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  <FDSYS>
    <CFRTITLE>14</CFRTITLE>
    <CFRTITLETEXT>Aeronautics and Space</CFRTITLETEXT>
    <VOL>2</VOL>
    <DATE>2004-01-01</DATE>
    <ORIGINALDATE>2004-01-01</ORIGINALDATE>
    <COVERONLY>false</COVERONLY>
    <TITLE>FEDERAL AVIATION ADMINISTRATION, DEPARTMENT OF TRANSPORTATION (CONTINUED)</TITLE>
    <GRANULENUM>I</GRANULENUM>
    <HEADING>CHAPTER I</HEADING>
    <ANCESTORS>
      <PARENT HEADING="Title 14" SEQ="0">Aeronautics and Space</PARENT>
    </ANCESTORS>
  </FDSYS>
  <CHAPTER>
    <TOC>
      <TOCHD>
        <PRTPAGE P="3"/>
        <HD SOURCE="HED">CHAPTER I—FEDERAL AVIATION ADMINISTRATION, DEPARTMENT OF TRANSPORTATION (CONTINUED)</HD>
      </TOCHD>
      <SUBCHAP>
        <HD SOURCE="HED">SUBCHAPTER D—AIRMEN</HD>
      </SUBCHAP>
      <PTHD>Part</PTHD>
      <PGHD>Page</PGHD>
      <CHAPTI>
        <PT>60</PT>
        <RESERVED>[Reserved]</RESERVED>
        <PT>61</PT>
        <SUBJECT>Certification: Pilots, flight instructors, and ground instructors</SUBJECT>
        <PG>5</PG>
        <PT>63</PT>
        <SUBJECT>Certification: Flight crewmembers other than pilots</SUBJECT>
        <PG>98</PG>
        <PT>65</PT>
        <SUBJECT>Certification: Airmen other than flight crewmembers</SUBJECT>
        <PG>117</PG>
        <PT>67</PT>
        <SUBJECT>Medical standards and certification</SUBJECT>
        <PG>138</PG>
      </CHAPTI>
      <SUBCHAP>
        <HD SOURCE="HED">SUBCHAPTER E—AIRSPACE</HD>
      </SUBCHAP>
      <CHAPTI>
        <PT>71</PT>
        <SUBJECT>Designation of class A, B, C, D, and E airspace areas; Air traffic service; routes; and reporting points</SUBJECT>
        <PG>151</PG>
        <PT>73</PT>
        <SUBJECT>Special use airspace</SUBJECT>
        <PG>155</PG>
        
        <PT>75</PT>
        <RESERVED>[Reserved]</RESERVED>
        <PT>77</PT>
        <SUBJECT>Objects affecting navigable airspace</SUBJECT>
        <PG>157</PG>
      </CHAPTI>
      <SUBCHAP>
        <HD SOURCE="HED">SUBCHAPTER F—AIR TRAFFIC AND GENERAL OPERATING RULES</HD>
      </SUBCHAP>
      <CHAPTI>
        <PT>91</PT>
        <SUBJECT>General operating and flight rules</SUBJECT>
        <PG>171</PG>
        <PT>93</PT>
        <SUBJECT>Special air traffic rules</SUBJECT>
        <PG>305</PG>
        <PT>95</PT>
        <SUBJECT>IFR altitudes</SUBJECT>
        <PG>331</PG>
        <PT>97</PT>
        <SUBJECT>Standard instrument approach procedures</SUBJECT>
        <PG>339</PG>
        <PT>99</PT>
        <SUBJECT>Security control of air traffic</SUBJECT>
        <PG>342</PG>
        <PT>101</PT>
        <SUBJECT>Moored balloons, kites, unmanned rockets and unmanned free balloons</SUBJECT>
        <PG>346</PG>
        <PT>103</PT>
        <SUBJECT>Ultralight vehicles</SUBJECT>
        <PG>350<PRTPAGE P="4"/>
        </PG>
        <PT>105</PT>
        <SUBJECT>Parachute Operations</SUBJECT>
        <PG>352</PG>
      </CHAPTI>
      <SUBCHAP>
        <HD SOURCE="HED">SUBCHAPTER G—AIR CARRIERS AND OPERATORS FOR COMPENSATION OR HIRE: CERTIFICATION AND OPERATIONS</HD>
      </SUBCHAP>
      <CHAPTI>
        <PT>119</PT>
        <SUBJECT>Certification: Air carriers and commercial operators</SUBJECT>
        <PG>360</PG>
        <PT>121</PT>
        <SUBJECT>Operating requirements: Domestic, flag, and supplemental operations</SUBJECT>
        <PG>380</PG>
        <PT>125</PT>
        <SUBJECT>Certification and operations: Airplanes having a seating capacity of 20 or more passengers or a maximum payload capacity of 6,000 pounds or more; and rules governing persons on board such aircraft</SUBJECT>
        <PG>618</PG>
        <PT>129</PT>
        <SUBJECT>Operations: Foreign air carriers and foreign operators of U.S.-registered aircraft engaged in common carriage</SUBJECT>
        <PG>682</PG>
        <PT>133</PT>
        <SUBJECT>Rotorcraft external-load operations</SUBJECT>
        <PG>692</PG>
        <PT>135</PT>
        <SUBJECT>Operating requirements: Commuter and on demand operations and rules governing persons on board such aircraft</SUBJECT>
        <PG>699</PG>
        <PT>136</PT>
        <SUBJECT>National parks air tour management</SUBJECT>
        <PG>818</PG>
        <PT>137</PT>
        <SUBJECT>Agricultural aircraft operations</SUBJECT>
        <PG>822</PG>
        <PT>139</PT>
        <SUBJECT>Certification and operations: Land airports serving certain air carriers</SUBJECT>
        <PG>829</PG>
      </CHAPTI>
    </TOC>
    <SUBCHAP TYPE="N">
      <PRTPAGE P="5"/>
      <HD SOURCE="HED">SUBCHAPTER D—AIRMEN</HD>
      <PART>
        <RESERVED>PART 60 [RESERVED]</RESERVED>
      </PART>
      <PART>
        <EAR>Pt. 61</EAR>
        <HD SOURCE="HED">PART 61—CERTIFICATION: PILOTS, FLIGHT INSTRUCTORS, AND GROUND INSTRUCTORS</HD>
        <CONTENTS>
          <APP>Special Federal Aviation Regulation No. 58 [Note]</APP>
          <APP>Special Federal Aviation Regulation No. 73</APP>
          <APP>Special Federal Aviation Regulation No. 93</APP>
          <APP>Special Federal Aviation Regulation No. 100</APP>
          <SUBPART>
            <HD SOURCE="HED">Subpart A—General</HD>
            <SECHD>Sec.</SECHD>
            <SECTNO>61.1</SECTNO>
            <SUBJECT>Applicability and definitions.</SUBJECT>
            <SECTNO>61.3</SECTNO>
            <SUBJECT>Requirement for certificates, ratings, and authorizations.</SUBJECT>
            <SECTNO>61.4</SECTNO>
            <SUBJECT>Qualification and approval of flight simulators and flight training devices.</SUBJECT>
            <SECTNO>61.5</SECTNO>
            <SUBJECT>Certificates and ratings issued under this part.</SUBJECT>
            <SECTNO>61.7</SECTNO>
            <SUBJECT>Obsolete certificates and ratings.</SUBJECT>
            <SECTNO>61.9</SECTNO>
            <SUBJECT>[Reserved]</SUBJECT>
            <SECTNO>61.11</SECTNO>
            <SUBJECT>Expired pilot certificates and reissuance.</SUBJECT>
            <SECTNO>61.13</SECTNO>
            <SUBJECT>Issuance of airman certificates, ratings, and authorizations.</SUBJECT>
            <SECTNO>61.14</SECTNO>
            <SUBJECT>Refusal to submit to a drug or alcohol test.</SUBJECT>
            <SECTNO>61.15</SECTNO>
            <SUBJECT>Offenses involving alcohol or drugs.</SUBJECT>
            <SECTNO>61.16</SECTNO>
            <SUBJECT>Refusal to submit to an alcohol test or to furnish test results.</SUBJECT>
            <SECTNO>61.17</SECTNO>
            <SUBJECT>Temporary certificate.</SUBJECT>
            <SECTNO>61.18</SECTNO>
            <SUBJECT>Security disqualification.</SUBJECT>
            <SECTNO>61.19</SECTNO>
            <SUBJECT>Duration of pilot and instructor certificates.</SUBJECT>
            <SECTNO>61.21</SECTNO>
            <SUBJECT>Duration of a Category II and a Category III pilot authorization (for other than part 121 and part 135 use).</SUBJECT>
            <SECTNO>61.23</SECTNO>
            <SUBJECT>Medical certificates: Requirement and duration.</SUBJECT>
            <SECTNO>61.25</SECTNO>
            <SUBJECT>Change of name.</SUBJECT>
            <SECTNO>61.27</SECTNO>
            <SUBJECT>Voluntary surrender or exchange of certificate.</SUBJECT>
            <SECTNO>61.29</SECTNO>
            <SUBJECT>Replacement of a lost or destroyed airman or medical certificate or knowledge test report.</SUBJECT>
            <SECTNO>61.31</SECTNO>
            <SUBJECT>Type rating requirements, additional training, and authorization requirements.</SUBJECT>
            <SECTNO>61.33</SECTNO>
            <SUBJECT>Tests: General procedure.</SUBJECT>
            <SECTNO>61.35</SECTNO>
            <SUBJECT>Knowledge test: Prerequisites and passing grades.</SUBJECT>
            <SECTNO>61.37</SECTNO>
            <SUBJECT>Knowledge tests: Cheating or other unauthorized conduct.</SUBJECT>
            <SECTNO>61.39</SECTNO>
            <SUBJECT>Prerequisites for practical tests.</SUBJECT>
            <SECTNO>61.41</SECTNO>
            <SUBJECT>Flight training received from flight instructors not certificated by the FAA.</SUBJECT>
            <SECTNO>61.43</SECTNO>
            <SUBJECT>Practical tests: General procedures.</SUBJECT>
            <SECTNO>61.45</SECTNO>
            <SUBJECT>Practical tests: Required aircraft and equipment.</SUBJECT>
            <SECTNO>61.47</SECTNO>
            <SUBJECT>Status of an examiner who is authorized by the Administrator to conduct practical tests.</SUBJECT>
            <SECTNO>61.49</SECTNO>
            <SUBJECT>Retesting after failure.</SUBJECT>
            <SECTNO>61.51</SECTNO>
            <SUBJECT>Pilot logbooks.</SUBJECT>
            <SECTNO>61.53</SECTNO>
            <SUBJECT>Prohibition on operations during medical deficiency.</SUBJECT>
            <SECTNO>61.55</SECTNO>
            <SUBJECT>Second-in-command qualifications.</SUBJECT>
            <SECTNO>61.56</SECTNO>
            <SUBJECT>Flight review.</SUBJECT>
            <SECTNO>61.57</SECTNO>
            <SUBJECT>Recent flight experience: Pilot in command.</SUBJECT>
            <SECTNO>61.58</SECTNO>
            <SUBJECT>Pilot-in-command proficiency check: Operation of aircraft requiring more than one pilot flight crewmember.</SUBJECT>
            <SECTNO>61.59</SECTNO>
            <SUBJECT>Falsification, reproduction, or alteration of applications, certificates, logbooks, reports, or records.</SUBJECT>
            <SECTNO>61.60</SECTNO>
            <SUBJECT>Change of address.</SUBJECT>
          </SUBPART>
          <SUBPART>
            <HD SOURCE="HED">Subpart B—Aircraft Ratings and Pilot Authorizations</HD>
            <SECTNO>61.61</SECTNO>
            <SUBJECT>Applicability.</SUBJECT>
            <SECTNO>61.63</SECTNO>
            <SUBJECT>Additional aircraft ratings (other than on an airline transport pilot certificate).</SUBJECT>
            <SECTNO>61.64</SECTNO>
            <SUBJECT>[Reserved]</SUBJECT>
            <SECTNO>61.65</SECTNO>
            <SUBJECT>Instrument rating requirements.</SUBJECT>
            <SECTNO>61.67</SECTNO>
            <SUBJECT>Category II pilot authorization requirements.</SUBJECT>
            <SECTNO>61.68</SECTNO>
            <SUBJECT>Category III pilot authorization requirements.</SUBJECT>
            <SECTNO>61.69</SECTNO>
            <SUBJECT>Glider towing: Experience and training requirements.</SUBJECT>
            <SECTNO>61.71</SECTNO>
            <SUBJECT>Graduates of an approved training program other than under this part: Special rules.</SUBJECT>
            <SECTNO>61.73</SECTNO>
            <SUBJECT>Military pilots or former military pilots: Special rules.</SUBJECT>
            <SECTNO>61.75</SECTNO>
            <SUBJECT>Private pilot certificate issued on the basis of a foreign pilot license.</SUBJECT>
            <SECTNO>61.77</SECTNO>
            <SUBJECT>Special purpose pilot authorization: Operation of U.S.-registered civil aircraft leased by a person who is not a U.S. citizen.</SUBJECT>
          </SUBPART>
          <SUBPART>
            <HD SOURCE="HED">Subpart C—Student Pilots</HD>
            <SECTNO>61.81</SECTNO>
            <SUBJECT>Applicability.</SUBJECT>
            <SECTNO>61.83</SECTNO>
            <SUBJECT>Eligibility requirements for student pilots.</SUBJECT>
            <SECTNO>61.85</SECTNO>
            <SUBJECT>Application.</SUBJECT>
            <SECTNO>61.87</SECTNO>
            <SUBJECT>Solo requirements for student pilots.</SUBJECT>
            <SECTNO>61.89</SECTNO>
            <SUBJECT>General limitations.</SUBJECT>
            <SECTNO>61.91</SECTNO>
            <SUBJECT>[Reserved]</SUBJECT>
            <SECTNO>61.93 </SECTNO>
            <SUBJECT>Solo cross-country flight requirements.</SUBJECT>
            <SECTNO>61.95</SECTNO>
            <SUBJECT>Operations in Class B airspace and at airports located within Class B airspace.</SUBJECT>
          </SUBPART>
          <SUBPART>
            <PRTPAGE P="6"/>
            <HD SOURCE="HED">Subpart D—Recreational Pilots</HD>
            <SECTNO>61.96</SECTNO>
            <SUBJECT>Applicability and eligibility requirements: General.</SUBJECT>
            <SECTNO>61.97</SECTNO>
            <SUBJECT>Aeronautical knowledge.</SUBJECT>
            <SECTNO>61.98</SECTNO>
            <SUBJECT>Flight proficiency.</SUBJECT>
            <SECTNO>61.99</SECTNO>
            <SUBJECT>Aeronautical experience.</SUBJECT>
            <SECTNO>61.100</SECTNO>
            <SUBJECT>Pilots based on small islands.</SUBJECT>
            <SECTNO>61.101</SECTNO>
            <SUBJECT>Recreational pilot privileges and limitations.</SUBJECT>
          </SUBPART>
          <SUBPART>
            <HD SOURCE="HED">Subpart E—Private Pilots</HD>
            <SECTNO>61.102</SECTNO>
            <SUBJECT>Applicability.</SUBJECT>
            <SECTNO>61.103</SECTNO>
            <SUBJECT>Eligibility requirements: General.</SUBJECT>
            <SECTNO>61.105</SECTNO>
            <SUBJECT>Aeronautical knowledge.</SUBJECT>
            <SECTNO>61.107</SECTNO>
            <SUBJECT>Flight proficiency.</SUBJECT>
            <SECTNO>61.109</SECTNO>
            <SUBJECT>Aeronautical experience.</SUBJECT>
            <SECTNO>61.110</SECTNO>
            <SUBJECT>Night flying exceptions.</SUBJECT>
            <SECTNO>61.111</SECTNO>
            <SUBJECT>Cross-country flights: Pilots based on small islands.</SUBJECT>
            <SECTNO>61.113</SECTNO>
            <SUBJECT>Private pilot privileges and limitations: Pilot in command.</SUBJECT>
            <SECTNO>61.115</SECTNO>
            <SUBJECT>Balloon rating: Limitations.</SUBJECT>
            <SECTNO>61.117</SECTNO>
            <SUBJECT>Private pilot privileges and limitations: Second in command of aircraft requiring more than one pilot.</SUBJECT>
            <SECTNO>61.118-61.120</SECTNO>
            <SUBJECT>[Reserved]</SUBJECT>
          </SUBPART>
          <SUBPART>
            <HD SOURCE="HED">Subpart F—Commercial Pilots</HD>
            <SECTNO>61.121</SECTNO>
            <SUBJECT>Applicability.</SUBJECT>
            <SECTNO>61.123</SECTNO>
            <SUBJECT>Eligibility requirements: General.</SUBJECT>
            <SECTNO>61.125</SECTNO>
            <SUBJECT>Aeronautical knowledge.</SUBJECT>
            <SECTNO>61.127</SECTNO>
            <SUBJECT>Flight proficiency.</SUBJECT>
            <SECTNO>61.129</SECTNO>
            <SUBJECT>Aeronautical experience.</SUBJECT>
            <SECTNO>61.131</SECTNO>
            <SUBJECT>Exceptions to the night flying requirements.</SUBJECT>
            <SECTNO>61.133</SECTNO>
            <SUBJECT>Commercial pilot privileges and limitations.</SUBJECT>
            <SECTNO>61.135-61.141</SECTNO>
            <SUBJECT>[Reserved]</SUBJECT>
          </SUBPART>
          <SUBPART>
            <HD SOURCE="HED">Subpart G—Airline Transport Pilots</HD>
            <SECTNO>61.151</SECTNO>
            <SUBJECT>Applicability.</SUBJECT>
            <SECTNO>61.153</SECTNO>
            <SUBJECT>Eligibility requirements: General.</SUBJECT>
            <SECTNO>61.155</SECTNO>
            <SUBJECT>Aeronautical knowledge.</SUBJECT>
            <SECTNO>61.157</SECTNO>
            <SUBJECT>Flight proficiency.</SUBJECT>
            <SECTNO>61.158</SECTNO>
            <SUBJECT>[Reserved]</SUBJECT>
            <SECTNO>61.159</SECTNO>
            <SUBJECT>Aeronautical experience: Airplane category rating.</SUBJECT>
            <SECTNO>61.161</SECTNO>
            <SUBJECT>Aeronautical experience: Rotorcraft category and helicopter class rating.</SUBJECT>
            <SECTNO>61.163</SECTNO>
            <SUBJECT>Aeronautical experience: Powered-lift category rating.</SUBJECT>
            <SECTNO>61.165</SECTNO>
            <SUBJECT>Additional aircraft category and class ratings.</SUBJECT>
            <SECTNO>61.167</SECTNO>
            <SUBJECT>Privileges.</SUBJECT>
            <SECTNO>61.169-61.171</SECTNO>
            <SUBJECT>[Reserved]</SUBJECT>
          </SUBPART>
          <SUBPART>
            <HD SOURCE="HED">Subpart H—Flight Instructors</HD>
            <SECTNO>61.181</SECTNO>
            <SUBJECT>Applicability.</SUBJECT>
            <SECTNO>61.183</SECTNO>
            <SUBJECT>Eligibility requirements.</SUBJECT>
            <SECTNO>61.185</SECTNO>
            <SUBJECT>Aeronautical knowledge.</SUBJECT>
            <SECTNO>61.187</SECTNO>
            <SUBJECT>Flight proficiency.</SUBJECT>
            <SECTNO>61.189</SECTNO>
            <SUBJECT>Flight instructor records.</SUBJECT>
            <SECTNO>61.191</SECTNO>
            <SUBJECT>Additional flight instructor ratings.</SUBJECT>
            <SECTNO>61.193</SECTNO>
            <SUBJECT>Flight instructor privileges.</SUBJECT>
            <SECTNO>61.195</SECTNO>
            <SUBJECT>Flight instructor limitations and qualifications.</SUBJECT>
            <SECTNO>61.197</SECTNO>
            <SUBJECT>Renewal of flight instructor certificates.</SUBJECT>
            <SECTNO>61.199</SECTNO>
            <SUBJECT>Expired flight instructor certificates and ratings.</SUBJECT>
            <SECTNO>61.201</SECTNO>
            <SUBJECT>[Reserved]</SUBJECT>
          </SUBPART>
          <SUBPART>
            <HD SOURCE="HED">Subpart I—Ground Instructors</HD>
            <SECTNO>61.211</SECTNO>
            <SUBJECT>Applicability.</SUBJECT>
            <SECTNO>61.213</SECTNO>
            <SUBJECT>Eligibility requirements.</SUBJECT>
            <SECTNO>61.215</SECTNO>
            <SUBJECT>Ground instructor privileges.</SUBJECT>
            <SECTNO>61.217</SECTNO>
            <SUBJECT>Recent experience requirements.</SUBJECT>
          </SUBPART>
        </CONTENTS>
        <AUTH>
          <HD SOURCE="HED">Authority:</HD>
          <P>49 U.S.C. 106(g), 40113, 44701-44703, 44707, 44709-44711, 45102-45103, 45301-45302.</P>
        </AUTH>
        <SOURCE>
          <HD SOURCE="HED">Source:</HD>
          <P>Docket No. 25910, 62 FR 16298, Apr. 4, 1997, unless otherwise noted.</P>
        </SOURCE>
        <APPENDIX>
          <HD SOURCE="HED">Special Federal Aviation Regulation No. 58</HD>
          <EDNOTE>
            <HD SOURCE="HED">Editorial Note:</HD>
            <P>For the text of SFAR No. 58, see part 121 of this chapter.</P>
          </EDNOTE>
        </APPENDIX>
        <APPENDIX>
          <EAR>Pt. 61, SFAR 73</EAR>
          <HD SOURCE="HED">Special Federal Aviation Regulation No. 73—Robinson R-22/R-44 Special Training and Experience Requirements</HD>
          <HD SOURCE="HD3">Sections</HD>
          <P>1. Applicability.</P>
          <P>2. Required training, aeronautical experience, endorsements, and flight review.</P>
          <P>3. Expiration date.</P>
          <P>1. Applicability. Under the procedures prescribed herein, this SFAR applies to all persons who seek to manipulate the controls or act as pilot in command of a Robinson model R-22 or R-44 helicopter. The requirements stated in this SFAR are in addition to the current requirements of part 61.</P>
          <P>2. Required training, aeronautical experience, endorsements, and flight review.</P>
          <P>(a) Awareness Training:</P>
          <P>(1) Except as provided in paragraph (a)(2) of this section, no person may manipulate the controls of a Robinson model R-22 or R-44 helicopter after March 27, 1995, for the purpose of flight unless the awareness training specified in paragraph (a)(3) of this section is completed and the person's logbook has been endorsed by a certified flight instructor authorized under paragraph (b)(5) of this section.</P>

          <P>(2) A person who holds a rotorcraft category and helicopter class rating on that person's pilot certificate and meets the experience requirements of paragraph (b)(1) or paragraph (b)(2) of this section may not manipulate the controls of a Robinson model R-22 or R-44 helicopter for the purpose of flight after April 26, 1995, unless the awareness <PRTPAGE P="7"/>training specified in paragraph (a)(3) of this section is completed and the person's logbook has been endorsed by a certified flight instructor authorized under paragraph (b)(5) of this section.</P>
          <P>(3) Awareness training must be conducted by a certified flight instructor who has been endorsed under paragraph (b)(5) of this section and consists of instruction in the following general subject areas:</P>
          <P>(i) Energy management;</P>
          <P>(ii) Mast bumping;</P>
          <P>(iii) Low rotor RPM (blade stall);</P>
          <P>(iv) Low G hazards; and</P>
          <P>(v) Rotor RPM decay.</P>
          <P>(4) A person who can show satisfactory completion of the manufacturer's safety course after January 1, 1994, may obtain an endorsement from an FAA aviation safety inspector in lieu of completing the awareness training required in paragraphs (a)(1) and (a)(2) of this section.</P>
          <P>(b) Aeronautical Experience:</P>
          <P>(1) No person may act as pilot in command of a Robinson model R-22 unless that person:</P>
          <P>(i) Has had at least 200 flight hours in helicopters, at least 50 flight hours of which were in the Robinson R-22; or</P>
          <P>(ii) Has had at least 10 hours dual instruction in the Robinson R-22 and has received an endorsement from a certified flight instructor authorized under paragraph (b)(5) of this section that the individual has been given the training required by this paragraph and is proficient to act as pilot in command of an R-22. Beginning 12 calendar months after the date of the endorsement, the individual may not act as pilot in command unless the individual has completed a flight review in an R-22 within the preceding 12 calendar months and obtained an endorsement for that flight review. The dual instruction must include at least the following abnormal and emergency procedures flight training:</P>
          <P>(A) Enhanced training in autorotation procedures,</P>
          <P>(B) Engine rotor RPM control without the use of the governor,</P>
          <P>(C) Low rotor RPM recognition and recovery, and</P>
          <P>(D) Effects of low G maneuvers and proper recovery procedures.</P>
          <P>(2) No person may act as pilot in command of a Robinson R-44 unless that person—</P>
          <P>(i) Has had at least 200 flight hours in helicopters, at least 50 flight hours of which were in the Robinson R-44. The pilot in command may credit up to 25 flight hours in the Robinson R-22 toward the 50 hour requirement in the Robinson R-44; or</P>
          <P>(ii) Has had at least 10 hours dual instruction in a Robinson helicopter, at least 5 hours of which must have been accomplished in the Robinson R-44 helicopter and has received an endorsement from a certified flight instructor authorized under paragraph (b)(5) of this section that the individual has been given the training required by this paragraph and is proficient to act as pilot in command of an R-44. Beginning 12 calendar months after the date of the endorsement, the individual may not act as pilot in command unless the individual has completed a flight review in a Robinson R-44 within the preceding 12 calendar months and obtained an endorsement for that flight review. The dual instruction must include at least the following abnormal and emergency procedures flight training—</P>
          <P>(A) Enhanced training in autorotation procedures;</P>
          <P>(B) Engine rotor RPM control without the use of the governor;</P>
          <P>(C) Low rotor RPM recognition and recovery; and</P>
          <P>(D) Effects of low G maneuvers and proper recovery procedures.</P>
          <P>(3) A person who does not hold a rotorcraft category and helicopter class rating must have had at least 20 hours of dual instruction in a Robinson R-22 helicopter prior to operating it in solo flight. In addition, the person must obtain an endorsement from a certified flight instructor authorized under paragraph (b)(5) of this section that instruction has been given in those maneuvers and procedures, and the instructor has found the applicant proficient to solo a Robinson R-22. This endorsement is valid for a period of 90 days. The dual instruction must include at least the following abnormal and emergency procedures flight training:</P>
          <P>(i) Enhanced training in autorotation procedures,</P>
          <P>(ii) Engine rotor RPM control without the use of the governor,</P>
          <P>(iii) Low rotor RPM recognition and recovery, and</P>
          <P>(iv) Effects of low G maneuvers and proper recovery procedures.</P>
          <P>(4) A person who does not hold a rotorcraft category and helicopter class rating must have had at least 20 hours of dual instruction in a Robinson R-44 helicopter prior to operating it in solo flight. In addition, the person must obtain an endorsement from a certified flight instructor authorized under paragraph (b)(5) of this section that instruction has been given in those maneuvers and procedures, and the instructor has found the applicant proficient to solo a Robinson R-44. This endorsement is valid for a period of 90 days. The dual instruction must include at least the following abnormal and emergency procedures flight training:</P>
          <P>(i) Enhanced training in autorotation procedures,</P>
          <P>(ii) Engine rotor RPM control without the use of the governor,</P>
          <P>(iii) Low rotor RPM recognition and recovery, and</P>

          <P>(iv) Effects of low G maneuvers and proper recovery procedures.<PRTPAGE P="8"/>
          </P>
          <P>(5) No certificated flight instructor may provide instruction or conduct a flight review in a Robinson R-22 or R-44 unless that instructor—</P>
          <P>(i) Completes the awareness training in paragraph 2(a) of this SFAR.</P>
          <P>(ii) For the Robinson R-22, has had at least 200 flight hours in helicopters, at least 50 flight hours of which were in the Robinson R-22, or for the Robinson R-44, has had at least 200 flight hours in helicopters, 50 flight hours of which were in Robinson helicopters. Up to 25 flight hours of Robinson R-22 flight time may be credited toward the 50 hour requirement.</P>
          <P>(iii) Has completed flight training in a Robinson R-22, R-44, or both, on the following abnormal and emergency procedures—</P>
          <P>(A) Enhanced training in autorotation procedures;</P>
          <P>(B) Engine rotor RPM control without the use of the governor;</P>
          <P>(C) Low rotor RPM recognition and recovery; and</P>
          <P>(D) Effects of low G maneuvers and proper recovery procedures.</P>
          <P>(iv) Has been authorized by endorsement from an FAA aviation safety inspector or authorized designated examiner that the instructor has completed the appropriate training, meets the experience requirements and has satisfactorily demonstrated an ability to provide instruction on the general subject areas of paragraph 2(a)(3) of this SFAR, and the flight training identified in paragraph 2(b)(5)(iii) of this SFAR.</P>
          <P>(c) Flight Review:</P>
          <P>(1) No flight review completed to satisfy § 61.56 by an individual after becoming eligible to function as pilot in command in a Robinson R-22 helicopter shall be valid for the operation of R-22 helicopter unless that flight review was taken in an R-22.</P>
          <P>(2) No flight review completed to satisfy § 61.56 by individual after becoming eligible to function as pilot in command in a Robinson R-44 helicopter shall be valid for the operation of R-44 helicopter unless that flight review was taken in the R-44.</P>
          <P>(3) The flight review will include a review of the awareness training subject areas of paragraph 2(a)(3) of this SFAR and the flight training identified in paragraph 2(b) of this SFAR.</P>
          <P>(d) Currency Requirements: No person may act as pilot in command of a Robinson model R-22 or R-44 helicopter carrying passengers unless the pilot in command has met the recency of flight experience requirements of § 61.57 in an R-22 or R-44, as appropriate.</P>
          <P>3. <E T="03">Expiration date.</E> This SFAR terminates on March 31, 2008, unless sooner superceded or rescinded.</P>
          <CITA>[Doc. No. 25910, 62 FR 16298, Apr. 4, 1997, as amended by SFAR 73-1, 63 FR 666, Jan. 7, 1998; 68 FR 43, Jan. 2, 2003]</CITA>
        </APPENDIX>
        <APPENDIX>
          <EAR>Pt. 61, SFAR 93</EAR>
          <HD SOURCE="HED">Special Federal Aviation Regulation No. 93—Temporary Extension of Time To Allow for Certain Training and Testing</HD>
          <P>1. <E T="03">Applicability.</E> This SFAR applies to all part 121 and 135 check airmen (simulator) and flight instructors (simulator), part 121 aircraft dispatchers, and part 142 training center instructors who were required to complete qualification requirements, an inflight line observation program, or operating familiarization in September 2001 to become qualified, or remain qualified, to perform their assigned duties. It also applies to persons who have satisfactorily accomplished the part 61 aeronautical knowledge test or the part 63 written test, either one of which has an expiration date of September 2001 for pilot, flight instructor, or flight engineer certification.</P>
          <P>2. <E T="03">Special Qualification Requirements.</E> The sections of 14 CFR that prescribes these requirements are sections 61.39(a)(1); 63.35(d); 121.411(f); 121.412(f); 121.463(a)(2); 121.463(c); 135.337(f); 135.338(f); 142.53(b)(2) and (b)(3).</P>
          <P>3. <E T="03">Extension of Time to Fulfill Certain Qualification Requirements.</E> Persons identified in paragraph 1 of this SFAR who had until the end of September 2001 to complete the specified qualification requirements in September 2001 will be deemed to have completed those requirements in September 2001 provided they satisfactorily complete those requirements by November 30, 2001. For those persons identified in paragraph 1, who are qualifying for the first time to be a check airmen (simulator), flight instructor (simulator), aircraft dispatcher, or training center instructor, they must fulfill the applicable qualification requirements before they may serve as a check airmen (simulator), flight instructor (simulator), aircraft dispatcher, or training center instructor, as appropriate. This extension does not change the 12-calendar-month requirement for aircraft dispatchers or the anniversary month for check airmen, flight instructors and training center instructors. Therefore, if you were due for qualification in September 2001 you will be due for qualification September 2002, regardless of this extension for 2001.</P>
          <P>4. <E T="03">Termination Date.</E> This Special Federal Aviation Regulation expires November 30, 2001.</P>
          <CITA>[Doc. No. FAA-2001-10797, 66 FR 52279, Oct. 12, 2001]</CITA>
        </APPENDIX>
        <APPENDIX>
          <PRTPAGE P="9"/>
          <EAR>Pt. 61, SFAR 100</EAR>
          <HD SOURCE="HED">Special Federal Aviation Regulation No. 100—Relief for U.S. Military and Civilian Personnel Who Are Assigned Outside the United States in Support of U.S. Armed Forces Operations</HD>
          <P>1. <E T="03">Applicability.</E> Flight Standards District Offices are authorized to accept from an eligible person, as described in paragraph 2 of this SFAR, the following:</P>
          <P>(a) An expired flight instructor certificate to show eligibility for renewal of a flight instructor certificate under § 61.197, or an expired written test report to show eligibility under part 61 to take a practical test;</P>
          <P>(b) An expired written test report to show eligibility under §§ 63.33 and 63.57 to take a practical test; and</P>
          <P>(c) An expired written test report to show eligibility to take a practical test required under part 65 or an expired inspection authorization to show eligibility for renewal under § 65.93.</P>
          <P>2. <E T="03">Eligibility.</E> A person is eligible for the relief described in paragraph 1 of this SFAR if:</P>
          <P>(a) The person served in a U.S. military or civilian capacity outside the United States in support of the U.S. Armed Forces' operation during some period of time from September 11, 2001, to June 20, 2005;</P>
          <P>(b) The person's flight instructor certificate, airman written test report, or inspection authorization expired some time between September 11, 2001, and 6 calendar months after returning to the United States, or June 20, 2005, whichever is earlier; and</P>
          <P>(c) The person complies with § 61.197 or § 65.93 of this chapter, as appropriate, or completes the appropriate practical test within 6 calendar months after returning to the United States, or June 20, 2005, whichever is earlier.</P>
          <P>3. <E T="03">Required documents.</E> The person must send the Airman Certificate and/or Rating Application (FAA Form 8710-1) to the appropriate Flight Standards District Office. The person must include with the application one of the following documents, which must show the date of assignment outside the United States and the date of return to the United States:</P>
          <P>(a) An official U.S. Government notification of personnel action, or equivalent document, showing the person was a civilian on official duty for the U.S. Government outside the United States and was assigned to a U.S. Armed Forces' operation some time between September 11, 2001, and June 20, 2005;</P>
          <P>(b) Military orders showing the person was assigned to duty outside the United States and was assigned to a U.S. Armed Forces' operation some time between September 11, 2001, and June 20, 2005; or</P>
          <P>(c) A letter from the person's military commander or civilian supervisor providing the dates during which the person served outside the United States and was assigned to a U.S. Armed Forces' operation some time between September 11, 2001, and June 20, 2005.</P>
          <P>4. <E T="03">Expiration date.</E> This Special Federal Aviation Regulation No. 100 expires June 20, 2005, unless sooner superseded or rescinded.</P>
          <CITA>[Doc. No. FAA-2003-15431, 68 FR 36905, June 20, 2003]</CITA>
          <EFFDNOT>
            <HD SOURCE="HED">Effective Date Note:</HD>
            <P>By Doc. No. FAA-2003-15431, 68 FR 36905, June 20, 2003, SFAR No. 100 was added, effective June 20, 2003, through June 20, 2005.</P>
          </EFFDNOT>
        </APPENDIX>
        <SUBPART>
          <HD SOURCE="HED">Subpart A—General</HD>
          <SECTION>
            <SECTNO>§ 61.1</SECTNO>
            <SUBJECT>Applicability and definitions.</SUBJECT>
            <P>(a) This part prescribes:</P>
            <P>(1) The requirements for issuing pilot, flight instructor, and ground instructor certificates and ratings; the conditions under which those certificates and ratings are necessary; and the privileges and limitations of those certificates and ratings.</P>
            <P>(2) The requirements for issuing pilot, flight instructor, and ground instructor authorizations; the conditions under which those authorizations are necessary; and the privileges and limitations of those authorizations.</P>
            <P>(3) The requirements for issuing pilot, flight instructor, and ground instructor certificates and ratings for persons who have taken courses approved by the Administrator under other parts of this chapter.</P>
            <P>(b) For the purpose of this part:</P>
            <P>(1) <E T="03">Aeronautical experience</E> means pilot time obtained in an aircraft, flight simulator, or flight training device for meeting the appropriate training and flight time requirements for an airman certificate, rating, flight review, or recency of flight experience requirements of this part.</P>
            <P>(2) <E T="03">Authorized instructor</E> means—</P>
            <P>(i) A person who holds a valid ground instructor certificate issued under part 61 or part 143 of this chapter when conducting ground training in accordance with the privileges and limitations of his or her ground instructor certificate;</P>

            <P>(ii) A person who holds a current flight instructor certificate issued under part 61 of this chapter when conducting ground training or flight training in accordance with the privileges <PRTPAGE P="10"/>and limitations of his or her flight instructor certificate; or</P>
            <P>(iii) A person authorized by the Administrator to provide ground training or flight training under SFAR No. 58, or part 61, 121, 135, or 142 of this chapter when conducting ground training or flight training in accordance with that authority.</P>
            <P>(3) <E T="03">Cross-country time</E> means—</P>
            <P>(i) Except as provided in paragraphs (b)(3) (ii), (iii), (iv), and (v) of this section, time acquired during a flight—</P>
            <P>(A) Conducted by a person who holds a pilot certificate;</P>
            <P>(B) Conducted in an aircraft;</P>
            <P>(C) That includes a landing at a point other than the point of departure; and</P>
            <P>(D) That involves the use of dead reckoning, pilotage, electronic navigation aids, radio aids, or other navigation systems to navigate to the landing point.</P>
            <P>(ii) For the purpose of meeting the aeronautical experience requirements (except for a rotorcraft category rating), for a private pilot certificate, a commercial pilot certificate, or an instrument rating, or for the purpose of exercising recreational pilot privileges (except in a rotorcraft) under § 61.101(c), time acquired during a flight—</P>
            <P>(A) Conducted in an appropriate aircraft;</P>
            <P>(B) That includes a point of landing that was at least a straight-line distance of more than 50 nautical miles from the original point of departure; and</P>
            <P>(C) That involves the use of dead reckoning, pilotage, electronic navigation aids, radio aids, or other navigation systems to navigate to the landing point.</P>
            <P>(iii) For the purpose of meeting the aeronautical experience requirements for any pilot certificate with a rotorcraft category rating or an instrument-helicopter rating, or for the purpose of exercising recreational pilot privileges, in a rotorcraft, under § 61.101(c), time acquired during a flight—</P>
            <P>(A) Conducted in an appropriate aircraft;</P>
            <P>(B) That includes a point of landing that was at least a straight-line distance of more than 25 nautical miles from the original point of departure; and</P>
            <P>(C) That involves the use of dead reckoning, pilotage, electronic navigation aids, radio aids, or other navigation systems to navigate to the landing point.</P>
            <P>(iv) For the purpose of meeting the aeronautical experience requirements for an airline transport pilot certificate (except with a rotorcraft category rating), time acquired during a flight—</P>
            <P>(A) Conducted in an appropriate aircraft;</P>
            <P>(B) That is at least a straight-line distance of more than 50 nautical miles from the original point of departure; and</P>
            <P>(C) That involves the use of dead reckoning, pilotage, electronic navigation aids, radio aids, or other navigation systems.</P>
            <P>(v) For a military pilot who qualifies for a commercial pilot certificate (except with a rotorcraft category rating) under § 61.73 of this part, time acquired during a flight—</P>
            <P>(A) Conducted in an appropriate aircraft;</P>
            <P>(B) That is at least a straight-line distance of more than 50 nautical miles from the original point of departure; and</P>
            <P>(C) That involves the use of dead reckoning, pilotage, electronic navigation aids, radio aids, or other navigation systems.</P>
            <P>(4) <E T="03">Examiner</E> means any person who is authorized by the Administrator to conduct a pilot proficiency test or a practical test for an airman certificate or rating issued under this part, or a person who is authorized to conduct a knowledge test under this part.</P>
            <P>(5) <E T="03">Flight simulator</E> means a device that—</P>
            <P>(i) Is a full-size aircraft cockpit replica of a specific type of aircraft, or make, model, and series of aircraft;</P>
            <P>(ii) Includes the hardware and software necessary to represent the aircraft in ground operations and flight operations;</P>
            <P>(iii) Uses a force cueing system that provides cues at least equivalent to those cues provided by a 3 degree freedom of motion system;</P>

            <P>(iv) Uses a visual system that provides at least a 45 degree horizontal field of view and a 30 degree vertical <PRTPAGE P="11"/>field of view simultaneously for each pilot; and</P>
            <P>(v) Has been evaluated, qualified, and approved by the Administrator.</P>
            <P>(6) <E T="03">Flight training</E> means that training, other than ground training, received from an authorized instructor in flight in an aircraft.</P>
            <P>(7) <E T="03">Flight training device</E> means a device that—</P>
            <P>(i) Is a full-size replica of the instruments, equipment, panels, and controls of an aircraft, or set of aircraft, in an open flight deck area or in an enclosed cockpit, including the hardware and software for the systems installed, that is necessary to simulate the aircraft in ground and flight operations;</P>
            <P>(ii) Need not have a force (motion) cueing or visual system; and</P>
            <P>(iii) Has been evaluated, qualified, and approved by the Administrator.</P>
            <P>(8) <E T="03">Ground training</E> means that training, other than flight training, received from an authorized instructor.</P>
            <P>(9) <E T="03">Instrument approach</E> means an approach procedure defined in part 97 of this chapter.</P>
            <P>(10) <E T="03">Instrument training</E> means that time in which instrument training is received from an authorized instructor under actual or simulated instrument conditions.</P>
            <P>(11) <E T="03">Knowledge test</E> means a test on the aeronautical knowledge areas required for an airman certificate or rating that can be administered in written form or by a computer.</P>
            <P>(12) <E T="03">Pilot time</E> means that time in which a person—</P>
            <P>(i) Serves as a required pilot flight crewmember;</P>
            <P>(ii) Receives training from an authorized instructor in an aircraft, flight simulator, or flight training device; or</P>
            <P>(iii) Gives training as an authorized instructor in an aircraft, flight simulator, or flight training device.</P>
            <P>(13) <E T="03">Practical test</E> means a test on the areas of operations for an airman certificate, rating, or authorization that is conducted by having the applicant respond to questions and demonstrate maneuvers in flight, in a flight simulator, or in a flight training device.</P>
            <P>(14) <E T="03">Set of aircraft</E> means aircraft that share similar performance characteristics, such as similar airspeed and altitude operating envelopes, similar handling characteristics, and the same number and type of propulsion systems.</P>
            <P>(15) <E T="03">Training time</E> means training received—</P>
            <P>(i) In flight from an authorized instructor;</P>
            <P>(ii) On the ground from an authorized instructor; or</P>
            <P>(iii) In a flight simulator or flight training device from an authorized instructor.</P>
            <CITA>[Doc. No. 25910, 62 FR 16298, Apr. 4, 1997; Amdt. 61-103, 62 FR 40893, July 30, 1997]</CITA>
          </SECTION>
          <SECTION>
            <SECTNO>§ 61.3</SECTNO>
            <SUBJECT>Requirement for certificates, ratings, and authorizations.</SUBJECT>
            <P>(a) <E T="03">Pilot certificate.</E> A person may not act as pilot in command or in any other capacity as a required pilot flight crewmember of a civil aircraft of U.S. registry, unless that person—</P>
            <P>(1) Has a valid pilot certificate or special purpose pilot authorization issued under this part in that person's physical possession or readily accessible in the aircraft when exercising the privileges of that pilot certificate or authorization. However, when the aircraft is operated within a foreign country, a current pilot license issued by the country in which the aircraft is operated may be used; and</P>
            <P>(2) Has a photo identification that is in that person's physical possession or readily accessible in the aircraft when exercising the privileges of that pilot certificate or authorization. The photo identification must be a:</P>
            <P>(i) Valid driver's license issued by a State, the District of Columbia, or territory or possession of the United States;</P>
            <P>(ii) Government identification card issued by the Federal government, a State, the District of Columbia, or a territory or possession of the United States;</P>
            <P>(iii) U.S. Armed Forces' identification card;</P>
            <P>(iv) Official passport;</P>
            <P>(v) Credential that authorizes unescorted access to a security identification display area at an airport regulated under 49 CFR part 1542; or</P>

            <P>(vi) Other form of identification that the Administrator finds acceptable.<PRTPAGE P="12"/>
            </P>
            <P>(b) <E T="03">Required pilot certificate for operating a foreign-registered aircraft</E>. A person may not act as pilot in command or in any other capacity as a required pilot flight crewmember of a civil aircraft of foreign registry within the United States, unless that person's pilot certificate:</P>
            <P>(1) Is valid and in that person's physical possession, or readily accessible in the aircraft when exercising the privileges of that pilot certificate; and</P>
            <P>(2) Has been issued under this part, or has been issued or validated by the country in which the aircraft is registered.</P>
            <P>(c) <E T="03">Medical certificate</E>.(1) Except as provided for in paragraph (c)(2) of this section, a person may not act as pilot in command or in any other capacity as a required pilot flight crewmember of an aircraft, under a certificate issued to that person under this part, unless that person has a current and appropriate medical certificate that has been issued under part 67 of this chapter, or other documentation acceptable to the Administrator, which is in that person's physical possession or readily accessible in the aircraft.</P>
            <P>(2) A person is not required to meet the requirements of paragraph (c)(1) of this section if that person—</P>
            <P>(i) Is exercising the privileges of a student pilot certificate while seeking a pilot certificate with a glider category rating or balloon class rating;</P>
            <P>(ii) Is holding a pilot certificate with a balloon class rating and is piloting or providing training in a balloon as appropriate;</P>
            <P>(iii) Is holding a pilot certificate or a flight instructor certificate with a glider category rating, and is piloting or providing training in a glider, as appropriate;</P>
            <P>(iv) Except as provided in paragraph (c)(2)(iii) of this section, is exercising the privileges of a flight instructor certificate, provided the person is not acting as pilot in command or as a required pilot flight crewmember;</P>
            <P>(v) Is exercising the privileges of a ground instructor certificate;</P>
            <P>(vi) Is operating an aircraft within a foreign country using a pilot license issued by that country and possesses evidence of current medical qualification for that license; or</P>
            <P>(vii) Is operating an aircraft with a U.S. pilot certificate, issued on the basis of a foreign pilot license, issued under § 61.75 of this part, and holds a current medical certificate issued by the foreign country that issued the foreign pilot license, which is in that person's physical possession or readily accessible in the aircraft when exercising the privileges of that airman certificate.</P>
            <P>(d) <E T="03">Flight instructor certificate</E>. (1) A person who holds a flight instructor certificate issued under this part must have that certificate, or other documentation acceptable to the Administrator, in that person's physical possession or readily accessible in the aircraft when exercising the privileges of that flight instructor certificate.</P>
            <P>(2) Except as provided in paragraph (d)(3) of this section, no person other than the holder of a flight instructor certificate issued under this part with the appropriate rating on that certificate may—</P>
            <P>(i) Give training required to qualify a person for solo flight and solo cross-country flight;</P>
            <P>(ii) Endorse an applicant for a—</P>
            <P>(A) Pilot certificate or rating issued under this part;</P>
            <P>(B) Flight instructor certificate or rating issued under this part; or</P>
            <P>(C) Ground instructor certificate or rating issued under this part;</P>
            <P>(iii) Endorse a pilot logbook to show training given; or</P>
            <P>(iv) Endorse a student pilot certificate and logbook for solo operating privileges.</P>
            <P>(3) A flight instructor certificate issued under this part is not necessary—</P>
            <P>(i) Under paragraph (d)(2) of this section, if the training is given by the holder of a commercial pilot certificate with a lighter-than-air rating, provided the training is given in accordance with the privileges of the certificate in a lighter-than-air aircraft;</P>

            <P>(ii) Under paragraph (d)(2) of this section, if the training is given by the holder of an airline transport pilot certificate with a rating appropriate to the aircraft in which the training is given, provided the training is given in accordance with the privileges of the <PRTPAGE P="13"/>certificate and conducted in accordance with an approved air carrier training program approved under part 121 or part 135 of this chapter;</P>
            <P>(iii) Under paragraph (d)(2) of this section, if the training is given by a person who is qualified in accordance with subpart C of part 142 of this chapter, provided the training is conducted in accordance with an approved part 142 training program;</P>
            <P>(iv) Under paragraphs (d)(2)(i), (d)(2)(ii)(C), and (d)(2)(iii) of this section, if the training is given by the holder of a ground instructor certificate in accordance with the privileges of the certificate; or</P>
            <P>(v) Under paragraph (d)(2)(iii) of this section, if the training is given by an authorized flight instructor under § 61.41 of this part.</P>
            <P>(e) <E T="03">Instrument rating</E>. No person may act as pilot in command of a civil aircraft under IFR or in weather conditions less than the minimums prescribed for VFR flight unless that person holds:</P>
            <P>(1) The appropriate aircraft category, class, type (if required), and instrument rating on that person's pilot certificate for any airplane, helicopter, or powered-lift being flown;</P>
            <P>(2) An airline transport pilot certificate with the appropriate aircraft category, class, and type rating (if required) for the aircraft being flown;</P>
            <P>(3) For a glider, a pilot certificate with a glider category rating and an airplane instrument rating; or</P>
            <P>(4) For an airship, a commercial pilot certificate with a lighter-than-air category rating and airship class rating.</P>
            <P>(f) <E T="03">Category II pilot authorization</E>. Except for a pilot conducting Category II operations under part 121 or part 135, a person may not:</P>
            <P>(1) Act as pilot in command of a civil aircraft during Category II operations unless that person—</P>
            <P>(i) Holds a current Category II pilot authorization for that category or class of aircraft, and the type of aircraft, if applicable; or</P>
            <P>(ii) In the case of a civil aircraft of foreign registry, is authorized by the country of registry to act as pilot in command of that aircraft in Category II operations.</P>
            <P>(2) Act as second in command of a civil aircraft during Category II operations unless that person—</P>
            <P>(i) Holds a valid pilot certificate with category and class ratings for that aircraft and a current instrument rating for that category aircraft;</P>
            <P>(ii) Holds an airline transport pilot certificate with category and class ratings for that aircraft; or</P>
            <P>(iii) In the case of a civil aircraft of foreign registry, is authorized by the country of registry to act as second in command of that aircraft during Category II operations.</P>
            <P>(g) <E T="03">Category III pilot authorization</E>. Except for a pilot conducting Category III operations under part 121 or part 135, a person may not:</P>
            <P>(1) Act as pilot in command of a civil aircraft during Category III operations unless that person—</P>
            <P>(i) Holds a current Category III pilot authorization for that category or class of aircraft, and the type of aircraft, if applicable; or</P>
            <P>(ii) In the case of a civil aircraft of foreign registry, is authorized by the country of registry to act as pilot in command of that aircraft in Category III operations.</P>
            <P>(2) Act as second in command of a civil aircraft during Category III operations unless that person—</P>
            <P>(i) Holds a valid pilot certificate with category and class ratings for that aircraft and a current instrument rating for that category aircraft;</P>
            <P>(ii) Holds an airline transport pilot certificate with category and class ratings for that aircraft; or</P>
            <P>(iii) In the case of a civil aircraft of foreign registry, is authorized by the country of registry to act as second in command of that aircraft during Category III operations.</P>
            <P>(h) <E T="03">Category A aircraft pilot authorization</E>. The Administrator may issue a certificate of authorization for a Category II or Category III operation to the pilot of a small aircraft that is a Category A aircraft, as identified in § 97.3(b)(1) of this chapter if:</P>

            <P>(1) The Administrator determines that the Category II or Category III operation can be performed safely by that pilot under the terms of the certificate of authorization; and<PRTPAGE P="14"/>
            </P>
            <P>(2) The Category II or Category III operation does not involve the carriage of persons or property for compensation or hire.</P>
            <P>(i) <E T="03">Ground instructor certificate</E>. (1) Each person who holds a ground instructor certificate issued under this part or part 143 must have that certificate in that person's physical possession or immediately accessible when exercising the privileges of that certificate.</P>
            <P>(2) Except as provided in paragraph (i)(3) of this section, no person other than the holder of a ground instructor certificate, issued under this part or part 143, with the appropriate rating on that certificate may—</P>
            <P>(i) Give ground training required to qualify a person for solo flight and solo cross-country flight;</P>
            <P>(ii) Endorse an applicant for a knowledge test required for a pilot, flight instructor, or ground instructor certificate or rating issued under this part; or</P>
            <P>(iii) Endorse a pilot logbook to show ground training given.</P>
            <P>(3) A ground instructor certificate issued under this part is not necessary—</P>
            <P>(i) Under paragraph (i)(2) of this section, if the training is given by the holder of a flight instructor certificate issued under this part in accordance with the privileges of that certificate;</P>
            <P>(ii) Under paragraph (i)(2) of this section, if the training is given by the holder of a commercial pilot certificate with a lighter-than-air rating, provided the training is given in accordance with the privileges of the certificate in a lighter-than-air aircraft;</P>
            <P>(iii) Under paragraph (i)(2) of this section, if the training is given by the holder of an airline transport pilot certificate with a rating appropriate to the aircraft in which the training is given, provided the training is given in accordance with the privileges of the certificate and conducted in accordance with an approved air carrier training program approved under part 121 or part 135 of this chapter;</P>
            <P>(iv) Under paragraph (i)(2) of this section, if the training is given by a person who is qualified in accordance with subpart C of part 142 of this chapter, provided the training is conducted in accordance with an approved part 142 training program; or</P>
            <P>(v) Under paragraph (i)(2)(iii) of this section, if the training is given by an authorized flight instructor under § 61.41 of this part.</P>
            <P>(j) <E T="03">Age limitation for certain operations</E>.</P>
            <P>(1) <E T="03">Age limitation</E>. Except as provided in paragraph (j)(3) of this section, no person who holds a pilot certificate issued under this part shall serve as a pilot on a civil airplane of U.S. registry in the following operations if the person has reached his or her 60th birthday—</P>
            <P>(i) Scheduled international air services carrying passengers in turbojet-powered airplanes;</P>
            <P>(ii) Scheduled international air services carrying passengers in airplanes having a passenger-seat configuration of more than nine passenger seats, excluding each crewmember seat;</P>
            <P>(iii) Nonscheduled international air transportation for compensation or hire in airplanes having a passenger-seat configuration of more than 30 passenger seats, excluding each crewmember seat; or</P>
            <P>(iv) Scheduled international air services, or nonscheduled international air transportation for compensation or hire, in airplanes having a payload capacity of more than 7,500 pounds.</P>
            <P>(2) <E T="03">Definitions</E>. (i) “International air service,” as used in paragraph (j) of this section, means scheduled air service performed in airplanes for the public transport of passengers, mail, or cargo, in which the service passes through the airspace over the territory of more than one country.</P>
            <P>(ii) “International air transportation,” as used in paragraph (j) of this section, means air transportation performed in airplanes for the public transport of passengers, mail, or cargo, in which the service passes through the airspace over the territory of more than one country.</P>
            <P>(3) <E T="03">Delayed pilot age limitation</E>. Until December 20, 1999, a person may serve as a pilot in operations covered by this paragraph after that person has reached his or her 60th birthday if, on March 20, 1997, that person was employed as a pilot in operations covered by this paragraph.<PRTPAGE P="15"/>
            </P>
            <P>(k) <E T="03">Special purpose pilot authorization</E>. Any person that is required to hold a special purpose pilot authorization, issued in accordance with § 61.77 of this part, must have that authorization and the person's foreign pilot license in that person's physical possession or have it readily accessible in the aircraft when exercising the privileges of that authorization.</P>
            <P>(l) <E T="03">Inspection of certificate.</E> Each person who holds an airman certificate, medical certificate, authorization, or license required by this part must present it and their photo identification as described in paragraph (a)(2) of this section for inspection upon a request from:</P>
            <P>(1) The Administrator;</P>
            <P>(2) An authorized representative of the National Transportation Safety Board;</P>
            <P>(3) Any Federal, State, or local law enforcement officer; or</P>
            <P>(4) An authorized representative of the Transportation Security Administration.</P>
            <CITA>[Doc. No. 25910, 62 FR 16298, Apr. 4, 1997; Amdt. 61-103, 62 FR 40894, July 30, 1997; Amdt. 61-107, 67 FR 65861, Oct. 28, 2002]</CITA>
          </SECTION>
          <SECTION>
            <SECTNO>§ 61.4</SECTNO>
            <SUBJECT>Qualification and approval of flight simulators and flight training devices.</SUBJECT>
            <P>(a) Except as specified in paragraph (b) or (c) of this section, each flight simulator and flight training device used for training, and for which an airman is to receive credit to satisfy any training, testing, or checking requirement under this chapter, must be qualified and approved by the Administrator for—</P>
            <P>(1) The training, testing, and checking for which it is used;</P>
            <P>(2) Each particular maneuver, procedure, or crewmember function performed; and</P>
            <P>(3) The representation of the specific category and class of aircraft, type of aircraft, particular variation within the type of aircraft, or set of aircraft for certain flight training devices.</P>
            <P>(b) Any device used for flight training, testing, or checking that has been determined to be acceptable to or approved by the Administrator prior to August 1, 1996, which can be shown to function as originally designed, is considered to be a flight training device, provided it is used for the same purposes for which it was originally accepted or approved and only to the extent of such acceptance or approval.</P>
            <P>(c) The Administrator may approve a device other than a flight simulator or flight training device for specific purposes.</P>
            <CITA>[Doc. No. 25910, 62 FR 16298, Apr. 4, 1997; Amdt. 61-103, 62 FR 40895, July 30, 1997]</CITA>
          </SECTION>
          <SECTION>
            <SECTNO>§ 61.5</SECTNO>
            <SUBJECT>Certificates and ratings issued under this part.</SUBJECT>
            <P>(a) The following certificates are issued under this part to an applicant who satisfactorily accomplishes the training and certification requirements for the certificate sought:</P>
            <P>(1) Pilot certificates—</P>
            <P>(i) Student pilot.</P>
            <P>(ii) Recreational pilot.</P>
            <P>(iii) Private pilot.</P>
            <P>(iv) Commercial pilot.</P>
            <P>(v) Airline transport pilot.</P>
            <P>(2) Flight instructor certificates.</P>
            <P>(3) Ground instructor certificates.</P>
            <P>(b) The following ratings are placed on a pilot certificate (other than student pilot) when an applicant satisfactorily accomplishes the training and certification requirements for the rating sought:</P>
            <P>(1) Aircraft category ratings—</P>
            <P>(i) Airplane.</P>
            <P>(ii) Rotorcraft.</P>
            <P>(iii) Glider.</P>
            <P>(iv) Lighter-than-air.</P>
            <P>(v) Powered-lift.</P>
            <P>(2) Airplane class ratings—</P>
            <P>(i) Single-engine land.</P>
            <P>(ii) Multiengine land.</P>
            <P>(iii) Single-engine sea.</P>
            <P>(iv) Multiengine sea.</P>
            <P>(3) Rotorcraft class ratings—</P>
            <P>(i) Helicopter.</P>
            <P>(ii) Gyroplane.</P>
            <P>(4) Lighter-than-air class ratings—</P>
            <P>(i) Airship.</P>
            <P>(ii) Balloon.</P>
            <P>(5) Aircraft type ratings—</P>
            <P>(i) Large aircraft other than lighter-than-air.</P>
            <P>(ii) Turbojet-powered airplanes.</P>

            <P>(iii) Other aircraft type ratings specified by the Administrator through the aircraft type certification procedures.<PRTPAGE P="16"/>
            </P>
            <P>(6) Instrument ratings (on private and commercial pilot certificates only)—</P>
            <P>(i) Instrument—Airplane.</P>
            <P>(ii) Instrument—Helicopter.</P>
            <P>(iii) Instrument—Powered-lift.</P>
            <P>(c) The following ratings are placed on a flight instructor certificate when an applicant satisfactorily accomplishes the training and certification requirements for the rating sought:</P>
            <P>(1) Aircraft category ratings—</P>
            <P>(i) Airplane.</P>
            <P>(ii) Rotorcraft.</P>
            <P>(iii) Glider.</P>
            <P>(iv) Powered-lift.</P>
            <P>(2) Airplane class ratings—</P>
            <P>(i) Single-engine.</P>
            <P>(ii) Multiengine.</P>
            <P>(3) Rotorcraft class ratings—</P>
            <P>(i) Helicopter.</P>
            <P>(ii) Gyroplane.</P>
            <P>(4) Instrument ratings—</P>
            <P>(i) Instrument—Airplane.</P>
            <P>(ii) Instrument—Helicopter.</P>
            <P>(iii) Instrument—Powered-lift.</P>
            <P>(d) The following ratings are placed on a ground instructor certificate when an applicant satisfactorily accomplishes the training and certification requirements for the rating sought:</P>
            <P>(1) Basic.</P>
            <P>(2) Advanced.</P>
            <P>(3) Instrument.</P>
          </SECTION>
          <SECTION>
            <SECTNO>§ 61.7</SECTNO>
            <SUBJECT>Obsolete certificates and ratings.</SUBJECT>
            <P>(a) The holder of a free-balloon pilot certificate issued before November 1, 1973, may not exercise the privileges of that certificate.</P>
            <P>(b) The holder of a pilot certificate that bears any of the following category ratings without an associated class rating may not exercise the privileges of that category rating:</P>
            <P>(1) Rotorcraft.</P>
            <P>(2) Lighter-than-air.</P>
            <P>(3) Helicopter.</P>
            <P>(4) Autogyro.</P>
          </SECTION>
          <SECTION>
            <SECTNO>§ 61.9</SECTNO>
            <RESERVED>[Reserved]</RESERVED>
          </SECTION>
          <SECTION>
            <SECTNO>§ 61.11</SECTNO>
            <SUBJECT> Expired pilot certificates and reissuance.</SUBJECT>
            <P>(a) No person who holds an expired pilot certificate or rating may:</P>
            <P>(1) Exercise the privileges of that pilot certificate or rating; or</P>
            <P>(2) Act as pilot in command or as a required pilot flight crewmember of an aircraft of the same category and class specified on the expired pilot certificate or rating.</P>
            <P>(b) The following pilot certificates and ratings have expired and will not be reissued:</P>
            <P>(1) An airline transport pilot certificate issued before May 1, 1949, or an airline transport pilot certificate that contains a horsepower limitation;</P>
            <P>(2) A private or commercial pilot certificate issued before July 1, 1945; and</P>
            <P>(3) A pilot certificate with a lighter-than-air or free-balloon rating issued before July 1, 1945.</P>
            <P>(c) A pilot certificate issued on the basis of a foreign pilot license will expire on the date the foreign license expires unless otherwise specified on the U.S. pilot certificate. A certificate without an expiration date is issued to the holder of the expired certificate only if that person meets the requirements of § 61.75 for the issuance of a pilot certificate based on a foreign pilot license.</P>
            <P>(d) An airline transport pilot certificate issued after April 30, 1949, that bears an expiration date but does not contain a horsepower limitation may be reissued without an expiration date.</P>
            <P>(e) A private or commercial pilot certificate issued after June 30, 1945, that bears an expiration date may be reissued without an expiration date.</P>
            <P>(f) A pilot certificate with a lighter-than-air or free-balloon rating issued after June 30, 1945, that bears an expiration date may be reissued without an expiration date.</P>
            <CITA>[Doc. No. 25910, 62 FR 16298, Apr. 4, 1997; Amdt. 61-103, 62 FR 40895, July 30, 1997]</CITA>
          </SECTION>
          <SECTION>
            <SECTNO>§ 61.13</SECTNO>
            <SUBJECT>Issuance of airman certificates, ratings, and authorizations.</SUBJECT>
            <P>(a) <E T="03">Application</E>. (1) An applicant for an airman certificate, rating, or authorization under this part must make that application on a form and in a manner acceptable to the Administrator.</P>
            <P>(2) An applicant who is neither a citizen of the United States nor a resident alien of the United States—</P>

            <P>(i) Must show evidence that the appropriate fee prescribed in appendix A <PRTPAGE P="17"/>to part 187 of this chapter has been paid when that person applies for a—</P>
            <P>(A) Student pilot certificate that is issued outside the United States; or</P>
            <P>(B) Knowledge test or practical test for an airman certificate or rating issued under this part, if the test is administered outside the United States.</P>
            <P>(ii) May be refused issuance of any U.S. airman certificate, rating, or authorization by the Administrator.</P>
            <P>(3) Except as provided in paragraph (a)(2)(ii) of this section, an applicant who satisfactorily accomplishes the training and certification requirements for the certificate, rating, or authorization sought is entitled to receive that airman certificate, rating, or authorization.</P>
            <P>(b) <E T="03">Limitations</E>. (1) An applicant who cannot comply with certain areas of operation required on the practical test because of physical limitations may be issued an airman certificate, rating, or authorization with the appropriate limitation placed on the applicant's airman certificate provided the—</P>
            <P>(i) Applicant is able to meet all other certification requirements for the airman certificate, rating, or authorization sought;</P>
            <P>(ii) Physical limitation has been recorded with the FAA on the applicant's medical records; and</P>
            <P>(iii) Administrator determines that the applicant's inability to perform the particular area of operation will not adversely affect safety.</P>
            <P>(2) A limitation placed on a person's airman certificate may be removed, provided that person demonstrates for an examiner satisfactory proficiency in the area of operation appropriate to the airman certificate, rating, or authorization sought.</P>
            <P>(c) <E T="03">Additional requirements for Category II and Category III pilot authorizations</E>. (1) A Category II or Category III pilot authorization is issued by a letter of authorization as part of an applicant's instrument rating or airline transport pilot certificate.</P>
            <P>(2) Upon original issue, the authorization contains the following limitations:</P>
            <P>(i) For Category II operations, the limitation is 1,600 feet RVR and a 150-foot decision height; and</P>
            <P>(ii) For Category III operations, each initial limitation is specified in the authorization document.</P>
            <P>(3) The limitations on a Category II or Category III pilot authorization may be removed as follows:</P>
            <P>(i) In the case of Category II limitations, a limitation is removed when the holder shows that, since the beginning of the sixth preceding month, the holder has made three Category II ILS approaches with a 150-foot decision height to a landing under actual or simulated instrument conditions.</P>
            <P>(ii) In the case of Category III limitations, a limitation is removed as specified in the authorization.</P>
            <P>(4) To meet the experience requirements of paragraph (c)(3) of this section, and for the practical test required by this part for a Category II or a Category III pilot authorization, a flight simulator or flight training device may be used if it is approved by the Administrator for such use.</P>
            <P>(d) <E T="03">Application during suspension or revocation.</E> (1) Unless otherwise authorized by the Administrator, a person whose pilot, flight instructor, or ground instructor certificate has been suspended may not apply for any certificate, rating, or authorization during the period of suspension.</P>
            <P>(2) Unless otherwise authorized by the Administrator, a person whose pilot, flight instructor, or ground instructor certificate has been revoked may not apply for any certificate, rating, or authorization for 1 year after the date of revocation.</P>
            <CITA>[Doc. No. 25910, 62 FR 40895, July 30, 1997]</CITA>
          </SECTION>
          <SECTION>
            <SECTNO>§ 61.14</SECTNO>
            <SUBJECT>Refusal to submit to a drug or alcohol test.</SUBJECT>
            <P>(a) This section applies to an employee who performs a function listed in appendix I to part 121 or appendix J to part 121 of this chapter directly or by contract for a part 121 air carrier, a part 135 air carrier, or for a person conducting operations as specified in § 135.1(a)(5) of this chapter.</P>

            <P>(b) Refusal by the holder of a certificate issued under this part to take a drug test required under the provisions of appendix I to part 121 or an alcohol test required under the provisions of appendix J to part 121 is grounds for:<PRTPAGE P="18"/>
            </P>
            <P>(1) Denial of an application for any certificate, rating, or authorization issued under this part for a period of up to 1 year after the date of such refusal; and</P>
            <P>(2) Suspension or revocation of any certificate, rating, or authorization issued under this part.</P>
          </SECTION>
          <SECTION>
            <SECTNO>§ 61.15</SECTNO>
            <SUBJECT>Offenses involving alcohol or drugs.</SUBJECT>
            <P>(a) A conviction for the violation of any Federal or State statute relating to the growing, processing, manufacture, sale, disposition, possession, transportation, or importation of narcotic drugs, marijuana, or depressant or stimulant drugs or substances is grounds for:</P>
            <P>(1) Denial of an application for any certificate, rating, or authorization issued under this part for a period of up to 1 year after the date of final conviction; or</P>
            <P>(2) Suspension or revocation of any certificate, rating, or authorization issued under this part.</P>
            <P>(b) Committing an act prohibited by § 91.17(a) or § 91.19(a) of this chapter is grounds for:</P>
            <P>(1) Denial of an application for a certificate, rating, or authorization issued under this part for a period of up to 1 year after the date of that act; or</P>
            <P>(2) Suspension or revocation of any certificate, rating, or authorization issued under this part.</P>
            <P>(c) For the purposes of paragraphs (d), (e), and (f) of this section, a motor vehicle action means:</P>
            <P>(1) A conviction after November 29, 1990, for the violation of any Federal or State statute relating to the operation of a motor vehicle while intoxicated by alcohol or a drug, while impaired by alcohol or a drug, or while under the influence of alcohol or a drug;</P>
            <P>(2) The cancellation, suspension, or revocation of a license to operate a motor vehicle after November 29, 1990, for a cause related to the operation of a motor vehicle while intoxicated by alcohol or a drug, while impaired by alcohol or a drug, or while under the influence of alcohol or a drug; or</P>
            <P>(3) The denial after November 29, 1990, of an application for a license to operate a motor vehicle for a cause related to the operation of a motor vehicle while intoxicated by alcohol or a drug, while impaired by alcohol or a drug, or while under the influence of alcohol or a drug.</P>
            <P>(d) Except for a motor vehicle action that results from the same incident or arises out of the same factual circumstances, a motor vehicle action occurring within 3 years of a previous motor vehicle action is grounds for:</P>
            <P>(1) Denial of an application for any certificate, rating, or authorization issued under this part for a period of up to 1 year after the date of the last motor vehicle action; or</P>
            <P>(2) Suspension or revocation of any certificate, rating, or authorization issued under this part.</P>
            <P>(e) Each person holding a certificate issued under this part shall provide a written report of each motor vehicle action to the FAA, Civil Aviation Security Division (AMC-700), P.O. Box 25810, Oklahoma City, OK 73125, not later than 60 days after the motor vehicle action. The report must include:</P>
            <P>(1) The person's name, address, date of birth, and airman certificate number;</P>
            <P>(2) The type of violation that resulted in the conviction or the administrative action;</P>
            <P>(3) The date of the conviction or administrative action;</P>
            <P>(4) The State that holds the record of conviction or administrative action; and</P>
            <P>(5) A statement of whether the motor vehicle action resulted from the same incident or arose out of the same factual circumstances related to a previously reported motor vehicle action.</P>
            <P>(f) Failure to comply with paragraph (e) of this section is grounds for:</P>
            <P>(1) Denial of an application for any certificate, rating, or authorization issued under this part for a period of up to 1 year after the date of the motor vehicle action; or</P>
            <P>(2) Suspension or revocation of any certificate, rating, or authorization issued under this part.</P>
          </SECTION>
          <SECTION>
            <SECTNO>§ 61.16</SECTNO>
            <SUBJECT>Refusal to submit to an alcohol test or to furnish test results.</SUBJECT>

            <P>A refusal to submit to a test to indicate the percentage by weight of alcohol in the blood, when requested by a law enforcement officer in accordance <PRTPAGE P="19"/>with § 91.17(c) of this chapter, or a refusal to furnish or authorize the release of the test results requested by the Administrator in accordance with § 91.17(c) or (d) of this chapter, is grounds for:</P>
            <P>(a) Denial of an application for any certificate, rating, or authorization issued under this part for a period of up to 1 year after the date of that refusal; or</P>
            <P>(b) Suspension or revocation of any certificate, rating, or authorization issued under this part.</P>
          </SECTION>
          <SECTION>
            <SECTNO>§ 61.17</SECTNO>
            <SUBJECT>Temporary certificate.</SUBJECT>
            <P>(a) A temporary pilot, flight instructor, or ground instructor certificate or rating is issued for up to 120 days, at which time a permanent certificate will be issued to a person whom the Administrator finds qualified under this part.</P>
            <P>(b) A temporary pilot, flight instructor, or ground instructor certificate or rating expires:</P>
            <P>(1) On the expiration date shown on the certificate;</P>
            <P>(2) Upon receipt of the permanent certificate; or</P>
            <P>(3) Upon receipt of a notice that the certificate or rating sought is denied or revoked.</P>
          </SECTION>
          <SECTION>
            <SECTNO>§ 61.18</SECTNO>
            <SUBJECT>Security disqualification.</SUBJECT>
            <P>(a)<E T="03">Eligibility standard.</E> No person is eligible to hold a certificate, rating, or authorization issued under this part when the Transportation Security Administration (TSA) has notified the FAA in writing that the person poses a security threat.</P>
            <P>(b) <E T="03">Effect of the issuance by the TSA of an Initial Notification of Threat Assessment.</E> (1) The FAA will hold in abeyance pending the outcome of the TSA's final threat assessment review an application for any certificate, rating, or authorization under this part by any person who has been issued an Initial Notification of Threat Assessment by the TSA.</P>
            <P>(2) The FAA will suspend any certificate, rating, or authorization issued under this part after the TSA issues to the holder an Initial Notification of Threat Assessment.</P>
            <P>(c) <E T="03">Effect of the issuance by the TSA of a Final Notification of Threat Assessment.</E> (1) The FAA will deny an application for any certificate, rating, or authorization under this part to any person who has been issued a Final Notification of Threat Assessment.</P>
            <P>(2) The FAA will revoke any certificate, rating, or authorization issued under this part after the TSA has issued to the holder a Final Notification of Threat Assessment.</P>
            <CITA>[Doc. FAA-2003-14293, 68 FR 3774, Jan. 24, 2003]</CITA>
          </SECTION>
          <SECTION>
            <SECTNO>§ 61.19</SECTNO>
            <SUBJECT>Duration of pilot and instructor certificates.</SUBJECT>
            <P>(a) <E T="03">General.</E> The holder of a certificate with an expiration date may not, after that date, exercise the privileges of that certificate.</P>
            <P>(b) <E T="03">Student pilot certificate.</E> A student pilot certificate expires 24 calendar months from the month in which it is issued.</P>
            <P>(c) <E T="03">Other pilot certificates.</E> A pilot certificate (other than a student pilot certificate) issued under this part is issued without a specific expiration date. The holder of a pilot certificate issued on the basis of a foreign pilot license may exercise the privileges of that certificate only while that person's foreign pilot license is effective.</P>
            <P>(d) <E T="03">Flight instructor certificate.</E> A flight instructor certificate:</P>
            <P>(1) Is effective only while the holder has a current pilot certificate; and</P>
            <P>(2) Except as specified in § 61.197(b) of this part, expires 24 calendar months from the month in which it was issued or renewed.</P>
            <P>(e) <E T="03">Ground instructor certificate.</E> A ground instructor certificate issued under this part is issued without a specific expiration date.</P>
            <P>(f) <E T="03">Surrender, suspension, or revocation.</E> Any certificate issued under this part ceases to be effective if it is surrendered, suspended, or revoked.</P>
            <P>(g) <E T="03">Return of certificates.</E> The holder of any certificate issued under this part that has been suspended or revoked must return that certificate to the FAA when requested to do so by the Administrator.</P>
          </SECTION>
          <SECTION>
            <PRTPAGE P="20"/>
            <SECTNO>§ 61.21</SECTNO>
            <SUBJECT>Duration of a Category II and a Category III pilot authorization (for other than part 121 and part 135 use).</SUBJECT>
            <P>(a) A Category II pilot authorization or a Category III pilot authorization expires at the end of the sixth calendar month after the month in which it was issued or renewed.</P>
            <P>(b) Upon passing a practical test for a Category II or Category III pilot authorization, the authorization may be renewed for each type of aircraft for which the authorization is held.</P>
            <P>(c) A Category II or Category III pilot authorization for a specific type aircraft for which an authorization is held will not be renewed beyond 12 calendar months from the month the practical test was accomplished in that type aircraft.</P>
            <P>(d) If the holder of a Category II or Category III pilot authorization passes the practical test for a renewal in the month before the authorization expires, the holder is considered to have passed it during the month the authorization expired.</P>
          </SECTION>
          <SECTION>
            <SECTNO>§ 61.23</SECTNO>
            <SUBJECT>Medical certificates: Requirement and duration.</SUBJECT>
            <P>(a) <E T="03">Operations requiring a medical certificate.</E> Except as provided in paragraph (b) of this section, a person:</P>
            <P>(1) Must hold a first-class medical certificate when exercising the privileges of an airline transport pilot certificate;</P>
            <P>(2) Must hold at least a second-class medical certificate when exercising the privileges of a commercial pilot certificate; or</P>
            <P>(3) Must hold at least a third-class medical certificate—</P>
            <P>(i) When exercising the privileges of a private pilot certificate;</P>
            <P>(ii) When exercising the privileges of a recreational pilot certificate;</P>
            <P>(iii) Except as specified in paragraph (b)(3) of this section, when exercising the privileges of a student pilot certificate;</P>
            <P>(iv) When exercising the privileges of a flight instructor certificate, except for a flight instructor certificate with a glider category rating, if the person is acting as the pilot in command or is serving as a required pilot flight crewmember; or</P>
            <P>(v) Except for a glider category rating or a balloon class rating, prior to taking a practical test that is performed in an aircraft for a certificate or rating at the recreational, private, commercial, or airline transport pilot certificate level.</P>
            <P>(b) <E T="03">Operations not requiring a medical certificate.</E> A person is not required to hold a medical certificate:</P>
            <P>(1) When exercising the privileges of a pilot certificate with a glider category rating;</P>
            <P>(2) When exercising the privileges of a pilot certificate with a balloon class rating;</P>
            <P>(3) When exercising the privileges of a student pilot certificate while seeking a pilot certificate with a glider category rating or balloon class rating;</P>
            <P>(4) When exercising the privileges of a flight instructor certificate with a glider category rating;</P>
            <P>(5) When exercising the privileges of a flight instructor certificate if the person is not acting as pilot in command or serving as a required pilot flight crewmember;</P>
            <P>(6) When exercising the privileges of a ground instructor certificate;</P>
            <P>(7) When serving as an examiner or check airman during the administration of a test or check for a certificate, rating, or authorization conducted in a flight simulator or flight training device; or</P>
            <P>(8) When taking a test or check for a certificate, rating, or authorization conducted in a flight simulator or flight training device.</P>
            <P>(c) <E T="03">Duration of a medical certificate.</E> (1) A first-class medical certificate expires at the end of the last day of—</P>
            <P>(i) The sixth month after the month of the date of examination shown on the certificate for operations requiring an airline transport pilot certificate;</P>
            <P>(ii) The 12th month after the month of the date of examination shown on the certificate for operations requiring a commercial pilot certificate or an air traffic control tower operator certificate; and</P>

