publication or, if the FDIC has shortened the public comment period pursuant to paragraph (c) of this section, within such shorter period.</P>
            <P>(e) <E T="03">Publication if filing is subsequent to acquisition of control.</E> (1) Whenever a notice of a proposed acquisition of control is not filed in accordance with the Change in Bank Control Act and these regulations, the acquiring person(s) shall, within 10 days of being so directed by the FDIC, publish an announcement of the acquisition of control in a newspaper of general circulation in the community in which the home office of the state nonmember bank to be acquired is located.</P>
            <P>(2) The newspaper announcement shall contain the name(s) of the acquiror(s), the name of the depository institution involved, and the date of the acquisition of the stock. The announcement shall also contain a statement indicating that the FDIC is currently reviewing the acquisition of control. The announcement also shall state that any person wishing to comment on the change in control may do so by submitting written comments to the appropriate regional director (DOS) of the FDIC (give address of regional office) within 20 days following the required newspaper publication.</P>
          </SECTION>
          <SECTION>
            <SECTNO>§ 303.87</SECTNO>
            <SUBJECT>Delegation of authority.</SUBJECT>
            <P>(a) Authority is delegated to the Director and the Deputy Director (DOS) and, where confirmed in writing by the Director, to an associate director and the appropriate regional director and deputy regional director, to issue a written notice of the FDIC's intent not to disapprove an acquisition of control of an insured state nonmember bank.</P>
            <P>(b) The authority delegated by paragraph (a) of this section shall include the power to:</P>
            <P>(1) Act in situations where information is submitted on acquisitions arising out of events beyond the person's control, as set forth in § 303.83(b);</P>
            <P>(2) Extend notice periods;</P>
            <P>(3) Determine whether a notice should be filed under section 7(j) of the Act (12 U.S.C. 1817(j)) by a person acquiring less than 25 percent of any class of voting shares of an insured state nonmember bank; and</P>
            <P>(4) Delay or waive publication, waive or shorten the public comment period, or act on a proposed acquisition of control prior to the expiration of the public comment period, as provided in §§ 303.86(a)(3) and (4).</P>
            <P>(c) Authority is delegated to the Director and Deputy Director (DOS) and, where confirmed in writing by the Director, to an associate director, to disapprove an acquisition of control of an insured state nonmember bank.</P>
          </SECTION>
        </SUBPART>
        <SUBPART>
          <HD SOURCE="HED">Subpart F—Change of Director or Senior Executive Officer</HD>
          <SECTION>
            <SECTNO>§ 303.100</SECTNO>
            <SUBJECT>Scope.</SUBJECT>

            <P>This subpart sets forth the circumstances under which an insured state nonmember bank must notify the FDIC of a change in any member of its board of directors or any senior executive officer and the procedures for filing such notice, as well as applicable delegations of authority. This subpart <PRTPAGE P="35"/>implements section 32 of the FDI Act (12 U.S.C. 1831i).</P>
          </SECTION>
          <SECTION>
            <SECTNO>§ 303.101</SECTNO>
            <SUBJECT>Definitions.</SUBJECT>
            <P>For purposes of this subpart:</P>
            <P>(a) <E T="03">Director</E> means a person who serves on the board of directors or board of trustees of an insured state nonmember bank, except that this term does not include an advisory director who:</P>
            <P>(1) Is not elected by the shareholders;</P>
            <P>(2) Is not authorized to vote on any matters before the board of directors or board of trustees or any committee thereof;</P>
            <P>(3) Solely provides general policy advice to the board of directors or board of trustees and any committee thereof; and</P>
            <P>(4) Has not been identified by the FDIC as a person who performs the functions of a director for purposes of this subpart.</P>
            <P>(b) <E T="03">Senior executive officer</E> means a person who holds the title of president, chief executive officer, chief operating officer, chief managing official (in an insured state branch of a foreign bank), chief financial officer, chief lending officer, or chief investment officer, or, without regard to title, salary, or compensation, performs the function of one or more of these positions. <E T="03">Senior executive officer</E> also includes any other person identified by the FDIC, whether or not hired as an employee, with significant influence over, or who participates in, major policymaking decisions of the insured state nonmember bank.</P>
            <P>(c) <E T="03">Troubled condition</E> means any insured state nonmember bank that:</P>
            <P>(1) Has a composite rating, as determined in its most recent report of examination of 4 or 5 under the Uniform Financial Institutions Rating System (UFIRS), or in the case of an insured state branch of a foreign bank, an equivalent rating; or</P>
            <P>(2) Is subject to a proceeding initiated by the FDIC for termination or suspension of deposit insurance; or</P>
            <P>(3) Is subject to a cease-and-desist order or written agreement issued by either the FDIC or the appropriate state banking authority that requires action to improve the financial condition of the bank or is subject to a proceeding initiated by the FDIC or state authority which contemplates the issuance of an order that requires action to improve the financial condition of the bank, unless otherwise informed in writing by the FDIC; or</P>
            <P>(4) Is informed in writing by the FDIC that it is in troubled condition for purposes of the requirements of this subpart on the basis of the bank's most recent report of condition or report of examination, or other information available to the FDIC.</P>
          </SECTION>
          <SECTION>
            <SECTNO>§ 303.102</SECTNO>
            <SUBJECT>Filing procedures and waiver of prior notice.</SUBJECT>
            <P>(a) <E T="03">Insured state nonmember banks.</E> An insured state nonmember bank shall give the FDIC written notice, as specified in paragraph (c)(1) of this section, at least 30 days prior to adding or replacing any member of its board of directors, employing any person as a senior executive officer of the bank, or changing the responsibilities of any senior executive officer so that the person would assume a different senior executive officer position, if:</P>
            <P>(1) The bank is not in compliance with all minimum capital requirements applicable to the bank as determined on the basis of the bank's most recent report of condition or report of examination;</P>
            <P>(2) The bank is in troubled condition; or</P>

            <P>(3) The FDIC determines, in connection with its review of a capital restoration plan required under section 38(e)(2) of the FDI Act (12 U.S.C. 1831<E T="03">o</E>(e)(2)) or otherwise, that such notice is appropriate.</P>
            <P>(b) <E T="03">Insured branches of foreign banks.</E> In the case of the addition of a member of the board of directors or a change in senior executive officer in a foreign bank having an insured state branch, the notice requirement shall not apply to such additions and changes in the foreign bank parent, but only to changes in senior executive officers in the state branch.</P>
            <P>(c) <E T="03">Waiver of prior notice—</E>(1) <E T="03">Waiver requests.</E> The FDIC may permit an individual, upon petition by the bank to the appropriate regional director (DOS), to serve as a senior executive officer or director before filing the notice required under this subpart if the FDIC finds that:<PRTPAGE P="36"/>
            </P>
            <P>(i) Delay would threaten the safety or soundness of the bank;</P>
            <P>(ii) Delay would not be in the public interest; or</P>
            <P>(iii) Other extraordinary circumstances exist that justify waiver of prior notice.</P>
            <P>(2) <E T="03">Automatic waiver.</E> In the case of the election of a new director not proposed by management at a meeting of the shareholders of an insured state nonmember bank, the prior 30-day notice is automatically waived and the individual immediately may begin serving, provided that a complete notice is filed with the appropriate regional director (DOS) within two business days after the individual's election.</P>
            <P>(3) <E T="03">Effect on disapproval authority.</E> A waiver shall not affect the authority of the FDIC to disapprove a notice within 30 days after a waiver is granted under paragraph (c)(1) of this section or the election of an individual who has filed a notice and is serving pursuant to an automatic waiver under paragraph (c)(2) of this section.</P>
            <P>(d)(1) <E T="03">Content of filing.</E> The notice required by paragraph (a) of this section shall be filed with the appropriate regional director (DOS) and shall contain information pertaining to the competence, experience, character, or integrity of the individual with respect to whom the notice is submitted, as prescribed in the designated interagency form which is available from any FDIC regional office. The regional director or his or her designee may require additional information.</P>
            <P>(2) <E T="03">Modification.</E> The FDIC may modify or accept other information in place of the requirements of paragraph (d)(1) of this section for a notice filed under this subpart.</P>
          </SECTION>
          <SECTION>
            <SECTNO>§ 303.103</SECTNO>
            <SUBJECT>Processing.</SUBJECT>
            <P>(a) <E T="03">Processing.</E> The 30-day notice period specified in § 303.102(a) shall begin on the date substantially all information required to be submitted by the notificant pursuant to § 303.102(c)(1) is received by the appropriate regional director (DOS). The regional director shall notify the bank submitting the notice of the date on which the notice is accepted for processing and of the date on which the 30-day notice period will expire. If processing cannot be completed within 30 days, the notificant will be advised in writing, prior to expiration of the 30-day period, of the reason for the delay in processing and of the additional time period, not to exceed 60 days, in which processing will be completed.</P>
            <P>(b) <E T="03">Commencement of service</E>—(1) <E T="03">At expiration of period.</E> A proposed director or senior executive officer may begin service after the end of the 30-day period or any other additional period as provided under paragraph (a) of this section, unless the FDIC disapproves the notice before the end of the period.</P>
            <P>(2) <E T="03">Prior to expiration of period.</E> A proposed director or senior executive officer may begin service before the end of the 30-day period or any additional time period as provided under paragraph (a) of this section, if the FDIC notifies the bank and the individual in writing of the FDIC's intention not to disapprove the notice.</P>
            <P>(c) <E T="03">Notice of disapproval.</E> The FDIC may disapprove a notice filed under § 303.102 if the FDIC finds that the competence, experience, character, or integrity of the individual with respect to whom the notice is submitted indicates that it would not be in the best interests of the depositors of the bank or in the best interests of the public to permit the individual to be employed by, or associated with, the bank. Subpart L of 12 CFR part 308 sets forth the rules of practice and procedure for a notice of disapproval.</P>
          </SECTION>
          <SECTION>
            <SECTNO>§ 303.104</SECTNO>
            <SUBJECT>Delegation of authority.</SUBJECT>
            <P>The following authority is delegated to the Director and Deputy Director (DOS) and, where confirmed in writing by the Director, to an associate director and the appropriate regional director or deputy regional director to:</P>
            <P>(a) Designate an insured state nonmember bank as being in troubled condition;</P>
            <P>(b) Grant waivers of the prior notice requirement;</P>
            <P>(c) Extend the 30-day processing period for an additional period of up to 60 days in the event of extenuating circumstances; and</P>
            <P>(d) Issue notices of disapproval or notices of intent not to disapprove under this subpart.</P>
          </SECTION>
        </SUBPART>
        <SUBPART>
          <PRTPAGE P="37"/>
          <HD SOURCE="HED">Subpart G—Activities of Insured State Banks</HD>
          <SOURCE>
            <HD SOURCE="HED">Source:</HD>
            <P>63 FR 66325, Dec. 1, 1998, unless otherwise noted.</P>
          </SOURCE>
          <SECTION>
            <SECTNO>§ 303.120</SECTNO>
            <SUBJECT>Scope.</SUBJECT>
            <P>This subpart sets forth procedures for complying with notice and application requirements contained in subpart A of part 362 of this chapter, governing insured State banks and their subsidiaries engaging in activities which are not permissible for national banks and their subsidiaries. This subpart also sets forth procedures for complying with notice and application requirements contained in subpart B of part 362 of this chapter, governing certain activities of insured State nonmember banks, their subsidiaries, and certain affiliates.</P>
          </SECTION>
          <SECTION>
            <SECTNO>§ 303.121</SECTNO>
            <SUBJECT>Filing procedures.</SUBJECT>
            <P>(a) <E T="03">Where to file.</E> A notice or application required by subpart A or subpart B of part 362 of this chapter shall be submitted in writing to the appropriate regional director (DOS).</P>
            <P>(b) <E T="03">Contents of filing</E>—(1) <E T="03">Filings generally.</E> A complete letter notice or letter application shall include the following information:</P>
            <P>(i) A brief description of the activity and the manner in which it will be conducted;</P>
            <P>(ii) The amount of the bank's existing or proposed direct or indirect investment in the activity as well as calculations sufficient to indicate compliance with any specific capital ratio or investment percentage limitation detailed in subpart A or B of part 362 of this chapter;</P>
            <P>(iii) A copy of the bank's business plan regarding the conduct of the activity;</P>
            <P>(iv) A citation to the State statutory or regulatory authority for the conduct of the activity;</P>
            <P>(v) A copy of the order or other document from the appropriate regulatory authority granting approval for the bank to conduct the activity if such approval is necessary and has already been granted;</P>
            <P>(vi) A brief description of the bank's policy and practice with regard to any anticipated involvement in the activity by a director, executive office or principal shareholder of the bank or any related interest of such a person; and</P>
            <P>(vii) A description of the bank's expertise in the activity.</P>
            <P>(2) [Reserved]</P>
            <P>(3) <E T="03">Copy of application or notice filed with another agency.</E> If an insured State bank has filed an application or notice with another Federal or State regulatory authority which contains all of the information required by paragraph (b) (1) of this section, the insured State bank may submit a copy to the FDIC in lieu of a separate filing.</P>
            <P>(4) <E T="03">Additional information.</E> The appropriate regional director (DOS) may request additional information to complete processing.</P>
          </SECTION>
          <SECTION>
            <SECTNO>§ 303.122</SECTNO>
            <SUBJECT>Processing.</SUBJECT>
            <P>(a) <E T="03">Expedited processing.</E> A notice filed by an insured State bank seeking to commence or continue an activity under § 362.4(b)(3)(i), § 362.4(b)(5), or § 362.8(a)(2) of this chapter will be acknowledged in writing by the FDIC and will receive expedited processing, unless the applicant is notified in writing to the contrary and provided a basis for that decision. The FDIC may remove the notice from expedited processing for any of the reasons set forth in § 303.11(c)(2). Absent such removal, a notice processed under expedited processing is deemed approved 30 days after receipt of a complete notice by the FDIC (subject to extension for an additional 15 days upon written notice to the bank) or on such earlier date authorized by the FDIC in writing.</P>
            <P>(b) <E T="03">Standard processing for applications and notices that have been removed from expedited processing.</E> For an application filed by an insured State bank seeking to commence or continue an activity under § 362.3(a)(2)(iii)(A), § 362.3(b)(2)(i), § 362.3(b)(2)(ii)(A), § 362.3(b)(2)(ii)(C), § 362.4(b)(1), § 362.4(b)(2), § 362.4(b)(4), § 362.5(b)(2), § 362.8(a)(2), or § 362.8(b) of this chapter or for notices which are not processed pursuant to the expedited processing procedures, the FDIC will provide the insured State bank with written notification of the final action as soon as the decision is rendered. The FDIC will normally review and act in such cases within 60 days <PRTPAGE P="38"/>after receipt of a completed application or notice (subject to extension for an additional 30 days upon written notice to the bank), but failure of the FDIC to act prior to the expiration of these periods does not constitute approval.</P>
          </SECTION>
          <SECTION>
            <SECTNO>§ 303.123</SECTNO>
            <SUBJECT>Delegations of authority.</SUBJECT>
            <P>(a) <E T="03">Instruments having the character of debt securities.</E> Authority is delegated to the Director (DOS) to make determinations contemplated under §§ 362.2(h) and 362.3(b)(2)(iii)(B) of this chapter.</P>
            <P>(b) <E T="03">Other applications, notices, and actions.</E> The authority to review and act upon applications and notices filed pursuant to this subpart G and to take any other action authorized by this subpart G or subparts A and B of part 362 of this chapter is delegated to the Director (DOS), and except as limited by paragraph (a) of this section, to the Deputy Director and where confirmed in writing by the Director to an associate director and the appropriate regional director and deputy regional director.</P>
          </SECTION>
        </SUBPART>
        <SUBPART>
          <HD SOURCE="HED">Subpart H—Activities of Insured Savings Associations</HD>
          <SOURCE>
            <HD SOURCE="HED">Source:</HD>
            <P>63 FR 66325, Dec. 1, 1998, unless otherwise noted.</P>
          </SOURCE>
          <SECTION>
            <SECTNO>§ 303.140</SECTNO>
            <SUBJECT>Scope.</SUBJECT>
            <P>This subpart sets forth procedures for complying with the notice and application requirements contained in subpart C of part 362 of this chapter, governing insured state savings associations and their service corporations engaging in activities which are not permissible for federal savings associations and their service corporations. This subpart also sets forth procedures for complying with the notice requirements contained in subpart D of part 362 of this chapter, governing insured savings associations which establish or engage in new activities through a subsidiary.</P>
          </SECTION>
          <SECTION>
            <SECTNO>§ 303.141</SECTNO>
            <SUBJECT>Filing procedures.</SUBJECT>
            <P>(a) <E T="03">Where to file.</E> All applications and notices required by subpart C or subpart D of part 362 of this chapter are to be in writing and filed with the appropriate regional director.</P>
            <P>(b) <E T="03">Contents of filing</E>—(1) <E T="03">Filings generally.</E> A complete letter notice or letter application shall include the following information:</P>
            <P>(i) A brief description of the activity and the manner in which it will be conducted;</P>
            <P>(ii) The amount of the association's existing or proposed direct or indirect investment in the activity as well as calculations sufficient to indicate compliance with any specific capital ratio or investment percentage limitation detailed in subpart C or D of this chapter;</P>
            <P>(iii) A copy of the association's business plan regarding the conduct of the activity;</P>
            <P>(iv) A citation to the state statutory or regulatory authority for the conduct of the activity;</P>
            <P>(v) A copy of the order or other document from the appropriate regulatory authority granting approval for the association to conduct the activity if such approval is necessary and has already been granted;</P>
            <P>(vi) A brief description of the association's policy and practice with regard to any anticipated involvement in the activity by a director, executive officer or principal shareholder of the association or any related interest of such a person; and</P>
            <P>(vii) A description of the association's expertise in the activity.</P>
            <P>(2) [Reserved]</P>
            <P>(3) <E T="03">Copy of application or notice filed with another agency.</E> If an insured savings association has filed an application or notice with another federal or state regulatory authority which contains all of the information required by paragraph (b) (1) of this section, the insured state bank may submit a copy to the FDIC in lieu of a separate filing.</P>
            <P>(4) <E T="03">Additional information.</E> The appropriate regional director (DOS) may request additional information to complete processing.</P>
          </SECTION>
          <SECTION>
            <SECTNO>§ 303.142</SECTNO>
            <SUBJECT>Processing.</SUBJECT>
            <P>(a) <E T="03">Expedited processing.</E> A notice filed by an insured state savings association seeking to commence or continue an activity under § 362.11(b)(2)(i), § 362.12(b)(2)(i), or § 362.12(b)(4) of this <PRTPAGE P="39"/>chapter will be acknowledged in writing by the FDIC and will receive expedited processing, unless the applicant is notified in writing to the contrary and provided a basis for that decision. The FDIC may remove the notice from expedited processing for any of the reasons set forth in § 303.11(c)(2). Absent such removal, a notice processed under expedited processing is deemed approved 30 days after receipt of a complete notice by the FDIC (subject to extension for an additional 15 days upon written notice to the bank) or on such earlier date authorized by the FDIC in writing.</P>
            <P>(b) <E T="03">Standard processing for applications and notices that have been removed from expedited processing.</E> For an application filed by an insured state savings association  seeking to commence or continue an activity under § 362.11(a)(2),  § 362.11(b)(2), § 362.12(b)(1) of this chapter or for notices which are not processed pursuant to the expedited processing procedures, the FDIC will provide the insured state savings association with written notification of the final action as soon as the decision is rendered. The FDIC will normally review and act in such cases within 60 days after receipt of a completed application or notice (subject to extension for an additional 30 days upon written notice to the bank), but failure of the FDIC to act prior to the expiration of these periods does not constitute approval.</P>
            <P>(c) <E T="03">Notices of activities in excess of an amount permissible for a federal savings association; subsidiary notices.</E> Receipt of a notice filed by an insured state savings association as required by § 362.11(b)(3) or § 362.15 of this chapter will be acknowledged in writing by the appropriate regional director (DOS). The notice will be reviewed at the appropriate regional office, which will take such action as it deems necessary and appropriate.</P>
          </SECTION>
          <SECTION>
            <SECTNO>§ 303.143</SECTNO>
            <SUBJECT>Delegations of authority.</SUBJECT>
            <P>(a) <E T="03">Instruments having the character of debt securities.</E> Authority is delegated to the Director (DOS) to make determinations contemplated under §§ 362.2(h) and 362.3(b)(2)(iii)(B) of this chapter.</P>
            <P>(b) <E T="03">Other applications, notices, and actions.</E> The authority to review and act upon applications and notices filed pursuant to this subpart H and to take any other action authorized by this subpart H or subparts C and D of part 362 of this chapter is delegated to the Director (DOS), and except as limited by paragraph (a) of this section, to the Deputy Director and where confirmed in writing by the Director to an associate director and the appropriate regional director and deputy regional director.</P>
          </SECTION>
        </SUBPART>
        <SUBPART>
          <HD SOURCE="HED">Subpart I—Mutual-to-Stock Conversions</HD>
          <SECTION>
            <SECTNO>§ 303.160</SECTNO>
            <SUBJECT>Scope.</SUBJECT>
            <P>This subpart sets forth the notice requirements, procedures, and delegations of authority for the conversion of an insured mutual state-chartered savings bank to the stock form of ownership. The substantive requirements governing such conversions are contained in § 333.4 of this chapter.</P>
          </SECTION>
          <SECTION>
            <SECTNO>§ 303.161</SECTNO>
            <SUBJECT>Filing procedures.</SUBJECT>
            <P>(a) <E T="03">Prior notice required.</E> In addition to complying with the substantive requirements in § 333.4 of this chapter, an insured state-chartered mutually owned savings bank that proposes to convert from mutual to stock form shall file with the FDIC a notice of intent to convert to stock form.</P>
            <P>(b) <E T="03">General.</E> (1) A notice required under this subpart shall be filed in letter form with the appropriate regional director (DOS) at the same time as required conversion application materials are filed with the institution's state regulator.</P>
            <P>(2) An insured mutual savings bank chartered by a state that does not require the filing of a conversion application shall file a notice in letter form with the appropriate regional director (DOS) as soon as practicable after adoption of its plan of conversion.</P>
            <P>(c) <E T="03">Content of notice.</E> The notice shall provide a description of the proposed conversion and include all materials that have been filed with any state or federal banking regulator and any state or federal securities regulator. At a minimum, the notice shall include, as applicable, copies of:<PRTPAGE P="40"/>
            </P>
            <P>(1) The plan of conversion, with specific information concerning the record date used for determining eligible depositors and the subscription offering priority established in connection with any proposed stock offering;</P>
            <P>(2) Certified board resolutions relating to the conversion;</P>
            <P>(3) A business plan, including a detailed discussion of how the capital acquired in the conversion will be used, expected earnings for at least a three-year period following the conversion, and a justification for any proposed stock repurchases;</P>
            <P>(4) The charter and bylaws of the converted institution;</P>
            <P>(5) The bylaws and operating plans of any other entities formed in connection with the conversion transaction, such as a holding company or charitable foundation;</P>
            <P>(6) A full appraisal report, prepared by an independent appraiser, of the value of the converting institution and the pricing of the stock to be sold in the conversion transaction;</P>
            <P>(7) Detailed descriptions of any proposed management or employee stock benefit plans or employment agreements and a discussion of the rationale for the level of benefits proposed, individually and by participant group;</P>
            <P>(8) Indemnification agreements;</P>
            <P>(9) A preliminary proxy statement and sample proxy;</P>
            <P>(10) Offering circular(s) and order form;</P>
            <P>(11) All contracts or agreements relating to solicitation, underwriting, market-making, or listing of conversion stock and any agreements among members of a group regarding the purchase of unsubscribed shares;</P>
            <P>(12) A tax opinion concerning the federal income tax consequences of the proposed conversion;</P>
            <P>(13) Consents from experts to use their opinions as part of the notice; and</P>
            <P>(14) An estimate of conversion-related expenses.</P>
            <P>(d) <E T="03">Additional information.</E> The FDIC, in its discretion, may request any additional information it deems necessary to evaluate the proposed conversion. The institution proposing to convert from mutual to stock form shall promptly provide such information to the FDIC.</P>
            <P>(e) <E T="03">Acceptance of notice.</E> The 60-day notice period specified in § 303.163 shall commence on the date of receipt of a substantially complete notice. The appropriate regional director (DOS) shall notify the institution proposing to convert in writing of the date the notice is accepted.</P>
            <P>(f) <E T="03">Related applications.</E> Related applications that require FDIC action may include:</P>
            <P>(1) Applications for deposit insurance, as required by subpart B of this part; and</P>
            <P>(2) Applications for consent to merge, as required by subpart D of this part.</P>
          </SECTION>
          <SECTION>
            <SECTNO>§ 303.162</SECTNO>
            <SUBJECT>Waiver from compliance.</SUBJECT>
            <P>(a) <E T="03">General.</E> An institution proposing to convert from mutual to stock form may file with the appropriate regional director (DOS) a letter requesting waiver of compliance with this subpart or § 333.4 of this chapter:</P>
            <P>(1) When compliance with any provision of this section or § 333.4 of this chapter would be inconsistent or in conflict with applicable state law; or</P>
            <P>(2) For any other good cause shown.</P>
            <P>(b) <E T="03">Content of filing.</E> In making a request for waiver under paragraph (a) of this section, the institution shall demonstrate that the requested waiver, if granted, would not result in any effects that would be detrimental to the safety and soundness of the institution, entail a breach of fiduciary duty on part of the institution's management or otherwise be detrimental or inequitable to the institution, its depositors, any other insured depository institution(s), the federal deposit insurance funds, or to the public interest.</P>
          </SECTION>
          <SECTION>
            <SECTNO>§ 303.163</SECTNO>
            <SUBJECT>Processing.</SUBJECT>
            <P>(a) <E T="03">General considerations.</E> The FDIC shall review the notice and other materials submitted by the institution proposing to convert from mutual to stock form, specifically considering the following factors:</P>
            <P>(1) The proposed use of the proceeds from the sale of stock, as set forth in the business plan;</P>
            <P>(2) The adequacy of the disclosure materials;<PRTPAGE P="41"/>
            </P>
            <P>(3) The participation of depositors in approving the transaction;</P>
            <P>(4) The form of the proxy statement required for the vote of the depositors/members on the conversion;</P>
            <P>(5) Any proposed increased compensation and other remuneration (including stock grants, stock option rights and other similar benefits) to be granted to officers and directors/trustees of the bank in connection with the conversion;</P>
            <P>(6) The adequacy and independence of the appraisal of the value of the mutual savings bank for purposes of determining the price of the shares of stock to be sold;</P>
            <P>(7) The process by which the bank's trustees approved the appraisal, the pricing of the stock, and the proposed compensation arrangements for insiders;</P>
            <P>(8) The nature and apportionment of stock subscription rights; and</P>
            <P>(9) The bank's plans to fulfill its commitment to serving the convenience and needs of its community.</P>
            <P>(b) <E T="03">Additional considerations.</E> (1) In reviewing the notice and other materials submitted under this subpart, the FDIC will take into account the extent to which the proposed conversion transaction conforms with the various provisions of the mutual-to-stock conversion regulations of the Office of Thrift Supervision (OTS) (12 CFR part 563b), as currently in effect at the time the notice is submitted. Any non-conformity with those provisions will be closely reviewed.</P>
            <P>(2) Conformity with the OTS requirements will not be sufficient for FDIC regulatory purposes if the FDIC determines that the proposed conversion transaction would pose a risk to the bank's safety or soundness, violate any law or regulation, or present a breach of fiduciary duty.</P>
            <P>(c) <E T="03">Notice period.</E> (1) The period in which the FDIC may object to the proposed conversion transaction shall be the later of:</P>
            <P>(i) 60 days after receipt of a substantially complete notice of proposed conversion; or</P>
            <P>(ii) 20 days after the last applicable state or other federal regulator has approved the proposed conversion.</P>
            <P>(2) The FDIC may, in its discretion, extend the initial 60-day period for up to an additional 60 days by providing written notice to the institution.</P>
            <P>(d) <E T="03">Letter of non-objection.</E> If the FDIC determines, in its discretion, that the proposed conversion transaction would not pose a risk to the institution's safety or soundness, violate any law or regulation, or present a breach of fiduciary duty, then the FDIC shall issue to the institution proposing to convert a letter of non-objection to the proposed conversion.</P>
            <P>(e) <E T="03">Letter of objection.</E> If the FDIC determines, in its discretion, that the proposed conversion transaction poses a risk to the institution's safety or soundness, violates any law or regulation, or presents a breach of fiduciary duty, then the FDIC shall issue a letter to the institution stating its objection(s) to the proposed conversion and advising the institution not to consummate the proposed conversion until such letter is rescinded. A copy of the letter of objection shall be furnished to the institution's primary state regulator and any other state or federal banking regulator and state or federal securities regulator involved in the conversion.</P>
            <P>(f) <E T="03">Consummation of the conversion.</E> (1) An institution may consummate the proposed conversion upon either:</P>
            <P>(i) The receipt of a letter of non-objection; or</P>
            <P>(ii) The expiration of the notice period.</P>
            <P>(2) If a letter of objection is issued, then the institution shall not consummate the proposed conversion until the FDIC rescinds such letter.</P>
          </SECTION>
          <SECTION>
            <SECTNO>§ 303.164</SECTNO>
            <SUBJECT>Delegation of authority.</SUBJECT>

            <P>(a) Authority is delegated to the Director and Deputy Director (DOS) to issue a letter of non-objection to an institution proposing to convert when the proposed conversion transaction is determined not to pose a risk to the institution's safety or soundness, violate any law or regulation, present a breach of fiduciary duty, and not to raise any unique legal or policy issues. Such authority will be exercised in accordance with the time periods contained in <PRTPAGE P="42"/>§ 303.163, unless the institution proposing to convert agrees to a longer time period.</P>
            <P>(b) Authority to act on a waiver under § 303.162 is retained by the Board of Directors, except for requests to waive the depositor vote requirements in § 333.4(c)(2) of this chapter when the requests are based on the need for the bank to comply with applicable state law in effect as of January 1, 1999, that provides for voting by corporators as the only depositor voting mechanism for state-chartered, mutual savings banks, or prohibits depositors of state-chartered, cooperative savings banks in mutual form from voting by proxy. Authority is delegated to the Director and Deputy Director (DOS) to act on such waiver requests.</P>
            <P>(c) Authority is delegated to the Director and Deputy Director (DOS) and, where confirmed in writing by the Director, to an associate director and the appropriate regional director and deputy regional director to accept notices of intent to convert to stock form and to extend the initial 60-day period within which FDIC may object by an additional 60 days.</P>
            <CITA>[63 FR 44713, Aug. 20, 1998, as amended at 64 FR 20142, Apr. 26, 1999]</CITA>
          </SECTION>
        </SUBPART>
        <SUBPART>
          <HD SOURCE="HED">Subpart J—International Banking</HD>
          <SECTION>
            <SECTNO>§ 303.180</SECTNO>
            <SUBJECT>Scope.</SUBJECT>
            <P>This subpart sets forth procedures for complying with application requirements relating to the foreign activities of insured state nonmember banks, U.S. activities of insured branches of foreign banks, and certain foreign mergers of insured depository institutions. Related delegations of authority are also set forth in the subpart.</P>
          </SECTION>
          <SECTION>
            <SECTNO>§ 303.181</SECTNO>
            <SUBJECT>Definitions.</SUBJECT>
            <P>For the purposes of this subpart, the following additional definitions apply:</P>
            <P>(a) <E T="03">Board of Governors</E> means the Board of Governors of the Federal Reserve System.</P>
            <P>(b) <E T="03">Comptroller</E> means the Office of the Comptroller of the Currency.</P>
            <P>(c) <E T="03">Eligible insured branch.</E> An insured branch will be treated as an eligible depository institution within the meaning of § 303.2(r) if the insured branch:</P>
            <P>(1) Received an FDIC-assigned composite ROCA rating of 1 or 2 as a result of its most recent federal or state examination, and the FDIC, Comptroller, or Board of Governors have not expressed concern about the condition or operations of the foreign banking organization or the support it offers the branch;</P>
            <P>(2) Received a satisfactory or better Community Reinvestment Act (CRA) rating from its primary federal regulator at its most recent examination, if the depository institution is subject to examination under part 345 of this chapter;</P>
            <P>(3) Received a compliance rating of 1 or 2 from its primary federal regulator at its most recent examination;</P>
            <P>(4) Is well-capitalized as defined in subpart B of part 325 of this chapter; and</P>
            <P>(5) Is not subject to a cease and desist order, consent order, prompt corrective action directive, written agreement, memorandum of understanding, or other administrative agreement with any U.S. bank regulatory authority.</P>
            <P>(d) <E T="03">Federal branch</E> means a federal branch of a foreign bank as defined by § 347.202 of this chapter.</P>
            <P>(e) <E T="03">Foreign bank</E> means a foreign bank as defined by § 347.202 of this chapter.</P>
            <P>(f) <E T="03">Foreign branch</E> means a foreign branch of an insured state nonmember bank as defined by § 347.102 of this chapter.</P>
            <P>(g) <E T="03">Foreign organization</E> means a foreign organization as defined by § 347.102 of this chapter.</P>
            <P>(h) <E T="03">Insured branch</E> means an insured branch of a foreign bank as defined by § 347.202 of this chapter.</P>
            <P>(i) <E T="03">Noninsured branch</E> means a noninsured branch of a foreign bank as defined by § 347.202 of this chapter.</P>
            <P>(j) <E T="03">State branch</E> means a state branch of a foreign bank as defined by § 347.202 of this chapter.</P>
          </SECTION>
          <SECTION>
            <SECTNO>§ 303.182</SECTNO>
            <SUBJECT>Establishing, moving or closing a foreign branch of a State nonmember bank; § 347.103.</SUBJECT>
            <P>(a) <E T="03">Notice procedures for general consent.</E> Notice in the form of a letter from an eligible depository institution establishing or relocating a foreign branch pursuant to § 347.103(b) of this <PRTPAGE P="43"/>chapter shall be provided to the appropriate regional director (DOS) no later than 30 days after taking such action, and include the location of the foreign branch, including a street address, and a statement that the foreign branch has not been located on a site on the World Heritage List or on the foreign country's equivalent of the National Register of Historic Places (National Register), in accordance with section 402 of the National Historic Preservation Act Amendments of 1980 (NHPA Amendments Act) (16 U.S.C. 470a-2). The regional director will provide written acknowledgment of receipt of the notice.</P>
            <P>(b) <E T="03">Filing procedures for other branch establishments.</E> (1) <E T="03">Where to file.</E> An applicant seeking to establish a foreign branch other than under § 347.103(b) of this chapter shall submit an application to the appropriate regional director (DOS).</P>
            <P>(2) <E T="03">Content of filing.</E> A complete letter application shall include the following information:</P>
            <P>(i) The exact location of the proposed foreign branch, including the street address, and a statement whether the foreign branch will be located on a site on the World Heritage List or on the foreign country's equivalent of the National Register, in accordance with section 402 of the NHPA Amendments Act;</P>
            <P>(ii) Details concerning any involvement in the proposal by an insider of the applicant, as defined in § 303.2(u), including any financial arrangements relating to fees, the acquisition of property, leasing of property, and construction contracts;</P>
            <P>(iii) A brief description of the applicant's business plan with respect to the foreign branch; and</P>
            <P>(iv) A brief description of the activities of the branch, and to the extent any activities are not authorized by § 347.103(a) of this chapter, the applicant's reasons why they should be approved.</P>
            <P>(3) <E T="03">Additional information.</E> The appropriate regional director (DOS) may request additional information to complete processing.</P>
            <P>(c) <E T="03">Processing</E>—(1) <E T="03">Expedited processing for eligible depository institutions.</E> An application filed under § 347.103(c) of this chapter by an eligible depository institution as defined in § 303.2(r) seeking to establish a foreign branch by expedited processing will be acknowledged in writing by the FDIC and will receive expedited processing, unless the applicant is notified in writing to the contrary and provided with the basis for that decision. The FDIC may remove the application from expedited processing for any of the reasons set forth in § 303.11(c)(2). Absent such removal, an application processed under expedited processing is deemed approved 45 days after receipt of a substantially complete application by the FDIC, or on such earlier date authorized by the FDIC in writing.</P>
            <P>(2) <E T="03">Standard processing.</E> For those applications which are not processed pursuant to the expedited procedures, the FDIC will provide the applicant with written notification of the final action when the decision is rendered.</P>
            <P>(d) <E T="03">Closing.</E> Notices of branch closing under § 347.103(f) of this chapter, in the form of a letter including the name, location, and date of closing of the closed branch, shall be filed with the appropriate regional director (DOS) no later than 30 days after the branch is closed.</P>
            <P>(e) <E T="03">Delegation of authority.</E> Authority is delegated to the Director and Deputy Director (DOS) and, if confirmed in writing by the Director, to an associate director and the appropriate regional director and deputy regional director to approve an application under paragraph (c) of this section if the following criteria are satisfied:</P>
            <P>(1) The requirements of section 402 the NHPA Amendments Act have been favorably resolved;</P>
            <P>(2) The applicant will only conduct activities authorized by § 347.103(a) of this chapter; and</P>
            <P>(3) If the foreign branch will be located in a foreign country in which applicable law or practice would limit the FDIC's access to information for supervisory purposes, the delegate is satisfied that adequate arrangements have been made (through conditions imposed in connection with the approval and agreed to in writing by the applicant) to ensure that the FDIC will have necessary access to information for supervisory purposes.</P>
          </SECTION>
          <SECTION>
            <PRTPAGE P="44"/>
            <SECTNO>§ 303.183</SECTNO>
            <SUBJECT>Investment by insured state nonmember banks in foreign organizations; § 347.108.</SUBJECT>
            <P>(a) <E T="03">Notice procedures for general consent.</E> Notice in the form of a letter from an eligible depository institution making direct or indirect investments in a foreign organization pursuant to § 347.108(a) of this chapter shall be provided to the appropriate regional director (DOS) no later than 30 days after taking such action. The appropriate regional director will provide written acknowledgment of receipt of the notice.</P>
            <P>(b) <E T="03">Filing procedures for other investments.</E> (1) <E T="03">Where to file.</E> An applicant seeking to make a foreign investment other than under § 347.108(a) of this chapter shall submit an application to the appropriate regional director (DOS).</P>
            <P>(2) <E T="03">Content of filing.</E> A complete application shall include the following information:</P>
            <P>(i) Basic information about the terms of the proposed transaction, the amount of the investment in the foreign organization and the proportion of its ownership to be acquired;</P>
            <P>(ii) Basic information about the foreign organization, its financial position and income, including any available balance sheet and income statement for the prior year, or financial projections for a new foreign organization;</P>
            <P>(iii) A listing of all shareholders known to hold ten percent or more of any class of the foreign organization's stock or other evidence of ownership, and the amount held by each;</P>
            <P>(iv) A brief description of the applicant's business plan with respect to the foreign organization;</P>
            <P>(v) A brief description of any business or activities which the foreign organization will conduct directly or indirectly in the United States, and to the extent such activities are not authorized by subpart A of part 347 of this chapter, the applicant's reasons why they should be approved;</P>
            <P>(vi) A brief description of the foreign organization's activities, and to the extent such activities are not authorized by subpart A of part 347 of this chapter, the applicant's reasons why they should be approved; and</P>
            <P>(vii) If the applicant seeks approval to engage in underwriting or dealing activities, a description of the applicant's plans and procedures to address all relevant risks.</P>
            <P>(3) <E T="03">Additional information.</E> The appropriate regional director (DOS) may request additional information to complete processing.</P>
            <P>(c) <E T="03">Processing.</E>—(1) <E T="03">Expedited processing for eligible depository institutions.</E> An application filed under § 347.108(b) of this chapter by an eligible depository institution as defined in § 303.2(r) seeking to make direct or indirect investments in a foreign organization by expedited processing will be acknowledged in writing by the FDIC and will receive expedited processing, unless the applicant is notified in writing to the contrary and provided with the basis for that decision. The FDIC may remove the application from expedited processing for any of the reasons set forth in § 303.11(c)(2). Absent such removal, an application processed under expedited processing is deemed approved 45 days after receipt of a complete application by the FDIC, or on such earlier date authorized by the FDIC in writing.</P>
            <P>(2) <E T="03">Standard processing.</E> For those applications which are not processed pursuant to the expedited procedures, the FDIC will provide the applicant with written notification of the final action when the decision is rendered.</P>
            <P>(d) <E T="03">Divestiture.</E> If an insured state nonmember bank holding 50 percent or more of the voting equity interests of a foreign organization or otherwise controlling the foreign organization divests itself of such ownership or control, the insured state nonmember bank shall file a notice in the form of a letter, including the name, location, and date of divestiture of the foreign organization, with the appropriate regional director (DOS) no later than 30 days after the divestiture.</P>
            <P>(e) <E T="03">Delegations of authority.</E> Authority is delegated to the Director and Deputy Director (DOS) and, if confirmed in writing by the Director, to an associate director and the appropriate regional director and deputy regional director to approve applications under paragraph (c) of this section so long as:</P>

            <P>(1) The investment complies with the amount limits in § 347.104 through <PRTPAGE P="45"/>§ 347.107 of this chapter and is in a foreign organization which only conducts such activities as authorized thereunder; and</P>
            <P>(2) For foreign investments resulting in the applicant holding 20 percent or more of the voting equity interests of the foreign organization or controlling such organization, if the organization is located in a foreign country in which applicable law or practice would limit the FDIC's access to information for supervisory purposes, the delegate is satisfied that adequate arrangements have been made (through conditions imposed in connection with the approval and agreed to in writing by the applicant) to ensure that the FDIC will have necessary access to information for supervisory purposes.</P>
          </SECTION>
          <SECTION>
            <SECTNO>§ 303.184</SECTNO>
            <SUBJECT>Moving an insured branch of a foreign bank.</SUBJECT>
            <P>(a) <E T="03">Filing procedures</E>—(1) <E T="03">Where and when to file.</E> An application by an insured branch of a foreign bank seeking the FDIC's consent to move from one location to another, as required by section 18(d)(1) of the FDI Act (12 U.S.C. 1828(d)(1)), shall be submitted in writing to the appropriate regional director (DOS) on the date the notice required by paragraph (c) of this section is published, or within 5 days after the date of the last required publication.</P>
            <P>(2) <E T="03">Content of filing.</E> A complete letter application shall include the following information:</P>
            <P>(i) The exact location of the proposed site, including the street address;</P>
            <P>(ii) Details concerning any involvement in the proposal by an insider of the applicant, as defined in § 303.2(u), including any financial arrangements relating to fees, the acquisition of property, leasing of property, and construction contracts;</P>
            <P>(iii) A statement of the impact of the proposal on the human environment, including information on compliance with local zoning laws and regulations and the effect on traffic patterns, for purposes of complying with the applicable provisions of the NEPA, and the FDIC “Statement Policy on NEPA” (2 FDIC Law, Regulations, Related Acts 5185; see § 309.4 (a) and (b) of this chapter for availability);</P>
            <P>(iv) A statement as to whether or not the site is eligible for inclusion in the National Register of Historic Places for purposes of complying with the applicable provisions of the NHPA, and the FDIC “Statement on NHPA” (2 FDIC Law, Regulations, Related Acts 5175; see § 309.4 (a) and (b) of this chapter for availability), including documentation of consultation with the State Historic Preservation Officer, as appropriate;</P>
            <P>(v) Comments on any changes in services to be offered, the community to be served, or any other effect the proposal may have on the applicant's compliance with the CRA; and</P>
            <P>(vi) A copy of the newspaper publication required by paragraph (c) of this section, as well as the name and address of the newspaper and the date of the publication.</P>
            <P>(3) <E T="03">Comptroller's application.</E> If the applicant is filing an application with the Comptroller which contains the information required by paragraph (a)(2) of this section, the applicant may submit a copy to the FDIC in lieu of a separate application.</P>
            <P>(4) <E T="03">Additional information.</E> The appropriate regional director (DOS) may request additional information to complete processing.</P>
            <P>(b) <E T="03">Processing</E>—(1) <E T="03">Expedited processing for eligible insured branches.</E> An application filed by an eligible insured branch as defined in § 303.181(c) will be acknowledged in writing by the FDIC and will receive expedited processing, unless the applicant is notified to the contrary and provided with the basis for that decision. The FDIC may remove an application from expedited processing for any of the reasons set forth in § 303.11(c)(2). Absent such removal, an application processed under expedited processing will be deemed approved on the latest of the following:</P>
            <P>(i) The 21st day after the FDIC's receipt of a substantially complete application; or</P>
            <P>(ii) The 5th day after expiration of the comment period described in paragraph (c) of this section.</P>
            <P>(2) <E T="03">Standard processing.</E> For those applications that are not processed pursuant to the expedited procedures, the FDIC will provide the applicant with written notification of the final action as soon as the decision is rendered.<PRTPAGE P="46"/>
            </P>
            <P>(c) <E T="03">Publication requirement and comment period</E>—(1) <E T="03">Newspaper publications.</E> The applicant shall publish a notice of its proposal to move from one location to another, as described in § 303.7(b), in a newspaper of general circulation in the community in which the insured branch is located prior to its being moved and in the community to which it is to be moved. The notice shall include the insured branch's current and proposed addresses.</P>
            <P>(2) <E T="03">Public comments.</E> All public comments must be received by the appropriate regional director (DOS) within 15 days after the date of the last newspaper publication required by paragraph (c)(1) of this section, unless the comment period has been extended or reopened in accordance with § 303.9(b)(2).</P>
            <P>(3) <E T="03">Lobby notices.</E> If the insured branch has a public lobby, a copy of the newspaper publication shall be posted in the public lobby for at least 15 days beginning on the date of the publication required by paragraph (c)(1) of this section.</P>
            <P>(d) <E T="03">Delegation of authority.</E> (1) Authority is delegated to the Director and Deputy Director (DOS) and, where confirmed in writing by the Director, to an associate director and the appropriate regional director and deputy regional director to approve an application under this section. For the delegate to exercise this authority, the criteria in paragraphs (d)(1)(i) through (d)(1)(vi) of this section must be satisfied:</P>
            <P>(i) The factors set forth in section 6 of the FDI Act (12 U.S.C. 1816) have been considered and favorably resolved;</P>
            <P>(ii) The applicant is at least adequately capitalized as defined in subpart B of part 325 of this chapter;</P>
            <P>(iii) Any financial arrangements which have been made in connection with the proposed relocation and which involve the applicant's directors, officers, major shareholders, or their interests are fair and reasonable in comparison to similar arrangements that could have been made with independent third parties;</P>
            <P>(iv) Compliance with the CRA, the NEPA, the NHPA and any applicable related regulations, including 12 CFR part 345, has been considered and favorably resolved;</P>
            <P>(v) No CRA protest as defined in § 303.2(l) has been filed which remains unresolved or, where such a protest has been filed and remains unresolved, the Director (DCA), Deputy Director (DCA), an associate director (DCA) or the appropriate regional director or deputy regional director (DCA) concurs that approval is consistent with the purposes of the CRA and the applicant agrees in writing to any conditions imposed regarding the CRA; and</P>
            <P>(vi) The applicant agrees in writing to comply with any conditions imposed by the delegate, other than the standard conditions defined in § 303.2(ff) which may be imposed without the applicant's written consent.</P>
            <P>(2) Authority is delegated to the Director and Deputy Director (DOS) and, where confirmed in writing by the Director, to an associate director, to approve applications under this section which meet all criteria in paragraph (d)(1) of this section except that the applicant does not agree in writing to comply with any condition imposed by the delegate, other than the standard conditions defined in § 303.2(ff) which may be imposed without the applicant's written consent.</P>
            <P>(3) Authority is delegated to the Director and Deputy Director (DOS) and, where confirmed in writing by the Director, to an associate director, to deny applications under this section.</P>
          </SECTION>
          <SECTION>
            <SECTNO>§ 303.185</SECTNO>
            <SUBJECT>Merger transactions involving foreign banks or foreign organizations.</SUBJECT>
            <P>(a) <E T="03">Merger transactions involving an insured branch of a foreign bank.</E> Merger transactions requiring the FDIC's prior approval as set forth in § 303.62 include any merger transaction in which the resulting institution is an insured branch of a foreign bank which is not a federal branch, or any merger transaction which involves any insured branch and any uninsured institution. In such cases:</P>
            <P>(1) References to an eligible depository institution in subpart D of this part include an eligible insured branch as defined in § 303.181;</P>

            <P>(2) The definition of a corporate reorganization in § 303.61(b) includes a merger transaction between an insured branch and other branches, agencies, or <PRTPAGE P="47"/>subsidiaries in the United States of the same foreign bank; and</P>
            <P>(3) For the purposes of § 303.62(b)(1) on interstate mergers, a merger transaction involving an insured branch is one involving the acquisition of a branch of an insured bank without the acquisition of the bank for purposes of section 44 of the FDI Act (12 U.S.C. 1831u) only when the merger transaction involves fewer than all the insured branches of the same foreign bank in the same state.</P>
            <P>(b) <E T="03">Certain merger transactions with foreign organizations outside any State.</E> Merger transactions requiring the FDIC's prior approval as set forth in § 303.62 include any merger transaction in which an insured depository institution becomes directly liable for obligations which will, after the merger transaction, be treated as deposits under section 3(l)(5)(A)(i)-(ii) of the FDI Act (12 U.S.C. 1813(l)(5)(A)(i)-(ii)), as a result of a merger or consolidation with a foreign organization or an assumption of liabilities of a foreign organization.</P>
          </SECTION>
          <SECTION>
            <SECTNO>§ 303.186</SECTNO>
            <SUBJECT>Exemptions from insurance requirement for a state branch of a foreign bank; § 347.206.</SUBJECT>
            <P>(a) <E T="03">Filing procedures</E>—(1) <E T="03">Where to file.</E> An application by a state branch for consent to operate as a noninsured state branch, as permitted by § 347.206(b) of this chapter, shall be submitted in writing to the appropriate regional director (DOS).</P>
            <P>(2) <E T="03">Content of filing.</E> A complete letter application shall include the following information:</P>
            <P>(i) The kinds of deposit activities in which the state branch proposes to engage;</P>
            <P>(ii) The expected source of deposits;</P>
            <P>(iii) The manner in which deposits will be solicited;</P>
            <P>(iv) How the activity will maintain or improve the availability of credit to all sectors of the United States economy, including the international trade finance sector;</P>
            <P>(v) That the activity will not give the foreign bank an unfair competitive advantage over United States banking organizations; and</P>
            <P>(vi) A resolution by the applicant's board of directors, or evidence of approval by senior management if a resolution is not required pursuant to the applicant's organizational documents, authorizing the filing of the application.</P>
            <P>(2) <E T="03">Additional information.</E> The appropriate regional director (DOS) may request additional information to complete processing.</P>
            <P>(b) <E T="03">Processing.</E> The FDIC will provide the applicant with written notification of the final action taken.</P>
          </SECTION>
          <SECTION>
            <SECTNO>§ 303.187</SECTNO>
            <SUBJECT>Approval for an insured state branch of a foreign bank to conduct activities not permissible for Federal branches; § 347.213.</SUBJECT>
            <P>(a) <E T="03">Filing procedures</E>—(1) <E T="03">Where to file.</E> An application by an insured state branch seeking approval to conduct activities not permissible for a federal branch, as required by § 347.213(a) of this chapter, shall be submitted in writing to the appropriate regional director (DOS).</P>
            <P>(2) <E T="03">Content of filing.</E> A complete letter application shall include the following information:</P>
            <P>(i) A brief description of the activity, including the manner in which it will be conducted and an estimate of the expected dollar volume associated with the activity;</P>
            <P>(ii) An analysis of the impact of the proposed activity on the condition of the United States operations of the foreign bank in general and of the branch in particular, including a copy of the feasibility study, management plan, financial projections, business plan, or similar document concerning the conduct of the activity;</P>
            <P>(iii) A resolution by the applicant's board of directors, or evidence of approval by senior management if a resolution is not required pursuant to the applicant's organizational documents, authorizing the filing of the application;</P>
            <P>(iv) A statement by the applicant of whether it is in compliance with §§ 347.210 and 347.211 of this chapter, Pledge of assets and Asset maintenance, respectively;</P>

            <P>(v) A statement by the applicant that it has complied with all requirements of the Board of Governors concerning applications to conduct the activity in question and the status of each such <PRTPAGE P="48"/>application, including a copy of the Board of Governors’ disposition of such application, if applicable; and</P>
            <P>(vi) A statement of why the activity will pose no significant risk to the Bank Insurance Fund.</P>
            <P>(3) <E T="03">Board of Governors application.</E> If the application to the Board of Governors contains the information required by paragraph (a) of this section, the applicant may submit a copy to the FDIC in lieu of a separate letter application.</P>
            <P>(4) <E T="03">Additional information.</E> The appropriate regional director (DOS) may request additional information to complete processing.</P>
            <P>(b) <E T="03">Divestiture or cessation</E>—(1) <E T="03">Where to file.</E> Divestiture plans necessitated by a change in law or other authority, as required by § 347.213(e) of this chapter, shall be submitted in writing to the appropriate regional director (DOS).</P>
            <P>(2) <E T="03">Content of filing.</E> A complete letter application shall include the following information:</P>
            <P>(i) A detailed description of the manner in which the applicant proposes to divest itself of or cease the activity in question; and</P>
            <P>(ii) A projected timetable describing how long the divestiture or cessation is expected to take.</P>
            <P>(3) <E T="03">Additional information.</E> The appropriate regional director (DOS) may request additional information to complete processing.</P>
            <P>(c) <E T="03">Delegation of authority.</E> Authority is delegated to the Director and Deputy Director (DOS) and, where confirmed in writing by the Director, to an associate director and the appropriate regional director and deputy regional director, to approve plans of divestiture and cessation submitted pursuant to paragraph (b) of this section.</P>
          </SECTION>
        </SUBPART>
        <SUBPART>
          <HD SOURCE="HED">Subpart K—Prompt Corrective Action</HD>
          <SECTION>
            <SECTNO>§ 303.200</SECTNO>
            <SUBJECT>Scope.</SUBJECT>
            <P>(a) <E T="03">General.</E> (1) This subpart covers applications filed pursuant to section 38 of the FDI Act (12 U.S.C. 1831<E T="03">o</E>), which requires insured depository institutions that are not adequately capitalized to receive approval prior to engaging in certain activities. Section 38 restricts or prohibits certain activities and requires an insured depository institution to submit a capital restoration plan when it becomes undercapitalized. The restrictions and prohibitions become more severe as an institution's capital level declines.</P>
            <P>(2) Definitions of the capital categories referenced in this Prompt Corrective Action subpart may be found in subpart B of part 325 of this chapter, § 325.103(b) for state nonmember banks and § 325.103(c) for insured branches of foreign banks.</P>
            <P>(b) <E T="03">Institutions covered.</E> Restrictions and prohibitions contained in subpart B of part 325 of this chapter apply primarily to insured state nonmember banks and insured branches of foreign banks, as well as to directors and senior executive officers of those institutions. Portions of subpart B of part 325 of this chapter also apply to all insured depository institutions that are deemed to be critically undercapitalized.</P>
          </SECTION>
          <SECTION>
            <SECTNO>§ 303.201</SECTNO>
            <SUBJECT>Filing procedures.</SUBJECT>
            <P>Applications shall be filed with the appropriate regional director (DOS). The application shall contain the information specified in each respective section of this subpart, and shall be in letter form as prescribed in § 303.3. Additional information may be requested by the FDIC. Such letter shall be signed by the president, senior officer or a duly authorized agent of the insured depository institution and be accompanied by a certified copy of a resolution adopted by the institution's board of directors or trustees authorizing the application.</P>
          </SECTION>
          <SECTION>
            <SECTNO>§ 303.202</SECTNO>
            <SUBJECT>Processing.</SUBJECT>
            <P>The FDIC will provide the applicant with a subsequent written notification of the final action taken as soon as the decision is rendered.</P>
          </SECTION>
          <SECTION>
            <SECTNO>§ 303.203</SECTNO>
            <SUBJECT>Applications for capital distributions.</SUBJECT>
            <P>(a) <E T="03">Scope.</E> An insured state nonmember bank and any insured branch of a foreign bank shall submit an application for capital distribution if, after having made a capital distribution, the institution would be undercapitalized, <PRTPAGE P="49"/>significantly undercapitalized, or critically undercapitalized.</P>
            <P>(b) <E T="03">Content of filing.</E> An application to repurchase, redeem, retire or otherwise acquire shares or ownership interests of the insured depository institution shall describe the proposal, the shares or obligations which are the subject thereof, and the additional shares or obligations of the institution which will be issued in at least an amount equivalent to the distribution. The application also shall explain how the proposal will reduce the institution's financial obligations or otherwise improve its financial condition. If the proposed action also requires an application under section 18(i) of the FDI Act (12 U.S.C. 1828(i)) as implemented by § 303.241 regarding prior consent to retire capital, such application should be filed concurrently with, or made a part of, the application filed pursuant to section 38 of the FDI Act (12 U.S.C. 1831<E T="03">o</E>).</P>
          </SECTION>
          <SECTION>
            <SECTNO>§ 303.204</SECTNO>
            <SUBJECT>Applications for acquisitions, branching, and new lines of business.</SUBJECT>
            <P>(a) <E T="03">Scope.</E> (1) Any insured state nonmember bank and any insured branch of a foreign bank which is undercapitalized or significantly undercapitalized, and any insured depository institution which is critically undercapitalized, shall submit an application to engage in acquisitions, branching or new lines of business.</P>
            <P>(2) A new line of business will include any new activity exercised which, although it may be permissible, has not been exercised by the institution.</P>
            <P>(b) <E T="03">Content of filing.</E> Applications shall describe the proposal, state the date the institution's capital restoration plan was accepted by its primary federal regulator, describe the institution's status in implementing the plan, and explain how the proposed action is consistent with and will further the achievement of the plan or otherwise further the purposes of section 38 of the FDI Act. If the FDIC is not the applicant's primary federal regulator, the application also should state whether approval has been requested from the applicant's primary federal regulator, the date of such request and the disposition of the request, if any. If the proposed action also requires applications pursuant to section 18 (c) or (d) of the FDI Act (mergers and branches) (12 U.S.C. 1828 (c) or (d)), such applications should be filed concurrently with, or made a part of, the application filed pursuant to section 38 of the FDI Act (12 U.S.C. 1831<E T="03">o</E>).</P>
          </SECTION>
          <SECTION>
            <SECTNO>§ 303.205</SECTNO>
            <SUBJECT>Applications for bonuses and increased compensation for senior executive officers.</SUBJECT>
            <P>(a) <E T="03">Scope.</E> Any insured state nonmember bank or insured branch of a foreign bank that is significantly or critically undercapitalized, or any insured state nonmember bank or any insured branch of a foreign bank that is undercapitalized and which has failed to submit or implement in any material respect an acceptable capital restoration plan, shall submit an application to pay a bonus or increase compensation for any senior executive officer.</P>
            <P>(b) <E T="03">Content of filing.</E> Applications shall list each proposed bonus or increase in compensation, and for the latter shall identify compensation for each of the twelve calendar months preceding the calendar month in which the institution became undercapitalized. Applications also shall state the date the institution's capital restoration plan was accepted by the FDIC, and describe any progress made in implementing the plan.</P>
          </SECTION>
          <SECTION>
            <SECTNO>§ 303.206</SECTNO>
            <SUBJECT>Application for payment of principal or interest on subordinated debt.</SUBJECT>
            <P>(a) <E T="03">Scope.</E> Any critically undercapitalized insured depository institution shall submit an application to pay principal or interest on subordinated debt.</P>
            <P>(b) <E T="03">Content of filing.</E> Applications shall describe the proposed payment and provide an explanation of action taken under section 38(h)(3)(A)(ii) of the FDI Act (action other than receivership or conservatorship). The application also shall explain how such payments would further the purposes of section 38 of the FDI Act (12 U.S.C. 1831<E T="03">o</E>). Existing approvals pursuant to requests filed under section 18(i)(1) of the FDI Act (12 U.S.C. 1828(i)(1)) (capital stock reductions or retirements) <PRTPAGE P="50"/>shall not be deemed to be the permission needed pursuant to section 38.</P>
          </SECTION>
          <SECTION>
            <SECTNO>§ 303.207</SECTNO>
            <SUBJECT>Restricted activities for critically undercapitalized institutions.</SUBJECT>
            <P>(a) <E T="03">Scope.</E> Any critically undercapitalized insured depository institution shall submit an application to engage in certain restricted activities.</P>
            <P>(b) <E T="03">Content of filing.</E> Applications to engage in any of the following activities, as set forth in sections 38(i)(2) (A) through (G) of the FDI Act, shall describe the proposed activity and explain how the activity would further the purposes of section 38 of the FDI Act (12 U.S.C. 1831<E T="03">o</E>):</P>
            <P>(1) Enter into any material transaction other than in the usual course of business including any action with respect to which the institution is required to provide notice to the appropriate federal banking agency. Materiality will be determined on a case-by-case basis;</P>
            <P>(2) Extend credit for any highly leveraged transaction (as defined in part 325 of this chapter);</P>
            <P>(3) Amend the institution's charter or bylaws, except to the extent necessary to carry out any other requirement of any law, regulation, or order;</P>
            <P>(4) Make any material change in accounting methods;</P>
            <P>(5) Engage in any covered transaction (as defined in section 23A(b) of the Federal Reserve Act (12 U.S.C. 371c(b));</P>
            <P>(6) Pay excessive compensation or bonuses. Part 364 of this chapter provides guidance for determining excessive compensation; or</P>
            <P>(7) Pay interest on new or renewed liabilities at a rate that would increase the institution's weighted average cost of funds to a level significantly exceeding the prevailing rates of interest on insured deposits in the institution's normal market area. Section 337.6 of this chapter (Brokered deposits) provides guidance for defining the relevant terms of this provision; however this provision does not supersede the general prohibitions contained in § 337.6 of this chapter.</P>
          </SECTION>
          <SECTION>
            <SECTNO>§ 303.208</SECTNO>
            <SUBJECT>Delegation of authority.</SUBJECT>
            <P>Authority is delegated to the Director and Deputy Director (DOS) and, where confirmed in writing by the Director, to an associate director and the appropriate regional director and deputy regional director, to approve or deny the following applications, requests or petitions submitted pursuant to this subpart:</P>

            <P>(a) Applications filed pursuant to section 38 of the FDI Act (12 U.S.C. 1831<E T="03">o</E>) (prompt corrective action), including applications to make a capital distribution;</P>
            <P>(b) Applications for acquisitions, branching, and new lines of business (except that the delegation is limited to the authority as delegated to approve or deny any concurrent application filed pursuant to section 18 (c) or (d) of the FDI Act (12 U.S.C. 1828 (c) or (d));</P>
            <P>(c) Applications to pay a bonus or increase compensation;</P>
            <P>(d) Applications for an exception to pay principal or interest on subordinated debt; and</P>
            <P>(e) Applications by critically undercapitalized insured depository institutions to engage in any restricted activity listed in this subpart.</P>
          </SECTION>
        </SUBPART>
        <SUBPART>
          <HD SOURCE="HED">Subpart L—Section 19 of the FDI Act (Consent to Service of Persons Convicted of Certain Criminal Offenses)</HD>
          <SECTION>
            <SECTNO>§ 303.220</SECTNO>
            <SUBJECT>Scope.</SUBJECT>
            <P>This subpart covers applications under section 19 of the FDI Act (12 U.S.C. 1829). Pursuant to section 19, any person who has been convicted of any criminal offense involving dishonesty, breach of trust, or money laundering, or has agreed to enter into a pretrial diversion or similar program in connection with a prosecution for such offense, may not become, or continue as, an institution-affiliated party of an insured depository institution; own or control, directly or indirectly, any insured depository institution; or otherwise participate, directly or indirectly, in the conduct of the affairs of any insured depository institution without the prior written consent of the FDIC.</P>
          </SECTION>
          <SECTION>
            <PRTPAGE P="51"/>
            <SECTNO>§ 303.221</SECTNO>
            <SUBJECT>Filing procedures.</SUBJECT>
            <P>(a) <E T="03">Regional office.</E> An application under section 19 shall be filed with the appropriate regional director (DOS).</P>
            <P>(b) <E T="03">Contents of filing.</E> Application forms may be obtained from any FDIC regional office. The FDIC may require additional information beyond that sought in the form, as warranted, in individual cases.</P>
          </SECTION>
          <SECTION>
            <SECTNO>§ 303.222</SECTNO>
            <SUBJECT>Service at another insured depository institution.</SUBJECT>
            <P>In the case of a person who has already been approved by the FDIC under this subpart or section 19 of the FDI Act in connection with a particular insured depository institution, such person may not become an institution affiliated party, or own or control directly or indirectly another insured depository institution, or participate in the conduct of the affairs of another insured depository institution, without the prior written consent of the FDIC.</P>
          </SECTION>
          <SECTION>
            <SECTNO>§ 303.223</SECTNO>
            <SUBJECT>Applicant's right to hearing following denial.</SUBJECT>
            <P>An applicant may request a hearing following a denial of an application in accordance with the provisions of part 308 of this chapter.</P>
          </SECTION>
          <SECTION>
            <SECTNO>§ 303.224</SECTNO>
            <SUBJECT>Delegation of authority.</SUBJECT>
            <P>(a) <E T="03">Approvals.</E> Authority is delegated to the Director and Deputy Director (DOS) and, where confirmed in writing by the Director, to an associate director or to the appropriate regional director and deputy regional director, to approve applications made by insured depository institutions pursuant to section 19 of the FDI Act, after consultation with the Legal Division; provided however, that authority may not be delegated to the regional director or deputy regional director where the applicant's primary supervisory authority interposes any objection to such application.</P>
            <P>(b) <E T="03">Denials.</E> Authority is delegated to the Director and Deputy Director (DOS) and, where confirmed in writing by the Director, to an associate director, to deny applications made by insured depository institutions pursuant to section 19 of the FDI Act.</P>
            <P>(c) <E T="03">Concurrent legal certification.</E> The authority to deny applications delegated under this section shall be exercised only upon the concurrent certification by the General Counsel and, where confirmed in writing by the General Counsel, his or her designee, that the action taken is not inconsistent with section 19 of the FDI Act.</P>
            <P>(d) <E T="03">Conditions on application approvals.</E> Regional directors and deputy regional directors acting under delegated authority under this subpart may impose any of the following conditions on the approval of applications, as appropriate in individual cases:</P>
            <P>(1) A participant or institution-affiliated party of an institution shall be bonded to the same extent as others in similar positions; and/or</P>
            <P>(2) When deemed necessary, the prior consent of the appropriate regional director (DOS) shall be required for any proposed significant changes in duties and/or responsibilities of the person who is the subject of the application.</P>
            <P>(e) <E T="03">Authority not delegated by FDIC Board of Directors.</E> The FDIC Board of Directors has not delegated its authority to consider and act upon an application under section 19 of the FDI Act after a hearing held in accordance with the provisions of part 308 of this chapter.</P>
          </SECTION>
        </SUBPART>
        <SUBPART>
          <HD SOURCE="HED">Subpart M—Other Filings</HD>
          <SECTION>
            <SECTNO>§ 303.240</SECTNO>
            <SUBJECT>General.</SUBJECT>
            <P>This subpart sets forth the filing procedures to be followed when seeking the FDIC's consent to engage in certain activities or accomplish other matters as specified in the individual sections contained herein. For those matters covered by this subpart that also have substantive FDIC regulations or related statements of policy, references to the relevant regulations or statements of policy are contained in the specific sections.</P>
          </SECTION>
          <SECTION>
            <SECTNO>303.241</SECTNO>
            <SUBJECT>Reduce or retire capital stock or capital debt instruments.</SUBJECT>
            <P>(a) <E T="03">Scope.</E> This section contains the procedures to be followed by an insured state nonmember bank to seek the prior approval of the FDIC to reduce the amount or retire any part of its common or preferred stock, or to retire <PRTPAGE P="52"/>any part of its capital notes or debentures pursuant to section 18(i)(1) of the Act (12 U.S.C. 1828(i)(1)).</P>
            <P>(b) <E T="03">Filing procedures.</E> Applicants shall submit a letter application to the appropriate regional director (DOS).</P>
            <P>(c) <E T="03">Content of filing.</E> The application shall contain the following:</P>
            <P>(1) The type and amount of the proposed change to the capital structure and the reason for the change;</P>
            <P>(2) A schedule detailing the present and proposed capital structure;</P>
            <P>(3) The time period that the proposal will encompass;</P>
            <P>(4) If the proposal involves a series of transactions affecting Tier 1 capital components which will be consummated over a period of time which shall not exceed twelve months, the application shall certify that the insured depository institution will maintain itself as a well-capitalized institution as defined in part 325 of this chapter, both before and after each of the proposed transactions;</P>
            <P>(5) If the proposal involves the repurchase of capital instruments, the amount of the repurchase price and the basis for establishing the fair market value of the repurchase price;</P>
            <P>(6) A statement that the proposal will be available to all holders of a particular class of outstanding capital instruments on an equal basis, and if not, the details of any restrictions; and</P>
            <P>(7) The date that the applicant's board of directors approved the proposal.</P>
            <P>(d) <E T="03">Additional information.</E> The FDIC may request additional information at any time during processing of the application.</P>
            <P>(e) <E T="03">Undercapitalized institutions.</E> Procedures regarding applications by an undercapitalized insured depository institution to retire capital stock or capital debt instruments pursuant to section 38 of the FDI Act (12 U.S.C. 1831<E T="03">o</E>) are set forth in subpart K of this part (Prompt Corrective Action), § 303.203. Applications pursuant to sections 38 and 18(i) may be filed concurrently, or as a single application.</P>
            <P>(f) <E T="03">Expedited processing for eligible depository institutions.</E> An application filed under this section by an eligible depository institution as defined in § 303.2(r) will be acknowledged in writing by the FDIC and will receive expedited processing, unless the applicant is notified in writing to the contrary and provided with the basis for that decision. The FDIC may remove an application from expedited processing for any of the reasons set forth in § 303.11(c)(2). Absent such removal, an application processed under expedited processing will be deemed approved 20 days after the FDIC's receipt of a substantially complete application.</P>
            <P>(g) <E T="03">Standard processing.</E> For those applications that are not processed pursuant to expedited procedures, the FDIC will provide the applicant with written notification of the final action as soon as the decision is rendered.</P>
            <P>(h) <E T="03">Delegation of authority.</E> Authority is delegated to the Director and Deputy Director (DOS) and, where confirmed in writing by the Director, to an associate director and the appropriate regional director and deputy regional director, to approve or deny an application pursuant to section 18(i)(1) of the FDI Act (12 U.S.C. 1828(i)) to reduce the amount or retire any part of common or preferred capital stock, or to retire any part of capital notes or debentures.</P>
          </SECTION>
          <SECTION>
            <SECTNO>§ 303.242</SECTNO>
            <SUBJECT>Exercise of trust powers.</SUBJECT>
            <P>(a) <E T="03">Scope.</E> This section contains the procedures to be followed by a state nonmember bank to seek the FDIC's prior consent to exercise trust powers. The FDIC's prior consent to exercise trust powers is not required in the following circumstances:</P>
            <P>(1) Where a state nonmember bank received authority to exercise trust powers from its chartering authority prior to December 1, 1950; or</P>
            <P>(2) Where an insured depository institution continues to conduct trust activities pursuant to authority granted by its chartering authority subsequent to a charter conversion or withdrawal from membership in the Federal Reserve System.</P>
            <P>(b) <E T="03">Filing procedures.</E> Applicants shall submit to the appropriate regional director (DOS) a completed form, “Application for Consent To Exercise Trust Powers.” This form may be obtained from any FDIC regional office.</P>
            <P>(c) <E T="03">Content of filing.</E> The filing shall consist of the completed trust application form.<PRTPAGE P="53"/>
            </P>
            <P>(d) <E T="03">Additional information.</E> The FDIC may request additional information at any time during processing of the filing.</P>
            <P>(e) <E T="03">Expedited processing for eligible depository institutions.</E> An application filed under this section by an eligible depository institution as defined in § 303.2(r) will be acknowledged in writing by the FDIC and will receive expedited processing, unless the applicant is notified in writing to the contrary and provided with the basis for that decision. The FDIC may remove an application from expedited processing for any of the reasons set forth in § 303.11(c)(2). Absent such removal, an application processed under expedited procedures will be deemed approved 30 days after the FDIC's receipt of a substantially complete application.</P>
            <P>(f) <E T="03">Standard processing.</E> For those applications that are not processed pursuant to the expedited procedures, the FDIC will provide the applicant with written notification of the final action when the decision is rendered.</P>
            <P>(g) <E T="03">Delegation of authority.</E> (1) Where the criteria listed in paragraph (g)(2) of this section are satisfied and the applicant agrees in writing to comply with any conditions imposed by the approving FDIC official, other than the standard conditions defined in § 303.2(ff), which may be imposed without the applicant's written consent, authority is delegated to the Director and Deputy Director (DOS) and, where confirmed in writing by the Director, to an associate director and the appropriate regional director and deputy regional director, to approve applications for the FDIC's consent to exercise trust powers.</P>
            <P>(2) The following criteria must be satisfied before the authority delegated in paragraph (g)(1) of this section may be exercised:</P>
            <P>(i) The factors set forth in section 6 of the FDI Act (12 U.S.C. 1816) have been considered and favorably resolved;</P>
            <P>(ii) The proposed management of the trust business is determined to be capable of satisfactorily handling the anticipated business; and</P>
            <P>(iii) The applicant's board of directors formally has adopted the FDIC Statement of Principles of Trust Department Management available from any FDIC regional office.</P>
            <P>(h) <E T="03">Denials and certain conditional approvals.</E> Authority is delegated to the Director and Deputy Director (DOS) and, where confirmed in writing by the Director, to an associate director to:</P>
            <P>(1) Deny applications for trust powers; and</P>
            <P>(2) Approve applications for trust powers where the criteria listed in paragraph (g)(2) of this section are satisfied but the applicant does not agree in writing to comply with any condition imposed by the delegate, other than the standard conditions defined in § 303.2(ff) which may be imposed without the applicant's written consent.</P>
          </SECTION>
          <SECTION>
            <SECTNO>§ 303.243</SECTNO>
            <SUBJECT>Brokered deposit waivers.</SUBJECT>
            <P>(a) <E T="03">Scope.</E> Pursuant to section 29 of the FDI Act (12 U.S.C. 1831f) and part 337 of this chapter, an adequately capitalized insured depository institution may not accept, renew or roll over any brokered deposits unless it has obtained a waiver from the FDIC. A well-capitalized insured depository institution may accept brokered deposits without a waiver, and an undercapitalized insured depository institution may not accept, renew or roll over any brokered deposits under any circumstances. This section contains the procedures to be followed to file with the FDIC for a brokered deposit waiver. The FDIC will provide notice to the depository institution's appropriate federal banking agency and any state regulatory agency, as appropriate, that a request for a waiver has been filed and will consult with such agency or agencies, prior to taking action on the institution's request for a waiver. Prior notice and/or consultation shall not be required in any particular case if the FDIC determines that the circumstances require it to take action without giving such notice and opportunity for consultation.</P>
            <P>(b) <E T="03">Filing procedures.</E> Applicants shall submit a letter application to the appropriate regional director (DOS).</P>
            <P>(c) <E T="03">Content of filing.</E> The application shall contain the following:</P>
            <P>(1) The time period for which the waiver is requested;</P>

            <P>(2) A statement of the policy governing the use of brokered deposits in the institution's overall funding and liquidity management program;<PRTPAGE P="54"/>
            </P>
            <P>(3) The volume, rates and maturities of the brokered deposits held currently and anticipated during the waiver period sought, including any internal limits placed on the terms, solicitation and use of brokered deposits;</P>
            <P>(4) How brokered deposits are costed and compared to other funding alternatives and how they are used in the institution's lending and investment activities, including a detailed discussion of asset growth plans;</P>
            <P>(5) Procedures and practices used to solicit brokered deposits, including an identification of the principal sources of such deposits;</P>
            <P>(6) Management systems overseeing the solicitation, acceptance and use of brokered deposits;</P>
            <P>(7) A recent consolidated financial statement with balance sheet and income statements; and</P>
            <P>(8) The reasons the institution believes its acceptance, renewal or rollover of brokered deposits would pose no undue risk.</P>
            <P>(d) <E T="03">Additional information.</E> The FDIC may request additional information at any time during processing of the application.</P>
            <P>(e) <E T="03">Expedited processing for eligible depository institutions.</E> An application filed under this section by an eligible depository institution as defined in this § 303.243(e) will be acknowledged in writing by the FDIC and will receive expedited processing, unless the applicant is notified in writing to the contrary and provided with the basis for that decision. For the purpose of this section, an applicant will be deemed an eligible depository institution if it satisfies all of the criteria contained in § 303.2(r) except that the applicant may be adequately capitalized rather than well-capitalized. The FDIC may remove an application from expedited processing for any of the reasons set forth in § 303.11(c)(2). Absent such removal, an application processed under expedited procedures will be deemed approved 21 days after the FDIC's receipt of a substantially complete application.</P>
            <P>(f) <E T="03">Standard processing.</E> For those filings which are not processed pursuant to the expedited procedures, the FDIC will provide the applicant with written notification of the final action as soon as the decision is rendered.</P>
            <P>(g) <E T="03">Conditions for approval.</E> A waiver issued pursuant to this section shall:</P>
            <P>(1) Be for a fixed period, generally no longer than two years, but may be extended upon refiling; and</P>
            <P>(2) May be revoked by the FDIC at any time by written notice to the institution.</P>
            <P>(h) <E T="03">Delegation of authority.</E> Authority is delegated to the Director and Deputy Director (DOS) and, where confirmed in writing by the Director, to an associate director and the appropriate regional director and deputy regional director, to approve or deny brokered deposit waiver applications. Based upon a preliminary review, any delegate may grant a temporary waiver for a short period in order to facilitate the orderly processing of a filing for a waiver.</P>
          </SECTION>
          <SECTION>
            <SECTNO>§ 303.244</SECTNO>
            <SUBJECT>Golden parachute and severance plan payments.</SUBJECT>
            <P>(a) <E T="03">Scope.</E> Pursuant to section 18(k) of the FDI Act (12 U.S.C. 1828(k)) and part 359 of this chapter, an insured depository institution or depository institution holding company may not make golden parachute payments or excess nondiscriminatory severance plan payments unless the depository institution or holding company obtains permission to make such payments in accordance with the rules contained in part 359 of this chapter. This section contains the procedures to file for the FDIC's consent when such consent is necessary under part 359 of this chapter.</P>
            <P>(1) <E T="03">Golden parachute payments.</E> A troubled insured depository institution or a troubled depository institution holding company is prohibited from making golden parachute payments (as defined in § 359.1(f)(1) of this chapter) unless it obtains the consent of the appropriate federal banking agency and the written concurrence of the FDIC. Therefore, in the case of golden parachute payments, the procedures in this section apply to all troubled insured depository institutions and troubled depository institution holding companies.</P>
            <P>(2) <E T="03">Excess nondiscriminatory severance plan payments.</E> In the case of excess nondiscriminatory severance plan payments as provided by § 359.1(f)(2)(v) of <PRTPAGE P="55"/>this chapter, the FDIC's consent is necessary for state nonmember banks that meet the criteria set forth in § 359.1(f)(1)(ii) of this chapter. In addition, the FDIC's consent is required for all insured depository institutions or depository institution holding companies that meet the same criteria and seek to make payments in excess of the 12-month amount specified in § 359.1(f)(2)(v) of this chapter.</P>
            <P>(b) <E T="03">Filing procedures.</E> Applicants shall submit a letter application to the appropriate FDIC regional director (DOS).</P>
            <P>(c) <E T="03">Content of filing.</E> The application shall contain the following:</P>
            <P>(1) The reasons why the applicant seeks to make the payment;</P>
            <P>(2) An identification of the institution-affiliated party who will receive the payment;</P>
            <P>(3) A copy of any contract or agreement regarding the subject matter of the filing;</P>
            <P>(4) The cost of the proposed payment and its impact on the institution's capital and earnings; and</P>
            <P>(5) The reasons why consent to the payment should be granted.</P>
            <P>(d) <E T="03">Additional information.</E> The FDIC may request additional information at any time during processing of the filing.</P>
            <P>(e) <E T="03">Processing.</E> The FDIC will provide the applicant with a subsequent written notification of the final action taken as soon as the decision is rendered.</P>
            <P>(f) <E T="03">Delegation of authority.</E> Authority is delegated to the Director and Deputy Director (DOS) and, where confirmed in writing by the Director, to an associate director and the appropriate regional director and deputy regional director, to approve or to deny filings to make:</P>
            <P>(1) Excess nondiscriminatory severance plan payments as provided by 12 CFR 359.1(f)(2)(v); and</P>
            <P>(2) Golden parachute payments permitted by 12 CFR 359.4.</P>
          </SECTION>
          <SECTION>
            <SECTNO>§ 303.245</SECTNO>
            <SUBJECT>Waiver of liability for commonly controlled depository institutions.</SUBJECT>
            <P>(a) <E T="03">Scope.</E> Section 5(e) of the FDI Act (12 U.S.C. 1815(e)) creates liability for commonly controlled insured depository institutions for losses incurred or anticipated to be incurred by the FDIC in connection with the default of a commonly controlled insured depository institution or any assistance provided by the FDIC to any commonly controlled insured depository institution in danger of default. In addition to certain statutory exceptions and exclusions contained in sections 5(e)(6), (7) and (8), the FDI Act also permits the FDIC, in its discretion, to exempt any insured depository institution from this liability if it determines that such exemption is in the best interests of the Bank Insurance Fund (BIF) or the Savings Association Insurance Fund (SAIF). This section describes procedures to request a conditional waiver of liability pursuant to section 5 of the FDI Act (12 U.S.C. 1815(e)(5)(A)).</P>
            <P>(b) <E T="03">Definition. Conditional waiver of liability</E> means an exemption from liability pursuant to section 5(e) of the FDI Act (12 U.S.C. 1815(e)) subject to terms and conditions.</P>
            <P>(c) <E T="03">Filing procedures.</E> Applicants shall submit a letter application to the appropriate regional director (DOS).</P>
            <P>(d) <E T="03">Content of filing.</E> The application shall contain the following information:</P>
            <P>(1) The basis for requesting a waiver;</P>
            <P>(2) The existence of any significant events (e.g., change in control, capital injection, etc.) that may have an impact upon the applicant and/or any potentially liable institution;</P>
            <P>(3) Current, and if applicable, pro forma financial information regarding the applicant and potentially liable institution(s); and</P>
            <P>(4) The benefits to the appropriate FDIC insurance fund resulting from the waiver and any related events.</P>
            <P>(e) <E T="03">Additional information.</E> The FDIC may request additional information at any time during the processing of the filing.</P>
            <P>(f) <E T="03">Processing.</E> The FDIC will provide the applicant with written notification of the final action as soon as the decision is rendered.</P>
            <P>(g) <E T="03">Failure to comply with terms of conditional waiver.</E> In the event a conditional waiver of liability is issued, failure to comply with the terms specified therein may result in the termination of the conditional waiver of liability. The FDIC reserves the right to revoke <PRTPAGE P="56"/>the conditional waiver of liability after giving the applicant written notice of such revocation and a reasonable opportunity to be heard on the matter pursuant to § 303.10.</P>
            <P>(h) <E T="03">Authority retained by FDIC Board of Directors.</E> The FDIC Board of Directors retains the authority to act on any application for waiver of liability of commonly controlled depository institutions.</P>
          </SECTION>
          <SECTION>
            <SECTNO>§ 303.246</SECTNO>
            <SUBJECT>Insurance fund conversions.</SUBJECT>
            <P>(a) <E T="03">Scope.</E> This section contains the procedures to be followed by an insured depository institution to seek the FDIC's prior approval to engage in an insurance fund conversion that involves the transfer of deposits between the SAIF and the BIF. Optional conversion transactions, commonly referred to as Oakar transactions, pursuant to section 5(d)(3) of the FDI Act (12 U.S.C. 1815(d)(3)), which do not involve the transfer of deposits between the SAIF and the BIF, are governed by the procedures set forth in subpart D (Merger Transactions) of this part.</P>
            <P>(b) <E T="03">Filing procedures.</E> Applicants shall submit a letter application to the appropriate FDIC regional director (DOS). The filing shall be signed by representatives of each institution participating in the transaction. Insurance fund conversions which are proposed in conjunction with a merger application filed by a state nonmember bank pursuant to section 18(c) of the FDI Act (12 U.S.C. 1828(c)) should be included with that filing.</P>
            <P>(c) <E T="03">Content of filing.</E> The application shall include the following information:</P>
            <P>(1) A description of the transaction;</P>
            <P>(2) The amount of deposits involved in the conversion transaction;</P>
            <P>(3) A pro forma balance sheet and income statement for each institution upon consummation of the transaction; and</P>
            <P>(4) Certification by each party to the transaction that applicable entrance and exit fees will be paid pursuant to part 312 of this chapter.</P>
            <P>(d) <E T="03">Additional information.</E> The FDIC may request additional information at any time during processing of the filing.</P>
            <P>(e) <E T="03">Processing.</E> The FDIC will provide the applicant with written notification of the final action as soon as the decision is rendered.</P>
            <P>(f) <E T="03">Delegation of authority.</E> Authority is delegated to the Director and Deputy Director (DOS) and, where confirmed in writing by the Director, to an associate director and the appropriate regional director and deputy regional director, to approve or deny filings for insurance fund conversions involving the transfers of deposits between the SAIF and the BIF.</P>
          </SECTION>
          <SECTION>
            <SECTNO>§ 303.247</SECTNO>
            <SUBJECT>Conversion with diminution of capital.</SUBJECT>
            <P>(a) <E T="03">Scope.</E> This section contains the procedures to be followed by an insured federal depository institution seeking the prior written consent of the FDIC pursuant to section 18(i)(2) of the FDI Act (12 U.S.C. 1828(i)(2)) to convert from an insured federal depository institution to an insured state nonmember bank (except a District bank) where the capital stock or surplus of the resulting bank will be less than the capital stock or surplus, respectively, of the converting institution at the time of the shareholders’ meeting approving such conversion.</P>
            <P>(b) <E T="03">Filing procedures.</E> Applicants shall submit a letter application to the appropriate regional director (DOS).</P>
            <P>(c) <E T="03">Content of filing.</E> The application shall contain the following information:</P>
            <P>(1) A description of the proposed transaction;</P>
            <P>(2) A schedule detailing the present and proposed capital structure; and</P>
            <P>(3) A copy of any documents submitted to the state chartering authority with respect to the charter conversion.</P>
            <P>(d) <E T="03">Additional information.</E> The FDIC may request additional information at any time during the processing.</P>
            <P>(e) <E T="03">Processing.</E> The FDIC will provide the applicant with written notification of the final action when the decision is rendered.</P>
            <P>(f) <E T="03">Delegation of authority.</E>—(1) <E T="03">Approvals.</E> Authority is delegated to the Director and Deputy Director (DOS) and, where confirmed in writing by the Director, to an associate director and the appropriate regional director and <PRTPAGE P="57"/>deputy regional director, to approve applications to convert with diminution of capital.</P>
            <P>(2) <E T="03">Denials.</E> Authority is delegated to the Director and Deputy Director (DOS) and, where confirmed in writing by the Director, to an associate director to deny applications to convert with diminution of capital.</P>
          </SECTION>
          <SECTION>
            <SECTNO>§ 303.248</SECTNO>
            <SUBJECT>Continue or resume status as an insured institution following termination under section 8 of the FDI Act.</SUBJECT>
            <P>(a) <E T="03">Scope.</E> This section relates to an application by a depository institution whose insured status has been terminated under section 8 of the FDI Act (12 U.S.C. 1818) for permission to continue or resume its status as an insured depository institution. This section covers institutions whose deposit insurance continues in effect for any purpose or for any length of time under the terms of an FDIC order terminating deposit insurance, but does not cover operating non-insured depository institutions which were previously insured by the FDIC, or any non-insured, non-operating depository institution whose charter has not been surrendered or revoked.</P>
            <P>(b) <E T="03">Filing procedures.</E> Applicants shall submit a letter application to the appropriate regional director (DOS).</P>
            <P>(c) <E T="03">Content of filing.</E> The filing shall contain the following information:</P>
            <P>(1) A complete statement of the action requested, all relevant facts, and the reason for such requested action; and</P>
            <P>(2) A certified copy of the resolution of the depository institution's board of directors authorizing submission of the filing.</P>
            <P>(d) <E T="03">Additional information.</E> The FDIC may request additional information at any time during processing of the filing.</P>
            <P>(e) <E T="03">Processing.</E> The FDIC will provide the applicant with written notification of the final action as soon as the decision is rendered.</P>
            <P>(f) <E T="03">Authority retained by FDIC Board of Directors.</E> The FDIC Board of Directors retains the authority to act on any application to continue or resume status as an insured institution following termination under section 8 of the FDI Act (12 U.S.C. 1818).</P>
          </SECTION>
          <SECTION>
            <SECTNO>§ 303.249</SECTNO>
            <SUBJECT>Truth in Lending Act—relief from reimbursement.</SUBJECT>
            <P>(a) <E T="03">Scope.</E> This section applies to requests for relief from reimbursement pursuant to the Truth in Lending Act (15 U.S.C. 1601 <E T="03">et seq.</E>) and Regulation Z (12 CFR part 226). Related delegations of authority are also set forth.</P>
            <P>(b) <E T="03">Procedures to be followed in filing initial requests for relief.</E> Requests for relief from reimbursement shall be filed with the appropriate regional director (DCA) within 60 days after receipt of the compliance report of examination containing the request to conduct a file search and make restitution to affected customers. The filing shall contain a complete and concise statement of the action requested, all relevant facts, the reasons and analysis relied upon as the basis for such requested action, and all supporting documentation.</P>
            <P>(c) <E T="03">Additional information.</E> The FDIC may request additional information at any time during processing of any such requests.</P>
            <P>(d) <E T="03">Processing.</E> The FDIC will acknowledge receipt of the request and provide the applicant with written notification of its determination within 60 days of its receipt of the request.</P>
            <P>(e) <E T="03">Delegation of authority</E>—(1) <E T="03">Denial of initial requests for relief.</E> Authority is delegated to the Director and Deputy Director (DCA), and where confirmed in writing by the Director, to an associate director, or to the appropriate regional director or deputy regional director, to deny initial requests for relief from the requirement for reimbursement under section 608(a)(2) of the Truth in Lending Simplification and Reform Act (15 U.S.C. 1607(e)(2)); provided, however, that a regional director or deputy regional director is not authorized to deny any request where the estimated amount of reimbursement is greater than $25,000.</P>
            <P>(2) <E T="03">Approval of initial requests for relief.</E> Authority is delegated to the Director and Deputy Director (DCA), and where confirmed in writing by the director, to an associate director, to approve requests for relief from the requirement for reimbursement under section <PRTPAGE P="58"/>608(a)(2) of the Truth in Lending Simplification and Reform Act (15 U.S.C. 1607(a)(2)).</P>
            <P>(f) <E T="03">Legal concurrence.</E> The authority delegated under this section shall be exercised only upon concurrent certification by the General Counsel or, where confirmed in writing by the General Counsel, by his or her designee, or, in cases where a regional director or deputy regional director denies requests for relief, by the appropriate regional counsel, that the action taken is not inconsistent with the Truth in Lending Simplification and Reform Act.</P>
            <P>(g) <E T="03">Procedures to be followed in filing requests for reconsideration.</E> Within 15 days of receipt of written notice that its request for relief has been denied, the requestor may petition the appropriate regional director (DCA) for reconsideration of such request in accordance with the procedures set forth in § 303.11(f).</P>
          </SECTION>
          <SECTION>
            <SECTNO>§ 303.250</SECTNO>
            <SUBJECT>Management official interlocks.</SUBJECT>
            <P>(a) <E T="03">Scope.</E> This section contains the procedures to be followed by an insured state nonmember bank to seek the approval of FDIC to establish an interlock pursuant to the Depository Institutions Management Interlocks Act (12 U.S.C. 3207), section 13 of the FDI Act (12 U.S.C. 1823(k)) and part 348 of this chapter.</P>
            <P>(b) <E T="03">Filing procedures.</E> Applicants shall submit a letter application to the appropriate regional director (DOS).</P>
            <P>(c) <E T="03">Content of filing.</E> The application shall contain the following:</P>
            <P>(1) A description of the proposed interlock;</P>
            <P>(2) A statement of reason as to why the interlock will not result in a monopoly or a substantial lessening of competition; and</P>
            <P>(3) If the applicant is seeking an exemption set forth in § 348.5 or § 348.6 of this chapter, a description of the particular exemption which is being requested and a statement of reasons as to why the exemption is applicable.</P>
            <P>(d) <E T="03">Additional information.</E> The FDIC may request additional information at any time during processing of the filing.</P>
            <P>(e) <E T="03">Processing.</E> The FDIC will provide the applicant with written notification of the final action when the decision is rendered.</P>
            <P>(f) <E T="03">Delegation of authority.</E> Authority is delegated to the Director and Deputy Director (DOS), and where confirmed in writing by the Director, to an associate director and the appropriate regional director, deputy regional director, to approve or deny a request to establish a management official interlock pursuant to § 348.5 or § 348.6 of this chapter or section 205(8) of the Depository Institutions Management Interlocks Act (12 U.S.C. 3207, 12 U.S.C. 1823(k)).</P>
          </SECTION>
          <SECTION>
            <SECTNO>§ 303.251</SECTNO>
            <SUBJECT>Modification of conditions.</SUBJECT>
            <P>(a) <E T="03">Scope.</E> This section contains the procedures to be followed by an insured depository institution to seek the prior consent of the FDIC to modify the requirement of a prior approval of a filing issued by the FDIC.</P>
            <P>(b) <E T="03">Filing procedures.</E> Applicants should submit a letter application to the appropriate FDIC regional director (DOS).</P>
            <P>(c) <E T="03">Content of filing.</E> The application should contain the following information:</P>
            <P>(1) A description of the original approved application;</P>
            <P>(2) A description of the modification requested; and</P>
            <P>(3) The reason for the request.</P>
            <P>(d) <E T="03">Additional information.</E> The FDIC may request additional information at any time during processing of the filing.</P>
            <P>(e) <E T="03">Processing.</E> The FDIC will provide the applicant with a written notification of the final action as soon as the decision is rendered.</P>
            <P>(f) <E T="03">Delegation of authority.</E> Authority is delegated to the Director and Deputy Director (DOS) and, where confirmed in writing by the Director, to an associate director and the appropriate regional director and deputy regional director, to approve or deny requests to modify the requirements of a prior approval of a filing issued by the FDIC subject to the following criteria;</P>

