5 U.S.C. 500, 15 U.S.C. 1123; 35 U.S.C. 2(b)(2), 31, 32, 41.
50 FR 5172, Feb. 6, 1985, unless otherwise noted.
This part governs solely the practice of patent, trademark, and other law before the Patent and Trademark Office. Nothing in this part shall be construed to preempt the authority of each State to regulate the practice of law, except to the extent necessary for the Patent and Trademark Office to accomplish its Federal objectives. Unless otherwise clear from the context, the following definitions apply to this part:
(a)
(b)
(c)
(d)
(e)
(f)
(g)
(h)
(i)
(j)
(k)
(l)
(m)
(n)
(o)
(p)
(q)
(r)
(s) A
(t)
(u)
(v)
(w)
(x)
(y)
(z)
(aa)
(a)
(b)
(1) Receive and act upon applications for registration, prepare and grade the examination provided for in § 10.7(b), maintain the register provided for in § 10.5, and perform such other duties in connection with enrollment and recognition of attorneys and agents as may be necessary.
(2) Conduct investigations into possible violations by practitioners of Disciplinary Rules, with the consent of the Committee on Discipline initiate disciplinary proceedings under § 10.132(b), and perform such other duties in connection with investigations and disciplinary proceedings as may be necessary.
(c)
(a) The Commissioner may establish a Committee on Enrollment composed of one or more employees of the Office.
(b) The Committee on Enrollment shall, as necessary, advise the Director in connection with the Director's duties under § 10.2(b)(1).
(a) The Commissioner shall appoint a Committee on Discipline. The Committee on Discipline shall consist of at least three employees of the Office, none of whom reports directly or indirectly to the Director or the Solicitor. Each member of the Committee on Discipline shall be a member in good standing of the bar of a State.
(b) The Committee on Discipline shall meet at the request of the Director and after reviewing evidence presented by the Director shall, by majority vote, determine whether there is probable cause to bring charges under § 10.132 against a practitioner. When charges are brought against a practitioner, no member of the Committee on
(c) No discovery shall be authorized of, and no member of the Committee on Discipline shall be required to testify about, deliberations of the Committee on Discipline.
A register of attorneys and agents is kept in the Office on which are entered the names of all individuals recognized as entitled to represent applicants before the Office in the preparation and prosecution of applications for patent. Registration in the Office under the provisions of this part shall only entitle the individuals registered to practice before the Office in patent cases.
(a)
(b)
All individuals registered prior to November 15, 1938, were registered as attorneys, whether they were attorneys or not, and such registrations have not been changed.
(c)
(a) No individual will be registered to practice before the Office unless he or she shall:
(1) Apply to the Commissioner in writing on a form supplied by the Director and furnish all requested information and material and
(2) Establish to the satisfaction of the Director that he or she is:
(i) Of good moral character and repute;
(ii) Possessed of the legal, scientific, and technical qualifications necessary to enable him or her to render applicants for patents valuable service; and
(iii) Is otherwise competent to advise and assist applicants for patents in the presentation and prosecution of their applications before the Office.
(b) In order that the Director may determine whether an individual seeking to have his or her name placed upon the register has the qualifications specified in paragraph (a) of this secion, satisfactory proof of good moral character and repute and of sufficient basic training in scientific and technical matters must be submitted to the Director. Except as provided in this paragraph, each applicant for registration must take and pass an examination which is held from time to time. Each application for admission to take the examination for registration must be accompanied by the fee set forth in § 1.21(a)(1) of this subchapter. The taking of an examination may be waived in the case of any individual who has actively served for at least four years in the patent examining corps of the Office. The examination will not be administered as a mere academic exercise.
(c) Within two months from the date an applicant is notified that he or she failed an examination, the applicant may request regrading of the examination upon payment of the fee set forth in § 1.21(a)(6). Any applicant requesting regrading shall particularly point out the errors which the applicant believed occurred in the grading of his or her examination.
Before an individual may have his or her name entered on the register of attorneys and agents, the individual must, after his or her application is approved, subscribe and swear to an oath or make a declaration prescribed by the Commissioner and pay the registration fee set forth in § 1.21(a)(2) of this subchapter.
(a) Any individual not registered under § 10.6 may, upon a showing of circumstances which render it necessary or justifiable, be given limited recognition by the Director to prosecute as attorney or agent a specified application or specified applications, but limited recognition under this paragraph shall not extend further than the application or applications specified.
(b) When registration of a resident alien under paragraph (a) or (b) of § 10.6 is not appropriate, the resident alien may be given limited recognition as may be appropriate under paragraph (a) of this section.
(c) An individual not registered under § 10.6 may, if appointed by applicant to do so, prosecute an international application only before the U.S. International Searching Authority and the U.S. International Preliminary Examining Authority, provided: The individual has the right to practice before the national office with which the international application is filed (PCT Art. 49, Rule 90 and § 1.455) or before the International Bureau when acting as Receiving Office pursuant to PCT Rules 83.1
(a) Only practitioners who are registered under § 10.6 or individuals given limited recognition under § 10.9 will be permitted to prosecute patent applications of others before the Office.
(b) No individual who has served in the patent examining corps of the Office may practice before the Office after termination of his or her service, unless he or she signs a written undertaking,
(1) Not to prosecute or aid in any manner in the prosecution of any patent application pending in any patent
(2) Not to prepare or prosecute or to assist in any manner in the preparation or prosecution of any patent application of another (i) assigned to such group for examination and (ii) filed within two years after the date he or she left such group, without written authorization of the Director. Associated and related classes in other patent examining groups may be required to be included in the undertaking or designated classes may be excluded from the undertaking. When an application for registration is made after resignation from the Office, the applicant will not be registered if he or she has prepared or prosecuted or assisted in the preparation or prosecution of any patent application as indicated in the paragraph. Knowingly preparing or prosecuting or providing assistance in the preparation or prosecution of any patent application contrary to the provisions of this paragraph shall constitute misconduct under § 10.23(c)(13) of this part.
(c) A practitioner who is an employee of the Office cannot prosecute or aid in any manner in the prosecution of any patent application before the Office.
(d) Practice before the Office by Government employees is subject to any applicable conflict of interest laws, regulations or codes of professional responsibility.
(a) Registered attorneys and agents shall notify the Director of any change of address. Any notification to the Director of any change of address shall be separate from any notice of change of address filed in individual applications.
(b) A letter may be addressed to any individual on the register, at the address of which separate notice was last received by the Director, for the purpose of ascertaining whether such individual desires to remain on the register. The name of any individual failing to reply and give any information requested by the Director within a time limit specified will be removed from the register and the names of individuals so removed will be published in the Official Gazette. The name of any individual so removed may be reinstated on the register as may be appropriate and upon payment of the fee set forth in § 1.21(a)(3) of this subchapter.
(a)
(b)
(c)
(d) Recognition of any individual under this section shall not be construed as sanctioning or authorizing the performance of any act regarded in
(e) No individual other than those specified in paragraphs (a), (b), and (c) of this section will be permitted to practice before the Office in trademark cases. Any individual may appear in a trademark or other non-patent case in his or her own behalf. Any individual may appear in a trademark case for (1) a firm of which he or she is a member or (2) a corporation or association of which he or she is an officer and which he or she is authorized to represent, if such firm, corporation, or association is a party to a trademark proceeding pending before the Office.
Any practitioner authorized to appear before the Office may be suspended or excluded in accordance with the provisions of this part. Any practitioner who is suspended or excluded under this subpart or removed under § 10.11(b) shall not be entitled to practice before the Office.
(a) For all documents filed in the Office in patent, trademark, and other non-patent matters, except for correspondence that is required to be signed by the applicant or party, each piece of correspondence filed by a practitioner in the Patent and Trademark Office must bear a signature, personally signed by such practitioner, in compliance with § 1.4(d)(1) of this chapter.
(b) By presenting to the Office (whether by signing, filing, submitting, or later advocating) any paper, the party presenting such paper, whether a practitioner or non-practitioner, is certifying that—
(1) All statements made therein of the party's own knowledge are true, all statements made therein on information and belief are believed to be true, and all statements made therein are made with the knowledge that whoever, in any matter within the jurisdiction of the Patent and Trademark Office, knowingly and willfully falsifies, conceals, or covers up by any trick, scheme, or device a material fact, or makes any false, fictitious or fraudulent statements or representations, or makes or uses any false writing or document knowing the same to contain any false, fictitious or fraudulent statement or entry, shall be subject to the penalties set forth under 18 U.S.C. 1001, and that violations of this paragraph may jeopardize the validity of the application or document, or the validity or enforceability of any patent, trademark registration, or certificate resulting therefrom; and
(2) To the best of the party's knowledge, information and belief, formed after an inquiry reasonable under the circumstances, that—
(i) The paper is not being presented for any improper purpose, such as to harass someone or to cause unnecessary delay or needless increase in the cost of prosecution before the Office;
(ii) The claims and other legal contentions therein are warranted by existing law or by a nonfrivolous argument for the extension, modification, or reversal of existing law or the establishment of new law;
(iii) The allegations and other factual contentions have evidentiary support or, if specifically so identified, are likely to have evidentiary support after a reasonable opportunity for further investigation or discovery; and
(iv) The denials of factual contentions are warranted on the evidence, or if specifically so identified, are reasonably based on a lack of information or belief.
(c) Violations of paragraph (b)(1) of this section by a practitioner or non-practitioner may jeopardize the validity of the application or document, or the validity or enforceability of any patent, trademark registration, or certificate resulting therefrom. Violations of any of paragraphs (b)(2) (i) through (iv) of this section are, after notice and reasonable opportunity to respond, subject to such sanctions as deemed appropriate by the Commissioner, or the Commissioner's designee, which may include, but are not limited to, any combination of—
(1) Holding certain facts to have been established;
(2) Returning papers;
(3) Precluding a party from filing a paper, or presenting or contesting an issue;
(4) Imposing a monetary sanction;
(5) Requiring a terminal disclaimer for the period of the delay; or
(6) Terminating the proceedings in the Patent and Trademark Office.
(d) Any practitioner violating the provisions of this section may also be subject to disciplinary action. See § 10.23(c)(15).
(a) Canons are set out in §§ 10.21, 10.30, 10.46, 10.56, 10.61, 10.76, 10.83, 10.100, and 10.110. Canons are statements of axiomatic norms, expressing in general terms the standards of professional conduct expected of practitioners in their relationships with the public, with the legal system, and with the legal profession.
(b) Disciplinary Rules are set out in §§ 10.22—10.24, 10.31—10.40, 10.47—10.57, 10.62—10.68, 10.77, 10.78, 10.84, 10.85, 10.87—10.89, 10.92, 10.93, 10.101—10.103, 10.111, and 10.112. Disciplinary Rules are mandatory in character and state the minimum level of conduct below which no practitioner can fall without being subjected to disciplinary action.
A practitioner should assist in maintaining the integrity and competence of the legal profession.
(a) A practitioner is subject to discipline if the practitioner has made a materially false statement in, or if the practitioner has deliberately failed to disclose a material fact requested in connection with, the practitioner's application for registration or membership in the bar of any United States court or any State court or his or her authority to otherwise practice before the Office in trademark and other non-patent cases.
(b) A practitioner shall not further the application for registration or membership in the bar of any United States court, State court, or administrative agency of another person known by the practitioner to be unqualified in respect to character, education, or other relevant attribute.
(a) A practitioner shall not engage in disreputable or gross misconduct.
(b) A practitioner shall not:
(1) Violate a Disciplinary Rule.
(2) Circumvent a Disciplinary Rule through actions of another.
(3) Engage in illegal conduct involving moral turpitude.
(4) Engage in conduct involving dishonesty, fraud, deceit, or misrepresentation.
(5) Engage in conduct that is prejudicial to the administration of justice.
(6) Engage in any other conduct that adversely reflects on the practitioner's fitness to practice before the Office.
(c) Conduct which constitutes a violation of paragraphs (a) and (b) of this section includes, but is not limited to:
(1) Conviction of a criminal offense involving moral turpitude, dishonesty, or breach of trust.
(2) Knowingly giving false or misleading information or knowingly participating in a material way in giving false or misleading information, to:
(i) A client in connection with any immediate, prospective, or pending business before the Office.
(ii) The Office or any employee of the Office.
(3) Misappropriation of, or failure to properly or timely remit, funds received by a practitioner or the practitioner's firm from a client to pay a fee which the client is required by law to pay to the Office.
(4) Directly or indirectly improperly influencing, attempting to improperly influence, offering or agreeing to improperly influence, or attempting to offer or agree to improperly influence an official action of any employee of the Office by:
(i) Use of threats, false accusations, duress, or coercion,
(ii) An offer of any special inducement or promise of advantage, or
(iii) Improperly bestowing of any gift, favor, or thing of value.
(5) Suspension or disbarment from practice as an attorney or agent on ethical grounds by any duly constituted authority of a State or the United States or, in the case of a practitioner who resides in a foreign country or is registered under § 10.6(c), by any duly constituted authority of:
(i) A State,
(ii) The United States, or
(iii) The country in which the practitioner resides.
(6) Knowingly aiding or abetting a practitioner suspended or excluded from practice before the Office in engaging in unauthorized practice before the Office under § 10.158.
(7) Knowingly withholding from the Office information identifying a patent or patent application of another from which one or more claims have been copied. See §§ 1.604(b) and 1.607(c) of this subchapter.
(8) Failing to inform a client or former client or failing to timely notify the Office of an inability to notify a client or former client of correspondence received from the Office or the client's or former client's opponent in an
(9) Knowingly misusing a “Certificate of Mailing or Transmission” under § 1.8 of this chapter.
(10) Knowingly violating or causing to be violated the requirements of § 1.56 or § 1.555 of this subchapter.
(11) Except as permitted by § 1.52(c) of this chapter, knowingly filing or causing to be filed an application containing any material alteration made in the application papers after the signing of the accompanying oath or declaration without identifying the alteration at the time of filing the application papers.
(12) Knowingly filing, or causing to be filed, a frivolous complaint alleging a violation by a practitioner of the Patent and Trademark Office Code of Professional Responsibility.
(13) Knowingly preparing or prosecuting or providing assistance in the preparation or prosecution of a patent application in violation of an undertaking signed under § 10.10(b).
(14) Knowingly failing to advise the Director in writing of any change which would preclude continued registration under § 10.6.
(15) Signing a paper filed in the Office in violation of the provisions of § 10.18 or making a scandalous or indecent statement in a paper filed in the Office.
(16) Willfully refusing to reveal or report knowledge or evidence to the Director contrary to § 10.24 or paragraph (b) of § 10.131.