            <P>(iii) The period specified in paragraph (c)(3) of this section for operations requiring a recreational pilot certificate, a private pilot certificate, a flight instructor certificate (when acting as pilot in command or a required pilot <PRTPAGE P="21"/>flight crewmember in operations other than glider or balloon), or a student pilot certificate.</P>
            <P>(2) A second-class medical certificate expires at the end of the last day of—</P>
            <P>(i) The 12th month after the month of the date of examination shown on the certificate for operations requiring a commercial pilot certificate or an air traffic control tower operator certificate; and</P>
            <P>(ii) The period specified in paragraph (c)(3) of this section for operations requiring a recreational pilot certificate, a private pilot certificate, a flight instructor certificate (when acting as pilot in command or a required pilot flight crewmember in operations other than glider or balloon), or a student pilot certificate.</P>
            <P>(3) A third-class medical certificate for operations requiring a recreational pilot certificate, a private pilot certificate, a flight instructor certificate (when acting as pilot in command or a required pilot flight crewmember in operations other than glider or balloon), or a student pilot certificate issued—</P>
            <P>(i) Before September 16, 1996, expires at the end of the 24th month after the month of the date of examination shown on the certificate; or</P>
            <P>(ii) On or after September 16, 1996, expires at the end of:</P>
            <P>(A) The 36th month after the month of the date of the examination shown on the certificate if the person has not reached his or her 40th birthday on or before the date of examination; or</P>
            <P>(B) The 24th month after the month of the date of the examination shown on the certificate if the person has reached his or her 40th birthday on or before the date of the examination.</P>
            <CITA>[Doc. No. 25910, 62 FR 16298, Apr. 4, 1997; Amdt. 61-103, 62 FR 40895, July 30, 1997]</CITA>
          </SECTION>
          <SECTION>
            <SECTNO>§ 61.25</SECTNO>
            <SUBJECT>Change of name.</SUBJECT>
            <P>(a) An application to change the name on a certificate issued under this part must be accompanied by the applicant's:</P>
            <P>(1) Current airman certificate; and</P>
            <P>(2) A copy of the marriage license, court order, or other document verifying the name change.</P>
            <P>(b) The documents in paragraph (a) of this section will be returned to the applicant after inspection.</P>
          </SECTION>
          <SECTION>
            <SECTNO>§ 61.27</SECTNO>
            <SUBJECT>Voluntary surrender or exchange of certificate.</SUBJECT>
            <P>(a) The holder of a certificate issued under this part may voluntarily surrender it for:</P>
            <P>(1) Cancellation;</P>
            <P>(2) Issuance of a lower grade certificate; or</P>
            <P>(3) Another certificate with specific ratings deleted.</P>
            <P>(b) Any request made under paragraph (a) of this section must include the following signed statement or its equivalent: “This request is made for my own reasons, with full knowledge that my (insert name of certificate or rating, as appropriate) may not be reissued to me unless I again pass the tests prescribed for its issuance.”</P>
          </SECTION>
          <SECTION>
            <SECTNO>§ 61.29</SECTNO>
            <SUBJECT>Replacement of a lost or destroyed airman or medical certificate or knowledge test report.</SUBJECT>
            <P>(a) A request for the replacement of a lost or destroyed airman certificate issued under this part must be made by letter to the Department of Transportation, FAA, Airman Certification Branch, P.O. Box 25082, Oklahoma City, OK 73125, and must be accompanied by a check or money order for the appropriate fee payable to the FAA.</P>
            <P>(b) A request for the replacement of a lost or destroyed medical certificate must be made by letter to the Department of Transportation, FAA, Aeromedical Certification Branch, P.O. Box 25082, Oklahoma City, OK 73125, and must be accompanied by a check or money order for the appropriate fee payable to the FAA.</P>
            <P>(c) A request for the replacement of a lost or destroyed knowledge test report must be made by letter to the Department of Transportation, FAA, Airman Certification Branch, P.O. Box 25082, Oklahoma City, OK 73125, and must be accompanied by a check or money order for the appropriate fee payable to the FAA.</P>
            <P>(d) The letter requesting replacement of a lost or destroyed airman certificate, medical certificate, or knowledge test report must state:</P>
            <P>(1) The name of the person;<PRTPAGE P="22"/>
            </P>
            <P>(2) The permanent mailing address (including ZIP code), or if the permanent mailing address includes a post office box number, then the person's current residential address;</P>
            <P>(3) The social security number;</P>
            <P>(4) The date and place of birth of the certificate holder; and</P>
            <P>(5) Any available information regarding the—</P>
            <P>(i) Grade, number, and date of issuance of the certificate, and the ratings, if applicable;</P>
            <P>(ii) Date of the medical examination, if applicable; and</P>
            <P>(iii) Date the knowledge test was taken, if applicable.</P>
            <P>(e) A person who has lost an airman certificate, medical certificate, or knowledge test report may obtain a facsimile from the FAA Aeromedical Certification Branch or the Airman Certification Branch, as appropriate, confirming that it was issued and the:</P>
            <P>(1) Facsimile may be carried as an airman certificate, medical certificate, or knowledge test report, as appropriate, for up to 60 days pending the person's receipt of a duplicate under paragraph (a), (b), or (c) of this section, unless the person has been notified that the certificate has been suspended or revoked.</P>
            <P>(2) Request for such a facsimile must include the date on which a duplicate certificate or knowledge test report was previously requested.</P>
            <CITA>[Doc. No. 25910, 62 FR 16298, Apr. 4, 1997; Amdt. 61-103, 62 FR 40896, July 30, 1997]</CITA>
          </SECTION>
          <SECTION>
            <SECTNO>§ 61.31</SECTNO>
            <SUBJECT>Type rating requirements, additional training, and authorization requirements.</SUBJECT>
            <P>(a) <E T="03">Type ratings required.</E> A person who acts as a pilot in command of any of the following aircraft must hold a type rating for that aircraft:</P>
            <P>(1) Large aircraft (except lighter-than-air).</P>
            <P>(2) Turbojet-powered airplanes.</P>
            <P>(3) Other aircraft specified by the Administrator through aircraft type certificate procedures.</P>
            <P>(b) <E T="03">Authorization in lieu of a type rating.</E> A person may be authorized to operate without a type rating for up to 60 days an aircraft requiring a type rating, provided—</P>
            <P>(1) The Administrator has authorized the flight or series of flights;</P>
            <P>(2) The Administrator has determined that an equivalent level of safety can be achieved through the operating limitations on the authorization;</P>
            <P>(3) The person shows that compliance with paragraph (a) of this section is impracticable for the flight or series of flights; and</P>
            <P>(4) The flight—</P>
            <P>(i) Involves only a ferry flight, training flight, test flight, or practical test for a pilot certificate or rating;</P>
            <P>(ii) Is within the United States;</P>
            <P>(iii) Does not involve operations for compensation or hire unless the compensation or hire involves payment for the use of the aircraft for training or taking a practical test; and</P>
            <P>(iv) Involves only the carriage of flight crewmembers considered essential for the flight.</P>
            <P>(5) If the flight or series of flights cannot be accomplished within the time limit of the authorization, the Administrator may authorize an additional period of up to 60 days to accomplish the flight or series of flights.</P>
            <P>(c) <E T="03">Aircraft category, class, and type ratings: Limitations on the carriage of persons, or operating for compensation or hire.</E> Unless a person holds a category, class, and type rating (if a class and type rating is required) that applies to the aircraft, that person may not act as pilot in command of an aircraft that is carrying another person, or is operated for compensation or hire. That person also may not act as pilot in command of that aircraft for compensation or hire.</P>
            <P>(d) <E T="03">Aircraft category, class, and type ratings: Limitations on operating an aircraft as the pilot in command.</E> To serve as the pilot in command of an aircraft, a person must—</P>
            <P>(1) Hold the appropriate category, class, and type rating (if a class rating and type rating are required) for the aircraft to be flown;</P>

            <P>(2) Be receiving training for the purpose of obtaining an additional pilot certificate and rating that are appropriate to that aircraft, and be under the supervision of an authorized instructor; or<PRTPAGE P="23"/>
            </P>
            <P>(3) Have received training required by this part that is appropriate to the aircraft category, class, and type rating (if a class or type rating is required) for the aircraft to be flown, and have received the required endorsements from an instructor who is authorized to provide the required endorsements for solo flight in that aircraft.</P>
            <P>(e) <E T="03">Additional training required for operating complex airplanes.</E> (1) Except as provided in paragraph (e)(2) of this section, no person may act as pilot in command of a complex airplane (an airplane that has a retractable landing gear, flaps, and a controllable pitch propeller; or, in the case of a seaplane, flaps and a controllable pitch propeller), unless the person has—</P>
            <P>(i) Received and logged ground and flight training from an authorized instructor in a complex airplane, or in a flight simulator or flight training device that is representative of a complex airplane, and has been found proficient in the operation and systems of the airplane; and</P>
            <P>(ii) Received a one-time endorsement in the pilot's logbook from an authorized instructor who certifies the person is proficient to operate a complex airplane.</P>
            <P>(2) The training and endorsement required by paragraph (e)(1) of this section is not required if the person has logged flight time as pilot in command of a complex airplane, or in a flight simulator or flight training device that is representative of a complex airplane prior to August 4, 1997.</P>
            <P>(f) <E T="03">Additional training required for operating high-performance airplanes.</E> (1) Except as provided in paragraph (f)(2) of this section, no person may act as pilot in command of a high-performance airplane (an airplane with an engine of more than 200 horsepower), unless the person has—</P>
            <P>(i) Received and logged ground and flight training from an authorized instructor in a high-performance airplane, or in a flight simulator or flight training device that is representative of a high-performance airplane, and has been found proficient in the operation and systems of the airplane; and</P>
            <P>(ii) Received a one-time endorsement in the pilot's logbook from an authorized instructor who certifies the person is proficient to operate a high-performance airplane.</P>
            <P>(2) The training and endorsement required by paragraph (f)(1) of this section is not required if the person has logged flight time as pilot in command of a high-performance airplane, or in a flight simulator or flight training device that is representative of a high-performance airplane prior to August 4, 1997.</P>
            <P>(g) <E T="03">Additional training required for operating pressurized aircraft capable of operating at high altitudes.</E> (1) Except as provided in paragraph (g)(3) of this section, no person may act as pilot in command of a pressurized aircraft (an aircraft that has a service ceiling or maximum operating altitude, whichever is lower, above 25,000 feet MSL), unless that person has received and logged ground training from an authorized instructor and obtained an endorsement in the person's logbook or training record from an authorized instructor who certifies the person has satisfactorily accomplished the ground training. The ground training must include at least the following subjects:</P>
            <P>(i) High-altitude aerodynamics and meteorology;</P>
            <P>(ii) Respiration;</P>
            <P>(iii) Effects, symptoms, and causes of hypoxia and any other high-altitude sickness;</P>
            <P>(iv) Duration of consciousness without supplemental oxygen;</P>
            <P>(v) Effects of prolonged usage of supplemental oxygen;</P>
            <P>(vi) Causes and effects of gas expansion and gas bubble formation;</P>
            <P>(vii) Preventive measures for eliminating gas expansion, gas bubble formation, and high-altitude sickness;</P>
            <P>(viii) Physical phenomena and incidents of decompression; and</P>
            <P>(ix) Any other physiological aspects of high-altitude flight.</P>

            <P>(2) Except as provided in paragraph (g)(3) of this section, no person may act as pilot in command of a pressurized aircraft unless that person has received and logged training from an authorized instructor in a pressurized aircraft, or in a flight simulator or flight training device that is representative of a pressurized aircraft, and obtained an endorsement in the person's logbook or <PRTPAGE P="24"/>training record from an authorized instructor who found the person proficient in the operation of a pressurized aircraft. The flight training must include at least the following subjects:</P>
            <P>(i) Normal cruise flight operations while operating above 25,000 feet MSL;</P>
            <P>(ii) Proper emergency procedures for simulated rapid decompression without actually depressurizing the aircraft; and</P>
            <P>(iii) Emergency descent procedures.</P>
            <P>(3) The training and endorsement required by paragraphs (g)(1) and (g)(2) of this section are not required if that person can document satisfactory accomplishment of any of the following in a pressurized aircraft, or in a flight simulator or flight training device that is representative of a pressurized aircraft:</P>
            <P>(i) Serving as pilot in command before April 15, 1991;</P>
            <P>(ii) Completing a pilot proficiency check for a pilot certificate or rating before April 15, 1991;</P>
            <P>(iii) Completing an official pilot-in-command check conducted by the military services of the United States; or</P>
            <P>(iv) Completing a pilot-in-command proficiency check under part 121, 125, or 135 of this chapter conducted by the Administrator or by an approved pilot check airman.</P>
            <P>(h) <E T="03">Additional aircraft type-specific training.</E> No person may serve as pilot in command of an aircraft that the Administrator has determined requires aircraft type-specific training unless that person has—</P>
            <P>(1) Received and logged type-specific training in the aircraft, or in a flight simulator or flight training device that is representative of that type of aircraft; and</P>
            <P>(2) Received a logbook endorsement from an authorized instructor who has found the person proficient in the operation of the aircraft and its systems.</P>
            <P>(i) <E T="03">Additional training required for operating tailwheel airplanes.</E> (1) Except as provided in paragraph (i)(2) of this section, no person may act as pilot in command of a tailwheel airplane unless that person has received and logged flight training from an authorized instructor in a tailwheel airplane and received an endorsement in the person's logbook from an authorized instructor who found the person proficient in the operation of a tailwheel airplane. The flight training must include at least the following maneuvers and procedures:</P>
            <P>(i) Normal and crosswind takeoffs and landings;</P>
            <P>(ii) Wheel landings (unless the manufacturer has recommended against such landings); and</P>
            <P>(iii) Go-around procedures.</P>
            <P>(2) The training and endorsement required by paragraph (i)(1) of this section is not required if the person logged pilot-in-command time in a tailwheel airplane before April 15, 1991.</P>
            <P>(j) <E T="03">Additional training required for operating a glider.</E> (1) No person may act as pilot in command of a glider—</P>
            <P>(i) Using ground-tow procedures, unless that person has satisfactorily accomplished ground and flight training on ground-tow procedures and operations, and has received an endorsement from an authorized instructor who certifies in that pilot's logbook that the pilot has been found proficient in ground-tow procedures and operations;</P>
            <P>(ii) Using aerotow procedures, unless that person has satisfactorily accomplished ground and flight training on aerotow procedures and operations, and has received an endorsement from an authorized instructor who certifies in that pilot's logbook that the pilot has been found proficient in aerotow procedures and operations; or</P>
            <P>(iii) Using self-launch procedures, unless that person has satisfactorily accomplished ground and flight training on self-launch procedures and operations, and has received an endorsement from an authorized instructor who certifies in that pilot's logbook that the pilot has been found proficient in self-launch procedures and operations.</P>
            <P>(2) The holder of a glider rating issued prior to August 4, 1997, is considered to be in compliance with the training and logbook endorsement requirements of this paragraph for the specific operating privilege for which the holder is already qualified.</P>
            <P>(k) <E T="03">Exceptions.</E> (1) This section does not require a category and class rating for aircraft not type certificated as airplanes, rotorcraft, or lighter-than-air <PRTPAGE P="25"/>aircraft, or a class rating for gliders or powered-lifts.</P>
            <P>(2) The rating limitations of this section do not apply to—</P>
            <P>(i) An applicant when taking a practical test given by an examiner;</P>
            <P>(ii) The holder of a student pilot certificate;</P>
            <P>(iii) The holder of a pilot certificate when operating an aircraft under the authority of an experimental or provisional aircraft type certificate;</P>
            <P>(iv) The holder of a pilot certificate with a lighter-than-air category rating when operating a balloon; or</P>
            <P>(v) The holder of a recreational pilot certificate operating under the provisions of § 61.101(h).</P>
            <CITA>[Doc. No. 25910, 62 FR 40896, July 30, 1997, as amended by Amdt. 61-104, 63 FR 20286, Apr. 23, 1998]</CITA>
          </SECTION>
          <SECTION>
            <SECTNO>§ 61.33</SECTNO>
            <SUBJECT>Tests: General procedure.</SUBJECT>
            <P>Tests prescribed by or under this part are given at times and places, and by persons designated by the Administrator.</P>
          </SECTION>
          <SECTION>
            <SECTNO>§ 61.35</SECTNO>
            <SUBJECT>Knowledge test: Prerequisites and passing grades.</SUBJECT>
            <P>(a) An applicant for a knowledge test must have:</P>
            <P>(1) Received an endorsement, if required by this part, from an authorized instructor certifying that the applicant accomplished the appropriate ground-training or a home-study course required by this part for the certificate or rating sought and is prepared for the knowledge test; and</P>
            <P>(2) Proper identification at the time of application that contains the applicant's—</P>
            <P>(i) Photograph;</P>
            <P>(ii) Signature;</P>
            <P>(iii) Date of birth, which shows the applicant meets or will meet the age requirements of this part for the certificate sought before the expiration date of the airman knowledge test report; and</P>
            <P>(iv) Actual residential address, if different from the applicant's mailing address.</P>
            <P>(b) The Administrator shall specify the minimum passing grade for the knowledge test.</P>
            <CITA>[Doc. No. 25910, 62 FR 16298, Apr. 4, 1997, as amended by Amdt. 61-104, 63 FR 20286, Apr. 23, 1998]</CITA>
          </SECTION>
          <SECTION>
            <SECTNO>§ 61.37</SECTNO>
            <SUBJECT>Knowledge tests: Cheating or other unauthorized conduct.</SUBJECT>
            <P>(a) An applicant for a knowledge test may not:</P>
            <P>(1) Copy or intentionally remove any knowledge test;</P>
            <P>(2) Give to another applicant or receive from another applicant any part or copy of a knowledge test;</P>
            <P>(3) Give assistance on, or receive assistance on, a knowledge test during the period that test is being given;</P>
            <P>(4) Take any part of a knowledge test on behalf of another person;</P>
            <P>(5) Be represented by, or represent, another person for a knowledge test;</P>
            <P>(6) Use any material or aid during the period that the test is being given, unless specifically authorized to do so by the Administrator; and</P>
            <P>(7) Intentionally cause, assist, or participate in any act prohibited by this paragraph.</P>
            <P>(b) An applicant who the Administrator finds has committed an act prohibited by paragraph (a) of this section is prohibited, for 1 year after the date of committing that act, from:</P>
            <P>(1) Applying for any certificate, rating, or authorization issued under this chapter; and</P>
            <P>(2) Applying for and taking any test under this chapter.</P>
            <P>(c) Any certificate or rating held by an applicant may be suspended or revoked if the Administrator finds that person has committed an act prohibited by paragraph (a) of this section.</P>
          </SECTION>
          <SECTION>
            <SECTNO>§ 61.39</SECTNO>
            <SUBJECT>Prerequisites for practical tests.</SUBJECT>
            <P>(a) Except as provided in paragraphs (b) and (c) of this section, to be eligible for a practical test for a certificate or rating issued under this part, an applicant must:</P>

            <P>(1) Pass the required knowledge test within the 24-calendar-month period preceding the month the applicant <PRTPAGE P="26"/>completes the practical test, if a knowledge test is required;</P>
            <P>(2) Present the knowledge test report at the time of application for the practical test, if a knowledge test is required;</P>
            <P>(3) Have satisfactorily accomplished the required training and obtained the aeronautical experience prescribed by this part for the certificate or rating sought;</P>
            <P>(4) Hold at least a current third-class medical certificate, if a medical certificate is required;</P>
            <P>(5) Meet the prescribed age requirement of this part for the issuance of the certificate or rating sought;</P>
            <P>(6) Have an endorsement, if required by this part, in the applicant's logbook or training record that has been signed by an authorized instructor who certifies that the applicant—</P>
            <P>(i) Has received and logged training time within 60 days preceding the date of application in preparation for the practical test;</P>
            <P>(ii) Is prepared for the required practical test; and</P>
            <P>(iii) Has demonstrated satisfactory knowledge of the subject areas in which the applicant was deficient on the airman knowledge test; and</P>
            <P>(7) Have a completed and signed application form.</P>
            <P>(b) Notwithstanding the provisions of paragraphs (a)(1) and (2) of this section, an applicant for an airline transport pilot certificate or an additional rating to an airline transport certificate may take the practical test for that certificate or rating with an expired knowledge test report, provided that the applicant:</P>
            <P>(1) Is employed as a flight crewmember by a certificate holder under part 121, 125, or 135 of this chapter at the time of the practical test and has satisfactorily accomplished that operator's approved—</P>
            <P>(i) Pilot in command aircraft qualification training program that is appropriate to the certificate and rating sought; and</P>
            <P>(ii) Qualification training requirements appropriate to the certificate and rating sought; or</P>
            <P>(2) Is employed as a flight crewmember in scheduled U.S. military air transport operations at the time of the practical test, and has accomplished the pilot in command aircraft qualification training program that is appropriate to the certificate and rating sought.</P>
            <P>(c) A person is not required to comply with the provisions of paragraph (a)(6) of this section if that person:</P>
            <P>(1) Holds a foreign-pilot license issued by a contracting State to the Convention on International Civil Aviation that authorizes at least the pilot privileges of the airman certificate sought;</P>
            <P>(2) Is applying for a type rating only, or a class rating with an associated type rating; or</P>
            <P>(3) Is applying for an airline transport pilot certificate or an additional rating to an airline transport pilot certificate in an aircraft that does not require an aircraft type rating practical test.</P>
            <P>(d) If all increments of the practical test for a certificate or rating are not completed on one date, all remaining increments of the test must be satisfactorily completed not more than 60 calendar days after the date on which the applicant began the test.</P>
            <P>(e) If all increments of the practical test for a certificate or a rating are not satisfactorily completed within 60 calendar days after the date on which the applicant began the test, the applicant must retake the entire practical test, including those increments satisfactorily completed.</P>
            <CITA>[Doc. No. 25910, 62 FR 16298, Apr. 4, 1997; Amdt. 61-103, 62 FR 40897, July 30, 1997, as amended by Amdt. 61-104, 63 FR 20286, Apr. 23, 1998]</CITA>
          </SECTION>
          <SECTION>
            <SECTNO>§ 61.41</SECTNO>
            <SUBJECT>Flight training received from flight instructors not certificated by the FAA.</SUBJECT>
            <P>(a) A person may credit flight training toward the requirements of a pilot certificate or rating issued under this part, if that person received the training from:</P>
            <P>(1) A flight instructor of an Armed Force in a program for training military pilots of either—</P>
            <P>(i) The United States; or</P>

            <P>(ii) A foreign contracting State to the Convention on International Civil Aviation.<PRTPAGE P="27"/>
            </P>
            <P>(2) A flight instructor who is authorized to give such training by the licensing authority of a foreign contracting State to the Convention on International Civil Aviation, and the flight training is given outside the United States.</P>
            <P>(b) A flight instructor described in paragraph (a) of this section is only authorized to give endorsements to show training given.</P>
          </SECTION>
          <SECTION>
            <SECTNO>§ 61.43</SECTNO>
            <SUBJECT>Practical tests: General procedures.</SUBJECT>
            <P>(a) Except as provided in paragraph (b) of this section, the ability of an applicant for a certificate or rating issued under this part to perform the required tasks on the practical test is based on that applicant's ability to safely:</P>
            <P>(1) Perform the tasks specified in the areas of operation for the certificate or rating sought within the approved standards;</P>
            <P>(2) Demonstrate mastery of the aircraft with the successful outcome of each task performed never seriously in doubt;</P>
            <P>(3) Demonstrate satisfactory proficiency and competency within the approved standards;</P>
            <P>(4) Demonstrate sound judgment; and</P>
            <P>(5) Demonstrate single-pilot competence if the aircraft is type certificated for single-pilot operations.</P>
            <P>(b) If an applicant does not demonstrate single pilot proficiency, as required in paragraph (a)(5) of this section, a limitation of “Second in Command Required” will be placed on the applicant's airman certificate. The limitation may be removed if the applicant passes the appropriate practical test by demonstrating single-pilot competency in the aircraft in which single-pilot privileges are sought.</P>
            <P>(c) If an applicant fails any area of operation, that applicant fails the practical test.</P>
            <P>(d) An applicant is not eligible for a certificate or rating sought until all the areas of operation are passed.</P>
            <P>(e) The examiner or the applicant may discontinue a practical test at any time:</P>
            <P>(1) When the applicant fails one or more of the areas of operation; or</P>
            <P>(2) Due to inclement weather conditions, aircraft airworthiness, or any other safety-of-flight concern.</P>
            <P>(f) If a practical test is discontinued, the applicant is entitled credit for those areas of operation that were passed, but only if the applicant:</P>
            <P>(1) Passes the remainder of the practical test within the 60-day period after the date the practical test was discontinued;</P>
            <P>(2) Presents to the examiner for the retest the original notice of disapproval form or the letter of discontinuance form, as appropriate;</P>
            <P>(3) Satisfactorily accomplishes any additional training needed and obtains the appropriate instructor endorsements, if additional training is required; and</P>
            <P>(4) Presents to the examiner for the retest a properly completed and signed application.</P>
          </SECTION>
          <SECTION>
            <SECTNO>§ 61.45</SECTNO>
            <SUBJECT>Practical tests: Required aircraft and equipment.</SUBJECT>
            <P>(a) <E T="03">General.</E> Except as provided in paragraph (a)(2) of this section or when permitted to accomplish the entire flight increment of the practical test in a flight simulator or a flight training device, an applicant for a certificate or rating issued under this part must furnish:</P>
            <P>(1) An aircraft of U.S. registry for each required test that—</P>
            <P>(i) Is of the category, class, and type, if applicable, for which the applicant is applying for a certificate or rating; and</P>
            <P>(ii) Has a current standard, limited, or primary airworthiness certificate.</P>
            <P>(2) At the discretion of the examiner who administers the practical test, the applicant may furnish—</P>
            <P>(i) An aircraft that has a current airworthiness certificate other than standard, limited, or primary, but that otherwise meets the requirement of paragraph (a)(1) of this section;</P>
            <P>(ii) An aircraft of the same category, class, and type, if applicable, of foreign registry that is properly certificated by the country of registry; or</P>

            <P>(iii) A military aircraft of the same category, class, and type, if applicable, for which the applicant is applying for a certificate or rating.<PRTPAGE P="28"/>
            </P>
            <P>(b) <E T="03">Required equipment (other than controls).</E> (1) Except as provided in paragraph (b)(2) of this section, an aircraft used for a practical test must have—</P>
            <P>(i) The equipment for each area of operation required for the practical test;</P>
            <P>(ii) No prescribed operating limitations that prohibit its use in any of the areas of operation required for the practical test;</P>
            <P>(iii) Except as provided in paragraph (e) of this section, at least two pilot stations with adequate visibility for each person to operate the aircraft safely; and</P>
            <P>(iv) Cockpit and outside visibility adequate to evaluate the performance of the applicant when an additional jump seat is provided for the examiner.</P>
            <P>(2) An applicant for a certificate or rating may use an aircraft with operating characteristics that preclude the applicant from performing all of the tasks required for the practical test. However, the applicant's certificate or rating, as appropriate, will be issued with an appropriate limitation.</P>
            <P>(c) <E T="03">Required controls.</E> An aircraft (other than a lighter-than-air aircraft) used for a practical test must have engine power controls and flight controls that are easily reached and operable in a conventional manner by both pilots, unless the examiner determines that the practical test can be conducted safely in the aircraft without the controls being easily reached.</P>
            <P>(d) <E T="03">Simulated instrument flight equipment.</E> An applicant for a practical test that involves maneuvering an aircraft solely by reference to instruments must furnish:</P>
            <P>(1) Equipment on board the aircraft that permits the applicant to pass the areas of operation that apply to the rating sought; and</P>
            <P>(2) A device that prevents the applicant from having visual reference outside the aircraft, but does not prevent the examiner from having visual reference outside the aircraft, and is otherwise acceptable to the Administrator.</P>
            <P>(e) <E T="03">Aircraft with single controls.</E> A practical test may be conducted in an aircraft having a single set of controls, provided the:</P>
            <P>(1) Examiner agrees to conduct the test;</P>
            <P>(2) Test does not involve a demonstration of instrument skills; and</P>
            <P>(3) Proficiency of the applicant can be observed by an examiner who is in a position to observe the applicant.</P>
            <CITA>[Doc. No. 25910, 62 FR 16298, Apr. 4, 1997; Amdt. 61-103, 62 FR 40897, July 30, 1997; Amdt. 61-104, 63 FR 20286, Apr. 23, 1998]</CITA>
          </SECTION>
          <SECTION>
            <SECTNO>§ 61.47</SECTNO>
            <SUBJECT>Status of an examiner who is authorized by the Administrator to conduct practical tests.</SUBJECT>
            <P>(a) An examiner represents the Administrator for the purpose of conducting practical tests for certificates and ratings issued under this part and to observe an applicant's ability to perform the areas of operation on the practical test.</P>
            <P>(b) The examiner is not the pilot in command of the aircraft during the practical test unless the examiner agrees to act in that capacity for the flight or for a portion of the flight by prior arrangement with:</P>
            <P>(1) The applicant; or</P>
            <P>(2) A person who would otherwise act as pilot in command of the flight or for a portion of the flight.</P>
            <P>(c) Notwithstanding the type of aircraft used during the practical test, the applicant and the examiner (and any other occupants authorized to be on board by the examiner) are not subject to the requirements or limitations for the carriage of passengers that are specified in this chapter.</P>
            <CITA>[Doc. No. 25910, 62 FR 16298, Apr. 4, 1997; Amdt. 61-103, 62 FR 40897, July 30, 1997]</CITA>
          </SECTION>
          <SECTION>
            <SECTNO>§ 61.49</SECTNO>
            <SUBJECT>Retesting after failure.</SUBJECT>
            <P>(a) An applicant for a knowledge or practical test who fails that test may reapply for the test only after the applicant has received:</P>
            <P>(1) The necessary training from an authorized instructor who has determined that the applicant is proficient to pass the test; and</P>
            <P>(2) An endorsement from an authorized instructor who gave the applicant the additional training.</P>

            <P>(b) An applicant for a flight instructor certificate with an airplane category rating or, for a flight instructor certificate with a glider category rating, who has failed the practical test <PRTPAGE P="29"/>due to deficiencies in instructional proficiency on stall awareness, spin entry, spins, or spin recovery must:</P>
            <P>(1) Comply with the requirements of paragraph (a) of this section before being retested;</P>
            <P>(2) Bring an aircraft to the retest that is of the appropriate aircraft category for the rating sought and is certificated for spins; and</P>
            <P>(3) Demonstrate satisfactory instructional proficiency on stall awareness, spin entry, spins, and spin recovery to an examiner during the retest.</P>
          </SECTION>
          <SECTION>
            <SECTNO>§ 61.51</SECTNO>
            <SUBJECT>Pilot logbooks.</SUBJECT>
            <P>(a) <E T="03">Training time and aeronautical experience.</E> Each person must document and record the following time in a manner acceptable to the Administrator:</P>
            <P>(1) Training and aeronautical experience used to meet the requirements for a certificate, rating, or flight review of this part.</P>
            <P>(2) The aeronautical experience required for meeting the recent flight experience requirements of this part.</P>
            <P>(b) <E T="03">Logbook entries.</E> For the purposes of meeting the requirements of paragraph (a) of this section, each person must enter the following information for each flight or lesson logged:</P>
            <P>(1) General—</P>
            <P>(i) Date.</P>
            <P>(ii) Total flight time or lesson time.</P>
            <P>(iii) Location where the aircraft departed and arrived, or for lessons in a flight simulator or flight training device, the location where the lesson occurred.</P>
            <P>(iv) Type and identification of aircraft, flight simulator, or flight training device, as appropriate.</P>
            <P>(v) The name of a safety pilot, if required by § 91.109(b) of this chapter.</P>
            <P>(2) Type of pilot experience or training—</P>
            <P>(i) Solo.</P>
            <P>(ii) Pilot in command.</P>
            <P>(iii) Second in command.</P>
            <P>(iv) Flight and ground training received from an authorized instructor.</P>
            <P>(v) Training received in a flight simulator or flight training device from an authorized instructor.</P>
            <P>(3) Conditions of flight—</P>
            <P>(i) Day or night.</P>
            <P>(ii) Actual instrument.</P>
            <P>(iii) Simulated instrument conditions in flight, a flight simulator, or a flight training device.</P>
            <P>(c) <E T="03">Logging of pilot time.</E> The pilot time described in this section may be used to:</P>
            <P>(1) Apply for a certificate or rating issued under this part; or</P>
            <P>(2) Satisfy the recent flight experience requirements of this part.</P>
            <P>(d) <E T="03">Logging of solo flight time.</E> Except for a student pilot performing the duties of pilot in command of an airship requiring more than one pilot flight crewmember, a pilot may log as solo flight time only that flight time when the pilot is the sole occupant of the aircraft.</P>
            <P>(e) <E T="03">Logging pilot-in-command flight time.</E> (1) A recreational, private, or commercial pilot may log pilot-in- command time only for that flight time during which that person—</P>
            <P>(i) Is the sole manipulator of the controls of an aircraft for which the pilot is rated;</P>
            <P>(ii) Is the sole occupant of the aircraft; or</P>
            <P>(iii) Except for a recreational pilot, is acting as pilot in command of an aircraft on which more than one pilot is required under the type certification of the aircraft or the regulations under which the flight is conducted.</P>
            <P>(2) An airline transport pilot may log as pilot-in-command time all of the flight time while acting as pilot-in-command of an operation requiring an airline transport pilot certificate.</P>
            <P>(3) An authorized instructor may log as pilot-in-command time all flight time while acting as an authorized instructor.</P>
            <P>(4) A student pilot may log pilot-in-command time only when the student pilot—</P>
            <P>(i) Is the sole occupant of the aircraft or is performing the duties of pilot of command of an airship requiring more than one pilot flight crewmember;</P>
            <P>(ii) Has a current solo flight endorsement as required under § 61.87 of this part; and</P>
            <P>(iii) Is undergoing training for a pilot certificate or rating.</P>
            <P>(f) <E T="03">Logging second-in-command flight time.</E> A person may log second-in-command time only for that flight time during which that person:<PRTPAGE P="30"/>
            </P>
            <P>(1) Is qualified in accordance with the second-in-command requirements of § 61.55 of this part, and occupies a crewmember station in an aircraft that requires more than one pilot by the aircraft's type certificate; or</P>
            <P>(2) Holds the appropriate category, class, and instrument rating (if an instrument rating is required for the flight) for the aircraft being flown, and more than one pilot is required under the type certification of the aircraft or the regulations under which the flight is being conducted.</P>
            <P>(g) <E T="03">Logging instrument flight time.</E> (1) A person may log instrument time only for that flight time when the person operates the aircraft solely by reference to instruments under actual or simulated instrument flight conditions.</P>
            <P>(2) An authorized instructor may log instrument time when conducting instrument flight instruction in actual instrument flight conditions.</P>
            <P>(3) For the purposes of logging instrument time to meet the recent instrument experience requirements of § 61.57(c) of this part, the following information must be recorded in the person's logbook—</P>
            <P>(i) The location and type of each instrument approach accomplished; and</P>
            <P>(ii) The name of the safety pilot, if required.</P>
            <P>(4) A flight simulator or approved flight training device may be used by a person to log instrument time, provided an authorized instructor is present during the simulated flight.</P>
            <P>(h) <E T="03">Logging training time.</E> (1) A person may log training time when that person receives training from an authorized instructor in an aircraft, flight simulator, or flight training device.</P>
            <P>(2) The training time must be logged in a logbook and must:</P>
            <P>(i) Be endorsed in a legible manner by the authorized instructor; and</P>
            <P>(ii) Include a description of the training given, the length of the training lesson, and the authorized instructor's signature, certificate number, and certificate expiration date.</P>
            <P>(i) <E T="03">Presentation of required documents.</E> (1) Persons must present their pilot certificate, medical certificate, logbook, or any other record required by this part for inspection upon a reasonable request by—</P>
            <P>(i) The Administrator;</P>
            <P>(ii) An authorized representative from the National Transportation Safety Board; or</P>
            <P>(iii) Any Federal, State, or local law enforcement officer.</P>
            <P>(2) A student pilot must carry the following items in the aircraft on all solo cross-country flights as evidence of the required authorized instructor clearances and endorsements—</P>
            <P>(i) Pilot logbook;</P>
            <P>(ii) Student pilot certificate; and</P>
            <P>(iii) Any other record required by this section.</P>
            <P>(3) A recreational pilot must carry his or her logbook with the required authorized instructor endorsements on all solo flights—</P>
            <P>(i) That exceed 50 nautical miles from the airport at which training was received;</P>
            <P>(ii) Within airspace that requires communication with air traffic control;</P>
            <P>(iii) Conducted between sunset and sunrise; or</P>
            <P>(iv) In an aircraft for which the pilot does not hold an appropriate category or class rating.</P>
            <CITA>[Doc. No. 25910, 62 FR 16298, Apr. 4, 1997; Amdt. 61-103, 62 FR 40897, July 30, 1997; Amdt. 61-104, 63 FR 20286, Apr. 23, 1998]</CITA>
          </SECTION>
          <SECTION>
            <SECTNO>§ 61.53</SECTNO>
            <SUBJECT>Prohibition on operations during medical deficiency.</SUBJECT>
            <P>(a) <E T="03">Operations that require a medical certificate.</E> Except as provided for in paragraph (b) of this section, a person who holds a current medical certificate issued under part 67 of this chapter shall not act as pilot in command, or in any other capacity as a required pilot flight crewmember, while that person:</P>
            <P>(1) Knows or has reason to know of any medical condition that would make the person unable to meet the requirements for the medical certificate necessary for the pilot operation; or</P>

            <P>(2) Is taking medication or receiving other treatment for a medical condition that results in the person being unable to meet the requirements for the medical certificate necessary for the pilot operation.<PRTPAGE P="31"/>
            </P>
            <P>(b) <E T="03">Operations that do not require a medical certificate.</E> For operations provided for in § 61.23(b) of this part, a person shall not act as pilot in command, or in any other capacity as a required pilot flight crewmember, while that person knows or has reason to know of any medical condition that would make the person unable to operate the aircraft in a safe manner.</P>
          </SECTION>
          <SECTION>
            <SECTNO>§ 61.55</SECTNO>
            <SUBJECT>Second-in-command qualifications.</SUBJECT>
            <P>(a) Except as provided in paragraph (d) of this section, no person may serve as a second in command of an aircraft type certificated for more than one required pilot flight crewmember or in operations requiring a second in command unless that person holds:</P>
            <P>(1) At least a current private pilot certificate with the appropriate category and class rating; and</P>
            <P>(2) An instrument rating that applies to the aircraft being flown if the flight is under IFR.</P>
            <P>(b) Except as provided in paragraph (d) of this section, no person may serve as a second in command of an aircraft type certificated for more than one required pilot flight crewmember or in operations requiring a second in command unless that person has within the previous 12 calendar months:</P>
            <P>(1) Become familiar with the following information for the specific type aircraft for which second-in-command privileges are requested—</P>
            <P>(i) Operational procedures applicable to the powerplant, equipment, and systems.</P>
            <P>(ii) Performance specifications and limitations.</P>
            <P>(iii) Normal, abnormal, and emergency operating procedures.</P>
            <P>(iv) Flight manual.</P>
            <P>(v) Placards and markings.</P>
            <P>(2) Except as provided in paragraph (e) of this section, performed and logged pilot time in the type of aircraft or in a flight simulator that represents the type of aircraft for which second-in-command privileges are requested, which includes—</P>
            <P>(i) Three takeoffs and three landings to a full stop as the sole manipulator of the flight controls;</P>
            <P>(ii) Engine-out procedures and maneuvering with an engine out while executing the duties of pilot in command; and</P>
            <P>(iii) Crew resource management training.</P>
            <P>(c) If a person complies with the requirements in paragraph (b) of this section in the calendar month before or the calendar month after the month in which compliance with this section is required, then that person is considered to have accomplished the training and practice in the month it is due.</P>
            <P>(d) This section does not apply to a person who is:</P>
            <P>(1) Designated and qualified as pilot in command under subpart K of part 91, part 121, 125, or 135 of this chapter in that specific type of aircraft;</P>
            <P>(2) Designated as the second in command under subpart K of part 91, part 121, 125, or 135 of this chapter in that specific type of aircraft;</P>
            <P>(3) Designated as the second in command in that specific type of aircraft for the purpose of receiving flight training required by this section, and no passengers or cargo are carried on the aircraft; or</P>
            <P>(4) Designated as a safety pilot for purposes required by § 91.109(b) of this chapter.</P>
            <P>(e) The holder of a commercial or airline transport pilot certificate with the appropriate category and class rating is not required to meet the requirements of paragraph (b)(2) of this section, provided the pilot:</P>
            <P>(1) Is conducting a ferry flight, aircraft flight test, or evaluation flight of an aircraft's equipment; and</P>
            <P>(2) Is not carrying any person or property on board the aircraft, other than necessary for conduct of the flight.</P>
            <P>(f) For the purpose of meeting the requirements of paragraph (b) of this section, a person may serve as second in command in that specific type aircraft, provided:</P>
            <P>(1) The flight is conducted under day VFR or day IFR; and</P>
            <P>(2) No person or property is carried on board the aircraft, other than necessary for conduct of the flight.</P>

            <P>(g) Except as provided in paragraph (h) of this section, the requirements of paragraph (b) of this section may be accomplished in a flight simulator that is used in accordance with an approved <PRTPAGE P="32"/>course conducted by a training center certificated under part 142 of this chapter.</P>
            <P>(h) An applicant for an initial second-in-command qualification for a particular type of aircraft who is qualifying under the terms of paragraph (g) of this section must satisfactorily complete a minimum of one takeoff and one landing in an aircraft of the same type for which the qualification is sought.</P>
            <CITA>[Doc. No. 25910, 62 FR 16298, Apr. 4, 1997; Amdt. 61-103, 62 FR 40898, July 30, 1997; Amdt. 61-109, 68 FR 54559, Sept. 17, 2003]</CITA>
          </SECTION>
          <SECTION>
            <SECTNO>§ 61.56</SECTNO>
            <SUBJECT>Flight review.</SUBJECT>
            <P>(a) Except as provided in paragraphs (b) and (f) of this section, a flight review consists of a minimum of 1 hour of flight training and 1 hour of ground training. The review must include:</P>
            <P>(1) A review of the current general operating and flight rules of part 91 of this chapter; and</P>
            <P>(2) A review of those maneuvers and procedures that, at the discretion of the person giving the review, are necessary for the pilot to demonstrate the safe exercise of the privileges of the pilot certificate.</P>
            <P>(b) Glider pilots may substitute a minimum of three instructional flights in a glider, each of which includes a flight to traffic pattern altitude, in lieu of the 1 hour of flight training required in paragraph (a) of this section.</P>
            <P>(c) Except as provided in paragraphs (d), (e), and (g) of this section, no person may act as pilot in command of an aircraft unless, since the beginning of the 24th calendar month before the month in which that pilot acts as pilot in command, that person has—</P>
            <P>(1) Accomplished a flight review given in an aircraft for which that pilot is rated by an authorized instructor and</P>
            <P>(2) A logbook endorsed from an authorized instructor who gave the review certifying that the person has satisfactorily completed the review.</P>
            <P>(d) A person who has, within the period specified in paragraph (c) of this section, passed a pilot proficiency check conducted by an examiner, an approved pilot check airman, or a U.S. Armed Force, for a pilot certificate, rating, or operating privilege need not accomplish the flight review required by this section.</P>
            <P>(e) A person who has, within the period specified in paragraph (c) of this section, satisfactorily accomplished one or more phases of an FAA-sponsored pilot proficiency award program need not accomplish the flight review required by this section.</P>
            <P>(f) A person who holds a current flight instructor certificate who has, within the period specified in paragraph (c) of this section, satisfactorily completed a renewal of a flight instructor certificate under the provisions in § 61.197 need not accomplish the 1 hour of ground training specified in paragraph (a) of this section.</P>
            <P>(g) A student pilot need not accomplish the flight review required by this section provided the student pilot is undergoing training for a certificate and has a current solo flight endorsement as required under § 61.87 of this part.</P>
            <P>(h) The requirements of this section may be accomplished in combination with the requirements of § 61.57 and other applicable recent experience requirements at the discretion of the authorized instructor conducting the flight review.</P>
            <P>(i) A flight simulator or flight training device may be used to meet the flight review requirements of this section subject to the following conditions:</P>
            <P>(1) The flight simulator or flight training device must be used in accordance with an approved course conducted by a training center certificated under part 142 of this chapter.</P>
            <P>(2) Unless the flight review is undertaken in a flight simulator that is approved for landings, the applicant must meet the takeoff and landing requirements of § 61.57(a) or § 61.57(b) of this part.</P>
            <P>(3) The flight simulator or flight training device used must represent an aircraft or set of aircraft for which the pilot is rated.</P>
            <CITA>[Doc. No. 25910, 62 FR 16298, Apr. 4, 1997; Amdt. 61-103, 62 FR 40898, July 30, 1997; Amdt. 61-104, 63 FR 20287, Apr. 23, 1998]</CITA>
          </SECTION>
          <SECTION>
            <PRTPAGE P="33"/>
            <SECTNO>§ 61.57</SECTNO>
            <SUBJECT>Recent flight experience: Pilot in command.</SUBJECT>
            <P>(a) <E T="03">General experience.</E> (1) Except as provided in paragraph (e) of this section, no person may act as a pilot in command of an aircraft carrying passengers or of an aircraft certificated for more than one pilot flight crewmember unless that person has made at least three takeoffs and three landings within the preceding 90 days, and—</P>
            <P>(i) The person acted as the sole manipulator of the flight controls; and</P>
            <P>(ii) The required takeoffs and landings were performed in an aircraft of the same category, class, and type (if a type rating is required), and, if the aircraft to be flown is an airplane with a tailwheel, the takeoffs and landings must have been made to a full stop in an airplane with a tailwheel.</P>
            <P>(2) For the purpose of meeting the requirements of paragraph (a)(1) of this section, a person may act as a pilot in command of an aircraft under day VFR or day IFR, provided no persons or property are carried on board the aircraft, other than those necessary for the conduct of the flight.</P>
            <P>(3) The takeoffs and landings required by paragraph (a)(1) of this section may be accomplished in a flight simulator or flight training device that is—</P>
            <P>(i) Approved by the Administrator for landings; and</P>
            <P>(ii) Used in accordance with an approved course conducted by a training center certificated under part 142 of this chapter.</P>
            <P>(b) <E T="03">Night takeoff and landing experience.</E> (1) Except as provided in paragraph (e) of this section, no person may act as pilot in command of an aircraft carrying passengers during the period beginning 1 hour after sunset and ending 1 hour before sunrise, unless within the preceding 90 days that person has made at least three takeoffs and three landings to a full stop during the period beginning 1 hour after sunset and ending 1 hour before sunrise, and—</P>
            <P>(i) That person acted as sole manipulator of the flight controls; and</P>
            <P>(ii) The required takeoffs and landings were performed in an aircraft of the same category, class, and type (if a type rating is required).</P>
            <P>(2) The takeoffs and landings required by paragraph (b)(1) of this section may be accomplished in a flight simulator that is—</P>
            <P>(i) Approved by the Administrator for takeoffs and landings, if the visual system is adjusted to represent the period described in paragraph (b)(1) of this section; and</P>
            <P>(ii) Used in accordance with an approved course conducted by a training center certificated under part 142 of this chapter.</P>
            <P>(c) <E T="03">Instrument experience.</E> Except as provided in paragraph (e) of this section, no person may act as pilot in command under IFR or in weather conditions less than the minimums prescribed for VFR, unless within the preceding 6 calendar months, that person has:</P>
            <P>(1) For the purpose of obtaining instrument experience in an aircraft (other than a glider), performed and logged under actual or simulated instrument conditions, either in flight in the appropriate category of aircraft for the instrument privileges sought or in a flight simulator or flight training device that is representative of the aircraft category for the instrument privileges sought—</P>
            <P>(i) At least six instrument approaches;</P>
            <P>(ii) Holding procedures; and</P>
            <P>(iii) Intercepting and tracking courses through the use of navigation systems.</P>
            <P>(2) For the purpose of obtaining instrument experience in a glider, performed and logged under actual or simulated instrument conditions—</P>
            <P>(i) At least 3 hours of instrument time in flight, of which 1<FR>1/2</FR> hours may be acquired in an airplane or a glider if no passengers are to be carried; or</P>
            <P>(ii) 3 hours of instrument time in flight in a glider if a passenger is to be carried.</P>
            <P>(d) <E T="03">Instrument proficiency check.</E> Except as provided in paragraph (e) of this section, a person who does not meet the instrument experience requirements of paragraph (c) of this section within the prescribed time, or within 6 calendar months after the prescribed time, may not serve as pilot in <PRTPAGE P="34"/>command under IFR or in weather conditions less than the minimums prescribed for VFR until that person passes an instrument proficiency check consisting of a representative number of tasks required by the instrument rating practical test.</P>
            <P>(1) The instrument proficiency check must be—</P>
            <P>(i) In an aircraft that is appropriate to the aircraft category;</P>
            <P>(ii) For other than a glider, in a flight simulator or flight training device that is representative of the aircraft category; or</P>
            <P>(iii) For a glider, in a single-engine airplane or a glider.</P>
            <P>(2) The instrument proficiency check must be given by—</P>
            <P>(i) An examiner;</P>
            <P>(ii) A person authorized by the U.S. Armed Forces to conduct instrument flight tests, provided the person being tested is a member of the U.S. Armed Forces;</P>
            <P>(iii) A company check pilot who is authorized to conduct instrument flight tests under part 121, 125, or 135 of this chapter or subpart K of part 91 of this chapter, and provided that both the check pilot and the pilot being tested are employees of that operator or fractional ownership program manager, as applicable;</P>
            <P>(iv) An authorized instructor; or</P>
            <P>(v) A person approved by the Administrator to conduct instrument practical tests.</P>
            <P>(e) <E T="03">Exceptions.</E> (1) Paragraphs (a) and (b) of this section do not apply to a pilot in command who is employed by a certificate holder under part 125 and engaged in a flight operation for that certificate holder if the pilot is in compliance with §§ 125.281 and 125.285 of this chapter.</P>
            <P>(2) This section does not apply to a pilot in command who is employed by an air carrier certificated under part 121 or 135 and is engaged in a flight operation under part 91, 121, or 135 for that air carrier if the pilot is in compliance with §§ 121.437 and 121.439, or §§ 135.243 and 135.247 of this chapter, as appropriate.</P>
            <P>(3) Paragraph (b) of this section does not apply to a pilot in command of a turbine-powered airplane that is type certificated for more than one pilot crewmember, provided that pilot has complied with the requirements of paragraph (e)(3)(i) or (ii) of this section:</P>
            <P>(i) The pilot in command must hold at least a commercial pilot certificate with the appropriate category, class, and type rating for each airplane that is type certificated for more than one pilot crewmember that the pilot seeks to operate under this alternative, and:</P>
            <P>(A) That pilot must have logged at least 1,500 hours of aeronautical experience as a pilot;</P>
            <P>(B) In each airplane that is type certificated for more than one pilot crewmember that the pilot seeks to operate under this alternative, that pilot must have accomplished and logged the daytime takeoff and landing recent flight experience of paragraph (a) of this section, as the sole manipulator of the flight controls;</P>
            <P>(C) Within the preceding 90 days prior to the operation of that airplane that is type certificated for more than one pilot crewmember, the pilot must have accomplished and logged at least 15 hours of flight time in the type of airplane that the pilot seeks to operate under this alternative; and</P>
            <P>(D) That pilot has accomplished and logged at least 3 takeoffs and 3 landings to a full stop, as the sole manipulator of the flight controls, in a turbine-powered airplane that requires more than one pilot crewmember. The pilot must have performed the takeoffs and landings during the period beginning 1 hour after sunset and ending 1 hour before sunrise within the preceding 6 months prior to the month of the flight.</P>
            <P>(ii) The pilot in command must hold at least a commercial pilot certificate with the appropriate category, class, and type rating for each airplane that is type certificated for more than one pilot crewmember that the pilot seeks to operate under this alternative, and:</P>
            <P>(A) That pilot must have logged at least 1,500 hours of aeronautical experience as a pilot;</P>

            <P>(B) In each airplane that is type certificated for more than one pilot crewmember that the pilot seeks to operate under this alternative, that pilot must have accomplished and logged the daytime takeoff and landing recent flight <PRTPAGE P="35"/>experience of paragraph (a) of this section, as the sole manipulator of the flight controls;</P>
            <P>(C) Within the preceding 90 days prior to the operation of that airplane that is type certificated for more than one pilot crewmember, the pilot must have accomplished and logged at least 15 hours of flight time in the type of airplane that the pilot seeks to operate under this alternative; and</P>
            <P>(D) Within the preceding 12 months prior to the month of the flight, the pilot must have completed a training program that is approved under part 142 of this chapter. The approved training program must have required and the pilot must have performed, at least 6 takeoffs and 6 landings to a full stop as the sole manipulator of the controls in a flight simulator that is representative of a turbine-powered airplane that requires more than one pilot crewmember. The flight simulator's visual system must have been adjusted to represent the period beginning 1 hour after sunset and ending 1 hour before sunrise.</P>
            <CITA>[Doc. No. 25910, 62 FR 16298, Apr. 4, 1997; Amdt. 61-103, 62 FR 40898, July 30, 1997; Amdt. 61-106, 64 FR 23529, Apr. 30, 1999; Amdt. 61-109, 68 FR 54559, Sept. 17, 2003]</CITA>
          </SECTION>
          <SECTION>
            <SECTNO>§ 61.58</SECTNO>
            <SUBJECT>Pilot-in-command proficiency check: Operation of aircraft requiring more than one pilot flight crewmember.</SUBJECT>
            <P>(a) Except as otherwise provided in this section, to serve as pilot in command of an aircraft that is type certificated for more than one required pilot flight crewmember, a person must—</P>
            <P>(1) Within the preceding 12 calendar months, complete a pilot-in-command proficiency check in an aircraft that is type certificated for more than one required pilot flight crewmember; and</P>
            <P>(2) Within the preceding 24 calendar months, complete a pilot-in-command proficiency check in the particular type of aircraft in which that person will serve as pilot in command.</P>
            <P>(b) This section does not apply to persons conducting operations under subpart K of part 91, part 121, 125, 133, 135, or 137 of this chapter, or persons maintaining continuing qualification under an Advanced Qualification program approved under SFAR 58.</P>
            <P>(c) The pilot-in-command proficiency check given in accordance with the provisions of subpart K of part 91, part 121, 125, or 135 of this chapter may be used to satisfy the requirements of this section.</P>
            <P>(d) The pilot-in-command proficiency check required by paragraph (a) of this section may be accomplished by satisfactory completion of one of the following:</P>
            <P>(1) A pilot-in-command proficiency check conducted by a person authorized by the Administrator, consisting of the maneuvers and procedures required for a type rating, in an aircraft type certificated for more than one required pilot flight crewmember;</P>
            <P>(2) The practical test required for a type rating, in an aircraft type certificated for more than one required pilot flight crewmember;</P>
            <P>(3) The initial or periodic practical test required for the issuance of a pilot examiner or check airman designation, in an aircraft type certificated for more than one required pilot flight crewmember; or</P>
            <P>(4) A military flight check required for a pilot in command with instrument privileges, in an aircraft that the military requires to be operated by more than one pilot flight crewmember.</P>
            <P>(e) A check or test described in paragraphs (d)(1) through (d)(4) of this section may be accomplished in a flight simulator under part 142 of this chapter, subject to the following:</P>
            <P>(1) Except as provided for in paragraphs (e)(2) and (e)(3) of this section, if an otherwise qualified and approved flight simulator used for a pilot-in-command proficiency check is not qualified and approved for a specific required maneuver—</P>
            <P>(i) The training center must annotate, in the applicant's training record, the maneuver or maneuvers omitted; and</P>
            <P>(ii) Prior to acting as pilot in command, the pilot must demonstrate proficiency in each omitted maneuver in an aircraft or flight simulator qualified and approved for each omitted maneuver.</P>

            <P>(2) If the flight simulator used pursuant to paragraph (e) of this section is <PRTPAGE P="36"/>not qualified and approved for circling approaches—</P>
            <P>(i) The applicant's record must include the statement, “Proficiency in circling approaches not demonstrated”; and</P>
            <P>(ii) The applicant may not perform circling approaches as pilot in command when weather conditions are less than the basic VFR conditions described in § 91.155 of this chapter, until proficiency in circling approaches has been successfully demonstrated in a flight simulator qualified and approved for circling approaches or in an aircraft to a person authorized by the Administrator to conduct the check required by this section.</P>
            <P>(3) If the flight simulator used pursuant to paragraph (e) of this section is not qualified and approved for landings, the applicant must—</P>
            <P>(i) Hold a type rating in the airplane represented by the simulator; and</P>
            <P>(ii) Have completed within the preceding 90 days at least three takeoffs and three landings (one to a full stop) as the sole manipulator of the flight controls in the type airplane for which the pilot-in-command proficiency check is sought.</P>
            <P>(f) For the purpose of meeting the pilot-in-command proficiency check requirements of paragraph (a) of this section, a person may act as pilot in command of a flight under day VFR conditions or day IFR conditions if no person or property is carried, other than as necessary to demonstrate compliance with this part.</P>
            <P>(g) If a pilot takes the pilot-in-command proficiency check required by this section in the calendar month before or the calendar month after the month in which it is due, the pilot is considered to have taken it in the month in which it was due for the purpose of computing when the next pilot-in-command proficiency check is due.</P>
            <CITA>[Doc. No. 25910, 62 FR 40899, July 30, 1997, as amended by  Amdt. 61-109, 68 FR 54559, Sept. 17, 2003]</CITA>
          </SECTION>
          <SECTION>
            <SECTNO>§ 61.59</SECTNO>
            <SUBJECT>Falsification, reproduction, or alteration of applications, certificates, logbooks, reports, or records.</SUBJECT>
            <P>(a) No person may make or cause to be made:</P>
            <P>(1) Any fraudulent or intentionally false statement on any application for a certificate, rating, authorization, or duplicate thereof, issued under this part;</P>
            <P>(2) Any fraudulent or intentionally false entry in any logbook, record, or report that is required to be kept, made, or used to show compliance with any requirement for the issuance or exercise of the privileges of any certificate, rating, or authorization under this part;</P>
            <P>(3) Any reproduction for fraudulent purpose of any certificate, rating, or authorization, under this part; or</P>
            <P>(4) Any alteration of any certificate, rating, or authorization under this part.</P>
            <P>(b) The commission of an act prohibited under paragraph (a) of this section is a basis for suspending or revoking any airman certificate, rating, or authorization held by that person.</P>
          </SECTION>
          <SECTION>
            <SECTNO>§ 61.60</SECTNO>
            <SUBJECT>Change of address.</SUBJECT>
            <P>The holder of a pilot, flight instructor, or ground instructor certificate who has made a change in permanent mailing address may not, after 30 days from that date, exercise the privileges of the certificate unless the holder has notified in writing the FAA, Airman Certification Branch, P.O. Box 25082, Oklahoma City, OK 73125, of the new permanent mailing address, or if the permanent mailing address includes a post office box number, then the holder's current residential address.</P>
          </SECTION>
        </SUBPART>
        <SUBPART>
          <HD SOURCE="HED">Subpart B—Aircraft Ratings and Pilot Authorizations</HD>
          <SECTION>
            <SECTNO>§ 61.61</SECTNO>
            <SUBJECT>Applicability.</SUBJECT>
            <P>This subpart prescribes the requirements for the issuance of additional aircraft ratings after a pilot certificate is issued, and the requirements for and limitations of pilot authorizations issued by the Administrator.</P>
          </SECTION>
          <SECTION>
            <SECTNO>§ 61.63</SECTNO>
            <SUBJECT>Additional aircraft ratings (other than on an airline transport pilot certificate).</SUBJECT>
            <P>(a) <E T="03">General.</E> To be eligible for an additional aircraft rating to a pilot certificate, for other than an airline transport pilot certificate, an applicant <PRTPAGE P="37"/>must meet the appropriate requirements of this section for the additional aircraft rating sought.</P>
            <P>(b) <E T="03">Additional category rating.</E> An applicant who holds a pilot certificate and applies to add a category rating to that pilot certificate:</P>
            <P>(1) Must have received the required training and possess the aeronautical experience prescribed by this part that applies to the pilot certificate for the aircraft category and, if applicable, class rating sought;</P>
            <P>(2) Must have an endorsement in his or her logbook or training record from an authorized instructor, and that endorsement must attest that the applicant has been found competent in the aeronautical knowledge areas appropriate to the pilot certificate for the aircraft category and, if applicable, class rating sought;</P>
            <P>(3) Must have an endorsement in his or her logbook or training record from an authorized instructor, and that endorsement must attest that the applicant has been found proficient on the areas of operation that are appropriate to the pilot certificate for the aircraft category and, if applicable, class rating sought;</P>
            <P>(4) Must pass the required practical test that is appropriate to the pilot certificate for the aircraft category and, if applicable, class rating sought; and</P>
            <P>(5) Need not take an additional knowledge test, provided the applicant holds an airplane, rotorcraft, powered-lift, or airship rating at that pilot certificate level.</P>
            <P>(c) <E T="03">Additional class rating.</E> Any person who applies for an additional class rating to be added on a pilot certificate:</P>
            <P>(1) Must have an endorsement in his or her logbook or training record from an authorized instructor and that endorsement must attest that the applicant has been found competent in the aeronautical knowledge areas appropriate to the pilot certificate for the aircraft class rating sought;</P>
            <P>(2) Must have an endorsement in his or her logbook or training record from an authorized instructor, and that endorsement must attest that the applicant has been found proficient in the areas of operation appropriate to the pilot certificate for the aircraft class rating sought;</P>
            <P>(3) Must pass the required practical test that is appropriate to the pilot certificate for the aircraft class rating sought;</P>
            <P>(4) Need not meet the specified training time requirements prescribed by this part that apply to the pilot certificate for the aircraft class rating sought unless the person holds a a lighter-than-air category rating with a balloon class rating and is seeking an airship class rating and</P>
            <P>(5) Need not take an additional knowledge test, provided the applicant holds an airplane, rotorcraft, powered-lift, or airship rating at that pilot certificate level.</P>
            <P>(d) <E T="03">Additional type rating.</E> Except as specified in paragraph (d)(7) of this section, a person who applies for an additional aircraft type rating to be added on a pilot certificate, or the addition of an aircraft type rating that is accomplished concurrently with an additional aircraft category or class rating:</P>
            <P>(1) Must hold or concurrently obtain an instrument rating that is appropriate to the aircraft category, class, or type rating sought;</P>
            <P>(2) Must have an endorsement in his or her logbook or training record from an authorized instructor, and that endorsement must attest that the applicant has been found competent in the aeronautical knowledge areas appropriate to the pilot certificate for the aircraft category, class, or type rating sought;</P>
            <P>(3) Must have an endorsement in his or her logbook, or training record from an authorized instructor, and that endorsement must attest that the applicant has been found proficient in the areas of operation required for the issuance of an airline transport pilot certificate for the aircraft category, class, and type rating sought;</P>
            <P>(4) Must pass the required practical test appropriate to the airline transport pilot certificate for the aircraft category, class, and type rating sought;</P>

            <P>(5) Must perform the practical test in actual or simulated instrument conditions, unless the aircraft's type certificate makes the aircraft incapable of operating under instrument flight rules. If the practical test cannot be <PRTPAGE P="38"/>accomplished for this reason, the person may obtain a type rating limited to “VFR only.” The “VFR only” limitation may be removed for that aircraft type when the person passes the practical test in actual or simulated instrument conditions. When an instrument rating is issued to a person who holds one or more type ratings, the type ratings on the amended pilot certificate shall bear the “VFR only” limitation for each aircraft type rating for which the person has not demonstrated instrument competency;</P>
            <P>(6) Need not take an additional knowledge test, provided the applicant holds an airplane, rotorcraft, powered-lift, or airship rating on their pilot certificate; and</P>
            <P>(7) In the case of a pilot employee of a certificate holder operating under part 121 or 135 of this chapter or of a fractional ownership program manager under subpart K of part 91 of this chapter, must have—</P>
            <P>(i) Met the appropriate requirements of paragraphs (d)(1), (d)(4), and (d)(5) of this section for the aircraft type rating sought; and</P>
            <P>(ii) Received an endorsement in his or her flight training record from the certificate holder or program manager attesting that the applicant has completed the certificate holder's or program manager's approved ground and flight training program appropriate to the aircraft type rating sought.</P>
            <P>(e) <E T="03">Use of a flight simulator or flight training device for an additional rating in an airplane.</E> The areas of operation required to be performed by paragraphs (b), (c), and (d) of this section shall be performed as follows:</P>
            <P>(1) Except as provided in paragraph (e)(2) of this section, the areas of operation must be performed in an airplane of the same category, class, and type, if applicable, as the airplane for which the additional rating is sought.</P>
            <P>(2) Subject to the limitations of paragraph (e)(3) through (e)(12) of this section, the areas of operation may be performed in a flight simulator or flight training device that represents the airplane for which the additional rating is sought.</P>
            <P>(3) The use of a flight simulator or flight training device permitted by paragraph (e)(2) of this section shall be conducted in accordance with an approved course at a training center certificated under part 142 of this chapter.</P>
            <P>(4) To complete all training and testing (except preflight inspection) for an additional airplane rating without limitations when using a flight simulator—</P>
            <P>(i) The flight simulator must be qualified and approved as Level C or Level D; and</P>
            <P>(ii) The applicant must meet at least one of the following:</P>
            <P>(A) Hold a type rating for a turbojet airplane of the same class of airplane for which the type rating is sought, or have been appointed by a military service as a pilot in command of an airplane of the same class of airplane for which the type rating is sought, if a type rating in a turbojet airplane is sought.</P>
            <P>(B) Hold a type rating for a turbopropeller airplane of the same class of airplane for which the type rating is sought, or have been designated by a military service as a pilot in command of an airplane of the same class of airplane for which the type rating is sought, if a type rating in a turbopropeller airplane is sought.</P>
            <P>(C) Have at least 2,000 hours of flight time, of which 500 hours is in turbine-powered airplanes of the same class of airplane for which the type rating is sought.</P>
            <P>(D) Have at least 500 hours of flight time in the same type airplane as the airplane for which the rating is sought.</P>
            <P>(E) Have at least 1,000 hours of flight time in at least two different airplanes requiring a type rating.</P>
            <P>(5) Subject to the limitation of paragraph (e)(6) of this section, an applicant who does not meet the requirements of paragraph (e)(4) of this section may complete all training and testing (except for preflight inspection) for an additional rating when using a flight simulator if—</P>
            <P>(i) The flight simulator is qualified and approved as a Level C or Level D; and</P>
            <P>(ii) The applicant meets at least one of the following:</P>

            <P>(A) Holds a type rating in a propeller-driven airplane if a type rating in a turbojet airplane is sought, or holds a type rating in a turbojet airplane if a <PRTPAGE P="39"/>type rating in a propeller-driven airplane is sought; or</P>
            <P>(B) Since the beginning of the 12th calendar month before the month in which the applicant completes the practical test for an additional airplane rating, has logged:</P>
            <P>(<E T="03">1</E>) At least 100 hours of flight time in airplanes of the same class for which the type rating is sought and which requires a type rating; and</P>
            <P>(<E T="03">2</E>) At least 25 hours of flight time in airplanes of the same type for which the rating is sought.</P>
            <P>(6) An applicant meeting only the requirements of paragraph (e)(5) of this section will be issued an additional rating with a limitation.</P>
            <P>(7) The limitation on a certificate issued under the provisions of paragraph (e)(6) of this section shall state, “This certificate is subject to pilot-in-command limitations for the additional rating.”</P>
            <P>(8) An applicant who has been issued a pilot certificate with the limitation specified in paragraph (e)(7) of this section—</P>
            <P>(i) May not act as pilot in command of that airplane for which the additional rating was obtained under the provisions of this section until the limitation is removed from the pilot certificate; and</P>
            <P>(ii) May have the limitation removed by accomplishing 15 hours of supervised operating experience as pilot in command under the supervision of a qualified and current pilot in command, in the seat normally occupied by the pilot in command, in the same type of airplane to which the limitation applies.</P>
            <P>(9) An applicant who does not meet the requirements of paragraph (e)(4) or paragraph (e)(5) of this section may be issued an additional rating after successful completion of one of the following requirements:</P>
            <P>(i) Compliance with paragraphs (e)(2) and (e)(3) of this section and the following tasks, which must be successfully completed on a static airplane or in flight, as appropriate:</P>
            <P>(A) Preflight inspection;</P>
            <P>(B) Normal takeoff;</P>
            <P>(C) Normal ILS approach;</P>
            <P>(D) Missed approach; and</P>
            <P>(E) Normal landing.</P>
            <P>(ii) Compliance with paragraphs (e)(2), (e)(3), and (e)(10) through (e)(12) of this section.</P>
            <P>(10) An applicant meeting only the requirements of paragraph (e)(9)(ii) of this section will be issued an additional rating with a limitation.</P>
            <P>(11) The limitation on a certificate issued under the provisions of paragraph (e)(10) of this section shall state, “This certificate is subject to pilot-in-command limitations for the additional rating.”</P>
            <P>(12) An applicant who has been issued a pilot certificate with the limitation specified in paragraph (e)(11) of this section—</P>
            <P>(i) May not act as pilot in command of that airplane for which the additional rating was obtained under the provisions of this section until the limitation is removed from the pilot certificate; and</P>
            <P>(ii) May have the limitation removed by accomplishing 25 hours of supervised operating experience as pilot in command under the supervision of a qualified and current pilot in command, in the seat normally occupied by the pilot in command, in that airplane of the same type to which the limitation applies.</P>
            <P>(f) <E T="03">Use of a flight simulator or flight training device for an additional rating in a helicopter.</E> The areas of operation required to be performed by paragraphs (b), (c), and (d) of this section shall be performed as follows:</P>
            <P>(1) Except as provided in paragraph (f)(2) of this section, the areas of operation must be performed in a helicopter of the same type for the additional rating sought.</P>
            <P>(2) Subject to the limitations of paragraph (f)(3) through (f)(12) of this section, the areas of operation may be performed in a flight simulator or flight training device that represents that helicopter for the additional rating sought.</P>
            <P>(3) The use of a flight simulator or flight training device permitted by paragraph (f)(2) of this section shall be conducted in accordance with an approved course at a training center certificated under part 142 of this chapter.</P>

            <P>(4) To complete all training and testing (except preflight inspection) for an additional helicopter rating without <PRTPAGE P="40"/>limitations when using a flight simulator—</P>
            <P>(i) The flight simulator must be qualified and approved as Level C or Level D; and</P>
            <P>(ii) The applicant must meet at least one of the following if a type rating is sought in a turbine-powered helicopter:</P>
            <P>(A) Hold a type rating in a turbine-powered helicopter or have been appointed by a military service as a pilot in command of a turbine-powered helicopter.</P>
            <P>(B) Have at least 2,000 hours of flight time that includes at least 500 hours in turbine-powered helicopters.</P>
            <P>(C) Have at least 500 hours of flight time in turbine-powered helicopters.</P>
            <P>(D) Have at least 1,000 hours of flight time in at least two different turbine-powered helicopters.</P>
            <P>(5) Subject to the limitation of paragraph (f)(6) of this section, an applicant who does not meet the requirements of paragraph (f)(4) of this section may complete all training and testing (except for preflight inspection) for an additional rating when using a flight simulator if—</P>
            <P>(i) The flight simulator is qualified and approved as Level C or Level D; and</P>
            <P>(ii) The applicant meets at least one of the following:</P>
            <P>(A) Holds a type rating in a turbine-powered helicopter if a type rating in a turbine-powered helicopter is sought; or</P>
            <P>(B) Since the beginning of the 12th calendar month before the month in which the applicant completes the practical test for an additional helicopter rating, has logged at least 25 hours of flight time in helicopters of the same type for which the rating is sought.</P>
            <P>(6) An applicant meeting only the requirements of paragraph (f)(5) of this section will be issued an additional rating with a limitation.</P>
            <P>(7) The limitation on a certificate issued under the provisions of paragraph (f)(6) of this section shall state, “This certificate is subject to pilot-in-command limitations for the additional rating.”</P>
            <P>(8) An applicant who is issued a pilot certificate with the limitation specified in paragraph (f)(7) of this section—</P>
            <P>(i) May not act as pilot in command of that helicopter for which the additional rating was obtained under the provisions of this section until the limitation is removed from the pilot certificate; and</P>
            <P>(ii) May have the limitation removed by accomplishing 15 hours of supervised operating experience as pilot in command under the supervision of a qualified and current pilot in command, in the seat normally occupied by the pilot in command, in the same type of helicopter to which the limitation applies.</P>
            <P>(9) An applicant who does not meet the requirements of paragraph (f)(4) or paragraph (f)(5) of this section may be issued an additional rating after successful completion of one of the following requirements:</P>
            <P>(i) Compliance with paragraphs (f)(2) and (f)(3) of this section and the following tasks, which must be successfully completed on a static helicopter or in flight, as appropriate:</P>
            <P>(A) Preflight inspection;</P>
            <P>(B) Normal takeoff;</P>
            <P>(C) Normal ILS approach;</P>
            <P>(D) Missed approach; and</P>
            <P>(E) Normal landing.</P>
            <P>(ii) Compliance with paragraphs (f)(2), (f)(3), and (f)(10) through (f)(12) of this section.</P>
            <P>(10) A applicant meeting only the requirements of paragraph (f)(9)(ii) of this section will be issued an additional rating with a limitation.</P>
            <P>(11) The limitation on a certificate issued under the provisions of paragraph (f)(10) of this section shall state, “This certificate is subject to pilot-in-command limitations for the additional rating.”</P>
            <P>(12) An applicant who has been issued a pilot certificate with the limitation specified in paragraph (f)(11) of this section—</P>
            <P>(i) May not act as pilot in command of that helicopter for which the additional rating was obtained under the provisions of this section until the limitation is removed from the pilot certificate; and</P>

            <P>(ii) May have the limitation removed by accomplishing 25 hours of supervised operating experience as pilot in command under the supervision of a <PRTPAGE P="41"/>qualified and current pilot in command, in the seat normally occupied by the pilot in command, in that helicopter of the same type as to which the limitation applies.</P>
            <P>(g) <E T="03">Use of a flight simulator or flight training device for an additional rating in a powered-lift.</E> The areas of operation required to be performed by paragraphs (b), (c), and (d) of this section shall be performed as follows:</P>
            <P>(1) Except as provided in paragraph (g)(2) of this section, the areas of operation must be performed in a powered-lift of the same type for the additional rating sought.</P>
            <P>(2) Subject to the limitations of paragraphs (g)(3) through (g)(12) of this section, the areas of operation may be performed in a flight simulator or flight training device that represents that powered-lift for the additional rating sought.</P>
            <P>(3) The use of a flight simulator or flight training device permitted by paragraph (g)(2) of this section shall be conducted in accordance with an approved course at a training center certificated under part 142 of this chapter.</P>
            <P>(4) To complete all training and testing (except preflight inspection) for an additional powered-lift rating without limitations when using a flight simulator—</P>
            <P>(i) The flight simulator must be qualified and approved as Level C or Level D; and</P>
            <P>(ii) The applicant must meet at least one of the following if a type rating is sought in a turbine powered-lift:</P>
            <P>(A) Hold a type rating in a turbine powered-lift or have been appointed by a military service as a pilot in command of a turbine powered-lift.</P>
            <P>(B) Have at least 2,000 hours of flight time that includes at least 500 hours in turbine powered-lifts.</P>
            <P>(C) Have at least 500 hours of flight time in turbine powered-lifts.</P>
            <P>(D) Have at least 1,000 hours of flight time in at least two different turbine powered-lifts.</P>
            <P>(5) Subject to the limitation of paragraph (g)(6) of this section, an applicant who does not meet the requirements of paragraph (g)(4) of this section may complete all training and testing (except for preflight inspection) for an additional rating when using a flight simulator if—</P>
            <P>(i) The flight simulator is qualified and approved as Level C or Level D; and</P>
            <P>(ii) The applicant meets at least one of the following:</P>
            <P>(A) Holds a type rating in a turbine powered-lift if a type rating in a turbine powered-lift is sought; or</P>
            <P>(B) Since the beginning of the 12th calendar month before the month in which the applicant completes the practical test for an additional powered-lift rating, has logged at least 25 hours of flight time in powered-lifts of the same type for which the rating is sought.</P>
            <P>(6) An applicant meeting only the requirements of paragraph (g)(5) of this section will be issued an additional rating with a limitation.</P>
            <P>(7) The limitation on a certificate issued under the provisions of paragraph (g)(6) of this section shall state, “This certificate is subject to pilot-in-command limitations for the additional rating.”</P>
            <P>(8) An applicant who is issued a pilot certificate with the limitation specified in paragraph (g)(7) of this section—</P>
            <P>(i) May not act as pilot in command of that powered-lift for which the additional rating was obtained under the provisions of this section until the limitation is removed from the pilot certificate; and</P>
            <P>(ii) May have the limitation removed by accomplishing 15 hours of supervised operating experience as pilot in command under the supervision of a qualified and current pilot in command, in the seat normally occupied by the pilot in command, in the same type of powered-lift to which the limitation applies.</P>
            <P>(9) An applicant who does not meet the requirements of paragraph (g)(4) or paragraph (g)(5) of this section may be issued an additional rating after successful completion of one of the following requirements:</P>
            <P>(i) Compliance with paragraphs (g)(2) and (g)(3) of this section and the following tasks, which must be successfully completed on a static powered-lift or in flight, as appropriate:</P>
            <P>(A) Preflight inspection;</P>
            <P>(B) Normal takeoff;<PRTPAGE P="42"/>
            </P>
            <P>(C) Normal ILS approach;</P>
            <P>(D) Missed approach; and</P>
            <P>(E) Normal landing.</P>
            <P>(ii) Compliance with paragraphs (g)(2), (g)(3), and (g)(10) through (g)(12) of this section.</P>
            <P>(10) An applicant meeting only the requirements of paragraph (g)(9)(ii) of this section will be issued an additional rating with a limitation.</P>
            <P>(11) The limitation on a certificate issued under the provisions of paragraph (g)(10) of this section shall state, “This certificate is subject to pilot-in-command limitations for the additional rating.”</P>
            <P>(12) An applicant who has been issued a pilot certificate with the limitation specified in paragraph (g)(11) of this section—</P>
            <P>(i) May not act as pilot in command of that powered-lift for which the additional rating was obtained under the provisions of this section until the limitation is removed from the pilot certificate; and</P>
            <P>(ii) May have the limitation removed by accomplishing 25 hours of supervised operating experience as pilot in command under the supervision of a qualified and current pilot in command, in the seat normally occupied by the pilot in command, in that powered-lift of the same type as to which the limitation applies.</P>
            <P>(h) <E T="03">Aircraft not capable of instrument maneuvers and procedures.</E> An applicant for a type rating who provides an aircraft not capable of the instrument maneuvers and procedures required by the appropriate requirements contained in § 61.157 of this part for the practical test may—</P>
            <P>(1) Obtain a type rating limited to “VFR only”; and</P>
            <P>(2) Remove the “VFR only” limitation for each aircraft type in which the applicant demonstrates compliance with the appropriate instrument requirements contained in § 61.157 or § 61.73 of this part.</P>
            <P>(i) <E T="03">Multiengine, single-pilot station airplane.</E> An applicant for a type rating in a multiengine, single-pilot station airplane may meet the requirements of this part in a multiseat version of that multiengine airplane.</P>
            <P>(j) <E T="03">Single-engine, single-pilot station airplane.</E> An applicant for a type rating in a single-engine, single-pilot station airplane may meet the requirements of this part in a multiseat version of that single-engine airplane.</P>
            <P>(k) <E T="03">Waivers.</E> Unless the Administrator requires certain or all tasks to be performed, the examiner who conducts the practical test may waive any of the tasks for which the Administrator approves waiver authority.</P>
            <CITA>[Doc. No. 25910, 62 FR 16298, Apr. 4, 1997; Amdt. 61-103, 62 FR 40899, July 30, 1997; Amdt. 61-104, 63 FR 20287, Apr. 23, 1998; Amdt. 61-109, 68 FR 54559, Sept. 17, 2003]</CITA>
          </SECTION>
          <SECTION>
            <SECTNO>§ 61.64</SECTNO>
            <RESERVED>[Reserved]</RESERVED>
          </SECTION>
          <SECTION>
            <SECTNO>§ 61.65</SECTNO>
            <SUBJECT>Instrument rating requirements.</SUBJECT>
            <P>(a) <E T="03">General</E>. A person who applies for an instrument rating must:</P>
            <P>(1) Hold at least a current private pilot certificate with anairplane, helicopter, or powered-lift rating appropriate to the instrument rating sought;</P>
            <P>(2) Be able to read, speak, write, and understand the English language. If the applicant is unable to meet any of these requirements due to a medical condition, the Administrator may place such operating limitations on the applicant's pilot certificate as are necessary for the safe operation of the aircraft;</P>
            <P>(3) Receive and log ground training from an authorized instructor or accomplish a home-study course of training on the aeronautical knowledge areas of paragraph (b) of this section that apply to the instrument rating sought;</P>
            <P>(4) Receive a logbook or training record endorsement from an authorized instructor certifying that the person is prepared to take the required knowledge test;</P>
            <P>(5) Receive and log training on the areas of operation of paragraph (c) of this section from an authorized instructor in an aircraft, flight simulator, or flight training device that represents an airplane, helicopter, or powered-lift appropriate to the instrument rating sought;</P>