            <P>(1) The Legal Division is consulted to the same extent as was required for approval of the original filing; and<PRTPAGE P="59"/>
            </P>
            <P>(2) The approving delegate had the authority to approve the original filing.</P>
          </SECTION>
          <SECTION>
            <SECTNO>§ 303.252</SECTNO>
            <SUBJECT>Extension of time.</SUBJECT>
            <P>(a) <E T="03">Scope.</E> This section contains the procedures to be followed by an insured depository institution to seek the prior consent of the FDIC for additional time to fulfill a condition required in an approval of a filing issued by the FDIC or to consummate a transaction which was the subject of an approval by the FDIC.</P>
            <P>(b) <E T="03">Filing procedures.</E> Applicants shall submit a letter application to the appropriate regional director (DOS).</P>
            <P>(c) <E T="03">Content of filing.</E> The application shall contain the following information:</P>
            <P>(1) A description of the original approved application;</P>
            <P>(2) Identification of the original time limitation;</P>
            <P>(3) The additional time period requested; and</P>
            <P>(4) The reason for the request.</P>
            <P>(d) <E T="03">Additional information.</E> The FDIC may request additional information at any time during processing of the filing.</P>
            <P>(e) <E T="03">Processing.</E> The FDIC will provide the applicant with written notification of the final action as soon as the decision is rendered.</P>
            <P>(f) <E T="03">Delegation of authority.</E> (1) Except as provided in paragraph (f)(2) of this section, authority is delegated to the Director and Deputy Director (DOS) and, where confirmed in writing by the Director, to an associate director and the appropriate regional director and deputy regional director, to approve or deny requests for extensions of time within which to perform acts or fulfill conditions required by a prior FDIC action on a filing of the insured depository institution.</P>
            <P>(2) <E T="03">Limits on exercise of delegated authority.</E> (i) An extension of time may not exceed one year; however, more than one extension may be granted regarding a particular filing.</P>
            <P>(ii) Notwithstanding the delegations in paragraph (f)(1) of this section, no delegate shall have the authority to deny an extension of time request unless that delegate has the authority under this part to deny the original filing upon which the extension of time is predicated.</P>
          </SECTION>
        </SUBPART>
        <SUBPART>
          <HD SOURCE="HED">Subpart N—Enforcement Delegations</HD>
          <SECTION>
            <SECTNO>§ 303.260</SECTNO>
            <SUBJECT>Scope.</SUBJECT>
            <P>This subpart contains delegations of authority relating to the initiation, prosecution, and settlement of administrative enforcement actions under the FDI Act and other laws and regulations enforced by the FDIC, including investigations and subpoenas.</P>
          </SECTION>
          <SECTION>
            <SECTNO>§ 303.261</SECTNO>
            <SUBJECT>Issuance of notification to primary regulator under section 8(a) of the FDI Act (12 U.S.C. 1818(a)).</SUBJECT>
            <P>(a) <E T="03">Book capital less than 2 percent.</E> Authority is delegated to the Director and Deputy Director (DOS), and where confirmed in writing by the Director, to an associate director and to the appropriate regional director and deputy regional director, to issue notifications to primary regulator when the respondent depository institution's book capital is less than 2 percent of total assets; provided that authority may not be delegated to the regional director or deputy regional director whenever the respondent depository institution has issued any mandatory convertible debt or any form of Tier 2 capital (such as limited life preferred stock, subordinated notes and debentures).</P>
            <P>(b) <E T="03">Tier 1 capital less than 2 percent.</E> Authority is delegated to the Director and Deputy Director (DOS) and, where confirmed in writing by the Director, to an associate director, to issue notifications to primary regulator when the respondent depository institution's adjusted Tier 1 capital is less than 2 percent of adjusted part 325 total assets as defined in § 303.2(b).</P>
            <P>(c) <E T="03">Legal concurrence.</E> The authority delegated under this section shall be exercised only upon concurrent certification by the General Counsel or, where confirmed in writing by the General Counsel, by his or her designee, or, in cases where a regional director or deputy regional director issues notifications to primary regulator, by the appropriate regional counsel, that the allegations contained in the findings of violations of law or regulation and/or <PRTPAGE P="60"/>unsafe or unsound practices and/or unsafe or unsound condition, if proven, constitute a basis for the issuance of a notification to primary regulator pursuant to section 8(a) of the FDI Act (12 U.S.C. 1818(a)).</P>
          </SECTION>
          <SECTION>
            <SECTNO>§ 303.262</SECTNO>
            <SUBJECT>Issuance of notice of intention to terminate insured status under section 8(a) of the FDI Act (12 U.S.C. 1818(a)).</SUBJECT>
            <P>(a) <E T="03">General.</E> Authority is delegated to the Director and Deputy Director (DOS), and where confirmed in writing by the Director, to an associate director, to issue notices of intent to terminate insured status when the respondent depository institution has failed to correct any violations of law or regulation and/or unsafe or unsound practices and/or unsafe or unsound condition as specified in the relevant notification to primary regulator.</P>
            <P>(b) <E T="03">Legal concurrence.</E> The authority delegated under this section shall be exercised only upon concurrent certification by the General Counsel or, where confirmed in writing by the General Counsel, by his or her designee, that the allegations contained in the findings in the notice of intention to terminate insured status of violations of law or regulation and/or unsafe or unsound practices and/or unsafe or unsound condition, if proven, constitute a basis for termination of the insured status of the respondent depository institution pursuant to section 8(a) of the FDI Act (12 U.S.C. 1818(a)).</P>
          </SECTION>
          <SECTION>
            <SECTNO>§ 303.263</SECTNO>
            <SUBJECT>Cease-and-desist actions under section 8(b) of the FDI Act (12 U.S.C. 1818(b)).</SUBJECT>
            <P>(a) <E T="03">General.</E> Authority is delegated to the Director and Deputy Director (DOS), to the Director and Deputy Director (DCA), and where confirmed in writing by the appropriate Director, to an associate director and to the appropriate regional director and deputy regional director to issue:</P>
            <P>(1) Notices of charges; and</P>
            <P>(2) Cease-and-desist orders (with or without a prior notice of charges) where the respondent depository institution or individual respondent consents to the issuance of the cease-and-desist order prior to the filing by an administrative law judge of proposed findings of fact, conclusions of law and recommended decision with the Executive Secretary of the FDIC.</P>
            <P>(b) <E T="03">Joint DOS-DCA action.</E> The Director (DOS) and the Director (DCA) may issue a joint notice of charges or cease-and-desist order under this section, where such notice or order addresses both safety and soundness and consumer compliance matters. A joint notice or order will require the signatures of both Directors or their Deputy Directors or associate directors, appropriate regional directors or deputy regional directors.</P>
            <P>(c) <E T="03">Legal concurrence.</E> The authority delegated under this section shall be exercised only upon concurrent certification by the General Counsel or, where confirmed in writing by the General Counsel, by his or her designee, or, in cases where a regional director or deputy regional director issues the notice of charges or the stipulated cease-and-desist order, by the appropriate regional counsel, that the allegations contained in the notice of charges, if proven, constitute a basis for the issuance of a section 8(b) order, or that the stipulated cease-and-desist order is authorized under section 8(b) of the FDI Act, and, upon its effective date, shall be a cease-and-desist order which has become final for purposes of enforcement pursuant to the FDI Act.</P>
          </SECTION>
          <SECTION>
            <SECTNO>§ 303.264</SECTNO>
            <SUBJECT>Temporary cease-and-desist orders under section 8(c) of the FDI Act (12 U.S.C. 1818(c)).</SUBJECT>
            <P>(a) <E T="03">General.</E> Authority is delegated to the Director and Deputy Director (DOS) and to the Director and Deputy Director (DCA), and where confirmed in writing by the appropriate Director, to an associate director, to issue temporary cease-and-desist orders.</P>
            <P>(b) <E T="03">Joint DOS-DCA action.</E> The Director (DOS) and the Director (DCA) may issue a joint temporary cease-and-desist order where such order addresses both safety and soundness and consumer compliance matters. A joint notice or order will require the signatures of both Directors or their Deputy Directors or associate directors.</P>
            <P>(c) <E T="03">Legal concurrence.</E> The authority delegated under this section shall be exercised only upon concurrent certification by the General Counsel or, <PRTPAGE P="61"/>where confirmed in writing by the General Counsel, by his or her designee, that the action is not inconsistent with section 8(c) of the FDI Act (12 U.S.C. 1818(c)) and the temporary cease-and-desist order is enforceable in a United States District Court.</P>
          </SECTION>
          <SECTION>
            <SECTNO>§ 303.265</SECTNO>
            <SUBJECT>Removal and prohibition actions under section 8(e) of the FDI Act (12 U.S.C. 1818(e)).</SUBJECT>
            <P>(a) <E T="03">General.</E> Authority is delegated to the Director and Deputy Director (DOS) or the Director and Deputy Director (DCA) and, where confirmed in writing by the appropriate Director, to an associate director, to issue:</P>
            <P>(1) Notices of intention to remove an institution-affiliated party from office or to prohibit an institution-affiliated party from further participation in the conduct of the affairs of an insured depository institution pursuant to sections 8(e) (1) and (2) of the FDI Act (12 U.S.C. 1818(e) (1) and (2)), and temporary orders of suspension pursuant to section 8(e)(3) of the FDI Act (12 U.S.C. 1818(e)(3)); and</P>
            <P>(2) Orders of removal, suspension or prohibition from participation in the conduct of the affairs of an insured depository institution where the institution-affiliated party consents to the issuance of such orders prior to the filing by an administrative law judge of proposed findings of fact, conclusions of law and a recommended decision with the Executive Secretary of the FDIC.</P>
            <P>(b) <E T="03">Joint DOS-DCA action.</E> The Director (DOS) and the Director (DCA) may issue joint notices and orders pursuant to this section where such notice or order addresses both safety and soundness and consumer compliance matters. A joint notice or order will require the signatures of both directors or their deputy directors or associate directors.</P>
            <P>(c) <E T="03">Legal concurrence.</E> The authority delegated under this section shall be exercised only upon concurrent certification by the General Counsel or, where confirmed in writing by the General Counsel, by his or her designee, that the allegations contained in the notice of intent, if proven, constitute a basis for the issuance of a notice of intent pursuant to section 8(e) of the FDI Act, or that the stipulated section 8(e) order is not inconsistent with section 8(e) of the FDI Act, and, upon issuance, shall be an order which has become final for purposes of enforcement pursuant to the FDI Act.</P>
          </SECTION>
          <SECTION>
            <SECTNO>§ 303.266</SECTNO>
            <SUBJECT>Suspension and removal action under section 8(g) of the FDI Act (12 U.S.C. 1818(g)).</SUBJECT>
            <P>(a) <E T="03">General.</E> Authority is delegated to the Director and Deputy Director (DOS), to the Director and Deputy Director (DCA), and where confirmed in writing by the appropriate Director, to an associate director, to issue orders of suspension or prohibition to an institution-affiliated party who is charged in any information, indictment, or complaint, or who is convicted of or enters a pretrial diversion or similar program, as to any criminal offense cited in or covered by section 8(g) of the FDI Act, when such institution-affiliated party consents to the suspension or prohibition.</P>
            <P>(b) <E T="03">Delegation of authority where suspension or prohibition mandated.</E> Authority is delegated to the Director and Deputy Director (DOS), to the Director and Deputy Director (DCA), and where confirmed in writing by the appropriate Director, to an associate director, to issue orders of suspension and prohibition to any institution-affiliated party who is charged in any information, indictment, or complaint, or who is convicted or enters a pretrial diversion or similar program, as to any criminal offense involving mandatory suspension or prohibition under sections 8(g)(1) (A)(ii) and (C)(ii) of the FDI Act (12 U.S.C. 1818(g)(1) (A)(ii) and (C)(ii)), whether or not such institution-affiliated party consents to the suspension or prohibition.</P>
            <P>(c) <E T="03">Joint DOS-DCA action.</E> The Director (DOS) and the Director (DCA) may issue joint orders pursuant to this section where such order addresses both safety and soundness and consumer compliance matters. A joint order will require the signatures of both Directors or their Deputy Directors or associate directors.</P>
            <P>(d) <E T="03">Legal concurrence.</E> The authority delegated under this section shall be exercised only upon concurrent certification by the General Counsel or, <PRTPAGE P="62"/>where confirmed in writing by the General Counsel, by his or her designee, that the action taken is not inconsistent with section 8(g) of the FDI Act (12 U.S.C. 1818(g)) and the order is enforceable in a United States District Court pursuant to sections 8(i) and 8(j) of the FDI Act (12 U.S.C. 1818 (i) and (j)).</P>
          </SECTION>
          <SECTION>
            <SECTNO>§ 303.267</SECTNO>
            <SUBJECT>Termination of insured status under section 8(p) of the FDI Act (12 U.S.C. 1818(p)).</SUBJECT>
            <P>(a) <E T="03">General.</E> Authority is delegated to the Executive Secretary to issue consent orders terminating the insured status of insured depository institutions that have ceased to engage in the business of receiving deposits other than trust funds pursuant to section 8(p) of the FDI Act (12 U.S.C. 1818(p)).</P>
            <P>(b) <E T="03">DOS and legal concurrence.</E> The authority delegated under this section shall be exercised only upon the recommendation and concurrence of the Director or Deputy Director (DOS) and, when confirmed in writing by the Director, an associate director, and upon the certification of the General Counsel and, where confirmed in writing by the General Counsel, by his or her designee, that the action taken is not inconsistent with section 8(p) of the FDI Act (12 U.S.C. 1818(p)).</P>
          </SECTION>
          <SECTION>
            <SECTNO>§ 303.268</SECTNO>
            <SUBJECT>Termination of insured status under section 8(q) of the FDI Act (12 U.S.C. 1818(q)).</SUBJECT>
            <P>(a) <E T="03">General.</E> Authority is delegated to the Executive Secretary to issue consent orders terminating the insured status of an insured depository institution where the liabilities of the insured institution for deposits shall have been assumed by another insured depository institution or depository institutions, whether by way of merger, consolidation, or other statutory assumption, or pursuant to contract, pursuant to section 8(q) of the FDI Act (12 U.S.C. 1818(q)).</P>
            <P>(b) <E T="03">DOS and legal concurrence.</E> The authority delegated under this section shall be exercised only upon the recommendation and concurrence of the Director or Deputy Director (DOS) or, when confirmed in writing by the Director, an associate director, and upon the certification of the General Counsel or, where confirmed in writing by the General Counsel, by his or her designee, that the action taken is not inconsistent with section 8(q) of the FDI Act (12 U.S.C. 1818(q)).</P>
          </SECTION>
          <SECTION>
            <SECTNO>§ 303.269</SECTNO>
            <SUBJECT>Civil money penalties.</SUBJECT>
            <P>(a) <E T="03">General.</E> Authority is delegated to the Director and Deputy Director (DOS), to the Director and Deputy Director (DCA), and where confirmed in writing by the appropriate Director, to an associate director, to issue:</P>
            <P>(1) Notice of assessment of civil money penalties; and</P>
            <P>(2) Final orders to pay (with or without a prior notice of assessment of civil money penalty) where the insured depository institution or institution-affiliated party consents to the issuance of the order to pay and waives, as applicable, receipt of a notice of assessment of civil money penalty and the right to an administrative hearing.</P>
            <P>(b) <E T="03">Legal concurrence.</E> The authority delegated under paragraph (a) of this section shall be exercised only upon concurrent certification by the General Counsel or, where confirmed in writing by the General Counsel, by his or her designee, that the allegations contained in the notice of assessment, if proven, constitute a basis for assessment of civil money penalties, or that the stipulated final order to pay is authorized under the FDI Act, and upon its effective date, shall be an order to pay which has become final for purposes of enforcement pursuant to the FDI Act.</P>
            <P>(c) <E T="03">Joint DOS-DCA action.</E> The Director (DOS) and the Director (DCA) may issue joint notices pursuant to paragraph (a) of this section where such notice addresses both safety and soundness and consumer compliance matters. A joint notice will require the signatures of both Directors or their Deputy Directors or associate directors.</P>
            <P>(d) <E T="03">Prosecution of civil money penalty actions and collection of civil money penalties.</E> Authority is delegated to the General Counsel or, where confirmed in writing, to his or her designee, to prosecute administrative civil money penalty actions and to collect civil money penalties under this section.</P>
          </SECTION>
          <SECTION>
            <PRTPAGE P="63"/>
            <SECTNO>§ 303.270</SECTNO>
            <SUBJECT>Notices of assessment under section 5(e) of the FDI Act (12 U.S.C. 1815(e)).</SUBJECT>
            <P>(a) <E T="03">General.</E> Authority is delegated to the Director and Deputy Director (DOS), and where confirmed in writing by the Director, to an associate director, to issue notices of assessment of liability to commonly controlled insured depository institutions for the estimated amount of loss to the deposit insurance funds.</P>
            <P>(b) <E T="03">Legal concurrence.</E> The authority delegated under this section shall be exercised only upon concurrent certification by the General Counsel or, where confirmed in writing by the General Counsel, by his or her designee, that the action taken is not inconsistent with section 5(e) of the FDI Act (12 U.S.C. 1815(e)).</P>
          </SECTION>
          <SECTION>
            <SECTNO>§ 303.271</SECTNO>
            <SUBJECT>Prompt corrective action directives and capital plans under section 38 of the FDI Act (12 U.S.C. 1831o) and part 325 of this chapter.</SUBJECT>
            <P>(a) <E T="03">General—notices, directives and orders.</E> Authority is delegated to the Director and Deputy Director (DOS), and where confirmed in writing by the Director, to an associate director, and to the appropriate regional director and deputy regional director, to accept, reject, require new or revised capital restoration plans, or make any other determinations with respect to the implementation of capital restoration plans and, in accordance with subpart Q of part 308 of this chapter, to issue:</P>
            <P>(1) Notices of intent to issue capital directives;</P>
            <P>(2) Directives to insured state nonmember banks that fail to maintain capital in accordance with the requirements contained in part 325 of this chapter;</P>
            <P>(3) Notices of intent to issue prompt corrective action directives, except directives issued pursuant to section 38(f)(2)(F)(ii) of the FDI Act (12 U.S.C. 1831(f)(2)(F)(ii));</P>

            <P>(4) Directives to insured depository institutions pursuant to section 38 of the FDI Act (12 U.S.C. 1831<E T="03">o</E>), with or without the consent of the respondent bank to the issuance of the directive, except directives issued pursuant to section 38(f)(2)(F)(ii) of the FDI Act (12 U.S.C. 1831<E T="03">o</E>(f)(2)(F)(ii));</P>

            <P>(5) Directives to insured depository institutions requiring immediate action or imposing proscriptions pursuant to section 38 of the FDI Act (12 U.S.C. 1831<E T="03">o</E>) and part 325 of this chapter, and in accordance with the requirements contained in § 308.201(a)(2) of this chapter;</P>
            <P>(6) Notices of intent to reclassify insured banks pursuant to §§ 325.103(d) and 308.202 of this chapter;</P>
            <P>(7) Directives to reclassify insured banks pursuant to §§ 325.103(d) and 308.202 of this chapter with the consent of the respondent bank to the issuance of the directive; and</P>
            <P>(8) Orders on request for informal hearings to reconsider reclassifications and designate the presiding officer at the hearing pursuant to § 308.202 of this chapter.</P>
            <P>(b) <E T="03">Notices—dismissal of director and officer.</E> Authority is delegated to the Director and Deputy Director (DOS) and, where confirmed in writing by the Director, to an associate director, to:</P>

            <P>(1) Issue notices of intent to issue a prompt corrective action directive ordering the dismissal from office of a director or senior executive officer pursuant to section 38(f)(2)(F)(ii) of the FDI Act (12 U.S.C. 1831<E T="03">o</E>(f)(2)(F)(ii)) and in accordance with the requirements contained in § 308.203 of this chapter;</P>

            <P>(2) Issue directives ordering the dismissal from office of a director or senior executive officer pursuant to section 38(f)(2)(F)(ii) of the FDI Act (12 U.S.C. 1831<E T="03">o</E>(f)(2)(F)(ii)); and</P>

            <P>(3) Issue orders of dismissal from office of a director or senior executive officer pursuant to section 38(f)(2)(F)(ii) of the FDI Act (12 U.S.C. 1831<E T="03">o</E>(f)(2)(F)(ii)) where the individual consents to the issuance of such order prior to the filing of a recommendation by the presiding officer with the FDIC.</P>
            <P>(c) <E T="03">Reclassification of institution other than on basis of capital.</E> Authority is delegated to the Director and Deputy Director (DOS), and where confirmed in writing by the Director, to an associate director, to:</P>

            <P>(1) Act on recommended decisions of presiding officers pursuant to a request for reconsideration of a reclassification in accordance with the requirements contained in § 308.202 of this chapter; and<PRTPAGE P="64"/>
            </P>
            <P>(2) Act on requests for rescission of a reclassification.</P>
            <P>(d) <E T="03">Appeals of immediately effective PCA directives.</E> Authority is delegated to the Director and Deputy Director (DOS), and where confirmed in writing by the Director, to an associate director, to act on appeals from immediately effective directives issued pursuant to section 38 of the FDI Act (12 U.S.C. 1831<E T="03">o</E>) and § 308.201 of this chapter.</P>
            <P>(e) <E T="03">Informal hearings.</E> Authority is delegated to the Executive Secretary of the FDIC to issue orders for informal hearings and designate presiding officers on directives issued pursuant to section 38(f)(2)(F)(ii) of the FDI Act (12 U.S.C. 1831<E T="03">o</E>(f)(2)(F)(ii)).</P>
            <P>(f) <E T="03">Legal concurrence.</E> The authority delegated under this section shall be exercised only upon the concurrent certification by the General Counsel or, where confirmed in writing by the General Counsel, by his or her designee, or, in cases where a regional director or deputy regional director issues a notice, directive, or order, by the appropriate regional counsel, that the action taken is not inconsistent with section 38 of the FDI Act (12 U.S.C. 1831<E T="03">o</E>) and part 325 of this chapter.</P>
          </SECTION>
          <SECTION>
            <SECTNO>§ 303.272</SECTNO>
            <SUBJECT>Investigations under section 10(c) of the FDI Act (12 U.S.C. 1820(c)).</SUBJECT>
            <P>(a) <E T="03">Authority of division directors.</E> Authority is delegated to the Director and Deputy Director (DOS), to the Director and Deputy Director (DCA), to the Director and Deputy Director of the Division of Resolutions and Receiverships, and where confirmed in writing by the appropriate Director, to an associate director, and to the appropriate regional director and deputy regional director, to issue an order of investigation pursuant to section 10(c) of the FDI Act (12 U.S.C. 1820(c)) and subpart K of part 308 of this chapter.</P>
            <P>(b) <E T="03">Authority of General Counsel.</E> Authority is delegated to the General Counsel, and where confirmed in writing by the General Counsel, to his or her designee, to issue an order of investigation pursuant to sections 8 through 13 of the FDI Act (12 U.S.C. 1818-1823), as appropriate, and subpart K of part 308 of this chapter.</P>
            <P>(c) <E T="03">Concurrence in certain situations.</E> In issuing an order of investigation that pertains to an open insured depository institution or an institution making application to become an insured depository institution, or a post-conservatorship or post-receivership order of investigation, the authority delegated under this section shall be exercised only upon the concurrent execution of the order of investigation by the Director or Deputy Director (DOS), or the Director or Deputy Director (DCA), or the Director or Deputy Director of the Division of Resolutions and Receiverships, their respective associate directors, and the General Counsel or his or her designee. In the case of a joint order of investigation, such authority shall be exercised only upon the concurrent execution of the order of investigation by both Directors or Deputy Directors, or their associate directors, and upon the certification and execution of the order by the General Counsel or his or her designee.</P>
          </SECTION>
          <SECTION>
            <SECTNO>§ 303.273</SECTNO>
            <SUBJECT>Unilateral settlement offers.</SUBJECT>
            <P>(a) <E T="03">General.</E> Authority is delegated to the Director and Deputy Director (DOS), to the Director and Deputy Director (DCA), and where confirmed in writing by the appropriate Director, to an associate director, to accept, deny or enter into negotiations for or regarding settlement and settlement offers with insured depository institutions, or with an institution-affiliated party, pertaining to or arising in connection with a proceeding under part 308 of this chapter. In cases where a proceeding under part 308 of this chapter was issued jointly by DOS and DCA, both Directors or Deputy Directors, or their associate directors, must agree to accept, deny or enter into negotiations regarding settlement and settlement offers with insured depository institutions or with an institution-affiliated party.</P>
            <P>(b) <E T="03">Legal concurrence.</E> The authority delegated under this section shall be exercised only upon concurrent certification by the General Counsel or, where confirmed in writing by the General Counsel, by his or her designee, that the action taken is not inconsistent with the FDI Act.</P>
          </SECTION>
          <SECTION>
            <PRTPAGE P="65"/>
            <SECTNO>§ 303.274</SECTNO>
            <SUBJECT>Acceptance of written agreements.</SUBJECT>
            <P>(a) <E T="03">Written agreements under section 8(a) of the FDI Act.</E> Authority is delegated to the Director and Deputy Director (DOS), and where confirmed in writing by the Director, to an associate director, to accept or enter into any written agreements with insured depository institutions, or any institution-affiliated party pertaining to any matter which may be addressed by the FDIC pursuant to section 8(a) of the FDI Act (12 U.S.C. 1818(a)).</P>
            <P>(b) <E T="03">Written agreements in lieu of cease-and-desist orders.</E> Authority is delegated to the Director and Deputy Director (DOS) and to the Director and Deputy Director (DCA), and where confirmed in writing by the appropriate Director, to an associate director, to accept or enter into any written agreements with insured depository institutions, or any institution-affiliated party pertaining to any safety and soundness or consumer compliance matter which may be addressed by the FDIC pursuant to section 8(b) of the FDI Act (12 U.S.C. 1818(b)) or any other provision of the FDI Act which addresses safety and soundness or consumer compliance matters. In cases which would address both safety and soundness and consumer compliance matters, the Directors, or their designees, may accept or enter into joint written agreements with insured depository institutions or any institution-affiliated party.</P>
            <P>(c) <E T="03">Written agreements as condition attendant to FDIC filings contained in this part.</E> Authority is delegated to the Director and Deputy Director (DOS), and to the Director and Deputy Director (DCA), as appropriate, and, where confirmed in writing by the appropriate Director, to an associate director, and to the appropriate regional director and deputy regional director, to accept or enter into any written agreements with any insured depository institution, any institution-affiliated party or any other petitioner which contains conditions precedent to the FDIC's non-objection to a filing pursuant to this part. A written agreement under this paragraph (c) shall not affect an institution's rating for prompt corrective action purposes, unless the written agreement expressly provides to the contrary.</P>
            <P>(d) <E T="03">Legal concurrence.</E> The authority delegated under this section shall be exercised only upon concurrent certification by the General Counsel or, where confirmed in writing by the General Counsel, by his or her designee, that the action taken is not inconsistent with the FDI Act.</P>
          </SECTION>
          <SECTION>
            <SECTNO>§ 303.275</SECTNO>
            <SUBJECT>Modifications and terminations of enforcement actions and orders.</SUBJECT>
            <P>(a) <E T="03">Termination of section 8(a) (12 U.S.C. 1818(a)) orders and agreements.</E> Authority is delegated to the Director and Deputy Director (DOS) and, where confirmed in writing by the Director, to an associate director, and to the appropriate regional director and deputy regional director, to terminate outstanding section 8(a) orders and agreements and to terminate actions and agreements which are pending pursuant to section 8(a) of the FDI Act when the depository institution is closed by a federal or state authority or merges into another institution.</P>
            <P>(b) <E T="03">Termination of section 8(a) (12 U.S.C. 1818(a)) notification to primary regulator issued by Board of Directors.</E> Authority is delegated to the Director and Deputy Director (DOS), and where confirmed in writing by the Director, to an associate director, and to the appropriate regional director and deputy regional director, to terminate notifications to primary regulator issued by the Board of Directors pursuant to section 8(a) of the FDI Act where the respondent depository institution is in material compliance with such notification or for good cause shown.</P>
            <P>(c) <E T="03">Termination of section 8(a) (12 U.S.C. 1818(a)) notice of intent to terminate insured status.</E> In cases where the Board of Directors has issued a notice of intent to terminate insured status pursuant to section 8(a) of the FDI Act, authority is delegated to the Director and Deputy Director (DOS) and, where confirmed in writing by the Director, to an associate director, and to the appropriate regional director and deputy regional director, to terminate the actions pending pursuant to such notice of intent to terminate insured status <PRTPAGE P="66"/>where the respondent depository institution is in material compliance with the applicable notification to primary regulator or for good cause shown.</P>
            <P>(d) <E T="03">Sections 8(b) and 8(c)(12 U.S.C. 1818(b) and (c)) actions and orders.</E> (1) Authority is delegated to the Director and Deputy Director (DOS) and to the Director and Deputy Director (DCA), as appropriate and, where confirmed in writing by the appropriate Director, to an associate director, and to the appropriate regional director and deputy regional director, to terminate outstanding section 8(b) and section 8(c) orders and agreements and to terminate actions and agreements which are pending pursuant to sections 8(b) and 8(c) of the FDI Act when the depository institution is closed by a federal or state authority or merges into another institution. In cases where a joint order was issued by DOS and DCA, both Directors, or their Deputy Directors or associate directors, or the appropriate regional directors or deputy regional directors, must execute the order of termination.</P>
            <P>(2) Authority is delegated to the Director and Deputy Director (DOS) and to the Director and Deputy Director (DCA), as appropriate, and where confirmed in writing by the appropriate Director, to an associate director, and to the appropriate regional director and deputy regional director, to terminate outstanding section 8(b) orders issued by the Board of Directors either where material compliance with the section 8(b) order has been achieved by the respondent depository institution or individual respondent or for good cause shown. In cases where an order issued by the Board of Directors addresses both safety and soundness and consumer compliance matters, both Directors or Deputy Director, or the designees of the Directors, must execute the order of termination.</P>
            <P>(e) <E T="03">Modification and termination of section 8(e) (12 U.S.C. 1818(e)) orders and actions.</E> Authority is delegated to the Director and Deputy Director (DOS) and the Director and Deputy Director (DCA), as appropriate, and where confirmed in writing by the appropriate Director, to an associate director, to modify or terminate outstanding section 8(e) orders and pending actions and to grant consent under section 8(e)(7)(B) of the Act (12 U.S.C. 1818(e)(7)(B)) for the modification or termination of an outstanding section 8(e) order issued by another Federal financial institution regulatory agency where:</P>
            <P>(1) The respondent has demonstrated his or her fitness to participate in any manner in the conduct of the affairs of an insured depository institution; and</P>
            <P>(2) The respondent has shown that his or her participation would not pose a risk to the institution's safety and soundness; and</P>
            <P>(3) The respondent has proven that his or her participation would not erode public confidence in the institution.</P>
            <P>(f) <E T="03">Modification and termination of section 8(g) (12 U.S.C. 1818(g)) orders and actions.</E> Pursuant to section 8(j) of the FDI Act (12 U.S.C. 1818(j)), authority is delegated to the Director and Deputy Director (DOS) and the Director and Deputy Director (DCA), as appropriate, and where confirmed in writing by the appropriate Director, to an associate director, to approve requests for modifications or terminations of section 8(g) orders issued by either the Board of Directors or under delegated authority.</P>
            <P>(g) <E T="03">Other matters not specifically addressed.</E> For all outstanding or pending notices, actions, orders, directives and agreements not specifically addressed in this subpart, the delegations of authority contained in this subpart shall include the authority to modify or terminate any outstanding or pending notice, order, directive or agreement issued pursuant to delegated authority, as may be appropriate.</P>
            <P>(h) <E T="03">Termination of pending actions—general.</E> Any pending enforcement action may be dismissed or terminated by the Director or Deputy Director of DOS or DCA, as appropriate, at any time prior to the commencement of a hearing on the merits by an administrative law judge. Once a hearing on the merits has been convened by an administrative law judge, a pending enforcement action may be dismissed or terminated by stipulation or consent of the affected parties no later than 14 days after the administrative law judge has closed the record of the hearing. <PRTPAGE P="67"/>Only the FDIC Board of Directors may terminate or dismiss an enforcement action more than 14 days after the record has been closed by an administrative law judge.</P>
            <P>(i) <E T="03">Legal concurrence.</E> Any dismissals, modifications or terminations pursuant to this section shall be exercised only upon concurrent certification by the General Counsel or, where confirmed in writing by the General Counsel, by his or her designee, or, in cases where a regional director or deputy regional director acts under delegated authority, by the appropriate regional counsel, that the action taken is not inconsistent with the FDI Act.</P>
          </SECTION>
          <SECTION>
            <SECTNO>§ 303.276</SECTNO>
            <SUBJECT>Enforcement of outstanding enforcement orders.</SUBJECT>

            <P>After consultation with the Director (DOS) or the Director (DCA), or a Deputy Director or an associate director, or the appropriate regional director or deputy regional director, as may be appropriate, the General Counsel or designee is authorized to initiate and prosecute any action to enforce any effective and outstanding order or temporary order issued under 12 U.S.C. 1817, 1818, 1820, 1828, 1829, 1831<E T="03">l</E>, 1831<E T="03">o</E>, 1972, or 3909, or any provision thereof, in the appropriate United States District Court.</P>
          </SECTION>
          <SECTION>
            <SECTNO>§ 303.277</SECTNO>
            <SUBJECT>Compliance plans under section 39 of the FDI Act (12 U.S.C. 1831p-1) (standards for safety and soundness) and part 308 of this chapter.</SUBJECT>
            <P>(a) <E T="03">Compliance plans.</E> Authority is delegated to the Director and Deputy Director (DOS), and where confirmed in writing by the Director, to an associate director, and to the appropriate regional director and deputy regional director, to accept, to reject, to require new or revised compliance plans, or to make any other determinations with respect to the implementation of compliance plans pursuant to subpart R of part 308 of this chapter.</P>
            <P>(b) <E T="03">Notices, orders, and other action.</E> Authority is delegated to the Director and Deputy Director (DOS) and, where confirmed in writing by the Director, to an associate director, to:</P>
            <P>(1) Issue notices of intent to issue an order requiring the bank to correct a safety and soundness deficiency or to take or refrain from taking other actions pursuant to section 39 of the FDI Act (12 U.S.C. 1831p-1) and in accordance with the requirements contained in § 308.304(a)(1) of this chapter;</P>
            <P>(2) Issue an order requiring the bank immediately to correct a safety and soundness deficiency or to take or refrain from taking other actions pursuant to section 39 of the FDI Act (12 U.S.C. 1831p-1) and in accordance with the requirements contained in § 308.304(a)(2) of this chapter; and</P>
            <P>(3) Act on requests for modification or rescission of an order.</P>
            <P>(c) <E T="03">Legal concurrence—compliance plans.</E> The authority delegated under this section as to compliance plans shall be exercised only upon the concurrent certification by the General Counsel or, where confirmed in writing by the General Counsel, by his or her designee, or, in cases where a regional director or deputy regional director accepts, rejects or requires new or revised compliance plans or makes any other determinations with respect to compliance plans, by the appropriate regional counsel, that the action taken is not inconsistent with the FDI Act.</P>
            <P>(d) <E T="03">Legal concurrence—notices and orders.</E> The authority delegated under this section as to notices and orders shall be exercised only upon the concurrent certification by the General Counsel or, where confirmed in writing by the General Counsel, by his or her designee that the allegations contained in the notice of intent, if proven, constitute a basis for the issuance of a final order pursuant to section 39 of the FDI Act or that the issuance of a final order is not inconsistent with section 39 of the FDI Act or that the stipulated section 39 order is not inconsistent with section 39 of the FDI Act and is an order which has become final for purposes of enforcement pursuant to the FDI Act.</P>
          </SECTION>
          <SECTION>
            <SECTNO>§ 303.278</SECTNO>
            <SUBJECT>Enforcement matters where authority is not delegated.</SUBJECT>
            <P>Without limiting the Board of Directors’ authority, the Board of Directors has retained the authority to act upon the following enforcement matters:</P>

            <P>(a) Notifications to primary regulator under section 8(a) of the FDI Act (12 U.S.C. 1818(a)) when the respondent <PRTPAGE P="68"/>bank's book capital is at or above 2 percent of total assets and adjusted Tier 1 capital is at or above 2 percent of adjusted part 325 total assets as defined in § 303.2(b);</P>
            <P>(b) Orders terminating insured status under section 8(a) of the FDI Act (12 U.S.C. 1818(a));</P>
            <P>(c) Cease-and-desist orders under section 8(b) of the FDI Act (12 U.S.C. 1818(b)) when the respondent depository institution or individual does not consent to the issuance of such orders;</P>
            <P>(d) Temporary orders of suspension and prohibition under section 8(e) of the FDI Act (12 U.S.C. 1818(e));</P>
            <P>(e) Orders of removal, suspension or prohibition from participation in the conduct of the affairs of an insured depository institution under section 8(e) of the FDI Act (12 U.S.C. 1818(e)) when the individual does not consent to the issuance of such orders;</P>
            <P>(f) Orders of suspension or prohibition to an indicted director, officer or person participating in the conduct of the affairs of an insured depository institution and orders of removal or prohibition to a convicted director, officer or person participating in the conduct of the affairs of an insured depository institution under section 8(g) of the FDI Act (12 U.S.C. 1818(g)) when such director, officer or person does not consent to the suspension or removal;</P>
            <P>(g) Final orders to pay civil money penalties where respondents do not consent to the assessment of civil money penalties and hearings have been held;</P>
            <P>(h) Denials of requests for modifications or terminations of orders issued pursuant to section 8(g) of the FDI Act;</P>
            <P>(i) Grants or denials of requests for reinstatement to office, whether or not an informal hearing has been requested, pursuant to § 308.203 of this chapter; and</P>
            <P>(j) Grants or denials of requests for waivers of liability of commonly controlled insured depository institutions as to assessments under section 5(e) of the FDI Act (12 U.S.C. 1815(e)).</P>
          </SECTION>
        </SUBPART>
      </PART>
      <PART>
        <EAR>Pt. 304</EAR>
        <HD SOURCE="HED">PART 304—FORMS, INSTRUCTIONS AND REPORTS</HD>
        <CONTENTS>
          <SECHD>Sec.</SECHD>
          <SECTNO>304.1</SECTNO>
          <SUBJECT>Purpose and scope.</SUBJECT>
          <SECTNO>304.2</SECTNO>
          <SUBJECT>Forms and instructions—general.</SUBJECT>
          <SECTNO>304.3</SECTNO>
          <SUBJECT>Certified statements.</SUBJECT>
          <SECTNO>304.4</SECTNO>
          <SUBJECT>Reports of condition and income.</SUBJECT>
          <SECTNO>304.5</SECTNO>
          <SUBJECT>Other forms.</SUBJECT>
          <SECTNO>304.6</SECTNO>
          <SUBJECT>[Reserved]</SUBJECT>
          <SECTNO>304.7</SECTNO>
          <SUBJECT>Display of control numbers.</SUBJECT>
          <APP>Appendix A to Part 304—List of Forms</APP>
        </CONTENTS>
        <AUTH>
          <HD SOURCE="HED">Authority: </HD>
          <P>5 U.S.C. 552; 12 U.S.C. 1817, 1818, 1819, 1820; Public Law 102-242, 105 Stat. 2251 (12 U.S.C. 1817 note).</P>
        </AUTH>
        <SOURCE>
          <HD SOURCE="HED">Source: </HD>
          <P>51 FR 36684, Oct. 15, 1986, unless otherwise noted.</P>
        </SOURCE>
        <SECTION>
          <SECTNO>§ 304.1</SECTNO>
          <SUBJECT>Purpose and scope.</SUBJECT>
          <P>This part is issued under section 552 of title 5 of the United States Code (5 U.S.C. 552), which requires that each agency shall make available to the public information pertaining to the description of forms available or the places at which forms may be obtained, and instructions as to the scope and content of reports and other submittals. The forms mentioned in this part are limited to those which are not already mentioned elsewhere within the rules and regulations of the Federal Deposit Insurance Corporation. However, appendix A to this part lists forms required by the FDIC and identifies the sections of FDIC's regulations where the forms are referenced.</P>
          <CITA>[51 FR 36684, Oct. 15, 1986, as amended at 62 FR 4896, Feb. 3, 1997]</CITA>
        </SECTION>
        <SECTION>
          <SECTNO>§ 304.2</SECTNO>
          <SUBJECT>Forms and instructions—general.</SUBJECT>
          <P>Necessary forms with their related instructions to be used in connection with applications, reports, and other submittals can be obtained from FDIC regional offices—Division of Supervision. The FDIC regional offices are listed in the directory of the FDIC Law, Regulations and Related Acts looseleaf service, published by the FDIC. A listing of FDIC forms can also be obtained by writing to the FDIC, Division of Supervision, 550 17th Street, NW, Washington, D.C. 20429. The forms are also available in the FDIC Public Information Center at 801 17th Street, NW, Washington, D.C. 20429.</P>
          <CITA>[62 FR 4896, Feb. 3, 1997]</CITA>
        </SECTION>
        <SECTION>
          <SECTNO>§ 304.3</SECTNO>
          <SUBJECT>Certified statements.</SUBJECT>

          <P>The certified statements required to be filed by insured institutions under <PRTPAGE P="69"/>the provisions of section 7 of the Federal Deposit Insurance Act (12 U.S.C. 1817), as amended, shall be filed in accordance with part 327 of this chapter. The applicable forms are Form 6420/07A—Form 6420/07H which show the computation of the semiannual assessment due to the Corporation from an insured depository institution. As provided for in part 327 of this chapter, the forms will be furnished to insured depository institutions by the Corporation twice each calendar year and the completed statement must be returned to the Corporation by each institution.</P>
          <CITA>[62 FR 4896, Feb. 3, 1997]</CITA>
        </SECTION>
        <SECTION>
          <SECTNO>§ 304.4</SECTNO>
          <SUBJECT>Reports of condition and income.</SUBJECT>
          <P>(a) <E T="03">Description.</E> Forms FFIEC 031, 032, 033, and 034, Consolidated Reports of Condition and Income, are quarterly reports for insured state nonmember banks (except District banks) of different asset sizes or with foreign offices, as appropriate, that are required to be prepared as of the close of business on the following report dates: March 31, June 30, September 30, and December 31. These reports are also known as the “Call Report.” The Call Report includes a balance sheet, an income statement, and a statement of changes in equity capital of the reporting bank. Supporting schedules request additional detail with respect to charge-offs and recoveries, income from international operations, specific asset and liability accounts, off-balance sheet items, past due and nonaccrual assets, information for assessment purposes, and regulatory capital. All assets and liabilities, including contingent assets and liabilities, must be reported in, or otherwise taken into account in the preparation of, the Call Report. Reporting banks must also submit annually such information on small business and small farm lending as the FDIC may need to assess the availability of credit to these sectors of the economy. Call Reports must be prepared in accordance with the appropriate instructions contained in the Federal Financial Institutions Examination Council booklet entitled “Instructions—Consolidated Reports of Condition and Income”. The report forms, the instructions for completing the reports, and the accompanying materials will be furnished to all insured state nonmember banks (except District banks) by, or may be obtained upon request from, the Call Reports Analysis Unit, Division of Supervision, FDIC, Washington, D.C. 20429.</P>
          <P>(b) <E T="03">Submission of reports.</E> All insured state nonmember banks (except District banks) shall file their completed reports by the method and with the appropriate collection agent for the FDIC as designated in the materials accompanying the report forms each quarter. Completed reports must be received no more than 30 calendar days after the report date, subject to the timely filing provisions set forth in the “Instructions—Consolidated Reports of Condition and Income” and in the materials accompanying the report forms each quarter. Any bank which has or has had more than one foreign office, other than a shell branch or an International Banking Facility, may take an additional 15 calendar days to submit its Call Reports. A bank using any of these additional 15 calendar days to complete its reports is required to submit its reports electronically.</P>
          <CITA>[62 FR 4896, Feb. 3, 1997]</CITA>
        </SECTION>
        <SECTION>
          <SECTNO>§ 304.5</SECTNO>
          <SUBJECT>Other forms.</SUBJECT>
          <P>The forms described in this section have been prepared for the use of banks.</P>
          <P>(a) <E T="03">Form 8020/05: Summary of Deposits.</E> Form 8020/05 is a report on the amount of deposits for each authorized office of an insured bank with branches; unit banks do not report. Reports as of June 30 of each year must be submitted no later than the immediately succeeding July 31. The report is filed with the appropriate collection agent for the FDIC as designated in the materials accompanying the survey forms each year. The report forms and the instructions for completing the reports will be furnished to all such banks by, or may be obtained upon request from the Trust and Survey Group, Division of Supervision, FDIC, 550 17th Street, NW, Washington, D.C. 20429.</P>
          <P>(b) <E T="03">Form 6120/06: Notification of Performance of Bank Services.</E> Form 6120/06 may be used to satisfy the notice requirement for bank service arrangements that is contained in section 7 of <PRTPAGE P="70"/>the Bank Service Corporation Act (12 U.S.C. 1867), as amended. In lieu of the form, a bank may satisfy the requirement by submitting a letter stating: The name of the servicer; the address at which the service is performed; the service being performed; and the date the service commenced. Either the form or the letter containing the notice information must be submitted to the regional director—Division of Supervision of the region in which the bank's main office is located within 30 days of the making of the bank service contract or the performance of the bank service, whichever occurs first.</P>
          <P>(c) <E T="03">Form FFIEC 001: Annual Report of Trust Assets.</E> This report must be filed by all insured state nonmember commercial and savings banks operating trust departments or banks granted consent by the Corporation to exercise trust powers, and their trust subsidiaries. The report must be filed no later than February 15th of each year. When circumstances necessitate, additional information may be required about certain operations of the trust department. The report must be prepared and submitted in accordance with the appropriate instructions. The report is filed with the appropriate collection agent for the FDIC as designated in the report form and instructions. The report forms and instructions for completing the report will be furnished automatically to all such banks by, or may be obtained upon request from the Trust and Survey Group, Division of Supervision, FDIC, 550 17th Street, NW, Washington, D.C. 20429.</P>
          <P>(d) <E T="03">Form FFIEC 002: Report of Assets and Liabilities of U.S. Branches and Agencies of Foreign Banks.</E> Form FFIEC 002 is a report in the form of a statement of the assets and liabilities of U.S. branches and agencies of foreign banks together with supporting schedules that request additional detail with respect to selected assets and liabilities, off-balance sheet items, and, in the case of insured branches, information for assessment purposes. All assets and liabilities, including contingent assets and liabilities, must be reported in, or otherwise taken into account in the preparation of, this report. Insured branches must also submit annually such information on small business and small farm lending as the FDIC may need to assess the availability of credit to these sectors of the economy. The report must be prepared in accordance with the instructions contained in the instruction booklet for the report, copies of which are furnished to all U.S. branches and agencies of foreign banks by the Federal Reserve System. The Board of Governors of the Federal Reserve System collects and processes the report on behalf of FDIC-supervised branches. The report is submitted quarterly to the appropriate Federal Reserve district bank.</P>
          <P>(e) <E T="03">Form FFIEC 004: Report on Indebtedness of Executive Officers and Principal Shareholders and their Related Interests to Correspondent Banks.</E> Form FFIEC 004 is a recommended form that may be used by the executive officers and principal shareholders of an insured state nonmember bank to report to the board of directors of their bank on their indebtedness (and that of their related interests) to correspondent banks, as required by part 349 of this chapter. The reports or any form containing identical information must be submitted to the bank's board of directors by January 31 of each year and cover indebtedness to correspondent banks during the preceding calendar year. Form FFIEC 004 is mailed annually by the FDIC to each insured state nonmember bank.</P>
          <CITA>[62 FR 4897, Feb. 3, 1997]</CITA>
        </SECTION>
        <SECTION>
          <SECTNO>§ 304.6</SECTNO>
          <RESERVED>[Reserved]</RESERVED>
        </SECTION>
        <SECTION>
          <SECTNO>§ 304.7</SECTNO>
          <SUBJECT>Display of control numbers.</SUBJECT>
          <P>The following sections of this part of FDIC's regulations containing collection of information requirements are listed with the control numbers assigned by the Office of Management and Budget:</P>
          <GPOTABLE CDEF="s50,12" COLS="2" OPTS="L2,i1">
            <BOXHD>
              <CHED H="1">Section of 12 CFR Part 304</CHED>
              <CHED H="1">Currently Assigned OMB Control No.</CHED>
            </BOXHD>
            <ROW>
              <ENT I="01">304.3</ENT>
              <ENT>3064-0057</ENT>
            </ROW>
            <ROW>
              <ENT I="01">304.4(a)</ENT>
              <ENT>3064-0052</ENT>
            </ROW>
            <ROW>
              <ENT I="01">304.4(b)</ENT>
              <ENT>3064-0054</ENT>
            </ROW>
            <ROW>
              <ENT I="01">304.5(a)</ENT>
              <ENT>3064-0061</ENT>
            </ROW>
            <ROW>
              <ENT I="01">304.5(b)</ENT>
              <ENT>3064-0029</ENT>
            </ROW>
            <ROW>
              <ENT I="01">304.5(c)</ENT>
              <ENT>3064-0024</ENT>
            </ROW>
            <ROW>
              <ENT I="01">304.5(d)</ENT>
              <ENT>7100-0032</ENT>
            </ROW>
            <ROW>
              <ENT I="01">304.5(e)</ENT>
              <ENT>3064-0023</ENT>
            </ROW>
          </GPOTABLE>
        </SECTION>
        <APPENDIX>
          <PRTPAGE P="71"/>
          <EAR>Pt. 304, App. A</EAR>
          <WHED>Appendix A to Part 304—List of Forms</WHED>
          <NOTE>
            <HD SOURCE="HED">Note:</HD>
            <P>See footnotes at end of table.</P>
          </NOTE>
          
          <GPOTABLE CDEF="s50,r100,r50,12" COLS="4" OPTS="L2,i1">
            <BOXHD>
              <CHED H="1">Form</CHED>
              <CHED H="1">Title</CHED>
              <CHED H="1">Section of FDICs regulations (12 CFR chapter III) where the form is referenced</CHED>
              <CHED H="1">OMB No.</CHED>
            </BOXHD>
            <ROW>
              <ENT I="01">FDIC 6112/01 </ENT>
              <ENT>Initial Statement of Beneficial Ownership of Equity Securities (Form F-7)</ENT>
              <ENT>335.413</ENT>
              <ENT>3064-0030</ENT>
            </ROW>
            <ROW>
              <ENT I="01">FDIC 6112/02 </ENT>
              <ENT>Statement of Changes in Beneficial Ownership of Equity Securities (Form F-8)</ENT>
              <ENT>335.414</ENT>
              <ENT>3064-0030</ENT>
            </ROW>
            <ROW>
              <ENT I="01">FDIC 6120/06</ENT>
              <ENT>Notification of Bank Services</ENT>
              <ENT>304.5(b)</ENT>
              <ENT>3064-0029</ENT>
            </ROW>
            <ROW>
              <ENT I="01">FDIC 6200/05</ENT>
              <ENT>Application for Federal Deposit Insurance (Commercial Banks) </ENT>
              <ENT>303.1</ENT>
              <ENT>3064-0001</ENT>
            </ROW>
            <ROW>
              <ENT I="01">FDIC 6200/06</ENT>
              <ENT>Financial Report</ENT>
              <ENT>(<SU>1</SU>)</ENT>
              <ENT>3064-0006</ENT>
            </ROW>
            <ROW>
              <ENT I="01">FDIC 6200/07</ENT>
              <ENT>Application for Federal Deposit Insurance for Operating Noninsured Institutions</ENT>
              <ENT>303.1</ENT>
              <ENT>3064-0069</ENT>
            </ROW>
            <ROW>
              <ENT I="01">FDIC 6200/09</ENT>
              <ENT>Application for Consent to Exercise Trust Powers</ENT>
              <ENT>(<SU>2</SU>)</ENT>
              <ENT>3064-0025</ENT>
            </ROW>
            <ROW>
              <ENT I="01">FDIC 6220/01</ENT>
              <ENT>Application for a Merger or Other Transaction Pursuant to Section 19(c) of the Federal Deposit Insurance Act</ENT>
              <ENT>303.3</ENT>
              <ENT>3064-0016</ENT>
            </ROW>
            <ROW>
              <ENT I="01">FDIC 6220/07</ENT>
              <ENT>Application for a Merger or Other Transaction Pursuant to Section 18(c) of the Federal Deposit Insurance Act (Phantom or Corporate Reorganization)</ENT>
              <ENT>303.7(b)(1) and 303.3</ENT>
              <ENT>3064-0015</ENT>
            </ROW>
            <ROW>
              <ENT I="01">FDIC 6342/12</ENT>
              <ENT>Request for Deregistration Registered Transfer Agent</ENT>
              <ENT>341.5</ENT>
              <ENT>3064-0027</ENT>
            </ROW>
            <ROW>
              <ENT I="01">FDIC 6420/07</ENT>
              <ENT>Certified Statement</ENT>
              <ENT>304.3(a)</ENT>
              <ENT>3064-0057</ENT>
            </ROW>
            <ROW>
              <ENT I="01">FDIC 6440/12</ENT>
              <ENT>Loan/Application Register</ENT>
              <ENT>338.8(<SU>3</SU>)</ENT>
              <ENT>7100-0247</ENT>
            </ROW>
            <ROW>
              <ENT I="01">FDIC 6710/06</ENT>
              <ENT>Suspicious Activity Report</ENT>
              <ENT>353.1</ENT>
              <ENT>3064-0077</ENT>
            </ROW>
            <ROW>
              <ENT I="01">FDIC 6710/07</ENT>
              <ENT>Application Pursuant to Section 19 of the Federal Deposit Insurance Act</ENT>
              <ENT>(<SU>4</SU>)</ENT>
              <ENT>3064-0018</ENT>
            </ROW>
            <ROW>
              <ENT I="01">FDIC 6810/01</ENT>
              <ENT>Notification of Addition of a Director or Employment of a Senior Executive Officer</ENT>
              <ENT>333.2</ENT>
              <ENT>3064-0097</ENT>
            </ROW>
            <ROW>
              <ENT I="01">FDIC 6822/01</ENT>
              <ENT>Notice of Acquisition of Control</ENT>
              <ENT>303.4(b)</ENT>
              <ENT>3064-0019</ENT>
            </ROW>
            <ROW>
              <ENT I="01">FDIC 8020/05</ENT>
              <ENT>Summary of Deposits</ENT>
              <ENT>304.5(a)</ENT>
              <ENT>3064-0061</ENT>
            </ROW>
            <ROW>
              <ENT I="01">FFIEC 001</ENT>
              <ENT>Annual Report of Trust Assets</ENT>
              <ENT>304.5(c)</ENT>
              <ENT>3064-0024</ENT>
            </ROW>
            <ROW>
              <ENT I="01">FFIEC 002</ENT>
              <ENT>Report of Assets and Liabilities of U.S. Branches and Agencies of Foreign Banks</ENT>
              <ENT>304.5(d)</ENT>
              <ENT>7100-0032</ENT>
            </ROW>
            <ROW>
              <ENT I="01">FFIEC 004</ENT>
              <ENT>Report on Indebtedness of Executive Officers and Principal Shareholders and their Related Interests to Correspondent Banks</ENT>
              <ENT>304.5(e)</ENT>
              <ENT>3064-0023</ENT>
            </ROW>
            <ROW>
              <ENT I="01">FFIEC 009</ENT>
              <ENT>Country Exposure Report</ENT>
              <ENT>351.3(b)</ENT>
              <ENT>3064-0017</ENT>
            </ROW>
            <ROW>
              <ENT I="01">FFIEC 009a</ENT>
              <ENT>Country Exposure Information Report</ENT>
              <ENT>351.3</ENT>
              <ENT>3064-0017</ENT>
            </ROW>
            <ROW>
              <ENT I="01">FFIEC 019</ENT>
              <ENT>Country Exposure Report for U.S. Branches and Agencies of Foreign Banks</ENT>
              <ENT>(<SU>5</SU>)</ENT>
              <ENT>3064-0017</ENT>
            </ROW>
            <ROW>
              <ENT I="01">FFIEC 030</ENT>
              <ENT>Foreign Branch Report of Condition</ENT>
              <ENT>347.6(b)</ENT>
              <ENT>3064-0011</ENT>
            </ROW>
            <ROW>
              <ENT I="01">FFIEC 031</ENT>
              <ENT>Consolidated Reports of Condition and Income for a Bank with Domestic and Foreign Offices</ENT>
              <ENT>304.4</ENT>
              <ENT>3064-0052</ENT>
            </ROW>
            <ROW>
              <ENT I="01">FFIEC 032</ENT>
              <ENT>Consolidated Reports of Condition and Income for a Bank with Domestic Offices Only and Total Assets of $300 Million or More</ENT>
              <ENT>304.4</ENT>
              <ENT>3064-0052</ENT>
            </ROW>
            <ROW>
              <ENT I="01">FFIEC 033</ENT>
              <ENT>Consolidated Reports of Condition and Income for a Bank with Domestic Offices Only and Total Assets of $100 Million or More But Less Than $300 Million</ENT>
              <ENT>304.4</ENT>
              <ENT>3064-0052</ENT>
            </ROW>
            <ROW>
              <ENT I="01">FFIEC 034</ENT>
              <ENT>Consolidated Reports of Condition and Income for a Bank with Domestic Offices Only and Total Assets of Less than $100 Million</ENT>
              <ENT>304.4</ENT>
              <ENT>3064-0052</ENT>
            </ROW>
            <ROW>
              <ENT I="01">FFIEC 035</ENT>
              <ENT>Monthly Consolidated Foreign Currency Report of Banks in the United States</ENT>
              <ENT>(<SU>6</SU>)</ENT>
              <ENT>1557-0156</ENT>
            </ROW>
            <ROW>
              <ENT I="01">GFIN</ENT>
              <ENT>Notice of Government Securities Broker or Government Securities Dealer Activities to be Filed by a Financial Institution Under Section 15C(a)(1)(B)</ENT>
              <ENT>(<SU>7</SU>)</ENT>
              <ENT>1535-0089</ENT>
            </ROW>
            <ROW>
              <ENT I="01">GFIN-W</ENT>
              <ENT>Notice by Financial Institutions of Termination of Activities as a Government Securities Broker or Government Securities Dealer</ENT>
              <ENT>(<SU>7</SU>)</ENT>
              <ENT>7100-0224</ENT>
            </ROW>
            <ROW>
              <ENT I="01">GFIN-4</ENT>
              <ENT>Disclosure Form for Person Associated With a Financial Institution Government Securities Broker or Dealer</ENT>
              <ENT>(<SU>7</SU>)</ENT>
              <ENT>1535-0089</ENT>
            </ROW>
            <ROW>
              <ENT I="01">GFIN-5</ENT>
              <ENT>Uniform Termination Notice for Person Associated With a Financial Institution Government Securities Broker or Dealer</ENT>
              <ENT>(<SU>7</SU>)</ENT>
              <ENT>1535-0089</ENT>
            </ROW>
            <ROW>
              <PRTPAGE P="72"/>
              <ENT I="01">MSD 4</ENT>
              <ENT>Uniform Application for Municipal Securities Principal or Municipal Securities Representative Associated With a Bank Municipal Securities Dealer</ENT>
              <ENT>343.3</ENT>
              <ENT>3064-0022</ENT>
            </ROW>
            <ROW>
              <ENT I="01">MSD 5</ENT>
              <ENT>Uniform Termination for Municipal Securities Principal or Municipal Securities Representative Associated With a Bank Municipal Securities Dealer</ENT>
              <ENT>343.3</ENT>
              <ENT>3064-0022</ENT>
            </ROW>
            <ROW>
              <ENT I="01">TA-1</ENT>
              <ENT>Transfer Agent Registration and Amendment Form</ENT>
              <ENT>341.6</ENT>
              <ENT>3064-0026</ENT>
            </ROW>
            <TNOTE>
              <E T="02">Notes:</E>
            </TNOTE>
            <TNOTE>
              <SU>1</SU> Not referenced in 12 CFR chapter III. The report form is submitted by each individual director or officer of a proposed or operating bank applying to the FDIC for federal deposit insurance as a state nonmember bank, or by a person proposing to acquire ownership or control of an insured state nonmember bank.</TNOTE>
            <TNOTE>
              <SU>2</SU> The report form can be obtained from the HMDA Assistance line by telephoning (202) 452-2016.</TNOTE>
            <TNOTE>
              <SU>3</SU> Not referenced in 12 CFR chapter III. The application form is submitted by insured state nonmember banks applying for FDIC consent to exercise trust powers.</TNOTE>
            <TNOTE>
              <SU>4</SU> Not referenced in 12 CFR chapter III. The application form is submitted by FDIC-insured banks applying for FDIC consent to employ persons who have been convicted of crimes involving dishonesty or breach of trust.</TNOTE>
            <TNOTE>
              <SU>5</SU> Not referenced in 12 CFR chapter III. The report form is submitted by state chartered and federally-licensed branches and agencies of foreign banks in the U.S. with $30 million or more in total direct claims on foreign residents. The Federal Reserve Board collects and processes the report on behalf of FDIC-supervised branches. The report is submitted quarterly to the appropriate Federal Reserve district bank.</TNOTE>
            <TNOTE>
              <SU>6</SU> Not referenced in 12 CFR chapter III. The report form is submitted by banks (other than savings banks) and bank holding companies with a dollar equivalent of $100 million or more in assets, liabilities, foreign exchange contracts bought and foreign exchange contracts sold in any six specific foreign currencies as of the end of a month. The Office of the Comptroller of the Currency collects and processes this monthly report on behalf of insured state nonmember banks.</TNOTE>
            <TNOTE>
              <SU>7</SU> Not referenced in 12 CFR chapter III. The report form is submitted by banks or persons associated with banks required to file under section 15C of the Securities and Exchange Act of 1934.</TNOTE>
          </GPOTABLE>
          <CITA>[62 FR 4897, Feb. 3, 1997]</CITA>
        </APPENDIX>
      </PART>
      <PART>
        <RESERVED>PARTS 305-306[RESERVED]</RESERVED>
      </PART>
      <PART>
        <EAR>Pt. 307</EAR>
        <HD SOURCE="HED">PART 307—NOTIFICATION OF CHANGES OF INSURED STATUS</HD>
        <CONTENTS>
          <SECHD>Sec.</SECHD>
          <SECTNO>307.1</SECTNO>
          <SUBJECT>Certification of assumption of deposit liabilities.</SUBJECT>
          <SECTNO>307.2</SECTNO>
          <SUBJECT>Notice to be given when deposit liabilities are not assumed.</SUBJECT>
        </CONTENTS>
        <AUTH>
          <HD SOURCE="HED">Authority: </HD>
          <P>Sec. 2, Pub. L. 797, 64 Stat. 879, 880 as amended by secs. 202, 204, Pub. L. 89-694, 80 Stat. 1046, 1054, and sec. 6(c)(14), Pub. L. 95-369, 92 Stat. 618 (12 U.S.C. 1818(a), 1818(o)); sec. 304, Pub. L. 95-630, 92 Stat. 3676 (12 U.S.C. 1818(q); sec. 9, Pub. L. 797, 64 Stat. 881 (12 U.S.C. 1819).</P>
        </AUTH>
        <SECTION>
          <SECTNO>§ 307.1</SECTNO>
          <SUBJECT>Certification of assumption of deposit liabilities.</SUBJECT>
          <P>Whenever the deposit liabilities of an insured bank or insured branch of a foreign bank are assumed by another insured bank (whether by merger, consolidation, or other statutory assumption, or by contract), the assuming or resulting bank shall certify to the FDIC that it has agreed to assume the deposit liabilities of the bank whose deposits were assumed. The certification shall be made within 30 days after the assumption takes effect and shall state the date the assumption took effect. This certification shall be considered satisfactory evidence of the assumption.</P>
          <CITA>[48 FR 24031, May 31, 1983]</CITA>
        </SECTION>
        <SECTION>
          <SECTNO>§ 307.2</SECTNO>
          <SUBJECT>Notice to be given when deposit liabilities are not assumed.</SUBJECT>
          <P>Any insured bank or insured branch of a foreign bank whose insured status is voluntarily terminated, but whose deposit liabilities are not assumed shall give notice to each of its depositors of the date of the termination of its insured status under the Federal Deposit Insurance Act. The notice to depositors shall be given in a form, in a manner and at a time approved by the appropriate FDIC Regional Director. The FDIC may require the bank to take other steps that it considers necessary for the protection of depositors.</P>
          <CITA>[48 FR 24031, May 31, 1983]</CITA>
          <EAR>Pt. 308</EAR>
        </SECTION>
      </PART>
      <PART>
        <EAR>Pt. 308</EAR>
        <HD SOURCE="HED">PART 308—RULES OF PRACTICE AND PROCEDURE</HD>
        <CONTENTS>
          <SUBPART>
            <HD SOURCE="HED">Subpart A—Uniform Rules of Practice and Procedure</HD>
            <SECHD>Sec.</SECHD>
            <SECTNO>308.1</SECTNO>
            <SUBJECT>Scope.</SUBJECT>
            <SECTNO>308.2</SECTNO>
            <SUBJECT>Rules of construction.</SUBJECT>
            <SECTNO>308.3</SECTNO>
            <SUBJECT>Definitions.</SUBJECT>
            <SECTNO>308.4</SECTNO>
            <SUBJECT>Authority of Board of Directors.<PRTPAGE P="73"/>
            </SUBJECT>
            <SECTNO>308.5</SECTNO>
            <SUBJECT>Authority of the administrative law judge.</SUBJECT>
            <SECTNO>308.6</SECTNO>
            <SUBJECT>Appearance and practice in adjudicatory proceedings.</SUBJECT>
            <SECTNO>308.7</SECTNO>
            <SUBJECT>Good faith certification.</SUBJECT>
            <SECTNO>308.8</SECTNO>
            <SUBJECT>Conflicts of interest.</SUBJECT>
            <SECTNO>308.9</SECTNO>
            <SUBJECT>Ex parte communications.</SUBJECT>
            <SECTNO>308.10</SECTNO>
            <SUBJECT>Filing of papers.</SUBJECT>
            <SECTNO>308.11</SECTNO>
            <SUBJECT>Service of papers.</SUBJECT>
            <SECTNO>308.12</SECTNO>
            <SUBJECT>Construction of time limits.</SUBJECT>
            <SECTNO>308.13</SECTNO>
            <SUBJECT>Change of time limits.</SUBJECT>
            <SECTNO>308.14</SECTNO>
            <SUBJECT>Witness fees and expenses.</SUBJECT>
            <SECTNO>308.15</SECTNO>
            <SUBJECT>Opportunity for informal settlement.</SUBJECT>
            <SECTNO>308.16</SECTNO>
            <SUBJECT>FDIC's right to conduct examination.</SUBJECT>
            <SECTNO>308.17</SECTNO>
            <SUBJECT>Collateral attacks on adjudicatory proceeding.</SUBJECT>
            <SECTNO>308.18</SECTNO>
            <SUBJECT>Commencement of proceeding and contents of notice.</SUBJECT>
            <SECTNO>308.19</SECTNO>
            <SUBJECT>Answer.</SUBJECT>
            <SECTNO>308.20</SECTNO>
            <SUBJECT>Amended pleadings.</SUBJECT>
            <SECTNO>308.21</SECTNO>
            <SUBJECT>Failure to appear.</SUBJECT>
            <SECTNO>308.22</SECTNO>
            <SUBJECT>Consolidation and severance of actions.</SUBJECT>
            <SECTNO>308.23</SECTNO>
            <SUBJECT>Motions.</SUBJECT>
            <SECTNO>308.24</SECTNO>
            <SUBJECT>Scope of document discovery.</SUBJECT>
            <SECTNO>308.25</SECTNO>
            <SUBJECT>Request for document discovery from parties.</SUBJECT>
            <SECTNO>308.26</SECTNO>
            <SUBJECT>Document subpoenas to nonparties.</SUBJECT>
            <SECTNO>308.27</SECTNO>
            <SUBJECT>Deposition of witness unavailable for hearing.</SUBJECT>
            <SECTNO>308.28</SECTNO>
            <SUBJECT>Interlocutory review.</SUBJECT>
            <SECTNO>308.29</SECTNO>
            <SUBJECT>Summary disposition.</SUBJECT>
            <SECTNO>308.30</SECTNO>
            <SUBJECT>Partial summary disposition.</SUBJECT>
            <SECTNO>308.31</SECTNO>
            <SUBJECT>Scheduling and prehearing conferences.</SUBJECT>
            <SECTNO>308.32</SECTNO>
            <SUBJECT>Prehearing submissions.</SUBJECT>
            <SECTNO>308.33</SECTNO>
            <SUBJECT>Public hearings.</SUBJECT>
            <SECTNO>308.34</SECTNO>
            <SUBJECT>Hearing subpoenas.</SUBJECT>
            <SECTNO>308.35</SECTNO>
            <SUBJECT>Conduct of hearings.</SUBJECT>
            <SECTNO>308.36</SECTNO>
            <SUBJECT>Evidence.</SUBJECT>
            <SECTNO>308.37</SECTNO>
            <SUBJECT>Post-hearing filings.</SUBJECT>
            <SECTNO>308.38</SECTNO>
            <SUBJECT>Recommended decision and filing of record.</SUBJECT>
            <SECTNO>308.39</SECTNO>
            <SUBJECT>Exceptions to recommended decision.</SUBJECT>
            <SECTNO>308.40</SECTNO>
            <SUBJECT>Review by Board of Directors.</SUBJECT>
            <SECTNO>308.41</SECTNO>
            <SUBJECT>Stays pending judicial review.</SUBJECT>
          </SUBPART>
          <SUBPART>
            <HD SOURCE="HED">Subpart B—General Rules of Procedure</HD>
            <SECTNO>308.101</SECTNO>
            <SUBJECT>Scope of Local Rules.</SUBJECT>
            <SECTNO>308.102</SECTNO>
            <SUBJECT>Authority of Board of Directors and Executive Secretary.</SUBJECT>
            <SECTNO>308.103</SECTNO>
            <SUBJECT>Appointment of administrative law judge.</SUBJECT>
            <SECTNO>308.104</SECTNO>
            <SUBJECT>Filings with the Board of Directors.</SUBJECT>
            <SECTNO>308.105</SECTNO>
            <SUBJECT>Custodian of the record.</SUBJECT>
            <SECTNO>308.106</SECTNO>
            <SUBJECT>Written testimony in lieu of oral hearing.</SUBJECT>
            <SECTNO>308.107</SECTNO>
            <SUBJECT>Document discovery.</SUBJECT>
          </SUBPART>
          <SUBPART>
            <HD SOURCE="HED">Subpart C—Rules of Practice Before the FDIC and Standards of Conduct</HD>
            <SECTNO>308.108</SECTNO>
            <SUBJECT>Sanctions.</SUBJECT>
            <SECTNO>308.109</SECTNO>
            <SUBJECT>Suspension and disbarment.</SUBJECT>
          </SUBPART>
          <SUBPART>
            <HD SOURCE="HED">Subpart D—Rules and Procedures Applicable to Proceedings Relating to Disapproval of Acquisition of Control</HD>
            <SECTNO>308.110</SECTNO>
            <SUBJECT>Scope.</SUBJECT>
            <SECTNO>308.111</SECTNO>
            <SUBJECT>Grounds for disapproval.</SUBJECT>
            <SECTNO>308.112</SECTNO>
            <SUBJECT>Notice of disapproval.</SUBJECT>
            <SECTNO>308.113</SECTNO>
            <SUBJECT>Answer to notice of disapproval.</SUBJECT>
            <SECTNO>308.114</SECTNO>
            <SUBJECT>Burden of proof.</SUBJECT>
          </SUBPART>
          <SUBPART>
            <HD SOURCE="HED">Subpart E—Rules and Procedures Applicable to Proceedings Relating to Assessment of Civil Penalties for Willful Violations of the Change in Bank Control Act</HD>
            <SECTNO>308.115</SECTNO>
            <SUBJECT>Scope.</SUBJECT>
            <SECTNO>308.116</SECTNO>
            <SUBJECT>Assessment of penalties.</SUBJECT>
            <SECTNO>308.117</SECTNO>
            <SUBJECT>Effective date of, and payment under, an order to pay.</SUBJECT>
            <SECTNO>308.118</SECTNO>
            <SUBJECT>Collection of penalties.</SUBJECT>
          </SUBPART>
          <SUBPART>
            <HD SOURCE="HED">Subpart F—Rules and Procedures Applicable to Proceedings for Involuntary Termination of Insured Status</HD>
            <SECTNO>308.119</SECTNO>
            <SUBJECT>Scope.</SUBJECT>
            <SECTNO>308.120</SECTNO>
            <SUBJECT>Grounds for termination of insurance.</SUBJECT>
            <SECTNO>308.121</SECTNO>
            <SUBJECT>Notification to primary regulator.</SUBJECT>
            <SECTNO>308.122</SECTNO>
            <SUBJECT>Notice of intent to terminate.</SUBJECT>
            <SECTNO>308.123</SECTNO>
            <SUBJECT>Notice to depositors.</SUBJECT>
            <SECTNO>308.124</SECTNO>
            <SUBJECT>Involuntary termination of insured status for failure to receive deposits.</SUBJECT>
            <SECTNO>308.125</SECTNO>
            <SUBJECT>Temporary suspension of deposit insurance.</SUBJECT>
            <SECTNO>308.126</SECTNO>
            <SUBJECT>Special supervisory associations.</SUBJECT>
          </SUBPART>
          <SUBPART>
            <HD SOURCE="HED">Subpart G—Rules and Procedures Applicable to Proceedings Relating to Cease-and-Desist Orders</HD>
            <SECTNO>308.127</SECTNO>
            <SUBJECT>Scope.</SUBJECT>
            <SECTNO>308.128</SECTNO>
            <SUBJECT>Grounds for cease-and-desist orders.</SUBJECT>
            <SECTNO>308.129</SECTNO>
            <SUBJECT>Notice to state supervisory authority.</SUBJECT>
            <SECTNO>308.130</SECTNO>
            <SUBJECT>Effective date of order and service on bank.</SUBJECT>
            <SECTNO>308.131</SECTNO>
            <SUBJECT>Temporary cease-and-desist order.</SUBJECT>
          </SUBPART>
          <SUBPART>
            <HD SOURCE="HED">Subpart H—Rules and Procedures Applicable to Proceedings Relating to Assessment and Collection of Civil Money Penalties for Violation of Cease-and-Desist Orders and of Certain Federal Statutes, Including Call Report Penalties</HD>
            <SECTNO>308.132</SECTNO>
            <SUBJECT>Assessment of penalties.</SUBJECT>
            <SECTNO>308.133</SECTNO>
            <SUBJECT>Effective date of, and payment under, an order to pay.</SUBJECT>
          </SUBPART>
          <SUBPART>
            <PRTPAGE P="74"/>
            <HD SOURCE="HED">Subpart I—Rules and Procedures for Imposition of Sanctions Upon Municipal Securities Dealers or Persons Associated With Them and Clearing Agencies or Transfer Agents</HD>
            <SECTNO>308.134</SECTNO>
            <SUBJECT>Scope.</SUBJECT>
            <SECTNO>308.135</SECTNO>
            <SUBJECT>Grounds for imposition of sanctions.</SUBJECT>
            <SECTNO>308.136</SECTNO>
            <SUBJECT>Notice to and consultation with the Securities and Exchange Commission.</SUBJECT>
            <SECTNO>308.137</SECTNO>
            <SUBJECT>Effective date of order imposing sanctions.</SUBJECT>
          </SUBPART>
          <SUBPART>
            <HD SOURCE="HED">Subpart J—Rules and Procedures Relating to Exemption Proceedings Under Section 12(h) of the Securities Exchange Act of 1934</HD>
            <SECTNO>308.138</SECTNO>
            <SUBJECT>Scope.</SUBJECT>
            <SECTNO>308.139</SECTNO>
            <SUBJECT>Application for exemption.</SUBJECT>
            <SECTNO>308.140</SECTNO>
            <SUBJECT>Newspaper notice.</SUBJECT>
            <SECTNO>308.141</SECTNO>
            <SUBJECT>Notice of hearing.</SUBJECT>
            <SECTNO>308.142</SECTNO>
            <SUBJECT>Hearing.</SUBJECT>
            <SECTNO>308.143</SECTNO>
            <SUBJECT>Decision of Board of Directors.</SUBJECT>
          </SUBPART>
          <SUBPART>
            <HD SOURCE="HED">Subpart K—Procedures Applicable to Investigations Pursuant to Section 10(c) of the FDIA</HD>
            <SECTNO>308.144</SECTNO>
            <SUBJECT>Scope.</SUBJECT>
            <SECTNO>308.145</SECTNO>
            <SUBJECT>Conduct of investigation.</SUBJECT>
            <SECTNO>308.146</SECTNO>
            <SUBJECT>Powers of person conducting investigation.</SUBJECT>
            <SECTNO>308.147</SECTNO>
            <SUBJECT>Investigations confidential.</SUBJECT>
            <SECTNO>308.148</SECTNO>
            <SUBJECT>Rights of witnesses.</SUBJECT>
            <SECTNO>308.149</SECTNO>
            <SUBJECT>Service of subpoena.</SUBJECT>
            <SECTNO>308.150</SECTNO>
            <SUBJECT>Transcripts.</SUBJECT>
          </SUBPART>
          <SUBPART>
            <HD SOURCE="HED">Subpart L—Procedures and Standards Applicable to a Notice of Change in Senior Executive Officer or Director Pursuant to Section 32 of the FDIA</HD>
            <SECTNO>308.151</SECTNO>
            <SUBJECT>Scope.</SUBJECT>
            <SECTNO>308.152</SECTNO>
            <SUBJECT>Grounds for disapproval of notice.</SUBJECT>
            <SECTNO>308.153</SECTNO>
            <SUBJECT>Procedures where notice of disapproval issues pursuant to § 303.103(c) of this chapter.</SUBJECT>
            <SECTNO>308.154</SECTNO>
            <SUBJECT>Decision on review.</SUBJECT>
            <SECTNO>308.155</SECTNO>
            <SUBJECT>Hearing.</SUBJECT>
          </SUBPART>
          <SUBPART>
            <HD SOURCE="HED">Subpart M—Procedures and Standards Applicable to an Application Pursuant to Section 19 of the FDIA</HD>
            <SECTNO>308.156</SECTNO>
            <SUBJECT>Scope.</SUBJECT>
            <SECTNO>308.157</SECTNO>
            <SUBJECT>Relevant considerations.</SUBJECT>
            <SECTNO>308.158</SECTNO>
            <SUBJECT>Filing papers and effective date.</SUBJECT>
            <SECTNO>308.159</SECTNO>
            <SUBJECT>Denial of applications.</SUBJECT>
            <SECTNO>308.160</SECTNO>
            <SUBJECT>Hearings.</SUBJECT>
          </SUBPART>
          <SUBPART>
            <HD SOURCE="HED">Subpart N—Rules and Procedures Applicable to Proceedings Relating to Suspension, Removal, and Prohibition Where a Felony Is Charged</HD>
            <SECTNO>308.161</SECTNO>
            <SUBJECT>Scope.</SUBJECT>
            <SECTNO>308.162</SECTNO>
            <SUBJECT>Relevant considerations.</SUBJECT>
            <SECTNO>308.163</SECTNO>
            <SUBJECT>Notice of suspension, and orders of removal or prohibition.</SUBJECT>
            <SECTNO>308.164</SECTNO>
            <SUBJECT>Hearings.</SUBJECT>
          </SUBPART>
          <SUBPART>
            <HD SOURCE="HED">Subpart O—Liability of Commonly Controlled Depository Institutions</HD>
            <SECTNO>308.165</SECTNO>
            <SUBJECT>Scope.</SUBJECT>
            <SECTNO>308.166</SECTNO>
            <SUBJECT>Grounds for assessment of liability.</SUBJECT>
            <SECTNO>308.167</SECTNO>
            <SUBJECT>Notice of assessment of liability.</SUBJECT>
            <SECTNO>308.168</SECTNO>
            <SUBJECT>Effective date of and payment under an order to pay.</SUBJECT>
          </SUBPART>
          <SUBPART>
            <HD SOURCE="HED">Subpart P—Rules and Procedures Relating to the Recovery of Attorney Fees and Other Expenses</HD>
            <SECTNO>308.169</SECTNO>
            <SUBJECT>Scope.</SUBJECT>
            <SECTNO>308.170</SECTNO>
            <SUBJECT>Filing, content, and service of documents.</SUBJECT>
            <SECTNO>308.171</SECTNO>
            <SUBJECT>Responses to application.</SUBJECT>
            <SECTNO>308.172</SECTNO>
            <SUBJECT>Eligibility of applicants.</SUBJECT>
            <SECTNO>308.173</SECTNO>
            <SUBJECT>Prevailing party.</SUBJECT>
            <SECTNO>308.174</SECTNO>
            <SUBJECT>Standards for awards.</SUBJECT>
            <SECTNO>308.175</SECTNO>
            <SUBJECT>Measure of awards.</SUBJECT>
            <SECTNO>308.176</SECTNO>
            <SUBJECT>Application for awards.</SUBJECT>
            <SECTNO>308.177</SECTNO>
            <SUBJECT>Statement of net worth.</SUBJECT>
            <SECTNO>308.178</SECTNO>
            <SUBJECT>Statement of fees and expenses.</SUBJECT>
            <SECTNO>308.179</SECTNO>
            <SUBJECT>Settlement negotiations.</SUBJECT>
            <SECTNO>308.180</SECTNO>
            <SUBJECT>Further proceedings.</SUBJECT>
            <SECTNO>308.181</SECTNO>
            <SUBJECT>Recommended decision.</SUBJECT>
            <SECTNO>308.182</SECTNO>
            <SUBJECT>Board of Directors action.</SUBJECT>
            <SECTNO>308.183</SECTNO>
            <SUBJECT>Payment of awards.</SUBJECT>
          </SUBPART>
          <SUBPART>
            <HD SOURCE="HED">Subpart Q—Issuance and Review of Orders Pursuant to the Prompt Corrective Action Provisions of the Federal Deposit Insurance Act</HD>
            <SECTNO>308.200</SECTNO>
            <SUBJECT>Scope.</SUBJECT>
            <SECTNO>308.201</SECTNO>
            <SUBJECT>Directives to take prompt corrective action.</SUBJECT>
            <SECTNO>308.202</SECTNO>
            <SUBJECT>Procedures for reclassifying a bank based on criteria other than capital.</SUBJECT>
            <SECTNO>308.203</SECTNO>
            <SUBJECT>Order to dismiss a director or senior executive officer.</SUBJECT>
            <SECTNO>308.204</SECTNO>
            <SUBJECT>Enforcement of directives.</SUBJECT>
          </SUBPART>
          <SUBPART>
            <HD SOURCE="HED">Subpart R—Submission and Review of Safety and Soundness Compliance Plans and Issuance of Orders To Correct Safety and Soundness Deficiencies</HD>
            <SECTNO>308.300</SECTNO>
            <SUBJECT>Scope.</SUBJECT>
            <SECTNO>308.301</SECTNO>
            <SUBJECT>Purpose.</SUBJECT>
            <SECTNO>308.302</SECTNO>

            <SUBJECT>Determination and notification of failure to meet a safety and soundness <PRTPAGE P="75"/>standard and request for compliance plan.</SUBJECT>
            <SECTNO>308.303</SECTNO>
            <SUBJECT>Filing of safety and soundness compliance plan.</SUBJECT>
            <SECTNO>308.304</SECTNO>
            <SUBJECT>Issuance of orders to correct deficiencies and to take or refrain from taking other actions.</SUBJECT>
            <SECTNO>308.305</SECTNO>
            <SUBJECT>Enforcement of orders.</SUBJECT>
          </SUBPART>
          <SUBPART>
            <HD SOURCE="HED">Subpart S—Applications for a Stay or Review of Actions of Bank Clearing Agencies</HD>
            <SECTNO>308.400</SECTNO>
            <SUBJECT>Scope.</SUBJECT>
            <SECTNO>308.401</SECTNO>
            <SUBJECT>Applications for stays of disciplinary sanctions or summary suspensions by a bank clearing agency.</SUBJECT>
            <SECTNO>308.402</SECTNO>
            <SUBJECT>Applications for review of final disciplinary sanctions, denials of participation, or prohibitions or limitations of access to services imposed by bank clearing agencies.</SUBJECT>
          </SUBPART>
        </CONTENTS>
        <AUTH>
          <HD SOURCE="HED">Authority:</HD>
          <P>5 U.S.C. 504, 554-557; 12 U.S.C. 93(b), 164, 505, 1815(e), 1817, 1818, 1820, 1828, 1829, 1829b, 1831i, 1831o, 1831p-1, 1832(c), 1884(b), 1972, 3102, 3108(a), 3349, 3909, 4717; 15 U.S.C. 78 (h) and (i), 78o-4(c), 78o-5, 78q-1, 78s 78u, 78u-2, 78u-3 and 78w; 28 U.S.C. 2461 note; 31 U.S.C. 330, 5321; 42 U.S.C. 4012a; sec. 31001(s), Pub. L. 104-134, 110 Stat. 1321-358.</P>
        </AUTH>
        <SOURCE>
          <HD SOURCE="HED">Source: </HD>
          <P>56 FR 37975, Aug. 9, 1991, unless otherwise noted.</P>
        </SOURCE>
        <SUBPART>
          <HD SOURCE="HED">Subpart A—Uniform Rules of Practice and Procedure</HD>
          <SECTION>
            <SECTNO>§ 308.1</SECTNO>
            <SUBJECT>Scope.</SUBJECT>
            <P>This subpart prescribes rules of practice and procedure applicable to adjudicatory proceedings as to which hearings on the record are provided for by the following statutory provisions:</P>
            <P>(a) Cease-and-desist proceedings under section 8(b) of the Federal Deposit Insurance Act (“FDIA”) (12 U.S.C. 1818(b));</P>
            <P>(b) Removal and prohibition proceedings under section 8(e) of the FDIA (12 U.S.C. 1818(e));</P>
            <P>(c) Change-in-control proceedings under section 7(j)(4) of the FDIA (12 U.S.C. 1817(j)(4)) to determine whether the Federal Deposit Insurance Corporation (“FDIC”), should issue an order to approve or disapprove a person's proposed acquisition of an institution and/or institution holding company;</P>
            <P>(d) Proceedings under section 15C(c)(2) of the Securities Exchange Act of 1934 (“Exchange Act”) (15 U.S.C. 78o-5), to impose sanctions upon any government securities broker or dealer or upon any person associated or seeking to become associated with a government securities broker or dealer for which the FDIC is the appropriate regulatory agency;</P>
            <P>(e) Assessment of civil money penalties by the FDIC against institutions, institution-affiliated parties, and certain other persons for which it is the appropriate regulatory agency for any violation of:</P>
            <P>(1) Sections 22(h) and 23 of the Federal Reserve Act (“FRA”), or any regulation issued thereunder, and certain unsafe or unsound practices or breaches of fiduciary duty, pursuant to 12 U.S.C. 1828(j);</P>
            <P>(2) Section 106(b) of the Bank Holding Company Act Amendments of 1970 (“BHCA Amendments of 1970”), and certain unsafe or unsound practices or breaches of fiduciary duty, pursuant to 12 U.S.C. 1972(2)(F);</P>
            <P>(3) Any provision of the Change in Bank Control Act of 1978, as amended (the “CBCA”), or any regulation or order issued thereunder, and certain unsafe or unsound practices, or breaches of fiduciary duty, pursuant to 12 U.S.C. 1817(j)(16);</P>
            <P>(4) Section 7(a)(1) of the FDIA, pursuant to 12 U.S.C. 1817(a)(1);</P>
            <P>(5) Any provision of the International Lending Supervision Act of 1983 (“ILSA”), or any rule, regulation or order issued thereunder, pursuant to 12 U.S.C. 3909;</P>
            <P>(6) Any provision of the International Banking Act of 1978 (“IBA”), or any rule, regulation or order issued thereunder, pursuant to 12 U.S.C. 3108;</P>
            <P>(7) Certain provisions of the Exchange Act, pursuant to section 21B of the Exchange Act (15 U.S.C. 78u-2);</P>
            <P>(8) Section 1120 of the Financial Institutions Reform, Recovery, and Enforcement Act of 1989 (“FIRREA”) (12 U.S.C. 3349), or any order or regulation issued thereunder;</P>

            <P>(9) The terms of any final or temporary order issued under section 8 of the FDIA or of any written agreement executed by the FDIC, the terms of any condition imposed in writing by the FDIC in connection with the grant of an application or request, certain unsafe or unsound practices or breaches <PRTPAGE P="76"/>of fiduciary duty, or any law or regulation not otherwise provided herein pursuant to 12 U.S.C. 1818(i)(2);</P>
            <P>(10) Any provision of law referenced in section 102(f) of the Flood Disaster Protection Act of 1973 (42 U.S.C. 4012a(f)) or any order or regulation issued thereunder; and</P>
            <P>(11) Any provision of law referenced in 31 U.S.C. 5321 or any order or regulation issued thereunder;</P>
            <P>(f) Remedial action under section 102(g) of the Flood Disaster Protection Act of 1973 (42 U.S.C. 4012a(g)); and</P>
            <P>(g) This subpart also applies to all other adjudications required by statute to be determined on the record after opportunity for an agency hearing, unless otherwise specifically provided for in the Local Rules.</P>
            <CITA>[56 FR 37975, Aug. 9, 1991, as amended at 61 FR 20347, May 6, 1996]</CITA>
          </SECTION>
          <SECTION>
            <SECTNO>§ 308.2</SECTNO>
            <SUBJECT>Rules of construction.</SUBJECT>
            <P>For purposes of this subpart:</P>
            <P>(a) Any term in the singular includes the plural, and the plural includes the singular, if such use would be appropriate;</P>
            <P>(b) Any use of a masculine, feminine, or neuter gender encompasses all three, if such use would be appropriate;</P>
            <P>(c) The term <E T="03">counsel</E> includes a non-attorney representative; and</P>
            <P>(d) Unless the context requires otherwise, a party's counsel of record, if any, may, on behalf of that party, take any action required to be taken by the party.</P>
          </SECTION>
          <SECTION>
            <SECTNO>§ 308.3</SECTNO>
            <SUBJECT>Definitions.</SUBJECT>
            <P>For purposes of this subpart, unless explicitly stated to the contrary:</P>
            <P>(a) <E T="03">Administrative law judge</E> means one who presides at an administrative hearing under authority set forth at 5 U.S.C. 556.</P>
            <P>(b) <E T="03">Adjudicatory proceeding</E> means a proceeding conducted pursuant to these rules and leading to the formulation of a final order other than a regulation.</P>
            <P>(c) <E T="03">Board of Directors</E> or <E T="03">Board</E> means the Board of Directors of the Federal Deposit Insurance Corporation or its designee.</P>
            <P>(d) <E T="03">Decisional employee</E> means any member of the Federal Deposit Insurance Corporation's or administrative law judge's staff who has not engaged in an investigative or prosecutorial role in a proceeding and who may assist the Board of Directors or the administrative law judge, respectively, in preparing orders, recommended decisions, decisions, and other documents under the Uniform Rules.</P>
            <P>(e) <E T="03">Designee</E> of the Board of Directors means officers or officials of the Federal Deposit Insurance Corporation acting pursuant to authority delegated by the Board of Directors as provided in 12 CFR part 303 of this chapter or by specific resolution of the Board of Directors.</P>
            <P>(f) <E T="03">Enforcement Counsel</E> means any individual who files a notice of appearance as counsel on behalf of the FDIC in an adjudicatory proceeding.</P>
            <P>(g) <E T="03">Executive Secretary</E> means the Executive Secretary of the Federal Deposit Insurance Corporation or his or her designee.</P>
            <P>(h) <E T="03">FDIC</E> means the Federal Deposit Insurance Corporation.</P>
            <P>(i) <E T="03">Final order</E> means an order issued by the FDIC with or without the consent of the affected institution or the institution-affiliated party, that has become final, without regard to the pendency of any petition for reconsideration or review.</P>
            <P>(j) <E T="03">Institution</E> includes:</P>
            <P>(1) Any bank as that term is defined in section 3(a) of the FDIA (12 U.S.C. 1813(a));</P>