(17) Representing before the Office in a patent case either a joint venture comprising an inventor and an invention developer or an inventor referred to the registered practitioner by an invention developer when (i) the registered practitioner knows, or has been advised by the Office, that a formal complaint filed by a Federal or State agency, based on any violation of any law relating to securities, unfair methods of competition, unfair or deceptive acts or practices, mail fraud, or other civil or criminal conduct, is pending before a Federal or State court or Federal or State agency, or has been resolved unfavorably by such court or agency, against the invention developer in connection with invention development services and (ii) the registered practitioner fails to fully advise the inventor of the existence of the pending complaint or unfavorable resolution thereof prior to undertaking or continuing representation of the joint venture or inventor. “Invention developer” means any person, and any agent, employee, officer, partner, or independent contractor thereof, who is not a registered practitioner and who advertises invention development services in media of general circulation or who enters into contracts for invention development services with customers as a result of such advertisement. “Invention development services” means acts of invention development required
(18) In the absence of information sufficient to establish a reasonable belief that fraud or inequitable conduct has occurred, alleging before a tribunal that anyone has committed a fraud on the Office or engaged in inequitable conduct in a proceeding before the Office.
(19) Action by an employee of the Office contrary to the provisions set forth in § 10.10(c).
(20) Knowing practice by a Government employee contrary to applicable Federal conflict of interest laws, or regulations of the Department, agency or commission employing said individual.
(d) A practitioner who acts with reckless indifference to whether a representation is true or false is chargeable with knowledge of its falsity. Deceitful statements of half-truths or concealment of material facts shall be deemed actual fraud within the meaning of this part.
(a) A practitioner possessing unprivileged knowledge of a violation of a Disciplinary Rule shall report such knowledge to the Director.
(b) A practitioner possessing unprivileged knowledge or evidence concerning another practitioner, employee of the Office, or a judge shall reveal fully such knowledge or evidence upon proper request of a tribunal or other authority empowered to investigate or act upon the conduct of practitioners, employees of the Office, or judges.
A practitioner should assist the legal profession in fulfilling its duty to make legal counsel available.
(a) No practitioner shall with respect to any prospective business before the Office, by word, circular, letter, or advertising, with intent to defraud in any manner, deceive, mislead, or threaten any prospective applicant or other person having immediate or prospective business before the Office.
(b) A practitioner may not use the name of a Member of either House of Congress or of an individual in the service of the United States in advertising the practitioner's practice before the Office.
(c) Unless authorized under § 10.14(b), a non-lawyer practitioner shall not hold himself or herself out as authorized to practice before the Office in trademark cases.
(d) Unless a practitioner is an attorney, the practitioner shall not hold himself or herself out:
(1) To be an attorney or lawyer or
(2) As authorized to practice before the Office in non-patent and trademark cases.
(a) Subject to § 10.31, a practitioner may advertise services through public media, including a telephone directory, legal directory, newspaper, or other periodical, radio, or television, or through written communications not involving solicitation as defined by § 10.33.
(b) A practitioner shall not give anything of value to a person for recommending the practitioner's services, except that a practitioner may pay the reasonable cost of advertising or written communication permitted by this section and may pay the usual charges of a not-for-profit lawyer referral service or other legal service organization.
(c) Any communication made pursuant to this section shall include the name of at least one practitioner responsible for its content.
A practitioner may not solicit professional employment from a prospective client with whom the practitioner has no family or prior professional relationship, by mail, in-person or otherwise, when a significant motive for the practitioner's doing so is the practitioner's pecuniary gain under circumstances evidencing undue influence, intimidation, or overreaching. The term “solicit” includes contact in person, by telephone or telegraph, by letter or other writing, or by other communication directed to a specific recipient, but does not include letters addressed or advertising circulars distributed generally to persons not specifically known to need legal services of the kind provided by the practitioner in a particular matter, but who are so situated that they might in general find such services useful.
A registered practitioner may state or imply that the practitioner is a specialist as follows:
(a) A registered practitioner who is an attorney may use the designation “Patents,” “Patent Attorney,” “Patent Lawyer,” “Registered Patent Attorney,” or a substantially similar designation.
(b) A registered practitioner who is not an attorney may use the designation “Patents,” “Patent Agent,” “Registered Patent Agent,” or a substantially similar designation, except that any practitioner who was registered prior to November 15, 1938, may refer to himself or herself as a “patent attorney.”
(a) A practitioner shall not use a firm name, letterhead, or other professional designation that violates § 10.31. A trade name may be used by a practitioner in private practice if it does not imply a current connection with a government agency or with a public or charitable legal services organization and is not otherwise in violation of § 10.31.
(b) Practitioners may state or imply that they practice in a partnership or other organization only when that is the fact.
(a) A practitioner shall not enter into an agreement for, charge, or collect an illegal or clearly excessive fee.
(b) A fee is clearly excessive when, after a review of the facts, a practitioner of ordinary prudence would be left with a definite and firm conviction that the fee is in excess of a reasonable fee. Factors to be considered as guides in determining the reasonableness of a fee include the following:
(1) The time and labor required, the novelty and difficulty of the questions involved, and the skill requisite to perform the legal service properly.
(2) The likelihood, if apparent to the client, that the acceptance of the particular employment will preclude other employment by the practitioner.
(3) The fee customarily charged for similar legal services.
(4) The amount involved and the results obtained.
(5) The time limitations imposed by the client or by the circumstances.
(6) The nature and length of the professional relationship with the client.
(7) The experience, reputation, and ability of the practitioner or practitioners performing the services.
(8) Whether the fee is fixed or contingent.
(a) A practitioner shall not divide a fee for legal services with another practitioner who is not a partner in or associate of the practitioner's law firm or law office, unless:
(1) The client consents to employment of the other practitioner after a full disclosure that a division of fees will be made.
(2) The division is made in proportion to the services performed and responsibility assumed by each.
(3) The total fee of the practitioners does not clearly exceed reasonable compensation for all legal services rendered to the client.
(b) This section does not prohibit payment to a former partner or associate pursuant to a separation or retirement agreement.
(a) A practitioner shall not be a party to or participate in a partnership or employment agreement with another practitioner that restricts the right of a practitioner to practice before the Office after the termination of a relationship created by the agreement, except as a condition to payment of retirement benefits.
(b) In connection with the settlement of a controversy or suit, a practitioner shall not enter into an agreement that restricts the practitioner's right to practice before the Office.
A practitioner shall not accept employment on behalf of a person if the practitioner knows or it is obvious that such person wishes to:
(a) Bring a legal action, commence a proceeding before the Office, conduct a defense, assert a position in any proceeding pending before the Office, or otherwise have steps taken for the person, merely for the purpose of harassing or maliciously injuring any other person.
(b) Present a claim or defense in litigation or any proceeding before the Office that is not warranted under existing law, unless it can be supported by good faith argument for an extension, modification, or reversal of existing law.
(a) A practitioner shall not withdraw from employment in a proceeding before the Office without permission from the Office (see §§ 1.36 and 2.19 of this subchapter). In any event, a practitioner shall not withdraw from employment until the practitioner has taken reasonable steps to avoid foreseeable prejudice to the rights of the client, including giving due notice to his or her client, allowing time for employment of another practitioner, delivering to the client all papers and property to which the client is entitled, and complying with applicable laws and rules. A practitioner who withdraws from employment shall refund promptly any part of a fee paid in advance that has not been earned.
(b)
(1) The practitioner knows or it is obvious that the client is bringing a legal action, commencing a proceeding before the Office, conducting a defense, or asserting a position in litigation or any proceeding pending before the Office, or is otherwise having steps taken for the client, merely for the purpose of harassing or maliciously injuring any person;
(2) The practitoner knows or it is obvious that the practitoner's continued employment will result in violation of a Disciplinary Rule;
(3) The practitioner's mental or physical condition renders it unreasonably difficult for the practitioner to carry out the employment effectively; or
(4) The practitioner is discharged by the client.
(c)
(1) The petitioner's client:
(i) Insists upon presenting a claim or defense that is not warranted under existing law and cannot be supported by good faith argument for an extension, modification, or reversal of existing law;
(ii) Personally seeks to pursue an illegal course of conduct;
(iii) Insists that the practitioner pursue a course of conduct that is illegal or that is prohibited under a Disciplinary Rule;
(iv) By other conduct renders it unreasonably difficult for the practitioner to carry out the employment effectively;
(v) Insists, in a matter not pending before a tribunal, that the practitioner engage in conduct that is contrary to the judgment and advice of the practitioner but not prohibited under the Disciplinary Rule; or
(vi) Has failed to pay one or more bills rendered by the practitioner for an unreasonable period of time or has failed to honor an agreement to pay a retainer in advance of the performance of legal services.
(2) The practitioner's continued employment is likely to result in a violation of a Disciplinary Rule;
(3) The practitioner's inability to work with co-counsel indicates that the best interests of the client likely will be served by withdrawal;
(4) The practitioner's mental or physical condition renders it difficult for the practitioner to carry out the employment effectively;
(5) The practitioner's client knowingly and freely assents to termination of the employment; or
(6) The practitioner believes in good faith, in a proceeding pending before the Office, that the Office will find the existence of other good cause for withdrawal.
A practitioner should assist in preventing the unauthorized practice of law.
(a) A practitioner shall not aid a non-practitioner in the unauthorized practice of law before the Office.
(b) A practitioner shall not aid a suspended or excluded practitioner in the practice of law before the Office.
(c) A practitioner shall not aid a non-lawyer in the unauthorized practice of law.
A practitioner or a firm of practitioners shall not share legal fees with a non-practitioner except that:
(a) An agreement by a practitioner with the practitioner's firm, partner, or associate may provide for the payment of money, over a reasonable period of time after the practitioner's death, to the practitioner's estate or to one or more specified persons.
(b) A practitioner who undertakes to complete unfinished legal business of a deceased practitioner may pay to the estate of the deceased practitioner that proportion of the total compensation which fairly represents the services rendered by the deceased practitioner.
(c) A practitioner or firm of practitioners may include non-practitioner employees in a compensation or retirement plan, even though the plan is based in whole or in part on a profit-sharing arrangement, providing such plan does not circumvent another Disciplinary Rule.
A practitioner shall not form a partnership with a non-practitioner if any of the activities of the partnership consist of the practice of patent, trademark, or other law before the Office.
A practitioner should preserve the confidences and secrets of a client.
(a) “Confidence” refers to information protected by the attorney-client or agent-client privilege under applicable law. “Secret” refers to other information gained in the professional relationship that the client has requested be held inviolate or the disclosure of which would be embarrassing or would be likely to be detrimental to the client.
(b) Except when permitted under paragraph (c) of this section, a practitioner shall not knowingly:
(1) Reveal a confidence or secret of a client.
(2) Use a confidence or secret of a client to the disadvantage of the client.
(3) Use a confidence or secret of a client for the advantage of the practitioner or of a third person, unless the client consents after full disclosure.
(c) A practitioner may reveal:
(1) Confidences or secrets with the consent of the client affected but only after a full disclosure to the client.
(2) Confidences or secrets when permitted under Disciplinary Rules or required by law or court order.
(3) The intention of a client to commit a crime and the information necessary to prevent the crime.
(4) Confidences or secrets necessary to establish or collect the practitioner's fee or to defend the practitioner or the practitioner's employees or associates against an accusation of wrongful conduct.
(d) A practitioner shall exercise reasonable care to prevent the practitioner's employees, associates, and others whose services are utilized by the practitioner from disclosing or using confidences or secrets of a client, except that a practitioner may reveal the information allowed by paragraph (c) of this section through an employee.
A practitioner should exercise independent professional judgment on behalf of a client.
(a) Except with the consent of a client after full disclosure, a practitioner shall not accept employment if the exercise of the practitioner's professional judgment on behalf of the client will be or reasonably may be affected by the practitioner's own financial, business, property, or personal interests.
(b) A practitioner shall not accept employment in a proceeding before the Office if the practitioner knows or it is obvious that the practitioner or another practitioner in the practitioner's firm ought to sign an affidavit to be filed in the Office or be called as a witness, except that the practitioner may undertake the employment and the practitioner or another practitioner in the practitioner's firm may testify:
(1) If the testimony will relate solely to an uncontested matter.
(2) If the testimony will relate solely to a matter of formality and there is no reason to believe that substantial evidence will be offered in opposition to the testimony.
(3) If the testimony will relate solely to the nature and value of legal services rendered in the case by the practitioner or the practitioner's firm to the client.
(4) As to any matter, if refusal would work a substantial hardship on the client because of the distinctive value of the practitioner or the practitioner's firm as counsel in the particular case.
(a) If, after undertaking employment in a proceeding in the Office, a practitioner learns or it is obvious that the practitioner or another practitioner in the practitioner's firm ought to sign an affidavit to be filed in the Office or be
(b) If, after undertaking employment in a proceeding before the Office, a practitioner learns or it is obvious that the practitioner or another practitioner in the practitioner's firm may be asked to sign an affidavit to be filed in the Office or be called as a witness other than on behalf of the practitioner's client, the practitioner may continue the representation until it is apparent that the practitioner's affidavit or testimony is or may be prejudicial to the practitioner's client.
(a) A practitioner shall not acquire a proprietary interest in the subject matter of a proceeding before the Office which the practitioner is conducting for a client, except that the practitioner may:
(1) Acquire a lien granted by law to secure the practitioner's fee or expenses; or
(2) Contract with a client for a reasonable contingent fee; or
(3) In a patent case, take an interest in the patent as part or all of his or her fee.
(b) While representing a client in connection with a contemplated or pending proceeding before the Office, a practitioner shall not advance or guarantee financial assistance to a client, except that a practitioner may advance or guarantee the expenses of going forward in a proceeding before the Office including fees required by law to be paid to the Office, expenses of investigation, expenses of medical examination, and costs of obtaining and presenting evidence, provided the client remains ultimately liable for such expenses. A practitioner may, however, advance any fee required to prevent or remedy an abandonment of a client's application by reason of an act or omission attributable to the practitioner and not to the client, whether or not the client is ultimately liable for such fee.
A practitioner shall not enter into a business transaction with a client if they have differing interests therein and if the client expects the practitioner to exercise professional judgment therein for the protection of the client, unless the client has consented after full disclosure.
(a) A practitioner shall decline proffered employment if the exercise of the practitioner's independent professional judgment in behalf of a client will be or is likely to be adversely affected by the acceptance of the proffered employment, or if it would be likely to involve the practitioner in representing differing interests, except to the extent permitted under paragraph (c) of this section.