            <P>(6) Receive a logbook or training record endorsement from an authorized instructor certifying that the person is prepared to take the required practical test;<PRTPAGE P="43"/>
            </P>
            <P>(7) Pass the required knowledge test on the aeronautical knowledge areas of paragraph (b) of this section; however, an applicant is not required to take another knowledge test when that person already holds an instrument rating; and</P>
            <P>(8) Pass the required practical test on the areas of operation in paragraph (c) of this section in—</P>
            <P>(i) An airplane, helicopter, or powered-lift appropriate to the rating sought; or</P>
            <P>(ii) A flight simulator or a flight training device appropriate to the rating sought and for the specific maneuver or instrument approach procedure performed. If an approved flight training device is used for the practical test, the instrument approach procedures conducted in that flight training device are limited to one precision and one nonprecision approach, provided the flight training device is approved for the procedure performed.</P>
            <P>(b) <E T="03">Aeronautical knowledge</E>. A person who applies for an instrument rating must have received and logged ground training from an authorized instructor or accomplished a home-study course on the following aeronautical knowledge areas that apply to the instrument rating sought:</P>
            <P>(1) Federal Aviation Regulations of this chapter that apply to flight operations under IFR;</P>
            <P>(2) Appropriate information that applies to flight operations under IFR in the “Aeronautical Information Manual;”</P>
            <P>(3) Air traffic control system and procedures for instrument flight operations;</P>
            <P>(4) IFR navigation and approaches by use of navigation systems;</P>
            <P>(5) Use of IFR en route and instrument approach procedure charts;</P>
            <P>(6) Procurement and use of aviation weather reports and forecasts and the elements of forecasting weather trends based on that information and personal observation of weather conditions;</P>
            <P>(7) Safe and efficient operation of aircraft under instrument flight rules and conditions;</P>
            <P>(8) Recognition of critical weather situations and windshear avoidance;</P>
            <P>(9) Aeronautical decision making and judgment; and</P>
            <P>(10) Crew resource management, including crew communication and coordination.</P>
            <P>(c) <E T="03">Flight proficiency</E>. A person who applies for an instrument rating must receive and log training from an authorized instructor in an aircraft, or in a flight simulator or flight training device, in accordance with paragraph (e) of this section, that includes the following areas of operation:</P>
            <P>(1) Preflight preparation;</P>
            <P>(2) Preflight procedures;</P>
            <P>(3) Air traffic control clearances and procedures;</P>
            <P>(4) Flight by reference to instruments;</P>
            <P>(5) Navigation systems;</P>
            <P>(6) Instrument approach procedures;</P>
            <P>(7) Emergency operations; and</P>
            <P>(8) Postflight procedures.</P>
            <P>(d) <E T="03">Aeronautical experience</E>. A person who applies for an instrument rating must have logged the following:</P>
            <P>(1) At least 50 hours of cross-country flight time as pilot in command, of which at least 10 hours must be in airplanes for an instrument—airplane rating; and</P>
            <P>(2) A total of 40 hours of actual or simulated instrument time on the areas of operation of this section, to include—</P>
            <P>(i) At least 15 hours of instrument flight training from an authorized instructor in the aircraft category for which the instrument rating is sought;</P>
            <P>(ii) At least 3 hours of instrument training that is appropriate to the instrument rating sought from an authorized instructor in preparation for the practical test within the 60 days preceding the date of the test;</P>
            <P>(iii) For an instrument—airplane rating, instrument training on cross- country flight procedures specific to airplanes that includes at least one cross-country flight in an airplane that is performed under IFR, and consists of—</P>
            <P>(A) A distance of at least 250 nautical miles along airways or ATC-directed routing;</P>
            <P>(B) An instrument approach at each airport; and</P>

            <P>(C) Three different kinds of approaches with the use of navigation systems;<PRTPAGE P="44"/>
            </P>
            <P>(iv) For an instrument—helicopter rating, instrument training specific to helicopters on cross-country flight procedures that includes at least one cross-country flight in a helicopter that is performed under IFR, and consists of—</P>
            <P>(A) A distance of at least 100 nautical miles along airways or ATC-directed routing;</P>
            <P>(B) An instrument approach at each airport; and</P>
            <P>(C) Three different kinds of approaches with the use of navigation systems; and</P>
            <P>(v) For an instrument—powered-lift rating, instrument training specific to a powered-lift on cross-country flight procedures that includes at least one cross-country flight in a powered-lift that is performed under IFR and consists of—</P>
            <P>(A) A distance of at least 250 nautical miles along airways or ATC-directed routing;</P>
            <P>(B) An instrument approach at each airport; and</P>
            <P>(C) Three different kinds of approaches with the use of navigation systems.</P>
            <P>(e) <E T="03">Use of flight simulators or flight training devices</E>. If the instrument training was provided by an authorized instructor ina flight simulator or flight training device—</P>
            <P>(1) A maximum of 30 hours may be performed in that flight simulator or flight training device if the training was accomplished in accordance with part 142 of this chapter; or</P>
            <P>(2) A maximum of 20 hours may be performed in that flight simulator or flight training device if the training was not accomplished in accordance with part 142 of this chapter.</P>
            <CITA>[Doc. No. 25910, 62 FR 16298, Apr. 4, 1997; Amdt. 61-103, 62 FR 40900, July 30, 1997]</CITA>
          </SECTION>
          <SECTION>
            <SECTNO>§ 61.67</SECTNO>
            <SUBJECT>Category II pilot authorization requirements.</SUBJECT>
            <P>(a) <E T="03">General</E>. A person who applies for a Category II pilot authorization must hold:</P>
            <P>(1) At least a private or commercial pilot certificate with an instrument rating or an airline transport pilot certificate;</P>
            <P>(2) A type rating for the aircraft for which the authorization is sought if that aircraft requires a type rating; and</P>
            <P>(3) A category and class rating for the aircraft for which the authorization is sought.</P>
            <P>(b) <E T="03">Experience requirements</E>. An applicant for a Category II pilot authorization must have at least—</P>
            <P>(1) 50 hours of night flight time as pilot in command.</P>
            <P>(2) 75 hours of instrument time under actual or simulated instrument conditions that may include not more than—</P>
            <P>(i) A combination of 25 hours of simulated instrument flight time in a flight simulator or flight training device; or</P>
            <P>(ii) 40 hours of simulated instrument flight time if accomplished in an approved course conducted by an appropriately rated training center certificated under part 142 of this chapter.</P>
            <P>(3) 250 hours of cross-country flight time as pilot in command.</P>
            <P>(c) <E T="03">Practical test requirements</E>. (1) A practical test must be passed by a person who applies for—</P>
            <P>(i) Issuance or renewal of a Category II pilot authorization; and</P>
            <P>(ii) The addition of another type aircraft to the applicant's Category II pilot authorization.</P>
            <P>(2) To be eligible for the practical test for an authorization under this section, an applicant must—</P>
            <P>(i) Meet the requirements of paragraphs (a) and (b) of this section; and</P>
            <P>(ii) If the applicant has not passed a practical test for this authorization during the 12 calendar months preceding the month of the test, then that person must—</P>
            <P>(A) Meet the requirements of § 61.57(c); and</P>
            <P>(B) Have performed at least six ILS approaches during the 6 calendar months preceding the month of the test, of which at least three of the approaches must have been conducted without the use of an approach coupler.</P>
            <P>(3) The approaches specified in paragraph (c)(2)(ii)(B) of this section—</P>
            <P>(i) Must be conducted under actual or simulated instrument flight conditions;</P>

            <P>(ii) Must be conducted to the decision height for the ILS approach in the type aircraft in which the practical test is to be conducted;<PRTPAGE P="45"/>
            </P>
            <P>(iii) Need not be conducted to the decision height authorized for Category II operations;</P>
            <P>(iv) Must be conducted to the decision height authorized for Category II operations only if conducted in a flight simulator or flight training device; and</P>
            <P>(v) Must be accomplished in an aircraft of the same category and class, and type, as applicable, as the aircraft in which the practical test is to be conducted or in a flight simulator that—</P>
            <P>(A) Represents an aircraft of the same category and class, and type, as applicable, as the aircraft in which the authorization is sought; and</P>
            <P>(B) Is used in accordance with an approved course conducted by a training center certificated under part 142 of this chapter.</P>
            <P>(4) The flight time acquired in meeting the requirements of paragraph (c)(2)(ii)(B) of this section may be used to meet the requirements of paragraph (c)(2)(ii)(A) of this section.</P>
            <P>(d) <E T="03">Practical test procedures.</E> The practical test consists of an oral increment and a flight increment.</P>
            <P>(1) <E T="03">Oral increment.</E> In the oral increment of the practical test an applicant must demonstrate knowledge of the following:</P>
            <P>(i) Required landing distance;</P>
            <P>(ii) Recognition of the decision height;</P>
            <P>(iii) Missed approach procedures and techniques using computed or fixed attitude guidance displays;</P>
            <P>(iv) Use and limitations of RVR;</P>
            <P>(v) Use of visual clues, their availability or limitations, and altitude at which they are normally discernible at reduced RVR readings;</P>
            <P>(vi) Procedures and techniques related to transition from nonvisual to visual flight during a final approach under reduced RVR;</P>
            <P>(vii) Effects of vertical and horizontal windshear;</P>
            <P>(viii) Characteristics and limitations of the ILS and runway lighting system;</P>
            <P>(ix) Characteristics and limitations of the flight director system, auto approach coupler (including split axis type if equipped), auto throttle system (if equipped), and other required Category II equipment;</P>
            <P>(x) Assigned duties of the second in command during Category II approaches, unless the aircraft for which authorization is sought does not require a second in command; and</P>
            <P>(xi) Instrument and equipment failure warning systems.</P>
            <P>(2) <E T="03">Flight increment.</E> The following requirements apply to the flight increment of the practical test:</P>
            <P>(i) The flight increment must be conducted in an aircraft of the same category, class, and type, as applicable, as the aircraft in which the authorization is sought or in a flight simulator that—</P>
            <P>(A) Represents an aircraft of the same category and class, and type, as applicable, as the aircraft in which the authorization is sought; and</P>
            <P>(B) Is used in accordance with an approved course conducted by a training center certificated under part 142 of this chapter.</P>
            <P>(ii) The flight increment must consist of at least two ILS approaches to 100 feet AGL including at least one landing and one missed approach.</P>
            <P>(iii) All approaches performed during the flight increment must be made with the use of an approved flight control guidance system, except if an approved auto approach coupler is installed, at least one approach must be hand flown using flight director commands.</P>
            <P>(iv) If a multiengine airplane with the performance capability to execute a missed approach with one engine inoperative is used for the practical test, the flight increment must include the performance of one missed approach with an engine, which shall be the most critical engine, if applicable, set at idle or zero thrust before reaching the middle marker.</P>
            <P>(v) If a multiengine flight simulator or multiengine flight training device is used for the practical test, the applicant must execute a missed approach with the most critical engine, if applicable, failed.</P>

            <P>(vi) For an authorization for an aircraft that requires a type rating, the practical test must be performed in coordination with a second in command who holds a type rating in the aircraft in which the authorization is sought.<PRTPAGE P="46"/>
            </P>
            <P>(vii) Oral questioning may be conducted at any time during a practical test.</P>
            <CITA>[Doc. No. 25910, 62 FR 16298, Apr. 4, 1997; Amdt. 61-103, 62 FR 40900, July 30, 1997]</CITA>
          </SECTION>
          <SECTION>
            <SECTNO>§ 61.68</SECTNO>
            <SUBJECT>Category III pilot authorization requirements.</SUBJECT>
            <P>(a) <E T="03">General.</E> A person who applies for a Category III pilot authorization must hold:</P>
            <P>(1) At least a private pilot certificate or commercial pilot certificate with an instrument rating or an airline transport pilot certificate;</P>
            <P>(2) A type rating for the aircraft for which the authorization is sought if that aircraft requires a type rating; and</P>
            <P>(3) A category and class rating for the aircraft for which the authorization is sought.</P>
            <P>(b) <E T="03">Experience requirements.</E> An applicant for a Category III pilot authorization must have at least—</P>
            <P>(1) 50 hours of night flight time as pilot in command.</P>
            <P>(2) 75 hours of instrument flight time during actual or simulated instrument conditions that may include not more than—</P>
            <P>(i) A combination of 25 hours of simulated instrument flight time in a flight simulator or flight training device; or</P>
            <P>(ii) 40 hours of simulated instrument flight time if accomplished in an approved course conducted by an appropriately rated training center certificated under part 142 of this chapter.</P>
            <P>(3) 250 hours of cross-country flight time as pilot in command.</P>
            <P>(c) <E T="03">Practical test requirements.</E> (1) A practical test must be passed by a person who applies for—</P>
            <P>(i) Issuance or renewal of a Category III pilot authorization; and</P>
            <P>(ii) The addition of another type of aircraft to the applicant's Category III pilot authorization.</P>
            <P>(2) To be eligible for the practical test for an authorization under this section, an applicant must—</P>
            <P>(i) Meet the requirements of paragraphs (a) and (b) of this section; and</P>
            <P>(ii) If the applicant has not passed a practical test for this authorization during the 12 calendar months preceding the month of the test, then that person must—</P>
            <P>(A) Meet the requirements of § 61.57(c); and</P>
            <P>(B) Have performed at least six ILS approaches during the 6 calendar months preceding the month of the test, of which at least three of the approaches must have been conducted without the use of an approach coupler.</P>
            <P>(3) The approaches specified in paragraph (c)(2)(ii)(B) of this section—</P>
            <P>(i) Must be conducted under actual or simulated instrument flight conditions;</P>
            <P>(ii) Must be conducted to the alert height or decision height for the ILS approach in the type aircraft in which the practical test is to be conducted;</P>
            <P>(iii) Need not be conducted to the decision height authorized for Category III operations;</P>
            <P>(iv) Must be conducted to the alert height or decision height, as applicable, authorized for Category III operations only if conducted in a flight simulator or flight training device; and</P>
            <P>(v) Must be accomplished in an aircraft of the same category and class, and type, as applicable, as the aircraft in which the practical test is to be conducted or in a flight simulator that—</P>
            <P>(A) Represents an aircraft of the same category and class, and type, as applicable, as the aircraft for which the authorization is sought; and</P>
            <P>(B) Is used in accordance with an approved course conducted by a training center certificated under part 142 of this chapter.</P>
            <P>(4) The flight time acquired in meeting the requirements of paragraph (c)(2)(ii)(B) of this section may be used to meet the requirements of paragraph (c)(2)(ii)(A) of this section.</P>
            <P>(d) <E T="03">Practical test procedures.</E> The practical test consists of an oral increment and a flight increment.</P>
            <P>(1) <E T="03">Oral increment.</E> In the oral increment of the practical test an applicant must demonstrate knowledge of the following:</P>
            <P>(i) Required landing distance;</P>
            <P>(ii) Determination and recognition of the alert height or decision height, as applicable, including use of a radar altimeter;</P>

            <P>(iii) Recognition of and proper reaction to significant failures encountered prior to and after reaching the alert <PRTPAGE P="47"/>height or decision height, as applicable;</P>
            <P>(iv) Missed approach procedures and techniques using computed or fixed attitude guidance displays and expected height loss as they relate to manual go-around or automatic go-around, and initiation altitude, as applicable;</P>
            <P>(v) Use and limitations of RVR, including determination of controlling RVR and required transmissometers;</P>
            <P>(vi) Use, availability, or limitations of visual cues and the altitude at which they are normally discernible at reduced RVR readings including—</P>
            <P>(A) Unexpected deterioration of conditions to less than minimum RVR during approach, flare, and rollout;</P>
            <P>(B) Demonstration of expected visual references with weather at minimum conditions;</P>
            <P>(C) The expected sequence of visual cues during an approach in which visibility is at or above landing minima; and</P>
            <P>(D) Procedures and techniques for making a transition from instrument reference flight to visual flight during a final approach under reduced RVR.</P>
            <P>(vii) Effects of vertical and horizontal windshear;</P>
            <P>(viii) Characteristics and limitations of the ILS and runway lighting system;</P>
            <P>(ix) Characteristics and limitations of the flight director system auto approach coupler (including split axis type if equipped), auto throttle system (if equipped), and other Category III equipment;</P>
            <P>(x) Assigned duties of the second in command during Category III operations, unless the aircraft for which authorization is sought does not require a second in command;</P>
            <P>(xi) Recognition of the limits of acceptable aircraft position and flight path tracking during approach, flare, and, if applicable, rollout; and</P>
            <P>(xii) Recognition of, and reaction to, airborne or ground system faults or abnormalities, particularly after passing alert height or decision height, as applicable.</P>
            <P>(2) <E T="03">Flight increment.</E> The following requirements apply to the flight increment of the practical test—</P>
            <P>(i) The flight increment may be conducted in an aircraft of the same category and class, and type, as applicable, as the aircraft for which the authorization is sought, or in a flight simulator that—</P>
            <P>(A) Represents an aircraft of the same category and class, and type, as applicable, as the aircraft in which the authorization is sought; and</P>
            <P>(B) Is used in accordance with an approved course conducted by a training center certificated under part 142 of this chapter.</P>
            <P>(ii) The flight increment must consist of at least two ILS approaches to 100 feet AGL, including one landing and one missed approach initiated from a very low altitude that may result in a touchdown during the go-around maneuver;</P>
            <P>(iii) All approaches performed during the flight increment must be made with the approved automatic landing system or an equivalent landing system approved by the Administrator;</P>
            <P>(iv) If a multiengine aircraft with the performance capability to execute a missed approach with one engine inoperative is used for the practical test, the flight increment must include the performance of one missed approach with the most critical engine, if applicable, set at idle or zero thrust before reaching the middle or outer marker;</P>
            <P>(v) If a multiengine flight simulator or multiengine flight training device is used, a missed approach must be executed with an engine, which shall be the most critical engine, if applicable, failed;</P>
            <P>(vi) For an authorization for an aircraft that requires a type rating, the practical test must be performed in coordination with a second in command who holds a type rating in the aircraft in which the authorization is sought;</P>
            <P>(vii) Oral questioning may be conducted at any time during the practical test;</P>
            <P>(viii) Subject to the limitations of this paragraph, for Category IIIb operations predicated on the use of a fail-passive rollout control system, at least one manual rollout using visual reference or a combination of visual and instrument references must be executed. The maneuver required by this paragraph shall be initiated by a fail-passive disconnect of the rollout control system—</P>
            <P>(A) After main gear touchdown;<PRTPAGE P="48"/>
            </P>
            <P>(B) Prior to nose gear touchdown;</P>
            <P>(C) In conditions representative of the most adverse lateral touchdown displacement allowing a safe landing on the runway; and</P>
            <P>(D) In weather conditions anticipated in Category IIIb operations.</P>
            <CITA>[Doc. No. 25910, 62 FR 16298, Apr. 4, 1997; Amdt. 61-103, 62 FR 40900, July 30, 1997]</CITA>
          </SECTION>
          <SECTION>
            <SECTNO>§ 61.69</SECTNO>
            <SUBJECT>Glider towing: Experience and training requirements.</SUBJECT>
            <P>(a) No person may act as pilot in command for towing a glider unless that person:</P>
            <P>(1) Holds at least a private pilot certificate with a category rating for powered aircraft;</P>
            <P>(2) Has logged at least 100 hours of pilot-in-command time in the aircraft category, class, and type, if required, that the pilot is using to tow a glider;</P>
            <P>(3) Has a logbook endorsement from an authorized instructor who certifies that the person has received ground and flight training in gliders and is proficient in—</P>
            <P>(i) The techniques and procedures essential to the safe towing of gliders, including airspeed limitations;</P>
            <P>(ii) Emergency procedures;</P>
            <P>(iii) Signals used; and</P>
            <P>(iv) Maximum angles of bank.</P>
            <P>(4) Except as provided in paragraph (b) of this section, has logged at least three flights as the sole manipulator of the controls of an aircraft towing a glider or simulating glider-towing flight procedures while accompanied by a pilot who meets the requirements of paragraphs (c) and (d) of this section;</P>
            <P>(5) Except as provided in paragraph (b) of this section, has received a logbook endorsement from the pilot, described in paragraph (a)(4) of this section, certifying that the person has accomplished at least 3 flights in an aircraft while towing a glider, or while simulating glider-towing flight procedures; and</P>
            <P>(6) Within the preceding 12 months has—</P>
            <P>(i) Made at least three actual or simulated glider tows while accompanied by a qualified pilot who meets the requirements of this section; or</P>
            <P>(ii) Made at least three flights as pilot in command of a glider towed by an aircraft.</P>
            <P>(b) Any person who before May 17, 1967, has made and logged 10 or more flights as pilot in command of an aircraft towing a glider in accordance with a certificate of waiver need not comply with paragraphs (a)(4) and (a)(5) of this section.</P>
            <P>(c) The pilot, described in paragraph (a)(4) of this section, who endorses the logbook of a person seeking glider-towing privileges must have:</P>
            <P>(1) Met the requirements of this section prior to endorsing the logbook of the person seeking glider-towing privileges; and</P>
            <P>(2) Logged at least 10 flights as pilot in command of an aircraft while towing a glider.</P>
            <P>(d) If the pilot described in paragraph (a)(4) of this section holds only a private pilot certificate, then that pilot must have:</P>
            <P>(1) Logged at least 100 hours of pilot-in-command time in airplanes, or 200 hours of pilot-in-command time in a combination of powered and other-than-powered aircraft; and</P>
            <P>(2) Performed and logged at least three flights within the 12 calendar months preceding the month that pilot accompanies or endorses the logbook of a person seeking glider-towing privileges—</P>
            <P>(i) In an aircraft while towing a glider accompanied by another pilot who meets the requirements of this section; or</P>
            <P>(ii) As pilot in command of a glider being towed by an aircraft.</P>
            <CITA>[Doc. No. 25910, 62 FR 16298, Apr. 4, 1997; Amdt. 61-103, 62 FR 40901, July 30, 1997]</CITA>
          </SECTION>
          <SECTION>
            <SECTNO>§ 61.71</SECTNO>
            <SUBJECT>Graduates of an approved training program other than under this part: Special rules.</SUBJECT>
            <P>(a) A person who graduates from an approved training program under part 141 or part 142 of this chapter is considered to have met the applicable aeronautical experience, aeronautical knowledge, and areas of operation requirements of this part if that person presents the graduation certificate and passes the required practical test within the 60-day period after the date of graduation.</P>

            <P>(b) A person may apply for an airline transport pilot certificate, type rating, or both under this part, and will be <PRTPAGE P="49"/>considered to have met the applicable requirements under § 61.157 of this part for that certificate and rating, if that person has:</P>
            <P>(1) Satisfactorily accomplished an approved training program and thepilot-in-command proficiency check for that airplane type, in accordance with the pilot-in-command requirements under subparts N and O of part 121 of this chapter; and</P>
            <P>(2) Applied for the airline transport pilot certificate, type rating, or both within the 60-day period from the date the person satisfactorily accomplished the approved training program and pilot-in-command proficiency check for that airplane type.</P>
            <CITA>[Doc. No. 25910, 62 FR 16298, Apr. 4, 1997; Amdt. 61-103, 62 FR 40901, July 30, 1997]</CITA>
          </SECTION>
          <SECTION>
            <SECTNO>§ 61.73</SECTNO>
            <SUBJECT>Military pilots or former military pilots: Special rules.</SUBJECT>
            <P>(a) <E T="03">General.</E> Except for a rated military pilot or former rated military pilot who has been removed from flying status for lack of proficiency, or because of disciplinary action involving aircraft operations, a rated military pilot or former rated military pilot who meets the applicable requirements of this section may apply, on the basis of his or her military training, for:</P>
            <P>(1) A commercial pilot certificate;</P>
            <P>(2) An aircraft rating in the category and class of aircraft for which that military pilot is qualified;</P>
            <P>(3) An instrument rating with the appropriate aircraft rating for which that military pilot is qualified; or</P>
            <P>(4) A type rating, if appropriate.</P>
            <P>(b) <E T="03">Military pilots on active flying status within the past 12 months.</E> A rated military pilot or former rated military pilot who has been on active flying status within the 12 months before applying must:</P>
            <P>(1) Pass a knowledge test on the appropriate parts of this chapter that apply to pilot privileges and limitations, air traffic and general operating rules, and accident reporting rules;</P>
            <P>(2) Present documentation showing compliance with the requirements of paragraph (d) of this section for at least one aircraft category rating; and</P>
            <P>(3) Present documentation showing that the applicant is or was, at any time during the 12 calendar months before the month of application—</P>
            <P>(i) A rated military pilot on active flying status in an armed force of the United States; or</P>
            <P>(ii) A rated military pilot of an armed force of a foreign contracting State to the Convention on International Civil Aviation, assigned to pilot duties (other than flight training) with an armed force of the United States and holds, at the time of application, a current civil pilot license issued by that contracting State authorizing at least the privileges of the pilot certificate sought.</P>
            <P>(c) <E T="03">Military pilots not on active flying status during the 12 calendar months before the month of application.</E> A rated military pilot or former rated military pilot who has not been on active flying status within the 12 calendar months before the month of application must:</P>
            <P>(1) Pass the appropriate knowledge and practical tests prescribed in this part for the certificate or rating sought; and</P>
            <P>(2) Present documentation showing that the applicant was, before the beginning of the 12th calendar month before the month of application, a rated military pilot as prescribed by paragraph (b)(3)(i) or paragraph (b)(3)(ii) of this section.</P>
            <P>(d) <E T="03">Aircraft category, class, and type ratings.</E> A rated military pilot or former rated military pilot who applies for an aircraft category, class, or type rating, if applicable, is issued that rating at the commercial pilot certificate level if the pilot presents documentary evidence that shows satisfactory accomplishment of:</P>
            <P>(1) An official U.S. military pilot check and instrument proficiency check in that aircraft category, class, or type, if applicable, as pilot in command during the 12 calendar months before the month of application;</P>
            <P>(2) At least 10 hours of pilot-in-command time in that aircraft category, class, or type, if applicable, during the 12 calendar months before the month of application; or</P>
            <P>(3) An FAA practical test in that aircraft after—</P>

            <P>(i) Meeting the requirements of paragraphs (b)(1) and (b)(2) of this section; and<PRTPAGE P="50"/>
            </P>
            <P>(ii) Having received an endorsement from an authorized instructor who certifies that the pilot is proficient to take the required practical test, and that endorsement is made within the 60-day period preceding the date of the practical test.</P>
            <P>(e) <E T="03">Instrument rating.</E> A rated military pilot or former rated military pilot who applies for an airplane instrument rating, a helicopter instrument rating, or a powered-lift instrument rating to be added to his or her commercial pilot certificate may apply for an instrument rating if the pilot has, within the 12 calendar months preceding the month of application:</P>
            <P>(1) Passed an instrument proficiency check by a U.S. Armed Force in the aircraft category for the instrument rating sought; and</P>
            <P>(2) Received authorization from a U.S. Armed Force to conduct IFR flights on Federal airways in that aircraft category and class for the instrument rating sought.</P>
            <P>(f) <E T="03">Aircraft type rating.</E> An aircraft type rating is issued only for aircraft types that the Administrator has certificated for civil operations.</P>
            <P>(g) <E T="03">Aircraft type rating placed on an airline transport pilot certificate.</E> A rated military pilot or former rated military pilot who holds an airline transport pilot certificate and who requests an aircraft type rating to be placed on that person's airline transport pilot certificate may be issued that aircraft type rating at the airline transport pilot certificate level, provided that person:</P>
            <P>(1) Holds a category and class rating for that type of aircraft at the airline transport pilot certificate level; and</P>
            <P>(2) Passed an official U.S. military pilot check and instrument proficiency check in that type of aircraft as pilot in command during the 12 calendar months before the month of application.</P>
            <P>(h) <E T="03">Evidentiary documents.</E> The following documents are satisfactory evidence for the purposes indicated:</P>
            <P>(1) An official identification card issued to the pilot by an armed force may be used to demonstrate membership in the armed forces.</P>
            <P>(2) An original or a copy of a certificate of discharge or release may be used to demonstrate discharge or release from an armed force or former membership in an armed force.</P>
            <P>(3) Current or previous status as a rated military pilot with a U.S. Armed Force may be demonstrated by—</P>
            <P>(i) An official U.S. Armed Force order to flight status as a military pilot;</P>
            <P>(ii) An official U.S. Armed Force form or logbook showing military pilot status; or</P>
            <P>(iii) An official order showing that the rated military pilot graduated from a U.S. military pilot school and received a rating as a military pilot.</P>
            <P>(4) A certified U.S. Armed Force logbook or an appropriate official U.S. Armed Force form or summary may be used to demonstrate flight time in military aircraft as a member of a U.S. Armed Force.</P>
            <P>(5) An official U.S. Armed Force record of a military checkout as pilot in command may be used to demonstrate pilot in command status.</P>
            <P>(6) A current instrument grade slip that is issued by a U.S. Armed Force, or an official record of satisfactory accomplishment of an instrument proficiency check during the 12 calendar months preceding the month of the application may be used to demonstrate instrument pilot qualification.</P>
            <CITA>[Doc. No. 25910, 62 FR 16298, Apr. 4, 1997; Amdt. 61-103, 62 FR 40901, July 30, 1997]</CITA>
          </SECTION>
          <SECTION>
            <SECTNO>§ 61.75</SECTNO>
            <SUBJECT>Private pilot certificate issued on the basis of a foreign pilot license.</SUBJECT>
            <P>(a) <E T="03">General.</E> A person who holds a current foreign pilot license issued by a contracting State to the Convention on International Civil Aviation may apply for and be issued a private pilot certificate with the appropriate ratings when the application is based on the foreign pilot license that meets the requirements of this section.</P>
            <P>(b) <E T="03">Certificate issued.</E> A U.S. private pilot certificate that is issued under this section shall specify the person's foreign license number and country of issuance. A person who holds a current foreign pilot license issued by a contracting State to the Convention on International Civil Aviation may be issued a private pilot certificate based on the foreign pilot license without <PRTPAGE P="51"/>any further showing of proficiency, provided the applicant:</P>
            <P>(1) Meets the requirements of this section;</P>
            <P>(2) Holds a foreign pilot license that—</P>
            <P>(i) Is not under an order of revocation or suspension by the foreign country that issued the foreign pilot license; and</P>
            <P>(ii) Does not contain an endorsement stating that the applicant has not met all of the standards of ICAO for that license;</P>
            <P>(3) Does not currently hold a U.S. pilot certificate;</P>
            <P>(4) Holds a current medical certificate issued under part 67 of this chapter or a current medical certificate issued by the country that issued the person's foreign pilot license; and</P>
            <P>(5) Is able to read, speak, write, and understand the English language. If the applicant is unable to meet one of these requirements due to medical reasons, then the Administrator may place such operating limitations on that applicant's pilot certificate as are necessary for the safe operation of the aircraft.</P>
            <P>(c) <E T="03">Aircraft ratings issued.</E> Aircraft ratings listed on a person's foreign pilot license, in addition to any issued after testing under the provisions of this part, may be placed on that person's U.S. pilot certificate.</P>
            <P>(d) <E T="03">Instrument ratings issued.</E> A person who holds an instrument rating on the foreign pilot license issued by a contracting State to the Convention on International Civil Aviation may be issued an instrument rating on a U.S. private pilot certificate provided:</P>
            <P>(1) The person's foreign pilot license authorizes instrument privileges;</P>
            <P>(2) Within 24 months preceding the month in which the person applies for the instrument rating, the person passes the appropriate knowledge test; and</P>
            <P>(3) The person is able to read, speak, write, and understand the English language. If the applicant is unable to meet one of these requirements due to medical reasons, then the Administrator may place such operating limitations on that applicant's pilot certificate as are necessary for the safe operation of the aircraft.</P>
            <P>(e) <E T="03">Operating privileges and limitations.</E> A person who receives a U.S. private pilot certificate that has been issued under the provisions of this section:</P>
            <P>(1) May act as a pilot of a civil aircraft of U.S. registry in accordance with the private pilot privileges authorized by this part;</P>
            <P>(2) Is limited to the privileges placed on the certificate by the Administrator;</P>
            <P>(3) Is subject to the limitations and restrictions on the person's U.S. certificate and foreign pilot license when exercising the privileges of that U.S. pilot certificate in an aircraft of U.S. registry operating within or outside the United States; and</P>
            <P>(4) Shall not exercise the privileges of that U.S. private pilot certificate when the person's foreign pilot license has been revoked or suspended.</P>
            <P>(f) <E T="03">Limitation on licenses used as the basis for a U.S. certificate.</E> Only one foreign pilot license may be used as a basis for issuing a U.S. private pilot certificate. The foreign pilot license and medical certification used as a basis for issuing a U.S. private pilot certificate under this section must be in the English language or accompanied by an English language transcription that has been signed by an official or representative of the foreign aviation authority that issued the foreign pilot license.</P>
            <P>(g) <E T="03">Limitation placed on a U.S. private pilot certificate.</E> A U.S. private pilot certificate issued under this section is valid only when the holder has the foreign pilot license upon which the issuance of the U.S. private pilot certificate was based in the holder's personal possession or readily accessible in the aircraft.</P>
          </SECTION>
          <SECTION>
            <SECTNO>§ 61.77</SECTNO>
            <SUBJECT>Special purpose pilot authorization: Operation of U.S.-registered civil aircraft leased by a person who is not a U.S. citizen.</SUBJECT>
            <P>(a) <E T="03">General.</E> The holder of a foreign pilot license issued by a contracting State to the Convention on International Civil Aviation who meets the requirements of this section may be issued a special purpose pilot authorization by the Administrator for the purpose of performing pilot duties—<PRTPAGE P="52"/>
            </P>
            <P>(1) On a civil aircraft of U.S. registry that is leased to a person who is not a citizen of the United States, and</P>
            <P>(2) For carrying persons or property for compensation or hire on that aircraft.</P>
            <P>(b) <E T="03">Eligibility.</E> To be eligible for the issuance or renewal of a special purpose pilot authorization, an applicant must present the following to an FAA Flight Standards District Office:</P>
            <P>(1) A current foreign pilot license that has been issued by the aeronautical authority of a contracting State to the Convention on International Civil Aviation from which the person holds citizenship or resident status and that contains the appropriate aircraft category, class, instrument rating, and type rating, if appropriate, for the aircraft to be flown;</P>
            <P>(2) A current certification by the lessee of the aircraft—</P>
            <P>(i) Stating that the applicant is employed by the lessee;</P>
            <P>(ii) Specifying the aircraft type on which the applicant will perform pilot duties; and</P>
            <P>(iii) Stating that the applicant has received ground and flight instruction that qualifies the applicant to perform the duties to be assigned on the aircraft.</P>
            <P>(3) Documentation showing when the applicant will reach the age of 60 years (an official copy of the applicant's birth certificate or other official documentation);</P>
            <P>(4) Documentation that the applicant meets the medical standards for the issuance of the foreign pilot license from the aeronautical authority of the contracting State to the Convention on International Civil Aviation where the applicant holds citizenship or resident status;</P>
            <P>(5) Documentation that the applicant meets the recent flight experience requirements of this part (a logbook or flight record); and</P>
            <P>(6) A statement that the applicant does not already hold a special purpose pilot authorization; however, if the applicant already holds a special purpose pilot authorization, then that special purpose pilot authorization must be surrendered to either the FAA Flight Standards District Office that issued it, or the FAA Flight Standards District Office processing the application for the authorization, prior to being issued another special purpose pilot authorization.</P>
            <P>(c) <E T="03">Privileges.</E> A person issued a special purpose pilot authorization under this section—</P>
            <P>(1) May exercise the privileges prescribed on the special purpose pilot authorization; and</P>
            <P>(2) Must comply with the limitations specified in this section and any additional limitations specified on the special purpose pilot authorization.</P>
            <P>(d) <E T="03">General limitations.</E> A special purpose pilot authorization is valid only—</P>
            <P>(1) For flights between foreign countries or for flights in foreign air commerce within the time period allotted on the authorization;</P>
            <P>(2) If the foreign pilot license required by paragraph (b)(1) of this section, the medical documentation required by paragraph (b)(4) of this section, and the special purpose pilot authorization issued under this section are in the holder's physical possession or immediately accessible in the aircraft;</P>
            <P>(3) While the holder is employed by the person to whom the aircraft described in the certification required by paragraph (b)(2) of this section is leased;</P>
            <P>(4) While the holder is performing pilot duties on the U.S.-registered aircraft described in the certification required by paragraph (b)(2) of this section; and</P>
            <P>(5) If the holder has only one special purpose pilot authorization as provided in paragraph (b)(6) of this section.</P>
            <P>(e) <E T="03">Age limitation.</E> Except as provided in paragraph (g) of this section, no person who holds a special purpose pilot authorization issued under this part, and no person who holds a special purpose pilot certificate issued under this part before August 4, 1997, shall serve as a pilot on a civil airplane of U.S. registry if the person has reached his or her 60th birthday, in the following operations:</P>
            <P>(1) Scheduled international air services carrying passengers in turbojet-powered airplanes;</P>

            <P>(2) Scheduled international air services carrying passengers in airplanes having a passenger-seat configuration <PRTPAGE P="53"/>of more than nine passenger seats, excluding each crewmember seat;</P>
            <P>(3) Nonscheduled international air transportation for compensation or hire in airplanes having a passenger-seat configuration of more than 30 passenger seats, excluding each crewmember seat; or</P>
            <P>(4) Scheduled international air services, or nonscheduled international air transportation for compensation or hire, in airplanes having a payload capacity of more than 7,500 pounds.</P>
            <P>(f) <E T="03">Definitions</E>. (1) <E T="03">International air service,</E> as used in paragraph (e) of this section, means scheduled air service performed in airplanes for the public transport of passengers, mail, or cargo, in which the service passes through the air space over the territory of more than one country.</P>
            <P>(2) <E T="03">International air transportation,</E> as used in paragraph (e) of this section, means air transportation performed in airplanes for the public transport of passengers, mail, or cargo, in which service passes through the air space over the territory of more than one country.</P>
            <P>(g) <E T="03">Delayed pilot age limitations for certain operations</E>. Until December 20, 1999, a person may serve as a pilot in the operations specified in paragraph (e) of this section after that person has reached his or her 60th birthday, if, on March 20, 1997, that person was employed as a pilot in any of the following operations:</P>
            <P>(1) Scheduled international air services carrying passengers in nontransport category turbopropeller-powered airplanes type certificated after December 31, 1964, that have a passenger-seat configuration of 10 to 19 seats;</P>
            <P>(2) Scheduled international air services carrying passengers in transport category turbopropeller-powered airplanes that have a passenger-seat configuration of 20 to 30 seats; or</P>
            <P>(3) Scheduled international air services carrying passengers in turbojet-powered airplanes having a passenger-seat configuration of 1 to 30 seats.</P>
            <P>(h) <E T="03">Expiration date</E>. Each special purpose pilot authorization issued under this section expires—</P>
            <P>(1) 60 calendar months from the month it was issued, unless sooner suspended or revoked;</P>
            <P>(2) When the lease agreement for the aircraft expires or the lessee terminates the employment of the person who holds the special purpose pilot authorization;</P>
            <P>(3) Whenever the person's foreign pilot license has been suspended, revoked, or is no longer valid; or</P>
            <P>(4) When the person no longer meets the medical standards for the issuance of the foreign pilot license.</P>
            <P>(i) <E T="03">Renewal</E>. A person exercising the privileges of a special purpose pilot authorization may apply for a 60-calendar-month extension of that authorization, provided the person—</P>
            <P>(1) Continues to meet the requirements of this section; and</P>
            <P>(2) Surrenders the expired special purpose pilot authorization upon receipt of the new authorization.</P>
            <P>(j) <E T="03">Surrender</E>. The holder of a special purpose pilot authorization must surrender the authorization to the Administrator within 7 days after the date the authorization terminates.</P>
            <CITA>[Doc. No. 25910, 62 FR 40901, July 30, 1997]</CITA>
          </SECTION>
        </SUBPART>
        <SUBPART>
          <HD SOURCE="HED">Subpart C—Student Pilots</HD>
          <SECTION>
            <SECTNO>§ 61.81</SECTNO>
            <SUBJECT>Applicability.</SUBJECT>
            <P>This subpart prescribes the requirements for the issuance of student pilot certificates, the conditions under which those certificates are necessary, and the general operating rules and limitations for the holders of those certificates.</P>
          </SECTION>
          <SECTION>
            <SECTNO>§ 61.83</SECTNO>
            <SUBJECT>Eligibility requirements for student pilots.</SUBJECT>
            <P>To be eligible for a student pilot certificate, an applicant must:</P>
            <P>(a) Be at least 16 years of age for other than the operation of a glider or balloon.</P>
            <P>(b) Be at least 14 years of age for the operation of a glider or balloon.</P>

            <P>(c) Be able to read, speak, write, and understand the English language. If the applicant is unable to meet one of these requirements due to medical reasons, then the Administrator may place such operating limitations on that applicant's pilot certificate as are <PRTPAGE P="54"/>necessary for the safe operation of the aircraft.</P>
          </SECTION>
          <SECTION>
            <SECTNO>§ 61.85</SECTNO>
            <SUBJECT>Application.</SUBJECT>
            <P>An application for a student pilot certificate is made on a form and in a manner provided by the Administrator and is submitted to:</P>
            <P>(a) A designated aviation medical examiner if applying for an FAA medical certificate under part 67 of this chapter;</P>
            <P>(b) An examiner; or</P>
            <P>(c) A Flight Standards District Office.</P>
          </SECTION>
          <SECTION>
            <SECTNO>§ 61.87</SECTNO>
            <SUBJECT>Solo requirements for student pilots.</SUBJECT>
            <P>(a) <E T="03">General.</E> A student pilot may not operate an aircraft in solo flight unless that student has met the requirements of this section. The term “solo flight” as used in this subpart means that flight time during which a student pilot is the sole occupant of the aircraft or that flight time during which the student performs the duties of a pilot in command of a gas balloon or an airship requiring more than one pilot flight crewmember.</P>
            <P>(b) <E T="03">Aeronautical knowledge.</E> A student pilot must demonstrate satisfactory aeronautical knowledge on a knowledge test that meets the requirements of this paragraph:</P>
            <P>(1) The test must address the student pilot's knowledge of—</P>
            <P>(i) Applicable sections of parts 61 and 91 of this chapter;</P>
            <P>(ii) Airspace rules and procedures for the airport where the solo flight will be performed; and</P>
            <P>(iii) Flight characteristics and operational limitations for the make and model of aircraft to be flown.</P>
            <P>(2) The student's authorized instructor must—</P>
            <P>(i) Administer the test; and</P>
            <P>(ii) At the conclusion of the test, review all incorrect answers with the student before authorizing that student to conduct a solo flight.</P>
            <P>(c) <E T="03">Pre-solo flight training.</E> Prior to conducting a solo flight, a student pilot must have:</P>
            <P>(1) Received and logged flight training for the maneuvers and procedures of this section that are appropriate to the make and model of aircraft to be flown; and</P>
            <P>(2) Demonstrated satisfactory proficiency and safety, as judged by an authorized instructor, on the maneuvers and procedures required by this section in the make and model of aircraft or similar make and model of aircraft to be flown.</P>
            <P>(d) <E T="03">Maneuvers and procedures for pre-solo flight training in a single-engine airplane.</E> A student pilot who is receiving training for a single-engine airplane rating must receive and log flight training for the following maneuvers and procedures:</P>
            <P>(1) Proper flight preparation procedures, including preflight planning and preparation, powerplant operation, and aircraft systems;</P>
            <P>(2) Taxiing or surface operations, including runups;</P>
            <P>(3) Takeoffs and landings, including normal and crosswind;</P>
            <P>(4) Straight and level flight, and turns in both directions;</P>
            <P>(5) Climbs and climbing turns;</P>
            <P>(6) Airport traffic patterns, including entry and departure procedures;</P>
            <P>(7) Collision avoidance, windshear avoidance, and wake turbulence avoidance;</P>
            <P>(8) Descents, with and without turns, using high and low drag configurations;</P>
            <P>(9) Flight at various airspeeds from cruise to slow flight;</P>
            <P>(10) Stall entries from various flight attitudes and power combinations with recovery initiated at the first indication of a stall, and recovery from a full stall;</P>
            <P>(11) Emergency procedures and equipment malfunctions;</P>
            <P>(12) Ground reference maneuvers;</P>
            <P>(13) Approaches to a landing area with simulated engine malfunctions;</P>
            <P>(14) Slips to a landing; and</P>
            <P>(15) Go-arounds.</P>
            <P>(e) <E T="03">Maneuvers and procedures for pre-solo flight training in a multiengine airplane.</E> A student pilot who is receiving training for a multiengine airplane rating must receive and log flight training for the following maneuvers and procedures:</P>

            <P>(1) Proper flight preparation procedures, including preflight planning and preparation, powerplant operation, and aircraft systems;<PRTPAGE P="55"/>
            </P>
            <P>(2) Taxiing or surface operations, including runups;</P>
            <P>(3) Takeoffs and landings, including normal and crosswind;</P>
            <P>(4) Straight and level flight, and turns in both directions;</P>
            <P>(5) Climbs and climbing turns;</P>
            <P>(6) Airport traffic patterns, including entry and departure procedures;</P>
            <P>(7) Collision avoidance, windshear avoidance, and wake turbulence avoidance;</P>
            <P>(8) Descents, with and without turns, using high and low drag configurations;</P>
            <P>(9) Flight at various airspeeds from cruise to slow flight;</P>
            <P>(10) Stall entries from various flight attitudes and power combinations with recovery initiated at the first indication of a stall, and recovery from a full stall;</P>
            <P>(11) Emergency procedures and equipment malfunctions;</P>
            <P>(12) Ground reference maneuvers;</P>
            <P>(13) Approaches to a landing area with simulated engine malfunctions; and</P>
            <P>(14) Go-arounds.</P>
            <P>(f) <E T="03">Maneuvers and procedures for pre-solo flight training in a helicopter.</E> A student pilot who is receiving training for a helicopter rating must receive and log flight training for the following maneuvers and procedures:</P>
            <P>(1) Proper flight preparation procedures, including preflight planning and preparation, powerplant operation, and aircraft systems;</P>
            <P>(2) Taxiing or surface operations, including runups;</P>
            <P>(3) Takeoffs and landings, including normal and crosswind;</P>
            <P>(4) Straight and level flight, and turns in both directions;</P>
            <P>(5) Climbs and climbing turns;</P>
            <P>(6) Airport traffic patterns, including entry and departure procedures;</P>
            <P>(7) Collision avoidance, windshear avoidance, and wake turbulence avoidance;</P>
            <P>(8) Descents with and without turns;</P>
            <P>(9) Flight at various airspeeds;</P>
            <P>(10) Emergency procedures and equipment malfunctions;</P>
            <P>(11) Ground reference maneuvers;</P>
            <P>(12) Approaches to the landing area;</P>
            <P>(13) Hovering and hovering turns;</P>
            <P>(14) Go-arounds;</P>
            <P>(15) Simulated emergency procedures, including autorotational descents with a power recovery and power recovery to a hover;</P>
            <P>(16) Rapid decelerations; and</P>
            <P>(17) Simulated one-engine-inoperative approaches and landings for multiengine helicopters.</P>
            <P>(g) <E T="03">Maneuvers and procedures for pre-solo flight training in a gyroplane.</E> A student pilot who is receiving training for a gyroplane rating must receive and log flight training for the following maneuvers and procedures:</P>
            <P>(1) Proper flight preparation procedures, including preflight planning and preparation, powerplant operation, and aircraft systems;</P>
            <P>(2) Taxiing or surface operations, including runups;</P>
            <P>(3) Takeoffs and landings, including normal and crosswind;</P>
            <P>(4) Straight and level flight, and turns in both directions;</P>
            <P>(5) Climbs and climbing turns;</P>
            <P>(6) Airport traffic patterns, including entry and departure procedures;</P>
            <P>(7) Collision avoidance, windshear avoidance, and wake turbulence avoidance;</P>
            <P>(8) Descents with and without turns;</P>
            <P>(9) Flight at various airspeeds;</P>
            <P>(10) Emergency procedures and equipment malfunctions;</P>
            <P>(11) Ground reference maneuvers;</P>
            <P>(12) Approaches to the landing area;</P>
            <P>(13) High rates of descent with power on and with simulated power off, and recovery from those flight configurations;</P>
            <P>(14) Go-arounds; and</P>
            <P>(15) Simulated emergency procedures, including simulated power-off landings and simulated power failure during departures.</P>
            <P>(h) <E T="03">Maneuvers and procedures for pre-solo flight training in a powered-lift.</E> A student pilot who is receiving training for a powered-lift rating must receive and log flight training in the following maneuvers and procedures:</P>
            <P>(1) Proper flight preparation procedures, including preflight planning and preparation, powerplant operation, and aircraft systems;</P>
            <P>(2) Taxiing or surface operations, including runups;</P>

            <P>(3) Takeoffs and landings, including normal and crosswind;<PRTPAGE P="56"/>
            </P>
            <P>(4) Straight and level flight, and turns in both directions;</P>
            <P>(5) Climbs and climbing turns;</P>
            <P>(6) Airport traffic patterns, including entry and departure procedures;</P>
            <P>(7) Collision avoidance, windshear avoidance, and wake turbulence avoidance;</P>
            <P>(8) Descents with and without turns;</P>
            <P>(9) Flight at various airspeeds from cruise to slow flight;</P>
            <P>(10) Stall entries from various flight attitudes and power combinations with recovery initiated at the first indication of a stall, and recovery from a full stall;</P>
            <P>(11) Emergency procedures and equipment malfunctions;</P>
            <P>(12) Ground reference maneuvers;</P>
            <P>(13) Approaches to a landing with simulated engine malfunctions;</P>
            <P>(14) Go-arounds;</P>
            <P>(15) Approaches to the landing area;</P>
            <P>(16) Hovering and hovering turns; and</P>
            <P>(17) For multiengine powered-lifts, simulated one-engine-inoperative approaches and landings.</P>
            <P>(i) <E T="03">Maneuvers and procedures for pre-solo flight training in a glider.</E> A student pilot who is receiving training for a glider rating must receive and log flight training for the following maneuvers and procedures:</P>
            <P>(1) Proper flight preparation procedures, including preflight planning, preparation, aircraft systems, and, if appropriate, powerplant operations;</P>
            <P>(2) Taxiing or surface operations, including runups, if applicable;</P>
            <P>(3) Launches, including normal and crosswind;</P>
            <P>(4) Straight and level flight, and turns in both directions, if applicable;</P>
            <P>(5) Airport traffic patterns, including entry procedures;</P>
            <P>(6) Collision avoidance, windshear avoidance, and wake turbulence avoidance;</P>
            <P>(7) Descents with and without turns using high and low drag configurations;</P>
            <P>(8) Flight at various airspeeds;</P>
            <P>(9) Emergency procedures and equipment malfunctions;</P>
            <P>(10) Ground reference maneuvers, if applicable;</P>
            <P>(11) Inspection of towline rigging and review of signals and release procedures, if applicable;</P>
            <P>(12) Aerotow, ground tow, or self-launch procedures;</P>
            <P>(13) Procedures for disassembly and assembly of the glider;</P>
            <P>(14) Stall entry, stall, and stall recovery;</P>
            <P>(15) Straight glides, turns, and spirals;</P>
            <P>(16) Landings, including normal and crosswind;</P>
            <P>(17) Slips to a landing;</P>
            <P>(18) Procedures and techniques for thermalling; and</P>
            <P>(19) Emergency operations, including towline break procedures.</P>
            <P>(j) <E T="03">Maneuvers and procedures for pre-solo flight training in an airship.</E> A student pilot who is receiving training for an airship rating must receive and log flight training for the following maneuvers and procedures:</P>
            <P>(1) Proper flight preparation procedures, including preflight planning and preparation, powerplant operation, and aircraft systems;</P>
            <P>(2) Taxiing or surface operations, including runups;</P>
            <P>(3) Takeoffs and landings, including normal and crosswind;</P>
            <P>(4) Straight and level flight, and turns in both directions;</P>
            <P>(5) Climbs and climbing turns;</P>
            <P>(6) Airport traffic patterns, including entry and departure procedures;</P>
            <P>(7) Collision avoidance, windshear avoidance, and wake turbulence avoidance;</P>
            <P>(8) Descents with and without turns;</P>
            <P>(9) Flight at various airspeeds from cruise to slow flight;</P>
            <P>(10) Emergency procedures and equipment malfunctions;</P>
            <P>(11) Ground reference maneuvers;</P>
            <P>(12) Rigging, ballasting, and controlling pressure in the ballonets, and superheating; and</P>
            <P>(13) Landings with positive and with negative static trim.</P>
            <P>(k) <E T="03">Maneuvers and procedures for pre-solo flight training in a balloon.</E> A student pilot who is receiving training in a balloon must receive and log flight training for the following maneuvers and procedures:</P>
            <P>(1) Layout and assembly procedures;</P>
            <P>(2) Proper flight preparation procedures, including preflight planning and preparation, and aircraft systems;</P>
            <P>(3) Ascents and descents;<PRTPAGE P="57"/>
            </P>
            <P>(4) Landing and recovery procedures;</P>
            <P>(5) Emergency procedures and equipment malfunctions;</P>
            <P>(6) Operation of hot air or gas source, ballast, valves, vents, and rip panels, as appropriate;</P>
            <P>(7) Use of deflation valves or rip panels for simulating an emergency;</P>
            <P>(8) The effects of wind on climb and approach angles; and</P>
            <P>(9) Obstruction detection and avoidance techniques.</P>
            <P>(l) <E T="03">Limitations on student pilots operating an aircraft in solo flight.</E> A student pilot may not operate an aircraft in solo flight unless that student pilot has received:</P>
            <P>(1) An endorsement from an authorized instructor on his or her student pilot certificate for the specific make and model aircraft to be flown; and</P>
            <P>(2) An endorsement in the student's logbook for the specific make and model aircraft to be flown by an authorized instructor, who gave the training within the 90 days preceding the date of the flight.</P>
            <P>(m) <E T="03">Limitations on student pilots operating an aircraft in solo flight at night.</E> A student pilot may not operate an aircraft in solo flight at night unless that student pilot has received:</P>
            <P>(1) Flight training at night on night flying procedures that includes takeoffs, approaches, landings, and go-arounds at night at the airport where the solo flight will be conducted;</P>
            <P>(2) Navigation training at night in the vicinity of the airport where the solo flight will be conducted; and</P>
            <P>(3) An endorsement in the student's logbook for the specific make and model aircraft to be flown for night solo flight by an authorized instructor who gave the training within the 90-day period preceding the date of the flight.</P>
            <P>(n) <E T="03">Limitations on flight instructors authorizing solo flight.</E> (1) No instructor may authorize a student pilot to perform a solo flight unless that instructor has—</P>
            <P>(i) Given that student pilot training in the make and model of aircraft or a similar make and model of aircraft in which the solo flight is to be flown;</P>
            <P>(ii) Determined the student pilot is proficient in the maneuvers and procedures prescribed in this section;</P>
            <P>(iii) Determined the student pilot is proficient in the make and model of aircraft to be flown;</P>
            <P>(iv) Ensured that the student pilot's certificate has been endorsed by an instructor authorized to provide flight training for the specific make and model aircraft to be flown; and</P>
            <P>(v) Endorsed the student pilot's logbook for the specific make and model aircraft to be flown, and that endorsement remains current for solo flight privileges, provided an authorized instructor updates the student's logbook every 90 days thereafter.</P>
            <P>(2) The flight training required by this section must be given by an instructor authorized to provide flight training who is appropriately rated and current.</P>
            <CITA>[Doc. No. 25910, 62 FR 16298, Apr. 4, 1997; Amdt. 61-103, 62 FR 40902, July 30, 1997; Amdt. 61-104, 63 FR 20287, Apr. 23, 1998]</CITA>
          </SECTION>
          <SECTION>
            <SECTNO>§ 61.89</SECTNO>
            <SUBJECT>General limitations.</SUBJECT>
            <P>(a) A student pilot may not act as pilot in command of an aircraft:</P>
            <P>(1) That is carrying a passenger;</P>
            <P>(2) That is carrying property for compensation or hire;</P>
            <P>(3) For compensation or hire;</P>
            <P>(4) In furtherance of a business;</P>
            <P>(5) On an international flight, except that a student pilot may make solo training flights from Haines, Gustavus, or Juneau, Alaska, to White Horse, Yukon, Canada, and return over the province of British Columbia;</P>
            <P>(6) With a flight or surface visibility of less than 3 statute miles during daylight hours or 5 statute miles at night;</P>
            <P>(7) When the flight cannot be made with visual reference to the surface; or</P>
            <P>(8) In a manner contrary to any limitations placed in the pilot's logbook by an authorized instructor.</P>
            <P>(b) A student pilot may not act as a required pilot flight crewmember on any aircraft for which more than one pilot is required by the type certificate of the aircraft or regulations under which the flight is conducted, except when receiving flight training from an authorized instructor on board an airship, and no person other than a required flight crewmember is carried on the aircraft.</P>
          </SECTION>
          <SECTION>
            <PRTPAGE P="58"/>
            <SECTNO>§ 61.91</SECTNO>
            <RESERVED>[Reserved]</RESERVED>
          </SECTION>
          <SECTION>
            <SECTNO>§ 61.93</SECTNO>
            <SUBJECT>Solo cross-country flight requirements.</SUBJECT>
            <P>(a) <E T="03">General.</E> (1) Except as provided in paragraph (b) of this section, a student pilot must meet the requirements of this section before—</P>
            <P>(i) Conducting a solo cross-country flight, or any flight greater than 25 nautical miles from the airport from where the flight originated.</P>
            <P>(ii) Making a solo flight and landing at any location other than the airport of origination.</P>
            <P>(2) Except as provided in paragraph (b) of this section, a student pilot who seeks solo cross-country flight privileges must:</P>
            <P>(i) Have received flight training from an instructor authorized to provide flight training on the maneuvers and procedures of this section that are appropriate to the make and model of aircraft for which solo cross-country privileges are sought;</P>
            <P>(ii) Have demonstrated cross-country proficiency on the appropriate maneuvers and procedures of this section to an authorized instructor;</P>
            <P>(iii) Have satisfactorily accomplished the pre-solo flight maneuvers and procedures required by § 61.87 of this part in the make and model of aircraft or similar make and model of aircraft for which solo cross-country privileges are sought; and</P>
            <P>(iv) Comply with any limitations included in the authorized instructor's endorsement that are required by paragraph (c) of this section.</P>
            <P>(3) A student pilot who seeks solo cross-country flight privileges must have received ground and flight training from an authorized instructor on the cross-country maneuvers and procedures listed in this section that are appropriate to the aircraft to be flown.</P>
            <P>(b) <E T="03">Authorization to perform certain solo flights and cross-country flights.</E> A student pilot must obtain an endorsement from an authorized instructor to make solo flights from the airport where the student pilot normally receives training to another location. A student pilot who receives this endorsement must comply with the requirements of this paragraph.</P>
            <P>(1) Solo flights may be made to another airport that is within 25 nautical miles from the airport where the student pilot normally receives training, provided—</P>
            <P>(i) An authorized instructor has given the student pilot flight training at the other airport, and that training includes flight in both directions over the route, entering and exiting the traffic pattern, and takeoffs and landings at the other airport;</P>
            <P>(ii) The authorized instructor who gave the training endorses the student pilot's logbook authorizing the flight;</P>
            <P>(iii) The student pilot has current solo flight endorsements in accordance with § 61.87 of this part;</P>
            <P>(iv) The authorized instructor has determined that the student pilot is proficient to make the flight; and</P>
            <P>(v) The purpose of the flight is to practice takeoffs and landings at that other airport.</P>
            <P>(2) Repeated specific solo cross-country flights may be made to another airport that is within 50 nautical miles of the airport from which the flight originated, provided—</P>
            <P>(i) The authorized instructor has given the student flight training in both directions over the route, including entering and exiting the traffic patterns, takeoffs, and landings at the airports to be used;</P>
            <P>(ii) The authorized instructor who gave the training has endorsed the student's logbook certifying that the student is proficient to make such flights;</P>
            <P>(iii) The student has current solo flight endorsements in accordance with § 61.87 of this part; and</P>
            <P>(iv) The student has current solo cross-country flight endorsements in accordance with paragraph (c) of this section; however, for repeated solo cross-country flights to another airport within 50 nautical miles from which the flight originated, separate endorsements are not required to be made for each flight.</P>
            <P>(c) <E T="03">Endorsements for solo cross-country flights.</E> Except as specified in paragraph (b)(2) of this section, a student pilot must have the endorsements prescribed in this paragraph for each cross-country flight:</P>
            <P>(1) <E T="03">Student pilot certificate endorsement.</E> A student pilot must have a solo <PRTPAGE P="59"/>cross-country endorsement from the authorized instructor who conducted the training, and that endorsement must be placed on that person's student pilot certificate for the specific category of aircraft to be flown.</P>
            <P>(2) <E T="03">Logbook endorsement.</E> (i) A student pilot must have a solo cross-country endorsement from an authorized instructor that is placed in the student pilot's logbook for the specific make and model of aircraft to be flown.</P>
            <P>(ii) For each cross-country flight, the authorized instructor who reviews the cross-country planning must make an endorsement in the person's logbook after reviewing that person's cross-country planning, as specified in paragraph (d) of this section. The endorsement must—</P>
            <P>(A) Specify the make and model of aircraft to be flown;</P>
            <P>(B) State that the student's preflight planning and preparation is correct and that the student is prepared to make the flight safely under the known conditions; and</P>
            <P>(C) State that any limitations required by the student's authorized instructor are met.</P>
            <P>(d) <E T="03">Limitations on authorized instructors to permit solo cross-country flights.</E> An authorized instructor may not permit a student pilot to conduct a solo cross-country flight unless that instructor has:</P>
            <P>(1) Determined that the student's cross-country planning is correct for the flight;</P>
            <P>(2) Reviewed the current and forecast weather conditions and has determined that the flight can be completed under VFR;</P>
            <P>(3) Determined that the student is proficient to conduct the flight safely;</P>
            <P>(4) Determined that the student has the appropriate solo cross-country endorsement for the make and model of aircraft to be flown; and</P>
            <P>(5) Determined that the student's solo flight endorsement is current for the make and model aircraft to be flown.</P>
            <P>(e) <E T="03">Maneuvers and procedures for cross-country flight training in a single-engine airplane.</E> A student pilot who is receiving training for cross-country flight in a single-engine airplane must receive and log flight training in the following maneuvers and procedures:</P>
            <P>(1) Use of aeronautical charts for VFR navigation using pilotage and dead reckoning with the aid of a magnetic compass;</P>
            <P>(2) Use of aircraft performance charts pertaining to cross-country flight;</P>
            <P>(3) Procurement and analysis of aeronautical weather reports and forecasts, including recognition of critical weather situations and estimating visibility while in flight;</P>
            <P>(4) Emergency procedures;</P>
            <P>(5) Traffic pattern procedures that include area departure, area arrival, entry into the traffic pattern, and approach;</P>
            <P>(6) Procedures and operating practices for collision avoidance, wake turbulence precautions, and windshear avoidance;</P>
            <P>(7) Recognition, avoidance, and operational restrictions of hazardous terrain features in the geographical area where the cross-country flight will be flown;</P>
            <P>(8) Procedures for operating the instruments and equipment installed in the aircraft to be flown, including recognition and use of the proper operational procedures and indications;</P>
            <P>(9) Use of radios for VFR navigation and two-way communications;</P>
            <P>(10) Takeoff, approach, and landing procedures, including short-field, soft-field, and crosswind takeoffs, approaches, and landings;</P>
            <P>(11) Climbs at best angle and best rate; and</P>
            <P>(12) Control and maneuvering solely by reference to flight instruments, including straight and level flight, turns, descents, climbs, use of radio aids, and ATC directives.</P>
            <P>(f) <E T="03">Maneuvers and procedures for cross-country flight training in a multiengine airplane.</E> A student pilot who is receiving training for cross-country flight in a multiengine airplane must receive and log flight training in the following maneuvers and procedures:</P>
            <P>(1) Use of aeronautical charts for VFR navigation using pilotage and dead reckoning with the aid of a magnetic compass;</P>

            <P>(2) Use of aircraft performance charts pertaining to cross-country flight;<PRTPAGE P="60"/>
            </P>
            <P>(3) Procurement and analysis of aeronautical weather reports and forecasts, including recognition of critical weather situations and estimating visibility while in flight;</P>
            <P>(4) Emergency procedures;</P>
            <P>(5) Traffic pattern procedures that include area departure, area arrival, entry into the traffic pattern, and approach;</P>
            <P>(6) Procedures and operating practices for collision avoidance, wake turbulence precautions, and windshear avoidance;</P>
            <P>(7) Recognition, avoidance, and operational restrictions of hazardous terrain features in the geographical area where the cross-country flight will be flown;</P>
            <P>(8) Procedures for operating the instruments and equipment installed in the aircraft to be flown, including recognition and use of the proper operational procedures and indications;</P>
            <P>(9) Use of radios for VFR navigation and two-way communications;</P>
            <P>(10) Takeoff, approach, and landing procedures, including short-field, soft-field, and crosswind takeoffs, approaches, and landings;</P>
            <P>(11) Climbs at best angle and best rate; and</P>
            <P>(12) Control and maneuvering solely by reference to flight instruments, including straight and level flight, turns, descents, climbs, use of radio aids, and ATC directives.</P>
            <P>(g) <E T="03">Maneuvers and procedures for cross-country flight training in a helicopter.</E> A student pilot who is receiving training for cross-country flight in a helicopter must receive and log flight training for the following maneuvers and procedures:</P>
            <P>(1) Use of aeronautical charts for VFR navigation using pilotage and dead reckoning with the aid of a magnetic compass;</P>
            <P>(2) Use of aircraft performance charts pertaining to cross-country flight;</P>
            <P>(3) Procurement and analysis of aeronautical weather reports and forecasts, including recognition of critical weather situations and estimating visibility while in flight;</P>
            <P>(4) Emergency procedures;</P>
            <P>(5) Traffic pattern procedures that include area departure, area arrival, entry into the traffic pattern, and approach;</P>
            <P>(6) Procedures and operating practices for collision avoidance, wake turbulence precautions, and windshear avoidance;</P>
            <P>(7) Recognition, avoidance, and operational restrictions of hazardous terrain features in the geographical area where the cross-country flight will be flown;</P>
            <P>(8) Procedures for operating the instruments and equipment installed in the aircraft to be flown, including recognition and use of the proper operational procedures and indications;</P>
            <P>(9) Use of radios for VFR navigation and two-way communications; and</P>
            <P>(10) Takeoff, approach, and landing procedures.</P>
            <P>(h) <E T="03">Maneuvers and procedures for cross-country flight training in a gyroplane.</E> A student pilot who is receiving training for cross-country flight in a gyroplane must receive and log flight training in the following maneuvers and procedures:</P>
            <P>(1) Use of aeronautical charts for VFR navigation using pilotage and dead reckoning with the aid of a magnetic compass;</P>
            <P>(2) Use of aircraft performance charts pertaining to cross-country flight;</P>
            <P>(3) Procurement and analysis of aeronautical weather reports and forecasts, including recognition of critical weather situations and estimating visibility while in flight;</P>
            <P>(4) Emergency procedures;</P>
            <P>(5) Traffic pattern procedures that include area departure, area arrival, entry into the traffic pattern, and approach;</P>
            <P>(6) Procedures and operating practices for collision avoidance, wake turbulence precautions, and windshear avoidance;</P>
            <P>(7) Recognition, avoidance, and operational restrictions of hazardous terrain features in the geographical area where the cross-country flight will be flown;</P>
            <P>(8) Procedures for operating the instruments and equipment installed in the aircraft to be flown, including recognition and use of the proper operational procedures and indications;</P>

            <P>(9) Use of radios for VFR navigation and two-way communications; and<PRTPAGE P="61"/>
            </P>
            <P>(10) Takeoff, approach, and landing procedures, including short-field and soft-field takeoffs, approaches, and landings.</P>
            <P>(i) <E T="03">Maneuvers and procedures for cross-country flight training in a powered-lift.</E> A student pilot who is receiving training for cross-country flight training in a powered-lift must receive and log flight training in the following maneuvers and procedures:</P>
            <P>(1) Use of aeronautical charts for VFR navigation using pilotage and dead reckoning with the aid of a magnetic compass;</P>
            <P>(2) Use of aircraft performance charts pertaining to cross-country flight;</P>
            <P>(3) Procurement and analysis of aeronautical weather reports and forecasts, including recognition of critical weather situations and estimating visibility while in flight;</P>
            <P>(4) Emergency procedures;</P>
            <P>(5) Traffic pattern procedures that include area departure, area arrival, entry into the traffic pattern, and approach;</P>
            <P>(6) Procedures and operating practices for collision avoidance, wake turbulence precautions, and windshear avoidance;</P>
            <P>(7) Recognition, avoidance, and operational restrictions of hazardous terrain features in the geographical area where the cross-country flight will be flown;</P>
            <P>(8) Procedures for operating the instruments and equipment installed in the aircraft to be flown, including recognition and use of the proper operational procedures and indications;</P>
            <P>(9) Use of radios for VFR navigation and two-way communications;</P>
            <P>(10) Takeoff, approach, and landing procedures that include high-altitude, steep, and shallow takeoffs, approaches, and landings; and</P>
            <P>(11) Control and maneuvering solely by reference to flight instruments, including straight and level flight, turns, descents, climbs, use of radio aids, and ATC directives.</P>
            <P>(j) <E T="03">Maneuvers and procedures for cross-country flight training in a glider.</E> A student pilot who is receiving training for cross-country flight in a glider must receive and log flight training in the following maneuvers and procedures:</P>
            <P>(1) Use of aeronautical charts for VFR navigation using pilotage and dead reckoning with the aid of a magnetic compass;</P>
            <P>(2) Use of aircraft performance charts pertaining to cross-country flight;</P>
            <P>(3) Procurement and analysis of aeronautical weather reports and forecasts, including recognition of critical weather situations and estimating visibility while in flight;</P>
            <P>(4) Emergency procedures;</P>
            <P>(5) Traffic pattern procedures that include area departure, area arrival, entry into the traffic pattern, and approach;</P>
            <P>(6) Procedures and operating practices for collision avoidance, wake turbulence precautions, and windshear avoidance;</P>
            <P>(7) Recognition, avoidance, and operational restrictions of hazardous terrain features in the geographical area where the cross-country flight will be flown;</P>
            <P>(8) Procedures for operating the instruments and equipment installed in the aircraft to be flown, including recognition and use of the proper operational procedures and indications;</P>
            <P>(9) Landings accomplished without the use of the altimeter from at least 2,000 feet above the surface; and</P>
            <P>(10) Recognition of weather and upper air conditions favorable for cross-country soaring, ascending and descending flight, and altitude control.</P>
            <P>(k) <E T="03">Maneuvers and procedures for cross-country flight training in an airship.</E> A student pilot who is receiving training for cross-country flight in an airship must receive and log flight training for the following maneuvers and procedures:</P>
            <P>(1) Use of aeronautical charts for VFR navigation using pilotage and dead reckoning with the aid of a magnetic compass;</P>
            <P>(2) Use of aircraft performance charts pertaining to cross-country flight;</P>
            <P>(3) Procurement and analysis of aeronautical weather reports and forecasts, including recognition of critical weather situations and estimating visibility while in flight;</P>
            <P>(4) Emergency procedures;</P>

            <P>(5) Traffic pattern procedures that include area departure, area arrival, <PRTPAGE P="62"/>entry into the traffic pattern, and approach;</P>
            <P>(6) Procedures and operating practices for collision avoidance, wake turbulence precautions, and windshear avoidance;</P>
            <P>(7) Recognition, avoidance, and operational restrictions of hazardous terrain features in the geographical area where the cross-country flight will be flown;</P>
            <P>(8) Procedures for operating the instruments and equipment installed in the aircraft to be flown, including recognition and use of the proper operational procedures and indications;</P>
            <P>(9) Use of radios for VFR navigation and two-way communications;</P>
            <P>(10) Control of air pressure with regard to ascending and descending flight and altitude control;</P>
            <P>(11) Control of the airship solely by reference to flight instruments; and</P>
            <P>(12) Recognition of weather and upper air conditions conducive for the direction of cross-country flight.</P>
            <CITA>[Doc. No. 25910, 62 FR 16298, Apr. 4, 1997; Amdt. 61-103, 62 FR 40902, July 30, 1997]</CITA>
          </SECTION>
          <SECTION>
            <SECTNO>§ 61.95</SECTNO>
            <SUBJECT>Operations in Class B airspace and at airports located within Class B airspace.</SUBJECT>
            <P>(a) A student pilot may not operate an aircraft on a solo flight in Class B airspace unless:</P>
            <P>(1) The student pilot has received both ground and flight training from an authorized instructor on that Class B airspace area, and the flight training was received in the specific Class B airspace area for which solo flight is authorized;</P>
            <P>(2) The logbook of that student pilot has been endorsed by the authorized instructor who gave the student pilot flight training, and the endorsement is dated within the 90-day period preceding the date of the flight in that Class B airspace area; and</P>
            <P>(3) The logbook endorsement specifies that the student pilot has received the required ground and flight training, and has been found proficient to conduct solo flight in that specific Class B airspace area.</P>
            <P>(b) A student pilot may not operate an aircraft on a solo flight to, from, or at an airport located within Class B airspace pursuant to § 91.131(b) of this chapter unless:</P>
            <P>(1) The student pilot has received both ground and flight training from an instructor authorized to provide training to operate at that airport, and the flight and ground training has been received at the specific airport for which the solo flight is authorized;</P>
            <P>(2) The logbook of that student pilot has been endorsed by an authorized instructor who gave the student pilot flight training, and the endorsement is dated within the 90-day period preceding the date of the flight at that airport; and</P>
            <P>(3) The logbook endorsement specifies that the student pilot has received the required ground and flight training, and has been found proficient to conduct solo flight operations at that specific airport.</P>
            <CITA>[Doc. No. 25910, 62 FR 16298, Apr. 4, 1997; Amdt. 61-103, 62 FR 40902, July 30, 1997]</CITA>
          </SECTION>
        </SUBPART>
        <SUBPART>
          <HD SOURCE="HED">Subpart D—Recreational Pilots</HD>
          <SECTION>
            <SECTNO>§ 61.96</SECTNO>
            <SUBJECT>Applicability and eligibility requirements: General.</SUBJECT>
            <P>(a) This subpart prescribes the requirement for the issuance of recreational pilot certificates and ratings, the conditions under which those certificates and ratings are necessary, and the general operating rules for persons who hold those certificates and ratings.</P>
            <P>(b) To be eligible for a recreational pilot certificate, a person who applies for that certificate must:</P>
            <P>(1) Be at least 17 years of age;</P>
            <P>(2) Be able to read, speak, write, and understand the English language. If the applicant is unable to meet one of these requirements due to medical reasons, then the Administrator may place such operating limitations on that applicant's pilot certificate as are necessary for the safe operation of the aircraft;</P>
            <P>(3) Receive a logbook endorsement from an authorized instructor who—</P>