            <P>(2) Any bank holding company or any subsidiary (other than a bank) of a bank holding company as those terms are defined in the BHCA (12 U.S.C. 1841 <E T="03">et seq.</E>);</P>
            <P>(3) Any savings association as that term is defined in section 3(b) of the FDIA (12 U.S.C. 1813(b)), any savings and loan holding company or any subsidiary thereof (other than a bank) as those terms are defined in section 10(a) of the HOLA (12 U.S.C. 1467(a));</P>

            <P>(4) Any organization operating under section 25 of the FRA (12 U.S.C. 601 <E T="03">et seq.</E>);</P>
            <P>(5) Any foreign bank or company to which section 8 of the IBA (12 U.S.C. 3106), applies or any subsidiary (other than a bank) thereof; and</P>

            <P>(6) Any federal agency as that term is defined in section 1(b) of the IBA (12 U.S.C. 3101(5)).<PRTPAGE P="77"/>
            </P>
            <P>(k) <E T="03">Institution-affiliated party</E> means any institution-affiliated party as that term is defined in section 3(u) of the FDIA (12 U.S.C. 1813(u)).</P>
            <P>(l) <E T="03">Local Rules</E> means those rules promulgated by the FDIC in those subparts of this part other than subpart A.</P>
            <P>(m) <E T="03">Office of Financial Institution Adjudication</E> (“OFIA”) means the executive body charged with overseeing the administration of administrative enforcement proceedings of the Office of the Comptroller of the Currency (“OCC”), the Board of Governors of the Federal Reserve Board (“FRB”), the FDIC, the Office of Thrift Supervision (“OTS”) and the National Credit Union Administration (“NCUA”).</P>
            <P>(n) <E T="03">Party</E> means the FDIC and any person named as a party in any notice.</P>
            <P>(o) <E T="03">Person</E> means an individual, sole proprietor, partnership, corporation, unincorporated association, trust, joint venture, pool, syndicate, agency or other entity or organization, including an institution as defined in paragraph (j) of this section.</P>
            <P>(p) <E T="03">Respondent</E> means any party other than the FDIC.</P>
            <P>(q) <E T="03">Uniform Rules</E> means those rules in subpart A of this part that pertain to the types of formal administrative enforcement actions set forth at § 308.01 and as specified in subparts B through P of this part.</P>
            <P>(r) <E T="03">Violation</E> includes any action (alone or with another or others) for or toward causing, bringing about, participating in, counseling, or aiding or abetting a violation.</P>
          </SECTION>
          <SECTION>
            <SECTNO>§ 308.4</SECTNO>
            <SUBJECT>Authority of Board of Directors.</SUBJECT>
            <P>The Board of Directors may, at any time during the pendency of a proceeding, perform, direct the performance of, or waive performance of, any act which could be done or ordered by the administrative law judge.</P>
          </SECTION>
          <SECTION>
            <SECTNO>§ 308.5</SECTNO>
            <SUBJECT>Authority of the administrative law judge.</SUBJECT>
            <P>(a) <E T="03">General rule.</E> All proceedings governed by this part shall be conducted in accordance with the provisions of chapter 5 of title 5 of the United States Code. The administrative law judge shall have all powers necessary to conduct a proceeding in a fair and impartial manner and to avoid unnecessary delay.</P>
            <P>(b) <E T="03">Powers.</E> The administrative law judge shall have all powers necessary to conduct the proceeding in accordance with paragraph (a) of this section, including the following powers:</P>
            <P>(1) To administer oaths and affirmations;</P>
            <P>(2) To issue subpoenas, subpoenas duces tecum, and protective orders, as authorized by this part, and to quash or modify any such subpoenas and orders;</P>
            <P>(3) To receive relevant evidence and to rule upon the admission of evidence and offers of proof;</P>
            <P>(4) To take or cause depositions to be taken as authorized by this subpart;</P>
            <P>(5) To regulate the course of the hearing and the conduct of the parties and their counsel;</P>
            <P>(6) To hold scheduling and/or pre-hearing conferences as set forth in § 308.31;</P>
            <P>(7) To consider and rule upon all procedural and other motions appropriate in an adjudicatory proceeding, provided that only the Board of Directors shall have the power to grant any motion to dismiss the proceeding or to decide any other motion that results in a final determination of the merits of the proceeding;</P>
            <P>(8) To prepare and present to the Board of Directors a recommended decision as provided herein;</P>
            <P>(9) To recuse himself or herself by motion made by a party or on his or her own motion;</P>
            <P>(10) To establish time, place and manner limitations on the attendance of the public and the media for any public hearing; and</P>
            <P>(11) To do all other things necessary and appropriate to discharge the duties of a presiding officer.</P>
          </SECTION>
          <SECTION>
            <SECTNO>§ 308.6</SECTNO>
            <SUBJECT>Appearance and practice in adjudicatory proceedings.</SUBJECT>
            <P>(a) <E T="03">Appearance before the FDIC or an administrative law judge</E>—(1) <E T="03">By attorneys.</E> Any member in good standing of the bar of the highest court of any state, commonwealth, possession, territory of the United States, or the District of Columbia may represent others before the FDIC if such attorney is not <PRTPAGE P="78"/>currently suspended or debarred from practice before the FDIC.</P>
            <P>(2) <E T="03">By non-attorneys.</E> An individual may appear on his or her own behalf; a member of a partnership may represent the partnership; a duly authorized officer, director, or employee of any government unit, agency, institution, corporation or authority may represent that unit, agency, institution, corporation or authority if such officer; director, or employee is not currently suspended or debarred from practice before the FDIC.</P>
            <P>(3) <E T="03">Notice of appearance</E>. Any individual acting as counsel on behalf of a party, including the FDIC, shall file a notice of appearance with OFIA at or before the time that individual submits papers or otherwise appears on behalf of a party in the adjudicatory proceeding. The notice of appearance must include a written declaration that the individual is currently qualified as provided in paragraph (a)(1) or (a)(2) of this section and is authorized to represent the particular party. By filing a notice of appearance on behalf of a party in an adjudicatory proceeding, the counsel agrees and represents that he or she is authorized to accept service on behalf of the represented party and that, in the event of withdrawal from representation, he or she will, if required by the administrative law judge, continue to accept service until new counsel has filed a notice of appearance or until the represented party indicates that he or she will proceed on a <E T="03">pro se</E> basis.</P>
            <P>(b) <E T="03">Sanctions.</E> Dilatory, obstructionist, egregious, contemptuous or contumacious conduct at any phase of any adjudicatory proceeding may be grounds for exclusion or suspension of counsel from the proceeding.</P>
            <CITA>[56 FR 37975, Aug. 9, 1991, as amended at 61 FR 20347, May 6, 1996]</CITA>
          </SECTION>
          <SECTION>
            <SECTNO>§ 308.7</SECTNO>
            <SUBJECT>Good faith certification.</SUBJECT>
            <P>(a) <E T="03">General requirement.</E> Every filing or submission of record following the issuance of a notice shall be signed by at least one counsel of record in his or her individual name and shall state that counsel's address and telephone number. A party who acts as his or her own counsel shall sign his or her individual name and state his or her address and telephone number on every filing or submission of record.</P>
            <P>(b) <E T="03">Effect of signature.</E> (1) The signature of counsel or a party shall constitute a certification that: The counsel or party has read the filing or submission of record; to the best of his or her knowledge, information, and belief formed after reasonable inquiry, the filing or submission of record is well-grounded in fact and is warranted by existing law or a good faith argument for the extension, modification, or reversal of existing law; and the filing or submission of record is not made for any improper purpose, such as to harass or to cause unnecessary delay or needless increase in the cost of litigation.</P>
            <P>(2) If a filing or submission of record is not signed, the administrative law judge shall strike the filing or submission of record, unless it is signed promptly after the omission is called to the attention of the pleader or movant.</P>
            <P>(c) <E T="03">Effect of making oral motion or argument.</E> The act of making any oral motion or oral argument by any counsel or party constitutes a certification that to the best of his or her knowledge, information, and belief formed after reasonable inquiry, his or her statements are well-grounded in fact and are warranted by existing law or a good faith argument for the extension, modification, or reversal of existing law, and are not made for any improper purpose, such as to harass or to cause unnecessary delay or needless increase in the cost of litigation.</P>
          </SECTION>
          <SECTION>
            <SECTNO>§ 308.8</SECTNO>
            <SUBJECT>Conflicts of interest.</SUBJECT>
            <P>(a) <E T="03">Conflict of interest in representation.</E> No person shall appear as counsel for another person in an adjudicatory proceeding if it reasonably appears that such representation may be materially limited by that counsel's responsibilities to a third person or by the counsel's own interests. The administrative law judge may take corrective measures at any stage of a proceeding to cure a conflict of interest in representation, including the issuance of an order limiting the scope of representation or disqualifying an individual <PRTPAGE P="79"/>from appearing in a representative capacity for the duration of the proceeding.</P>
            <P>(b) <E T="03">Certification and waiver</E>. If any person appearing as counsel represents two or more parties to an adjudicatory proceeding or also represents a non-party on a matter relevant to an issue in the proceeding, counsel must certify in writing at the time of filing the notice of appearance required by § 308.6(a):</P>
            <P>(1) That the counsel has personally and fully discussed the possibility of conflicts of interest with each such party and non-party; and</P>
            <P>(2) That each such party and non-party waives any right it might otherwise have had to assert any known conflicts of interest or to assert any non-material conflicts of interest during the course of the proceeding.</P>
            <CITA>[56 FR 37975, Aug. 9, 1991, as amended at 61 FR 20347, May 6, 1996]</CITA>
          </SECTION>
          <SECTION>
            <SECTNO>§ 308.9</SECTNO>
            <SUBJECT>Ex parte communications.</SUBJECT>
            <P>(a) <E T="03">Definition</E>—(1) <E T="03">Ex parte communication</E> means any material oral or written communication relevant to the merits of an adjudicatory proceeding that was neither on the record nor on reasonable prior notice to all parties that takes place between:</P>
            <P>(i) An interested person outside the FDIC (including such person's counsel); and</P>
            <P>(ii) The administrative law judge handling that proceeding, the Board of Directors, or a decisional employee.</P>
            <P>(2) <E T="03">Exception.</E> A request for status of the proceeding does not constitute an ex parte communication.</P>
            <P>(b) <E T="03">Prohibition of ex parte communications.</E> From the time the notice is issued by the FDIC until the date that the Board of Directors issues its final decision pursuant to § 308.40(c):</P>
            <P>(1) No interested person outside the FDIC shall make or knowingly cause to be made an ex parte communication to any member of the Board of Directors, the administrative law judge, or a decisional employee; and</P>
            <P>(2) No member of the Board of Directors, no administrative law judge, or decisional employee shall make or knowingly cause to be made to any interested person outside the FDIC any ex parte communication.</P>
            <P>(c) <E T="03">Procedure upon occurrence of ex parte communication.</E> If an ex parte communication is received by the administrative law judge, any member of the Board of Directors or other person identified in paragraph (a) of this section, that person shall cause all such written communications (or, if the communication is oral, a memorandum stating the substance of the communication) to be placed on the record of the proceeding and served on all parties. All other parties to the proceeding shall have an opportunity, within ten days of receipt of service of the ex parte communication, to file responses thereto and to recommend any sanctions that they believe to be appropriate under the circumstances. The administrative law judge or the Board of Directors shall then determine whether any action should be taken concerning the ex parte communication in accordance with paragraph (d) of this section.</P>
            <P>(d) <E T="03">Sanctions.</E> Any party or his or her counsel who makes a prohibited ex parte communication, or who encourages or solicits another to make any such communication, may be subject to any appropriate sanction or sanctions imposed by the Board of Directors or the administrative law judge including, but not limited to, exclusion from the proceedings and an adverse ruling on the issue which is the subject of the prohibited communication.</P>
            <P>(e) <E T="03">Separation of functions.</E> Except to the extent required for the disposition of ex parte matters as authorized by law, the administrative law judge may not consult a person or party on any matter relevant to the merits of the adjudication, unless on notice and opportunity for all parties to participate. An employee or agent engaged in the performance of investigative or prosecuting functions for the FDIC in a case may not, in that or a factually related case, participate or advise in the decision, recommended decision, or agency review of the recommended decision under § 308.40 except as witness or counsel in public proceedings.</P>
            <CITA>[56 FR 37975, Aug. 9, 1991, as amended at 60 FR 24762, May 10, 1995]</CITA>
          </SECTION>
          <SECTION>
            <PRTPAGE P="80"/>
            <SECTNO>§ 308.10</SECTNO>
            <SUBJECT>Filing of papers.</SUBJECT>
            <P>(a) <E T="03">Filing.</E> Any papers required to be filed, excluding documents produced in response to a discovery request pursuant to §§ 308.25 and 308.26, shall be filed with the OFIA, except as otherwise provided.</P>
            <P>(b) <E T="03">Manner of filing.</E> Unless otherwise specified by the Board of Directors or the administrative law judge, filing may be accomplished by:</P>
            <P>(1) Personal service;</P>
            <P>(2) Delivering the papers to a reliable commercial courier service, overnight delivery service, or to the U.S. Post Office for Express Mail delivery;</P>
            <P>(3) Mailing the papers by first class, registered, or certified mail; or</P>
            <P>(4) Transmission by electronic media, only if expressly authorized, and upon any conditions specified, by the Board of Directors or the administrative law judge. All papers filed by electronic media shall also concurrently be filed in accordance with paragraph (c) of this section.</P>
            <P>(c) <E T="03">Formal requirements as to papers filed—</E>(1) <E T="03">Form.</E> All papers filed must set forth the name, address, and telephone number of the counsel or party making the filing and must be accompanied by a certification setting forth when and how service has been made on all other parties. All papers filed must be double-spaced and printed or typewritten on 8<FR>1/2</FR>×11 inch paper, and must be clear and legible.</P>
            <P>(2) <E T="03">Signature.</E> All papers must be dated and signed as provided in § 308.7.</P>
            <P>(3) <E T="03">Caption.</E> All papers filed must include at the head thereof, or on a title page, the name of the FDIC and of the filing party, the title and docket number of the proceeding, and the subject of the particular paper.</P>
            <P>(4) <E T="03">Number of copies.</E> Unless otherwise specified by the Board of Directors, or the administrative law judge, an original and one copy of all documents and papers shall be filed, except that only one copy of transcripts of testimony and exhibits shall be filed.</P>
          </SECTION>
          <SECTION>
            <SECTNO>§ 308.11</SECTNO>
            <SUBJECT>Service of papers.</SUBJECT>
            <P>(a) <E T="03">By the parties.</E> Except as otherwise provided, a party filing papers shall serve a copy upon the counsel of record for all other parties to the proceeding so represented, and upon any party not so represented.</P>
            <P>(b) <E T="03">Method of service.</E> Except as provided in paragraphs (c)(2) and (d) of this section, a serving party shall use one or more of the following methods of service:</P>
            <P>(1) Personal service;</P>
            <P>(2) Delivering the papers to a reliable commercial courier service, overnight delivery service, or to the U.S. Post Office for Express Mail delivery;</P>
            <P>(3) Mailing the papers by first class, registered, or certified mail; or</P>
            <P>(4) Transmission by electronic media, only if the parties mutually agree. Any papers served by electronic media shall also concurrently be served in accordance with the requirements of § 308.10(c).</P>
            <P>(c) <E T="03">By the Board of Directors.</E> (1) All papers required to be served by the Board of Directors or the administrative law judge upon a party who has appeared in the proceeding in accordance with § 308.6, shall be served by any means specified in paragraph (b) of this section.</P>
            <P>(2) If a party has not appeared in the proceeding in accordance with § 308.6, the Board of Directors or the administrative law judge shall make service by any of the following methods:</P>
            <P>(i) By personal service;</P>
            <P>(ii) If the person to be served is an individual, by delivery to a person of suitable age and discretion at the physical location where the individual resides or works;</P>
            <P>(iii) If the person to be served is a corporation or other association, by delivery to an officer, managing or general agent, or to any other agent authorized by appointment or by law to receive service and, if the agent is one authorized by statute to receive service and the statute so requires, by also mailing a copy to the party;</P>
            <P>(iv) By registered or certified mail addressed to the party's last known address; or</P>
            <P>(v) By any other method reasonably calculated to give actual notice.</P>
            <P>(d) <E T="03">Subpoenas</E>. Service of a subpoena may be made:</P>
            <P>(1) By personal service;</P>

            <P>(2) If the person to be served is an individual, by delivery to a person of <PRTPAGE P="81"/>suitable age and discretion at the physical location where the individual resides or works;</P>
            <P>(3) By delivery to an agent which, in the case of a corporation or other association, is delivery to an officer, managing or general agent, or to any other agent authorized by appointment or by law to receive service and, if the agent is one authorized by statute to receive service and the statute so requires, by also mailing a copy to the party;</P>
            <P>(4) By registered or certified mail addressed to the person's last known address; or</P>
            <P>(5) In such other manner as is reasonably calculated to give actual notice.</P>
            <P>(e) <E T="03">Area of service.</E> Service in any state, territory, possession of the United States, or the District of Columbia, on any person or company doing business in any state, territory, possession of the United States, or the District of Columbia, or on any person as otherwise provided by law, is effective without regard to the place where the hearing is held, provided that if service is made on a foreign bank in connection with an action or proceeding involving one or more of its branches or agencies located in any state, territory, possession of the United States, or the District of Columbia, service shall be made on at least one branch or agency so involved.</P>
            <CITA>[56 FR 37975, Aug. 9, 1991, as amended at 61 FR 20347, May 6, 1996]</CITA>
          </SECTION>
          <SECTION>
            <SECTNO>§ 308.12</SECTNO>
            <SUBJECT>Construction of time limits.</SUBJECT>
            <P>(a) <E T="03">General rule</E>. In computing any period of time prescribed by this subpart, the date of the act or event that commences the designated period of time is not included. The last day so computed is included unless it is a Saturday, Sunday, or Federal holiday. When the last day is a Saturday, Sunday, or Federal holiday, the period runs until the end of the next day that is not a Saturday, Sunday, or Federal holiday. Intermediate Saturdays, Sundays, and Federal holidays are included in the computation of time. However, when the time period within which an act is to be performed is ten days or less, not including any additional time allowed for in paragraph (c) of this section, intermediate Saturdays, Sundays, and Federal holidays are not included.</P>
            <P>(b) <E T="03">When papers are deemed to be filed or served.</E> (1) Filing and service are deemed to be effective:</P>
            <P>(i) In the case of personal service or same day commercial courier delivery, upon actual service;</P>
            <P>(ii) In the case of overnight commercial delivery service, U.S. Express Mail delivery, or first class, registered, or certified mail, upon deposit in or delivery to an appropriate point of collection;</P>
            <P>(iii) In the case of transmission by electronic media, as specified by the authority receiving the filing, in the case of filing, and as agreed among the parties, in the case of service.</P>
            <P>(2) The effective filing and service dates specified in paragraph (b) (1) of this section may be modified by the Board of Directors or administrative law judge in the case of filing or by agreement of the parties in the case of service.</P>
            <P>(c) <E T="03">Calculation of time for service and filing of responsive papers.</E> Whenever a time limit is measured by a prescribed period from the service of any notice or paper, the applicable time limits are calculated as follows:</P>
            <P>(1) If service is made by first class, registered, or certified mail, add three calendar days to the prescribed period;</P>
            <P>(2) If service is made by express mail or overnight delivery service, add one calendar day to the prescribed period; or</P>
            <P>(3) If service is made by electronic media transmission, add one calendar day to the prescribed period, unless otherwise determined by the Board of Directors or the administrative law judge in the case of filing, or by agreement among the parties in the case of service.</P>
            <CITA>[56 FR 37975, Aug. 9, 1991, as amended at 61 FR 20348, May 6, 1996]</CITA>
          </SECTION>
          <SECTION>
            <SECTNO>§ 308.13</SECTNO>
            <SUBJECT>Change of time limits.</SUBJECT>

            <P>Except as otherwise provided by law, the administrative law judge may, for good cause shown, extend the time limits prescribed by the Uniform Rules or by any notice or order issued in the proceedings. After the referral of the case to the Board of Directors pursuant to § 308.38, the Board of Directors may grant extensions of the time limits for good cause shown. Extensions may be <PRTPAGE P="82"/>granted at the motion of a party or of the Board of Directors after notice and opportunity to respond is afforded all non-moving parties, or on the administrative law judge's own motion.</P>
          </SECTION>
          <SECTION>
            <SECTNO>§ 308.14</SECTNO>
            <SUBJECT>Witness fees and expenses.</SUBJECT>
            <P>Witnesses subpoenaed for testimony or depositions shall be paid the same fees for attendance and mileage as are paid in the United States district courts in proceedings in which the United States is a party, provided that, in the case of a discovery subpoena addressed to a party, no witness fees or mileage need be paid. Fees for witnesses shall be tendered in advance by the party requesting the subpoena, except that fees and mileage need not be tendered in advance where the FDIC is the party requesting the subpoena. The FDIC shall not be required to pay any fees to, or expenses of, any witness not subpoenaed by the FDIC.</P>
          </SECTION>
          <SECTION>
            <SECTNO>§ 308.15</SECTNO>
            <SUBJECT>Opportunity for informal settlement.</SUBJECT>
            <P>Any respondent may, at any time in the proceeding, unilaterally submit to Enforcement Counsel written offers or proposals for settlement of a proceeding, without prejudice to the rights of any of the parties. No such offer or proposal shall be made to any FDIC representative other than Enforcement Counsel. Submission of a written settlement offer does not provide a basis for adjourning or otherwise delaying all or any portion of a proceeding under this part. No settlement offer or proposal, or any subsequent negotiation or resolution, is admissible as evidence in any proceeding.</P>
          </SECTION>
          <SECTION>
            <SECTNO>§ 308.16</SECTNO>
            <SUBJECT>FDIC's right to conduct examination.</SUBJECT>
            <P>Nothing contained in this subpart limits in any manner the right of the FDIC to conduct any examination, inspection, or visitation of any institution or institution-affiliated party, or the right of the FDIC to conduct or continue any form of investigation authorized by law.</P>
          </SECTION>
          <SECTION>
            <SECTNO>§ 308.17</SECTNO>
            <SUBJECT>Collateral attacks on adjudicatory proceeding.</SUBJECT>
            <P>If an interlocutory appeal or collateral attack is brought in any court concerning all or any part of an adjudicatory proceeding, the challenged adjudicatory proceeding shall continue without regard to the pendency of that court proceeding. No default or other failure to act as directed in the adjudicatory proceeding within the times prescribed in this subpart shall be excused based on the pendency before any court of any interlocutory appeal or collateral attack.</P>
          </SECTION>
          <SECTION>
            <SECTNO>§ 308.18</SECTNO>
            <SUBJECT>Commencement of proceeding and contents of notice.</SUBJECT>
            <P>(a) <E T="03">Commencement of proceeding.</E> (1)(i) Except for change-in-control proceedings under section 7(j)(4) of the FDIA (12 U.S.C. 1817(j)(4)), a proceeding governed by this subpart is commenced by issuance of a notice by the FDIC.</P>
            <P>(ii) The notice must be served by the Executive Secretary upon the respondent and given to any other appropriate financial institution supervisory authority where required by law.</P>
            <P>(iii) The notice must be filed with the OFIA.</P>
            <P>(2) Change-in-control proceedings under section 7(j)(4) of the FDIA (12 U.S.C. 1817(j)(4)) commence with the issuance of an order by the FDIC.</P>
            <P>(b) <E T="03">Contents of notice.</E> The notice must set forth:</P>
            <P>(1) The legal authority for the proceeding and for the FDIC's jurisdiction over the proceeding;</P>
            <P>(2) A statement of the matters of fact or law showing that the FDIC is entitled to relief;</P>
            <P>(3) A proposed order or prayer for an order granting the requested relief;</P>
            <P>(4) The time, place, and nature of the hearing as required by law or regulation;</P>
            <P>(5) The time within which to file an answer as required by law or regulation;</P>
            <P>(6) The time within which to request a hearing as required by law or regulation; and</P>
            <P>(7) That the answer and/or request for a hearing shall be filed with OFIA.</P>
          </SECTION>
          <SECTION>
            <SECTNO>§ 308.19</SECTNO>
            <SUBJECT>Answer.</SUBJECT>
            <P>(a) <E T="03">When.</E> Within 20 days of service of the notice, respondent shall file an answer as designated in the notice. In a civil money penalty proceeding, respondent shall also file a request for a <PRTPAGE P="83"/>hearing within 20 days of service of the notice.</P>
            <P>(b) <E T="03">Content of answer.</E> An answer must specifically respond to each paragraph or allegation of fact contained in the notice and must admit, deny, or state that the party lacks sufficient information to admit or deny each allegation of fact. A statement of lack of information has the effect of a denial. Denials must fairly meet the substance of each allegation of fact denied; general denials are not permitted. When a respondent denies part of an allegation, that part must be denied and the remainder specifically admitted. Any allegation of fact in the notice which is not denied in the answer must be deemed admitted for purposes of the proceeding. A respondent is not required to respond to the portion of a notice that constitutes the prayer for relief or proposed order. The answer must set forth affirmative defenses, if any, asserted by the respondent.</P>
            <P>(c) <E T="03">Default</E>—(1) <E T="03">Effect of failure to answer.</E> Failure of a respondent to file an answer required by this section within the time provided constitutes a waiver of his or her right to appear and contest the allegations in the notice. If no timely answer is filed, Enforcement Counsel may file a motion for entry of an order of default. Upon a finding that no good cause has been shown for the failure to file a timely answer, the administrative law judge shall file with the Board of Directors a recommended decision containing the findings and the relief sought in the notice. Any final order issued by the Board of Directors based upon a respondent's failure to answer is deemed to be an order issued upon consent.</P>
            <P>(2) <E T="03">Effect of failure to request a hearing in civil money penalty proceedings.</E> If respondent fails to request a hearing as required by law within the time provided, the notice of assessment constitutes a final and unappealable order.</P>
          </SECTION>
          <SECTION>
            <SECTNO>§ 308.20</SECTNO>
            <SUBJECT>Amended pleadings.</SUBJECT>
            <P>(a) <E T="03">Amendments</E>. The notice or answer may be amended or supplemented at any stage of the proceeding. The respondent must answer an amended notice within the time remaining for the respondent's answer to the original notice, or within ten days after service of the amended notice, whichever period is longer, unless the Board of Directors or administrative law judge orders otherwise for good cause.</P>
            <P>(b) <E T="03">Amendments to conform to the evidence</E>. When issues not raised in the notice or answer are tried at the hearing by express or implied consent of the parties, they will be treated in all respects as if they had been raised in the notice or answer, and no formal amendments are required. If evidence is objected to at the hearing on the ground that it is not within the issues raised by the notice or answer, the administrative law judge may admit the evidence when admission is likely to assist in adjudicating the merits of the action and the objecting party fails to satisfy the administrative law judge that the admission of such evidence would unfairly prejudice that party's action or defense upon the merits. The administrative law judge may grant a continuance to enable the objecting party to meet such evidence.</P>
            <CITA>[61 FR 20348, May 6, 1996]</CITA>
          </SECTION>
          <SECTION>
            <SECTNO>§ 308.21</SECTNO>
            <SUBJECT>Failure to appear.</SUBJECT>
            <P>Failure of a respondent to appear in person at the hearing or by a duly authorized counsel constitutes a waiver of respondent's right to a hearing and is deemed an admission of the facts as alleged and consent to the relief sought in the notice. Without further proceedings or notice to the respondent, the administrative law judge shall file with the Board of Directors a recommended decision containing the findings and the relief sought in the notice.</P>
          </SECTION>
          <SECTION>
            <SECTNO>§ 308.22</SECTNO>
            <SUBJECT>Consolidation and severance of actions.</SUBJECT>
            <P>(a) <E T="03">Consolidation.</E> (1) On the motion of any party, or on the administrative law judge's own motion, the administrative law judge may consolidate, for some or all purposes, any two or more proceedings, if each such proceeding involves or arises out of the same transaction, occurrence or series of transactions or occurrences, or involves at least one common respondent or a material common question of law or fact, unless such consolidation would cause unreasonable delay or injustice.<PRTPAGE P="84"/>
            </P>
            <P>(2) In the event of consolidation under paragraph (a)(1) of this section, appropriate adjustment to the prehearing schedule must be made to avoid unnecessary expense, inconvenience, or delay.</P>
            <P>(b) <E T="03">Severance.</E> The administrative law judge may, upon the motion of any party, sever the proceeding for separate resolution of the matter as to any respondent only if the administrative law judge finds that:</P>
            <P>(1) Undue prejudice or injustice to the moving party would result from not severing the proceeding; and</P>
            <P>(2) Such undue prejudice or injustice would outweigh the interests of judicial economy and expedition in the complete and final resolution of the proceeding.</P>
          </SECTION>
          <SECTION>
            <SECTNO>§ 308.23</SECTNO>
            <SUBJECT>Motions.</SUBJECT>
            <P>(a) <E T="03">In writing.</E> (1) Except as otherwise provided herein, an application or request for an order or ruling must be made by written motion.</P>
            <P>(2) All written motions must state with particularity the relief sought and must be accompanied by a proposed order.</P>
            <P>(3) No oral argument may be held on written motions except as otherwise directed by the administrative law judge. Written memoranda, briefs, affidavits or other relevant material or documents may be filed in support of or in opposition to a motion.</P>
            <P>(b) <E T="03">Oral motions.</E> A motion may be made orally on the record unless the administrative law judge directs that such motion be reduced to writing.</P>
            <P>(c) <E T="03">Filing of motions.</E> Motions must be filed with the administrative law judge, except that following the filing of the recommended decision, motions must be filed with the Executive Secretary for disposition by the Board of Directors.</P>
            <P>(d) <E T="03">Responses.</E> (1) Except as otherwise provided herein, within ten days after service of any written motion, or within such other period of time as may be established by the administrative law judge or the Executive Secretary, any party may file a written response to a motion. The administrative law judge shall not rule on any oral or written motion before each party has had an opportunity to file a response.</P>
            <P>(2) The failure of a party to oppose a written motion or an oral motion made on the record is deemed a consent by that party to the entry of an order substantially in the form of the order accompanying the motion.</P>
            <P>(e) <E T="03">Dilatory motions.</E> Frivolous, dilatory or repetitive motions are prohibited. The filing of such motions may form the basis for sanctions.</P>
            <P>(f) <E T="03">Dispositive motions.</E> Dispositive motions are governed by §§ 308.29 and 308.30.</P>
          </SECTION>
          <SECTION>
            <SECTNO>§ 308.24</SECTNO>
            <SUBJECT>Scope of document discovery.</SUBJECT>
            <P>(a) <E T="03">Limits on discovery</E>. (1) Subject to the limitations set out in paragraphs (b), (c), and (d) of this section, a party to a proceeding under this subpart may obtain document discovery by serving a written request to produce documents. For purposes of a request to produce documents, the term “documents” may be defined to include drawings, graphs, charts, photographs, recordings, data stored in electronic form, and other data compilations from which information can be obtained, or translated, if necessary, by the parties through detection devices into reasonably usable form, as well as written material of all kinds.</P>
            <P>(2) Discovery by use of deposition is governed by subpart I of this part.</P>
            <P>(3) Discovery by use of interrogatories is not permitted.</P>
            <P>(b) <E T="03">Relevance</E>. A party may obtain document discovery regarding any matter, not privileged, that has material relevance to the merits of the pending action. Any request to produce documents that calls for irrelevant material, that is unreasonable, oppressive, excessive in scope, unduly burdensome, or repetitive of previous requests, or that seeks to obtain privileged documents will be denied or modified. A request is unreasonable, oppressive, excessive in scope or unduly burdensome if, among other things, it fails to include justifiable limitations on the time period covered and the geographic locations to be searched, the time provided to respond in the request is inadequate, or the request calls for copies of documents to be delivered to the requesting party and fails to include the requestor's written agreement to pay <PRTPAGE P="85"/>in advance for the copying, in accordance with § 308.25.</P>
            <P>(c) <E T="03">Privileged matter.</E> Privileged documents are not discoverable. Privileges include the attorney-client privilege, work-product privilege, any government's or government agency's deliberative-process privilege, and any other privileges the Constitution, any applicable act of Congress, or the principles of common law provide.</P>
            <P>(d) <E T="03">Time limits.</E> All discovery, including all responses to discovery requests, shall be completed at least 20 days prior to the date scheduled for the commencement of the hearing. No exceptions to this time limit shall be permitted, unless the administrative law judge finds on the record that good cause exists for waiving the requirements of this paragraph.</P>
            <CITA>[56 FR 37975, Aug. 9, 1991, as amended at 61 FR 20348, May 6, 1996]</CITA>
          </SECTION>
          <SECTION>
            <SECTNO>§ 308.25</SECTNO>
            <SUBJECT>Request for document discovery from parties.</SUBJECT>
            <P>(a) <E T="03">General rule</E>. Any party may serve on any other party a request to produce for inspection any discoverable documents that are in the possession, custody, or control of the party upon whom the request is served. The request must identify the documents to be produced either by individual item or by category, and must describe each item and category with reasonable particularity. Documents must be produced as they are kept in the usual course of business or must be organized to correspond with the categories in the request.</P>
            <P>(b) <E T="03">Production or copying</E>. The request must specify a reasonable time, place, and manner for production and performing any related acts. In lieu of inspecting the documents, the requesting party may specify that all or some of the responsive documents be copied and the copies delivered to the requesting party. If copying of fewer than 250 pages is requested, the party to whom the request is addressed shall bear the cost of copying and shipping charges. If a party requests 250 pages or more of copying, the requesting party shall pay for the copying and shipping charges. Copying charges are the current per-page copying rate imposed by 12 CFR part 310 implementing the Freedom of Information Act (5 U.S.C. 552). The party to whom the request is addressed may require payment in advance before producing the documents.</P>
            <P>(c) <E T="03">Obligation to update responses.</E> A party who has responded to a discovery request with a response that was complete when made is not required to supplement the response to include documents thereafter acquired, unless the responding party learns that:</P>
            <P>(1) The response was materially incorrect when made; or</P>
            <P>(2) The response, though correct when made, is no longer true and a failure to amend the response is, in substance, a knowing concealment.</P>
            <P>(d) <E T="03">Motions to limit discovery.</E> (1) Any party that objects to a discovery request may, within ten days of being served with such request, file a motion in accordance with the provisions of § 308.23 to strike or otherwise limit the request. If an objection is made to only a portion of an item or category in a request, the portion objected to shall be specified. Any objections not made in accordance with this paragraph and § 308.23 are waived.</P>
            <P>(2) The party who served the request that is the subject of a motion to strike or limit may file a written response within five days of service of the motion. No other party may file a response.</P>
            <P>(e) <E T="03">Privilege</E>. At the time other documents are produced, the producing party must reasonably identify all documents withheld on the grounds of privilege and must produce a statement of the basis for the assertion of privilege. When similar documents that are protected by deliberative process, attorney-work-product, or attorney-client privilege are voluminous, these documents may be identified by category instead of by individual document. The administrative law judge retains discretion to determine when the identification by category is insufficient.</P>
            <P>(f) <E T="03">Motions to compel production.</E> (1) If a party withholds any documents as privileged or fails to comply fully with a discovery request, the requesting party may, within ten days of the assertion of privilege or of the time the failure to comply becomes known to the requesting party, file a motion in <PRTPAGE P="86"/>accordance with the provisions of § 308.23 for the issuance of a subpoena compelling production.</P>
            <P>(2) The party who asserted the privilege or failed to comply with the request may file a written response to a motion to compel within five days of service of the motion. No other party may file a response.</P>
            <P>(g) <E T="03">Ruling on motions</E>. After the time for filing responses pursuant to this section has expired, the administrative law judge shall rule promptly on all motions filed pursuant to this section. If the administrative law judge determines that a discovery request, or any of its terms, calls for irrelevant material, is unreasonable, oppressive, excessive in scope, unduly burdensome, or repetitive of previous requests, or seeks to obtain privileged documents, he or she may deny or modify the request, and may issue appropriate protective orders, upon such conditions as justice may require. The pendency of a motion to strike or limit discovery or to compel production is not a basis for staying or continuing the proceeding, unless otherwise ordered by the administrative law judge. Notwithstanding any other provision in this part, the administrative law judge may not release, or order a party to produce, documents withheld on grounds of privilege if the party has stated to the administrative law judge its intention to file a timely motion for interlocutory review of the administrative law judge's order to produce the documents, and until the motion for interlocutory review has been decided.</P>
            <P>(h) <E T="03">Enforcing discovery subpoenas.</E> If the administrative law judge issues a subpoena compelling production of documents by a party, the subpoenaing party may, in the event of noncompliance and to the extent authorized by applicable law, apply to any appropriate United States district court for an order requiring compliance with the subpoena. A party's right to seek court enforcement of a subpoena shall not in any manner limit the sanctions that may be imposed by the administrative law judge against a party who fails to produce subpoenaed documents.</P>
            <CITA>[56 FR 37975, Aug. 9, 1991, as amended at 61 FR 20348, May 6, 1996]</CITA>
          </SECTION>
          <SECTION>
            <SECTNO>§ 308.26</SECTNO>
            <SUBJECT>Document subpoenas to nonparties.</SUBJECT>
            <P>(a) <E T="03">General rules.</E> (1) Any party may apply to the administrative law judge for the issuance of a document discovery subpoena addressed to any person who is not a party to the proceeding. The application must contain a proposed document subpoena and a brief statement showing the general relevance and reasonableness of the scope of documents sought. The subpoenaing party shall specify a reasonable time, place, and manner for making production in response to the document subpoena.</P>
            <P>(2) A party shall only apply for a document subpoena under this section within the time period during which such party could serve a discovery request under § 308.24(d). The party obtaining the document subpoena is responsible for serving it on the subpoenaed person and for serving copies on all parties. Document subpoenas may be served in any state, territory, or possession of the United States, the District of Columbia, or as otherwise provided by law.</P>
            <P>(3) The administrative law judge shall promptly issue any document subpoena requested pursuant to this section. If the administrative law judge determines that the application does not set forth a valid basis for the issuance of the subpoena, or that any of its terms are unreasonable, oppressive, excessive in scope, or unduly burdensome, he or she may refuse to issue the subpoena or may issue it in a modified form upon such conditions as may be consistent with the Uniform Rules.</P>
            <P>(b) <E T="03">Motion to quash or modify.</E> (1) Any person to whom a document subpoena is directed may file a motion to quash or modify such subpoena, accompanied by a statement of the basis for quashing or modifying the subpoena. The movant shall serve the motion on all parties, and any party may respond to such motion within ten days of service of the motion.</P>

            <P>(2) Any motion to quash or modify a document subpoena must be filed on the same basis, including the assertion of privilege, upon which a party could object to a discovery request under § 308.25(d), and during the same time <PRTPAGE P="87"/>limits during which such an objection could be filed.</P>
            <P>(c) <E T="03">Enforcing document subpoenas.</E> If a subpoenaed person fails to comply with any subpoena issued pursuant to this section or any order of the administrative law judge which directs compliance with all or any portion of a document subpoena, the subpoenaing party or any other aggrieved party may, to the extent authorized by applicable law, apply to an appropriate United States district court for an order requiring compliance with so much of the document subpoena as the administrative law judge has not quashed or modified. A party's right to seek court enforcement of a document subpoena shall in no way limit the sanctions that may be imposed by the administrative law judge on a party who induces a failure to comply with subpoenas issued under this section.</P>
          </SECTION>
          <SECTION>
            <SECTNO>§ 308.27</SECTNO>
            <SUBJECT>Deposition of witness unavailable for hearing.</SUBJECT>
            <P>(a) <E T="03">General rules.</E> (1) If a witness will not be available for the hearing, a party desiring to preserve that witness’ testimony for the record may apply in accordance with the procedures set forth in paragraph (a)(2) of this section, to the administrative law judge for the issuance of a subpoena, including a subpoena duces tecum, requiring the attendance of the witness at a deposition. The administrative law judge may issue a deposition subpoena under this section upon showing that:</P>
            <P>(i) The witness will be unable to attend or may be prevented from attending the hearing because of age, sickness or infirmity, or will otherwise be unavailable;</P>
            <P>(ii) The witness’ unavailability was not procured or caused by the subpoenaing party;</P>
            <P>(iii) The testimony is reasonably expected to be material; and</P>
            <P>(iv) Taking the deposition will not result in any undue burden to any other party and will not cause undue delay of the proceeding.</P>
            <P>(2) The application must contain a proposed deposition subpoena and a brief statement of the reasons for the issuance of the subpoena. The subpoena must name the witness whose deposition is to be taken and specify the time and place for taking the deposition. A deposition subpoena may require the witness to be deposed at any place within the country in which that witness resides or has a regular place of employment or such other convenient place as the administrative law judge shall fix.</P>
            <P>(3) Any requested subpoena that sets forth a valid basis for its issuance must be promptly issued, unless the administrative law judge on his or her own motion, requires a written response or requires attendance at a conference concerning whether the requested subpoena should be issued.</P>
            <P>(4) The party obtaining a deposition subpoena is responsible for serving it on the witness and for serving copies on all parties. Unless the administrative law judge orders otherwise, no deposition under this section shall be taken on fewer than ten days’ notice to the witness and all parties. Deposition subpoenas may be served in any state, territory, possession of the United States, or the District of Columbia, on any person or company doing business in any state, territory, possession of the United States, or the District of Columbia, or as otherwise permitted by law.</P>
            <P>(b) <E T="03">Objections to deposition subpoenas.</E> (1) The witness and any party who has not had an opportunity to oppose a deposition subpoena issued under this section may file a motion with the administrative law judge to quash or modify the subpoena prior to the time for compliance specified in the subpoena, but not more than ten days after service of the subpoena.</P>
            <P>(2) A statement of the basis for the motion to quash or modify a subpoena issued under this section must accompany the motion. The motion must be served on all parties.</P>
            <P>(c) <E T="03">Procedure upon deposition.</E> (1) Each witness testifying pursuant to a deposition subpoena must be duly sworn, and each party shall have the right to examine the witness. Objections to questions or documents must be in short form, stating the grounds for the objection. Failure to object to questions or documents is not deemed a waiver except where the ground for the objection might have been avoided if the objection had been timely presented. All <PRTPAGE P="88"/>questions, answers, and objections must be recorded.</P>
            <P>(2) Any party may move before the administrative law judge for an order compelling the witness to answer any questions the witness has refused to answer or submit any evidence the witness has refused to submit during the deposition.</P>
            <P>(3) The deposition must be subscribed by the witness, unless the parties and the witness, by stipulation, have waived the signing, or the witness is ill, cannot be found, or has refused to sign. If the deposition is not subscribed by the witness, the court reporter taking the deposition shall certify that the transcript is a true and complete transcript of the deposition.</P>
            <P>(d) <E T="03">Enforcing subpoenas.</E> If a subpoenaed person fails to comply with any order of the administrative law judge which directs compliance with all or any portion of a deposition subpoena under paragraph (b) or (c)(3) of this section, the subpoenaing party or other aggrieved party may, to the extent authorized by applicable law, apply to an appropriate United States district court for an order requiring compliance with the portions of the subpoena that the administrative law judge has ordered enforced. A party's right to seek court enforcement of a deposition subpoena in no way limits the sanctions that may be imposed by the administrative law judge on a party who fails to comply with, or procures a failure to comply with, a subpoena issued under this section.</P>
          </SECTION>
          <SECTION>
            <SECTNO>§ 308.28</SECTNO>
            <SUBJECT>Interlocutory review.</SUBJECT>
            <P>(a) <E T="03">General rule.</E> The Board of Directors may review a ruling of the administrative law judge prior to the certification of the record to the Board of Directors only in accordance with the procedures set forth in this section and § 308.23.</P>
            <P>(b) <E T="03">Scope of review.</E> The Board of Directors may exercise interlocutory review of a ruling of, the administrative law judge if the Board of Directors finds that:</P>
            <P>(1) The ruling involves a controlling question of law or policy as to which substantial grounds exist for a difference of opinion;</P>
            <P>(2) Immediate review of the ruling may materially advance the ultimate termination of the proceeding;</P>
            <P>(3) Subsequent modification of the ruling at the conclusion of the proceeding would be an inadequate remedy; or</P>
            <P>(4) Subsequent modification of the ruling would cause unusual delay or expense.</P>
            <P>(c) <E T="03">Procedure.</E> Any request for interlocutory review shall be filed by a party with the administrative law judge within ten days of his or her ruling and shall otherwise comply with § 308.23. Any party may file a response to a request for interlocutory review in accordance with § 308.23(d). Upon the expiration of the time for filing all responses, the administrative law judge shall refer the matter to the Board of Directors for final disposition.</P>
            <P>(d) <E T="03">Suspension of proceeding.</E> Neither a request for interlocutory review nor any disposition of such a request by the Board of Directors under this section suspends or stays the proceeding unless otherwise ordered by the administrative law judge or the Board of Directors.</P>
          </SECTION>
          <SECTION>
            <SECTNO>§ 308.29</SECTNO>
            <SUBJECT>Summary disposition.</SUBJECT>
            <P>(a) <E T="03">In general.</E> The administrative law judge shall recommend that the Board of Directors issue a final order granting a motion for summary disposition if the undisputed pleaded facts, admissions, affidavits, stipulations, documentary evidence, matters as to which official notice may be taken, and any other evidentiary materials properly submitted in connection with a motion for summary disposition show that:</P>
            <P>(1) There is no genuine issue as to any material fact; and</P>
            <P>(2) The moving party is entitled to a decision in its favor as a matter of law.</P>
            <P>(b) <E T="03">Filing of motions and responses.</E> (1) Any party who believes that there is no genuine issue of material fact to be determined and that he or she is entitled to a decision as a matter of law may move at any time for summary disposition in its favor of all or any part of the proceeding. Any party, within 20 days after service of such a motion, or within such time period as allowed by the administrative law judge, may file a response to such motion.<PRTPAGE P="89"/>
            </P>
            <P>(2) A motion for summary disposition must be accompanied by a statement of the material facts as to which the moving party contends there is no genuine issue. Such motion must be supported by documentary evidence, which may take the form of admissions in pleadings, stipulations, depositions, investigatory depositions, transcripts, affidavits and any other evidentiary materials that the moving party contends support his or her position. The motion must also be accompanied by a brief containing the points and authorities in support of the contention of the moving party. Any party opposing a motion for summary disposition must file a statement setting forth those material facts as to which he or she contends a genuine dispute exists. Such opposition must be supported by evidence of the same type as that submitted with the motion for summary disposition and a brief containing the points and authorities in support of the contention that summary disposition would be inappropriate.</P>
            <P>(c) <E T="03">Hearing on motion.</E> At the request of any party or on his or her own motion, the administrative law judge may hear oral argument on the motion for summary disposition.</P>
            <P>(d) <E T="03">Decision on motion.</E> Following receipt of a motion for summary disposition and all responses thereto, the administrative law judge shall determine whether the moving party is entitled to summary disposition. If the administrative law judge determines that summary disposition is warranted, the administrative law judge shall submit a recommended decision to that effect to the Board of Directors. If the administrative law judge finds that no party is entitled to summary disposition, he or she shall make a ruling denying the motion.</P>
          </SECTION>
          <SECTION>
            <SECTNO>§ 308.30</SECTNO>
            <SUBJECT>Partial summary disposition.</SUBJECT>
            <P>If the administrative law judge determines that a party is entitled to summary disposition as to certain claims only, he or she shall defer submitting a recommended decision as to those claims. A hearing on the remaining issues must be ordered. Those claims for which the administrative law judge has determined that summary disposition is warranted will be addressed in the recommended decision filed at the conclusion of the hearing.</P>
          </SECTION>
          <SECTION>
            <SECTNO>§ 308.31</SECTNO>
            <SUBJECT>Scheduling and prehearing conferences.</SUBJECT>
            <P>(a) <E T="03">Scheduling conference.</E> Within 30 days of service of the notice or order commencing a proceeding or such other time as parties may agree, the administrative law judge shall direct counsel for all parties to meet with him or her in person at a specified time and place prior to the hearing or to confer by telephone for the purpose of scheduling the course and conduct of the proceeding. This meeting or telephone conference is called a “scheduling conference.” The identification of potential witnesses, the time for and manner of discovery, and the exchange of any prehearing materials including witness lists, statements of issues, stipulations, exhibits and any other materials may also be determined at the scheduling conference.</P>
            <P>(b) <E T="03">Prehearing conferences.</E> The administrative law judge may, in addition to the scheduling conference, on his or her own motion or at the request of any party, direct counsel for the parties to meet with him or her (in person or by telephone) at a prehearing conference to address any or all of the following:</P>
            <P>(1) Simplification and clarification of the issues;</P>
            <P>(2) Stipulations, admissions of fact, and the contents, authenticity and admissibility into evidence of documents;</P>
            <P>(3) Matters of which official notice may be taken;</P>
            <P>(4) Limitation of the number of witnesses;</P>
            <P>(5) Summary disposition of any or all issues;</P>
            <P>(6) Resolution of discovery issues or disputes;</P>
            <P>(7) Amendments to pleadings; and</P>
            <P>(8) Such other matters as may aid in the orderly disposition of the proceeding.</P>
            <P>(c) <E T="03">Transcript.</E> The administrative law judge, in his or her discretion, may require that a scheduling or prehearing conference be recorded by a court reporter. A transcript of the conference and any materials filed, including orders, becomes part of the record of the <PRTPAGE P="90"/>proceeding. A party may obtain a copy of the transcript at his or her expense.</P>
            <P>(d) <E T="03">Scheduling or prehearing orders.</E> At or within a reasonable time following the conclusion of the scheduling conference or any prehearing conference, the administrative law judge shall serve on each party an order setting forth any agreements reached and any procedural determinations made.</P>
          </SECTION>
          <SECTION>
            <SECTNO>§ 308.32</SECTNO>
            <SUBJECT>Prehearing submissions.</SUBJECT>
            <P>(a) Within the time set by the administrative law judge, but in no case later than 14 days before the start of the hearing, each party shall serve on every other party, his or her:</P>
            <P>(1) Prehearing statement;</P>
            <P>(2) Final list of witnesses to be called to testify at the hearing, including name and address of each witness and a short summary of the expected testimony of each witness;</P>
            <P>(3) List of the exhibits to be introduced at the hearing along with a copy of each exhibit; and</P>
            <P>(4) Stipulations of fact, if any.</P>
            <P>(b) Effect of failure to comply. No witness may testify and no exhibits may be introduced at the hearing if such witness or exhibit is not listed in the prehearing submissions pursuant to paragraph (a) of this section, except for good cause shown.</P>
          </SECTION>
          <SECTION>
            <SECTNO>§ 308.33</SECTNO>
            <SUBJECT>Public hearings.</SUBJECT>
            <P>(a) <E T="03">General rule</E>. All hearings shall be open to the public, unless the FDIC, in its discretion, determines that holding an open hearing would be contrary to the public interest. Within 20 days of service of the notice or, in the case of change-in-control proceedings under section 7(j)(4) of the FDIA (12 U.S.C. 1817(j)(4)), within 20 days from service of the hearing order, any respondent may file with the Executive Secretary a request for a private hearing, and any party may file a reply to such a request. A party must serve on the administrative law judge a copy of any request or reply the party files with the Executive Secretary. The form of, and procedure for, these requests and replies are governed by § 308.23. A party's failure to file a request or a reply constitutes a waiver of any objections regarding whether the hearing will be public or private.</P>
            <P>(b) <E T="03">Filing document under seal.</E> Enforcement Counsel, in his or her discretion, may file any document or part of a document under seal if disclosure of the document would be contrary to the public interest. The administrative law judge shall take all appropriate steps to preserve the confidentiality of such documents or parts thereof, including closing portions of the hearing to the public.</P>
            <CITA>[56 FR 37975, Aug. 9, 1991, as amended at 61 FR 20349, May 6, 1996]</CITA>
          </SECTION>
          <SECTION>
            <SECTNO>§ 308.34</SECTNO>
            <SUBJECT>Hearing subpoenas.</SUBJECT>
            <P>(a) <E T="03">Issuance.</E> (1) Upon application of a party showing general relevance and reasonableness of scope of the testimony or other evidence sought, the administrative law judge may issue a subpoena or a subpoena <E T="03">duces tecum</E> requiring the attendance of a witness at the hearing or the production of documentary or physical evidence at the hearing. The application for a hearing subpoena must also contain a proposed subpoena specifying the attendance of a witness or the production of evidence from any state, territory, or possession of the United States, the District of Columbia, or as otherwise provided by law at any designated place where the hearing is being conducted. The party making the application shall serve a copy of the application and the proposed subpoena on every other party.</P>
            <P>(2) A party may apply for a hearing subpoena at any time before the commencement of a hearing. During a hearing, a party may make an application for a subpoena orally on the record before the administrative law judge.</P>

            <P>(3) The administrative law judge shall promptly issue any hearing subpoena requested pursuant to this section. If the administrative law judge determines that the application does not set forth a valid basis for the issuance of the subpoena, or that any of its terms are unreasonable, oppressive, excessive in scope, or unduly burdensome, he or she may refuse to issue the subpoena or may issue it in a modified form upon any conditions consistent with this subpart. Upon issuance by the administrative law judge, the party making the application shall serve the subpoena on the <PRTPAGE P="91"/>person named in the subpoena and on each party.</P>
            <P>(b) <E T="03">Motion to quash or modify.</E> (1) Any person to whom a hearing subpoena is directed or any party may file a motion to quash or modify the subpoena, accompanied by a statement of the basis for quashing or modifying the subpoena. The movant must serve the motion on each party and on the person named in the subpoena. Any party may respond to the motion within ten days of service of the motion.</P>
            <P>(2) Any motion to quash or modify a hearing subpoena must be filed prior to the time specified in the subpoena for compliance, but not more than ten days after the date of service of the subpoena upon the movant.</P>
            <P>(c) <E T="03">Enforcing subpoenas.</E> If a subpoenaed person fails to comply with any subpoena issued pursuant to this section or any order of the administrative law judge which directs compliance with all or any portion of a document subpoena, the subpoenaing party or any other aggrieved party may seek enforcement of the subpoena pursuant to § 308.26(c).</P>
            <CITA>[56 FR 37975, Aug. 9, 1991, as amended at 61 FR 20349, May 6, 1996]</CITA>
          </SECTION>
          <SECTION>
            <SECTNO>§ 308.35</SECTNO>
            <SUBJECT>Conduct of hearings.</SUBJECT>
            <P>(a) <E T="03">General rules.</E> (1) Hearings shall be conducted so as to provide a fair and expeditious presentation of the relevant disputed issues. Each party has the right to present its case or defense by oral and documentary evidence and to conduct such cross examination as may be required for full disclosure of the facts.</P>
            <P>(2) <E T="03">Order of hearing.</E> Enforcement Counsel shall present its case-in-chief first, unless otherwise ordered by the administrative law judge, or unless otherwise expressly specified by law or regulation. Enforcement Counsel shall be the first party to present an opening statement and a closing statement, and may make a rebuttal statement after the respondent's closing statement. If there are multiple respondents, respondents may agree among themselves as to their order of presentation of their cases, but if they do not agree the administrative law judge shall fix the order.</P>
            <P>(3) <E T="03">Examination of witnesses.</E> Only one counsel for each party may conduct an examination of a witness, except that in the case of extensive direct examination, the administrative law judge may permit more than one counsel for the party presenting the witness to conduct the examination. A party may have one counsel conduct the direct examination and another counsel conduct re-direct examination of a witness, or may have one counsel conduct the cross examination of a witness and another counsel conduct the re-cross examination of a witness.</P>
            <P>(4) <E T="03">Stipulations.</E> Unless the administrative law judge directs otherwise, all stipulations of fact and law previously agreed upon by the parties, and all documents, the admissibility of which have been previously stipulated, will be admitted into evidence upon commencement of the hearing.</P>
            <P>(b) <E T="03">Transcript.</E> The hearing must be recorded and transcribed. The reporter will make the transcript available to any party upon payment by that party to the reporter of the cost of the transcript. The administrative law judge may order the record corrected, either upon motion to correct, upon stipulation of the parties, or following notice to the parties upon the administrative law judge's own motion.</P>
            <CITA>[56 FR 37975, Aug. 9, 1991, as amended at 61 FR 20349, May 6, 1996]</CITA>
          </SECTION>
          <SECTION>
            <SECTNO>§ 308.36</SECTNO>
            <SUBJECT>Evidence.</SUBJECT>
            <P>(a) <E T="03">Admissibility.</E> (1) Except as is otherwise set forth in this section, relevant, material, and reliable evidence that is not unduly repetitive is admissible to the fullest extent authorized by the Administrative Procedure Act and other applicable law.</P>
            <P>(2) Evidence that would be admissible under the Federal Rules of Evidence is admissible in a proceeding conducted pursuant to this subpart.</P>
            <P>(3) Evidence that would be inadmissible under the Federal Rules of Evidence may not be deemed or ruled to be inadmissible in a proceeding conducted pursuant to this subpart if such evidence is relevant, material, reliable and not unduly repetitive.</P>
            <P>(b) <E T="03">Official notice.</E> (1) Official notice may be taken of any material fact which may be judicially noticed by a <PRTPAGE P="92"/>United States district court and any material information in the official public records of any Federal or state government agency.</P>
            <P>(2) All matters officially noticed by the administrative law judge or Board of Directors shall appear on the record.</P>
            <P>(3) If official notice is requested or taken of any material fact, the parties, upon timely request, shall be afforded an opportunity to object.</P>
            <P>(c) <E T="03">Documents.</E> (1) A duplicate copy of a document is admissible to the same extent as the original, unless a genuine issue is raised as to whether the copy is in some material respect not a true and legible copy of the original.</P>
            <P>(2) Subject to the requirements of paragraph (a) of this section, any document, including a report of examination, supervisory activity, inspection or visitation, prepared by an appropriate Federal financial institution regulatory agency or state regulatory agency, is admissible either with or without a sponsoring witness.</P>
            <P>(3) Witnesses may use existing or newly created charts, exhibits, calendars, calculations, outlines or other graphic material to summarize, illustrate, or simplify the presentation of testimony. Such materials may, subject to the administrative law judge's discretion, be used with or without being admitted into evidence.</P>
            <P>(d) <E T="03">Objections.</E> (1) Objections to the admissibility of evidence must be timely made and rulings on all objections must appear on the record.</P>
            <P>(2) When an objection to a question or line of questioning propounded to a witness is sustained, the examining counsel may make a specific proffer on the record of what he or she expected to prove by the expected testimony of the witness, either by representation of counsel or by direct interrogation of the witness.</P>
            <P>(3) The administrative law judge shall retain rejected exhibits, adequately marked for identification, for the record, and transmit such exhibits to the Board of Directors.</P>
            <P>(4) Failure to object to admission of evidence or to any ruling constitutes a waiver of the objection.</P>
            <P>(e) <E T="03">Stipulations.</E> The parties may stipulate as to any relevant matters of fact or the authentication of any relevant documents. Such stipulations must be received in evidence at a hearing, and are binding on the parties with respect to the matters therein stipulated.</P>
            <P>(f) <E T="03">Depositions of unavailable witnesses.</E> (1) If a witness is unavailable to testify at a hearing, and that witness has testified in a deposition to which all parties in a proceeding had notice and an opportunity to participate, a party may offer as evidence all or any part of the transcript of the deposition, including deposition exhibits, if any.</P>
            <P>(2) Such deposition transcript is admissible to the same extent that testimony would have been admissible had that person testified at the hearing, provided that if a witness refused to answer proper questions during the depositions, the administrative law judge may, on that basis, limit the admissibility of the deposition in any manner that justice requires.</P>
            <P>(3) Only those portions of a deposition received in evidence at the hearing constitute a part of the record.</P>
          </SECTION>
          <SECTION>
            <SECTNO>§ 308.37</SECTNO>
            <SUBJECT>Post-hearing filings.</SUBJECT>
            <P>(a) <E T="03">Proposed findings and conclusions and supporting briefs.</E> (1) Using the same method of service for each party, the administrative law judge shall serve notice upon each party, that the certified transcript, together with all hearing exhibits and exhibits introduced but not admitted into evidence at the hearing, has been filed. Any party may file with the administrative law judge proposed findings of fact, proposed conclusions of law, and a proposed order within 30 days following service of this notice by the administrative law judge or within such longer period as may be ordered by the administrative law judge.</P>

            <P>(2) Proposed findings and conclusions must be supported by citation to any relevant authorities and by page references to any relevant portions of the record. A post-hearing brief may be filed in support of proposed findings and conclusions, either as part of the same document or in a separate document. Any party who fails to file timely with the administrative law judge any proposed finding or conclusion is deemed to have waived the right to <PRTPAGE P="93"/>raise in any subsequent filing or submission any issue not addressed in such party's proposed finding or conclusion.</P>
            <P>(b) <E T="03">Reply briefs.</E> Reply briefs may be filed within 15 days after the date on which the parties’ proposed findings, conclusions, and order are due. Reply briefs must be strictly limited to responding to new matters, issues, or arguments raised in another party's papers. A party who has not filed proposed findings of fact and conclusions of law or a post-hearing brief may not file a reply brief.</P>
            <P>(c) <E T="03">Simultaneous filing required.</E> The administrative law judge shall not order the filing by any party of any brief or reply brief in advance of the other party's filing of its brief.</P>
            <CITA>[56 FR 37975, Aug. 9, 1991, as amended at 61 FR 20349, May 6, 1996]</CITA>
          </SECTION>
          <SECTION>
            <SECTNO>§ 308.38</SECTNO>
            <SUBJECT>Recommended decision and filing of record.</SUBJECT>
            <P>(a) <E T="03">Filing of recommended decision and record.</E> Within 45 days after expiration of the time allowed for filing reply briefs under § 308.37(b), the administrative law judge shall file with and certify to the Executive Secretary, for decision, the record of the proceeding. The record must include the administrative law judge's recommended decision, recommended findings of fact, recommended conclusions of law, and proposed order; all prehearing and hearing transcripts, exhibits, and rulings; and the motions, briefs, memoranda, and other supporting papers filed in connection with the hearing. The administrative law judge shall serve upon each party the recommended decision, findings, conclusions, and proposed order.</P>
            <P>(b) <E T="03">Filing of index.</E> At the same time the administrative law judge files with and certifies to the Executive Secretary for final determination the record of the proceeding, the administrative law judge shall furnish to the Executive Secretary a certified index of the entire record of the proceeding. The certified index shall include, at a minimum, an entry for each paper, document or motion filed with the administrative law judge in the proceeding, the date of the filing, and the identity of the filer. The certified index shall also include an exhibit index containing, at a minimum, an entry consisting of exhibit number and title or description for: Each exhibit introduced and admitted into evidence at the hearing; each exhibit introduced but not admitted into evidence at the hearing; each exhibit introduced and admitted into evidence after the completion of the hearing; and each exhibit introduced but not admitted into evidence after the completion of the hearing.</P>
            <CITA>[61 FR 20350, May 6, 1996]</CITA>
          </SECTION>
          <SECTION>
            <SECTNO>§ 308.39</SECTNO>
            <SUBJECT>Exceptions to recommended decision.</SUBJECT>
            <P>(a) <E T="03">Filing exceptions.</E> Within 30 days after service of the recommended decision, findings, conclusions, and proposed order under § 308.38, a party may file with the Executive Secretary written exceptions to the administrative law judge's recommended decision, findings, conclusions or proposed order, to the admission or exclusion of evidence, or to the failure of the administrative law judge to make a ruling proposed by a party. A supporting brief may be filed at the time the exceptions are filed, either as part of the same document or in a separate document.</P>
            <P>(b) <E T="03">Effect of failure to file or raise exceptions.</E> (1) Failure of a party to file exceptions to those matters specified in paragraph (a) of this section within the time prescribed is deemed a waiver of objection thereto.</P>
            <P>(2) No exception need be considered by the Board of Directors if the party taking exception had an opportunity to raise the same objection, issue, or argument before the administrative law judge and failed to do so.</P>
            <P>(c) <E T="03">Contents.</E> (1) All exceptions and briefs in support of such exceptions must be confined to the particular matters in, or omissions from, the administrative law judge's recommendations to which that party takes exception.</P>

            <P>(2) All exceptions and briefs in support of exceptions must set forth page or paragraph references to the specific parts of the administrative law judge's recommendations to which exception is taken, the page or paragraph references to those portions of the record relied upon to support each exception, <PRTPAGE P="94"/>and the legal authority relied upon to support each exception.</P>
          </SECTION>
          <SECTION>
            <SECTNO>§ 308.40</SECTNO>
            <SUBJECT>Review by Board of Directors.</SUBJECT>
            <P>(a) <E T="03">Notice of submission to Board of Directors.</E> When the Executive Secretary determines that the record in the proceeding is complete, the Executive Secretary shall serve notice upon the parties that the proceeding has been submitted to the Board of Directors for final decision.</P>
            <P>(b) <E T="03">Oral argument before the Board of Directors.</E> Upon the initiative of the Board of Directors or on the written request of any party filed with the Executive Secretary within the time for filing exceptions, the Board of Directors may order and hear oral argument on the recommended findings, conclusions, decision, and order of the administrative law judge. A written request by a party must show good cause for oral argument and state reasons why arguments cannot be presented adequately in writing. A denial of a request for oral argument may be set forth in the Board of Directors’ final decision. Oral argument before the Board of Directors must be on the record.</P>
            <P>(c) <E T="03">Final decision.</E> (1) Decisional employees may advise and assist the Board of Directors in the consideration and disposition of the case. The final decision of the Board of Directors will be based upon review of the entire record of the proceeding, except that the Board of Directors may limit the issues to be reviewed to those findings and conclusions to which opposing arguments or exceptions have been filed by the parties.</P>
            <P>(2) The Board of Directors shall render a final decision within 90 days after notification of the parties that the case has been submitted for final decision, or 90 days after oral argument, whichever is later, unless the Board of Directors orders that the action or any aspect thereof be remanded to the administrative law judge for further proceedings. Copies of the final decision and order of the Board of Directors shall be served upon each party to the proceeding, upon other persons required by statute, and, if directed by the Board of Directors or required by statute, upon any appropriate state or Federal supervisory authority.</P>
          </SECTION>
          <SECTION>
            <SECTNO>§ 308.41</SECTNO>
            <SUBJECT>Stays pending judicial review.</SUBJECT>
            <P>The commencement of proceedings for judicial review of a final decision and order of the FDIC may not, unless specifically ordered by the Board of Directors or a reviewing court, operate as a stay of any order issued by the FDIC. The Board of Directors may, in its discretion, and on such terms as it finds just, stay the effectiveness of all or any part of its order pending a final decision on a petition for review of that order.</P>
          </SECTION>
        </SUBPART>
        <SUBPART>
          <HD SOURCE="HED">Subpart B—General Rules of Procedure</HD>
          <SECTION>
            <SECTNO>§ 308.101</SECTNO>
            <SUBJECT>Scope of Local Rules.</SUBJECT>
            <P>(a) Subparts B and C of the Local Rules prescribe rules of practice and procedure to be followed in the administrative enforcement proceedings initiated by the FDIC as set forth in § 308.01 of the Uniform Rules.</P>
            <P>(b) Except as otherwise specifically provided, the Uniform Rules and subpart B of the Local Rules shall not apply to subparts D through S of the Local Rules.</P>
            <P>(c) Subpart C of the Local Rules shall apply to any administrative proceeding initiated by the FDIC.</P>
            <CITA>[56 FR 37975, Aug. 9, 1991, as amended at 64 FR 62100, Nov. 16, 1999]</CITA>
          </SECTION>
          <SECTION>
            <SECTNO>§ 308.102</SECTNO>
            <SUBJECT>Authority of Board of Directors and Executive Secretary.</SUBJECT>
            <P>(a) <E T="03">The Board of Directors.</E> (1) The Board of Directors may, at any time during the pendency of a proceeding, perform, direct the performance of, or waive performance of, any act which could be done or ordered by the Executive Secretary.</P>
            <P>(2) Nothing contained in this part 308 shall be construed to limit the power of the Board of Directors granted by applicable statutes or regulations.</P>
            <P>(b) <E T="03">The Executive Secretary.</E> (1) When no administrative law judge has jurisdiction over a proceeding, the Executive Secretary may act in place of, and with the same authority as, an administrative law judge, except that the Executive Secretary may not hear a case <PRTPAGE P="95"/>on the merits or make a recommended decision on the merits to the Board of Directors.</P>
            <P>(2) Pursuant to authority delegated by the Board of Directors, the Executive Secretary, Deputy Executive Secretary or the Assistant Executive Secretary (Operations), upon the advice and recommendation of the Deputy General Counsel for Litigation or, in his absence, the Assistant General Counsel, Trial Litigation Section, may issue rulings in proceedings under sections 7(j), 8, 18(j), 19, 32 and 38 of the FDIA (12 USC 1817(j), 1818, 1828(j), 1829, 1831i and 1831o concerning:</P>
            <P>(i) Denials of requests for private hearing;</P>
            <P>(ii) Interlocutory appeals;</P>
            <P>(iii) Stays pending judicial review;</P>
            <P>(iv) Reopenings of the record and/or remands of the record to the ALJ;</P>
            <P>(v) Supplementation of the evidence in the record;</P>
            <P>(vi) All remands from the courts of appeals not involving substantive issues;</P>
            <P>(vii) Extensions of stays of orders terminating deposit insurance; and</P>
            <P>(viii) All matters, including final decisions, in proceedings under section 8(g) of the FDIA (12 U.S.C. 1818(g)).</P>
            <CITA>[56 FR 37975, Aug. 9, 1991, as amended at 64 FR 62100, Nov. 16, 1999]</CITA>
          </SECTION>
          <SECTION>
            <SECTNO>§ 308.103</SECTNO>
            <SUBJECT>Appointment of administrative law judge.</SUBJECT>
            <P>(a) <E T="03">Appointment.</E> Unless otherwise directed by the Board of Directors or as otherwise provided in the Local Rules, a hearing within the scope of this part 308 shall be held before an administrative law judge of the Office of Financial Institution Adjudication (“OFIA”).</P>
            <P>(b) <E T="03">Procedures.</E> (1) The Executive Secretary shall promptly after issuance of the notice refer the matter to the OFIA which shall secure the appointment of an administrative law judge to hear the proceeding.</P>
            <P>(2) OFIA shall advise the parties, in writing, that an administrative law judge has been appointed.</P>
          </SECTION>
          <SECTION>
            <SECTNO>§ 308.104</SECTNO>
            <SUBJECT>Filings with the Board of Directors.</SUBJECT>
            <P>(a) <E T="03">General rule.</E> All materials required to be filed with or referred to the Board of Directors in any proceedings under this part 308 shall be filed with the Executive Secretary, Federal Deposit Insurance Corporation, 550 17th Street, NW., Washington, DC 20429.</P>
            <P>(b) <E T="03">Scope.</E> Filings to be made with the Executive Secretary include pleadings and motions filed during the proceeding; the record filed by the administrative law judge after the issuance of a recommended decision; the recommended decision filed by the administrative law judge following a motion for summary disposition; referrals by the administrative law judge of motions for interlocutory review; motions and responses to motions filed by the parties after the record has been certified to the Board of Directors; exceptions and requests for oral argument; and any other papers required to be filed with the Board of Directors under this part 308.</P>
          </SECTION>
          <SECTION>
            <SECTNO>§ 308.105</SECTNO>
            <SUBJECT>Custodian of the record.</SUBJECT>
            <P>The Executive Secretary is the official custodian of the record when no administrative law judge has jurisdiction over the proceeding. As the official custodian, the Executive Secretary shall maintain the official record of all papers filed in each proceeding.</P>
          </SECTION>
          <SECTION>
            <SECTNO>§ 308.106</SECTNO>
            <SUBJECT>Written testimony in lieu of oral hearing.</SUBJECT>
            <P>(a) <E T="03">General rule.</E> (1) At any time more than fifteen days before the hearing is to commence, on the motion of any party or on his or her own motion, the administrative law judge may order that the parties present part or all of their case-in-chief and, if ordered, their rebuttal, in the form of exhibits and written statements sworn to by the witness offering such statements as evidence, provided that if any party objects, the administrative law judge shall not require such a format if that format would violate the objecting party's right under the Administrative Procedure Act, or other applicable law, or would otherwise unfairly prejudice that party.</P>

            <P>(2) Any such order shall provide that each party shall, upon request, have the same right of oral cross-examination (or redirect examination) as would exist had the witness testified orally <PRTPAGE P="96"/>rather than through a written statement. Such order shall also provide that any party has a right to call any hostile witness or adverse party to testify orally.</P>
            <P>(b) <E T="03">Scheduling of submission of written testimony.</E> (1) If written direct testimony and exhibits are ordered under paragraph (a) of this section, the administrative law judge shall require that it be filed within the time period for commencement of the hearing, and the hearing shall be deemed to have commenced on the day such testimony is due.</P>
            <P>(2) Absent good cause shown, written rebuttal, if any, shall be submitted and the oral portion of the hearing begun within 30 days of the date set for filing written direct testimony.</P>
            <P>(3) The administrative law judge shall direct, unless good cause requires otherwise, that—</P>
            <P>(i) All parties shall simultaneously file any exhibits and written direct testimony required under paragraph (b)(1) of this section; and</P>
            <P>(ii) All parties shall simultaneously file any exhibits and written rebuttal required under paragraph (b)(2) of this section.</P>
            <P>(c) <E T="03">Failure to comply with order to file written testimony.</E> (1) The failure of any party to comply with an order to file written testimony or exhibits at the time and in the manner required under this section shall be deemed a waiver of that party's right to present any evidence, except testimony of a previously identified adverse party or hostile witness. Failure to file written testimony or exhibits is, however, not a waiver of that party's right of cross-examination or a waiver of the right to present rebuttal evidence that was not required to be submitted in written form.</P>
            <P>(2) Late filings of papers under this section may be allowed and accepted only upon good cause shown.</P>
          </SECTION>
          <SECTION>
            <SECTNO>§ 308.107</SECTNO>
            <SUBJECT>Document discovery.</SUBJECT>
            <P>(a) Parties to proceedings set forth at § 308.01 of the Uniform Rules and as provided in the Local Rules may obtain discovery only through the production of documents. No other form of discovery shall be allowed.</P>
            <P>(b) Any questioning at a deposition of a person producing documents pursuant to a document subpoena shall be strictly limited to the identification of documents produced by that person and a reasonable examination to determine whether the subpoenaed person made an adequate search for, and has produced, all subpoenaed documents.</P>
          </SECTION>
        </SUBPART>
        <SUBPART>
          <HD SOURCE="HED">Subpart C—Rules of Practice Before the FDIC and Standards of Conduct</HD>
          <SECTION>
            <SECTNO>§ 308.108</SECTNO>
            <SUBJECT>Sanctions.</SUBJECT>
            <P>(a) <E T="03">General rule.</E> Appropriate sanctions may be imposed when any counsel or party has acted, or failed to act, in a manner required by applicable statute, regulations, or order, and that act or failure to act:</P>
            <P>(1) Constitutes contemptuous conduct;</P>
            <P>(2) Has in a material way injured or prejudiced some other party in terms of substantive injury, incurring additional expenses including attorney's fees, prejudicial delay, or otherwise;</P>
            <P>(3) Is a clear and unexcused violation of an applicable statute, regulation, or order; or</P>
            <P>(4) Has unduly delayed the proceeding.</P>
            <P>(b) <E T="03">Sanctions.</E> Sanctions which may be imposed include any one or more of the following:</P>
            <P>(1) Issuing an order against the party;</P>
            <P>(2) Rejecting or striking any testimony or documentary evidence offered, or other papers filed, by the party;</P>
            <P>(3) Precluding the party from contesting specific issues or findings;</P>
            <P>(4) Precluding the party from offering certain evidence or from challenging or contesting certain evidence offered by another party;</P>
            <P>(5) Precluding the party from making a late filing or conditioning a late filing on any terms that are just; and</P>
            <P>(6) Assessing reasonable expenses, including attorney's fees, incurred by any other party as a result of the improper action or failure to act.</P>
            <P>(c) <E T="03">Limits on dismissal as a sanction.</E> No recommendation of dismissal shall be made by the administrative law judge or granted by the Board of Directors based on the failure to hold a hearing within the time period called for in <PRTPAGE P="97"/>this part 308, or on the failure of an administrative law judge to render a recommended decision within the time period called for in this part 308, absent a finding:</P>
            <P>(1) That the delay resulted solely or principally from the conduct of the FDIC enforcement counsel;</P>
            <P>(2) That the conduct of the FDIC enforcement counsel is unexcused;</P>
            <P>(3) That the moving respondent took all reasonable steps to oppose and prevent the subject delay;</P>
            <P>(4) That the moving respondent has been materially prejudiced or injured; and</P>
            <P>(5) That no lesser or different sanction is adequate.</P>
            <P>(d) <E T="03">Procedure for imposition of sanctions.</E> (1) The administrative law judge, upon the request of any party, or on his or her own motion, may impose sanctions in accordance with this section, provided that the administrative law judge may only recommend to the Board of Directors the sanction of entering a final order determining the case on the merits.</P>
            <P>(2) No sanction, other than refusing to accept late papers, authorized by this section shall be imposed without prior notice to all parties and an opportunity for any counsel or party against whom sanctions would be imposed to be heard. Such opportunity to be heard may be on such notice, and the response may be in such form, as the administrative law judge directs. The opportunity to be heard may be limited to an opportunity to respond orally immediately after the act or inaction covered by this section is noted by the administrative law judge.</P>
            <P>(3) Requests for the imposition of sanctions by any party, and the imposition of sanctions, shall be treated for interlocutory review purposes in the same manner as any other ruling by the administrative law judge.</P>
            <P>(4) <E T="03">Section not exclusive.</E> Nothing in this section shall be read as precluding the administrative law judge or the Board of Directors from taking any other action, or imposing any restriction or sanction, authorized by applicable statute or regulation.</P>
          </SECTION>
          <SECTION>
            <SECTNO>§ 308.109</SECTNO>
            <SUBJECT>Suspension and disbarment.</SUBJECT>
            <P>(a) <E T="03">Discretionary suspension and disbarment.</E> (1) The Board of Directors may suspend or revoke the privilege of any counsel to appear or practice before the FDIC if, after notice of and opportunity for hearing in the matter, that counsel is found by the Board of Directors:</P>
            <P>(i) Not to possess the requisite qualifications to represent others;</P>
            <P>(ii) To be seriously lacking in character or integrity or to have engaged in material unethical or improper professional conduct;</P>
            <P>(iii) To have engaged in, or aided and abetted, a material and knowing violation of the FDIA; or</P>
            <P>(iv) To have engaged in contemptuous conduct before the FDIC. Suspension or revocation on the grounds set forth in paragraphs (a)(1) (ii), (iii), and (iv) of this section shall only be ordered upon a further finding that the counsel's conduct or character was sufficiently egregious as to justify suspension or revocation.</P>
            <P>(2) Unless otherwise ordered by the Board of Directors, an application for reinstatement by a person suspended or disbarred under paragraph (a)(1) of this section may be made in writing at any time more than three years after the effective date of the suspension or disbarment and, thereafter, at any time more than one year after the person's most recent application for reinstatement. The suspension or disbarment shall continue until the applicant has been reinstated by the Board of Directors for good cause shown or until, in the case of a suspension, the suspension period has expired. An applicant for reinstatement under this provision may, in the Board of Directors’ sole discretion, be afforded a hearing.</P>
            <P>(b) <E T="03">Mandatory suspension and disbarment.</E> (1) Any counsel who has been and remains suspended or disbarred by a court of the United States or of any state, territory, district, commonwealth, or possession; or any person who has been and remains suspended or barred from practice before the OCC, Board of Governors, the OTS, the NCUA, the Securities and Exchange Commission, or the Commodity Futures Trading Commission; or any person who has been convicted of a felony, <PRTPAGE P="98"/>or of a misdemeanor involving moral turpitude, within the last ten years, shall be suspended automatically from appearing or practicing before the FDIC. A disbarment, suspension, or conviction within the meaning of this paragraph (b) shall be deemed to have occurred when the disbarring, suspending, or convicting agency or tribunal enters its judgment or order, regardless of whether an appeal is pending or could be taken, and includes a judgment or an order on a plea of nolo contendere or on consent, regardless of whether a violation is admitted in the consent.</P>
            <P>(2) Any person appearing or practicing before the FDIC who is the subject of an order, judgment, decree, or finding of the types set forth in paragraph (b)(1) of this section shall promptly file with the Executive Secretary a copy thereof, together with any related opinion or statement of the agency or tribunal involved. Failure to file any such paper shall not impair the operation of any other provision of this section.</P>
            <P>(3) A suspension or disbarment under paragraph (b)(1) of this section from practice before the FDIC shall continue until the applicant has been reinstated by the Board of Directors for good cause shown, provided that any person suspended or disbarred under paragraph (b)(1) of this section shall be automatically reinstated by the Executive Secretary, upon appropriate application, if all the grounds for suspension or disbarment under paragraph (b)(1) of this section are subsequently removed by a reversal of the conviction (or the passage of time since the conviction) or termination of the underlying suspension or disbarment. An application for reinstatement on any other grounds by any person suspended or disbarred under paragraph (b)(1) of this section may be filed no sooner than one year after the suspension or disbarment, and thereafter, a new request for reinstatement may be made no sooner than one year after the counsel's most recent reinstatement application. An applicant for reinstatement under this provision may, in the Board of Directors’ sole discretion, be afforded a hearing.</P>
            <P>(c) <E T="03">Hearings under this section.</E> Hearings conducted under this section shall be conducted in substantially the same manner as other hearings under the Uniform Rules, provided that in proceedings to terminate an existing FDIC suspension or disbarment order, the person seeking the termination of the order shall bear the burden of going forward with an application and with the burden of proving the grounds supporting the application, and that the Board of Directors may, in its sole discretion, direct that any proceeding to terminate an existing suspension or disbarment by the FDIC be limited to written submissions.</P>
            <P>(d) <E T="03">Summary suspension for contemptuous conduct.</E> A finding by the administrative law judge of contemptuous conduct during the course of any proceeding shall be grounds for summary suspension by the administrative law judge of a counsel or other representative from any further participation in that proceeding for the duration of that proceeding.</P>
            <P>(e) <E T="03">Practice defined.</E> Unless the Board of Directors orders otherwise, for the purposes of this section, practicing before the FDIC includes, but is not limited to, transacting any business with the FDIC as counsel or agent for any other person and the preparation of any statement, opinion, or other paper by a counsel, which statement, opinion, or paper is filed with the FDIC in any registration statement, notification, application, report, or other document, with the consent of such counsel.</P>
            <CITA>[56 FR 37975, Aug. 9, 1991, as amended at 64 FR 62100, Nov. 16, 1999]</CITA>
          </SECTION>
        </SUBPART>
        <SUBPART>
          <HD SOURCE="HED">Subpart D—Rules and Procedures Applicable to Proceedings Relating to Disapproval of Acquisition of Control</HD>
          <SECTION>
            <SECTNO>§ 308.110</SECTNO>
            <SUBJECT>Scope.</SUBJECT>
            <P>Except as specifically indicated in this subpart, the rules and procedures in this subpart, subpart B of the Local Rules, and the Uniform Rules shall apply to proceedings in connection with the disapproval by the Board of Directors or its designee of a proposed acquisition of control of an insured nonmember bank.</P>
          </SECTION>
          <SECTION>
            <PRTPAGE P="99"/>
            <SECTNO>§ 308.111</SECTNO>
            <SUBJECT>Grounds for disapproval.</SUBJECT>
            <P>The following are grounds for disapproval of a proposed acquisition of control of an insured nonmember bank:</P>
            <P>(a) The proposed acquisition of control would result in a monopoly or would be in furtherance of any combination or conspiracy to monopolize or attempt to monopolize the banking business in any part of the United States;</P>
            <P>(b) The effect of the proposed acquisition of control in any section of the United States may be to substantially lessen competition or to tend to create a monopoly or would in any other manner be in restraint of trade, and the anticompetitive effects of the proposed acquisition of control are not clearly outweighed in the public interest by the probable effect of the transaction in meeting the convenience and needs of the community to be served;</P>
            <P>(c) The financial condition of any acquiring person might jeopardize the financial stability of the bank or prejudice the interests of the depositors of the bank;</P>
            <P>(d) The competence, experience, or integrity of any acquiring person or of any of the proposed management personnel indicates that it would not be in the interest of the depositors of the bank, or in the interest of the public, to permit such person to control the bank;</P>
            <P>(e) Any acquiring person neglects, fails, or refuses to furnish to the FDIC all the information required by the FDIC; or</P>
            <P>(f) The FDIC determines that the proposed acquisition would result in an adverse effect on the Bank Insurance Fund or the Savings Association Insurance Fund.</P>
          </SECTION>
          <SECTION>
            <SECTNO>§ 308.112</SECTNO>
            <SUBJECT>Notice of disapproval.</SUBJECT>
            <P>(a) <E T="03">General rule.</E> (1) Within three days of the decision by the Board of Directors or its designee to disapprove a proposed acquisition of control of an insured nonmember bank, a written notice of disapproval shall be mailed by first class mail to, or otherwise served upon, the party seeking acquire control.</P>
            <P>(2) The notice of disapproval shall:</P>
            <P>(i) Contain a statement of the basis for the disapproval; and</P>
            <P>(ii) Indicate that a hearing may be requested by filing a written request with the Executive Secretary within ten days after service of the notice of disapproval; and if a hearing is requested, that an answer to the notice of disapproval, as required by § 308.113, must be filed within 20 days after service of the notice of disapproval.</P>
            <P>(b) <E T="03">Waiver of hearing.</E> Failure to request a hearing pursuant to this section shall constitute a waiver of the opportunity for a hearing and the notice of disapproval shall constitute a final and unappealable order.</P>
            <P>(c) Section 308.18(b) of the Uniform Rules shall not apply to the content of the Notice of Disapproval.</P>
          </SECTION>
          <SECTION>
            <SECTNO>§ 308.113</SECTNO>
            <SUBJECT>Answer to notice of disapproval.</SUBJECT>
            <P>(a) <E T="03">Contents.</E> (1) An answer to the notice of disapproval of a proposed acquisition of control shall be filed within 20 days after service of the notice of disapproval and shall specifically deny those portions of the notice of disapproval which are disputed. Those portions of the notice of disapproval which are not specifically denied are deemed admitted by the applicant.</P>
            <P>(2) Any hearing under this subpart shall be limited to those parts of the notice of disapproval that are specifically denied.</P>
            <P>(b) <E T="03">Failure to answer.</E> Failure of a respondent to file an answer required by this section within the time provided constitutes a waiver of his or her right to appear and contest the allegations in the notice of disapproval. If no timely answer is filed, Enforcement Counsel may file a motion for entry of an order of default. Upon a finding that no good cause has been shown for the failure to file a timely answer, the administrative law judge shall file a recommended decision containing the findings and relief sought in the notice. A final order issued by the Board of Directors based upon a respondent's failure to answer is deemed to be an order issued upon consent.</P>
          </SECTION>
          <SECTION>
            <SECTNO>§ 308.114</SECTNO>
            <SUBJECT>Burden of proof.</SUBJECT>

            <P>The ultimate burden of proof shall be upon the person proposing to acquire a depository institution. The burden of <PRTPAGE P="100"/>going forward with a <E T="03">prima facie</E> case shall be upon the FDIC.</P>
          </SECTION>
        </SUBPART>
        <SUBPART>
          <HD SOURCE="HED">Subpart E—Rules and Procedures Applicable to Proceedings Relating to Assessment of Civil Penalties for Willful Violations of the Change in Bank Control Act</HD>
          <SECTION>
            <SECTNO>§ 308.115</SECTNO>
            <SUBJECT>Scope.</SUBJECT>
            <P>The rules and procedures of this subpart, subpart B of the Local Rules and the Uniform Rules shall apply to proceedings to assess civil penalties against any person for willful violation of the Change in Bank Control Act of 1978 (12 U.S.C. 1817(j)), or any regulation or order issued pursuant thereto, in connection with the affairs of an insured nonmember bank.</P>
          </SECTION>
          <SECTION>
            <SECTNO>§ 308.116</SECTNO>
            <SUBJECT>Assessment of penalties.</SUBJECT>
            <P>(a) <E T="03">In general.</E> The civil money penalty shall be assessed upon the service of a Notice of Assessment which shall become final and unappealable unless the respondent requests a hearing pursuant to § 308.19(c)(2).</P>
            <P>(b) <E T="03">Amount.</E> (1) Any person who violates any provision of the Change in Bank Control Act or any rule, regulation, or order issued by the FDIC pursuant thereto, shall forfeit and pay a civil money penalty of not more than $5,000 for each day the violation continues.</P>
            <P>(2) Any person who violates any provision of the Change in Bank Control Act or any rule, regulation, or order issued by the FDIC pursuant thereto; or recklessly engages in any unsafe or unsound practice in conducting the affairs of a depository institution; or breaches any fiduciary duty; which violation, practice or breach is part of a pattern of misconduct; or causes or is likely to cause more than a minimal loss to such institution; or results in pecuniary gain or other benefit to such person, shall forfeit and pay a civil money penalty of not more than $25,000 for each day such violation, practice or breach continues.</P>
            <P>(3) Any person who knowingly violates any provision of the Change in Bank Control Act or any rule, regulation, or order issued by the FDIC pursuant thereto; or engages in any unsafe or unsound practice in conducting the affairs of a depository institution; or breaches any fiduciary duty; and knowingly or recklessly causes a substantial loss to such institution or a substantial pecuniary gain or other benefit to such institution or a substantial pecuniary gain or other benefit to such person by reason of such violation, practice or breach, shall forfeit and pay a civil money penalty not to exceed:</P>
            <P>(i) In the case of a person other than a depository institution—$1,000,000 per day for each day the violation, practice or breach continues; or</P>
            <P>(ii) In the case of a depository institution—an amount not to exceed the lesser of $1,000,000 or one percent of the total assets of such institution for each day the violation, practice or breach continues.</P>
            <P>(4) <E T="03">Adjustment of civil money penalties by the rate of inflation pursuant to section 31001(s) of the Debt Collection Improvement Act.</E> After November 12, 1996:</P>
            <P>(i) Any person who engages in a violation as set forth in paragraph (b)(1) of this section shall forfeit and pay a civil money penalty of not more than $5,500 for each day the violation continues.</P>
            <P>(ii) Any person who engages in a violation, unsafe or unsound practice or breach of fiduciary duty, as set forth in paragraph (b)(2) of this section, shall forfeit and pay a civil money penalty of not more than $27,500 for each day such violation, practice or breach continues.</P>
            <P>(iii) Any person who knowingly engages in a violation, unsafe or unsound practice or breach of fiduciary duty, as set forth in paragraph (b)(3) of this section, shall forfeit and pay a civil money penalty not to exceed:</P>
            <P>(A) In the case of a person other than a depository institution—$1,100,000 per day for each day the violation, practice or breach continues; or</P>
            <P>(B) In the case of a depository institution—an amount not to exceed the lesser of $1,100,000 or one percent of the total assets of such institution for each day the violation, practice or breach continues.</P>
            <P>(c) <E T="03">Mitigating factors.</E> In assessing the amount of the penalty, the Board of Directors or its designee shall consider <PRTPAGE P="101"/>the gravity of the violation, the history of previous violations, respondent's financial resources, good faith, and any other matters as justice may require.</P>
            <P>(d) <E T="03">Failure to answer.</E> Failure of a respondent to file an answer required by this section within the time provided constitutes a waiver of his or her right to appear and contest the allegations in the notice of disapproval. If no timely answer is filed, Enforcement Counsel may file a motion for entry of an order of default. Upon a finding that no good cause has been shown for the failure to file a timely answer, the administrative law judge shall file a recommended decision containing the findings and relief sought in the notice. A final order issued by the Board of Directors based upon a respondent's failure to answer is deemed to be an order issued upon consent.</P>
            <CITA>[56 FR 37975, Aug. 9, 1991, as amended at 61 FR 57990, Nov. 12, 1996]</CITA>
          </SECTION>
          <SECTION>
            <SECTNO>§ 308.117</SECTNO>
            <SUBJECT>Effective date of, and payment under, an order to pay.</SUBJECT>
            <P>If the respondent both requests a hearing and serves an answer, civil penalties assessed pursuant to this subpart are due and payable 60 days after an order to pay, issued after the hearing or upon default, is served upon the respondent, unless the order provides for a different period of payment. Civil penalties assessed pursuant to an order to pay issued upon consent are due and payable within the time specified therein.</P>
          </SECTION>
          <SECTION>
            <SECTNO>§ 308.118</SECTNO>
            <SUBJECT>Collection of penalties.</SUBJECT>
            <P>The FDIC may collect any civil penalty assessed pursuant to this subpart by agreement with the respondent, or the FDIC may bring an action against the respondent to recover the penalty amount in the appropriate United States district court. All penalties collected under this section shall be paid over to the Treasury of the United States.</P>
          </SECTION>
        </SUBPART>
        <SUBPART>
          <HD SOURCE="HED">Subpart F—Rules and Procedures Applicable to Proceedings for Involuntary Termination of Insured Status</HD>
          <SECTION>
            <SECTNO>§ 308.119</SECTNO>
            <SUBJECT>Scope.</SUBJECT>
            <P>(a) <E T="03">Involuntary termination of insurance pursuant to section 8(a) of the FDIA.</E> The rules and procedures in this subpart, subpart B of the Local Rules and the Uniform Rules shall apply to proceedings in connection with the involuntary termination of the insured status of an insured bank depository institution or an insured branch of a foreign bank pursuant to section 8(a) of the FDIA (12 U.S.C. 1818(a)), except that the Uniform Rules and subpart B of the Local Rules shall not apply to the temporary suspension of insurance pursuant to section 8(a)(8) of the FDIA (12 U.S.C. 1818(a)(8)).</P>
            <P>(b) <E T="03">Involuntary termination of insurance pursuant to section 8(p) of the Act.</E> The rules and procedures in § 308.124 of this subpart F shall apply to proceedings in connection with the involuntary termination of the insured status of an insured depository institution or an insured branch of a foreign bank pursuant to section 8(p) of the FDIA (12 U.S.C. 1818(p)). The Uniform Rules shall not apply to proceedings under section 8(p) of the FDIA.</P>
          </SECTION>
          <SECTION>
            <SECTNO>§ 308.120</SECTNO>
            <SUBJECT>Grounds for termination of insurance.</SUBJECT>
            <P>(a) <E T="03">General rule.</E> The following are grounds for involuntary termination of insurance pursuant to section 8(a) of the FDIA:</P>
            <P>(1) An insured depository institution or its directors or trustees have engaged or are engaging in unsafe or unsound practices in conducting the business of such depository institution;</P>