(b) A practitioner shall not continue multiple employment if the exercise of the practitioner's independent professional judgment in behalf of a client will be or is likely to be adversely affected by the practitoner's representation of another client, or if it would be likely to involve the practitioner in representing differing interests, except to the extent permitted under paragraph (c) of this section.
(c) In the situations covered by paragraphs (a) and (b) of this section a practitioner may represent multiple clients if it is obvious that the practitioner can adequately represent the interest of each and if each consents to the representation after full disclosure of the possible effect of such representation on the exercise of the practitioner's independent professional judgment on behalf of each.
(d) If a practitioner is required to decline employment or to withdraw from employment under a Disciplinary Rule, no partner, or associate, or any other
A practitioner who represents two or more clients shall not make or participate in the making of an aggregate settlement of the claims of or against the practitioner's clients, unless each client has consented to the settlement after being advised of the existence and nature of all the claims involved in the proposed settlement, of the total amount of the settlement, and of the participation of each person in the settlement.
(a) Except with the consent of the practitioner's client after full disclosure, a practitioner shall not:
(1) Accept compensation from one other than the practitioner's client for the practitioner's legal services to or for the client.
(2) Accept from one other than the practitioner's client any thing of value related to the practitioner's representation of or the practitioner's employment by the client.
(b) A practitioner shall not permit a person who recommends, employs, or pays the practitioner to render legal services for another, to direct or regulate the practitioner's professional judgment in rendering such legal services.
(c) A practitioner shall not practice with or in the form of a professional corporation or association authorized to practice law for a profit, if a non-practitioner has the right to direct or control the professional judgment of a practitioner.
A practitioner should represent a client competently.
A practitioner shall not:
(a) Handle a legal matter which the practitioner knows or should know that the practitioner is not competent to handle, without associating with the practitioner another practitioner who is competent to handle it.
(b) Handle a legal matter without preparation adequate in the circumstances.
(c) Neglect a legal matter entrusted to the practitioner.
A practitioner shall not attempt to exonerate himself or herself from, or limit his or her liability to, a client for his or her personal malpractice.
A practitioner should represent a client zealously within the bounds of the law.
(a) A practitioner shall not intentionally:
(1) Fail to seek the lawful objectives of a client through reasonably available means permitted by law and the Disciplinary Rules, except as provided by paragraph (b) of this section. A practitioner does not violate the provisions of this section, however, by acceding to reasonable requests of opposing counsel which do not prejudice the rights of the client, by being punctual in fulfilling all professional commitments, by avoiding offensive tactics, or by treating with courtesy and consideration all persons involved in the legal process.
(2) Fail to carry out a contract of employment entered into with a client for professional services, but a practitioner may withdraw as permitted under §§ 10.40, 10.63, and 10.66.
(3) Prejudice or damage a client during the course of a professional relationship, except as required under this part.
(b) In representation of a client, a practitioner may:
(1) Where permissible, exercise professional judgment to waive or fail to assert a right or position of the client.
(2) Refuse to aid or participate in conduct that the practitioner believes
(a) In representation of a client, a practitioner shall not:
(1) Initiate or defend any proceeding before the Office, assert a position, conduct a defense, delay a trial or proceeding before the Office, or take other action on behalf of the practitioner's client when the practitioner knows or when it is obvious that such action would serve merely to harass or maliciously injure another.
(2) Knowingly advance a claim or defense that is unwarranted under existing law, except that a practitioner may advance such claim or defense if it can be supported by good faith argument for an extension, modification, or reversal of existing law.
(3) Conceal or knowingly fail to disclose that which the practitioner is required by law to reveal.
(4) Knowingly use perjured testimony or false evidence.
(5) Knowingly make a false statement of law or fact.
(6) Participate in the creation or preservation of evidence when the practitioner knows or it is obvious that the evidence is false.
(7) Counsel or assist a client in conduct that the practitioner knows to be illegal or fraudulent.
(8) Knowingly engage in other illegal conduct or conduct contrary to a Disciplinary Rule.
(b) A practitioner who receives information clearly establishing that:
(1) A client has, in the course of the representation, perpetrated a fraud upon a person or tribunal shall promptly call upon the client to rectify the same, and if the client refuses or is unable to do so the practitioner shall reveal the fraud to the affected person or tribunal.
(2) A person other than a client has perpetrated a fraud upon a tribunal shall promptly reveal the fraud to the tribunal.
During the course of representation of a client, a practitioner shall not:
(a) Communicate or cause another to communicate on the subject of the representation with a party the practitioner knows to be represented by another practitioner in that matter unless the practitioner has the prior consent of the other practitioner representing such other party or is authorized by law to do so. It is not improper, however, for a practitioner to encourage a client to meet with an opposing party for settlement discussions.
(b) Give advice to a person who is not represented by a practitioner other than the advice to secure counsel, if the interests of such person are or have a reasonable possibility of being in conflict with the interests of the practitioner's client.
A practitioner shall not present, participate in presenting, or threaten to present criminal charges solely to obtain an advantage in any prospective or pending proceeding before the Office.
(a) A practitioner shall not disregard or advise a client to disregard any provision of this Subchapter or a decision of the Office made in the course of a proceeding before the Office, but the practitioner may take appropriate steps in good faith to test the validity of such provision or decision.
(b) In presenting a matter to the Office, a practitioner shall disclose:
(1) Controlling legal authority known to the practitioner to be directly adverse to the position of the client and which is not disclosed by opposing counsel or an employee of the Office.
(2) Unless privileged or irrelevant, the identities of the client the practitioner represents and of the persons who employed the practitioner.
(c) In appearing in a professional capacity before a tribunal, a practitioner shall not:
(1) State or allude to any matter that the practitioner has no reasonable basis to believe is relevant to the case or that will not be supported by admissible evidence.
(2) Ask any question that the practitioner has no reasonable basis to believe is relevant to the case and that is intended to degrade a witness or other person.
(3) Assert the practitioner's personal knowledge of the facts in issue, except when testifying as a witness.
(4) Assert the practitioner's personal opinion as to the justness of a cause, as to the credibility of a witness, as to the culpability of a civil litigant, or as to the guilt or innocence of an accused; but the practitioner may argue, on the practitioner's analysis of the evidence, for any position or conclusion with respect to the matters stated herein.
(5) Engage in undignified or discourteous conduct before the Office (see § 1.3 of the subchapter).
(6) Intentionally or habitually violate any provision of this subchapter or established rule of evidence.
(a) A practitioner shall not suppress any evidence that the practitioner or the practitioner's client has a legal obligation to reveal or produce.
(b) A practitioner shall not advise or cause a person to be secreted or to leave the jurisdiction of a tribunal for the purpose of making the person unavailable as a witness therein.
(c) A practitioner shall not pay, offer to pay, or acquiesce in the payment of compensation to a witness contingent upon the content of the witness’ affidavit, testimony or the outcome of the case. But a practitioner may advance, guarantee, or acquiesce in the payment of:
(1) Expenses reasonably incurred by a witness in attending, testifying, or making an affidavit.
(2) Reasonable compensation to a witness for the witness’ loss of time in attending, testifying, or making an affidavit.
(3) A reasonable fee for the professional services of an expert witness.
(a) A practitioner shall not give or lend anything of value to a judge, official, or employee of a tribunal under circumstances which might give the appearance that the gift or loan is made to influence official action.
(b) In an adversary proceeding, including any
(1) In the course of official proceedings in the cause.
(2) In writing if the practitioner promptly delivers a copy of the writing to opposing counsel or to the adverse party if the adverse party is not represented by a practitioner.
(3) Orally upon adequate notice to opposing counsel or to the adverse party if the adverse party is not represented by a practitioner.
(4) As otherwise authorized by law.
A practitioner should assist in improving the legal system.
(a) A practitioner who holds public office shall not:
(1) Use the practitioner's public position to obtain, or attempt to obtain, a special advantage in legislative matters for the practitioner or for a client under circumstances where the practitioner knows or it is obvious that such action is not in the public interest.
(2) Use the practitioner's public position to influence, or attempt to influence, a tribunal to act in favor of the practitioner or of a client.
(3) Accept any thing of value from any person when the practitioner knows or it is obvious that the offer is for the purpose of influencing the practitioner's action as a public official.
(b) A practitioner who is an officer or employee of the United States shall not practice before the Office in patent
(a) A practitioner shall not knowingly make false statements of fact concerning the qualifications of a candidate for election or appointment to a judicial office or to a position in the Office.
(b) A practitioner shall not knowingly make false accusations against a judge, other adjudicatory officer, or employee of the Office.
A practitioner who is a candidate for judicial office shall comply with applicable provisions of law.
A practitioner should avoid even the appearance of professional impropriety.
(a) A practitioner shall not accept private employment in a matter upon the merits of which he or she has acted in a judicial capacity.
(b) A practitioner shall not accept private employment in a matter in which he or she had personal responsibility while a public employee.
(c) A practitioner shall not state or imply that the practitioner is able to influence improperly or upon irrelevant grounds any tribunal, legislative body, or public official.
(a) All funds of clients paid to a practitioner or a practitioner's firm, other than advances for costs and expenses, shall be deposited in one or more identifiable bank accounts maintained in the United States or, in the case of a practitioner having an office in a foreign country or registered under § 10.6(c), in the United States or the foreign country.
(b) No funds belonging to the practitioner or the practitioner's firm shall be deposited in the bank accounts required by paragraph (a) of this section except as follows:
(1) Funds reasonably sufficient to pay bank charges may be deposited therein.
(2) Funds belonging in part to a client and in part presently or potentially to the practitioner or the practitioner's firm must be deposited therein, but the portion belonging to the practitioner or the practitioner's firm may be withdrawn when due unless the right of the practitioner or the practitioner's firm to receive it is disputed by the client, in which event the disputed portion shall not be withdrawn until the dispute is finally resolved.
(c) A practitioner shall:
(1) Promptly notify a client of the receipt of the client's funds, securities, or other properties.
(2) Identify and label securities and properties of a client promptly upon receipt and place them in a safe deposit box or other place of safekeeping as soon as practicable.
(3) Maintain complete records of all funds, securities, and other properties of a client coming into the possession of the practitioner and render appropriate accounts to the client regarding the funds, securities, or other properties.
(4) Promptly pay or deliver to the client as requested by a client the funds, securities, or other properties in the possession of the practitioner which the client is entitled to receive.
(a) The Commissioner may, after notice and opportunity for a hearing, (1) reprimand or (2) suspend or exclude, either generally or in any particular case, any individual, attorney, or agent shown to be incompetent or disreputable, who is guilty of gross misconduct, or who violates a Disciplinary Rule.
(b) Petitions to disqualify a practitioner in
(a) The Director is authorized to investigate possible violations of Disciplinary Rules by practitioners. See § 10.2(b)(2).
(b) Practitioners shall report and reveal to the Director any knowledge or evidence required by § 10.24. A practitioner shall cooperate with the Director in connection with any investigation under paragraph (a) of this section and with officials of the Office in connection with any disciplinary proceeding instituted under § 10.132(b).
(c) Any non-practitioner possessing knowledge or information concerning a violation of a Disciplinary Rule by a practitioner may report the violation to the Director. The Director may require that the report be presented in the form of an affidavit.
(a) If after conducting an investigation under § 10.131(a) the Director is of the opinion that a practitioner has violated a Disciplinary Rule, the Director shall, after complying where necessary with the provisions of 5 U.S.C. 558(c), call a meeting of the Committee on Discipline. The Committee on Discipline shall then determine as specified in § 10.4(b) whether a disciplinary proceeding shall be instituted under paragraph (b) of this section.
(b) If the Committee on Discipline determines that probable cause exists to believe that a practitioner has violated a Disciplinary Rule, the Director shall institute a disciplinary proceeding by filing a complaint under § 10.134. The complaint shall be filed in the Office of the Director. A disciplinary proceeding may result in:
(1) A reprimand, or
(2) Suspension or exclusion of a practitioner from practice before the Office.
(c) Upon the filing of a complaint under § 10.134, the Commissioner will refer the disciplinary proceeding to an administrative law judge.
(a)
(b)
(c) If filed prior to the date set by the administrative law judge for a hearing, the affidavit shall state that:
(1) The resignation is freely and voluntarily proffered;
(2) The practitioner is not acting under duress or coercion from the Office;
(3) The practitioner is fully aware of the implications of filing the resignation;
(4) The practitioner is aware (i) of a pending investigation or (ii) of charges arising from the complaint alleging that he or she is guilty of a violation of the Patent and Trademark Office Code of Professional Responsibility, the nature of which shall be set forth by the practitioner to the satisfaction of the Director;
(5) The practitioner acknowledges that, if and when he or she applies for reinstatement under § 10.160, the Director will conclusively presume, for the limited purpose of determining the application for reinstatement, that:
(i) The facts upon which the complaint is based are true and
(ii) The practitioner could not have successfully defended himself or herself against (A) charges predicated on the violation under investigation or (B) charges set out in the complaint filed against the practitioner.
(d) If filed on or after the date set by the administrative law judge for a hearing, the affidavit shall make the statements required by paragraphs (b)
(1) The practitioner acknowledges the facts upon which the complaint is based are true; and
(2) The resignation is being submitted because the practitioner could not successfully defend himself or herself against (i) charges predicated on the violation under investigation or (ii) charges set out in the complaint.
(e) When an affidavit under paragraph (b) or (c) of this section is received while an investigation is pending, the Commissioner shall enter an order excluding the practitioner “on consent.” When an affidavit under paragraph (b) or (c) of this section is received after a complaint under § 10.134 has been filed, the Director shall notify the administrative law judge. The administrative law judge shall enter an order transferring the disciplinary proceeding to the Commissioner and the Commissioner shall enter an order excluding the practitioner “on consent.”
(f) Any practitioner who resigns from practice before the Office under this section and who intends to reapply for admission to practice before the Office must comply with the provisions of § 10.158.
(g)
(a) A complaint instituting a disciplinary proceeding shall:
(1) Name the practitioner, who may then be referred to as the “respondent.”
(2) Give a plain and concise description of the alleged violations of the Disciplinary Rules by the practitioner.
(3) State the place and time for filing an answer by the respondent.
(4) State that a decision by default may be entered against the respondent if an answer is not timely filed.
(5) Be signed by the Director.
(b) A complaint will be deemed sufficient if it fairly informs the respondent of any violation of the Disciplinary Rules which form the basis for the disciplinary proceeding so that the respondent is able to adequately prepare a defense.
(a) A complaint may be served on a respondent in any of the following methods:
(1) By handing a copy of the complaint personally to the respondent, in which case the individual handing the complaint to the respondent shall file an affidavit with the Director indicating the time and place the complaint was handed to the respondent.