            <P>(i) Conducted the training or reviewed the applicant's home study on the aeronautical knowledge areas listed in § 61.97(b) of this part that apply to the aircraft category and class rating sought; and<PRTPAGE P="63"/>
            </P>
            <P>(ii) Certified that the applicant is prepared for the required knowledge test.</P>
            <P>(4) Pass the required knowledge test on the aeronautical knowledge areas listed in § 61.97(b) of this part;</P>
            <P>(5) Receive flight training and a logbook endorsement from an authorized instructor who—</P>
            <P>(i) Conducted the training on the areas of operation listed in § 61.98(b) of this part that apply to the aircraft category and class rating sought; and</P>
            <P>(ii) Certified that the applicant is prepared for the required practical test.</P>
            <P>(6) Meet the aeronautical experience requirements of § 61.99 of this part that apply to the aircraft category and class rating sought before applying for the practical test;</P>
            <P>(7) Pass the required practical test on the areas of operation listed in § 61.98(b) of this part that apply to the aircraft category and class rating sought; and</P>
            <P>(8) Comply with the sections of this part that apply to the aircraft category and class rating sought.</P>
            <CITA>[Doc. No. 25910, 62 FR 16298, Apr. 4, 1997; Amdt. 61-103, 62 FR 40902, July 30, 1997]</CITA>
          </SECTION>
          <SECTION>
            <SECTNO>§ 61.97</SECTNO>
            <SUBJECT>Aeronautical knowledge.</SUBJECT>
            <P>(a) <E T="03">General.</E> A person who applies for a recreational pilot certificate must receive and log ground training from an authorized instructor or complete a home-study course on the aeronautical knowledge areas of paragraph (b) of this section that apply to the aircraft category and class rating sought.</P>
            <P>(b) <E T="03">Aeronautical knowledge areas.</E> (1) Applicable Federal Aviation Regulations of this chapter that relate to recreational pilot privileges, limitations, and flight operations;</P>
            <P>(2) Accident reporting requirements of the National Transportation Safety Board;</P>
            <P>(3) Use of the applicable portions of the “Aeronautical Information Manual” and FAA advisory circulars;</P>
            <P>(4) Use of aeronautical charts for VFR navigation using pilotage with the aid of a magnetic compass;</P>
            <P>(5) Recognition of critical weather situations from the ground and in flight, windshear avoidance, and the procurement and use of aeronautical weather reports and forecasts;</P>
            <P>(6) Safe and efficient operation of aircraft, including collision avoidance, and recognition and avoidance of wake turbulence;</P>
            <P>(7) Effects of density altitude on takeoff and climb performance;</P>
            <P>(8) Weight and balance computations;</P>
            <P>(9) Principles of aerodynamics, powerplants, and aircraft systems;</P>
            <P>(10) Stall awareness, spin entry, spins, and spin recovery techniques, if applying for an airplane single-engine rating;</P>
            <P>(11) Aeronautical decision making and judgment; and</P>
            <P>(12) Preflight action that includes—</P>
            <P>(i) How to obtain information on runway lengths at airports of intended use, data on takeoff and landing distances, weather reports and forecasts, and fuel requirements; and</P>
            <P>(ii) How to plan for alternatives if the planned flight cannot be completed or delays are encountered.</P>
            <CITA>[Doc. No. 25910, 62 FR 16298, Apr. 4, 1997; Amdt. 61-103, 62 FR 40902, July 30, 1997]</CITA>
          </SECTION>
          <SECTION>
            <SECTNO>§ 61.98</SECTNO>
            <SUBJECT>Flight proficiency.</SUBJECT>
            <P>(a) <E T="03">General.</E> A person who applies for a recreational pilot certificate must receive and log ground and flight training from an authorized instructor on the areas of operation of this section that apply to the aircraft category and class rating sought.</P>
            <P>(b) <E T="03">Areas of operation.</E> (1) <E T="03">For a single-engine airplane rating:</E> (i) Preflight preparation;</P>
            <P>(ii) Preflight procedures;</P>
            <P>(iii) Airport operations;</P>
            <P>(iv) Takeoffs, landings, and go-arounds;</P>
            <P>(v) Performance maneuvers;</P>
            <P>(vi) Ground reference maneuvers;</P>
            <P>(vii) Navigation;</P>
            <P>(viii) Slow flight and stalls;</P>
            <P>(ix) Emergency operations; and</P>
            <P>(x) Postflight procedures.</P>
            <P>(2) <E T="03">For a helicopter rating:</E> (i) Preflight preparation;</P>
            <P>(ii) Preflight procedures;</P>
            <P>(iii) Airport and heliport operations;</P>
            <P>(iv) Hovering maneuvers;</P>
            <P>(v) Takeoffs, landings, and go-arounds;</P>
            <P>(vi) Performance maneuvers;</P>
            <P>(vii) Ground reference maneuvers;</P>
            <P>(viii) Navigation;</P>
            <P>(ix) Emergency operations; and<PRTPAGE P="64"/>
            </P>
            <P>(x) Postflight procedures.</P>
            <P>(3) <E T="03">For a gyroplane rating:</E> (i) Preflight preparation;</P>
            <P>(ii) Preflight procedures;</P>
            <P>(iii) Airport operations;</P>
            <P>(iv) Takeoffs, landings, and go-arounds;</P>
            <P>(v) Performance maneuvers;</P>
            <P>(vi) Ground reference maneuvers;</P>
            <P>(vii) Navigation;</P>
            <P>(viii) Flight at slow airspeeds;</P>
            <P>(ix) Emergency operations; and</P>
            <P>(x) Postflight procedures.</P>
            <CITA>[Doc. No. 25910, 62 FR 16298, Apr. 4, 1997; Amdt. 61-103, 62 FR 40902, July 30, 1997]</CITA>
          </SECTION>
          <SECTION>
            <SECTNO>§ 61.99</SECTNO>
            <SUBJECT>Aeronautical experience.</SUBJECT>
            <P>A person who applies for a recreational pilot certificate must receive and log at least 30 hours of flight training time that includes at least:</P>
            <P>(a) 15 hours of flight training from an authorized instructor on the areas of operation listed in § 61.98 of this part that consists of at least:</P>
            <P>(1) Except as provided in § 61.100 of this part, 2 hours of flight training en route to an airport that is located more than 25 nautical miles from the airport where the applicant normally trains, which includes at least three takeoffs and three landings at the airport located more than 25 nautical miles from the airport where the applicant normally trains; and</P>
            <P>(2) 3 hours of flight training in the aircraft for the rating sought in preparation for the practical test within the 60 days preceding the date of the practical test.</P>
            <P>(b) 3 hours of solo flying in the aircraft for the rating sought, on the areas of operation listed in § 61.98 of this part that apply to the aircraft category and class rating sought.</P>
          </SECTION>
          <SECTION>
            <SECTNO>§ 61.100</SECTNO>
            <SUBJECT>Pilots based on small islands.</SUBJECT>
            <P>(a) An applicant located on an island from which the flight training required in § 61.99(a)(1) of this part cannot be accomplished without flying over water for more than 10 nautical miles from the nearest shoreline need not comply with the requirements of that section. However, if other airports that permit civil operations are available to which a flight may be made without flying over water for more than 10 nautical miles from the nearest shoreline, the applicant must show completion of a dual flight between two airports, which must include three landings at the other airport.</P>
            <P>(b) An applicant who complies with paragraph (a) of this section and meets all requirements for the issuance of a recreational pilot certificate, except the requirements of § 61.99(a)(1) of this part, will be issued a pilot certificate with an endorsement containing the following limitation, “Passenger carrying prohibited on flights more than 10 nautical miles from (the appropriate island).” The limitation may be subsequently amended to include another island if the applicant complies with the requirements of paragraph (a) of this section for another island.</P>
            <P>(c) Upon meeting the requirements of § 61.99(a)(1) of this part, the applicant may have the limitation(s) in paragraph (b) of this section removed.</P>
          </SECTION>
          <SECTION>
            <SECTNO>§ 61.101</SECTNO>
            <SUBJECT>Recreational pilot privileges and limitations.</SUBJECT>
            <P>(a) A person who holds a recreational pilot certificate may:</P>
            <P>(1) Carry no more than one passenger; and</P>
            <P>(2) Not pay less than the pro rata share of the operating expenses of a flight with a passenger, provided the expenses involve only fuel, oil, airport expenses, or aircraft rental fees.</P>
            <P>(b) A person who holds a recreational pilot certificate may act as pilot in command of an aircraft on a flight that is within 50 nautical miles from the departure airport, provided that person has:</P>
            <P>(1) Received ground and flight training for takeoff, departure, arrival, and landing procedures at the departure airport;</P>
            <P>(2) Received ground and flight training for the area, terrain, and aids to navigation that are in the vicinity of the departure airport;</P>
            <P>(3) Been found proficient to operate the aircraft at the departure airport and the area within 50 nautical miles from that airport; and</P>

            <P>(4) Received from an authorized instructor a logbook endorsement, which is carried in the person's possession in the aircraft, that permits flight within 50 nautical miles from the departure airport.<PRTPAGE P="65"/>
            </P>
            <P>(c) A person who holds a recreational pilot certificate may act as pilot in command of an aircraft on a flight that exceeds 50 nautical miles from the departure airport, provided that person has:</P>
            <P>(1) Received ground and flight training from an authorized instructor on the cross-country training requirements of subpart E of this part that apply to the aircraft rating held;</P>
            <P>(2) Been found proficient in cross-country flying; and</P>
            <P>(3) Received from an authorized instructor a logbook endorsement, which is carried on the person's possession in the aircraft, that certifies the person has received and been found proficient in the cross-country training requirements of subpart E of this part that apply to the aircraft rating held.</P>
            <P>(d) Except as provided in paragraph (h) of this section, a recreational pilot may not act as pilot in command of an aircraft:</P>
            <P>(1) That is certificated for more than four occupants, with more than one powerplant, with a powerplant of more than 180 horsepower, or with retractable landing gear.</P>
            <P>(2) That is classified as a multiengine airplane, powered-lift, glider, airship, or balloon;</P>
            <P>(3) That is carrying a passenger or property for compensation or hire;</P>
            <P>(4) For compensation or hire;</P>
            <P>(5) In furtherance of a business;</P>
            <P>(6) Between sunset and sunrise;</P>
            <P>(7) In airspace in which communication with air traffic control is required;</P>
            <P>(8) At an altitude of more than 10,000 feet MSL or 2,000 feet AGL, whichever is higher;</P>
            <P>(9) When the flight or surface visibility is less than 3 statute miles;</P>
            <P>(10) Without visual reference to the surface;</P>
            <P>(11) On a flight outside the United States;</P>
            <P>(12) To demonstrate that aircraft in flight to a prospective buyer;</P>
            <P>(13) That is used in a passenger-carrying airlift and sponsored by a charitable organization; and</P>
            <P>(14) That is towing any object.</P>
            <P>(e) A recreational pilot may not act as a pilot flight crewmember on any aircraft for which more than one pilot is required by the type certificate of the aircraft or the regulations under which the flight is conducted, except when:</P>
            <P>(1) Receiving flight training from a person authorized to provide flight training on board an airship; and</P>
            <P>(2) No person other than a required flight crewmember is carried on the aircraft.</P>
            <P>(f) A person who holds a recreational pilot certificate, has logged fewer than 400 flight hours, and has not logged pilot-in-command time in an aircraft within the 180 days preceding the flight shall not act as pilot in command of an aircraft until the pilot receives flight training and a logbook endorsement from an authorized instructor, and the instructor certifies that the person is proficient to act as pilot in command of the aircraft. This requirement can be met in combination with the requirements of §§ 61.56 and 61.57 of this part, at the discretion of the authorized instructor.</P>
            <P>(g) A recreational pilot certificate issued under this subpart carries the notation, “Holder does not meet ICAO requirements.”</P>
            <P>(h) For the purpose of obtaining additional certificates or ratings while under the supervision of an authorized instructor, a recreational pilot may fly as the sole occupant of an aircraft:</P>
            <P>(1) For which the pilot does not hold an appropriate category or class rating;</P>
            <P>(2) Within airspace that requires communication with air traffic control; or</P>
            <P>(3) Between sunset and sunrise, provided the flight or surface visibility is at least 5 statute miles.</P>
            <P>(i) In order to fly solo as provided in paragraph (h) of this section, the recreational pilot must meet the appropriate aeronautical knowledge and flight training requirements of § 61.87 for that aircraft. When operating an aircraft under the conditions specified in paragraph (h) of this section, the recreational pilot shall carry the logbook that has been endorsed for each flight by an authorized instructor who:</P>

            <P>(1) Has given the recreational pilot training in the make and model of aircraft in which the solo flight is to be made;<PRTPAGE P="66"/>
            </P>
            <P>(2) Has found that the recreational pilot has met the applicable requirements of § 61.87; and</P>
            <P>(3) Has found that the recreational pilot is competent to make solo flights in accordance with the logbook endorsement.</P>
          </SECTION>
        </SUBPART>
        <SUBPART>
          <HD SOURCE="HED">Subpart E—Private Pilots</HD>
          <SECTION>
            <SECTNO>§ 61.102</SECTNO>
            <SUBJECT>Applicability.</SUBJECT>
            <P>This subpart prescribes the requirements for the issuance of private pilot certificates and ratings, the conditions under which those certificates and ratings are necessary, and the general operating rules for persons who hold those certificates and ratings.</P>
          </SECTION>
          <SECTION>
            <SECTNO>§ 61.103</SECTNO>
            <SUBJECT>Eligibility requirements: General.</SUBJECT>
            <P>To be eligible for a private pilot certificate, a person must:</P>
            <P>(a) Be at least 17 years of age for a rating in other than a glider or balloon.</P>
            <P>(b) Be at least 16 years of age for a rating in a glider or balloon.</P>
            <P>(c) Be able to read, speak, write, and understand the English language. If the applicant is unable to meet one of these requirements due to medical reasons, then the Administrator may place such operating limitations on that applicant's pilot certificate as are necessary for the safe operation of the aircraft.</P>
            <P>(d) Receive a logbook endorsement from an authorized instructor who:</P>
            <P>(1) Conducted the training or reviewed the person's home study on the aeronautical knowledge areas listed in § 61.105(b) of this part that apply to the aircraft rating sought; and</P>
            <P>(2) Certified that the person is prepared for the required knowledge test.</P>
            <P>(e) Pass the required knowledge test on the aeronautical knowledge areas listed in § 61.105(b) of this part.</P>
            <P>(f) Receive flight training and a logbook endorsement from an authorized instructor who:</P>
            <P>(1) Conducted the training in the areas of operation listed in § 61.107(b) of this part that apply to the aircraft rating sought; and</P>
            <P>(2) Certified that the person is prepared for the required practical test.</P>
            <P>(g) Meet the aeronautical experience requirements of this part that apply to the aircraft rating sought before applying for the practical test.</P>
            <P>(h) Pass a practical test on the areas of operation listed in § 61.107(b) of this part that apply to the aircraft rating sought.</P>
            <P>(i) Comply with the appropriate sections of this part that apply to the aircraft category and class rating sought.</P>
          </SECTION>
          <SECTION>
            <SECTNO>§ 61.105</SECTNO>
            <SUBJECT>Aeronautical knowledge.</SUBJECT>
            <P>(a) <E T="03">General.</E> A person who is applying for a private pilot certificate must receive and log ground training from an authorized instructor or complete a home-study course on the aeronautical knowledge areas of paragraph (b) of this section that apply to the aircraft category and class rating sought.</P>
            <P>(b) <E T="03">Aeronautical knowledge areas.</E> (1) Applicable Federal Aviation Regulations of this chapter that relate to private pilot privileges, limitations, and flight operations;</P>
            <P>(2) Accident reporting requirements of the National Transportation Safety Board;</P>
            <P>(3) Use of the applicable portions of the “Aeronautical Information Manual” and FAA advisory circulars;</P>
            <P>(4) Use of aeronautical charts for VFR navigation using pilotage, dead reckoning, and navigation systems;</P>
            <P>(5) Radio communication procedures;</P>
            <P>(6) Recognition of critical weather situations from the ground and in flight, windshear avoidance, and the procurement and use of aeronautical weather reports and forecasts;</P>
            <P>(7) Safe and efficient operation of aircraft, including collision avoidance, and recognition and avoidance of wake turbulence;</P>
            <P>(8) Effects of density altitude on takeoff and climb performance;</P>
            <P>(9) Weight and balance computations;</P>
            <P>(10) Principles of aerodynamics, powerplants, and aircraft systems;</P>
            <P>(11) Stall awareness, spin entry, spins, and spin recovery techniques for the airplane and glider category ratings;</P>
            <P>(12) Aeronautical decision making and judgment; and</P>
            <P>(13) Preflight action that includes—</P>

            <P>(i) How to obtain information on runway lengths at airports of intended <PRTPAGE P="67"/>use, data on takeoff and landing distances, weather reports and forecasts, and fuel requirements; and</P>
            <P>(ii) How to plan for alternatives if the planned flight cannot be completed or delays are encountered.</P>
            <CITA>[Doc. No. 25910, 62 FR 16298, Apr. 4, 1997; Amdt. 61-103, 62 FR 40902, July 30, 1997]</CITA>
          </SECTION>
          <SECTION>
            <SECTNO>§ 61.107</SECTNO>
            <SUBJECT>Flight proficiency.</SUBJECT>
            <P>(a) <E T="03">General.</E> A person who applies for a private pilot certificate must receive and log ground and flight training from an authorized instructor on the areas of operation of this section that apply to the aircraft category and class rating sought.</P>
            <P>(b) <E T="03">Areas of operation.</E> (1) For an airplane category rating with a single-engine class rating:</P>
            <P>(i) Preflight preparation;</P>
            <P>(ii) Preflight procedures;</P>
            <P>(iii) Airport and seaplane base operations;</P>
            <P>(iv) Takeoffs, landings, and go-arounds;</P>
            <P>(v) Performance maneuvers;</P>
            <P>(vi) Ground reference maneuvers;</P>
            <P>(vii) Navigation;</P>
            <P>(viii) Slow flight and stalls;</P>
            <P>(ix) Basic instrument maneuvers;</P>
            <P>(x) Emergency operations;</P>
            <P>(xi) Night operations, except as provided in § 61.110 of this part; and</P>
            <P>(xii) Postflight procedures.</P>
            <P>(2) For an airplane category rating with a multiengine class rating:</P>
            <P>(i) Preflight preparation;</P>
            <P>(ii) Preflight procedures;</P>
            <P>(iii) Airport and seaplane base operations;</P>
            <P>(iv) Takeoffs, landings, and go-arounds;</P>
            <P>(v) Performance maneuvers;</P>
            <P>(vi) Ground reference maneuvers;</P>
            <P>(vii) Navigation;</P>
            <P>(viii) Slow flight and stalls;</P>
            <P>(ix) Basic instrument maneuvers;</P>
            <P>(x) Emergency operations;</P>
            <P>(xi) Multiengine operations;</P>
            <P>(xii) Night operations, except as provided in § 61.110 of this part; and</P>
            <P>(xiii) Postflight procedures.</P>
            <P>(3) For a rotorcraft category rating with a helicopter class rating:</P>
            <P>(i) Preflight preparation;</P>
            <P>(ii) Preflight procedures;</P>
            <P>(iii) Airport and heliport operations;</P>
            <P>(iv) Hovering maneuvers;</P>
            <P>(v) Takeoffs, landings, and go-arounds;</P>
            <P>(vi) Performance maneuvers;</P>
            <P>(vii) Navigation;</P>
            <P>(viii) Emergency operations;</P>
            <P>(ix) Night operations, except as provided in § 61.110 of this part; and</P>
            <P>(x) Postflight procedures.</P>
            <P>(4) For a rotorcraft category rating with a gyroplane class rating:</P>
            <P>(i) Preflight preparation;</P>
            <P>(ii) Preflight procedures;</P>
            <P>(iii) Airport operations;</P>
            <P>(iv) Takeoffs, landings, and go-arounds;</P>
            <P>(v) Performance maneuvers;</P>
            <P>(vi) Ground reference maneuvers;</P>
            <P>(vii) Navigation;</P>
            <P>(viii) Flight at slow airspeeds;</P>
            <P>(ix) Emergency operations;</P>
            <P>(x) Night operations, except as provided in § 61.110 of this part; and</P>
            <P>(xi) Postflight procedures.</P>
            <P>(5) For a powered-lift category rating:</P>
            <P>(i) Preflight preparation;</P>
            <P>(ii) Preflight procedures;</P>
            <P>(iii) Airport and heliport operations;</P>
            <P>(iv) Hovering maneuvers;</P>
            <P>(v) Takeoffs, landings, and go-arounds;</P>
            <P>(vi) Performance maneuvers;</P>
            <P>(vii) Ground reference maneuvers;</P>
            <P>(viii) Navigation;</P>
            <P>(ix) Slow flight and stalls;</P>
            <P>(x) Basic instrument maneuvers;</P>
            <P>(xi) Emergency operations;</P>
            <P>(xii) Night operations, except as provided in § 61.110 of this part; and</P>
            <P>(xiii) Postflight procedures.</P>
            <P>(6) For a glider category rating:</P>
            <P>(i) Preflight preparation;</P>
            <P>(ii) Preflight procedures;</P>
            <P>(iii) Airport and gliderport operations;</P>
            <P>(iv) Launches and landings;</P>
            <P>(v) Performance speeds;</P>
            <P>(vi) Soaring techniques;</P>
            <P>(vii) Performance maneuvers;</P>
            <P>(viii) Navigation;</P>
            <P>(ix) Slow flight and stalls;</P>
            <P>(x) Emergency operations; and</P>
            <P>(xi) Postflight procedures.</P>
            <P>(7) For a lighter-than-air category rating with an airship class rating:</P>
            <P>(i) Preflight preparation;</P>
            <P>(ii) Preflight procedures;</P>
            <P>(iii) Airport operations;</P>
            <P>(iv) Takeoffs, landings, and go-arounds;<PRTPAGE P="68"/>
            </P>
            <P>(v) Performance maneuvers;</P>
            <P>(vi) Ground reference maneuvers;</P>
            <P>(vii) Navigation;</P>
            <P>(viii) Emergency operations; and</P>
            <P>(ix) Postflight procedures.</P>
            <P>(8) For a lighter-than-air category rating with a balloon class rating:</P>
            <P>(i) Preflight preparation;</P>
            <P>(ii) Preflight procedures;</P>
            <P>(iii) Airport operations;</P>
            <P>(iv) Launches and landings;</P>
            <P>(v) Performance maneuvers;</P>
            <P>(vi) Navigation;</P>
            <P>(vii) Emergency operations; and</P>
            <P>(viii) Postflight procedures.</P>
          </SECTION>
          <SECTION>
            <SECTNO>§ 61.109</SECTNO>
            <SUBJECT>Aeronautical experience.</SUBJECT>
            <P>(a) <E T="03">For an airplane single-engine rating.</E> Except as provided in paragraph (i) of this section, a person who applies for a private pilot certificate with an airplane category and single-engine class rating must log at least 40 hours of flight time that includes at least 20 hours of flight training from an authorized instructor and 10 hours of solo flight training in the areas of operation listed in § 61.107(b)(1) of this part, and the training must include at least—</P>
            <P>(1) 3 hours of cross-country flight training in a single-engine airplane;</P>
            <P>(2) Except as provided in § 61.110 of this part, 3 hours of night flight training in a single-engine airplane that includes—</P>
            <P>(i) One cross-country flight of over 100 nautical miles total distance; and</P>
            <P>(ii) 10 takeoffs and 10 landings to a full stop (with each landing involving a flight in the traffic pattern) at an airport.</P>
            <P>(3) 3 hours of flight training in a single-engine airplane on the control and maneuvering of an airplane solely by reference to instruments, including straight and level flight, constant airspeed climbs and descents, turns to a heading, recovery from unusual flight attitudes, radio communications, and the use of navigation systems/facilities and radar services appropriate to instrument flight;</P>
            <P>(4) 3 hours of flight training in preparation for the practical test in a single-engine airplane, which must have been performed within 60 days preceding the date of the test; and</P>
            <P>(5) 10 hours of solo flight time in a single-engine airplane, consisting of at least—</P>
            <P>(i) 5 hours of solo cross-country time;</P>
            <P>(ii) One solo cross-country flight of at least 150 nautical miles total distance, with full-stop landings at a minimum of three points, and one segment of the flight consisting of a straight-line distance of at least 50 nautical miles between the takeoff and landing locations; and</P>
            <P>(iii) Three takeoffs and three landings to a full stop (with each landing involving a flight in the traffic pattern) at an airport with an operating control tower.</P>
            <P>(b) <E T="03">For an airplane multiengine rating</E>. Except as provided in paragraph (i) of this section, a person who applies for a private pilot certificate with an airplane category and multiengine class rating must log at least 40 hours of flight time that includes at least 20 hours of flight training from an authorized instructor and 10 hours of solo flight training in the areas of operation listed in § 61.107(b)(2) of this part, and the training must include at least—</P>
            <P>(1) 3 hours of cross-country flight training in a multiengine airplane;</P>
            <P>(2) Except as provided in § 61.110 of this part, 3 hours of night flight training in a multiengine airplane that includes—</P>
            <P>(i) One cross-country flight of over 100 nautical miles total distance; and</P>
            <P>(ii) 10 takeoffs and 10 landings to a full stop (with each landing involving a flight in the traffic pattern) at an airport.</P>
            <P>(3) 3 hours of flight training in a multiengine airplane on the control and maneuvering of an airplane solely by reference to instruments, including straight and level flight, constant airspeed climbs and descents, turns to a heading, recovery from unusual flight attitudes, radio communications, and the use of navigation systems/facilities and radar services appropriate to instrument flight;</P>
            <P>(4) 3 hours of flight training in preparation for the practical test in a multiengine airplane, which must have been performed within the 60-day period preceding the date of the test; and</P>

            <P>(5) 10 hours of solo flight time in an airplane consisting of at least—<PRTPAGE P="69"/>
            </P>
            <P>(i) 5 hours of solo cross-country time;</P>
            <P>(ii) One solo cross-country flight of at least 150 nautical miles total distance, with full-stop landings at a minimum of three points, and one segment of the flight consisting of a straight-line distance of at least 50 nautical miles between the takeoff and landing locations; and</P>
            <P>(iii) Three takeoffs and three landings to a full stop (with each landing involving a flight in the traffic pattern) at an airport with an operating control tower.</P>
            <P>(c) <E T="03">For a helicopter rating.</E> Except as provided in paragraph (i) of this section, a person who applies for a private pilot certificate with rotorcraft category and helicopter class rating must log at least 40 hours of flight time that includes at least 20 hours of flight training from an authorized instructor and 10 hours of solo flight training in the areas of operation listed in § 61.107(b)(3) of this part, and the training must include at least—</P>
            <P>(1) 3 hours of cross-country flight training in a helicopter;</P>
            <P>(2) Except as provided in § 61.110 of this part, 3 hours of night flight training in a helicopter that includes—</P>
            <P>(i) One cross-country flight of over 50 nautical miles total distance; and</P>
            <P>(ii) 10 takeoffs and 10 landings to a full stop (with each landing involving a flight in the traffic pattern) at an airport.</P>
            <P>(3) 3 hours of flight training in preparation for the practical test in a helicopter, which must have been performed within 60 days preceding the date of the test; and</P>
            <P>(4) 10 hours of solo flight time in a helicopter, consisting of at least—</P>
            <P>(i) 3 hours cross-country time;</P>
            <P>(ii) One solo cross-country flight of at least 75 nautical miles total distance, with landings at a minimum of three points, and one segment of the flight being a straight-line distance of at least 25 nautical miles between the takeoff and landing locations; and</P>
            <P>(iii) Three takeoffs and three landings to a full stop (with each landing involving a flight in the traffic pattern) at an airport with an operating control tower.</P>
            <P>(d) <E T="03">For a gyroplane rating.</E> Except as provided in paragraph (i) of this section, a person who applies for a private pilot certificate with rotorcraft category and gyroplane class rating must log at least 40 hours of flight time that includes at least 20 hours of flight training from an authorized instructor and 10 hours of solo flight training in the areas of operation listed in § 61.107(b)(4) of this part, and the training must include at least—</P>
            <P>(1) 3 hours of cross-country flight training in a gyroplane;</P>
            <P>(2) Except as provided in § 61.110 of this part, 3 hours of night flight training in a gyroplane that includes—</P>
            <P>(i) One cross-country flight of over 50 nautical miles total distance; and</P>
            <P>(ii) 10 takeoffs and 10 landings to a full stop (with each landing involving a flight in the traffic pattern) at an airport.</P>
            <P>(3) 3 hours of flight training in preparation for the practical test in a gyroplane, which must have been performed within the 60-day period preceding the date of the test; and</P>
            <P>(4) 10 hours of solo flight time in a gyroplane, consisting of at least—</P>
            <P>(i) 3 hours of cross-country time;</P>
            <P>(ii) One solo cross-country flight of over 75 nautical miles total distance, with landings at a minimum of three points, and one segment of the flight being a straight-line distance of at least 25 nautical miles between the takeoff and landing locations; and</P>
            <P>(iii) Three takeoffs and three landings to a full stop (with each landing involving a flight in the traffic pattern) at an airport with an operating control tower.</P>
            <P>(e) <E T="03">For a powered-lift rating.</E> Except as provided in paragraph (i) of this section, a person who applies for a private pilot certificate with a powered-lift category rating must log at least 40 hours of flight time that includes at least 20 hours of flight training from an authorized instructor and 10 hours of solo flight training in the areas of operation listed in § 61.107(b)(5) of this part, and the training must include at least—</P>
            <P>(1) 3 hours of cross-country flight training in a powered-lift;</P>

            <P>(2) Except as provided in § 61.110 of this part, 3 hours of night flight training in a powered-lift that includes—<PRTPAGE P="70"/>
            </P>
            <P>(i) One cross-country flight of over 100 nautical miles total distance; and</P>
            <P>(ii) 10 takeoffs and 10 landings to a full stop (with each landing involving a flight in the traffic pattern) at an airport.</P>
            <P>(3) 3 hours of flight training in a powered-lift on the control and maneuvering of a powered-lift solely by reference to instruments, including straight and level flight, constant airspeed climbs and descents, turns to a heading, recovery from unusual flight attitudes, radio communications, and the use of navigation systems/facilities and radar services appropriate to instrument flight;</P>
            <P>(4) 3 hours of flight training in preparation for the practical test in a powered-lift, which must have been performed within the 60-day period preceding the date of the test; and</P>
            <P>(5) 10 hours of solo flight time in an airplane or powered-lift consisting of at least—</P>
            <P>(i) 5 hours cross-country time;</P>
            <P>(ii) One cross-country flight of at least 150 nautical miles total distance, with landings at a minimum of three points, and one segment of the flight being a straight-line distance of at least 50 nautical miles between the takeoff and landing locations; and</P>
            <P>(iii) Three takeoffs and three landings to a full stop (with each landing involving a flight in the traffic pattern) at an airport with an operating control tower.</P>
            <P>(f) <E T="03">For a glider category rating.</E> (1) If the applicant for a private pilot certificate with a glider category rating has not logged at least 40 hours of flight time as a pilot in a heavier-than-air aircraft, the applicant must log at least 10 hours of flight time in a glider in the areas of operation listed in § 61.107(b)(6) of this part, and that flight time must include at least—</P>
            <P>(i) 20 flights in a glider in the areas of operations listed in § 61.107(b)(6) of this part, including at least 3 training flights in a glider with an authorized instructor in preparation for the practical test that must have been performed within the 60-day period preceding the date of the test; and</P>
            <P>(ii) 2 hours of solo flight time in a glider in the areas of operation listed in § 61.107(b)(6) of this part, with not less than 10 launches and landings being performed.</P>
            <P>(2) If the applicant has logged at least 40 hours of flight time in a heavier-than-air aircraft, the applicant must log at least 3 hours of flight time in a glider in the areas of operation listed in § 61.107(b)(6) of this part, and that flight time must include at least—</P>
            <P>(i) 10 solo flights in a glider in the areas of operation listed in § 61.107(b)(6) of this part; and</P>
            <P>(ii) 3 training flights in a glider with an authorized instructor in preparation for the practical test that must have been performed within the 60-day period preceding the date of the test.</P>
            <P>(g) <E T="03">For an airship rating.</E> A person who applies for a private pilot certificate with a lighter-than-air category and airship class rating must log at least:</P>
            <P>(1) 25 hours of flight training in airships on the areas of operation listed in §61.107(b)(7) of this part, which consists of at least:</P>
            <P>(i) 3 hours of cross-country flight training in an airship;</P>
            <P>(ii) Except as provided in §61.110 of this part, 3 hours of night flight training in an airship that includes:</P>
            <P>(A) A cross-country flight of over 25 nautical miles total distance; and</P>
            <P>(B) Five takeoffs and five landings to a full stop (with each landing involving a flight in the traffic pattern) at an airport.</P>
            <P>(2) 3 hours of flight training in an airship on the control and maneuvering of an airship solely by reference to instruments, including straight and level flight, constant airspeed climbs and descents, turns to a heading, recovery from unusual flight attitudes, radio communications, and the use of navigation systems/facilities and radar services appropriate to instrument flight;</P>
            <P>(3) 3 hours of flight training in an airship in preparation for the practical test within the 60 days preceding the date of the test; and</P>
            <P>(4) 5 hours performing the duties of pilot in command in an airship with an authorized instructor.</P>
            <P>(h) <E T="03">For a balloon rating.</E> A person who applies for a private pilot certificate with a lighter-than-air category and balloon class rating must log at least 10 hours of flight training that includes <PRTPAGE P="71"/>at least six training flights with an authorized instructor in the areas of operation listed in § 61.107(b)(8) of this part, that includes—</P>
            <P>(1) <E T="03">Gas balloon.</E> If the training is being performed in a gas balloon, at least two flights of 2 hours each that consists of—</P>
            <P>(i) At least one training flight with an authorized instructor within 60 days prior to application for the rating on the areas of operation for a gas balloon;</P>
            <P>(ii) At least one flight performing the duties of pilot in command in a gas balloon with an authorized instructor; and</P>
            <P>(iii) At least one flight involving a controlled ascent to 3,000 feet above the launch site.</P>
            <P>(2) <E T="03">Balloon with an airborne heater.</E> If the training is being performed in a balloon with an airborne heater, at least—</P>
            <P>(i) Two flights of 1 hour each within 60 days prior to application for the rating on the areas of operation appropriate to a balloon with an airborne heater;</P>
            <P>(ii) One solo flight in a balloon with an airborne heater; and</P>
            <P>(iii) At least one flight involving a controlled ascent to 2,000 feet above the launch site.</P>
            <P>(i) <E T="03">Permitted credit for use of a flight simulator or flight training device.</E> (1) Except as provided in paragraphs (i)(2) of this section, a maximum of 2.5 hours of training in a flight simulator or flight training device representing the category, class, and type, if applicable, of aircraft appropriate to the rating sought, may be credited toward the flight training time required by this section, if received from an authorized instructor.</P>
            <P>(2) A maximum of 5 hours of training in a flight simulator or flight training device representing the category, class, and type, if applicable, of aircraft appropriate to the rating sought, may be credited toward the flight training time required by this section if the training is accomplished in a course conducted by a training center certificated under part 142 of this chapter.</P>
            <P>(3) Except when fewer hours are approved by the Administrator, an applicant for a private pilot certificate with an airplane, rotorcraft, or powered-lift rating, who has satisfactorily completed an approved private pilot course conducted by a training center certificated under part 142 of this chapter, need only have a total of 35 hours of aeronautical experience to meet the requirements of this section.</P>
            <CITA>[Doc. No. 25910, 62 FR 40902, July 30, 1997, as amended by Amdt. 61-104, 63 FR 20287, Apr. 23, 1998]</CITA>
          </SECTION>
          <SECTION>
            <SECTNO>§ 61.110</SECTNO>
            <SUBJECT>Night flying exceptions.</SUBJECT>
            <P>(a) Subject to the limitations of paragraph (b) of this section, a person is not required to comply with the night flight training requirements of this subpart if the person receives flight training in and resides in the State of Alaska.</P>
            <P>(b) A person who receives flight training in and resides in the State of Alaska but does not meet the night flight training requirements of this section:</P>
            <P>(1) May be issued a pilot certificate with a limitation “Night flying prohibited”; and</P>
            <P>(2) Must comply with the appropriate night flight training requirements of this subpart within the 12-calendar-month period after the issuance of the pilot certificate. At the end of that period, the certificate willbecome invalid for use until the person complies with the appropriate night training requirements of this subpart. The person may have the “Night flying prohibited” limitation removed if the person—</P>
            <P>(i) Accomplishes the appropriate night flight training requirements of this subpart; and</P>
            <P>(ii) Presents to an examiner a logbook or training record endorsement from an authorized instructor that verifies accomplishment of the appropriate night flight training requirements of this subpart.</P>
            <CITA>[Doc. No. 25910, 62 FR 16298, Apr. 4, 1997; Amdt. 61-103, 62 FR 40904, July 30, 1997]</CITA>
          </SECTION>
          <SECTION>
            <SECTNO>§ 61.111</SECTNO>
            <SUBJECT>Cross-country flights: Pilots based on small islands.</SUBJECT>

            <P>(a) Except as provided in paragraph (b) of this section, an applicant located on an island from which the cross-country flight training required in § 61.109 of this part cannot be accomplished without flying over water for <PRTPAGE P="72"/>more than 10 nautical miles from the nearest shoreline need not comply with the requirements of that section.</P>
            <P>(b) If other airports that permit civil operations are available to which a flight may be made without flying over water for more than 10 nautical miles from the nearest shoreline, the applicant must show completion of two round-trip solo flights between those two airports that are farthest apart, including a landing at each airport on both flights.</P>
            <P>(c) An applicant who complies with paragraph (a) or paragraph (b) of this section, and meets all requirements for the issuance of a private pilot certificate, except the cross-country training requirements of § 61.109 of this part, will be issued a pilot certificate with an endorsement containing the following limitation, “Passenger carrying prohibited on flights more than 10 nautical miles from (the appropriate island).” The limitation may be subsequently amended to include another island if the applicant complies with the requirements of paragraph (b) of this section for another island.</P>
            <P>(d) Upon meeting the cross-country training requirements of § 61.109 of this part, the applicant may have the limitation in paragraph (c) of this section removed.</P>
            <CITA>[Doc. No. 25910, 62 FR 16298, Apr. 4, 1997; Amdt. 61-103, 62 FR 40904, July 30, 1997]</CITA>
          </SECTION>
          <SECTION>
            <SECTNO>§ 61.113</SECTNO>
            <SUBJECT>Private pilot privileges and limitations: Pilot in command.</SUBJECT>
            <P>(a) Except as provided in paragraphs (b) through (g) of this section, no person who holds a private pilot certificate may act as pilot in command of an aircraft that is carrying passengers or property for compensation or hire; nor may that person, for compensation or hire, act as pilot in command of an aircraft.</P>
            <P>(b) A private pilot may, for compensation or hire, act as pilot in command of an aircraft in connection with any business or employment if:</P>
            <P>(1) The flight is only incidental to that business or employment; and</P>
            <P>(2) The aircraft does not carry passengers or property for compensation or hire.</P>
            <P>(c) A private pilot may not pay less than the pro rata share of the operating expenses of a flight with passengers, provided the expenses involve only fuel, oil, airport expenditures, or rental fees.</P>
            <P>(d) A private pilot may act as pilot in command of an aircraft used in a passenger-carrying airlift sponsored by a charitable organization described in paragraph (d)(7) of this section, and for which the passengers make a donation to the organization, when the following requirements are met:</P>
            <P>(1) The sponsor of the airlift notifies the FAA Flight Standards District Office with jurisdiction over the area concerned at least 7 days before the event and furnishes—</P>
            <P>(i) A signed letter from the sponsor that shows the name of the sponsor, the purpose of the charitable event, the date and time of the event, and the location of the event; and</P>
            <P>(ii) A photocopy of each pilot in command's pilot certificate, medical certificate, and logbook entries that show the pilot is current in accordance with §§ 61.56 and 61.57 of this part and has logged at least 200 hours of flight time.</P>
            <P>(2) The flight is conducted from a public airport that is adequate for the aircraft to be used, or from another airport that has been approved by the FAA for the operation.</P>
            <P>(3) No aerobatic or formation flights are conducted.</P>
            <P>(4) Each aircraft used for the charitable event holds a standard airworthiness certificate.</P>
            <P>(5) Each aircraft used for the charitable event is airworthy and complies with the applicable requirements of subpart E of part 91 of this chapter.</P>
            <P>(6) Each flight for the charitable event is made during day VFR conditions.</P>
            <P>(7) The charitable organization is an organization identified as such by the U.S. Department of Treasury.</P>
            <P>(e) A private pilot may be reimbursed for aircraft operating expenses that are directly related to search and location operations, provided the expenses involve only fuel, oil, airport expenditures, or rental fees, and the operation is sanctioned and under the direction and control of:</P>
            <P>(1) A local, State, or Federal agency; or<PRTPAGE P="73"/>
            </P>
            <P>(2) An organization that conducts search and location operations.</P>
            <P>(f) A private pilot who is an aircraft salesman and who has at least 200 hours of logged flight time may demonstrate an aircraft in flight to a prospective buyer.</P>
            <P>(g) A private pilot who meets the requirements of § 61.69 of this part may act as pilot in command of an aircraft towing a glider.</P>
          </SECTION>
          <SECTION>
            <SECTNO>§ 61.115</SECTNO>
            <SUBJECT>Balloon rating: Limitations.</SUBJECT>
            <P>(a) If a person who applies for a private pilot certificate with a balloon rating takes a practical test in a balloon with an airborne heater:</P>
            <P>(1) The pilot certificate will contain a limitation restricting the exercise of the privileges of that certificate to a balloon with an airborne heater; and</P>
            <P>(2) The limitation may be removed when the person obtains the required aeronautical experience in a gas balloon and receives a logbook endorsement from an authorized instructor who attests to the person's accomplishment of the required aeronautical experience and ability to satisfactorily operate a gas balloon.</P>
            <P>(b) If a person who applies for a private pilot certificate with a balloon rating takes a practical test in a gas balloon:</P>
            <P>(1) The pilot certificate will contain a limitation restricting the exercise of the privilege of that certificate to a gas balloon; and</P>
            <P>(2) The limitation may be removed when the person obtains the required aeronautical experience in a balloon with an airborne heater and receives a logbook endorsement from an authorized instructor who attests to the person's accomplishment of the required aeronautical experience and ability to satisfactorily operate a balloon with an airborne heater.</P>
          </SECTION>
          <SECTION>
            <SECTNO>§ 61.117</SECTNO>
            <SUBJECT>Private pilot privileges and limitations: Second in command of aircraft requiring more than one pilot.</SUBJECT>
            <P>Except as provided in § 61.113 of this part, no private pilot may, for compensation or hire, act as second in command of an aircraft that is type certificated for more than one pilot, nor may that pilot act as second in command of such an aircraft that is carrying passengers or property for compensation or hire.</P>
            <CITA>[Doc. No. 25910, 62 FR 16298, Apr. 4, 1997; Amdt. 61-103, 62 FR 40904, July 30, 1997]</CITA>
          </SECTION>
          <SECTION>
            <SECTNO>§ 61.118-61.120</SECTNO>
            <RESERVED>[Reserved]</RESERVED>
          </SECTION>
        </SUBPART>
        <SUBPART>
          <HD SOURCE="HED">Subpart F—Commercial Pilots</HD>
          <SECTION>
            <SECTNO>§ 61.121</SECTNO>
            <SUBJECT>Applicability.</SUBJECT>
            <P>This subpart prescribes the requirements for the issuance of commercial pilot certificates and ratings, the conditions under which those certificates and ratings are necessary, and the general operating rules for persons who hold those certificates and ratings.</P>
          </SECTION>
          <SECTION>
            <SECTNO>§ 61.123</SECTNO>
            <SUBJECT>Eligibility requirements: General.</SUBJECT>
            <P>To be eligible for a commercial pilot certificate, a person must:</P>
            <P>(a) Be at least 18 years of age;</P>
            <P>(b) Be able to read, speak, write, and understand the English language. If the applicant is unable to meet one of these requirements due to medical reasons, then the Administrator may place such operating limitations on that applicant's pilot certificate as are necessary for the safe operation of the aircraft.</P>
            <P>(c) Receive a logbook endorsement from an authorized instructor who:</P>
            <P>(1) Conducted the required ground training or reviewed the person's home study on the aeronautical knowledge areas listed in § 61.125 of this part that apply to the aircraft category and class rating sought; and</P>
            <P>(2) Certified that the person is prepared for the required knowledge test that applies to the aircraft category and class rating sought.</P>
            <P>(d) Pass the required knowledge test on the aeronautical knowledge areas listed in § 61.125 of this part;</P>
            <P>(e) Receive the required training and a logbook endorsement from an authorized instructor who:</P>
            <P>(1) Conducted the training on the areas of operation listed in § 61.127(b) of this part that apply to the aircraft category and class rating sought; and</P>
            <P>(2) Certified that the person is prepared for the required practical test.</P>

            <P>(f) Meet the aeronautical experience requirements of this subpart that apply <PRTPAGE P="74"/>to the aircraft category and class rating sought before applying for the practical test;</P>
            <P>(g) Pass the required practical test on the areas of operation listed in § 61.127(b) of this part that apply to the aircraft category and class rating sought;</P>
            <P>(h) Hold at least a private pilot certificate issued under this part or meet the requirements of § 61.73; and</P>
            <P>(i) Comply with the sections of this part that apply to the aircraft category and class rating sought.</P>
          </SECTION>
          <SECTION>
            <SECTNO>§ 61.125</SECTNO>
            <SUBJECT>Aeronautical knowledge.</SUBJECT>
            <P>(a) <E T="03">General.</E> A person who applies for a commercial pilot certificate must receive and log ground training from an authorized instructor, or complete a home-study course, on the aeronautical knowledge areas of paragraph (b) of this section that apply to the aircraft category and class rating sought.</P>
            <P>(b) <E T="03">Aeronautical knowledge areas.</E> (1) Applicable Federal Aviation Regulations of this chapter that relate to commercial pilot privileges, limitations, and flight operations;</P>
            <P>(2) Accident reporting requirements of the National Transportation Safety Board;</P>
            <P>(3) Basic aerodynamics and the principles of flight;</P>
            <P>(4) Meteorology to include recognition of critical weather situations, windshear recognition and avoidance, and the use of aeronautical weather reports and forecasts;</P>
            <P>(5) Safe and efficient operation of aircraft;</P>
            <P>(6) Weight and balance computations;</P>
            <P>(7) Use of performance charts;</P>
            <P>(8) Significance and effects of exceeding aircraft performance limitations;</P>
            <P>(9) Use of aeronautical charts and a magnetic compass for pilotage and dead reckoning;</P>
            <P>(10) Use of air navigation facilities;</P>
            <P>(11) Aeronautical decision making and judgment;</P>
            <P>(12) Principles and functions of aircraft systems;</P>
            <P>(13) Maneuvers, procedures, and emergency operations appropriate to the aircraft;</P>
            <P>(14) Night and high-altitude operations;</P>
            <P>(15) Procedures for operating within the National Airspace System; and</P>
            <P>(16) Procedures for flight and ground training for lighter-than-air ratings.</P>
          </SECTION>
          <SECTION>
            <SECTNO>§ 61.127</SECTNO>
            <SUBJECT>Flight proficiency.</SUBJECT>
            <P>(a) <E T="03">General.</E> A person who applies for a commercial pilot certificate must receive and log ground and flight training from an authorized instructor on the areas of operation of this section that apply to the aircraft category and class rating sought.</P>
            <P>(b) <E T="03">Areas of operation.</E> (1) For an airplane category rating with a single-engine class rating:</P>
            <P>(i) Preflight preparation;</P>
            <P>(ii) Preflight procedures;</P>
            <P>(iii) Airport and seaplane base operations;</P>
            <P>(iv) Takeoffs, landings, and go-arounds;</P>
            <P>(v) Performance maneuvers;</P>
            <P>(vi) Ground reference maneuvers;</P>
            <P>(vii) Navigation;</P>
            <P>(viii) Slow flight and stalls;</P>
            <P>(ix) Emergency operations;</P>
            <P>(x) High-altitude operations; and</P>
            <P>(xi) Postflight procedures.</P>
            <P>(2) For an airplane category rating with a multiengine class rating:</P>
            <P>(i) Preflight preparation;</P>
            <P>(ii) Preflight procedures;</P>
            <P>(iii) Airport and seaplane base operations;</P>
            <P>(iv) Takeoffs, landings, and go-arounds;</P>
            <P>(v) Performance maneuvers;</P>
            <P>(vi) Navigation;</P>
            <P>(vii) Slow flight and stalls;</P>
            <P>(viii) Emergency operations;</P>
            <P>(ix) Multiengine operations;</P>
            <P>(x) High-altitude operations; and</P>
            <P>(xi) Postflight procedures.</P>
            <P>(3) For a rotorcraft category rating with a helicopter class rating:</P>
            <P>(i) Preflight preparation;</P>
            <P>(ii) Preflight procedures;</P>
            <P>(iii) Airport and heliport operations;</P>
            <P>(iv) Hovering maneuvers;</P>
            <P>(v) Takeoffs, landings, and go-arounds;</P>
            <P>(vi) Performance maneuvers;</P>
            <P>(vii) Navigation;</P>
            <P>(viii) Emergency operations;</P>
            <P>(ix) Special operations; and</P>
            <P>(x) Postflight procedures.</P>

            <P>(4) For a rotorcraft category rating with a gyroplane class rating:<PRTPAGE P="75"/>
            </P>
            <P>(i) Preflight preparation;</P>
            <P>(ii) Preflight procedures;</P>
            <P>(iii) Airport operations;</P>
            <P>(iv) Takeoffs, landings, and go-arounds;</P>
            <P>(v) Performance maneuvers;</P>
            <P>(vi) Navigation;</P>
            <P>(vii) Flight at slow airspeeds;</P>
            <P>(viii) Emergency operations; and</P>
            <P>(ix) Postflight procedures.</P>
            <P>(5) For a powered-lift category rating:</P>
            <P>(i) Preflight preparation;</P>
            <P>(ii) Preflight procedures;</P>
            <P>(iii) Airport and heliport operations;</P>
            <P>(iv) Hovering maneuvers;</P>
            <P>(v) Takeoffs, landings, and go-arounds;</P>
            <P>(vi) Performance maneuvers;</P>
            <P>(vii) Ground reference maneuvers;</P>
            <P>(viii) Navigation;</P>
            <P>(ix) Slow flight and stalls;</P>
            <P>(x) Emergency operations;</P>
            <P>(xi) High-altitude operations;</P>
            <P>(xii) Special operations; and</P>
            <P>(xiii) Postflight procedures.</P>
            <P>(6) For a glider category rating:</P>
            <P>(i) Preflight preparation;</P>
            <P>(ii) Preflight procedures;</P>
            <P>(iii) Airport and gliderport operations;</P>
            <P>(iv) Launches and landings;</P>
            <P>(v) Performance speeds;</P>
            <P>(vi) Soaring techniques;</P>
            <P>(vii) Performance maneuvers;</P>
            <P>(viii) Navigation;</P>
            <P>(ix) Slow flight and stalls;</P>
            <P>(x) Emergency operations; and</P>
            <P>(xi) Postflight procedures.</P>
            <P>(7) For a lighter-than-air category rating with an airship class rating:</P>
            <P>(i) Fundamentals of instructing;</P>
            <P>(ii) Technical subjects;</P>
            <P>(iii) Preflight preparation;</P>
            <P>(iv) Preflight lesson on a maneuver to be performed in flight;</P>
            <P>(v) Preflight procedures;</P>
            <P>(vi) Airport operations;</P>
            <P>(vii) Takeoffs, landings, and go-arounds;</P>
            <P>(viii) Performance maneuvers;</P>
            <P>(ix) Navigation;</P>
            <P>(x) Emergency operations; and</P>
            <P>(xi) Postflight procedures.</P>
            <P>(8) For a lighter-than-air category rating with a balloon class rating:</P>
            <P>(i) Fundamentals of instructing;</P>
            <P>(ii) Technical subjects;</P>
            <P>(iii) Preflight preparation;</P>
            <P>(iv) Preflight lesson on a maneuver to be performed in flight;</P>
            <P>(v) Preflight procedures;</P>
            <P>(vi) Airport operations;</P>
            <P>(vii) Launches and landings;</P>
            <P>(viii) Performance maneuvers;</P>
            <P>(ix) Navigation;</P>
            <P>(x) Emergency operations; and</P>
            <P>(xi) Postflight procedures.</P>
          </SECTION>
          <SECTION>
            <SECTNO>§ 61.129</SECTNO>
            <SUBJECT>Aeronautical experience.</SUBJECT>
            <P>(a) <E T="03">For an airplane single-engine rating.</E> Except as provided in paragraph (i) of this section, a person who applies for a commercial pilot certificate with an airplane category and single-engine class rating must log at least 250 hours of flight time as a pilot that consists of at least:</P>
            <P>(1) 100 hours in powered aircraft, of which 50 hours must be in airplanes.</P>
            <P>(2) 100 hours of pilot-in-command flight time, which includes at least—</P>
            <P>(i) 50 hours in airplanes; and</P>
            <P>(ii) 50 hours in cross-country flight of which at least 10 hours must be in airplanes.</P>
            <P>(3) 20 hours of training on the areas of operation listed in § 61.127(b)(1) of this part that includes at least—</P>
            <P>(i) 10 hours of instrument training of which at least 5 hours must be in a single-engine airplane;</P>
            <P>(ii) 10 hours of training in an airplane that has a retractable landing gear, flaps, and a controllable pitch propeller, or is turbine-powered, or for an applicant seeking a single-engine seaplane rating, 10 hours of training in a seaplane that has flaps and a controllable pitch propeller;</P>
            <P>(iii) One cross-country flight of at least 2 hours in a single-engine airplane in day VFR conditions, consisting of a total straight-line distance of more than 100 nautical miles from the original point of departure;</P>
            <P>(iv) One cross-country flight of at least 2 hours in a single-engine airplane in night VFR conditions, consisting of a total straight-line distance of more than 100 nautical miles from the original point of departure; and</P>

            <P>(v) 3 hours in a single-engine airplane in preparation for the practical test within the 60-day period preceding the date of the test.<PRTPAGE P="76"/>
            </P>
            <P>(4) 10 hours of solo flight in a single-engine airplane on the areas of operation listed in § 61.127(b)(1) of this part, which includes at least—</P>
            <P>(i) One cross-country flight of not less than 300 nautical miles total distance, with landings at a minimum of three points, one of which is a straight-line distance of at least 250 nautical miles from the original departure point. However, if this requirement is being met in Hawaii, the longest segment need only have a straight-line distance of at least 150 nautical miles; and</P>
            <P>(ii) 5 hours in night VFR conditions with 10 takeoffs and 10 landings (with each landing involving a flight in the traffic pattern) at an airport with an operating control tower.</P>
            <P>(b) <E T="03">For an airplane multiengine rating.</E> Except as provided in paragraph (i) of this section, a person who applies for a commercial pilot certificate with an airplane category and multiengine class rating must log at least 250 hours of flight time as a pilot that consists of at least:</P>
            <P>(1) 100 hours in powered aircraft, of which 50 hours must be in airplanes.</P>
            <P>(2) 100 hours of pilot-in-command flight time, which includes at least—</P>
            <P>(i) 50 hours in airplanes; and</P>
            <P>(ii) 50 hours in cross-country flight of which at least 10 hours must be in airplanes.</P>
            <P>(3) 20 hours of training on the areas of operation listed in § 61.127(b)(2) of this part that includes at least—</P>
            <P>(i) 10 hours of instrument training of which at least 5 hours must be in a multiengine airplane;</P>
            <P>(ii) 10 hours of training in a multiengine airplane that has a retractable landing gear, flaps, and controllable pitch propellers, or is turbine-powered, or for an applicant seeking a multiengine seaplane rating, 10 hours of training in a multiengine seaplane that has flaps and a controllable pitch propeller;</P>
            <P>(iii) One cross-country flight of at least 2 hours in a multiengine airplane in day VFR conditions, consisting of a total straight-line distance of more than 100 nautical miles from the original point of departure;</P>
            <P>(iv) One cross-country flight of at least 2 hours in a multiengine airplane in night VFR conditions, consisting of a total straight-line distance of more than 100 nautical miles from the original point of departure; and</P>
            <P>(v) 3 hours in a multiengine airplane in preparation for the practical test within the 60-day period preceding the date of the test.</P>
            <P>(4) 10 hours of solo flight time in a multiengine airplane or 10 hours of flight time performing the duties of pilot in command in a multiengine airplane with an authorized instructor (either of which may be credited towards the flight time requirement in paragraph (b)(2) of this section), on the areas of operation listed in § 61.127(b)(2) of this part that includes at least—</P>
            <P>(i) One cross-country flight of not less than 300 nautical miles total distance with landings at a minimum of three points, one of which is a straight-line distance of at least 250 nautical miles from the original departure point. However, if this requirement is being met in Hawaii, the longest segment need only have a straight-line distance of at least 150 nautical miles; and</P>
            <P>(ii) 5 hours in night VFR conditions with 10 takeoffs and 10 landings (with each landing involving a flight with a traffic pattern) at an airport with an operating control tower.</P>
            <P>(c) <E T="03">For a helicopter rating.</E> Except as provided in paragraph (i) of this section, a person who applies for a commercial pilot certificate with a rotorcraft category and helicopter class rating must log at least 150 hours of flight time as a pilot that consists of at least:</P>
            <P>(1) 100 hours in powered aircraft, of which 50 hours must be in helicopters.</P>
            <P>(2) 100 hours of pilot-in-command flight time, which includes at least—</P>
            <P>(i) 35 hours in helicopters; and</P>
            <P>(ii) 10 hours in cross-country flight in helicopters.</P>
            <P>(3) 20 hours of training on the areas of operation listed in § 61.127(b)(3) of this part that includes at least—</P>
            <P>(i) 10 hours of instrument training in an aircraft;</P>

            <P>(ii) One cross-country flight of at least 2 hours in a helicopter in day VFR conditions, consisting of a total straight-line distance of more than 50 nautical miles from the original point of departure;<PRTPAGE P="77"/>
            </P>
            <P>(iii) One cross-country flight of at least 2 hours in a helicopter in night VFR conditions, consisting of a total straight-line distance of more than 50 nautical miles from the original point of departure; and</P>
            <P>(iv) 3 hours in a helicopter in preparation for the practical test within the 60-day period preceding the date of the test.</P>
            <P>(4) 10 hours of solo flight in a helicopter on the areas of operation listed in § 61.127(b)(3) of this part, which includes at least—</P>
            <P>(i) One cross-country flight with landings at a minimum of three points, with one segment consisting of a straight-line distance of at least 50 nautical miles from the original point of departure; and</P>
            <P>(ii) 5 hours in night VFR conditions with 10 takeoffs and 10 landings (with each landing involving a flight in the traffic pattern).</P>
            <P>(d) <E T="03">For a gyroplane rating.</E> A person who applies for a commercial pilot certificate with a rotorcraft category and gyroplane class rating must log at least 150 hours of flight time as a pilot (of which 5 hours may have been accomplished in a flight simulator or flight training device that is representative of a gyroplane) that consists of at least:</P>
            <P>(1) 100 hours in powered aircraft, of which 25 hours must be in gyroplanes.</P>
            <P>(2) 100 hours of pilot-in-command flight time, which includes at least—</P>
            <P>(i) 10 hours in gyroplanes; and</P>
            <P>(ii) 3 hours in cross-country flight in gyroplanes.</P>
            <P>(3) 20 hours of training on the areas of operation listed in § 61.127(b)(4) of this part that includes at least—</P>
            <P>(i) 5 hours of instrument training in an aircraft;</P>
            <P>(ii) One cross-country flight of at least 2 hours in a gyroplane in day VFR conditions, consisting of a total straight-line distance of more than 50 nautical miles from the original point of departure;</P>
            <P>(iii) One cross-country flight of at least 2 hours in a gyroplane in night VFR conditions, consisting of a total straight-line distance of more than 50 nautical miles from the original point of departure; and</P>
            <P>(iv) 3 hours in a gyroplane in preparation for the practical test within the 60-day period preceding the date of the test.</P>
            <P>(4) 10 hours of solo flight in a gyroplane on the areas of operation listed in § 61.127(b)(4) of this part, which includes at least—</P>
            <P>(i) One cross-country flight with landings at a minimum of three points, with one segment consisting of a straight-line distance of at least 50 nautical miles from the original point of departure; and</P>
            <P>(ii) 5 hours in night VFR conditions with 10 takeoffs and 10 landings (with each landing involving a flight in the traffic pattern).</P>
            <P>(e) <E T="03">For a powered-lift rating.</E> Except as provided in paragraph (i) of this section, a person who applies for a commercial pilot certificate with a powered-lift category rating must log at least 250 hours of flight time as a pilot that consists of at least:</P>
            <P>(1) 100 hours in powered aircraft, of which 50 hours must be in a powered-lift.</P>
            <P>(2) 100 hours of pilot-in-command flight time, which includes at least—</P>
            <P>(i) 50 hours in a powered-lift; and</P>
            <P>(ii) 50 hours in cross-country flight of which 10 hours must be in a powered-lift.</P>
            <P>(3) 20 hours of training on the areas of operation listed in § 61.127(b)(5) of this part that includes at least—</P>
            <P>(i) 10 hours of instrument training, of which at least 5 hours must be in a powered-lift;</P>
            <P>(ii) One cross-country flight of at least 2 hours in a powered-lift in day VFR conditions, consisting of a total straight-line distance of more than 100 nautical miles from the original point of departure;</P>
            <P>(iii) One cross-country flight of at least 2 hours in a powered-lift in night VFR conditions, consisting of a total straight-line distance of more than 100 nautical miles from the original point of departure; and</P>

            <P>(iv) 3 hours in a powered-lift in preparation for the practical test within the 60-day period preceding the date of the test.<PRTPAGE P="78"/>
            </P>
            <P>(4) 10 hours of solo flight in a powered-lift on the areas of operation listed in § 61.127(b)(5) of this part, which includes at least—</P>
            <P>(i) One cross-country flight of not less than 300 nautical miles total distance with landings at a minimum of three points, one of which is a straight-line distance of at least 250 nautical miles from the original departure point. However, if this requirement is being met in Hawaii the longest segment need only have a straight-line distance of at least 150 nautical miles; and</P>
            <P>(ii) 5 hours in night VFR conditions with 10 takeoffs and 10 landings (with each landing involving a flight in the traffic pattern) at an airport with an operating control tower.</P>
            <P>(f) <E T="03">For a glider rating.</E> A person who applies for a commercial pilot certificate with a glider category rating must log at least—</P>
            <P>(1) 25 hours of flight time as a pilot in a glider and that flight time must include at least 100 flights in a glider as pilot in command, including at least—</P>
            <P>(i) 3 hours of flight training in a glider or 10 training flights in a glider with an authorized instructor on the areas of operation listed in § 61.127(b)(6) of this part, including at least 3 training flights in a glider with an authorized instructor in preparation for the practical test within the 60-day period preceding the date of the test; and</P>
            <P>(ii) 2 hours of solo flight that include not less than 10 solo flights in a glider on the areas of operation listed in § 61.127(b)(6) of this part; or</P>
            <P>(2) 200 hours of flight time as a pilot in heavier-than-air aircraft and at least 20 flights in a glider as pilot in command, including at least—</P>
            <P>(i) 3 hours of flight training in a glider or 10 training flights in a glider with an authorized instructor on the areas of operation listed in § 61.127(b)(6) of this part including at least 3 training flights in a glider with an authorized instructor in preparation for the practical test within the 60-day period preceding the date of the test; and</P>
            <P>(ii) 5 solo flights in a glider on the areas of operation listed in § 61.127(b)(6) of this part.</P>
            <P>(g) <E T="03">For an airship rating.</E> A person who applies for a commercial pilot certificate with a lighter-than-air category and airship class rating must log at least 200 hours of flight time as a pilot, which includes at least the following hours:</P>
            <P>(1) 50 hours in airships.</P>
            <P>(2) 30 hours of pilot-in-command time in airships, which consists of at least—</P>
            <P>(i) 10 hours of cross-country flight time in airships; and</P>
            <P>(ii) 10 hours of night flight time in airships.</P>
            <P>(3) 40 hours of instrument time, which consists of at least 20 hours in flight, of which 10 hours must be in flight in airships.</P>
            <P>(4) 20 hours of flight training in airships on the areas of operation listed in § 61.127(b)(7) of this part, which includes at least—</P>
            <P>(i) 3 hours in an airship in preparation for the practical test within the 60-day period preceding the date of the test;</P>
            <P>(ii) One cross-country flight of at least 1 hour in duration in an airship in day VFR conditions, consisting of a total straight-line distance of more than 25 nautical miles from the original point of departure; and</P>
            <P>(iii) One cross-country flight of at least 1 hour in duration in an airship in night VFR conditions, consisting of a total straight-line distance of more than 25 nautical miles from the original point of departure.</P>
            <P>(5) 10 hours of flight training performing the duties of pilot in command with an authorized instructor on the areas of operation listed in § 61.127(b)(7) of this part, which includes at least—</P>
            <P>(i) One cross-country flight with landings at a minimum of three points, with one segment consisting of a straight-line distance of at least 25 nautical miles from the original point of departure; and</P>
            <P>(ii) 5 hours in night VFR conditions with 10 takeoffs and 10 landings (with each landing involving a flight in the traffic pattern).</P>
            <P>(h) <E T="03">For a balloon rating.</E> A person who applies for a commercial pilot certificate with a lighter-than-air category and a balloon class rating must log at least 35 hours of flight time as a pilot, which includes at least the following requirements:</P>
            <P>(1) 20 hours in balloons;<PRTPAGE P="79"/>
            </P>
            <P>(2) 10 flights in balloons;</P>
            <P>(3) Two flights in balloons as the pilot in command; and</P>
            <P>(4) 10 hours of flight training that includes at least 10 training flights with an authorized instructor in balloons on the areas of operation listed in § 61.127(b)(8) of this part, which consists of at least—</P>
            <P>(i) For a gas balloon—</P>
            <P>(A) 2 training flights of 2 hours each with an authorized instructor in a gas balloon on the areas of operation appropriate to a gas balloon within 60 days prior to application for the rating;</P>
            <P>(B) 2 flights performing the duties of pilot in command in a gas balloon with an authorized instructor on the appropriate areas of operation; and</P>
            <P>(C) One flight involving a controlled ascent to 5,000 feet above the launch site.</P>
            <P>(ii) For a balloon with an airborne heater—</P>
            <P>(A) 2 training flights of 1 hour each with an authorized instructor in a balloon with an airborne heater on the areas of operation appropriate to a balloon with an airborne heater within 60 days prior to application for the rating;</P>
            <P>(B) Two solo flights in a balloon with an airborne heater on the appropriate areas of operation; and</P>
            <P>(C) One flight involving a controlled ascent to 3,000 feet above the launch site.</P>
            <P>(i) <E T="03">Permitted credit for use of a flight simulator or flight training device.</E> (1) Except as provided in paragraph (i)(2) of this section, an applicant who has not accomplished the training required by this section in a course conducted by a training center certificated under part 142 of this chapter may:</P>
            <P>(i) Credit a maximum of 50 hours toward the total aeronautical experience requirements for an airplane or powered-lift rating, provided the aeronautical experience was obtained from an authorized instructor in a flight simulator or flight training device that represents that class of airplane or powered-lift category and type, if applicable, appropriate to the rating sought; and</P>
            <P>(ii) Credit a maximum of 25 hours toward the total aeronautical experience requirements of this section for a helicopter rating, provided the aeronautical experience was obtained from an authorized instructor in a flight simulator or flight training device that represents a helicopter and type, if applicable, appropriate to the rating sought.</P>
            <P>(2) An applicant who has accomplished the training required by this section in a course conducted by a training center certificated under part 142 of this chapter may:</P>
            <P>(i) Credit a maximum of 100 hours toward the total aeronautical experience requirements of this section for an airplane and powered-lift rating, provided the aeronautical experience was obtained from an authorized instructor ina flight simulator or flight training device that represents that class of airplane or powered-lift category and type, if applicable, appropriate to the rating sought; and</P>
            <P>(ii) Credit a maximum of 50 hours toward the total aeronautical experience requirements of this section for a helicopter rating, provided the aeronautical experience was obtained from an authorized instructor in a flight simulator or flight training device that represents a helicopter and type, if applicable, appropriate to the rating sought.</P>
            <P>(3) Except when fewer hours are approved by the Administrator, an applicant for a commercial pilot certificate with an airplane or a powered-lift rating who has satisfactorily completed an approved commercial pilot course conducted by a training center certificated under part 142 of this chapter need only have 190 hours of total to meet the aeronautical experience requirements of this section.</P>
            <CITA>[Doc. No. 25910, 62 FR 16298, Apr. 4, 1997; Amdt. 61-101, 62 FR 16892, Apr. 8, 1997; Amdt. 61-103, 62 FR 40904, July 30, 1997; Amdt. 61-104, 63 FR 20288, Apr. 23, 1998]</CITA>
          </SECTION>
          <SECTION>
            <SECTNO>§ 61.131</SECTNO>
            <SUBJECT>Exceptions to the night flying requirements.</SUBJECT>
            <P>(a) Subject to the limitations of paragraph (b) of this section, a person is not required to comply with the night flight training requirements of this subpart if the person receives flight training in and resides in the State of Alaska.</P>

            <P>(b) A person who receives flight training in and resides in the State of <PRTPAGE P="80"/>Alaska but does not meet the night flight training requirements of this section:</P>
            <P>(1) May be issued a pilot certificate with the limitation “night flying prohibited.”</P>
            <P>(2) Must comply with the appropriate night flight training requirements of this subpart within the 12-calendar-month period after the issuance of the pilot certificate. At the end of that period, the certificate willbecome invalid for use until the person complies with the appropriate night flight training requirements of this subpart. The person may have the “night flying prohibited” limitation removed if the person—</P>
            <P>(i) Accomplishes the appropriate night flight training requirements of this subpart; and</P>
            <P>(ii) Presents to an examiner a logbook or training record endorsement from an authorized instructor that verifies accomplishment of the appropriate night flight training requirements of this subpart.</P>
            <CITA>[Doc. No. 25910, 62 FR 16298, Apr. 4, 1997; Amdt. 61-103, 62 FR 40905, July 30, 1997]</CITA>
          </SECTION>
          <SECTION>
            <SECTNO>§ 61.133</SECTNO>
            <SUBJECT>Commercial pilot privileges and limitations.</SUBJECT>
            <P>(a) <E T="03">Privileges—</E>(1) <E T="03">General.</E> A person who holds a commercial pilot certificate may act as pilot in command of an aircraft—</P>
            <P>(i) Carrying persons or property for compensation or hire, provided the person is qualified in accordance with this part and with the applicable parts of this chapter that apply to the operation; and</P>
            <P>(ii) For compensation or hire, provided the person is qualified in accordance with this part and with the applicable parts of this chapter that apply to the operation.</P>
            <P>(2) <E T="03">Commercial pilots with lighter-than-air category ratings.</E> A person with a commercial pilot certificate with a lighter-than-air category rating may—</P>
            <P>(i) <E T="03">For an airship</E>—(A) Give flight and ground training in an airship for the issuance of a certificate or rating;</P>
            <P>(B) Give an endorsement for a pilot certificate with an airship rating;</P>
            <P>(C) Endorse a student pilot certificate or logbook for solo operating privileges in an airship;</P>
            <P>(D) Act as pilot in command of an airship under IFR or in weather conditions less than the minimum prescribed for VFR flight; and</P>
            <P>(E) Give flight and ground training and endorsements that are required for a flight review, an operating privilege or recency-of-experience requirements of this part.</P>
            <P>(ii) <E T="03">For a balloon</E>—(A) Give flight and ground training in a balloon for the issuance of a certificate or rating;</P>
            <P>(B) Give an endorsement for a pilot certificate with a balloon rating;</P>
            <P>(C) Endorse a student pilot certificate or logbook for solo operating privileges in a balloon; and</P>
            <P>(D) Give ground and flight training and endorsements that are required for a flight review, an operating privilege, or recency-of-experience requirements of this part.</P>
            <P>(b) <E T="03">Limitations.</E> (1) A person who applies for a commercial pilot certificate with an airplane category or powered-lift category rating and does not hold an instrument rating in the same category and class will be issued a commercial pilot certificate that contains the limitation, “The carriage of passengers for hire in (airplanes) (powered-lifts) on cross-country flights in excess of 50 nautical miles or at night is prohibited.” The limitation may be removed when the person satisfactorily accomplishes the requirements listed in § 61.65 of this part for an instrument rating in the same category and class of aircraft listed on the person's commercial pilot certificate.</P>
            <P>(2) If a person who applies for a commercial pilot certificate with a balloon rating takes a practical test in a balloon with an airborne heater—</P>
            <P>(i) The pilot certificate will contain a limitation restricting the exercise of the privileges of that certificate to a balloon with an airborne heater.</P>

            <P>(ii) The limitation specified in paragraph (b)(2)(i) of this section may be removed when the person obtains the required aeronautical experience in a gas balloon and receives a logbook endorsement from an authorized instructor who attests to the person's accomplishment of the required aeronautical experience and ability to satisfactorily operate a gas balloon.<PRTPAGE P="81"/>
            </P>
            <P>(3) If a person who applies for a commercial pilot certificate with a balloon rating takes a practical test in a gas balloon—</P>
            <P>(i) The pilot certificate will contain a limitation restricting the exercise of the privileges of that certificate to a gas balloon.</P>
            <P>(ii) The limitation specified in paragraph (b)(3)(i) of this section may be removed when the person obtains the required aeronautical experience in a balloon with an airborne heater and receives a logbook endorsement from an authorized instructor who attests to the person's accomplishment of the required aeronautical experience and ability to satisfactorily operate a balloon with an airborne heater.</P>
            <CITA>[Doc. No. 25910, 62 FR 16298, Apr. 4, 1997; Amdt. 61-103, 62 FR 40905, July 30, 1997]</CITA>
          </SECTION>
          <SECTION>
            <SECTNO>§ 61.135-61.141</SECTNO>
            <RESERVED>[Reserved]</RESERVED>
          </SECTION>
        </SUBPART>
        <SUBPART>
          <HD SOURCE="HED">Subpart G—Airline Transport Pilots</HD>
          <SECTION>
            <SECTNO>§ 61.151</SECTNO>
            <SUBJECT>Applicability.</SUBJECT>
            <P>This subpart prescribes the requirements for the issuance of airline transport pilot certificates and ratings, the conditions under which those certificates and ratings are necessary, and the general operating rules for persons who hold those certificates and ratings.</P>
          </SECTION>
          <SECTION>
            <SECTNO>§ 61.153</SECTNO>
            <SUBJECT>Eligibility requirements: General.</SUBJECT>
            <P>To be eligible for an airline transport pilot certificate, a person must:</P>
            <P>(a) Be at least 23 years of age;</P>
            <P>(b) Be able to read, speak, write, and understand the English language. If the applicant is unable to meet one of these requirements due to medical reasons, then the Administrator may place such operating limitations on that applicant's pilot certificate as are necessary for the safe operation of the aircraft;</P>
            <P>(c) Be of good moral character;</P>
            <P>(d) Meet at least one of the following requirements:</P>
            <P>(1) Hold at least a commercial pilot certificate and an instrument rating;</P>
            <P>(2) Meet the military experience requirements under § 61.73 of this part to qualify for a commercial pilot certificate, and an instrument rating if the person is a rated military pilot or former rated military pilot of an Armed Force of the United States; or</P>
            <P>(3) Hold either a foreign airline transport pilot or foreign commercial pilot license and an instrument rating, without limitations, issued by a contracting State to the Convention on International Civil Aviation.</P>
            <P>(e) Meet the aeronautical experience requirements of this subpart that apply to the aircraft category and class rating sought before applying for the practical test;</P>
            <P>(f) Pass a knowledge test on the aeronautical knowledge areas of § 61.155(c) of this part that apply to the aircraft category and class rating sought;</P>
            <P>(g) Pass the practical test on the areas of operation listed in § 61.157(e) of this part that apply to the aircraft category and class rating sought; and</P>
            <P>(h) Comply with the sections of this part that apply to the aircraft category and class rating sought.</P>
            <CITA>[Doc. No. 25910, 62 FR 16298, Apr. 4, 1997; Amdt. 61-103, 62 FR 40905, July 30, 1997]</CITA>
          </SECTION>
          <SECTION>
            <SECTNO>§ 61.155</SECTNO>
            <SUBJECT>Aeronautical knowledge.</SUBJECT>
            <P>(a) <E T="03">General.</E> The knowledge test for an airline transport pilot certificate is based on the aeronautical knowledge areas listed in paragraph (c) of this section that are appropriate to the aircraft category and class rating sought.</P>
            <P>(b) <E T="03">Aircraft type rating.</E> A person who is applying for an additional aircraft type rating to be added to an airline transport pilot certificate is not required to pass a knowledge test if that person's airline transport pilot certificate lists the aircraft category and class rating that is appropriate to the type rating sought.</P>
            <P>(c) <E T="03">Aeronautical knowledge areas.</E> (1) Applicable Federal Aviation Regulations of this chapter that relate to airline transport pilot privileges, limitations, and flight operations;</P>
            <P>(2) Meteorology, including knowledge of and effects of fronts, frontal characteristics, cloud formations, icing, and upper-air data;</P>
            <P>(3) General system of weather and NOTAM collection, dissemination, interpretation, and use;</P>