            <P>(2) An insured depository institution is in an unsafe or unsound condition such that it should not continue operations as an insured depository institution; or<PRTPAGE P="102"/>
            </P>
            <P>(3) An insured depository institution or its directors or trustees have violated an applicable law, rule, regulation, order, condition imposed in writing by the FDIC in connection with the granting of any application or other request by the insured depository institution or have violated any written agreement entered into between the insured depository institution and the FDIC.</P>
            <P>(b) <E T="03">Extraterritorial acts of foreign banks.</E> An act or practice committed outside the United States by a foreign bank or its directors or trustees which would otherwise be a ground for termination of insured status under this section shall be a ground for termination if the Board of Directors finds:</P>
            <P>(1) The act or practice has been, is, or is likely to be a cause of, or carried on in connection with or in furtherance of, an act or practice committed within any state, territory, or possession of the United States or the District of Columbia that, in and of itself, would be an appropriate basis for action by the FDIC; or</P>
            <P>(2) The act or practice committed outside the United States, if proven, would adversely affect the insurance risk of the FDIC.</P>
            <P>(c) <E T="03">Failure of foreign bank to secure removal of personnel.</E> The failure of a foreign bank to comply with any order of removal or prohibition issued by the Board of Directors or the failure of any person associated with a foreign bank to appear promptly as a party to a proceeding pursuant to section 8(e) of the FDIA (12 U.S.C. 1818(e)), shall be a ground for termination of insurance of deposits in any branch of the bank.</P>
          </SECTION>
          <SECTION>
            <SECTNO>§ 308.121</SECTNO>
            <SUBJECT>Notification to primary regulator.</SUBJECT>
            <P>(a) <E T="03">Service of notification.</E> (1) Upon a determination by the Board of Directors or its designee pursuant to § 308.120 of an unsafe or unsound practice or condition or of a violation, a notification shall be served upon the appropriate Federal banking agency of the insured depository institution, or the State banking supervisor if the FDIC is the appropriate Federal banking agency.
            </P>
            <FP>The notification shall be served not less than 30 days before the Notice of Intent to Terminate Insured Status required by section 8(a)(2)(B) of the FDIA (12 U.S.C. 1818(a)(2)(B)), and § 308.122, except that this period for notification may be reduced or eliminated with the agreement of the appropriate Federal banking agency.</FP>
            <P>(2) <E T="03">Appropriate Federal banking agency</E> shall have the meaning given that term in section 3(q) of the FDIA (12 U.S.C. 1813(q)), and shall be the OCC in the case of a national bank, a District bank or an insured Federal branch of a foreign bank; the FDIC in the case of an insured nonmember bank, including an insured State branch of a foreign bank; the Board of Governors in the case of a state member bank; or the OTS in the case of an insured Federal or state savings association.</P>
            <P>(3) In the case of a state nonmember bank, insured Federal branch of a foreign bank, or state member bank, in addition to service of the notification upon the appropriate Federal banking agency, a copy of the notification shall be sent to the appropriate State banking supervisor.</P>
            <P>(4) In instances in which a Temporary Order Suspending Insurance is issued pursuant to section 8(a)(8) of the FDIA (12 U.S.C. 1818(a)(8)), the notification may be served concurrently with such order.</P>
            <P>(b) <E T="03">Contents of notification.</E> The notification shall contain the FDIC's determination, and the facts and circumstances upon which such determination is based, for the purpose of securing correction of such practice, condition, or violation.</P>
          </SECTION>
          <SECTION>
            <SECTNO>§ 308.122</SECTNO>
            <SUBJECT>Notice of intent to terminate.</SUBJECT>

            <P>(a) If, after serving the notification under § 308.121, the Board of Directors determines that any unsafe or unsound practices, condition, or violation, specified in the notification, requires the termination of the insured status of the insured depository institution, the Board of Directors or its designee, if it determines to proceed further, shall cause to be served upon the insured depository institution a notice of its intention to terminate insured status not less than 30 days after service of the notification, unless a shorter time period has been agreed upon by the appropriate Federal banking agency.<PRTPAGE P="103"/>
            </P>
            <P>(b) The Board of Directors or its designee shall cause a copy of the notice to be sent to the appropriate Federal banking agency and to the appropriate state banking supervisor, if any.</P>
          </SECTION>
          <SECTION>
            <SECTNO>§ 308.123</SECTNO>
            <SUBJECT>Notice to depositors.</SUBJECT>
            <P>If the Board of Directors enters an order terminating the insured status of an insured depository institution or branch, the insured depository institution shall, on the day that order becomes final, or on such other day as that order prescribes, mail a notification of termination of insured status to each depositor at the depositor's last address of record on the books of the insured depository institution or branch. The insured depository institution shall also publish the notification in two issues of a local newspaper of general circulation and shall furnish the FDIC with proof of such publications. The notification to depositors shall include information provided in substantially the following form:</P>
            <EXTRACT>
              <HD SOURCE="HD3">Notice</HD>
              <P>(Date)<E T="72">_____</E>.</P>
              <P>1. The status of the <E T="72">_____</E>, as an (insured depository institution) (insured branch) under the provisions of the Federal Deposit Insurance Act, will terminate as of the close of business on the <E T="72">____</E> day of<E T="72">______</E>, 19<E T="72">__</E>.</P>
              <P>2. Any deposits made by you after that date, either new deposits or additions to existing deposits, will not be insured by the Federal Deposit Insurance Corporation.</P>

              <P>3. Insured deposits in the (depository institution) (branch) on the <E T="72">____</E> day of<E T="72">______</E>, 19<E T="72">__</E>, will continue to be insured, as provided by Federal Deposit Insurance Act, for <E T="03">2 years</E> after the close of business on the <E T="72">____</E> day of <E T="72">______</E>, 19<E T="72">__</E>. Provided, however, that any withdrawals after the close of business on the <E T="72">____</E> day of <E T="72">______</E>, 19<E T="72">__</E>, will reduce the insurance coverage by the amount of such withdrawals.</P>
              <FP SOURCE="FP-DASH"/>
              <FP>(Name of (depository institution or branch)</FP>
              <FP SOURCE="FP-DASH"/>
              <FP>(Address)</FP>
              
              <FP>The notification may include any additional information the depository institution deems advisable, provided that the information required by this section shall be set forth in a conspicuous manner on the first page of the notification. </FP>
            </EXTRACT>
          </SECTION>
          <SECTION>
            <SECTNO>§ 308.124</SECTNO>
            <SUBJECT>Involuntary termination of insured status for failure to receive deposits.</SUBJECT>
            <P>(a) <E T="03">Notice to show cause.</E> When the Board of Directors or its designee has evidence that an insured depository institution is not engaged in the business of receiving deposits, other than trust funds, the Board of Directors or its designee shall give written notice of this evidence to the depository institution and shall direct the depository institution to show cause why its insured status should not be terminated under the provisions of section 8(p) of the FDIA (12 U.S.C. 1818(p)). The insured depository institution shall have 30 days after receipt of the notice, or such longer period as is prescribed in the notice, to submit affidavits, other written proof, and any legal arguments that it is engaged in the business of receiving deposits other than trust funds.</P>
            <P>(b) <E T="03">Notice of termination date.</E> If, upon consideration of the affidavits, other written proof, and legal arguments, the Board of Directors determines that the depository institution is not engaged in the business of receiving deposits, other than trust funds, the finding shall be conclusive and the Board of Directors shall notify the depository institution that its insured status will terminate at the expiration of the first full semiannual assessment period following issuance of that notification.</P>
            <P>(c) <E T="03">Notification to depositors of termination of insured status.</E> Within the time specified by the Board of Directors and prior to the date of termination of its insured status, the depository institution shall mail a notification of termination of insured status to each depositor at the depositor's last address of record on the books of the depository institution. The depository institution shall also publish the notification in two issues of a local newspaper of general circulation and shall furnish the FDIC with proof of such publications. The notification to depositors shall include information provided in substantially the following form:</P>
            <EXTRACT>
              <HD SOURCE="HD3">Notice</HD>
              <P>(Date)<E T="72">_____</E>.</P>
              <P>The status of the <E T="72">_____</E>, as an (insured depository institution) (insured branch) under the Federal Deposit Insurance Act, will terminate on the <E T="72">____</E> day <PRTPAGE P="104"/>of<E T="72">______</E>, 19<E T="72">__</E>, and its deposits will thereupon cease to be insured.</P>
              <FP SOURCE="FP-DASH"/>
              <FP>(Name of depository institution or branch)</FP>
              <FP SOURCE="FP-DASH"/>
              <FP>(Address) </FP>
            </EXTRACT>
            
            <FP>The notification may include any additional information the depository institution deems advisable, provided that the information required by this section shall be set forth in a conspicuous manner on the first page of the notification.</FP>
          </SECTION>
          <SECTION>
            <SECTNO>§ 308.125</SECTNO>
            <SUBJECT>Temporary suspension of deposit insurance.</SUBJECT>
            <P>(a) If, while an action is pending under section 8(a)(2) of the FDIA (12 U.S.C. 1818(a)(2)), the Board of Directors, after consultation with the appropriate Federal banking agency, finds that an insured depository institution (other than a special supervisory association to which § 308.126 of this subpart applies) has no tangible capital under the capital guidelines or regulations of the appropriate Federal banking agency, the Board of Directors may issue a Temporary Order Suspending Deposit Insurance, pending completion of the proceedings under section 8(a)(2) of the FDIA (12 U.S.C. 1818(a)(2)).</P>
            <P>(b) The temporary order shall be served upon the insured institution and a copy sent to the appropriate Federal banking agency and to the appropriate State banking supervisor.</P>
            <P>(c) The temporary order shall become effective ten days from the date of service upon the insured depository institution. Unless set aside, limited, or suspended in proceedings under section 8(a)(8)(D) of the FDIA (12 U.S.C. 1818 (a)(8)(D)), the temporary order shall remain effective and enforceable until an order terminating the insured status of the institution is entered by the Board of Directors and becomes final, or the Board of Directors dismisses the proceedings.</P>
            <P>(d) <E T="03">Notification to depositors of suspension of insured status.</E> Within the time specified by the Board of Directors and prior to the suspension of insured status, the depository institution shall mail a notification of suspension of insured status to each depositor at the depositor's last address of record on the books of the depository institution. The depository institution shall also publish the notification in two issues of a local newspaper of general circulation and shall furnish the FDIC with proof of such publications. The notification to depositors shall include information provided in substantially the following form:</P>
            <EXTRACT>
              <HD SOURCE="HD3">Notice</HD>
              <P>(Date)<E T="72">______</E>.</P>
              <P>1. The status of the <E T="72">_____</E>, as an (insured depository institution) (insured branch) under the provisions of the Federal Deposit Insurance Act, will be suspended as of the close of business on the <E T="72">____</E> day of <E T="72">______</E>, 19<E T="72">__</E>, pending the completion of administrative proceedings under section 8(a) of the Federal Deposit Insurance Act.</P>
              <P>2. Any deposits made by you after that date, either new deposits or additions to existing deposits, will not be insured by the Federal Deposit Insurance Corporation.</P>

              <P>3. Insured deposits in the (depository institution) (branch) on the <E T="72">____</E> day of <E T="72">______</E>, 19<E T="72">__</E>, will continue to be insured for <E T="72">______</E> after the close of business on the<E T="72">_____</E> day of <E T="72">_____</E>, 19<E T="72">__</E>. Provided, however, that any withdrawals after the close of business on the <E T="72">____</E> day of<E T="72">______</E>, 19<E T="72">__</E>, will reduce the insurance coverage by the amount of such withdrawals.</P>
              <FP SOURCE="FP-DASH"/>
              <FP>(Name of depository institution or branch)</FP>
              <FP SOURCE="FP-DASH"/>
              <FP>(Address) </FP>
            </EXTRACT>
            
            <FP>The notification may include any additional information the depository institution deems advisable, provided that the information required by this section shall be set forth in a conspicuous manner on the first page of the notification.</FP>
          </SECTION>
          <SECTION>
            <SECTNO>§ 308.126</SECTNO>
            <SUBJECT>Special supervisory associations.</SUBJECT>

            <P>If the Board of Directors finds that a savings association is a special supervisory association under the provisions of section 8(a)(8)(B) of the FDIA (12 U.S.C. 1818(a)(8)(B)) for purposes of temporary suspension of insured status, the Board of Directors shall serve upon the association its findings with regard to the determination that the capital of the association, as computed using applicable accounting standards, has suffered a material decline; that <PRTPAGE P="105"/>such association or its directors or officers, is engaging in an unsafe or unsound practice in conducting the business of the association; that such association is in an unsafe or unsound condition to continue operating as an insured association; or that such association or its directors or officers, has violated any law, rule, regulation, order, condition imposed in writing by any Federal banking agency, or any written agreement, or that the association failed to enter into a capital improvement plan acceptable to the Corporation prior to January, 1990.</P>
          </SECTION>
        </SUBPART>
        <SUBPART>
          <HD SOURCE="HED">Subpart G—Rules and Procedures Applicable to Proceedings Relating to Cease-and-Desist Orders</HD>
          <SECTION>
            <SECTNO>§ 308.127</SECTNO>
            <SUBJECT>Scope.</SUBJECT>
            <P>(a) <E T="03">Cease-and-desist proceedings under section 8 of the FDIA.</E> The rules and procedures of this subpart, subpart B of the Local Rules and the Uniform Rules shall apply to proceedings to order an insured nonmember bank or an institution-affiliated party to cease and desist from practices and violations described in section 8(b) of the FDIA, 12 U.S.C. 1818(b).</P>
            <P>(b) <E T="03">Proceedings under the Securities Exchange Act of 1934.</E> (1) The rules and procedures of this subpart, subpart B of the Local Rules and the Uniform Rules shall apply to proceedings by the Board of Directors to order a municipal securities dealer to cease and desist from any violation of law or regulation specified in section 15B(c)(5) of the Securities Exchange Act, as amended (15 U.S.C. 78o-4(c)(5)) where the municipal securities dealer is an insured nonmember bank or a subsidiary thereof.</P>
            <P>(2) The rules and procedures of this subpart, subpart B of the Local Rules and the Uniform Rules shall apply to proceedings by the Board of Directors to order a clearing agency or transfer agent to cease and desist from failure to comply with the applicable provisions of section 17, 17A and 19 of the Securities Exchange Act of 1934, as amended (15 U.S.C. 78q, 78q-l, 78s), and the applicable rules and regulations thereunder, where the clearing agency or transfer agent is an insured nonmember bank or a subsidiary thereof.</P>
            <CITA>[56 FR 37975, Aug. 9, 1991, as amended at 64 FR 62100, Nov. 16, 1999]</CITA>
          </SECTION>
          <SECTION>
            <SECTNO>§ 308.128</SECTNO>
            <SUBJECT>Grounds for cease-and-desist orders.</SUBJECT>
            <P>(a) <E T="03">General rule.</E> The Board of Directors or its designee may issue and have served upon any insured nonmember bank or an institution-affiliated party a notice, as set forth in § 308.18 of the Uniform Rules for practices and violations as described in § 308.127.</P>
            <P>(b) <E T="03">Extraterritorial acts of foreign banks.</E> An act, violation or practice committed outside the United States by a foreign bank or an institution-affiliated party that would otherwise be a ground for issuing a cease-and-desist order under paragraph (a) of this section or a temporary cease-and-desist order under § 308.131 of this subpart, shall be a ground for an order if the Board of Directors or its designee finds that:</P>
            <P>(1) The act, violation or practice has been, is, or is likely to be a cause of, or carried on in connection with or in furtherance of, an act, violation or practice committed within any state, territory, or possession of the United States or the District of Columbia which act, violation or practice, in and of itself, would be an appropriate basis for action by the FDIC; or</P>
            <P>(2) The act, violation or practice, if proven, would adversely affect the insurance risk of the FDIC.</P>
          </SECTION>
          <SECTION>
            <SECTNO>§ 308.129</SECTNO>
            <SUBJECT>Notice to state supervisory authority.</SUBJECT>

            <P>The Board of Directors or its designee shall give the appropriate state supervisory authority notification of its intent to institute a proceeding pursuant to subpart G of this part, and the grounds thereof. Any proceedings shall be conducted according to subpart G of this part, unless, within the time period specified in such notification, the state supervisory authority has effected satisfactory corrective action. No insured institution or other party who is the subject of any notice or order issued by the FDIC under this section shall have standing to raise the requirements of this subpart as <PRTPAGE P="106"/>grounds for attacking the validity of any such notice or order.</P>
          </SECTION>
          <SECTION>
            <SECTNO>§ 308.130</SECTNO>
            <SUBJECT>Effective date of order and service on bank.</SUBJECT>
            <P>(a) <E T="03">Effective date.</E> A cease-and-desist order issued by the Board of Directors after a hearing, and a cease-and-desist order issued based upon a default, shall become effective at the expiration of 30 days after the service of the order upon the bank or its official. A cease-and-desist order issued upon consent shall become effective at the time specified therein. All cease-and-desist orders shall remain effective and enforceable, except to the extent they are stayed, modified, terminated, or set aside by the Board of Directors or its designee or by a reviewing court.</P>
            <P>(b) <E T="03">Service on banks.</E> In cases where the bank is not the respondent, the cease-and-desist order shall also be served upon the bank.</P>
          </SECTION>
          <SECTION>
            <SECTNO>§ 308.131</SECTNO>
            <SUBJECT>Temporary cease-and-desist order.</SUBJECT>
            <P>(a) <E T="03">Issuance.</E> (1) When the Board of Directors or its designee determines that the violation, or the unsafe or unsound practice, as specified in the notice, or the continuation thereof, is likely to cause insolvency or significant dissipation of assets or earnings of the bank, or is likely to weaken the condition of the bank or otherwise prejudice the interests of its depositors prior to the completion of the proceedings under section 8(b) of the FDIA (12 U.S.C. 1818(b)) and § 308.128 of this subpart, the Board of Directors or its designee may issue a temporary order requiring the bank or an institution-affiliated party to immediately cease and desist from any such violation, practice or to take affirmative action to prevent such insolvency, dissipation, condition or prejudice pending completion of the proceedings under section 8(b) of the FDIA (12 U.S.C. 1818(b)).</P>
            <P>(2) When the Board of Directors or its designee issues a Notice of charges pursuant to 12 U.S.C. 1818(b)(1) which specifies on the basis of particular facts and circumstances that a bank's books and records are so incomplete or inaccurate that the FDIC is unable, through the normal supervisory process, to determine the financial condition of the bank or the details or purpose of any transaction or transactions that may have a material effect on the financial condition of the bank, then the Board of Directors or its designee may issue a temporary order requiring:</P>
            <P>(i) The cessation of any activity or practice which gave rise, whether in whole or in part, to the incomplete or inaccurate state of the books or records; or</P>
            <P>(ii) Affirmative action to restore such books or records to a complete and accurate state, until the completion of the proceedings under section 8(b) of the FDIA (12 U.S.C. 1818(b)).</P>
            <P>(3) The temporary order shall be served upon the bank or the institution-affiliated party named therein and shall also be served upon the bank in the case where the temporary order applies only to an institution-affiliated party.</P>
            <P>(b) <E T="03">Effective date.</E> A temporary order shall become effective when served upon the bank or the institution-affiliated party. Unless the temporary order is set aside, limited, or suspended by a court in proceedings authorized under section 8(c)(2) of the FDIA (12 U.S.C. 1818(c)(2)), the temporary order shall remain effective and enforceable pending completion of administrative proceedings pursuant to section 8(b) of the FDIA (12 U.S.C. 1818(b)) and entry of an order which has become final, or with respect to paragraph (a)(2) of this section the FDIC determines by examination or otherwise that the bank's books and records are accurate and reflect the financial condition of the bank.</P>
            <P>(c) <E T="03">Uniform Rules do not apply.</E> The Uniform Rules and subpart B of the Local Rules shall not apply to the issuance of temporary orders under this section.</P>
          </SECTION>
        </SUBPART>
        <SUBPART>
          <PRTPAGE P="107"/>
          <HD SOURCE="HED">Subpart H—Rules and Procedures Applicable to Proceedings Relating to Assessment and Collection of Civil Money Penalties for Violation of Cease-and-Desist Orders and of Certain Federal Statutes, Including Call Report Penalties</HD>
          <SECTION>
            <SECTNO>§ 308.132</SECTNO>
            <SUBJECT>Assessment of penalties.</SUBJECT>
            <P>(a) <E T="03">Scope.</E> The rules and procedures of this subpart, subpart B of the Local Rules, and the Uniform Rules shall apply to proceedings to assess and collect civil money penalties, including civil money penalties for violation of section 7(a) of the FDIA (12 U.S.C. 1817(a)).</P>
            <P>(b) <E T="03">Relevant considerations.</E> In determining the amount of the civil penalty to be assessed, the Board of Directors or its designee shall consider the financial resources and good faith of the bank or official, the gravity of the violation, the history of previous violations, and any such other matters as justice may require.</P>
            <P>(c) <E T="03">Amount.</E> (1) The Board of Directors or its designee may assess civil money penalties pursuant to section 8(i) of the FDIA (12 U.S.C. 1818(i)), and § 308.01(e)(1) of the Uniform Rules.</P>
            <P>(2) The Board of Directors or its designee may assess civil money penalties pursuant to section 7(a) of the FDIA (12 U.S.C. 1817(a)) as follows:</P>
            <P>(i) <E T="03">Late filing—Tier One penalties.</E> In cases in which a bank fails to make or publish its Report of Condition and Income (Call Report) within the appropriate time periods, a civil money penalty of not more than $2,000 per day may be assessed where the bank maintains procedures in place reasonably adapted to avoid inadvertent error and the late filing occurred unintentionally and as a result of such error; or the bank inadvertently transmitted a Call Report which is minimally late.</P>
            <P>(A) <E T="03">First offense.</E> Generally, in such cases, the amount assessed shall be $300 per day for each of the first 15 days for which the failure continues, and $600 per day for each subsequent day the failure continues, beginning on the sixteenth day. For banks with less than $25,000,000 in assets, the amount assessed shall be the greater of $100 per day or <FR>1/1000</FR>th of the bank's total assets (<FR>1/10</FR>th of a basis point) for each of the first 15 days for which the failure continues, and $200 or <FR>1/500</FR>th of the bank's total assets, <FR>1/5</FR> of a basis point) for each subsequent day the failure continues, beginning on the sixteenth day.</P>
            <P>(B) <E T="03">Second offense.</E> Where the bank has been delinquent in making or publishing its Call Report within the preceding five quarters, the amount assessed for the most current failure shall generally be $500 per day for each of the first 15 days for which the failure continues, and $1,000 per day for each subsequent day the failure continues, beginning on the sixteenth day. For banks with less than $25,000,000 in assets, those amounts, respectively, shall be <FR>1/500</FR>th of the bank's total assets and <FR>1/250</FR>th of the bank's total assets.</P>
            <P>(C) <E T="03">Mitigating factors.</E> The amounts set forth in paragraph (c)(2)(i)(A) of this section may be reduced based upon the factors set forth in paragraph (b) of this section.</P>
            <P>(D) <E T="03">Lengthy or repeated violations.</E> The amounts set forth in this paragraph (c)(2)(i) will be assessed on a case-by-case basis where the amount of time of the bank's delinquency is lengthy or the bank has been delinquent repeatedly in making or publishing its Call Reports.</P>
            <P>(E) <E T="03">Waiver.</E> Absent extraordinary circumstances outside the control of the bank, penalties assessed for late filing shall not be waived.</P>
            <P>(ii) <E T="03">Late filing—Tier Two penalties.</E> Where a bank fails to make or publish its Call Report within the appropriate time period, the Board of Directors or its designee may assess a civil money penalty of not more than $20,000 per day for each day the failure continues. Pursuant to the Debt Collection Improvement Act of 1996, for violations which occur after November 12, 1996, the maximum Tier Two penalty amount will increase to $22,000 per day for each day the failure continues.</P>
            <P>(iii) <E T="03">False or misleading reports or information—(A) Tier One penalties.</E> In cases in which a bank submits or publishes any false or misleading Call Report or information, the Board of Directors or its designee may assess a civil money penalty of not more than <PRTPAGE P="108"/>$2,000 per day for each day the information is not corrected, where the bank maintains procedures in place reasonably adapted to avoid inadvertent error and the violation occurred unintentionally and as a result of such error; or the bank inadvertently transmits a Call Report or information which is false or misleading.</P>
            <P>(B) <E T="03">Tier Two penalties.</E> Where a bank submits or publishes any false or misleading Call Report or other information, the Board of Directors or its designee may assess a civil money penalty of not more than $20,000 per day for each day the information is not corrected. Pursuant to the Debt Collection Improvement Act of 1996, for violations which occur after November 12, 1996, the maximum Tier Two penalty amount will increase to $22,000 per day for each day the information is not corrected.</P>
            <P>(C) <E T="03">Tier Three penalties.</E> Where a bank knowingly or with reckless disregard for the accuracy of any Call Report or information submits or publishes any false or misleading Call Report or other information, the Board of Directors or its designee may assess a civil money penalty of not more than the lesser of $1,000,000 or 1 percent of the bank's total assets per day for each day the information is not corrected. Pursuant to the Debt Collection Improvement Act of 1996, for violations which occur after November 12, 1996, the maximum Tier Three penalty amount will increase to the lesser of $1,100,000 per day or 1 percent of the bank's total assets per day for each day the information is not corrected.</P>
            <P>(D) <E T="03">Mitigating factors.</E> The amounts set forth in this paragraph (c)(2) may be reduced based upon the factors set forth in paragraph (b) of this section.</P>
            <P>(3) <E T="03">Adjustment of civil money penalties by the rate of inflation pursuant to section 31001(s) of the Debt Collection Improvement Act.</E> Pursuant to section 31001(s) of the Debt Collection Improvement Act, for violations which occur after November 12, 1996, the Board of Directors or its designee may assess civil money penalties in the maximum amounts as follows:</P>
            <P>(i) <E T="03">Civil money penalties assessed pursuant to section 8(i)(2) of the FDIA.</E> Tier One civil money penalties may be assessed pursuant to section 8(i)(2)(A) of the FDIA (12 U.S.C. 1818(i)(2)(A)) in an amount not to exceed $5,500 for each day during which the violation continues. Tier Two civil money penalties may be assessed pursuant to section 8(i)(2)(B) of the FDIA (12 U.S.C. 1818(i)(2)(B)) in an amount not to exceed $27,500 for each day during which the violation, practice or breach continues. Tier Three civil money penalties may be assessed pursuant to section 8(i)(2)(C)(12 U.S.C. 1818(i)(2)(C)) in an amount not to exceed, in the case of any person other than an insured depository institution $1,100,000 or, in the case of any insured depository institution, an amount not to exceed the lesser of $1,100,000 or 1 percent of the total assets of such institution for each day during which the violation, practice, or breach continues.</P>

            <P>(A) Civil money penalties may be assessed pursuant to section 8(i)(2) of the FDIA in the amounts set forth in this paragraph (c)(3)(i) for violations of various consumer laws, including, the Home Mortgage Disclosure Act (12 U.S.C. 2804 et seq. and 12 CFR 203.6), the Expedited Funds Availability Act (12 U.S.C. 4001 <E T="03">et seq</E>.), the Truth in Savings Act (12 U.S.C. 4301 <E T="03">et seq</E>.), the Real Estate Settlement Procedures Act (12 U.S.C. 2601 <E T="03">et seq</E>. and 12 CFR part 3500), the Truth in Lending Act (15 U.S.C. 1601 <E T="03">et seq</E>.), the Fair Credit Reporting Act (15 U.S.C. 1681 <E T="03">et seq</E>.), the Equal Credit Opportunity Act (15 U.S.C. 1691 <E T="03">et seq</E>.) the Fair Debt Collection Practices Act (15 U.S.C. 1692 <E T="03">et seq</E>.), the Electronic Funds Transfer Act (15 U.S.C. 1693 <E T="03">et seq</E>.) and the Fair Housing Act (42 U.S.C. 3601 <E T="03">et seq</E>.) in the amounts set forth in paragraphs (c)(3)(i) through (c)(3)(iii) of this section.</P>
            <P>(ii) <E T="03">Civil money penalties assessed pursuant to section 7(c) of the FDIA for late filing or the submission false or misleading certified statements.</E> Tier One civil money penalties may be assessed pursuant to section 7(c)(4)(A) of the FDIA (12 U.S.C. 1817(c)(4)(A)) in an amount not to exceed $2,000 for each day during which the failure to file continues or the false or misleading information is not corrected. Tier Two civil money penalties may be assessed pursuant to section 7(c)(4)(B) of the <PRTPAGE P="109"/>FDIA (12 U.S.C. 1817(c)(4)(B)) in an amount not to exceed $22,000 for each day during which the failure to file continues or the false or misleading information is not corrected. Tier Three civil money penalties may be assessed pursuant to section 7(c)(4)(C) in an amount not to exceed the lesser of $1,100,000 or 1 percent of the total assets of the institution for each day during which the failure to file continues or the false or misleading information is not corrected.</P>
            <P>(iii) <E T="03">Civil money penalties assessed pursuant to section 10(e)(4) of the FDIA for refusal to allow examination or to provide required information during an examination.</E> Pursuant to section 10(e)(4) of the FDIA (12 U.S.C. 1820(e)(4)), civil money penalties may be assessed against any affiliate of an insured depository institution which refuses to permit a duly-appointed examiner to conduct an examination or to provide information during the course of an examination as set forth in section 20(b) of the FDIA (12 U.S.C. 1820(b)), in an amount not to exceed $5,500 for each day the refusal continues.</P>
            <P>(iv) <E T="03">Civil money penalties assessed pursuant to section 18(a)(3) of the FDIA for incorrect display of insurance logo.</E> Pursuant to section 18(a)(3) of the FDIA (12 U.S.C. 1828(a)(3)), civil money penalties may be assessed against an insured depository institution which fails to correctly display its insurance logo pursuant to that section, in an amount not to exceed $110 for each day the violation continues.</P>
            <P>(v) <E T="03">Civil money penalties assessed pursuant to section 18(h) of the FDIA for failure to file a certified statement or to pay assessment.</E> Pursuant to section 18(h) of the FDIA (12 U.S.C. 1828(h)), a civil money penalty may be assessed against an insured depository institution which wilfully fails or refuses to file a certified statement or pay any assessment required under the FDIA in an amount not to exceed $110 for each day the violation continues.</P>
            <P>(vi) <E T="03">Civil money penalties assessed pursuant to section 19b(j) of the FDIA for recordkeeping violations.</E> Pursuant to section 19b(j) of the FDIA (12 U.S.C. 1829b(j)), civil money penalties may be assessed against an insured depository institution and any director, officer or employee thereof who wilfully or through gross negligence violates or causes a violation of the recordkeeping requirements of that section or its implementing regulations in an amount not to exceed $11,000 per violation.</P>
            <P>(vii) <E T="03">Civil fine pursuant to 12 U.S.C. 1832(c) for violation of provisions forbidding interest-bearing demand deposit accounts.</E> Pursuant to 12 U.S.C. 1832(c), any depository institution which violates the prohibition on deposit or withdrawal from interest-bearing accounts via negotiable or transferable instruments payable to third parties shall be subject to a fine of $1,100 per violation.</P>
            <P>(viii) <E T="03">Civil penalties for violations of security measure requirements under 12 U.S.C. 1884.</E> Pursuant to 12 U.S.C. 1884, an institution which violates a rule establishing minimum security requirements as set forth in 12 U.S.C. 1882, shall be subject to a civil penalty not to exceed $110 for each day of the violation.</P>
            <P>(ix) <E T="03">Civil money penalties assessed pursuant to the Bank Holding Company Act of 1970 for prohibited tying arrangements.</E> Pursuant to the Bank Holding Company Act of 1970, Tier One civil money penalties may be assessed pursuant to 12 U.S.C. 1972(2)(F)(i) in an amount not to exceed $5,500 for each day during which the violation continues. Tier Two civil money penalties may be assessed pursuant to 12 U.S.C. 1972(2)(F)(ii) in an amount not to exceed $27,500 for each day during which the violation, practice or breach continues. Tier Three civil money penalties may be assessed pursuant to 12 U.S.C. 1972(2)(F)(iii) in an amount not to exceed, in the case of any person other than an insured depository institution $1,100,000 for each day during which the violation, practice, or breach continues or, in the case of any insured depository institution, an amount not to exceed the lesser of $1,100,000 or 1 percent of the total assets of such institution for each day during which the violation, practice, or breach continues.</P>
            <P>(x) <E T="03">Civil money penalties assessed pursuant to the International Banking Act of 1978.</E> Pursuant to the International Banking Act of 1978 (IBA) (12 U.S.C. 3108(b)), civil money penalties may be <PRTPAGE P="110"/>assessed for failure to comply with the requirements of the IBA pursuant to section 8(i)(2) of the FDIA (12 U.S.C. 1818(i)(2)), in the amounts set forth in paragraph (c)(3)(i) of this section.</P>
            <P>(xi) <E T="03">Civil money penalties assessed for appraisal violations</E>. Pursuant to 12 U.S.C. 3349(b), where a financial institution seeks, obtains, or gives any other thing of value in exchange for the performance of an appraisal by a person that the institution knows is not a state certified or licensed appraiser in connection with a federally related transaction, a civil money penalty may be assessed pursuant to section 8(i)(2) of the FDIA (12 U.S.C. 1818(i)(2)) in the amounts set forth in paragraph (c)(3)(i) of this section.</P>
            <P>(xii) <E T="03">Civil money penalties assessed pursuant to International Lending Supervision Act</E>. Pursuant to the International Lending Supervision Act (ILSA) (12 U.S.C. 3909(d)), the CMP that may be assessed against any banking institution or any officer, director, employee, agent or other person participating in the conduct of the affairs of such banking institution is amount not to exceed $1,100 for each day a violation of the ILSA or any rule, regulation or order issued pursuant to ILSA continues.</P>
            <P>(xiii) <E T="03">Civil money penalties assessed for violations of the Community Development Banking and Financial Institution Act</E>. Pursuant to the Community Development Banking and Financial Institution Act (Community Development Banking Act) (12 U.S.C. 4717(b)) a civil money penalty may be assessed for violations of the Community Development Banking Act pursuant to section 8(i)(2) of the FDIA (12 U.S.C. 1818(i)(2)), in the amounts set forth in paragraph (c)(3)(i) of this section.</P>
            <P>(xiv) <E T="03">Civil money penalties assessed for violations of the Securities Exchange Act of 1934</E>. Pursuant to section 21B of the Securities Exchange Act of 1934 (Exchange Act) (15 U.S.C. 78u-2), civil money penalties may be assessed for violations of certain provisions of the Exchange Act, where such penalties are in the public interest. Tier One civil money penalties may be assessed pursuant to 15 U.S.C. 78u-2(b)(1) in an amount not to exceed $5,500 for a natural person or $55,000 for any other person for violations set forth in 15 U.S.C. 78u-2(a). Tier Two civil money penalties may be assessed pursuant to 15 U.S.C. 78u-2(b)(2) in an amount not to exceed—for each violation set forth in 15 U.S.C. 78u-2(a)—$55,000 for a natural person or $275,000 for any other person if the act or omission involved fraud, deceit, manipulation, or deliberate or reckless disregard of a regulatory requirement. Tier Three civil money penalties may be assessed pursuant to 15 U.S.C. 78u-2(b)(3) for each violation set forth in 15 U.S.C. 78u-2(a), in an amount not to exceed $110,000 for a natural person or $550,000 for any other person, if the act or omission involved fraud, deceit, manipulation, or deliberate or reckless disregard of a regulatory requirement; and such act or omission directly or indirectly resulted in substantial losses, or created a significant risk of substantial losses to other persons or resulted in substantial pecuniary gain to the person who committed the act or omission.</P>
            <P>(xv) <E T="03">Civil money penalties assessed for false claims and statements pursuant to the Program Fraud Civil Remedies Act</E>. Pursuant to the Program Fraud Civil Remedies Act (31 U.S.C. 3802), civil money penalties of not more than $5,500 per day may be assessed for violations involving false claims and statements.</P>
            <P>(xvi) <E T="03">Civil money penalties assessed for violations of the Flood Disaster Protection Act</E>. Pursuant to the Flood Disaster Protection Act (FDPA)(42 U.S.C. 4012a(f)), civil money penalties may be assessed against any regulated lending institution that engages in a pattern or practice of violations of the FDPA in an amount not to exceed $350 per violation, and not to exceed a total of $105,000 annually.</P>
            <CITA>[56 FR 37975, Aug. 9, 1991, as amended at 61 FR 57991, Nov. 12, 1996; 64 FR 62100, Nov. 16, 1999]</CITA>
          </SECTION>
          <SECTION>
            <SECTNO>§ 308.133</SECTNO>
            <SUBJECT>Effective date of, and payment under, an order to pay.</SUBJECT>
            <P>(a) <E T="03">Effective date.</E> (1) Unless otherwise provided in the Notice, except in situations covered by paragraph (a)(2) of this section, civil penalties assessed pursuant to this subpart are due and payable 60 days after the Notice is served upon the respondent.<PRTPAGE P="111"/>
            </P>
            <P>(2) If the respondent both requests a hearing and serves an answer, civil penalties assessed pursuant to this subpart are due and payable 60 days after an order to pay, issued after the hearing or upon default, is served upon the respondent, unless the order provides for a different period of payment. Civil penalties assessed pursuant to an order to pay issued upon consent are due and payable within the time specified therein.</P>
            <P>(b) <E T="03">Payment.</E> All penalties collected under this section shall be paid over to the Treasury of the United States.</P>
          </SECTION>
        </SUBPART>
        <SUBPART>
          <HD SOURCE="HED">Subpart I—Rules and Procedures for Imposition of Sanctions Upon Municipal Securities Dealers or Persons Associated With Them and Clearing Agencies or Transfer Agents</HD>
          <SECTION>
            <SECTNO>§ 308.134</SECTNO>
            <SUBJECT>Scope.</SUBJECT>
            <P>The rules and procedures in this subpart, subpart B of the Local Rules and the Uniform Rules shall apply to proceedings by the Board of Directors or its designee:</P>
            <P>(a) To censure, limit the activities of, suspend, or revoke the registration of, any municipal securities dealer for which the FDIC is the appropriate regulatory agency;</P>
            <P>(b) To censure, suspend, or bar from being associated with such a municipal securities dealer, any person associated with such a municipal securities dealer; and</P>
            <P>(c) To deny registration, to censure limit the activities of, suspend, or revoke the registration of, any transfer agent or clearing agency for which the FDIC is the appropriate regulatory agency. This subpart and the Uniform Rules shall not apply to proceedings to postpone or suspend registration of a transfer agent or clearing agency pending final determination of denial or revocation of registration.</P>
          </SECTION>
          <SECTION>
            <SECTNO>§ 308.135</SECTNO>
            <SUBJECT>Grounds for imposition of sanctions.</SUBJECT>
            <P>(a) <E T="03">Action under section 15(b)(4) of the Exchange Act.</E> The Board of Directors or its designee may issue and have served upon any municipal securities dealer for which the FDIC is the appropriate regulatory agency, or any person associated or seeking to become associated with a municipal securities dealer for which the FDIC is the appropriate regulatory agency, a written notice of its intention to censure, limit the activities or functions or operations of, suspend, or revoke the registration of, such municipal securities dealer, or to censure, suspend, or bar the person from being associated with the municipal securities dealer, when the Board of Directors or its designee determines:</P>
            <P>(1) That such municipal securities dealer or such person</P>
            <P>(i) Has committed any prohibited act or omitted any required act specified in subparagraph (A), (D), or (E) of section 15(b)(4) of the Exchange Act, as amended (15 U.S.C. 78o);</P>
            <P>(ii) Has been convicted of any offense specified in section 15(b)(4)(B) of the Exchange Act within ten years of commencement of proceedings under this subpart; or</P>
            <P>(iii) Is enjoined from any act, conduct, or practice specified in section 15(b)(4)(C) of the Exchange Act; and</P>
            <P>(2) That it is in the public interest to impose any of the sanctions set forth in paragraph (a) of this section.</P>
            <P>(b) <E T="03">Action under sections 17 and 17A of the Exchange Act.</E> The Board of Directors or its designee may issue, and have served upon any transfer agent or clearing agency for which the FDIC is the appropriate regulatory agency, a written Notice of its intention to deny registration to, censure, place limitations on the activities or function or operations of, suspend, or revoke the registration of, the transfer agent or clearing agency, when the Board of Directors or its designee determines:</P>
            <P>(1) That the transfer agent or clearing agency has willfully violated, or is unable to comply with, any applicable provision of section 17 or 17A of the Exchange Act, as amended, or any applicable rule or regulation issued pursuant thereto; and</P>
            <P>(2) That it is in the public interest to impose any of the sanctions set forth in paragraph (b) of this section.</P>
          </SECTION>
          <SECTION>
            <PRTPAGE P="112"/>
            <SECTNO>§ 308.136</SECTNO>
            <SUBJECT>Notice to and consultation with the Securities and Exchange Commission.</SUBJECT>
            <P>Before initiating any proceedings under § 308.135, the FDIC shall:</P>
            <P>(a) Notify the Securities and Exchange Commission of the identity of the municipal securities dealer or associated person against whom proceedings are to be initiated, and the nature of and basis for the proposed action; and</P>
            <P>(b) Consult with the Commission concerning the effect of the proposed action on the protection of investors and the possibility of coordinating the action with any proceeding by the Commission against the municipal securities dealer or associated person.</P>
          </SECTION>
          <SECTION>
            <SECTNO>§ 308.137</SECTNO>
            <SUBJECT>Effective date of order imposing sanctions.</SUBJECT>
            <P>An order issued by the Board of Directors after a hearing or an order issued upon default shall become effective at the expiration of 30 days after the service of the order, except that an order of censure, denial, or revocation of registration is effective when served. An order issued upon consent shall become effective at the time specified therein. All orders shall remain effective and enforceable except to the extent they are stayed, modified, terminated, or set aside by the Board of Directors, its designee, or a reviewing court, provided that orders of suspension shall continue in effect no longer than 12 months.</P>
          </SECTION>
        </SUBPART>
        <SUBPART>
          <HD SOURCE="HED">Subpart J—Rules and Procedures Relating to Exemption Proceedings Under Section 12(h) of the Securities Exchange Act of 1934</HD>
          <SECTION>
            <SECTNO>§ 308.138</SECTNO>
            <SUBJECT>Scope.</SUBJECT>
            <P>The rules and procedures of this subpart J shall apply to proceedings by the Board of Directors or its designee to exempt, in whole or in part, an issuer of securities from the provisions of sections 12(g), 13, 14(a), 14(c), 14(d), or 14(f) of the Exchange Act, as amended (15 U.S.C. 781, 78m, 78n (a), (c) (d) or (f)), or to exempt an officer or a director or beneficial owner of securities of such an issuer from the provisions of section 16 of the Exchange Act (15 U.S.C. 78p).</P>
          </SECTION>
          <SECTION>
            <SECTNO>§ 308.139</SECTNO>
            <SUBJECT>Application for exemption.</SUBJECT>
            <P>Any interested person may file a written application for an exemption under this subpart with the Executive Secretary, Federal Deposit Insurance Corporation, 550 17th Street NW., Washington, DC 20429. The application shall specify the exemption sought and the reason therefor, and shall include a statement indicating why the exemption would be consistent with the public interest or the protection of investors.</P>
          </SECTION>
          <SECTION>
            <SECTNO>§ 308.140</SECTNO>
            <SUBJECT>Newspaper notice.</SUBJECT>
            <P>(a) <E T="03">General rule.</E> If the Board of Directors or its designee, in its sole discretion, decides to further consider an application for exemption, there shall be served upon the applicant instructions to publish one notification in a newspaper of general circulation in the community where the main office of the issuer is located. The applicant shall furnish proof of such publication to the Executive Secretary or such other person as may be directed in the instructions.</P>
            <P>(b) <E T="03">Contents.</E> The notification shall contain the name and address of the issuer and the name and title of the applicant, the exemption sought, a statement that a hearing will be held, and a statement that within 30 days of publication of the newspaper notice, interested persons may submit to the FDIC written comments on the application for exemption and a written request for an opportunity to be heard. The address of the FDIC must appear in the notice.</P>
          </SECTION>
          <SECTION>
            <SECTNO>§ 308.141</SECTNO>
            <SUBJECT>Notice of hearing.</SUBJECT>

            <P>Within ten days after expiration of the period for receipt of comments pursuant to § 308.140, the Executive Secretary shall serve upon the applicant and any person who has requested an opportunity to be heard written notification indicating the place and time of the hearing. The hearing shall be held not later than 30 days after service of the notification of hearing. The notification shall contain the name and address of the presiding officer designated by the Executive Secretary and <PRTPAGE P="113"/>a statement of the matters to be considered.</P>
          </SECTION>
          <SECTION>
            <SECTNO>§ 308.142</SECTNO>
            <SUBJECT>Hearing.</SUBJECT>
            <P>(a) <E T="03">Proceedings are informal.</E> Formal rules of evidence, the adjudicative procedures of the APA (5 U.S.C. 554-557), the Uniform Rules and § 308.108 of subpart B of the Local Rules shall not apply to hearings under this subpart.</P>
            <P>(b) <E T="03">Hearing Procedure.</E> (1) Parties to the hearing may appear personally or through counsel and shall have the right to introduce relevant and material documents and to make an oral statement.</P>
            <P>(2) There shall be no discovery in proceeding under this subpart J.</P>
            <P>(3) The presiding officer shall have discretion to permit presentation of witnesses within specified time limits, provided that a list of witnesses is furnished to the presiding officer prior to the hearing. Witnesses shall be sworn, unless otherwise directed by the presiding officer. The presiding officer may ask questions of any witness and each party may cross-examine any witness presented by an opposing party.</P>
            <P>(4) The proceedings shall be on the record and the transcript shall be promptly submitted to the Board of Directors. The presiding officer shall make recommendations to the Board of Directors, unless the Board of Directors, in its sole discretion, directs otherwise.</P>
          </SECTION>
          <SECTION>
            <SECTNO>§ 308.143</SECTNO>
            <SUBJECT>Decision of Board of Directors.</SUBJECT>
            <P>Following submission of the hearing transcript to the Board of Directors, the Board of Directors may grant the exemption where it determines, by reason of the number of public investors, the amount of trading interest in the securities, the nature and extent of the issuer's activities, the issuer's income or assets, or otherwise, that the exemption is consistent with the public interest or the protection of investors. Any exemption shall be set forth in an order specifying the terms of the exemption, the person to whom it is granted, and the period for which it is granted. A copy of the order shall be served upon each party to the proceeding.</P>
          </SECTION>
        </SUBPART>
        <SUBPART>
          <HD SOURCE="HED">Subpart K—Procedures Applicable to Investigations Pursuant to Section 10(c) of the FDIA</HD>
          <SECTION>
            <SECTNO>§ 308.144</SECTNO>
            <SUBJECT>Scope.</SUBJECT>
            <P>The procedures of this subpart shall be followed when an investigation is instituted and conducted in connection with any open or failed insured depository institution, any institutions making application to become insured depository institutions, and affiliates thereof, or with other types of investigations to determine compliance with applicable law and regulations, pursuant to section 10(c) of the FDIA (12 U.S.C. 1820(c)). The Uniform Rules and subpart B of the Local Rules shall not apply to investigations under this subpart.</P>
          </SECTION>
          <SECTION>
            <SECTNO>§ 308.145</SECTNO>
            <SUBJECT>Conduct of investigation.</SUBJECT>
            <P>An investigation conducted pursuant to section 10(c) of the FDIA shall be initiated only upon issuance of an order by the Board of Directors; or by the General Counsel, the Director of the Division of Supervision, the Director of the Division of Depositor and Asset Services, or their respective designees as set forth at § 303.272 of this chapter. The order shall indicate the purpose of the investigation and designate FDIC's representative(s) to direct the conduct of the investigation. Upon application and for good cause shown, the persons who issue the order of investigation may limit, quash, modify, or withdraw it. Upon the conclusion of the investigation, an order of termination of the investigation shall be issued by the persons issuing the order of investigation.</P>
            <CITA>[56 FR 37975, Aug. 9, 1991, as amended at 60 FR 31384, June 15, 1995; 64 FR 62100, Nov. 16, 1999]</CITA>
          </SECTION>
          <SECTION>
            <SECTNO>§ 308.146</SECTNO>
            <SUBJECT>Powers of person conducting investigation.</SUBJECT>

            <P>The person designated to conduct a section 10(c) investigation shall have the power, among other things, to administer oaths and affirmations, to take and preserve testimony under oath, to issue subpoenas and subpoenas duces tecum and to apply for their enforcement to the United States District Court for the judicial district or <PRTPAGE P="114"/>the United States court in any territory in which the main office of the bank, institution, or affiliate is located or in which the witness resides or conducts business. The person conducting the investigation may obtain the assistance of counsel or others from both within and outside the FDIC. The persons who issue the order of investigation may limit, quash, or modify any subpoena or subpoena duces tecum, upon application and for good cause shown. The person conducting an investigation may report to the Board of Directors any instance where any attorney has been guilty of contemptuous conduct. The Board of Directors, upon motion of the person conducting the investigation, or on its own motion, may make a finding of contempt and may then summarily suspend, without a hearing, any attorney representing a witness from further participation in the investigation.</P>
          </SECTION>
          <SECTION>
            <SECTNO>§ 308.147</SECTNO>
            <SUBJECT>Investigations confidential.</SUBJECT>
            <P>lnvestigations conducted pursuant to section 10(c) shall be confidential. Information and documents obtained by the FDIC in the course of such investigations shall not be disclosed, except as provided in part 309 of this chapter and as otherwise required by law.</P>
          </SECTION>
          <SECTION>
            <SECTNO>§ 308.148</SECTNO>
            <SUBJECT>Rights of witnesses.</SUBJECT>
            <P>In an investigation pursuant to section 10(c):</P>
            <P>(a) Any person compelled or requested to furnish testimony, documentary evidence, or other information, shall upon request be shown and provided with a copy of the order initiating the proceeding;</P>
            <P>(b) Any person compelled or requested to provide testimony as a witness or to furnish documentary evidence may be represented by a counsel who meets the requirements of § 308.6 of the Uniform Rules. That counsel may be present and may:</P>
            <P>(1) Advise the witness before, during, and after such testimony;</P>
            <P>(2) Briefly question the witness at the conclusion of such testimony for clarification purposes; and</P>
            <P>(3) Make summary notes during such testimony solely for the use and benefit of the witness;</P>
            <P>(c) All persons testifying shall be sequestered. Such persons and their counsel shall not be present during the testimony of any other person, unless permitted in the discretion of the person conducting the investigation;</P>
            <P>(d) In cases of a perceived or actual conflict of interest arising out of an attorney's or law firm's representation of multiple witnesses, the person conducting the investigation may require the attorney to comply with the provisions of § 308.8 of the Uniform Rules; and</P>
            <P>(e) Witness fees shall be paid in accordance with § 308.14 of the Uniform Rules.</P>
            <CITA>[56 FR 37975, Aug. 9, 1991, as amended at 64 FR 62100, Nov. 16, 1999]</CITA>
          </SECTION>
          <SECTION>
            <SECTNO>§ 308.149</SECTNO>
            <SUBJECT>Service of subpoena.</SUBJECT>
            <P>Service of a subpoena shall be accomplished in accordance with § 308.11 of the Uniform Rules.</P>
          </SECTION>
          <SECTION>
            <SECTNO>§ 308.150</SECTNO>
            <SUBJECT>Transcripts.</SUBJECT>
            <P>(a) <E T="03">General rule.</E> Transcripts of testimony, if any, in an investigation pursuant to section 10(c) shall be recorded by an official reporter, or by any other person or means designated by the person conducting the investigation. A witness may, solely for the use and benefit of the witness, obtain a copy of the transcript of his or her testimony at the conclusion of the investigation or, at the discretion of the person conducting the investigation, at an earlier time, provided the transcript is available. The witness requesting a copy of his or her testimony shall bear the cost thereof.</P>
            <P>(b) <E T="03">Subscription by witness.</E> The transcript of testimony shall be subscribed by the witness, unless the person conducting the investigation and the witness, by stipulation, have waived the signing, or the witness is ill, cannot be found, or has refused to sign. If the transcript of the testimony is not subscribed by the witness, the official reporter taking the testimony shall certify that the transcript is a true and complete transcript of the testimony.</P>
          </SECTION>
        </SUBPART>
        <SUBPART>
          <PRTPAGE P="115"/>
          <HD SOURCE="HED">Subpart L—Procedures and Standards Applicable to a Notice of Change in Senior Executive Officer or Director Pursuant to Section 32 of the FDIA</HD>
          <SECTION>
            <SECTNO>§ 308.151</SECTNO>
            <SUBJECT>Scope.</SUBJECT>
            <P>The rules and procedures set forth in this subpart shall apply to the notice filed by a state nonmember bank pursuant to section 32 of the FDIA (12 U.S.C. 1831i) and § 303.102 of this chapter for the consent of the FDIC to add or replace an individual on the Board of Directors, or to employ any individual as a senior executive officer, or change the responsibilities of any individual to a position of senior executive officer where:</P>
            <P>(a) The bank is not in compliance with all minimum capital requirements applicable to it as determined by the FDIC on the basis of such institution's most recent report of condition or report of examination or inspection;</P>
            <P>(b) The bank is in a troubled condition as defined in § 303.101(c) of this chapter; or</P>
            <P>(c) The FDIC determines, in connection with the review of a capital restoration plan required under section 38(e)(2) of the FDIA (12 U.S.C. 1831o(e)(2)) or otherwise, that such prior notice is appropriate.</P>
            <CITA>[64 FR 62100, Nov. 16, 1999]</CITA>
          </SECTION>
          <SECTION>
            <SECTNO>§ 308.152</SECTNO>
            <SUBJECT>Grounds for disapproval of notice.</SUBJECT>
            <P>The Board of Directors or its designee may issue a notice of disapproval with respect to a notice submitted by a state nonmember bank pursuant to section 32 of the FDIA (12 U.S.C. 1831i) where:</P>
            <P>(a) The competence, experience, character, or integrity of the individual with respect to whom such notice is submitted indicates that it would not be in the best interests of the depositors of the state nonmember bank to permit the individual to be employed by or associated with such bank; or</P>
            <P>(b) The competence, experience, character, or integrity of the individual with respect to whom such notice is submitted indicates that it would not be in the best interests of the public to permit the individual to be employed by, or associated with, the state nonmember bank.</P>
            <CITA>[56 FR 37975, Aug. 9, 1991, as amended at 64 FR 62101, Nov. 16, 1999]</CITA>
          </SECTION>
          <SECTION>
            <SECTNO>§ 308.153</SECTNO>
            <SUBJECT>Procedures where notice of disapproval issues pursuant to § 303.103(c) of this chapter.</SUBJECT>
            <P>(a) The Notice of Disapproval shall be served upon the insured state nonmember bank and the candidate for director or senior executive officer. The Notice of Disapproval shall:</P>
            <P>(1) Summarize or cite the relevant considerations specified in § 308.152;</P>
            <P>(2) Inform the individual and the bank that a request for review of the disapproval may be filed within fifteen days of receipt of the Notice of Disapproval; and</P>
            <P>(3) Specify that additional information, if any, must be contained in the request for review.</P>
            <P>(b) The request for review must be filed at the appropriate regional office.</P>
            <P>(c) The request for review must be in writing and should:</P>
            <P>(1) Specify the reasons why the FDIC should reconsider its disapproval; and</P>
            <P>(2) Set forth relevant, substantive and material documents, if any, that for good cause were not previously set forth in the notice required to be filed pursuant to section 32 of the FDIA (12 U.S.C. 1831i).</P>
            <CITA>[56 FR 37975, Aug. 9, 1991, as amended at 64 FR 62101, Nov. 16, 1999]</CITA>
          </SECTION>
          <SECTION>
            <SECTNO>§ 308.154</SECTNO>
            <SUBJECT>Decision on review.</SUBJECT>
            <P>(a) Within 30 days of receipt of the request for review, the Board of Directors or its designee, shall notify the bank and/or the individual filing the reconsideration (hereafter “petitioner”) of the FDIC's decision on review.</P>
            <P>(b) If the decision is to grant the review and approve the notice, the bank and the individual involved shall be so notified.</P>
            <P>(c) A denial of the request for review pursuant to section 32 of the FDIA shall:</P>

            <P>(1) Inform the petitioner that a written request for a hearing, stating the relief desired and the grounds therefore, may be filed with the Executive Secretary within 15 days after the receipt of the denial; and<PRTPAGE P="116"/>
            </P>
            <P>(2) Summarize or cite the relevant considerations specified in § 308.152.</P>
            <P>(d) If a decision is not rendered within 30 days, the petitioner may file a request for a hearing within fifteen days from the date of expiration.</P>
          </SECTION>
          <SECTION>
            <SECTNO>§ 308.155</SECTNO>
            <SUBJECT>Hearing.</SUBJECT>
            <P>(a) <E T="03">Hearing dates.</E> The Executive Secretary shall order a hearing to be commenced within 30 days after receipt of a request for a hearing filed pursuant to § 308.154. Upon request of the petitioner or the FDIC, the presiding officer or the Executive Secretary may order a later hearing date.</P>
            <P>(b) <E T="03">Burden of proof.</E> The ultimate burden of proof shall be upon the candidate for director or senior executive officer. The burden of going forward with a <E T="03">prima facie</E> case shall be upon the FDIC.</P>
            <P>(c) <E T="03">Hearing procedure.</E> (1) The hearing shall be held in Washington, DC or at another designated place, before a presiding officer designated by the Executive Secretary.</P>
            <P>(2) The provisions of §§ 308.6 through 308.12, 308.16, and 308.21 of the Uniform Rules and §§ 308.101 through 308.102, and 308.104 through 308.106 of subpart B of the Local Rules shall apply to hearings held pursuant to this subpart.</P>
            <P>(3) The petitioner may appear at the hearing and shall have the right to introduce relevant and material documents and make an oral presentation. Members of the FDIC enforcement staff may attend the hearing and participate as representatives of the FDIC enforcement staff.</P>
            <P>(4) There shall be no discovery in proceedings under this subpart.</P>
            <P>(5) At the discretion of the presiding officer, witnesses may be presented within specified time limits, provided that a list of witnesses is furnished to the presiding officer and to all other parties prior to the hearing. Witnesses shall be sworn, unless otherwise directed by the presiding officer. The presiding officer may ask questions of any witness. Each party shall have the opportunity to cross-examine any witness presented by an opposing party. The transcript of the proceedings shall be furnished, upon request and payment of the cost thereof, to the petitioner afforded the hearing.</P>
            <P>(6) In the course of or in connection with any hearing under paragraph (c) of this section the presiding officer shall have the power to administer oaths and affirmations, to take or cause to be taken depositions of unavailable witnesses, and to issue, revoke, quash, or modify subpoenas and subpoenas duces tecum. Where the presentation of witnesses is permitted, the presiding officer may require the attendance of witnesses from any state, territory, or other place subject to the jurisdiction of the United States at any location where the proceeding is being conducted. Witness fees shall be paid in accordance with § 308.14 of the Uniform Rules.</P>
            <P>(7) Upon the request of the applicant afforded the hearing, or the members of the FDIC enforcement staff, the record shall remain open for five business days following the hearing for the parties to make additional submissions to the record.</P>
            <P>(8) The presiding officer shall make recommendations to the Board of Directors or its designee, where possible, within fifteen days after the last day for the parties to submit additions to the record.</P>
            <P>(9) The presiding officer shall forward his or her recommendation to the Executive Secretary who shall promptly certify the entire record, including the recommendation to the Board of Directors or its designee. The Executive Secretary's certification shall close the record.</P>
            <P>(d) <E T="03">Written submissions in lieu of hearing.</E> The petitioner may in writing waive a hearing and elect to have the matter determined on the basis of written submissions.</P>
            <P>(e) <E T="03">Failure to request or appear at hearing.</E> Failure to request a hearing shall constitute a waiver of the opportunity for a hearing. Failure to appear at a hearing in person or through an authorized representative shall constitute a waiver of hearing. If a hearing is waived, the order shall be final and unappealable, and shall remain in full force and effect.</P>
            <P>(f) <E T="03">Decision by Board of Directors or its designee.</E> Within 45 days following the Executive Secretary's certification of the record to the Board of Directors or its designee, the Board of Directors or <PRTPAGE P="117"/>its designee shall notify the affected individual whether the denial of the notice will be continued, terminated, or otherwise modified. The notification shall state the basis for any decision of the Board of Directors or its designee that is adverse to the petitioner. The Board of Directors or its designee shall promptly rescind or modify the denial where the decision is favorable to the petitioner.</P>
            <CITA>[56 FR 37975, Aug. 9, 1991, as amended at 64 FR 62101, Nov. 16, 1999]</CITA>
          </SECTION>
        </SUBPART>
        <SUBPART>
          <HD SOURCE="HED">Subpart M—Procedures and Standards Applicable to an Application Pursuant to Section 19 of the FDIA</HD>
          <SECTION>
            <SECTNO>§ 308.156</SECTNO>
            <SUBJECT>Scope.</SUBJECT>
            <P>The rules and procedures set forth in this subpart shall apply to an application filed pursuant to section 19 of the FDIA (12 U.S.C. 1829) by an insured depository institution and/or an individual, who has been convicted of any criminal offense involving dishonesty or a breach of trust or money laundering or who has agreed to enter into a pretrial diversion or similar program in connection with the prosecution of such offense, to seek the prior written consent of the FDIC to become or continue as an institution-affiliated party with respect to an insured depository institution; to own or control directly or indirectly an insured depository institution; or to participate directly or indirectly in any manner in the conduct of the affairs of an insured depository institution.</P>
            <CITA>[56 FR 37975, Aug. 9, 1991, as amended at 64 FR 62101, Nov. 16, 1999; 64 FR 72913, Dec. 29, 1999]</CITA>
          </SECTION>
          <SECTION>
            <SECTNO>§ 308.157</SECTNO>
            <SUBJECT>Relevant considerations.</SUBJECT>
            <P>(a) In proceedings under § 308.156 on an application to become or continue as an institution-affiliated party with respect to an insured depository institution; to own or control directly or indirectly an insured depository institution; or to participate directly or indirectly in any manner in the conduct of the affairs of an insured depository institution, the following shall be considered:</P>
            <P>(1) Whether the conviction or entry into a pretrial diversion or similar program is for a criminal offense involving dishonesty or breach of trust or money laundering;</P>
            <P>(2) Whether participation directly or indirectly by the person in any manner in the conduct of the affairs of the insured depository institution constitutes a threat to the safety or soundness of the insured depository institution or the interests of its depositors, or threatens to impair public confidence in the insured depository institution;</P>
            <P>(3) Evidence of the applicant's rehabilitation;</P>
            <P>(4) The position to be held by the applicant;</P>
            <P>(5) The amount of influence and control the applicant will be able to exercise over the affairs and operations of the insured depository institution;</P>
            <P>(6) The ability of the management at the insured depository institution to supervise and control the activities of the applicant;</P>
            <P>(7) The level of ownership which the applicant will have at the insured depository institution;</P>
            <P>(8) Applicable fidelity bond coverage for the applicant; and</P>
            <P>(9) Additional factors in the specific case that appear relevant.</P>
            <P>(b) The question of whether a person, who was convicted of a crime or who agreed to enter a pretrial diversion or similar program, was guilty of that crime shall not be at issue in a proceeding under this subpart.</P>
            <CITA>[56 FR 37975, Aug. 9, 1991, as amended at 64 FR 62101, Nov. 16, 1999]</CITA>
          </SECTION>
          <SECTION>
            <SECTNO>§ 308.158</SECTNO>
            <SUBJECT>Filing papers and effective date.</SUBJECT>
            <P>(a) <E T="03">Filing with the regional office.</E> Applications pursuant to section 19 shall be filed by in the appropriate regional office. Unless a waiver has been granted pursuant to paragraph (c) of this section, only an insured depository institution may file an application. Persons meeting the de minimis criteria set forth in the FDIC's Statement of Policy on Section 19 of the FDIA (63 FR 66177 (1998)) need not file an application.</P>
            <P>(b) <E T="03">Effective date.</E> An application pursuant to section 19 may be made in <PRTPAGE P="118"/>writing at any time more than one year after the issuance of a decision denying an application pursuant to section 19. The removal and/or prohibition pursuant to section 19 shall continue until the individual has been reinstated by the Board of Directors or its designee for good cause shown.</P>
            <P>(c) <E T="03">Waiver applications.</E> If an institution does not file an application regarding an individual, the individual may file a request for a waiver of the institution filing requirement for section 19 of the FDIA. Such a waiver application shall be filed with the appropriate regional office and shall set forth substantial good cause why the application should be granted. The Director of the Division of Supervision and, where confirmed in writing by the director, a deputy director or an associate director may grant or deny applications requesting waivers of the institution filing requirement. The authority delegated under this section shall be exercised only upon the concurrent certification of the General Counsel or his designee that the action to be taken is not inconsistent with section 19 of the FDIA.</P>
            <CITA>[64 FR 62101, Nov. 16, 1999]</CITA>
          </SECTION>
          <SECTION>
            <SECTNO>§ 308.159</SECTNO>
            <SUBJECT>Denial of applications.</SUBJECT>
            <P>A denial of an application pursuant to section 19 shall:</P>
            <P>(a) Inform the applicant that a written request for a hearing, stating the relief desired and the grounds therefor and any supporting evidence, may be filed with the Executive Secretary within 60 days after the denial; and</P>
            <P>(b) Summarize or cite the relevant considerations specified in § 308.157 of this subpart.</P>
          </SECTION>
          <SECTION>
            <SECTNO>§ 308.160</SECTNO>
            <SUBJECT>Hearings.</SUBJECT>
            <P>(a) <E T="03">Hearing dates.</E> The Executive Secretary shall order a hearing to be commenced within 60 days after receipt of a request for hearing on an application filed pursuant to § 308.159. Upon the request of the applicant or FDIC enforcement counsel, the presiding officer or the Executive Secretary may order a later hearing date.</P>
            <P>(b) <E T="03">Burden of proof.</E> The ultimate burden of proof shall be upon the person proposing to become or continue as an institution-affiliated party with respect to an insured depository institution; to own or control directly or indirectly an insured depository institution; or to participate directly or indirectly in any manner in the conduct of the affairs of an insured depository institution. The burden of going forward with a <E T="03">prima facie</E> case shall be upon the FDIC.</P>
            <P>(c) <E T="03">Hearing procedure.</E> (1) The hearing shall be held in Washington, DC, or at another designated place, before a presiding officer designated by the Executive Secretary.</P>
            <P>(2) The provisions of §§ 308.6 through 308.12, 308.16, and 308.21 of the Uniform Rules and §§ 308.101 through 308.102 and 308.104 through 308.106 of subpart B of the Local Rules shall apply to hearings held pursuant to this subpart.</P>
            <P>(3) The applicant may appear at the hearing and shall have the right to introduce relevant and material documents and oral argument. Members of the FDIC enforcement staff may attend the hearing and participate as a party.</P>
            <P>(4) There shall be no discovery in proceedings under this subpart.</P>
            <P>(5) At the discretion of the presiding officer, witnesses may be presented within specified time limits, provided that a list of witnesses is furnished to the presiding officer and to all other parties prior to the hearing. Witnesses shall be sworn, unless otherwise directed by the presiding officer. The presiding officer may ask questions of any witness. Each party shall have the opportunity to cross-examine any witness presented by an opposing party. The transcript of the proceedings shall be furnished, upon request and payment of the cost thereof, to the applicant afforded the hearing.</P>

            <P>(6) In the course of or in connection with any hearing under this subsection, the presiding officer shall have the power to administer oaths and affirmations, to take or cause to be taken depositions of unavailable witnesses, and to issue, revoke, quash, or modify subpoenas and subpoenas duces tecum. Where the presentation of witnesses is permitted, the presiding officer may require the attendance of witnesses from any state, territory, or other place subject to the jurisdiction of the United States at any location <PRTPAGE P="119"/>where the proceeding is being conducted. Witness fees shall be paid in accordance with § 308.14 of the Uniform Rules.</P>
            <P>(7) Upon the request of the applicant afforded the hearing, or FDIC enforcement staff, the record shall remain open for five business days following the hearing for the parties to make additional submissions to the record.</P>
            <P>(8) The presiding officer shall make recommendations to the Board of Directors, where possible, within 20 days after the last day for the parties to submit additions to the record.</P>
            <P>(9) The presiding officer shall forward his or her recommendation to the Executive Secretary who shall promptly certify the entire record, including the recommendation to the Board of Directors or its designee. The Executive Secretary's certification shall close the record.</P>
            <P>(d) <E T="03">Written submissions in lieu of hearing.</E> The applicant or the bank may in writing waive a hearing and elect to have the matter determined on the basis of written submissions.</P>
            <P>(e) <E T="03">Failure to request or appear at hearing.</E> Failure to request a hearing shall constitute a waiver of the opportunity for a hearing. Failure to appear at a hearing in person or through an authorized representative shall constitute a waiver of hearing. If a hearing is waived, the person shall remain barred under section 19.</P>
            <P>(f) <E T="03">Decision by Board of Directors or its designee.</E> Within 60 days following the Executive Secretary's certification of the record to the Board of Directors or its designee, the Board of Directors or its designee shall notify the affected person whether the person shall remain barred under section 19. The notification shall state the basis for any decision of the Board of Directors or its designee that is adverse to the applicant.</P>
            <CITA>[56 FR 37975, Aug. 9, 1991, as amended at 64 FR 62101, Nov. 16, 1999]</CITA>
          </SECTION>
        </SUBPART>
        <SUBPART>
          <HD SOURCE="HED">Subpart N—Rules and Procedures Applicable to Proceedings Relating to Suspension, Removal, and Prohibition Where a Felony ls Charged</HD>
          <SECTION>
            <SECTNO>§ 308.161</SECTNO>
            <SUBJECT>Scope.</SUBJECT>
            <P>The rules and procedures set forth in this subpart shall apply to the following:</P>
            <P>(a) Proceedings to suspend an institution-affiliated party of an insured state nonmember bank, or to prohibit such party from further participation in the conduct of the affairs of the bank, if continued service or participation by such party poses a threat to the interests of the bank's depositors or threatens to impair public confidence in the depository institution, where the individual is charged in any state or federal information, indictment, or complaint, with the commission of, or participation in:</P>
            <P>(1) A crime involving dishonesty or breach of trust punishable by imprisonment exceeding one year under state or federal law; or (2) A criminal violation of section 1956, 1957, or 1960 of Title 18 or section 5322 or 5324 of Title 31.</P>
            <P>(b) Proceedings to remove from office or to prohibit an institution-affiliated party from further participation in the conduct of the affairs of the bank without the consent of the Board of Directors or its designee where:</P>
            <P>(1) A judgment of conviction or an agreement to enter a pre-trial diversion or other similar program has been entered against such party in connection with a crime described in paragraph (a)(1) of this section that is not subject to further appellate review, if continued service or participation by such party poses a threat to the interests of the bank's depositors or threatens to impair public confidence in the depository institution; or</P>

            <P>(2) A judgment of conviction or an agreement to enter a pre-trial diversion or other similar program has been <PRTPAGE P="120"/>entered against such party in connection with a crime described in paragraph (a)(2) of this section.</P>
            <CITA>[64 FR 62101, Nov. 16, 1999]</CITA>
          </SECTION>
          <SECTION>
            <SECTNO>§ 308.162</SECTNO>
            <SUBJECT>Relevant considerations.</SUBJECT>
            <P>(a)(1) In proceedings under § 308.161 (a) and (b) for a suspension, removal or prohibition order, the following shall be considered:</P>
            <P>(i) Whether the alleged offense is a crime which is punishable by imprisonment for a term exceeding one year under state or federal law and which involves dishonesty or breach of trust; and</P>
            <P>(ii) Whether the alleged offense is a criminal violation of section 1956, 1957, or 1960 of Title 18 or section 5322 or 5324 of Title 31; and</P>
            <P>(iii) Whether continued service or participation by the institution-affiliated party may pose a threat to the interest of the bank's depositors, or threatens to impair public confidence in the bank.</P>
            <P>(b) The question of whether an institution-affiliated party charged with a crime is guilty of the crime charged shall not be tried or considered in a proceeding under this subpart.</P>
            <CITA>[56 FR 37975, Aug. 9, 1991, as amended at 64 FR 62101, Nov. 16, 1999]</CITA>
          </SECTION>
          <SECTION>
            <SECTNO>§ 308.163</SECTNO>
            <SUBJECT>Notice of suspension, and orders of removal or prohibition.</SUBJECT>
            <P>(a) <E T="03">Notice of suspension or prohibition.</E> (1) The Board of Directors or its designee may suspend or prohibit from further participation in the conduct of the affairs of the bank an institution-affiliated party by written notice of suspension or prohibition upon a determination by the Board of Directors or its designee that the grounds for such suspension or prohibition exist. The written notice of suspension or prohibition shall be served upon the institution-affiliated party and the bank.</P>
            <P>(2) The written notice of suspension shall:</P>
            <P>(i) Inform the institution-affiliated party that a written request for a hearing, stating the relief desired and grounds therefore, and any supporting evidence, may be filed with the Executive Secretary within 30 days after receipt of the written notice; and</P>
            <P>(ii) Summarize or cite to the relevant considerations specified in § 308.162 of this subpart.</P>
            <P>(3) The suspension or prohibition shall be effective immediately upon service on the institution-affiliated party, and shall remain in effect until final disposition of the information, indictment, complaint, or until it is terminated by the Board of Directors or its designee under the provisions of § 308.164 or otherwise.</P>
            <P>(b) <E T="03">Order of removal or prohibition.</E> (1) The Board of Directors or its designee may issue an order removing or prohibiting from further participation in the conduct of the affairs of the bank an institution-affiliated party, when a final judgment of conviction not subject to further appellate review is entered against the individual for a crime referred to in § 308.161(a)(1) and continued service or participation by such party poses a threat to the interests of the bank's depositors or threatens to impair public confidence in the depository institution.</P>
            <P>(2) An order of removal or prohibition shall be entered if a judgment of conviction is entered against the individual for a crime described in § 308.161(a)(ii).</P>
            <CITA>[56 FR 37975, Aug. 9, 1991, as amended at 64 FR 62101, Nov. 16, 1999]</CITA>
          </SECTION>
          <SECTION>
            <SECTNO>§ 308.164</SECTNO>
            <SUBJECT>Hearings.</SUBJECT>
            <P>(a) <E T="03">Hearing dates.</E> The Executive Secretary shall order a hearing to be commenced within 30 days after receipt of a request for hearing on an application filed pursuant to § 308.163. Upon the request of the applicant, the presiding officer or the Executive Secretary may order a later hearing date.</P>
            <P>(b) <E T="03">Hearing procedure.</E> (1) The hearing shall be held in Washington, DC, or at another designated place, before a presiding officer designated by the Executive Secretary.</P>
            <P>(2) The provisions of §§ 308.6 through 308.12, 308.16, and 308.21 of the Uniform Rules and §§ 308.101 through 308.102 and 308.104 through 308.106 of subpart B of the Local Rules shall apply to hearings held pursuant to this subpart.</P>

            <P>(3) The applicant may appear at the hearing and shall have the right to introduce relevant and material documents and oral argument. Members of <PRTPAGE P="121"/>the FDIC enforcement staff may attend the hearing and participate as representatives of the FDIC enforcement staff.</P>
            <P>(4) There shall be no discovery in proceedings under this subpart.</P>
            <P>(5) At the discretion of the presiding officer, witnesses may be presented within specified time limits, provided that a list of witnesses is furnished to the presiding officer and to all other parties prior to the hearing. Witnesses shall be sworn, unless otherwise directed by the presiding officer. The presiding officer may ask questions of any witness. Each party shall have the opportunity to cross-examine any witness presented by an opposing party. The transcript of the proceedings shall be furnished, upon request and payment of the cost thereof, to the applicant afforded the hearing.</P>
            <P>(6) In the course of or in connection with any hearing under paragraph (b) of this section, the presiding officer shall have the power to administer oaths and affirmations, to take or cause to be taken depositions of unavailable witnesses, and to issue, revoke, quash, or modify subpoenas and subpoenas duces tecum. Where the presentation of witnesses is permitted, the presiding officer may require the attendance of witnesses from any state, territory, or other place subject to the jurisdiction of the United States at any location where the proceeding is being conducted. Witness fees shall be paid in accordance with § 308.14 of the Uniform Rules.</P>
            <P>(7) Upon the request of the applicant afforded the hearing, or the members of the FDIC enforcement staff, the record shall remain open for five business days following the hearing for the parties to make additional submissions to the record.</P>
            <P>(8) The presiding officer shall make recommendations to the Board of Directors, where possible, within ten days after the last day for the parties to submit additions to the record.</P>
            <P>(9) The presiding officer shall forward his or her recommendation to the Executive Secretary who shall promptly certify the entire record, including the recommendation to the Board of Directors. The Executive Secretary's certification shall close the record.</P>
            <P>(c) <E T="03">Written submissions in lieu of hearing.</E> The applicant or the bank may in writing waive a hearing and elect to have the matter determined on the basis of written submissions.</P>
            <P>(d) <E T="03">Failure to request or appear at hearing.</E> Failure to request a hearing shall constitute a waiver of the opportunity for a hearing. Failure to appear at a hearing in person or through an authorized representative shall constitute a waiver of hearing. If a hearing is waived, the order shall be final and unappealable, and shall remain in full force and effect pursuant to § 308.163.</P>
            <P>(e) <E T="03">Decision by Board of Directors or its designee.</E> Within 60 days following the Executive Secretary's certification of the record to the Board of Directors or its designee, the Board of Directors or its designee shall notify the affected individual whether the order of removal or prohibition will be continued, terminated, or otherwise modified. The notification shall state the basis for any decision of the Board of Directors or its designee that is adverse to the applicant. The Board of Directors or its designee shall promptly rescind or modify an order of removal or prohibition where the decision is favorable to the applicant.</P>
            <CITA>[56 FR 37975, Aug. 9, 1991, as amended at 64 FR 62102, Nov. 16, 1999]</CITA>
          </SECTION>
        </SUBPART>
        <SUBPART>
          <HD SOURCE="HED">Subpart O—Liability of Commonly Controlled Depository Institutions</HD>
          <SECTION>
            <SECTNO>§ 308.165</SECTNO>
            <SUBJECT>Scope.</SUBJECT>
            <P>The rules and procedures in this subpart, subpart B of the Local Rules and the Uniform Rules shall apply to proceedings in connection with the assessment of cross-guaranty liability against commonly controlled depository institutions.</P>
          </SECTION>
          <SECTION>
            <SECTNO>§ 308.166</SECTNO>
            <SUBJECT>Grounds for assessment of liability.</SUBJECT>

            <P>Any insured depository institution shall be liable for any loss incurred or reasonably anticipated to be incurred by the corporation, subsequent to August 9, 1989, in connection with the default of a commonly controlled insured depository institution, or any loss incurred or reasonably anticipated to be <PRTPAGE P="122"/>incurred in connection with any assistance provided by the Corporation to any commonly controlled depository institution in danger of default.</P>
          </SECTION>
          <SECTION>
            <SECTNO>§ 308.167</SECTNO>
            <SUBJECT>Notice of assessment of liability.</SUBJECT>
            <P>(a) The amount of liability shall be assessed upon service of a Notice of Assessment of Liability upon the liable depository institution, within two years of the date the Corporation incurred the loss.</P>
            <P>(b) <E T="03">Contents of Notice.</E> (1) The Notice of Assessment of Liability shall set forth:</P>
            <P>(i) The basis for the FDIC's jurisdiction over the proceeding;</P>
            <P>(ii) A statement of the Corporation's good faith estimate of the amount of loss it has incurred or anticipates incurring;</P>
            <P>(iii) A statement of the method by which the estimated loss was calculated;</P>
            <P>(iv) A proposed order directing payment by the liable institution of the FDIC's estimated amount of loss, and the schedule under which the payment will be due;</P>
            <P>(v) In cases involving more than one liable institution, the estimated amount of each institution's share of the liability.</P>
            <P>(2) The Notice of Assessment of Liability shall advise the liable institution(s):</P>
            <P>(i) That an answer must be filed within 20 days after service of the Notice;</P>
            <P>(ii) That, if a hearing is requested, a request for a hearing must be filed within 20 days after service of the Notice;</P>
            <P>(iii) That if a hearing is requested, such hearing will be held within the judicial district in which the liable institution is found, or, in cases involving more than one liable institution, within a judicial district in which at least one liable institution is found;</P>
            <P>(iv) That, unless the administrative law judge sets a different date, the hearing will commence 120 days after service of the Notice of Assessment of Liability; and</P>
            <P>(v) That failure to request a hearing shall render the Notice of Assessment a final and unappealable order.</P>
          </SECTION>
          <SECTION>
            <SECTNO>§ 308.168</SECTNO>
            <SUBJECT>Effective date of and payment under an order to pay.</SUBJECT>
            <P>(a) Unless otherwise provided in the Notice of Assessment of Liability, payment of the assessment shall be due on or before the 21st day after service of the Assessment of Liability, under the terms of the schedule for payment set forth therein.</P>
            <P>(b) All payments collected shall be paid to the Corporation.</P>
            <P>(c) Failure to request a hearing as prescribed herein shall render the order to pay final and unappealable.</P>
          </SECTION>
        </SUBPART>
        <SUBPART>
          <HD SOURCE="HED">Subpart P—Rules and Procedures Relating to the Recovery of Attorney Fees and Other Expenses</HD>
          <SECTION>
            <SECTNO>§ 308.169</SECTNO>
            <SUBJECT>Scope.</SUBJECT>
            <P>This subpart, and the Equal Access to Justice Act (5 U.S.C. 504), which it implements, apply to adversary adjudications before the FDIC. The types of adjudication covered by this subpart are those listed in § 308.01 of the Uniform Rules. The Uniform Rules and subpart B of the Local Rules apply to any proceedings to recover fees and expenses under this subpart.</P>
          </SECTION>
          <SECTION>
            <SECTNO>§ 308.170</SECTNO>
            <SUBJECT>Filing, content, and service of documents.</SUBJECT>
            <P>(a) <E T="03">Time to file.</E> An application and any other pleading or document related to the application shall be filed with the Executive Secretary within 30 days after service of the final order of the Board of Directors in disposition of the proceeding whenever:</P>
            <P>(1) The applicant seeks an award pursuant to 5 U.S.C. 504(a)(1) as the prevailing party in the adversary adjudication or in a discrete significant substantive portion of the proceeding; or</P>

            <P>(2) The applicant, in an adversary adjudication arising from an action to enforce compliance with a statutory or regulatory requirement, asserts pursuant to 5 U.S.C. 504(a)(4) that the demand by the FDIC is substantially in excess of the decision of the administrative law judge and is unreasonable when compared with such decision under the facts and circumstances of the case.<PRTPAGE P="123"/>
            </P>
            <P>(b) <E T="03">Content.</E> The application and related documents shall conform to the requirements of § 308.10(b) and (c) of the Uniform Rules.</P>
            <P>(c) <E T="03">Service.</E> The application and related documents shall be served on all parties to the adversary adjudication in accordance with § 308.11 of the Uniform Rules, except that statements of net worth shall be served only on counsel for the FDIC.</P>
            <P>(d) Upon receipt of an application, the Executive Secretary shall refer the matter to the administrative law judge who heard the underlying adversary proceeding, provided that if the original administrative law judge is unavailable, or the Executive Secretary determines, in his or her sole discretion, that there is cause to refer the matter to a different administrative law judge, the matter shall be referred to a different administrative law judge.</P>
            <CITA>[56 FR 37975, Aug. 9, 1991, as amended at 64 FR 62102, Nov. 16, 1999]</CITA>
          </SECTION>
          <SECTION>
            <SECTNO>§ 308.171</SECTNO>
            <SUBJECT>Responses to application.</SUBJECT>
            <P>(a) <E T="03">By FDIC.</E> (1) Within 20 days after service of an application, counsel for the FDIC may file with the Executive Secretary and serve on all parties an answer to the application. Unless counsel for the FDIC requests and is granted an extension of time for filing or files a statement of intent to negotiate under § 308.179 of this subpart, failure to file an answer within the 20-day period will be treated as a consent to the award requested.</P>
            <P>(2) The answer shall explain in detail any objections to the award requested and identify the facts relied on in support of the FDIC's position. If the answer is based on any alleged facts not already in the record of the proceeding, the answer shall include either supporting affidavits or a request for further proceedings under § 308.180.</P>
            <P>(b) <E T="03">Reply to answer.</E> The applicant may file a reply with regard to an application filed pursuant to 5 U.S.C. 504 (a)(1), if the FDIC has addressed in its answer any of the following issues: that the position of the FDIC was substantially justified, that the applicant unduly protracted the proceedings, or that special circumstances make an award unjust. The applicant may file a reply with regard to an application filed pursuant to 5 U.S.C. 504 (a)(4), if the FDIC has addressed in its answer any of the following issues: that the applicant has committed a willful violation of law or otherwise acted in bad faith, that the FDIC's demand is reasonable when compared to the decision of the administrative law judge or that special circumstances make an award unjust. The reply shall be filed within 15 days after service of the answer. If the reply is based on any alleged facts not already in the record of the proceeding, the reply shall include either supporting affidavits or a request for further proceedings under § 308.180.</P>
            <P>(c) <E T="03">By other parties.</E> Any party to the adversary adjudication, other than the applicant and the FDIC, may file comments on an application within 20 days after service of the application. If the applicant is entitled to file a reply to the FDIC's answer under paragraph (b) of this section, another party may file comments on the answer within 15 days after service of the answer. A commenting party may not participate in any further proceedings on the application unless the administrative law judge determines that the public interest requires such participation in order to permit additional exploration of matters raised in the comments.</P>
            <P>(d) <E T="03">Additional response.</E> Additional filings in the nature of pleadings may be submitted only by leave of the administrative law judge.</P>
            <CITA>[56 FR 37975, Aug. 9, 1991, as amended at 64 FR 62102, Nov. 16, 1999]</CITA>
          </SECTION>
          <SECTION>
            <SECTNO>§ 308.172</SECTNO>
            <SUBJECT>Eligibility of applicants.</SUBJECT>
            <P>(a) <E T="03">Genera1 rule.</E> To be eligible for an award under this subpart, an applicant must have been named or admitted as a party to the proceeding. In addition, the applicant must show that it meets all other conditions of eligibility set out in paragraph (b) of this section.</P>
            <P>(b) <E T="03">Types of eligible applicant.</E> The types of eligible applicant are:</P>
            <P>(1) An individual with a net worth of not more than $2,000,000 at the time the adversary adjudication was initiated; or</P>

            <P>(2) Any owner of an unincorporated business, or any partnership, corporation, associations, unit of local government or organization, the net worth of which did not exceed $7,000,000 and <PRTPAGE P="124"/>which did not have more than 500 employees at the time the adversary adjudication was initiated.</P>
            <P>(3) For purposes of an application filed pursuant to 5 U.S.C. 504(a)(4), a small entity as defined in 5 U.S.C. 601.</P>
            <P>(c) <E T="03">Factors to be considered.</E> In determining the types of eligible applicants:</P>

            <P>(1) An applicant who owns an unincorporated business shall be considered as an <E T="03">individual</E> rather than a <E T="03">sole owner of an unincorporated business</E> if the issues on which he or she prevails are related to personal interests rather than to business interests.</P>
            <P>(2) An applicant's net worth includes the value of any assets disposed of for the purpose of meeting an eligibility standard and excludes the value of any obligations incurred for this purpose. Transfers of assets or obligations incurred for less than reasonably equivalent value will be presumed to have been made for this purpose.</P>
            <P>(3) The net worth of a bank shall be established by the net worth information reported in conformity with applicable instructions and guidelines on the bank's Consolidated Report of Condition and Income filed for the last reporting date before the initiation of the adversary adjudication.</P>
            <P>(4) The employees of an applicant include all those persons who were regularly providing services for remuneration for the applicant, under its direction and control, on the date the adversary adjudication was initiated. Part-time employees are included as though they were full-time employees.</P>

            <P>(5) The net worth and number of employees of the applicant and all of its affiliates shall be aggregated to determine eligibility. The aggregated net worth shall be adjusted if necessary to avoid counting the net worth of any entity twice. As used in this subpart, <E T="03">affiliates</E> are individuals, corporations, and entities that directly or indirectly or acting through one or more entities control a majority of the voting shares of the applicant; and corporations and entities of which the applicant directly or indirectly owns or controls a majority of the voting shares. The Board of Directors may, however, on the recommendation of the administrative law judge, or otherwise, determine that such aggregation with regard to one or more of the applicant's affiliates would be unjust and contrary to the purposes of this subpart in light of the actual relationship between the affiliated entities. In such a case the net worth and employees of the relevant affiliate or affiliates will not be aggregated with those of the applicant. In addition, the Board of Directors may determine that financial relationships of the applicant other than those described in this paragraph constitute special circumstances that would make an award unjust.</P>
            <P>(6) An applicant that participates in a proceeding primarily on behalf of one or more other persons or entities that would be ineligible is not itself eligible for an award.</P>
            <CITA>[56 FR 37975, Aug. 9, 1991, as amended at 64 FR 62102, Nov. 16, 1999]</CITA>
          </SECTION>
          <SECTION>
            <SECTNO>§ 308.173</SECTNO>
            <SUBJECT>Prevailing party.</SUBJECT>
            <P>(a) <E T="03">General rule.</E> An eligible applicant who, following an adversary adjudication has gained victory on the merits in the proceeding is a “prevailing party”. An eligible applicant may be a “prevailing party” if a settlement of the proceeding was effected on terms favorable to it or if the proceeding against it has been dismissed. In appropriate situations an applicant may also have prevailed if the outcome of the proceeding has substantially vindicated the applicant's position on the significant substantive matters at issue, even though the applicant has not totally avoided adverse final action.</P>
            <P>(b) <E T="03">Segregation of costs.</E> When a proceeding has presented a number of discrete substantive issues, an applicant may have prevailed even though all the issues were not resolved in its favor. If such an applicant is deemed to have prevailed, any award shall be based on the fees and expenses incurred in connection with the discrete significant substantive issue or issues on which the applicant's position has been upheld. If such segregation of costs is not practicable, the award may be based on a fair proration of those fees and expenses incurred in the entire proceeding which would be recoverable under § 308.175 if proration were not performed, whether separate or prorated treatment is appropriate, and the appropriate proration percentage, shall <PRTPAGE P="125"/>be determined on the facts of the particular case. Attention shall be given to the significance and nature of the respective issues and their separability and interrelationship.</P>
          </SECTION>
          <SECTION>
            <SECTNO>§ 308.174</SECTNO>
            <SUBJECT>Standards for awards.</SUBJECT>
            <P>(a) For applications filed pursuant to 5 U.S.C. 504(a)(1), a prevailing applicant may receive an award for fees and expenses unless the position of the FDIC during the proceeding was substantially justified or special circumstances make the award unjust. An award will be reduced or denied if the applicant has unduly or unreasonably protracted the proceedings. Awards for fees and expenses incurred before the date on which the adversary adjudication was initiated are allowable if their incurrence was necessary to prepare for the proceeding.</P>
            <P>(b) For applications filed pursuant to 5 U.S.C. 504(a)(4), an applicant may receive an award unless the demand by the FDIC was reasonable when compared with the decision of the administrative law judge, the applicant has committed a willful violation of law or otherwise acted in bad faith, or special circumstances make an award unjust.</P>
            <CITA>[64 FR 62102, Nov. 16, 1999]</CITA>
          </SECTION>
          <SECTION>
            <SECTNO>§ 308.175</SECTNO>
            <SUBJECT>Measure of awards.</SUBJECT>
            <P>(a) <E T="03">General rule.</E> Awards will be based on rates customarily charged by persons engaged in the business of acting as attorneys, agents, and expert witnesses, even if the services were made available without charge or at a reduced rate, provided that no award under this subpart for the fee of an attorney or agent may exceed $125 per hour. No award to compensate an expert witness may exceed the highest rate at which the FDIC pays expert witnesses. An award may include the reasonable expenses of the attorney, agent, or expert witness as a separate item, if the attorney, agent, or expert witness ordinarily charges clients separately for such expenses. Fees and expenses awarded under 5 U.S.C. 504(a)(4) related to defending against an excessive demand shall be paid only as a consequence of appropriations paid in advance.</P>
            <P>(b) <E T="03">Determination of reasonableness of fees.</E> In determining the reasonableness of the fee sought for an attorney, agent, or expert witness, the administrative law judge shall consider the following:</P>
            <P>(1) If the attorney, agent, or expert witness is in private practice, his or her customary fee for like services, or, if he or she is an employee of the applicant, the fully allocated cost of the services;</P>
            <P>(2) The prevailing rate for similar services in the community in which the attorney, agent, or expert witness ordinarily performs services;</P>
            <P>(3) The time actually spent in the representation of the applicant;</P>
            <P>(4) The time reasonably spent in light of the difficulty or complexity of the issues in the proceeding; and</P>
            <P>(5) Such other factors as may bear on the value of the services provided.</P>
            <P>(c) <E T="03">Awards for studies.</E> The reasonable cost of any study, analysis, test, project, or similar matter prepared on behalf of an applicant may be awarded to the extent that the charge for the service does not exceed the prevailing rate payable for similar services, and the study or other matter was necessary for preparation of the applicant's case and not otherwise required by law or sound business or financial practice.</P>
            <CITA>[56 FR 37975, Aug. 9, 1991, as amended at 64 FR 62102, Nov. 16, 1999]</CITA>
          </SECTION>
          <SECTION>
            <SECTNO>§ 308.176</SECTNO>
            <SUBJECT>Application for awards.</SUBJECT>
            <P>(a) <E T="03">Contents.</E> An application for an award of fees and expenses under this subpart shall contain:</P>
            <P>(1) The name of the applicant and an identification of the proceeding;</P>
            <P>(2) For applications filed pursuant to 5 U.S.C. 504(a)(1), a showing that the applicant has prevailed, and an identification of each issue with regard to which the applicant believes that the position of the FDIC in the proceeding was not substantially justified;</P>