(2) By mailing a copy of the complaint by “Express Mail” or first-class mail to:
(i) A registered practitioner at the address for which separate notice was last received by the Director or
(ii) A non-registered practitioner at the last address for the respondent known to the Director.
(3) By any method mutually agreeable to the Director and the respondent.
(b) If a complaint served by mail under paragraph (a)(2) of this section is returned by the U.S. Postal Service, the Director shall mail a second copy of the complaint to the respondent. If the second copy of the complaint is also returned by the U.S. Postal Service, the Director shall serve the respondent by publishing an appropriate notice in the
(c) If a respondent is a registered practitioner, the Director may serve simultaneously with the complaint a letter under § 10.11(b). The Director may require the respondent to answer the § 10.11(b) letter within a period of not less than 15 days. An answer to the § 10.11(b) letter shall constitute proof of service. If the respondent fails to answer the § 10.11(b) letter, his or her
(d) If the respondent is represented by an attorney under § 10.140(a), a copy of the complaint shall also be served on the attorney.
(a)
(b)
(c)
(d)
(e)
False statements in an answer may be made the basis of a supplemental complaint.
Upon the filing of an answer by the respondent, a disciplinary proceeding shall be regarded as a contested case within the meaning of 35 U.S.C. 24. Evidence obtained by a subpoena issued under 35 U.S.C. 24 shall not be admitted into the record or considered unless leave to proceed under 35 U.S.C. 24 was previously authorized by the administrative law judge.
(a)
(b)
(1) Administer oaths and affirmations;
(2) Make rulings upon motions and other requests;
(3) Rule upon offers of proof, receive relevant evidence, and examine witnesses;
(4) Authorize the taking of a deposition of a witness in lieu of personal appearance of the witness before the administrative law judge;
(5) Determine the time and place of any hearing and regulate its course and conduct;
(6) Hold or provide for the holding of conferences to settle or simplify the issues;
(7) Receive and consider oral or written arguments on facts or law;
(8) Adopt procedures and modify procedures from time to time as occasion requires for the orderly disposition of proceedings;
(9) Make initial decisions under § 10.154; and
(10) Perform acts and take measures as necessary to promote the efficient and timely conduct of any disciplinary proceeding.
(c)
(d)
(1) When the administrative law judge shall be of the opinion (i) that the interlocutory order involves a controlling question of procedure or law as to which there is a substantial ground for a difference of opinion and (ii) that an immediate decision by the Commissioner may materially advance the ultimate termination of the disciplinary proceeding or
(2) In an extraordinary situation where justice requires review
(e)
(a) A respondent may be represented before the Office in connection with an investigation or disciplinary proceeding by an attorney. The attorney shall file a written declaration that he or she is an attorney within the meaning of § 10.1(c) and shall state:
(1) The address to which the attorney wants correspondence related to the investigation or disciplinary proceeding sent and
(2) A telephone number where the attorney may be reached during normal business hours.
(b) The Commissioner shall designate at least two associate solicitors in the Office of the Solicitor to act as representatives for the Director in disciplinary proceedings. In prosecuting disciplinary proceedings, the designated associate solicitors shall not involve the Solicitor or the Deputy Solicitor. The Solicitor and the Deputy Solicitor shall remain insulated from the investigation and prosecution of all disciplinary proceedings in order that they shall be available as counsel to the Commissioner in deciding disciplinary proceedings.
(a) The provisions of § 1.8 of this subchapter do not apply to disciplinary proceedings.
(b) All papers filed after the complaint and prior to entry of an initial decision by the administrative law judge shall be filed with the administrative law judge at an address or place designated by the administrative law judge. All papers filed after entry of an initial decision by the administrative law judge shall be filed with the Director. The Director shall promptly forward to the Commissioner any paper which requires action under this part by the Commissioner.
(c) The administrative law judge or the Director may provide for filing papers and other matters by hand or by “Express Mail.”
(a) All papers other than a complaint shall be served on a respondent represented by an attorney by:
(1) Delivering a copy of the paper to the office of the attorney; or
(2) Mailing a copy of the paper by first-class mail or “Express Mail” to the attorney at the address provided by the attorney under § 10.140(a)(1); or
(3) Any other method mutually agreeable to the attorney and a representative for the Director.
(b) All papers other than a complaint shall be served on a respondent who is not represented by an attorney by:
(1) Delivering a copy of the paper to the respondent; or
(2) Mailing a copy of the paper by first-class mail or “Express Mail” to the respondent at the address to which a complaint may be served or such
(3) Any other method mutually agreeable to the respondent and a representative of the Director.
(c) A respondent shall serve on the representative for the Director one copy of each paper filed with the administrative law judge or the Director. A paper may be served on the representative for the Director by:
(1) Delivering a copy of the paper to the representative; or
(2) Mailing a copy of the paper by first-class mail or “Express Mail” to an address designated in writing by the representative; or
(3) Any other method mutually agreeable to the respondent and the representative.
(d) Each paper filed in a disciplinary proceeding shall contain therein a certificate of service indicating:
(1) The date on which service was made and
(2) The method by which service was made.
(e) The administrative law judge or the Commissioner may require that a paper be served by hand or by “Express Mail.”
(f) Service by mail is completed when the paper mailed in the United States is placed into the custody of the U.S. Postal Service.
Motions may be filed with the administrative law judge. The administrative law judge will determine on a case-by-case basis the time period for response to a motion and whether replies to responses will be authorized. No motion shall be filed with the administrative law judge unless such motion is supported by a written statement by the moving party that the moving party or attorney for the moving party has conferred with the opposing party or attorney for the opposing party in an effort in good faith to resolve by agreement the issues raised by the motion and has been unable to reach agreement. If issues raised by a motion are resolved by the parties prior to a decision on the motion by the administrative law judge, the parties shall promptly notify the administrative law judge.
(a) The administrative law judge shall preside at hearings in disciplinary proceedings. Hearings will be stenographically recorded and transcribed and the testimony of witnesses will be received under oath or affirmation. The administrative law judge shall conduct hearings in accordance with 5 U.S.C. 556. A copy of the transcript of the hearing shall become part of the record. A copy of the transcript shall be provided to the Director and the respondent at the expense of the Office.
(b) If the respondent to a disciplinary proceeding fails to appear at the hearing after a notice of hearing has been given by the administrative law judge, the administrative law judge may deem the respondent to have waived the right to a hearing and may proceed with the hearing in the absence of the respondent.
(c) A hearing under this section will not be open to the public except that the Director may grant a request by a respondent to open his or her hearing to the public and make the record of the disciplinary proceeding available for public inspection,
In case of a variance between the evidence and the allegations in a complaint, answer, or reply, if any, the administrative law judge may order or authorize amendment of the complaint, answer, or reply to conform to the evidence. Any party who would otherwise be prejudiced by the amendment will be given reasonable opportunity to meet the allegations in the complaint, answer, or reply, as amended, and the administrative law judge shall make findings on any issue presented by the complaint, answer, or reply as amended.
In a disciplinary proceeding, the Director shall have the burden of proving his or her case by clear and convincing evidence and a respondent shall have the burden of proving any affirmative defense by clear and convincing evidence.
(a)
(b)
(c)
(d)
(e)
(a) Depositions for use at the hearing in lieu of personal appearance of a witness before the administrative law judge may be taken by respondent or the Director upon a showing of good cause and with the approval of, and under such conditions as may be deemed appropriate by, the administrative law judge. Depositions may be taken upon oral or written questions, upon not less than ten days written notice to the other party, before any officer authorized to administer an oath or affirmation in the place where the deposition is to be taken. The requirement of ten days notice may be waived by the parties and depositions may then be taken of a witness and at a time and place mutually agreed to by the parties. When a deposition is taken upon written questions, copies of the written questions will be served upon the other party with the notice and copies of any written cross-questions will be served by hand or “Express Mail” not less than five days before the date of the taking of the deposition unless the parties mutually agree otherwise. A party on whose behalf a deposition is taken shall file a copy of a transcript of the deposition signed by a court reporter with the administrative law judge and shall serve one copy upon the opposing party. Expenses for a court reporter and preparing, serving, and filing depositions shall be borne by the party at whose instance the deposition is taken.
(b) When the Director and the respondent agree in writing, a deposition of any witness who will appear voluntarily may be taken under such terms and condition as may be mutually agreeable to the Director and the respondent. The deposition shall not be filed with the administrative law judge and may not be admitted in evidence before the administrative law judge unless he or she orders the deposition admitted in evidence. The admissibility of the deposition shall lie within the discretion of the administrative law judge who may reject the deposition on any reasonable basis including the fact that demeanor is involved and that the witness should have been called to appear personally before the administrative law judge.
Discovery shall not be authorized except as follows:
(a) After an answer is filed under § 10.136 and when a party establishes in a clear and convincing manner that discovery is necessary and relevant, the administrative law judge, under such conditions as he or she deems appropriate, may order an opposing party to:
(1) Answer a reasonable number of written requests for admission or interrogatories;
(2) Produce for inspection and copying a reasonable number of documents; and
(3) Produce for inspection a reasonable number of things other than documents.
(b) Discovery shall not be authorized under paragraph (a) of this section of any matter which:
(1) Will be used by another party solely for impeachment or cross-examination;
(2) Is not available to the party under 35 U.S.C. 122;
(3) Relates to any disciplinary proceeding commenced in the Patent and Trademark Office prior to March 8, 1985;
(4) Relates to experts except as the administrative law judge may require under paragraph (e) of this section.
(5) Is privileged; or
(6) Relates to mental impressions, conclusions, opinions, or legal theories of any attorney or other representative of a party.
(c) The administrative law judge may deny discovery requested under paragraph (a) of this section if the discovery sought:
(1) Will unduly delay the disciplinary proceeding;
(2) Will place an undue burden on the party required to produce the discovery sought; or
(3) Is available (i) generally to the public, (ii) equally to the parties; or (iii) to the party seeking the discovery through another source.
(d) Prior to authorizing discovery under paragraph (a) of this section, the administrative law judge shall require the party seeking discovery to file a motion (§ 10.143) and explain in detail for each request made how the discovery sought is necessary and relevant to an issue actually raised in the complaint or the answer.
(e) The administrative law judge may require parties to file and serve, prior to any hearing, a pre-hearing statement which contains:
(1) A list (together with a copy) of all proposed exhibits to be used in connection with a party's case-in-chief,
(2) A list of proposed witnesses,
(3) As to each proposed expert witness:
(i) An identification of the field in which the individual will be qualified as an expert;
(ii) A statement as to the subject matter on which the expert is expected to testify; and
(iii) A statement of the substance of the facts and opinions to which the expert is expected to testify,
(4) The identity of government employees who have investigated the case, and
(5) Copies of memoranda reflecting respondent's own statements to administrative representatives.
(f) After a witness testifies for a party, if the opposing party requests, the party may be required to produce, prior to cross-examination, any written statement made by the witness.
Except in cases when the respondent has failed to answer the complaint, the administrative law judge, prior to making an initial decision, shall afford the parties a reasonable opportunity to submit proposed findings and conclusions and a post-hearing memorandum in support of the proposed findings and conclusions.
(a) The administrative law judge shall make an initial decision in the case. The decision will include (1) a statement of findings and conclusions, as well as the reasons or basis therefore with appropriate references to the record, upon all the material issues of fact, law, or discretion presented on the record, and (2) an order of suspension or exclusion from practice, an order of reprimand, or an order dismissing the complaint. The administrative law judge shall file the decision with the Director and shall transmit a copy to the representative of the Director and to the respondent. In the absence of an appeal to the Commissioner, the decision of the administrative law judge will, without further proceedings, become the decision of the Commissioner of Patents and Trademarks thirty (30) days from the date of the decision of the administrative law judge.
(b) The initial decision of the administrative law judge shall explain the reason for any penalty or reprimand, suspension or exclusion. In determining any penalty, the following should normally be considered:
(1) The public interest;
(2) The seriousness of the violation of the Disciplinary Rule;
(3) The deterrent effects deemed necessary;
(4) The integrity of the legal profession; and
(5) Any extenuating circumstances.
(a) Within thirty (30) days from the date of the initial decision of the administrative law judge under § 10.154, either party may appeal to the Commissioner. If an appeal is taken, the time for filing a cross-appeal expires 14 days after the date of service of the appeal pursuant to § 10.142 or 30 days after the date of initial decision of the administrative law judge, whichever is later. An appeal or cross-appeal by the respondent will be filed and served with the Director in duplicate and will include exceptions to the decisions of the administrative law judge and supporting reasons for those exceptions. If the Director files the appeal or cross-appeal, the Director shall serve on the other party a copy of the appeal or cross-appeal. The other party to an appeal or cross-appeal may file a reply brief. A respondent's reply brief shall be filed and served in duplicate with the Director. The time for filing any reply brief expires thirty (30) days after the date of service pursuant to § 10.142 of an appeal, cross-appeal or copy thereof. If the Director files a reply brief, the Director shall serve on the other party a copy of the reply brief. Upon the filing of an appeal, cross-appeal, if any, and reply briefs, if any, the Director shall transmit the entire record to the Commissioner.
(b) The appeal will be decided by the Commissioner on the record made before the administrative law judge.
(c) The Commissioner may order reopening of a disciplinary proceeding in accordance with the principles which govern the granting of new trials. Any request to reopen a disciplinary proceeding on the basis of newly discovered evidence must demonstrate that the newly discovered evidence could not have been discovered by due diligence.
(d) In the absence of an appeal by the Director, failure by the respondent to appeal under the provisions of this section shall be deemed to be both acceptance by the respondent of the initial decision and waiver by the respondent of the right to further administrative or judicial review.
(a) An appeal from an initial decision of the administrative law judge shall be decided by the Commissioner. The Commissioner may affirm, reverse or modify the initial decision or remand the matter to the administrative law judge for such further proceedings as the Commissioner may deem appropriate. Subject to paragraph (c) of this section, a decision by the Commissioner does not become a final agency action in a disciplinary proceeding until 20 days after it is entered. In making a final decision, the Commissioner shall review the record or those portions of the record as may be cited by the parties in order to limit the issues. The Commissioner shall transmit a copy of the final decision to the Director and to the respondent.
(b) A final decision of the Commissioner may dismiss a disciplinary proceeding, reprimand a practitioner, or may suspend or exclude the practitioner from practice before the Office.
(c) A single request for reconsideration or modification of the Commissioner's decision may be made by the respondent or the Director if filed within 20 days from the date of entry of the decision. Such a request shall have the effect of staying the effective date of the decision. The decision by the Commissioner on the request is a final agency action in a disciplinary proceeding and is effective on its date of entry.