            <P>(4) Interpretation and use of weather charts, maps, forecasts, sequence reports, abbreviations, and symbols;<PRTPAGE P="82"/>
            </P>
            <P>(5) National Weather Service functions as they pertain to operations in the National Airspace System;</P>
            <P>(6) Windshear and microburst awareness, identification, and avoidance;</P>
            <P>(7) Principles of air navigation under instrument meteorological conditions in the National Airspace System;</P>
            <P>(8) Air traffic control procedures and pilot responsibilities as they relate to en route operations, terminal area and radar operations, and instrument departure and approach procedures;</P>
            <P>(9) Aircraft loading, weight and balance, use of charts, graphs, tables, formulas, and computations, and their effect on aircraft performance;</P>
            <P>(10) Aerodynamics relating to an aircraft's flight characteristics and performance in normal and abnormal flight regimes;</P>
            <P>(11) Human factors;</P>
            <P>(12) Aeronautical decision making and judgment; and</P>
            <P>(13) Crew resource management to include crew communication and coordination.</P>
          </SECTION>
          <SECTION>
            <SECTNO>§ 61.157</SECTNO>
            <SUBJECT>Flight proficiency.</SUBJECT>
            <P>(a) <E T="03">General.</E> (1) The practical test for an airline transport pilot certificate is given for—</P>
            <P>(i) An airplane category and single-engine class rating;</P>
            <P>(ii) An airplane category and multiengine class rating;</P>
            <P>(iii) A rotorcraft category and helicopter class rating;</P>
            <P>(iv) A powered-lift category rating; and</P>
            <P>(v) An aircraft type rating for the category and class ratings listed in paragraphs (a)(1)(i) through (a)(1)(iv) of this section.</P>
            <P>(2) A person who is applying for an airline transport pilot practical test must meet—</P>
            <P>(i) The eligibility requirements of § 61.153 of this part; and</P>
            <P>(ii) The aeronautical knowledge and aeronautical experience requirements of this subpart that apply to the aircraft category and class rating sought.</P>
            <P>(b) <E T="03">Aircraft type rating.</E> Except as provided in paragraph (c) of this section, a person who is applying for an aircraft type rating to be added to an airline transport pilot certificate:</P>
            <P>(1) Must receive and log ground and flight training from an authorized instructor on the areas of operation in this section that apply to the aircraft type rating sought;</P>
            <P>(2) Must receive a logbook endorsement from an authorized instructor certifying that the applicant completed the training on the areas of operation listed in paragraph (e) of this section that apply to the aircraft type rating sought; and</P>
            <P>(3) Must perform the practical test in actual or simulated instrument conditions, unless the aircraft's type certificate makes the aircraft incapable of operating under instrument flight rules. If the practical test cannot be accomplished for this reason, the person may obtain a type rating limited to “VFR only.” The “VFR only” limitation may be removed for that aircraft type when the person passes the practical test in actual or simulated instrument conditions.</P>
            <P>(c) <E T="03">Exceptions.</E> A person who is applying for an aircraft type rating to be added to an airline transport pilot certificate or an aircraft type rating concurrently with an airline transport pilot certificate, and who is an employee of a certificate holder operating under part 121 or 135 of this chapter or of a fractional ownership program manager operating under subpart K of part 91 of this chapter, need not comply with the requirements of paragraph (b) of this section if the applicant presents a training record that shows satisfactory completion of that certificate holder's or program manager's approved pilot-in-command training program for the aircraft type rating sought.</P>
            <P>(d) <E T="03">Upgrading type ratings.</E> Any type rating(s) on the pilot certificate of an applicant who successfully completes an airline transport pilot practical test shall be included on the airline transport pilot certificate with the privileges and limitations of the airline transport pilot certificate, provided the applicant passes the practical test in the same category and class of aircraft for which the applicant holds the type rating(s). However, if a type rating for that category and class of aircraft on the superseded pilot certificate is limited to VFR, that limitation shall be <PRTPAGE P="83"/>carried forward to the person's airline transport pilot certificate level.</P>
            <P>(e) <E T="03">Areas of operation.</E> (1) For an airplane category—single-engine class rating:</P>
            <P>(i) Preflight preparation;</P>
            <P>(ii) Preflight procedures;</P>
            <P>(iii) Takeoff and departure phase;</P>
            <P>(iv) In-flight maneuvers;</P>
            <P>(v) Instrument procedures;</P>
            <P>(vi) Landings and approaches to landings;</P>
            <P>(vii) Normal and abnormal procedures;</P>
            <P>(viii) Emergency procedures; and</P>
            <P>(ix) Postflight procedures.</P>
            <P>(2) For an airplane category—multiengine class rating:</P>
            <P>(i) Preflight preparation;</P>
            <P>(ii) Preflight procedures;</P>
            <P>(iii) Takeoff and departure phase;</P>
            <P>(iv) In-flight maneuvers;</P>
            <P>(v) Instrument procedures;</P>
            <P>(vi) Landings and approaches to landings;</P>
            <P>(vii) Normal and abnormal procedures;</P>
            <P>(viii) Emergency procedures; and</P>
            <P>(ix) Postflight procedures.</P>
            <P>(3) For a powered-lift category rating:</P>
            <P>(i) Preflight preparation;</P>
            <P>(ii) Preflight procedures;</P>
            <P>(iii) Takeoff and departure phase;</P>
            <P>(iv) In-flight maneuvers;</P>
            <P>(v) Instrument procedures;</P>
            <P>(vi) Landings and approaches to landings;</P>
            <P>(vii) Normal and abnormal procedures;</P>
            <P>(viii) Emergency procedures; and</P>
            <P>(ix) Postflight procedures.</P>
            <P>(4) For a rotorcraft category—helicopter class rating:</P>
            <P>(i) Preflight preparation;</P>
            <P>(ii) Preflight procedures;</P>
            <P>(iii) Takeoff and departure phase;</P>
            <P>(iv) In-flight maneuvers;</P>
            <P>(v) Instrument procedures;</P>
            <P>(vi) Landings and approaches to landings;</P>
            <P>(vii) Normal and abnormal procedures;</P>
            <P>(viii) Emergency procedures; and</P>
            <P>(ix) Postflight procedures.</P>
            <P>(f) <E T="03"> Proficiency and competency checks conducted under part 121, part 135, or subpart K of part 91.</E> (1) Successful completion of any of the following checks satisfy the requirements of this section for the appropriate aircraft rating:</P>
            <P>(i) A proficiency check under § 121.441 of this chapter.</P>
            <P>(ii) Both a competency check under § 135.293 of this chapter and a pilot-in-command instrument proficiency check under § 135.297 of this chapter.</P>
            <P>(iii) Both a competency check under § 91.1065 of this chapter and a pilot-in-command instrument proficiency check under § 91.1069 of this chapter.</P>
            <P>(2) The checks specified in paragraph (f)(1) of this section must be conducted by an authorized designated pilot examiner or FAA aviation safety inspector.</P>
            <P>(g) <E T="03">Use of a flight simulator or flight training device for an airplane rating.</E> If a flight simulator or flight training device is used for accomplishing all of the training and the required practical test for an airplane transport pilot certificate with an airplane category, class, and type rating, if applicable, the applicant, flight simulator, and flight training device are subject to the following requirements:</P>
            <P>(1) The flight simulator and flight training device must represent that airplane type if the rating involves a type rating in an airplane, or is representative of an airplane if the applicant is only seeking an airplane class rating and does not require a type rating.</P>
            <P>(2) The flight simulator and flight training device must be used in accordance with an approved course at a training center certificated under part 142 of this chapter.</P>
            <P>(3) All training and testing (except preflight inspection) must be accomplished by the applicant to receive an airplane class rating and type rating, if applicable, without limitations and—</P>
            <P>(i) The flight simulator must be qualified and approved as Level C or Level D; and</P>
            <P>(ii) The applicant must meet the aeronautical experience requirements of § 61.159 of this part and at least one of the following—</P>

            <P>(A) Hold a type rating for a turbojet airplane of the same class of airplane for which the type rating is sought, or have been designated by a military service as a pilot in command of an airplane of the same class of airplane for <PRTPAGE P="84"/>which the type rating is sought, if a turbojet type rating is sought;</P>
            <P>(B) Hold a type rating for a turbopropeller airplane of the same class as the airplane for which the type rating is sought, or have been appointed by a military service as a pilot in command of an airplane of the same class of airplane for which the type rating is sought, if a turbopropeller airplane type rating is sought;</P>
            <P>(C) Have at least 2,000 hours of flight time, of which 500 hours must be in turbine-powered airplanes of the same class as the airplane for which the type rating is sought;</P>
            <P>(D) Have at least 500 hours of flight time in the same type of airplane as the airplane for which the type rating is sought; or</P>
            <P>(E) Have at least 1,000 hours of flight time in at least two different airplanes requiring a type rating.</P>
            <P>(4) Subject to the limitation of paragraph (g)(5) of this section, an applicant who does not meet the requirements of paragraph (g)(3) of this section may complete all training and testing (except for preflight inspection) for an additional rating if—</P>
            <P>(i) The flight simulator is qualified and approved as Level C or Level D; and</P>
            <P>(ii) The applicant meets the aeronautical experience requirements of § 61.159 of this part and at least one of the following—</P>
            <P>(A) Holds a type rating in a propeller-driven airplane if a type rating in a turbojet airplane is sought, or holds a type rating in a turbojet airplane if a type rating in a propeller-driven airplane is sought;</P>
            <P>(B) Since the beginning of the 12th calendar month before the month in which the applicant completes the practical test for the additional rating, has logged—</P>
            <P>(<E T="03">1</E>) At least 100 hours of flight time in airplanes in the same class as the airplane for which the type rating is sought and which requires a type rating; and</P>
            <P>(<E T="03">2</E>) At least 25 hours of flight time in airplanes of the same type for which the type rating is sought.</P>
            <P>(5) An applicant meeting only the requirements of paragraph (g)(4)(ii)(A) and (B) of this section will be issued an additional rating, or an airline transport pilot certificate with an added rating, as applicable, with a limitation. The limitation shall state: “This certificate is subject to pilot-in-command limitations for the additional rating.”</P>
            <P>(6) An applicant who has been issued a certificate with the limitation specified in paragraph (g)(5) of this section—</P>
            <P>(i) May not act as pilot in command of the aircraft for which an additional rating was obtained under the provisions of this section until the limitation is removed from the certificate; and</P>
            <P>(ii) May have the limitation removed by accomplishing 15 hours of supervised operating experience as pilot in command under the supervision of a qualified and current pilot in command, in the seat normally occupied by the pilot in command, in an airplane of the same type for which the limitation applies.</P>
            <P>(7) An applicant who does not meet the requirements of paragraph (g)(3)(ii)(A) through (E) or (g)(4)(ii)(A) and (B) of this section may be issued an airline transport pilot certificate or an additional rating to that pilot certificate after successful completion of one of the following requirements—</P>
            <P>(i) An approved course at a part 142 training center that includes all training and testing for that certificate or rating, followed by training and testing on the following tasks, which must be successfully completed on a static airplane or in flight, as appropriate—</P>
            <P>(A) Preflight inspection;</P>
            <P>(B) Normal takeoff;</P>
            <P>(C) Normal ILS approach;</P>
            <P>(D) Missed approach; and</P>
            <P>(E) Normal landing.</P>
            <P>(ii) An approved course at a part 142 training center that complies with paragraphs (g)(8) and (g)(9) of this section and includes all training and testing for a certificate or rating.</P>

            <P>(8) An applicant meeting only the requirements of paragraph (g)(7)(ii) of this section will be issued an additional rating or an airline transport pilot certificate with an additional rating, as applicable, with a limitation. The limitation shall state: “This certificate is subject to pilot-in-command limitations for the additional rating.”<PRTPAGE P="85"/>
            </P>
            <P>(9) An applicant issued a pilot certificate with the limitation specified in paragraph (g)(8) of this section—</P>
            <P>(i) May not act as pilot in command of the aircraft for which an additional rating was obtained under the provisions of this section until the limitation is removed from the certificate; and</P>
            <P>(ii) May have the limitation removed by accomplishing 25 hours of supervised operating experience as pilot in command under the supervision of a qualified and current pilot in command, in the seat normally occupied by the pilot in command, in an airplane of the same type for which the limitation applies.</P>
            <P>(h) <E T="03">Use of a flight simulator or flight training device for a helicopter rating.</E> If a flight simulator or flight training device is used for accomplishing all of the training and the required practical test for an airline transport pilot certificate with a helicopter class rating and type rating, if applicable, the applicant, flight simulator, and flight training device are subject to the following requirements:</P>
            <P>(1) The flight simulator and flight training device must represent that helicopter type if the rating involves a type rating in a helicopter, or is representative of a helicopter if the applicant is only seeking a helicopter class rating and does not require a type rating.</P>
            <P>(2) The flight simulator and flight training device must be used in accordance with an approved course at a training center certificated under part 142 of this chapter.</P>
            <P>(3) All training and testing requirements (except preflight inspection) must be accomplished by the applicant to receive a helicopter class rating and type rating, if applicable, without limitations and—</P>
            <P>(i) The flight simulator must be qualified and approved as a Level C or Level D; and</P>
            <P>(ii) The applicant must meet the aeronautical experience requirements of § 61.161 of this part and at least one of the following—</P>
            <P>(A) Hold a type rating for a turbine-powered helicopter, or have been designated by a military service as a pilot in command of a turbine-powered helicopter, if a turbine-powered helicopter type rating is sought;</P>
            <P>(B) Have at least 1,200 hours of flight time, of which 500 hours must be in turbine-powered helicopters;</P>
            <P>(C) Have at least 500 hours of flight time in the same type helicopter as the helicopter for which the type rating is sought; or</P>
            <P>(D) Have at least 1,000 hours of flight time in at least two different helicopters requiring a type rating.</P>
            <P>(4) Subject to the limitation of paragraph (h)(5) of this section, an applicant who does not meet the requirements of paragraph (h)(3) of this section may complete all training and testing (except for preflight inspection) for an additional rating if—</P>
            <P>(i) The flight simulator is qualified and approved as Level C or Level D; and</P>
            <P>(ii) The applicant meets the aeronautical experience requirements of § 61.161 of this part and, since the beginning of the 12th calendar month before the month in which the applicant completes the practical test for the additional rating, has logged—</P>
            <P>(A) At least 100 hours of flight time in helicopters; and</P>
            <P>(B) At least 15 hours of flight time in helicopters of the same type of helicopter for which the type rating is sought.</P>
            <P>(5) An applicant meeting only the requirements of paragraph (h)(4)(ii) (A) and (B) of this section will be issued an additional rating or an airline transport pilot certificate with a limitation. The limitation shall state: “This certificate is subject to pilot-in-command limitations for the additional rating.”</P>
            <P>(6) An applicant who has been issued a certificate with the limitation specified in paragraph (h)(5) of this section—</P>
            <P>(i) May not act as pilot in command of the helicopter for which an additional rating was obtained under the provisions of this section until the limitation is removed from the certificate; and</P>

            <P>(ii) May have the limitation removed by accomplishing 15 hours of supervised operating experience as pilot in command under the supervision of a qualified and current pilot in command, in the seat normally occupied by the pilot in command, in a helicopter <PRTPAGE P="86"/>of the same type for which the limitation applies.</P>
            <P>(7) An applicant who does not meet the requirements of paragraph (h)(3)(ii) (A) through (D), or (h)(4)(ii) (A) and (B) of this section may be issued an airline transport pilot certificate or an additional rating to that pilot certificate after successful completion of one of the following requirements—</P>
            <P>(i) An approved course at a part 142 training center that includes all training and testing for that certificate or rating, followed by training and testing on the following tasks, which must be successfully completed on a static aircraft or in flight, as appropriate—</P>
            <P>(A) Preflight inspection;</P>
            <P>(B) Normal takeoff from a hover;</P>
            <P>(C) Manually flown precision approach; and</P>
            <P>(D) Steep approach and landing to an off-airport heliport; or</P>
            <P>(ii) An approved course at a training center that includes all training and testing for that certificate or rating and compliance with paragraphs (h)(8) and (h)(9) of this section.</P>
            <P>(8) An applicant meeting only the requirements of paragraph (h)(7)(ii) of this section will be issued an additional rating or an airline transport pilot certificate with an additional rating, as applicable, with a limitation. The limitation shall state: “This certificate is subject to pilot-in-command limitations for the additional rating.”</P>
            <P>(9) An applicant issued a certificate with the limitation specified in paragraph (h)(8) of this section—</P>
            <P>(i) May not act as pilot in command of the aircraft for which an additional rating was obtained under the provisions of this section until the limitation is removed from the certificate; and</P>
            <P>(ii) May have the limitation removed by accomplishing 25 hours of supervised operating experience as pilot in command under the supervision of a qualified and current pilot in command, in the seat normally occupied by the pilot in command, in an aircraft of the same type for which the limitation applies.</P>
            <P>(i) <E T="03">Use of a flight simulator or flight training device for a powered-lift rating.</E> If a flight simulator or flight training device is used for accomplishing all of the training and the required practical test for an airline transport pilot certificate with a powered-lift category rating and type rating, if applicable, the applicant, flight simulator, and flight training device are subject to the following requirements:</P>
            <P>(1) The flight simulator and flight training device must represent that powered-lift type, if the rating involves a type rating in a powered-lift, or is representative of a powered-lift if the applicant is only seeking a powered-lift category rating and does not require a type rating.</P>
            <P>(2) The flight simulator and flight training device must be used in accordance with an approved course at a training center certificated under part 142 of this chapter.</P>
            <P>(3) All training and testing requirements (except preflight inspection) must be accomplished by the applicant to receive a powered-lift category rating and type rating, if applicable, without limitations; and—</P>
            <P>(i) The flight simulator must be qualified and approved as Level C or Level D; and</P>
            <P>(ii) The applicant must meet the aeronautical experience requirements of § 61.163 of this part and at least one of the following—</P>
            <P>(A) Hold a type rating for a turbine-powered powered-lift, or have been designated by a military service as a pilot in command of a turbine-powered powered-lift, if a turbine-powered powered-lift type rating is sought;</P>
            <P>(B) Have at least 1,200 hours of flight time, of which 500 hours must be in turbine-powered powered-lifts;</P>
            <P>(C) Have at least 500 hours of flight time in the same type of powered-lift for which the type rating is sought; or</P>
            <P>(D) Have at least 1,000 hours of flight time in at least two different powered-lifts requiring a type rating.</P>
            <P>(4) Subject to the limitation of paragraph (i)(5) of this section, an applicant who does not meet the requirements of paragraph (i)(3) of this section may complete all training and testing (except for preflight inspection) for an additional rating if—</P>

            <P>(i) The flight simulator is qualified and approved as Level C or Level D; and<PRTPAGE P="87"/>
            </P>
            <P>(ii) The applicant meets the aeronautical experience requirements of § 61.163 of this part and, since the beginning of the 12th calendar month before the month in which the applicant completes the practical test for the additional rating, has logged—</P>
            <P>(A) At least 100 hours of flight time in powered-lifts; and</P>
            <P>(B) At least 15 hours of flight time in powered-lifts of the same type of powered-lift for the type rating sought.</P>
            <P>(5) An applicant meeting only the requirements of paragraph (i)(4)(ii) (A) and (B) of this section will be issued an additional rating or an airline transport pilot certificate with a limitation. The limitation shall state: “This certificate is subject to pilot-in-command limitations for the additional rating.”</P>
            <P>(6) An applicant who has been issued a certificate with the limitation specified in paragraph (i)(5) of this section—</P>
            <P>(i) May not act as pilot in command of the powered-lift for which an additional rating was obtained under the provisions of this section until the limitation is removed from the certificate; and</P>
            <P>(ii) May have the limitation removed by accomplishing 15 hours of supervised operating experience as pilot in command under the supervision of a qualified and current pilot in command, in the seat normally occupied by the pilot in command, in a powered-lift of the same type for which the limitation applies.</P>
            <P>(7) An applicant who does not meet the requirements of paragraph (i)(3)(ii) (A) through (D) or (i)(4)(ii) (A) and (B) of this section may be issued an airline transport pilot certificate or an additional rating to that pilot certificate after successful completion of one of the following requirements—</P>
            <P>(i) An approved course at a part 142 training center that includes all training and testing for that certificate or rating, followed by training and testing on the following tasks, which must be successfully completed on a static aircraft or in flight, as appropriate—</P>
            <P>(A) Preflight inspection;</P>
            <P>(B) Normal takeoff from a hover;</P>
            <P>(C) Manually flown precision approach; and</P>
            <P>(D) Steep approach and landing to an off-airport site; or</P>
            <P>(ii) An approved course at a training center that includes all training and testing for that certificate or rating and is in compliance with paragraphs (i)(8) and (i)(9) of this section.</P>
            <P>(8) An applicant meeting only the requirements of paragraph (i)(7)(ii) of this section will be issued an additional rating or an airline transport pilot certificate with an additional rating, as applicable, with a limitation. The limitation shall state: “This certificate is subject to pilot-in-command limitations for the additional rating.”</P>
            <P>(9) An applicant issued a pilot certificate with the limitation specified in paragraph (i)(8) of this section—</P>
            <P>(i) May not act as pilot in command of the aircraft for which an additional rating was obtained under the provisions of this section until the limitation is removed from the certificate; and</P>
            <P>(ii) May have the limitation removed by accomplishing 25 hours of supervised operating experience as pilot in command under the supervision of a qualified and current pilot in command, in the seat normally occupied by the pilot in command, in a powered-lift of the same type for which the limitation applies.</P>
            <P>(j) <E T="03">Waiver authority.</E> Unless the Administrator requires certain or all tasks to be performed, the examiner who conducts the practical test for an airline transport pilot certificate may waive any of the tasks for which the Administrator approves waiver authority.</P>
            <CITA>[Doc. No. 25910, 62 FR 16298, Apr. 4, 1997; Amdt. 61-103, 62 FR 40905, July 30, 1997; Amdt. 61-104, 63 FR 20288, Apr. 23, 1998; Amdt. 61-109, 68 FR 54560, Sept. 17, 2003]</CITA>
          </SECTION>
          <SECTION>
            <SECTNO>§ 61.158</SECTNO>
            <RESERVED>[Reserved]</RESERVED>
          </SECTION>
          <SECTION>
            <SECTNO>§ 61.159</SECTNO>
            <SUBJECT>Aeronautical experience: Airplane category rating.</SUBJECT>
            <P>(a) Except as provided in paragraphs (b), (c), and (d) of this section, a person who is applying for an airline transport pilot certificate with an airplane category and class rating must have at least 1,500 hours of total time as a pilot that includes at least:</P>
            <P>(1) 500 hours of cross-country flight time.</P>
            <P>(2) 100 hours of night flight time.<PRTPAGE P="88"/>
            </P>
            <P>(3) 75 hours of instrument flight time, in actual or simulated instrument conditions, subject to the following:</P>
            <P>(i) Except as provided in paragraph (a)(3)(ii) of this section, an applicant may not receive credit for more than a total of 25 hours of simulated instrument time in a flight simulator or flight training device.</P>
            <P>(ii) A maximum of 50 hours of training in a flight simulator or flight training device may be credited toward the instrument flight time requirements of paragraph (a)(3) of this section if the training was accomplished in a course conducted by a training center certificated under part 142 of this chapter.</P>
            <P>(iii) Training in a flight simulator or flight training device must be accomplished in a flight simulator or flight training device, representing an airplane.</P>
            <P>(4) 250 hours of flight time in an airplane as a pilot in command, or as second in command performing the duties of pilot in command while under the supervision of a pilot in command, or any combination thereof, which includes at least—</P>
            <P>(i) 100 hours of cross-country flight time; and</P>
            <P>(ii) 25 hours of night flight time.</P>
            <P>(5) Not more than 100 hours of the total aeronautical experience requirements of paragraph (a) of this section may be obtained ina flight simulator or flight training device that represents an airplane, provided the aeronautical experience was obtained in an approved course conducted by a training center certificated under part 142 of this chapter.</P>
            <P>(b) A person who has performed at least 20 night takeoffs and landings to a full stop may substitute each additional night takeoff and landing to a full stop for 1 hour of night flight time to satisfy the requirements of paragraph (a)(2) of this section; however, not more than 25 hours of night flight time may be credited in this manner.</P>
            <P>(c) A commercial pilot may credit the following second-in-command flight time or flight-engineer flight time toward the 1,500 hours of total time as a pilot required by paragraph (a) of this section:</P>
            <P>(1) Second-in-command time, provided the time is acquired in an airplane—</P>
            <P>(i) Required to have more than one pilot flight crewmember by the airplane's flight manual, type certificate, or the regulations under which the flight is being conducted;</P>
            <P>(ii) Engaged in operations under subpart K of part 91, part 121, or part 135 of this chapter for which a second in command is required; or</P>
            <P>(iii) That is required by the operating rules of this chapter to have more than one pilot flight crewmember.</P>
            <P>(2) Flight-engineer time, provided the time—</P>
            <P>(i) Is acquired in an airplane required to have a flight engineer by the airplane's flight manual or type certificate;</P>
            <P>(ii) Is acquired while engaged in operations under part 121 of this chapter for which a flight engineer is required;</P>
            <P>(iii) Is acquired while the person is participating in a pilot training program approved under part 121 of this chapter; and</P>
            <P>(iv) Does not exceed more than 1 hour for each 3 hours of flight engineer flight time for a total credited time of no more than 500 hours.</P>
            <P>(d) An applicant may be issued an airline transport pilot certificate with the endorsement, “Holder does not meet the pilot in command aeronautical experience requirements of ICAO,” as prescribed by Article 39 of the Convention on International Civil Aviation, if the applicant:</P>
            <P>(1) Credits second-in-command or flight-engineer time under paragraph (c) of this section toward the 1,500 hours total flight time requirement of paragraph (a) of this section;</P>
            <P>(2) Does not have at least 1,200 hours of flight time as a pilot, including no more than 50 percent of his or her second-in-command time and none of his or her flight-engineer time; and</P>
            <P>(3) Otherwise meets the requirements of paragraph (a) of this section.</P>

            <P>(e) When the applicant specified in paragraph (d) of this section presents satisfactory evidence of the accumulation of 1,200 hours of flight time as a pilot including no more than 50 percent of his or her second-in-command flight <PRTPAGE P="89"/>time and none of his or her flight-engineer time, the applicant is entitled to an airline transport pilot certificate without the endorsement prescribed in that paragraph.</P>
            <CITA>[Doc. No. 25910, 62 FR 16298, Apr. 4, 1997; Amdt. 61-103, 62 FR 40906, July 30, 1997; Amdt. 61-104, 63 FR 20288, Apr. 23, 1998; Amdt. 61-109, 68 FR 54560, Sept. 17, 2003]</CITA>
          </SECTION>
          <SECTION>
            <SECTNO>§ 61.161</SECTNO>
            <SUBJECT>Aeronautical experience: Rotorcraft category and helicopter class rating.</SUBJECT>
            <P>(a) A person who is applying for an airline transport pilot certificate with a rotorcraft category and helicopter class rating, must have at least 1,200 hours of total time as a pilot that includes at least:</P>
            <P>(1) 500 hours of cross-country flight time;</P>
            <P>(2) 100 hours of night flight time, of which 15 hours are in helicopters;</P>
            <P>(3) 200 hours of flight time in helicopters, which includes at least 75 hours as a pilot in command, or as second in command performing the duties of a pilot in command under the supervision of a pilot in command, or any combination thereof; and</P>
            <P>(4) 75 hours of instrument flight time in actual or simulated instrument meteorological conditions, of which at least 50 hours are obtained in flight with at least 25 hours in helicopters as a pilot in command, or as second in command performing the duties of a pilot in command under the supervision of a pilot in command, or any combination thereof.</P>
            <P>(b) Training in a flight simulator or flight training device may be credited toward the instrument flight time requirements of paragraph (a)(4) of this section, subject to the following:</P>
            <P>(1) Training in a flight simulator or a flight training device must be accomplished in a flight simulator or flight training device that represents a rotorcraft.</P>
            <P>(2) Except as provided in paragraph (b)(3) of this section, an applicant may receive credit for not more than a total of 25 hours of simulated instrument time in a flight simulator and flight training device.</P>
            <P>(3) A maximum of 50 hours of training in a flight simulator or flight training device may be credited toward the instrument flight time requirements of paragraph (a)(4) of this section if the aeronautical experience is accomplished in an approved course conducted by a training center certificated under part 142 of this chapter.</P>
            <CITA>[Doc. No. 25910, 62 FR 16298, Apr. 4, 1997; Amdt. 61-103, 62 FR 40906, July 30, 1997; Amdt. 61-104, 63 FR 20289, Apr. 23, 1998]</CITA>
          </SECTION>
          <SECTION>
            <SECTNO>§ 61.163</SECTNO>
            <SUBJECT>Aeronautical experience: Powered-lift category rating.</SUBJECT>
            <P>(a) A person who is applying for an airline transport pilot certificate with a powered-lift category rating must have at least 1,500 hours of total time as a pilot that includes at least:</P>
            <P>(1) 500 hours of cross-country flight time;</P>
            <P>(2) 100 hours of night flight time;</P>
            <P>(3) 250 hours in a powered-lift as a pilot in command, or as a second in command performing the duties of a pilot in command under the supervision of a pilot in command, or any combination thereof, which includes at least—</P>
            <P>(i) 100 hours of cross-country flight time; and</P>
            <P>(ii) 25 hours of night flight time.</P>
            <P>(4) 75 hours of instrument flight time in actual or simulated instrument conditions, subject to the following:</P>
            <P>(i) Except as provided in paragraph (a)(4)(ii) of this section, an applicant may not receive credit for more than a total of 25 hours of simulated instrument time in a flight simulator or flight training device.</P>
            <P>(ii) A maximum of 50 hours of training in a flight simulator or flight training device may be credited toward the instrument flight time requirements of paragraph (a)(4) of this section if the training was accomplished in a course conducted by a training center certificated under part 142 of this chapter.</P>
            <P>(iii) Training in a flight simulator or flight training device must be accomplished in a flight simulator or flight training device that represents a powered-lift.</P>

            <P>(b) Not more than 100 hours of the total aeronautical experience requirements of paragraph (a) of this section may be obtained in a flight simulator or flight training device that represents a powered-lift, provided the aeronautical experience was obtained <PRTPAGE P="90"/>in an approved course conducted by a training center certificated under part 142 of this chapter.</P>
            <CITA>[Doc. No. 25910, 62 FR 16298, Apr. 4, 1997; Amdt. 61-103, 62 FR 40906, July 30, 1997; Amdt. 61-104, 63 FR 20289, Apr. 23, 1998]</CITA>
          </SECTION>
          <SECTION>
            <SECTNO>§ 61.165</SECTNO>
            <SUBJECT>Additional aircraft category and class ratings.</SUBJECT>
            <P>(a) <E T="03">Rotorcraft category and helicopter class rating.</E> A person applying for an airline transport certificate with a rotorcraft category and helicopter class rating who holds an airline transport pilot certificate with another aircraft category rating must:</P>
            <P>(1) Meet the eligibility requirements of § 61.153 of this part;</P>
            <P>(2) Pass a knowledge test on the aeronautical knowledge areas of § 61.155(c) of this part;</P>
            <P>(3) Comply with the requirements in § 61.157(b) of this part, if appropriate;</P>
            <P>(4) Meet the applicable aeronautical experience requirements of § 61.161 of this part; and</P>
            <P>(5) Pass the practical test on the areas of operation of § 61.157(e)(4) of this part.</P>
            <P>(b) <E T="03">Airplane category rating with a single-engine class rating.</E> A person applying for an airline transport certificate with an airplane category and single-engine class rating who holds an airline transport pilot certificate with another aircraft category rating must:</P>
            <P>(1) Meet the eligibility requirements of § 61.153 of this part;</P>
            <P>(2) Pass a knowledge test on the aeronautical knowledge areas of § 61.155(c) of this part;</P>
            <P>(3) Comply with the requirements in § 61.157(b) of this part, if appropriate;</P>
            <P>(4) Meet the applicable aeronautical experience requirements of § 61.159 of this part; and</P>
            <P>(5) Pass the practical test on the areas of operation of § 61.157(e)(1) of this part.</P>
            <P>(c) <E T="03">Airplane category rating with a multiengine class rating.</E> A person applying for an airline transport certificate with an airplane category and multiengine class rating who holds an airline transport certificate with another aircraft category rating must:</P>
            <P>(1) Meet the eligibility requirements of § 61.153 of this part;</P>
            <P>(2) Pass a knowledge test on the aeronautical knowledge areas of § 61.155(c) of this part;</P>
            <P>(3) Comply with the requirements in § 61.157(b) of this part, if appropriate;</P>
            <P>(4) Meet the applicable aeronautical experience requirements of § 61.159 of this part; and</P>
            <P>(5) Pass the practical test on the areas of operation of § 61.157(e)(2) of this part.</P>
            <P>(d) <E T="03">Powered-lift category.</E> A person applying for an airline transport pilot certificate with a powered-lift category rating who holds an airline transport certificate with another aircraft category rating must:</P>
            <P>(1) Meet the eligibility requirements of § 61.153 of this part;</P>
            <P>(2) Pass a required knowledge test on the aeronautical knowledge areas of § 61.155(c) of this part;</P>
            <P>(3) Comply with the requirements in § 61.157(b) of this part, if appropriate;</P>
            <P>(4) Meet the applicable aeronautical experience requirements of § 61.163 of this part; and</P>
            <P>(5) Pass the required practical test on the areas of operation of § 61.157(e)(3) of this part.</P>
            <P>(e) <E T="03">Additional class rating within the same aircraft category.</E> A person applying for an airline transport certificate with an additional class rating who holds an airline transport certificate in the same aircfaft category must—</P>
            <P>(1) Meet the eligibility requirements of § 61.153, except paragraph (f) of that section;</P>
            <P>(2) Comply with the requirements in § 61.157(b) of this part, if applicable;</P>
            <P>(3) Meet the applicable aeronautical experience requirements of subpart G of this part; and</P>
            <P>(4) Pass a practical test on the areas of operation of § 61.157(e) appropriate to the aircraft rating sought.</P>
            <CITA>[Doc. No. 25910, 62 FR 16298, Apr. 4, 1997; Amdt. 61-103, 62 FR 40906, July 30, 1997]</CITA>
          </SECTION>
          <SECTION>
            <SECTNO>§ 61.167</SECTNO>
            <SUBJECT>Privileges.</SUBJECT>
            <P>(a) A person who holds an airline transport pilot certificate is entitled to the same privileges as those afforded a person who holds a commercial pilot certificate with an instrument rating.</P>
            <P>(b) An airline transport pilot may instruct—<PRTPAGE P="91"/>
            </P>
            <P>(1) Other pilots in air transportation service in aircraft of the category, class, and type, as applicable, for which the airline transport pilot is rated and endorse the logbook or other training record of the person to whom training has been given;</P>
            <P>(2) In flight simulators, and flight training devices representing the aircraft referenced in paragraph (b)(1) of this section, when instructing under the provisions of this section and endorse the logbook or other training record of the person to whom training has been given;</P>
            <P>(3) Only as provided in this section, unless the airline transport pilot also holds a flight instructor certificate, in which case the holder may exercise the instructor privileges of subpart H of part 61 for which he or she is rated; and</P>
            <P>(4) In an aircraft, only if the aircraft has functioning dual controls, when instructing under the provisions of this section.</P>
            <P>(c) Excluding briefings and debriefings, an airline transport pilot may not instruct in aircraft, flight simulators, and flight training devices under this section—</P>
            <P>(1) For more than 8 hours in any 24-consecutive-hour period; or</P>
            <P>(2) For more than 36 hours in any 7-consecutive-day period.</P>
            <P>(d) An airline transport pilot may not instruct in Category II or Category III operations unless he or she has been trained and successfully tested under Category II or Category III operations, as applicable.</P>
            <CITA>[Doc. No. 25910, 62 FR 16298, Apr. 4, 1997; Amdt. 61-103, 62 FR 40907, July 30, 1997]</CITA>
          </SECTION>
          <SECTION>
            <SECTNO>§§ 61.169-69.171</SECTNO>
            <RESERVED>[Reserved]</RESERVED>
          </SECTION>
        </SUBPART>
        <SUBPART>
          <HD SOURCE="HED">Subpart H—Flight Instructors</HD>
          <SECTION>
            <SECTNO>§ 61.181</SECTNO>
            <SUBJECT>Applicability.</SUBJECT>
            <P>This subpart prescribes the requirements for the issuance of flight instructor certificates and ratings, the conditions under which those certificates and ratings are necessary, and the limitations on those certificates and ratings.</P>
          </SECTION>
          <SECTION>
            <SECTNO>§ 61.183</SECTNO>
            <SUBJECT>Eligibility requirements.</SUBJECT>
            <P>To be eligible for a flight instructor certificate or rating a person must:</P>
            <P>(a) Be at least 18 years of age;</P>
            <P>(b) Be able to read, speak, write, and understand the English language. If the applicant is unable to meet one of these requirements due to medical reasons, then the Administrator may place such operating limitations on that applicant's flight instructor certificate as are necessary;</P>
            <P>(c) Hold either a commercial pilot certificate or airline transport pilot certificate with:</P>
            <P>(1) An aircraft category and class rating that is appropriate to the flight instructor rating sought; and</P>
            <P>(2) An instrument rating, or privileges on that person's pilot certificate that are appropriate to the flight instructor rating sought, if applying for—</P>
            <P>(i) A flight instructor certificate with an airplane category and single-engine class rating;</P>
            <P>(ii) A flight instructor certificate with an airplane category and multiengine class rating;</P>
            <P>(iii) A flight instructor certificate with a powered-lift rating; or</P>
            <P>(iv) A flight instructor certificate with an instrument rating.</P>
            <P>(d) Receive a logbook endorsement from an authorized instructor on the fundamentals of instructing listed in § 61.185 of this part appropriate to the required knowledge test;</P>
            <P>(e) Pass a knowledge test on the areas listed in § 61.185(a)(1) of this part, unless the applicant:</P>
            <P>(1) Holds a flight instructor certificate or ground instructor certificate issued under this part;</P>
            <P>(2) Holds a current teacher's certificate issued by a State, county, city, or municipality that authorizes the person to teach at an educational level of the 7th grade or higher; or</P>
            <P>(3) Is employed as a teacher at an accredited college or university.</P>
            <P>(f) Pass a knowledge test on the aeronautical knowledge areas listed in § 61.185(a)(2) and (a)(3) of this part that are appropriate to the flight instructor rating sought;</P>

            <P>(g) Receive a logbook endorsement from an authorized instructor on the areas of operation listed in § 61.187(b) of this part, appropriate to the flight instructor rating sought;<PRTPAGE P="92"/>
            </P>
            <P>(h) Pass the required practical test that is appropriate to the flight instructor rating sought in an:</P>
            <P>(1) Aircraft that is representative of the category and class of aircraft for the aircraft rating sought; or</P>
            <P>(2) Flight simulator or approved flight training device that is representative of the category and class of aircraft for the rating sought, and used in accordance with a course at a training center certificated under part 142 of this chapter.</P>
            <P>(i) Accomplish the following for a flight instructor certificate with an airplane or a glider rating:</P>
            <P>(1) Receive a logbook endorsement from an authorized instructor indicating that the applicant is competent and possesses instructional proficiency in stall awareness, spin entry, spins, and spin recovery procedures after providing the applicant with flight training in those training areas in an airplane or glider, as appropriate, that is certificated for spins; and</P>
            <P>(2) Demonstrate instructional proficiency in stall awareness, spin entry, spins, and spin recovery procedures. However, upon presentation of the endorsement specified in paragraph (i)(1) of this section an examiner may accept that endorsement as satisfactory evidence of instructional proficiency in stall awareness, spin entry, spins, and spin recovery procedures for the practical test, provided that the practical test is not a retest as a result of the applicant failing the previous test for deficiencies in the knowledge or skill of stall awareness, spin entry, spins, or spin recovery instructional procedures. If the retest is a result of deficiencies in the ability of an applicant to demonstrate knowledge or skill of stall awareness, spin entry, spins, or spin recovery instructional procedures, the examiner must test the person on stall awareness, spin entry, spins, and spin recovery instructional procedures in an airplane or glider, as appropriate, that is certificated for spins;</P>
            <P>(j) Log at least 15 hours as pilot in command in the category and class of aircraft that is appropriate to the flight instructor rating sought; and</P>
            <P>(k) Comply with the appropriate sections of this part that apply to the flight instructor rating sought.</P>
            <CITA>[Doc. No. 25910, 62 FR 16298, Apr. 4, 1997; Amdt. 61-103, 62 FR 40907, July 30, 1997]</CITA>
          </SECTION>
          <SECTION>
            <SECTNO>§ 61.185</SECTNO>
            <SUBJECT>Aeronautical knowledge.</SUBJECT>
            <P>(a) A person who is applying for a flight instructor certificate must receive and log ground training from an authorized instructor on:</P>
            <P>(1) Except as provided in paragraph (b) of this section, the fundamentals of instructing, including:</P>
            <P>(i) The learning process;</P>
            <P>(ii) Elements of effective teaching;</P>
            <P>(iii) Student evaluation and testing;</P>
            <P>(iv) Course development;</P>
            <P>(v) Lesson planning; and</P>
            <P>(vi) Classroom training techniques.</P>
            <P>(2) The aeronautical knowledge areas for a recreational, private, and commercial pilot certificate applicable to the aircraft category for which flight instructor privileges are sought; and</P>
            <P>(3) The aeronautical knowledge areas for the instrument rating applicable to the category for which instrument flight instructor privileges are sought.</P>
            <P>(b) The following applicants do not need to comply with paragraph (a)(1) of this section:</P>
            <P>(1) The holder of a flight instructor certificate or ground instructor certificate issued under this part;</P>
            <P>(2) The holder of a current teacher's certificate issued by a State, county, city, or municipality that authorizes the person to teach at an educational level of the 7th grade or higher; or</P>
            <P>(3) A person employed as a teacher at an accredited college or university.</P>
            <CITA>[Doc. No. 25910, 62 FR 16298, Apr. 4, 1997; Amdt. 61-103, 62 FR 40907, July 30, 1997]</CITA>
          </SECTION>
          <SECTION>
            <SECTNO>§ 61.187</SECTNO>
            <SUBJECT>Flight proficiency.</SUBJECT>
            <P>(a) <E T="03">General.</E> A person who is applying for a flight instructor certificate must receive and log flight and ground training from an authorized instructor on the areas of operation listed in this section that apply to the flight instructor rating sought. The applicant's logbook must contain an endorsement from an authorized instructor certifying that the person is proficient to pass a practical test on those areas of operation.<PRTPAGE P="93"/>
            </P>
            <P>(b) <E T="03">Areas of operation.</E> (1) For an airplane category rating with a single-engine class rating:</P>
            <P>(i) Fundamentals of instructing;</P>
            <P>(ii) Technical subject areas;</P>
            <P>(iii) Preflight preparation;</P>
            <P>(iv) Preflight lesson on a maneuver to be performed in flight;</P>
            <P>(v) Preflight procedures;</P>
            <P>(vi) Airport and seaplane base operations;</P>
            <P>(vii) Takeoffs, landings, and go-arounds;</P>
            <P>(viii) Fundamentals of flight;</P>
            <P>(ix) Performance maneuvers;</P>
            <P>(x) Ground reference maneuvers;</P>
            <P>(xi) Slow flight, stalls, and spins;</P>
            <P>(xii) Basic instrument maneuvers;</P>
            <P>(xiii) Emergency operations; and</P>
            <P>(xiv) Postflight procedures.</P>
            <P>(2) For an airplane category rating with a multiengine class rating:</P>
            <P>(i) Fundamentals of instructing;</P>
            <P>(ii) Technical subject areas;</P>
            <P>(iii) Preflight preparation;</P>
            <P>(iv) Preflight lesson on a maneuver to be performed in flight;</P>
            <P>(v) Preflight procedures;</P>
            <P>(vi) Airport and seaplane base operations;</P>
            <P>(vii) Takeoffs, landings, and go-arounds;</P>
            <P>(viii) Fundamentals of flight;</P>
            <P>(ix) Performance maneuvers;</P>
            <P>(x) Ground reference maneuvers;</P>
            <P>(xi) Slow flight and stalls;</P>
            <P>(xii) Basic instrument maneuvers;</P>
            <P>(xiii) Emergency operations;</P>
            <P>(xiv) Multiengine operations; and</P>
            <P>(xv) Postflight procedures.</P>
            <P>(3) For a rotorcraft category rating with a helicopter class rating:</P>
            <P>(i) Fundamentals of instructing;</P>
            <P>(ii) Technical subject areas;</P>
            <P>(iii) Preflight preparation;</P>
            <P>(iv) Preflight lesson on a maneuver to be performed in flight;</P>
            <P>(v) Preflight procedures;</P>
            <P>(vi) Airport and heliport operations;</P>
            <P>(vii) Hovering maneuvers;</P>
            <P>(viii) Takeoffs, landings, and go-arounds;</P>
            <P>(ix) Fundamentals of flight;</P>
            <P>(x) Performance maneuvers;</P>
            <P>(xi) Emergency operations;</P>
            <P>(xii) Special operations; and</P>
            <P>(xiii) Postflight procedures.</P>
            <P>(4) For a rotorcraft category rating with a gyroplane class rating:</P>
            <P>(i) Fundamentals of instructing;</P>
            <P>(ii) Technical subject areas;</P>
            <P>(iii) Preflight preparation;</P>
            <P>(iv) Preflight lesson on a maneuver to be performed in flight;</P>
            <P>(v) Preflight procedures;</P>
            <P>(vi) Airport operations;</P>
            <P>(vii) Takeoffs, landings, and go-arounds;</P>
            <P>(viii) Fundamentals of flight;</P>
            <P>(ix) Performance maneuvers;</P>
            <P>(x) Flight at slow airspeeds;</P>
            <P>(xi) Ground reference maneuvers;</P>
            <P>(xii) Emergency operations; and</P>
            <P>(xiii) Postflight procedures.</P>
            <P>(5) For a powered-lift category rating:</P>
            <P>(i) Fundamentals of instructing;</P>
            <P>(ii) Technical subject areas;</P>
            <P>(iii) Preflight preparation;</P>
            <P>(iv) Preflight lesson on a maneuver to be performed in flight;</P>
            <P>(v) Preflight procedures;</P>
            <P>(vi) Airport and heliport operations;</P>
            <P>(vii) Hovering maneuvers;</P>
            <P>(viii) Takeoffs, landings, and go-arounds;</P>
            <P>(ix) Fundamentals of flight;</P>
            <P>(x) Performance maneuvers;</P>
            <P>(xi) Ground reference maneuvers;</P>
            <P>(xii) Slow flight and stalls;</P>
            <P>(xiii) Basic instrument maneuvers;</P>
            <P>(xiv) Emergency operations;</P>
            <P>(xv) Special operations; and</P>
            <P>(xvi) Postflight procedures.</P>
            <P>(6) For a glider category rating:</P>
            <P>(i) Fundamentals of instructing;</P>
            <P>(ii) Technical subject areas;</P>
            <P>(iii) Preflight preparation;</P>
            <P>(iv) Preflight lesson on a maneuver to be performed in flight;</P>
            <P>(v) Preflight procedures;</P>
            <P>(vi) Airport and gliderport operations;</P>
            <P>(vii) Launches, landings, and go-arounds;</P>
            <P>(viii) Fundamentals of flight;</P>
            <P>(ix) Performance speeds;</P>
            <P>(x) Soaring techniques;</P>
            <P>(xi) Performance maneuvers;</P>
            <P>(xii) Slow flight, stalls, and spins;</P>
            <P>(xiii) Emergency operations; and</P>
            <P>(xiv) Postflight procedures.</P>
            <P>(7) For an instrument rating with the appropriate aircraft category and class rating:</P>
            <P>(i) Fundamentals of instructing;</P>
            <P>(ii) Technical subject areas;</P>
            <P>(iii) Preflight preparation;<PRTPAGE P="94"/>
            </P>
            <P>(iv) Preflight lesson on a maneuver to be performed in flight;</P>
            <P>(v) Air traffic control clearances and procedures;</P>
            <P>(vi) Flight by reference to instruments;</P>
            <P>(vii) Navigation aids;</P>
            <P>(viii) Instrument approach procedures;</P>
            <P>(ix) Emergency operations; and</P>
            <P>(x) Postflight procedures.</P>
            <P>(c) The flight training required by this section may be accomplished:</P>
            <P>(1) In an aircraft that is representative of the category and class of aircraft for the rating sought; or</P>
            <P>(2) In a flight simulator or flight training device representative of the category and class of aircraft for the rating sought, and used in accordance with an approved course at a training center certificated under part 142 of this chapter.</P>
            <CITA>[Doc. No. 25910, 62 FR 16298, Apr. 4, 1997; Amdt. 61-103, 62 FR 40907, July 30, 1997]</CITA>
          </SECTION>
          <SECTION>
            <SECTNO>§ 61.189</SECTNO>
            <SUBJECT>Flight instructor records.</SUBJECT>
            <P>(a) A flight instructor must sign the logbook of each person to whom that instructor has given flight training or ground training.</P>
            <P>(b) A flight instructor must maintain a record in a logbook or a separate document that contains the following:</P>
            <P>(1) The name of each person whose logbook or student pilot certificate that instructor has endorsed for solo flight privileges, and the date of the endorsement; and</P>
            <P>(2) The name of each person that instructor has endorsed for a knowledge test or practical test, and the record shall also indicate the kind of test, the date, and the results.</P>
            <P>(c) Each flight instructor must retain the records required by this section for at least 3 years.</P>
          </SECTION>
          <SECTION>
            <SECTNO>§ 61.191</SECTNO>
            <SUBJECT>Additional flight instructor ratings.</SUBJECT>
            <P>(a) A person who applies for an additional flight instructor rating on a flight instructor certificate must meet the eligibility requirements listed in § 61.183 of this part that apply to the flight instructor rating sought.</P>
            <P>(b) A person who applies for an additional rating on a flight instructor certificate is not required to pass the knowledge test on the areas listed in § 61.185(a)(1) of this part.</P>
            <CITA>[Doc. No. 25910, 62 FR 16298, Apr. 4, 1997; Amdt. 61-103, 62 FR 40907, July 30, 1997]</CITA>
          </SECTION>
          <SECTION>
            <SECTNO>§ 61.193</SECTNO>
            <SUBJECT>Flight instructor privileges.</SUBJECT>
            <P>A person who holds a flight instructor certificate is authorized within the limitations of that person's flight instructor certificate and ratings to give training and endorsements that are required for, and relate to:</P>
            <P>(a) A student pilot certificate;</P>
            <P>(b) A pilot certificate;</P>
            <P>(c) A flight instructor certificate;</P>
            <P>(d) A ground instructor certificate;</P>
            <P>(e) An aircraft rating;</P>
            <P>(f) An instrument rating;</P>
            <P>(g) A flight review, operating privilege, or recency of experience requirement of this part;</P>
            <P>(h) A practical test; and</P>
            <P>(i) A knowledge test.</P>
            <CITA>[Doc. No. 25910, 62 FR 16298, Apr. 4, 1997; Amdt. 61-103, 62 FR 40907, July 30, 1997]</CITA>
          </SECTION>
          <SECTION>
            <SECTNO>§ 61.195</SECTNO>
            <SUBJECT>Flight instructor limitations and qualifications.</SUBJECT>
            <P>A person who holds a flight instructor certificate is subject to the following limitations:</P>
            <P>(a) <E T="03">Hours of training.</E> In any 24-consecutive-hour period, a flight instructor may not conduct more than 8 hours of flight training.</P>
            <P>(b) <E T="03">Aircraft ratings.</E> A flight instructor may not conduct flight training in any aircraft for which the flight instructor does not hold:</P>
            <P>(1) A pilot certificate and flight instructor certificate with the applicable category and class rating; and</P>
            <P>(2) If appropriate, a type rating.</P>
            <P>(c) <E T="03">Instrument Rating.</E> A flight instructor who provides instrument flight training for the issuance of an instrument rating or a type rating not limited to VFR must hold an instrument rating on his or her flight instructor certificate and pilot certificate that is appropriate to the category and class of aircraft in which instrument training is being provided.</P>
            <P>(d) <E T="03">Limitations on endorsements.</E> A flight instructor may not endorse a:</P>

            <P>(1) Student pilot's certificate or logbook for solo flight privileges, unless that flight instructor has—<PRTPAGE P="95"/>
            </P>
            <P>(i) Given that student the flight training required for solo flight privileges required by this part; and</P>
            <P>(ii) Determined that the student is prepared to conduct the flight safely under known circumstances, subject to any limitations listed in the student's logbook that the instructor considers necessary for the safety of the flight.</P>
            <P>(2) Student pilot's certificate and logbook for a solo cross-country flight, unless that flight instructor has determined the student's flight preparation, planning, equipment, and proposed procedures are adequate for the proposed flight under the existing conditions and within any limitations listed in the logbook that the instructor considers necessary for the safety of the flight;</P>
            <P>(3) Student pilot's certificate and logbook for solo flight in a Class B airspace area or at an airport within Class B airspace unless that flight instructor has—</P>
            <P>(i) Given that student ground and flight training in that Class B airspace or at that airport; and</P>
            <P>(ii) Determined that the student is proficient to operate the aircraft safely.</P>
            <P>(4) Logbook of a recreational pilot, unless that flight instructor has—</P>
            <P>(i) Given that pilot the ground and flight training required by this part; and</P>
            <P>(ii) Determined that the recreational pilot is proficient to operate the aircraft safely.</P>
            <P>(5) Logbook of a pilot for a flight review, unless that instructor has conducted a review of that pilot in accordance with the requirements of § 61.56(a) of this part; or</P>
            <P>(6) Logbook of a pilot for an instrument proficiency check, unless that instructor has tested that pilot in accordance with the requirements of § 61.57(d) of this part.</P>
            <P>(e) <E T="03">Training in an aircraft that requires a type rating.</E> A flight instructor may not give flight training in an aircraft that requires the pilot in command to hold a type rating unless the flight instructor holds a type rating for that aircraft on his or her pilot certificate.</P>
            <P>(f) <E T="03">Training received in a multiengine airplane, a helicopter, or a powered-lift.</E> A flight instructor may not give training required for the issuance of a certificate or rating in a multiengine airplane, a helicopter, or a powered-lift unless that flight instructor has at least 5 flight hours of pilot-in-command time in the specific make and model of multiengine airplane, helicopter, or powered-lift, as appropriate.</P>
            <P>(g) <E T="03">Position in aircraft and required pilot stations for providing flight training.</E>
            </P>
            <P>(1) A flight instructor must perform all training from in an aircraft that complies with the requirements of § 91.109 of this chapter.</P>
            <P>(2) A flight instructor who provides flight training for a pilot certificate or rating issued under this part must provide that flight training in an aircraft that meets the following requirements—</P>
            <P>(i) The aircraft must have at least two pilot stations and be of the same category, class, and type, if appropriate, that applies to the pilot certificate or rating sought.</P>
            <P>(ii) For single-place aircraft, the pre-solo flight training must have been provided in an aircraft that has two pilot stations and is of the same category, class, and type, if appropriate.</P>
            <P>(h) <E T="03">Qualifications of the flight instructor for training first-time flight instructor applicants.</E> (1) The ground training provided to an initial applicant for a flight instructor certificate must be given by an authorized instructor who—</P>
            <P>(i) Holds a current ground or flight instructor certificate with the appropriate rating, has held that certificate for at least 24 months, and has given at least 40 hours of ground training; or</P>
            <P>(ii) Holds a current ground or flight instructor certificate with the appropriate rating, and has given at least 100 hours of ground training in an FAA-approved course.</P>
            <P>(2) Except for an instructor who meets the requirements of paragraph (h)(3)(ii) of this section, a flight instructor who provides training to an initial applicant for a flight instructor certificate must—</P>
            <P>(i) Meet the eligibility requirements prescribed in § 61.183 of this part;</P>
            <P>(ii) Hold the appropriate flight instructor certificate and rating;</P>

            <P>(iii) Have held a flight instructor certificate for at least 24 months;<PRTPAGE P="96"/>
            </P>
            <P>(iv) For training in preparation for an airplane, rotorcraft, or powered-lift rating, have given at least 200 hours of flight training as a flight instructor; and</P>
            <P>(v) For training in preparation for a glider rating, have given at least 80 hours of flight training as a flight instructor.</P>
            <P>(3) A flight instructor who serves as a flight instructor in an FAA-approved course for the issuance of a flight instructor rating must hold a current flight instructor certificate with the appropriate rating and pass the required initial and recurrent flight instructor proficiency tests, in accordance with the requirements of the part under which the FAA-approved course is conducted, and must—</P>
            <P>(i) Meet the requirements of paragraph (h)(2) of this section; or</P>
            <P>(ii) Have trained and endorsed at least five applicants for a practical test for a pilot certificate, flight instructor certificate, ground instructor certificate, or an additional rating, and at least 80 percent of those applicants passed that test on their first attempt; and</P>
            <P>(A) Given at least 400 hours of flight training as a flight instructor for training in an airplane, a rotorcraft, or for a powered-lift rating; or</P>
            <P>(B) Given at least 100 hours of flight training as a flight instructor, for training in a glider rating.</P>
            <P>(i) <E T="03">Prohibition against self-endorsements.</E> A flight instructor shall not make any self-endorsement for a certificate, rating, flight review, authorization, operating privilege, practical test, or knowledge test that is required by this part.</P>
            <P>(j) <E T="03">Additional qualifications required to give training in Category II or Category III operations.</E> A flight instructor may not give training in Category II or Category III operations unless the flight instructor has been trained and tested in Category II or Category III operations, pursuant to § 61.67 or § 61.68 of this part, as applicable.</P>
            <CITA>[Doc. No. 25910, 62 FR 16298, Apr. 4, 1997; Amdt. 61-103, 62 FR 40907, July 30, 1997]</CITA>
          </SECTION>
          <SECTION>
            <SECTNO>§ 61.197</SECTNO>
            <SUBJECT>Renewal of flight instructor certificates.</SUBJECT>
            <P>(a) A person who holds a flight instructor certificate that has not expired may renew that certificate by—</P>
            <P>(1) Passing a practical test for—</P>
            <P>(i) One of the ratings listed on the current flight instructor certificate; or</P>
            <P>(ii) An additional flight instructor rating; or</P>
            <P>(2) Presenting to an authorized FAA Flight Standards Inspector—</P>
            <P>(i) A record of training students showing that, during the preceding 24 calendar months, the flight instructor has endorsed at least five students for a practical test for a certificate or rating and at least 80 percent of those students passed that test on the first attempt;</P>
            <P>(ii) A record showing that, within the preceding 24 calendar months, the flight instructor has served as a company check pilot, chief flight instructor, company check airman, or flight instructor in a part 121 or part 135 operation, or in a position involving the regular evaluation of pilots; or</P>
            <P>(iii) A graduation certificate showing that, within the preceding 3 calendar months, the person has successfully completed an approved flight instructor refresher course consisting of ground training or flight training, or a combination of both.</P>
            <P>(b) The expiration month of a renewed flight instructor certificate shall be 24 calendar months from—</P>
            <P>(1) The month the renewal requirements of paragraph (a) of this section are accomplished; or</P>
            <P>(2) The month of expiration of the current flight instructor certificate provided—</P>
            <P>(i) The renewal requirements of paragraph (a) of this section are accomplished within the 3 calendar months preceding the expiration month of the current flight instructor certificate, and</P>
            <P>(ii) If the renewal is accomplished under paragraph (a)(2)(iii) of this section, the approved flight instructor refresher course must be completed within the 3 calendar months preceding the expiration month of the current flight instructor certificate.</P>

            <P>(c) The practical test required by paragraph (a)(1) of this section may be <PRTPAGE P="97"/>accomplished in a flight simulator or flight training device if the test is accomplished pursuant to an approved course conducted by a training center certificated under part 142 of this chapter.</P>
            <CITA>[Doc. No. 25910, 63 FR 20289, Apr. 23, 1998]</CITA>
          </SECTION>
          <SECTION>
            <SECTNO>§ 61.199</SECTNO>
            <SUBJECT>Expired flight instructor certificates and ratings.</SUBJECT>
            <P>(a) <E T="03">Flight instructor certificates.</E> The holder of an expired flight instructor certificate may exchange that certificate for a new certificate with the same ratings by passing a practical test as prescribed in § 61.183(h) of this part for one of the ratings listed on the expired flight instructor certificate.</P>
            <P>(b) <E T="03">Flight instructor ratings.</E> (1) A flight instructor rating or a limited flight instructor rating on a pilot certificate is no longer valid and may not be exchanged for a similar rating or a flight instructor certificate.</P>
            <P>(2) The holder of a flight instructor rating or a limited flight instructor rating on a pilot certificate may be issued a flight instructor certificate with the current ratings, but only if the person passes the required knowledge and practical test prescribed in this subpart for the issuance of the current flight instructor certificate and rating.</P>
            <CITA>[Doc. No. 25910, 62 FR 16298, Apr. 4, 1997, as amended by Amdt. 61-104, 63 FR 20289, Apr. 23, 1998]</CITA>
          </SECTION>
          <SECTION>
            <SECTNO>§ 61.201</SECTNO>
            <RESERVED>[Reserved]</RESERVED>
          </SECTION>
        </SUBPART>
        <SUBPART>
          <HD SOURCE="HED">Subpart I—Ground Instructors</HD>
          <SECTION>
            <SECTNO>§ 61.211</SECTNO>
            <SUBJECT>Applicability.</SUBJECT>
            <P>This subpart prescribes the requirements for the issuance of ground instructor certificates and ratings, the conditions under which those certificates and ratings are necessary, and the limitations upon those certificates and ratings.</P>
          </SECTION>
          <SECTION>
            <SECTNO>§ 61.213</SECTNO>
            <SUBJECT>Eligibility requirements.</SUBJECT>
            <P>(a) To be eligible for a ground instructor certificate or rating a person must:</P>
            <P>(1) Be at least 18 years of age;</P>
            <P>(2) Be able to read, write, speak, and understand the English language. If the applicant is unable to meet one of these requirements due to medical reasons, then the Administrator may place such operating limitations on that applicant's ground instructor certificate as are necessary;</P>
            <P>(3) Except as provided in paragraph (b) of this section, pass a knowledge test on the fundamentals of instructing to include—</P>
            <P>(i) The learning process;</P>
            <P>(ii) Elements of effective teaching;</P>
            <P>(iii) Student evaluation and testing;</P>
            <P>(iv) Course development;</P>
            <P>(v) Lesson planning; and</P>
            <P>(vi) Classroom training techniques.</P>
            <P>(4) Pass a knowledge test on the aeronautical knowledge areas in—</P>
            <P>(i) For a basic ground instructor rating, §§ 61.97 and 61.105;</P>
            <P>(ii) For an advanced ground instructor rating, §§ 61.97, 61.105, 61.125, and 61.155; and</P>
            <P>(iii) For an instrument ground instructor rating, § 61.65.</P>
            <P>(b) The knowledge test specified in paragraph (a)(3) of this section is not required if the applicant:</P>
            <P>(1) Holds a ground instructor certificate or flight instructor certificate issued under this part;</P>
            <P>(2) Holds a current teacher's certificate issued by a State, county, city, or municipality that authorizes the person to teach at an educational level of the 7th grade or higher; or</P>
            <P>(3) Is employed as a teacher at an accredited college or university.</P>
          </SECTION>
          <SECTION>
            <SECTNO>§ 61.215</SECTNO>
            <SUBJECT>Ground instructor privileges.</SUBJECT>
            <P>(a) A person who holds a basic ground instructor rating is authorized to provide:</P>
            <P>(1) Ground training in the aeronautical knowledge areas required for the issuance of a recreational pilot certificate, private pilot certificate, or associated ratings under this part;</P>
            <P>(2) Ground training required for a recreational pilot and private pilot flight review; and</P>
            <P>(3) A recommendation for a knowledge test required for the issuance of a recreational pilot certificate or private pilot certificate under this part.</P>

            <P>(b) A person who holds an advanced ground instructor rating is authorized to provide:<PRTPAGE P="98"/>
            </P>
            <P>(1) Ground training in the aeronautical knowledge areas required for the issuance of any certificate or rating under this part;</P>
            <P>(2) Ground training required for any flight review; and</P>
            <P>(3) A recommendation for a knowledge test required for the issuance of any certificate under this part.</P>
            <P>(c) A person who holds an instrument ground instructor rating is authorized to provide:</P>
            <P>(1) Ground training in the aeronautical knowledge areas required for the issuance of an instrument rating under this part;</P>
            <P>(2) Ground training required for an instrument proficiency check; and</P>
            <P>(3) A recommendation for a knowledge test required for the issuance of an instrument rating under this part.</P>
            <P>(d) A person who holds a ground instructor certificate is authorized, within the limitations of the ratings on the ground instructor certificate, to endorse the logbook or other training record of a person to whom the holder has provided the training or recommendation specified in paragraphs (a) through (c) of this section.</P>
          </SECTION>
          <SECTION>
            <SECTNO>§ 61.217</SECTNO>
            <SUBJECT>Recent experience requirements.</SUBJECT>
            <P>The holder of a ground instructor certificate may not perform the duties of a ground instructor unless, within the preceding 12 months:</P>
            <P>(a) The person has served for at least 3 months as a ground instructor; or</P>
            <P>(b) The person has received an endorsement from an authorized ground or flight instructor certifying that the person has demonstrated safisfactory proficiency in the subject areas prescribed in § 61.213 (a)(3) and (a)(4), as applicable.</P>
            <CITA>[Doc. No. 25910, 62 FR 16298, Apr. 4, 1997; Amdt. 61-103, 62 FR 40907, July 30, 1997]</CITA>
          </SECTION>
        </SUBPART>
      </PART>
      <PART>
        <EAR>Pt. 63</EAR>
        <HD SOURCE="HED">PART 63—CERTIFICATION: FLIGHT CREWMEMBERS OTHER THAN PILOTS</HD>
        <CONTENTS>
          <APP>Special Federal Aviation Regulation No. 58 [Note]</APP>
          <APP>Special Federal Aviation Regulation No. 93 [Note]</APP>
          <APP>Special Federal Aviation Regulation No. 100 [Note]</APP>
          <SUBPART>
            <HD SOURCE="HED">Subpart A—General</HD>
            <SECHD>Sec.</SECHD>
            <SECTNO>63.1</SECTNO>
            <SUBJECT>Applicability.</SUBJECT>
            <SECTNO>63.2</SECTNO>
            <SUBJECT>Certification of foreign flight crewmembers other than pilots.</SUBJECT>
            <SECTNO>63.3</SECTNO>
            <SUBJECT>Certificates and ratings required.</SUBJECT>
            <SECTNO>63.11</SECTNO>
            <SUBJECT>Application and issue.</SUBJECT>
            <SECTNO>63.12</SECTNO>
            <SUBJECT>Offenses involving alcohol or drugs.</SUBJECT>
            <SECTNO>63.12a</SECTNO>
            <SUBJECT>Refusal to submit to an alcohol test or to furnish test results.</SUBJECT>
            <SECTNO>63.12b</SECTNO>
            <SUBJECT>Refusal to submit to a drug or alcohol test.</SUBJECT>
            <SECTNO>63.13</SECTNO>
            <SUBJECT>Temporary certificate.</SUBJECT>
            <SECTNO>63.14</SECTNO>
            <SUBJECT>Security disqualification.</SUBJECT>
            <SECTNO>63.15</SECTNO>
            <SUBJECT>Duration of certificates.</SUBJECT>
            <SECTNO>63.15a</SECTNO>
            <SUBJECT>[Reserved]</SUBJECT>
            <SECTNO>63.16</SECTNO>
            <SUBJECT>Change of name; replacement of lost or destroyed certificate.</SUBJECT>
            <SECTNO>63.17</SECTNO>
            <SUBJECT>Tests: General procedure.</SUBJECT>
            <SECTNO>63.18</SECTNO>
            <SUBJECT>Written tests: Cheating or other unauthorized conduct.</SUBJECT>
            <SECTNO>63.19</SECTNO>
            <SUBJECT>Operations during physical deficiency.</SUBJECT>
            <SECTNO>63.20</SECTNO>
            <SUBJECT>Applications, certificates, logbooks, reports, and records; falsification, reproduction, or alteration.</SUBJECT>
            <SECTNO>63.21</SECTNO>
            <SUBJECT>Change of address.</SUBJECT>
            <SECTNO>63.23</SECTNO>
            <SUBJECT>Special purpose flight engineer and flight navigator certificates: Operation of U.S.-registered civil airplanes leased by a person not a U.S. citizen.</SUBJECT>
          </SUBPART>
          <SUBPART>
            <HD SOURCE="HED">Subpart B—Flight Engineers</HD>
            <SECTNO>63.31</SECTNO>
            <SUBJECT>Eligibility requirements; general.</SUBJECT>
            <SECTNO>63.33</SECTNO>
            <SUBJECT>Aircraft ratings.</SUBJECT>
            <SECTNO>63.35</SECTNO>
            <SUBJECT>Knowledge requirements.</SUBJECT>
            <SECTNO>63.37</SECTNO>
            <SUBJECT>Aeronautical experience requirements.</SUBJECT>
            <SECTNO>63.39</SECTNO>
            <SUBJECT>Skill requirements.</SUBJECT>
            <SECTNO>63.41</SECTNO>
            <SUBJECT>Retesting after failure.</SUBJECT>
            <SECTNO>63.42</SECTNO>
            <SUBJECT>Flight engineer certificate issued on basis of a foreign flight engineer license.</SUBJECT>
            <SECTNO>63.43</SECTNO>
            <SUBJECT>Flight engineer courses.</SUBJECT>
          </SUBPART>
          <SUBPART>
            <HD SOURCE="HED">Subpart C—Flight Navigators</HD>
            <SECTNO>63.51</SECTNO>
            <SUBJECT>Eligibility requirements; general.</SUBJECT>
            <SECTNO>63.53</SECTNO>
            <SUBJECT>Knowledge requirements.</SUBJECT>
            <SECTNO>63.55</SECTNO>
            <SUBJECT>Experience requirements.</SUBJECT>
            <SECTNO>63.57</SECTNO>
            <SUBJECT>Skill requirements.</SUBJECT>
            <SECTNO>63.59</SECTNO>
            <SUBJECT>Retesting after failure.</SUBJECT>
            <SECTNO>63.61</SECTNO>
            <SUBJECT>Flight navigator courses.</SUBJECT>
            <APP>Appendix A to Part 63—Test Requirements for Flight Navigator Certificate</APP>
            <APP>Appendix B to Part 63—Flight Navigator Training Course Requirements</APP>
            <APP>Appendix C to Part 63—Flight Engineer Training Course Requirements</APP>
          </SUBPART>
        </CONTENTS>
        <AUTH>
          <HD SOURCE="HED">Authority:</HD>
          <P>49 U.S.C. 106(g), 40113, 44701-44703, 44707, 44709-44711, 45102-45103, 45301-45302.</P>
        </AUTH>
        <SUBJGRP>
          <PRTPAGE P="99"/>
          <HD SOURCE="HED">Special Federal Aviation Regulations</HD>
        </SUBJGRP>
        <APPENDIX>
          <HD SOURCE="HED">Special Federal Aviation Regulation No. 58</HD>
          <EDNOTE>
            <HD SOURCE="HED">Editorial Note:</HD>
            <P>For the text of SFAR No. 58, see part 121 of this chapter.</P>
          </EDNOTE>
        </APPENDIX>
        <APPENDIX>
          <HD SOURCE="HED">Special Federal Aviation Regulation No. 93</HD>
          <EDNOTE>
            <HD SOURCE="HED">Editorial Note:</HD>
            <P>For the text of SFAR No. 93, see part 61 of this chapter.</P>
          </EDNOTE>
        </APPENDIX>
        <APPENDIX>
          <HD SOURCE="HED">Special Federal Aviation Regulation No. 100</HD>
          <EDNOTE>
            <HD SOURCE="HED">Editorial Note:</HD>
            <P>For the text of SFAR No. 100, see part 61 of this chapter.</P>
          </EDNOTE>
          <EFFDNOT>
            <HD SOURCE="HED">Effective Date Note:</HD>
            <P>By Doc. No. FAA-2003-15431, 68 FR 36905, June 20, 2003, SFAR 100 was added, effective June 20, 2003, through June 20, 2005.</P>
          </EFFDNOT>
        </APPENDIX>
        <SUBPART>
          <HD SOURCE="HED">Subpart A—General</HD>
          <SOURCE>
            <HD SOURCE="HED">Source:</HD>
            <P>Docket No. 1179, 27 FR 7969, Aug. 10, 1962, unless otherwise noted.</P>
          </SOURCE>
          <SECTION>
            <SECTNO>§ 63.1</SECTNO>
            <SUBJECT>Applicability.</SUBJECT>
            <P>This part prescribes the requirements for issuing flight engineer and flight navigator certificates and the general operating rules for holders of those certificates.</P>
          </SECTION>
          <SECTION>
            <SECTNO>§ 63.2</SECTNO>
            <SUBJECT>Certification of foreign flight crewmembers other than pilots.</SUBJECT>
            <P>A person who is neither a United States citizen nor a resident alien is issued a certificate under this part (other than under § 63.23 or § 63.42) outside the United States only when the Administrator finds that the certificate is needed for the operation of a U.S.-registered civil aircraft.</P>
            <SECAUTH>(Secs. 313, 601, 602, Federal Aviation Act of 1958, as amended (49 U.S.C. 1354, 1421, and 1422); sec. 6(c), Department of Transportation Act (49 U.S.C. 1655(c)); Title V, Independent Offices Appropriations Act of 1952 (31 U.S.C. 483(a)); sec. 28, International Air Transportation Competition Act of 1979 (49 U.S.C. 1159(b)))</SECAUTH>
            <CITA>[Doc. No. 22052, 47 FR 35693, Aug. 18, 1982]</CITA>
          </SECTION>
          <SECTION>
            <SECTNO>§ 63.3</SECTNO>
            <SUBJECT>Certificates and ratings required.</SUBJECT>
            <P>(a) No person may act as a flight engineer of a civil aircraft of U.S. registry unless he has in his personal possession a current flight engineer certificate with appropriate ratings issued to him under this part and a second-class (or higher) medical certificate issued to him under part 67 of this chapter within the preceding 12 months. However, when the aircraft is operated within a foreign country, a current flight engineer certificate issued by the country in which the aircraft is operated, with evidence of current medical qualification for that certificate, may be used. Also, in the case of a flight engineer certificate issued under § 63.42, evidence of current medical qualification accepted for the issue of that certificate is used in place of a medical certificate.</P>
            <P>(b) No person may act as a flight navigator of a civil aircraft of U.S. registry unless he has in his personal possession a current flight navigator certificate issued to him under this part and a second-class (or higher) medical certificate issued to him under part 67 of this chapter within the preceding 12 months. However, when the aircraft is operated within a foreign country, a current flight navigator certificate issued by the country in which the aircraft is operated, with evidence of current medical qualification for that certificate, may be used.</P>
            <P>(c) Each person who holds a flight engineer or flight navigator certificate, or medical certificate, shall present either or both for inspection upon the request of the Administrator or an authorized representative of the National Transportation Safety Board, or of any Federal, State, or local law enforcement officer.</P>
            <SECAUTH>(Secs. 3, 6, 9, 80 Stat. 931, 49 U.S.C. 1652, 1655, 1657)</SECAUTH>
            <CITA>[Doc. No. 1179, 27 FR 7969, Aug. 10, 1962, as amended by Amdt. 63-1, 27 FR 10410, Oct. 25, 1962; Amdt. 63-3, 30 FR 14559, Nov. 23, 1965; Amdt. 63-7, 31 FR 13523, Oct. 20, 1966; Doc. No. 8084, 32 FR 5769, Apr. 11, 1967; Amdt. 63-9, 33 FR 18613, Dec. 17, 1968; Amdt. 63-11, 35 FR 5320, Mar. 31, 1970]</CITA>
          </SECTION>
          <SECTION>
            <PRTPAGE P="100"/>
            <SECTNO>§ 63.11</SECTNO>
            <SUBJECT>Application and issue.</SUBJECT>
            <P>(a) An application for a certificate and appropriate class rating, or for an additional rating, under this part must be made on a form and in a manner prescribed by the Administrator. Each person who is neither a United States citizen nor a resident alien and applies for a written or practical test to be administered outside the United States for any certificate or rating issued under this part must show evidence that the fee prescribed in appendix A of part 187 of this chapter has been paid.</P>
            <P>(b) An applicant who meets the requirements of this part is entitled to an appropriate certificate and appropriate class ratings.</P>
            <P>(c) Unless authorized by the Administrator, a person whose flight engineer certificate is suspended may not apply for any rating to be added to that certificate during the period of suspension.</P>
            <P>(d) Unless the order of revocation provides otherwise, a person whose flight engineer or flight navigator certificate is revoked may not apply for the same kind of certificate for 1 year after the date of revocation.</P>
            <SECAUTH>(Secs. 313, 601, 602, Federal Aviation Act of 1958, as amended (49 U.S.C. 1354, 1421, and 1422); sec. 6(c), Department of Transportation Act (49 U.S.C. 1655(c)); Title V, Independent Offices Appropriations Act of 1952 (31 U.S.C. 483(a)); sec. 28, International Air Transportation Competition Act of 1979 (49 U.S.C. 1159(b)))</SECAUTH>
            <CITA>[Doc. No. 1179, 27 FR 7969, Aug. 10, 1962, as amended by Amdt. 63-3, 30 FR 14559, Nov. 23, 1965; Amdt. 63-7, 31 FR 13523, Oct. 20, 1966; Amdt. 63-22, 47 FR 35693, Aug. 16, 1982]</CITA>
          </SECTION>
          <SECTION>
            <SECTNO>§ 63.12</SECTNO>
            <SUBJECT>Offenses involving alcohol or drugs.</SUBJECT>
            <P>(a) A conviction for the violation of any Federal or state statute relating to the growing, processing, manufacture, sale, disposition, possession, transportation, or importation of narcotic drugs, marihuana, or depressant or stimulant drugs or substances is grounds for—</P>
            <P>(1) Denial of an application for any certificate or rating issued under this part for a period of up to 1 year after the date of final conviction; or</P>
            <P>(2) Suspension or revocation of any certificate or rating issued under this part.</P>
            <P>(b) The commission of an act prohibited by § 91.17(a) or § 91.19(a) of this chapter is grounds for—</P>
            <P>(1) Denial of an application for a certificate or rating issued under this part for a period of up to 1 year after the date of that act; or</P>
            <P>(2) Suspension or revocation of any certificate or rating issued under this part.</P>
            <CITA>[Doc. No. 21956, 50 FR 15379, Apr. 17, 1985, as amended by Amdt. 63-27, 54 FR 34330, Aug. 18, 1989]</CITA>
          </SECTION>
          <SECTION>
            <SECTNO>§ 63.12a</SECTNO>
            <SUBJECT>Refusal to submit to an alcohol test or to furnish test results.</SUBJECT>
            <P>A refusal to submit to a test to indicate the percentage by weight of alcohol in the blood, when requested by a law enforcement officer in accordance with § 91.11(c) of this chapter, or a refusal to furnish or authorize the release of the test results when requested by the Administrator in accordance with § 91.17 (c) or (d) of this chapter, is grounds for—</P>
            <P>(a) Denial of an application for any certificate or rating issued under this part for a period of up to 1 year after the date of that refusal; or</P>
            <P>(b) Suspension or revocation of any certificate or rating issued under this part.</P>
            <CITA>[Docket No. 21956, 51 FR 1229, Jan. 9, 1986, as amended by Amdt. 63-27, 54 FR 34330, Aug. 18, 1989]</CITA>
          </SECTION>
          <SECTION>
            <SECTNO>§ 63.12b</SECTNO>
            <SUBJECT>Refusal to submit to a drug or alcohol test.</SUBJECT>
            <P>(a) This section applies to an employee who performs a function listed in appendix I or appendix J to part 121 of this chapter directly or by contract for a part 121 certificate holder, a part 135 certificate holder, or an operator as defined in § 135.1(c) of this chapter.</P>
            <P>(b) Refusal by the holder of a certificate issued under this part to take a drug test required under the provisions of appendix I to part 121 or an alcohol test required under the provisions of appendix J to part 121 is grounds for—</P>

            <P>(1) Denial of an application for any certificate or rating issued under this part for a period of up to 1 year after the date of such refusal; and<PRTPAGE P="101"/>
            </P>
            <P>(2) Suspension or revocation of any certificate or rating issued under this part.</P>
            <CITA>[Amdt. 63-29, 59 FR 7389, Feb. 15, 1994]</CITA>
          </SECTION>
          <SECTION>
            <SECTNO>§ 63.13</SECTNO>
            <SUBJECT>Temporary certificate.</SUBJECT>
            <P>A certificate effective for a period of not more than 120 days may be issued to a qualified applicant, pending review of his application and supplementary documents and the issue of the certificate for which he applied.</P>
            <CITA>[Doc. No. 1179, 27 FR 7969, Aug. 10, 1962, as amended by Amdt. 63-19, 43 FR 22639, May 25, 1978]</CITA>
          </SECTION>
          <SECTION>
            <SECTNO>§ 63.14</SECTNO>
            <SUBJECT>Security disqualification.</SUBJECT>
            <P>(a) <E T="03">Eligibility standard.</E> No person is eligible to hold a certificate, rating, or authorization issued under this part when the Transportation Security Administration (TSA) has notified the FAA in writing that the person poses a security threat.</P>
            <P>(b) <E T="03">Effect of the issuance by the TSA of an Initial Notification of Threat Assessment.</E> (1) The FAA will hold in abeyance pending the outcome of the TSA's final threat assessment review an application for any certificate, rating, or authorization under this part by any person who has been issued an Initial Notification of Threat Assessment by the TSA.</P>
            <P>(2) The FAA will suspend any certificate, rating, or authorization issued under this part after the TSA issues to the holder an Initial Notification of Threat Assessment.</P>
            <P>(c) <E T="03">Effect of the issuance by the TSA of a Final Notification of Threat Assessment.</E> (1) The FAA will deny an application for any certificate, rating, or authorization under this part to any person who has been issued a Final Notification of Threat Assessment.</P>
            <P>(2) The FAA will revoke any certificate, rating, or authorization issued under this part after the TSA has issued to the holder a Final Notification of Threat Assessment.</P>
            <CITA>[Doc. No. FAA-2003-14293, 68 FR 3774, Jan. 24, 2003]</CITA>
          </SECTION>
          <SECTION>
            <SECTNO>§ 63.15</SECTNO>
            <SUBJECT>Duration of certificates.</SUBJECT>
            <P>(a) Except as provided in § 63.23 and paragraph (b) of this section, a certificate or rating issued under this part is effective until it is surrendered, suspended, or revoked.</P>
            <P>(b) A flight engineer certificate (with any amendment thereto) issued under § 63.42 expires at the end of the 24th month after the month in which the certificate was issued or renewed. However, the holder may exercise the privileges of that certificate only while the foreign flight engineer license on which that certificate is based is effective.</P>
            <P>(c) Any certificate issued under this part ceases to be effective if it is surrendered, suspended, or revoked. The holder of any certificate issued under this part that is suspended or revoked shall, upon the Administrator's request, return it to the Administrator.</P>
            <SECAUTH>(Sec. 6, 80 Stat. 937, 49 U.S.C. 1655; secs. 313, 601, 602, Federal Aviation Act of 1958, as amended (49 U.S.C. 1354, 1421, and 1422); sec. 6(c), Department of Transportation Act (49 U.S.C. 1655(c)); Title V, Independent Offices Appropriations Act of 1952 (31 U.S.C. 483(a)); sec. 28, International Air Transportation Competition Act of 1979 (49 U.S.C. 1159(b)))</SECAUTH>
            <CITA>[Doc. No. 8846, 33 FR 18613, Dec. 17, 1968, as amended by Amdt. 63-22, 47 FR 35693, Aug. 16, 1982]</CITA>
          </SECTION>
          <SECTION>
            <SECTNO>§ 63.15a</SECTNO>
            <RESERVED>[Reserved]</RESERVED>
          </SECTION>
          <SECTION>
            <SECTNO>§ 63.16</SECTNO>
            <SUBJECT>Change of name; replacement of lost or destroyed certificate.</SUBJECT>
            <P>(a) An application for a change of name on a certificate issued under this part must be accompanied by the applicant's current certificate and the marriage license, court order, or other document verifying the change. The documents are returned to the applicant after inspection.</P>
            <P>(b) An application for a replacement of a lost or destroyed certificate is made by letter to the Department of Transportation, Federal Aviation Administration, Airman Certification Branch, Post Office Box 25082, Oklahoma City, OK 73125. The letter must—</P>