            <P>(3) For applications filed pursuant to 5 U.S.C. 504(a)(4), a showing that the demand by the FDIC is substantially in excess of the decision of the administrative law judge and is unreasonable when compared with such decision under the facts and circumstances of the case;<PRTPAGE P="126"/>
            </P>
            <P>(4) A statement of the amount of fees and expenses for which an award is sought;</P>
            <P>(5) For applications filed pursuant to 5 U.S.C. 504(a)(4), a statement of the amount of fees and expenses which constitute appropriations paid in advance;</P>
            <P>(6) If the applicant is not an individual, a statement of the number of its employees on the date the proceeding was initiated;</P>
            <P>(7) A description of any affiliated individuals or entities, as defined in § 308.172(c)(5), or a statement that none exist;</P>
            <P>(8) A declaration that the applicant, together with any affiliates, had a net worth not more than the ceiling established for it by § 308.172(b) as of the date the proceeding was initiated;</P>
            <P>(9) For applications filed pursuant to 5 U.S.C. 504(a)(1), a statement whether the applicant is a small entity as defined in 5 U.S.C. 601; and</P>
            <P>(10) Any other matters that the applicant wishes the FDIC to consider in determining whether and in what amount an award should be made.</P>
            <P>(b) <E T="03">Verification.</E> The application shall be signed by the applicant or an authorized officer or attorney of the applicant. It shall also contain or be accompanied by a written verification under oath or under penalty of perjury that the information provided in the application and supporting documents is true and correct.</P>
            <CITA>[56 FR 37975, Aug. 9, 1991, as amended at 64 FR 62102, Nov. 16, 1999]</CITA>
          </SECTION>
          <SECTION>
            <SECTNO>§ 308.177</SECTNO>
            <SUBJECT>Statement of net worth.</SUBJECT>
            <P>(a) <E T="03">General rule.</E> A statement of net worth must be filed with the application for an award of fees. The statement shall reflect the net worth of the applicant and all affiliates of the applicant.</P>
            <P>(b) <E T="03">Contents.</E> (1) The statement of net worth may be in any form convenient to the applicant which fully discloses all the assets and liabilities of the applicant and all the assets and liabilities of its affiliates, as of the time of the initiation of the adversary adjudication. Unaudited financial statements are acceptable unless the administrative law judge or the Board of Directors otherwise requires. Financial statements or reports to a Federal or state agency, prepared before the initiation of the adversary adjudication for other purposes, and accurate as of a date not more than three months prior to the initiation of the proceeding, are acceptable in establishing net worth as of the time of the initiation of the proceeding, unless the administrative law judge or the Board of Directors otherwise requires.</P>
            <P>(2) In the case of applicants or affiliates that are not banks, net worth shall be considered for the purposes of this subpart to be the excess of total assets over total liabilities, as of the date the underlying proceeding was initiated, except as adjusted under § 308.172(c)(2). Assets and liabilities of individuals shall include those beneficially owned within the meaning of the FDIC's rules and regulations.</P>
            <P>(3) If the applicant or any of its affiliates is a bank, the portion of the statement of net worth which relates to the bank shall consist of a copy of the bank's last Consolidated Report of Condition and Income filed before the initiation of the adversary adjudication. In all cases the administrative law judge or the Board of Directors may call for additional information needed to establish the applicant's net worth as of the initiation of the proceeding. Except as adjusted by additional information that was called for under the preceding sentence, net worth shall be considered for the purposes of this subpart to be the total equity capital (or, in the case of mutual savings banks, the total surplus accounts) as reported, in conformity with applicable instructions and guidelines, on the bank's Consolidated Report of Condition and Income filed for the last reporting date before the initiation of the proceeding.</P>
            <P>(c) <E T="03">Statement confidential.</E> Unless otherwise ordered by the Board of Directors or required by law, the statement of net worth shall be for the confidential use of counsel for the FDIC, the Board of Directors, and the administrative law judge.</P>
          </SECTION>
          <SECTION>
            <SECTNO>§ 308.178</SECTNO>
            <SUBJECT>Statement of fees and expenses.</SUBJECT>

            <P>The application shall be accompanied by a statement fully documenting the fees and expenses for which an award is sought. A separate itemized statement <PRTPAGE P="127"/>shall be submitted for each professional firm or individual whose services are covered by the application, showing the hours spent in work in connection with the proceeding by each individual, a description of the specific services performed, the rate at which each fee has been computed, any expenses for which reimbursement is sought, the total amount claimed, and the total amount paid or payable by the applicant or by any other person or entity for the services performed. The administrative law judge or the Board of Directors may require the applicant to provide vouchers, receipts, or other substantiation for any expenses claimed.</P>
          </SECTION>
          <SECTION>
            <SECTNO>§ 308.179</SECTNO>
            <SUBJECT>Settlement negotiations.</SUBJECT>
            <P>If counsel for the FDIC and the applicant believe that the issues in a fee application can be settled, they may jointly file with the Executive Secretary with a copy to the administrative law judge a statement of their intent to negotiate a settlement. The filing of this statement shall extend the time for filing an answer under § 308.171 for an additional 30 days, and further extensions may be granted by the administrative law judge upon the joint request of counsel for the FDIC and the applicant.</P>
            <CITA>[56 FR 37975, Aug. 9, 1991, as amended at 64 FR 62102, Nov. 16, 1999]</CITA>
          </SECTION>
          <SECTION>
            <SECTNO>§ 308.180</SECTNO>
            <SUBJECT>Further proceedings.</SUBJECT>
            <P>(a) <E T="03">General rule.</E> Ordinarily, the determination of a recommended award will be made by the administrative law judge on the basis of the written record. However, on request of either the applicant or the FDIC, or on his or her own initiative, the administrative law judge may order further proceedings such as an informal conference, oral argument, additional written submissions, or an evidentiary hearing. Such further proceedings will be held only when necessary for full and fair resolution of the issues arising from the application and will be conducted promptly and expeditiously.</P>
            <P>(b) <E T="03">Request for further proceedings.</E> A request for further proceedings under this section shall specifically identify the information sought or the issues in dispute and shall explain why additional proceedings are necessary.</P>
            <P>(c) <E T="03">Hearing.</E> Ordinarily, the administrative law judge shall hold an oral evidentiary hearing only on disputed issues of material fact which cannot be adequately resolved through written submissions.</P>
          </SECTION>
          <SECTION>
            <SECTNO>§ 308.181</SECTNO>
            <SUBJECT>Recommended decision.</SUBJECT>
            <P>The administrative law judge shall file with the Executive Secretary a recommended decision on the fee application not later than 90 days after the filing of the application or 30 days after the conclusion of the hearing, whichever is later. The recommended decision shall include written proposed findings and conclusions on the applicant's eligibility and its status as a prevailing party and an explanation of the reasons for any difference between the amount requested and the amount of the recommended award. The recommended decision shall also include, if at issue, proposed findings on whether the FDIC's position was substantially justified, whether the applicant unduly protracted the proceedings, or whether special circumstances make an award unjust. The administrative law judge shall file the record of the proceeding on the fee application and, at the same time, serve upon each party a copy of the recommended decision, findings, conclusions, and proposed order.</P>
          </SECTION>
          <SECTION>
            <SECTNO>§ 308.182</SECTNO>
            <SUBJECT>Board of Directors action.</SUBJECT>
            <P>(a) <E T="03">Exceptions to recommended decision.</E> Within 20 days after service of the recommended decision, findings, conclusions, and proposed order, the applicant or counsel for the FDIC may file with the Executive Secretary written exceptions thereto. A supporting brief may also be filed.</P>
            <P>(b) <E T="03">Decision of Board of Directors.</E> The Board of Directors shall render its decision within 60 days after the matter is submitted to it by the Executive Secretary. The Executive Secretary shall furnish copies of the decision and order of the Board of Directors to the parties. Judicial review of the decision and order may be obtained as provided in 5 U.S.C. 504(c)(2).</P>
          </SECTION>
          <SECTION>
            <PRTPAGE P="128"/>
            <SECTNO>§ 308.183</SECTNO>
            <SUBJECT>Payment of awards.</SUBJECT>
            <P>An applicant seeking payment of an award made by the Board of Directors shall submit to the Executive Secretary a statement that the applicant will not seek judicial review of the decision and order or that the time for seeking further review has passed and no further review has been sought. The FDIC will pay the amount awarded within 30 days after receiving the applicant's statement, unless judicial review of the award or of the underlying decision of the adversary adjudication has been sought by the applicant or any other party to the proceeding.</P>
          </SECTION>
        </SUBPART>
        <SUBPART>
          <HD SOURCE="HED">Subpart Q—Issuance and Review of Orders Pursuant to the Prompt Corrective Action Provisions of the Federal Deposit Insurance Act</HD>
          <SOURCE>
            <HD SOURCE="HED">Source: </HD>
            <P>57 FR 44897, Sept. 29, 1992, unless otherwise noted.</P>
          </SOURCE>
          <SECTION>
            <SECTNO>§ 308.200</SECTNO>
            <SUBJECT>Scope.</SUBJECT>
            <P>The rules and procedures set forth in this subpart apply to banks, insured branches of foreign banks and senior executive officers and directors of banks that are subject to the provisions of section 38 of the Federal Deposit Insurance Act (section 38) (12 U.S.C. 1831o) and subpart B of part 325 of this chapter.</P>
            <CITA>[57 FR 44897, Sept. 29, 1992; 57 FR 48426, Oct. 23, 1992]</CITA>
          </SECTION>
          <SECTION>
            <SECTNO>§ 308.201</SECTNO>
            <SUBJECT>Directives to take prompt corrective action.</SUBJECT>
            <P>(a) <E T="03">Notice of intent to issue directive—</E>(1) <E T="03">In general.</E> The FDIC shall provide an undercapitalized, significantly undercapitalized, or critically undercapitalized bank prior written notice of the FDIC's intention to issue a directive requiring such bank to take actions or to follow proscriptions described in section 38 that are within the FDIC's discretion to require or impose under section 38 of the FDI Act, including sections 38 (e)(5), (f)(2), (f)(3), or (f)(5). The bank shall have such time to respond to a proposed directive as provided by the FDIC under paragraph (c) of this section.</P>
            <P>(2) <E T="03">Immediate issuance of final directive.</E> If the FDIC finds it necessary in order to carry out the purposes of section 38 of the FDI Act, the FDIC may, without providing the notice prescribed in paragraph (a)(1) of this section, issue a directive requiring a bank immediately to take actions or to follow proscriptions described in section 38 that are within the FDIC's discretion to require or impose under section 38 of the FDI Act, including section 38 (e)(5), (f)(2), (f)(3), or (f)(5). A bank that is subject to such an immediately effective directive may submit a written appeal of the directive to the FDIC. Such an appeal must be received by the FDIC within 14 calendar days of the issuance of the directive, unless the FDIC permits a longer period. The FDIC shall consider any such appeal, if filed in a timely matter, within 60 days of receiving the appeal. During such period of review, the directive shall remain in effect unless the FDIC, in its sole discretion, stays the effectiveness of the directive.</P>
            <P>(b) <E T="03">Contents of notice.</E> A notice of intention to issue a directive shall include:</P>
            <P>(1) A statement of the bank's capital measures and capital levels;</P>
            <P>(2) A description of the restrictions, prohibitions or affirmative actions that the FDIC proposes to impose or require;</P>
            <P>(3) The proposed date when such restrictions or prohibitions would be effective or the proposed date for completion of such affirmative actions; and</P>
            <P>(4) The date by which the bank subject to the directive may file with the FDIC a written response to the notice.</P>
            <P>(c) <E T="03">Response to notice—</E>(1) <E T="03">Time for response.</E> A bank may file a written response to a notice of intent to issue a directive within the time period set by the FDIC. The date shall be at least 14 calendar days from the date of the notice unless the FDIC determines that a shorter period is appropriate in light of the financial condition of the bank or other relevant circumstances.</P>
            <P>(2) <E T="03">Content of response.</E> The response should include:</P>

            <P>(i) An explanation why the action proposed by the FDIC is not an appropriate exercise of discretion under section 38;<PRTPAGE P="129"/>
            </P>
            <P>(ii) Any recommended modification of the proposed directive; and</P>
            <P>(iii) Any other relevant information, mitigating circumstances, documentation, or other evidence in support of the position of the bank regarding the proposed directive.</P>
            <P>(d) <E T="03">FDIC consideration of response.</E> After considering the response, the FDIC may:</P>
            <P>(1) Issue the directive as proposed or in modified form;</P>
            <P>(2) Determine not to issue the directive and so notify the bank; or</P>
            <P>(3) Seek additional information or clarification of the response from the bank or any other relevant source.</P>
            <P>(e) <E T="03">Failure to file response.</E> Failure by a bank to file with the FDIC, within the specified time period, a written response to a proposed directive shall constitute a waiver of the opportunity to respond and shall constitute consent to the issuance of the directive.</P>
            <P>(f) <E T="03">Request for modification or rescission of directive.</E> Any bank that is subject to a directive under this subpart may, upon a change in circumstances, request in writing that the FDIC reconsider the terms of the directive, and may propose that the directive be rescinded or modified. Unless otherwise ordered by the FDIC, the directive shall continue in place while such request is pending before the FDIC.</P>
          </SECTION>
          <SECTION>
            <SECTNO>§ 308.202</SECTNO>
            <SUBJECT>Procedures for reclassifying a bank based on criteria other than capital.</SUBJECT>
            <P>(a) <E T="03">Reclassification based on unsafe or unsound condition or practice—</E>(1) <E T="03">Issuance of notice of proposed reclassification—</E>(i) <E T="03">Grounds for reclassification.</E> (A) Pursuant to § 325.103(d) of this chapter, the FDIC may reclassify a well capitalized bank as adequately capitalized or subject an adequately capitalized or undercapitalized institution to the supervisory actions applicable to the next lower capital category if:</P>
            <P>(<E T="03">1</E>) The FDIC determines that the bank is in unsafe or unsound condition; or</P>
            <P>(<E T="03">2</E>) The FDIC, pursuant to section 8(b)(8) of the FDI Act (12 U.S.C. 1818(b)(8)), deems the bank to be engaged in an unsafe or unsound practice and not to have corrected the deficiency.</P>

            <P>(B) Any action pursuant to this paragraph (a)(1)(i) shall hereinafter be referred to as <E T="03">reclassification.</E>
            </P>
            <P>(ii) <E T="03">Prior notice to institution.</E> Prior to taking action pursuant to § 325.103(d) of this chapter, the FDIC shall issue and serve on the bank a written notice of the FDIC's intention to reclassify the bank.</P>
            <P>(2) <E T="03">Contents of notice.</E> A notice of intention to reclassify a bank based on unsafe or unsound condition shall include:</P>
            <P>(i) A statement of the bank's capital measures and capital levels and the category to which the bank would be reclassified;</P>
            <P>(ii) The reasons for reclassification of the bank;</P>
            <P>(iii) The date by which the bank subject to the notice of reclassification may file with the FDIC a written appeal of the proposed reclassification and a request for a hearing, which shall be at least 14 calendar days from the date of service of the notice unless the FDIC determines that a shorter period is appropriate in light of the financial condition of the bank or other relevant circumstances.</P>
            <P>(3) <E T="03">Response to notice of proposed reclassification.</E> A bank may file a written response to a notice of proposed reclassification within the time period set by the FDIC. The response should include:</P>
            <P>(i) An explanation of why the bank is not in an unsafe or unsound condition or otherwise should not be reclassified; and</P>
            <P>(ii) Any other relevant information, mitigating circumstances, documentation, or other evidence in support of the position of the bank regarding the reclassification.</P>
            <P>(4) <E T="03">Failure to file response.</E> Failure by a bank to file, within the specified time period, a written response with the FDIC to a notice of proposed reclassification shall constitute a waiver of the opportunity to respond and shall constitute consent to the reclassification.</P>
            <P>(5) <E T="03">Request for hearing and presentation of oral testimony or witnesses.</E> The response may include a request for an informal hearing before the FDIC under this section. If the bank desires to present oral testimony or witnesses at the hearing, the bank shall include a <PRTPAGE P="130"/>request to do so with the request for an informal hearing. A request to present oral testimony or witnesses shall specify the names of the witnesses and the general nature of their expected testimony. Failure to request a hearing shall constitute a waiver of any right to a hearing, and failure to request the opportunity to present oral testimony or witnesses shall constitute a waiver of any right to present oral testimony or witnesses.</P>
            <P>(6) <E T="03">Order for informal hearing.</E> Upon receipt of a timely written request that includes a request for a hearing, the FDIC shall issue an order directing an informal hearing to commence no later than 30 days after receipt of the request, unless the bank requests a later date. The hearing shall be held in Washington, DC or at such other place as may be designated by the FDIC, before a presiding officer(s) designated by the FDIC to conduct the hearing.</P>
            <P>(7) <E T="03">Hearing procedures.</E> (i) The bank shall have the right to introduce relevant written materials and to present oral argument at the hearing. The bank may introduce oral testimony and present witnesses only if expressly authorized by the FDIC or the presiding officer(s). Neither the provisions of the Administrative Procedure Act (5 U.S.C. 554-557) governing adjudications required by statute to be determined on the record nor the Uniform Rules of Practice and Procedure in this part apply to an informal hearing under this section unless the FDIC orders that such procedures shall apply.</P>
            <P>(ii) The informal hearing shall be recorded, and a transcript shall be furnished to the bank upon request and payment of the cost thereof. Witnesses need not be sworn, unless specifically requested by a party or the presiding officer(s). The presiding officer(s) may ask questions of any witness.</P>
            <P>(iii) The presiding officer(s) may order that the hearing be continued for a reasonable period (normally five business days) following completion of oral testimony or argument to allow additional written submissions to the hearing record.</P>
            <P>(8) <E T="03">Recommendation of presiding officers.</E> Within 20 calendar days following the date the hearing and the record on the proceeding are closed, the presiding officer(s) shall make a recommendation to the FDIC on the reclassification.</P>
            <P>(9) <E T="03">Time for decision.</E> Not later than 60 calendar days after the date the record is closed or the date of the response in a case where no hearing was requested, the FDIC will decide whether to reclassify the bank and notify the bank of the FDIC's decision.</P>
            <P>(b) <E T="03">Request for rescission of reclassification.</E> Any bank that has been reclassified under this section, may, upon a change in circumstances, request in writing that the FDIC reconsider the reclassification, and may propose that the reclassification be rescinded and that any directives issued in connection with the reclassification be modified, rescinded, or removed. Unless otherwise ordered by the FDIC, the bank shall remain subject to the reclassification and to any directives issued in connection with that reclassification while such request is pending before the FDIC.</P>
          </SECTION>
          <SECTION>
            <SECTNO>§ 308.203</SECTNO>
            <SUBJECT>Order to dismiss a director or senior executive officer.</SUBJECT>
            <P>(a) <E T="03">Service of notice.</E> When the FDIC issues and serves a directive on a bank pursuant to § 308.201 of this part requiring the bank to dismiss from office any director or senior executive officer under § 38(f)(2)(F)(ii) of the FDI Act, the FDIC shall also serve a copy of the directive, or the relevant portions of the directive where appropriate, upon the person to be dismissed.</P>
            <P>(b) <E T="03">Response to directive—</E>(1) <E T="03">Request for reinstatement.</E> A director or senior executive officer who has been served with a directive under paragraph (a) of this section (Respondent) may file a written request for reinstatement. The request for reinstatement shall be filed within 10 calendar days of the receipt of the directive by the Respondent, unless further time is allowed by the FDIC at the request of the Respondent.</P>
            <P>(2) <E T="03">Contents of request; informal hearing.</E> The request for reinstatement shall include reasons why the Respondent should be reinstated, and may include a request for an informal hearing before the FDIC under this section. If the Respondent desires to present oral testimony or witnesses at the hearing, the Respondent shall include a request <PRTPAGE P="131"/>to do so with the request for an informal hearing. The request to present oral testimony or witnesses shall specify the names of the witnesses and the general nature of their expected testimony. Failure to request a hearing shall constitute a waiver of any right to a hearing and failure to request the opportunity to present oral testimony or witnesses shall constitute a waiver of any right or opportunity to present oral testimony or witnesses.</P>
            <P>(3) <E T="03">Effective date.</E> Unless otherwise ordered by the FDIC, the dismissal shall remain in effect while a request for reinstatement is pending.</P>
            <P>(c) <E T="03">Order for informal hearing.</E> Upon receipt of a timely written request from a Respondent for an informal hearing on the portion of a directive requiring a bank to dismiss from office any director or senior executive officer, the FDIC shall issue an order directing an informal hearing to commence no later than 30 days after receipt of the request, unless the Respondent requests a later date. The hearing shall be held in Washington, DC, or at such other place as may be designated by the FDIC, before a presiding officer(s) designated by the FDIC to conduct the hearing.</P>
            <P>(d) <E T="03">Hearing procedures.</E> (1) A Respondent may appear at the hearing personally or through counsel. A Respondent shall have the right to introduce relevant written materials and to present oral argument. A Respondent may introduce oral testimony and present witnesses only if expressly authorized by the FDIC or the presiding officer(s). Neither the provisions of the Administrative Procedure Act governing adjudications required by statute to be determined on the record nor the Uniform Rules of Practice and Procedure in this part apply to an informal hearing under this section unless the FDIC orders that such procedures shall apply.</P>
            <P>(2) The informal hearing shall be recorded, and a transcript shall be furnished to the Respondent upon request and payment of the cost thereof. Witnesses need not be sworn, unless specifically requested by a party or the presiding officer(s). The presiding officer(s) may ask questions of any witness.</P>
            <P>(3) The presiding officer(s) may order that the hearing be continued for a reasonable period (normally five business days) following completion of oral testimony or argument to allow additional written submissions to the hearing record.</P>
            <P>(e) <E T="03">Standard for review.</E> A Respondent shall bear the burden of demonstrating that his or her continued employment by or service with the bank would materially strengthen the bank's ability:</P>
            <P>(1) To become adequately capitalized, to the extent that the directive was issued as a result of the bank's capital level or failure to submit or implement a capital restoration plan; and</P>
            <P>(2) To correct the unsafe or unsound condition or unsafe or unsound practice, to the extent that the directive was issued as a result of classification of the bank based on supervisory criteria other than capital, pursuant to section 38(g) of the FDI Act.</P>
            <P>(f) <E T="03">Recommendation of presiding officers.</E> Within 20 calendar days following the date the hearing and the record on the proceeding are closed, the presiding officer(s) shall make a recommendation to the FDIC concerning the Respondent's request for reinstatement with the bank.</P>
            <P>(g) <E T="03">Time for decision.</E> Not later than 60 calendar days after the date the record is closed or the date of the response in a case where no hearing was requested, the FDIC shall grant or deny the request for reinstatement and notify the Respondent of the FDIC's decision. If the FDIC denies the request for reinstatement, the FDIC shall set forth in the notification the reasons for the FDIC's action.</P>
          </SECTION>
          <SECTION>
            <SECTNO>§ 308.204</SECTNO>
            <SUBJECT>Enforcement of directives.</SUBJECT>
            <P>(a) <E T="03">Judicial remedies.</E> Whenever a bank fails to comply with a directive issued under section 38, the FDIC may seek enforcement of the directive in the appropriate United States district court pursuant to section 8(i)(1) of the FDI Act (12 U.S.C. 1818(i)(1)).</P>
            <P>(b) <E T="03">Administrative remedies—</E>(1) <E T="03">Failure to comply with directive.</E> Pursuant to section 8(i)(2)(A) of the FDI Act, the FDIC may assess a civil money penalty against any bank that violates or otherwise fails to comply with any final directive issued under section 38 and <PRTPAGE P="132"/>against any institution-affiliated party who participates in such violation or noncompliance.</P>
            <P>(2) <E T="03">Failure to implement capital restoration plan.</E> The failure of a bank to implement a capital restoration plan required under section 38, or subpart B of part 325 of this chapter, or the failure of a company having control of a bank to fulfill a guarantee of a capital restoration plan made pursuant to section 38(e)(2) of the FDI Act shall subject the bank to the assessment of civil money penalties pursuant to section 8(i)(2)(A) of the FDI Act.</P>
            <P>(c) <E T="03">Other enforcement action.</E> In addition to the actions described in paragraphs (a) and (b) of this section, the FDIC may seek enforcement of the provisions of section 38 or subpart B of part 325 of this chapter through any other judicial or administrative proceeding authorized by law.</P>
            <CITA>[57 FR 44897, Sept. 29, 1992; 57 FR 48426, Oct. 23, 1992]</CITA>
          </SECTION>
        </SUBPART>
        <SUBPART>
          <HD SOURCE="HED">Subpart R—Submission and Review of Safety and Soundness Compliance Plans and Issuance of Orders To Correct Safety and Soundness Deficiencies</HD>
          <SOURCE>
            <HD SOURCE="HED">Source: </HD>
            <P>60 FR 35684, July 10, 1995, unless otherwise noted.</P>
          </SOURCE>
          <SECTION>
            <SECTNO>§ 308.300</SECTNO>
            <SUBJECT>Scope.</SUBJECT>
            <P>The rules and procedures set forth in this subpart apply to insured state nonmember banks and to state-licensed insured branches of foreign banks, that are subject to the provisions of section 39 of the Federal Deposit Insurance Act (section 39) (12 U.S.C. 1831p-1).</P>
          </SECTION>
          <SECTION>
            <SECTNO>§ 308.301</SECTNO>
            <SUBJECT>Purpose.</SUBJECT>
            <P>Section 39 of the FDI Act requires the FDIC to establish safety and soundness standards. Pursuant to section 39, a bank may be required to submit a compliance plan if it is not in compliance with a safety and soundness standard established by guideline under section 39(a) or (b). An enforceable order under section 8 of the FDI Act may be issued if, after being notified that it is in violation of a safety and soundness standard established under section 39, the bank fails to submit an acceptable compliance plan or fails in any material respect to implement an accepted plan. This subpart establishes procedures for requiring submission of a compliance plan and issuing an enforceable order pursuant to section 39.</P>
          </SECTION>
          <SECTION>
            <SECTNO>§ 308.302</SECTNO>
            <SUBJECT>Determination and notification of failure to meet a safety and soundness standard and request for compliance plan.</SUBJECT>
            <P>(a) <E T="03">Determination.</E> The FDIC may, based upon an examination, inspection, or any other information that becomes available to the FDIC, determine that a bank has failed to satisfy the safety and soundness standards set out in part 364 of this chapter and in the Interagency Guidelines Establishing Standards for Safety and Soundness set forth in appendix A to part 364 of this chapter.</P>
            <P>(b) <E T="03">Request for compliance plan.</E> If the FDIC determines that a bank has failed a safety and soundness standard pursuant to paragraph (a) of this section, the FDIC may request, by letter or through a report of examination, the submission of a compliance plan and the bank shall be deemed to have notice of the request three days after mailing of the letter by the FDIC or delivery of the report of examination.</P>
          </SECTION>
          <SECTION>
            <SECTNO>§ 308.303</SECTNO>
            <SUBJECT>Filing of safety and soundness compliance plan.</SUBJECT>
            <P>(a) <E T="03">Schedule for filing compliance plan—</E>(1) <E T="03">In general.</E> A bank shall file a written safety and soundness compliance plan with the FDIC within 30 days of receiving a request for a compliance plan pursuant to § 308.302(b), unless the FDIC notifies the bank in writing that the plan is to be filed within a different period.</P>
            <P>(2) <E T="03">Other plans.</E> If a bank is obligated to file, or is currently operating under, a capital restoration plan submitted pursuant to section 38 of the FDI Act (12 U.S.C. 1831o), a cease-and-desist order entered into pursuant to section 8 of the FDI Act, a formal or informal agreement, or a response to a report of examination or report of inspection, it may, with the permission of the FDIC, submit a compliance plan under this section as part of that plan, order, <PRTPAGE P="133"/>agreement, or response, subject to the deadline provided in paragraph (a)(1) of this section.</P>
            <P>(b) <E T="03">Contents of plan.</E> The compliance plan shall include a description of the steps the bank will take to correct the deficiency and the time within which those steps will be taken.</P>
            <P>(c) <E T="03">Review of safety and soundness compliance plans.</E> Within 30 days after receiving a safety and soundness compliance plan under this subpart, the FDIC shall provide written notice to the bank of whether the plan has been approved or seek additional information from the bank regarding the plan. The FDIC may extend the time within which notice regarding approval of a plan will be provided.</P>
            <P>(d) <E T="03">Failure to submit or implement a compliance plan—</E>(1) <E T="03">Supervisory actions.</E> If a bank fails to submit an acceptable plan within the time specified by the FDIC or fails in any material respect to implement a compliance plan, then the FDIC shall, by order, require the bank to correct the deficiency and may take further actions provided in section 39(e)(2)(B). Pursuant to section 39(e)(3), the FDIC may be required to take certain actions if the bank commenced operations or experienced a change in control within the previous 24-month period, or the bank experienced extraordinary growth during the previous 18-month period.</P>
            <P>(2) <E T="03">Extraordinary growth.</E> For purposes of paragraph (d)(1) of this section, extraordinary growth means an increase in assets of more than 7.5 percent during any quarter within the 18-month period preceding the issuance of a request for submission of a compliance plan, by a bank that is not well capitalized for purposes of section 38 of the FDI Act. For purposes of calculating an increase in assets, assets acquired through merger or acquisition approved pursuant to the Bank Merger Act (12 U.S.C. 1828(c)) will be excluded.</P>
            <P>(e) <E T="03">Amendment of compliance plan.</E> A bank that has filed an approved compliance plan may, after prior written notice to and approval by the FDIC, amend the plan to reflect a change in circumstance. Until such time as a proposed amendment has been approved, the bank shall implement the compliance plan as previously approved.</P>
          </SECTION>
          <SECTION>
            <SECTNO>§ 308.304</SECTNO>
            <SUBJECT>Issuance of orders to correct deficiencies and to take or refrain from taking other actions.</SUBJECT>
            <P>(a) <E T="03">Notice of intent to issue order—</E>(1) <E T="03">In general.</E> The FDIC shall provide a bank prior written notice of the FDIC's intention to issue an order requiring the bank to correct a safety and soundness deficiency or to take or refrain from taking other actions pursuant to section 39 of the FDI Act. The bank shall have such time to respond to a proposed order as provided by the FDIC under paragraph (c) of this section.</P>
            <P>(2) <E T="03">Immediate issuance of final order.</E> If the FDIC finds it necessary in order to carry out the purposes of section 39 of the FDI Act, the FDIC may, without providing the notice prescribed in paragraph (a)(1) of this section, issue an order requiring a bank immediately to take actions to correct a safety and soundness deficiency or take or refrain from taking other actions pursuant to section 39. A bank that is subject to such an immediately effective order may submit a written appeal of the order to the FDIC. Such an appeal must be received by the FDIC within 14 calendar days of the issuance of the order, unless the FDIC permits a longer period. The FDIC shall consider any such appeal, if filed in a timely matter, within 60 days of receiving the appeal. During such period of review, the order shall remain in effect unless the FDIC, in its sole discretion, stays the effectiveness of the order.</P>
            <P>(b) <E T="03">Contents of notice.</E> A notice of intent to issue an order shall include:</P>
            <P>(1) A statement of the safety and soundness deficiency or deficiencies that have been identified at the bank;</P>
            <P>(2) A description of any restrictions, prohibitions, or affirmative actions that the FDIC proposes to impose or require;</P>
            <P>(3) The proposed date when such restrictions or prohibitions would be effective or the proposed date for completion of any required action; and</P>
            <P>(4) The date by which the bank subject to the order may file with the FDIC a written response to the notice.</P>
            <P>(c) <E T="03">Response to notice—</E>(1) <E T="03">Time for response.</E> A bank may file a written response to a notice of intent to issue an order within the time period set by the <PRTPAGE P="134"/>FDIC. Such a response must be received by the FDIC within 14 calendar days from the date of the notice unless the FDIC determines that a different period is appropriate in light of the safety and soundness of the bank or other relevant circumstances.</P>
            <P>(2) <E T="03">Contents of response.</E> The response should include:</P>
            <P>(i) An explanation why the action proposed by the FDIC is not an appropriate exercise of discretion under section 39;</P>
            <P>(ii) Any recommended modification of the proposed order; and</P>
            <P>(iii) Any other relevant information, mitigating circumstances, documentation, or other evidence in support of the position of the bank regarding the proposed order.</P>
            <P>(d) <E T="03">Agency consideration of response.</E> After considering the response, the FDIC may:</P>
            <P>(1) Issue the order as proposed or in modified form;</P>
            <P>(2) Determine not to issue the order and so notify the bank; or</P>
            <P>(3) Seek additional information or clarification of the response from the bank, or any other relevant source.</P>
            <P>(e) <E T="03">Failure to file response.</E> Failure by a bank to file with the FDIC, within the specified time period, a written response to a proposed order shall constitute a waiver of the opportunity to respond and shall constitute consent to the issuance of the order.</P>
            <P>(f) <E T="03">Request for modification or rescission of order.</E> Any bank that is subject to an order under this subpart may, upon a change in circumstances, request in writing that the FDIC reconsider the terms of the order, and may propose that the order be rescinded or modified. Unless otherwise ordered by the FDIC, the order shall continue in place while such request is pending before the FDIC.</P>
          </SECTION>
          <SECTION>
            <SECTNO>§ 308.305</SECTNO>
            <SUBJECT>Enforcement of orders.</SUBJECT>
            <P>(a) <E T="03">Judicial remedies.</E> Whenever a bank fails to comply with an order issued under section 39, the FDIC may seek enforcement of the order in the appropriate United States district court pursuant to section 8(i)(1) of the FDI Act.</P>
            <P>(b) <E T="03">Failure to comply with order.</E> Pursuant to section 8(i)(2)(A) of the FDI Act, the FDIC may assess a civil money penalty against any bank that violates or otherwise fails to comply with any final order issued under section 39 and against any institution-affiliated party who participates in such violation or noncompliance.</P>
            <P>(c) <E T="03">Other enforcement action.</E> In addition to the actions described in paragraphs (a) and (b) of this section, the FDIC may seek enforcement of the provisions of section 39 or this part through any other judicial or administrative proceeding authorized by law.</P>
          </SECTION>
        </SUBPART>
        <SUBPART>
          <HD SOURCE="HED">Subpart S—Applications for a Stay or Review of Actions of Bank Clearing Agencies</HD>
          <SOURCE>
            <HD SOURCE="HED">Source: </HD>
            <P>61 FR 48403, Sept. 11, 1996, unless otherwise noted.</P>
          </SOURCE>
          <SECTION>
            <SECTNO>§ 308.400</SECTNO>
            <SUBJECT>Scope.</SUBJECT>
            <P>This subpart is issued by the Corporation pursuant to sections 17A(b)(3)(g), 17A(b)(5)(C), 19 and 23 of the Securities Exchange Act of 1934 (Exchange Act), as amended (15 U.S.C. 78q-1 (b)(3)(g), (b)(5)(C), 78s, 78w). It applies to applications by banks insured by the Corporation (other than members of the Federal Reserve System) for a stay or review of certain actions by clearing agencies registered under the Exchange Act, for which the Securities and Exchange Commission (Commission) is not the appropriate regulatory agency under section 3(a)(34)(B) of the Exchange Act (bank clearing agencies).</P>
          </SECTION>
          <SECTION>
            <SECTNO>§ 308.401</SECTNO>
            <SUBJECT>Applications for stays of disciplinary sanctions or summary suspensions by a bank clearing agency.</SUBJECT>
            <P>Applications to the Corporation for a stay of disciplinary action imposed by registered clearing agencies pursuant to section 17(b)(3)(G) of the Exchange Act, or summary suspension or limitation or prohibition of access under section 17(b)(5)(C) of the Exchange Act shall be made according to the rules adopted by the Commission (17 CFR 240.19d-2). References to the “Commission” in 17 CFR 240.19d-2 are deemed to refer to the “Corporation.”</P>
          </SECTION>
          <SECTION>
            <PRTPAGE P="135"/>
            <SECTNO>§ 308.402</SECTNO>
            <SUBJECT>Applications for review of final disciplinary sanctions, denials of participation, or prohibitions or limitations of access to services imposed by bank clearing agencies.</SUBJECT>
            <P>Proceedings on an application to the Corporation under section 19(d)(2) of the Exchange Act for review of any final disciplinary sanctions, denials of participation, or prohibitions or limitations of access to services imposed by bank clearing agencies shall be conducted according to the procedures set forth in rules adopted by the Commission (17 CFR 240.19d-3). References to the “Commission” in 17 CFR 240.19d-3 are deemed to refer to the “Corporation.”</P>
          </SECTION>
        </SUBPART>
      </PART>
      <PART>
        <EAR>Pt. 309</EAR>
        <HD SOURCE="HED">PART 309—DISCLOSURE OF INFORMATION</HD>
        <CONTENTS>
          <SECHD>Sec.</SECHD>
          <SECTNO>309.1</SECTNO>
          <SUBJECT>Purpose and scope.</SUBJECT>
          <SECTNO>309.2</SECTNO>
          <SUBJECT>Definitions.</SUBJECT>
          <SECTNO>309.3</SECTNO>
          <SUBJECT>Federal Register publication.</SUBJECT>
          <SECTNO>309.4</SECTNO>
          <SUBJECT>Publicly available records.</SUBJECT>
          <SECTNO>309.5</SECTNO>
          <SUBJECT>Procedures for requesting records.</SUBJECT>
          <SECTNO>309.6</SECTNO>
          <SUBJECT>Disclosure of exempt records.</SUBJECT>
          <SECTNO>309.7</SECTNO>
          <SUBJECT>Service of process.</SUBJECT>
        </CONTENTS>
        <AUTH>
          <HD SOURCE="HED">Authority: </HD>
          <P>5 U.S.C. 552; 12 U.S.C. 1819 “Seventh” and “Tenth.”</P>
        </AUTH>
        <SOURCE>
          <HD SOURCE="HED">Source:</HD>
          <P>60 FR 61465, Nov. 30, 1995, unless otherwise noted.</P>
        </SOURCE>
        <SECTION>
          <SECTNO>§ 309.1</SECTNO>
          <SUBJECT>Purpose and scope.</SUBJECT>

          <P>This part sets forth the basic policies of the Federal Deposit Insurance Corporation regarding information it maintains and the procedures for obtaining access to such information. Section 309.2 sets forth definitions applicable to this part 309. Section 309.3 describes the types of information and documents typically published in the <E T="04">Federal Register</E>. Section 309.4 explains how to access public records maintained on the Federal Deposit Insurance Corporation's World Wide Web page and in the Federal Deposit Insurance Corporation's Public Information Center or “PIC”, and describes the categories of records generally found there. Section 309.5 implements the Freedom of Information Act (5 U.S.C. 552). Section 309.6 authorizes the discretionary disclosure of exempt records under certain limited circumstances. Section 309.7 outlines procedures for serving a subpoena or other legal process to obtain information maintained by the FDIC.</P>
          <CITA>[63 FR 16404, Apr. 3, 1998]</CITA>
        </SECTION>
        <SECTION>
          <SECTNO>§ 309.2</SECTNO>
          <SUBJECT>Definitions.</SUBJECT>
          <P>For purposes of this part:</P>
          <P>(a) The term <E T="03">depository institution,</E> as used in § 309.6, includes depository institutions that have applied to the Corporation for federal deposit insurance, closed depository institutions, presently operating federally insured depository institutions, foreign banks, branches of foreign banks, and all affiliates of any of the foregoing.</P>
          <P>(b) The terms <E T="03">Corporation</E> or <E T="03">FDIC</E> mean the Federal Deposit Insurance Corporation.</P>
          <P>(c) The words <E T="03">disclose</E> or <E T="03">disclosure</E>, as used in § 309.6, mean to give access to a record, whether by producing the written record or by oral discussion of its contents. Where the Corporation employee authorized to release Corporation documents makes a determination that furnishing copies of the documents is necessary, the words <E T="03">disclose</E> or <E T="03">disclosure</E> include the furnishing of copies of documents or records. In addition, <E T="03">disclose</E> or <E T="03">disclosure</E> as used in § 309.6 is synonymous with the term <E T="03">transfer</E> as used in the Right to Financial Privacy Act of 1978 (12 U.S.C. 3401 <E T="03">et seq.</E>).</P>
          <P>(d) The term <E T="03">examination</E> includes, but is not limited to, formal and informal investigations of irregularities involving suspected violations of federal or state civil or criminal laws, or unsafe and unsound practices as well as such other investigations as may be conducted pursuant to law.</P>
          <P>(e) The term <E T="03">record</E> includes records, files, documents, reports, correspondence, books, and accounts, or any portion thereof, in any form the FDIC regularly maintains them.</P>
          <P>(f) The term <E T="03">report of examination</E> includes, but is not limited to, examination reports resulting from examinations of depository institutions conducted jointly by Corporation examiners and state banking authority examiners or other federal financial institution examiners, as well as reports resulting from examinations conducted solely by Corporation examiners. The <PRTPAGE P="136"/>term also includes compliance examination reports.</P>
          <P>(g) The term <E T="03">customer financial records</E>, as used in § 309.6, means an original of, a copy of, or information known to have been derived from, any record held by a depository institution pertaining to a customer's relationship with the depository institution but does not include any record that contains information not identified with or identifiable as being derived from the financial records of a particular customer. The term <E T="03">customer</E> as used in § 309.6 refers to individuals or partnerships of five or fewer persons.</P>
          <P>(h) The term <E T="03">Director of the Division having primary authority</E> includes Deputies to the Chairman and directors of FDIC Divisions and Offices that create, maintain custody, or otherwise have primary responsibility for the handling of FDIC records or information.</P>
          <CITA>[60 FR 61465, Nov. 30, 1995, as amended at 63 FR 16404, Apr. 3, 1998]</CITA>
        </SECTION>
        <SECTION>
          <SECTNO>§ 309.3</SECTNO>
          <SUBJECT>Federal Register publication.</SUBJECT>
          <P>The FDIC publishes the following information in the <E T="04">Federal Register</E> for the guidance of the public:</P>
          <P>(a) Descriptions of its central and field organization and the established places at which, the officers from whom, and the methods whereby, the public may secure information, make submittals or requests, or obtain decisions;</P>
          <P>(b) Statements of the general course and method by which its functions are channeled and determined, including the nature and requirements of all formal and informal procedures available;</P>
          <P>(c) Rules of procedure, descriptions of forms available or the places at which forms may be obtained, and instructions as to the scope and contents of all papers, reports or examinations;</P>
          <P>(d) Substantive rules of general applicability adopted as authorized by law, and statements of general policy or interpretations of general applicability formulated and adopted by the FDIC;</P>
          <P>(e) Every amendment, revision or repeal of the foregoing; and</P>
          <P>(f) General notices of proposed rule-making.</P>
        </SECTION>
        <SECTION>
          <SECTNO>§ 309.4</SECTNO>
          <SUBJECT>Publicly available records.</SUBJECT>
          <P>(a) <E T="03">Records available on the FDIC's World Wide Web page</E>—(1) <E T="03">Discretionary release of documents.</E> The FDIC encourages the public to explore the wealth of resources available on the FDIC's World Wide Web page, located at: http://www.fdic.gov. The FDIC has elected to publish a broad range of materials on its World Wide Web page, including consumer guides; financial and statistical information of interest to the banking industry; and information concerning the FDIC's responsibilities and structure.</P>
          <P>(2) <E T="03">Documents required to be made available via computer telecommunications.</E> (i) The following types of documents created on or after November 1, 1996, and required to be made available through computer telecommunications, may be found on the FDIC's World Wide Web page located at: http://www.fdic.gov:</P>
          <P>(A) Final opinions, including concurring and dissenting opinions, as well as final orders and written agreements, made in the adjudication of cases;</P>

          <P>(B) Statements of policy and interpretations adopted by the Board of Directors that are not published in the <E T="04">Federal Register</E>;</P>
          <P>(C) Administrative staff manuals and instructions to staff that affect the public;</P>
          <P>(D) Copies of all records released to any person under § 309.5 that, because of the nature of their subject matter, the FDIC has determined are likely to be the subject of subsequent requests;</P>
          <P>(E) A general index of the records referred to in paragraph (a)(2)(i)(D) of this section.</P>
          <P>(ii) To the extent permitted by law, the FDIC may delete identifying details when it makes available or publishes a final opinion, final order, statement of policy, interpretation or staff manual or instruction. If redaction is necessary, the FDIC will, to the extent technically feasible, indicate the amount of material deleted at the place in the record where such deletion is made unless that indication in and of itself will jeopardize the purpose for the redaction.</P>
          <P>(b) <E T="03">Public Information Center.</E> The FDIC maintains a Public Information <PRTPAGE P="137"/>Center or “PIC” that contains Corporate records that the Freedom of Information Act requires be made available for regular inspection and copying, as well as any records or information the FDIC, in its discretion, has regularly made available to the public. The PIC has extensive materials of interest to the public, including many Reports, Summaries and Manuals used or published by the Corporation that are available for inspection and copying. The PIC is open from 9:00 AM to 5:00 PM, Monday through Friday, excepting federal holidays. It is located at 801 17th Street, NW., Washington, DC 20006. The PIC may be reached during business hours by calling (800) 276-6003.</P>
          <P>(c) <E T="03">Applicable fees.</E> (i) If applicable, fees for furnishing records under this section are as set forth in § 309.5(f) except that all categories of requesters shall be charged duplication costs.</P>
          <P>(ii) Information on the FDIC's World Wide Web page is available to the public without charge. If, however, information available on the FDIC's World Wide Web page is provided pursuant to a Freedom of Information Act request processed under § 309.5, then fees apply and will be assessed pursuant to § 309.5(f).</P>
          <CITA>[63 FR 16404, Apr. 3, 1998]</CITA>
        </SECTION>
        <SECTION>
          <SECTNO>§ 309.5</SECTNO>
          <SUBJECT>Procedures for requesting records.</SUBJECT>
          <P>(a) <E T="03">Definitions.</E> For purposes of this section:</P>
          <P>(1) <E T="03">Commercial use request</E> means a request from or on behalf of a requester who seeks records for a use or purpose that furthers the commercial, trade, or profit interests of the requester or the person on whose behalf the request is made. In determining whether a request falls within this category, the FDIC will determine the use to which a requester will put the records requested and seek additional information as it deems necessary.</P>
          <P>(2) <E T="03">Direct costs</E> means those expenditures the FDIC actually incurs in searching for, duplicating, and, in the case of commercial requesters, reviewing records in response to a request for records.</P>
          <P>(3) <E T="03">Duplication</E> means the process of making a copy of a record necessary to respond to a request for <E T="03">records</E> or for inspection of original records that contain exempt material or that cannot otherwise be directly inspected. Such copies can take the form of paper copy, microfilm, audiovisual records, or machine readable records (e.g., magnetic tape or computer disk).</P>
          <P>(4) <E T="03">Educational institution</E> means a preschool, a public or private elementary or secondary school, an institution of undergraduate or graduate higher education, an institution of professional education, and an institution of vocational education, which operates a program or programs of scholarly research.</P>
          <P>(5) <E T="03">Noncommercial scientific institution</E> means an institution that is not operated on a commercial basis as that term is defined in paragraph (a)(1) of this section, and which is operated solely for the purpose of conducting scientific research, the results of which are not intended to promote any particular product or industry.</P>
          <P>(6) <E T="03">Representative of the news media</E> means any person primarily engaged in gathering news for, or a free-lance journalist who can demonstrate a reasonable expectation of having his or her work product published or broadcast by, an entity that is organized and operated to publish or broadcast news to the public. The term news means information that is about current events or that would be of current interest to the general public.</P>
          <P>(7) <E T="03">Review</E> means the process of examining records located in response to a request for records to determine whether any portion of any record is permitted to be withheld as exempt information. It includes processing any record for disclosure, e.g., doing all that is necessary to excise them or otherwise prepare them for release.</P>
          <P>(8) <E T="03">Search</E> includes all time spent looking for material that is responsive to a request, including page-by-page or line-by-line identification of material within records. Searches may be done manually and/or by computer using existing programming.</P>
          <P>(b) <E T="03">Making a request for records.</E> (1) The request shall be submitted in writing to the Office of the Executive Secretary:<PRTPAGE P="138"/>
          </P>
          <P>(i) By completing the online request form located on the FDIC's World Wide Web page, found at: http://www.fdic.gov;</P>
          <P>(ii) By facsimile clearly marked Freedom of Information Act Request to (202) 898-8778; or</P>
          <P>(iii) By sending a letter to the Office of the Executive Secretary, ATTN: FOIA/PA Unit, 550 17th Street, NW., Washington, DC 20429.</P>
          <P>(2) The request shall contain the following information:</P>
          <P>(i) The name and address of the requester, an electronic mail address, if available, and the telephone number at which the requester may be reached during normal business hours;</P>
          <P>(ii) Whether the requester is an educational institution, noncommercial scientific institution, or news media representative;</P>
          <P>(iii) A statement agreeing to pay the applicable fees, or a statement identifying a maximum fee that is acceptable to the requester, or a request for a waiver or reduction of fees that satisfies paragraph (f)(1)(x) of this section; and</P>
          <P>(iv) The preferred form and format of any responsive information requested, if other than paper copies.</P>
          <P>(3) A request for identifiable records shall reasonably describe the records in a way that enables the FDIC's staff to identify and produce the records with reasonable effort and without unduly burdening or significantly interfering with any of the FDIC's operations.</P>
          <P>(c) <E T="03">Defective requests</E>. The FDIC need not accept or process a request that does not reasonably describe the records requested or that does not otherwise comply with the requirements of this part. The FDIC may return a defective request, specifying the deficiency. The requester may submit a corrected request, which will be treated as a new request.</P>
          <P>(d) <E T="03">Processing requests</E>—(1) <E T="03">Receipt of requests</E>. Upon receipt of any request that satisfies paragraph (b) of this section, the FOIA/PA Unit, Office of the Executive Secretary, shall assign the request to the appropriate processing track pursuant to this section. The date of receipt for any request, including one that is addressed incorrectly or that is referred by another agency, is the date the Office of the Executive Secretary actually receives the request.</P>
          <P>(2) <E T="03">Multitrack processing</E>. (i) The FDIC provides different levels of processing for categories of requests under this part. Requests for records that are readily identifiable by the Office of the Executive Secretary and that have already been cleared for public release may qualify for fast-track processing. All other requests shall be handled under normal processing procedures, unless expedited processing has been granted pursuant to paragraph (d)(3) of this section.</P>
          <P>(ii) The FDIC will make the determination whether a request qualifies for fast-track processing. A requester may contact the FOIA/PA Unit to learn whether a particular request has been assigned to fast-track processing. If the request has not qualified for fast-track processing, the requester will be given an opportunity to refine the request in order to qualify for fast-track processing. Changes made to requests to obtain faster processing must be in writing.</P>
          <P>(3) <E T="03">Expedited processing</E>. (i) Where a person requesting expedited access to records has demonstrated a compelling need for the records, or where the FDIC has determined to expedite the response, the FDIC shall process the request as soon as practicable. To show a compelling need for expedited processing, the requester shall provide a statement demonstrating that:</P>
          <P>(A) The failure to obtain the records on an expedited basis could reasonably be expected to pose an imminent threat to the life or physical safety of an individual; or</P>
          <P>(B) The requester can establish that they are primarily engaged in information dissemination as their main professional occupation or activity, and there is urgency to inform the public of the government activity involved in the request; and</P>
          <P>(C) The requester's statement must be certified to be true and correct to the best of the person's knowledge and belief and explain in detail the basis for requesting expedited processing.</P>

          <P>(ii) The formality of the certification required to obtain expedited treatment <PRTPAGE P="139"/>may be waived by the FDIC as a matter of administrative discretion.</P>
          <P>(4) A requester seeking expedited processing will be notified whether expedited processing has been granted within ten (10) working days of the receipt of the request. If the request for expedited processing is denied, the requester may file an appeal pursuant to the procedures set forth in paragraph (h) of this section, and the FDIC shall respond to the appeal within ten (10) working days after receipt of the appeal.</P>
          <P>(5) <E T="03">Priority of responses</E>. Consistent with sound administrative process the FDIC processes requests in the order they are received in the separate processing tracks. However, in the agency's discretion, or upon a court order in a matter to which the FDIC is a party, a particular request may be processed out of turn.</P>
          <P>(6) <E T="03">Notification</E>. (i) The time for response to requests will be twenty (20) working days except:</P>
          <P>(A) In the case of expedited treatment under paragraph (d)(3) of this section;</P>
          <P>(B) Where the running of such time is suspended for the calculation of a cost estimate for the requester if the FDIC determines that the processing of the request may exceed the requester's maximum fee provision or if the charges are likely to exceed $250 as provided for in paragraph (f)(1)(v) of this section;</P>
          <P>(C) Where the running of such time is suspended for the payment of fees pursuant to the paragraphs (d)(6)(i)(B) and (f)(1) of this section; or</P>
          <P>(D) In unusual circumstances, as defined in 5 U.S.C. 552(a)(6)(B) and further described in paragraph (d)(6)(iii) of this section.</P>
          <P>(ii) In unusual circumstances as referred to in paragraph (d)(6)(i)(D) of this section, the time limit may be extended for a period of:</P>
          <P>(A) Ten (10) working days as provided by written notice to the requester, setting forth the reasons for the extension and the date on which a determination is expected to be dispatched; or</P>
          <P>(B) Such alternative time period as agreed to by the requester or as reasonably determined by the FDIC when the FDIC notifies the requester that the request cannot be processed in the specified time limit.</P>
          <P>(iii) Unusual circumstances may arise when:</P>
          <P>(A) The records are in facilities, such as field offices or storage centers, that are not located at the FDIC's Washington office;</P>
          <P>(B) The records requested are voluminous or are not in close proximity to one another; or</P>
          <P>(C) There is a need to consult with another agency or among two or more components of the FDIC having a substantial interest in the determination.</P>
          <P>(7) <E T="03">Response to request</E>. In response to a request that satisfies the requirements of paragraph (b) of this section, a search shall be conducted of records maintained by the FDIC in existence on the date of receipt of the request, and a review made of any responsive information located. The FDIC shall notify the requester of:</P>
          <P>(i) The FDIC's determination of the request;</P>
          <P>(ii) The reasons for the determination;</P>
          <P>(iii) If the response is a denial of an initial request or if any information is withheld, the FDIC will advise the requester in writing:</P>
          <P>(A) If the denial is in part or in whole;</P>
          <P>(B) The name and title of each person responsible for the denial (when other than the person signing the notification);</P>
          <P>(C) The exemptions relied on for the denial; and</P>
          <P>(D) The right of the requester to appeal the denial to the FDIC's General Counsel within 30 business days following receipt of the notification, as specified in paragraph (h) of this section.</P>
          <P>(e) <E T="03">Providing responsive records</E>. (1) Copies of requested records shall be sent to the requester by regular U.S. mail to the address indicated in the request, unless the requester elects to take delivery of the documents at the FDIC or makes other acceptable arrangements, or the FDIC deems it appropriate to send the documents by another means.<PRTPAGE P="140"/>
          </P>
          <P>(2) The FDIC shall provide a copy of the record in any form or format requested if the record is readily reproducible by the FDIC in that form or format, but the FDIC need not provide more than one copy of any record to a requester.</P>
          <P>(3) By arrangement with the requester, the FDIC may elect to send the responsive records electronically if a substantial portion of the request is in electronic format. If the information requested is made pursuant to the Privacy Act of 1974, 5 U.S.C. 552a, it will not be sent by electronic means unless reasonable security measures can be provided.</P>
          <P>(f) <E T="03">Fees—</E>(1) <E T="03">General rules</E>. (i) Persons requesting records of the FDIC shall be charged for the direct costs of search, duplication, and review as set forth in paragraphs (f)(2) and (f)(3) of this section, unless such costs are less than the FDIC's cost of processing the requester's remittance.</P>
          <P>(ii) Requesters will be charged for search and review costs even if responsive records are not located or, if located, are determined to be exempt from disclosure.</P>
          <P>(iii) Multiple requests seeking similar or related records from the same requester or group of requesters will be aggregated for the purposes of this section.</P>
          <P>(iv) If the FDIC determines that the estimated costs of search, duplication, or review of requested records will exceed the dollar amount specified in the request, or if no dollar amount is specified, the FDIC will advise the requester of the estimated costs (if greater than the FDIC's cost of processing the requester's remittance). The requester must agree in writing to pay the costs of search, duplication, and review prior to the FDIC initiating any records search.</P>
          <P>(v) If the FDIC estimates that its search, duplication, and review costs will exceed $250.00, the requester must pay an amount equal to 20 percent of the estimated costs prior to the FDIC initiating any records search.</P>
          <P>(vi) The FDIC shall ordinarily collect all applicable fees under the final invoice before releasing copies of requested records to the requester.</P>
          <P>(vii) The FDIC may require any requester who has previously failed to pay the charges under this section within 30 calendar days of mailing of the invoice to pay in advance the total estimated costs of search, duplication, and review. The FDIC may also require a requester who has any charges outstanding in excess of 30 calendar days following mailing of the invoice to pay the full amount due, or demonstrate that the fee has been paid in full, prior to the FDIC initiating any additional records search.</P>
          <P>(viii) The FDIC may begin assessing interest charges on unpaid bills on the 31st day following the day on which the invoice was sent. Interest will be at the rate prescribed in section 3717 of title 31 of the United States Code and will accrue from the date of the invoice.</P>
          <P>(ix) The time limit for the FDIC to respond to a request will not begin to run until the FDIC has received the requester's written agreement under paragraph (f)(1)(iv) of this section, and advance payment under paragraph (f)(1) (v) or (vii) of this section, or payment of outstanding charges under paragraph (f)(1)(vii) or (viii) of this section.</P>
          <P>(x) As part of the initial request, a requester may ask that the FDIC waive or reduce fees if disclosure of the records is in the public interest because it is likely to contribute significantly to public understanding of the operations or activities of the government and is not primarily in the commercial interest of the requester. Determinations as to a waiver or reduction of fees will be made by the Executive Secretary (or designee) and the requester will be notified in writing of his/her determination. A determination not to grant a request for a waiver or reduction of fees under this paragraph may be appealed to the FDIC's General Counsel (or designee) pursuant to the procedure set forth in paragraph (h) of this section.</P>
          <P>(2) <E T="03">Chargeable fees by category of requester</E>. (i) Commercial use requesters shall be charged search, duplication and review costs.</P>

          <P>(ii) Educational institutions, non-commercial scientific institutions and news media representatives shall be <PRTPAGE P="141"/>charged duplication costs, except for the first 100 pages.</P>
          <P>(iii) Requesters not described in paragraph (f)(2) (i) or (ii) of this section shall be charged the full reasonable direct cost of search and duplication, except for the first two hours of search time and first 100 pages of duplication.</P>
          <P>(3) <E T="03">Fee schedule</E>. The dollar amount of fees which the FDIC may charge to records requesters will be established by the Chief Financial Officer of the FDIC (or designee). The FDIC may charge fees that recoup the full allowable direct costs it incurs. Fees are subject to change as costs change.</P>
          <P>(i) <E T="03">Manual searches for records</E>. The FDIC will charge for manual searches for records at the basic rate of pay of the employee making the search plus 16 percent to cover employee benefit costs. Where a single class of personnel (e.g., all clerical, all professional, or all executive) is used exclusively, the FDIC, at its discretion, may establish and charge an average rate for the range of grades typically involved.</P>
          <P>(ii) <E T="03">Computer searches for records</E>. The fee for searches of computerized records is the actual direct cost of the search, including computer time, computer runs, and the operator's time apportioned to the search. The fee for a computer printout is the actual cost. The fees for computer supplies are the actual costs. The FDIC may, at its discretion, establish and charge a fee for computer searches based upon a reasonable FDIC-wide average rate for central processing unit operating costs and the operator's basic rate of pay plus 16 percent to cover employee benefit costs.</P>
          <P>(iii) <E T="03">Duplication of records</E>. (A) The per-page fee for paper copy reproduction of documents is the average FDIC-wide cost based upon the reasonable direct costs of making such copies.</P>
          <P>(B) For other methods of reproduction or duplication, the FDIC will charge the actual direct costs of reproducing or duplicating the documents.</P>
          <P>(iv) <E T="03">Review of records</E>. The FDIC will charge commercial use requesters for the review of records at the time of processing the initial request to determine whether they are exempt from mandatory disclosure at the basic rate of pay of the employee making the search plus 16 percent to cover employee benefit costs. Where a single class of personnel (e.g., all clerical, all professional, or all executive) is used exclusively, the FDIC, at its discretion, may establish and charge an average rate for the range of grades typically involved. The FDIC will not charge at the administrative appeal level for review of an exemption already applied. When records or portions of records are withheld in full under an exemption which is subsequently determined not to apply, the FDIC may charge for a subsequent review to determine the applicability of other exemptions not previously considered.</P>
          <P>(v) <E T="03">Other services</E>. Complying with requests for special services, other than a readily produced electronic form or format, is at the FDIC's discretion. The FDIC may recover the full costs of providing such services to the requester.</P>
          <P>(4) <E T="03">Publication of fee schedule and effective date of changes</E>. (i) The fee schedule is made available on the FDIC's World Wide Web page, found at http://www.fdic.gov.</P>
          <P>(ii) The fee schedule will be set forth in the “Notice of Federal Deposit Insurance Corporation Records Fees” issued in December of each year or in such “Interim Notice of Federal Deposit Insurance Corporation Records Fees” as may be issued. Copies of such notices may be obtained at no charge from the Office of the Executive Secretary, FOIA/PA Unit, 550 17th Street NW., Washington, DC 20429, and are available on the FDIC's World Wide Web page as noted in paragraph (f)(4)(i) of this section.</P>
          <P>(iii) The fees implemented in the December or Interim Notice will be effective 30 days after issuance.</P>
          <P>(5) <E T="03">Use of contractors</E>. The FDIC may contract with independent contractors to locate, reproduce, and/or disseminate records; provided, however, that the FDIC has determined that the ultimate cost to the requester will be no greater than it would be if the FDIC performed these tasks itself. In no case will the FDIC contract out responsibilities which the Freedom of Information Act (FOIA) (5 U.S.C. 552) provides that the FDIC alone may discharge, such as <PRTPAGE P="142"/>determining the applicability of an exemption or whether to waive or reduce fees.</P>
          <P>(g) <E T="03">Exempt information</E>. A request for records may be denied if the requested record contains information which falls into one or more of the following categories.<E T="51">1</E>
            <FTREF/> If the requested record contains both exempt and nonexempt information, the nonexempt portions which may reasonably be segregated from the exempt portions will be released to the requester. If redaction is necessary, the FDIC will, to the extent technically feasible, indicate the amount of material deleted at the place in the record where such deletion is made unless that indication in and of itself will jeopardize the purpose for the redaction. The categories of exempt records are as follows:</P>
          <FTNT>
            <P>
              <E T="51">1</E> Classification of a record as exempt from disclosure under the provisions of this paragraph (g) shall not be construed as authority to withhold the record if it is otherwise subject to disclosure under the Privacy Act of 1974 (5 U.S.C. 552a) or other federal statute, any applicable regulation of FDIC or any other federal agency having jurisdiction thereof, or any directive or order of any court of competent jurisdiction.</P>
          </FTNT>
          <P>(1) Records that are specifically authorized under criteria established by an Executive Order to be kept secret in the interest of national defense or foreign policy and are in fact properly classified pursuant to such Executive Order;</P>
          <P>(2) Records related solely to the internal personnel rules and practices of the FDIC;</P>
          <P>(3) Records specifically exempted from disclosure by statute, provided that such statute:</P>
          <P>(i) Requires that the matters be withheld from the public in such a manner as to leave no discretion on the issue; or</P>
          <P>(ii) Establishes particular criteria for withholding or refers to particular types of matters to be withheld;</P>
          <P>(4) Trade secrets and commercial or financial information obtained from a person that is privileged or confidential;</P>
          <P>(5) Interagency or intra-agency memoranda or letters that would not be available by law to a private party in litigation with the FDIC;</P>
          <P>(6) Personnel, medical, and similar files (including financial files) the disclosure of which would constitute a clearly unwarranted invasion of personal privacy;</P>
          <P>(7) Records compiled for law enforcement purposes, but only to the extent that the production of such law enforcement records:</P>
          <P>(i) Could reasonably be expected to interfere with enforcement proceedings;</P>
          <P>(ii) Would deprive a person of a right to a fair trial or an impartial adjudication;</P>
          <P>(iii) Could reasonably be expected to constitute an unwarranted invasion of personal privacy;</P>
          <P>(iv) Could reasonably be expected to disclose the identity of a confidential source, including a state, local, or foreign agency or authority or any private institution which furnished records on a confidential basis;</P>
          <P>(v) Would disclose techniques and procedures for law enforcement investigations or prosecutions, or would disclose guidelines for law enforcement investigations or prosecutions if such disclosure could reasonably be expected to risk circumvention of the law; or</P>
          <P>(vi) Could reasonably be expected to endanger the life or physical safety of any individual;</P>
          <P>(8) Records that are contained in or related to examination, operating, or condition reports prepared by, on behalf of, or for the use of the FDIC or any agency responsible for the regulation or supervision of financial institutions; or</P>
          <P>(9) geological and geophysical information and data, including maps, concerning wells.</P>
          <P>(h) <E T="03">Appeals.</E> (1) Appeals should be addressed to the Office of the Executive Secretary, FDIC, 550 17th Street, NW., Washington, DC 20429.</P>

          <P>(2) A person whose initial request for records under this section, or whose request for a waiver of fees under paragraph (f)(1)(x) of this section, has been denied, either in part or in whole, has the right to appeal the denial to the FDIC's General Counsel (or designee) within 30 business days after receipt of notification of the denial. Appeals of <PRTPAGE P="143"/>denials of initial requests or for a waiver of fees must be in writing and include any additional information relevant to consideration of the appeal.</P>
          <P>(3) Except in the case of an appeal for expedited treatment under paragraph (d)(3) of this section, the FDIC will notify the appellant in writing within 20 business days after receipt of the appeal and will state:</P>
          <P>(i) Whether it is granted or denied in whole or in part;</P>
          <P>(ii) The name and title of each person responsible for the denial (if other than the person signing the notification);</P>
          <P>(iii) The exemptions relied upon for the denial in the case of initial requests for records; and</P>
          <P>(iv) The right to judicial review of the denial under the FOIA.</P>
          <P>(4) If a requester is appealing for denial of expedited treatment, the FDIC will notify the appellant within 10 business days after receipt of the appeal of the FDIC's disposition.</P>
          <P>(5) Complete payment of any outstanding fee invoice will be required before an appeal is processed.</P>
          <P>(i) <E T="03">Records of another agency.</E> If a requested record is the property of another federal agency or department, and that agency or department, either in writing or by regulation, expressly retains ownership of such record, upon receipt of a request for the record the FDIC will promptly inform the requester of this ownership and immediately shall forward the request to the proprietary agency or department either for processing in accordance with the latter's regulations or for guidance with respect to disposition.</P>
          <CITA>[63 FR 16404, Apr. 3, 1998]</CITA>
        </SECTION>
        <SECTION>
          <SECTNO>§ 309.6</SECTNO>
          <SUBJECT>Disclosure of exempt records.</SUBJECT>
          <P>(a) <E T="03">Disclosure prohibited</E>. Except as provided in paragraph (b) of this section or by 12 CFR part 310 <E T="51">2</E>
            <FTREF/>, no person shall disclose or permit the disclosure of any exempt records, or information contained therein, to any persons other than those officers, directors, employees, or agents of the Corporation who have a need for such records in the performance of their official duties. In any instance in which any person has possession, custody or control of FDIC exempt records or information contained therein, all copies of such records shall remain the property of the Corporation and under no circumstances shall any person, entity or agency disclose or make public in any manner the exempt records or information without written authorization from the Director of the Corporation's Division having primary authority over the records or information as provided in this section.</P>
          <FTNT>
            <P>
              <E T="51">2</E> The procedures for disclosing records under the Privacy Act are separately set forth in 12 CFR part 310.</P>
          </FTNT>
          <P>(b) <E T="03">Disclosure authorized</E>. Exempt records or information of the Corporation may be disclosed only in accordance with the conditions and requirements set forth in this paragraph (b). Requests for discretionary disclosure of exempt records or information pursuant to this paragraph (b) may be submitted directly to the Division having primary authority over the exempt records or information or to the Office of Executive Secretary for forwarding to the appropriate Division having primary authority over the records sought. Such administrative request must clearly state that it seeks discretionary disclosure of exempt records, clearly identify the records sought, provide sufficient information for the Corporation to evaluate whether there is good cause for disclosure, and meet all other conditions set forth in paragraph (b)(1) through (10) of this section. Information regarding the appropriate FDIC Division having primary authority over a particular record or records may be obtained from the Office of Executive Secretary. Authority to disclose or authorize disclosure of exempt records of the Corporation is delegated as follows:</P>
          <P>(1) <E T="03">Disclosure to depository institutions</E>. The Director of the Corporation's Division having primary authority over the exempt records, or designee, may disclose to any director or authorized officer, employee or agent of any depository institution, information contained in, or copies of, exempt records pertaining to that depository institution.</P>
          <P>(2) <E T="03">Disclosure to state banking agencies</E>. The Director of the Corporation's Division having primary authority over the exempt records, or designee, may in his or her discretion and for good cause, disclose to any authorized officer or <PRTPAGE P="144"/>employee of any state banking or securities department or agency, copies of any exempt records to the extent the records pertain to a state-chartered depository institution supervised by the agency or authority, or where the exempt records are requested in writing for a legitimate depository institution supervisory or regulatory purpose.</P>
          <P>(3) <E T="03">Disclosure to federal financial institutions supervisory agencies and certain other agencies</E>. The Director of the Corporation's Division having primary authority over the exempt records, or designee, may in his or her discretion and for good cause, disclose to any authorized officer or employee of any federal financial institution supervisory agency including the Comptroller of the Currency, the Board of Governors of the Federal Reserve System, the Office of Thrift Supervision, the Securities and Exchange Commission, the National Credit Union Administration, or any other agency included in section 1101(7) of the Right to Financial Privacy Act of 1978 (12 U.S.C. 3401 et. seq.) (RFPA), any exempt records for a legitimate depository institution supervisory or regulatory purpose. The Director, or designee, may in his or her discretion and for good cause, disclose exempt records, including customer financial records, to certain other federal agencies as referenced in section 1113 of the RFPA for the purposes and to the extent permitted therein, or to any foreign bank regulatory or supervisory authority as provided, and to the extent permitted, by section 206 of the Federal Deposit Insurance Corporation Improvement Act of 1991 (12 U.S.C. 3109).</P>
          <P>(4) <E T="03">Disclosure to prosecuting or investigatory agencies or authorities</E>. (i) Reports of Apparent Crime pertaining to suspected violations of law, which may contain customer financial records, may be disclosed to federal or state prosecuting or investigatory authorities without giving notice to the customer, as permitted in the relevant exceptions of the RFPA.</P>
          <P>(ii) The Director of the Corporation's Division having primary authority over the exempt records, or designee, may disclose to the proper federal or state prosecuting or investigatory authorities, or to any authorized officer or employee of such authority, copies of exempt records pertaining to irregularities discovered in depository institutions which are believed to constitute violations of any federal or state civil or criminal law, or unsafe or unsound banking practices, provided that customer financial records may be disclosed without giving notice to the customer, only as permitted by the relevant exceptions of the RFPA. Unless such disclosure is initiated by the FDIC, customer financial records shall be disclosed only in response to a written request which:</P>
          <P>(A) Is signed by an authorized official of the agency making the request;</P>
          <P>(B) Identifies the record or records to which access is requested; and</P>
          <P>(C) Gives the reasons for the request.</P>
          <P>(iii) When notice to the customer is required to be given under the RFPA, the Director of the Corporation's Division having primary authority over the exempt records, or designee, may disclose customer financial records to any federal or state prosecuting or investigatory agency or authority, provided, that:</P>
          <P>(A) The General Counsel, or designee, has determined that disclosure is authorized or required by law; or</P>
          <P>(B) Disclosure is pursuant to a written request that indicates the information is relevant to a legitimate law enforcement inquiry within the jurisdiction of the requesting agency and:</P>
          <P>(<E T="03">1</E>) The Director of the Corporation's Division having primary authority over the exempt records, or designee, certifies pursuant to section 1112(a) <E T="51">3</E>
            <FTREF/> of the RFPA that the records are believed relevant to a legitimate law enforcement inquiry within the jurisdiction of the receiving agency; and</P>
          <FTNT>
            <P>
              <E T="51">3</E> The form of certification generally is as follows. Additional information may be added:</P>

            <P>Pursuant to section 1112(a) of the Right to Financial Privacy Act of 1978 (12 U.S.C. 3412), I, <E T="72">___</E> [name and appropriate title] hereby certify that the financial records described below were transferred to (agency or department) in the belief that they were relevant to a legitimate law enforcement inquiry, within the jurisdiction of the receiving agency.</P>
          </FTNT>
          <PRTPAGE P="145"/>
          <P>(<E T="03">2</E>) A copy of such certification and the notice required by section 1112(b) <E T="51">4</E>

            <FTREF/> of the RFPA is sent within fourteen days of the disclosure to the customer whose records are disclosed.<E T="51">5</E>
            <FTREF/>
          </P>
          <FTNT>
            <P>
              <E T="51">4</E> The form of notice generally is as follows. Additional information may be added:</P>
            <P>Dear Mr./Ms. <E T="72">___:</E>
            </P>

            <P>Copies of, or information contained in, your financial records lawfully in the possession of the Federal Deposit Insurance Corporation have been furnished to (agency or department) pursuant to the Right to Financial Privacy Act of 1978 for the following purpose: <E T="72">___</E>. If you believe that this transfer has not been made to further a legitimate law enforcement inquiry, you may have legal rights under the Right to Financial Privacy Act of 1978 or the Privacy Act of 1974.</P>
          </FTNT>
          <FTNT>
            <P>
              <E T="51">5</E> Whenever the Corporation is subject to a court-ordered delay of the customer notice, the notice shall be sent immediately upon the expiration of the court-ordered delay.</P>
          </FTNT>
          <P>(5) <E T="03">Disclosure to servicers and serviced institutions</E>. The Director of the Corporation's Division having primary authority over the exempt records, or designee, may disclose copies of any exempt record related to a bank data center, a depository institution service corporation or any other data center that provides data processing or related services to an insured institution (hereinafter referred to as “data center”) to:</P>
          <P>(i) The examined data center;</P>
          <P>(ii) Any insured institution that receives data processing or related services from the examined data center;</P>
          <P>(iii) Any state agency or authority which exercises general supervision over an institution serviced by the examined data center; and</P>
          <P>(iv) Any federal financial institution supervisory agency which exercises general supervision over an institution serviced by the examined data center. The federal supervisory agency may disclose any such examination report received from the Corporation to an insured institution over which it exercises general supervision and which is serviced by the examined data center.</P>
          <P>(6) <E T="03">Disclosure to third parties.</E> (i) Except as otherwise provided in paragraphs (c) (1) through (5) of this section, the Director of the Corporation's Division having primary authority over the exempt records, or designee, may in his or her discretion and for good cause, disclose copies of any exempt records to any third party where requested to do so in writing. Any such written request shall:</P>
          <P>(A) Specify, with reasonable particularity, the record or records to which access is requested; and</P>
          <P>(B) Give the reasons for the request.</P>
          <P>(ii) Either prior to or at the time of any disclosure, the Director or designee shall require such terms and conditions as he deems necessary to protect the confidential nature of the record, the financial integrity of any depository institution to which the record relates, and the legitimate privacy interests of any individual named in such records.</P>
          <P>(7) <E T="03">Authorization for disclosure by depository institutions or other third parties.</E> (i) The Director of the Corporation's Division having primary authority over the exempt records, or designee, may, in his or her discretion and for good cause, authorize any director, officer, employee, or agent of a depository institution to disclose copies of any exempt record in his custody to anyone who is not a director, officer or employee of the depository institution. Such authorization must be in response to a written request from the party seeking the record or from management of the depository institution to which the report or record pertains. Any such request shall specify, with reasonable particularity, the record sought, the party's interest therein, and the party's relationship to the depository institution to which the record relates.</P>
          <P>(ii) The Director of the Corporation's Division having primary authority over the exempt records, or designee, may, in his or her discretion and for good cause, authorize any third party, including a federal or state agency, that has received a copy of a Corporation exempt record, to disclose such exempt record to another party or agency. Such authorization must be in response to a written request from the party that has custody of the copy of the exempt record. Any such request shall specify the record sought to be disclosed and the reasons why disclosure is necessary.</P>

          <P>(iii) Any subsidiary depository institution of a bank holding company or a <PRTPAGE P="146"/>savings and loan holding company may reproduce and furnish a copy of any report of examination of the subsidiary depository institution to the parent holding company without prior approval of the Director of the Division having primary authority over the exempt records and any depository institution may reproduce and furnish a copy of any report of examination of the disclosing depository institution to a majority shareholder if the following conditions are met:</P>
          <P>(A) The parent holding company or shareholder owns in excess of 50% of the voting stock of the depository institution or subsidiary depository institution;</P>
          <P>(B) The board of directors of the depository institution or subsidiary depository institution at least annually by resolution authorizes the reproduction and furnishing of reports of examination (the resolution shall specifically name the shareholder or parent holding company, state the address to which the reports are to be sent, and indicate that all reports furnished pursuant to the resolution remain the property of the Federal Deposit Insurance Corporation and are not to be disclosed or made public in any manner without the prior written approval of the Director of the Corporation's Division having primary authority over the exempt records as provided in paragraph (b) of this section;</P>
          <P>(C) A copy of the resolution authorizing disclosure of the reports is sent to the shareholder or parent holding company; and</P>
          <P>(D) The minutes of the board of directors of the depository institution or subsidiary depository institution for the meeting immediately following disclosure of a report state:</P>
          <P>(<E T="03">1</E>) That disclosure was made;</P>
          <P>(<E T="03">2</E>) The date of the report which was disclosed;</P>
          <P>(<E T="03">3</E>) To whom the report was sent; and</P>
          <P>(<E T="03">4</E>) The date the report was disclosed.</P>
          <P>(iv) With respect to any disclosure that is authorized under this paragraph (b)(7), the Director of the Corporation's Division having primary authority over the exempt records, or designee, shall only permit disclosure of records upon determining that good cause exists. If the exempt record contains information derived from depository institution customer financial records, disclosure is to be authorized only upon the condition that the requesting party and the party releasing the records comply with any applicable provision of the RFPA. Before authorizing the disclosure, the Director (or designee) may require that both the party having custody of a copy of a Corporation exempt record and the party seeking access to the record agree to such limitations as the Director (or designee) deems necessary to protect the confidential nature of the record, the financial integrity of any depository institution to which the record relates and the legitimate privacy interests of any persons named in such record.</P>
          <P>(8) <E T="03">Disclosure by General Counsel.</E> (i) The Corporation's General Counsel, or designee, may disclose or authorize the disclosure of any exempt record in response to a valid judicial subpoena, court order, or other legal process, and authorize any current or former officer, director, employee, agent of the Corporation, or third party, to appear and testify regarding an exempt record or any information obtained in the performance of such person's official duties, at any administrative or judicial hearing or proceeding where such person has been served with a valid subpoena, court order, or other legal process requiring him or her to testify. The General Counsel shall consider the relevancy of such exempt records or testimony to the litigation, and the interests of justice, in determining whether to disclose such records or testimony. Third parties seeking disclosure of exempt records or testimony in litigation to which the FDIC is not a party shall submit a request for discretionary disclosure directly to the General Counsel.<E T="51">6</E>

            <FTREF/> Such request shall specify the information sought with reasonable particularity and shall be accompanied by <PRTPAGE P="147"/>a statement with supporting documentation showing in detail the relevance of such exempt information to the litigation, justifying good cause for disclosure, and a commitment to be bound by a protective order. Failure to exhaust such administrative request prior to service of a subpoena or other legal process may, in the General Counsel's discretion, serve as a basis for objection to such subpoena or legal process. Customer financial records may not be disclosed to any federal agency that is not a federal financial supervisory agency pursuant to this paragraph unless notice to the customer and certification as required by the RFPA have been given except where disclosure is subject to the relevant exceptions set forth in the RFPA.</P>
          <FTNT>
            <P>
              <E T="51">6</E> This administrative requirement does not apply to subpoenas, court orders or other legal process issued for records of depository institutions held by the FDIC as Receiver or Conservator. Subpoenas, court orders or other legal process issued for such records will be processed in accordance with State <PRTPAGE/>and Federal law, regulations, rules and privileges applicable to FDIC as Receiver or Conservator.</P>
          </FTNT>
          <P>(ii) The General Counsel, or designee, may in his or her discretion and for good cause, disclose or authorize disclosure of any exempt record or testimony by a current or former officer, director, employee, agent of the Corporation, or third party, sought in connection with any civil or criminal hearing, proceeding or investigation without the service of a judicial subpoena, or other legal process requiring such disclosure or testimony, if he or she determines that the records or testimony are relevant to the hearing, proceeding or investigation and that disclosure is in the best interests of justice and not otherwise prohibited by Federal statute. Customer financial records shall not be disclosed to any federal agency pursuant to this paragraph that is not a federal financial supervisory agency, unless the records are sought under the Federal Rules of Civil Procedure (28 U.S.C. appendix) or the Federal Rules of Criminal Procedure (18 U.S.C. appendix) or comparable rules of other courts and in connection with litigation to which the receiving federal agency, employee, officer, director, or agent, and the customer are parties, or disclosure is otherwise subject to the relevant exceptions in the RFPA. Where the General Counsel or designee authorizes a current or former officer, director, employee or agent of the Corporation to testify or disclose exempt records pursuant to this paragraph (b)(8), he or she may, in his or her discretion, limit the authorization to so much of the record or testimony as is relevant to the issues at such hearing, proceeding or investigation, and he or she shall give authorization only upon fulfillment of such conditions as he or she deems necessary and practicable to protect the confidential nature of such records or testimony.</P>
          <P>(9) <E T="03">Authorization for disclosure by the Chairman of the Corporation's Board of Directors.</E> Except where expressly prohibited by law, the Chairman of the Corporation's Board of Directors may in his or her discretion, authorize the disclosure of any Corporation records. Except where disclosure is required by law, the Chairman may direct any current or former officer, director, employee or agent of the Corporation to refuse to disclose any record or to give testimony if the Chairman determines, in his or her discretion, that refusal to permit such disclosure is in the public interest.</P>
          <P>(10) <E T="03">Limitations on disclosure.</E> All steps practicable shall be taken to protect the confidentiality of exempt records and information. Any disclosure permitted by paragraph (b) of this section is discretionary and nothing in paragraph (b) of this section shall be construed as requiring the disclosure of information. Further, nothing in paragraph (b) of this section shall be construed as restricting, in any manner, the authority of the Board of Directors, the Chairman of the Board of Directors, the Director of the Corporation's Division having primary authority over the exempt records, the Corporation's General Counsel, or their designees, or any other Corporation Division or Office head, in their discretion and in light of the facts and circumstances attendant in any given case, to require conditions upon and to limit the form, manner, and extent of any disclosure permitted by this section. Wherever practicable, disclosure of exempt records shall be made pursuant to a protective order and redacted <PRTPAGE P="148"/>to exclude all irrelevant or non-responsive exempt information.</P>
          <CITA>[60 FR 61465, Nov. 30, 1995, as amended at 63 FR 16408, Apr. 3, 1998]</CITA>
        </SECTION>
        <SECTION>
          <SECTNO>§ 309.7</SECTNO>
          <SUBJECT>Service of process.</SUBJECT>
          <P>(a) <E T="03">Service.</E> Any subpoena or other legal process to obtain information maintained by the FDIC shall be duly issued by a court having jurisdiction over the FDIC, and served upon either the Executive Secretary (or designee), FDIC, 550 17th Street, NW., Washington, DC 20429, or the Regional Director or Regional Manager of the FDIC region where the legal action from which the subpoena or process was issued is pending. A list of the FDIC's regional offices is available from the Office of Corporate Communications, FDIC, 550 17th Street, NW., Washington, DC 20429 (telephone 202-898-6996). Where the FDIC is named as a party, service of process shall be made pursuant to the Federal Rules of Civil Procedure, and upon the Executive Secretary (or designee), FDIC, 550 17th Street NW., Washington, DC 20429, or upon the agent designated to receive service of process in the state, territory, or jurisdiction in which any insured depository institution is located. Identification of the designated agent in the state, territory, or jurisdiction may be obtained from the Office of the Executive Secretary or from the Office of the General Counsel, FDIC, 550 17th Street NW., Washington, DC 20429. The Executive Secretary (or designee), Regional Director or designated agent shall immediately forward any subpoena, court order or legal process to the General Counsel. The Corporation may require the payment of fees, in accordance with the fee schedule referred to in § 309.5(c)(3), prior to the release of any records requested pursuant to any subpoena or other legal process.</P>
          <P>(b) <E T="03">Notification by person served.</E> If any current or former officer, director, employee or agent of the Corporation, or any other person who has custody of records belonging to the FDIC, is served with a subpoena, court order, or other process requiring that person's attendance as a witness concerning any matter related to official duties, or the production of any exempt record of the Corporation, such person shall promptly advise the Office of the Corporation's General Counsel of such service, of the testimony and records described in the subpoena, and of all relevant facts which may be of assistance to the General Counsel in determining whether the individual in question should be authorized to testify or the records should be produced. Such person should also inform the court or tribunal which issued the process and the attorney for the party upon whose application the process was issued, if known, of the substance of this section.</P>
          <P>(c) <E T="03">Appearance by person served.</E> Absent the written authorization of the Corporation's General Counsel, or designee, to disclose the requested information, any current or former officer, director, employee, or agent of the Corporation, and any other person having custody of records of the Corporation, who is required to respond to a subpoena or other legal process, shall attend at the time and place therein specified and respectfully decline to produce any such record or give any testimony with respect thereto, basing such refusal on this section.</P>
        </SECTION>
      </PART>
      <PART>
        <EAR>Pt. 310</EAR>
        <HD SOURCE="HED">PART 310—PRIVACY ACT REGULATIONS</HD>
        <CONTENTS>
          <SECHD>Sec.</SECHD>
          <SECTNO>310.1</SECTNO>
          <SUBJECT>Purpose and scope.</SUBJECT>
          <SECTNO>310.2</SECTNO>
          <SUBJECT>Definitions.</SUBJECT>
          <SECTNO>310.3</SECTNO>
          <SUBJECT>Procedures for requests pertaining to individual records in a system of records.</SUBJECT>
          <SECTNO>310.4</SECTNO>
          <SUBJECT>Times, places, and requirements for identification of individuals making requests.</SUBJECT>
          <SECTNO>310.5</SECTNO>
          <SUBJECT>Disclosure of requested information to individuals.</SUBJECT>
          <SECTNO>310.6</SECTNO>
          <SUBJECT>Special procedures: Medical records.</SUBJECT>
          <SECTNO>310.7</SECTNO>
          <SUBJECT>Request for amendment of record.</SUBJECT>
          <SECTNO>310.8</SECTNO>
          <SUBJECT>Agency review of request for amendment of record.</SUBJECT>
          <SECTNO>310.9</SECTNO>
          <SUBJECT>Appeal of adverse initial agency determination on access or amendment.</SUBJECT>
          <SECTNO>310.10</SECTNO>
          <SUBJECT>Disclosure of record to person other than the individual to whom it pertains.</SUBJECT>
          <SECTNO>310.11</SECTNO>
          <SUBJECT>Fees.</SUBJECT>
          <SECTNO>310.12</SECTNO>
          <SUBJECT>Penalties.</SUBJECT>
          <SECTNO>310.13</SECTNO>
          <SUBJECT>Exemptions.</SUBJECT>
        </CONTENTS>
        <AUTH>
          <HD SOURCE="HED">Authority: </HD>
          <P>5 U.S.C. 552a.</P>
        </AUTH>
        <SOURCE>
          <HD SOURCE="HED">Source: </HD>
          <P>40 FR 46274, Oct. 6, 1975, unless otherwise noted.</P>
        </SOURCE>
        <SECTION>
          <PRTPAGE P="149"/>
          <SECTNO>§ 310.1</SECTNO>
          <SUBJECT>Purpose and scope.</SUBJECT>
          <P>The purpose of this part is to establish regulations implementing the Privacy Act of 1974, 5 U.S.C. 552a. These regulations delineate the procedures that an individual must follow in exercising his or her access or amendment rights under the Privacy Act to records maintained by the Corporation in systems of records.</P>
          <CITA>[61 FR 43419, Aug. 23, 1996]</CITA>
        </SECTION>
        <SECTION>
          <SECTNO>§ 310.2</SECTNO>
          <SUBJECT>Definitions.</SUBJECT>
          <P>For purposes of this part:</P>
          <P>(a) The term <E T="03">Corporation</E> means the Federal Deposit Insurance Corporation;</P>
          <P>(b) The term <E T="03">individual</E> means a natural person who is either a citizen of the United States or an alien lawfully admitted for permanent residence;</P>
          <P>(c) The term <E T="03">maintain</E> includes maintain, collect, use, disseminate, or control;</P>
          <P>(d) The term <E T="03">record</E> means any item, collection or grouping of information about an individual that contains his/her name, or the identifying number, symbol, or other identifying particular assigned to the individual;</P>
          <P>(e) The term <E T="03">system of records</E> means a group of any records under the control of the Corporation from which information is retrieved by the name of the individual or some identifying number, symbol or other identifying particular assigned to the individual;</P>
          <P>(f) The term <E T="03">designated system of records</E> means a system of records which has been listed and summarized in the <E T="04">Federal Register</E> pursuant to the requirements of 5 U.S.C. 552a(e);</P>
          <P>(g) The term <E T="03">routine use</E> means, with respect to disclosure of a record, the use of such record for a purpose which is compatible with the purpose for which it was created;</P>
          <P>(h) The terms <E T="03">amend</E> or <E T="03">amendment</E> mean any correction, addition to or deletion from a record; and</P>
          <P>(i) The term <E T="03">system manager</E> means the agency official responsible for a designated system of records, as denominated in the <E T="04">Federal Register</E> publication of “Systems of Records Maintained by the Federal Deposit Insurance Corporation.”</P>
          <CITA>[40 FR 46274, Oct. 6, 1975, as amended at 42 FR 6796, Feb. 4, 1977]</CITA>
        </SECTION>
        <SECTION>
          <SECTNO>§ 310.3</SECTNO>
          <SUBJECT>Procedures for requests pertaining to individual records in a system of rec-ords.</SUBJECT>

          <P>(a) Any present or former employee of the Corporation seeking access to, or amendment of, his/her official personnel records maintained by the Corporation shall submit his/her request in such manner as is prescribed by the United States Office of Personnel Management in part 297 of its rules and regulations (5 CFR part 297). For access to, or amendment of, other government-wide records systems maintained by the Corporation, the procedures prescribed in the respective <E T="04">Federal Register</E> Privacy Act system notice shall be followed.</P>