(a) Review of the Commissioner's final decision in a disciplinary case may be had, subject to § 10.155(d), by a petition filed in the United States District Court for the District of Columbia. See 35 U.S.C. 32 and Local Rule 213 of the United States District Court for the District of Columbia.
(b) The Commissioner may stay a final decision pending review of the Commissioner's final decision.
(a) A practitioner who is suspended or excluded from practice before the Office under § 10.156(b) shall not engage in unauthorized practice of patent, trademark and other non-patent law before the Office.
(b) Unless otherwise ordered by the Commissioner, any practitioner who is suspended or excluded from practice before the Office under § 10.156(b) shall:
(1) Within 30 days of entry of the order of suspension or exclusion, notify all bars of which he or she is a member and all clients of the practitioner for whom he or she is handling matters before the Office in separate written communications of the suspension or exclusion and shall file a copy of each written communication with the Director.
(2) Within 30 days of entry of the order of suspension or exclusion, surrender a client's active Office case files to (i) the client or (ii) another practitioner designated by the client.
(3) Not hold himself or herself out as authorized to practice law before the Office.
(4) Promptly take any necessary and appropriate steps to remove from any telephone, legal, or other directory any advertisement, statement, or representation which would reasonably suggest that the practitioner is authorized to practice patent, trademark or other non-patent law before the Office, and within 30 days of taking those steps, file with the Director an affidavit describing the precise nature of the steps taken.
(5) Not advertise the practitioner's availability or ability to perform or render legal services for any person having immediate, prospective, or pending business before the Office.
(6) Not render legal advice or services to any person having immediate, prospective, or pending business before the Office as to that business.
(7) Promptly take steps to change any sign identifying a practitioner's or the practitioner's firm's office and the practitioner's or the practitioner's firm's stationery to delete therefrom any advertisement, statement, or representation which would reasonably suggest that the practitioner is authorized to practice law before the Office.
(8) Within 30 days, return to any client any unearned funds, including any unearned retainer fee, and any securities and property of the client.
(c) A practitioner who is suspended or excluded from practice before the Office and who aids another practitioner in any way in the other practitioner's practice of law before the Office, may, under the direct supervision of the other practitioner, act as a para-legal for the other practitioner or perform other services for the other practitioner which are normally performed by lay-persons,
(1) The practitioner who is suspended or excluded is:
(i) A salaried employee of:
(A) The other practitioner;
(B) The other practitioner's law firm; or
(C) A client-employer who employs the other practitioner as a salaried employee;
(2) The other practitioner assumes full professional responsibility to any client and the Office for any work performed by the suspended or excluded practitioner for the other practitioner;
(3) The suspended or excluded practitioner, in connection with any immediate, prospective, or pending business before the Office, does not:
(i) Communicate directly in writing, orally, or otherwise with a client of the other practitioner;
(ii) Render any legal advice or any legal services to a client of the other practitioner; or
(iii) Meet in person or in the presence of the other practitioner with:
(A) Any Office official in connection with the prosecution of any patent, trademark, or other case;
(B) Any client of the other practitioner, the other practitioner's law firm, or the client-employer of the other practitioner;
(C) Any witness or potential witness which the other practitioner, the other practitioner's law firm, or the other practitioner's client-employer may or intends to call as a witness in any proceeding before the Office. The term “witness” includes individuals who will testify orally in a proceeding before, or sign an affidavit or any other document to be filed in, the Office.
(d) When a suspended or excluded practitioner acts as a para-legal or performs services under paragraph (c) of this section, the suspended or excluded practitioner shall not thereafter be reinstated to practice before the Office unless:
(1) The suspended or excluded practitioner shall have filed with the Director an affidavit which (i) explains in detail the precise nature of all para-legal or other services performed by the suspended or excluded practitioner and (ii) shows by clear and convincing evidence that the suspended or excluded practitioner has complied with the provisions of this section and all Disciplinary Rules, and
(2) The other practitioner shall have filed with the Director a written statement which (i) shows that the other practitioner has read the affidavit required by subparagraph (d)(1) of this section and that the other practitioner believes every statement in the affidavit to be true and (ii) states why the other practitioner believes that the suspended or excluded practitioner has complied with paragraph (c) of this section.
(a) Upon issuance of a final decision reprimanding a practitioner or suspending or excluding a practitioner from practice before the Office, the Director shall give notice of the final decision to appropriate employees of the Office and to interested departments, agencies, and courts of the United States. The Director shall also give notice to appropriate authorities of any State in which a practitioner is known to be a member of the bar and any appropriate bar association.
(b) The Director shall cause to be published in the
(c) The Director shall maintain records, which shall be available for public inspection, of every disciplinary proceeding where a practitioner is reprimanded, suspended, or excluded unless the Commissioner orders that the proceeding be kept confidential.
(a) A petition for reinstatement of a practitioner suspended for a period of less than five years will not be considered until the period of suspension has passed.
(b) A petition for reinstatement of a practitioner excluded from practice will not be considered until five years after the effective date of the exclusion.
(c) An individual who has resigned under § 10.133 or who has been suspended or excluded may file a petition for reinstatement. The Director may grant a petition for reinstatement when the individual makes a clear and convincing showing that the individual will conduct himself or herself in accordance with the regulations of this part and that granting a petition for reinstatement is not contrary to the public interest. As a condition to reinstatement, the Director may require the individual to:
(1) Meet the requirements of § 10.7, including taking and passing an examination under § 10.7(b) and
(2) Pay all or a portion of the costs and expenses, not to exceed $1,500, of the disciplinary proceeding which led to suspension or exclusion.
(d) Any suspended or excluded practitioner who has violated the provisions of § 10.158 during his or her period of suspension or exclusion shall not be entitled to reinstatement until such time as the Director is satisfied that a period of suspension equal in time to that
(e) Proceedings on any petition for reinstatement shall be open to the public. Before reinstating any suspended or excluded practitioner, the Director shall publish in the
(a) A disciplinary proceeding based on conduct engaged in prior to the effective date of these regulations may be instituted subsequent to such effective date, if such conduct would continue to justify suspension or exclusion under the provisions of this part.
(b) No practitioner shall be subject to a disciplinary proceeding under this part based on conduct engaged in before the effective date hereof if such conduct would not have been subject to disciplinary action before such effective date.
(a) In an extraordinary situation, when justice requires, any requirement of the regulations of this part which is not a requirement of the statutes may be suspended or waived by the Commissioner or the Commissioner's designee,
(b) Any petition under this section will not stay a disciplinary proceeding unless ordered by the Commissioner or an administrative law judge.
This listing is provided for informational purposes only. It is compiled and kept current by the Department of Commerce. This index is updated as of July 1, 2002.
5 U.S.C. 552; 5 U.S.C. 552a; 5 U.S.C. 553; 31 U.S.C. 3717; 35 U.S.C. 2(b)(2), 21, 41, 42, 122; 44 U.S.C. 3101.
65 FR 52917, Aug. 31, 2000, unless otherwise noted.
(a) The information in this part is furnished for the guidance of the public and in compliance with the requirements of the Freedom of Information Act (FOIA), as amended (5 U.S.C. 552). This part sets forth the procedures the United States Patent and Trademark Office (USPTO) follows to make publicly available the materials and indices specified in 5 U.S.C. 552(a)(2) and records requested under 5 U.S.C. 552(a)(3). Information routinely provided to the public as part of a regular USPTO activity (for example, press releases issued by the Office of Public Affairs) may be provided to the public without following this part. USPTO's policy is to make discretionary disclosures of records or information exempt from disclosure under FOIA whenever disclosure would not foreseeably harm an interest protected by a FOIA exemption, but this policy does not create any right enforceable in court.
(b) As used in this subpart,
(a) USPTO maintains a public reference facility that contains the records FOIA requires to be made regularly available for public inspection and copying; furnishes information and otherwise assists the public concerning USPTO operations under FOIA; and receives and processes requests for records under FOIA. The FOIA Officer is responsible for determining which of USPTO's records are required to be made available for public inspection and copying, and for making those
(b) The FOIA Officer shall also make public inspection facility records created by USPTO on or after November 1, 1996, available electronically through USPTO's World Wide Web site (http://www.uspto.gov). Information available at the site shall include:
(1) The FOIA Officer's index of the public inspection facility records, which indicates which records are available electronically; and
(2) The general index referred to in paragraph (c)(3) of this section.
(c) USPTO maintains and makes available for public inspection and copying:
(1) A current index providing identifying information for the public as to any matter that is issued, adopted, or promulgated after July 4, 1967, and that is retained as a record and is required to be made available or published. Copies of the index are available upon request after payment of the direct cost of duplication;
(2) Copies of records that have been released and that the FOIA Officer determines, because of their subject matter, have become or are likely to become the subject of subsequent requests for substantially the same records;
(3) A general index of the records described in paragraph (c)(2) of this section;
(4) Final opinions and orders, including concurring and dissenting opinions made in the adjudication of cases;
(5) Those statements of policy and interpretations that have been adopted by USPTO and are not published in the
(6) Administrative staff manuals and instructions to staff that affect a member of the public.
(a) Records under FOIA include all Government records, regardless of format, medium or physical characteristics, and include electronic records and information, audiotapes, videotapes, and photographs.
(b) There is no obligation to create, compile, or obtain from outside USPTO a record to satisfy a FOIA request. With regard to electronic data, the issue of whether records are created or merely extracted from an existing database is not always apparent. When responding to FOIA requests for electronic data where creation of a record or programming becomes an issue, USPTO shall undertake reasonable efforts to search for the information in electronic format.
(c) USPTO officials may, upon request, create and provide new information pursuant to user fee statutes, such as the first paragraph of 15 U.S.C. 1525, or in accordance with authority otherwise provided by law. This is outside the scope of FOIA.
(d) The FOIA Officer shall preserve all correspondence pertaining to the requests received under this subpart, as well as copies of all requested records, until disposition or destruction is authorized by Title 44 of the United States Code or a National Archives and Records Administration's General Records Schedule. The FOIA Officer shall not dispose of records while they are the subject of a pending request, appeal, or lawsuit under FOIA.
(a) A request for USPTO records that are not customarily made available to the public as part of USPTO's regular informational services must be in writing, and shall be processed under FOIA, regardless of whether FOIA is mentioned in the request. Requests should be sent to the USPTO FOIA Officer, United States Patent and Trademark Office, P.O. Box 1450, Alexandria, Virginia 22313-1450 (records FOIA requires
(b) The records requested must be described in enough detail to enable USPTO personnel to locate them with a reasonable amount of effort. Whenever possible, a request should include specific information about each record sought, such as the date, title or name, author, recipient, and subject matter of the record, and the name and location of the office where the record is located. Also, if records about a court case are sought, the title of the case, the court in which the case was filed, and the nature of the case should be included. If known, any file designations or descriptions for the requested records should be included. In general, the more specifically the request describes the records sought, the greater the likelihood that USPTO will locate those records. If the FOIA Officer determines that a request does not reasonably describe records, the FOIA Officer will inform the requester what additional information is needed or why the request is otherwise insufficient. The FOIA Officer also may give the requester an opportunity to discuss the request so that it may be modified to meet the requirements of this section.
(a)
(b)
(c)
(d)
(e)
(a)
(b)
(c)
(2) As used in this section,
(i) The need to search for and collect the requested records from field facilities or other establishments separate from the office processing the request;
(ii) The need to search for, collect, and appropriately examine a voluminous amount of separate and distinct records that are the subject of a single request; or
(iii) The need for consultation, which shall be conducted with all practicable speed, with another Federal agency having a substantial interest in the determination of the request.
(3) Unusual circumstances do not include a delay that results from a predictable workload of requests, unless USPTO demonstrates reasonable progress in reducing its backlog of pending requests. Refusal to reasonably modify the scope of a request or arrange an alternate time frame may affect a requester's ability to obtain judicial review.
(4) If the FOIA Officer reasonably believes that multiple requests submitted by a requester, or by a group of requesters acting in concert, constitute a single request that would otherwise involve unusual circumstances, and the requests involve clearly related matters, the FOIA Officer may aggregate them. Multiple requests involving unrelated matters will not be aggregated.
(d)
(2) The FOIA Officer may provide requesters in a slower track with an opportunity to limit the scope of their requests in order to qualify for faster processing. The FOIA Officer may contact the requester by telephone or by letter, whichever is most efficient in each case.
(e)
(i) Circumstances in which the lack of expedited treatment could reasonably be expected to pose an imminent threat to the life or physical safety of an individual;
(ii) The loss of substantial due process rights;
(iii) A matter of widespread and exceptional media interest in which there exist questions about the Government's integrity that affect public confidence; or
(iv) An urgency to inform the public about an actual or alleged Federal Government activity, if made by a person primarily engaged in disseminating information.
(2) A request for expedited processing may be made at the time of the initial request for records or at any later time. For a prompt determination, a request for expedited processing should be sent to the FOIA Officer.
(3) A requester who seeks expedited processing must submit a statement, certified to be true and correct to the best of that person's knowledge and belief, explaining in detail the basis for requesting expedited processing. For example, a requester within the category described in paragraph (e)(1)(iv) of this section, if not a full-time member of the news media, must establish that he or she is a person whose main professional activity or occupation is information dissemination, though it need not be his or her sole occupation.
(4) Within ten calendar days of receipt of a request for expedited processing, the FOIA Officer will decide whether to grant it and shall notify the requester of the decision. If a request for expedited treatment is granted, the request shall be given priority and processed as soon as practicable. If a request for expedited processing is denied, any appeal of that decision shall be acted on expeditiously.
(a)
(b)
(1) The name and title or position of the denying official;
(2) A brief statement of the reason(s) for the denial, including applicable FOIA exemption(s);
(3) An estimate of the volume of records or information withheld, in number of pages or some other reasonable form of estimation. This estimate need not be provided if the volume is otherwise indicated through deletions on records disclosed in part, or if providing an estimate would harm an interest protected by an applicable FOIA exemption; and
(4) A statement that the denial may be appealed, and a list of the requirements for filing an appeal under § 102.10(b).
(a)
(b)
(1)
(2)
(c)
(d)
(e)
(1) The information has been designated in good faith by the submitter as protected from disclosure under FOIA exemption 4; or
(2) The FOIA Officer has reason to believe that the information may be protected from disclosure under FOIA exemption 4.
(f)
(g)
(1) A statement of reason(s) why the submitter's objections to disclosure were not sustained;
(2) A description of the business information to be disclosed; and
(3) A statement that the FOIA Officer intends to disclose the information seven working days from the date the submitter receives the notice.