            <P>(1) Contain the name in which the certificate was issued, the permanent mailing address (including zip code), social security number (if any), and date and place of birth of the certificate holder, and any available information regarding the grade, number, and date of issue of the certificate, and the ratings on it; and<PRTPAGE P="102"/>
            </P>
            <P>(2) Be accompanied by a check or money order for $2, payable to the Federal Aviation Administration.</P>
            <P>(c) An application for a replacement of a lost or destroyed medical certificate is made by letter to the Department of Transportation, Federal Aviation Administration, Civil Aeromedical Institute, Aeromedical Certification Branch, Post Office Box 25082, Oklahoma City, OK 73125, accompanied by a check or money order for $2.00.</P>
            <P>(d) A person whose certificate issued under this part or medical certificate, or both, has been lost may obtain a telegram from the Federal Aviation Administration confirming that it was issued. The telegram may be carried as a certificate for a period not to exceed 60 days pending his receiving a duplicate under paragraph (b) or (c) of this section, unless he has been notified that the certificate has been suspended or revoked. The request for such a telegram may be made by prepaid telegram, stating the date upon which a duplicate certificate was requested, or including the request for a duplicate and a money order for the necessary amount. The request for a telegraphic certificate should be sent to the office prescribed in paragraph (b) or (c) of this section, as appropriate. However, a request for both at the same time should be sent to the office prescribed in paragraph (b) of this section.</P>
            <CITA>[Doc. No. 7258, 31 FR 13523, Oct. 20, 1966, as amended by Doc. No. 8084, 32 FR 5769, Apr. 11, 1967; Amdt. 63-12, 35 FR 14075, Sept. 4, 1970; Amdt. 63-13, 36 FR 28654, Feb. 11, 1971]</CITA>
          </SECTION>
          <SECTION>
            <SECTNO>§ 63.17</SECTNO>
            <SUBJECT>Tests: General procedure.</SUBJECT>
            <P>(a) Tests prescribed by or under this part are given at times and places, and by persons, designated by the Administrator.</P>
            <P>(b) The minimum passing grade for each test is 70 percent.</P>
          </SECTION>
          <SECTION>
            <SECTNO>§ 63.18</SECTNO>
            <SUBJECT>Written tests: Cheating or other unauthorized conduct.</SUBJECT>
            <P>(a) Except as authorized by the Administrator, no person may—</P>
            <P>(1) Copy, or intentionally remove, a written test under this part;</P>
            <P>(2) Give to another, or receive from another, any part or copy of that test;</P>
            <P>(3) Give help on that test to, or receive help on that test from, any person during the period that test is being given.</P>
            <P>(4) Take any part of that test in behalf of another person;</P>
            <P>(5) Use any material or aid during the period that test is being given; or</P>
            <P>(6) Intentionally cause, assist, or participate in any act prohibited by this paragraph.</P>
            <P>(b) No person who commits an act prohibited by paragraph (a) of this section is eligible for any airman or ground instructor certificate or rating under this chapter for a period of 1 year after the date of that act. In addition, the commission of that act is a basis for suspending or revoking any airman or ground instructor certificate or rating held by that person.</P>
            <CITA>[Doc. No. 4086, 30 FR 2196, Feb. 18, 1965]</CITA>
          </SECTION>
          <SECTION>
            <SECTNO>§ 63.19</SECTNO>
            <SUBJECT>Operations during physical deficiency.</SUBJECT>
            <P>No person may serve as a flight engineer or flight navigator during a period of known physical deficiency, or increase in physical deficiency, that would make him unable to meet the physical requirements for his current medical certificate.</P>
          </SECTION>
          <SECTION>
            <SECTNO>§ 63.20</SECTNO>
            <SUBJECT>Applications, certificates, logbooks, reports, and records; falsification, reproduction, or alteration.</SUBJECT>
            <P>(a) No person may make or cause to be made—</P>
            <P>(1) Any fraudulent or intentionally false statement on any application for a certificate or rating under this part;</P>
            <P>(2) Any fraudulent or intentionally false entry in any logbook, record, or report that is required to be kept, made, or used, to show compliance with any requirement for any certificate or rating under this part;</P>
            <P>(3) Any reproduction, for fraudulent purpose, of any certificate or rating under this part; or</P>
            <P>(4) Any alteration of any certificate or rating under this part.</P>
            <P>(b) The commission by any person of an act prohibited under paragraph (a) of this section is a basis for suspending or revoking any airman or ground instructor certificate or rating held by that person.</P>
            <CITA>[Doc. No. 4086, 30 FR 2196, Feb. 18, 1965]</CITA>
          </SECTION>
          <SECTION>
            <PRTPAGE P="103"/>
            <SECTNO>§ 63.21</SECTNO>
            <SUBJECT>Change of address.</SUBJECT>
            <P>Within 30 days after any change in his permanent mailing address, the holder of a certificate issued under this part shall notify the Department of Transportation, Federal Aviation Administration, Airman Certification Branch, Post Office Box 25082, Oklahoma City, OK 73125, in writing, of his new address.</P>
            <CITA>[Doc. No. 10536, 35 FR 14075, Sept. 4, 1970]</CITA>
          </SECTION>
          <SECTION>
            <SECTNO>§ 63.23</SECTNO>
            <SUBJECT>Special purpose flight engineer and flight navigator certificates: Operation of U.S.-registered civil airplanes leased by a person not a U.S. citizen.</SUBJECT>
            <P>(a) <E T="03">General.</E> The holder of a current foreign flight engineer or flight navigator certificate, license, or authorization issued by a foreign contracting State to the Convention on International Civil Aviation, who meets the requirements of this section, may hold a special purpose flight engineer or flight navigator certificate, as appropriate, authorizing the holder to perform flight engineer or flight navigator duties on a civil airplane of U.S. registry, leased to a person not a citizen of the United States, carrying persons or property for compensation or hire. Special purpose flight engineer and flight navigator certificates are issued under this section only for airplane types that can have a maximum passenger seating configuration, excluding any flight crewmember seat, of more than 30 seats or a maximum payload capacity (as defined in § 135.2(e) of this chapter) of more than 7,500 pounds.</P>
            <P>(b) <E T="03">Eligibility.</E> To be eligible for the issuance, or renewal, of a certificate under this section, an applicant must present the following to the Administrator:</P>
            <P>(1) A current foreign flight engineer or flight navigator certificate, license, or authorization issued by the aeronautical authority of a foreign contracting State to the Convention on International Civil Aviation or a facsimile acceptable to the Administrator. The certificate or license must authorize the applicant to perform the flight engineer or flight navigator duties to be authorized by a certificate issued under this section on the same airplane type as the leased airplane.</P>
            <P>(2) A current certification by the lessee of the airplane—</P>
            <P>(i) Stating that the applicant is employed by the lessee;</P>
            <P>(ii) Specifying the airplane type on which the applicant will perform flight engineer or flight navigator duties; and</P>
            <P>(iii) Stating that the applicant has received ground and flight instruction which qualifies the applicant to perform the duties to be assigned on the airplane.</P>
            <P>(3) Documentation showing that the applicant currently meets the medical standards for the foreign flight engineer or flight navigator certificate, license, or authorization required by paragraph (b)(1) of this section, except that a U.S. medical certificate issued under part 67 of this chapter is not evidence that the applicant meets those standards unless the State which issued the applicant's foreign flight engineer or flight navigator certificate, license, or authorization accepts a U.S. medical certificate as evidence of medical fitness for a flight engineer or flight navigator certificate, license, or authorization.</P>
            <P>(c) <E T="03">Privileges.</E> The holder of a special purpose flight engineer or flight navigator certificate issued under this section may exercise the same privileges as those shown on the certificate, license, or authorization specified in paragraph (b)(1) of this section, subject to the limitations specified in this section.</P>
            <P>(d) <E T="03">Limitations.</E> Each certificate issued under this section is subject to the following limitations:</P>
            <P>(1) It is valid only—</P>
            <P>(i) For flights between foreign countries and for flights in foreign air commerce;</P>
            <P>(ii) While it and the certificate, license, or authorization required by paragraph (b)(1) of this section are in the certificate holder's personal possession and are current;</P>
            <P>(iii) While the certificate holder is employed by the person to whom the airplane described in the certification required by paragraph (b)(2) of this section is leased;</P>

            <P>(iv) While the certificate holder is performing flight engineer or flight navigator duties on the U.S.-registered <PRTPAGE P="104"/>civil airplane described in the certification required by paragraph (b)(2) of this section; and</P>
            <P>(v) While the medical documentation required by paragraph (b)(3) of this section is in the certificate holder's personal possession and is currently valid.</P>
            <P>(2) Each certificate issued under this section contains the following:</P>
            <P>(i) The name of the person to whom the U.S.-registered civil airplane is leased.</P>
            <P>(ii) The type of airplane.</P>
            <P>(iii) The limitation: “Issued under, and subject to, § 63.23 of the Federal Aviation Regulations.”</P>
            <P>(iv) The limitation: “Subject to the privileges and limitations shown on the holder's foreign flight (engineer or navigator) certificate, license, or authorization.”</P>
            <P>(3) Any additional limitations placed on the certificate which the Administrator considers necessary.</P>
            <P>(e) <E T="03">Termination.</E> Each special purpose flight engineer or flight navigator certificate issued under this section terminates—</P>
            <P>(1) When the lease agreement for the airplane described in the certification required by paragraph (b)(2) of this section terminates;</P>
            <P>(2) When the foreign flight engineer or flight navigator certificate, license, or authorization, or the medical documentation required by paragraph (b) of this section is suspended, revoked, or no longer valid; or</P>
            <P>(3) After 24 months after the month in which the special purpose flight engineer or flight navigator certificate was issued.</P>
            <P>(f) <E T="03">Surrender of certificate.</E> The certificate holder shall surrender the special purpose flight engineer or flight navigator certificate to the Administrator within 7 days after the date it terminates.</P>
            <P>(g) <E T="03">Renewal.</E> The certificate holder may have the certificate renewed by complying with the requirements of paragraph (b) of this section at the time of application for renewal.</P>
            <SECAUTH>(Secs. 313(a), 601, and 602, Federal Aviation Act of 1958; as amended (49 U.S.C. 1354(a), 1421, and 1422); sec. 6(c), Department of Transportation Act (49 U.S.C. 1655(c)))</SECAUTH>
            <CITA>[Doc. No. 19300, 45 FR 5672, Jan. 24, 1980]</CITA>
          </SECTION>
        </SUBPART>
        <SUBPART>
          <HD SOURCE="HED">Subpart B—Flight Engineers</HD>
          <AUTH>
            <HD SOURCE="HED">Authority:</HD>
            <P>Secs. 313(a), 601, and 602, Federal Aviation Act of 1958; 49 U.S.C. 1354, 1421, 1422.</P>
          </AUTH>
          <SOURCE>
            <HD SOURCE="HED">Source:</HD>
            <P>Docket No. 6458, 30 FR 14559, Nov. 23, 1965, unless otherwise noted.</P>
          </SOURCE>
          <SECTION>
            <SECTNO>§ 63.31</SECTNO>
            <SUBJECT>Eligibility requirements; general.</SUBJECT>
            <P>To be eligible for a flight engineer certificate, a person must—</P>
            <P>(a) Be at least 21 years of age;</P>
            <P>(b) Be able to read, speak, and understand the English language, or have an appropriate limitation placed on his flight engineer certificate;</P>
            <P>(c) Hold at least a second-class medical certificate issued under part 67 of this chapter within the 12 months before the date he applies, or other evidence of medical qualification accepted for the issue of a flight engineer certificate under § 63.42; and</P>
            <P>(d) Comply with the requirements of this subpart that apply to the rating he seeks.</P>
            <SECAUTH>(Sec. 6, 80 Stat. 937, 49 U.S.C. 1655)</SECAUTH>
            <CITA>[Doc. No. 6458, 30 FR 14559, Nov. 23, 1965, as amended by Amdt. 63-9, 33 FR 18614, Dec. 17, 1968]</CITA>
          </SECTION>
          <SECTION>
            <SECTNO>§ 63.33</SECTNO>
            <SUBJECT>Aircraft ratings.</SUBJECT>
            <P>(a) The aircraft class ratings to be placed on flight engineer certificates are—</P>
            <P>(1) Reciprocating engine powered;</P>
            <P>(2) Turbopropeller powered; and</P>
            <P>(3) Turbojet powered.</P>
            <P>(b) To be eligible for an additional aircraft class rating after his flight engineer certificate with a class rating is issued to him, an applicant must pass the written test that is appropriate to the class of airplane for which an additional rating is sought, and—</P>
            <P>(1) Pass the flight test for that class of aircraft; or</P>
            <P>(2) Satisfactorily complete an approved flight engineer training program that is appropriate to the additional class rating sought.</P>
          </SECTION>
          <SECTION>
            <SECTNO>§ 63.35</SECTNO>
            <SUBJECT>Knowledge requirements.</SUBJECT>

            <P>(a) An applicant for a flight engineer certificate must pass a written test on the following:<PRTPAGE P="105"/>
            </P>
            <P>(1) The regulations of this chapter that apply to the duties of a flight engineer.</P>
            <P>(2) The theory of flight and aerodynamics.</P>
            <P>(3) Basic meteorology with respect to engine operations.</P>
            <P>(4) Center of gravity computations.</P>
            <P>(b) An applicant for the original or additional issue of a flight engineer class rating must pass a written test for that airplane class on the following:</P>
            <P>(1) Preflight.</P>
            <P>(2) Airplane equipment.</P>
            <P>(3) Airplane systems.</P>
            <P>(4) Airplane loading.</P>
            <P>(5) Airplane procedures and engine operations with respect to limitations.</P>
            <P>(6) Normal operating procedures.</P>
            <P>(7) Emergency procedures.</P>
            <P>(8) Mathematical computation of engine operations and fuel consumption.</P>
            <P>(c) Before taking the written tests prescribed in paragraphs (a) and (b) of this section, an applicant for a flight engineer certificate must present satisfactory evidence of having completed one of the experience requirements of § 63.37. However, he may take the written tests before acquiring the flight training required by § 63.37.</P>
            <P>(d) An applicant for a flight engineer certificate or rating must have passed the written tests required by paragraphs (a) and (b) of this section since the beginning of the 24th calendar month before the month in which the flight is taken. However, this limitation does not apply to an applicant for a flight engineer certificate or rating if—</P>
            <P>(1) The applicant—</P>
            <P>(i) Within the period ending 24 calendar months after the month in which the applicant passed the written test, is employed as a flight crewmember or mechanic by a U.S. air carrier or commercial operator operating either under part 121 or as a commuter air carrier under part 135 (as defined in part 298 of this title) and is employed by such a certificate holder at the time of the flight test;</P>
            <P>(ii) If employed as a flight crewmember, has completed initial training, and, if appropriate, transition or upgrade training; and</P>
            <P>(iii) Meets the recurrent training requirements of the applicable part or, for mechanics, meets the recency of experience requirements of part 65; or</P>
            <P>(2) Within the period ending 24 calendar months after the month in which the applicant passed the written test, the applicant participated in a flight engineer or maintenance training program of a U.S. scheduled military air transportation service and is currently participating in that program.</P>
            <P>(e) An air carrier or commercial operator with an approved training program under part 121 of this chapter may, when authorized by the Administrator, provide as part of that program a written test that it may administer to satisfy the test required for an additional rating under paragraph (b) of this section.</P>
            <SECAUTH>(Sec. 6, 80 Stat. 937, 49 U.S.C. 1655; secs. 313(a), 601 through 605 of the Federal Aviation Act of 1958 (49 U.S.C. 1354(a), 1421 through 1425); sec. 6(c), Department of Transportation Act (49 U.S.C. 1655(c)); and 14 CFR 11.49)</SECAUTH>
            <CITA>[Doc. No. 1179, 27 FR 7969, Aug. 10, 1962, as amended by Amdt. 63-17, 40 FR 32830, Aug. 5, 1975; Doc. 63-21, 47 FR 13316, Mar. 29, 1982]</CITA>
          </SECTION>
          <SECTION>
            <SECTNO>§ 63.37</SECTNO>
            <SUBJECT>Aeronautical experience requirements.</SUBJECT>
            <P>(a) Except as otherwise specified therein, the flight time used to satisfy the aeronautical experience requirements of paragraph (b) of this section must have been obtained on an airplane—</P>
            <P>(1) On which a flight engineer is required by this chapter; or</P>
            <P>(2) That has at least three engines that are rated at least 800 horsepower each or the equivalent in turbine-powered engines.</P>
            <P>(b) An applicant for a flight engineer certificate with a class rating must present, for the class rating sought, satisfactory evidence of one of the following:</P>

            <P>(1) At least 3 years of diversified practical experience in aircraft and aircraft engine maintenance (of which at least 1 year was in maintaining multiengine aircraft with engines rated at least 800 horsepower each, or the equivalent in turbine engine powered aircraft), and at least 5 hours of flight training in the duties of a flight engineer.<PRTPAGE P="106"/>
            </P>
            <P>(2) Graduation from at least a 2-year specialized aeronautical training course in maintaining aircraft and aircraft engines (of which at least 6 calendar months were in maintaining multiengine aircraft with engines rated at least 800 horsepower each or the equivalent in turbine engine powered aircraft), and at least 5 hours of flight training in the duties of a flight engineer.</P>
            <P>(3) A degree in aeronautical, electrical, or mechanical engineering from a recognized college, university, or engineering school; at least 6 calendar months of practical experience in maintaining multiengine aircraft with engines rated at least 800 horsepower each, or the equivalent in turbine engine powered aircraft; and at least 5 hours of flight training in the duties of a flight engineer.</P>
            <P>(4) At least a commercial pilot certificate with an instrument rating and at least 5 hours of flight training in the duties of a flight engineer.</P>
            <P>(5) At least 200 hours of flight time in a transport category airplane (or in a military airplane with at least two engines and at least equivalent weight and horsepower) as pilot in command or second in command performing the functions of a pilot in command under the supervision of a pilot in command.</P>
            <P>(6) At least 100 hours of flight time as a flight engineer.</P>
            <P>(7) Within the 90-day period before he applies, successful completion of an approved flight engineer ground and flight course of instruction as provided in appendix C of this part.</P>
            <SECAUTH>(Sec. 6, 80 Stat. 937, 49 U.S.C. 1655)</SECAUTH>
            <CITA>[Doc. No. 6458, 30 FR 14559, Nov. 23, 1965, as amended by Amdt. 63-5, 31 FR 9047, July 1, 1966; Amdt. 63-17, 40 FR 32830, Aug. 5, 1975]</CITA>
          </SECTION>
          <SECTION>
            <SECTNO>§ 63.39</SECTNO>
            <SUBJECT>Skill requirements.</SUBJECT>
            <P>(a) An applicant for a flight engineer certificate with a class rating must pass a practical test on the duties of a flight engineer in the class of airplane for which a rating is sought. The test may only be given on an airplane specified in § 63.37(a).</P>
            <P>(b) The applicant must—</P>
            <P>(1) Show that he can satisfactorily perform preflight inspection, servicing, starting, pretakeoff, and postlanding procedures;</P>
            <P>(2) In flight, show that he can satisfactorily perform the normal duties and procedures relating to the airplane, airplane engines, propellers (if appropriate), systems, and appliances; and</P>
            <P>(3) In flight, in an airplane simulator, or in an approved flight engineer training device, show that he can satisfactorily perform emergency duties and procedures and recognize and take appropriate action for malfunctions of the airplane, engines, propellers (if appropriate), systems and appliances.</P>
          </SECTION>
          <SECTION>
            <SECTNO>§ 63.41</SECTNO>
            <SUBJECT>Retesting after failure.</SUBJECT>
            <P>An applicant for a flight engineer certificate who fails a written test or practical test for that certificate may apply for retesting—</P>
            <P>(a) After 30 days after the date he failed that test; or</P>
            <P>(b) After he has received additional practice or instruction (flight, synthetic trainer, or ground training, or any combination thereof) that is necessary, in the opinion of the Administrator or the applicant's instructor (if the Administrator has authorized him to determine the additional instruction necessary) to prepare the applicant for retesting.</P>
          </SECTION>
          <SECTION>
            <SECTNO>§ 63.42</SECTNO>
            <SUBJECT>Flight engineer certificate issued on basis of a foreign flight engineer license.</SUBJECT>
            <P>(a) <E T="03">Certificates issued.</E> The holder of a current foreign flight engineer license issued by a contracting State to the Convention on International Civil Aviation, who meets the requirements of this section, may have a flight engineer certificate issued to him for the operation of civil aircraft of U.S. registry. Each flight engineer certificate issued under this section specifies the number and State of issuance of the foreign flight engineer license on which it is based. If the holder of the certificate cannot read, speak, or understand the English language, the Administrator may place any limitation on the certificate that he considers necessary for safety.</P>
            <P>(b) <E T="03">Medical standards and certification.</E> An applicant must submit evidence that he currently meets the medical standards for the foreign flight engineer license on which the application <PRTPAGE P="107"/>for a certificate under this section is based. A current medical certificate issued under part 67 of this chapter will be excepted as evidence that the applicant meets those standards. However, a medical certificate issued under part 67 of this chapter is not evidence that the applicant meets those standards outside the United States unless the State that issued the applicant's foreign flight engineer license also accepts that medical certificate as evidence of the applicant's physical fitness for his foreign flight engineer license.</P>
            <P>(c) <E T="03">Ratings issued.</E> Aircraft class ratings listed on the applicant's foreign flight engineer license, in addition to any issued to him after testing under the provisions of this part, are placed on the applicant's flight engineer certificate. An applicant without an aircraft class rating on his foreign flight engineer license may be issued a class rating if he shows that he currently meets the requirements for exercising the privileges of his foreign flight engineer license on that class of aircraft.</P>
            <P>(d) <E T="03">Privileges and limitations.</E> The holder of a flight engineer certificate issued under this section may act as a flight engineer of a civil aircraft of U.S. registry subject to the limitations of this part and any additional limitations placed on his certificate by the Administrator. He is subject to these limitations while he is acting as a flight engineer of the aircraft within or outside the United States. However, he may not act as flight engineer or in any other capacity as a required flight crewmember, of a civil aircraft of U.S. registry that is carrying persons or property for compensation or hire.</P>
            <P>(e) <E T="03">Renewal of certificate and ratings.</E> The holder of a certificate issued under this section may have that certificate and the ratings placed thereon renewed if, at the time of application for renewal, the foreign flight engineer license on which that certificate is based is in effect. Application for the renewal of the certificate and ratings thereon must be made before the expiration of the certificate.</P>
            <SECAUTH>(Sec. 6, 80 Stat. 937, 49 U.S.C. 1655)</SECAUTH>
            <CITA>[Doc. No. 8846, 33 FR 18614, Dec. 17, 1968, as amended by Amdt. 63-20, 45 FR 5673, Jan. 24, 1980]</CITA>
          </SECTION>
          <SECTION>
            <SECTNO>§ 63.43</SECTNO>
            <SUBJECT>Flight engineer courses.</SUBJECT>
            <P>An applicant for approval of a flight engineer course must submit a letter to the Administrator requesting approval, and must also submit three copies of each course outline, a description of the facilities and equipment, and a list of the instructors and their qualifications. An air carrier or commercial operator with an approved flight engineer training course under part 121 of this chapter may apply for approval of a training course under this part by letter without submitting the additional information required by this paragraph. Minimum requirements for obtaining approval of a flight engineer course are set forth in appendix C of this part.</P>
          </SECTION>
        </SUBPART>
        <SUBPART>
          <HD SOURCE="HED">Subpart C—Flight Navigators</HD>
          <AUTH>
            <HD SOURCE="HED">Authority:</HD>
            <P>Secs. 313(a), 314, 601, and 607; 49 U.S.C. 1354(a), 1355, 1421, and 1427.</P>
          </AUTH>
          <SOURCE>
            <HD SOURCE="HED">Source:</HD>
            <P>Docket No. 1179, 27 FR 7970, Aug. 10, 1962, unless otherwise noted.</P>
          </SOURCE>
          <SECTION>
            <SECTNO>§ 63.51</SECTNO>
            <SUBJECT>Eligibility requirements; general.</SUBJECT>
            <P>To be eligible for a flight navigator certificate, a person must—</P>
            <P>(a) Be at least 21 years of age;</P>
            <P>(b) Be able to read, write, speak, and understand the English language;</P>
            <P>(c) Hold at least a second-class medical certificate issued under part 67 of this chapter within the 12 months before the date he applies; and</P>
            <P>(d) Comply with §§ 63.53, 63.55, and 63.57.</P>
          </SECTION>
          <SECTION>
            <SECTNO>§ 63.53</SECTNO>
            <SUBJECT>Knowledge requirements.</SUBJECT>
            <P>(a) An applicant for a flight navigator certificate must pass a written test on—</P>
            <P>(1) The regulations of this chapter that apply to the duties of a flight navigator;</P>
            <P>(2) The fundamentals of flight navigation, including flight planning and cruise control;</P>
            <P>(3) Practical meteorology, including analysis of weather maps, weather reports, and weather forecasts; and weather sequence abbreviations, symbols, and nomenclature;</P>

            <P>(4) The types of air navigation facilities and procedures in general use;<PRTPAGE P="108"/>
            </P>
            <P>(5) Calibrating and using air navigation instruments;</P>
            <P>(6) Navigation by dead reckoning;</P>
            <P>(7) Navigation by celestial means;</P>
            <P>(8) Navigation by radio aids;</P>
            <P>(9) Pilotage and map reading; and</P>
            <P>(10) Interpretation of navigation aid identification signals.</P>
            <P>(b) A report of the test is mailed to the applicant. A passing grade is evidence, for a period of 24 months after the test, that the applicant has complied with this section.</P>
            <CITA>[Doc. No. 1179, 27 FR 7970, Aug. 10 1962, as amended by Amdt. 63-19, 43 FR 22639, May 25, 1978]</CITA>
          </SECTION>
          <SECTION>
            <SECTNO>§ 63.55</SECTNO>
            <SUBJECT>Experience requirements.</SUBJECT>
            <P>(a) An applicant for a flight navigator certificate must be a graduate of a flight navigator course approved by the Administrator or present satisfactory documentary evidence of—</P>
            <P>(1) Satisfactory determination of his position in flight at least 25 times by night by celestial observations and at least 25 times by day by celestial observations in conjunction with other aids; and</P>
            <P>(2) At least 200 hours of satisfactory flight navigation including celestial and radio navigation and dead reckoning.</P>
            <FP>A pilot who has logged 500 hours of cross-country flight time, of which at least 100 hours were at night, may be credited with not more than 100 hours for the purposes of paragraph (a)(2) of this section.</FP>
            <P>(b) Flight time used exclusively for practicing long-range navigation methods, with emphasis on celestial navigation and dead reckoning, is considered to be satisfactory navigation experience for the purposes of paragraph (a) of this section. It must be substantiated by a logbook, by records of an armed force or a certificated air carrier, or by a letter signed by a certificated flight navigator and attached to the application.</P>
          </SECTION>
          <SECTION>
            <SECTNO>§ 63.57</SECTNO>
            <SUBJECT>Skill requirements.</SUBJECT>
            <P>(a) An applicant for a flight navigator certificate must pass a practical test in navigating aircraft by—</P>
            <P>(1) Dead reckoning;</P>
            <P>(2) Celestial means; and</P>
            <P>(3) Radio aids to navigation.</P>
            <P>(b) An applicant must pass the written test prescribed by § 63.53 before taking the test under this section. However, if a delay in taking the test under this section would inconven-ience the applicant or an air carrier, he may take it before he receives the result of the written test, or after he has failed the written test.</P>
            <P>(c) The test requirements for this section are set forth in appendix A of this part.</P>
            <CITA>[Doc. No. 1179, 27 FR 7970, Aug. 10, 1962, as amended by Amdt. 63-19, 43 FR 22639, May 25, 1978]</CITA>
          </SECTION>
          <SECTION>
            <SECTNO>§ 63.59</SECTNO>
            <SUBJECT>Retesting after failure.</SUBJECT>
            <P>(a) An applicant for a flight navigator certificate who fails a written or practical test for that certificate may apply for retesting—</P>
            <P>(1) After 30 days after the date he failed that test; or</P>
            <P>(2) Before the 30 days have expired if the applicant presents a signed statement from a certificated flight navigator, certificated ground instructor, or any other qualified person approved by the Administrator, certifying that that person has given the applicant additional instruction in each of the subjects failed and that person considers the applicant ready for retesting.</P>
            <P>(b) A statement from a certificated flight navigator, or from an operations official of an approved navigator course, is acceptable, for the purposes of paragraph (a)(2) of this section, for the written test and for the flight test. A statement from a person approved by the Administrator is acceptable for the written tests. A statement from a supervising or check navigator with the United States Armed Forces is acceptable for the written test and for the practical test.</P>
            <P>(c) If the applicant failed the flight test, the additional instruction must have been administered in flight.</P>
            <CITA>[Doc. No. 1179, 27 FR 7970, Aug. 10, 1962, as amended by Amdt. 63-19, 43 FR 22640, May 25, 1978]</CITA>
          </SECTION>
          <SECTION>
            <SECTNO>§ 63.61</SECTNO>
            <SUBJECT>Flight navigator courses.</SUBJECT>

            <P>An applicant for approval of a flight navigator course must submit a letter to the Administrator requesting approval, and must also submit three <PRTPAGE P="109"/>copies of the course outline, a description of his facilities and equipment, and a list of the instructors and their qualifications. Requirements for the course are set forth in appendix B to this part.</P>
          </SECTION>
          <APPENDIX>
            <EAR>Pt. 63, App. A</EAR>
            <HD SOURCE="HED">Appendix A to Part 63—Test Requirements for Flight Navigator Certificate</HD>
            <P>(a) <E T="03">Demonstration of skill.</E> An applicant will be required to pass practical tests on the prescribed subjects. These tests may be given by FAA inspectors and designated flight navigator examiners.</P>
            <P>(b) <E T="03">The examination.</E> The practical examination consists of a ground test and a flight test as itemized on the examination check sheet. Each item must be completed satisfactorily in order for the applicant to obtain a passing grade. Items 5, 6, 7 of the ground test may be completed orally, and items 17, 22, 23, 34, 36, 37, 38, and 39 of the flight test may be completed by an oral examination when a lack of ground facilities or navigation equipment makes such procedure necessary. In these cases a notation to that effect shall be made in the “Remarks” space on the check sheet.</P>
            <P>(c) <E T="03">Examination procedure.</E> (1) An applicant will provide an aircraft in which celestial observations can be taken in all directions. Minimum equipment shall include a table for plotting, a drift meter or absolute altimeter, an instrument for taking visual bearings, and a radio direction finder.</P>
            <P>(2) More than one flight may be used to complete the flight test and any type of flight pattern may be used. The test will be conducted chiefly over water whenever practicable, and without regard to radio range legs or radials. If the test is conducted chiefly over land, a chart should be used which shows very little or no topographical and aeronautical data. The total flight time will cover a period of at least four hours. Only one applicant may be examined at one time, and no applicant may perform other than navigator duties during the examination.</P>
            <P>(3) When the test is conducted with an aircraft belonging to an air carrier, the navigation procedures should conform with those set forth in the carrier's operations manual. Items of the flight test which are not performed during the routine navigation of the flight will be completed by oral examination after the flight or at times during flight which the applicant indicates may be used for tests on those items. Since in-flight weather conditions, the reliability of the weather forecast, and the stability of the aircraft will have considerable effect on an applicant's performance, good judgment must be used by the agent or examiner in evaluating the tests.</P>
            <P>(d) <E T="03">Ground test.</E> For the ground test, in the order of the numbered items on the examination check sheet, an applicant will be required to:</P>
            <P>(1) Identify without a star identifier, at least six navigational stars and all planets available for navigation at the time of the examination and explain the method of identification.</P>
            <P>(2) Identify two additional stars with a star identifier or sky diagrams and explain identification procedure.</P>
            <P>(3) Precompute a time-altitude curve for a period of about 20 minutes and take 10 single observations of a celestial body which is rising or setting rapidly. The intervals between observations should be at least one minute. Mark each observation on the graph to show accuracy. All observations, after corrections, shall plot within 8 minutes of arc from the time-altitude curve, and the average error shall not exceed 5 minutes of arc.</P>
            <P>(4) Take and plot one 3-star fix and 3 LOP's of the sun. Plotted fix or an average of LOP's must fall within 5 miles of the actual position of the observer.</P>
            <P>(5) Demonstrate or explain the compensation and swinging of a liquid-type magnetic compass.</P>
            <P>(6) Demonstrate or explain a method of aligning one type of drift meter.</P>
            <P>(7) Demonstrate or explain a method of aligning an astro-compass or periscopic sextant.</P>
            <P>(e) <E T="03">Flight test.</E> For the flight test, in the order of the numbered items on the examination check sheet, an applicant will be required to:</P>
            <P>(1) Demonstrate his ability to read weather symbols and interpret synoptic surface and upper air weather maps with particular emphasis being placed on winds.</P>
            <P>(2) Prepare a flight plan by zones from the forecast winds or pressure data of an upper air chart and the operator's data.</P>
            <P>(3) Compute from the operator's data the predicted fuel consumption for each zone of the flight, including the alternate.</P>
            <P>(4) Determine the point-of-no-return for the flight with all engines running and the equitime point with one engine inoperative. Graphical methods which are part of the company's operations manual may be used for these computations.</P>
            <P>(5) Prepare a cruise control (howgozit) chart from the operator's data.</P>
            <P>(6) Enter actual fuel consumed on the cruise control chart and interpret the variations of the actual curve from the predicted curve.</P>

            <P>(7) Check the presence on board and operating condition of all navigation equipment. Normally a check list will be used. This check will include a time tick or chronometer comparison. Any lack of thoroughness during this check will justify this item being graded unsatisfactory.<PRTPAGE P="110"/>
            </P>
            <P>(8) Locate emergency equipment, such as, the nearest fire extinguisher, life preserver, life rafts, exits, axe, first aid kits, etc.</P>
            <P>(9) Recite the navigator's duties and stations during emergencies for the type of aircraft used for the test.</P>
            <P>(10) Demonstrate the proper use of a flux gate compass or gyrosyn compass (when available), with special emphasis on the caging methods and the location of switches, circuit breakers, and fuses. If these compasses are not part of the aircraft's equipment, an oral examination will be given.</P>
            <P>(11) Be accurate and use good judgment when setting and altering headings. Erroneous application of variation, deviation, or drift correction, or incorrect measurement of course on the chart will be graded as unsatisfactory.</P>
            <P>(12) Demonstrate or explain the use of characteristics of various chart projections used in long-range air navigation, including the plotting of courses and bearings, and the measuring of distances.</P>
            <P>(13) Demonstrate ability to identify designated landmarks by the use of a sectional or WAC chart.</P>
            <P>(14) Use a computer with facility and accuracy for the computation of winds, drift correction and drift angles, ground speeds, ETA's, fuel loads, etc.</P>
            <P>(15) Determine track, ground speed, and wind by the double drift method. When a drift meter is not part of the aircraft's equipment, an oral examination on the use of the drift meter and a double drift problem shall be completed.</P>
            <P>(16) Determine ground speed and wind by the timing method with a drift meter. When a drift meter is not part of the aircraft's equipment, an oral examination on the procedure and a problem shall be completed.</P>
            <P>(17) Demonstrate the use of air plot for determining wind between fixes and for plotting pressure lines of position when using pressure and absolute altimeter comparisons.</P>
            <P>(18) Give ETA's to well defined check points at least once each hour after the second hour of flight. The average error shall not be more than 5 percent of the intervening time intervals, and the maximum error of any one ETA shall not be more than 10 percent.</P>
            <P>(19) Demonstrate knowledge and use of D/F equipment and radio facility information. Grading on this item will be based largely on the applicant's selection of those radio aids which will be of most value to his navigation, the manner with which he uses equipment, including filter box controls, and the precision with which he reads bearings. The aircraft's compass heading and all compass corrections must be considered for each bearing.</P>
            <P>(20) Use care in tuning to radio stations to insure maximum reception of signal and check for interference signals. Receiver will be checked to ascertain that antenna and BFO (Voice-CW) switches are in correct positions.</P>
            <P>(21) Identify at least three radio stations using International Morse code only for identification. The agent or examiner will tune in these stations so that the applicant will have no knowledge of the direction, distance, or frequency of the stations.</P>
            <P>(22) Take at least one radio bearing by manual use of the loop. The agent or examiner will check the applicant's bearing by taking a manual bearing on the same station immediately after the applicant.</P>
            <P>(23) Show the use of good judgment in evaluating radio bearings, and explain why certain bearings may be of doubtful value.</P>
            <P>(24) Determine and apply correctly the correction required to be made to radio bearings before plotting them on a Mercator chart, and demonstrate the ability to plot bearings accurately on charts of the Mercator and Lambert conformal projections.</P>
            <P>(25) Compute the compass heading, ETA, and fuel remaining if it is assumed that the flight would be diverted to an alternate airport at a time specified by the agent or examiner.</P>
            <P>(26) Check the counter scales of a Loran receiver for accuracy, and explain the basic (face) adjustments which affect tuning and counter alignment. A guide sheet may be used for this test.</P>
            <P>(27) Demonstrate a knowledge of the basic principle of Loran and the ability to tune a Loran receiver, to match signals, to read time differences, to plot Loran LOP's, and to identify and use sky waves.</P>
            <P>(28) Take and plot bearings from a consol station and explain the precautions which must be taken when tuning a radio receiver for consol signals. Also, discuss those conditions which affect the reliability of consol bearings.</P>
            <P>(29) Demonstrate the ability to properly operate and read an absolute altimeter.</P>
            <P>(30) Determine the “D” factors for a series of compared readings of an absolute altimeter and a pressure altimeter.</P>
            <P>(31) Determine drift angle or lateral displacement from the true headingline by application of Bellamy's formula or a variation thereof.</P>
            <P>(32) Interpret the altimeter comparison data with respect to the pressure system found at flight level. From this data evaluate the accuracy of the prognostic weather map used for flight planning and apply this analysis to the navigation of the flight.</P>

            <P>(33) Interpret single LOP's for most probable position, and show how a series of single LOP's of the same body may be used to indicate the probable track and ground speed. Also, show how a series of single LOP's (celestial or radio) from the same celestial body or radio station may be used to determine <PRTPAGE P="111"/>position when the change of azimuth or bearing is 30° or more between observations.</P>
            <P>(34) Select one of the celestial LOP's used during the flight and explain how to make a single line of position approach to a point selected by the agent or examiner, giving headings, times, and ETA's.</P>
            <P>(35) Demonstrate the proper use of an astro-compass or periscopic sextant for taking bearings.</P>
            <P>(36) Determine compass deviation as soon as possible after reaching cruising altitude and whenever there is a change of compass heading of 15° or more.</P>
            <P>(37) Take celestial fixes at hourly intervals when conditions permit. The accuracy of these fixes shall be checked by means of a Loran, radio, or visual fix whenever practicable. After allowing for the probable error of a Loran, radio, or visual fix, a celestial fix under favorable conditions should plot within 10 miles of the actual position.</P>
            <P>(38) Select celestial bodies for observation, when possible, whose azimuths will differ by approximately 120° for a 3-body fix and will differ by approximately 90° for a 2-body fix. The altitudes of the selected bodies should be between 25° and 75° whenever practicable.</P>
            <P>(39) Have POMAR and any other required reports ready for transmission at time of schedule, and be able to inform the pilot in command promptly with regard to the aircraft's position and progress in comparison with the flight plan.</P>
            <P>(40) Keep a log with sufficient legible entries to provide a record from which the flight could be retraced.</P>
            <P>(41) Note significant weather changes which might influence the drift or ground speed of the aircraft, such as, temperature, “D” factors, frontal conditions, turbulence, etc.</P>
            <P>(42) Determine the wind between fixes as a regular practice.</P>
            <P>(43) Estimate the time required and average ground speed during a letdown, under conditions specified by the pilot in command.</P>
            <P>(44) Work with sufficient speed to determine the aircraft's position hourly by celestial means and also make all other observations and records pertinent to the navigation. The applicant should be able to take the observation, compute, and plot a celestial LOP within a time limit of 8 minutes; take and plot a Loran LOP within a time limit of 3 minutes for ground waves and 4 minutes for sky waves; observe the absolute and pressure altimeters and compute the drift or lateral displacement within a time limit of 3 minutes.</P>
            <P>(45) Be accurate in reading instruments and making computations. Errors which are made and corrected without affecting the navigation will be disregarded unless they cause considerable loss of time.</P>
            <P>An uncorrected error in computation (including reading instruments and books) which will affect the reported position more than 25 miles, the heading more than 3°, or any ETA more than 15 minutes will cause this item to be graded unsatisfactory.</P>
            <P>(46) Be alert to changing weather or other conditions during flight which might affect the navigation. An applicant should not fail to take celestial observations just prior to encountering a broken or overcast sky condition; and he should not fail to take a bearing on a radio station, which operates at scheduled intervals and which would be a valuable aid to the navigation.</P>
            <P>(47) Show a logical choice and sequence in using the various navigation methods according to time and accuracy, and check the positions determined by one method against positions determined by other methods.</P>
            <P>(48) Use a logical sequence in performing the various duties of a navigator and plan work according to a schedule. The more important duties should not be neglected for others of less importance.</P>
          </APPENDIX>
          <APPENDIX>
            <EAR>Pt. 63, App. B</EAR>
            <HD SOURCE="HED">Appendix B to Part 63—Flight Navigator Training Course Requirements</HD>
            <P>(a) <E T="03">Training course outline</E>—(1) <E T="03">Format.</E> The ground course outline and the flight course outline shall be combined in one looseleaf binder and shall include a table of contents, divided into two parts—ground course and flight course. Each part of the table of contents must contain a list of the major subjects, together with hours allotted to each subject and the total classroom and flight hours.</P>
            <P>(2) <E T="03">Ground course outline.</E> (i) It is not mandatory that a course outline have the subject headings arranged exactly as listed in this paragraph. Any arrangement of general headings and subheadings will be satisfactory provided all the subject material listed here is included and the acceptable minimum number of hours is assigned to each subject. Each general subject shall be broken down into detail showing items to be covered.</P>
            <P>(ii) If any agency desires to include additional subjects in the ground training curriculum, such as international law, flight hygiene, or others which are not required, the hours allotted these additional subjects may not be included in the minimum classroom hours.</P>
            <P>(iii) The following subjects with classroom hours are considered the minimum coverage for a ground training course for flight navigators:</P>
            <GPOTABLE CDEF="s50,9" COLS="2" OPTS="L2">
              <BOXHD>
                <CHED H="1">Subject</CHED>
                <CHED H="1">Classroom hours</CHED>
              </BOXHD>
              <ROW>
                <ENT I="01">Federal Aviation Administration</ENT>
                <ENT>5</ENT>
              </ROW>
              <ROW>
                <PRTPAGE P="112"/>
                <ENT I="12">To include Parts 63, 91, and 121 of this chapter.</ENT>
              </ROW>
              <ROW>
                <ENT I="01">Meteorology</ENT>
                <ENT>40</ENT>
              </ROW>
              <ROW>
                <ENT I="12">To include:</ENT>
              </ROW>
              <ROW>
                <ENT I="13">Basic weather principles.</ENT>
              </ROW>
              <ROW>
                <ENT I="13">Temperature.</ENT>
              </ROW>
              <ROW>
                <ENT I="13">Pressure.</ENT>
              </ROW>
              <ROW>
                <ENT I="13">Winds.</ENT>
              </ROW>
              <ROW>
                <ENT I="13">Moisture in the atmosphere.</ENT>
              </ROW>
              <ROW>
                <ENT I="13">Stability.</ENT>
              </ROW>
              <ROW>
                <ENT I="13">Clouds.</ENT>
              </ROW>
              <ROW>
                <ENT I="13">Hazards.</ENT>
              </ROW>
              <ROW>
                <ENT I="13">Air masses.</ENT>
              </ROW>
              <ROW>
                <ENT I="13">Front weather.</ENT>
              </ROW>
              <ROW>
                <ENT I="13">Fog.</ENT>
              </ROW>
              <ROW>
                <ENT I="13">Thunderstorms.</ENT>
              </ROW>
              <ROW>
                <ENT I="13">Icing.</ENT>
              </ROW>
              <ROW>
                <ENT I="13">World weather and climate.</ENT>
              </ROW>
              <ROW>
                <ENT I="13">Weather maps and weather reports.</ENT>
              </ROW>
              <ROW>
                <ENT I="13">Forecasting.</ENT>
              </ROW>
              <ROW>
                <ENT I="11">International Morse code:</ENT>
              </ROW>
              <ROW>
                <ENT I="12">Ability to receive code groups of letters and numerals at a speed of eight words per minute</ENT>
              </ROW>
              <ROW>
                <ENT I="01">Navigation instruments (exclusive of radio and radar)</ENT>
                <ENT>20</ENT>
              </ROW>
              <ROW>
                <ENT I="12">To include:</ENT>
              </ROW>
              <ROW>
                <ENT I="13">Compasses.</ENT>
              </ROW>
              <ROW>
                <ENT I="13">Pressure altimeters.</ENT>
              </ROW>
              <ROW>
                <ENT I="13">Airspeed indicators.</ENT>
              </ROW>
              <ROW>
                <ENT I="13">Driftmeters.</ENT>
              </ROW>
              <ROW>
                <ENT I="13">Bearing indicators.</ENT>
              </ROW>
              <ROW>
                <ENT I="13">Aircraft octants.</ENT>
              </ROW>
              <ROW>
                <ENT I="13">Instrument calibration and alignment.</ENT>
              </ROW>
              <ROW>
                <ENT I="01">Charts and pilotage</ENT>
                <ENT>15</ENT>
              </ROW>
              <ROW>
                <ENT I="11">To include:</ENT>
              </ROW>
              <ROW>
                <ENT I="12">Chart projections.</ENT>
              </ROW>
              <ROW>
                <ENT I="12">Chart symbols.</ENT>
              </ROW>
              <ROW>
                <ENT I="12">Principles of pilotage.</ENT>
              </ROW>
              <ROW>
                <ENT I="01">Dead reckoning</ENT>
                <ENT>30</ENT>
              </ROW>
              <ROW>
                <ENT I="11">To include:</ENT>
              </ROW>
              <ROW>
                <ENT I="12">Air plot.</ENT>
              </ROW>
              <ROW>
                <ENT I="12">Ground plot.</ENT>
              </ROW>
              <ROW>
                <ENT I="12">Calculation of ETA.</ENT>
              </ROW>
              <ROW>
                <ENT I="12">Vector analysis.</ENT>
              </ROW>
              <ROW>
                <ENT I="12">Use of computer.</ENT>
              </ROW>
              <ROW>
                <ENT I="12">Search.</ENT>
              </ROW>
              <ROW>
                <ENT I="11">Absolute altimeter with:</ENT>
              </ROW>
              <ROW>
                <ENT I="01">Applications</ENT>
                <ENT>15</ENT>
              </ROW>
              <ROW>
                <ENT I="12">To include:</ENT>
              </ROW>
              <ROW>
                <ENT I="13">Principles of construction.</ENT>
              </ROW>
              <ROW>
                <ENT I="13">Operating instructions.</ENT>
              </ROW>
              <ROW>
                <ENT I="13">Use of Bellamy's formula.</ENT>
              </ROW>
              <ROW>
                <ENT I="13">Flight planning with single drift correction.</ENT>
              </ROW>
              <ROW>
                <ENT I="01">Radio and long-range navigational aids</ENT>
                <ENT>35</ENT>
              </ROW>
              <ROW>
                <ENT I="12">To include:</ENT>
              </ROW>
              <ROW>
                <ENT I="13">Principles of radio transmission and reception.</ENT>
              </ROW>
              <ROW>
                <ENT I="13">Radio aids to navigation.</ENT>
              </ROW>
              <ROW>
                <ENT I="13">Government publications.</ENT>
              </ROW>
              <ROW>
                <ENT I="13">Airborne D/F equipment.</ENT>
              </ROW>
              <ROW>
                <ENT I="13">Errors of radio bearings.</ENT>
              </ROW>
              <ROW>
                <ENT I="13">Quadrantal correction.</ENT>
              </ROW>
              <ROW>
                <ENT I="13">Plotting radio bearings.</ENT>
              </ROW>
              <ROW>
                <ENT I="13">ICAO Q code for direction finding.</ENT>
              </ROW>
              <ROW>
                <ENT I="13">Loran.</ENT>
              </ROW>
              <ROW>
                <ENT I="13">Consol.</ENT>
              </ROW>
              <ROW>
                <ENT I="01">Celestial navigation</ENT>
                <ENT>150</ENT>
              </ROW>
              <ROW>
                <ENT I="12">To include:</ENT>
              </ROW>
              <ROW>
                <ENT I="13">The solar system.</ENT>
              </ROW>
              <ROW>
                <ENT I="13">The celestial sphere.</ENT>
              </ROW>
              <ROW>
                <ENT I="13">The astronomical triangle.</ENT>
              </ROW>
              <ROW>
                <ENT I="13">Theory of lines of position.</ENT>
              </ROW>
              <ROW>
                <ENT I="13">Use of the Air Almanac.</ENT>
              </ROW>
              <ROW>
                <ENT I="13">Time and its applications.</ENT>
              </ROW>
              <ROW>
                <ENT I="13">Navigation tables.</ENT>
              </ROW>
              <ROW>
                <ENT I="13">Precomputation.</ENT>
              </ROW>
              <ROW>
                <ENT I="13">Celestial line of position approach.</ENT>
              </ROW>
              <ROW>
                <ENT I="13">Star identification.</ENT>
              </ROW>
              <ROW>
                <ENT I="13">Corrections to celestial observations.</ENT>
              </ROW>
              <ROW>
                <ENT I="01">Flight planning and cruise control</ENT>
                <ENT>25</ENT>
              </ROW>
              <ROW>
                <ENT I="12">To include:</ENT>
              </ROW>
              <ROW>
                <ENT I="13">The flight plan.</ENT>
              </ROW>
              <ROW>
                <ENT I="13">Fuel consumption charts.</ENT>
              </ROW>
              <ROW>
                <ENT I="13">Methods of cruise control.</ENT>
              </ROW>
              <ROW>
                <ENT I="13">Flight progress chart.</ENT>
              </ROW>
              <ROW>
                <ENT I="13">Point-of-no-return.</ENT>
              </ROW>
              <ROW>
                <ENT I="13">Equitime point.</ENT>
              </ROW>
              <ROW RUL="n,s">
                <ENT I="01">Long-range flight problems</ENT>
                <ENT>15</ENT>
              </ROW>
              <ROW>
                <ENT I="03">Total (exclusive of final examinations)</ENT>
                <ENT>350</ENT>
              </ROW>
            </GPOTABLE>
            <P>(3) <E T="03">Flight course outline.</E> (i) A minimum of 150 hours of supervised flight training shall be given, of which at least 50 hours of flight training must be given at night, and celestial navigation must be used during flights which total at least 125 hours.</P>
            <P>(ii) A maximum of 50 hours of the required flight training may be obtained in acceptable types of synthetic flight navigator training devices.</P>
            <P>(iii) Flights should be at least four hours in length and should be conducted off civil airways. Some training on long-range flights is desirable, but is not required. There is no limit to the number of students that may be trained on one flight, but at least one astrodrome or one periscopic sextant mounting must be provided for each group of four students.</P>
            <P>(iv) Training must be given in dead reckoning, pilotage, radio navigation, celestial navigation, and the use of the absolute altimeter.</P>
            <P>(b) <E T="03">Equipment.</E> (1) Classroom equipment shall include one table at least 24″ × 32″ in dimensions for each student.</P>

            <P>(2) Aircraft suitable for the flight training must be available to the approved course operator to insure that the flight training may be completed without undue delay.
            </P>
            <FP>The approved course operator may contract or obtain written agreements with aircraft operators for the use of suitable aircraft. A copy of the contract or written agreement with an aircraft operator shall be attached to each of the three copies of the course outline submitted for approval. In all cases, the approved course operator is responsible for the nature and quality of instruction given during flight.</FP>
            <P>(c) <E T="03">Instructors.</E> (1) Sufficient classroom instructors must be available to prevent an excessive ratio of students to instructors. Any <PRTPAGE P="113"/>ratio in excess of 20 to 1 will be considered unsatisfactory.</P>
            <P>(2) At least one ground instructor must hold a valid flight navigator certificate, and be utilized to coordinate instruction of ground school subjects.</P>
            <P>(3) Each instructor who conducts flight training must hold a valid flight navigator certificate.</P>
            <P>(d) <E T="03">Revision of training course.</E> (1) Requests for revisions to course outlines, facilities, and equipment shall follow procedures for original approval of the course. Revisions should be submitted in such form that an entire page or pages of the approved outline can be removed and replaced by the revisions.</P>
            <P>(2) The list of instructors may be revised at any time without request for approval, provided the minimum requirement of paragraph (e) of this section is maintained.</P>
            <P>(e) <E T="03">Credit for previous training and experience.</E> (1) Credit may be granted by an operator to students for previous training and experience which is provable and comparable to portions of the approved curriculum. When granting such credit, the approved course operator should be fully cognizant of the fact that he is responsible for the proficiency of his graduates in accordance with subdivision (i) of paragraph (3) of this section.</P>
            <P>(2) Where advanced credit is allowed, the operator shall evaluate the student's previous training and experience in accordance with the normal practices of accredited technical schools. Before credit is given for any ground school subject or portion thereof, the student must pass an appropriate examination given by the operator. The results of the examination, the basis for credit allowance, and the hours credited shall be incorporated as a part of the student's records.</P>
            <P>(3) Credit up to a maximum of 50 hours toward the flight training requirement may be given to pilots who have logged at least 500 hours while a member of a flight crew which required a certificated flight navigator or the Armed Forces equivalent. A similar credit may also be given to a licensed deck officer of the Maritime Service who has served as such for at least one year on ocean-going vessels. One-half of the flight time credited under the terms of this paragraph may be applied toward the 50 hours of flight training required at night.</P>
            <P>(f) <E T="03">Students records and reports.</E> Approval of a course shall not be continued in effect unless the course operator keeps an accurate record of each student, including a chronological log of all instruction, subjects covered and course examinations and grades, and unless he prepares and transmits to the local Flight Standards District Office not later than January 31 of each year, a report containing the following information for the previous calendar year:</P>
            <P>(1) The names of all students graduated, together with their school grades for ground and flight subjects.</P>
            <P>(2) The names of all students failed or dropped, together with their school grades and reasons for dropping.</P>
            <P>(g) <E T="03">Quality of instruction.</E> Approval of a course shall not be continued in effect unless at least 80 percent of the students who apply within 90 days after graduation are able to qualify on the first attempt for certification as flight navigators.</P>
            <P>(h) <E T="03">Statement of graduation.</E> Each student who successfully completes an approved flight navigator course shall be given a statement of graduation.</P>
            <P>(i) <E T="03">Inspections.</E> Approved course operations will be inspected by authorized representatives of the Administrator as often as deemed necessary to insure that instruction is maintained at the required standards, but the period between inspections shall not exceed 12 months.</P>
            <P>(j) <E T="03">Change of ownership, name, or location</E>—(1) <E T="03">Change of ownership.</E> Approval of a flight navigator course shall not be continued in effect after the course has changed ownership. The new owner must obtain a new approval by following the procedure prescribed for original approval.</P>
            <P>(2) <E T="03">Change in name.</E> An approved course changed in name but not changed in ownership shall remain valid if the change is reported by the approved course operator to the local Flight Standards District Office. A letter of approval under the new name will be issued by the regional office.</P>
            <P>(3) <E T="03">Change in location.</E> An approved course shall remain in effect even though the approved course operator changes location if the change is reported without delay by the operator to the local Flight Standards District Office, which will inspect the facilities to be used. If they are found to be adequate, a letter of approval showing the new location will be issued by the regional office.</P>
            <P>(k) <E T="03">Cancellation of approval.</E> (1) Failure to meet or maintain any of the requirements set forth in this section for the approval or operation of an approved flight navigator course shall be considered sufficient reason for cancellation of the approval.</P>
            <P>(2) If an operator should desire voluntary cancellation of his approved course, he should submit the effective letter of approval and a written request for cancellation to the Administrator through the local Flight Standards District Office.</P>
            <P>(l) <E T="03">Duration.</E> The authority to operate an approved flight navigator course shall expire 24 months after the last day of the month of issuance.</P>
            <P>(m) <E T="03">Renewal.</E> Application for renewal of authority to operate an approved flight navigator course may be made by letter to the local Flight Standards District Office at any time within 60 days before to the expiration <PRTPAGE P="114"/>date. Renewal of approval will depend upon the course operator meeting the current conditions for approval and having a satisfactory record as an operator.</P>
            <CITA>[Doc. No. 1179, 27 FR 7970, Aug. 10, 1962, as amended by Amdt. 63-6, 31 FR 9211, July 6, 1966; Amdt. 63-28, 54 FR 39291, Sept. 25, 1989]</CITA>
          </APPENDIX>
          <APPENDIX>
            <EAR>Pt. 63, App. C</EAR>
            <HD SOURCE="HED">Appendix C to Part 63—Flight Engineer Training Course Requirements</HD>
            <P>(a) <E T="03">Training course outline—</E>(1) <E T="03">Format.</E> The ground course outline and the flight course outline are independent. Each must be contained in a looseleaf binder to include a table of contents. If an applicant desires approval of both a ground school course and a flight school course, they must be combined in one looseleaf binder that includes a separate table of contents for each course. Separate course outlines are required for each type of airplane.</P>
            <P>(2) <E T="03">Ground course outline.</E> (i) It is not mandatory that the subject headings be arranged exactly as listed in this paragraph. Any arrangement of subjects is satisfactory if all the subject material listed here is included and at least the minimum programmed hours are assigned to each subject. Each general subject must be broken down into detail showing the items to be covered.</P>
            <P>(ii) If any course operator desires to include additional subjects in the ground course curriculum, such as international law, flight hygiene, or others that are not required, the hours allotted these additional subjects may not be included in the minimum programmed classroom hours.</P>
            <P>(iii) The following subjects and classroom hours are the minimum programmed coverage for the initial approval of a ground training course for flight engineers. Subsequent to initial approval of a ground training course an applicant may apply to the Administrator for a reduction in the programmed hours. Approval of a reduction in the approved programmed hours is based on improved training effectiveness due to improvements in methods, training aids, quality of instruction, or any combination thereof.</P>
            <GPOTABLE CDEF="s50,9" COLS="2" OPTS="L2">
              <BOXHD>
                <CHED H="1">Subject</CHED>
                <CHED H="1">Classroom hours</CHED>
              </BOXHD>
              <ROW>
                <ENT I="01">Federal Aviation Regulations</ENT>
                <ENT>10</ENT>
              </ROW>
              <ROW>
                <ENT I="12">To include the regulations of this chapter that apply to flight engineers</ENT>
              </ROW>
              <ROW>
                <ENT I="01">Theory of Flight and Aerodynamics</ENT>
                <ENT>10</ENT>
              </ROW>
              <ROW>
                <ENT I="01">Airplane Familiarization</ENT>
                <ENT>90</ENT>
              </ROW>
              <ROW>
                <ENT I="12">To include as appropriate:</ENT>
              </ROW>
              <ROW>
                <ENT I="13">Specifications.</ENT>
              </ROW>
              <ROW>
                <ENT I="13">Construction features.</ENT>
              </ROW>
              <ROW>
                <ENT I="13">Flight controls.</ENT>
              </ROW>
              <ROW>
                <ENT I="13">Hydraulic systems.</ENT>
              </ROW>
              <ROW>
                <ENT I="13">Pneumatic systems.</ENT>
              </ROW>
              <ROW>
                <ENT I="13">Electrical systems.</ENT>
              </ROW>
              <ROW>
                <ENT I="13">Anti-icing and de-icing systems.</ENT>
              </ROW>
              <ROW>
                <ENT I="13">Pressurization and air-conditioning systems.</ENT>
              </ROW>
              <ROW>
                <ENT I="13">Vacuum systems.</ENT>
              </ROW>
              <ROW>
                <ENT I="13">Pilot static systems.</ENT>
              </ROW>
              <ROW>
                <ENT I="13">Instrument systems.</ENT>
              </ROW>
              <ROW>
                <ENT I="13">Fuel and oil systems.</ENT>
              </ROW>
              <ROW>
                <ENT I="13">Emergency equipment.</ENT>
              </ROW>
              <ROW>
                <ENT I="01">Engine Familiarization</ENT>
                <ENT>45</ENT>
              </ROW>
              <ROW>
                <ENT I="12">To include as appropriate:</ENT>
              </ROW>
              <ROW>
                <ENT I="13">Specifications.</ENT>
              </ROW>
              <ROW>
                <ENT I="13">Construction features.</ENT>
              </ROW>
              <ROW>
                <ENT I="13">Lubrication.</ENT>
              </ROW>
              <ROW>
                <ENT I="13">Ignition.</ENT>
              </ROW>
              <ROW>
                <ENT I="13">Carburetor and induction, supercharging and fuel control systems</ENT>
              </ROW>
              <ROW>
                <ENT I="13">Accessories.</ENT>
              </ROW>
              <ROW>
                <ENT I="13">Propellers.</ENT>
              </ROW>
              <ROW>
                <ENT I="13">Instrumentation.</ENT>
              </ROW>
              <ROW>
                <ENT I="13">Emergency equipment.</ENT>
              </ROW>
              <ROW>
                <ENT I="01">Normal Operations (Ground and Flight)</ENT>
                <ENT>50</ENT>
              </ROW>
              <ROW>
                <ENT I="12">To include as appropriate:</ENT>
              </ROW>
              <ROW>
                <ENT I="13">Servicing methods and procedures.</ENT>
              </ROW>
              <ROW>
                <ENT I="13">Operation of all the airplane systems.</ENT>
              </ROW>
              <ROW>
                <ENT I="13">Operation of all the engine systems.</ENT>
              </ROW>
              <ROW>
                <ENT I="13">Loading and center of gravity computations.</ENT>
              </ROW>
              <ROW>
                <ENT I="13">Cruise control (normal, long range, maximum endurance)</ENT>
              </ROW>
              <ROW>
                <ENT I="13">Power and fuel computation.</ENT>
              </ROW>
              <ROW>
                <ENT I="13">Meteorology as applicable to engine operation</ENT>
              </ROW>
              <ROW>
                <ENT I="01">Emergency Operations</ENT>
                <ENT>80</ENT>
              </ROW>
              <ROW>
                <ENT I="12">To include as appropriate:</ENT>
              </ROW>
              <ROW>
                <ENT I="13">Landing gear, brakes, flaps, speed brakes, and leading edge devices</ENT>
              </ROW>
              <ROW>
                <ENT I="13">Pressurization and air-conditioning.</ENT>
              </ROW>
              <ROW>
                <ENT I="13">Portable fire extinguishers.</ENT>
              </ROW>
              <ROW>
                <ENT I="13">Fuselage fire and smoke control.</ENT>
              </ROW>
              <ROW>
                <ENT I="13">Loss of electrical power.</ENT>
              </ROW>
              <ROW>
                <ENT I="13">Engine fire control.</ENT>
              </ROW>
              <ROW>
                <ENT I="13">Engine shut-down and restart.</ENT>
              </ROW>
              <ROW RUL="n,s">
                <ENT I="13">Oxygen.</ENT>
              </ROW>
              <ROW>
                <ENT I="04">Total (exclusive of final tests)</ENT>
                <ENT>235</ENT>
              </ROW>
            </GPOTABLE>
            <P>The above subjects, except Theory of Flight and Aerodynamics, and Regulations must apply to the same type of airplane in which the student flight engineer is to receive flight training.</P>
            <P>(3) Flight Course Outline. (i) The flight training curriculum must include at least 10 hours of flight instruction in an airplane specified in § 63.37(a). The flight time required for the practical test may not be credited as part of the required flight instruction.</P>
            <P>(ii) All of the flight training must be given in the same type airplane.</P>

            <P>(iii) As appropriate to the airplane type, the following subjects must be taught in the flight training course:<PRTPAGE P="115"/>
            </P>
            <HD SOURCE="HD1">Subject</HD>
            <HD SOURCE="HD1">normal duties, procedures and operations</HD>
            <FP>To include as appropriate:</FP>
            <FP SOURCE="FP1-2">Airplane preflight.</FP>
            <FP SOURCE="FP1-2">Engine starting, power checks, pretakeoff, postlanding and shut-down procedures.</FP>
            <FP SOURCE="FP1-2">Power control.</FP>
            <FP SOURCE="FP1-2">Temperature control.</FP>
            <FP SOURCE="FP1-2">Engine operation analysis.</FP>
            <FP SOURCE="FP1-2">Operation of all systems.</FP>
            <FP SOURCE="FP1-2">Fuel management.</FP>
            <FP SOURCE="FP1-2">Logbook entries.</FP>
            <FP SOURCE="FP1-2">Pressurization and air conditioning.</FP>
            <HD SOURCE="HD1">recognition and correction of in-flight malfunctions</HD>
            <FP>To include:</FP>
            <FP SOURCE="FP1-2">Analysis of abnormal engine operation.</FP>
            <FP SOURCE="FP1-2">Analysis of abnormal operation of all systems.</FP>
            <FP SOURCE="FP1-2">Corrective action.</FP>
            <HD SOURCE="HD1">emergency operations in flight</HD>
            <FP>To include as appropriate:</FP>
            <FP SOURCE="FP1-2">Engine fire control.</FP>
            <FP SOURCE="FP1-2">Fuselage fire control.</FP>
            <FP SOURCE="FP1-2">Smoke control.</FP>
            <FP SOURCE="FP1-2">Loss of power or pressure in each system.</FP>
            <FP SOURCE="FP1-2">Engine overspeed.</FP>
            <FP SOURCE="FP1-2">Fuel dumping.</FP>
            <FP SOURCE="FP1-2">Landing gear, spoilers, speed brakes, and flap extension and retraction.</FP>
            <FP SOURCE="FP1-2">Engine shut-down and restart.</FP>
            <FP SOURCE="FP1-2">Use of oxygen.</FP>
            <P>(iv) If the Administrator finds a simulator or flight engineer training device to accurately reproduce the design, function, and control characteristics, as pertaining to the duties and responsibilities of a flight engineer on the type of airplane to be flown, the flight training time may be reduced by a ratio of 1 hour of flight time to 2 hours of airplane simulator time, or 3 hours of flight engineer training device time, as the case may be, subject to the following limitations:</P>
            <P>(<E T="03">a</E>) Except as provided in subdivision (<E T="03">b</E>) of this paragraph, the required flight instruction time in an airplane may not be less than 5 hours.</P>
            <P>(<E T="03">b</E>) As to a flight engineer student holding at least a commercial pilot certificate with an instrument rating, airplane simulator or a combination of airplane simulator and flight engineer training device time may be submitted for up to all 10 hours of the required flight instruction time in an airplane. However, not more than 15 hours of flight engineer training device time may be substituted for flight instruction time.</P>
            <P>(v) To obtain credit for flight training time, airplane simulator time, or flight engineer training device time, the student must occupy the flight engineer station and operate the controls.</P>
            <P>(b) <E T="03">Classroom equipment.</E> Classroom equipment should consist of systems and procedural training devices, satisfactory to the Administrator, that duplicate the operation of the systems of the airplane in which the student is to receive his flight training.</P>
            <P>(c) <E T="03">Contracts or agreements.</E> (1) An approved flight engineer course operator may contract with other persons to obtain suitable airplanes, airplane simulators, or other training devices or equipment.</P>
            <P>(2) An operator who is approved to conduct both the flight engineer ground course and the flight engineer flight course may contract with others to conduct one course or the other in its entirety but may not contract with others to conduct both courses for the same airplane type.</P>
            <P>(3) An operator who has approval to conduct a flight engineer ground course or flight course for a type of airplane, but not both courses, may not contract with another person to conduct that course in whole or in part.</P>
            <P>(4) An operator who contracts with another to conduct a flight engineer course may not authorize or permit the course to be conducted in whole or in part by a third person.</P>
            <P>(5) In all cases, the course operator who is approved to operate the course is responsible for the nature and quality of the instruction given.</P>
            <P>(6) A copy of each contract authorized under this paragraph must be attached to each of the 3 copies of the course outline submitted for approval.</P>
            <P>(d) <E T="03">Instructors.</E> (1) Only certificated flight engineers may give the flight instruction required by this appendix in an airplane, simulator, or flight engineer training device.</P>
            <P>(2) There must be a sufficient number of qualified instructors available to prevent an excess ratio of students to instructors.</P>
            <P>(e) <E T="03">Revisions.</E> (1) Requests for revisions of the course outlines, facilities or equipment must follow the procedures for original approval of the course. Revisions must be submitted in such form that an entire page or pages of the approved outline can be removed and replaced by the revisions.</P>
            <P>(2) The list of instructors may be revised at any time without request for approval, if the requirements of paragraph (d) of this appendix are maintained.</P>
            <P>(f) <E T="03">Ground school credits.</E> (1) Credit may be granted a student in the ground school course by the course operator for comparable previous training or experience that the student can show by written evidence: however, the course operator must still meet the quality of instruction as described in paragraph (h) of this appendix.</P>

            <P>(2) Before credit for previous training or experience may be given, the student must pass a test given by the course operator on the subject for which the credit is to be given. The course operator shall incorporate <PRTPAGE P="116"/>results of the test, the basis for credit allowance, and the hours credited as part of the student's records.</P>
            <P>(g) <E T="03">Records and reports.</E> (1) The course operator must maintain, for at least two years after a student graduates, fails, or drops from a course, a record of the student's training, including a chronological log of the subject course, attendance examinations, and grades.</P>
            <P>(2) Except as provided in paragraph (3) of this section, the course operator must submit to the Administrator, not later than January 31 of each year, a report for the previous calendar year's training, to include:</P>
            <P>(i) Name, enrollment and graduation date of each student;</P>
            <P>(ii) Ground school hours and grades of each student;</P>
            <P>(iii) Flight, airplane simulator, flight engineer training device hours, and grades of each student; and</P>
            <P>(iv) Names of students failed or dropped, together with their school grades and reasons for dropping.</P>
            <P>(3) Upon request, the Administrator may waive the reporting requirements of paragraph (2) of this section for an approved flight engineer course that is part of an approved training course under subpart N of part 121 of this chapter.</P>
            <P>(h) <E T="03">Quality of instruction.</E> (1) Approval of a ground course is discontinued whenever less than 80 percent of the students pass the FAA written test on the first attempt.</P>
            <P>(2) Approval of a flight course is discontinued whenever less than 80 percent of the students pass the FAA practical test on the first attempt.</P>
            <P>(3) Notwithstanding paragraphs (1) and (2) of this section, approval of a ground or flight course may be continued when the Administrator finds—</P>
            <P>(i) That the failure rate was based on less than a representative number of students; or</P>
            <P>(ii) That the course operator has taken satisfactory means to improve the effectiveness of the training.</P>
            <P>(i) <E T="03">Time limitation.</E> Each student must apply for the written test and the flight test within 90 days after completing the ground school course.</P>
            <P>(j) <E T="03">Statement of course completion.</E> (1) The course operator shall give to each student who successfully completes an approved flight engineer ground school training course, and passes the FAA written test, a statement of successful completion of the course that indicates the date of training, the type of airplane on which the ground course training was based, and the number of hours received in the ground school course.</P>
            <P>(2) The course operator shall give each student who successfully completes an approved flight engineer flight course, and passed the FAA practical test, a statement of successful completion of the flight course that indicates the dates of the training, the type of airplane used in the flight course, and the number of hours received in the flight course.</P>
            <P>(3) A course operator who is approved to conduct both the ground course and the flight course may include both courses in a single statement of course completion if the provisions of paragraphs (1) and (2) of this section are included.</P>
            <P>(4) The requirements of this paragraph do not apply to an air carrier or commercial operator with an approved training course under part 121 of this chapter providing the student receives a flight engineer certificate upon completion of that course.</P>
            <P>(k) <E T="03">Inspections.</E> Each course operator shall allow the Administrator at any time or place, to make any inspection necessary to ensure that the quality and effectiveness of the instruction are maintained at the required standards.</P>
            <P>(l) <E T="03">Change of ownership, name, or location.</E> (1) Approval of a flight engineer ground course or flight course is discontinued if the ownership of the course changes. The new owner must obtain a new approval by following the procedure prescribed for original approval.</P>
            <P>(2) Approval of a flight engineer ground course or flight course does not terminate upon a change in the name of the course that is reported to the Administrator within 30 days. The Administrator issues a new letter of approval, using the new name, upon receipt of notice within that time.</P>
            <P>(3) Approval of a flight engineer ground course or flight course does not terminate upon a change in location of the course that is reported to the Administrator within 30 days. The Administrator issues a new letter of approval, showing the new location, upon receipt of notice within that time, if he finds the new facilities to be adequate.</P>
            <P>(m) <E T="03">Cancellation of approval.</E> (1) Failure to meet or maintain any of the requirements of this appendix for the approval of a flight engineer ground course or flight course is reason for cancellation of the approval.</P>
            <P>(2) If a course operator desires to voluntarily terminate the course, he should notify the Administrator in writing and return the last letter of approval.</P>
            <P>(n) <E T="03">Duration.</E> Except for a course operated as part of an approved training course under subpart N of part 121 of this chapter, the approval to operate a flight engineer ground course or flight course terminates 24 months after the last day of the month of issue.</P>
            <P>(o) <E T="03">Renewal.</E> (1) Renewal of approval to operate a flight engineer ground course or flight course is conditioned upon the course operator's meeting the requirements of this appendix.</P>