          <P>(b) Requests by individuals for access to records pertaining to them and maintained within one of the Corporation's designated systems of records should be submitted in writing to the Office of the Executive Secretary, FOIA/PA Unit, Federal Deposit Insurance Corporation, Washington, DC 20429. Each such request should contain a reasonable description of the records sought, the system or systems in which such record may be contained, and any additional identifying information, as specified in the Corporation's <E T="04">Federal Register</E> “Notice of Systems of Records” for that particular system, copies of which are available upon request from the FOIA/PA Unit, Office of the Executive Secretary.</P>
          <CITA>[40 FR 46274, Oct. 6, 1975, as amended at 42 FR 6796, Feb. 4, 1977; 61 FR 43419, Aug. 23, 1996]</CITA>
        </SECTION>
        <SECTION>
          <SECTNO>§ 310.4</SECTNO>
          <SUBJECT>Times, places, and requirements for identification of individuals making requests.</SUBJECT>
          <P>(a) Individuals may request access to records pertaining to themselves by submitting a written request as provided in § 310.3 of these regulations, or by appearing in person on weekdays, other than official holidays, at the Office of the Executive Secretary, Rec-ords Unit, Federal Deposit Insurance Corporation, 550 17th Street, NW., Washington, DC 20429, between the hours of 8:30 a.m. and 5 p.m.</P>

          <P>(b) Individuals appearing in person at the Corporation seeking access to or amendment of their records shall <PRTPAGE P="150"/>present two forms of reasonable identification, such as employment identification cards, driver's licenses, or other identification cards or documents typically used for identification purposes.</P>
          <P>(c) Except for records that must be publicly disclosed pursuant to the Freedom of Information Act, 5 U.S.C. 552, where the Corporation determines it to be necessary for the individual's protection, a certification of a duly commissioned notary public, of any state or territory, attesting to the requesting individual's identity, or an unsworn declaration subscribed to as true under the penalty of perjury under the laws of the United States of America, at the election of the individual, may be required before a written request seeking access to or amendment of a record will be honored. The Corporation may also require that individuals provide minimal identifying data such as full name, date and place of birth, or other personal information necessary to ensure proper identity before processing requests for records.</P>
          <CITA>[40 FR 46274, Oct. 6, 1975, as amended at 42 FR 6796, Feb. 4, 1977; 61 FR 43419, Aug. 23, 1996]</CITA>
        </SECTION>
        <SECTION>
          <SECTNO>§ 310.5</SECTNO>
          <SUBJECT>Disclosure of requested information to individuals.</SUBJECT>
          <P>(a) Except to the extent that Corporation records pertaining to an individual:</P>
          <P>(1) Are exempt from disclosure under §§ 310.6 and 310.13 of this part, or</P>
          <P>(2) Were compiled in reasonable anticipation of a civil action or proceeding, the Corporation will make such records available upon request for purposes of inspection and copying by the individual (after proper identity verification as provided in § 310.4) and, upon the individual's request and written authorization, by another person of the individual's own choosing.</P>
          <P>(b) The Executive Secretary will notify, in writing, the individual making a request, whenever practicable within ten business days following receipt of the request, whether any specified designated system of records maintained by the Corporation contains a record pertaining to the individual. Where such a record does exist, the Executive Secretary also will inform the individual of the system manager's decision whether to grant or deny the request for access. In the event existing records are determined not to be disclosable, the notification will inform the individual of the reasons for which disclosure will not be made and will provide a description of the individual's right to appeal the denial, as more fully set forth in § 310.9. Where access is to be granted, the notification will specify the procedures for verifying the individual's identity, as set forth in § 310.4.</P>
          <P>(c) Individuals will be granted access to records disclosable under this part 310 as soon as is practicable. The Executive Secretary will give written notification of a reasonable period within which individuals may inspect disclosable records pertaining to themselves at the Office of the Executive Secretary during normal business hours. Alternatively, individuals granted access to records under this part may request that copies of such rec-ords be forwarded to them. Fees for copying such records will be assessed as provided in § 310.11.</P>
          <CITA>[40 FR 46274, Oct. 6, 1975, as amended at 42 FR 6796, Feb. 4, 1977]</CITA>
        </SECTION>
        <SECTION>
          <SECTNO>§ 310.6</SECTNO>
          <SUBJECT>Special procedures: Medical rec-ords.</SUBJECT>
          <P>Medical records shall be disclosed on request to the individuals to whom they pertain, except, if in the judgment of the Corporation, the transmission of the medical information directly to the requesting individual could have an adverse effect upon such individual. In the event medical information is withheld from a requesting individual due to any possible adverse effect such information may have upon the individual, the Corporation shall transmit such information to a medical doctor named by the requesting individual for release of the patient.</P>
          <CITA>[40 FR 46274, Oct. 6, 1975, as amended at 61 FR 43420, Aug. 23, 1996]</CITA>
        </SECTION>
        <SECTION>
          <SECTNO>§ 310.7</SECTNO>
          <SUBJECT>Request for amendment of record.</SUBJECT>

          <P>The Corporation will maintain all rec-ords it uses in making any determination about any individual with such accuracy, relevance, timeliness <PRTPAGE P="151"/>and completeness as is reasonably necessary to assure fairness to the individual in the determination. An individual may request that the Corporation amend any portion of a record pertaining to that individual which the Corporation maintains in a designated system of records. Such a request should be submitted in writing to the Office of the Executive Secretary, Rec-ords Unit, Federal Deposit Insurance Corporation, Washington, DC 20429 and should contain the individual's reason for requesting the amendment and a description of the record (including the name of the appropriate designated system and category thereof) sufficient to enable the Corporation to identify the particular record or portion thereof with respect to which amendment is sought.</P>
        </SECTION>
        <SECTION>
          <SECTNO>§ 310.8</SECTNO>
          <SUBJECT>Agency review of request for amendment of record.</SUBJECT>
          <P>(a) Requests by individuals for the amendment of records will be acknowledged by the Executive Secretary of the Corporation, and referred to the system manager of the system of rec-ords in which the record is contained for determination, within ten business days following receipt of such requests. Promptly thereafter, the Executive Secretary will notify the individual of the system manager's decision to grant or deny the request to amend.</P>
          <P>(b) If the system manager denies a request to amend a record, the notification of such denial shall contain the reason for the denial and a description of the individual's right to appeal the denial as more fully set forth in § 310.9.</P>
          <CITA>[40 FR 46274, Oct. 6, 1975, as amended at 42 FR 6796, Feb. 4, 1977]</CITA>
        </SECTION>
        <SECTION>
          <SECTNO>§ 310.9</SECTNO>
          <SUBJECT>Appeal of adverse initial agency determination on access or amendment.</SUBJECT>
          <P>(a) A system manager's denial of an individual's request for access to or amendment of a record pertaining to him/her may be appealed in writing to the Corporation's General Counsel (or designee) within 30 business days following receipt of notification of the denial. Such an appeal should be addressed to the Office of the Executive Secretary, FDIC, 550 17th Street NW., Washington, DC 20429, and contain all the information specified for requests for access in § 310.3 or for initial requests to amend in § 310.7, as well as any other additional information the individual deems relevant for the consideration by the General Counsel (or designee) of the appeal.</P>
          <P>(b) The General Counsel (or designee) will normally make a final determination with respect to an appeal made under this part within 30 business days following receipt by the Office of the Executive Secretary of the appeal. The General Counsel (or designee) may, however, extend this 30-day time period for good cause. Where such an extension is required, the individual making the appeal will be notified of the reason for the extension and the expected date upon which a final decision will be given.</P>
          <P>(c) If the General Counsel (or designee) affirms the initial denial of a request for access or to amend, he or she will inform the individual affected of the decision, the reason therefor, and the right of judicial review of the decision. In addition, as pertains to a request for amendment, the individual may at that point submit to the Corporation a concise statement setting forth his or her reasons for disagreeing with the Corporation's refusal to amend.</P>
          <P>(d) Any statement of disagreement with the Corporation's refusal to amend, filed with the Corporation by an individual pursuant to § 310.9(c), will be included in the disclosure of any records under the authority of § 310.10(b). The Corporation may in its discretion also include a copy of a concise statement of its reasons for not making the requested amendment.</P>
          <P>(e) The General Counsel (or designee) may on his or her own motion refer an appeal to the Board of Directors for a determination, and the Board of Directors on its own motion may consider an appeal.</P>
          <CITA>[52 FR 34290, Sept. 10, 1987, as amended at 61 FR 43420, Aug. 23, 1996]</CITA>
        </SECTION>
        <SECTION>
          <SECTNO>§ 310.10</SECTNO>
          <SUBJECT>Disclosure of record to person other than the individual to whom it pertains.</SUBJECT>

          <P>(a) Except as provided in paragraph (b) of this section, the Corporation will not disclose any record contained in a <PRTPAGE P="152"/>designated system of records to any person or agency except with the prior written consent of the individual to whom the record pertains.</P>
          <P>(b) The restrictions on disclosure in paragraph (a) of this section do not apply to any of the following disclosures:</P>
          <P>(1) To those officers and employees of the Corporation who have a need for the record in the performance of their duties;</P>
          <P>(2) Which is required under the Freedom of Information Act (5 U.S.C. 552);</P>
          <P>(3) For a routine use listed with respect to a designated system of records;</P>
          <P>(4) To the Bureau of the Census for purposes of planning or carrying out a census or survey or related activity pursuant to the provisions of title 13 U.S.C.;</P>
          <P>(5) To a recipient who has provided the Corporation with advance adequate written assurance that the record will be used solely as a statistical research or reporting record, and the record is to be transferred in a form that is not individually identifiable;</P>
          <P>(6) To the National Archives and Records Administration as a record which has sufficient historical or other value to warrant its continued preservation by the United States Government, or for evaluation by the Archivist of the United States or his or her designee to determine whether the record has such value;</P>
          <P>(7) To another agency or to an instrumentality of any governmental jurisdiction within or under the control of the United States for a civil or criminal law enforcement activity if the activity is authorized by law, and if the head of the agency or instrumentality has made a written request to the Corporation specifying the particular portion desired and the law enforcement activity for which the record is sought;</P>
          <P>(8) To a person pursuant to a showing of compelling circumstances affecting the health or safety of an individual if, upon such disclosure, notification is transmitted to the last known address of such individual;</P>
          <P>(9) To either House of Congress, or, to the extent of matter within its jurisdiction, any committee or subcommittee thereof, any joint committee of Congress or subcommittee of any such joint committee;</P>
          <P>(10) To the Comptroller General, or any of his or her authorized representatives, in the course of the performance of the duties of the General Accounting Office;</P>
          <P>(11) Pursuant to the order of a court of competent jurisdiction.</P>
          <P>(12) To a consumer reporting agency in accordance with section 3711(f) of Title 31.</P>
          <P>(c) The Corporation will adhere to the following procedures in the case of disclosure of any record pursuant to the authority of paragraphs (b)(3) through (b)(12) of this section.</P>
          <P>(1) The Corporation will keep a record of the date, nature and purpose of each such disclosure, as well as the name and address of the person or agency to whom such disclosure is made; and</P>
          <P>(2) The Corporation will retain and, with the exception of disclosures made pursuant to paragraph (b)(7) of this section, make available to the individual named in the record for the greater of five years or the life of the record all material compiled under paragraph (d)(1) of this section with respect to disclosure of such record.</P>
          <P>(d) Whenever a record which has been disclosed by the Corporation under authority of paragraph (b) of this section is, within a reasonable amount of time after such disclosure, either amended by the Corporation or the subject of a statement of disagreement, the Corporation will transmit such additional information to any person or agency to whom the record was disclosed, if such disclosure was subject to the accounting requirements of paragraph (c)(1) of this section.</P>
          <CITA>[40 FR 46274, Oct. 6, 1975, as amended at 61 FR 43420, Aug. 23, 1996]</CITA>
        </SECTION>
        <SECTION>
          <SECTNO>§ 310.11</SECTNO>
          <SUBJECT>Fees.</SUBJECT>
          <P>The Corporation, upon a request for records disclosable pursuant to the Privacy Act of 1974 (5 U.S.C. 552a), shall charge a fee of $0.10 per page for duplicating, except as follows:</P>

          <P>(a) If the Corporation determines that it can grant access to a record only by providing a copy of the record, no fee will be charged for providing the <PRTPAGE P="153"/>first copy of the record or any portion thereof;</P>
          <P>(b) Whenever the aggregate fees computed under this section do not exceed $10 for any one request, the fee will be deemed waived by the Corporation; or</P>
          <P>(c) Whenever the Corporation determines that a reduction or waiver is warranted, it may reduce or waive any fees imposed for furnishing requested information pursuant to this section.</P>
          <CITA>[40 FR 46274, Oct. 6, 1975, as amended at 61 FR 43420, Aug. 23, 1996]</CITA>
        </SECTION>
        <SECTION>
          <SECTNO>§ 310.12</SECTNO>
          <SUBJECT>Penalties.</SUBJECT>

          <P>Subsection (i)(3) of the Privacy Act of 1974 (5 U.S.C. 552a(i)(3)) imposes criminal penalties for obtaining Corporation records on individuals under false pretenses. The subsection provides as follows:
          </P>
          <EXTRACT>
            <P>Any person who knowingly and willfully requests or obtains any record concerning an individual from an agency under false pretenses shall be guilty of a misdemeanor and fined not more than $5,000. </P>
          </EXTRACT>
        </SECTION>
        <SECTION>
          <SECTNO>§ 310.13</SECTNO>
          <SUBJECT>Exemptions.</SUBJECT>
          <P>The following systems of records are exempt from §§ 310.3 through 310.9 and § 310.10(c)(2) of these rules:</P>

          <P>(a) Investigatory material compiled for law enforcement purposes in the following systems of records is exempt from §§ 310.3 through 310.9 and § 310.10(c)(2) of these rules;
          </P>
          <P>
            <E T="03">Provided, however,</E> That if any individual is denied any right, privilege, or benefit to which he/she would otherwise be entitled under Federal law, or for which he/she would otherwise be eligible, as a result of the maintenance of such material, such material shall be disclosed to such individual, except to the extent that the disclosure of such material would reveal the identity of a source who furnished information to the Government under an express promise that the identity of the source would be held in confidence, or, prior to September 27, 1975, under an implied promise that the identity of the source would be held in confidence:
          </P>
          <EXTRACT>
            <P>
              <E T="03">30-64-0002</E>—Financial institutions investigative and enforcement records system.</P>
            <P>
              <E T="03">30-64-0010</E>—Investigative files and records.</P>
          </EXTRACT>
          

          <P>(b) Investigatory material compiled solely for the purpose of determining suitability, eligibility, or qualifications for Corporation employment to the extent that disclosure of such material would reveal the identity of a source who furnished information to the Corporation under an express promise that the identity of the source would be held in confidence, or, prior to September 27, 1975, under an implied promise that the identity of the source would be held in confidence, in the following systems of records, is exempt from §§ 310.3 through 310.9 and § 310.10(c)(2) of these rules:
          </P>
          <EXTRACT>
            <P>
              <E T="03">30-64-0001</E>—Attorney-legal intern applicant system.</P>
            <P>
              <E T="03">30-64-0010</E>—Investigative files and records.</P>
          </EXTRACT>
          

          <P>(c) Testing or examination material used solely to determine or assess individual qualifications for appointment or promotion in the Corporation's service, the disclosure of which would compromise the objectivity or fairness of the testing, evaluation, or examination process in the following system of records, is exempt from §§ 310.3 through 310.9 and § 310.10(c)(2) of these rules:
          </P>
          <EXTRACT>
            <FP SOURCE="FP-1">
              <E T="03">30-64-0009</E>—Examiner training and education records.</FP>
          </EXTRACT>
          <CITA>[42 FR 6797, Feb. 4, 1977, as amended at 42 FR 33720, July 1, 1977; 54 FR 38507, Sept. 19, 1989; 61 FR 43420, Aug. 23, 1996]</CITA>
        </SECTION>
      </PART>
      <PART>
        <EAR>Pt. 311</EAR>
        <HD SOURCE="HED">PART 311—RULES GOVERNING PUBLIC OBSERVATION OF MEETINGS OF THE CORPORATION'S BOARD OF DIRECTORS</HD>
        <CONTENTS>
          <SECHD>Sec.</SECHD>
          <SECTNO>311.1</SECTNO>
          <SUBJECT>Purpose.</SUBJECT>
          <SECTNO>311.2</SECTNO>
          <SUBJECT>Definitions.</SUBJECT>
          <SECTNO>311.3</SECTNO>
          <SUBJECT>Meetings.</SUBJECT>
          <SECTNO>311.4</SECTNO>
          <SUBJECT>Procedures for announcing meetings.</SUBJECT>
          <SECTNO>311.5</SECTNO>
          <SUBJECT>Regular procedure for closing meetings.</SUBJECT>
          <SECTNO>311.6</SECTNO>
          <SUBJECT>Expedited procedure for announcing and closing certain meetings.</SUBJECT>
          <SECTNO>311.7</SECTNO>
          <SUBJECT>General Counsel certification.</SUBJECT>
          <SECTNO>311.8</SECTNO>
          <SUBJECT>Transcripts and minutes of meetings.</SUBJECT>
        </CONTENTS>
        <AUTH>
          <HD SOURCE="HED">Authority: </HD>
          <P>5 U.S.C. 552b and 12 U.S.C. 1819.</P>
        </AUTH>
        <SOURCE>
          <HD SOURCE="HED">Source: </HD>
          <P>42 FR 14675, Mar. 16, 1977, unless otherwise noted.</P>
        </SOURCE>
        <SECTION>
          <SECTNO>§ 311.1</SECTNO>
          <SUBJECT>Purpose.</SUBJECT>

          <P>This part implements the policy of the “Government in the Sunshine Act”, section 552b of title 5 U.S.C., which is to provide the public with as <PRTPAGE P="154"/>much information as possible regarding the decision making process of certain Federal agencies, including the Federal Deposit Insurance Corporation, while preserving the rights of individuals and the ability of the agency to carry out its responsibilities.</P>
        </SECTION>
        <SECTION>
          <SECTNO>§ 311.2</SECTNO>
          <SUBJECT>Definitions.</SUBJECT>
          <P>For purposes of this part:</P>
          <P>(a) <E T="03">Board</E> means Board of Directors of the Federal Deposit Insurance Corporation and includes any subdivision of the Board authorized to act on behalf of the Corporation.</P>
          <P>(b) <E T="03">Meeting</E> means the deliberations (including those conducted by conference telephone call, or by any other method) of at least three members where such deliberations determine or result in the joint conduct or disposition of agency business but does not include:</P>
          <P>(1) Deliberations to determine whether meetings will be open or closed or whether information pertaining to closed meetings will be withheld;</P>
          <P>(2) Informal background discussions among Board members and staff which clarify issues and expose varying views;</P>
          <P>(3) Decision-making by circulating written material to individual Board members;</P>
          <P>(4) Sessions with individuals from outside the Corporation where Board members listen to a presentation and may elicit additional information.</P>
          <P>(c) <E T="03">Member</E> means a member of the Board.</P>
          <P>(d) <E T="03">Open to public observation</E> and <E T="03">open to the public</E> mean that individuals may witness the meeting, but not participate in the deliberations. The meeting may be recorded, photographed, or otherwise reproduced if the reproduction does not disturb the meeting.</P>
          <P>(e) <E T="03">Public announcement</E> and <E T="03">publicly announce</E> mean making reasonable effort under the particular circumstances of each case to fully inform the public. This may include posting notice on the Corporation's public notice bulletin board maintained in the lobby of its offices located at 550 17th Street, NW., Washington, DC 20429, issuing a press release and employing other methods of notification that may be desirable in a particular situation.</P>
          <CITA>[42 FR 14675, Mar. 16, 1977, as amended at 42 FR 59494, Nov. 18, 1977; 54 FR 38965, Sept. 22, 1989; 61 FR 38357, July 24, 1996]</CITA>
        </SECTION>
        <SECTION>
          <SECTNO>§ 311.3</SECTNO>
          <SUBJECT>Meetings.</SUBJECT>
          <P>(a) <E T="03">Open meetings.</E> Except as provided in paragraph (b) of this section, every portion of every meeting of the Corporation's Board will be open to public observation. Board members will not jointly conduct or dispose of Corporation business other than in accordance with this part.</P>
          <P>(b) <E T="03">When meetings may be closed and announcements and disclosures withheld.</E> Except where the Board finds that the public interest requires otherwise, a meeting or portion thereof may be closed, and announcements and disclosure pertaining thereto may be withheld when the Board determines that such meeting or portion of the meeting or the disclosure of such information is likely to:</P>
          <P>(1) Disclose matters that are: (i) Specifically authorized under criteria established by an Executive order to be kept secret in the interests of national defense or foreign policy and (ii) in fact properly classified pursuant to such Executive order;</P>
          <P>(2) Relate solely to the internal personnel rules and practices of the Corporation;</P>

          <P>(3) Disclose matters specifically exempted from disclosure by statute (other than the Freedom of Information Act, 5 U.S.C. 552): <E T="03">Provided,</E> That such statute: (i) Requires that the matters be withheld from the public in such a manner as to leave no discretion on the issue, or (ii) establishes particular types of matters to be withheld;</P>
          <P>(4) Disclose trade secrets and commercial or financial information obtained from a person and privileged or confidential;</P>
          <P>(5) Involve accusing any person of a crime, or formally censuring any person;</P>
          <P>(6) Disclose information of a personal nature where disclosure would constitute a clearly unwarranted invasion of personal privacy;</P>

          <P>(7) Disclose investigatory records compiled for law enforcement purposes, or information which if written would <PRTPAGE P="155"/>be contained in such records, but only to the extent that the production of such records or information would: (i) Interfere with enforcement proceedings, (ii) deprive a person of a right to a fair trial or an impartial adjudication, (iii) constitute an unwarranted invasion of personal privacy, (iv) disclose the identity of a confidential source, (v) disclose investigative techniques and procedures, or (vi) endanger the life or physical safety of law enforcement personnel;</P>
          <P>(8) Disclose information contained in or related to examination, operating, or condition reports prepared by, on behalf of, or for the use of the Corporation or any other agency responsible for the supervision of financial institutions;</P>
          <P>(9) Disclose information the premature disclosure of which would be likely to:</P>
          <P>(i)(A) Lead to significant financial speculation in currencies, securities, or commodities, or</P>
          <P>(B) Significantly endanger the stability of any financial institution; or</P>
          <P>(ii) Significantly frustrate implementation of a proposed Corporation action, except that this paragraph (b)(9)(ii) shall not apply in any instance where the Corporation has already disclosed to the public the content or nature of its proposed action, or where the Corporation is required by law to make such disclosure on its own initiative prior to taking final action on such proposal; or</P>
          <P>(10) Specifically concern the Corporation's issuance of a subpoena, or the Corporation's participation in a civil action or proceeding, an action in a foreign court or international tribunal, or an arbitration, or the initiation, conduct, or disposition by the Corporation of a particular case of formal agency adjudication pursuant to the procedures in 5 U.S.C. 554 or otherwise involving a determination on the record after opportunity for a hearing.</P>
        </SECTION>
        <SECTION>
          <SECTNO>§ 311.4</SECTNO>
          <SUBJECT>Procedures for announcing meetings.</SUBJECT>
          <P>(a) <E T="03">Scope.</E> Except to the extent that such announcements are exempt from disclosure under § 311.3(b), announcements relating to open meetings, and meetings closed under the regular closing procedures of § 311.5, will be made in the manner set forth in this section.</P>
          <P>(b) <E T="03">Time and content of announcement.</E> The Corporation will make public announcement at least seven days before the meeting of the time, place, and subject matter of the meeting, whether it is to be open or closed to the public, and the name and telephone number of the official designated by the Corporation to respond to requests for information about the meeting. This announcement will be made unless a majority of the Board determines by a recorded vote that Corporation business requires that a meeting be called on lesser notice. In such cases, the Corporation will make public announcement of the time, place, and subject matter of the meeting, and whether it is open or closed to the public, at the earliest practicable time, which may be later than the commencement of the meeting.</P>
          <P>(c) <E T="03">Changing time or place of meeting.</E> The time or place of a meeting may be changed following the public announcement required by paragraph (b) of this section only if the Corporation publicly announces the change at the earliest practicable time, which may be later than the commencement of the meeting.</P>
          <P>(d) <E T="03">Changing subject matter or nature of meeting.</E> The subject matter of a meeting, or the determination to open or close a meeting or a portion of a meeting, may be changed following the public announcement only if:</P>
          <P>(1) A majority of the entire Board determines by recorded vote that agency business so requires and that no earlier announcement of the change was possible; and,</P>
          <P>(2) The Corporation publicly announces the change and the vote of each member upon such change at the earliest practicable time, which may be later than the commencement of the meeting.</P>
          <P>(e) <E T="03">Publication of announcements in Federal Register.</E> Immediately following each public announcement under this section, such announcement will be submitted for publication in the <E T="04">Federal Register</E> by the Office of the Executive Secretary.</P>
        </SECTION>
        <SECTION>
          <PRTPAGE P="156"/>
          <SECTNO>§ 311.5</SECTNO>
          <SUBJECT>Regular procedure for closing meetings.</SUBJECT>
          <P>(a) <E T="03">Scope.</E> Unless § 311.6 is applicable, the procedures for closing meetings will be those set forth in this section.</P>
          <P>(b) <E T="03">Procedure.</E> (1) A decision to close a meeting or portion of a meeting will be taken only when a majority of the entire Board votes to take such action. In deciding whether to close a meeting or portion of a meeting, the Board will consider whether the public interest requires an open meeting. A separate vote of the Board will be taken with respect to each meeting which is proposed to be closed in whole or in part to the public. A single vote may be taken with respect to a series of meetings which are proposed to be closed in whole or in part to the public, or with respect to any information concerning such series of meetings, so long as each meeting in the series involves the same particular matters and is scheduled to be held no more than thirty days after the initial meeting in the series. The vote of each Board member will be recorded and no proxies will be allowed.</P>
          <P>(2) Any individual whose interests may be directly affected may request that the Corporation close any portion of a meeting for any of the reasons referred to in paragraph (b) (5), (6), or (b)(7) of § 311.3. Requests should be directed to the Office of the Executive Secretary, Federal Deposit Insurance Corporation, 550 17th Street, NW., Washington, DC 20429. After receiving notice that an individual desires a portion of a meeting to be closed, the Board, upon request of any one of its members, will vote by recorded vote whether to close the relevant portion of the meeting. This procedure will apply even if the individual's request is made subsequent to the announcement of a decision to hold an open meeting.</P>
          <P>(3) The Corporation's General Counsel will make the public certification required by § 311.7.</P>
          <P>(4) Within 1 day after any vote taken pursuant to paragraphs (b)(1) or (2) of this section, the Corporation will make publicly available a written copy of the vote, reflecting the vote of each Board member. Except to the extent that such information is exempt from disclosure, if a meeting or portion of a meeting is to be closed to the public, the Corporation will make publicly available within 1 day after the required vote a full written explanation of its action, together with a list of all persons expected to attend the meeting and their affiliation.</P>
          <P>(5) The Corporation will publicly announce the time, place, and subject matter of the meeting, with determinations as to open and closed portions, in the manner and within the time limits prescribed in § 311.4.</P>
          <CITA>[42 FR 14675, Mar. 16, 1977; 42 FR 16616, Mar. 29, 1977, as amended at 42 FR 59494, Nov. 18, 1977]</CITA>
        </SECTION>
        <SECTION>
          <SECTNO>§ 311.6</SECTNO>
          <SUBJECT>Expedited procedure for announcing and closing certain meetings.</SUBJECT>
          <P>(a) <E T="03">Scope.</E> Since a majority of its meetings may properly be closed pursuant to paragraph (b)(4), (8), (9)(i), or (b)(10) of § 311.3, subsection (d)(4) of the Government in the Sunshine Act (5 U.S.C. 552b) allows the Corporation to use expedited procedures in closing meetings under these four subparagraphs. Absent a compelling public interest to the contrary, meetings or portions of meetings that can be expected to be closed using these procedures include, but are not limited to: Administrative enforcement proceedings under section 8 of the Federal Deposit Insurance Act (12 U.S.C. 1818); appointment of the Corporation as conservator of a depository institution, or as receiver, liquidator or liquidating agent of a closed depository institution or a depository institution in danger of closing; and certain management and liquidation activities pursuant to such appointments; possible financial assistance by the Corporation under section 13 of the Federal Deposit Insurance Act (12 U.S.C. 1823); certain depository institution applications including applications to establish or move branches, applications to merge, and applications for insurance; and investigatory activity under section 10(c) of the Federal Deposit Insurance Act (12 U.S.C. 1820(c)). In announcing and closing meetings or portions of meetings under this section, the following procedures will be observed.</P>
          <P>(b) <E T="03">Announcement.</E> Except to the extent that such information is exempt from disclosure under the provisions of <PRTPAGE P="157"/>§ 311.3(b) the Corporation will make public announcement of the time, place and subject matter of the meeting and of each portion thereof at the earliest practicable time. This announcement will be published in the <E T="04">Federal Register</E> if publication can be effected at least 1 day prior to the scheduled date of the meeting.</P>
          <P>(c) <E T="03">Procedure for closing.</E> (1) The Corporation's General Counsel will make the public certification required by § 311.7.</P>
          <P>(2) At the beginning of a meeting or portion of a meeting to be closed under this section, a recorded vote of the Board will be taken. The Board will determine by its vote whether to proceed with the closing. If a majority of the entire Board votes to close, the meeting will be closed to public observation. Even though a meeting or portion thereof could properly be closed under this section, a majority of the entire Board may find that the public interest requires an open session and vote, reflecting the vote of each Board member, will be made available to the public.</P>
          <CITA>[42 FR 14675, Mar. 16, 1977; 42 FR 16616, Mar. 29, 1977, as amended at 54 FR 38965, Sept. 22, 1989]</CITA>
        </SECTION>
        <SECTION>
          <SECTNO>§ 311.7</SECTNO>
          <SUBJECT>General Counsel certification.</SUBJECT>
          <P>For every meeting or portion thereof closed under § 311.5 or § 311.6, the Corporation's General Counsel will publicly certify that, in the opinion of such General Counsel, the meeting may be closed to the public and will state each relevant exemptive provision. In the absence of the General Counsel, the next ranking official in the Legal Division may perform the certification. If the General Counsel and such next ranking official in the Legal Division are both absent, the official in the Legal Division who is then next in rank may provide the required certification. A copy of this certification, together with a statement from the presiding officer of the meeting setting forth the time and place of the meeting, and the persons present, will be retained in the Board's permanent files.</P>
          <CITA>[42 FR 14675, Mar. 16, 1977, as amended at 61 FR 38357, July 24, 1996]</CITA>
        </SECTION>
        <SECTION>
          <SECTNO>§ 311.8</SECTNO>
          <SUBJECT>Transcripts and minutes of meetings.</SUBJECT>
          <P>(a) <E T="03">When required.</E> The Corporation will maintain a complete transcript, identifying each speaker, to record fully the proceedings of each meeting or portion of a meeting closed to the public, except that in the case of a meeting or portions of a meeting closed to the public pursuant to paragraph (b)(8), (9)(i), or (10) of § 311.3, the Corporation may, in lieu of a transcript, maintain a set of minutes.</P>
          <P>(b) <E T="03">Content of minutes.</E> If minutes are maintained, they will fully and clearly describe all matters discussed and will provide a full and accurate summary of any actions taken, and the reasons for taking such action. Minutes will also include a description of each of the views expressed by each person in attendance on any item and the record of any roll call vote, reflecting the vote of each member. All documents considered in connection with any action will be identified in the minutes.</P>
          <P>(c) <E T="03">Available material.</E> The Corporation will maintain a complete verbatim copy of the transcript or minutes of each meeting or portion of a meeting closed to the public for a period of at least 2 years after the meeting, or until 1 year after the conclusion of any proceeding with respect to which the meeting or portion was held, whichever occurs later. The Corporation will make promptly available to the public the transcript, identifying each speaker, or minutes of items on the agenda or testimony of any witness received at the closed meeting except that in cases where the Privacy Act of 1974 (5 U.S.C. 552a) does not apply, the Corporation may withhold information exempt from disclosure under § 311.3(b). For the convenience of members of the public who may be unable to attend open meetings of the Board, the Corporation will maintain for at least 2 years a set of minutes of each meeting of the Board or portion thereof open to public observation.</P>
          <P>(d) <E T="03">Procedures for inspecting or copying available material.</E> (1) An individual may inspect materials made available under paragraph (c) of this section at the Office of the Executive Secretary, Federal Deposit Insurance Corporation, 550 17th Street, NW., Washington, DC 20429, <PRTPAGE P="158"/>during normal business hours. If the individual desires a copy of such material, the Corporation will furnish copies at a cost of 10 cents per page. Whenever the Corporation determines that in the public interest a reduction or waiver is warranted, it may reduce or waive any fees imposed under this section.</P>
          <P>(2) An individual may also submit a written request for transcripts or minutes, reasonably identifying the records sought, to the Office of the Executive Secretary, Federal Deposit Insurance Corporation, 550 17th Street, NW., Washington, DC 20429.</P>
          <P>(e) <E T="03">Procedures for obtaining documents identified in minutes</E>. Copies of documents identified in minutes or considered by the Board in connection with any action identified in the minutes may be made available to the public upon request, to the extent permitted by the Freedom of Information Act, under the provisions of 12 CFR part 309, Disclosure of Information.</P>
          <CITA>[42 FR 14675, Mar. 16, 1977, as amended at 61 FR 38357, July 24, 1996]</CITA>
        </SECTION>
      </PART>
      <PART>
        <EAR>Pt. 312</EAR>
        <HD SOURCE="HED">PART 312—ASSESSMENT OF FEES UPON ENTRANCE TO OR EXIT FROM THE BANK INSURANCE FUND OR THE SAVINGS ASSOCIATION INSURANCE FUND</HD>
        <CONTENTS>
          <SECHD>Sec.</SECHD>
          <SECTNO>312.1</SECTNO>
          <SUBJECT>Definitions.</SUBJECT>
          <SECTNO>312.2</SECTNO>
          <SUBJECT>Bank Insurance Fund reserve ratio.</SUBJECT>
          <SECTNO>312.3</SECTNO>
          <SUBJECT>Savings Association Insurance Fund reserve ratio.</SUBJECT>
          <SECTNO>312.4</SECTNO>
          <SUBJECT>Entrance fees assessed in connection with conversion transactions from the Savings Association Insurance Fund to the Bank Insurance Fund.</SUBJECT>
          <SECTNO>312.5</SECTNO>
          <SUBJECT>Exit fees assessed in connection with conversion transactions from the Savings Association Insurance Fund to the Bank Insurance Fund.</SUBJECT>
          <SECTNO>312.6</SECTNO>
          <SUBJECT>Entrance fees assessed in connection with conversion transactions from the Bank Insurance Fund to the Savings Association Insurance Fund.</SUBJECT>
          <SECTNO>312.7</SECTNO>
          <SUBJECT>Exit fees assessed in connection with conversion transactions from the Bank Insurance Fund to the Savings Association Insurance Fund.</SUBJECT>
          <SECTNO>312.8</SECTNO>
          <SUBJECT>Entrance and exit fees assessed in connection with insured deposit transfers from the Savings Association Insurance Fund to the Bank Insurance Fund.</SUBJECT>
          <SECTNO>312.9</SECTNO>
          <SUBJECT>Entrance and exit fees assessed in connection with insured deposit transfers from the Bank Insurance Fund to the Savings Association Insurance Fund.</SUBJECT>
          <SECTNO>312.10</SECTNO>
          <SUBJECT>Payment of entrance and exit fees.</SUBJECT>
        </CONTENTS>
        <AUTH>
          <HD SOURCE="HED">Authority: </HD>
          <P>12 U.S.C. 1815(d); 12 U.S.C. 1819.</P>
        </AUTH>
        <SOURCE>
          <HD SOURCE="HED">Source: </HD>
          <P>54 FR 40380, Oct. 2, 1989, unless otherwise noted.</P>
        </SOURCE>
        <SECTION>
          <SECTNO>§ 312.1</SECTNO>
          <SUBJECT>Definitions.</SUBJECT>
          <P>For purposes of this part:</P>
          <P>(a) The term <E T="03">Bank Insurance Fund</E> shall mean the fund established by section 11(a)(5) of the Federal Deposit Insurance Act, 12 U.S.C. 1821(a)(5). The term <E T="03">Savings Association Insurance Fund</E> shall mean the fund established by section 11(a)(6) of the Federal Deposit Insurance Act, 12 U.S.C. 1821(a)(6).</P>
          <P>(b) The terms <E T="03">Bank Insurance Fund member</E> and <E T="03">Savings Association Insurance Fund member</E> shall have the meanings given them in sections 7(<E T="03">l</E>) (4) and (5) of the Federal Deposit Insurance Act, 12 U.S.C. 1817(<E T="03">l</E>) (4), (5), respectively.</P>
          <P>(c) The term <E T="03">Bank Insurance Fund reserve ratio</E> shall mean the ratio of the net worth of the Bank Insurance Fund to the value of the aggregate total domestic deposits held in all Bank Insurance Fund members. The term “Savings Association Insurance Fund reserve ratio” shall mean the ratio of the value of the net worth of the Savings Association Insurance Fund to the value of the aggregate total domestic deposits held in all Savings Association Insurance Fund members.</P>
          <P>(d) The term <E T="03">conversion transaction</E> shall have the meaning given it in section 5(d)(2)(B) of the Federal Deposit Insurance Act, 12 U.S.C. 1815(d)(2)(B).</P>
          <P>(e) The terms <E T="03">default</E> and <E T="03">in danger of default</E> shall have the meanings given them in section 3(x) of the Federal Deposit Insurance Act, 12 U.S.C. 1813(x).</P>
          <P>(f) The term <E T="03">deposit broker</E> shall have the meaning given it in section 29 of the Federal Deposit Insurance Act, 12 U.S.C. 1831f.</P>
          <P>(g) The term <E T="03">entrance fee deposit base</E> generally refers to those deposits which the Federal Deposit Insurance <PRTPAGE P="159"/>Corporation, in its discretion, estimates to have a high probability of remaining with the acquiring or resulting depository institution for a reasonable period of time following the acquisition, in excess of those deposits that would have remained in the insurance fund of the depository institution in default or in danger of default had such institution been resolved by means of an insured deposit transfer. The estimated dollar amount of the entrance fee deposit base shall be determined on a case-by-case basis by the Federal Deposit Insurance Corporation at the time offers to acquire an insured depository institution (or any part thereof) are solicited by the Federal Deposit Insurance Corporation or the Resolution Trust Corporation.</P>
          <P>(h) The term <E T="03">insured deposit transfer</E> shall mean a transaction wherein the insured deposits of an insured depository institution in default or in danger of default, are paid by means of a transferred deposit pursuant to a written agreement between the Federal Deposit Insurance Corporation or the Resolution Trust Corporation and an insured depository institution. The term <E T="03">transferred deposit</E> shall have the meaning given it in section 3(n) of the Federal Deposit Insurance Act, 12 U.S.C. 1813 (n).</P>
          <P>(i) The term <E T="03">premium</E> shall mean the amount paid by an insured depository institution in consideration for the right to enter into an insured deposit transfer agreement. The premium shall not include the amount of any transferred deposits, nor shall the premium include any amount paid for the purchase of assets or the right to purchase assets of a depository institution in default or in danger of default.</P>
          <P>(j) The term <E T="03">retained deposit base</E> shall mean the total deposits transferred from a Savings Association Insurance Fund Member to a Bank Insurance Fund Member, or from a Bank Insurance Fund member to a Savings Association Insurance Fund member, less the following deposits:</P>
          <P>(1) Any deposit acquired, directly or indirectly, by or through any deposit broker; and</P>
          <P>(2) Any portion of any deposit account exceeding $80,000.</P>
          <CITA>[54 FR 40380, Oct. 2, 1989; 54 FR 43521, Oct. 25, 1989, as amended at 55 FR 10412, Mar. 21, 1990]</CITA>
        </SECTION>
        <SECTION>
          <SECTNO>§ 312.2</SECTNO>
          <SUBJECT>Bank Insurance Fund reserve ratio.</SUBJECT>
          <P>The Bank Insurance Fund reserve ratio to be used in computing the entrance fee under this part with respect to any particular conversion transaction shall be the most recent Bank Insurance Fund reserve ratio calculated quarterly by the Federal Deposit Insurance Corporation prior to the date on which deposit liabilities are transferred from a Savings Association Insurance Fund member to a Bank Insurance Fund member in connection with that conversion transaction.</P>
          <CITA>[56 FR 29895, July 1, 1991]</CITA>
        </SECTION>
        <SECTION>
          <SECTNO>§ 312.3</SECTNO>
          <SUBJECT>Savings Association Insurance Fund reserve ratio.</SUBJECT>
          <P>The Savings Association Insurance Fund reserve ratio to be used in computing the entrance fee under this part with respect to any particular conversion transaction shall be the most recent Savings Association Insurance Fund reserve ratio calculated quarterly by the Federal Deposit Insurance Corporation prior to the date on which deposit liabilities are transferred from a Bank Insurance Fund member to a Savings Association Insurance Fund member in connection with that conversion transaction.</P>
          <CITA>[56 FR 29895, July 1, 1991]</CITA>
        </SECTION>
        <SECTION>
          <SECTNO>§ 312.4</SECTNO>
          <SUBJECT>Entrance fees assessed in connection with conversion transactions from the Savings Association Insurance Fund to the Bank Insurance Fund.</SUBJECT>

          <P>(a) Each insured depository institution participating in a conversion transaction as a result of which insured deposits are transferred from a Savings Association Insurance Fund member to a Bank Insurance Fund member shall pay an entrance fee to the Bank Insurance Fund.<PRTPAGE P="160"/>
          </P>
          <P>(b) The entrance fee shall be the product derived by multiplying the dollar amount of total deposits transferred from the Savings Association Insurance Fund member to the Bank Insurance Fund member by the Bank Insurance Fund reserve ratio.</P>
          <P>(c) Notwithstanding paragraph (b) of this section, the entrance fee to be assessed against an insured depository institution participating in a conversion transaction:</P>
          <P>(1) Occurring in connection with the acquisition of a Savings Association Insurance Fund member in default or in danger of default, or</P>
          <P>(2) Otherwise arranged by the Federal Deposit Insurance Corporation in its capacity as exclusive manager of the Resolution Trust Corporation, shall be the product derived by multiplying the dollar amount of the entrance fee deposit base transferred from the Savings Association Insurance Fund member to the Bank Insurance Fund member by the Bank Insurance Fund ratio.</P>
          <CITA>[55 FR 10413, Mar. 21, 1990]</CITA>
        </SECTION>
        <SECTION>
          <SECTNO>§ 312.5</SECTNO>
          <SUBJECT>Exit fees assessed in connection with conversion transactions from the Savings Association Insurance Fund to the Bank Insurance Fund.</SUBJECT>
          <P>(a) Each insured depository institution participating in a conversion transaction as a result of which insured deposits are transferred from a Savings Association Insurance Fund member to a Bank Insurance Fund member shall pay an exit fee.</P>
          <P>(b) The exit fee shall be the product derived by multiplying the dollar amount of total deposits transferred from the Savings Association Insurance Fund member to the Bank Insurance Fund member by 0.90 percent (0.0090).</P>
          <P>(c) Notwithstanding paragraph (b) of this section, the exit fee to be assessed against an insured depository institution participating in a conversion transaction:</P>
          <P>(1) Occurring in connection with the acquisition of a Savings Association Insurance Fund member in default or in danger of default, or</P>
          <P>(2) Otherwise arranged by the Federal Deposit Insurance Corporation in its capacity as exclusive manager of the Resolution Trust Corporation, shall be the product derived by multiplying the dollar amount of the retained deposit base transferred from the Savings Association Insurance Fund member to the Bank Insurance Fund member by 0.90 percent (0.0090).</P>
          <P>(d) The exit fee required to be paid by this section shall be paid to the Savings Association Insurance Fund or, if the Secretary of the Treasury determines that the Financing Corporation has exhausted all other sources of funding for interest payments on the obligations of the Financing Corporation and orders that such exit fee be paid to the Financing Corporation.</P>
          <P>(e) Exit fees paid to the Savings Association Insurance Fund pursuant to paragraph (d) of this section shall be held in a reserve account until such time as the Federal Deposit Insurance Corporation and the Secretary of the Treasury determine that it is not necessary to reserve such funds for the payment of interest on the obligations of the Financing Corporation.</P>
          <P>(f) Before January 1, 1997, amendments to this section shall be determined jointly by the Federal Deposit Insurance Corporation and the Secretary of the Treasury.</P>
          <CITA>[55 FR 10413, Mar. 21, 1990]</CITA>
        </SECTION>
        <SECTION>
          <SECTNO>§ 312.6</SECTNO>
          <SUBJECT>Entrance fees assessed in connection with conversion transactions from the Bank Insurance Fund to the Savings Association Insurance Fund.</SUBJECT>
          <P>(a) Each insured depository institution participating in a conversion transaction as a result of which insured deposits are transferred from a Bank Insurance Fund member to a Savings Association Insurance Fund member shall pay an entrance fee to the Savings Association Insurance Fund.</P>
          <P>(b) The entrance fee shall be the product derived by multiplying the dollar amount of total deposits transferred from the Bank Insurance Fund member to the Savings Association Insurance Fund member by the Savings Association Insurance Fund reserve ratio, or by .01 percent (0.0001), whichever is greater.</P>

          <P>(c) Notwithstanding paragraph (b) of this section, the entrance fee to be assessed against an insured depository <PRTPAGE P="161"/>institution participating in a conversion transaction occurring in connection with the acquisition of a Bank Insurance Fund member in default or in danger of default shall be the product derived by multiplying the dollar amount of the entrance fee deposit base transferred from the Bank Insurance Fund member to the Savings Association Insurance Fund member by the Savings Association Insurance Fund reserve ratio, or by .01 percent (0.0001), whichever is greater.</P>
          <P>(d) <E T="03">Interim entrance fee until initial calculation of Savings Association Insurance Fund reserve ratio.</E> Notwithstanding paragraphs (b) and (c) of this section, until such time as the Savings Association Insurance Fund reserve ratio is initially calculated and made publicly available, the entrance fee for all conversions from the Bank Insurance Fund to the Savings Association Insurance Fund shall be the product derived by multiplying the dollar amount of total deposits transferred from the Bank Insurance Fund member to the Savings Association Insurance Fund member by .01 percent (0.0001), unless the conversion transaction is occurring in connection with the acquisition of a Bank Insurance Fund member in default or in danger of default, where it shall be the product derived by multiplying the dollar amount of the entrance fee deposit base transferred from the Bank Insurance Fund member to the Savings Association Insurance Fund member by 0.01 percent (0.0001).</P>
          <CITA>[55 FR 10413, Mar. 21, 1990]</CITA>
        </SECTION>
        <SECTION>
          <SECTNO>§ 312.7</SECTNO>
          <SUBJECT>Exit fees assessed in connection with conversion transactions from the Bank Insurance Fund to the Savings Association Insurance Fund.</SUBJECT>
          <P>(a) Each insured depository institution participating in a conversion transaction as a result of which insured deposits are transferred from a Bank Insurance Fund member to a Savings Association Insurance Fund member shall pay an exit fee to the Bank Insurance Fund.</P>
          <P>(b) The exit fee shall be the product derived by multiplying the dollar amount of total deposits transferred from the Bank Insurance Fund member to the Savings Association Insurance Fund member by .01 percent (0.0001).</P>
          <P>(c) Notwithstanding paragraph (b) of this section, the exit fee to be assessed against an insured depository institution participating in a conversion transaction occurring in connection with the acquisition of a Bank Insurance Fund member in default or in danger of default shall be the product derived by multiplying the dollar amount of the retained deposit base transferred from the Bank Insurance Fund member to the Savings Association Insurance Fund member by 0.01 percent (0.0001).</P>
          <CITA>[55 FR 10413, Mar. 21, 1990]</CITA>
        </SECTION>
        <SECTION>
          <SECTNO>§ 312.8</SECTNO>
          <SUBJECT>Entrance and exit fees assessed in connection with insured deposit transfers from the Savings Association Insurance Fund to the Bank Insurance Fund.</SUBJECT>
          <P>(a) Insured deposit transfers resulting in a transfer of insured deposits from a Savings Association Insurance Fund member to a Bank Insurance Fund member, shall be subject to an entrance fee and an exit fee.</P>
          <P>(b) The entrance fee shall be the product derived by multiplying the dollar amount of the retained deposit base of the Savings Association Insurance Fund member in default or in danger of default by the Bank Insurance Fund ratio.</P>
          <P>(c) The exit fee shall be the product derived by multiplying the dollar amount of the retained deposit base of the Savings Association Insurance Fund member in default or in danger of default by 0.90 percent (0.0090).</P>
          <P>(d) Notwithstanding paragraphs (a), (b), and (c) of this section, the sum total of the entrance fee and the exit fee required by this section shall in no event exceed the amount of the premium.</P>

          <P>(e) The entrance and exit fees required by this section shall be paid by the acquiring institution from the premium as follows. First, the premium shall be allocated in payment of the exit fee to one-third of the premium received. Second, the remaining premium shall be allocated to the entrance fee. Third, if any premium remains, it shall be applied to the remaining balance (if any) owing on the exit fee. Fourth, any amount remaining after application <PRTPAGE P="162"/>pursuant to steps one through three shall be allocated to the Resolution Trust Corporation.</P>
          <P>(f) The entrance fee required by this section shall be paid to the Bank Insurance Fund. The exit fee required by this section shall be paid to the Savings Association Insurance Fund or, if the Secretary of the Treasury determines that the Financing Corporaiton has exhausted all other sources of funding for interest payments on the obligations of the Financing Corporation and orders that such exit fee be paid to the Financing Corporation.</P>
          <P>(g) Exit fees paid to the Savings Association Insurance Fund pursuant to paragraph (f) of this section shall be held in a reserve account until such time as the Federal Deposit Insurance Corporation and the Secretary of the Treasury determine that it is not necessary to reserve such funds for the payment of interest on the obligations of the Financing Corporation.</P>
          <P>(h) Insured deposit transfers occurring before March 21, 1990 shall not be subject to the assessment of entrance or exit fees.</P>
          <P>(i) Before January 1, 1997, amendments to this section concerning exit fees assessed in connection with insured deposit transfers from the Savings Association Insurance Fund to the Bank Insurance Fund shall be determined jointly by the Federal Deposit Insurance Corporation and the Secretary of the Treasury.</P>
          <CITA>[55 FR 10414, Mar. 21, 1990]</CITA>
        </SECTION>
        <SECTION>
          <SECTNO>§ 312.9</SECTNO>
          <SUBJECT>Entrance and exit fees assessed in connection with insured deposit transfers from the Bank Insurance Fund to the Savings Association Insurance Fund.</SUBJECT>
          <P>(a) Insured deposit transfers resulting in a transfer of insured deposits from a Bank Insurance Fund member to a Savings Association Insurance Fund member, shall be subject to an entrance fee and in exit fee.</P>
          <P>(b) The entrance fee shall be the product derived by multiplying the dollar amount of the retained deposit base of the Bank Insurance Fund member in default or in danger of default by the Savings Association Insurance Fund ratio or by .01 percent (0.0001), whichever is greater.</P>
          <P>(c) The exit fee shall be the product derived by multiplying the dollar amount of the retained deposit base of the Bank Insurance Fund member by 0.01 percent (0.0001).</P>
          <P>(d) Notwithstanding paragraphs (a), (b), and (c) of this section, the sum total of the entrance fee and the exit fee required by this section shall in no event exceed the amount of the premium.</P>
          <P>(e) The entrance and exit fees required by this section shall be paid by the acquiring institution from the premium as follows. First, the premium shall be allocated in payment of the exit fee to one-third of the premium received. Second, the remaining premium will be allocated to the entrance fee. Third, if any premium remains, it shall be applied to the remaining balance (if any) owing on the exit fee. Fourth, any amount remaining after application pursuant to steps one through three shall be allocated to the Federal Deposit Insurance Corporation.</P>
          <P>(f) The entrance fee required by this section shall be paid to the Savings Association Insurance Fund. The exit fee required by this section shall be paid to the Bank Insurance Fund.</P>
          <P>(g) Insured deposit transfers occurring before March 21, 1990 shall not be subject to the assessment of entrance or exit fees.</P>
          <CITA>[55 FR 10414, Mar. 21, 1990]</CITA>
        </SECTION>
        <SECTION>
          <SECTNO>§ 312.10</SECTNO>
          <SUBJECT>Payment of entrance and exit fees.</SUBJECT>
          <P>(a) A resulting or acquiring depository institution shall be liable for the payment of the entrance and exit fees required by this part.</P>
          <P>(b) Notwithstanding paragraph (a) of this section, an acquiring depository institution participating in an insured deposit transfer pursuant to § 312.8 or § 312.9 of this part shall pay the entrance and exit fees from the premium, and in any event, shall not be liable for the payment of that portion of the entrance and exit fees that exceeds the premium paid by such acquiring depository institution.</P>

          <P>(c) The “conversion transaction payment date” shall be either March 31st or September 30th, whichever occurs first following the expiration of 30 days <PRTPAGE P="163"/>from the date the deposits are transferred.</P>
          <P>(d) A resulting or acquiring depository institution shall pay the entrance and exit fees required by this part on the conversion transaction payment date.</P>
          <P>(e) Notwithstanding paragraph (d) of this section, where the sum of the entrance and exit fees required to be paid by an insured depository institution pursuant to §§ 312.4, 312.5, 312.6, or 312.7 of this part exceeds $5,000, a resulting or acquiring depository institution may, at its option, and upon notification to the Federal Deposit Insurance Corporation, pay the entrance and exit fees in equal annual installments, interest-free, over a period of not more than five years. The first such installment shall be paid on the date described in paragraph (c) of this section.</P>
          <P>(f) Entrance and exit fees required to be paid by an insured depository institution as the result of an insured deposit transfer pursuant to §§ 312.8 or 312.9 of this part shall be paid on the conversion transaction payment date described in paragraph (c) of this section.</P>
          <CITA>[55 FR 10414, Mar. 21, 1990]</CITA>
        </SECTION>
      </PART>
    </SUBCHAP>
    <SUBCHAP TYPE="P">
      <PRTPAGE P="164"/>
      <HD SOURCE="HED">SUBCHAPTER B—REGULATIONS AND STATEMENTS OF GENERAL POLICY</HD>
      <PART>
        <EAR>Pt. 323</EAR>
        <HD SOURCE="HED">PART 323—APPRAISALS</HD>
        <CONTENTS>
          <SECHD>Sec.</SECHD>
          <SECTNO>323.1</SECTNO>
          <SUBJECT>Authority, purpose, and scope.</SUBJECT>
          <SECTNO>323.2</SECTNO>
          <SUBJECT>Definitions.</SUBJECT>
          <SECTNO>323.3</SECTNO>
          <SUBJECT>Appraisals required; transactions requiring a State certified or licensed appraiser.</SUBJECT>
          <SECTNO>323.4</SECTNO>
          <SUBJECT>Minimum appraisal standards.</SUBJECT>
          <SECTNO>323.5</SECTNO>
          <SUBJECT>Appraiser independence.</SUBJECT>
          <SECTNO>323.6</SECTNO>
          <SUBJECT>Professional association membership; competency.</SUBJECT>
          <SECTNO>323.7</SECTNO>
          <SUBJECT>Enforcement.</SUBJECT>
        </CONTENTS>
        <AUTH>
          <HD SOURCE="HED">Authority: </HD>
          <P>12 U.S.C. 1818, 1819 [“Seventh” and “Tenth”], and 3331-3352.</P>
        </AUTH>
        <SOURCE>
          <HD SOURCE="HED">Source: </HD>
          <P>55 FR 33888, Aug. 20, 1990, unless otherwise noted.</P>
        </SOURCE>
        <SECTION>
          <SECTNO>§ 323.1</SECTNO>
          <SUBJECT>Authority, purpose, and scope.</SUBJECT>
          <P>(a) <E T="03">Authority.</E> This part is issued under 12 U.S.C. 1818, 1819 [“Seventh” and “Tenth”] and title XI of the Financial Institutions Reform, Recovery, and Enforcement Act of 1989 (“FIRREA”) (Pub. L. 101-73, 103 Stat. 183, 12 U.S.C. 3331 <E T="03">et seq</E>. (1989)).</P>
          <P>(b) <E T="03">Purpose and scope</E>. (1) Title XI provides protection for federal financial and public policy interests in real estate related transactions by requiring real estate appraisals used in connection with federally related transactions to be performed in writing, in accordance with uniform standards, by appraisers whose competency has been demonstrated and whose professional conduct will be subject to effective supervision. This part implements the requirements of title XI and applies to all federally related transactions entered into by the FDIC or by institutions regulated by the FDIC (<E T="03">regulated institutions</E>).</P>
          <P>(2) This part: (i) Identifies which real estate-related financial transactions require the services of an appraiser;</P>
          <P>(ii) Prescribes which categories of federally related transactions shall be appraised by a State certified appraiser and which by a State licensed appraiser; and</P>
          <P>(iii) Prescribes minimum standards for the performance of real estate appraisals in connection with federally related transactions under the jurisdiction of the FDIC.</P>
        </SECTION>
        <SECTION>
          <SECTNO>§ 323.2</SECTNO>
          <SUBJECT>Definitions.</SUBJECT>
          <P>(a) <E T="03">Appraisal</E> means a written statement independently and impartially prepared by a qualified appraiser setting forth an opinion as to the market value of an adequately described property as of a specific date(s), supported by the presentation and analysis of relevant market information.</P>
          <P>(b) <E T="03">Appraisal Foundation</E> means the Appraisal Foundation established on November 30, 1987, as a not-for-profit corporation under the laws of Illinois.</P>
          <P>(c) <E T="03">Appraisal Subcommittee</E> means the Appraisal Subcommittee of the Federal Financial Institutions Examination Council.</P>
          <P>(d) <E T="03">Business loan</E> means a loan or extension of credit to any corporation, general or limited partnership, business trust, joint venture, pool, syndicate, sole proprietorship, or other business entity.</P>
          <P>(e) <E T="03">Complex 1-to-4 family residential property appraisal</E> means one in which the property to be appraised, the form of ownership, or market conditions are atypical.</P>
          <P>(f) <E T="03">Federally related transaction</E> means any real estate-related financial transactions entered into after the effective date hereof that:</P>
          <P>(1) The FDIC or any regulated institution engages in or contracts for; and</P>
          <P>(2) Requires the services of an appraiser.</P>
          <P>(g) <E T="03">Market value</E> means the most probable price which a property should bring in a competitive and open market under all conditions requisite to a fair sale, the buyer and seller each acting prudently and knowledgeably, and assuming the price is not affected by undue stimulus. Implicit in this definition is the consummation of a sale as of a specified date and the passing of title from seller to buyer under conditions whereby:</P>
          <P>(1) Buyer and seller are typically motivated;<PRTPAGE P="165"/>
          </P>
          <P>(2) Both parties are well informed or well advised, and acting in what they consider their own best interests;</P>
          <P>(3) A reasonable time is allowed for exposure in the open market;</P>
          <P>(4) Payment is made in terms of cash in U.S. dollars or in terms of financial arrangements comparable thereto; and</P>
          <P>(5) The price represents the normal consideration for the property sold unaffected by special or creative financing or sales concessions granted by anyone associated with the sale.</P>
          <P>(h) <E T="03">Real estate</E> or <E T="03">real property</E> means an identified parcel or tract of land, with improvements, and includes easements, rights of way, undivided or future interests and similar rights in a tract of land, but does not include mineral rights, timber rights, growing crops, water rights and similar interests severable from the land when the transaction does not involve the associated parcel or tract of land.</P>
          <P>(i) <E T="03">Real estate-related financial transaction</E> means any transaction involving:</P>
          <P>(1) The sale, lease, purchase, investment in or exchange of real property, including interests in property, or the financing thereof; or</P>
          <P>(2) The refinancing of real property or interests in real property; or</P>
          <P>(3) The use of real property or interests in property as security for a loan or investment, including mortgage-backed securities.</P>
          <P>(j) <E T="03">State certified appraiser</E> means any individual who has satisfied the requirements for certification in a State or territory whose criteria for certification as a real estate appraiser currently meet the minimum criteria for certification issued by the Appraiser Qualifications Board of the Appraisal Foundation. No individual shall be a State certified appraiser unless such individual has achieved a passing grade upon a suitable examination administered by a State or territory that is consistent with and equivalent to the Uniform State Certification Examination issued or endorsed by the Appraiser Qualifications Board. In addition, the Appraisal Subcommittee must not have issued a finding that the policies, practices, or procedures of a State or territory are inconsistent with title XI of FIRREA. The FDIC may, from time to time, impose additional qualification criteria for certified appraisers performing appraisals in connection with federally related transactions within its jurisdiction.</P>
          <P>(k) <E T="03">State licensed appraiser</E> means any individual who has satisfied the requirements for licensing in a State or territory where the licensing procedures comply with title XI of FIRREA and where the Appraisal Subcommittee has not issued a finding that the policies, practices, or procedures of the State or territory are inconsistent with title XI. The FDIC may, from time to time, impose additional qualification criteria for licensed appraisers performing appraisals in connection with federally related transactions within its jurisdiction.</P>
          <P>(l) <E T="03">Tract development</E> means a project of five units or more that is constructed or is to be constructed as a single development.</P>
          <P>(m) <E T="03">Transaction value</E> means: (1) For loans or other extensions of credit, the amount of the loan or extension of credit;</P>
          <P>(2) For sales, leases, purchases, and investments in or exchanges of real property, the market value of the real property interest involved; and</P>
          <P>(3) For the pooling of loans or interests in real property for resale or purchase, the amount of the loan or market value of the real property calculated with respect to each such loan or interest in real property.</P>
          <CITA>[55 FR 33888, Aug. 20, 1990, as amended at 57 FR 9049, Mar. 16, 1992; 59 FR 29501, June 7, 1994]</CITA>
        </SECTION>
        <SECTION>
          <SECTNO>§ 323.3</SECTNO>
          <SUBJECT>Appraisals required; transactions requiring a State certified or licensed appraiser.</SUBJECT>
          <P>(a) <E T="03">Appraisals required.</E> An appraisal performed by a State certified or licensed appraiser is required for all real estate-related financial transactions except those in which:</P>
          <P>(1) The transaction value is $250,000 or less;</P>
          <P>(2) A lien on real estate has been taken as collateral in an abundance of caution;</P>
          <P>(3) The transaction is not secured by real estate;<PRTPAGE P="166"/>
          </P>
          <P>(4) A lien on real estate has been taken for purposes other than the real estate's value;</P>
          <P>(5) The transaction is a business loan that:</P>
          <P>(i) Has a transaction value of $1 million or less; and</P>
          <P>(ii) Is not dependent on the sale of, or rental income derived from, real estate as the primary source of repayment;</P>
          <P>(6) A lease of real estate is entered into, unless the lease is the economic equivalent of a purchase or sale of the leased real estate;</P>
          <P>(7) The transaction involves an existing extension of credit at the lending institution, provided that:</P>
          <P>(i) There has been no obvious and material change in market conditions or physical aspects of the property that threatens the adequacy of the institution's real estate collateral protection after the transaction, even with the advancement of new monies; or</P>
          <P>(ii) There is no advancement of new monies, other than funds necessary to cover reasonable closing costs;</P>
          <P>(8) The transaction involves the purchase, sale, investment in, exchange of, or extension of credit secured by, a loan or interest in a loan, pooled loans, or interests in real property, including mortgaged-backed securities, and each loan or interest in a loan, pooled loan, or real property interest met FDIC regulatory requirements for appraisals at the time of origination;</P>
          <P>(9) The transaction is wholly or partially insured or guaranteed by a United States government agency or United States government sponsored agency;</P>
          <P>(10) The transaction either:</P>
          <P>(i) Qualifies for sale to a United States government agency or United States government sponsored agency; or</P>
          <P>(ii) Involves a residential real estate transaction in which the appraisal conforms to the Federal National Mortgage Association or Federal Home Loan Mortgage Corporation appraisal standards applicable to that category of real estate;</P>
          <P>(11) The regulated institution is acting in a fiduciary capacity and is not required to obtain an appraisal under other law; or</P>
          <P>(12) The FDIC determines that the services of an appraiser are not necessary in order to protect Federal financial and public policy interests in real estate-related financial transactions or to protect the safety and soundness of the institution.</P>
          <P>(b) <E T="03">Evaluations required.</E> For a transaction that does not require the services of a State certified or licensed appraiser under paragraph (a)(1), (a)(5) or (a)(7) of this section, the institution shall obtain an appropriate evaluation of real property collateral that is consistent with safe and sound banking practices.</P>
          <P>(c) <E T="03">Appraisals to address safety and soundness concerns.</E> The FDIC reserves the right to require an appraisal under this part whenever the agency believes it is necessary to address safety and soundness concerns.</P>
          <P>(d) <E T="03">Transactions requiring a State certified appraiser—</E>(1) <E T="03">All transactions of $1,000,000 or more.</E> All federally related transactions having a transaction value of $1,000,000 or more shall require an appraisal prepared by a State certified appraiser.</P>
          <P>(2) <E T="03">Nonresidential transactions of $250,000 or more.</E> All federally related transactions having a transaction value of $250,000 or more, other than those involving appraisals of 1-to-4 family residential properties, shall require an appraisal prepared by a State certified appraiser.</P>
          <P>(3) <E T="03">Complex residential transactions of $250,000 or more.</E> All complex 1-to-4 family residential property appraisals rendered in connection with federally related transactions shall require a State certified appraiser if the transaction value is $250,000 or more. A regulated institution may presume that appraisals of 1-to-4 family residential properties are not complex, unless the institution has readily available information that a given appraisal will be complex. The regulated institution shall be responsible for making the final determination of whether the appraisal is complex. If during the course of the appraisal a licensed appraiser identifies factors that would result in the property, form of ownership, or market conditions being considered atypical, then either:<PRTPAGE P="167"/>
          </P>
          <P>(i) The regulated institution may ask the licensed appraiser to complete the appraisal and have a certified appraiser approve and co-sign the appraisal; or</P>
          <P>(ii) The institution may engage a certified appraiser to complete the appraisal.</P>
          <P>(e) <E T="03">Transactions requiring either a State certified or licensed appraiser.</E> All appraisals for federally related transactions not requiring the services of a State certified appraiser shall be prepared by either a State certified appraiser or a State licensed appraiser.</P>
          <P>(f) <E T="03">Effective date.</E> Regulated institutions are required to use state certified or licensed appraisers as set forth in this section no later than December 31, 1992, unless otherwise required by law.</P>
          <CITA>[55 FR 33888, Aug. 20, 1990, as amended at 57 FR 9050, Mar. 16, 1992; 59 FR 29501, June 7, 1994]</CITA>
        </SECTION>
        <SECTION>
          <SECTNO>§ 323.4</SECTNO>
          <SUBJECT>Minimum appraisal standards.</SUBJECT>
          <P>For federally related transactions, all appraisals shall, at a minimum:</P>
          <P>(a) Conform to generally accepted appraisal standards as evidenced by the Uniform Standards of Professional Appraisal Practice (USPAP) promulgated by the Appraisal Standards Board of the Appraisal Foundation, 1029 Vermont Ave., NW., Washington, DC 20005, unless principles of safe and sound banking require compliance with stricter standards;</P>
          <P>(b) Be written and contain sufficient information and analysis to support the institution's decision to engage in the transaction;</P>
          <P>(c) Analyze and report appropriate deductions and discounts for proposed construction or renovation, partially leased buildings, non-market lease terms, and tract developments with unsold units;</P>
          <P>(d) Be based upon the definition of market value as set forth in this part; and</P>
          <P>(e) Be performed by State licensed or certified appraisers in accordance with requirements set forth in this part.</P>
          <CITA>[59 FR 29502, June 7, 1994]</CITA>
        </SECTION>
        <SECTION>
          <SECTNO>§ 323.5</SECTNO>
          <SUBJECT>Appraiser independence.</SUBJECT>
          <P>(a) <E T="03">Staff appraisers.</E> If an appraisal is prepared by a staff appraiser, that appraiser must be independent of the lending, investment, and collection functions and not involved, except as an appraiser, in the federally related transaction, and have no direct or indirect interest, financial or otherwise, in the property. If the only qualified persons available to perform an appraisal are involved in the lending, investment, or collection functions of the regulated institution, the regulated institution shall take appropriate steps to ensure that the appraisers exercise independent judgment and that the appraisal is adequate. Such steps include, but are not limited to, prohibiting an individual from performing appraisals in connection with federally related transactions in which the appraiser is otherwise involved and prohibiting directors and officers from participating in any vote or approval involving assets on which they performed an appraisal.</P>
          <P>(b) <E T="03">Fee appraisers.</E> (1) If an appraisal is prepared by a fee appraiser, the appraiser shall be engaged directly by the regulated institution or its agent, and have no direct or indirect interest, financial or otherwise, in the property or the transaction.</P>
          <P>(2) A regulated institution also may accept an appraisal that was prepared by an appraiser engaged directly by another financial services institution, if:</P>
          <P>(i) The appraiser has no direct or indirect interest, financial or otherwise, in the property or the transaction; and</P>
          <P>(ii) The regulated institution determines that the appraisal conforms to the requirements of this part and is otherwise acceptable.</P>
          <CITA>[55 FR 33888, Aug. 20, 1990, as amended by 59 FR 29502, June 7, 1994]</CITA>
        </SECTION>
        <SECTION>
          <SECTNO>§ 323.6</SECTNO>
          <SUBJECT>Professional association membership; competency.</SUBJECT>
          <P>(a) <E T="03">Membership in appraisal organizations.</E> A State certified appraiser or a State licensed appraiser may not be excluded from consideration for an assignment for a federally related transaction solely by virtue of membership or lack of membership in any particular appraisal organization.</P>
          <P>(b) <E T="03">Competency.</E> All staff and fee appraisers performing appraisals in connection with federally related transactions must be State certified or licensed, as appropriate. However, a <PRTPAGE P="168"/>State certified or licensed appraiser may not be considered competent solely by virtue of being certified or licensed. Any determination of competency shall be based upon the individual's experience and educational background as they relate to the particular appraisal assignment for which he or she is being considered.</P>
        </SECTION>
        <SECTION>
          <SECTNO>§ 323.7</SECTNO>
          <SUBJECT>Enforcement.</SUBJECT>

          <P>Institutions and institution-affiliated parties, including staff appraisers and fee appraisers, may be subject to removal and/or prohibition orders, cease and desist orders, and the imposition of civil money penalties pursuant to the Federal Deposit Insurance Act, 12 U.S.C. 1811 <E T="03">et seq.</E>, as amended, or other applicable law.</P>
        </SECTION>
      </PART>
      <PART>
        <RESERVED>PART 324[RESERVED]</RESERVED>
      </PART>
      <PART>
        <EAR>Pt. 325</EAR>
        <HD SOURCE="HED">PART 325—CAPITAL MAINTENANCE</HD>
        <CONTENTS>
          <SUBPART>
            <HD SOURCE="HED">Subpart A—Minimum Capital Requirements</HD>
            <SECHD>Sec.</SECHD>
            <SECTNO>325.1</SECTNO>
            <SUBJECT>Scope.</SUBJECT>
            <SECTNO>325.2</SECTNO>
            <SUBJECT>Definitions.</SUBJECT>
            <SECTNO>325.3</SECTNO>
            <SUBJECT>Minimum leverage capital requirement.</SUBJECT>
            <SECTNO>325.4</SECTNO>
            <SUBJECT>Inadequate capital as an unsafe or unsound practice or condition.</SUBJECT>
            <SECTNO>325.5</SECTNO>
            <SUBJECT>Miscellaneous.</SUBJECT>
            <SECTNO>325.6</SECTNO>
            <SUBJECT>Issuance of directives.</SUBJECT>
          </SUBPART>
          <SUBPART>
            <HD SOURCE="HED">Subpart B—Prompt Corrective Action</HD>
            <SECTNO>325.101</SECTNO>
            <SUBJECT>Authority, purpose, scope, other supervisory authority, and disclosure of capital categories.</SUBJECT>
            <SECTNO>325.102</SECTNO>
            <SUBJECT>Notice of capital category.</SUBJECT>
            <SECTNO>325.103</SECTNO>
            <SUBJECT>Capital measures and capital category definitions.</SUBJECT>
            <SECTNO>325.104</SECTNO>
            <SUBJECT>Capital restoration plans.</SUBJECT>
            <SECTNO>325.105</SECTNO>
            <SUBJECT>Mandatory and discretionary supervisory actions under section 38.</SUBJECT>
            <APP>Appendix A to Part 325—Statement of Policy on Risk-Based Capital</APP>
            <APP>Appendix B to Part 325—Statement of Policy on Capital Adequacy</APP>
            <APP>Appendix C to Part 325—Risk-Based Capital for State Non-Member Banks: Market Risk</APP>
          </SUBPART>
        </CONTENTS>
        <AUTH>
          <HD SOURCE="HED">Authority: </HD>
          <P>12 U.S.C. 1815(a), 1815(b), 1816, 1818(a), 1818(b), 1818(c), 1818(t), 1819(Tenth), 1828(c), 1828(d), 1828(i), 1828(n), 1828(o), 1831o, 1835, 3907, 3909, 4808; Pub. L. 102-233, 105 Stat. 1761, 1789, 1790 (12 U.S.C. 1831n note); Pub. L. 102-242, 105 Stat. 2236, 2355, as amended by Pub. L. 103-325, 108 Stat. 2160, 2233 (12 U.S.C. 1828 note); Pub. L. 102-242, 105 Stat. 2236, 2386, as amended by Pub. L. 102-550, 106 Stat. 3672, 4089 (12 U.S.C. 1828 note).</P>
        </AUTH>
        <SUBPART>
          <HD SOURCE="HED">Subpart A—Minimum Capital Requirements</HD>
          <SECTION>
            <SECTNO>§ 325.1</SECTNO>
            <SUBJECT>Scope.</SUBJECT>
            <P>The provisions of this subpart A apply to those circumstances for which the Federal Deposit Insurance Act or this chapter requires an evaluation of the adequacy of an insured depository institution's capital structure. The FDIC is required to evaluate capital before approving various applications by insured depository institutions. The FDIC also must evaluate capital, as an essential component, in determining the safety and soundness of state nonmember banks it insures and supervises and in determining whether depository institutions are in an unsafe or unsound condition. This subpart A establishes the criteria and standards the FDIC will use in calculating the minimum leverage capital requirement and in determining capital adequacy. In addition, appendix A to this subpart sets forth the FDIC's risk-based capital policy statement and appendix B to this subpart includes a statement of policy on capital adequacy that provides interpretational guidance as to how this subpart will be administered and enforced. In accordance with subpart B of part 325, the FDIC also must evaluate an institution's capital for purposes of determining whether the institution is subject to the prompt corrective action provisions set forth in section 38 of the Federal Deposit Insurance Act (12 U.S.C. 1831o).</P>
            <CITA>[58 FR 8219, Feb. 12, 1993]</CITA>
          </SECTION>
          <SECTION>
            <SECTNO>§ 325.2</SECTNO>
            <SUBJECT>Definitions.</SUBJECT>
            <P>(a) <E T="03">Allowance for loan and lease losses</E> means those general valuation allowances that have been established through charges against earnings to absorb losses on loans and lease financing receivables. Allowances for loan and lease losses exclude allocated transfer risk reserves established pursuant to 12 U.S.C. 3904 and specific reserves created against identified losses.</P>
            <P>(b) <E T="03">Assets classified loss</E> means:</P>

            <P>(1) When measured as of the date of examination of an insured depository <PRTPAGE P="169"/>institution, those assets that have been determined by an evaluation made by a state or federal examiner as of that date to be a loss; and</P>
            <P>(2) When measured as of any other date, those assets:</P>
            <P>(i) That have been determined—</P>
            <P>(A) By an evaluation made by a state or federal examiner at the most recent examination of an insured depository institution to be a loss; or</P>
            <P>(B) By evaluations made by the insured depository institution since its most recent examination to be a loss; and</P>
            <P>(ii) That have not been charged off from the insured depository institution's books or collected.</P>
            <P>(c) <E T="03">Bank</E> means an FDIC-insured, state-chartered commercial or savings bank that is not a member of the Federal Reserve System and for which the FDIC is the appropriate federal banking agency pursuant to section 3(q) of the FDI Act (12 U.S.C. 1813(q)).</P>
            <P>(d) <E T="03">Common stockholders’ equity</E> means the sum of common stock and related surplus, undivided profits, disclosed capital reserves that represent a segregation of undivided profits, and foreign currency translation adjustments, less net unrealized holding losses on available-for-sale equity securities with readily determinable fair values.</P>
            <P>(e)(1) <E T="03">Control</E> has the same meaning assigned to it in section 2 of the Bank Holding Company Act (12 U.S.C. 1841), and the term <E T="03">controlled</E> shall be construed consistently with the term <E T="03">control</E>.</P>
            <P>(2) <E T="03">Exclusion for fiduciary ownership.</E> No insured depository institution or company controls another insured depository institution or company by virtue of its ownership or control of shares in a fiduciary capacity. Shares shall not be deemed to have been acquired in a fiduciary capacity if the acquiring insured depository institution or company has sole discretionary authority to exercise voting rights with respect thereto.</P>
            <P>(3) <E T="03">Exclusion for debts previously contracted.</E> No insured depository institution or company controls another insured depository institution or company by virtue of its ownership or control of shares acquired in securing or collecting a debt previously contracted in good faith, until two years after the date of acquisition. The two-year period may be extended at the discretion of the appropriate federal banking agency for up to three one-year periods.</P>
            <P>(f) <E T="03">Controlling person</E> means any person having control of an insured depository institution and any company controlled by that person.</P>
            <P>(g)(1) <E T="03">Highly leveraged transaction</E> means an extension of credit to or investment in a business by an insured depository institution where the financing transaction involves a buyout, acquisition, or recapitalization of an existing business and one of the following criteria is met:</P>
            <P>(i) The transaction results in a liabilities-to-assets leverage ratio higher than 75 percent; or</P>
            <P>(ii) The transaction at least doubles the subject company's liabilities and results in a liabilities-to-assets leverage ratio higher than 50 percent; or</P>
            <P>(iii) The transaction is designated an HLT by a syndication agent or a federal bank regulator.</P>
            <P>(2) Notwithstanding paragraph (g)(1) of this section, loans and exposures to any obligor in which the total financing package, including all obligations held by all participants is $20 million or more, or such lower level as the FDIC may establish by order on a case-by-case basis, will be excluded from this definition.</P>
            <P>(h) <E T="03">Identified losses</E> means:</P>
            <P>(1) When measured as of the date of examination of an insured depository institution, those items that have been determined by an evaluation made by a state or federal examiner as of that date to be chargeable against income, capital and/or general valuation allowances such as the allowance for loan and lease losses (examples of identified losses would be assets classified loss, off-balance sheet items classified loss, any provision expenses that are necessary for the institution to record in order to replenish its general valuation allowances to an adequate level, liabilities not shown on the institution's books, estimated losses in contingent liabilities, and differences in accounts which represent shortages); and</P>

            <P>(2) When measured as of any other date, those items:<PRTPAGE P="170"/>
            </P>
            <P>(i) That have been determined—</P>
            <P>(A) By an evaluation made by a state or federal examiner at the most recent examination of an insured depository institution to be chargeable against income, capital and/or general valuation allowances; or</P>
            <P>(B) By evaluations made by the insured depository institution since its most recent examination to be chargeable against income, capital and/or general valuation allowances; and</P>
            <P>(ii) For which the appropriate accounting entries to recognize the loss have not yet been made on the insured depository institution's books nor has the item been collected or otherwise settled.</P>
            <P>(i) <E T="03">Insured depository institution</E> means any depository institution (except for a foreign bank having an insured branch) the deposits of which are insured in accordance with the provisions of the Federal Deposit Insurance Act (12 U.S.C. 1811 <E T="03">et seq.</E>)</P>
            <P>(j) <E T="03">Intangible assets</E> means those assets that are required to be reported as intangible assets in a banking institution's “Reports of Condition and Income” (Call Report) or in a savings association's “Thrift Financial Report.”</P>
            <P>(k) <E T="03">Leverage ratio</E> means the ratio of Tier 1 capital to total assets, as calculated under this part.</P>
            <P>(l) <E T="03">Management fee</E> means any payment of money or provision of any other thing of value to a company or individual for the provision of management services or advice to the bank or related overhead expenses, including payments related to supervisory, executive, managerial, or policymaking functions, other than compensation to an individual in the individual's capacity as an officer or employee of the bank.</P>
            <P>(m) <E T="03">Minority interests in consolidated subsidiaries</E> means minority interests in equity capital accounts of those subsidiaries that have been consolidated for the purpose of computing regulatory capital under this part, except that minority interests which fail to provide meaningful capital support are excluded from this definition.</P>
            <P>(n) <E T="03">Mortgage servicing assets</E> means those assets (net of any related valuation allowances) that result from contracts to service loans secured by real estate (that have been securitized or are owned by others) for which the benefits of servicing are expected to more than adequately compensate the servicer for performing the servicing. For purposes of determining regulatory capital under this part, mortgage servicing assets will be recognized only to the extent that the assets meet the conditions, limitations, and restrictions described in § 325.5 (f).</P>
            <P>(o) <E T="03">Noncumulative perpetual preferred stock</E> means perpetual preferred stock (and related surplus) where the issuer has the option to waive payment of dividends and where the dividends so waived do not accumulate to future periods nor do they represent a contingent claim on the issuer. Preferred stock issues where the dividend is reset periodically based, in whole or in part, upon the bank's current credit standing, including but not limited to, auction rate, money market and remarketable preferred stock, are excluded from this definition of noncumulative perpetual preferred stock, regardless of whether the dividends are cumulative or noncumulative.</P>
            <P>(p) <E T="03">Perpetual preferred stock</E> means a preferred stock that does not have a maturity date, that cannot be redeemed at the option of the holder, and that has no other provisions that will require future redemption of the issue. It includes those issues of preferred stock that automatically convert into common stock at a stated date. It excludes those issues, the rate on which increases, or can increase, in such a manner that would effectively require the issuer to redeem the issue.</P>
            <P>(q) <E T="03">Risk-weighted assets</E> means total risk-weighted assets, as calculated in accordance with the FDIC's Statement of Policy on Risk-Based Capital (appendix A to part 325).</P>
            <P>(r) <E T="03">Savings association</E> means any federally-chartered savings association, any state-chartered savings association, and any corporation (other than a bank) that the Board of Directors of the FDIC and the Director of the Office of Thrift Supervision jointly determine to be operating in substantially the same manner as a savings association.</P>
            <P>(s) <E T="03">Tangible equity</E> means the amount of core capital elements as defined in Section I.A.1. of the FDIC's Statement <PRTPAGE P="171"/>of Policy on Risk-Based Capital (appendix A to this Part 325), plus the amount of outstanding cumulative perpetual preferred stock (including related surplus), minus all intangible assets except mortgage servicing assets to the extent that the FDIC determines pursuant to § 325.5(f) of this part that mortgage servicing assets may be included in calculating the bank's Tier 1 capital.</P>
            <P>(t) <E T="03">Tier 1 capital</E> or <E T="03">core capital</E> means the sum of common stockholders’ equity, noncumulative perpetual preferred stock (including any related surplus), and minority interests in consolidated subsidiaries, minus all intangible assets (other than mortgage servicing assets, nonmortgage servicing assets, and purchased credit card relationships eligible for inclusion in core capital pursuant to § 325.5(f) and qualifying supervisory goodwill eligible for inclusion in core capital pursuant to 12 CFR part 567), minus deferred tax assets in excess of the limit set forth in § 325.5(g), minus identified losses, (to the extent that Tier 1 capital would have been reduced if the appropriate accounting entries to reflect the identified losses had been recorded on the insured depository institution's books) and minus investments in securities subsidiaries subject to 12 CFR 337.4.</P>
            <P>(u) <E T="03">Tier 1 risk-based capital ratio</E> means the ratio of Tier 1 capital to risk-weighted assets, as calculated in accordance with the FDIC's Statement of Policy on Risk-Based Capital (appendix A to part 325).</P>
            <P>(v) <E T="03">Total assets</E> means the average of total assets required to be included in a banking institution's “Reports of Condition and Income” (Call Report) or, for savings associations, the consolidated total assets required to be included in the “Thrift Financial Report,” as these reports may from time to time be revised, as of the most recent report date (and after making any necessary subsidiary adjustments for state nonmember banks as described in §§ 325.5(c) and 325.5(d) of this part), minus intangible assets (other than mortgage servicing assets, nonmortgage servicing assets, and purchased credit card relationships eligible for inclusion in core capital pursuant to § 325.5(f) and qualifying supervisory goodwill eligible for inclusion in core capital pursuant to 12 CFR part 567), minus deferred tax assets in excess of the limit set forth in 325.5(g), and minus assets classified loss and any other assets that are deducted in determining Tier 1 capital. For banking institutions, the average of total assets is found in the Call Report schedule of quarterly averages. For savings associations, the consolidated total assets figure is found in Schedule CSC of the Thrift Financial Report.</P>
            <P>(w) <E T="03">Total risk-based capital ratio</E> means the ratio of qualifying total capital to risk-weighted assets, as calculated in accordance with the FDIC's Statement of Policy on Risk-Based Capital (appendix A to part 325).</P>
            <P>(x) <E T="03">Written agreement</E> means an agreement in writing executed by authorized representatives entered into with the FDIC by an insured depository institution which is enforceable by an action under section 8(a) and/or section 8(b) of the Federal Deposit Insurance Act (12 U.S.C. 1818 (a), (b)).</P>
            <CITA>[56 FR 10160, Mar. 11, 1991, as amended at 57 FR 44899, Sept. 29, 1992; 58 FR 6368, 6369, Jan. 28, 1993; 58 FR 8219, Feb. 12, 1993; 58 FR 60103, Nov. 15, 1993; 59 FR 66666, Dec. 28, 1994; 60 FR 8187, Feb. 13, 1995; 60 FR 39232, Aug. 1, 1995; 63 FR 42677, Aug. 10, 1998]</CITA>
          </SECTION>
          <SECTION>
            <SECTNO>§ 325.3</SECTNO>
            <SUBJECT>Minimum leverage capital requirement.</SUBJECT>
            <P>(a) <E T="03">General.</E> Banks must maintain at least the minimum leverage capital requirement set forth in this section. The capital standards in this part are the minimum acceptable for banks whose overall financial condition is fundamentally sound, which are well-managed and which have no material or significant financial weaknesses. Thus, the FDIC is not precluded from requiring an institution to maintain a higher capital level based on the institution's particular risk profile. Where the FDIC determines that the financial history or condition, managerial resources and/or the future earnings prospects of a bank are not adequate, or where a bank has sizable off-balance sheet or funding risks, significant risks from concentrations of credit or nontraditional activities, excessive interest rate risk exposure, or a significant volume of assets classified substandard, doubtful or loss <PRTPAGE P="172"/>or otherwise criticized, the FDIC will take these other factors into account in analyzing the bank's capital adequacy and may determine that the minimum amount of capital for that bank is greater than the minimum standards stated in this section. These same criteria will apply to any insured depository institution making an application to the FDIC that requires the FDIC to consider the adequacy of the institution's capital structure.</P>
            <P>(b) <E T="03">Minimum leverage capital requirement</E>. (1) The minimum leverage capital requirement for a bank (or an insured depository institution making application to the FDIC) shall consist of a ratio of Tier 1 capital to total assets of not less than 3 percent if the FDIC determines that the institution is not anticipating or experiencing significant growth and has well-diversified risk, including no undue interest rate risk exposure, excellent asset quality, high liquidity, good earnings and in general is considered a strong banking organization, rated composite 1 under the Uniform Financial Institutions Rating System (the CAMEL rating system) established by the Federal Financial Institutions Examination Council.</P>
            <P>(2) For all but the most highly-rated institutions meeting the conditions set forth in paragraph (b)(1) of this section, the minimum leverage capital requirement for a bank (or for an insured depository institution making an application to the FDIC) shall consist of a ratio of Tier 1 capital to total assets of not less than 4 percent.</P>
            <P>(c) <E T="03">Insured depository institutions with less than the minimum leverage capital requirement</E>. (1) A bank (or an insured depository institution making an application to the FDIC) operating with less than the minimum leverage capital requirement does not have adequate capital and therefore has inadequate financial resources.</P>
            <P>(2) Any insured depository institution operating with an inadequate capital structure, and therefore inadequate financial resources, will not receive approval for an application requiring the FDIC to consider the adequacy of its capital structure or its financial resources.</P>
            <P>(3) As required under § 325.104(a)(1) of this part, a bank must file a written capital restoration plan with the appropriate FDIC regional director within 45 days of the date that the bank receives notice or is deemed to have notice that the bank is undercapitalized, significantly undercapitalized or critically undercapitalized, unless the FDIC notifies the bank in writing that the plan is to be filed within a different period.</P>
            <P>(4) In any merger, acquisition or other type of business combination where the FDIC must give its approval, where it is required to consider the adequacy of the financial resources of the existing and proposed institutions, and where the resulting entity is either insured by the FDIC or not otherwise federally insured, approval will not be granted when the resulting entity does not meet the minimum leverage capital requirement.</P>
            <P>(d) <E T="03">Exceptions</E>. Notwithstanding the provisions of paragraphs (a), (b) and (c) of this section:</P>
            <P>(1) The FDIC, in its discretion, may approve an application pursuant to the Federal Deposit Insurance Act where it is required to consider the adequacy of capital if it finds that such approval must be taken to prevent the closing of a depository institution or to facilitate the acquisition of a closed depository institution, or, when severe financial conditions exist which threaten the stability of an insured depository institution or of a significant number of depository institutions insured by the FDIC or of insured depository institutions possessing significant financial resources, such action is taken to lessen the risk to the FDIC posed by an insured depository institution under such threat of instability.</P>