(h)
(1) The FOIA Officer determines that the information should not be disclosed;
(2) The information has been lawfully published or has been officially made available to the public;
(3) Disclosure of the information is required by statute (other than FOIA) or by a regulation issued in accordance with Executive Order 12600; or
(4) The designation made by the submitter under paragraph (c) of this section appears obviously frivolous, in which case the FOIA Officer shall provide the submitter written notice of any final decision to disclose the information seven working days from the date the submitter receives the notice.
(i)
(j)
(a) If a request for records is initially denied in whole or in part, or has not been timely determined, or if a requester receives an adverse initial determination regarding any other matter under this subpart (as described in § 102.7(b)), the requester may file a written appeal, which must be received by the Office of General Counsel within thirty calendar days of the date of the written denial or, if there has been no determination, may be submitted anytime after the due date, including the last extension under § 102.6(c), of the determination.
(b) Appeals shall be decided by a Deputy General Counsel. Appeals should be addressed to the General Counsel, United States Patent and Trademark Office, PO Box 1450, Alexandria, Virginia 22313-1450. Both the letter and the appeal envelope should be clearly marked “Freedom of Information Appeal”. The appeal must include a copy of the original request and the initial denial, if any, and may include a statement of the reasons why the records requested should be made available and why the initial denial, if any, was in error. No opportunity for personal appearance, oral argument or hearing on appeal is provided.
(c) If an appeal is granted, the person making the appeal shall be immediately notified and copies of the releasable documents shall be made available promptly thereafter upon receipt of appropriate fees determined in accordance with § 102.11.
(d) If no determination of an appeal has been sent to the requester within the twenty-working-day period specified in § 102.6(b) or the last extension thereof, the requester is deemed to have exhausted his administrative remedies with respect to the request, giving rise to a right of judicial review under 5 U.S.C. 552(a)(6)(C). If the person making a request initiates a civil action against USPTO based on the provision in this paragraph, the administrative appeal process may continue.
(e) A determination on appeal shall be in writing and, when it denies records in whole or in part, the letter to the requester shall include:
(1) A brief explanation of the basis for the denial, including a list of applicable FOIA exemptions and a description of how the exemptions apply;
(2) A statement that the decision is final;
(3) Notification that judicial review of the denial is available in the United States district court for the district in which the requester resides or has its principal place of business, the United States District Court for the Eastern District of Virginia, or the District of Columbia; and
(4) The name and title or position of the official responsible for denying the appeal.
(a)
(b)
(1)
(2)
(3)
(4)
(5)
(6)
(7)
(8)
(c)
(1) The four categories and chargeable fees are:
(2)
(3)
(ii) For computer searches of records, requesters will be charged the direct costs of conducting the search, although certain requesters (as provided in paragraph (d)(1) of this section) will be charged no search fee and certain other requesters (as provided in paragraph (d)(3) of this section) are entitled to the cost equivalent of two hours of manual search time without charge. These direct costs include the costs, attributable to the search, of operating a central processing unit and operator/programmer salary.
(4)
(5)
(d)
(1) No search fee will be charged for requests by educational institutions, noncommercial scientific institutions, or representatives of the news media.
(2) No search fee or review fee will be charged for a quarter-hour period unless more than half of that period is required for search or review.
(3) Except for requesters seeking records for a commercial use, the FOIA Officer will provide without charge:
(i) The first 100 pages of duplication (or the cost equivalent); and
(ii) The first two hours of search (or the cost equivalent).
(4) Whenever a total fee calculated under paragraph (c) of this section is $20.00 or less for any request, no fee will be charged.
(5) The provisions of paragraphs (d) (3) and (4) of this section work together. This means that for requesters other than those seeking records for a commercial use, no fee will be charged unless the cost of the search in excess of two hours plus the cost of duplication in excess of 100 pages totals more than $20.00.
(e)
(f)
(g)
(h)
(i)
(2) If the FOIA Officer determines or estimates that a total fee to be charged under this section will be more than $250.00, the requester must pay the entire anticipated fee before beginning to process the request, unless the FOIA Officer receives a satisfactory assurance of full payment from a requester who has a history of prompt payment.
(3) If a requester has previously failed to pay a properly charged FOIA fee to USPTO or another responsible Federal agency within 30 calendar days of the date of billing, the FOIA Officer shall require the requester to pay the full
(4) In cases in which the FOIA Officer requires payment under paragraphs (i)(2) or (3) of this section, the request shall not be considered received and further work will not be done on it until the required payment is received.
(5) Upon the completion of processing of a request, when a specific fee is determined to be payable and appropriate notice has been given to the requester, the FOIA Officer shall make records available to the requester only upon receipt of full payment of the fee.
(j)
(k)
(i) Disclosure of the requested information is in the public interest because it is likely to contribute significantly to public understanding of the operations or activities of the Government; and
(ii) Disclosure of the information is not primarily in the commercial interest of the requester.
(2) To determine whether the first fee waiver requirement is met, the FOIA Officer shall consider the following factors:
(i)
(ii)
(iii)
(iv)
(3) To determine whether the second fee waiver requirement is met, the FOIA Officer shall consider the following factors:
(i)
(ii)
(4) If only some of the records to be released satisfy the requirements for a fee waiver, a waiver shall be granted for those records.
(5) Requests for the waiver or reduction of fees should address the factors listed in paragraphs (k)(2) and (3) of this section, insofar as they apply to each request.
(a) The purpose of this subpart is to establish policies and procedures for implementing the Privacy Act of 1974, as amended (5 U.S.C. 552a) (the Act). The main objectives are to facilitate full exercise of rights conferred on individuals under the Act and to ensure the protection of privacy as to individuals on whom USPTO maintains records in systems of records under the Act. USPTO accepts the responsibility to act promptly and in accordance with the Act upon receipt of any inquiry, request or appeal from a citizen of the United States or an alien lawfully admitted for permanent residence into the United States, regardless of the age of the individual. Further, USPTO accepts the obligations to maintain only such information on individuals as is relevant and necessary to the performance of its lawful functions, to maintain that information with such accuracy, relevancy, timeliness, and completeness as is reasonably necessary to assure fairness in determinations made by USPTO about the individual, to obtain information from the individual to the extent practicable, and to take every reasonable step to protect that information from unwarranted disclosure. USPTO will maintain no record describing how an individual exercises rights guaranteed by the First Amendment unless expressly authorized by statute or by the individual about whom the record is maintained or unless pertinent to and within the scope of an authorized law enforcement activity. An individual's name and address will not be sold or rented by USPTO unless such action is specifically authorized by law; however, this provision shall not be construed to require the withholding of names and addresses otherwise permitted to be made public.
(b) This subpart is administered by the Privacy Officer of USPTO.
(c) Matters outside the scope of this subpart include the following:
(1) Requests for records which do not pertain to the individual making the request, or to the individual about whom the request is made if the requester is the parent or guardian of the individual;
(2) Requests involving information pertaining to an individual which is in a record or file but not within the scope of a system of records notice published in the
(3) Requests to correct a record where a grievance procedure is available to the individual either by regulation or by provision in a collective bargaining agreement with USPTO, and the individual has initiated, or has expressed in writing the intention of initiating, such grievance procedure. An individual selecting the grievance procedure waives the use of the procedures in this subpart to correct or amend a record; and,
(4) Requests for employee-employer services and counseling which were routinely granted prior to enactment of the Act, including, but not limited to, test calculations of retirement benefits, explanations of health and life insurance programs, and explanations of tax withholding options.
(d) Any request for records which pertains to the individual making the request, or to the individual about whom the request is made if the requester is the parent or guardian of the individual, shall be processed under the Act and this subpart and under the Freedom of Information Act and USPTO's implementing regulations at Subpart A of this part, regardless whether the Act or the Freedom of Information Act is mentioned in the request.
(a) All terms used in this subpart which are defined in 5 U.S.C. 552a shall have the same meaning herein.
(b) As used in this subpart:
(1)
(2)
(3)
(4)
(5)
(6)
(7)
(8)
(a) Any individual, regardless of age, who is a citizen of the United States or an alien lawfully admitted for permanent residence into the United States may submit an inquiry to USPTO. The inquiry should be made either in person at Two Crystal Park, 2121 Crystal Drive, Suite 905, Arlington, Virginia, or by mail addressed to the Privacy Officer, United States Patent and Trademark Office, PO Box 1450, Alexandria, Virginia 22313-1450, or to the official identified in the notification procedures paragraph of the systems of records notice published in the
(b) Inquiries submitted by mail should include the words “PRIVACY ACT INQUIRY” in capital letters at the top of the letter and on the face of the envelope. If the inquiry is for general information regarding the Act and this subpart, no particular information is required. USPTO reserves the right to require compliance with the identification procedures appearing at § 102.24(d) where circumstances warrant. If the inquiry is a request that USPTO determine whether it has, in a given system of records, a record which pertains to the individual, the following information should be submitted:
(1) Name of individual whose record is sought;
(2) Individual whose record is sought is either a U.S. citizen or an alien lawfully admitted for permanent residence;
(3) Identifying data that will help locate the record (for example, maiden name, occupational license number, period or place of employment, etc.);
(4) Record sought, by description and by record system name, if known;
(5) Action requested (that is, sending information on how to exercise rights under the Act; determining whether requested record exists; gaining access to requested record; or obtaining copy of requested record);
(6) Copy of court guardianship order or minor's birth certificate, as provided in § 102.24(f)(3), but only if requester is guardian or parent of individual whose record is sought;
(7) Requester's name (printed), signature, address, and telephone number (optional);
(8) Date; and,
(9) Certification of request by notary or other official, but only if
(i) Request is for notification that requested record exists, for access to requested record or for copy of requested record;
(ii) Record is not available to any person under 5 U.S.C. 552; and
(iii) Requester does not appear before an employee of USPTO for verification of identity.
(c) Any inquiry which is not addressed as specified in paragraph (a) of this section or which is not marked as specified in paragraph (b) of this section will be so addressed and marked by USPTO personnel and forwarded immediately to the Privacy Officer. An inquiry which is not properly addressed by the individual will not be deemed to have been “received” for purposes of measuring the time period for response until actual receipt by the Privacy Officer. In each instance when an inquiry so forwarded is received, the Privacy Officer shall notify the individual that his or her inquiry was improperly addressed and the date the inquiry was received at the proper address.
(d)(1) Each inquiry received shall be acted upon promptly by the Privacy Officer. Every effort will be made to respond within ten working days (i.e., excluding Saturdays, Sundays and legal public holidays) of the date of receipt. If a response cannot be made within ten working days, the Privacy Officer shall send an acknowledgment during that period providing information on the status of the inquiry and asking for such further information as may be necessary to process the inquiry. The first correspondence sent by the Privacy Officer to the requester shall contain USPTO's control number assigned to the request, as well as a note that the requester should use that number in all future contacts in order to facilitate processing. USPTO shall use that control number in all subsequent correspondence.
(2) If the Privacy Officer fails to send an acknowledgment within ten working days, as provided above, the requester may ask the General Counsel to take corrective action. No failure of the Privacy Officer to send an acknowledgment shall confer administrative finality for purposes of judicial review.
(e) An individual shall not be required to state a reason or otherwise justify his or her inquiry.
(f) Special note should be taken of the fact that certain agencies are responsible for publishing notices of systems of records having Government-wide application to other agencies, including USPTO. The agencies known to be publishing these general notices and the types of records covered therein appear in an appendix to this part. The provisions of this section, and particularly paragraph (a) of this section, should be followed in making inquiries with respect to such records. Such records in USPTO are subject to the provisions of this part to the extent indicated in the appendix to this part. The exemptions, if any, determined by an agency publishing a general notice shall be invoked and applied by USPTO after consultation, as necessary, with that other agency.
(a) Any individual, regardless of age, who is a citizen of the United States or an alien lawfully admitted for permanent residence into the United States may submit a request for access to records to USPTO. The request should be made either in person at Two Crystal Park, 2121 Crystal Drive, Suite 905, Arlington, Virginia, or by mail addressed to the Privacy Officer, United States Patent and Trademark Office, PO Box 1450, Alexandria, Virginia 22313-1450.
(b) Requests submitted by mail should include the words “PRIVACY
(c) If the request follows an inquiry under § 102.23 in connection with which the individual's identity was established by USPTO, the individual need only indicate the record to which access is sought, provide the USPTO control number assigned to the request, and sign and date the request. If the request is not preceded by an inquiry under § 102.23, the procedures of this section should be followed.
(d) The requirements for identification of individuals seeking access to records are as follows:
(1)
(i) A document bearing the individual's photograph (for example, driver's license, passport or military or civilian identification card);
(ii) A document, preferably issued for participation in a federally sponsored program, bearing the individual's signature (for example, unemployment insurance book, employer's identification card, national credit card, and professional, craft or union membership card); and
(iii) A document bearing neither the photograph nor the signature of the individual, preferably issued for participation in a federally sponsored program (for example, Medicaid card). In the event the individual can provide no suitable documentation of identity, USPTO will require a signed statement asserting the individual's identity and stipulating that the individual understands the penalty provision of 5 U.S.C. 552a(i)(3) recited in § 102.32(a). In order to avoid any unwarranted disclosure of an individual's records, USPTO reserves the right to determine the adequacy of proof of identity offered by any individual, particularly when the request involves a sensitive record.
(2)
(3)
(e) When the provisions of this subpart are alleged to impede an individual in exercising his or her right to access, USPTO will consider, from an individual making a request, alternative suggestions regarding proof of identity and access to records.
(f) An individual shall not be required to state a reason or otherwise justify his or her request for access to a record.
(a)(1) The Privacy Officer shall act promptly upon each request. Every effort will be made to respond within ten working days (i.e., excluding Saturdays, Sundays, and legal public holidays) of the date of receipt. If a response cannot be made within ten working days due to unusual circumstances, the Privacy Officer shall send an acknowledgment during that period providing information on the status of the request and asking for any further information that may be necessary to process the request. “Unusual circumstances” shall include circumstances in which
(i) A search for and collection of requested records from inactive storage, field facilities or other establishments is required;
(ii) A voluminous amount of data is involved;
(iii) Information on other individuals must be separated or expunged from the particular record; or
(iv) Consultations with other agencies having a substantial interest in the determination of the request are necessary.
(2) If the Privacy Officer fails to send an acknowledgment within ten working days, as provided above in paragraph (a) of this section, the requester may ask the General Counsel to take corrective action. No failure of the Privacy Officer to send an acknowledgment shall confer administrative finality for purposes of judicial review.