            <P>(2) Application for renewal may be made to the Administrator at any time after 60 days before the termination date.<PRTPAGE P="117"/>
            </P>
            <P>(p) <E T="03">Course operator approvals.</E> An applicant for approval of a flight engineer ground course, or flight course, or both, must meet all of the requirements of this appendix concerning application, approval, and continuing approval of that course or courses.</P>
            <P>(q) <E T="03">Practical test eligibility.</E> An applicant for a flight engineer certificate and class rating under the provisions of § 63.37(b)(6) is not eligible to take the practical test unless he has successfully completed an approved flight engineer ground school course in the same type of airplane for which he has completed an approved flight engineer flight course.</P>
            <CITA>[Doc. No. 6458, 30 FR 14560, Nov. 23, 1965, as amended by Amdt. 63-15, 37 FR 9758, May 17, 1972]</CITA>
          </APPENDIX>
        </SUBPART>
      </PART>
      <PART>
        <EAR>Pt. 65</EAR>
        <HD SOURCE="HED">PART 65—CERTIFICATION: AIRMEN OTHER THAN FLIGHT CREWMEMBERS</HD>
        <CONTENTS>
          <APP>Special Federal Aviation Regulation No. 58 [Note]</APP>
          <APP>Special Federal Aviation Regulation No. 100 [Note]</APP>
          <SUBPART>
            <HD SOURCE="HED">Subpart A—General</HD>
            <SECHD>Sec.</SECHD>
            <SECTNO>65.1</SECTNO>
            <SUBJECT>Applicability.</SUBJECT>
            <SECTNO>65.3</SECTNO>
            <SUBJECT>Certification of foreign airmen other than flight crewmembers.</SUBJECT>
            <SECTNO>65.11</SECTNO>
            <SUBJECT>Application and issue.</SUBJECT>
            <SECTNO>65.12</SECTNO>
            <SUBJECT>Offenses involving alcohol or drugs.</SUBJECT>
            <SECTNO>65.13</SECTNO>
            <SUBJECT>Temporary certificate.</SUBJECT>
            <SECTNO>65.14</SECTNO>
            <SUBJECT>Security disqualification.</SUBJECT>
            <SECTNO>65.15</SECTNO>
            <SUBJECT>Duration of certificates.</SUBJECT>
            <SECTNO>65.16</SECTNO>
            <SUBJECT>Change of name: Replacement of lost or destroyed certificate.</SUBJECT>
            <SECTNO>65.17</SECTNO>
            <SUBJECT>Tests: General procedure.</SUBJECT>
            <SECTNO>65.18</SECTNO>
            <SUBJECT>Written tests: Cheating or other unauthorized conduct.</SUBJECT>
            <SECTNO>65.19</SECTNO>
            <SUBJECT>Retesting after failure.</SUBJECT>
            <SECTNO>65.20</SECTNO>
            <SUBJECT>Applications, certificates, logbooks, reports, and records: Falsification reproduction, or alteration.</SUBJECT>
            <SECTNO>65.21</SECTNO>
            <SUBJECT>Change of address.</SUBJECT>
            <SECTNO>65.23</SECTNO>
            <SUBJECT>Refusal to submit to a drug or alcohol test.</SUBJECT>
          </SUBPART>
          <SUBPART>
            <HD SOURCE="HED">Subpart B—Air Traffic Control Tower Operators</HD>
            <SECTNO>65.31</SECTNO>
            <SUBJECT>Required certificates, and rating or qualification.</SUBJECT>
            <SECTNO>65.33</SECTNO>
            <SUBJECT>Eligibility requirements: General.</SUBJECT>
            <SECTNO>65.35</SECTNO>
            <SUBJECT>Knowledge requirements.</SUBJECT>
            <SECTNO>65.37</SECTNO>
            <SUBJECT>Skill requirements: Operating positions.</SUBJECT>
            <SECTNO>65.39</SECTNO>
            <SUBJECT>Practical experience requirements: Facility rating.</SUBJECT>
            <SECTNO>65.41</SECTNO>
            <SUBJECT>Skill requirements: Facility ratings.</SUBJECT>
            <SECTNO>65.43</SECTNO>
            <SUBJECT>Rating privileges and exchange.</SUBJECT>
            <SECTNO>65.45</SECTNO>
            <SUBJECT>Performance of duties.</SUBJECT>
            <SECTNO>65.46</SECTNO>
            <SUBJECT>Use of prohibited drugs.</SUBJECT>
            <SECTNO>65.46a</SECTNO>
            <SUBJECT>Misuse of alcohol.</SUBJECT>
            <SECTNO>65.46b</SECTNO>
            <SUBJECT>Testing for alcohol.</SUBJECT>
            <SECTNO>65.47</SECTNO>
            <SUBJECT>Maximum hours.</SUBJECT>
            <SECTNO>65.49</SECTNO>
            <SUBJECT>General operating rules.</SUBJECT>
            <SECTNO>65.50</SECTNO>
            <SUBJECT>Currency requirements.</SUBJECT>
          </SUBPART>
          <SUBPART>
            <HD SOURCE="HED">Subpart C—Aircraft Dispatchers</HD>
            <SECTNO>65.51</SECTNO>
            <SUBJECT>Certificate required.</SUBJECT>
            <SECTNO>65.53</SECTNO>
            <SUBJECT>Eligibility requirements: General.</SUBJECT>
            <SECTNO>65.55</SECTNO>
            <SUBJECT>Knowledge requirements.</SUBJECT>
            <SECTNO>65.57</SECTNO>
            <SUBJECT>Experience or training requirements.</SUBJECT>
            <SECTNO>65.59</SECTNO>
            <SUBJECT>Skill requirements.</SUBJECT>
            <SECTNO>65.61</SECTNO>
            <SUBJECT>Aircraft dispatcher certification courses: Content and minimum hours.</SUBJECT>
            <SECTNO>65.63</SECTNO>
            <SUBJECT>Aircraft dispatcher certification courses: Application, duration, and other general requirements.</SUBJECT>
            <SECTNO>65.65</SECTNO>
            <SUBJECT>Aircraft dispatcher certification courses: Training facilities.</SUBJECT>
            <SECTNO>65.67</SECTNO>
            <SUBJECT>Aircraft dispatcher certification courses: Personnel.</SUBJECT>
            <SECTNO>65.70</SECTNO>
            <SUBJECT>Aircraft dispatcher certification courses: Records.</SUBJECT>
          </SUBPART>
          <SUBPART>
            <HD SOURCE="HED">Subpart D—Mechanics</HD>
            <SECTNO>65.71</SECTNO>
            <SUBJECT>Eligibility requirements: General.</SUBJECT>
            <SECTNO>65.73</SECTNO>
            <SUBJECT>Ratings.</SUBJECT>
            <SECTNO>65.75</SECTNO>
            <SUBJECT>Knowledge requirements.</SUBJECT>
            <SECTNO>65.77</SECTNO>
            <SUBJECT>Experience requirements.</SUBJECT>
            <SECTNO>65.79</SECTNO>
            <SUBJECT>Skill requirements.</SUBJECT>
            <SECTNO>65.80</SECTNO>
            <SUBJECT>Certificated aviation maintenance technician school students.</SUBJECT>
            <SECTNO>65.81</SECTNO>
            <SUBJECT>General privileges and limitations.</SUBJECT>
            <SECTNO>65.83</SECTNO>
            <SUBJECT>Recent experience requirements.</SUBJECT>
            <SECTNO>65.85</SECTNO>
            <SUBJECT>Airframe rating; additional privileges.</SUBJECT>
            <SECTNO>65.87</SECTNO>
            <SUBJECT>Powerplant rating; additional privileges.</SUBJECT>
            <SECTNO>65.89</SECTNO>
            <SUBJECT>Display of certificate.</SUBJECT>
            <SECTNO>65.91</SECTNO>
            <SUBJECT>Inspection authorization.</SUBJECT>
            <SECTNO>65.92</SECTNO>
            <SUBJECT>Inspection authorization: Duration.</SUBJECT>
            <SECTNO>65.93</SECTNO>
            <SUBJECT>Inspection authorization: Renewal.</SUBJECT>
            <SECTNO>65.95</SECTNO>
            <SUBJECT>Inspection authorization: Privileges and limitations.</SUBJECT>
          </SUBPART>
          <SUBPART>
            <HD SOURCE="HED">Subpart E—Repairmen</HD>
            <SECTNO>65.101</SECTNO>
            <SUBJECT>Eligibility requirements: General.</SUBJECT>
            <SECTNO>65.103</SECTNO>
            <SUBJECT>Repairman certificate: Privileges and limitations.</SUBJECT>
            <SECTNO>65.104</SECTNO>
            <SUBJECT>Repairman certificate—experimental aircraft builder—Eligibility, privileges and limitations.</SUBJECT>
            <SECTNO>65.105</SECTNO>
            <SUBJECT>Display of certificate.</SUBJECT>
          </SUBPART>
          <SUBPART>
            <HD SOURCE="HED">Subpart F—Parachute Riggers</HD>
            <SECTNO>65.111</SECTNO>
            <SUBJECT>Certificate required.</SUBJECT>
            <SECTNO>65.113</SECTNO>
            <SUBJECT>Eligibility requirements: General.</SUBJECT>
            <SECTNO>65.115</SECTNO>
            <SUBJECT>Senior parachute rigger certificate: Experience, knowledge, and skill requirements.</SUBJECT>
            <SECTNO>65.117</SECTNO>

            <SUBJECT>Military riggers or former military riggers: Special certification rule.<PRTPAGE P="118"/>
            </SUBJECT>
            <SECTNO>65.119</SECTNO>
            <SUBJECT>Master parachute rigger certificate: Experience, knowledge, and skill requirements.</SUBJECT>
            <SECTNO>65.121</SECTNO>
            <SUBJECT>Type ratings.</SUBJECT>
            <SECTNO>65.123</SECTNO>
            <SUBJECT>Additional type ratings: Requirements.</SUBJECT>
            <SECTNO>65.125</SECTNO>
            <SUBJECT>Certificates: Privileges.</SUBJECT>
            <SECTNO>65.127</SECTNO>
            <SUBJECT>Facilities and equipment.</SUBJECT>
            <SECTNO>65.129</SECTNO>
            <SUBJECT>Performance standards.</SUBJECT>
            <SECTNO>65.131</SECTNO>
            <SUBJECT>Records.</SUBJECT>
            <SECTNO>65.133</SECTNO>
            <SUBJECT>Seal.</SUBJECT>
            <APP>Appendix A to Part 65—Aircraft Dispatcher Courses</APP>
          </SUBPART>
        </CONTENTS>
        <AUTH>
          <HD SOURCE="HED">Authority:</HD>
          <P>49 U.S.C. 106(g), 40113, 44701-44703, 44707, 44709-44711, 45102-45103, 45301-45302.</P>
        </AUTH>
        <SOURCE>
          <HD SOURCE="HED">Source:</HD>
          <P>Docket No. 1179, 27 FR 7973, Aug. 10, 1962, unless otherwise noted.</P>
        </SOURCE>
        <APPENDIX>
          <HD SOURCE="HED">Special Federal Aviation Regulation No. 58</HD>
          <EDNOTE>
            <HD SOURCE="HED">Editorial Note:</HD>
            <P>For the text of SFAR No. 58, see part 121 of this chapter.</P>
          </EDNOTE>
        </APPENDIX>
        <APPENDIX>
          <HD SOURCE="HED">Special Federal Aviation Regulation No. 100</HD>
          <EDNOTE>
            <HD SOURCE="HED">Editorial Note:</HD>
            <P>For the text of SFAR No. 100, see part 61 of this chapter.</P>
          </EDNOTE>
          <EFFDNOT>
            <HD SOURCE="HED">Effective Date Note:</HD>
            <P>By Doc. No. FAA-2003-15431, 68 FR 36906, June 20, 2003, SFAR 100 was added, effective June 20, 2003, through June 20, 2005.</P>
          </EFFDNOT>
        </APPENDIX>
        <SUBPART>
          <HD SOURCE="HED">Subpart A—General</HD>
          <SECTION>
            <SECTNO>§ 65.1</SECTNO>
            <SUBJECT>Applicability.</SUBJECT>
            <P>This part prescribes the requirements for issuing the following certificates and associated ratings and the general operating rules for the holders of those certificates and ratings:</P>
            <P>(a) Air-traffic control-tower operators.</P>
            <P>(b) Aircraft dispatchers.</P>
            <P>(c) Mechanics.</P>
            <P>(d) Repairmen.</P>
            <P>(e) Parachute riggers.</P>
          </SECTION>
          <SECTION>
            <SECTNO>§ 65.3</SECTNO>
            <SUBJECT>Certification of foreign airmen other than flight crewmembers.</SUBJECT>
            <P>A person who is neither a U.S. citizen nor a resident alien is issued a certificate under subpart D of this part, outside the United States, only when the Administrator finds that the certificate is needed for the operation or continued airworthiness of a U.S.-registered civil aircraft.</P>
            <CITA>[Doc. 65-28, 47 FR 35693, Aug. 16, 1982]</CITA>
          </SECTION>
          <SECTION>
            <SECTNO>§ 65.11</SECTNO>
            <SUBJECT>Application and issue.</SUBJECT>
            <P>(a) Application for a certificate and appropriate class rating, or for an additional rating, under this part must be made on a form and in a manner prescribed by the Administrator. Each person who is neither a U.S. citizen nor a resident alien and who applies for a written or practical test to be administered outside the United States or for any certificate or rating issued under this part must show evidence that the fee prescribed in appendix A of part 187 of this chapter has been paid.</P>
            <P>(b) An applicant who meets the requirements of this part is entitled to an appropriate certificate and rating.</P>
            <P>(c) Unless authorized by the Administrator, a person whose air traffic control tower operator, mechanic, or parachute rigger certificate is suspended may not apply for any rating to be added to that certificate during the period of suspension.</P>
            <P>(d) Unless the order of revocation provides otherwise—</P>
            <P>(1) A person whose air traffic control tower operator, aircraft dispatcher, or parachute rigger certificate is revoked may not apply for the same kind of certificate for 1 year after the date of revocation; and</P>
            <P>(2) A person whose mechanic or repairman certificate is revoked may not apply for either of those kinds of certificates for 1 year after the date of revocation.</P>
            <CITA>[Doc. No. 1179, 27 FR 7973, Aug. 10, 1962, as amended by Amdt. 65-9, 31 FR 13524, Oct. 20, 1966; Amdt. 65-28, 47 FR 35693, Aug. 16, 1982]</CITA>
          </SECTION>
          <SECTION>
            <SECTNO>§ 65.12</SECTNO>
            <SUBJECT>Offenses involving alcohol or drugs.</SUBJECT>
            <P>(a) A conviction for the violation of any Federal or state statute relating to the growing, processing, manufacture, sale, disposition, possession, transportation, or importation of narcotic drugs, marihuana, or depressant or stimulant drugs or substances is grounds for—</P>

            <P>(1) Denial of an application for any certificate or rating issued under this <PRTPAGE P="119"/>part for a period of up to 1 year after the date of final conviction; or</P>
            <P>(2) Suspension or revocation of any certificate or rating issued under this part.</P>
            <P>(b) The commission of an act prohibited by § 91.19(a) of this chapter is grounds for—</P>
            <P>(1) Denial of an application for a certificate or rating issued under this part for a period of up to 1 year after the date of that act; or</P>
            <P>(2) Suspension or revocation of any certificate or rating issued under this part.</P>
            <CITA>[Doc. No. 21956, 50 FR 15379, Apr. 17, 1985, as amended by Amdt. 65-34, 54 FR 34330, Aug. 18, 1989]</CITA>
          </SECTION>
          <SECTION>
            <SECTNO>§ 65.13</SECTNO>
            <SUBJECT>Temporary certificate.</SUBJECT>
            <P>A certificate and ratings effective for a period of not more than 120 days may be issued to a qualified applicant, pending review of his application and supplementary documents and the issue of the certificate and ratings for which he applied.</P>
            <CITA>[Doc. No. 1179, 27 FR 7973, Aug. 10, 1962, as amended by Amdt. 65-23, 43 FR 22640, May 25, 1978]</CITA>
          </SECTION>
          <SECTION>
            <SECTNO>§ 65.14</SECTNO>
            <SUBJECT>Security disqualification.</SUBJECT>
            <P>(a) <E T="03">Eligibility standard.</E> No person is eligible to hold a certificate, rating, or authorization issued under this part when the Transportation Security Administration (TSA) has notified the FAA in writing that the person poses a security threat.</P>
            <P>(b) <E T="03">Effect of the issuance by the TSA of an Initial Notification of Threat Assessment.</E> (1) The FAA will hold in abeyance pending the outcome of the TSA's final threat assessment review an application for any certificate, rating, or authorization under this part by any person who has been issued an Initial Notification of Threat Assessment by the TSA.</P>
            <P>(2) The FAA will suspend any certificate, rating, or authorization issued under this part after the TSA issues to the holder an Initial Notification of Threat Assessment.</P>
            <P>(c) <E T="03">Effect of the issuance by the TSA of a Final Notification of Threat Assessment.</E> (1) The FAA will deny an application for any certificate, rating, or authorization under this part to any person who has been issued a Final Notification of Threat Assessment.</P>
            <P>(2) The FAA will revoke any certificate, rating, or authorization issued under this part after the TSA has issued to the holder a Final Notification of Threat Assessment.</P>
            <CITA>[Doc. No. FAA-2003-14293, 68 FR 3775, Jan. 24, 2003]</CITA>
          </SECTION>
          <SECTION>
            <SECTNO>§ 65.15</SECTNO>
            <SUBJECT>Duration of certificates.</SUBJECT>
            <P>(a) Except for repairman certificates, a certificate or rating issued under this part is effective until it is surrendered, suspended, or revoked.</P>
            <P>(b) Unless it is sooner surrendered, suspended, or revoked, a repairman certificate is effective until the holder is relieved from the duties for which the holder was employed and certificated.</P>
            <P>(c) The holder of a certificate issued under this part that is suspended, revoked, or no longer effective shall return it to the Administrator.</P>
            <CITA>[Doc. No. 22052, 47 FR 35693, Aug. 16, 1982]</CITA>
          </SECTION>
          <SECTION>
            <SECTNO>§ 65.16</SECTNO>
            <SUBJECT>Change of name: Replacement of lost or destroyed certificate.</SUBJECT>
            <P>(a) An application for a change of name on a certificate issued under this part must be accompanied by the applicant's current certificate and the marriage license, court order, or other document verifying the change. The documents are returned to the applicant after inspection.</P>
            <P>(b) An application for a replacement of a lost or destroyed certificate is made by letter to the Department of Transportation, Federal Aviation Administration, Airman Certification Branch, Post Office Box 25082, Oklahoma City, OK 73125. The letter must—</P>
            <P>(1) Contain the name in which the certificate was issued, the permanent mailing address (including zip code), social security number (if any), and date and place of birth of the certificate holder, and any available information regarding the grade, number, and date of issue of the certificate, and the ratings on it; and</P>

            <P>(2) Be accompanied by a check or money order for $2, payable to the Federal Aviation Administration.<PRTPAGE P="120"/>
            </P>
            <P>(c) An application for a replacement of a lost or destroyed medical certificate is made by letter to the Department of Transportation, Federal Aviation Administration, Civil Aeromedical Institute, Aeromedical Certification Branch, Post Office Box 25082, Oklahoma City, OK 73125, accompanied by a check or money order for $2.00.</P>
            <P>(d) A person whose certificate issued under this part or medical certificate, or both, has been lost may obtain a telegram from the FAA confirming that it was issued. The telegram may be carried as a certificate for a period not to exceed 60 days pending his receiving a duplicate certificate under paragraph (b) or (c) of this section, unless he has been notified that the certificate has been suspended or revoked. The request for such a telegram may be made by prepaid telegram, stating the date upon which a duplicate certificate was requested, or including the request for a duplicate and a money order for the necessary amount. The request for a telegraphic certificate should be sent to the office prescribed in paragraph (b) or (c) of this section, as appropriate. However, a request for both at the same time should be sent to the office prescribed in paragraph (b) of this section.</P>
            <CITA>[Doc. No. 7258, 31 FR 13524, Oct. 20, 1966, as amended by Doc. No. 8084, 32 FR 5769, Apr. 11, 1967; Amdt. 65-16, 35 FR 14075, Sept. 4, 1970; Amdt. 65-17, 36 FR 2865, Feb. 11, 1971]</CITA>
          </SECTION>
          <SECTION>
            <SECTNO>§ 65.17</SECTNO>
            <SUBJECT>Tests: General procedure.</SUBJECT>
            <P>(a) Tests prescribed by or under this part are given at times and places, and by persons, designated by the Administrator.</P>
            <P>(b) The minimum passing grade for each test is 70 percent.</P>
          </SECTION>
          <SECTION>
            <SECTNO>§ 65.18</SECTNO>
            <SUBJECT>Written tests: Cheating or other unauthorized conduct.</SUBJECT>
            <P>(a) Except as authorized by the Administrator, no person may—</P>
            <P>(1) Copy, or intentionally remove, a written test under this part;</P>
            <P>(2) Give to another, or receive from another, any part or copy of that test;</P>
            <P>(3) Give help on that test to, or receive help on that test from, any person during the period that test is being given;</P>
            <P>(4) Take any part of that test in behalf of another person;</P>
            <P>(5) Use any material or aid during the period that test is being given; or</P>
            <P>(6) Intentionally cause, assist, or participate in any act prohibited by this paragraph.</P>
            <P>(b) No person who commits an act prohibited by paragraph (a) of this section is eligible for any airman or ground instructor certificate or rating under this chapter for a period of 1 year after the date of that act. In addition, the commission of that act is a basis for suspending or revoking any airman or ground instructor certificate or rating held by that person.</P>
            <CITA>[Doc. No. 4086, 30 FR 2196, Feb. 18, 1965]</CITA>
          </SECTION>
          <SECTION>
            <SECTNO>§ 65.19</SECTNO>
            <SUBJECT>Retesting after failure.</SUBJECT>
            <P>An applicant for a written, oral, or practical test for a certificate and rating, or for an additional rating under this part, may apply for retesting—</P>
            <P>(a) After 30 days after the date the applicant failed the test; or</P>
            <P>(b) Before the 30 days have expired if the applicant presents a signed statement from an airman holding the certificate and rating sought by the applicant, certifying that the airman has given the applicant additional instruction in each of the subjects failed and that the airman considers the applicant ready for retesting.</P>
            <CITA>[Doc. No. 16383, 43 FR 22640, May 25, 1978]</CITA>
          </SECTION>
          <SECTION>
            <SECTNO>§ 65.20</SECTNO>
            <SUBJECT>Applications, certificates, logbooks, reports, and records: Falsification, reproduction, or alteration.</SUBJECT>
            <P>(a) No person may make or cause to be made—</P>
            <P>(1) Any fraudulent or intentionally false statement on any application for a certificate or rating under this part;</P>
            <P>(2) Any fraudulent or intentionally false entry in any logbook, record, or report that is required to be kept, made, or used, to show compliance with any requirement for any certificate or rating under this part;</P>
            <P>(3) Any reproduction, for fraudulent purpose, of any certificate or rating under this part; or</P>
            <P>(4) Any alteration of any certificate or rating under this part.</P>

            <P>(b) The commission by any person of an act prohibited under paragraph (a) <PRTPAGE P="121"/>of this section is a basis for suspending or revoking any airman or ground instructor certificate or rating held by that person.</P>
            <CITA>[Doc. No. 4086, 30 FR 2196, Feb. 18, 1965]</CITA>
          </SECTION>
          <SECTION>
            <SECTNO>§ 65.21</SECTNO>
            <SUBJECT>Change of address.</SUBJECT>
            <P>Within 30 days after any change in his permanent mailing address, the holder of a certificate issued under this part shall notify the Department of Transportation, Federal Aviation Administration, Airman Certification Branch, Post Office Box 25082, Oklahoma City, OK 73125, in writing, of his new address.</P>
            <CITA>[Doc. No. 10536, 35 FR 14075, Sept. 4, 1970]</CITA>
          </SECTION>
          <SECTION>
            <SECTNO>§ 65.23</SECTNO>
            <SUBJECT>Refusal to submit to a drug or alcohol test.</SUBJECT>
            <P>(a) <E T="03">General.</E> This section applies to an employee who performs a function listed in appendix I or appendix J to part 121 of this chapter directly or by contract for a part 121 certificate holder, a part 135 certificate holder, an operator as defined in § 135.1(c) of this chapter, or an air traffic control facility not operated by the FAA or the U.S. military.</P>
            <P>(b) Refusal by the holder of a certificate issued under this part to take a drug test required under the provisions of appendix I to part 121 or an alcohol test required under the provisions of appendix J to part 121 is grounds for—</P>
            <P>(1) Denial of an application for any certificate or rating issued under this part for a period of up to 1 year after the date of such refusal; and</P>
            <P>(2) Suspension or revocation of any certificate or rating issued under this part.</P>
            <CITA>[Amdt. 65-37, 59 FR 7389, Feb. 15, 1994]</CITA>
          </SECTION>
        </SUBPART>
        <SUBPART>
          <HD SOURCE="HED">Subpart B—Air Traffic Control Tower Operators</HD>
          <SOURCE>
            <HD SOURCE="HED">Source:</HD>
            <P>Docket No. 10193, 35 FR 12326, Aug. 1, 1970, unless otherwise noted.</P>
          </SOURCE>
          <SECTION>
            <SECTNO>§ 65.31</SECTNO>
            <SUBJECT>Required certificates, and rating or qualification.</SUBJECT>
            <P>No person may act as an air traffic control tower operator at an air traffic control tower in connection with civil aircraft unless he—</P>
            <P>(a) Holds an air traffic control tower operator certificate issued to him under this subpart;</P>
            <P>(b) Holds a facility rating for that control tower issued to him under this subpart, or has qualified for the operating position at which he acts and is under the supervision of the holder of a facility rating for that control tower; and</P>
            <FP>For the purpose of this subpart, <E T="03">operating position</E> means an air traffic control function performed within or directly associated with the control tower;</FP>
            <P>(c) Except for a person employed by the FAA or employed by, or on active duty with, the Department of the Air Force, Army, or Navy or the Coast Guard, holds at least a second-class medical certificate issued under part 67 of this chapter.</P>
            <CITA>[Doc. No. 10193, 35 FR 12326, Aug. 1, 1970, as amended by Amdt. 65-25, 45 FR 18911, Mar. 24, 1980; Amdt. 65-31, 52 FR 17518, May 8, 1987]</CITA>
          </SECTION>
          <SECTION>
            <SECTNO>§ 65.33</SECTNO>
            <SUBJECT>Eligibility requirements: General.</SUBJECT>
            <P>To be eligible for an air traffic control tower operator certificate a person must—</P>
            <P>(a) Be at least 18 years of age;</P>
            <P>(b) Be of good moral character;</P>
            <P>(c) Be able to read, write, and understand the English language and speak it without accent or impediment of speech that would interfere with two-way radio conversation;</P>
            <P>(d) Except for a person employed by the FAA or employed by, or on active duty with, the Department of the Air Force, Army, or Navy or the Coast Guard, hold at least a second-class medical certificate issued under part 67 of this chapter within the 12 months before the date application is made; and</P>
            <P>(e) Comply with § 65.35.</P>
            <CITA>[Doc. No. 10193, 35 FR 12326, Aug. 1, 1970, as amended by Amdt. 65-25, 45 FR 18911, Mar. 24, 1980; Amdt. 65-31, 52 FR 17518, May 8, 1987]</CITA>
          </SECTION>
          <SECTION>
            <SECTNO>§ 65.35</SECTNO>
            <SUBJECT>Knowledge requirements.</SUBJECT>
            <P>Each applicant for an air traffic control tower operator certificate must pass a written test on—</P>
            <P>(a) The flight rules in part 91 of this chapter:<PRTPAGE P="122"/>
            </P>
            <P>(b) Airport traffic control procedures, and this subpart:</P>
            <P>(c) En route traffic control procedures;</P>
            <P>(d) Communications operating procedures;</P>
            <P>(e) Flight assistance service;</P>
            <P>(f) Air navigation, and aids to air navigation; and</P>
            <P>(g) Aviation weather.</P>
          </SECTION>
          <SECTION>
            <SECTNO>§ 65.37</SECTNO>
            <SUBJECT>Skill requirements: Operating positions.</SUBJECT>
            <P>No person may act as an air traffic control tower operator at any operating position unless he has passed a practical test on—</P>
            <P>(a) Control tower equipment and its use;</P>
            <P>(b) Weather reporting procedures and use of reports;</P>
            <P>(c) Notices to Airmen, and use of the Airman's Information Manual;</P>
            <P>(d) Use of operational forms;</P>
            <P>(e) Performance of noncontrol operational duties; and</P>
            <P>(f) Each of the following procedures that is applicable to that operating position and is required by the person performing the examination:</P>
            <P>(1) The airport, including rules, equipment, runways, taxiways, and obstructions.</P>
            <P>(2) The terrain features, visual checkpoints, and obstructions within the lateral boundaries of the surface areas of Class B, Class C, Class D, or Class E airspace designated for the airport.</P>
            <P>(3) Traffic patterns and associated procedures for use of preferential runways and noise abatement.</P>
            <P>(4) Operational agreements.</P>
            <P>(5) The center, alternate airports, and those airways, routes, reporting points, and air navigation aids used for terminal air traffic control.</P>
            <P>(6) Search and rescue procedures.</P>
            <P>(7) Terminal air traffic control procedures and phraseology.</P>
            <P>(8) Holding procedures, prescribed instrument approach, and departure procedures.</P>
            <P>(9) Radar alignment and technical operation.</P>
            <P>(10) The application of the prescribed radar and nonradar separation standard, as appropriate.</P>
            <CITA>[Doc. No. 10193, 35 FR 12326, Aug. 1, 1991, as amended by Amdt. 65-36, 56 FR 65653, Dec. 17, 1991]</CITA>
          </SECTION>
          <SECTION>
            <SECTNO>§ 65.39</SECTNO>
            <SUBJECT>Practical experience requirements: Facility rating.</SUBJECT>
            <P>Each applicant for a facility rating at any air traffic control tower must have satisfactorily served—</P>
            <P>(a) As an air traffic control tower operator at that control tower without a facility rating for at least 6 months; or</P>
            <P>(b) As an air traffic control tower operator with a facility rating at a different control tower for at least 6 months before the date he applies for the rating.</P>
            <FP>However, an applicant who is a member of an Armed Force of the United States meets the requirements of this section if he has satisfactorily served as an air traffic control tower operator for at least 6 months.</FP>
            <CITA>[Doc. No. 1179, 27 FR 7973, Aug. 10, 1962, as amended by Amdt. 65-19, 36 FR 21280, Nov. 5, 1971]</CITA>
          </SECTION>
          <SECTION>
            <SECTNO>§ 65.41</SECTNO>
            <SUBJECT>Skill requirements: Facility ratings.</SUBJECT>
            <P>Each applicant for a facility rating at an air traffic control tower must have passed a practical test on each item listed in § 65.37 of this part that is applicable to each operating position at the control tower at which the rating is sought.</P>
          </SECTION>
          <SECTION>
            <SECTNO>§ 65.43</SECTNO>
            <SUBJECT>Rating privileges and exchange.</SUBJECT>
            <P>(a) The holder of a senior rating on August 31, 1970, may at any time after that date exchange his rating for a facility rating at the same air traffic control tower. However, if he does not do so before August 31, 1971, he may not thereafter exercise the privileges of his senior rating at the control tower concerned until he makes the exchange.</P>

            <P>(b) The holder of a junior rating on August 31, 1970, may not control air traffic, at any operating position at the control tower concerned, until he has met the applicable requirements of § 65.37 of this part. However, before <PRTPAGE P="123"/>meeting those requirements he may control air traffic under the supervision, where required, of an operator with a senior rating (or facility rating) in accordance with § 65.41 of this part in effect before August 31, 1970.</P>
          </SECTION>
          <SECTION>
            <SECTNO>§ 65.45</SECTNO>
            <SUBJECT>Performance of duties.</SUBJECT>
            <P>(a) An air traffic control tower operator shall perform his duties in accordance with the limitations on his certificate and the procedures and practices prescribed in air traffic control manuals of the FAA, to provide for the safe, orderly, and expeditious flow of air traffic.</P>
            <P>(b) An operator with a facility rating may control traffic at any operating position at the control tower at which he holds a facility rating. However, he may not issue an air traffic clearance for IFR flight without authorization from the appropriate facility exercising IFR control at that location.</P>
            <P>(c) An operator who does not hold a facility rating for a particular control tower may act at each operating position for which he has qualified, under the supervision of an operator holding a facility rating for that control tower.</P>
            <CITA>[Doc. No. 10193, 35 FR 12326, Aug. 1, 1970, as amended by Amdt. 65-16, 35 FR 14075, Sept. 4, 1970]</CITA>
          </SECTION>
          <SECTION>
            <SECTNO>§ 65.46</SECTNO>
            <SUBJECT>Use of prohibited drugs.</SUBJECT>
            <P>(a) The following definitions apply for the purposes of this section:</P>
            <P>(1) An <E T="03">employee</E> is a person who performs an air traffic control function for an employer. For the purpose of this section, a person who performs such a function pursuant to a contract with an employer is considered to be performing that function for the employer.</P>
            <P>(2) An “employer” means an air traffic control facility not operated by the FAA or by or under contract to the U.S. military that employs a person to perform an air traffic control function.</P>
            <P>(b) Each employer shall provide each employee performing a function listed in appendix I to part 121 of this chapter and his or her supervisor with the training specified in that appendix. No employer may use any contractor to perform an air traffic control function unless that contractor provides each of its employees performing that function for the employer and his or her supervisor with the training specified in that appendix.</P>
            <P>(c) No employer may knowingly use any person to perform, nor may any person perform for an employer, either directly or by contract, any air traffic control function while that person has a prohibited drug, as defined in appendix I to part 121 of this chapter, in his or her system.</P>
            <P>(d) No employer shall knowingly use any person to perform, nor may any person perform for an employer, either directly or by contract, any air traffic control function if the person has a verified positive drug test result on or has refused to submit to a drug test required by appendix I to part 121 of this chapter and the person has not met the requirements of appendix I to part 121 of this chapter for returning to the performance of safety-sensitive duties.</P>
            <P>(e) Each employer shall test each of its employees who performs any air traffic control function in accordance with appendix I to part 121 of this chapter. No employer may use any contractor to perform any air traffic control function unless that contractor tests each employee performing such a function for the employer in accordance with that appendix.</P>
            <CITA>[Doc. No. 25148, 53 FR 47056, Nov. 21, 1988, as amended by Amdt. 65-38, 59 FR 42927, Aug. 19, 1994]</CITA>
          </SECTION>
          <SECTION>
            <SECTNO>§ 65.46a</SECTNO>
            <SUBJECT>Misuse of alcohol.</SUBJECT>

            <P>(a) This section applies to employees who perform air traffic control duties directly or by contract for an employer that is an air traffic control facility not operated by the FAA or the U.S. military (<E T="03">covered employees</E>).</P>
            <P>(b) <E T="03">Alcohol concentration.</E> No covered employee shall report for duty or remain on duty requiring the performance of safety-sensitive functions while having an alcohol concentration of 0.04 or greater. No employer having actual knowledge that an employee has an alcohol concentration of 0.04 or greater shall permit the employee to perform or continue to perform safety-sensitive functions.</P>
            <P>(c) <E T="03">On-duty use.</E> No covered employee shall use alcohol while performing safety-sensitive functions. No employer having actual knowledge that a <PRTPAGE P="124"/>covered employee is using alcohol while performing safety-sensitive functions shall permit the employee to perform or continue to perform safety-sensitive functions.</P>
            <P>(d) <E T="03">Pre-duty use.</E> No covered employee shall perform air traffic control duties within 8 hours after using alcohol. No employer having actual knowledge that such an employee has used alcohol within 8 hours shall permit the employee to perform or continue to perform air traffic control duties.</P>
            <P>(e) <E T="03">Use following an accident.</E> No covered employee who has actual knowledge of an accident involving an aircraft for which he or she performed a safety-sensitive function at or near the time of the accident shall use alcohol for 8 hours following the accident, unless he or she has been given a post-accident test under appendix J to part 121 of this chapter, or the employer has determined that the employee's performance could not have contributed to the accident.</P>
            <P>(f) <E T="03">Refusal to submit to a required alcohol test.</E> No covered employee shall refuse to submit to a post-accident, random, reasonable suspicion, or follow-up alcohol test required under appendix J to part 121 of this chapter. No employer shall permit an employee who refuses to submit to such a test to perform or continue to perform safety-sensitive functions.</P>
            <CITA>[Amdt. 65-37, 59 FR 7389, Feb. 15, 1994]</CITA>
          </SECTION>
          <SECTION>
            <SECTNO>§ 65.46b</SECTNO>
            <SUBJECT>Testing for alcohol.</SUBJECT>

            <P>(a) Each air traffic control facility not operated by the FAA or the U.S. military (hereinafter <E T="03">employer</E>) must establish an alcohol misuse prevention program in accordance with the provisions of appendix J to part 121 of this chapter.</P>

            <P>(b) No employer shall use any person who meets the definition of <E T="03">covered employee</E> in appendix J to part 121 to perform a safety-sensitive function listed in that appendix unless such person is subject to testing for alcohol misuse in accordance with the provisions of appendix J.</P>
            <CITA>[Amdt. 65-37, 59 FR 7389, Feb. 15, 1994]</CITA>
          </SECTION>
          <SECTION>
            <SECTNO>§ 65.47</SECTNO>
            <SUBJECT>Maximum hours.</SUBJECT>
            <P>Except in an emergency, a certificated air traffic control tower operator must be relieved of all duties for at least 24 consecutive hours at least once during each 7 consecutive days. Such an operator may not serve or be required to serve—</P>
            <P>(a) For more than 10 consecutive hours; or</P>
            <P>(b) For more than 10 hours during a period of 24 consecutive hours, unless he has had a rest period of at least 8 hours at or before the end of the 10 hours of duty.</P>
          </SECTION>
          <SECTION>
            <SECTNO>§ 65.49</SECTNO>
            <SUBJECT>General operating rules.</SUBJECT>
            <P>(a) Except for a person employed by the FAA or employed by, or on active duty with, the Department of the Air Force, Army, or Navy, or the Coast Guard, no person may act as an air traffic control tower operator under a certificate issued to him or her under this part unless he or she has in his or her personal possession an appropriate current medical certificate issued under part 67 of this chapter.</P>
            <P>(b) Each person holding an air traffic control tower operator certificate shall keep it readily available when performing duties in an air traffic control tower, and shall present that certificate or his medical certificate or both for inspection upon the request of the Administrator or an authorized representative of the National Transportation Safety Board, or of any Federal, State, or local law enforcement officer.</P>
            <P>(c) A certificated air traffic control tower operator who does not hold a facility rating for a particular control tower may not act at any operating position at the control tower concerned unless there is maintained at that control tower, readily available to persons named in paragraph (b) of this section, a current record of the operating positions at which he has qualified.</P>

            <P>(d) An air traffic control tower operator may not perform duties under his certificate during any period of known physical deficiency that would make him unable to meet the physical requirements for his current medical certificate. However, if the deficiency is temporary, he may perform duties that are not affected by it whenever another <PRTPAGE P="125"/>certificated and qualified operator is present and on duty.</P>
            <P>(e) A certificated air traffic control tower operator may not control air traffic with equipment that the Administrator has found to be inadequate.</P>
            <P>(f) The holder of an air traffic control tower operator certificate, or an applicant for one, shall, upon the reasonable request of the Administrator, cooperate fully in any test that is made of him.</P>
            <CITA>[Doc. No. 1179, 27 FR 7973, Aug. 10, 1962, as amended by Amdt. 65-31, 52 FR 17519, May 8, 1987]</CITA>
          </SECTION>
          <SECTION>
            <SECTNO>§ 65.50</SECTNO>
            <SUBJECT>Currency requirements.</SUBJECT>
            <P>The holder of an air traffic control tower operator certificate may not perform any duties under that certificate unless—</P>
            <P>(a) He has served for at least three of the preceding 6 months as an air traffic control tower operator at the control tower to which his facility rating applies, or at the operating positions for which he has qualified; or</P>
            <P>(b) He has shown that he meets the requirements for his certificate and facility rating at the control tower concerned, or for operating at positions for which he has previously qualified.</P>
          </SECTION>
        </SUBPART>
        <SUBPART>
          <HD SOURCE="HED">Subpart C—Aircraft Dispatchers</HD>
          <SOURCE>
            <HD SOURCE="HED">Source:</HD>
            <P>Docket No. FAA-1998-4553, 64 FR 68923, Dec. 8, 1999, unless otherwise noted.</P>
          </SOURCE>
          <SECTION>
            <SECTNO>§ 65.51</SECTNO>
            <SUBJECT>Certificate required.</SUBJECT>
            <P>(a) No person may act as an aircraft dispatcher (exercising responsibility with the pilot in command in the operational control of a flight) in connection with any civil aircraft in air commerce unless that person has in his or her personal possession an aircraft dispatcher certificate issued under this subpart.</P>
            <P>(b) Each person who holds an aircraft dispatcher certificate must present it for inspection upon the request of the Administrator or an authorized representative of the National Transportation Safety Board, or of any Federal, State, or local law enforcement officer.</P>
          </SECTION>
          <SECTION>
            <SECTNO>§ 65.53</SECTNO>
            <SUBJECT>Eligibility requirements: General.</SUBJECT>
            <P>(a) To be eligible to take the aircraft dispatcher knowledge test, a person must be at least 21 years of age.</P>
            <P>(b) To be eligible for an aircraft dispatcher certificate, a person must—</P>
            <P>(1) Be at least 23 years of age;</P>
            <P>(2) Be able to read, speak, write, and understand the English language;</P>
            <P>(3) Pass the required knowledge test prescribed by § 65.55 of this part;</P>
            <P>(4) Pass the required practical test prescribed by § 65.59 of this part; and</P>
            <P>(5) Comply with the requirements of § 65.57 of this part.</P>
          </SECTION>
          <SECTION>
            <SECTNO>§ 65.55</SECTNO>
            <SUBJECT>Knowledge requirements.</SUBJECT>
            <P>(a) A person who applies for an aircraft dispatcher certificate must pass a knowledge test on the following aeronautical knowledge areas:</P>
            <P>(1) Applicable Federal Aviation Regulations of this chapter that relate to airline transport pilot privileges, limitations, and flight operations;</P>
            <P>(2) Meteorology, including knowledge of and effects of fronts, frontal characteristics, cloud formations, icing, and upper-air data;</P>
            <P>(3) General system of weather and NOTAM collection, dissemination, interpretation, and use;</P>
            <P>(4) Interpretation and use of weather charts, maps, forecasts, sequence reports, abbreviations, and symbols;</P>
            <P>(5) National Weather Service functions as they pertain to operations in the National Airspace System;</P>
            <P>(6) Windshear and microburst awareness, identification, and avoidance;</P>
            <P>(7) Principles of air navigation under instrument meteorological conditions in the National Airspace System;</P>
            <P>(8) Air traffic control procedures and pilot responsibilities as they relate to enroute operations, terminal area and radar operations, and instrument departure and approach procedures;</P>
            <P>(9) Aircraft loading, weight and balance, use of charts, graphs, tables, formulas, and computations, and their effect on aircraft performance;</P>
            <P>(10) Aerodynamics relating to an aircraft's flight characteristics and performance in normal and abnormal flight regimes;</P>
            <P>(11) Human factors;<PRTPAGE P="126"/>
            </P>
            <P>(12) Aeronautical decision making and judgment; and</P>
            <P>(13) Crew resource management, including crew communication and coordination.</P>
            <P>(b) The applicant must present documentary evidence satisfactory to the administrator of having passed an aircraft dispatcher knowledge test within the preceding 24 calendar months.</P>
          </SECTION>
          <SECTION>
            <SECTNO>§ 65.57</SECTNO>
            <SUBJECT>Experience or training requirements.</SUBJECT>
            <P>An applicant for an aircraft dispatcher certificate must present documentary evidence satisfactory to the Administrator that he or she has the experience prescribed in paragraph (a) of this section or has accomplished the training described in paragraph (b) of this section as follows:</P>
            <P>(a) A total of at least 2 years experience in the 3 years before the date of application, in any one or in any combination of the following areas:</P>
            <P>(1) In military aircraft operations as a—</P>
            <P>(i) Pilot;</P>
            <P>(ii) Flight navigator; or</P>
            <P>(iii) Meteorologist.</P>
            <P>(2) In aircraft operations conducted under part 121 of this chapter as—</P>
            <P>(i) An assistant in dispatching air carrier aircraft, under the direct supervision of a dispatcher certificated under this subpart;</P>
            <P>(ii) A pilot;</P>
            <P>(iii) A flight engineer; or</P>
            <P>(iv) A meteorologist.</P>
            <P>(3) In aircraft operations as—</P>
            <P>(i) An Air Traffic Controller; or</P>
            <P>(ii) A Flight Service Specialist.</P>
            <P>(4) In aircraft operations, performing other duties that the Administrator finds provide equivalent experience.</P>
            <P>(b) A statement of graduation issued or revalidated in accordance with § 65.70(b) of this part, showing that the person has successfully completed an approved aircraft dispatcher course.</P>
          </SECTION>
          <SECTION>
            <SECTNO>§ 65.59</SECTNO>
            <SUBJECT>Skill requirements.</SUBJECT>
            <P>An applicant for an aircraft dispatcher certificate must pass a practical test given by the Administrator, with respect to any one type of large aircraft used in air carrier operations. The practical test must be based on the aircraft dispatcher practical test standards, as published by the FAA, on the items outlined in appendix A of this part.</P>
          </SECTION>
          <SECTION>
            <SECTNO>§ 65.61</SECTNO>
            <SUBJECT>Aircraft dispatcher certification courses: Content and minimum hours.</SUBJECT>
            <P>(a) An approved aircraft dispatcher certification course must:</P>
            <P>(1) Provide instruction in the areas of knowledge and topics listed in appendix A of this part;</P>
            <P>(2) Include a minimum of 200 hours of instruction.</P>
            <P>(b) An applicant for approval of an aircraft dispatcher course must submit an outline that describes the major topics and subtopics to be covered and the number of hours proposed for each.</P>
            <P>(c) Additional subject headings for an aircraft dispatcher certification course may also be included, however the hours proposed for any subjects not listed in appendix A of this part must be in addition to the minimum 200 course hours required in paragraph (a) of this section.</P>
            <P>(d) For the purpose of completing an approved course, a student may substitute previous experience or training for a portion of the minimum 200 hours of training. The course operator determines the number of hours of credit based on an evaluation of the experience or training to determine if it is comparable to portions of the approved course curriculum. The credit allowed, including the total hours and the basis for it, must be placed in the student's record required by § 65.70(a) of this part.</P>
          </SECTION>
          <SECTION>
            <SECTNO>§ 65.63</SECTNO>
            <SUBJECT>Aircraft dispatcher certification courses: Application, duration, and other general requirements.</SUBJECT>
            <P>(a) <E T="03">Application.</E> Application for original approval of an aircraft dispatcher certification course or the renewal of approval of an aircraft dispatcher certification course under this part must be:</P>
            <P>(1) Made in writing to the Administrator;</P>

            <P>(2) Accompanied by two copies of the course outline required under § 65.61(b) of this part, for which approval is sought;<PRTPAGE P="127"/>
            </P>
            <P>(3) Accompanied by a description of the equipment and facilities to be used; and</P>
            <P>(4) Accompanied by a list of the instructors and their qualifications.</P>
            <P>(b) <E T="03">Duration.</E> Unless withdrawn or canceled, an approval of an aircraft dispatcher certification course of study expires:</P>
            <P>(1) On the last day of the 24th month from the month the approval was issued; or</P>
            <P>(2) Except as provided in paragraph (f) of this section, on the date that any change in ownership of the school occurs.</P>
            <P>(c) <E T="03">Renewal.</E> Application for renewal of an approved aircraft dispatcher certification course must be made within 30 days preceding the month the approval expires, provided the course operator meets the following requirements:</P>
            <P>(1) At least 80 percent of the graduates from that aircraft dispatcher certification course, who applied for the practical test required by § 65.59 of this part, passed the practical test on their first attempt; and</P>
            <P>(2) The aircraft dispatcher certification course continues to meet the requirements of this subpart for course approval.</P>
            <P>(d) <E T="03">Course revisions.</E> Requests for approval of a revision of the course outline, facilities, or equipment must be in accordance with paragraph (a) of this section. Proposed revisions of the course outline or the description of facilities and equipment must be submitted in a format that will allow an entire page or pages of the approved outline or description to be removed and replaced by any approved revision. The list of instructors may be revised at any time without request for approval, provided the minimum requirements of § 65.67 of this part are maintained and the Administrator is notified in writing.</P>
            <P>(e) <E T="03">Withdrawal or cancellation of approval.</E> Failure to continue to meet the requirements of this subpart for the approval or operation of an approved aircraft dispatcher certification course is grounds for withdrawal of approval of the course. A course operator may request cancellation of course approval by a letter to the Administrator. The operator must forward any records to the FAA as requested by the Administrator.</P>
            <P>(f) <E T="03">Change in ownership.</E> A change in ownership of a part 65, appendix A-approved course does not terminate that aircraft dispatcher certification course approval if, within 10 days after the date that any change in ownership of the school occurs:</P>
            <P>(1) Application is made for an appropriate amendment to the approval; and</P>
            <P>(2) No change in the facilities, personnel, or approved aircraft dispatcher certification course is involved.</P>
            <P>(g) <E T="03">Change in name or location.</E> A change in name or location of an approved aircraft dispatcher certification course does not invalidate the approval if, within 10 days after the date that any change in name or location occurs, the course operator of the part 65, appendix A-approved course notifies the Administrator, in writing, of the change.</P>
          </SECTION>
          <SECTION>
            <SECTNO>§ 65.65</SECTNO>
            <SUBJECT>Aircraft dispatcher certification courses: Training facilities.</SUBJECT>
            <P>An applicant for approval of authority to operate an aircraft dispatcher course of study must have facilities, equipment, and materials adequate to provide each student the theoretical and practical aspects of aircraft dispatching. Each room, training booth, or other space used for instructional purposes must be temperature controlled, lighted, and ventilated to conform to local building, sanitation, and health codes. In addition, the training facility must be so located that the students in that facility are not distracted by the instruction conducted in other rooms.</P>
          </SECTION>
          <SECTION>
            <SECTNO>§ 65.67</SECTNO>
            <SUBJECT>Aircraft dispatcher certification courses: Personnel.</SUBJECT>
            <P>(a) Each applicant for an aircraft dispatcher certification course must meet the following personnel requirements:</P>
            <P>(1) Each applicant must have adequate personnel, including one instructor who holds an aircraft dispatcher certificate and is available to coordinate all training course instruction.</P>
            <P>(2) Each applicant must not exceed a ratio of 25 students for one instructor.</P>

            <P>(b) The instructor who teaches the practical dispatch applications area of <PRTPAGE P="128"/>the appendix A course must hold an aircraft dispatchers certificate</P>
          </SECTION>
          <SECTION>
            <SECTNO>§ 65.70</SECTNO>
            <SUBJECT>Aircraft dispatcher certification courses: Records.</SUBJECT>
            <P>(a) The operator of an aircraft dispatcher course must maintain a record for each student, including a chronological log of all instructors, subjects covered, and course examinations and results. The record must be retained for at least 3 years after graduation. The course operator also must prepare, for its records, and transmit to the Administrator not later than January 31 of each year, a report containing the following information for the previous year:</P>
            <P>(1) The names of all students who graduated, together with the results of their aircraft dispatcher certification courses.</P>
            <P>(2) The names of all the students who failed or withdrew, together with the results of their aircraft dispatcher certification courses or the reasons for their withdrawal.</P>
            <P>(b) Each student who successfully completes the approved aircraft dispatcher certification course must be given a written statement of graduation, which is valid for 90 days. After 90 days, the course operator may revalidate the graduation certificate for an additional 90 days if the course operator determines that the student remains proficient in the subject areas listed in appendix A of this part.</P>
          </SECTION>
        </SUBPART>
        <SUBPART>
          <HD SOURCE="HED">Subpart D—Mechanics</HD>
          <SECTION>
            <SECTNO>§ 65.71</SECTNO>
            <SUBJECT>Eligibility requirements: General.</SUBJECT>
            <P>(a) To be eligible for a mechanic certificate and associated ratings, a person must—</P>
            <P>(1) Be at least 18 years of age;</P>
            <P>(2) Be able to read, write, speak, and understand the English language, or in the case of an applicant who does not meet this requirement and who is employed outside of the United States by a U.S. air carrier, have his certificate endorsed “Valid only outside the United States”;</P>
            <P>(3) Have passed all of the prescribed tests within a period of 24 months; and</P>
            <P>(4) Comply with the sections of this subpart that apply to the rating he seeks.</P>
            <P>(b) A certificated mechanic who applies for an additional rating must meet the requirements of § 65.77 and, within a period of 24 months, pass the tests prescribed by §§ 65.75 and 65.79 for the additional rating sought.</P>
            <CITA>[Doc. No. 1179, 27 FR 7973, Aug. 10, 1962, as amended by Amdt. 65-6, 31 FR 5950, Apr. 19, 1966]</CITA>
          </SECTION>
          <SECTION>
            <SECTNO>§ 65.73</SECTNO>
            <SUBJECT>Ratings.</SUBJECT>
            <P>(a) The following ratings are issued under this subpart:</P>
            <P>(1) Airframe.</P>
            <P>(2) Powerplant.</P>
            <P>(b) A mechanic certificate with an aircraft or aircraft engine rating, or both, that was issued before, and was valid on, June 15, 1952, is equal to a mechanic certificate with an airframe or powerplant rating, or both, as the case may be, and may be exchanged for such a corresponding certificate and rating or ratings.</P>
          </SECTION>
          <SECTION>
            <SECTNO>§ 65.75</SECTNO>
            <SUBJECT>Knowledge requirements.</SUBJECT>
            <P>(a) Each applicant for a mechanic certificate or rating must, after meeting the applicable experience requirements of § 65.77, pass a written test covering the construction and maintenance of aircraft appropriate to the rating he seeks, the regulations in this subpart, and the applicable provisions of parts 43 and 91 of this chapter. The basic principles covering the installation and maintenance of propellers are included in the powerplant test.</P>
            <P>(b) The applicant must pass each section of the test before applying for the oral and practical tests prescribed by § 65.79. A report of the written test is sent to the applicant.</P>
            <CITA>[Doc. No. 1179, 27 FR 7973, Aug. 10, 1962, as amended by Amdt. 65-1, 27 FR 10410, Oct. 25, 1962; Amdt. 65-6, 31 FR 5950, Apr. 19, 1966]</CITA>
          </SECTION>
          <SECTION>
            <SECTNO>§ 65.77</SECTNO>
            <SUBJECT>Experience requirements.</SUBJECT>

            <P>Each applicant for a mechanic certificate or rating must present either an appropriate graduation certificate or certificate of completion from a certificated cated aviation maintenance <PRTPAGE P="129"/>technician school or documentary evidence, satisfactory to the Administrator, of—</P>
            <P>(a) At least 18 months of practical experience with the procedures, practices, materials, tools, machine tools, and equipment generally used in constructing, maintaining, or altering airframes, or powerplants appropriate to the rating sought; or</P>
            <P>(b) At least 30 months of practical experience concurrently performing the duties appropriate to both the airframe and powerplant ratings.</P>
            <CITA>[Doc. No. 1179, 27 FR, 7973, Aug. 10, 1962, as amended by Amdt. 65-14, 35 FR, 5533, Apr. 3, 1970]</CITA>
          </SECTION>
          <SECTION>
            <SECTNO>§ 65.79</SECTNO>
            <SUBJECT>Skill requirements.</SUBJECT>
            <P>Each applicant for a mechanic certificate or rating must pass an oral and a practical test on the rating he seeks. The tests cover the applicant's basic skill in performing practical projects on the subjects covered by the written test for that rating. An applicant for a powerplant rating must show his ability to make satisfactory minor repairs to, and minor alterations of, propellers.</P>
          </SECTION>
          <SECTION>
            <SECTNO>§ 65.80</SECTNO>
            <SUBJECT>Certificated aviation maintenance technician school students.</SUBJECT>
            <P>Whenever an aviation maintenance technician school certificated under part 147 of this chapter shows to an FAA inspector that any of its students has made satisfactory progress at the school and is prepared to take the oral and practical tests prescribed by § 65.79, that student may take those tests during the final subjects of his training in the approved curriculum, before he meets the applicable experience requirements of § 65.77 and before he passes each section of the written test prescribed by § 65.75.</P>
            <CITA>[Doc. No. 9444, 35 FR 5533, Apr. 3, 1970]</CITA>
          </SECTION>
          <SECTION>
            <SECTNO>§ 65.81</SECTNO>
            <SUBJECT>General privileges and limitations.</SUBJECT>
            <P>(a) A certificated mechanic may perform or supervise the maintenance, preventive maintenance or alteration of an aircraft or appliance, or a part thereof, for which he is rated (but excluding major repairs to, and major alterations of, propellers, and any repair to, or alteration of, instruments), and may perform additional duties in accordance with §§ 65.85, 65.87, and 65.95. However, he may not supervise the maintenance, preventive maintenance, or alteration of, or approve and return to service, any aircraft or appliance, or part thereof, for which he is rated unless he has satisfactorily performed the work concerned at an earlier date. If he has not so performed that work at an earlier date, he may show his ability to do it by performing it to the satisfaction of the Administrator or under the direct supervision of a certificated and appropriately rated mechanic, or a certificated repairman, who has had previous experience in the specific operation concerned.</P>
            <P>(b) A certificated mechanic may not exercise the privileges of his certificate and rating unless he understands the current instructions of the manufacturer, and the maintenance manuals, for the specific operation concerned.</P>
            <CITA>[Doc. No. 1179, 27 FR 7973, Aug. 10, 1962, as amended by Amdt. 65-2, 29 FR 5451, Apr. 23, 1964; Amdt. 65-26, 45 FR 46737, July 10, 1980]</CITA>
          </SECTION>
          <SECTION>
            <SECTNO>§ 65.83</SECTNO>
            <SUBJECT>Recent experience requirements.</SUBJECT>
            <P>A certificated mechanic may not exercise the privileges of his certificate and rating unless, within the preceding 24 months—</P>
            <P>(a) The Administrator has found that he is able to do that work; or</P>
            <P>(b) He has, for at least 6 months—</P>
            <P>(1) Served as a mechanic under his certificate and rating;</P>
            <P>(2) Technically supervised other mechanics;</P>
            <P>(3) Supervised, in an executive capacity, the maintenance or alteration of aircraft; or</P>
            <P>(4) Been engaged in any combination of paragraph (b) (1), (2), or (3) of this section.</P>
          </SECTION>
          <SECTION>
            <SECTNO>§ 65.85</SECTNO>
            <SUBJECT>Airframe rating; additional privileges.</SUBJECT>

            <P>A certificated mechanic with an airframe rating may approve and return to service an airframe, or any related part or appliance, after he has performed, supervised, or inspected its maintenance or alteration (excluding major repairs and major alterations). In addition, he may perform the 100-hour inspection required by part 91 of <PRTPAGE P="130"/>this chapter on an airframe, or any related part or appliance, and approve and return it to service.</P>
            <CITA>[Doc. No. 1179, 27 FR 7973, Aug. 10, 1962, as amended by Amdt. 65-10, 32 FR 5770, Apr. 11, 1967]</CITA>
          </SECTION>
          <SECTION>
            <SECTNO>§ 65.87</SECTNO>
            <SUBJECT>Powerplant rating; additional privileges.</SUBJECT>
            <P>A certificated mechanic with a powerplant rating may approve and return to service a powerplant or propeller or any related part or appliance, after he has performed, supervised, or inspected its maintenance or alteration (excluding major repairs and major alterations). In addition, he may perform the 100-hour inspection required by part 91 of this chapter on a powerplant or propeller, or any part thereof, and approve and return it to service.</P>
            <CITA>[Doc. No. 1179, 27 FR 7973, Aug. 10, 1962, as amended by Amdt. 65-10, 32 FR 5770, Apr. 11, 1967]</CITA>
          </SECTION>
          <SECTION>
            <SECTNO>§ 65.89</SECTNO>
            <SUBJECT>Display of certificate.</SUBJECT>
            <P>Each person who holds a mechanic certificate shall keep it within the immediate area where he normally exercises the privileges of the certificate and shall present it for inspection upon the request of the Administrator or an authorized representative of the National Transportation Safety Board, or of any Federal, State, or local law enforcement officer.</P>
            <CITA>[Doc. No. 7258, 31 FR 13524, Oct. 20, 1966, as amended by Doc. No. 8084, 32 FR 5769, Apr. 11, 1967]</CITA>
          </SECTION>
          <SECTION>
            <SECTNO>§ 65.91</SECTNO>
            <SUBJECT>Inspection authorization.</SUBJECT>
            <P>(a) An application for an inspection authorization is made on a form and in a manner prescribed by the Administrator.</P>
            <P>(b) An applicant who meets the requirements of this section is entitled to an inspection authorization.</P>
            <P>(c) To be eligible for an inspection authorization, an applicant must—</P>
            <P>(1) Hold a currently effective mechanic certificate with both an airframe rating and a powerplant rating, each of which is currently effective and has been in effect for a total of at least 3 years;</P>
            <P>(2) Have been actively engaged, for at least the 2-year period before the date he applies, in maintaining aircraft certificated and maintained in accordance with this chapter;</P>
            <P>(3) Have a fixed base of operations at which he may be located in person or by telephone during a normal working week but it need not be the place where he will exercise his inspection authority;</P>
            <P>(4) Have available to him the equipment, facilities, and inspection data necessary to properly inspect airframes, powerplants, propellers, or any related part or appliance; and</P>
            <P>(5) Pass a written test on his ability to inspect according to safety standards for returning aircraft to service after major repairs and major alterations and annual and progressive inspections performed under part 43 of this chapter.</P>
            <FP>An applicant who fails the test prescribed in paragraph (c)(5) of this section may not apply for retesting until at least 90 days after the date he failed the test.</FP>
            <CITA>[Doc. No. 1179, 27 FR 7973, Aug. 10, 1962, as amended by Amdt. 65-5, 31 FR 3337, Mar. 3, 1966; Amdt. 65-22, 42 FR 46279, Sept. 15, 1977; Amdt. 65-30, 50 FR 15700, Apr. 19, 1985]</CITA>
          </SECTION>
          <SECTION>
            <SECTNO>§ 65.92</SECTNO>
            <SUBJECT>Inspection authorization: Duration.</SUBJECT>
            <P>(a) Each inspection authorization expires on March 31 of each year. However, the holder may exercise the privileges of that authorization only while he holds a currently effective mechanic certificate with both a currently effective airframe rating and a currently effective powerplant rating.</P>
            <P>(b) An inspection authorization ceases to be effective whenever any of the following occurs:</P>
            <P>(1) The authorization is surrendered, suspended, or revoked.</P>
            <P>(2) The holder no longer has a fixed base of operation.</P>
            <P>(3) The holder no longer has the equipment, facilities, and inspection data required by § 65.91(c) (3) and (4) for issuance of his authorization.</P>
            <P>(c) The holder of an inspection authorization that is suspended or revoked shall, upon the Administrator's request, return it to the Administrator.</P>
            <CITA>[Doc. No. 12537, 42 FR 46279, Sept. 15, 1977]</CITA>
          </SECTION>
          <SECTION>
            <PRTPAGE P="131"/>
            <SECTNO>§ 65.93</SECTNO>
            <SUBJECT>Inspection authorization: Renewal.</SUBJECT>
            <P>(a) To be eligible for renewal of an inspection authorization for a 1-year period an applicant must present evidence annually, during the month of March, at an FAA Flight Standards District Office or an International Field Office that the applicant still meets the requirements of § 65.91(c) (1) through (4) and must show that, during the current period that the applicant held the inspection authorization, the applicant—</P>
            <P>(1) Has performed at least one annual inspection for each 90 days that the applicant held the current authority; or</P>
            <P>(2) Has performed inspections of at least two major repairs or major alterations for each 90 days that the applicant held the current authority; or</P>
            <P>(3) Has performed or supervised and approved at least one progressive inspection in accordance with standards prescribed by the Administrator; or</P>
            <P>(4) Has attended and successfully completed a refresher course, acceptable to the Administrator, of not less than 8 hours of instruction during the 12-month period preceding the application for renewal; or</P>
            <P>(5) Has passed on oral test by an FAA inspector to determine that the applicant's knowledge of applicable regulations and standards is current.</P>
            <P>(b) The holder of an inspection authorization that has been in effect for less than 90 days before the expiration date need not comply with paragraphs (a) (1) through (5) of this section.</P>
            <CITA>[Doc. No. 18241, 45 FR 46738, July 10, 1980, as amended by Amdt. 65-35, 54 FR 39292, Sept. 25, 1989]</CITA>
          </SECTION>
          <SECTION>
            <SECTNO>§ 65.95</SECTNO>
            <SUBJECT>Inspection authorization: Privileges and limitations.</SUBJECT>
            <P>(a) The holder of an inspection authorization may—</P>
            <P>(1) Inspect and approve for return to service any aircraft or related part or appliance (except any aircraft maintained in accordance with a continuous airworthiness program under part 121  of this chapter) after a major repair or major alteration to it in accordance with part 43 [New] of this chapter, if the work was done in accordance with technical data approved by the Administrator; and</P>
            <P>(2) Perform an annual, or perform or supervise a progressive inspection according to §§ 43.13 and 43.15 of this chapter.</P>
            <P>(b) When he exercises the privileges of an inspection authorization the holder shall keep it available for inspection by the aircraft owner, the mechanic submitting the aircraft, repair, or alteration for approval (if any), and shall present it upon the request of the Administrator or an authorized representative of the National Transportation Safety Board, or of any Federal, State, or local law enforcement officer.</P>
            <P>(c) If the holder of an inspection authorization changes his fixed base of operation, he may not exercise the privileges of the authorization until he has notified the FAA Flight Standards District Office or International Field Office for the area in which the new base is located, in writing, of the change.</P>
            <CITA>[Doc. No. 1179, 27 FR 7973, Aug. 10, 1962, as amended by Amdt. 65-2, 29 FR 5451, Apr. 23, 1964; Amdt. 65-4, 30 FR 3638, Mar. 14, 1965; Amdt. 65-5, 31 FR 3337, Mar. 3, 1966; Amdt. 65-9, 31 FR 13524, Oct. 20, 1966; 32 FR 5769, Apr. 11, 1967; Amdt. 65-35, 54 FR 39292, Sept. 25, 1989; Amdt. 65-41, 66 FR 21066, Apr. 27, 2001]</CITA>
          </SECTION>
        </SUBPART>
        <SUBPART>
          <HD SOURCE="HED">Subpart E—Repairmen</HD>
          <SECTION>
            <SECTNO>§ 65.101</SECTNO>
            <SUBJECT>Eligibility requirements: General.</SUBJECT>
            <P>(a) To be eligible for a repairman certificate a person must—</P>
            <P>(1) Be at least 18 years of age;</P>
            <P>(2) Be specially qualified to perform maintenance on aircraft or components thereof, appropriate to the job for which he is employed;</P>
            <P>(3) Be employed for a specific job requiring those special qualifications by a certificated repair station, or by a certificated commercial operator or certificated air carrier, that is required by its operating certificate or approved operations specifications to provide a continuous airworthiness maintenance program according to its maintenance manuals;</P>

            <P>(4) Be recommended for certification by his employer, to the satisfaction of the Administrator, as able to satisfactorily maintain aircraft or components, appropriate to the job for which he is employed;<PRTPAGE P="132"/>
            </P>
            <P>(5) Have either—</P>
            <P>(i) At least 18 months of practical experience in the procedures, practices, inspection methods, materials, tools, machine tools, and equipment generally used in the maintenance duties of the specific job for which the person is to be employed and certificated; or</P>
            <P>(ii) Completed formal training that is acceptable to the Administrator and is specifically designed to qualify the applicant for the job on which the applicant is to be employed; and</P>
            <P>(6) Be able to read, write, speak, and understand the English language, or, in the case of an applicant who does not meet this requirement and who is employed outside the United States by a certificated repair station, a certificated U.S. commercial operator, or a certificated U.S. air carrier, described in paragraph (c) of this section, have his certificate endorsed “Valid only outside the United States.”</P>
            <P>(b) This section does not apply to the issuance of repairman certificates (experimental aircraft builder) under § 65.104.</P>
            <CITA>[Doc. No. 1179, 27 FR 7973, Aug. 10, 1962, as amended by Amdt. 65-11, 32 FR 13506, Sept. 27, 1967; Amdt. 65-24, 44 FR 46781, Aug. 9, 1979; Amdt. 65-27, 47 FR 13316, Mar. 29, 1982]</CITA>
          </SECTION>
          <SECTION>
            <SECTNO>§ 65.103</SECTNO>
            <SUBJECT>Repairman certificate: Privileges and limitations.</SUBJECT>
            <P>(a) A certificated repairman may perform or supervise the maintenance, preventive maintenance, or alteration of aircraft or aircraft components appropriate to the job for which the repairman was employed and certificated, but only in connection with duties for the certificate holder by whom the repairman was employed and recommended.</P>
            <P>(b) A certificated repairman may not perform or supervise duties under the repairman certificate unless the repairman understands the current instructions of the certificate holder by whom the repairman is employed and the manufacturer's instructions for continued airworthiness relating to the specific operations concerned.</P>
            <CITA>[Doc. No. 18241, 45 FR 46738, July 10, 1980]</CITA>
          </SECTION>
          <SECTION>
            <SECTNO>§ 65.104</SECTNO>
            <SUBJECT>Repairman certificate—experimental aircraft builder—Eligibility, privileges and limitations.</SUBJECT>
            <P>(a) To be eligible for a repairman certificate (experimental aircraft builder), an individual must—</P>
            <P>(1) Be at least 18 years of age;</P>
            <P>(2) Be the primary builder of the aircraft to which the privileges of the certificate are applicable;</P>
            <P>(3) Show to the satisfaction of the Administrator that the individual has the requisite skill to determine whether the aircraft is in a condition for safe operations; and</P>
            <P>(4) Be a citizen of the United States or an individual citizen of a foreign country who has lawfully been admitted for permanent residence in the United States.</P>
            <P>(b) The holder of a repairman certificate (experimental aircraft builder) may perform condition inspections on the aircraft constructed by the holder in accordace with the operating limitations of that aircraft.</P>
            <P>(c) Section 65.103 does not apply to the holder of a repairman certificate (experimental aircraft builder) while performing under that certificate.</P>
            <CITA>[Doc. No. 18739, 44 FR 46781, Aug. 9, 1979]</CITA>
          </SECTION>
          <SECTION>
            <SECTNO>§ 65.105</SECTNO>
            <SUBJECT>Display of certificate.</SUBJECT>
            <P>Each person who holds a repairman certificate shall keep it within the immediate area where he normally exercises the privileges of the certificate and shall present it for inspection upon the request of the Administrator or an authorized representative of the National Transportation Safety Board, or of any Federal, State, or local law enforcement officer.</P>
            <CITA>[Doc. No. 7258, 31 FR 13524, Oct. 20, 1966, as amended by Doc. No. 8084, 32 FR 5769, Apr. 11, 1967]</CITA>
          </SECTION>
        </SUBPART>
        <SUBPART>
          <HD SOURCE="HED">Subpart F—Parachute Riggers</HD>
          <SECTION>
            <SECTNO>§ 65.111</SECTNO>
            <SUBJECT>Certificate required.</SUBJECT>

            <P>(a) No person may pack, maintain, or alter any personnel-carrying parachute intended for emergency use in connection with civil aircraft of the United States (including the reserve parachute of a dual parachute system to be used for intentional parachute jumping) unless that person holds an appropriate <PRTPAGE P="133"/>current certificate and type rating issued under this subpart and complies with §§ 65.127 through 65.133.</P>
            <P>(b) No person may pack, maintain, or alter any main parachute of a dual-parachute system to be used for intentional parachute jumping in connection with civil aircraft of the United States unless that person—</P>
            <P>(1) Has an appropriate current certificate issued under this subpart;</P>
            <P>(2) Is under the supervision of a current certificated parachute rigger;</P>
            <P>(3) Is the person making the next parachute jump with that parachute in accordance with § 105.43(a) of this chapter; or</P>
            <P>(4) Is the parachutist in command making the next parachute jump with that parachute in a tandem parachute operation conducted under § 105.45(b)(1) of this chapter.</P>
            <P>(c) Each person who holds a parachute rigger certificate shall present it for inspection upon the request of the Administrator or an authorized representative of the National Transportation Safety Board, or of any Federal, State, or local law enforcement officer.</P>
            <P>(d) The following parachute rigger certificates are issued under this part:</P>
            <P>(1) Senior parachute rigger.</P>
            <P>(2) Master parachute rigger.</P>
            <P>(e) Sections 65.127 through 65.133 do not apply to parachutes packed, maintained, or altered for the use of the armed forces.</P>
            <CITA>[Doc. No. 1179, 27 FR 7973, Aug. 10, 1962, as amended by Amdt. 65-9, 31 FR 13524, Oct. 20, 1966; 32 FR 5769, Apr. 11, 1967; Amdt. 65-42, 66 FR 23553, May 9, 2001]</CITA>
          </SECTION>
          <SECTION>
            <SECTNO>§ 65.113</SECTNO>
            <SUBJECT>Eligibility requirements: General.</SUBJECT>
            <P>(a) To be eligible for a parachute rigger certificate, a person must—</P>
            <P>(1) Be at least 18 years of age;</P>
            <P>(2) Be able to read, write, speak, and understand the English language, or, in the case of a citizen of Puerto Rico, or a person who is employed outside of the United States by a U.S. air carrier, and who does not meet this requirement, be issued a certificate that is valid only in Puerto Rico or while he is employed outside of the United States by that air carrier, as the case may be; and</P>
            <P>(3) Comply with the sections of this subpart that apply to the certificate and type rating he seeks.</P>
            <P>(b) Except for a master parachute rigger certificate, a parachute rigger certificate that was issued before, and was valid on, October 31, 1962, is equal to a senior parachute rigger certificate, and may be exchanged for such a corresponding certificate.</P>
          </SECTION>
          <SECTION>
            <SECTNO>§ 65.115</SECTNO>
            <SUBJECT>Senior parachute rigger certificate: Experience, knowledge, and skill requirements.</SUBJECT>
            <P>Except as provided in § 65.117, an applicant for a senior parachute rigger certificate must—</P>
            <P>(a) Present evidence satisfactory to the Administrator that he has packed at least 20 parachutes of each type for which he seeks a rating, in accordance with the manufacturer's instructions and under the supervision of a certificated parachute rigger holding a rating for that type or a person holding an appropriate military rating;</P>
            <P>(b) Pass a written test, with respect to parachutes in common use, on—</P>
            <P>(1) Their construction, packing, and maintenance;</P>
            <P>(2) The manufacturer's instructions;</P>
            <P>(3) The regulations of this subpart; and</P>
            <P>(c) Pass an oral and practical test showing his ability to pack and maintain at least one type of parachute in common use, appropriate to the type rating he seeks.</P>
            <CITA>[Doc. No. 10468, 37 FR 13251, July 6, 1972]</CITA>
          </SECTION>
          <SECTION>
            <SECTNO>§ 65.117</SECTNO>
            <SUBJECT>Military riggers or former military riggers: Special certification rule.</SUBJECT>
            <P>In place of the procedure in § 65.115, an applicant for a senior parachute rigger certificate is entitled to it if he passes a written test on the regulations of this subpart and presents satisfactory documentary evidence that he—</P>
            <P>(a) Is a member or civilian employee of an Armed Force of the United States, is a civilian employee of a regular armed force of a foreign country, or has, within the 12 months before he applies, been honorably discharged or released from any status covered by this paragraph;</P>