            <P>(2) The FDIC, in its discretion, may approve an application pursuant to the Federal Deposit Insurance Act where it is required to consider the adequacy of capital or the financial resources of the insured depository institution where it finds that the applicant has committed <PRTPAGE P="173"/>to and is in compliance with a reasonable plan to meet its minimum leverage capital requirements within a reasonable period of time.</P>
            <APPRO>(Approved by the Office of Management and Budget under control number 3064-0075 for use through December 31, 1993)</APPRO>
            <CITA>[56 FR 10162, Mar. 11, 1991, as amended at 58 FR 8219, Feb. 12, 1993; 59 FR 64564, Dec. 15, 1994; 60 FR 45609, Aug. 31, 1995; 62 FR 55493, Oct. 24, 1997; 64 FR 10200, Mar. 2, 1999]</CITA>
          </SECTION>
          <SECTION>
            <SECTNO>§ 325.4</SECTNO>
            <SUBJECT>Inadequate capital as an unsafe or unsound practice or condition.</SUBJECT>
            <P>(a) <E T="03">General</E>. As a condition of federal deposit insurance, all insured depository institutions must remain in a safe and sound condition.</P>
            <P>(b) <E T="03">Unsafe or unsound practice</E>. Any bank which has less than its minimum leverage capital requirement is deemed to be engaged in an unsafe or unsound practice pursuant to section 8(b)(1) and/or 8(c) of the Federal Deposit Insurance Act (12 U.S.C. 1818(b)(1) and/or 1818(c)). Except that such a bank which has entered into and is in compliance with a written agreement with the FDIC or has submitted to the FDIC and is in compliance with a plan approved by the FDIC to increase its Tier 1 leverage capital ratio to such level as the FDIC deems appropriate and to take such other action as may be necessary for the bank to be operated so as not to be engaged in such an unsafe or unsound practice will not be deemed to be engaged in an unsafe or unsound practice pursuant to section 8(b)(1) and/or 8(c) of the Federal Deposit Insurance Act (12 U.S.C. 1818(b)(1) and/or 1818(c)) on account of its capital ratios. The FDIC is not precluded from taking section 8(b)(1), section 8(c) or any other enforcement action against a bank with capital above the minimum requirement if the specific circumstances deem such action to be appropriate. Under the conditions set forth in section 8(t) of the Federal Deposit Insurance Act (12 U.S.C. 1818(t)), the FDIC also may take section 8(b)(1) and/or 8(c) enforcement action against any savings association that is deemed to be engaged in an unsafe or unsound practice on account of its inadequate capital structure.</P>
            <P>(c) <E T="03">Unsafe or unsound condition</E>. Any insured depository institution with a ratio of Tier 1 capital to total assets that is less than two percent is deemed to be operating in an unsafe or unsound condition pursuant to section 8(a) of the Federal Deposit Insurance Act (12 U.S.C. 1818(a)).</P>
            <P>(1) A bank with a ratio of Tier 1 capital to total assets of less than two percent which has entered into and is in compliance with a written agreement with the FDIC (or any other insured depository institution with a ratio of Tier 1 capital to total assets of less than two percent which has entered into and is in compliance with a written agreement with its primary federal regulator and to which agreement the FDIC is a party) to increase its Tier 1 leverage capital ratio to such level as the FDIC deems appropriate and to take such other action as may be necessary for the insured depository institution to be operated in a safe and sound manner, will not be subject to a proceeding by the FDIC pursuant to 12 U.S.C. 1818(a) on account of its capital ratios.</P>
            <P>(2) An insured depository institution with a ratio of Tier 1 capital to total assets that is equal to or greater than two percent may be operating in an unsafe or unsound condition. The FDIC is not precluded from bringing an action pursuant to 12 U.S.C. 1818(a) where an insured depository institution has a ratio of Tier 1 capital to total assets that is equal to or greater than two percent.</P>
            <CITA>[56 FR 10162, Mar. 11, 1991]</CITA>
          </SECTION>
          <SECTION>
            <SECTNO>§ 325.5</SECTNO>
            <SUBJECT>Miscellaneous.</SUBJECT>
            <P>(a) <E T="03">Intangible assets</E>. Any intangible assets that were explicitly approved by the FDIC as part of the bank's regulatory capital on a specific case basis will be included in capital under the terms and conditions that were approved by the FDIC, provided that the intangible asset is being amortized over a period not to exceed 15 years or its estimated useful life, whichever is shorter. However, pursuant to section 18(n) of the Federal Deposit Insurance Act (12 U.S.C. 1828(n)), an unidentifiable intangible asset such as goodwill, if acquired after April 12, 1989, cannot be included in calculating regulatory capital under this part.<PRTPAGE P="174"/>
            </P>
            <P>(b) <E T="03">Reservation of authority.</E> Notwithstanding the definition of <E T="03">Tier 1 capital</E> in § 325.2(t) of this subpart and the risk-based capital definitions of Tier 1 and Tier 2 capital in appendix A to this subpart, the Director of the Division of Supervision may, if the Director finds a newly developed or modified capital instrument or a particular balance sheet entry or account to be the functional equivalent of a component of Tier 1 or Tier 2 capital, permit one or more insured depository institutions to include all or a portion of such instrument, entry, or account as Tier 1 or Tier 2 capital, permanently, or on a temporary basis, for purposes of this part. Similarly, the Director of the Division of Supervision may, if the Director finds that a particular Tier 1 or Tier 2 capital component or balance sheet entry or account has characteristics or terms that diminish its contribution to an insured depository institution's ability to absorb losses, require the deduction of all or a portion of such component, entry, or account from Tier 1 or Tier 2 capital.</P>
            <P>(c) <E T="03">Securities subsidiary.</E> For purposes of this part, any securities subsidiary subject to 12 CFR 337.4 shall not be consolidated with its bank parent and any investment therein shall be deducted from the bank parent's Tier 1 capital and total assets.</P>
            <P>(d) <E T="03">Depository institution subsidiary.</E> Any domestic depository institution subsidiary that is not consolidated in the “Reports of Condition and Income” (Call Report) of its insured parent bank shall be consolidated with the insured parent bank for purposes of this part. The financial statements of the subsidiary that are to be used for this consolidation must be prepared in the same manner as the “Reports of Condition and Income” (Call Report). A domestic depository institution subsidiary of a savings association shall be consolidated for purposes of this part if such consolidation also is required pursuant to the capital requirements of the association's primary federal regulator.</P>
            <P>(e) <E T="03">Restrictions relating to capital components.</E> To qualify as Tier 1 capital under this part or Tier 1 or Tier 2 capital under appendix A to this part, a capital instrument must not contain or be subject to any conditions, covenants, terms, restrictions, or provisions that are inconsistent with safe and sound banking practices. A condition, covenant, term, restriction, or provision is inconsistent with safe and sound banking practices if it:</P>
            <P>(1) Unduly interferes with the ability of the issuer to conduct normal banking operations;</P>
            <P>(2) Results in significantly higher dividends or interest payments in the event of deterioration in the financial condition of the issuer;</P>
            <P>(3) Impairs the ability of the issuer to comply with statutory or regulatory requirements regarding the disposition of assets or incurrence of additional debt; or</P>
            <P>(4) Limits the ability of the FDIC or a similar regulatory authority to take any necessary action to resolve a problem bank or failing bank situation.</P>
            <FP>Other conditions and covenants that are not expressly listed in paragraphs (e)(1) through (e)(4) of this section also may be inconsistent with safe and sound banking practices.</FP>
            <P>(f) <E T="03">Treatment of mortgage servicing assets, purchased credit card relationships, and nonmortgage servicing assets.</E> For purposes of determining Tier 1 capital under this part, mortgage servicing assets, purchased credit card relationships, and nonmortgage servicing assets will be deducted from assets and from common stockholders’ equity to the extent that these items do not meet the conditions, limitations, and restrictions described in this section. Banks may elect to deduct disallowed servicing assets on a basis that is net of any associated deferred tax liability. Any deferred tax liability netted in this manner cannot also be netted against deferred tax assets when determining the amount of deferred tax assets that are dependent upon future taxable income and calculating the maximum allowable amount of these assets under paragraph (g) of this section.</P>
            <P>(1) <E T="03">Valuation.</E> The fair value of mortgage servicing assets, purchased credit card relationships, and nonmortgage servicing assets shall be estimated at least quarterly. The quarterly fair value estimate shall include adjustments for any significant changes in <PRTPAGE P="175"/>the original valuation assumptions, including changes in prepayment estimates or attrition rates. The FDIC in its discretion may require independent fair value estimates on a case-by-case basis where it is deemed appropriate for safety and soundness purposes.</P>
            <P>(2) <E T="03">Fair value limitation.</E> For purposes of calculating Tier 1 capital under this part (but not for financial statement purposes), the balance sheet assets for mortgage servicing assets, purchased credit card relationships, and nonmortgage servicing assets will each be reduced to an amount equal to the lesser of:</P>
            <P>(i) 90 percent of the fair value of these assets, determined in accordance with paragraph (f)(1) of this section; or</P>
            <P>(ii) 100 percent of the remaining unamortized book value of these assets (net of any related valuation allowances), determined in accordance with the instructions for the preparation of the Consolidated Reports of Income and Condition (Call Reports).</P>
            <P>(3) <E T="03">Tier 1 capital limitation.</E> The maximum allowable amount of mortgage servicing assets, purchased credit card relationships, and nonmortgage servicing assets, in the aggregate, will be limited to the lesser of:</P>
            <P>(i) 100 percent of the amount of Tier 1 capital that exists before the deduction of any disallowed mortgage servicing assets, any disallowed purchased credit card relationships, any disallowed nonmortgage servicing assets, and any disallowed deferred tax assets; or</P>
            <P>(ii) The sum of the amounts of mortgage servicing assets, purchased credit card relationships, and nonmortgage servicing assets determined in accordance with paragraph (f)(2) of this section.</P>
            <P>(4) <E T="03">Tier 1 capital sublimit.</E> In addition to the aggregate limitation on mortgage servicing assets, purchased credit card relationships, and nonmortgage servicing assets set forth in paragraph (f)(3) of this section, a sublimit will apply to purchased credit card relationships and nonmortgage servicing assets. The maximum allowable amount of purchased credit card relationships and nonmortgage servicing assets, in the aggregate, will be limited to the lesser of:</P>
            <P>(i) Twenty-five percent of the amount of Tier 1 capital that exists before the deduction of any disallowed mortgage servicing assets, any disallowed purchased credit card relationships, any disallowed nonmortgage servicing assets, and any disallowed deferred tax assets; or</P>
            <P>(ii) The sum of the amounts of purchased credit card relationships and nonmortgage servicing assets, determined in accordance with paragraph (f)(2) of this section.</P>
            <P>(g) <E T="03">Treatment of deferred tax assets.</E> For purposes of calculating Tier 1 capital under this part (but not for financial statement purposes), deferred tax assets are subject to the conditions, limitations, and restrictions described in this section.</P>
            <P>(1) <E T="03">Deferred tax assets that are dependent upon future taxable income.</E> These assets are:</P>
            <P>(i) Deferred tax assets arising from deductible temporary differences that exceed the amount of taxes previously paid that could be recovered through loss carrybacks if existing temporary differences (both deductible and taxable and regardless of where the related deferred tax effects are reported on the balance sheet) fully reverse at the calendar quarter-end date; and</P>
            <P>(ii) Deferred tax assets arising from operating loss and tax credit carryforwards.</P>
            <P>(2) <E T="03">Tier 1 capital limitations.</E> (i) The maximum allowable amount of deferred tax assets that are dependent upon future taxable income, net of any valuation allowance for deferred tax assets, will be limited to the lesser of:</P>
            <P>(A) The amount of deferred tax assets that are dependent upon future taxable income that is expected to be realized within one year of the calendar quarter-end date, based on projected future taxable income for that year; or</P>
            <P>(B) Ten percent of the amount of Tier 1 capital that exists before the deduction of any disallowed mortgage servicing assets, any disallowed nonmortgage servicing assets, any disallowed purchased credit card relationships, and any disallowed deferred tax assets.</P>

            <P>(ii) For purposes of this limitation, all existing temporary differences should be assumed to fully reverse at <PRTPAGE P="176"/>the calendar quarter-end date. The recorded amount of deferred tax assets that are dependent upon future taxable income, net of any valuation allowance for deferred tax assets, in excess of this limitation will be deducted from assets and from equity capital for purposes of determining Tier 1 capital under this part. The amount of deferred tax assets that can be realized from taxes paid in prior carryback years and from the reversal of existing taxable temporary differences generally would not be deducted from assets and from equity capital. However, notwithstanding the above, the amount of carryback potential that may be considered in calculating the amount of deferred tax assets that a member of a consolidated group (for tax purposes) may include in Tier 1 capital may not exceed the amount which the member could reasonably expect to have refunded by its parent.</P>
            <P>(3) <E T="03">Projected future taxable income.</E> Projected future taxable income should not include net operating loss carryforwards to be used within one year of the most recent calendar quarter-end date or the amount of existing temporary differences expected to reverse within that year. Projected future taxable income should include the estimated effect of tax planning strategies that are expected to be implemented to realize tax carryforwards that will otherwise expire during that year. Future taxable income projections for the current fiscal year (adjusted for any significant changes that have occurred or are expected to occur) may be used when applying the capital limit at an interim calendar quarter-end date rather then preparing a new projection each quarter.</P>
            <P>(4) <E T="03">Unrealized holding gains and losses on available-for-sale debt securities.</E> The deferred tax effects of any unrealized holding gains and losses on available-for-sale debt securities may be excluded from the determination of the amount of deferred tax assets that are dependent upon future taxable income and the calculation of the maximum allowable amount of such assets. If these deferred tax effects are excluded, this treatment must be followed consistently over time.</P>
            <P>(5) <E T="03">Intangible assets acquired in nontaxable purchase business combinations.</E> A deferred tax liability that is specifically related to an intangible asset (other than mortgage servicing assets, nonmortgage servicing assets, and purchased credit card relationships) acquired in a nontaxable purchase business combination may be netted against this intangible asset. Only the net amount of the intangible asset must be deducted from Tier 1 capital. When a deferred tax liability is netted in this manner, the taxable temporary difference that gives rise to this deferred tax liability must be excluded from existing taxable temporary differences when determining the amount of deferred tax assets that are dependent upon future taxable income and calculating the maximum allowable amount of such assets.</P>
            <CITA>[56 FR 10163, Mar. 11, 1991, as amended at 57 FR 7647, Mar. 4, 1992; 58 FR 6369, Jan. 28, 1993; 58 FR 8219, Feb. 12, 1993; 60 FR 8187, Feb. 13, 1995; 60 FR 39232, Aug. 1, 1995; 63 FR 42677, Aug. 10, 1998]</CITA>
          </SECTION>
          <SECTION>
            <SECTNO>§ 325.6</SECTNO>
            <SUBJECT>Issuance of directives.</SUBJECT>
            <P>(a) <E T="03">General.</E> A directive is a final order issued to a bank that fails to maintain capital at or above the minimum leverage capital requirement as set forth in §§ 325.3 and 325.4. A directive issued pursuant to this section, including a plan submitted under a directive, is enforceable in the same manner and to the same extent as a final cease-and-desist order issued under 12 U.S.C. 1818(b).</P>
            <P>(b) <E T="03">Issuance of directives.</E> If a bank is operating with less than the minimum leverage capital requirement established by this regulation, the Board of Directors, or its designee(s), may issue and serve upon any insured state nonmember bank a directive requiring the bank to restore its capital to the minimum leverage capital requirement within a specified time period. The directive may require the bank to submit to the appropriate FDIC regional director, or other specified official, for review and approval, a plan describing the means and timing by which the bank shall achieve the minimum leverage capital requirement. After the FDIC has approved the plan, the bank may be required under the terms of the <PRTPAGE P="177"/>directive to adhere to and monitor compliance with the plan. The directive may be issued during the course of an examination of the bank, or at any other time that the FDIC deems appropriate, if the bank is found to be operating with less than the minimum leverage capital requirement.</P>
            <P>(c) <E T="03">Notice and opportunity to respond to issuance of a directive.</E> (1) If the FDIC makes an initial determination that a directive should be issued to a bank pursuant to paragraph (b) of this section, the FDIC, through the appropriate designated official(s), shall serve written notification upon the bank of its intent to issue a directive. The notice shall include the current Tier 1 leverage capital ratio, the basis upon which said ratio was calculated, the proposed capital injection, the proposed date for achieving the minimum leverage capital requirement and any other relevant information concerning the decision to issue a directive. When deemed appropriate, specific requirements of a proposed plan for meeting the minimum leverage capital requirement may be included in the notice.</P>
            <P>(2) Within 14 days of receipt of notification, the bank may file with the appropriate designated FDIC official(s) a written response, explaining why the directive should not be issued, seeking modification of its terms, or other appropriate relief. The bank's response shall include any information, mitigating circumstances, documentation or other relevant evidence which supports its position, and may include a plan for attaining the minimum leverage capital requirement.</P>
            <P>(3) After considering the bank's response, the appropriate designated FDIC official(s) shall serve upon the bank a written determination addressing the bank's response and setting forth the FDIC's findings and conclusions in support of any decision to issue or not to issue a directive. The directive may be issued as originally proposed or in modified form. The directive may order the bank to:</P>
            <P>(i) Achieve the minimum leverage capital requirement established by this regulation by a certain date;</P>
            <P>(ii) Submit for approval and adhere to a plan for achieving the minimum leverage capital requirement;</P>
            <P>(iii) Take other action as is necessary to achieve the minimum leverage capital requirement; or</P>
            <P>(iv) A combination of the above actions.</P>
            <FP>If a directive is to be issued, it may be served upon the bank along with the final determination.</FP>
            <P>(4) Any bank, upon a change in circumstances, may request the FDIC to reconsider the terms of a directive and may propose changes in the plan under which it is operating to meet the minimum leverage capital requirement. The directive and plan continue in effect while such request is pending before the FDIC.</P>
            <P>(5) All papers filed with the FDIC must be postmarked or received by the appropriate designated FDIC official(s) within the prescribed time limit for filing.</P>
            <P>(6) Failure by the bank to file a written response to notification of intent to issue a directive within the specified time period shall constitute consent to the issuance of such directive.</P>
            <P>(d) <E T="03">Enforcement of a directive.</E> (1) Whenever a bank fails to follow the directive or to submit or adhere to its capital adequacy plan, the FDIC may seek enforcement of the directive in the appropriate United States district court, pursuant to 12 U.S.C. 3907(b)(2)(B)(ii), in the same manner and to the same extent as if the directive were a final cease-and-desist order. In addition to enforcement of the directive, the FDIC may seek assessment of civil money penalties for violation of the directive against any bank, any officer, director, employee, agent, or other person participating in the conduct of the affairs of the bank, pursuant to 12 U.S.C. 3909(d).</P>

            <P>(2) The directive may be issued separately, in conjunction with, or in addition to, any other enforcement mechanisms available to the FDIC, including cease-and-desist orders, orders of correction, the approval or denial of applications, or any other actions authorized by law. In addition to addressing a bank's minimum leverage capital requirement, the capital directive may <PRTPAGE P="178"/>also address minimum risk-based capital requirements that are to be maintained and calculated in accordance with appendix A to this part.</P>
            <CITA>[56 FR 10164, Mar. 11, 1991]</CITA>
          </SECTION>
        </SUBPART>
        <SUBPART>
          <HD SOURCE="HED">Subpart B—Prompt Corrective Action</HD>
          <SOURCE>
            <HD SOURCE="HED">Source: </HD>
            <P>57 FR 44900, Sept. 29, 1992, unless otherwise noted.</P>
          </SOURCE>
          <SECTION>
            <SECTNO>§ 325.101</SECTNO>
            <SUBJECT>Authority, purpose, scope, other supervisory authority, and disclosure of capital categories.</SUBJECT>
            <P>(a) <E T="03">Authority.</E> This subpart is issued by the FDIC pursuant to section 38 (section 38) of the Federal Deposit Insurance Act (FDI Act), as added by section 131 of the Federal Deposit Insurance Corporation Improvement Act of 1991 (Pub. L. 102-242, 105 Stat. 2236 (1991)) (12 U.S.C. 1831o).</P>
            <P>(b) <E T="03">Purpose.</E> Section 38 of the FDI Act establishes a framework of supervisory actions for insured depository institutions that are not adequately capitalized. The principal purpose of this subpart is to define, for FDIC-insured state-chartered nonmember banks, the capital measures and capital levels, and for insured branches of foreign banks, comparable asset-based measures and levels, that are used for determining the supervisory actions authorized under section 38 of the FDI Act. This subpart also establishes procedures for submission and review of capital restoration plans and for issuance and review of directives and orders pursuant to section 38.</P>
            <P>(c) <E T="03">Scope.</E> This subpart implements the provisions of section 38 of the FDI Act as they apply to FDIC-insured state-chartered nonmember banks and insured branches of foreign banks for which the FDIC is the appropriate Federal banking agency. Certain of these provisions also apply to officers, directors and employees of those insured institutions. In addition, certain provisions of this subpart apply to all insured depository institutions that are deemed critically undercapitalized.</P>
            <P>(d) <E T="03">Other supervisory authority.</E> Neither section 38 nor this subpart in any way limits the authority of the FDIC under any other provision of law to take supervisory actions to address unsafe or unsound practices, deficient capital levels, violations of law, unsafe or unsound conditions, or other practices. Action under section 38 of the FDI Act and this subpart may be taken independently of, in conjunction with, or in addition to any other enforcement action available to the FDIC, including issuance of cease and desist orders, capital directives, approval or denial of applications or notices, assessment of civil money penalties, or any other actions authorized by law.</P>
            <P>(e) <E T="03">Disclosure of capital categories.</E> The assignment of a bank or insured branch under this subpart within a particular capital category is for purposes of implementing and applying the provisions of section 38. Unless permitted by the FDIC or otherwise required by law, no bank may state in any advertisement or promotional material its capital category under this subpart or that the FDIC or any other federal banking agency has assigned the bank to a particular capital category.</P>
          </SECTION>
          <SECTION>
            <SECTNO>§ 325.102</SECTNO>
            <SUBJECT>Notice of capital category.</SUBJECT>
            <P>(a) <E T="03">Effective date of determination of capital category.</E> A bank shall be deemed to be within a given capital category for purposes of section 38 of the FDI Act and this subpart as of the date the bank is notified of, or is deemed to have notice of, its capital category, pursuant to paragraph (b) of this section.</P>
            <P>(b) <E T="03">Notice of capital category.</E> A bank shall be deemed to have been notified of its capital levels and its capital category as of the most recent date:</P>
            <P>(1) A Consolidated Report of Condition and Income (Call Report) is required to be filed with the FDIC;</P>
            <P>(2) A final report of examination is delivered to the bank; or</P>
            <P>(3) Written notice is provided by the FDIC to the bank of its capital category for purposes of section 38 of the FDI Act and this subpart or that the bank's capital category has changed as provided in § 325.103(d).</P>
            <P>(c) <E T="03">Adjustments to reported capital levels and capital category</E>—(1) <E T="03">Notice of adjustment by bank.</E> A bank shall provide the appropriate FDIC regional director with written notice that an adjustment to the bank's capital category may <PRTPAGE P="179"/>have occurred no later than 15 calendar days following the date that any material event has occurred that would cause the bank to be placed in a lower capital category from the category assigned to the bank for purposes of section 38 and this subpart on the basis of the bank's most recent Call Report or report of examination.</P>
            <P>(2) <E T="03">Determination by the FDIC to change capital category.</E> After receiving notice pursuant to paragraph (c)(1) of this section, the FDIC shall determine whether to change the capital category of the bank and shall notify the bank of the FDIC's determination.</P>
          </SECTION>
          <SECTION>
            <SECTNO>§ 325.103</SECTNO>
            <SUBJECT>Capital measures and capital category definitions.</SUBJECT>
            <P>(a) <E T="03">Capital measures.</E> For purposes of section 38 and this subpart, the relevant capital measures shall be:</P>
            <P>(1) The total risk-based capital ratio;</P>
            <P>(2) The Tier 1 risk-based capital ratio; and</P>
            <P>(3) The leverage ratio.</P>
            <P>(b) <E T="03">Capital categories.</E> For purposes of section 38 and this subpart, a bank shall be deemed to be:</P>
            <P>(1) <E T="03">Well capitalized</E> if the bank:</P>
            <P>(i) Has a total risk-based capital ratio of 10.0 percent or greater; and</P>
            <P>(ii) Has a Tier 1 risk-based capital ratio of 6.0 percent or greater; and</P>
            <P>(iii) Has a leverage ratio of 5.0 percent or greater; and</P>
            <P>(iv) Is not subject to any written agreement, order, capital directive, or prompt corrective action directive issued by the FDIC pursuant to section 8 of the FDI Act (12 U.S.C. 1818), the International Lending Supervision Act of 1983 (12 U.S.C. 3907), or section 38 of the FDI Act (12 U.S.C. 1831o), or any regulation thereunder, to meet and maintain a specific capital level for any capital measure.</P>
            <P>(2) <E T="03">Adequately capitalized</E> if the bank:</P>
            <P>(i) Has a total risk-based capital ratio of 8.0 percent or greater; and</P>
            <P>(ii) Has a Tier 1 risk-based capital ratio of 4.0 percent or greater; and</P>
            <P>(iii) Has:</P>
            <P>(A) A leverage ratio of 4.0 percent or greater; or</P>
            <P>(B) A leverage ratio of 3.0 percent or greater if the bank is rated composite 1 under the CAMEL rating system in the most recent examination of the bank and is not experiencing or anticipating significant growth; and</P>
            <P>(iv) Does not meet the definition of a <E T="03">well capitalized</E> bank.</P>
            <P>(3) <E T="03">Undercapitalized</E> if the bank:</P>
            <P>(i) Has a total risk-based capital ratio that is less than 8.0 percent; or</P>
            <P>(ii) Has a Tier 1 risk-based capital ratio that is less than 4.0 percent; or</P>
            <P>(iii)(A) Except as provided in paragraph (b)(3)(iii)(B) of this section, has a leverage ratio that is less than 4.0 percent; or</P>
            <P>(B) Has a leverage ratio that is less than 3.0 percent if the bank is rated composite 1 under the CAMEL rating system in the most recent examination of the bank and is not experiencing or anticipating significant growth.</P>
            <P>(4) <E T="03">Significantly undercapitalized</E> if the bank has:</P>
            <P>(i) A total risk-based capital ratio that is less than 6.0 percent; or</P>
            <P>(ii) A Tier 1 risk-based capital ratio that is less than 3.0 percent; or</P>
            <P>(iii) A leverage ratio that is less than 3.0 percent.</P>
            <P>(5) <E T="03">Critically undercapitalized</E> if the insured depository institution has a ratio of tangible equity to total assets that is equal to or less than 2.0 percent.</P>
            <P>(c) <E T="03">Capital categories for insured branches of foreign banks.</E> For purposes of the provisions of section 38 and this subpart, an insured branch of a foreign bank shall be deemed to be:</P>
            <P>(1) <E T="03">Well capitalized</E> if the insured branch:</P>
            <P>(i) Maintains the pledge of assets required under § 347.210 of this chapter; and</P>
            <P>(ii) Maintains the eligible assets prescribed under § 347.211 of this chapter at 108 percent or more of the preceding quarter's average book value of the insured branch's third-party liabilities; and</P>
            <P>(iii) Has not received written notification from:</P>
            <P>(A) The OCC to increase its capital equivalency deposit pursuant to 12 CFR 28.15(b), or to comply with asset maintenance requirements pursuant to 12 CFR 28.20; or</P>

            <P>(B) The FDIC to pledge additional assets pursuant to § 347.210 of this chapter or to maintain a higher ratio of eligible assets pursuant to § 347.211 of this chapter.<PRTPAGE P="180"/>
            </P>
            <P>(2) <E T="03">Adequately capitalized</E> if the insured branch:</P>
            <P>(i) Maintains the pledge of assets required under § 347.210 of this chapter; and</P>
            <P>(ii) Maintains the eligible assets prescribed under § 347.211 of this chapter at 106 percent or more of the preceding quarter's average book value of the insured branch's third-party liabilities; and</P>
            <P>(iii) Does not meet the definition of a well capitalized insured branch.</P>
            <P>(3) <E T="03">Undercapitalized</E> if the insured branch:</P>
            <P>(i) Fails to maintain the pledge of assets required under § 347.210 of this chapter; or</P>
            <P>(ii) Fails to maintain the eligible assets prescribed under § 347.211 of this chapter at 106 percent or more of the preceding quarter's average book value of the insured branch's third-party liabilities.</P>
            <P>(4) <E T="03">Significantly undercapitalized</E> if it fails to maintain the eligible assets prescribed under § 347.211 of this chapter at 104 percent or more of the preceding quarter's average book value of the insured branch's third-party liabilities.</P>
            <P>(5) <E T="03">Critically undercapitalized</E> if it fails to maintain the eligible assets prescribed under § 347.211 of this chapter at 102 percent or more of the preceding quarter's average book value of the insured branch's third-party liabilities.</P>
            <P>(d) <E T="03">Reclassifications based on supervisory criteria other than capital.</E> The FDIC may reclassify a well capitalized bank as adequately capitalized and may require an adequately capitalized bank or an undercapitalized bank to comply with certain mandatory or discretionary supervisory actions as if the bank were in the next lower capital category (except that the FDIC may not reclassify a significantly undercapitalized bank as critically undercapitalized) (each of these actions are hereinafter referred to generally as “reclassifications”) in the following circumstances:</P>
            <P>(1) <E T="03">Unsafe or unsound condition.</E> The FDIC has determined, after notice and opportunity for hearing pursuant to § 308.202(a) of this chapter, that the bank is in unsafe or unsound condition; or</P>
            <P>(2) <E T="03">Unsafe or unsound practice.</E> The FDIC has determined, after notice and opportunity for hearing pursuant to § 308.202(a) of this chapter, that, in the most recent examination of the bank, the bank received and has not corrected a less-than-satisfactory rating for any of the categories of asset quality, management, earnings, or liquidity.</P>
            <CITA>[57 FR 44900, Sept. 29, 1992, as amended at 63 FR 17074, Apr. 8, 1998]</CITA>
          </SECTION>
          <SECTION>
            <SECTNO>§ 325.104</SECTNO>
            <SUBJECT>Capital restoration plans.</SUBJECT>
            <P>(a) <E T="03">Schedule for filing plan—</E>(1) <E T="03">In general.</E> A bank shall file a written capital restoration plan with the appropriate FDIC regional director within 45 days of the date that the bank receives notice or is deemed to have notice that the bank is undercapitalized, significantly undercapitalized, or critically undercapitalized, unless the FDIC notifies the bank in writing that the plan is to be filed within a different period. An adequately capitalized bank that has been required pursuant to § 325.103(d) of this subpart to comply with supervisory actions as if the bank were undercapitalized is not required to submit a capital restoration plan solely by virtue of the reclassification.</P>
            <P>(2) <E T="03">Additional capital restoration plans.</E> Notwithstanding paragraph (a)(1) of this section, a bank that has already submitted and is operating under a capital restoration plan approved under section 38 and this subpart is not required to submit an additional capital restoration plan based on a revised calculation of its capital measures or a reclassification of the institution under § 325.103 unless the FDIC notifies the bank that it must submit a new or revised capital plan. A bank that is notified that it must submit a new or revised capital restoration plan shall file the plan in writing with the appropriate FDIC regional director within 45 days of receiving such notice, unless the FDIC notifies the bank in writing that the plan must be filed within a different period.</P>
            <P>(b) <E T="03">Contents of plan.</E> All financial data submitted in connection with a capital restoration plan shall be prepared in accordance with the instructions provided on the Call Report, unless the FDIC instructs otherwise. The capital <PRTPAGE P="181"/>restoration plan shall include all of the information required to be filed under section 38(e)(2) of the FDI Act. A bank that is required to submit a capital restoration plan as a result of a reclassification of the bank pursuant to § 325.103(d) of this subpart shall include a description of the steps the bank will take to correct the unsafe or unsound condition or practice. No plan shall be accepted unless it includes any performance guarantee described in section 38(e)(2)(C) of the FDI Act by each company that controls the bank.</P>
            <P>(c) <E T="03">Review of capital restoration plans.</E> Within 60 days after receiving a capital restoration plan under this subpart, the FDIC shall provide written notice to the bank of whether the plan has been approved. The FDIC may extend the time within which notice regarding approval of a plan shall be provided.</P>
            <P>(d) <E T="03">Disapproval of capital plan.</E> If a capital restoration plan is not approved by the FDIC, the bank shall submit a revised capital restoration plan within the time specified by the FDIC. Upon receiving notice that its capital restoration plan has not been approved, any undercapitalized bank (as defined in § 325.103(b) of this subpart) shall be subject to all of the provisions of section 38 and this subpart applicable to significantly undercapitalized institutions. These provisions shall be applicable until such time as a new or revised capital restoration plan submitted by the bank has been approved by the FDIC.</P>
            <P>(e) <E T="03">Failure to submit capital restoration plan.</E> A bank that is undercapitalized (as defined in § 325.103(b) of this subpart) and that fails to submit a written capital restoration plan within the period provided in this section shall, upon the expiration of that period, be subject to all of the provisions of section 38 and this subpart applicable to significantly undercapitalized institutions.</P>
            <P>(f) <E T="03">Failure to implement capital restoration plan.</E> Any undercapitalized bank that fails in any material respect to implement a capital restoration plan shall be subject to all of the provisions of section 38 and this subpart applicable to significantly undercapitalized institutions.</P>
            <P>(g) <E T="03">Amendment of capital restoration plan.</E> A bank that has filed an approved capital restoration plan may, after prior written notice to and approval by the FDIC, amend the plan to reflect a change in circumstance. Until such time as a proposed amendment has been approved, the bank shall implement the capital restoration plan as approved prior to the proposed amendment.</P>
            <P>(h) <E T="03">Performance guarantee by companies that control a bank</E>—(1) <E T="03">Limitation on liability</E>—(i) <E T="03">Amount limitation.</E> The aggregate liability under the guarantee provided under section 38 and this subpart for all companies that control a specific bank that is required to submit a capital restoration plan under this subpart shall be limited to the lesser of:</P>
            <P>(A) An amount equal to 5.0 percent of the bank's total assets at the time the bank was notified or deemed to have notice that the bank was undercapitalized; or</P>
            <P>(B) The amount necessary to restore the relevant capital measures of the bank to the levels required for the bank to be classified as adequately capitalized, as those capital measures and levels are defined at the time that the bank initially fails to comply with a capital restoration plan under this subpart.</P>
            <P>(ii) <E T="03">Limit on duration.</E> The guarantee and limit of liability under section 38 and this subpart shall expire after the FDIC notifies the bank that it has remained adequately capitalized for each of four consecutive calendar quarters. The expiration or fulfillment by a company of a guarantee of a capital restoration plan shall not limit the liability of the company under any guarantee required or provided in connection with any capital restoration plan filed by the same bank after expiration of the first guarantee.</P>
            <P>(iii) <E T="03">Collection on guarantee.</E> Each company that controls a given bank shall be jointly and severally liable for the guarantee for such bank as required under section 38 and this subpart, and the FDIC may require and collect payment of the full amount of that guarantee from any or all of the companies issuing the guarantee.<PRTPAGE P="182"/>
            </P>
            <P>(2) <E T="03">Failure to provide guarantee.</E> In the event that a bank that is controlled by any company submits a capital restoration plan that does not contain the guarantee required under section 38(e)(2) of the FDI Act, the bank shall, upon submission of the plan, be subject to the provisions of section 38 and this subpart that are applicable to banks that have not submitted an acceptable capital restoration plan.</P>
            <P>(3) <E T="03">Failure to perform guarantee.</E> Failure by any company that controls a bank to perform fully its guarantee of any capital plan shall constitute a material failure to implement the plan for purposes of section 38(f) of the FDI Act. Upon such failure, the bank shall be subject to the provisions of section 38 and this subpart that are applicable to banks that have failed in a material respect to implement a capital restoration plan.</P>
          </SECTION>
          <SECTION>
            <SECTNO>§ 325.105</SECTNO>
            <SUBJECT>Mandatory and discretionary supervisory actions under section 38.</SUBJECT>
            <P>(a) <E T="03">Mandatory supervisory actions—</E>(1) <E T="03">Provisions applicable to all banks.</E> All banks are subject to the restrictions contained in section 38(d) of the FDI Act on payment of capital distributions and management fees.</P>
            <P>(2) <E T="03">Provisions applicable to undercapitalized, significantly undercapitalized, and critically undercapitalized banks.</E> Immediately upon receiving notice or being deemed to have notice, as provided in § 325.102 of this subpart, that the bank is undercapitalized, significantly undercapitalized, or critically undercapitalized, the bank shall become subject to the provisions of section 38 of the FDI Act:</P>
            <P>(i) Restricting payment of capital distributions and management fees (section 38(d));</P>
            <P>(ii) Requiring that the FDIC monitor the condition of the bank (section 38(e)(1));</P>
            <P>(iii) Requiring submission of a capital restoration plan within the schedule established in this subpart (section 38(e)(2));</P>
            <P>(iv) Restricting the growth of the bank's assets (section 38(e)(3)); and</P>
            <P>(v) Requiring prior approval of certain expansion proposals (section 38(e)(4)).</P>
            <P>(3) <E T="03">Additional provisions applicable to significantly undercapitalized, and critically undercapitalized banks.</E> In addition to the provisions of section 38 of the FDI Act described in paragraph (a)(2) of this section, immediately upon receiving notice or being deemed to have notice, as provided in § 325.102 of this subpart, that the bank is significantly undercapitalized, or critically undercapitalized, or that the bank is subject to the provisions applicable to institutions that are significantly undercapitalized because the bank failed to submit or implement in any material respect an acceptable capital restoration plan, the bank shall become subject to the provisions of section 38 of the FDI Act that restrict compensation paid to senior executive officers of the institution (section 38(f)(4)).</P>
            <P>(4) <E T="03">Additional provisions applicable to critically undercapitalized institutions.</E> (i) In addition to the provisions of section 38 of the FDI Act described in paragraphs (a)(2) and (a)(3) of this section, immediately upon receiving notice or being deemed to have notice, as provided in § 325.102 of this subpart, that the insured depository institution is critically undercapitalized, the institution is prohibited from doing any of the following without the FDIC's prior written approval:</P>
            <P>(A) Entering into any material transaction other than in the usual course of business, including any investment, expansion, acquisition, sale of assets, or other similar action with respect to which the depository institution is required to provide notice to the appropriate Federal banking agency;</P>
            <P>(B) Extending credit for any highly leveraged transaction;</P>
            <P>(C) Amending the institution's charter or bylaws, except to the extent necessary to carry out any other requirement of any law, regulation, or order;</P>
            <P>(D) Making any material change in accounting methods;</P>
            <P>(E) Engaging in any covered transaction (as defined in section 23A(b) of the Federal Reserve Act (12 U.S.C. 371c(b));</P>
            <P>(F) Paying excessive compensation or bonuses;</P>

            <P>(G) Paying interest on new or renewed liabilities at a rate that would <PRTPAGE P="183"/>increase the institution's weighted average cost of funds to a level significantly exceeding the prevailing rates of interest on insured deposits in the institution's normal market areas; and</P>
            <P>(H) Making any principal or interest payment on subordinated debt beginning 60 days after becoming critically undercapitalized except that this restriction shall not apply, until July 15, 1996, with respect to any subordinated debt outstanding on July 15, 1991, and not extended or otherwise renegotiated after July 15, 1991.</P>
            <P>(ii) In addition, the FDIC may further restrict the activities of any critically undercapitalized institution to carry out the purposes of section 38 of the FDI Act.</P>
            <P>(5) <E T="03">Exception for certain savings associations.</E> The restrictions in paragraph (a)(4) of this section shall not apply, before July 1, 1994, to any insured savings association if:</P>
            <P>(i) The savings association had submitted a plan meeting the requirements of section 5(t)(6)(A)(ii) of the Home Owners’ Loan Act (12 U.S.C. 1464(t)(6)(A)(ii)) prior to December 19, 1991;</P>
            <P>(ii) The Director of OTS had accepted the plan prior to December 19, 1991; and</P>
            <P>(iii) The savings association remains in compliance with the plan or is operating under a written agreement with the appropriate federal banking agency.</P>
            <P>(b) <E T="03">Discretionary supervisory actions.</E> In taking any action under section 38 that is within the FDIC's discretion to take in connection with:</P>
            <P>(1) An insured depository institution that is deemed to be undercapitalized, significantly undercapitalized, or critically undercapitalized, or has been reclassified as undercapitalized, or significantly undercapitalized; or</P>
            <P>(2) An officer or director of such institution, the FDIC shall follow the procedures for issuing directives under §§ 308.201 and 308.203 of this chapter, unless otherwise provided in section 38 or this subpart.</P>
          </SECTION>
          <APPENDIX>
            <EAR>Pt. 325, App. A</EAR>
            <HD SOURCE="HED">Appendix A to Part 325—Statement of Policy on Risk-Based Capital</HD>
            <P>Capital adequacy is one of the critical factors that the FDIC is required to analyze when taking action on various types of applications and when conducting supervisory activities related to the safety and soundness of individual banks and the banking system. In view of this, the FDIC's Board of Directors has adopted part 325 of its regulations, which sets forth (1) minimum standards of capital adequacy for insured state nonmember banks and (2) standards for determining when an insured bank is in an unsafe or unsound condition by reason of the amount of its capital.</P>
            <P>This capital maintenance regulation was designed to establish, in conjunction with other Federal bank regulatory agencies, uniform capital standards for all federally-regulated banking organizations, regardless of size. The uniform capital standards were based on ratios of capital to total assets. While those leverage ratios have served as a useful tool for assessing capital adequacy, the FDIC believes there is a need for a capital measure that is more explicitly and systematically sensitive to the risk profiles of individual banks. As a result, the FDIC's Board of Directors has adopted this Statement of Policy on Risk-Based Capital to supplement the part 325 regulation. This statement of policy does not replace or eliminate the existing part 325 capital-to-total assets leverage ratios. Once the risk-based capital framework is implemented, the FDIC will consider whether the part 325 definitions of capital for leverage purposes and the minimum leverage ratios should be amended.</P>

            <P>The framework set forth in this statement of policy consists of (1) a <E T="03">definition of capital</E> for risk-based capital purposes, (2) a system for calculating <E T="03">risk-weighted assets</E> by assigning assets and off-balance sheet items to broad risk categories, and (3) a schedule, which includes transitional arrangements during a phase-in period, for achieving a <E T="03">minimum supervisory ratio</E> of capital to risk weighted assets. A bank's risk-based capital ratio is calculated by dividing its qualifying total capital base (the numerator of the ratio) by its risk-weighted assets (the denominator).<SU>1</SU>
              <FTREF/> Table I outlines the definition of capital and provides a general explanation of how the risk-based capital ratio is calculated, Table II summarizes the risk weights and risk categories, and Table III sets forth the credit conversation factors for off-balance sheet items. Additional explanations of the capital definitions, the risk-weighted asset calculations, and the minimum risk-based capital ratio guidelines are provided in Sections I, II and III of this statement of policy.</P>
            <FTNT>
              <P>
                <SU>1</SU> Period-end amounts, rather than average balances, normally will be used when calculating risk-based capital ratios. However, on a case-by-case basis, ratios based on average balances may also be required if supervisory concerns render it appropriate.</P>
            </FTNT>
            <PRTPAGE P="184"/>
            <P>In addition, when certain banks that engage in trading activities calculate their risk-based capital ratio under this appendix A, they must also refer to appendix C of this part, which incorporates capital charges for certain market risks into the risk-based capital ratio. When calculating their risk-based capital ratio under this appendix A, such banks are required to refer to appendix C of this part for supplemental rules to determine qualifying and excess capital, calculate risk-weighted assets, calculate market risk equivalent assets and add them to risk-weighted assets, and calculate risk-based capital ratios as adjusted for market risk.</P>
            <P>This statement of policy applies to all <E T="03">FDIC-insured state-chartered banks</E> (excluding insured branches of foreign banks) that are <E T="03">not</E> members of the Federal Reserve System, hereafter referred to as <E T="03">state nonmember banks,</E> regardless of size, and to all circumstances in which the FDIC is required to evaluate the capital of a banking organization. Therefore, the risk-based capital framework set forth in this statement of policy will be used in the examination and supervisory process as well as in the analysis of applications that the FDIC is required to act upon.</P>
            <P>The risk-based capital ratio focuses principally on broad categories of credit risk, however, the ratio does not take account of many other factors that can affect a bank's financial condition. These factors include overall interest rate risk exposure, liquidity, funding and market risks; the quality and level of earnings; investment, loan portfolio, and other concentrations of credit risk, certain risks arising from nontraditional activities; the quality of loans and investments; the effectiveness of loan and investment policies; and management's overall ability to monitor and control financial and operating risks, including the risk presented by concentrations of credit and nontraditional activities. In addition to evaluating capital ratios, an overall assessment of capital adequacy must take account of each of these other factors, including, in particular, the level and severity of problem and adversely classified assets as well as a bank's interest rate risk as measured by the bank's exposure to declines in the economic value of its capital due to changes in interest rates. For this reason, the final supervisory judgment on a bank's capital adequacy may differ significantly from the conclusions that might be drawn solely from the absolute level of the bank's risk-based capital ratio.</P>
            <P>In light of these other considerations, banks generally are expected to operate above the minimum risk-based capital ratio. Banks contemplating significant expansion plans, as well as those institutions with high or inordinate levels of risk, should hold capital commensurate with the level and nature of the risks to which they are exposed.</P>
            <HD SOURCE="HD1">I. Definition of Capital for the Risk-Based Capital Ratio</HD>

            <P>A bank's qualifying total capital base consists of two types of capital elements: <E T="03">core capital elements</E> (Tier 1) and <E T="03">supplementary capital elements</E> (Tier 2). To qualify as an element of Tier 1 or Tier 2 capital, a capital instrument should not contain or be subject to any conditions, covenants, terms, restrictions, or provisions that are inconsistent with safe and sound banking practices.</P>
            <HD SOURCE="HD2">A. The Components of Qualifying Capital (see Table I)</HD>
            <P>1. <E T="03">Core capital elements (Tier</E> 1) <E T="03">consists of:</E>
            </P>
            <FP SOURCE="FP-1">—Common stockholders’ equity capital (includes common stock and related surplus, undivided profits, disclosed capital reserves that represent a segregation of undivided profits, and foreign currency translation adjustments, less net unrealized holding losses on available-for-sale equity securities with readily determinable fair values);</FP>
            <FP SOURCE="FP-1">—Noncumulative perpetual preferred stock,<SU>2</SU>
              <FTREF/> including any related surplus; and</FP>
            <FTNT>
              <P>
                <SU>2</SU> Preferred stock issues where the dividend is reset periodically based, in whole or in part, upon the bank's current credit standing, including but not limited to, auction rate, money market or remarketable preferred stock, are assigned to Tier 2 capital, regardless of whether the dividends are cumulative or noncumulative.</P>
            </FTNT>
            <FP SOURCE="FP-1">—Minority interests in the equity capital accounts of consolidated subsidiaries.</FP>
            

            <P>At least 50 percent of the qualifying total capital base should consist of Tier 1 capital. <E T="03">Core (Tier 1) capital</E> is defined as the sum of core capital elements <SU>3</SU>
              <FTREF/> minus all intangible assets other than mortgage servicing assets, nonmortgage servicing assets and purchased credit card relationships <SU>4</SU>
              <FTREF/> and minus any disallowed deferred tax assets.</P>
            <FTNT>
              <P>
                <SU>3</SU> In addition to the core capital elements, Tier 1 may also include certain supplementary capital elements during the transition period subject to certain limitations set forth in section III of this statement of policy.</P>
            </FTNT>
            <FTNT>
              <P>
                <SU>4</SU> An exception is allowed for intangible assets that are explicitly approved by the FDIC as part of the bank's regulatory capital on a specific case basis. These intangibles will be included in capital for risk-based capital purposes under the terms and conditions that are specifically approved by the FDIC.</P>
            </FTNT>

            <P>Although nonvoting common stock noncumulative perpetual preferred stock, and minority interests in the equity capital accounts of consolidated subsidiaries are normally included in Tier 1 capital, voting common stockholders’ equity generally will be expected to be the dominant form of Tier 1 <PRTPAGE P="185"/>capital. Thus, banks should avoid undue reliance on nonvoting equity, preferred stock and minority interests.</P>
            <P>Although minority interests in consolidated subsidiaries are generally included in regulatory capital, exceptions to this general rule will be made if the minority interests fail to provide meaningful capital support to the consolidated bank. Such a situation could arise if the minority interests are entitled to a preferred claim on essentially low risk assets of the subsidiary. Similarly, although intangible assets in the form of mortgage servicing assets, nonmortgage servicing assets and purchased credit card relationships are generally recognized for risk-based capital purposes, the deduction of part or all of the mortgage servicing assets, nonmortgage servicing assets and purchased credit card relationships may be required if the carrying amounts of these rights are excessive in relation to their market value or the level of the bank's capital accounts. Mortgage servicing assets, nonmortgage servicing assets and purchased credit card relationships that do not meet the conditions, limitations and restrictions described in 12 CFR 325.5(f) will not be recognized for risk-based capital purposes.</P>
            <P>2. <E T="03">Supplementary capital elements (Tier 2)</E> consist of:</P>
            <P>i. Allowance for loan and lease losses, up to a maximum of 1.25 percent of risk-weighted assets;</P>
            <P>ii. Cumulative perpetual preferred stock, long-term preferred stock (original maturity of at least 20 years), and any related surplus;</P>
            <P>iii. Perpetual preferred stock (and any related surplus) where the dividend is reset periodically based, in whole or part, on the bank's current credit standing, regardless of whether the dividends are cumulative or noncumulative;</P>
            <P>iv. Hybrid capital instruments, including mandatory convertible debt securities;</P>
            <P>v. Term subordinated debt and intermediate-term preferred stock (original average maturity of five years or more) and any related surplus; and</P>

            <P>vi. Net unrealized holding gains on equity securities (subject to the limitations discussed in paragraph I.<E T="03">A</E>.2.(f) of this section).</P>
            <P>The maximum amount of Tier 2 capital that may be recognized for risk-based capital purposes is limited to 100 percent of Tier 1 capital (after any deductions for disallowed intangibles and disallowed deferred tax assets). In addition, the combined amount of term subordinated debt and intermediate-term preferred stock that may be treated as part of Tier 2 capital for risk-based capital purposes is limited to 50 percent of Tier 1 capital. Amounts in excess of these limits may be issued but are not included in the calculation of the risk-based capital ratio.</P>
            <P>(a) <E T="03">Allowance for loan and lease losses.</E> Allowances for loan and lease losses are reserves that have been established through a charge against earnings to absorb future losses on loans or lease financing receivables. Allowances for loan and lease losses exclude <E T="03">allocated transfer risk reserves,</E>
              <SU>5</SU>
              <FTREF/> and reserves created against identified losses.</P>
            <FTNT>
              <P>
                <SU>5</SU> Allocated transfer risk reserves are reserves that have been established in accordance with section 905(a) of the International Lending Supervision Act of 1983 against certain assets whose value has been found by the U.S. supervisory authorities to have been significantly impaired by protracted transfer risk problems.</P>
            </FTNT>
            <P>This risk-based capital framework provides a phasedown during the transition period of the extent to which the allowance for loan and lease losses may be included in an institution's capital base. By year-end 1990, the allowance for loan and lease losses, as an element of supplementary capital, may constitute no more than 1.5 percent of risk-weighted assets and, by year-end 1992, no more than 1.25 percent of risk-weighted assets.<SU>6</SU>
              <FTREF/>
            </P>
            <FTNT>
              <P>
                <SU>6</SU> The amount of the allowance for loan and lease losses that may be included as a supplementary capital element is based on a percentage of gross risk-weighted assets. A bank may deduct reserves for loan and lease losses that are in excess of the amount permitted to be included in capital, as well as allocated transfer risk reserves, from gross risk-weighted assets when computing the denominator of the risk-based capital ratio.</P>
            </FTNT>
            <P>(b) <E T="03">Preferred stock.</E> Perpetual preferred stock is defined as preferred stock that does not have a maturity date, that cannot be redeemed at the option of the holder, and that has no other provisions that will require future redemption of the issue. Long-term preferred stock includes limited-life preferred stock with an original maturity of 20 years or more, provided that the stock cannot be redeemed at the option of the holder prior to maturity, except with the prior approval of the FDIC.</P>
            <P>Cumulative perpetual preferred stock and long-term preferred stock qualify for inclusion in supplementary capital provided that the instruments can absorb losses while the issuer operates as a going concern (a fundamental characteristic of equity capital) and provided the issuer has the option to defer payment of dividends on these instruments. Given these conditions, and the perpetual or long-term nature of the intruments, there is no limit on the amount of these preferred stock instruments that may be included with Tier 2 capital.</P>

            <P>Noncumulative perpetual preferred stock where the dividend is reset periodically based, in whole or in part, on the bank's current credit standing, including auction rate, money market, or remarketable preferred <PRTPAGE P="186"/>stock, are also assigned to Tier 2 capital without limit, provided the above conditions are met.</P>
            <P>(c) <E T="03">Hybrid capital instruments.</E> Hybrid capital instruments include instruments that have certain characteristics of both debt and equity. In order to be included as supplementary capital elements, these instruments should meet the following criteria:</P>
            <P>(1) The instrument should be unsecured, subordinated to the claims of depositors and general creditors, and fully paid-up.</P>
            <P>(2) The instrument should not be redeemable at the option of the holder prior to maturity, except with the prior approval of the FDIC. This requirement implies that holders of such instruments may not accelerate the payment of principal except in the event of bankruptcy, insolvency, or reorganization.</P>
            <P>(3) The instrument should be available to participate in losses while the issuer is operating as a going concern. (Term subordinated debt would not meet this requirement.) To satisfy this requirement, the instrument should convert to common or perpetual preferred stock in the event that the sum of the undivided profits and capital surplus accounts of the issuer results in a negative balance.</P>

            <P>(4) The instrument should provide the option for the issuer to defer principal and interest payments if: (a) The issuer does not report a profit in the preceding annual period, defined as combined profits (i.e., net income) for the most recent four quarters, <E T="03">and</E> (b) the issuer eliminates cash dividends on its common and preferred stock.</P>
            <P>Mandatory convertible debt securities, which are subordinated debt instruments that require the issuer to convert such instruments into common or perpetual preferred stock by a date at or before the maturity of the debt instruments, will qualify as hybrid capital instruments provided the maturity of these instruments is 12 years or less and the instruments meet the criteria set forth below for “term subordinated debt.” There is no limit on the amount of hybrid capital instruments that may be included within Tier 2 capital.</P>
            <P>(d) <E T="03">Term subordinated debt and intermediate-term preferred stock.</E> The aggregate amount of term subordinated debt (excluding mandatory convertible debt securities) and intermediate-term preferred stock (including any related surplus) that may be treated as Tier 2 capital for risk-based capital purposes is limited to 50 percent of Tier 1 capital. Term subordinated debt and intermediate-term preferred stock should have an original average maturity of at least five years to qualify as supplementary capital and should not be redeemable at the option of the holder prior to maturity, except with the prior approval of the FDIC. For state nonmember banks, a <E T="03">term subordinated debt</E> instrument is an obligation other than a deposit obligation that:</P>
            <P>(1) Bears on its face, in boldface type, the following: This obligation is not a deposit and is not insured by the Federal Deposit Insurance Corporation;</P>
            <P>(2)(i) Has a maturity of at least five years; or</P>
            <P>(ii) In the case of an obligation or issue that provides for scheduled repayments of principal, has an average maturity of at least five years; provided that the Director of the Division of Supervision may permit the issuance of an obligation or issue with a shorter maturity or average maturity if the Director has determined that exigent circumstances require the issuance of such obligation or issue; provided further that the provisions of this paragraph I.A.2.(d)(2) shall not apply to mandatory convertible debt obligations or issues;</P>
            <P>(3) States express that the obligation:</P>
            <P>(i) Is subordinated and junior in right of payment to the issuing bank's obligations to its depositors and to the bank's other obligations to its general and secured creditors; and</P>
            <P>(ii) Is ineligible as collateral for a loan by the issuing bank;</P>
            <P>(4) Is unsecured;</P>
            <P>(5) States expressly that the issuing bank may not retire any part of its obligation without the prior written consent of the FDIC or other primary federal regulator; and</P>

            <P>(6) Includes, if the obligation is issued to a depository institution, a specific waiver of the right of offset by the lending depository institution.
            </P>
            <FP>Subordinated debt obligations issued prior to December 2, 1987 that satisfied the definition of the term “subordinated note and debenture” that was in effect prior to that date also will be deemed to be term subordinated debt for risk-based capital purposes. An optional redemption (“call”) provision in a subordinated debt instrument that is exercisable by the issuing bank in less than five years will not be deemed to constitute a maturity of less than five years, provided that the obligation otherwise has a stated contractual maturity of at least five years; the call is exercisable solely at the discretion or option of the issuing bank, and not at the discretion or option of the holder of the obligation; and the call is exercisable only with the express prior written consent of the FDIC under 12 U.S.C. 1828(i)(1) at the time early redemption or retirement is sought, and such consent has not been given in advance at the time of issuance of the obligation. Optional redemption provisions will be accorded similar treatment when determining the perpetual nature and/or maturity of preferred stock and other capital instruments.</FP>
            <P>(e) <E T="03">Discount of limited-life supplementary capital instruments.</E> As a limited-life capital instrument approaches maturity, the instrument begins to take on charcteristics of a <PRTPAGE P="187"/>short-term obligation and becomes less like a component of capital. Therefore, for risk-based capital purposes, the outstanding amount of term subordinated debt and limited-life preferred stock eligible for inclusion in capital will be adjusted downward, or discounted, as the instruments approach maturity. Each limited-life capital instrument will be discounted by reducing the outstanding amount of the capital instrument eligible for inclusion as supplementary capital by a fifth of the original amount (less redemptions) each year during the instrument's last five years before maturity. Such instruments, therefore, will have no capital value when they have a remaining maturity of less than a year.</P>
            <P>(f) <E T="03">Unrealized gains on equity securities and unrealized gains (losses) on other assets</E>. Up to 45 percent of pretax net unrealized holding gains (that is, the excess, if any, of the fair value over historical cost) on available-for-sale equity securities with readily determinable fair values may be included in supplementary capital. However, the FDIC may exclude all or a portion of these unrealized gains from Tier 2 capital if the FDIC determines that the equity securities are not prudently valued. Unrealized gains (losses) on other types of assets, such as bank premises and available-for-sale debt securities, are not included in supplementary capital, but the FDIC may take these unrealized gains (losses) into account as additional factors when assessing a bank's overall capital adequacy.</P>
            <HD SOURCE="HD2">B. Deductions from Capital and Other Adjustments</HD>
            <P>Certain assets are deducted from a bank's capital base for the purpose of calculating the numerator of the risk-based capital ratio.<SU>7</SU>
              <FTREF/> These assets include:</P>
            <FTNT>
              <P>
                <SU>7</SU> Any assets deducted from capital when computing the numerator of the risk-based capital ratio will also be excluded from risk-weighted assets when computing the denominator of the ratio.</P>
            </FTNT>
            <P>(1) All <E T="03">intangible assets</E> other than mortgage servicing assets, nonmortgage servicing assets and purchased credit card relationships.<SU>8</SU>
              <FTREF/> These disallowed intangibles are deducted from the core capital (Tier 1) elements.</P>
            <FTNT>
              <P>
                <SU>8</SU> In addition to mortgage servicing assets, nonmortgage servicing assets and purchased credit card relationships, certain other intangibles may be allowed if explicitly approved by the FDIC as part of the bank's regulatory capital on a specific case basis. In evaluating whether other types of intangibles should be recognized for regulatory capital purposes on a specific case basis, the FDIC will accord special attention to the general characteristics of the intangibles, including: (1) The separability of the intangible asset and the ability to sell it separate and apart from the bank or the bulk of the bank's assets, (2) the certainty that a readily identifiable stream of cash flows associated with the intangible asset can hold its value notwithstanding the future prospects of the bank, and (3) the existence of a market of sufficient depth to provide liquidity for the intangible asset.</P>
            </FTNT>
            <P>(2) Investments in <E T="03">unconsolidated</E> banking and finance subsidiaries.<SU>9</SU>
              <FTREF/> This includes any equity or debt capital investments in banking or finance subsidaries if the subsidiaries are not consolidated for regulatory capital requirements.<SU>10</SU>
              <FTREF/> Generally, these investments <PRTPAGE P="188"/>include equity and debt capital securities and any other instruments or commitments that are deemed to be capital of the subsidiary. These investments are deducted from the bank's total (Tier 1 plus Tier 2) capital base.</P>
            <FTNT>
              <P>
                <SU>9</SU> For risk-based capital purposes, these subsidiaries are generally defined as any company that is primarily engaged in banking or finance and in which the bank, either directly or indirectly, owns more than 50 percent of the outstanding voting stock but does not consolidate the company for regulatory capital purposes. In addition to investments in unconsolidated banking and finance subsidiaries, the FDIC may, on a case-by-case basis, deduct investments in associated companies or joint ventures, which are generally defined as any companies in which the bank, either directly or indirectly, owns 20 to 50 percent of the outstanding voting stock. Alternatively, the FDIC may, in certain cases, apply an appropriate risk-weighted capital charge against a bank's proportionate interest in the assets of associated companies and joint ventures. The definitions for subsidiaries, associated companies and joint ventures are contained in the instructions for the preparation of the Consolidated Reports of Condition and Income.</P>
            </FTNT>
            <FTNT>
              <P>
                <SU>10</SU> Consolidation requirements for regulatory capital purposes generally follow the consolidation requirements set forth in the instructions for preparation of the consolidated Reports of Condition and Income. However, although investments in subsidiaries representing majority ownership in another Federally-insured depository institution are not consolidated for purposes of the consolidated Reports of Condition and Income that are filed by the parent bank, they are generally consolidated for purposes of determining FDIC regulatory capital requirements. Therefore, investments in these depository institution subsidiaries generally will not be deducted for risk-based capital purposes; rather, assets and liabilities of such subsidiaries will be consolidated with those of the parent bank when calculating the risk-based capital ratio. In addition, although securities subsidiaries established pursuant to 12 CFR 337.4 are consolidated for Report of Condition and Income purposes, they are not consolidated for regulatory capital purposes.</P>
            </FTNT>
            <P>(3) Investments in <E T="03">securities subsidiaries</E> established pursuant to 12 CFR 337.4. The FDIC may also consider deducting investments in other subsidiaries, either on a case-by-case basis or, as with securities subsidiaries, based on the general characteristics or functional nature of the subsidiaries.</P>
            <P>(4) <E T="03">Reciprocal holdings</E> of capital instruments of banks that represent intentional cross-holdings by the banks. These holdings are deducted from the bank's total capital base.</P>
            <P>(5) <E T="03">Deferred tax assets</E> in excess of the limit set forth in § 325.5(g). These disallowed deferred tax assets are deducted from the core capital (Tier 1) elements.</P>
            <P>On a case-by-case basis, and in conjunction with supervisory examinations, other deductions from capital may also be required, including any adjustments deemed appropriate for assets classified as loss.</P>
            <HD SOURCE="HD1">II. Procedures For Computing Risk-Weighted Assets</HD>
            <HD SOURCE="HD2">A. General Procedures</HD>

            <P>Under the risk-based capital framework, a bank's balance sheet assets and credit equivalent amounts of off-balance sheet items are assigned to one of four broad risk categories according to the obligor or, if relevent, the guarantor or the nature of the collateral. The aggregate dollar amount in each category is then multiplied by the risk weight assigned to that category. The resulting weighted values from each of the four risk categories are added together and this sum is the <E T="03">risk-weighted assets</E> total that, as adjusted.<SU>11</SU>
              <FTREF/> comprises the denominator of the risk-based capital ratio.</P>
            <FTNT>
              <P>
                <SU>11</SU> Any asset deducted from a bank's capital accounts when computing the numerator of the risk-based capital ratio will also be excluded from risk-weighted assets when calculating the denominator for the ratio.</P>
            </FTNT>

            <P>The risk-weighted amounts for all off-balance sheet items are determined by a two-step process. First, the notional principal, or face value, amount of each off-balance sheet item generally is multiplied by a credit conversion factor to arrive at a balance sheet <E T="03">credit equivalent amount.</E> Second, the credit equivalent amount generally is assigned to the appropriate risk category, like any balance sheet asset, according to the obligor or, if relevant, the guarantor or the nature of the collateral.</P>
            <HD SOURCE="HD2">B. Other Considerations</HD>
            <P>1. <E T="03">Indirect Holdings of Assets.</E> Some of the assets on a bank's balance sheet may represent an indirect holding of a pool of assets; for example, mutual funds. An investment in shares of a mutual fund whose portfolio consists solely of various securities or money market instruments that, if held separately, would be assigned to different risk categories, generally is assigned to the risk category appropriate to the highest risk-weighted asset that the fund is permitted to hold in accordance with the stated investment objectives set forth in its prospectus. The bank may, at its option, assign the investment on a pro rata basis to different risk categories according to the investment limits in the fund's prospectus, but in no case will indirect holdings through shares in any mutual fund be assigned to a risk weight less than 20 percent. If the bank chooses to assign its investment on a pro rata basis, and the sum of the investment limits in the fund's prospectus exceeds 100 percent, the bank must assign risk weights in descending order. If, in order to maintain a necessary degree of short-term liquidity, a fund is permitted to hold an insignificant amount of its assets in short-term, highly liquid securities of superior credit quality that do not qualify for a preferential risk weight, such securities will generally be disregarded in determining the risk category to which the bank's holdings in the overall fund should be assigned. The prudent use of hedging instruments by a mutual fund to reduce the risk of its assets will not increase the risk weighting of the mutual fund investment. For example, the use of hedging instruments by a mutual fund to reduce the interest rate risk of its government bond portfolio will not increase the risk weight of that fund above the 20 percent category. Nonetheless, if the fund engages in any activities that appear speculative in nature or has any other characteristics that are inconsistent with the preferential risk weighting assigned to the fund's assets, holdings in the fund will be assigned to the 100 percent risk category.</P>
            <P>2. <E T="03">Collateral.</E> In determining risk weights of various assets, the only forms of collateral that are formally recognized by the risk-based capital framework are cash on deposit in the lending bank; securities issued or guaranteed by the central governments of the OECD-based group of countries,<SU>1</SU>
              <SU>2</SU>
              <FTREF/> U.S. <PRTPAGE P="189"/>Government agencies, or U.S. Government-sponsored agencies; and securities issued or guaranteed by multilateral lending institutions or regional development banks. Claims fully secured by such collateral are assigned to the 20 percent risk category. The extent to which these securities are recognized as collateral for risk-based capital purposes is determined by their current market value. If a claim is partially secured, the portion of the claim that is not covered by the collateral is assigned to the risk category appropriate to the obligor or, if relevant, the guarantor.</P>
            <FTNT>
              <P>
                <E T="51">12</E> The OECD-based group of countries comprises all full members of the Organization for Economic Cooperation and Development (OECD) regardless of entry date, as well as countries that have concluded special lending arrangements with the International Monetary Fund (IMF) associated with the IMF's General Arrangements to Borrow, but excludes any country that has rescheduled <PRTPAGE/>its external sovereign debt within the previous five years. As of November 1995, the OECD included the following countries: Australia, Austria, Belgium, Canada, Denmark, Finland, France, Germany, Greece, Iceland, Ireland, Italy, Japan, Luxembourg, Mexico, the Netherlands, New Zealand, Norway, Portugal, Spain, Sweden, Switzerland, Turkey, the United Kingdom, and the United States; and Saudi Arabia had concluded special lending arrangements with the IMF associated with the IMF's General Arrangements to Borrow. A rescheduling of external sovereign debt generally would include any renegotiation of terms arising from a country's inability or unwillingness to meet its external debt service obligations, but generally would not include renegotiations of debt in the normal course of business, such as a renegotiation to allow the borrower to take advantage of a decline in interest rates or other change in market conditions.</P>
            </FTNT>
            <P>3. <E T="03">Guarantees.</E> Guarantees of the OECD and non-OECD central governments, U.S. Government agencies, U.S. Government-sponsored agencies, state and local governments of the OECD-based group of countries, multilateral lending institutions and regional development banks, U.S. depository institutions and foreign banks are also recognized. If a claim is partially guaranteed, the portion of the claim that is not fully covered by the guarantee is assigned to the risk category appropriate to the obligor or, if relevant, the collateral.</P>
            <P>4. <E T="03">Maturity.</E> Maturity is generally not a factor in assigning items to risk categories with the exceptions of claims on non-OECD banks, commitments, and interest rate and foreign exchange rate related contracts. Except for commitments, short-term is defined as one year or less <E T="03">remaining</E> maturity and long-term is defined as over one year <E T="03">remaining</E> maturity. In the case of commitments, short-term is defined as one year or less <E T="03">original</E> maturity and long-term is defined as over one year original maturity.<SU>1</SU>
              <SU>3</SU>
              <FTREF/>
            </P>
            <FTNT>
              <P>
                <SU>1</SU>
                <SU>3</SU> Through year-end 1992, remaining rather than original maturity may be used for determining term to maturity for commitments.</P>
            </FTNT>
            <P>5. <E T="03">Mortgage-Backed Securities.</E> Mortgage-backed securities, including pass-throughs and collateralized mortgage obligations (but not stripped mortgage-backed securities) that are issued or guaranteed by a U.S. Government agency or a U.S. Government-sponsored agency, normally are assigned to the risk weight category appropriate to the issuer or guarantor. Generally, a privately-issued mortgage-backed security is treated as essentially an indirect holding of the underlying assets, and assigned to the same risk category as the underlying assets, in accordance with the provisions and criteria spelled out in detail in the accompanying footnote; <SU>1</SU>
              <SU>4</SU>

              <FTREF/> however, such privately-issued mortgage-backed securities may not be assigned to the zero percent risk category. Privately-issued mortgage-backed securities whose structures do not comply with the specified provisions set forth in the footnote are assigned to the 100 percent risk category. In addition, any class of a mortgage-backed security that can absorb more than its <E T="03">pro rata</E> share of loss without the whole issue being in default (for example, a subordinated class or residual interest) will also be assigned to the 100 percent risk weight category. All stripped mortgage-backed securities, including interest-only strips (IOs), principal-only strips (POs), and similar instruments, are assigned to the 100 percent risk weight category, regardless of the issuer or guarantor.</P>
            <FTNT>
              <P>
                <SU>1</SU>

                <SU>4</SU> A privately-issued mortgage-backed security may be treated as an indirect holding of the underlying assets provided that (1) the underlying assets are held by an independent trustee and the trustee has a first priority, perfected security interest in the underlying assets on behalf of the holders of the security, (2) either the holder of the security has an undivided <E T="03">pro rata</E> ownership interest in the underlying mortgage assets or the trust or single purpose entity (or conduit) that issues the security has no liabilities unrelated to the issued securities, (3) the security is structured such that the cash flow from the underlying assets in all cases fully meets the cash flow requirements of the security without undue reliance on any reinvestment income, and (4) there is no material reinvestment risk associated with any funds awaiting distribution to the holders of the security. In addition, if the underlying assets of a mortgage-backed security are composed of more than one type of asset, the entire mortgage-backed security is generally assigned to the category appropriate to the highest risk-weighted asset underlying the issue.</P>
            </FTNT>
            <P>6. <E T="03">Small Business Loans and Leases on Personal Property Transferred with Recourse</E>—(a) Notwithstanding other provisions of this appendix A, a qualifying institution that has transferred small business loans and leases <PRTPAGE P="190"/>on personal property (small business obligations) with recourse shall include in risk-weighted assets only the amount of retained recourse, provided two conditions are met. First, the transaction must be treated as a sale under generally accepted accounting principles (GAAP) and, second, the qualifying institution must establish pursuant to GAAP a non-capital reserve sufficient to meet the institution's reasonably estimated liability under the recourse arrangement. Only loans and leases to businesses that meet the criteria for a small business concern established by the Small Business Administration under section 3(a) of the Small Business Act (15 U.S.C. 632(a)) are eligible for this capital treatment.</P>
            <P>(b) For purposes of this appendix A, a qualifying institution is a bank that is well capitalized. In addition, by order of the FDIC, a bank that is adequately capitalized may be deemed a qualifying institution. In determining whether a bank meets the qualifying institution criteria, the prompt corrective action well capitalized and adequately capitalized definitions set forth in § 325.103 shall be used, except that the bank's capital ratios must be calculated without regard to the preferential capital treatment for transfers of small business obligations with recourse specified in section II.B.6.(a) of this appendix A. The total outstanding amount of recourse retained by a qualifying institution on transfers of small business obligations receiving the preferential capital treatment cannot exceed 15 percent of the institution's total risk-based capital. By order, the FDIC may approve a higher limit.</P>
            <P>(c) If a bank ceases to be a qualifying institution or exceeds the 15 percent of capital limit under section II.B.6.(b) of this appendix A, the preferential capital treatment will continue to apply to any transfers of small business obligations with recourse that were consummated during the time the bank was a qualifying institution and did not exceed such limit.</P>
            <P>(d) The risk-based capital ratios of a bank shall be calculated without regard to the preferential capital treatment for transfers of small business obligations with recourse specified in paragraph (a) of this section for purposes of:</P>
            <P>(i) Determining whether a bank is adequately capitalized, undercapitalized, significantly undercapitalized, or critically undercapitalized under the prompt corrective action capital category definitions specified in § 325.103; and</P>
            <P>(ii) Applying the prompt corrective action reclassification provisions specified in § 325.103(d), regardless of the bank's capital level.</P>
            <HD SOURCE="HD2">C. Risk Weights for Balance Sheet Assets (see Table II)</HD>
            <P>The risk-based capital framework contains four risk weight categories—0 percent, 20 percent, 50 percent and 100 percent. In general, if a particular item can be placed in more than one risk category, it is assigned to the category that has the lowest risk weight. An explanation of the components of each category follows:</P>
            <P>
              <E T="03">Category 1—Zero Percent Risk Weight.</E> This category includes cash (domestic and foreign) owned and held in all offices of the bank or in transit; balances due from Federal Reserve Banks and central banks in other OECD countries; the portions of local currency claims on or unconditionally guaranteed by non-OECD central governments to the extent that the bank has liabilities booked in that currency; and gold bullion held in the bank's own vaults or in another bank's vaults on an allocated basis, to the extent it is offset by gold bullion liabilities.<SU>1</SU>
              <SU>5</SU>
              <FTREF/>
            </P>
            <FTNT>
              <P>
                <SU>1</SU>
                <SU>5</SU> All other bullion holdings are to be assigned to the 100 percent risk weight category.</P>
            </FTNT>
            <P>The zero percent risk category also includes direct claims <SU>1</SU>
              <SU>6</SU>
              <FTREF/> (including securities, loans, and leases) on, and the portions of claims that are unconditionally guaranteed by, OECD central governments <SU>1</SU>
              <SU>7</SU>
              <FTREF/> and U.S. Government agencies.<SU>1</SU>
              <SU>8</SU>
              <FTREF/> Federal Reserve Bank stock also is included in this category.</P>
            <FTNT>
              <P>
                <SU>1</SU>

                <SU>6</SU> For purposes of determining the appropriate risk weights for this risk-based capital framework, the terms <E T="03">claims</E> and <E T="03">securities</E> refer to loans or other <E T="03">debt</E> obligations of the entity on whom the claim is held. Investments in the form of stock or equity holdings in commercial or financial firms are generally assigned to the 100 percent risk category.</P>
            </FTNT>
            <FTNT>
              <P>
                <SU>1</SU>
                <SU>7</SU> A central government is defined to include departments and ministries, including the central bank, of the central government. The U.S. central bank includes the 12 Federal Reserve Banks. The definition of central government does not include state, provincial or local governments or commercial enterprises owned by the central government. In addition, it does not include local government entities or commercial enterprises whose obligations are guaranteed by the central government. OECD central governments are defined as central governments of the OECD-based group of countries. Non-OECD central governments are defined as central governments of countries that do not belong to the OECD-based group of countries.</P>
            </FTNT>
            <FTNT>
              <P>
                <SU>1</SU>
                <SU>8</SU> For risk-based capital purposes U.S. Government agency is defined as an instrumentality of the U.S. Government whose debt obligations are fully and explicitly guaranteed <PRTPAGE/>as to the timely payment of principal and interest by the full faith and credit of the U.S. Government. These agencies include the Government National Mortgage Association (GNMA), the Veterans Administration (VA), the Federal Housing Administration (FHA), the Farmers Home Administration (FHA), the Export-Import Bank (Exim Bank), the Overseas Private Investment Corporation (OPIC), the Commodity Credit Corporation (CCC), and the Small Business Administration (SBA). U.S. Government agencies generally do not directly issue securities to the public; however, a number of U.S. Government agencies, such as GNMA, guarantee securities that are publicly held.</P>
            </FTNT>
            <PRTPAGE P="191"/>
            <P>
              <E T="03">Category 2—20 Percent Risk Weight</E>. This category includes short-term claims (including demand deposits) on, and portions of short-term claims that are guaranteed <SU>19</SU>
              <FTREF/> by, U.S. depository institutions <SU>20</SU>
              <FTREF/> and foreign banks;<SU>21</SU>
              <FTREF/> portions of claims collateralized by cash held in a segregated deposit account of the lending bank; cash items in process of collection, both foreign and domestic; and long-term claims on, and portions of long-term claims guaranteed by, U.S. depository institutions and OECD banks.<SU>22</SU>
              <FTREF/>
            </P>
            <FTNT>
              <P>

                <SU>19</SU> Claims guaranteed by U.S. depository institutions and foreign banks include risk participations in both bankers acceptances and standby letters of credit, as well as participations in commitments, that are <E T="03">conveyed</E> to other U.S. depository institutions or foreign banks.</P>
            </FTNT>
            <FTNT>
              <P>
                <SU>20</SU> U.S. depository institutions are defined to include branches (foreign and domestic) of federally-insured banks and depository institutions chartered and headquartered in the 50 states of the United States, the District of Columbia, Puerto Rico, and U.S. territories and possessions. The definition encompasses banks, mutual or stock savings banks, savings or building and loan associations, cooperative banks, credit unions, international banking facilities of domestic depository institutions, and U.S.-chartered depository institutions owned by foreigners. However, this definition excludes branches and agencies of foreign banks located in the U.S. and bank holding companies.</P>
            </FTNT>
            <FTNT>
              <P>
                <SU>21</SU> Foreign banks are distinguished as either OECD banks or non-OECD banks. OECD banks include banks and their branches (foreign and domestic) organized under the laws of countries (other than the U.S.) that belong to the OECD-based group of countries. Non-OECD banks include banks and their branches (foreign and domestic) organized under the laws of countries that do not belong to the OECD-based group of countries. For risk-based capital purposes, a bank is defined as an institution that engages in the business of banking; is recognized as a bank by the bank supervisory or monetary authorities of the country of its organization or principal banking operations; receives deposits to a substantial extent in the regular course of business; and has the power to accept demand deposits.</P>
            </FTNT>
            <FTNT>
              <P>
                <SU>22</SU> Long-term claims on, or guaranteed by, non-OECD banks and all claims on bank holding companies are assigned to the 100 percent risk weight category, as are holdings of bank-issued securities that qualify as capital of the issuing banks for risk-based capital purposes.</P>
            </FTNT>

            <P>This category also includes claims on, or portions of claims guaranteed by, U.S. Government-<E T="03">sponsored</E> agencies;<SU>23</SU>
              <FTREF/> and portions of claims (including repurchase agreements) collateralized by securities issued or guaranteed by OECD central governments, U.S. Government agencies, or U.S. Government-sponsored agencies. Also included in the 20 percent risk category are portions of claims that are conditionally guaranteed by OECD central governments and U.S. Government agencies,<SU>24</SU>
              <FTREF/> as well as portions of local currency claims that are conditionally guaranteed by non-OECD central governments to the extent that the bank has liabilities booked in that currency.</P>
            <FTNT>
              <P>

                <SU>23</SU> For risk-based capital purposes, U.S. Government-sponsored agencies are defined as agencies originally established or chartered by the U.S. Government to serve public purposes specified by the U.S. Congress but whose debt obligations are <E T="03">not explicitly</E> guaranteed by the full faith and credit of the U.S. Government. These agencies include the Federal Home Loan Mortgage Corporation (FHLMC), the Federal National Mortgage Association (FNMA), the Farm Credit System, the Federal Home Loan Bank System, and the Student Loan Marketing Association (SLMA). For risk-based capital purposes, claims on U.S. Government-sponsored agencies also include capital stock in a Federal Home Loan Bank that is held as a condition of membership in that Bank.</P>
            </FTNT>
            <FTNT>
              <P>
                <SU>24</SU> For risk-based capital purposes, a conditional guarantee is deemed to exist if the validity of the guarantee by the OECD central government or the U.S. Government agency is dependent upon some affirmative action (e.g., servicing requirements on the part of the beneficiary of the guarantee). Portions of claims that are unconditionally guaranteed by OECD central governments or U.S. Government agencies are assigned to the zero percent risk category.</P>
            </FTNT>

            <P>General obligation claims on, or portions of claims guaranteed by, the full faith and credit of states or other political subdivisions of the United States or other countries of the OECD-based group are also assigned to <PRTPAGE P="192"/>this 20 percent risk category.<SU>25</SU>
              <FTREF/> In addition, this category includes claims on the International Bank for Reconstruction and Development (World Bank), International Finance Corporation the Inter-American Development Bank, the Asian Development Bank, the African Development Bank, the European Investment Bank, the European Bank for Reconstruction and Development, the Nordic Investment Bank, and other multilateral lending institutions or regional development institutions in which the U.S. Government is a shareholder or contributing member, as well as portions of claims guaranteed by such organizations or collateralized by their securities.</P>
            <FTNT>
              <P>
                <SU>25</SU> Claims on, or guaranteed by, states or other political subdivisions of countries that do not belong to the OECD-based group of countries are to be placed in the 100 percent risk weight category.</P>
            </FTNT>
            <P>
              <E T="03">Category 3—50 Percent Risk Weight.</E> This category includes loans fully secured by first liens <SU>26</SU>
              <FTREF/> on <E T="03">one-to-four family residential properties,</E> provided that such loans have been approved in accordance with prudent underwriting standards, including standards relating to the loan amount as a percent of the appraised value of the property,<SU>27</SU>
              <FTREF/> and provided that the loans are not past due 90 days or more or carried in nonaccrual status.<SU>28</SU>
              <FTREF/> The types of loans that qualify as loans secured by one-to-four family residential properties are listed in the instructions for preparation of the Consolidated Reports of Condition and Income. These properties may be either owner-occupied or rented. In addition, for risk-based capital purposes, loans secured by one-to-four family residential properties include loans to builders with substantial project equity for the construction of one-to-four family residences that have been presold under firm contracts to purchasers who have obtained firm commitments for permanent qualifying mortgage loans and have made substantial earnest money deposits. Such loans to builders will be considered prudently underwritten only if the bank has obtained sufficient documentation that the buyer of the home intends to purchase the home (i.e., has a legally binding written sales contract) and has the ability to obtain a mortgage loan sufficient to purchase the home (i.e., has a firm written commitment for permanent financing of the home upon completion), provided the following criteria are met:</P>
            <P>(1) The purchaser is an individual(s) who intends to occupy the residence and is not a partnership, joint venture, trust, corporation, or any other entity (including an entity acting as a sole proprietorship) that is purchasing one or more of the homes for speculative purposes;</P>
            <P>(2) The builder must incur at least the first ten percent of the direct costs (i.e., actual costs of the land, labor, and material) before any drawdown is made under the construction loan and the construction loan may not exceed 80 percent of the sales price of the presold home;</P>
            <P>(3) The purchaser has made a substantial “earnest money deposit” of no less than three percent of the sales price of the home and the deposit must be subject to forfeiture if the purchaser terminates the sales contract; and</P>
            <P>(4) The earnest money deposit must be held in escrow by the bank financing the builder or by an independent party in a fiduciary capacity and the escrow agreement must provide that, in the event of default arising from the cancellation of the sales contract by the buyer, the escrow funds must first be used to defray any costs incurred by the bank.</P>
            <FTNT>
              <P>
                <SU>26</SU> If a bank holds the first and junior lien(s) on a residential property and no other party holds an intervening lien, the transactions are treated as a single loan secured by a first lien for purposes of determining the loan-to-value ratio and assigning a risk weight.</P>
            </FTNT>
            <P>By order of the Board of Directors.</P>
            <FTNT>
              <P>
                <SU>27</SU> For risk-based capital purposes, the loan-to-value ratio generally is based upon the most current appraised value of the property. The appraisal should be performed in a manner consistent with the Federal banking agencies’ real estate appraisal guidelines and with the bank's own appraisal guidelines.</P>
            </FTNT>
            <FTNT>
              <P>
                <SU>28</SU> Real estate loans that do not meet all of the specified criteria or that are made for the purpose of property development are placed in the 100 percent risk category.</P>
            </FTNT>

            <P>This category also includes loans fully secured by first liens on multifamily residential properties,<E T="51">29</E>
              <FTREF/> provided that:</P>
            <FTNT>
              <P>
                <E T="51">29</E> The types of loans that qualify as loans secured by multifamily residential properties are listed in the instructions for preparation of the Consolidated Reports of Condition and Income. In addition, as provided in those instructions, a multifamily residential property loan that is sold subject to a pro rata loss sharing arrangement is treated by the selling bank as sold (and excluded from balance sheet assets) to the extent that the sales agreement provides for the purchaser of the loan to share in any loss incurred on the loan on a pro rata basis with the selling bank. In such a transaction, from the standpoint of the selling bank, the portion of the loan that is treated as sold is not subject to the risk-based capital standards. In connection with sales of multifamily residential property loans in which the purchaser of a loan shares in any loss incurred on the loan with the selling institution on other than a <PRTPAGE/>pro rata basis, these other loss sharing arrangements are taken into account for purposes of determining the extent to which such loans are treated by the selling bank as sold (and excluded from balance sheet assets) under the risk-based capital framework in the same manner as prescribed for reporting purposes in the instructions for preparation of the Consolidated Reports of Condition and Income.</P>
            </FTNT>
            <PRTPAGE P="193"/>

            <P>(1) The loan amount does not exceed 80 percent of the value <E T="51">30</E>
              <FTREF/> of the property securing the loan as determined by the most current appraisal or evaluation, whichever may be appropriate (75 percent if the interest rate on the loan changes over the term of the loan);</P>
            <FTNT>
              <P>
                <E T="51">30</E> At the origination of a loan to purchase an existing property, the term “value” means the lesser of the actual acquisition cost or the estimate of value set forth in an appraisal or evaluation, whichever may be appropriate.</P>
            </FTNT>
            <P>(2) For the property's most recent fiscal year, the ratio of annual net operating income generated by the property (before payment of any debt service on the loan) to annual debt service on the loan is not less than 120 percent (115 percent if the interest rate on the loan changes over the term of the loan) or, in the case of a property owned by a cooperative housing corporation or nonprofit organization, the property generates sufficient cash flow to provide comparable protection to the bank;</P>
            <P>(3) Amortization of principal and interest on the loan occurs over a period of not more than 30 years;</P>
            <P>(4) The minimum original maturity for repayment of principal on the loan is not less than seven years;</P>

            <P>(5) All principal and interest payments have been made on a timely basis in accordance with the terms of the loan for at least one year before the loan is placed in this category; <E T="51">31</E>
              <FTREF/>
            </P>
            <FTNT>
              <P>
                <E T="51">31</E> In the case where the existing owner of a multifamily residential property refinances a loan on that property, all principal and interest payments on the loan being refinanced must have been made on a timely basis in accordance with the terms of that loan for at least the preceding year. The new loan must meet all of the other eligibility criteria in order to qualify for a 50 percent risk weight.</P>
            </FTNT>
            <P>(6) The loan is not 90 days or more past due or carried in nonaccrual status; and</P>
            <P>(7) The loan has been made in accordance with prudent underwriting standards.</P>

            <P>Also included in this category are privately-issued mortgage-backed securities provided that: (1) The structure of the security meets the criteria described above for “Mortgage-Backed Securities;” (2) if the security is backed by a pool of conventional mortgages on one-to-four family residential or multifamily residential properties, each underlying mortgage meets the criteria described in this section for inclusion in the 50 percent risk weight category at the time the pool is originated; (3) if the security is backed by privately-issued mortgage-backed securities, each underlying security qualifies for inclusion in the 50 percent risk category; and (4) if the security is backed by a pool of multifamily residential mortgages, principal or interest payments on the security are not 30 days or more past due.<E T="51">32</E>
              <FTREF/>
            </P>
            <FTNT>
              <P>
                <E T="51">32</E> Privately-issued mortgage-backed securities that do not meet these criteria or that do not qualify for a lower risk weight generally are assigned to the 100 percent risk weight category.</P>
            </FTNT>
            <P>This category also includes <E T="03">revenue</E> (non-general obligation) bonds or similar obligations, including loans and leases, that are obligations of states or political subdivisions of the United States or other OECD countries, but for which the government entity is committed to repay the debt with revenues from the specific projects financed, rather than from general tax funds (e.g., municipal revenue bonds). In addition, the credit equivalent amount of derivative contracts that do not qualify for a lower risk weight are assigned to the 50 percent risk category.</P>
            <P>
              <E T="03">Category 4—100 Percent Risk Weight</E>. All assets not included in the above risk categories are assigned to this category, which comprises standard risk assets. Long-term claims on, or guaranteed by, non-OECD banks, and all claims on non-OECD central governments that entail some degree of transfer risk are assigned to the 100 percent risk category.<SU>3</SU>
              <SU>3</SU>
              <FTREF/>
            </P>
            <FTNT>
              <P>
                <SU>3</SU>
                <SU>3</SU> Such assets include all non-local currency claims on non-OECD central governments and those portions of local currency claims on, or guaranteed by, non-OECD central governments that exceed the local currency liabilities held by the bank.</P>
            </FTNT>
            <P>This category also includes all claims on foreign and domestic private sector obligors that are not assigned to lower risk weight categories, including: loans to nondepository financial institutions and bank holding companies; claims on commercial firms owned by the public sector; customer liabilities to the bank on acceptances outstanding involving standard risk claims; <SU>34</SU>
              <FTREF/> investments in <PRTPAGE P="194"/>fixed assets, premises and other real estated owned; common and preferred stock of corporations, including stock acquired for debt previously contracted; commercial and consumer loans (except those loans assigned to lower risk categories due to recognized guarantees or collateral); real estate loans and mortgage-backed securities that do not meet the criteria for assignment to a lower risk weight (including any classes of mortgage-backed securities that can absorb more than their <E T="03">pro rata</E> share of loss without the whole issue being in default, such as subordinated classes or residual interests); and all stripped mortgage-backed securities, including interest-only (IOs) and principal-only (POs) strips.</P>
            <FTNT>
              <P>
                <SU>34</SU> Customer liabilities on acceptances outstanding involving non-standard risk claims, such as claims on U.S. depository institutions, are assigned to the risk category appropriate to the identity of the obligor or, if relevant, the nature of the collateral or guarantees backing the claim. Portions of acceptances conveyed as risk participations to U.S. depository institutions or foreign banks should be assigned to the 20 percent <PRTPAGE/>risk category that is appropriate for short-term claims guaranteed by U.S. depository institutions and foreign banks.</P>
            </FTNT>
            <P>Also included in this category are industrial development bonds and similar obligations issued under the auspices of state or political subdivisions of the OECD-based group of countries for the benefit of a private party or enterprise where that party or enterprise, rather than the government entity, is obligated to pay the principal and interest, and all obligations of states or political subdivisions of countries that do not belong to the OECD-based group of countries.</P>
            <P>Unless already deducted from capital for risk-based capital purposes, the following assets also are included in the 100 percent risk category: investments in unconsolidated subsidiaries, joint ventures or associated companies; instruments that qualify as capital issued by other banks; and mortgage servicing assets, nonmortgage servicing assets and other allowed intangibles.</P>
            <HD SOURCE="HD2">D. Conversion Factors for Off-Balance Sheet Items <E T="01">(see Table III)</E>
            </HD>

            <P>The face amount of an off-balance sheet item is generally multiplied by a <E T="03">credit conversion factor</E> and the resulting <E T="03">credit equivalent amount</E> is assigned to the appropriate risk category according to the obligor or, if relevant, the guarantor or the nature of the collateral.<SU>35</SU>
              <FTREF/>
            </P>
            <FTNT>
              <P>
                <E T="51">35</E> The sufficiency of collateral and guarantees for off-balance-sheet items is determined by the market value of the collateral or the amount of the guarantee in relation to the face amount of the item, except for derivative contracts, for which this determination is generally made in relation to the credit equivalent amount. Collateral and guarantees are subject to the same provisions noted under section II.<E T="03">B.</E> of this appendix A.</P>
            </FTNT>
            <P>1. <E T="03">Items With a 100 Percent Conversion Factor.</E> A 100 percent conversion factor applies to <E T="03">direct credit substitutes,</E> which include <E T="03">guarantees,</E> or equivalent instruments, backing <E T="03">financial</E> claims, such as securities, loans or other financial obligations, or backing off-balance sheet items that require capital under the risk-based capital framework. These direct credit substitutes include <E T="03">financial standby letters of credit,</E> or other equivalent irrevocable undertakings or surety arrangements, that effectively guarantee repayment of financial obligations such as: commercial paper, tax-exempt securities, commercial or individual loans or other debt obligations, or standby or commercial letters of credit.</P>

            <P>For risk-based capital purposes, financial standby letters of credit (100 percent conversion factor) are distinguished from loan commitments (normally a 50 percent conversion factor) in that financial standbys are irrevocable obligations of the bank to pay a third-party beneficiary when a customer (account party) <E T="03">fails to repay</E> an outstanding loan or debt instrument. A loan commitment, on the other hand, involves an obligation (with or without a material adverse change clause) of the bank to provide funds to its customer <E T="03">in the normal course</E> of business should the customer seek to draw down the commitment.</P>

            <P>Therefore, the distinguishing characteristics of a financial standby letter of credit for risk-based capital purposes is the combination of irrevocability with the notion that funding is triggered by some failure to repay or perform on a financial obligation. Thus, any commitment (by whatever name) that involves an <E T="03">irrevocable</E> obligation to make a payment to the customer or to a third party in the event the customer <E T="03">fails to repay</E> an outstanding debt obligation will be treated, for risk-based capital purposes, as a financial standby letter of credit and assigned a 100 percent conversion factor. (Performance-related standby letters of credit are assigned a conversion factor of 50 percent.)</P>
            <P>A bank that has conveyed <E T="03">risk participation</E>
              <SU>36</SU>

              <FTREF/> in a direct credit substitute to a third party should convert the full amount of the direct credit substitute at a 100 percent conversion factor without deducting the risk participations conveyed. However, portions of direct credit substitutes that have been conveyed as risk participations to U.S. depository institutions and OECD banks may then be assigned to the 20 percent risk category that is appropriate for claims guaranteed by U.S. depository institutions and <PRTPAGE P="195"/>OECD banks, rather than to the risk category appropriate to the account party obligor.<SU>37</SU>
              <FTREF/> A bank acquiring a risk participation in a direct credit substitute or bankers acceptance should convert the participation at 100 percent and then assign the credit equivalent amount to the risk category that is appropriate to the account party obligor or, if relevant, the guarantor or the nature of the collateral.</P>
            <FTNT>
              <P>
                <SU>36</SU> That is, participations in which the originating bank remains liable to the beneficiary for the full amount of the direct credit substitute if the party that has acquired the participation fails to pay when the instrument is drawn upon.</P>
            </FTNT>
            <FTNT>
              <P>
                <SU>37</SU> Risk participations with a remaining maturity of one year or less that are conveyed to non-OECD banks are also assigned to the 20 percent risk weight category.</P>
            </FTNT>