(b)
(i) The methods of access, as set forth in paragraph (b)(2) of this section;
(ii) The place at which the record may be inspected;
(iii) The earliest date on which the record may be inspected and the period of time that the records will remain available for inspection. In no event shall the earliest date be later than thirty calendar days from the date of notification;
(iv) The estimated date by which a copy of the record could be mailed and the estimate of fees pursuant to § 102.31. In no event shall the estimated date be later than thirty calendar days from the date of notification;
(v) The fact that the individual, if he or she wishes, may be accompanied by another individual during personal access, subject to the procedures set forth in paragraph (f) of this section; and,
(vi) Any additional requirements needed to grant access to a specific record.
(2)
(i) Inspection in person may be had in a location specified by the Privacy Officer during business hours;
(ii) Transfer of records to a Federal facility more convenient to the individual may be arranged, but only if the Privacy Officer determines that a suitable facility is available, that the individual's access can be properly supervised at that facility, and that transmittal of the records to that facility will not unduly interfere with operations of USPTO or involve unreasonable costs, in terms of both money and manpower; and
(iii) Copies may be mailed at the request of the individual, subject to payment of the fees prescribed in § 102.31. USPTO, on its own initiative, may elect to provide a copy by mail, in which case no fee will be charged the individual.
(c) Access to medical records is governed by the provisions of § 102.26.
(d) USPTO will supply such other information and assistance at the time of access as to make the record intelligible to the individual.
(e) USPTO reserves the right to limit access to copies and abstracts of original records, rather than the original records. This election would be appropriate, for example, when the record is in an automated data media such as tape or diskette, when the record contains information on other individuals, and when deletion of information is permissible under exemptions (for example, 5 U.S.C. 552a(k)(2)). In no event shall original records of USPTO be made available to the individual except under the immediate supervision of the Privacy Officer or the Privacy Officer's designee.
(f) Any individual who requests access to a record pertaining to that individual may be accompanied by another individual of his or her choice. “Accompanied” includes discussion of the record in the presence of the other individual. The individual to whom the record pertains shall authorize the presence of the other individual in writing. The authorization shall include the name of the other individual, a specific description of the record to which access is sought, the USPTO control number assigned to the request, the date, and the signature of the individual to whom the record pertains. The other individual shall sign the authorization in the presence of the Privacy Officer. An individual shall not be required to state a reason or otherwise justify his or her decision to be accompanied by another individual during personal access to a record.
(g)
(i) The record is exempt under § 102.33 or § 102.34, or exempt by determination of another agency publishing notice of the system of records, as described in § 102.23(f);
(ii) The record is information compiled in reasonable anticipation of a civil action or proceeding;
(iii) The provisions of § 102.26 pertaining to medical records temporarily have been invoked; or
(iv) The individual has unreasonably failed to comply with the procedural requirements of this part.
(2)
(i) The Privacy Officer's name and title or position;
(ii) The date of the denial;
(iii) The reasons for the denial, including citation to the appropriate section of the Act and this part;
(iv) The individual's opportunities, if any, for further administrative consideration, including the identity and address of the responsible official. If no further administrative consideration within USPTO is available, the notice shall state that the denial is administratively final; and
(v) If stated to be administratively final within USPTO, the individual's right to judicial review provided under 5 U.S.C. 552a(g)(1), as limited by 5 U.S.C. 552a(g)(5).
(3)
(i) As to denial under paragraph (g)(1)(i) of this section, two opportunities for further consideration are available in the alternative:
(A) If the individual contests the application of the exemption to the records, review procedures in § 102.25(g)(3)(ii) shall apply; or
(B) If the individual challenges the exemption itself, the procedure is a petition for the issuance, amendment, or repeal of a rule under 5 U.S.C. 553(e). If the exemption was determined by USPTO, such petition shall be filed with the General Counsel. If the exemption was determined by another agency (as described in § 102.23(f)), USPTO will provide the individual with the name and address of the other agency and any relief sought by the individual shall be that provided by the regulations of the other agency. Within USPTO, no such denial is administratively final until such a petition has been filed by the individual and disposed of on the merits by the General Counsel.
(ii) As to denial under paragraphs (g)(1)(ii) of this section, (g)(1)(iv) of this section or (to the limited extent provided in paragraph (g)(3)(i)(A) of this section) paragraph (g)(1)(i) of this section, the individual may file for review with the General Counsel, as indicated in the Privacy Officer's initial denial notification. The procedures appearing in § 102.28 shall be followed by both the individual and USPTO to the maximum extent practicable.
(iii) As to denial under paragraph (g)(1)(iii) of this section, no further administrative consideration within USPTO is available because the denial is not administratively final until expiration of the time period indicated in § 102.26(a).
(h) If a request is partially granted and partially denied, the Privacy Officer shall follow the appropriate procedures of this section as to the records within the grant and the records within the denial.
(a) No response to any request for access to medical records by an individual will be issued by the Privacy Officer for a period of seven working days (
(b) USPTO has published as a routine use, for all systems of records containing medical records, consultations with an individual's physician or psychologist if, in the sole judgment of USPTO, disclosure could have an adverse effect upon the individual. The mandatory waiting period set forth in paragraph (a) of this section will permit exercise of this routine use in appropriate cases. USPTO will pay no cost of any such consultation.
(c) In every case of a request by an individual for access to medical records, the Privacy Officer shall:
(1) Inform the individual of the waiting period prescribed in paragraph (a) of this section;
(2) Obtain the name and address of the individual's physician and/or psychologist, if the individual consents to give them;
(3) Obtain specific, written consent for USPTO to consult the individual's physician and/or psychologist in the event that USPTO believes such consultation is advisable, if the individual consents to give such authorization;
(4) Obtain specific, written consent for USPTO to provide the medical records to the individual's physician or psychologist in the event that USPTO believes access to the record by the individual is best effected under the guidance of the individual's physician or psychologist, if the individual consents to give such authorization; and
(5) Forward the individual's medical record to USPTO's medical expert for review and a determination on whether consultation with or transmittal of the medical records to the individual's physician or psychologist is warranted. If the consultation with or transmittal of such records to the individual's physician or psychologist is determined to be warranted, USPTO's medical expert shall so consult or transmit. Whether or not such a consultation or transmittal occurs, USPTO's medical officer shall provide instruction to the Privacy Officer regarding the conditions of access by the individual to his or her medical records.
(d) If an individual refuses in writing to give the names and consents set forth in paragraphs (c)(2) through (c)(4) of this section and USPTO has determined that disclosure could have an adverse effect upon the individual, USPTO shall give the individual access to said records by means of a copy, provided without cost to the requester, sent registered mail return receipt requested.
(a) Any individual, regardless of age, who is a citizen of the United States or an alien lawfully admitted for permanent residence into the United States may submit a request for correction or amendment to USPTO. The request should be made either in person or by mail addressed to the Privacy Officer who processed the individual's request for access to the record, and to whom is delegated authority to make initial determinations on requests for correction or amendment. The office of the Privacy Officer is open to the public
(b) Requests submitted by mail should include the words “PRIVACY ACT REQUEST” in capital letters at the top of the letter and on the face of the envelope. Any request which is not addressed as specified in paragraph (a) of this section or which is not marked as specified in this paragraph will be so addressed and marked by USPTO personnel and forwarded immediately to the Privacy Officer. A request which is not properly addressed by the individual will not be deemed to have been “received” for purposes of measuring the time period for response until actual receipt by the Privacy Officer. In each instance when a request so forwarded is received, the Privacy Officer shall notify the individual that his or her request was improperly addressed and the date the request was received at the proper address.
(c) Since the request, in all cases, will follow a request for access under § 102.25, the individual's identity will be established by his or her signature on the request and use of the USPTO control number assigned to the request.
(d) A request for correction or amendment should include the following:
(1) Specific identification of the record sought to be corrected or amended (for example, description, title, date, paragraph, sentence, line and words);
(2) The specific wording to be deleted, if any;
(3) The specific wording to be inserted or added, if any, and the exact place at which to be inserted or added; and
(4) A statement of the basis for the requested correction or amendment, with all available supporting documents and materials which substantiate the statement. The statement should identify the criterion of the Act being invoked, that is, whether the information in the record is unnecessary, inaccurate, irrelevant, untimely or incomplete.
(a)(1)(i) Not later than ten working days (
(ii) If the Privacy Officer fails to send the acknowledgment within ten working days, as provided in paragraph (a)(1)(i) of this section, the requester may ask the General Counsel to take corrective action. No failure of the Privacy Officer to send an acknowledgment shall confer administrative finality for purposes of judicial review.
(2) Promptly after acknowledging receipt of a request, or after receiving such further information as might have been requested, or after arriving at a decision within the ten working days, the Privacy Officer shall either:
(i) Make the requested correction or amendment and advise the individual in writing of such action, providing either a copy of the corrected or amended record or a statement as to the means whereby the correction or amendment was effected in cases where a copy cannot be provided (for example, erasure of information from a record maintained only in magnetically recorded computer files); or
(ii) Inform the individual in writing that his or her request is denied and provide the following information:
(A) The Privacy Officer's name and title or position;
(B) The date of the denial;
(C) The reasons for the denial, including citation to the appropriate sections of the Act and this subpart; and
(D) The procedures for appeal of the denial as set forth in § 102.29, including the address of the General Counsel.
(3) The term
(b) Whenever an individual's record is corrected or amended pursuant to a request by that individual, the Privacy Officer shall be responsible for notifying all persons and agencies to which the corrected or amended portion of the record had been disclosed prior to its correction or amendment, if an accounting of such disclosure required by the Act was made. The notification shall require a recipient agency maintaining the record to acknowledge receipt of the notification, to correct or amend the record, and to apprise any agency or person to which it had disclosed the record of the substance of the correction or amendment.
(c) The following criteria will be considered by the Privacy Officer in reviewing a request for correction or amendment:
(1) The sufficiency of the evidence submitted by the individual;
(2) The factual accuracy of the information;
(3) The relevance and necessity of the information in terms of purpose for which it was collected;
(4) The timeliness and currency of the information in light of the purpose for which it was collected;
(5) The completeness of the information in terms of the purpose for which it was collected;
(6) The degree of risk that denial of the request could unfairly result in determinations adverse to the individual;
(7) The character of the record sought to be corrected or amended; and
(8) The propriety and feasibility of complying with the specific means of correction or amendment requested by the individual.
(d) USPTO will not undertake to gather evidence for the individual, but does reserve the right to verify the evidence which the individual submits.
(e) Correction or amendment of a record requested by an individual will be denied only upon a determination by the Privacy Officer that:
(1) The individual has failed to establish, by a preponderance of the evidence, the propriety of the correction or amendment in light of the criteria set forth in paragraph (c) of this section;
(2) The record sought to be corrected or amended is part of the official record in a terminated judicial, quasi-judicial, or quasi-legislative proceeding to which the individual was a party or participant;
(3) The information in the record sought to be corrected or amended, or the record sought to be corrected or amended, is the subject of a pending judicial, quasi-judicial, or quasi-legislative proceeding to which the individual is a party or participant;
(4) The correction or amendment would violate a duly enacted statute or promulgated regulation; or
(5) The individual has unreasonably failed to comply with the procedural requirements of this part.
(f) If a request is partially granted and partially denied, the Privacy Officer shall follow the appropriate procedures of this section as to the records within the grant and the records within the denial.
(a) When a request for correction or amendment has been denied initially under § 102.28, the individual may submit a written appeal within thirty working days (
(b) An appeal should be addressed to the General Counsel, United States Patent and Trademark Office, PO Box 1450, Alexandria, Virginia 22313-1450. An appeal should include the words “PRIVACY APPEAL” in capital letters at the top of the letter and on the
(c) The individual's appeal shall include a statement of the reasons why the initial denial is believed to be in error and USPTO's control number assigned to the request. The appeal shall be signed by the individual. The record which the individual requests be corrected or amended and all correspondence between the Privacy Officer and the requester will be furnished by the Privacy Officer who issued the initial denial. Although the foregoing normally will comprise the entire record on appeal, the General Counsel may seek additional information necessary to assure that the final determination is fair and equitable and, in such instances, disclose the additional information to the individual to the greatest extent possible, and provide an opportunity for comment thereon.
(d) No personal appearance or hearing on appeal will be allowed.
(e) The General Counsel shall act upon the appeal and issue a final determination in writing not later than thirty working days (
(f) If the appeal is determined in favor of the individual, the final determination shall include the specific corrections or amendments to be made and a copy thereof shall be transmitted promptly both to the individual and to the Privacy Officer who issued the initial denial. Upon receipt of such final determination, the Privacy Officer promptly shall take the actions set forth in § 102.28(a)(2)(i) and (b).
(g) If the appeal is denied, the final determination shall be transmitted promptly to the individual and state the reasons for the denial. The notice of final determination also shall inform the individual of the following:
(1) The right of the individual under the Act to file a concise statement of reasons for disagreeing with the final determination. The statement ordinarily should not exceed one page and USPTO reserves the right to reject a statement of excessive length. Such a statement shall be filed with the General Counsel. It should provide the USPTO control number assigned to the request, indicate the date of the final determination and be signed by the individual. The General Counsel shall acknowledge receipt of such statement and inform the individual of the date on which it was received.
(2) The facts that any such disagreement statement filed by the individual will be noted in the disputed record, that the purposes and uses to which the statement will be put are those applicable to the record in which it is noted, and that a copy of the statement will be provided to persons and agencies to which the record is disclosed subsequent to the date of receipt of such statement;
(3) The fact that USPTO will append to any such disagreement statement filed by the individual, a copy of the final determination or summary thereof which also will be provided to persons and agencies to which the disagreement statement is disclosed; and,
(4) The right of the individual to judicial review of the final determination under 5 U.S.C. 552a(g)(1)(A), as limited by 5 U.S.C. 552a(g)(5).
(h) In making the final determination, the General Counsel shall employ the criteria set forth in § 102.28(c) and
(i) If an appeal is partially granted and partially denied, the General Counsel shall follow the appropriate procedures of this section as to the records within the grant and the records within the denial.
(j) Although a copy of the final determination or a summary thereof will be treated as part of the individual's record for purposes of disclosure in instances where the individual has filed a disagreement statement, it will not be subject to correction or amendment by the individual.
(k) The provisions of paragraphs (g)(1) through (g)(3) of this section satisfy the requirements of 5 U.S.C. 552a(e)(3).