            <P>In the case of direct credit substitutes that are structured in the form of a <E T="03">syndication</E> as defined in the instructions for the preparation of the Consolidated Reports of Condition and Income (that is, where each bank is obligated only for its <E T="03">pro rata</E> share of the risk and there is no recourse to the originating bank), each bank will only include its <E T="03">pro rata</E> share of the direct credit substitute in its risk-based capital calculation.</P>
            <P>
              <E T="03">Sale and repurchase agreements</E> and <E T="03">asset sales with recourse,</E> if not already included on the balance sheet, are also converted at 100 percent. For risk-based capital purposes, the definition of sales of assets with recourse, including the sale of one-to-four family residential mortgages, is consistent with the definition contained in the instructions for the preparation of the Consolidated Reports of Condition and Income. Accordingly, except as noted below, the entire amount of any assets transferred with recourse that are not already included on the balance sheet, including pools of one-to-four family residential mortgages, is to be converted at 100 percent and assigned to the risk weight category appropriate to the obligor or, if relevant, the guarantor or the nature of the collateral. The terms of a transfer of assets with recourse may contractually limit the amount of the bank's liability to an amount less than the effective risk-based capital requirement for the assets being transferred with recourse. If such a transaction (including one that, in accordance with the instructions for the preparation of the Consolidated Reports of Condition and Income, is reported as a financing, <E T="03">i.e.</E>, the assets are not removed from the balance sheet) meets the criteria for sale treatment under generally accepted accounting principles, the amount of total capital required is equal to the maximum amount of loss possible under the recourse provision. If the transaction is also treated as a sale in accordance with the instructions for the preparation of the Consolidated Reports of Condition and Income, then the required amount of capital may be reduced by the balance of any associated noncapital liability account established pursuant to generally accepted accounting principles to cover estimated probable losses under the recourse provision. So-called “loan strips” (that is, short-term advances sold under long-term commitments without direct recourse) are defined in the instructions for the preparation of the Consolidated Reports of Condition and Income and for risk-based capital purposes as assets sold with recourse.</P>
            <P>In addition, a 100 percent conversion factor applies to forward agreements. Forward agreements are legally binding contractual obligations to purchase assets with drawdown which is certain at a specified future date. These obligations include forward purchases, forward deposits placed, and partly paid shares and securities, but do not include forward foreign exchange rate contracts or commitments to make residential mortgage loans.</P>
            <P>
              <E T="03">Securities lent</E> by a bank are treated in one of two ways, depending on whether the lender is exposed to risk of loss. If a bank, as agent for a customer, lends the customer's securities and is not obligated to indemnify the customer against loss, the securities lending transaction is excluded from the risk-based capital calculation. On the other hand, if a bank lends its own securities, or acting as agent lends the customer's securities and agrees to indemnify the customer against loss, the transaction is converted at 100 percent and assigned to the risk weight category appropriate to the obligor or, if applicable, to the collateral delivered to the lending bank or to the independent custodian acting on the lending bank's behalf.</P>
            <P>2. <E T="03">Items With a 50 Percent Conversion Factor.</E> Transaction-related contingencies are to be converted at 50 percent. Such contingencies include bid bonds, performance bonds, warranties, and <E T="03">performance standby letters of credit</E> related to particular transactions, as well as acquisitions of risk participations in performance standby letters of credits. Performance standby letters of credit (performance bonds) are irrevocable obligations of the bank to pay a third-party beneficiary when a customer (account party) <E T="03">fails to perform</E> on some contractual nonfinancial obligation. Thus, performance standby letters of credit represent obligations backing the performance of <E T="03">nonfinancial</E> or <E T="03">commercial</E> contracts or undertakings. To the extent permitted by law or regulation, performance standby letters of credit include arrangements backing, among other things, subcontractors’ and suppliers’ performance, labor and materials contracts, and construction bids.<PRTPAGE P="196"/>
            </P>
            <P>The unused portion of <E T="03">commitments</E> with an <E T="03">original</E> maturity exceeding <E T="03">one year</E>,<SU>38</SU>

              <FTREF/> including underwriting commitments and commercial and consumer credit commitments, also are to be converted at 50 percent. Original maturity is defined as the length of time between the date the commitment is issued and the earliest date on which: (1) The bank can at its option, <E T="03">unconditionally</E> (without cause) cancel the commitment,<SU>39</SU>
              <FTREF/> and (2) the bank is scheduled to (and as a normal practice actually does) review the facility to determine whether or not it should be extended and, on at least an annual basis, continues to regularly review the facility. Facilities that are unconditionally cancelable (without cause) at any time by the bank are not deemed to be commitments, provided the bank makes a separate credit decision before each drawing under the facility.</P>
            <FTNT>
              <P>
                <SU>38</SU> Remaining maturity may be used for determining the term to maturity for loan commitments through year-end 1992; thereafter, original maturity shall be used.</P>
            </FTNT>
            <FTNT>
              <P>
                <SU>39</SU> In the case of home equity or mortgage lines of credit secured by liens on one-to-four family residential properties, a bank is deemed able to unconditionally cancel the commitment if, at its option, it can prohibit additional extensions of credit, reduce the credit line, and terminate the commitment to the full extent permitted by relevant Federal law.</P>
            </FTNT>

            <P>Commitments, for risk-based capital purposes, are defined as any arrangements that obligate a bank to extend credit in the form of loans or lease financing receivables; to purchase loans, securities, or other assets; or to participate in loans and leases. Commitments also include overdraft facilities, revolving credit, home equity and mortgage lines of credit, and similar transactions. Normally, commitments involve a written contract or agreement and a commitment fee, or some other form of consideration. Commitments are included in risk-weighted assets regardless of whether they contain <E T="03">material adverse change</E> clauses or other provisions that are intended to relieve the issuer of its funding obligation under certain conditions.</P>

            <P>In the case of commitments structured as syndications where the bank is obligated only for its <E T="03">pro rata</E> share, the risk-based capital framework includes only the bank's proportional share of such commitments. Thus, after a commitment has been converted at 50 percent, portions of commitments that have been conveyed to other U.S. depository institutions or OECD banks, but for which the originating bank retains the full obligation to the borrower if the participating bank fails to pay when the commitment is drawn upon, will be assigned to the 20 risk category. The acquisition of such a participation in a commitment would be converted at 50 percent and the credit equivalent amount would be assigned to the risk category that is appropriate for the account party obligor or, if relevant, to the nature of the collateral or guarantees.</P>
            <P>Revolving underwriting facilities (RUFs), note issuance facilities (NIFs), and other similar arrangements also are converted at 50 percent. These are facilities under which a borrower can issue on a revolving basis short-term notes in its own name, but for which the underwriting banks have a legally binding commitment either to purchase any notes the borrower is unable to sell by the rollover date or to advance funds to the borrower.</P>
            <P>3. <E T="03">Items With a 20 Percent Conversion Factor.</E> Short-term, self-liquidating, trade-related contingencies which arise from the movement of goods are converted at 20 percent. Such contingencies include <E T="03">commercial letters of credit</E> and other documentary letters of credit collateralized by the underlying shipments.</P>
            <P>4. <E T="03">Items With a Zero Percent Conversion Factor</E>. These include unused portions of <E T="03">commitments</E> with an <E T="03">original maturity</E> of <E T="03">one year or less,</E> or which are <E T="03">unconditionally cancellable</E> at any time (provided a separate credit decision is made before each drawing under the facility). Unused portions of <E T="03">retail credit card lines</E> and related plans are deemed to be short-term commitments if the bank, in accordance with applicable law, has the unconditional option to cancel the credit line at any time.</P>
            <P>
              <E T="03">E. Derivative Contracts (Interest Rate, Exchange Rate, Commodity (including precious metal) and Equity Derivative Contracts)</E>
            </P>
            <P>1. Credit equivalent amounts are computed for each of the following off-balance-sheet derivative contracts:</P>
            <P>(a) Interest Rate Contracts</P>
            <P>(i) Single currency interest rate swaps.</P>
            <P>(ii) Basis swaps.</P>
            <P>(iii) Forward rate agreements.</P>
            <P>(iv) Interest rate options purchased (including caps, collars, and floors purchased).</P>
            <P>(v) Any other instrument linked to interest rates that gives rise to similar credit risks (including when-issued securities and forward deposits accepted).</P>
            <P>(b) Exchange Rate Contracts</P>
            <P>(i) Cross-currency interest rate swaps.</P>
            <P>(ii) Forward foreign exchange contracts.</P>
            <P>(iii) Currency options purchased.</P>
            <P>(iv) Any other instrument linked to exchange rates that gives rise to similar credit risks.</P>
            <P>(c) Commodity (including precious metal) or Equity Derivative Contracts</P>
            <P>(i) Commodity- or equity-linked swaps.</P>
            <P>(ii) Commodity- or equity-linked options purchased.</P>

            <P>(iii) Forward commodity- or equity-linked contracts.<PRTPAGE P="197"/>
            </P>
            <P>(iv) Any other instrument linked to commodities or equities that gives rise to similar credit risks.</P>
            <P>2. Exchange rate contracts with an original maturity of 14 calendar days or less and derivative contracts traded on exchanges that require daily receipt and payment of cash variation margin may be excluded from the risk-based ratio calculation. Gold contracts are accorded the same treatment as exchange rate contracts except gold contracts with an original maturity of 14 calendar days or less are included in the risk-based calculation. Over-the-counter options purchased are included and treated in the same way as other derivative contracts.</P>
            <P>3. <E T="03">Credit Equivalent Amounts for Derivative Contracts.</E> (a) The credit equivalent amount of a derivative contract that is not subject to a qualifying bilateral netting contract in accordance with section II.<E T="03">E.</E>5. of this appendix A is equal to the sum of:</P>

            <P>(i) The current exposure (which is equal to the mark-to-market value,<E T="51">40</E>
              <FTREF/> if positive, and is sometimes referred to as the replacement cost) of the contract; and</P>
            <FTNT>
              <P>
                <E T="51">40</E> Mark-to-market values are measured in dollars, regardless of the currency or currencies specified in the contract and should reflect changes in both underlying rates, prices and indices, and counterparty credit quality.</P>
            </FTNT>
            <P>(ii) An estimate of the potential future credit exposure.</P>
            <P>(b) The current exposure is determined by the mark-to-market value of the contract. If the mark-to-market value is positive, then the current exposure is equal to that mark-to-market value. If the mark-to-market value is zero or negative, then the current exposure is zero.</P>
            <P>(c) The potential future credit exposure of a contract, including a contract with a negative mark-to-market value, is estimated by multiplying the notional principal amount of the contract by a credit conversion factor. Banks should, subject to examiner review, use the effective rather than the apparent or stated notional amount in this calculation. The credit conversion factors are:</P>
            <GPOTABLE CDEF="s100,10,10,10,10,10" COLS="6" OPTS="L2,i1">
              <TTITLE>Conversion Factor Matrix</TTITLE>
              <BOXHD>
                <CHED H="1">Remaining maturity</CHED>
                <CHED H="1">Interest rate</CHED>
                <CHED H="1">Exchange rate and gold</CHED>
                <CHED H="1">Equity</CHED>
                <CHED H="1">Precious metals, except gold</CHED>
                <CHED H="1">Other commodities</CHED>
              </BOXHD>
              <ROW>
                <ENT I="01">One year or less</ENT>
                <ENT>0.0% </ENT>
                <ENT>1.0% </ENT>
                <ENT>6.0% </ENT>
                <ENT>7.0% </ENT>
                <ENT>10.0%</ENT>
              </ROW>
              <ROW>
                <ENT I="01">More than one year to five years</ENT>
                <ENT>0.5% </ENT>
                <ENT>5.0% </ENT>
                <ENT>8.0% </ENT>
                <ENT>7.0% </ENT>
                <ENT>12.0%</ENT>
              </ROW>
              <ROW>
                <ENT I="01">More than five years</ENT>
                <ENT>1.5% </ENT>
                <ENT>7.5% </ENT>
                <ENT>10.0% </ENT>
                <ENT>8.0% </ENT>
                <ENT>15.0%</ENT>
              </ROW>
            </GPOTABLE>
            <P>(d) For contracts that are structured to settle outstanding exposure on specified dates and where the terms are reset such that the market value of the contract is zero on these specified dates, the remaining maturity is equal to the time until the next reset date. For interest rate contracts with remaining maturities of more than one year and that meet these criteria, the conversion factor is subject to a minimum value of 0.5 percent.</P>
            <P>(e) For contracts with multiple exchanges of principal, the conversion factors are to be multiplied by the number of remaining payments in the contract. Derivative contracts not explicitly covered by any of the columns of the conversion factor matrix are to be treated as “other commodities.”</P>
            <P>(f) No potential future exposure is calculated for single currency interest rate swaps in which payments are made based upon two floating rate indices (so called floating/floating or basis swaps); the credit exposure on these contracts is evaluated solely on the basis of their mark-to-market values.</P>
            <P>4. <E T="03">Risk Weights and Avoidance of Double Counting.</E> (a) Once the credit equivalent amount for a derivative contract, or a group of derivative contracts subject to a qualifying bilateral netting agreement, has been determined, that amount is assigned to the risk category appropriate to the counterparty, or, if relevant, the guarantor or the nature of any collateral. However, the maximum weight that will be applied to the credit equivalent amount of such contracts is 50 percent.</P>
            <P>(b) In certain cases, credit exposures arising from the derivative contracts covered by these guidelines may already be reflected, in part, on the balance sheet. To avoid double counting such exposures in the assessment of capital adequacy and, perhaps, assigning inappropriate risk weights, counterparty credit exposures arising from the types of instruments covered by these guidelines may need to be excluded from balance sheet assets in calculating a bank's risk-based capital ratio.</P>

            <P>(c) The FDIC notes that the conversion factors set forth in section II.<E T="03">E.</E>3. of appendix A, which are based on observed volatilities of the particular types of instruments, are subject to review and modification in light of changing volatilities or market conditions.<PRTPAGE P="198"/>
            </P>
            <P>(d) Examples of the calculation of credit equivalent amounts for these types of contracts are contained in Table IV of this appendix A.</P>
            <P>5. <E T="03">Netting.</E> (a) For purposes of this appendix A, netting refers to the offsetting of positive and negative mark-to-market values when determining a current exposure to be used in the calculation of a credit equivalent amount. Any legally enforceable form of bilateral netting (that is, netting with a single counterparty) of derivative contracts is recognized for purposes of calculating the credit equivalent amount provided that:</P>
            <P>(i) The netting is accomplished under a written netting contract that creates a single legal obligation, covering all included individual contracts, with the effect that the bank would have a claim or obligation to receive or pay, respectively, only the net amount of the sum of the positive and negative mark-to-market values on included individual contracts in the event that a counterparty, or a counterparty to whom the contract has been validly assigned, fails to perform due to default, bankruptcy, liquidation, or similar circumstances;</P>
            <P>(ii) The bank obtains a written and reasoned legal opinion(s) representing that in the event of a legal challenge, including one resulting from default, insolvency, bankruptcy or similar circumstances, the relevant court and administrative authorities would find the bank's exposure to be such a net amount under:</P>
            <P>(<E T="03">1</E>) The law of the jurisdiction in which the counterparty is chartered or the equivalent location in the case of noncorporate entities and, if a branch of the counterparty is involved, then also under the law of the jurisdiction in which the branch is located;</P>
            <P>(<E T="03">2</E>) The law that governs the individual contracts covered by the netting contract; and</P>
            <P>(<E T="03">3</E>) The law that governs the netting contract.</P>
            <P>(iii) The bank establishes and maintains procedures to ensure that the legal characteristics of netting contracts are kept under review in the light of possible changes in relevant law; and</P>
            <P>(iv) The bank maintains in its file documentation adequate to support the netting of derivative contracts, including a copy of the bilateral netting contract and necessary legal opinions.</P>

            <P>(b) A contract containing a walkaway clause is not eligible for netting for purposes of calculating the credit equivalent amount.<E T="51">41</E>
              <FTREF/>
            </P>
            <FTNT>
              <P>
                <E T="51">41</E> For purposes of this section, a walkaway clause means a provision in a netting contract that permits a non-defaulting counterparty to make lower payments than it would make otherwise under the contract, or no payment at all, to a defaulter or to the estate of a defaulter, even if a defaulter or the estate of a defaulter is a net creditor under the contract.</P>
            </FTNT>
            <P>(c) By netting individual contracts for the purpose of calculating its credit equivalent amount, a bank represents that it has met the requirements of this appendix A and all the appropriate documents are in the bank's files and available for inspection by the FDIC. Upon determination by the FDIC that a bank's files are inadequate or that a netting contract may not be legally enforceable under any one of the bodies of law described in paragraphs (ii)(1) through (3) of section II.E.5.(a) of this appendix A, underlying individual contracts may be treated as though they were not subject to the netting contract.</P>
            <P>(d) The credit equivalent amount of derivative contracts that are subject to a qualifying bilateral netting contract is calculated by adding:</P>
            <P>(i) The net current exposure of the netting contract; and</P>

            <P>(ii) The sum of the estimates of potential future exposure for all individual contracts subject to the netting contract, adjusted to take into account the effects of the netting contract.<E T="51">42</E>
              <FTREF/>
            </P>
            <FTNT>
              <P>
                <E T="51">42</E> For purposes of calculating potential future credit exposure for foreign exchange contracts and other similar contracts in which notional principal is equivalent to cash flows, total notional principal is defined as the net receipts to each party falling due on each value date in each currency.</P>
            </FTNT>
            <P>(e) The net current exposure is the sum of all positive and negative mark-to-market values of the individual contracts subject to the netting contract. If the net sum of the mark-to-market values is positive, then the net current exposure is equal to that sum. If the net sum of the mark-to-market values is zero or negative, then the net current exposure is zero.</P>

            <P>(f) The effects of the bilateral netting contract on the gross potential future exposure are recognized through application of a formula, resulting in an adjusted add-on amount (A<E T="52">net</E>). The formula, which employs the ratio of net current exposure to gross current exposure (NGR) is expressed as:
            </P>
            <FP SOURCE="FP-2">A<E T="52">net</E>=(0.4×A<E T="52">gross</E>)+0.6(NGR×A<E T="52">gross</E>)</FP>
            
            <P>The effect of this formula is that A<E T="52">net</E> is the weighted average of A<E T="52">gross</E>, and A<E T="52">gross</E> adjusted by the NGR.</P>
            <P>(g) The NGR may be calculated in either one of two ways—referred to as the counterparty-by-counterparty approach and the aggregate approach.</P>

            <P>(i) Under the counterparty-by-counterparty approach, the NGR is the ratio of the net current exposure of the netting <PRTPAGE P="199"/>contract to the gross current exposure of the netting contract. The gross current exposure is the sum of the current exposures of all individual contracts subject to the netting contract calculated in accordance with section II.E. of this appendix A.</P>

            <P>(ii) Under the aggregate approach, the NGR is the ratio of the sum of all of the net current exposures for qualifying bilateral netting contracts to the sum of all of the gross current exposures for those netting contracts (each gross current exposure is calculated in the same manner as in section II.<E T="03">E</E>.5.(g)(i) of this appendix A). Net negative mark-to-market values to individual counterparties cannot be used to offset net positive current exposures to other counterparties.</P>
            <P>(iii) A bank must use consistently either the counterparty-by-counterparty approach or the aggregate approach to calculate the NGR. Regardless of the approach used, the NGR should be applied individually to each qualifying bilateral netting contract to determine the adjusted add-on for that netting contract.</P>
            <HD SOURCE="HD1">III. Minimum Risk-Based Capital Ratio</HD>
            <HD SOURCE="HD2">A. Minimum Risk-Based Capital Ratio After Transition Period</HD>
            <P>Banks generally will be expected to meet a <E T="03">minimum</E> ratio of qualifying total capital to risk-weighted assets of <E T="03">8 percent,</E> of which at least 4 percentage points should be in the form of core capital (Tier 1). Any bank that does not meet the minimum risk-based capital ratio, or whose capital is otherwise considered inadequate, generally will be expected to develop and implement a capital plan for achieving an adequate level of capital, consistent with the provisions of this risk-based capital framework, the specific circumstances affecting the individual bank, and the requirements of any related agreements between the bank and the FDIC.</P>
            <HD SOURCE="HD2">B. Transitional Arrangements</HD>
            <P>The transition period commences with the adoption of this statement of policy and ends on December 31, 1992. Initially, this risk-based capital framework does not establish a minimum level of capital. However, by year-end 1990, banks generally will be expected to meet a minimum total capital to risk-weighted assets ratio of 7.25 percent, at least one-half of which should be in the form of Tier 1 capital. For purposes of calculating this interim minimum ratio, the amount of the allowance for loan and lease losses that may be included as a supplementary capital element is limited to 1.5 percent of risk-weighted assets. In addition, up to 10 percent of a bank's Tier 1 capital (before any deduction for disallowed intangibles) may consist of supplementary capital elements. Thus, the 7.25 percent interim ratio implies a minimum ratio of Tier 1 capital to risk-weighted assets of approximately 3.6 percent (or one-half of 7.25) and a minimum ratio of core capital elements to risk-weighted assets of 3.25 percent (or nine-tenths of the Tier 1 capital ratio). By the end of 1992, a state nonmember bank's Tier 1 capital should consist solely of core capital elements.</P>
            <P>During the transition period, banks should monitor their risk-based capital ratios and work toward achieving the interim and final risk-based capital ratios. Any bank that has risk-based capital ratios of less than 4 percent Tier 1 capital and 8 percent total capital should develop and implement a capital plan for achieving those minimum standards by December 31, 1992, and for achieving the interim minimum ratio of 7.25 percent by December 31, 1990. Banks that at present have a risk-based capital ratio in excess of 8 percent generally should not take any action that would cause the ratio to fall below 8 percent.</P>
            <GPOTABLE CDEF="s50,r25" COLS="2" OPTS="L2,i1">
              <TTITLE>Table I— Definition of Qualifying Capital</TTITLE>
              <BOXHD>
                <CHED H="1">Components</CHED>
                <CHED H="1">Minimum requirements and limitations</CHED>
              </BOXHD>
              <ROW>
                <ENT I="01">(1) Core Capital (Tier 1)</ENT>
                <ENT>Must equal or exceed 4% of risk-weighted assets.</ENT>
              </ROW>
              <ROW>
                <ENT I="01">(2) Common stockholders’ equity capital </ENT>
                <ENT>No limit.<E T="51">1</E>
                </ENT>
              </ROW>
              <ROW>
                <ENT I="01">(3) Noncumulative perpetual preferred stock and any related surplus </ENT>
                <ENT>No limit.<SU>1</SU>
                </ENT>
              </ROW>
              <ROW>
                <ENT I="01">(4) Minority interests in equity capital accounts of consolidated subsidiaries </ENT>
                <ENT>No limit.<SU>1</SU>
                </ENT>
              </ROW>
              <ROW>
                <ENT I="01">(5) Less: All intangible assets other than mortgage servicing rights and purchased credit card relationships</ENT>
                <ENT>(<SU>2</SU>)</ENT>
              </ROW>
              <ROW>
                <ENT I="01">(6) Less: Certain deferred tax assets</ENT>
                <ENT>(<SU>3</SU>)</ENT>
              </ROW>
              <ROW>
                <ENT I="01">(7) Supplementary Capital (Tier 2) </ENT>
                <ENT>Total of Tier 2 is limited to 100% of Tier 1.<E T="51">4</E>
                </ENT>
              </ROW>
              <ROW>
                <ENT I="01">(8) Allowance for loan and lease losses </ENT>
                <ENT>Limited to 1.25% of risk-weighted assets.<E T="51">4</E>
                </ENT>
              </ROW>
              <ROW>
                <ENT I="01">(9) Unrealized gains on certain equity securities <E T="51">5</E>
                </ENT>
                <ENT>Limited to 45% of pretax net unrealized gains.<SU>5</SU>
                </ENT>
              </ROW>
              <ROW>
                <ENT I="01">(10) Cumulative perpetual and long-term preferred stock (original maturity of 20 years or more) and any related surplus </ENT>
                <ENT>No limit within Tier 2; long-term preferred is amortized for capital purposes as it approaches maturity.</ENT>
              </ROW>
              <ROW>
                <ENT I="01">(11) Auction rate and similar preferred stock (both cumulative and non-cumulative) </ENT>
                <ENT>No limit within Tier 2.</ENT>
              </ROW>
              <ROW>
                <ENT I="01">(12) Hybrid capital instruments (including mandatory convertible debt securities) </ENT>
                <ENT>No limit within Tier 2.</ENT>
              </ROW>
              <ROW>
                <PRTPAGE P="200"/>
                <ENT I="01">(13) Term subordinated debt and intermediate-term preferred stock (original weighted average maturity of five years or more) </ENT>
                <ENT>Term subordinated debt and intermediate term preferred stock are limited to 50% of Tier 1<SU>4</SU> and amortized for capital purposes as they approach maturity.</ENT>
              </ROW>
              <ROW>
                <ENT I="01">(14) Deductions (from the sum of Tier 1 plus Tier 2)</ENT>
              </ROW>
              <ROW>
                <ENT I="01">(15) Investments in banking and finance subsidiaries that are not consolidated for regulatory capital purposes</ENT>
              </ROW>
              <ROW>
                <ENT I="01">(16) Intentional, reciprocal cross-holdings of capital securities issued by banks</ENT>
              </ROW>
              <ROW>
                <ENT I="01">(17) Other deductions (such as investments in other subsidiaries or in joint ventures) as determined by supervisory authority </ENT>
                <ENT>On a case-by-case basis or as a matter of policy after formal consideration of relevant issues.</ENT>
              </ROW>
              <ROW>
                <ENT I="01">(18) Total Capital (Tier 1 + Tier 2—Deductions)</ENT>
                <ENT>Must equal or exceed 8% of risk-weighted assets.</ENT>
              </ROW>
              <TNOTE>
                <SU>1</SU> No express limits are placed on the amounts of nonvoting common, noncumulative perpetual preferred stock, and minority interests that may be recognized as part of Tier 1 capital. However, voting common stockholders’ equity capital generally will be expected to be the dominant form of Tier 1 capital and banks should avoid undue reliance on other Tier 1 capital elements.</TNOTE>
              <TNOTE>
                <SU>2</SU> The amounts of mortgage servicing rights and purchased credit card relationships that can be recognized for purposes of calculating Tier 1 capital are subject to the limitations set forth in § 325.5(f). All deductions are for capital purposes only; deductions would not affect accounting treatment.</TNOTE>
              <TNOTE>
                <SU>3</SU> Deferred tax assets are subject to the capital limitations set forth in § 325.5(g).</TNOTE>
              <TNOTE>
                <SU>4</SU> Amounts in excess of limitations are permitted but do not qualify as capital.</TNOTE>
              <TNOTE>

                <SU>5</SU> Unrealized gains on equity securities are subject to the capital limitations set forth in paragraph I.<E T="03">A</E>.2.(f) of Appendix A to part 325.</TNOTE>
            </GPOTABLE>
            <HD SOURCE="HD1">Calculation of the Risk-Based Capital Ratio</HD>
            <P>When calculating the risk-based capital ratio under the framework set forth in this statement of policy, qualifying total capital (the numerator) is divided by risk-weighted assets (the denominator). The process of determining the numerator for the ratio is summarized in Table I. The calculation of the denominator is based on the risk weights and conversion factors that are summarized in Tables II and III.</P>
            <P>When determining the amount of risk-weighted assets, balance sheet assets are assigned an appropriate risk weight (see Table II) and off-balance sheet items are first converted to a credit equivalent amount (see Table III) and then assigned to one of the risk weight categories set forth in Table II.</P>
            <P>The balance sheet assets and the credit equivalent amount of off-balance sheet items are then multiplied by the appropriate risk weight percentages and the sum of these risk-weighted amounts is the gross risk-weighted asset figure used in determining the denominator of the risk-based capital ratio. Any items deducted from capital when computing the amount of qualifying capital may also be excluded from risk-weighted assets when calculating the denominator for the risk-based capital ratio.</P>
            <HD SOURCE="HD1">Table II.—Summary of Risk Weights and Risk Categories</HD>
            <HD SOURCE="HD2">Category 1—Zero Percent Risk Weight</HD>
            <P>(1) Cash (domestic and foreign).</P>
            <P>(2) Balances due from Federal Reserve Banks and central banks in other OECD countries.</P>
            <P>(3) Direct claims on, and portions of claims unconditionally guaranteed by, the U.S. Treasury, U.S. Government agencies,<SU>1</SU>
              <FTREF/> or central governments in other OECD countries.</P>
            <FTNT>
              <P>
                <SU>1</SU> For the purpose of calculating the risk-based capital ratio, a U.S. Government agency is defined as an instrumentality of the U.S. Government whose obligations are fully and explicitly guaranteed as to the timely repayment of principal and interest by the full faith and credit of the U.S. Government.</P>
            </FTNT>
            <P>(4) Portions of local currency claims on, or unconditionally guaranteed by, non-OECD central governments (including non-OECD central banks), to the extent the bank has liabilities booked in that currency.</P>
            <P>(5) Gold bullion held in the bank's own vaults or in another bank's vaults on an allocated basis, to the extent that it is offset by gold bullion liabilities</P>
            <P>(6) Federal Reserve Bank stock.</P>
            <HD SOURCE="HD2">Category 2—20 Percent Risk Weight</HD>
            <P>(1) Cash items in the process of collection.</P>
            <P>(2) All claims (long- and short-term) on, and portions of claims (long- and short-term) guaranteed by, U.S. depository institutions and OECD banks.</P>
            <P>(3) Short-term (remaining maturity of one year or less) claims on, and portions of short-term claims guaranteed by, non-OECD banks.</P>

            <P>(4) Portions of loans and other claims conditionally guaranteed by the U.S. Treasury, U.S. Government agencies,<SU>1</SU> or central governments in other OECD countries and portions of local currency claims conditionally guaranteed by non-OECD central governments to the extent that the bank has liabilities booked in that currency.<PRTPAGE P="201"/>
            </P>

            <P>(5) Securities and other claims on, and portions of claims guaranteed by, U.S. Government-<E T="03">sponsored</E> agencies.<SU>2</SU>
              <FTREF/>
            </P>
            <FTNT>
              <P>

                <SU>2</SU> For the purpose of calculating the risk-based capital ratio, a U.S. Government-<E T="03">sponsored</E> agency is defined as an agency originally established or chartered to serve public purposes specified by the U.S. Congress but whose obligations are not <E T="03">explicitly</E> guaranteed by the full faith and credit of the U.S. Government.</P>
            </FTNT>
            <P>(6) Portions of loans and other claims (including repurchase agreements) collateralized <SU>3</SU>
              <FTREF/> by securities issued or guaranteed by the U.S. Treasury, U.S. Government agencies, U.S. Government-sponsored agencies or central governments in other OECD countries.</P>
            <FTNT>
              <P>
                <SU>3</SU> Degree of collateralization is determined by current market value.</P>
            </FTNT>
            <P>(7) Portions of loans and other claims collateralized <SU>3</SU> by cash on deposit in the lending bank.</P>
            <P>(8) General obligation claims on, and portions of claims guaranteed by, the full faith and credit of states or other political subdivisions of OECD countries, including U.S. state and local governments.</P>
            <P>(9) Claims on, and portions of claims guaranteed by, official multilateral lending institutions or regional development institutions in which the U.S. Government is a shareholder or a contributing member.</P>
            <P>(10) Portions of claims collateralized <SU>3</SU> by securities issued by official multilateral lending institutions or regional development institutions in which the U.S. Government is a shareholder or contributing member.</P>
            <P>(11) Privately-issued mortgage-backed securities representing indirect ownership of U.S. Government agency or U.S. Government-sponsored agency securities.</P>
            <P>(12) Investments in shares of mutual funds whose portfolios are permitted to hold only assets that qualify for the zero or 20 percent risk categories.</P>
            <HD SOURCE="HD2">Category 3—50 Percent Risk Weight</HD>
            <P>(1) Loans fully secured by first liens on one-to-four family residential properties (including certain presold residential construction loans), provided that the loans were approved in accordance with prudent underwriting standards and are not past due 90 days or more or carried in nonaccrual status.</P>
            <P>(2) Loans fully secured by first liens on multifamily residential properties that have been prudently underwritten and meet specified requirements with respect to loan-to-value ratio, level of annual net operating income to required debt service, maximum amortization period, minimum original maturity, and demonstrated timely repayment performance.</P>
            <P>(3) Certain privately-issued mortgage-backed securities representing indirect ownership of a pool of residential loans that meet the criteria for a 50 percent risk weight.</P>
            <P>(4) Revenue bonds or similar obligations, including loans and leases, that are obligations of U.S. state or political subdivisions of the United States or other OECD countries but for which the government entity is committed to repay the debt only out of revenues from the specific projects financed.</P>
            <P>(5) Credit equivalent amounts of interest rate and foreign exchange rate related contracts, except for those assigned to a lower risk category.</P>
            <HD SOURCE="HD2">Category 4—100 Percent Risk Weight</HD>
            <P>(1) All other claims on private obligors.</P>
            <P>(2) Claims on, or guaranteed by, non-OECD banks with a remaining maturity exceeding one year.</P>
            <P>(3) Claims on non-OECD central governments that are not included in item 4 of Category 1 or item 3 of Category 2, and all claims on non-OECD state and local governments.</P>
            <P>(4) Obligations issued by U.S. state or local governments or other OECD local governments (including industrial development authorities and similar entities) that are repayable solely by a private party or enterprise.</P>
            <P>(5) Premises, plant, and equipment; other fixed assets; and other real estate owned.</P>
            <P>(6) Investments in any unconsolidated subsidiaries, joint ventures, or associated companies—if not deducted from capital.</P>
            <P>(7) Instruments issued by other banking organizations that qualify as capital.</P>
            <P>(8) Claims on commercial firms owned by the U.S. Government or foreign governments.</P>
            <P>(9) All other assets, including any intangible assets that are not deducted from capital, and the credit equivalent amounts <SU>4</SU>
              <FTREF/> of off-balance sheet items not assigned to a lower risk category.</P>
            <FTNT>
              <P>

                <SU>4</SU> For each off-balance sheet item, a conversion factor (see Table III) must be applied to determine the <E T="03">credit equivalent amount</E> prior to assigning the off-balance sheet item to a risk weight category.</P>
            </FTNT>
            <HD SOURCE="HD1">Table III.—Credit Conversion Factors for Off-Balance Sheet Items</HD>
            <HD SOURCE="HD2">100 Percent Conversion Factor</HD>

            <P>(1) Direct credit substitutes, including general guarantees of indebtedness and guarantee-type instruments, such as standby letters of credit that serve as financial guarantees for, or support the repayment of, loans, securities or commercial letters of credit.<PRTPAGE P="202"/>
            </P>
            <P>(2) Acquisitions of risk participations in bankers acceptances and in such direct credit substitutes and financial standby letters of credit.</P>
            <P>(3) Sale and repurchase agreements and asset sales with recourse, if not already included on the balance sheet.</P>

            <P>(4) Forward agreements representing contractual obligations to purchase assets, including financing facilities, with drawdown <E T="03">certain</E> at a specified future date.</P>
            <P>(5) Securities lent, if the lending bank is exposed to risk of loss.</P>
            <HD SOURCE="HD2">50 Percent Conversion Factor</HD>
            <P>(1) Transaction-related contingencies, including bid bonds, performance bonds, warranties, and performance standby letters of credit backing the nonfinancial performance of other parties.</P>
            <P>(2) Unused portions of commitments with an original maturity <SU>1</SU>
              <FTREF/> exceeding one year, including underwriting commitments and commercial credit lines.</P>
            <FTNT>
              <P>
                <SU>1</SU> Remaining maturity may be used until year-end 1990.</P>
            </FTNT>
            <P>(3) Revolving underwriting facilities (RUFs), note issuance facilities (NIFs) and other similar arrangements.</P>
            <HD SOURCE="HD2">20 Percent Conversion Factor</HD>
            <P>(1) Short-term, self-liquidating, trade-related contingencies, including commercial letters of credit.</P>
            <HD SOURCE="HD2">Zero Percent Conversion Factor</HD>
            <P>(1) Unused portions of commitments with an original maturity <SU>1</SU> of one year or less.</P>
            <P>(2) Unused portions of commitments (regardless of maturity) which are unconditionally cancelable at any time, provided a separate credit decision is made before each drawing.</P>
            <HD SOURCE="HD2">Credit Conversion for Interest Rate and Foreign Exchange Rate Related Contracts</HD>
            <P>The total replacement cost of contracts (obtained by summing the positive mark-to-market values of contracts) is added to a measure of future potential increases in credit exposure. This future potential credit exposure measure is calculated by multiplying the total notional value of contracts by one of the following credit conversion factors, as appropriate:</P>
            <GPOTABLE CDEF="s100,10,10,10,10,10" COLS="6" OPTS="L2,i1">
              <TTITLE>Conversion Factor Matrix</TTITLE>
              <BOXHD>
                <CHED H="1">Remaining maturity</CHED>
                <CHED H="1">Interest rate</CHED>
                <CHED H="1">Exchange rate and gold</CHED>
                <CHED H="1">Equity</CHED>
                <CHED H="1">Precious metals, except gold</CHED>
                <CHED H="1">Other commodities</CHED>
              </BOXHD>
              <ROW>
                <ENT I="01">One year or less </ENT>
                <ENT>0.0% </ENT>
                <ENT>1.0% </ENT>
                <ENT>6.0% </ENT>
                <ENT>7.0% </ENT>
                <ENT>10.0%</ENT>
              </ROW>
              <ROW>
                <ENT I="01">More than one year to five years </ENT>
                <ENT>0.5% </ENT>
                <ENT>5.0% </ENT>
                <ENT>8.0% </ENT>
                <ENT>7.0% </ENT>
                <ENT>12.0%</ENT>
              </ROW>
              <ROW>
                <ENT I="01">More than five years </ENT>
                <ENT>1.5% </ENT>
                <ENT>7.5% </ENT>
                <ENT>10.0% </ENT>
                <ENT>8.0% </ENT>
                <ENT>15.0%</ENT>
              </ROW>
            </GPOTABLE>
            <P>No potential exposure is calculated for single currency interest rate contracts on which payments are made based on two floating rate indices (floating/floating or basis swaps); the credit exposure on these contracts is evaluated solely on the basis of their mark-to-market values. In the event a netting contract covers transactions that are normally not included in the risk-based ratio calculation—for example, exchange rate contracts with an original maturity of fourteen calendar days or less or instruments traded on exchanges that require daily payment of variation margin—an institution may elect to consistently either include or exclude all mark-to-market values of such transactions when determining a net current exposure. Multiple contracts with the same counterparty may be netted for risk-based capital purposes pursuant to section II.E.5. of this appendix.</P>
            <GPOTABLE CDEF="s50,10,10,10,10,10,10" COLS="7" OPTS="L2,i1">
              <TTITLE>Table IV.—Calculation of Credit Equivalent Amounts for Derivative Contracts</TTITLE>
              <BOXHD>
                <CHED H="1">Potential exposure</CHED>
                <CHED H="2">Type of contract (remaining maturity)</CHED>
                <CHED H="1">+</CHED>
                <CHED H="2">Notional principal (dollars)</CHED>
                <CHED H="1">Current exposure</CHED>
                <CHED H="2">Conversion factor</CHED>
                <CHED H="1">=</CHED>
                <CHED H="2">Potential exposure (dollars)</CHED>
                <CHED H="1">Credit equivalent amount</CHED>
                <CHED H="2">Mark-to market value</CHED>
                <CHED H="2">Current exposure (dollars)</CHED>
                <CHED H="1">Credit equivalent amount</CHED>
              </BOXHD>
              <ROW>
                <ENT I="01">(1) 120-Day Forward Foreign Exchange </ENT>
                <ENT>5,000,000 </ENT>
                <ENT>.01 </ENT>
                <ENT>50,000 </ENT>
                <ENT>100,000 </ENT>
                <ENT>100,000 </ENT>
                <ENT>150,000</ENT>
              </ROW>
              <ROW>
                <ENT I="01">(2) 4-Year Forward Foreign Exchange </ENT>
                <ENT>6,000,000 </ENT>
                <ENT>.05 </ENT>
                <ENT>300,000 </ENT>
                <ENT>−120,000 </ENT>
                <ENT>0 </ENT>
                <ENT>300,000</ENT>
              </ROW>
              <ROW>
                <ENT I="01">(3) 3-Year Single-Currency Fixed/Floating Interest Rate Swap </ENT>
                <ENT>10,000,000 </ENT>
                <ENT>.005 </ENT>
                <ENT>50,000 </ENT>
                <ENT>200,000 </ENT>
                <ENT>200,000 </ENT>
                <ENT>250,000</ENT>
              </ROW>
              <ROW>
                <ENT I="01">(4) 6-Month Oil Swap </ENT>
                <ENT>10,000,000 </ENT>
                <ENT>.10 </ENT>
                <ENT>1,000,000 </ENT>
                <ENT>−250,000 </ENT>
                <ENT>0 </ENT>
                <ENT>1,000,000</ENT>
              </ROW>
              <ROW>
                <PRTPAGE P="203"/>
                <ENT I="01">(5) 7-Year Cross-Currency Floating/Floating Interest Rate Swap </ENT>
                <ENT>20,000,000 </ENT>
                <ENT>.075 </ENT>
                <ENT>1,500,000 </ENT>
                <ENT>−1,500,000 </ENT>
                <ENT>0 </ENT>
                <ENT>1,500,000</ENT>
              </ROW>
              <ROW>
                <ENT I="04">Total </ENT>
                <ENT/>
                <ENT/>
                <ENT>2,900,000 </ENT>
                <ENT/>
                <ENT>300,000 </ENT>
                <ENT>3,200,000</ENT>
              </ROW>
            </GPOTABLE>
            <P>(1) If contracts (1) through (5) above are subject to a qualifying bilateral netting contract, then the following applies:</P>
            <GPOTABLE CDEF="s150,10,xl4,10,xl10,10" COLS="6" OPTS="L2,i1">
              <BOXHD>
                <CHED H="1"/>
                <CHED H="1">Potential future exposure (from above)</CHED>
                <CHED H="1"/>
                <CHED H="1">Net current exposure*</CHED>
                <CHED H="1"/>
                <CHED H="1">Credit equivalent amount</CHED>
              </BOXHD>
              <ROW>
                <ENT I="01">(1) </ENT>
                <ENT>50,000</ENT>
              </ROW>
              <ROW>
                <ENT I="01">(2) </ENT>
                <ENT>300,000</ENT>
              </ROW>
              <ROW>
                <ENT I="01">(3) </ENT>
                <ENT>50,000</ENT>
              </ROW>
              <ROW>
                <ENT I="01">(4) </ENT>
                <ENT>1,000,000</ENT>
              </ROW>
              <ROW>
                <ENT I="01">(5) </ENT>
                <ENT>1,500,000</ENT>
              </ROW>
              <ROW>
                <ENT I="04">Total </ENT>
                <ENT>2,900,000 </ENT>
                <ENT>+ </ENT>
                <ENT>0 </ENT>
                <ENT>= </ENT>
                <ENT>2,900,000</ENT>
              </ROW>
              <TNOTE>*The total of the mark-to-market values from above is −1,370,000. Since this is a negative amount, the net current exposure is zero.</TNOTE>
            </GPOTABLE>

            <P>(2) To recognize the effects of netting on potential future exposure, the following formula applies:
            </P>
            <FP SOURCE="FP-2">A<E T="52">net</E>=(0.4×A<E T="52">gross</E>)+0.6(NGR×A<E T="52">gross</E>)</FP>
            
            <P>(3) In the above example:
            </P>
            <FP SOURCE="FP-2">NGR=0=(0/300,000)</FP>
            <FP SOURCE="FP-2">A<E T="52">net</E>=(0.4×2,900,000)+0.6(0×2,900,000)</FP>
            <FP SOURCE="FP-2">A<E T="52">net</E>=1,160,000</FP>
            
            <FP SOURCE="FP-2">Credit Equivalent Amount: 1,160,000+0=1,160,000</FP>
            

            <P>(4) If the net current exposure was a positive amount, for example, $200,000, the credit equivalent amount would be calculated as follows:
            </P>
            <FP SOURCE="FP-2">NGR=.67=(200,000/300,000)</FP>
            <FP SOURCE="FP-2">A<E T="52">net</E>=(0.4×2,900,000)+0.6(.67×2,900,000)</FP>
            <FP SOURCE="FP-2">A<E T="52">net</E>=2,325,800</FP>
            
            <FP SOURCE="FP-2">Credit Equivalent Amount: 2,325,800+200,000=2,525,800</FP>
            <CITA>[54 FR 11509, Mar. 21, 1989]</CITA>
            <EDNOTE>
              <HD SOURCE="HED">Editorial Note: </HD>
              <P>For <E T="04">Federal Register</E> citations affecting Appendix A of part 325, see the List of CFR Sections Affected in the Finding Aids section of this volume.</P>
            </EDNOTE>
          </APPENDIX>
          <APPENDIX>
            <EAR>Pt. 325, App. B</EAR>
            <HD SOURCE="HED">Appendix B to Part 325—Statement of Policy on Capital Adequacy</HD>
            <P>Part 325 of the Federal Deposit Insurance Corporation rules and regulations (12 CFR part 325) sets forth minimum leverage capital requirements for fundamentally sound, well-managed banks having no material or significant financial weaknesses. It also defines capital and sets forth sanctions which will be used against banks which are in violation of the part 325 regulation. This statement of policy on capital adequacy provides some interpretational and definitional guidance as to how this part 325 regulation will be administered and enforced by the FDIC. This statement of policy also addresses certain aspects of the FDIC's minimum risk-based capital guidelines that are set forth in appendix A to part 325. This statement of policy does not address the prompt corrective action provisions mandated by the Federal Deposit Insurance Corporation Improvement Act of 1991. However, section 38 of the Federal Deposit Insurance Act and subpart B of part 325 provide guidance on the prompt corrective action provisions, which generally apply to institutions with inadequate levels of capital.</P>
            <HD SOURCE="HD1">I. Enforcement of Minimum Capital Requirements</HD>

            <P>Section 325.3(b)(1) specifies that FDIC-supervised, state-chartered nonmember commercial and savings banks (or other insured depository institutions making applications to the FDIC that require the FDIC to consider the adequacy of the institutions’ capital structure) must maintain a minimum leverage ratio of Tier 1 (or core) capital to total assets of at least 3 percent; however, this minimum only applies to the most highly-rated banks (i.e., those with a composite <PRTPAGE P="204"/>CAMEL rating of 1 under the Uniform Financial Institutions Rating System established by the Federal Financial Institutions Examination Council) that are not anticipating or experiencing any significant growth. All other state nonmember banks would need to meet a minimum leverage ratio that is at least 100 to 200 basis points above this minimum. That is, in accordance with § 325.3(b)(2), an absolute minimum leverage ratio of not less than 4 percent must be maintained by those banks that are not highly-rated or that are anticipating or experiencing significant growth.</P>
            <P>In addition to the minimum leverage capital standards, section III of appendix A to part 325 indicates that state nonmember banks generally are expected to maintain a minimum risk-based capital ratio of qualifying total capital to risk-weighted assets of 8 percent by December 31, 1992 (and at least 7.25 percent by December 31, 1990), with at least one-half of that total capital amount consisting of Tier 1 capital.</P>
            <P>State nonmember banks (hereinafter referred to as “banks”) operating with leverage capital ratios below the minimums set forth in part 325 will be deemed to have inadequate capital and will be in violation of the part 325 regulation. Furthermore, banks operating with risk-based capital ratios below the minimums set forth in appendix A to part 325 generally will be deemed to have inadequate capital. Banks failing to meet the minimum leverage and/or risk-based capital ratios normally can expect to have any application submitted to the FDIC denied (if such application requires the FDIC to evaluate the adequacy of the institution's capital structure) and also can expect to be subject to the use of capital directives or other formal enforcement action by the FDIC to increase capital.</P>
            <P>Capital adequacy in banks which have capital ratios at or above the minimums will be assessed and enforced based on the following factors (these same criteria will apply to any insured depository institutions making applications to the FDIC and to any other circumstances in which the FDIC is requested or required to evaluate the adequacy of a depository institution's capital structure):</P>
            <HD SOURCE="HD2">A. Banks Which Are Fundamentally Sound and Well-Managed</HD>
            <P>The minimum leverage capital ratios set forth in § 325.3(b)(2) and the minimum risk-based capital ratios set forth in section III of appendix A to part 325 generally will be viewed as the minimum acceptable capital standards for banks whose overall financial condition is fundamentally sound, which are well-managed and which have no material or significant financial weaknesses. While the FDIC will make this determination in each bank based upon its own condition and specific circumstances, this definition will generally apply to those banks evidencing a level of risk which is no greater than that normally associated with a Composite rating of 1 or 2 under the Uniform Financial Institutions Rating System. Banks meeting this definition which are in compliance with the minimum leverage and risk-based capital ratio standards will not generally be required by the FDIC to raise new capital from external sources.</P>
            <P>The FDIC does, however, encourage such banks to maintain capital well above the minimums, particularly those institutions that are anticipating or experiencing significant growth, and will carefully evaluate their earnings and growth trends, dividend policies, capital planning procedures and other factors important to the continuous maintenance of adequate capital. Adverse trends or deficiencies in these areas will be subject to criticism at regular examinations and may be an important factor in the FDIC's action on applications submitted by such banks. In addition, the FDIC's consideration of capital adequacy in banks making applications to the FDIC will also fully examine the expected impact of those applications on the bank's ability to maintain its capital adequacy. In all cases, banks should maintain capital commensurate with the level and nature of risks, including the volume and severity of adversely classified assets, to which they are exposed.</P>
            <HD SOURCE="HD2">B. All Other Banks</HD>
            <P>Banks not meeting the definition set forth in I.A. of this appendix, that is, banks evidencing a level of risk which is at least as great as that normally associated with a Composite rating of 3, 4, or 5 under the Uniform Financial Institutions Rating System, will be required to maintain capital higher than the minimum regulatory requirement and at a level deemed appropriate in relation to the degree of risk within the institution. These higher capital levels will normally be addressed through memorandums of understanding between the FDIC and the bank or, in cases of more pronounced risk, through the use of formal enforcement actions under section 8 of the Federal Deposit Insurance Act (12 U.S.C. 1818).</P>
            <HD SOURCE="HD2">C. Capital Requirements of Primary Regulator</HD>

            <P>Notwithstanding I.A. and B. of this appendix, all banks (or other depository institutions making applications to the FDIC that require the FDIC to consider the adequacy of the institutions’ capital structure) will be expected to meet any capital requirements established by their primary state or federal regulator which exceed the minimum capital requirement set forth in the FDIC's part 325 regulation. In addition, the FDIC will, when establishing capital requirements higher <PRTPAGE P="205"/>than the minimum set forth in the regulation, consult with an institution's primary state or federal regulator.</P>
            <HD SOURCE="HD1">II. Capital Plans</HD>
            <P>Section 325.4(b) specifies that any bank which has less than its minimum leverage capital requirement is deemed to be engaging in an unsafe or unsound banking practice unless it has submitted, and is in compliance with, a plan approved by the FDIC to increase its Tier 1 leverage capital ratio to such level as the FDIC deems appropriate.</P>
            <P>As required under § 325.104(a)(1) of this part, a bank must file a written capital restoration plan with the appropriate FDIC regional director within 45 days of the date that the bank receives notice or is deemed to have notice that the bank is undercapitalized, significantly undercapitalized or critically undercapitalized, unless the FDIC notifies the bank in writing that the plan is to be filed within a different period. The amount of time allowed to achieve the minimum leverage capital requirement will be evaluated by the FDIC on a case-by-case basis and will depend on a number of factors, including the viability of the bank and whether it is fundamentally sound and well-managed.</P>
            <P>Banks evidencing more than normal levels of risk will normally have their minimum capital requirements established in a formal or informal enforcement proceeding. The time frames for meeting these requirements will be set forth in such actions and will generally require some immediate action on the bank's part to meet its minimum capital requirement. The reasonableness of capital plans submitted by depository institutions in connection with applications as provided for in § 325.3(d)(2) will be determined in conjunction with the FDIC's consideration of the application.</P>
            <HD SOURCE="HD1">III. Written Agreements</HD>
            <P>Section 325.4(c) provides that any insured depository institution with a Tier 1 capital to total assets (leverage) ratio of less than 2 percent must enter into and be in compliance with a written agreement with the FDIC (or with its primary federal regulator with FDIC as a party to the agreement) to increase its Tier 1 leverage capital ratio to such level as the FDIC deems appropriate or may be subject to a section 8(a) termination of insurance action by the FDIC. Except in the very rarest of circumstances, the FDIC will require that such agreements contemplate immediate efforts by the depository institution to acquire the required capital.</P>
            <P>A bank which has issued net worth certificates to the FDIC or received approval from the FDIC to defer agricultural loan losses will be considered to be in compliance with this written agreement requirement for so long as it is in compliance with the FDIC requirements set forth in the net worth certificate program and/or agricultural loan loss deferral program, provided that both its board and the FDIC agree that the net worth certificate or agricultural loan loss deferral agreements they enter into or have entered into are written agreements as defined in the part 325 regulation. In addition, a savings association with qualifying supervisory goodwill that is being recognized as Tier 1 capital by the association's primary federal regulator will be allowed to recognize this intangible asset for purposes of calculating core capital under part 325.</P>
            <P>The guidance in this section III is not intended to preclude the FDIC from taking section 8(a) or other enforcement action against any institution, regardless of its capital level, if the specific circumstances deem such action to be appropriate.</P>
            <HD SOURCE="HD1">IV. Capital Components</HD>
            <P>Section 325.2 sets forth the definition of Tier 1 capital for the leverage standard as well as the definitions for the various instruments and accounts which are included therein. Although nonvoting common stock, noncumulative perpetual preferred stock, and minority interests in consolidated subsidiaries are normally included in Tier 1 capital, voting common stockholders’ equity generally will be expected to be the dominant form of Tier 1 capital. Thus, banks should avoid undue reliance on nonvoting equity, preferred stock and minority interests. The following provides some additional guidance with respect to some of the items that affect the calculation of Tier 1 capital.</P>
            <HD SOURCE="HD2">A. Intangible Assets</HD>
            <P>The FDIC permits state nonmember banks to record intangible assets on their books and to report the value of such assets in the Consolidated Reports of Condition and Income (“Call Report”). As noted in the instructions for preparation of the Consolidated Reports of Condition and Income (published by the Federal Financial Institutions Examination Council), intangible assets may arise from business combinations accounted for under the purchase method in accordance with Accounting Principles Board Opinion No. 16, as amended, and acquisitions of portions or segments of another institution's business, such as branch offices, mortgage servicing portfolios, and credit card portfolios.</P>

            <P>Intangible assets created from such transactions may be booked in accordance with generally accepted accounting principles with one exception. For the purpose of reporting such assets on Call Reports, banks reporting to the FDIC shall amortize such assets over their estimated useful lives or a <PRTPAGE P="206"/>period not in excess of 15 years, whichever is shorter.</P>
            <P>Notwithstanding the authority to report all intangible assets in the Consolidated Reports of Condition and Income, § 325(t) of the regulation specifies that mortgage servicing assets, nonmortgage servicing assets and purchased credit card relationships are the only intangible assets which will be allowed as Tier 1 capital.<SU>1</SU>
              <FTREF/> The portion of equity capital represented by other types of intangible assets will be deducted from equity capital and assets in the computation of a bank's Tier 1 capital. Certain of these intangible assets may, however, be recognized for regulatory capital purposes if explicitly approved by the Director of the Division of Supervision as part of the bank's regulatory capital on a specific case basis. These intangibles will be included in regulatory capital under the terms and conditions that are specifically approved by the FDIC.<SU>2</SU>
              <FTREF/>
            </P>
            <FTNT>
              <P>
                <SU>1</SU> Although intangible assets in the form of mortgage servicing assets, nonmortgage servicing assets and purchased credit card relationships are generally recognized for regulatory capital purposes, the −−deduction of part or all of the mortgage servicing assets, nonmortgage servicing assets and purchased credit card relationships may be required if the carrying amounts of these rights are excessive in relation to their market value or the level of the bank's capital accounts. In this regard, mortgage servicing assets, nonmortgage servicing assets and purchased credit card relationships will be recognized for regulatory capital purposes only to the extent the rights meet the conditions, limitations and restrictions described in § 325.5(f).</P>
            </FTNT>
            <FTNT>
              <P>
                <SU>2</SU> This specific approval must be received in accordance with § 325.5(b). In evaluating whether other types of intangibles should be recognized for regulatory capital purposes, the FDIC will accord special attention to the general characteristics of the intangibles, including: (1) The separability of the intangible asset and the ability to sell it separate and apart from the bank or the bulk of the bank's assets, (2) the certainty that a readily identifiable stream of cash flows associated with the intangible asset can hold its value notwithstanding the future prospects of the bank, and (3) the existence of a market of sufficient depth to provide liquidity for the intangible asset. However, pursuant to section 18(n) of the Federal Deposit Insurance Act (12 U.S.C. 1828(n)), specific approval cannot be given for an unidentifiable intangible asset, such as goodwill, if acquired after April 12, 1989.</P>
            </FTNT>
            <P>In certain instances banks may have investments in unconsolidated subsidiaries or joint ventures that have large volumes of intangible assets. In such instances the bank's consolidated statements will reflect an investment in a tangible asset even though such investment will, in fact, be represented by a large volume of intangible assets. In any such situation where this is material, the bank's investment in the unconsolidated subsidiary will be divided into a tangible and an intangible portion based on the percentage of intangible assets to total assets in the subsidiary. The intangible portion of the investment will be treated as if it were an intangible asset on the bank's books in the calculation of Tier 1 capital. However, intangible assets in the form of mortgage servicing assets, nonmortgage servicing assets and purchased credit card relationships, including servicing intangibles held by mortgage banking subsidiaries, are subject to the specific criteria set forth in § 325.5(f).</P>
            <HD SOURCE="HD2">B. Perpetual Preferred Stock</HD>
            <P>Perpetual preferred stock is defined as preferred stock that does not have a maturity date, that cannot be redeemed at the option of the holder, and that has no other provisions that will require future redemption of the issue. Also, pursuant to section 18(i)(1) of the Federal Deposit Insurance Act (12 U.S.C. 1828(i)(1)), a state nonmember bank cannot, without the prior consent of the FDIC, reduce the amount or retire any part of its perferred stock. (This prior consent is also required for the reduction or retirement of any part of a state nonmember bank's common stock or capital notes and debentures.)</P>

            <P>Noncumulative perpetual preferred stock is generally included in Tier 1 capital. Nonetheless, it is possible for banks to issue preferred stock with a dividend rate which escalates to such a high rate that the terms become so onerous as to effectively force the bank to call the issue (for example, an issue with a low initial rate that is scheduled to escalate to much higher rates in subsequent periods). Preferred stock issues with such onerous terms have much the same characteristics as limited life preferred stock in that the bank would be effectively forced to redeem the issue to avoid performance of the onerous terms. Such instruments may be disallowed as Tier 1 capital and, for risk-based capital purposes, would be included in Tier 2 capital only to the extent that the instruments fall within the limitations applicable to intermediate-term preferred stock. Banks which are contemplating issues bearing terms which may be so characterized are encouraged to submit them to the appropriate FDIC regional office for review prior to issuance. Nothing herein shall prohibit banks from issuing floating rate preferred stock issues where the rate is constant in relation to some outside market or index rate. However, noncumulative floating rate instruments where the rate paid is based in some part on the current credit standing of <PRTPAGE P="207"/>the bank, and all cumulative preferred stock instruments, are excluded from Tier 1 capital. These instruments are included in Tier 2 capital for risk-based capital purposes in accordance with the limitations set forth in appendix A to part 325.</P>
            <P>The FDIC will also require that issues of perpetual preferred stock be consistent with safe and sound banking practices. Issues which would unduly enrich insiders or which contain dividend rates or other terms which are inconsistent with safe and sound banking practices will likely be the subject of appropriate supervisory response from the FDIC. Banks contemplating preferred stock issues which may pose safety and soundness concerns are encouraged to submit such issues to the appropriate FDIC regional office for review prior to sale. Pursuant to § 325.5(e), capital instruments that contain or that are subject to any conditions, covenants, terms, restrictions or provisions that are inconsistent with safe and sound banking practices will not qualify as capital under part 325.</P>
            <HD SOURCE="HD2">C. Other Instruments or Transactions Which Fail to Provide Capital Support</HD>
            <P>Section 325.5(b) specifies that any capital component or balance sheet entry or account which has characteristics or terms that diminish its contribution to an insured depository institution's ability to absorb losses shall be deducted from capital. An example involves certain types of minority interests in consolidated subsidiaries. Minority interests in consolidated subsidiaries have been included in capital based on the fact that they provide capital support to the risk in the consolidated subsidiaries. Certain transactions have been structured where a bank forms a subsidiary by transferring essentially risk-free or low-risk assets to the subsidiary in exchange for common stock of the subsidiary. The subsidiary then sells preferred stock to third parties.</P>
            <P>The preferred stock becomes a minority interest in a consolidated subsidiary but, in effect, represents an essentially risk-free or low-risk investment for the preferred stockholders. This type of minority interest fails to provide any meaningful capital support to the consolidated entity inasmuch as it has a preferred claim on the essentially risk-free or low-risk assets of the subsidiary. In addition, certain minority interests are not substantially equivalent to permanent equity in that the interests must be paid off on specified future dates, or at the option of the holders of the minority interests, or contain other provisions or features that limit the ability of the minority interests to effectively absorb losses. Capital instruments or transactions of this nature which fail to absorb losses or provide meaningful capital support will be deducted from Tier 1 capital.</P>
            <HD SOURCE="HD2">D. Mandatory Convertible Debt</HD>
            <P>Mandatory convertible debt securities are subordinated debt instruments that require the issuer to convert such instruments into common or perpetual preferred stock by a date at or before the maturity of the debt instruments. The maturity of these instruments must be 12 years or less and the instruments must also meet the other criteria set forth in appendix A to part 325. Mandatory convertible debt is excluded from Tier 1 capital but, for risk-based capital purposes, is included in Tier 2 capital as a “hybrid capital instrument.”</P>
            <P>So-called “equity commitment notes,” which merely require a bank to sell common or perpetual preferred stock during the life of the subordinated debt obligation, are specifically excluded from the definition of mandatory convertible debt securities and are only included in Tier 2 capital under the risk-based capital framework to the extent that they satisfy the requirements and limitations for “term subordinated debt” set forth in appendix A to part 325.</P>
            <HD SOURCE="HD1">V. Analysis of Consolidated Companies</HD>
            <P>In determining a bank's compliance with its minimum capital requirements the FDIC will, with two exceptions, generally utilize the bank's consolidated statements as defined in the instructions for the preparation of Consolidated Reports of Condition and Income.</P>
            <P>The first exception relates to securities subsidiaries of state nonmember banks which are subject to § 337.4 of the FDIC's rules and regulations (12 CFR 337.4). Any subsidiary subject to this section must be a bona fide subsidiary which is adequately capitalized. In addition, § 337.4(b)(3) requires that any insured state nonmember bank's investment in such a subsidiary shall not be counted towards the bank's capital. In those instances where the securities subsidiary is consolidated in the bank's Consolidated Report of Condition it will be necessary, for the purpose of calculating the bank's Tier 1 capital, to adjust the Consolidated Report of Condition in such a manner as to reflect the bank's investment in the securities subsidiary on the equity method. In this case, and in those cases where the securities subsidiary has not been consolidated, the investment in the subsidiary will then be deducted from the bank's capital and assets prior to calculation of the bank's Tier 1 capital ratio. (Where deemed appropriate, the FDIC may also consider deducting investments in other subsidiaries, either on a case-by-case basis or, as with securities subsidiaries, based on the general characteristics or functional nature of the subsidiaries.)</P>

            <P>The second exception relates to the treatment of subsidiaries of insured banks that are domestic depository institutions such as <PRTPAGE P="208"/>commercial banks, savings banks, or savings associations. These subsidiaries are not consolidated on a line-by-line basis with the insured bank parent in the bank parent's Consolidated Reports of Condition and Income. Rather, the instructions for these reports provide that bank investments in such depository institution subsidiaries are to be reported on an unconsolidated basis in accordance with the equity method. Since the FDIC believes that the minimum capital requirements should apply to a bank's depository activities in their entirety, regardless of the form that the organization's corporate structure takes, it will be necessary, for the purpose of calculating the bank's Tier 1 leverage and total risk-based capital ratios, to adjust a bank parent's Consolidated Report of Condition to consolidate its domestic depository institution subsidiaries on a line-by-line basis. The financial statements of the subsidiary that are used for this consolidation must be prepared in the same manner as the Consolidated Report of Condition.</P>
            <P>The FDIC will, in determining the capital adequacy of a bank which is a member of a bank holding company or chain banking group, consider the degree of leverage and risks undertaken by the parent company or other affiliates. Where the level of risk in a holding company system is no more than normal and the consolidated company is adequately capitalized at all appropriate levels, the FDIC generally will not require additional capital in subsidiary banks under its supervision over and above that which would be required for the subsidiary bank on its own merit. In cases where a holding company or other affiliated banks (or other companies) evidence more than a normal degree of risk (either by virtue of the quality of their assets, the nature of the activities conducted, or other factors) or where the affiliated organizations are inadequately capitalized, the FDIC will consider the potential impact of the additional risk or excess leverage upon an individual bank to determine if such factors will likely result in excessive requirements for dividends, management fees, or other support to the holding company or affiliated organizations which would be detrimental to the bank. Where the excessive risk or leverage in such organizations is determined to be potentially detrimental to the bank's condition or its ability to maintain adequate capital, the FDIC may initiate appropriate supervisory action to limit the bank's ability to support its weaker affiliates and/or require higher than minimum capital ratios in the bank.</P>
            <HD SOURCE="HD1">VI. Applicability of Part 325 to Savings Associations</HD>
            <P>Section 325.3(c) indicates that, where the FDIC is required to evaluate the adequacy of any depository institution's (including any savings association's) capital structure in conjunction with an application filed by the institution, the FDIC will not approve the application if the depository institution does not meet the minimum leverage capital requirement set forth in § 325.3(b).</P>
            <P>Also, § 325.4(b) states that, under certain conditions specified in section 8(t) of the Federal Deposit Insurance Act, the FDIC may take section 8(b)(1) and/or 8(c) enforcement action against a savings association that is deemed to be engaged in an unsafe or unsound practice on account of its inadequate capital structure. Section 325.4(c) further specifies that any insured depository institution with a Tier 1 leverage ratio (as defined in part 325) of less than 2 percent is deemed to be operating in an unsafe or unsound condition pursuant to section 8(a) of the Federal Deposit Insurance Act.</P>
            <P>In addition, the Office of Thrift Supervision (OTS), as the primary federal regulator of savings associations, has established minimum core capital leverage, tangible capital and risk-based capital requirements for savings associations (12 CFR part 567). In this regard, certain differences exist between the methods used by the OTS to calculate a savings association's capital and the methods set forth by the FDIC in part 325. These differences include, among others, the core capital treatment for investments in subsidiaries and for certain intangible assets.</P>
            <P>In determining whether a savings association's application should be approved pursuant to § 325.3(c), or whether an unsafe or unsound practice or condition exists pursuant to §§ 325.4(b) and 325.4(c), the FDIC will consider the extent of the savings association's capital as determined in accordance with part 325. However, the FDIC will also consider the extent to which a savings association is in compliance with (a) the minimum capital requirements set forth by the OTS, (b) any related capital plans for meeting the minimum capital requirements approved by the OTS, and/or (c) any other criteria deemed by the FDIC as appropriate based on the association's specific circumstances.</P>
            <CITA>[56 FR 10166, Mar. 11, 1991, as amended at 58 FR 6369, Jan. 28, 1993; 58 FR 8219, Feb. 12, 1993; 58 FR 60103, Nov. 15, 1993; 60 FR 39232, Aug. 1, 1995; 63 FR 42678, Aug. 10, 1998]</CITA>
          </APPENDIX>
          <APPENDIX>
            <PRTPAGE P="209"/>
            <EAR>Pt. 325, App. C</EAR>
            <HD SOURCE="HED">Appendix C to Part325—Risk-Based Capital for State Non-Member Banks: Market Risk</HD>
            <HD SOURCE="HD2">Section 1. Purpose, Applicability, Scope, and Effective Date</HD>
            <P>(a) <E T="03">Purpose.</E> The purpose of this appendix is to ensure that banks with significant exposure to market risk maintain adequate capital to support that exposure.<E T="51">1</E>
              <FTREF/> This appendix supplements and adjusts the risk-based capital ratio calculations under appendix A of this part with respect to those banks.</P>
            <FTNT>
              <P>
                <E T="51">1</E> This appendix is based on a framework developed jointly by supervisory authorities from the countries represented on the Basle Committee on Banking Supervision and endorsed by the Group of Ten Central Bank Governors. The framework is described in a Basle Committee paper entitled “Amendment to the Capital Accord to Incorporate Market Risks,” January 1996. Also see modifications issued in September 1997.</P>
            </FTNT>
            <P>(b) <E T="03">Applicability.</E> (1) This appendix applies to any insured state nonmember bank whose trading activity <E T="51">2</E>
              <FTREF/> (on a worldwide consolidated basis) equals:</P>
            <FTNT>
              <P>
                <E T="51">2</E> Trading activity means the gross sum of trading assets and liabilities as reported in the bank's most recent quarterly Consolidated Report of Condition and Income (Call Report).</P>
            </FTNT>
            <P>(i) 10 percent or more of total assets; <E T="51">3</E>
              <FTREF/> or</P>
            <FTNT>
              <P>
                <E T="51">3</E> Total assets means quarter-end total assets as reported in the bank's most recent Call Report.</P>
            </FTNT>
            <P>(ii) $1 billion or more.</P>
            <P>(2) The FDIC may additionally apply this appendix to any insured state nonmember bank if the FDIC deems it necessary or appropriate for safe and sound banking practices.</P>
            <P>(3) The FDIC may exclude an insured state nonmember bank otherwise meeting the criteria of paragraph (b)(1) of this section from coverage under this appendix if it determines the bank meets such criteria as a consequence of accounting, operational, or similar considerations, and the FDIC deems it consistent with safe and sound banking practices.</P>
            <P>(c) <E T="03">Scope.</E> The capital requirements of this appendix support market risk associated with a bank's covered positions.</P>
            <P>(d) <E T="03">Effective date.</E> This appendix is effective as of January 1, 1997. Compliance is not mandatory until January 1, 1998. Subject to supervisory approval, a bank may opt to comply with this appendix as early as January 1, 1997.<E T="51">4</E>
              <FTREF/>
            </P>
            <FTNT>
              <P>
                <E T="51">4</E> A bank that voluntarily complies with the final rule prior to January 1, 1998, must comply with all of its provisions.</P>
            </FTNT>
            <HD SOURCE="HD2">Section 2. Definitions</HD>
            <P>For purposes of this appendix, the following definitions apply:</P>
            <P>(a) <E T="03">Covered positions</E> means all positions in a bank's trading account, and all foreign exchange <E T="51">5</E>

              <FTREF/> and commodity positions, whether or not in the trading account.<E T="51">6</E>
              <FTREF/> Positions include on-balance-sheet assets and liabilities and off-balance-sheet items. Securities subject to repurchase and lending agreements are included as if they are still owned by the lender.</P>
            <FTNT>
              <P>
                <E T="51">5</E> Subject to FDIC review, a bank may exclude structural positions in foreign currencies from its covered positions.</P>
            </FTNT>
            <FTNT>
              <P>
                <E T="51">6</E> The term trading account is defined in the instructions to the Call Report.</P>
            </FTNT>
            <P>(b) <E T="03">Market risk</E> means the risk of loss resulting from movements in market prices. Market risk consists of general market risk and specific risk components.</P>
            <P>(1) <E T="03">General market risk</E> means changes in the market value of covered positions resulting from broad market movements, such as changes in the general level of interest rates, equity prices, foreign exchange rates, or commodity prices.</P>
            <P>(2) <E T="03">Specific risk</E> means changes in the market value of specific positions due to factors other than broad market movements and includes event and default risk as well as idiosyncratic variations.</P>
            <P>(c) <E T="03">Tier 1</E> and <E T="03">Tier 2 capital</E> are defined in appendix A of this part.</P>
            <P>(d) <E T="03">Tier 3 capital</E> is subordinated debt that is unsecured; is fully paid up; has an original maturity of at least two years; is not redeemable before maturity without prior approval by the FDIC; includes a lock-in clause precluding payment of either interest or principal (even at maturity) if the payment would cause the issuing bank's risk-based capital ratio to fall or remain below the minimum required under appendix A of this part; and does not contain and is not covered by any covenants, terms, or restrictions that are inconsistent with safe and sound banking practices.</P>
            <P>(e) <E T="03">Value-at-risk (VAR)</E> means the estimate of the maximum amount that the value of covered positions could decline during a fixed holding period within a stated confidence level, measured in accordance with section 4 of this appendix.</P>
            <HD SOURCE="HD2">Section 3. Adjustments to the Risk-Based Capital Ratio Calculations.</HD>
            <P>(a) <E T="03">Risk-based capital ratio denominator.</E> A bank subject to this appendix shall calculate its risk-based capital ratio denominator as follows:</P>
            <P>(1) <E T="03">Adjusted risk-weighted assets.</E> Calculate adjusted risk-weighted assets, which equals <PRTPAGE P="210"/>risk-weighted assets (as determined in accordance with appendix A of this part), excluding the risk-weighted amounts of all covered positions (except foreign exchange positions outside the trading account and over-the-counter derivative positions).<E T="51">7</E>
              <FTREF/>
            </P>
            <FTNT>
              <P>
                <E T="51">7</E> Foreign exchange positions outside the trading account and all over-the-counter derivative positions, whether or not in the trading account, must be included in adjusted risk weighted assets as determined in appendix A of this part.</P>
            </FTNT>
            <P>(2) <E T="03">Measure for market risk.</E> Calculate the measure for market risk, which equals the sum of the VAR-based capital charge, the specific risk add-on (if any), and the capital charge for de minimis exposures (if any).</P>
            <P>(i) <E T="03">VAR-based capital charge.</E> The VAR-based capital charge equals the higher of:</P>
            <P>(A) The previous day's VAR measure; or</P>
            <P>(B) The average of the daily VAR measures for each of the preceding 60 business days multiplied by three, except as provided in section 4(e) of this appendix;</P>
            <P>(ii) <E T="03">Specific risk add-on.</E> The specific risk add-on is calculated in accordance with section 5 of this appendix; and</P>
            <P>(iii) <E T="03">Capital charge for de minimis exposure.</E> The capital charge for de minimis exposure is calculated in accordance with section 4(a) of this appendix.</P>
            <P>(3) <E T="03">Market risk equivalent assets.</E> Calculate market risk equivalent assets by multiplying the measure for market risk (as calculated in paragraph (a)(2) of this section) by 12.5.</P>
            <P>(4) <E T="03">Denominator calculation.</E> Add market risk equivalent assets (as calculated in paragraph (a)(3) of this section) to adjusted risk-weighted assets (as calculated in paragraph (a)(1) of this section). The resulting sum is the bank's risk-based capital ratio denominator.</P>
            <P>(b) <E T="03">Risk-based capital ratio numerator.</E> A bank subject to this appendix shall calculate its risk-based capital ratio numerator by allocating capital as follows:</P>
            <P>(1) <E T="03">Credit risk allocation.</E> Allocate Tier 1 and Tier 2 capital equal to 8.0 percent of adjusted risk-weighted assets (as calculated in paragraph (a)(1) of this section).<E T="51">8</E>
              <FTREF/>
            </P>
            <FTNT>
              <P>
                <E T="51">8</E> A bank may not allocate Tier 3 capital to support credit risk (as calculated under appendix A of this part).</P>
            </FTNT>
            <P>(2) <E T="03">Market risk allocation.</E> Allocate Tier 1, Tier 2, and Tier 3 capital equal to the measure for market risk as calculated in paragraph (a)(2) of this section. The sum of Tier 2 and Tier 3 capital allocated for market risk must not exceed 250 percent of Tier 1 capital allocated for market risk. (This requirement means that Tier 1 capital allocated in this paragraph (b)(2) must equal at least 28.6 percent of the measure for market risk.)</P>
            <P>(3) <E T="03">Restrictions.</E> (i) The sum of Tier 2 capital (both allocated and excess) and Tier 3 capital (allocated in paragraph (b)(2) of this section) may not exceed 100 percent of Tier 1 capital (both allocated and excess).<E T="51">9</E>
              <FTREF/>
            </P>
            <FTNT>
              <P>
                <E T="51">9</E> Excess Tier 1 capital means Tier 1 capital that has not been allocated in paragraphs (b)(1) and (b)(2) of this section. Excess Tier 2 capital means Tier 2 capital that has not been allocated in paragraph (b)(1) and (b)(2) of this section, subject to the restrictions in paragraph (b)(3) of this section.</P>
            </FTNT>
            <P>(ii) Term subordinated debt (and intermediate-term preferred stock and related surplus) included in Tier 2 capital (both allocated and excess) may not exceed 50 percent of Tier 1 capital (both allocated and excess).</P>
            <P>(4) <E T="03">Numerator calculation.</E> Add Tier 1 capital (both allocated and excess), Tier 2 capital (both allocated and excess), and Tier 3 capital (allocated under paragraph (b)(2) of this section). The resulting sum is the bank's risk-based capital ratio numerator.</P>
            <HD SOURCE="HD2">Section 4. Internal Models</HD>
            <P>(a) <E T="03">General.</E> For risk-based capital purposes, a bank subject to this appendix must use its internal model to measure its daily VAR, in accordance with the requirements of this section.<E T="51">10</E>
              <FTREF/> The FDIC may permit a bank to use alternative techniques to measure the market risk of de minimis exposures so long as the techniques adequately measure associated market risk.</P>
            <FTNT>
              <P>
                <E T="51">10</E> A bank's internal model may use any generally accepted measurement techniques, such as variance-covariance models, historical simulations, or Monte Carlo simulations. However, the level of sophistication and accuracy of a bank's internal model must be commensurate with the nature and size of its covered positions. A bank that modifies its existing modeling procedures to comply with the requirements of this appendix for risk-based capital purposes should, nonetheless, continue to use the internal model it considers most appropriate in evaluating risks for other purposes.</P>
            </FTNT>
            <P>(b) <E T="03">Qualitative requirements.</E> A bank subject to this appendix must have a risk management system that meets the following minimum qualitative requirements:</P>
            <P>(1) The bank must have a risk control unit that reports directly to senior management and is independent from business trading units.</P>
            <P>(2) The bank's internal risk measurement model must be integrated into the daily management process.</P>

            <P>(3) The bank's policies and procedures must identify, and the bank must conduct, appropriate stress tests and backtests.<E T="51">11</E>
              <FTREF/> The <PRTPAGE P="211"/>bank's policies and procedures must identify the procedures to follow in response to the results of such tests.</P>
            <FTNT>
              <P>
                <E T="51">11</E> Stress tests provide information about the impact of adverse market events on a bank's covered positions. Backtests provide information about the accuracy of an internal model by comparing a bank's daily VAR <PRTPAGE/>measures to its corresponding daily trading profits and losses.</P>
            </FTNT>
            <P>(4) The bank must conduct independent reviews of its risk measurement and risk management systems at least annually.</P>
            <P>(c) <E T="03">Market risk factors.</E> The bank's internal model must use risk factors sufficient to measure the market risk inherent in all covered positions. The risk factors must address interest rate risk,<E T="51">12</E>
              <FTREF/> equity price risk, foreign exchange rate risk, and commodity price risk.</P>
            <FTNT>
              <P>
                <E T="51">12</E> For material exposures in the major currencies and markets, modeling techniques must capture spread risk and must incorporate enough segments of the yield curve—at least six—to capture differences in volatility and less than perfect correlation of rates along the yield curve.</P>
            </FTNT>
            <P>(d) <E T="03">Quantitative requirements.</E> For regulatory capital purposes, VAR measures must meet the following quantitative requirements:</P>
            <P>(1) The VAR measures must be calculated on a daily basis using a 99 percent, one-tailed confidence level with a price shock equivalent to a ten-business day movement in rates and prices. In order to calculate VAR measures based on a ten-day price shock, the bank may either calculate ten-day figures directly or convert VAR figures based on holding periods other than ten days to the equivalent of a ten-day holding period (for instance, by multiplying a one-day VAR measure by the square root of ten).</P>
            <P>(2) The VAR measures must be based on an historical observation period (or effective observation period for a bank using a weighting scheme or other similar method) of at least one year. The bank must update data sets at least once every three months or more frequently as market conditions warrant.</P>
            <P>(3) The VAR measures must include the risks arising from the non-linear price characteristics of options positions and the sensitivity of the market value of the positions to changes in the volatility of the underlying rates or prices. A bank with a large or complex options portfolio must measure the volatility of options positions by different maturities.</P>
            <P>(4) The VAR measures may incorporate empirical correlations within and across risk categories, provided that the bank's process for measuring correlations is sound. In the event that the VAR measures do not incorporate empirical correlations across risk categories, then the bank must add the separate VAR measures for the four major risk categories to determine its aggregate VAR measure.</P>
            <P>(e) <E T="03">Backtesting.</E> (1) Beginning one year after a bank starts to comply with this appendix, a bank must conduct backtesting by comparing each of its most recent 250 business days’ actual net trading profit or loss <E T="51">13</E>
              <FTREF/> with the corresponding daily VAR measures generated for internal risk measurement purposes and calibrated to a one-day holding period and a 99 percent, one-tailed confidence level.</P>
            <FTNT>
              <P>
                <E T="51">13</E> Actual net trading profits and losses typically include such things as realized and unrealized gains and losses on portfolio positions as well as fee income and commissions associated with trading activities.</P>
            </FTNT>
            <P>(2) Once each quarter, the bank must identify the number of exceptions, that is, the number of business days for which the magnitude of the actual daily net trading loss, if any, exceeds the corresponding daily VAR measure.</P>
            <P>(3) A bank must use the multiplication factor indicated in Table 1 of this appendix in determining its capital charge for market risk under section 3(a)(2)(i)(B) of this appendix until it obtains the next quarter's backtesting results, unless the FDIC determines that a different adjustment or other action is appropriate.</P>
            <GPOTABLE CDEF="s10,9" COLS="2" OPTS="L2,i1">
              <TTITLE>Table 1—Multiplication Factor Based on Results of Backtesting</TTITLE>
              <BOXHD>
                <CHED H="1">Number of exceptions</CHED>
                <CHED H="1">Multiplication factor</CHED>
              </BOXHD>
              <ROW>
                <ENT I="01">4 or fewer</ENT>
                <ENT>3.00</ENT>
              </ROW>
              <ROW>
                <ENT I="01">5</ENT>
                <ENT>3.40</ENT>
              </ROW>
              <ROW>
                <ENT I="01">6</ENT>
                <ENT>3.50</ENT>
              </ROW>
              <ROW>
                <ENT I="01">7</ENT>
                <ENT>3.65</ENT>
              </ROW>
              <ROW>
                <ENT I="01">8</ENT>
                <ENT>3.75</ENT>
              </ROW>
              <ROW>
                <ENT I="01">9</ENT>
                <ENT>3.85</ENT>
              </ROW>
              <ROW>
                <ENT I="01">10 or more</ENT>
                <ENT>4.00</ENT>
              </ROW>
            </GPOTABLE>
            <HD SOURCE="HD2">Section 5. Specific Risk</HD>
            <P>(a) <E T="03">Modeled specific risk.</E> A bank may use its internal model to measure specific risk. If the bank has demonstrated to the FDIC that its internal model measures the specific risk, including event and default risk as well as idiosyncratic variation, of covered debt and equity positions and includes the specific risk measure in the VAR-based capital charge in section 3(a)(2)(i) of this appendix, then the bank has no specific risk add-on for purposes of section 3(a)(2)(ii) of this appendix. The model should explain the historical price variation in the trading portfolio and capture concentration, both magnitude and changes in composition. The model should also be robust to an adverse environment and have been validated through backtesting which assesses whether specific risk is being accurately captured.<PRTPAGE P="212"/>
            </P>
            <P>(b) <E T="03">Add-on charge for modeled specific risk.</E> A bank that incorporates specific risk in its internal model but fails to demonstrate to the FDIC that its internal model adequately measures all aspects of specific risk for covered debt and equity positions, including event and default risk, as provided by section 5(a) of this appendix, must calculate the bank's specific risk add-on for purposes of section 3(a)(2)(ii) of this appendix as follows:</P>
            <P>(1) If the model is capable of valid separation of the VAR measure into a specific risk portion and a general market risk portion, then the specific risk add-on is equal to the previous day's specific risk portion.</P>
            <P>(2) If the model does not separate the VAR measure into a specific risk portion and a general market risk portion, then the specific risk add-on is the sum of the previous day's VAR measures for subportfolios of covered debt and equity positions.</P>
            <P>(c) <E T="03">Add-on charge if specific risk is not modeled.</E> If a bank does not model specific risk in accordance with paragraph (a) or (b) of this section, the bank's specific risk add-on charge for purposes of section 3(a)(2)(ii) of this appendix equals the sum of the components for covered debt and equity positions. If a bank models, in accordance with paragraph (a) or (b) of this section, the specific risk of covered debt positions but not covered equity positions (or vice versa), then the bank's specific risk add-on charge for the positions not modeled is the component for covered debt or equity positions as appropriate:</P>
            <P>(1) <E T="03">Covered debt positions.</E> (i) For purposes of this section 5, covered debt positions means fixed-rate or floating-rate debt instruments located in the trading account and instruments located in the trading account with values that react primarily to changes in interest rates, including certain non-convertible preferred stock, convertible bonds, and instruments subject to repurchase and lending agreements. Also included are derivatives (including written and purchased options) for which the underlying instrument is a covered debt instrument that is subject to a non-zero specific risk capital charge.</P>
            <P>(A) For covered debt positions that are derivatives, a bank must risk-weight (as described in paragraph (c)(1)(iii) of this section) the market value of the effective notional amount of the underlying debt instrument or index portfolio. Swaps must be included as the notional position in the underlying debt instrument or index portfolio, with a receiving side treated as a long position and a paying side treated as a short position; and</P>
            <P>(B) For covered debt positions that are options, whether long or short, a bank must risk-weight (as described in paragraph (c)(1)(iii) of this section) the market value of the effective notional amount of the underlying debt instrument or index multiplied by the option's delta.</P>
            <P>(ii) A bank may net long and short covered debt positions (including derivatives) in identical debt issues or indices.</P>
            <P>(iii) A bank must multiply the absolute value of the current market value of each net long or short covered debt position by the appropriate specific risk weighting factor indicated in Table 2 of this appendix. The specific risk capital charge component for covered debt positions is the sum of the weighted values.</P>
            <GPOTABLE CDEF="s10,xs50,9" COLS="3" OPTS="L2,i1">
              <TTITLE>Table 2—Specific Risk Weighting Factors for Covered Debt Positions</TTITLE>
              <BOXHD>
                <CHED H="1">Category</CHED>
                <CHED H="1">Remaining maturity (contractual)</CHED>
                <CHED H="1">Weighting factor (in percent)</CHED>
              </BOXHD>
              <ROW>
                <ENT I="01">Government </ENT>
                <ENT>N/A </ENT>
                <ENT>0.00</ENT>
              </ROW>
              <ROW>
                <ENT I="01">Qualifying </ENT>
                <ENT>6 months or less </ENT>
                <ENT>0.25</ENT>
              </ROW>
              <ROW>
                <ENT I="22"/>
                <ENT>Over 6 months to 24 months </ENT>
                <ENT>1.00</ENT>
              </ROW>
              <ROW>
                <ENT I="22"/>
                <ENT>Over 24 months </ENT>
                <ENT>1.60</ENT>
              </ROW>
              <ROW>
                <ENT I="01">Other </ENT>
                <ENT>N/A </ENT>
                <ENT>8.00</ENT>
              </ROW>
            </GPOTABLE>
            <P>(A) The <E T="03">government</E> category includes all debt instruments of central governments of OECD-based countries <E T="51">14</E>
              <FTREF/> including bonds, Treasury bills, and other short-term instruments, as well as local currency instruments of non-OECD central governments to the extent the bank has liabilities booked in that currency.</P>
            <FTNT>
              <P>
                <E T="51">14</E> Organization for Economic Cooperation and Development (OECD)-based countries is defined in appendix A of this part.</P>
            </FTNT>
            <P>(B) The <E T="03">qualifying</E> category includes debt instruments of U.S. government-sponsored agencies, general obligation debt instruments issued by states and other political subdivisions of OECD-based countries, multilateral development banks, and debt instruments issued by U.S. depository institutions or OECD-banks that do not qualify as capital of the issuing institution.<E T="51">15</E>
              <FTREF/> This category also includes other debt instruments, including corporate debt and revenue instruments issued by states and other political subdivisions of OECD countries, that are:</P>
            <FTNT>
              <P>
                <E T="51">15</E> U.S. government-sponsored agencies, multilateral development banks, and OECD banks are defined in appendix A of this part.</P>
            </FTNT>
            <P>(<E T="03">1</E>) Rated investment-grade by at least two nationally recognized credit rating services;</P>
            <P>(<E T="03">2</E>) Rated investment-grade by one nationally recognized credit rating agency and not rated less than investment-grade by any other credit rating agency; or</P>
            <P>(<E T="03">3</E>) Unrated, but deemed to be of comparable investment quality by the reporting bank and the issuer has instruments listed on a recognized stock exchange, subject to review by the FDIC.<PRTPAGE P="213"/>
            </P>
            <P>(C) The <E T="03">other</E> category includes debt instruments that are not included in the government or qualifying categories.</P>
            <P>(2) <E T="03">Covered equity positions.</E> (i) For purposes of this section 5, covered equity positions means equity instruments located in the trading account and instruments located in the trading account with values that react primarily to changes in equity prices, including voting or non-voting common stock, certain convertible bonds, and commitments to buy or sell equity instruments. Also included are derivatives (including written and purchased options) for which the underlying is a covered equity position.</P>
            <P>(A) For covered equity positions that are derivatives, a bank must risk weight (as described in paragraph (c)(2)(iii) of this section) the market value of the effective notional amount of the underlying equity instrument or equity portfolio. Swaps must be included as the notional position in the underlying equity instrument or index portfolio, with a receiving side treated as a long position and a paying side treated as a short position; and</P>
            <P>(B) For covered equity positions that are options, whether long or short, a bank must risk weight (as described in paragraph (c)(2)(iii) of this section) the market value of the effective notional amount of the underlying equity instrument or index multiplied by the option's delta.</P>

            <P>(ii) A bank may net long and short covered equity positions (including derivatives) in identical equity issues or equity indices in the same market.<E T="51">16</E>
              <FTREF/>
            </P>
            <FTNT>
              <P>
                <E T="51">16</E> A bank may also net positions in depository receipts against an opposite position in the underlying equity or identical equity in different markets, provided that the bank includes the costs of conversion.</P>
            </FTNT>

            <P>(iii)(A) A bank must multiply the absolute value of the current market value of each net long or short covered equity position by a risk weighting factor of 8.0 percent, or by 4.0 percent if the equity is held in a portfolio that is both liquid and well-diversified.<E T="51">17</E>
              <FTREF/> For covered equity positions that are index contracts comprising a well-diversified portfolio of equity instruments, the net long or short position is multiplied by a risk weighting factor of 2.0 percent.</P>
            <FTNT>
              <P>
                <E T="51">17</E> A portfolio is liquid and well-diversified if: (1) it is characterized by a limited sensitivity to price changes of any single equity issue or closely related group of equity issues held in the portfolio; (2) the volatility of the portfolio's value is not dominated by the volatility of any individual equity issue or by equity issues from any single industry or economic sector; (3) it contains a large number of individual equity positions, with no single position representing a substantial portion of the portfolio's total market value; and (4) it consists mainly of issues traded on organized exchanges or in well-established over-the-counter markets.</P>
            </FTNT>
            <P>(B) For covered equity positions from the following futures-related arbitrage strategies, a bank may apply a 2.0 percent risk weighting factor to one side (long or short) of each position with the opposite side exempt from charge, subject to review by the FDIC:</P>
            <P>(<E T="03">1</E>) Long and short positions in exactly the same index at different dates or in different market centers; or</P>
            <P>(<E T="03">2</E>) Long and short positions in index contracts at the same date in different but similar indices.</P>
            <P>(C) For futures contracts on broadly-based indices that are matched by offsetting positions in a basket of stocks comprising the index, a bank may apply a 2.0 percent risk weighting factor to the futures and stock basket positions (long and short), provided that such trades are deliberately entered into and separately controlled, and that the basket of stocks comprises at least 90 percent of the capitalization of the index.</P>
            <P>(iv) The specific risk capital charge component for covered equity positions is the sum of the weighted values.</P>
            <CITA>[61 FR 47376, Sept. 6, 1996, as amended at 62 FR 68068, Dec. 30, 1997; 64 FR 19038, Apr. 19, 1999]</CITA>
          </APPENDIX>
        </SUBPART>
      </PART>
      <PART>
        <EAR>Pt. 326</EAR>
        <HD SOURCE="HED">PART 326—MINIMUM SECURITY DEVICES AND PROCEDURES AND BANK SECRECY ACT <SU>1</SU>
          <FTREF/> COMPLIANCE</HD>
        <FTNT>
          <P>

            <SU>1</SU> In its original form, subchapter II of chapter 53 of title 31 U.S.C., was part of Pub. L. 91-508 which requires recordkeeping for and reporting of currency transactions by banks and others and is commonly known as the <E T="03">Bank Secrecy Act.</E>
          </P>
        </FTNT>
        <CONTENTS>
          <SUBPART>
            <HD SOURCE="HED">Subpart A—Minimum Security Procedures</HD>
            <SECHD>Sec.</SECHD>
            <SECTNO>326.0</SECTNO>
            <SUBJECT>Authority, purpose, and scope.</SUBJECT>
            <SECTNO>326.1</SECTNO>
            <SUBJECT>Definitions.</SUBJECT>
            <SECTNO>326.2</SECTNO>
            <SUBJECT>Designation of security officer.</SUBJECT>
            <SECTNO>326.3</SECTNO>
            <SUBJECT>Security program.</SUBJECT>
            <SECTNO>326.4</SECTNO>
            <SUBJECT>Reports.</SUBJECT>
          </SUBPART>
          <SUBPART>
            <HD SOURCE="HED">Subpart B—Procedures for Monitoring Bank Secrecy Act Complianace</HD>
            <SECTNO>326.8</SECTNO>
            <SUBJECT>Bank Secrecy Act compliance.</SUBJECT>
          </SUBPART>
        </CONTENTS>
        <AUTH>
          <HD SOURCE="HED">Authority: </HD>
          <P>12 U.S.C. 1813, 1815, 1817, 1818, 1819 [Tenth], 1881-1883; 31 U.S.C. 5311-5324.</P>
        </AUTH>
        <SUBPART>
          <PRTPAGE P="214"/>
          <HD SOURCE="HED">Subpart A—Minimum Security P