(a) USPTO may disclose a record pertaining to an individual to a person other than the individual to whom it pertains only in the following instances:
(1) Upon written request by the individual, including authorization under § 102.25(f);
(2) With the prior written consent of the individual;
(3) To a parent or legal guardian under 5 U.S.C. 552a(h);
(4) When required by the Act and not covered explicitly by the provisions of 5 U.S.C. 552a(b); and
(5) When permitted under 5 U.S.C. 552a(b)(1) through (12), which read as follows:
(i) To those officers and employees of the agency which maintains the record who have a need for the record in the performance of their duties;
(ii) Required under 5 U.S.C. 552 ;
(iii) For a routine use as defined in 5 U.S.C. 552a(a)(7) and described under 5 U.S.C. 552a(e)(4)(D);
(iv) To the Bureau of the Census for purposes of planning or carrying out a census or survey or related activity pursuant to the provisions of Title 13;
(v) To a recipient who has provided the agency with advance adequate written assurance that the record will be used solely as a statistical research or reporting record, and the record is to be transferred in a form that is not individually identifiable;
(vi) To the National Archives and Records Administration as a record which has sufficient historical or other value to warrant its continued preservation by the United States Government, or for evaluation by the Archivist of the United States or the designee of the Archivist to determine whether the record has such value;
(vii) To another agency or to an instrumentality of any governmental jurisdiction within or under the control of the United States for a civil or criminal law enforcement activity if the activity is authorized by law, and if the head of the agency or instrumentality has made a written request to the agency which maintains the record specifying the particular portion desired and the law enforcement activity for which the record is sought;
(viii) To a person pursuant to a showing of compelling circumstances affecting the health or safety of an individual if upon such disclosure notification is transmitted to the last known address of such individual;
(ix) To either House of Congress, or, to the extent of matter within its jurisdiction, any committee or subcommittee thereof, any joint committee of Congress or subcommittee of any such joint committee;
(x) To the Comptroller General, or any of his authorized representatives, in the course of the performance of the duties of the General Accounting Office;
(xi) Pursuant to the order of a court of competent jurisdiction; or
(xii) To a consumer reporting agency in accordance with section 3711(e) of Title 31.
(b) The situations referred to in paragraph (a)(4) of this section include the following:
(1) 5 U.S.C. 552a(c)(4) requires dissemination of a corrected or amended record or notation of a disagreement statement by USPTO in certain circumstances;
(2) 5 U.S.C. 552a(d) requires disclosure of records to the individual to whom they pertain, upon request; and
(3) 5 U.S.C. 552a(g) authorizes civil action by an individual and requires disclosure by USPTO to the court.
(c) The Privacy Officer shall make an accounting of each disclosure by him of any record contained in a system of records in accordance with 5 U.S.C. 552a(c) (1) and (2). Except for a disclosure made under 5 U.S.C. 552a(b)(7), the Privacy Officer shall make such accounting available to any individual, insofar as it pertains to that individual, on request submitted in accordance with § 102.24. The Privacy Officer shall make reasonable efforts to notify any individual when any record in a system of records is disclosed to any person under compulsory legal process, promptly upon being informed that such process has become a matter of public record.
The only fees to be charged to or collected from an individual under the provisions of this part are for duplication of records at the request of the individual. The Privacy Officer shall charge fees for duplication of records under the Act in the same way in which they charge duplication fees under § 102.11, except as provided in this section.
(a) No fees shall be charged or collected for the following: Search for and retrieval of the records; review of the records; copying at the initiative of USPTO without a request from the individual; transportation of records and personnel; and first-class postage.
(b) It is the policy of USPTO to provide an individual with one copy of each record corrected or amended pursuant to his or her request without charge as evidence of the correction or amendment.
(c) As required by the United States Office of Personnel Management in its published regulations implementing the Act, USPTO will charge no fee for a single copy of a personnel record covered by that agency's Government-wide published notice of systems of records.
(a) The Act provides, in pertinent part:
Any person who knowingly and willfully requests or obtains any record concerning an individual from an agency under false pretenses shall be guilty of a misdemeanor and fined not more than $5,000. (5 U.S.C. 552a(i)(3)).
(b) A person who falsely or fraudulently attempts to obtain records under the Act also may be subject to prosecution under such other criminal statutes as 18 U.S.C. 494, 495 and 1001.
(a) Individuals may not have access to records maintained by USPTO but which were provided by another agency which has determined by regulation that such information is subject to general exemption under 5 U.S.C. 552a(j). If such exempt records are within a request for access, USPTO will advise the individual of their existence and of the name and address of the source agency. For any further information concerning the record and the exemption, the individual must contact that source agency.
(b) The general exemption determined to be necessary and proper with respect to systems of records maintained by USPTO, including the parts of each system to be exempted, the provisions of the Act from which they are exempted, and the justification for the exemption, is as follows:
(a)(1) Some systems of records under the Act which are maintained by USPTO contain, from time-to-time, material subject to the exemption appearing at 5 U.S.C. 552a(k)(1), relating to national defense and foreign policy materials. The systems of records published in the
(2) USPTO hereby asserts a claim to exemption of such materials wherever they might appear in such systems of records, or any systems of records, at present or in the future. The materials would be exempt from 5 U.S.C. 552a (c)(3), (d), (e)(1), (e)(4) (G), (H), and (I), and (f) to protect materials required by Executive order to be kept secret in the interest of the national defense and foreign policy.
(b) The specific exemptions determined to be necessary and proper with respect to systems of records maintained by USPTO, including the parts of each system to be exempted, the provisions of the Act from which they are exempted, and the justification for the exemption, are as follows:
(1)(i) Exempt under 5 U.S.C. 552a(k)(2). The systems of records exempt (some only conditionally), the sections of the Act from which exempted, and the reasons therefor are as follows:
(A) Investigative Records—Contract and Grant Frauds and Employee Criminal Misconduct—COMMERCE/DEPT-12, but only on condition that the general exemption claimed in § 102.33(b)(3) is held to be invalid;
(B) Investigative Records—Persons Within the Investigative Jurisdiction of USPTO—COMMERCE/DEPT-13;
(C) Litigation, Claims and Administrative Proceeding Records— COMMERCE/DEPT-14;
(D) Attorneys and Agents Registered to Practice Before the Office— COMMERCE/PAT-TM-1;
(E) Complaints, Investigations and Disciplinary Proceedings Relating to Registered Patent Attorneys and Agents—COMMERCE/PAT-TM-2; and
(F) Non-Registered Persons Rendering Assistance to Patent Applicants— COMMERCE/PAT-TM-5.
(ii) The foregoing are exempted from 5 U.S.C. 552a (c)(3), (d), (e)(1), (e)(4)(G), (H), and (I), and (f). The reasons for asserting the exemption are to prevent subjects of investigation from frustrating the investigatory process, to insure the proper functioning and integrity of law enforcement activities, to prevent disclosure of investigative techniques, to maintain the ability to obtain necessary information, to fulfill commitments made to sources to protect their identities and the confidentiality of information and to avoid endangering these sources and law enforcement personnel. Special note is taken of the fact that the proviso clause in this exemption imports due process and procedural protections for the individual. The existence and general character of the information exempted will be made known to the individual to whom it pertains.
(2)(i) Exempt under 5 U.S.C. 552a(k)(5). The systems of records exempt (some only conditionally), the sections of the act from which exempted, and the reasons therefor are as follows:
(A) Investigative Records—Contract and Grant Frauds and Employee Criminal Misconduct—COMMERCE/DEPT-12, but only on condition that the general exemption claimed in § 102.33(b)(3) is held to be invalid;
(B) Investigative Records—Persons Within the Investigative Jurisdiction of USPTO—COMMERCE/DEPT-13; and
(C) Litigation, Claims, and Administrative Proceeding Records— COMMERCE/DEPT-14.
(ii) The foregoing are exempted from 5 U.S.C. 552a (c)(3), (d), (e)(1), (e)(4) (G), (H), and (I), and (f). The reasons for asserting the exemption are to maintain the ability to obtain candid and necessary information, to fulfill commitments made to sources to protect the confidentiality of information, to avoid endangering these sources and, ultimately, to facilitate proper selection or continuance of the best applicants
(c) At the present time, USPTO claims no exemption under 5 U.S.C. 552a(k) (3), (4), (6) and (7).
35 U.S.C. 2(b)(2), 10, 23, 25; 44 U.S.C. 3101, except as otherwise indicated.
66 FR 47389, Sept. 12, 2001, unless otherwise noted.
(a) Mail under this part should be addressed to General Counsel, United States Patent and Trademark Office, P.O. Box 15667, Arlington, VA 22215.
(b) Service by hand should be made during business hours to the Office of the General Counsel, Crystal Park Two, Suite 905, 2121 Crystal Drive, Arlington, Virginia.
(c) The Office of the General Counsel may be reached by telephone at 703-308-2000 during business hours.
In extraordinary situations, when the interest of justice requires, the General Counsel may waive or suspend the rules of this part, sua sponte or on petition of an interested party to the Director, subject to such requirements as the General Counsel may impose. Any petition must be accompanied by the petition fee set forth in § 1.17(h) of this title.
Nothing in this part waives or limits any requirement under the Federal Rules of Civil or Criminal Procedure.
(a) This subpart sets forth the procedures to be followed when a summons and complaint is served on the Office or on the Director or an employee in his or her official capacity.
(b) This subpart is intended, and should be construed, to ensure the efficient administration of the Office and not to impede any legal proceeding.
(c) This subpart does not apply to subpoenas, the procedures for which are set out in subpart C.
(d) This subpart does not apply to service of process made on an employee personally on matters not related to official business of the Office or to the official responsibilities of the employee.
(a) Any summons and complaint to be served in person or by registered or certified mail or as otherwise authorized by law on the Office, on the Director, or on an employee in his or her official capacity, shall be served as indicated in § 104.2.
(b) Any employee of the Office served with a summons and complaint shall immediately notify, and shall deliver the summons and complaint to, the Office of the General Counsel.
(c) Any employee receiving a summons and complaint shall note on the summons and complaint the date, hour, and place of service and whether service was by hand or by mail.
(d) When a legal proceeding is brought to hold an employee personally liable in connection with an action taken in the conduct of official business, rather than liable in an official capacity, the employee by law is to be served personally with process.
(e) An employee sued personally in connection with official business may be represented by the Department of Justice at its discretion (28 CFR 50.15 and 50.16).
(f) The Office will only accept service of process for an employee in the employee's official capacity.
(a) This subpart sets forth the policies and procedures of the Office regarding the testimony of employees as witnesses in legal proceedings and the production or disclosure of information contained in Office documents for use in legal proceedings pursuant to a demand.
(b)
(1) An employee is to testify regarding facts or events that are unrelated to official business; or
(2) A former employee is to testify as an expert in connection with a particular matter in which the former employee did not participate personally while at the Office.
(a) Whenever a demand for testimony or for the production of documents is made upon an employee, the employee shall immediately notify the Office of the General Counsel at the telephone number or addresses in § 104.2 and make arrangements to send the subpoena to the General Counsel promptly.
(b) An employee may not give testimony, produce documents, or answer inquiries from a person not employed by the Office regarding testimony or documents subject to a demand or a potential demand under the provisions of this subpart without the approval of the General Counsel. The General Counsel may authorize the provision of certified copies not otherwise available under Part 1 of this title subject to payment of applicable fees under § 1.19.
(c)(1)
(2)
(3)
(d) Failure of the attorney to cooperate in good faith to enable the General Counsel to make an informed determination under this subpart may serve as a basis for a determination not to comply with the demand.
(e) A determination under this subpart to comply or not to comply with a demand is not a waiver or an assertion of any other ground for noncompliance, including privilege, lack of relevance, or technical deficiency.
(f)
(a)(1) If the General Counsel authorizes an employee to give testimony in a legal proceeding not involving the United States, the testimony, if otherwise proper, shall be limited to facts within the personal knowledge of the employee. Employees, with or without compensation, shall not provide expert testimony in any legal proceedings regarding Office information, subjects, or activities except on behalf of the United States or a party represented by the United States Department of Justice.
(2) The General Counsel may authorize an employee to appear and give the expert or opinion testimony upon the requester showing, pursuant to § 104.3 of this part, that exceptional circumstances warrant such testimony and that the anticipated testimony will not be adverse to the interest of the Office or the United States.
(b)(1) If, while testifying in any legal proceeding, an employee is asked for expert or opinion testimony regarding Office information, subjects, or activities, which testimony has not been approved in advance in writing in accordance with the regulations in this subpart, the witness shall:
(i) Respectfully decline to answer on the grounds that such expert or opinion testimony is forbidden by this subpart;
(ii) Request an opportunity to consult with the General Counsel before giving such testimony; and
(iii) Explain that upon such consultation, approval for such testimony may be provided.
(2) If the tribunal conducting the proceeding then orders the employee to provide expert or opinion testimony regarding Office information, subjects, or activities without the opportunity to consult with the General Counsel, the employee shall respectfully refuse to provide such testimony, citing
(c) If an employee is unaware of the regulations in this subpart and provides expert or opinion testimony regarding Office information, subjects, or activities in a legal proceeding without the aforementioned consultation, the employee shall, as soon after testifying as possible, inform the General Counsel that such testimony was given and provide a written summary of the expert or opinion testimony provided.
(d)
Demands in legal proceedings for the production of records, or for the testimony of employees regarding information protected by the confidentiality provisions of the Patent Act (35 U.S.C. 122), the Privacy Act (5 U.S.C. 552a), the Trade Secrets Act (18 U.S.C. 1905), or any other confidentiality statute, must satisfy the requirements for disclosure set forth in those statutes and associated rules before the records may be provided or testimony given.
The procedure in this subpart shall be followed if a civil action or proceeding is brought, in any court, against an employee (including the employee's estate) for personal injury, loss of property, or death, resulting from the employee's activities while
(a) After being served with process or pleadings in such an action or proceeding, the employee shall within five (5) calendar days of receipt, deliver to the General Counsel all such process and pleadings or an attested true copy thereof, together with a fully detailed report of the circumstances of the incident giving rise to the court action or proceeding.
(b)(1) An employee may request indemnification to satisfy a verdict, judgment, or award entered against that employee only if the employee has timely satisfied the requirements of paragraph (a) of this section.
(2) No request for indemnification will be considered unless the employee has submitted a written request through the employee's supervisory chain to the General Counsel with:
(i) Appropriate documentation, including copies of the verdict, judgment, appeal bond, award, or settlement proposal;
(ii) The employee's explanation of how the employee was acting within the scope of the employee's employment; and
(iii) The employee's statement of whether the employee has insurance or any other source of indemnification.
28 U.S.C. 2672; 35 U.S.C. 2(b)(2); 44 U.S.C. 3101; 28 CFR Part 14.
Administrative claims against the Office filed pursuant to the administrative claims provision of the Federal Tort Claims Act (28 U.S.C. 2672) and the corresponding Department of Justice regulations (28 CFR Part 14) shall be filed with the General Counsel as indicated in § 104.2.
Only a decision of the Director or the General Counsel regarding settlement or denial of any claim under this subpart may be considered final for the purpose of judicial review.