            <P>(b) Is serving, or has served within the 12 months before he applies, as a <PRTPAGE P="134"/>parachute rigger for such an Armed Force; and</P>
            <P>(c) Has the experience required by § 65.115(a).</P>
          </SECTION>
          <SECTION>
            <SECTNO>§ 65.119</SECTNO>
            <SUBJECT>Master parachute rigger certificate: Experience, knowledge, and skill requirements.</SUBJECT>
            <P>An applicant for a master parachute rigger certificate must meet the following requirements:</P>
            <P>(a) Present evidence satisfactory to the Administrator that he has had at least 3 years of experience as a parachute rigger and has satisfactorily packed at least 100 parachutes of each of two types in common use, in accordance with the manufacturer's instructions—</P>
            <P>(1) While a certificated and appropriately rated senior parachute rigger; or</P>
            <P>(2) While under the supervision of a certificated and appropriately rated parachute rigger or a person holding appropriate military ratings.</P>
            <FP>An applicant may combine experience specified in paragraphs (a) (1) and (2) of this section to meet the requirements of this paragraph.</FP>
            <P>(b) If the applicant is not the holder of a senior parachute rigger certificate, pass a written test, with respect to parachutes in common use, on—</P>
            <P>(1) Their construction, packing, and maintenance;</P>
            <P>(2) The manufacturer's instructions; and</P>
            <P>(3) The regulations of this subpart.</P>
            <P>(c) Pass an oral and practical test showing his ability to pack and maintain two types of parachutes in common use, appropriate to the type ratings he seeks.</P>
            <CITA>[Doc. No. 10468, 37 FR 13252, July 6, 1972]</CITA>
          </SECTION>
          <SECTION>
            <SECTNO>§ 65.121</SECTNO>
            <SUBJECT>Type ratings.</SUBJECT>
            <P>(a) The following type ratings are issued under this subpart:</P>
            <P>(1) Seat.</P>
            <P>(2) Back.</P>
            <P>(3) Chest.</P>
            <P>(4) Lap.</P>
            <P>(b) The holder of a senior parachute rigger certificate who qualifies for a master parachute rigger certificate is entitled to have placed on his master parachute rigger certificate the ratings that were on his senior parachute rigger certificate.</P>
          </SECTION>
          <SECTION>
            <SECTNO>§ 65.123</SECTNO>
            <SUBJECT>Additional type ratings: Requirements.</SUBJECT>
            <P>A certificated parachute rigger who applies for an additional type rating must—</P>
            <P>(a) Present evidence satisfactory to the Administrator that he has packed at least 20 parachutes of the type for which he seeks a rating, in accordance with the manufacturer's instructions and under the supervision of a certificated parachute rigger holding a rating for that type or a person holding an appropriate military rating; and</P>
            <P>(b) Pass a practical test, to the satisfaction of the Administrator, showing his ability to pack and maintain the type of parachute for which he seeks a rating.</P>
            <CITA>[Doc. No. 1179, 27 FR 7973, Aug. 10, 1962, as amended by Amdt. 65-20, 37 FR 13251, July 6, 1972]</CITA>
          </SECTION>
          <SECTION>
            <SECTNO>§ 65.125</SECTNO>
            <SUBJECT>Certificates: Privileges.</SUBJECT>
            <P>(a) A certificated senior parachute rigger may—</P>
            <P>(1) Pack or maintain (except for major repair) any type of parachute for which he is rated; and</P>
            <P>(2) Supervise other persons in packing any type of parachute for which that person is rated in accordance with § 105.43(a) or § 105.45(b)(1) of this chapter.</P>
            <P>(b) A certificated master parachute rigger may—</P>
            <P>(1) Pack, maintain, or alter any type of parachute for which he is rated; and</P>
            <P>(2) Supervise other persons in packing, maintaining, or altering any type of parachute for which the certificated parachute rigger is rated in accordance with § 105.43(a) or § 105.45(b)(1) of this chapter.</P>
            <P>(c) A certificated parachute rigger need not comply with §§ 65.127 through 65.133 (relating to facilities, equipment, performance standards, records, recent experience, and seal) in packing, maintaining, or altering (if authorized) the main parachute of a dual parachute pack to be used for intentional jumping.</P>
            <CITA>[Doc. No. 1179, 27 FR 7973, Aug. 10, 1962, as amended by Amdt. 65-20, 37 FR 13252, July 6, 1972; Amdt. 65-42, 66 FR 23553, May 9, 2001]</CITA>
          </SECTION>
          <SECTION>
            <PRTPAGE P="135"/>
            <SECTNO>§ 65.127</SECTNO>
            <SUBJECT>Facilities and equipment.</SUBJECT>
            <P>No certificated parachute rigger may exercise the privileges of his certificate unless he has at least the following facilities and equipment available to him:</P>
            <P>(a) A smooth top table at least three feet wide by 40 feet long.</P>
            <P>(b) Suitable housing that is adequately heated, lighted, and ventilated for drying and airing parachutes.</P>
            <P>(c) Enough packing tools and other equipment to pack and maintain the types of parachutes that he services.</P>
            <P>(d) Adequate housing facilities to perform his duties and to protect his tools and equipment.</P>
            <CITA>[Doc. No. 1179, 27 FR 7973, Aug. 10, 1962, as amended by Amdt. 65-27, 47 FR 13316, Mar. 29, 1982]</CITA>
          </SECTION>
          <SECTION>
            <SECTNO>§ 65.129</SECTNO>
            <SUBJECT>Performance standards.</SUBJECT>
            <P>No certificated parachute rigger may—</P>
            <P>(a) Pack, maintain, or alter any parachute unless he is rated for that type;</P>
            <P>(b) Pack a parachute that is not safe for emergency use;</P>
            <P>(c) Pack a parachute that has not been thoroughly dried and aired;</P>
            <P>(d) Alter a parachute in a manner that is not specifically authorized by the Administrator or the manufacturer;</P>
            <P>(e) Pack, maintain, or alter a parachute in any manner that deviates from procedures approved by the Administrator or the manufacturer of the parachute; or</P>
            <P>(f) Exercise the privileges of his certificate and type rating unless he understands the current manufacturer's instructions for the operation involved and has—</P>
            <P>(1) Performed duties under his certificate for at least 90 days within the preceding 12 months; or</P>
            <P>(2) Shown the Administrator that he is able to perform those duties.</P>
          </SECTION>
          <SECTION>
            <SECTNO>§ 65.131</SECTNO>
            <SUBJECT>Records.</SUBJECT>
            <P>(a) Each certificated parachute rigger shall keep a record of the packing, maintenance, and alteration of parachutes performed or supervised by him. He shall keep in that record, with respect to each parachute worked on, a statement of—</P>
            <P>(1) Its type and make;</P>
            <P>(2) Its serial number;</P>
            <P>(3) The name and address of its owner;</P>
            <P>(4) The kind and extent of the work performed;</P>
            <P>(5) The date when and place where the work was performed; and</P>
            <P>(6) The results of any drop tests made with it.</P>
            <P>(b) Each person who makes a record under paragraph (a) of this section shall keep it for at least 2 years after the date it is made.</P>
            <P>(c) Each certificated parachute rigger who packs a parachute shall write, on the parachute packing record attached to the parachute, the date and place of the packing and a notation of any defects he finds on inspection. He shall sign that record with his name and the number of his certificate.</P>
          </SECTION>
          <SECTION>
            <SECTNO>§ 65.133</SECTNO>
            <SUBJECT>Seal.</SUBJECT>
            <P>Each certificated parachute rigger must have a seal with an identifying mark prescribed by the Administrator, and a seal press. After packing a parachute he shall seal the pack with his seal in accordance with the manufacturer's recommendation for that type of parachute.</P>
          </SECTION>
          <APPENDIX>
            <EAR>Pt. 65, App. A</EAR>
            <HD SOURCE="HED">Appendix A to Part 65—Aircraft Dispatcher Courses</HD>
            <HD SOURCE="HD2">Overview</HD>
            <P>This appendix sets forth the areas of knowledge necessary to perform dispatcher functions. The items listed below indicate the minimum set of topics that must be covered in a training course for aircraft dispatcher certification. The order of coverage is at the discretion of the approved school. For the latest technological advancements refer to the Practical Test Standards as published by the FAA.</P>
            <FP SOURCE="FP-2">I. Regulations</FP>
            <FP SOURCE="FP1-2">A. Subpart C of this part;</FP>
            <FP SOURCE="FP1-2">B. Parts 1, 25, 61, 71, 91, 121, 139, and 175, of this chapter;</FP>
            <FP SOURCE="FP1-2">C. 49 CFR part 830;</FP>
            <FP SOURCE="FP1-2">D. General Operating Manual.</FP>
            <FP SOURCE="FP-2">II. Meteorology</FP>
            <FP SOURCE="FP1-2">A. Basic Weather Studies</FP>
            <FP SOURCE="FP1-2">(1) The earth's motion and its effects on weather.</FP>
            <FP SOURCE="FP1-2">(2) Analysis of the following regional weather types, characteristics, and structures, or combinations thereof:</FP>
            <FP SOURCE="FP1-2">(a) Maritime.</FP>
            <FP SOURCE="FP1-2">(b) Continental.<PRTPAGE P="136"/>
            </FP>
            <FP SOURCE="FP1-2">(c) Polar.</FP>
            <FP SOURCE="FP1-2">(d) Tropical.</FP>
            <FP SOURCE="FP1-2">(3) Analysis of the following local weather types, characteristics, and structures or combinations thereof:</FP>
            <FP SOURCE="FP1-2">(a) Coastal.</FP>
            <FP SOURCE="FP1-2">(b) Mountainous.</FP>
            <FP SOURCE="FP1-2">(c) Island.</FP>
            <FP SOURCE="FP1-2">(d) Plains.</FP>
            <FP SOURCE="FP1-2">(4) The following characteristics of the atmosphere:</FP>
            <FP SOURCE="FP1-2">(a) Layers.</FP>
            <FP SOURCE="FP1-2">(b) Composition.</FP>
            <FP SOURCE="FP1-2">(c) Global Wind Patterns.</FP>
            <FP SOURCE="FP1-2">(d) Ozone.</FP>
            <FP SOURCE="FP1-2">(5) Pressure:</FP>
            <FP SOURCE="FP1-2">(a) Units of Measure.</FP>
            <FP SOURCE="FP1-2">(b) Weather Systems Characteristics.</FP>
            <FP SOURCE="FP1-2">(c) Temperature Effects on Pressure.</FP>
            <FP SOURCE="FP1-2">(d) Altimeters.</FP>
            <FP SOURCE="FP1-2">(e) Pressure Gradient Force.</FP>
            <FP SOURCE="FP1-2">(f) Pressure Pattern Flying Weather.</FP>
            <FP SOURCE="FP1-2">(6) Wind:</FP>
            <FP SOURCE="FP1-2">(a) Major Wind Systems and Coriolis Force.</FP>
            <FP SOURCE="FP1-2">(b) Jetstreams and their Characteristics.</FP>
            <FP SOURCE="FP1-2">(c) Local Wind and Related Terms.</FP>
            <FP SOURCE="FP1-2">(7) States of Matter:</FP>
            <FP SOURCE="FP1-2">(a) Solids, Liquid, and Gases.</FP>
            <FP SOURCE="FP1-2">(b) Causes of change of state.</FP>
            <FP SOURCE="FP1-2">(8) Clouds:</FP>
            <FP SOURCE="FP1-2">(a) Composition, Formation, and Dissipation.</FP>
            <FP SOURCE="FP1-2">(b) Types and Associated Precipitation.</FP>
            <FP SOURCE="FP1-2">(c) Use of Cloud Knowledge in Forecasting.</FP>
            <FP SOURCE="FP1-2">(9) Fog:</FP>
            <FP SOURCE="FP1-2">(a) Causes, Formation, and Dissipation.</FP>
            <FP SOURCE="FP1-2">(b) Types.</FP>
            <FP SOURCE="FP1-2">(10) Ice:</FP>
            <FP SOURCE="FP1-2">(a) Causes, Formation, and Dissipation.</FP>
            <FP SOURCE="FP1-2">(b) Types.</FP>
            <FP SOURCE="FP1-2">(11) Stability/Instability:</FP>
            <FP SOURCE="FP1-2">(a) Temperature Lapse Rate, Convection.</FP>
            <FP SOURCE="FP1-2">(b) Adiabatic Processes.</FP>
            <FP SOURCE="FP1-2">(c) Lifting Processes.</FP>
            <FP SOURCE="FP1-2">(d) Divergence.</FP>
            <FP SOURCE="FP1-2">(e) Convergence.</FP>
            <FP SOURCE="FP1-2">(12) Turbulence:</FP>
            <FP SOURCE="FP1-2">(a) Jetstream Associated.</FP>
            <FP SOURCE="FP1-2">(b) Pressure Pattern Recognition.</FP>
            <FP SOURCE="FP1-2">(c) Low Level Windshear.</FP>
            <FP SOURCE="FP1-2">(d) Mountain Waves.</FP>
            <FP SOURCE="FP1-2">(e) Thunderstorms.</FP>
            <FP SOURCE="FP1-2">(f) Clear Air Turbulence.</FP>
            <FP SOURCE="FP1-2">(13) Airmasses:</FP>
            <FP SOURCE="FP1-2">(a) Classification and Characteristics.</FP>
            <FP SOURCE="FP1-2">(b) Source Regions.</FP>
            <FP SOURCE="FP1-2">(c) Use of Airmass Knowledge in Forecasting.</FP>
            <FP SOURCE="FP1-2">(14) Fronts:</FP>
            <FP SOURCE="FP1-2">(a) Structure and Characteristics, Both Vertical and Horizontal.</FP>
            <FP SOURCE="FP1-2">(b) Frontal Types.</FP>
            <FP SOURCE="FP1-2">(c) Frontal Weather Flying.</FP>
            <FP SOURCE="FP1-2">(15) Theory of Storm Systems:</FP>
            <FP SOURCE="FP1-2">(a) Thunderstorms.</FP>
            <FP SOURCE="FP1-2">(b) Tornadoes.</FP>
            <FP SOURCE="FP1-2">(c) Hurricanes and Typhoons.</FP>
            <FP SOURCE="FP1-2">(d) Microbursts.</FP>
            <FP SOURCE="FP1-2">(e) Causes, Formation, and Dissipation.</FP>
            <FP SOURCE="FP1-2">B. Weather, Analysis, and Forecasts</FP>
            <FP SOURCE="FP1-2">(1) Observations:</FP>
            <FP SOURCE="FP1-2">(a) Surface Observations.</FP>
            <FP SOURCE="FP1-2">(i) Observations made by certified weather observer.</FP>
            <FP SOURCE="FP1-2">(ii) Automated Weather Observations.</FP>
            <FP SOURCE="FP1-2">(b) Terminal Forecasts.</FP>
            <FP SOURCE="FP1-2">(c) Significant En route Reports and Forecasts.</FP>
            <FP SOURCE="FP1-2">(i) Pilot Reports.</FP>
            <FP SOURCE="FP1-2">(ii) Area Forecasts.</FP>
            <FP SOURCE="FP1-2">(iii) Sigmets, Airmets.</FP>
            <FP SOURCE="FP1-2">(iv) Center Weather Advisories.</FP>
            <FP SOURCE="FP1-2">(d) Weather Imagery.</FP>
            <FP SOURCE="FP1-2">(i) Surface Analysis.</FP>
            <FP SOURCE="FP1-2">(ii) Weather Depiction.</FP>
            <FP SOURCE="FP1-2">(iii) Significant Weather Prognosis.</FP>
            <FP SOURCE="FP1-2">(iv) Winds and Temperature Aloft.</FP>
            <FP SOURCE="FP1-2">(v) Tropopause Chart.</FP>
            <FP SOURCE="FP1-2">(vi) Composite Moisture Stability Chart.</FP>
            <FP SOURCE="FP1-2">(vii) Surface Weather Prognostic Chart.</FP>
            <FP SOURCE="FP1-2">(viii) Radar Meteorology.</FP>
            <FP SOURCE="FP1-2">(ix) Satellite Meteorology.</FP>
            <FP SOURCE="FP1-2">(x) Other charts as applicable.</FP>
            <FP SOURCE="FP1-2">(e) Meteorological Information Data Collection Systems.</FP>
            <FP SOURCE="FP1-2">(2) Data Collection, Analysis, and Forecast Facilities.</FP>
            <FP SOURCE="FP1-2">(3) Service Outlets Providing Aviation Weather Products.</FP>
            <FP SOURCE="FP1-2">C. Weather Related Aircraft Hazards</FP>
            <FP SOURCE="FP1-2">(1) Crosswinds and Gusts.</FP>
            <FP SOURCE="FP1-2">(2) Contaminated Runways.</FP>
            <FP SOURCE="FP1-2">(3) Restrictions to Surface Visibility.</FP>
            <FP SOURCE="FP1-2">(4) Turbulence and Windshear.</FP>
            <FP SOURCE="FP1-2">(5) Icing.</FP>
            <FP SOURCE="FP1-2">(6) Thunderstorms and Microburst.</FP>
            <FP SOURCE="FP1-2">(7) Volcanic Ash.</FP>
            <FP SOURCE="FP-2">III. Navigation</FP>
            <FP SOURCE="FP1-2">A. Study of the Earth</FP>
            <FP SOURCE="FP1-2">(1) Time reference and location (0 Longitude, UTC).</FP>
            <FP SOURCE="FP1-2">(2) Definitions.</FP>
            <FP SOURCE="FP1-2">(3) Projections.</FP>
            <FP SOURCE="FP1-2">(4) Charts.</FP>
            <FP SOURCE="FP1-2">B. Chart Reading, Application, and Use.</FP>
            <FP SOURCE="FP1-2">C. National Airspace Plan.</FP>
            <FP SOURCE="FP1-2">D. Navigation Systems.</FP>
            <FP SOURCE="FP1-2">E. Airborne Navigation Instruments.</FP>
            <FP SOURCE="FP1-2">F. Instrument Approach Procedures.</FP>
            <FP SOURCE="FP1-2">(1) Transition Procedures.</FP>
            <FP SOURCE="FP1-2">(2) Precision Approach Procedures.</FP>
            <FP SOURCE="FP1-2">(3) Non-precision Approach Procedures.</FP>
            <FP SOURCE="FP1-2">(4) Minimums and the relationship to weather.</FP>
            <FP SOURCE="FP1-2">G. Special Navigation and Operations.</FP>
            <FP SOURCE="FP1-2">(1) North Atlantic.</FP>
            <FP SOURCE="FP1-2">(2) Pacific.</FP>
            <FP SOURCE="FP1-2">(3) Global Differences.</FP>
            <FP SOURCE="FP-2">IV. AIRCRAFT</FP>
            <FP SOURCE="FP1-2">A. Aircraft Flight Manual.</FP>
            <FP SOURCE="FP1-2">B. Systems Overview.</FP>
            <FP SOURCE="FP1-2">(1) Flight controls.</FP>
            <FP SOURCE="FP1-2">(2) Hydraulics.<PRTPAGE P="137"/>
            </FP>
            <FP SOURCE="FP1-2">(3) Electrical.</FP>
            <FP SOURCE="FP1-2">(4) Air Conditioning and Pressurization.</FP>
            <FP SOURCE="FP1-2">(5) Ice and Rain protection.</FP>
            <FP SOURCE="FP1-2">(6) Avionics, Communication, and Navigation.</FP>
            <FP SOURCE="FP1-2">(7) Powerplants and Auxiliary Power Units.</FP>
            <FP SOURCE="FP1-2">(8) Emergency and Abnormal Procedures.</FP>
            <FP SOURCE="FP1-2">(9) Fuel Systems and Sources.</FP>
            <FP SOURCE="FP1-2">C. Minimum Equipment List/Configuration Deviation List (MEL/CDL) and Applications.</FP>
            <FP SOURCE="FP1-2">D. Performance.</FP>
            <FP SOURCE="FP1-2">(1) Aircraft in general.</FP>
            <FP SOURCE="FP1-2">(2) Principles of flight:</FP>
            <FP SOURCE="FP1-2">(a) Group one aircraft.</FP>
            <FP SOURCE="FP1-2">(b) Group two aircraft.</FP>
            <FP SOURCE="FP1-2">(3) Aircraft Limitations.</FP>
            <FP SOURCE="FP1-2">(4) Weight and Balance.</FP>
            <FP SOURCE="FP1-2">(5) Flight instrument errors.</FP>
            <FP SOURCE="FP1-2">(6) Aircraft performance:</FP>
            <FP SOURCE="FP1-2">(a) Take-off performance.</FP>
            <FP SOURCE="FP1-2">(b) En route performance.</FP>
            <FP SOURCE="FP1-2">(c) Landing performance.</FP>
            <FP SOURCE="FP-2">V. Communications</FP>
            <FP SOURCE="FP1-2">A. Regulatory requirements.</FP>
            <FP SOURCE="FP1-2">B. Communication Protocol.</FP>
            <FP SOURCE="FP1-2">C. Voice and Data Communications.</FP>
            <FP SOURCE="FP1-2">D. Notice to Airmen (NOTAMS).</FP>
            <FP SOURCE="FP1-2">E. Aeronautical Publications.</FP>
            <FP SOURCE="FP1-2">F. Abnormal Procedures.</FP>
            <FP SOURCE="FP-2">VI. Air Traffic Control</FP>
            <FP SOURCE="FP1-2">A. Responsibilities.</FP>
            <FP SOURCE="FP1-2">B. Facilities and Equipment.</FP>
            <FP SOURCE="FP1-2">C. Airspace classification and route structure.</FP>
            <FP SOURCE="FP1-2">D. Flight Plans.</FP>
            <FP SOURCE="FP1-2">(1) Domestic.</FP>
            <FP SOURCE="FP1-2">(2) International.</FP>
            <FP SOURCE="FP1-2">E. Separation Minimums.</FP>
            <FP SOURCE="FP1-2">F. Priority Handling.</FP>
            <FP SOURCE="FP1-2">G. Holding Procedures.</FP>
            <FP SOURCE="FP1-2">H. Traffic Management.</FP>
            <FP SOURCE="FP-2">VII. Emergency and Abnormal Procedures</FP>
            <FP SOURCE="FP1-2">A. Security measures on the ground.</FP>
            <FP SOURCE="FP1-2">B. Security measures in the air.</FP>
            <FP SOURCE="FP1-2">C. FAA responsibility and services.</FP>
            <FP SOURCE="FP1-2">D. Collection and dissemination of information on overdue or missing aircraft.</FP>
            <FP SOURCE="FP1-2">E. Means of declaring an emergency.</FP>
            <FP SOURCE="FP1-2">F. Responsibility for declaring an emergency.</FP>
            <FP SOURCE="FP1-2">G. Required reporting of an emergency.</FP>
            <FP SOURCE="FP1-2">H. NTSB reporting requirements.</FP>
            <FP SOURCE="FP-2">VIII. Practical Dispatch Applications</FP>
            <FP SOURCE="FP1-2">A. Human Factors.</FP>
            <FP SOURCE="FP1-2">(1) Decisionmaking:</FP>
            <FP SOURCE="FP1-2">(a) Situation Assessment.</FP>
            <FP SOURCE="FP1-2">(b) Generation and Evaluation of Alternatives.</FP>
            <FP SOURCE="FP1-2">(i) Tradeoffs and Prioritization.</FP>
            <FP SOURCE="FP1-2">(ii) Contingency Planning.</FP>
            <FP SOURCE="FP1-2">(c) Support Tools and Technologies.</FP>
            <FP SOURCE="FP1-2">(2) Human Error:</FP>
            <FP SOURCE="FP1-2">(a) Causes.</FP>
            <FP SOURCE="FP1-2">(i) Individual and Organizational Factors.</FP>
            <FP SOURCE="FP1-2">(ii) Technology-Induced Error.</FP>
            <FP SOURCE="FP1-2">(b) Prevention.</FP>
            <FP SOURCE="FP1-2">(c) Detection and Recovery.</FP>
            <FP SOURCE="FP1-2">(3) Teamwork:</FP>
            <FP SOURCE="FP1-2">(a) Communication and Information Exchange.</FP>
            <FP SOURCE="FP1-2">(b) Cooperative and Distributed Problem-Solving.</FP>
            <FP SOURCE="FP1-2">(c) Resource Management.</FP>
            <FP SOURCE="FP1-2">(i) Air Traffic Control (ATC) activities and workload.</FP>
            <FP SOURCE="FP1-2">(ii) Flightcrew activities and workload.</FP>
            <FP SOURCE="FP1-2">(iii) Maintenance activities and workload.</FP>
            <FP SOURCE="FP1-2">(iv) Operations Control Staff activities and workload.</FP>
            <FP SOURCE="FP1-2">B. Applied Dispatching.</FP>
            <FP SOURCE="FP1-2">(1) Briefing techniques, Dispatcher, Pilot.</FP>
            <FP SOURCE="FP1-2">(2) Preflight:</FP>
            <FP SOURCE="FP1-2">(a) Safety.</FP>
            <FP SOURCE="FP1-2">(b) Weather Analysis.</FP>
            <FP SOURCE="FP1-2">(i) Satellite imagery.</FP>
            <FP SOURCE="FP1-2">(ii) Upper and lower altitude charts.</FP>
            <FP SOURCE="FP1-2">(iii) Significant en route reports and forecasts.</FP>
            <FP SOURCE="FP1-2">(iv) Surface charts.</FP>
            <FP SOURCE="FP1-2">(v) Surface observations.</FP>
            <FP SOURCE="FP1-2">(vi) Terminal forecasts and orientation to Enhanced Weather Information System (EWINS).</FP>
            <FP SOURCE="FP1-2">(c) NOTAMS and airport conditions.</FP>
            <FP SOURCE="FP1-2">(d) Crew.</FP>
            <FP SOURCE="FP1-2">(i) Qualifications.</FP>
            <FP SOURCE="FP1-2">(ii) Limitations.</FP>
            <FP SOURCE="FP1-2">(e) Aircraft.</FP>
            <FP SOURCE="FP1-2">(i) Systems.</FP>
            <FP SOURCE="FP1-2">(ii) Navigation instruments and avionics systems.</FP>
            <FP SOURCE="FP1-2">(iii) Flight instruments.</FP>
            <FP SOURCE="FP1-2">(iv) Operations manuals and MEL/CDL.</FP>
            <FP SOURCE="FP1-2">(v) Performance and limitations.</FP>
            <FP SOURCE="FP1-2">(f) Flight Planning.</FP>
            <FP SOURCE="FP1-2">(i) Route of flight.</FP>
            <FP SOURCE="FP1-2">1. Standard Instrument Departures and Standard Terminal Arrival Routes.</FP>
            <FP SOURCE="FP1-2">2. En route charts.</FP>
            <FP SOURCE="FP1-2">3. Operational altitude.</FP>
            <FP SOURCE="FP1-2">4. Departure and arrival charts.</FP>
            <FP SOURCE="FP1-2">(ii) Minimum departure fuel.</FP>
            <FP SOURCE="FP1-2">1. Climb.</FP>
            <FP SOURCE="FP1-2">2. Cruise.</FP>
            <FP SOURCE="FP1-2">3. Descent.</FP>
            <FP SOURCE="FP1-2">(g) Weight and balance.</FP>
            <FP SOURCE="FP1-2">(h) Economics of flight overview (Performance, Fuel Tankering).</FP>
            <FP SOURCE="FP1-2">(i) Decision to operate the flight.</FP>
            <FP SOURCE="FP1-2">(j) ATC flight plan filing.</FP>
            <FP SOURCE="FP1-2">(k) Flight documentation.</FP>
            <FP SOURCE="FP1-2">(i) Flight plan.</FP>
            <FP SOURCE="FP1-2">(ii) Dispatch release.</FP>
            <FP SOURCE="FP1-2">(3) Authorize flight departure with concurrence of pilot in command.</FP>
            <FP SOURCE="FP1-2">(4) In-flight operational control:</FP>
            <FP SOURCE="FP1-2">(a) Current situational awareness.</FP>
            <FP SOURCE="FP1-2">(b) Information exchange.</FP>
            <FP SOURCE="FP1-2">(c) Amend original flight release as required.</FP>
            <FP SOURCE="FP1-2">(5) Post-Flight:</FP>
            <FP SOURCE="FP1-2">(a) Arrival verification.<PRTPAGE P="138"/>
            </FP>
            <FP SOURCE="FP1-2">(b) Weather debrief.</FP>
            <FP SOURCE="FP1-2">(c) Flight irregularity reports as required.</FP>
            <CITA>[Doc. No. FAA-1998-4553, 64 FR 68925, Dec. 8, 1999]</CITA>
          </APPENDIX>
        </SUBPART>
      </PART>
      <PART>
        <EAR>Pt. 67</EAR>
        <HD SOURCE="HED">PART 67—MEDICAL STANDARDS AND CERTIFICATION</HD>
        <CONTENTS>
          <SUBPART>
            <HD SOURCE="HED">Subpart A—General</HD>
            <SECHD>Sec.</SECHD>
            <SECTNO>67.1</SECTNO>
            <SUBJECT>Applicability.</SUBJECT>
            <SECTNO>67.3</SECTNO>
            <SUBJECT>Issue.</SUBJECT>
            <SECTNO>67.7</SECTNO>
            <SUBJECT>Access to the National Driver Register.</SUBJECT>
          </SUBPART>
          <SUBPART>
            <HD SOURCE="HED">Subpart B—First-Class Airman Medical Certificate</HD>
            <SECTNO>67.101</SECTNO>
            <SUBJECT>Eligibility.</SUBJECT>
            <SECTNO>67.103</SECTNO>
            <SUBJECT>Eye.</SUBJECT>
            <SECTNO>67.105</SECTNO>
            <SUBJECT>Ear, nose, throat, and equilibrium.</SUBJECT>
            <SECTNO>67.107</SECTNO>
            <SUBJECT>Mental.</SUBJECT>
            <SECTNO>67.109</SECTNO>
            <SUBJECT>Neurologic.</SUBJECT>
            <SECTNO>67.111</SECTNO>
            <SUBJECT>Cardiovascular.</SUBJECT>
            <SECTNO>67.113</SECTNO>
            <SUBJECT>General medical condition.</SUBJECT>
            <SECTNO>67.115</SECTNO>
            <SUBJECT>Discretionary issuance.</SUBJECT>
          </SUBPART>
          <SUBPART>
            <HD SOURCE="HED">Subpart C—Second-Class Airman Medical Certificate</HD>
            <SECTNO>67.201</SECTNO>
            <SUBJECT>Eligibility.</SUBJECT>
            <SECTNO>67.203</SECTNO>
            <SUBJECT>Eye.</SUBJECT>
            <SECTNO>67.205</SECTNO>
            <SUBJECT>Ear, nose, throat, and equilibrium.</SUBJECT>
            <SECTNO>67.207</SECTNO>
            <SUBJECT>Mental.</SUBJECT>
            <SECTNO>67.209</SECTNO>
            <SUBJECT>Neurologic.</SUBJECT>
            <SECTNO>67.211</SECTNO>
            <SUBJECT>Cardiovascular.</SUBJECT>
            <SECTNO>67.213</SECTNO>
            <SUBJECT>General medical condition.</SUBJECT>
            <SECTNO>67.215</SECTNO>
            <SUBJECT>Discretionary issuance.</SUBJECT>
          </SUBPART>
          <SUBPART>
            <HD SOURCE="HED">Subpart D—Third-Class Airman Medical Certificate</HD>
            <SECTNO>67.301</SECTNO>
            <SUBJECT>Eligibility.</SUBJECT>
            <SECTNO>67.303</SECTNO>
            <SUBJECT>Eye.</SUBJECT>
            <SECTNO>67.305</SECTNO>
            <SUBJECT>Ear, nose, throat, and equilibrium.</SUBJECT>
            <SECTNO>67.307</SECTNO>
            <SUBJECT>Mental.</SUBJECT>
            <SECTNO>67.309</SECTNO>
            <SUBJECT>Neurologic.</SUBJECT>
            <SECTNO>67.311</SECTNO>
            <SUBJECT>Cardiovascular.</SUBJECT>
            <SECTNO>67.313</SECTNO>
            <SUBJECT>General medical condition.</SUBJECT>
            <SECTNO>67.315</SECTNO>
            <SUBJECT>Discretionary issuance.</SUBJECT>
          </SUBPART>
          <SUBPART>
            <HD SOURCE="HED">Subpart E—Certification Procedures</HD>
            <SECTNO>67.401</SECTNO>
            <SUBJECT>Special issuance of medical certificates.</SUBJECT>
            <SECTNO>67.403</SECTNO>
            <SUBJECT>Applications, certificates, logbooks, reports, and records: Falsification, reproduction, or alteration; incorrect statements.</SUBJECT>
            <SECTNO>67.405</SECTNO>
            <SUBJECT>Medical examinations: Who may give.</SUBJECT>
            <SECTNO>67.407</SECTNO>
            <SUBJECT>Delegation of authority.</SUBJECT>
            <SECTNO>67.409</SECTNO>
            <SUBJECT>Denial of medical certificate.</SUBJECT>
            <SECTNO>67.411</SECTNO>
            <SUBJECT>Medical certificates by flight surgeons of Armed Forces.</SUBJECT>
            <SECTNO>67.413</SECTNO>
            <SUBJECT>Medical records.</SUBJECT>
            <SECTNO>67.415</SECTNO>
            <SUBJECT>Return of medical certificate after suspension or revocation.</SUBJECT>
          </SUBPART>
        </CONTENTS>
        <AUTH>
          <HD SOURCE="HED">Authority:</HD>
          <P>49 U.S.C. 106(g), 40113, 44701-44703, 44707, 44709-44711, 45102-45103, 45301-45303.</P>
        </AUTH>
        <SOURCE>
          <HD SOURCE="HED">Source:</HD>
          <P>Docket No. 27940, 61 FR 11256, Mar. 19, 1996, unless otherwise noted.</P>
        </SOURCE>
        <SUBPART>
          <HD SOURCE="HED">Subpart A—General</HD>
          <SECTION>
            <SECTNO>§ 67.1</SECTNO>
            <SUBJECT>Applicability.</SUBJECT>
            <P>This part prescribes the medical standards and certification procedures for issuing medical certificates for airmen and for remaining eligible for a medical certificate.</P>
          </SECTION>
          <SECTION>
            <SECTNO>§ 67.3</SECTNO>
            <SUBJECT>Issue.</SUBJECT>
            <P>Except as provided in § 67.5, a person who meets the medical standards prescribed in this part, based on medical examination and evaluation of the person's history and condition, is entitled to an appropriate medical certificate.</P>
          </SECTION>
          <SECTION>
            <SECTNO>§ 67.7</SECTNO>
            <SUBJECT>Access to the National Driver Register.</SUBJECT>
            <P>At the time of application for a certificate issued under this part, each person who applies for a medical certificate shall execute an express consent form authorizing the Administrator to request the chief driver licensing official of any state designated by the Administrator to transmit information contained in the National Driver Register about the person to the Administrator. The Administrator shall make information received from the National Driver Register, if any, available on request to the person for review and written comment.</P>
          </SECTION>
        </SUBPART>
        <SUBPART>
          <HD SOURCE="HED">Subpart B—First-Class Airman Medical Certificate</HD>
          <SECTION>
            <SECTNO>§ 67.101</SECTNO>
            <SUBJECT>Eligibility.</SUBJECT>
            <P>To be eligible for a first-class airman medical certificate, and to remain eligible for a first-class airman medical certificate, a person must meet the requirements of this subpart.</P>
          </SECTION>
          <SECTION>
            <SECTNO>§ 67.103</SECTNO>
            <SUBJECT>Eye.</SUBJECT>
            <P>Eye standards for a first-class airman medical certificate are:</P>

            <P>(a) Distant visual acuity of 20/20 or better in each eye separately, with or <PRTPAGE P="139"/>without corrective lenses. If corrective lenses (spectacles or contact lenses) are necessary for 20/20 vision, the person may be eligible only on the condition that corrective lenses are worn while exercising the privileges of an airman certificate.</P>
            <P>(b) Near vision of 20/40 or better, Snellen equivalent, at 16 inches in each eye separately, with or without corrective lenses. If age 50 or older, near vision of 20/40 or better, Snellen equivalent, at both 16 inches and 32 inches in each eye separately, with or without corrective lenses.</P>
            <P>(c) Ability to perceive those colors necessary for the safe performance of airman duties.</P>
            <P>(d) Normal fields of vision.</P>
            <P>(e) No acute or chronic pathological condition of either eye or adnexa that interferes with the proper function of an eye, that may reasonably be expected to progress to that degree, or that may reasonably be expected to be aggravated by flying.</P>
            <P>(f) Bifoveal fixation and vergence-phoria relationship sufficient to prevent a break in fusion under conditions that may reasonably be expected to occur in performing airman duties. Tests for the factors named in this paragraph are not required except for persons found to have more than 1 prism diopter of hyperphoria, 6 prism diopters of esophoria, or 6 prism diopters of exophoria. If any of these values are exceeded, the Federal Air Surgeon may require the person to be examined by a qualified eye specialist to determine if there is bifoveal fixation and an adequate vergence-phoria relationship. However, if otherwise eligible, the person is issued a medical certificate pending the results of the examination.</P>
          </SECTION>
          <SECTION>
            <SECTNO>§ 67.105</SECTNO>
            <SUBJECT>Ear, nose, throat, and equilibrium.</SUBJECT>
            <P>Ear, nose, throat, and equilibrium standards for a first-class airman medical certificate are:</P>
            <P>(a) The person shall demonstrate acceptable hearing by at least one of the following tests:</P>
            <P>(1) Demonstrate an ability to hear an average conversational voice in a quiet room, using both ears, at a distance of 6 feet from the examiner, with the back turned to the examiner.</P>
            <P>(2) Demonstrate an acceptable understanding of speech as determined by audiometric speech discrimination testing to a score of at least 70 percent obtained in one ear or in a sound field environment.</P>
            <P>(3) Provide acceptable results of pure tone audiometric testing of unaided hearing acuity according to the following table of worst acceptable thresholds, using the calibration standards of the American National Standards Institute, 1969 (11 West 42d Street, New York, NY 10036):</P>
            <GPOTABLE CDEF="s30,3,4,4,4" COLS="5" OPTS="L2,b2,i1">
              <BOXHD>
                <CHED H="1">Frequency (Hz)</CHED>
                <CHED H="1">500 Hz</CHED>
                <CHED H="1">1000 Hz</CHED>
                <CHED H="1">2000 Hz</CHED>
                <CHED H="1">3000 Hz</CHED>
              </BOXHD>
              <ROW>
                <ENT I="01">Better ear (Db)</ENT>
                <ENT>35</ENT>
                <ENT>30</ENT>
                <ENT>30</ENT>
                <ENT>40</ENT>
              </ROW>
              <ROW>
                <ENT I="01">Poorer ear (Db)</ENT>
                <ENT>35</ENT>
                <ENT>50</ENT>
                <ENT>50</ENT>
                <ENT>60</ENT>
              </ROW>
            </GPOTABLE>
            <P>(b) No disease or condition of the middle or internal ear, nose, oral cavity, pharynx, or larynx that—</P>
            <P>(1) Interferes with, or is aggravated by, flying or may reasonably be expected to do so; or</P>
            <P>(2) Interferes with, or may reasonably be expected to interfere with, clear and effective speech communication.</P>
            <P>(c) No disease or condition manifested by, or that may reasonably be expected to be manifested by, vertigo or a disturbance of equilibrium.</P>
          </SECTION>
          <SECTION>
            <SECTNO>§ 67.107</SECTNO>
            <SUBJECT>Mental.</SUBJECT>
            <P>Mental standards for a first-class airman medical certificate are:</P>
            <P>(a) No established medical history or clinical diagnosis of any of the following:</P>
            <P>(1) A personality disorder that is severe enough to have repeatedly manifested itself by overt acts.</P>
            <P>(2) A psychosis. As used in this section, “psychosis” refers to a mental disorder in which:</P>
            <P>(i) The individual has manifested delusions, hallucinations, grossly bizarre or disorganized behavior, or other commonly accepted symptoms of this condition; or</P>
            <P>(ii) The individual may reasonably be expected to manifest delusions, hallucinations, grossly bizarre or disorganized behavior, or other commonly accepted symptoms of this condition.</P>
            <P>(3) A bipolar disorder.<PRTPAGE P="140"/>
            </P>
            <P>(4) Substance dependence, except where there is established clinical evidence, satisfactory to the Federal Air Surgeon, of recovery, including sustained total abstinence from the substance(s) for not less than the preceding 2 years. As used in this section—</P>
            <P>(i) “Substance” includes: Alcohol; other sedatives and hypnotics; anxiolytics; opioids; central nervous system stimulants such as cocaine, amphetamines, and similarly acting sympathomimetics; hallucinogens; phencyclidine or similarly acting arylcyclohexylamines; cannabis; inhalants; and other psychoactive drugs and chemicals; and</P>
            <P>(ii) “Substance dependence” means a condition in which a person is dependent on a substance, other than tobacco or ordinary xanthine-containing (e.g., caffeine) beverages, as evidenced by—</P>
            <P>(A) Increased tolerance;</P>
            <P>(B) Manifestation of withdrawal symptoms;</P>
            <P>(C) Impaired control of use; or</P>
            <P>(D) Continued use despite damage to physical health or impairment of social, personal, or occupational functioning.</P>
            <P>(b) No substance abuse within the preceding 2 years defined as:</P>
            <P>(1) Use of a substance in a situation in which that use was physically hazardous, if there has been at any other time an instance of the use of a substance also in a situation in which that use was physically hazardous;</P>
            <P>(2) A verified positive drug test result acquired under an anti-drug program or internal program of the U.S. Department of Transportation or any other Administration within the U.S. Department of Transportation; or</P>
            <P>(3) Misuse of a substance that the Federal Air Surgeon, based on case history and appropriate, qualified medical judgment relating to the substance involved, finds—</P>
            <P>(i) Makes the person unable to safely perform the duties or exercise the privileges of the airman certificate applied for or held; or</P>
            <P>(ii) May reasonably be expected, for the maximum duration of the airman medical certificate applied for or held, to make the person unable to perform those duties or exercise those privileges.</P>
            <P>(c) No other personality disorder, neurosis, or other mental condition that the Federal Air Surgeon, based on the case history and appropriate, qualified medical judgment relating to the condition involved, finds—</P>
            <P>(1) Makes the person unable to safely perform the duties or exercise the privileges of the airman certificate applied for or held; or</P>
            <P>(2) May reasonably be expected, for the maximum duration of the airman medical certificate applied for or held, to make the person unable to perform those duties or exercise those privileges.</P>
          </SECTION>
          <SECTION>
            <SECTNO>§ 67.109</SECTNO>
            <SUBJECT>Neurologic.</SUBJECT>
            <P>Neurologic standards for a first-class airman medical certificate are:</P>
            <P>(a) No established medical history or clinical diagnosis of any of the following:</P>
            <P>(1) Epilepsy;</P>
            <P>(2) A disturbance of consciousness without satisfactory medical explanation of the cause; or</P>
            <P>(3) A transient loss of control of nervous system function(s) without satisfactory medical explanation of the cause.</P>
            <P>(b) No other seizure disorder, disturbance of consciousness, or neurologic condition that the Federal Air Surgeon, based on the case history and appropriate, qualified medical judgment relating to the condition involved, finds—</P>
            <P>(1) Makes the person unable to safely perform the duties or exercise the privileges of the airman certificate applied for or held; or</P>
            <P>(2) May reasonably be expected, for the maximum duration of the airman medical certificate applied for or held, to make the person unable to perform those duties or exercise those privileges.</P>
          </SECTION>
          <SECTION>
            <SECTNO>§ 67.111</SECTNO>
            <SUBJECT>Cardiovascular.</SUBJECT>
            <P>Cardiovascular standards for a first-class airman medical certificate are:</P>
            <P>(a) No established medical history or clinical diagnosis of any of the following:</P>
            <P>(1) Myocardial infarction;</P>
            <P>(2) Angina pectoris;<PRTPAGE P="141"/>
            </P>
            <P>(3) Coronary heart disease that has required treatment or, if untreated, that has been symptomatic or clinically significant;</P>
            <P>(4) Cardiac valve replacement;</P>
            <P>(5) Permanent cardiac pacemaker implantation; or</P>
            <P>(6) Heart replacement;</P>
            <P>(b) A person applying for first-class medical certification must demonstrate an absence of myocardial infarction and other clinically significant abnormality on electrocardiographic examination:</P>
            <P>(1) At the first application after reaching the 35th birthday; and</P>
            <P>(2) On an annual basis after reaching the 40th birthday.</P>
            <P>(c) An electrocardiogram will satisfy a requirement of paragraph (b) of this section if it is dated no earlier than 60 days before the date of the application it is to accompany and was performed and transmitted according to acceptable standards and techniques.</P>
          </SECTION>
          <SECTION>
            <SECTNO>§ 67.113</SECTNO>
            <SUBJECT>General medical condition.</SUBJECT>
            <P>The general medical standards for a first-class airman medical certificate are:</P>
            <P>(a) No established medical history or clinical diagnosis of diabetes mellitus that requires insulin or any other hypoglycemic drug for control.</P>
            <P>(b) No other organic, functional, or structural disease, defect, or limitation that the Federal Air Surgeon, based on the case history and appropriate, qualified medical judgment relating to the condition involved, finds—</P>
            <P>(1) Makes the person unable to safely perform the duties or exercise the privileges of the airman certificate applied for or held; or</P>
            <P>(2) May reasonably be expected, for the maximum duration of the airman medical certificate applied for or held, to make the person unable to perform those duties or exercise those privileges.</P>
            <P>(c) No medication or other treatment that the Federal Air Surgeon, based on the case history and appropriate, qualified medical judgment relating to the medication or other treatment involved, finds—</P>
            <P>(1) Makes the person unable to safely perform the duties or exercise the privileges of the airman certificate applied for or held; or</P>
            <P>(2) May reasonably be expected, for the maximum duration of the airman medical certificate applied for or held, to make the person unable to perform those duties or exercise those privileges.</P>
          </SECTION>
          <SECTION>
            <SECTNO>§ 67.115</SECTNO>
            <SUBJECT>Discretionary issuance.</SUBJECT>
            <P>A person who does not meet the provisions of §§ 67.103 through 67.113 may apply for the discretionary issuance of a certificate under § 67.401.</P>
          </SECTION>
        </SUBPART>
        <SUBPART>
          <HD SOURCE="HED">Subpart C—Second-Class Airman Medical Certificate</HD>
          <SECTION>
            <SECTNO>§ 67.201</SECTNO>
            <SUBJECT>Eligibility.</SUBJECT>
            <P>To be eligible for a second-class airman medical certificate, and to remain eligible for a second-class airman medical certificate, a person must meet the requirements of this subpart.</P>
          </SECTION>
          <SECTION>
            <SECTNO>§ 67.203</SECTNO>
            <SUBJECT>Eye.</SUBJECT>
            <P>Eye standards for a second-class airman medical certificate are:</P>
            <P>(a) Distant visual acuity of 20/20 or better in each eye separately, with or without corrective lenses. If corrective lenses (spectacles or contact lenses) are necessary for 20/20 vision, the person may be eligible only on the condition that corrective lenses are worn while exercising the privileges of an airman certificate.</P>
            <P>(b) Near vision of 20/40 or better, Snellen equivalent, at 16 inches in each eye separately, with or without corrective lenses. If age 50 or older, near vision of 20/40 or better, Snellen equivalent, at both 16 inches and 32 inches in each eye separately, with or without corrective lenses.</P>
            <P>(c) Ability to perceive those colors necessary for the safe performance of airman duties.</P>
            <P>(d) Normal fields of vision.</P>
            <P>(e) No acute or chronic pathological condition of either eye or adnexa thatinterferes with the proper function of an eye, that may reasonably be expected to progress to that degree, or that may reasonably be expected to be aggravated by flying.</P>

            <P>(f) Bifoveal fixation and vergence-phoria relationship sufficient to prevent a break in fusion under conditions <PRTPAGE P="142"/>that may reasonably be expected to occur in performing airman duties. Tests for the factors named in this paragraph are not required except for persons found to have more than 1 prism diopter of hyperphoria, 6 prism diopters of esophoria, or 6 prism diopters of exophoria. If any of these values are exceeded, the Federal Air Surgeon may require the person to be examined by a qualified eye specialist to determine if there is bifoveal fixation and an adequate vergence-phoria relationship. However, if otherwise eligible, the person is issued a medical certificate pending the results of the examination.</P>
          </SECTION>
          <SECTION>
            <SECTNO>§ 67.205</SECTNO>
            <SUBJECT>Ear, nose, throat, and equilibrium.</SUBJECT>
            <P>Ear, nose, throat, and equilibrium standards for a second-class airman medical certificate are:</P>
            <P>(a) The person shall demonstrate acceptable hearing by at least one of the following tests:</P>
            <P>(1) Demonstrate an ability to hear an average conversational voice in a quiet room, using both ears, at a distance of 6 feet from the examiner, with the back turned to the examiner.</P>
            <P>(2) Demonstrate an acceptable understanding of speech as determined by audiometric speech discrimination testing to a score of at least 70 percent obtained in one ear or in a sound field environment.</P>
            <P>(3) Provide acceptable results of pure tone audiometric testing of unaided hearing acuity according to the following table of worst acceptable thresholds, using the calibration standards of the American National Standards Institute, 1969:</P>
            <GPOTABLE CDEF="s30,3,4,4,4" COLS="5" OPTS="L2,b2,i1">
              <BOXHD>
                <CHED H="1">Frequency (Hz)</CHED>
                <CHED H="1">500 Hz</CHED>
                <CHED H="1">1000 Hz</CHED>
                <CHED H="1">2000 Hz</CHED>
                <CHED H="1">3000 Hz</CHED>
              </BOXHD>
              <ROW>
                <ENT I="01">Better ear (Db)</ENT>
                <ENT>35</ENT>
                <ENT>30</ENT>
                <ENT>30</ENT>
                <ENT>40</ENT>
              </ROW>
              <ROW>
                <ENT I="01">Poorer ear (Db)</ENT>
                <ENT>35</ENT>
                <ENT>50</ENT>
                <ENT>50</ENT>
                <ENT>60</ENT>
              </ROW>
            </GPOTABLE>
            <P>(b) No disease or condition of the middle or internal ear, nose, oral cavity, pharynx, or larynx that—</P>
            <P>(1) Interferes with, or is aggravated by, flying or may reasonably be expected to do so; or</P>
            <P>(2) Interferes with, or may reasonably be expected to interfere with, clear and effective speech communication.</P>
            <P>(c) No disease or condition manifested by, or that may reasonably be expected to be manifested by, vertigo or a disturbance of equilibrium.</P>
          </SECTION>
          <SECTION>
            <SECTNO>§ 67.207</SECTNO>
            <SUBJECT>Mental.</SUBJECT>
            <P>Mental standards for a second-class airman medical certificate are:</P>
            <P>(a) No established medical history or clinical diagnosis of any of the following:</P>
            <P>(1) A personality disorder that is severe enough to have repeatedly manifested itself by overt acts.</P>
            <P>(2) A psychosis. As used in this section, “psychosis” refers to a mental disorder in which:</P>
            <P>(i) The individual has manifested delusions, hallucinations, grossly bizarre or disorganized behavior, or other commonly accepted symptoms of this condition; or</P>
            <P>(ii) The individual may reasonably be expected to manifest delusions, hallucinations, grossly bizarre or disorganized behavior, or other commonly accepted symptoms of this condition.</P>
            <P>(3) A bipolar disorder.</P>
            <P>(4) Substance dependence, except where there is established clinical evidence, satisfactory to the Federal Air Surgeon, of recovery, including sustained total abstinence from the substance(s) for not less than the preceding 2 years. As used in this section—</P>
            <P>(i) “Substance” includes: Alcohol; other sedatives and hypnotics; anxiolytics; opioids; central nervous system stimulants such as cocaine, amphetamines, and similarly acting sympathomimetics; hallucinogens; phencyclidine or similarly acting arylcyclohexylamines; cannabis; inhalants; and other psychoactive drugs and chemicals; and</P>
            <P>(ii) “Substance dependence” means a condition in which a person is dependent on a substance, other than tobacco or ordinary xanthine-containing (e.g., caffeine) beverages, as evidenced by—</P>
            <P>(A) Increased tolerance;</P>
            <P>(B) Manifestation of withdrawal symptoms;</P>
            <P>(C) Impaired control of use; or</P>

            <P>(D) Continued use despite damage to physical health or impairment of social, personal, or occupational functioning.<PRTPAGE P="143"/>
            </P>
            <P>(b) No substance abuse within the preceding 2 years defined as:</P>
            <P>(1) Use of a substance in a situation in which that use was physically hazardous, if there has been at any other time an instance of the use of a substance also in a situation in which that use was physically hazardous;</P>
            <P>(2) A verified positive drug test result acquired under an anti-drug program or internal program of the U.S. Department of Transportation or any other Administration within the U.S. Department of Transportation; or</P>
            <P>(3) Misuse of a substance that the Federal Air Surgeon, based on case history and appropriate, qualified medical judgment relating to the substance involved, finds—</P>
            <P>(i) Makes the person unable to safely perform the duties or exercise the privileges of the airman certificate applied for or held; or</P>
            <P>(ii) May reasonably be expected, for the maximum duration of the airman medical certificate applied for or held, to make the person unable to perform those duties or exercise those privileges.</P>
            <P>(c) No other personality disorder, neurosis, or other mental condition that the Federal Air Surgeon, based on the case history and appropriate, qualified medical judgment relating to the condition involved, finds—</P>
            <P>(1) Makes the person unable to safely perform the duties or exercise the privileges of the airman certificate applied for or held; or</P>
            <P>(2) May reasonably be expected, for the maximum duration of the airman medical certificate applied for or held, to make the person unable to perform those duties or exercise those privileges.</P>
          </SECTION>
          <SECTION>
            <SECTNO>§ 67.209</SECTNO>
            <SUBJECT>Neurologic.</SUBJECT>
            <P>Neurologic standards for a second-class airman medical certificate are:</P>
            <P>(a) No established medical history or clinical diagnosis of any of the following:</P>
            <P>(1) Epilepsy;</P>
            <P>(2) A disturbance of consciousness without satisfactory medical explanation of the cause; or</P>
            <P>(3) A transient loss of control of nervous system function(s) without satisfactory medical explanation of the cause;</P>
            <P>(b) No other seizure disorder, disturbance of consciousness, or neurologic condition that the Federal Air Surgeon, based on the case history and appropriate, qualified medical judgment relating to the condition involved, finds—</P>
            <P>(1) Makes the person unable to safely perform the duties or exercise the privileges of the airman certificate applied for or held; or</P>
            <P>(2) May reasonably be expected, for the maximum duration of the airman medical certificate applied for or held, to make the person unable to perform those duties or exercise those privileges.</P>
          </SECTION>
          <SECTION>
            <SECTNO>§ 67.211</SECTNO>
            <SUBJECT>Cardiovascular.</SUBJECT>
            <P>Cardiovascular standards for a second-class medical certificate are no established medical history or clinical diagnosis of any of the following:</P>
            <P>(a) Myocardial infarction;</P>
            <P>(b) Angina pectoris;</P>
            <P>(c) Coronary heart disease that has required treatment or, if untreated, that has been symptomatic or clinically significant;</P>
            <P>(d) Cardiac valve replacement;</P>
            <P>(e) Permanent cardiac pacemaker implantation; or</P>
            <P>(f) Heart replacement.</P>
          </SECTION>
          <SECTION>
            <SECTNO>§ 67.213</SECTNO>
            <SUBJECT>General medical condition.</SUBJECT>
            <P>The general medical standards for a second-class airman medical certificate are:</P>
            <P>(a) No established medical history or clinical diagnosis of diabetes mellitus that requires insulin or any other hypoglycemic drug for control.</P>
            <P>(b) No other organic, functional, or structural disease, defect, or limitation that the Federal Air Surgeon, based on the case history and appropriate, qualified medical judgment relating to the condition involved, finds—</P>
            <P>(1) Makes the person unable to safely perform the duties or exercise the privileges of the airman certificate applied for or held; or</P>

            <P>(2) May reasonably be expected, for the maximum duration of the airman medical certificate applied for or held, to make the person unable to perform <PRTPAGE P="144"/>those duties or exercise those privileges.</P>
            <P>(c) No medication or other treatment that the Federal Air Surgeon, based on the case history and appropriate, qualified medical judgment relating to the medication or other treatment involved, finds—</P>
            <P>(1) Makes the person unable to safely perform the duties or exercise the privileges of the airman certificate applied for or held; or</P>
            <P>(2) May reasonably be expected, for the maximum duration of the airman medical certificate applied for or held, to make the person unable to perform those duties or exercise those privileges.</P>
          </SECTION>
          <SECTION>
            <SECTNO>§ 67.215</SECTNO>
            <SUBJECT>Discretionary issuance.</SUBJECT>
            <P>A person who does not meet the provisions of §§ 67.203 through 67.213 may apply for the discretionary issuance of a certificate under § 67.401.</P>
          </SECTION>
        </SUBPART>
        <SUBPART>
          <HD SOURCE="HED">Subpart D—Third-Class Airman Medical Certificate</HD>
          <SECTION>
            <SECTNO>§ 67.301</SECTNO>
            <SUBJECT>Eligibility.</SUBJECT>
            <P>To be eligible for a third-class airman medical certificate, or to remain eligible for a third-class airman medical certificate, a person must meet the requirements of this subpart.</P>
          </SECTION>
          <SECTION>
            <SECTNO>§ 67.303</SECTNO>
            <SUBJECT>Eye.</SUBJECT>
            <P>Eye standards for a third-class airman medical certificate are:</P>
            <P>(a) Distant visual acuity of 20/40 or better in each eye separately, with or without corrective lenses. If corrective lenses (spectacles or contact lenses) are necessary for 20/40 vision, the person may be eligible only on the condition that corrective lenses are worn while exercising the privileges of an airman certificate.</P>
            <P>(b) Near vision of 20/40 or better, Snellen equivalent, at 16 inches in each eye separately, with or without corrective lenses.</P>
            <P>(c) Ability to perceive those colors necessary for the safe performance of airman duties.</P>
            <P>(d) No acute or chronic pathological condition of either eye or adnexa that interferes with the proper function of an eye, that may reasonably be expected to progress to that degree, or that may reasonably be expected to be aggravated by flying.</P>
          </SECTION>
          <SECTION>
            <SECTNO>§ 67.305</SECTNO>
            <SUBJECT>Ear, nose, throat, and equilibrium.</SUBJECT>
            <P>Ear, nose, throat, and equilibrium standards for a third-class airman medical certificate are:</P>
            <P>(a) The person shall demonstrate acceptable hearing by at least one of the following tests:</P>
            <P>(1) Demonstrate an ability to hear an average conversational voice in a quiet room, using both ears, at a distance of 6 feet from the examiner, with the back turned to the examiner.</P>
            <P>(2) Demonstrate an acceptable understanding of speech as determined by audiometric speech discrimination testing to a score of at least 70 percent obtained in one ear or in a sound field environment.</P>
            <P>(3) Provide acceptable results of pure tone audiometric testing of unaided hearing acuity according to the following table of worst acceptable thresholds, using the calibration standards of the American National Standards Institute, 1969:</P>
            <GPOTABLE CDEF="s30,3,4,4,4" COLS="5" OPTS="L2,b2,i1">
              <BOXHD>
                <CHED H="1">Frequency (Hz)</CHED>
                <CHED H="1">500 Hz</CHED>
                <CHED H="1">1000 Hz</CHED>
                <CHED H="1">2000 Hz</CHED>
                <CHED H="1">3000 Hz</CHED>
              </BOXHD>
              <ROW>
                <ENT I="01">Better ear (Db)</ENT>
                <ENT>35</ENT>
                <ENT>30</ENT>
                <ENT>30</ENT>
                <ENT>40</ENT>
              </ROW>
              <ROW>
                <ENT I="01">Poorer ear (Db)</ENT>
                <ENT>35</ENT>
                <ENT>50</ENT>
                <ENT>50</ENT>
                <ENT>60</ENT>
              </ROW>
            </GPOTABLE>
            <P>(b) No disease or condition of the middle or internal ear, nose, oral cavity, pharynx, or larynx that—</P>
            <P>(1) Interferes with, or is aggravated by, flying or may reasonably be expected to do so; or</P>
            <P>(2) Interferes with clear and effective speech communication.</P>
            <P>(c) No disease or condition manifested by, or that may reasonably be expected to be manifested by, vertigo or a disturbance of equilibrium.</P>
          </SECTION>
          <SECTION>
            <SECTNO>§ 67.307</SECTNO>
            <SUBJECT>Mental.</SUBJECT>
            <P>Mental standards for a third-class airman medical certificate are:</P>
            <P>(a) No established medical history or clinical diagnosis of any of the following:</P>
            <P>(1) A personality disorder that is severe enough to have repeatedly manifested itself by overt acts.</P>

            <P>(2) A psychosis. As used in this section, “psychosis” refers to a mental disorder in which—<PRTPAGE P="145"/>
            </P>
            <P>(i) The individual has manifested delusions, hallucinations, grossly bizarre or disorganized behavior, or other commonly accepted symptoms of this condition; or</P>
            <P>(ii) The individual may reasonably be expected to manifest delusions, hallucinations, grossly bizarre or disorganized behavior, or other commonly accepted symptoms of this condition.</P>
            <P>(3) A bipolar disorder.</P>
            <P>(4) Substance dependence, except where there is established clinical evidence, satisfactory to the Federal Air Surgeon, of recovery, including sustained total abstinence from the substance(s) for not less than the preceding 2 years. As used in this section—</P>
            <P>(i) “Substance” includes: alcohol; other sedatives and hypnotics; anxiolytics; opioids; central nervous system stimulants such as cocaine, amphetamines, and similarly acting sympathomimetics; hallucinogens; phencyclidine or similarly acting arylcyclohexylamines; cannabis; inhalants; and other psychoactive drugs and chemicals; and</P>
            <P>(ii) “Substance dependence” means a condition in which a person is dependent on a substance, other than tobacco or ordinary xanthine-containing (e.g., caffeine) beverages, as evidenced by—</P>
            <P>(A) Increased tolerance;</P>
            <P>(B) Manifestation of withdrawal symptoms;</P>
            <P>(C) Impaired control of use; or</P>
            <P>(D) Continued use despite damage to physical health or impairment of social, personal, or occupational functioning.</P>
            <P>(b) No substance abuse within the preceding 2 years defined as:</P>
            <P>(1) Use of a substance in a situation in which that use was physically hazardous, if there has been at any other time an instance of the use of a substance also in a situation in which that use was physically hazardous;</P>
            <P>(2) A verified positive drug test result conducted under an anti-drug rule or internal program of the U.S. Department of Transportation or any other Administration within the U.S. Department of Transportation; or</P>
            <P>(3) Misuse of a substance that the Federal Air Surgeon, based on case history and appropriate, qualified medical judgment relating to the substance involved, finds—</P>
            <P>(i) Makes the person unable to safely perform the duties or exercise the privileges of the airman certificate applied for or held; or</P>
            <P>(ii) May reasonably be expected, for the maximum duration of the airman medical certificate applied for or held, to make the person unable to perform those duties or exercise those privileges.</P>
            <P>(c) No other personality disorder, neurosis, or other mental condition that the Federal Air Surgeon, based on the case history and appropriate, qualified medical judgment relating to the condition involved, finds—</P>
            <P>(1) Makes the person unable to safely perform the duties or exercise the privileges of the airman certificate applied for or held; or</P>
            <P>(2) May reasonably be expected, for the maximum duration of the airman medical certificate applied for or held, to make the person unable to perform those duties or exercise those privileges.</P>
          </SECTION>
          <SECTION>
            <SECTNO>§ 67.309</SECTNO>
            <SUBJECT>Neurologic.</SUBJECT>
            <P>Neurologic standards for a third-class airman medical certificate are:</P>
            <P>(a) No established medical history or clinical diagnosis of any of the following:</P>
            <P>(1) Epilepsy;</P>
            <P>(2) A disturbance of consciousness without satisfactory medical explanation of the cause; or</P>
            <P>(3) A transient loss of control of nervous system function(s) without satisfactory medical explanation of the cause.</P>
            <P>(b) No other seizure disorder, disturbance of consciousness, or neurologic condition that the Federal Air Surgeon, based on the case history and appropriate, qualified medical judgment relating to the condition involved, finds—</P>
            <P>(1) Makes the person unable to safely perform the duties or exercise the privileges of the airman certificate applied for or held; or</P>

            <P>(2) May reasonably be expected, for the maximum duration of the airman medical certificate applied for or held, to make the person unable to perform <PRTPAGE P="146"/>those duties or exercise those privileges.</P>
          </SECTION>
          <SECTION>
            <SECTNO>§ 67.311</SECTNO>
            <SUBJECT>Cardiovascular.</SUBJECT>
            <P>Cardiovascular standards for a third-class airman medical certificate are no established medical history or clinical diagnosis of any of the following:</P>
            <P>(a) Myocardial infarction;</P>
            <P>(b) Angina pectoris;</P>
            <P>(c) Coronary heart disease that has required treatment or, if untreated, that has been symptomatic or clinically significant;</P>
            <P>(d) Cardiac valve replacement;</P>
            <P>(e) Permanent cardiac pacemaker implantation; or</P>
            <P>(f) Heart replacement.</P>
          </SECTION>
          <SECTION>
            <SECTNO>§ 67.313</SECTNO>
            <SUBJECT>General medical condition.</SUBJECT>
            <P>The general medical standards for a third-class airman medical certificate are:</P>
            <P>(a) No established medical history or clinical diagnosis of diabetes mellitus that requires insulin or any other hypoglycemic drug for control.</P>
            <P>(b) No other organic, functional, or structural disease, defect, or limitation that the Federal Air Surgeon, based on the case history and appropriate, qualified medical judgment relating to the condition involved, finds—</P>
            <P>(1) Makes the person unable to safely perform the duties or exercise the privileges of the airman certificate applied for or held; or</P>
            <P>(2) May reasonably be expected, for the maximum duration of the airman medical certificate applied for or held, to make the person unable to perform those duties or exercise those privileges.</P>
            <P>(c) No medication or other treatment that the Federal Air Surgeon, based on the case history and appropriate, qualified medical judgment relating to the medication or other treatment involved, finds—</P>
            <P>(1) Makes the person unable to safely perform the duties or exercise the privileges of the airman certificate applied for or held; or</P>
            <P>(2) May reasonably be expected, for the maximum duration of the airman medical certificate applied for or held, to make the person unable to perform those duties or exercise those privileges.</P>
          </SECTION>
          <SECTION>
            <SECTNO>§ 67.315</SECTNO>
            <SUBJECT>Discretionary issuance.</SUBJECT>
            <P>A person who does not meet the provisions of §§ 67.303 through 67.313 may apply for the discretionary issuance of a certificate under § 67.401.</P>
          </SECTION>
        </SUBPART>
        <SUBPART>
          <HD SOURCE="HED">Subpart E—Certification Procedures</HD>
          <SECTION>
            <SECTNO>§ 67.401</SECTNO>
            <SUBJECT>Special issuance of medical certificates.</SUBJECT>
            <P>(a) At the discretion of the Federal Air Surgeon, an Authorization for Special Issuance of a Medical Certificate (Authorization), valid for a specified period, may be granted to a person who does not meet the provisions of subparts B, C, or D of this part if the person shows to the satisfaction of the Federal Air Surgeon that the duties authorized by the class of medical certificate applied for can be performed without endangering public safety during the period in which the Authorization would be in force. The Federal Air Surgeon may authorize a special medical flight test, practical test, or medical evaluation for this purpose. A medical certificate of the appropriate class may be issued to a person who does not meet the provisions of subparts B, C, or D of this part if that person possesses a valid Authorization and is otherwise eligible. An airman medical certificate issued in accordance with this section shall expire no later than the end of the validity period or upon the withdrawal of the Authorization upon which it is based. At the end of its specified validity period, for grant of a new Authorization, the person must again show to the satisfaction of the Federal Air Surgeon that the duties authorized by the class of medical certificate applied for can be performed without endangering public safety during the period in which the Authorization would be in force.</P>

            <P>(b) At the discretion of the Federal Air Surgeon, a Statement of Demonstrated Ability (SODA) may be granted, instead of an Authorization, to a person whose disqualifying condition is static or nonprogressive and who has been found capable of performing airman duties without endangering public safety. A SODA does not expire and authorizes a designated <PRTPAGE P="147"/>aviation medical examiner to issue a medical certificate of a specified class if the examiner finds that the condition described on its face has not adversely changed.</P>
            <P>(c) In granting an Authorization or SODA, the Federal Air Surgeon may consider the person's operational experience and any medical facts that may affect the ability of the person to perform airman duties including—</P>
            <P>(1) The combined effect on the person of failure to meet more than one requirement of this part; and</P>
            <P>(2) The prognosis derived from professional consideration of all available information regarding the person.</P>
            <P>(d) In granting an Authorization or SODA under this section, the Federal Air Surgeon specifies the class of medical certificate authorized to be issued and may do any or all of the following:</P>
            <P>(1) Limit the duration of an Authorization;</P>
            <P>(2) Condition the granting of a new Authorization on the results of subsequent medical tests, examinations, or evaluations;</P>
            <P>(3) State on the Authorization or SODA, and any medical certificate based upon it, any operational limitation needed for safety; or</P>
            <P>(4) Condition the continued effect of an Authorization or SODA, and any second- or third-class medical certificate based upon it, on compliance with a statement of functional limitations issued to the person in coordination with the Director of Flight Standards or the Director's designee.</P>
            <P>(e) In determining whether an Authorization or SODA should be granted to an applicant for a third-class medical certificate, the Federal Air Surgeon considers the freedom of an airman, exercising the privileges of a private pilot certificate, to accept reasonable risks to his or her person and property that are not acceptable in the exercise of commercial or airline transport pilot privileges, and, at the same time, considers the need to protect the safety of persons and property in other aircraft and on the ground.</P>
            <P>(f) An Authorization or SODA granted under the provisions of this section to a person who does not meet the applicable provisions of subparts B, C, or D of this part may be withdrawn, at the discretion of the Federal Air Surgeon, at any time if—</P>
            <P>(1) There is adverse change in the holder's medical condition;</P>
            <P>(2) The holder fails to comply with a statement of functional limitations or operational limitations issued as a condition of certification under this section;</P>
            <P>(3) Public safety would be endangered by the holder's exercise of airman privileges;</P>
            <P>(4) The holder fails to provide medical information reasonably needed by the Federal Air Surgeon for certification under this section; or</P>
            <P>(5) The holder makes or causes to be made a statement or entry that is the basis for withdrawal of an Authorization or SODA under § 67.403.</P>
            <P>(g) A person who has been granted an Authorization or SODA under this section based on a special medical flight or practical test need not take the test again during later physical examinations unless the Federal Air Surgeon determines or has reason to believe that the physical deficiency has or may have degraded to a degree to require another special medical flight test or practical test.</P>
            <P>(h) The authority of the Federal Air Surgeon under this section is also exercised by the Manager, Aeromedical Certification Division, and each Regional Flight Surgeon.</P>
            <P>(i) If an Authorization or SODA is withdrawn under paragraph (f) of this section the following procedures apply:</P>
            <P>(1) The holder of the Authorization or SODA will be served a letter of withdrawal, stating the reason for the action;</P>
            <P>(2) By not later than 60 days after the service of the letter of withdrawal, the holder of the Authorization or SODA may request, in writing, that the Federal Air Surgeon provide for review of the decision to withdraw. The request for review may be accompanied by supporting medical evidence;</P>

            <P>(3) Within 60 days of receipt of a request for review, a written final decision either affirming or reversing the decision to withdraw will be issued; and<PRTPAGE P="148"/>
            </P>
            <P>(4) A medical certificate rendered invalid pursuant to a withdrawal, in accordance with paragraph (a) of this section, shall be surrendered to the Administrator upon request.</P>
            <P>(j) No grant of a special issuance made prior to September 16, 1996, may be used to obtain a medical certificate after the earlier of the following dates:</P>
            <P>(1) September 16, 1997; or</P>
            <P>(2) The date on which the holder of such special issuance is required to provide additional information to the FAA as a condition for continued medical certification.</P>
          </SECTION>
          <SECTION>
            <SECTNO>§ 67.403</SECTNO>
            <SUBJECT>Applications, certificates, logbooks, reports, and records: Falsification, reproduction, or alteration; incorrect statements.</SUBJECT>
            <P>(a) No person may make or cause to be made—</P>
            <P>(1) A fraudulent or intentionally false statement on any application for a medical certificate or on a request for any Authorization for Special Issuance of a Medical Certificate (Authorization) or Statement of Demonstrated Ability (SODA) under this part;</P>
            <P>(2) A fraudulent or intentionally false entry in any logbook, record, or report that is kept, made, or used, to show compliance with any requirement for any medical certificate or for any Authorization or SODA under this part;</P>
            <P>(3) A reproduction, for fraudulent purposes, of any medical certificate under this part; or</P>
            <P>(4) An alteration of any medical certificate under this part.</P>
            <P>(b) The commission by any person of an act prohibited under paragraph (a) of this section is a basis for—</P>
            <P>(1) Suspending or revoking all airman, ground instructor, and medical certificates and ratings held by that person;</P>
            <P>(2) Withdrawing all Authorizations or SODA's held by that person; and</P>
            <P>(3) Denying all applications for medical certification and requests for Authorizations or SODA's.</P>
            <P>(c) The following may serve as a basis for suspending or revoking a medical certificate; withdrawing an Authorization or SODA; or denying an application for a medical certificate or request for an authorization or SODA:</P>
            <P>(1) An incorrect statement, upon which the FAA relied, made in support of an application for a medical certificate or request for an Authorization or SODA.</P>
            <P>(2) An incorrect entry, upon which the FAA relied, made in any logbook, record, or report that is kept, made, or used to show compliance with any requirement for a medical certificate or an Authorization or SODA.</P>
          </SECTION>
          <SECTION>
            <SECTNO>§ 67.405</SECTNO>
            <SUBJECT>Medical examinations: Who may give.</SUBJECT>
            <P>(a) <E T="03">First-class.</E> Any aviation medical examiner who is specifically designated for the purpose may give the examination for the first-class medical certificate. Any interested person may obtain a list of these aviation medical examiners, in any area, from the FAA Regional Flight Surgeon of the region in which the area is located.</P>
            <P>(b) <E T="03">Second- and third-class.</E> Any aviation medical examiner may give the examination for the second- or third-class medical certificate. Any interested person may obtain a list of aviation medical examiners, in any area, from the FAA Regional Flight Surgeon of the region in which the area is located.</P>
          </SECTION>
          <SECTION>
            <SECTNO>§ 67.407</SECTNO>
            <SUBJECT>Delegation of authority.</SUBJECT>
            <P>(a) The authority of the Administrator under 49 U.S.C. 44703 to issue or deny medical certificates is delegated to the Federal Air Surgeon to the extent necessary to—</P>
            <P>(1) Examine applicants for and holders of medical certificates to determine whether they meet applicable medical standards; and</P>
            <P>(2) Issue, renew, and deny medical certificates, and issue, renew, deny, and withdraw Authorizations for Special Issuance of a Medical Certificate and Statements of Demonstrated Ability to a person based upon meeting or failing to meet applicable medical standards.</P>

            <P>(b) Subject to limitations in this chapter, the delegated functions of the Federal Air Surgeon to examine applicants for and holders of medical certificates for compliance with applicable medical standards and to issue, renew, and deny medical certificates are also delegated to aviation medical examiners and to authorized representatives <PRTPAGE P="149"/>of the Federal Air Surgeon within the FAA.</P>
            <P>(c) The authority of the Administrator under 49 U.S.C. 44702, to reconsider the action of an aviation medical examiner is delegated to the Federal Air Surgeon; the Manager, Aeromedical Certification Division; and each Regional Flight Surgeon. Where the person does not meet the standards of §§ 67.107(b)(3) and (c), 67.109(b), 67.113(b) and (c), 67.207(b)(3) and (c), 67.209(b), 67.213(b) and (c), 67.307(b)(3) and (c), 67.309(b), or 67.313(b) and (c), any action taken under this paragraph other than by the Federal Air Surgeon is subject to reconsideration by the Federal Air Surgeon. A certificate issued by an aviation medical examiner is considered to be affirmed as issued unless an FAA official named in this paragraph (authorized official) reverses that issuance within 60 days after the date of issuance. However, if within 60 days after the date of issuance an authorized official requests the certificate holder to submit additional medical information, an authorized official may reverse the issuance within 60 days after receipt of the requested information.</P>
            <P>(d) The authority of the Administrator under 49 U.S.C. 44709 to re-examine any civil airman to the extent necessary to determine an airman's qualification to continue to hold an airman medical certificate, is delegated to the Federal Air Surgeon and his or her authorized representatives within the FAA.</P>
          </SECTION>
          <SECTION>
            <SECTNO>§ 67.409</SECTNO>
            <SUBJECT>Denial of medical certificate.</SUBJECT>
            <P>(a) Any person who is denied a medical certificate by an aviation medical examiner may, within 30 days after the date of the denial, apply in writing and in duplicate to the Federal Air Surgeon, Attention: Manager, Aeromedical Certification Division, AAM-300, Federal Aviation Administration, P.O. Box 26080, Oklahoma City, Oklahoma 73126, for reconsideration of that denial. If the person does not ask for reconsideration during the 30-day period after the date of the denial, he or she is considered to have withdrawn the application for a medical certificate.</P>
            <P>(b) The denial of a medical certificate—</P>
            <P>(1) By an aviation medical examiner is not a denial by the Administrator under 49 U.S.C. 44703.</P>
            <P>(2) By the Federal Air Surgeon is considered to be a denial by the Administrator under 49 U.S.C. 44703.</P>
            <P>(3) By the Manager, Aeromedical Certification Division, or a Regional Flight Surgeon is considered to be a denial by the Administrator under 49 U.S.C. 44703 except where the person does not meet the standards of §§ 67.107(b)(3) and (c), 67.109(b), or 67.113(b) and (c); 67.207(b)(3) and (c), 67.209(b), or 67.213(b) and (c); or 67.307(b)(3) and (c), 67.309(b), or 67.313(b) and (c).</P>
            <P>(c) Any action taken under § 67.407(c) that wholly or partly reverses the issue of a medical certificate by an aviation medical examiner is the denial of a medical certificate under paragraph (b) of this section.</P>
            <P>(d) If the issue of a medical certificate is wholly or partly reversed by the Federal Air Surgeon; the Manager, Aeromedical Certification Division; or a Regional Flight Surgeon, the person holding that certificate shall surrender it, upon request of the FAA.</P>
          </SECTION>
          <SECTION>
            <SECTNO>§ 67.411</SECTNO>
            <SUBJECT>Medical certificates by flight surgeons of Armed Forces.</SUBJECT>
            <P>(a) The FAA has designated flight surgeons of the Armed Forces on specified military posts, stations, and facilities, as aviation medical examiners.</P>
            <P>(b) An aviation medical examiner described in paragraph (a) of this section may give physical examinations for the FAA medical certificates to persons who are on active duty or who are, under Department of Defense medical programs, eligible for FAA medical certification as civil airmen. In addition, such an examiner may issue or deny an appropriate FAA medical certificate in accordance with the regulations of this chapter and the policies of the FAA.</P>

            <P>(c) Any interested person may obtain a list of the military posts, stations, and facilities at which a flight surgeon has been designated as an aviation medical examiner from the Surgeon General of the Armed Force concerned or from the Manager, Aeromedical Education Division, AAM-400, Federal <PRTPAGE P="150"/>Aviation Administration, P.O. Box 26082, Oklahoma City, Oklahoma 73125.</P>
          </SECTION>
          <SECTION>
            <SECTNO>§ 67.413</SECTNO>
            <SUBJECT>Medical records.</SUBJECT>
            <P>(a) Whenever the Administrator finds that additional medical information or history is necessary to determine whether an applicant for or the holder of a medical certificate meets the medical standards for it, the Administrator requests that person to furnish that information or to authorize any clinic, hospital, physician, or other person to release to the Administrator all available information or records concerning that history. If the applicant or holder fails to provide the requested medical information or history or to authorize the release so requested, the Administrator may suspend, modify, or revoke all medical certificates the airman holds or may, in the case of an applicant, deny the application for an airman medical certificate.</P>
            <P>(b) If an airman medical certificate is suspended or modified under paragraph (a) of this section, that suspension or modification remains in effect until the requested information, history, or authorization is provided to the FAA and until the Federal Air Surgeon determines whether the person meets the medical standards under this part.</P>
          </SECTION>
          <SECTION>
            <SECTNO>§ 67.415</SECTNO>
            <SUBJECT>Return of medical certificate after suspension or revocation.</SUBJECT>
            <P>The holder of any medical certificate issued under this part that is suspended or revoked shall, upon the Administrator's request, return it to the Administrator.</P>
          </SECTION>
        </SUBPART>
      </PART>
    </SUBCHAP>
    <SUBCHAP TYPE="P">
      <PRTPAGE P="151"/>
      <HD SOURCE="HED">SUBCHAPTER E—AIRSPACE</HD>
      <PART>
        <EAR>Pt. 71</EAR>
        <HD SOURCE="HED">PART 71—DESIGNATION OF CLASS A, B, C, D, AND E AIRSPACE AREAS; AIR TRAFFIC SERVICE ROUTES; AND REPORTING POINTS</HD>
        <CONTENTS>
          <APP>Special Federal Aviation Regulation No. 97 [Note]</APP>
          <SUBPART>
            <HD SOURCE="HED"/>
            <SECHD>Sec.</SECHD>
            <SECTNO>71.1</SECTNO>
            <SUBJECT>Applicability.</SUBJECT>
            <SECTNO>71.3</SECTNO>
            <SUBJECT>[Reserved]</SUBJECT>
            <SECTNO>71.5</SECTNO>
            <SUBJECT>Reporting points.</SUBJECT>
            <SECTNO>71.7</SECTNO>
            <SUBJECT>Bearings, radials, and mileages.</SUBJECT>
            <SECTNO>71.9</SECTNO>
            <SUBJECT>Overlapping airspace designations.</SUBJECT>
            <SECTNO>71.11</SECTNO>
            <SUBJECT>Air Traffic Service (ATS) routes.</SUBJECT>
            <SECTNO>71.13</SECTNO>
            <SUBJECT>Classification of Air Traffic Service (ATS) routes.</SUBJECT>
            <SECTNO>71.15</SECTNO>
            <SUBJECT>Designation of jet routes and VOR Federal airways.</SUBJECT>
          </SUBPART>
          <SUBPART>
            <HD SOURCE="HED">Subpart A—Class A Airspace</HD>
            <SECTNO>71.31</SECTNO>
            <SUBJECT>Class A airspace.</SUBJECT>
            <SECTNO>71.33</SECTNO>
            <SUBJECT>Class A airspace areas.</SUBJECT>
          </SUBPART>
          <SUBPART>
            <HD SOURCE="HED">Subpart B—Class B Airspace</HD>
            <SECTNO>71.41</SECTNO>
            <SUBJECT>Class B airspace.</SUBJECT>
          </SUBPART>
          <SUBPART>
            <HD SOURCE="HED">Subpart C—Class C Airspace</HD>
            <SECTNO>71.51</SECTNO>
            <SUBJECT>Class C airspace.</SUBJECT>
          </SUBPART>
          <SUBPART>
            <HD SOURCE="HED">Subpart D—Class D Airspace</HD>
            <SECTNO>71.61</SECTNO>
            <SUBJECT>Class D airspace.</SUBJECT>
          </SUBPART>
          <SUBPART>
            <HD SOURCE="HED">Subpart E—Class E Airspace</HD>
            <SECTNO>71.71</SECTNO>
            <SUBJECT>Class E airspace.</SUBJECT>
          </SUBPART>
          <SUBPART>
            <RESERVED>Subparts F-G [Reserved]</RESERVED>
          </SUBPART>
          <SUBPART>
            <HD SOURCE="HED">Subpart H—Reporting Points</HD>
            <SECTNO>71.901</SECTNO>
            <SUBJECT>Applicability.</SUBJECT>
          </SUBPART>
        </CONTENTS>
        <AUTH>
          <HD SOURCE="HED">Authority:</HD>
          <P>49 U.S.C. 106(g), 40103, 40113, 40120; E.O. 10854, 24 FR 9565, 3 CFR, 1959-1963 Comp., p. 389.</P>
        </AUTH>
        <SOURCE>
          <HD SOURCE="HED">Source:</HD>
          <P>Amdt. 71-14, 56 FR 65654, Dec. 17, 1991, unless otherwise noted.</P>
        </SOURCE>
        <APPENDIX>
          <HD SOURCE="HED">Special Federal Aviation Regulation No. 97</HD>
          <EDNOTE>
            <HD SOURCE="HED">Editorial Note:</HD>
            <P>For the text of SFAR No. 97, see part 91 of this chapter.</P>
          </EDNOTE>
        </APPENDIX>
        <SECTION>
          <SECTNO>§ 71.1</SECTNO>
          <SUBJECT>Applicability.</SUBJECT>

          <P>The complete listing for all Class A, B, C, D, and E airspace areas, air traffic service routes, and reporting points can be found in FAA Order 7400.9L, Airspace Designations and Reporting Points, dated September 2, 2003. This incorporation by reference was approved by the Director of the Federal Register in accordance with 5 U.S.C. 552(a) and 1 CFR part 51. The approval to incorporate by reference FAA Order 7400.9L is effective September 16, 2003, through September 15, 2004. During the incorporation by reference period, proposed changes to the listings of Class A, B, C, D, and E airspace areas, air traffic service routes, and reporting points will be published in full text as proposed rule documents in the <E T="04">Federal Register</E>. Amendments to the listings of Class A, B, C, D, and E airspace areas, air traffic service routes, and reporting points will be published in full text as final rules in the <E T="04">Federal Register</E>. Periodically, the final rule amendments will be integrated into a revised edition of the Order and submitted to the Director of the Federal Register for approval for incorporation by reference in this section. Copies of FAA Order 7400.9L may be obtained from the Airspace and Rules Division, ATA-400, Federal Aviation Administration, 800 Independence Avenue, SW., Washington, DC 20591, (202) 267-8783. Copies of FAA Order 7400.9L may be inspected in Docket No. 29334 at the Federal Aviation Administration, Office of the Chief Counsel, AGC-200, Room 325, 800 Independence Avenue, SW., Washington, DC, weekdays between 8:30 a.m. and 5 p.m., or at the Office of the Federal Register, 800 North Capitol Street, NW., Suite 700, Washington, DC. This section is applicable September 16, 2003, through September 15, 2004.</P>
          <CITA>[Doc. No. 29334, 68 FR 54329, Sept. 17, 2003]</CITA>
        </SECTION>
        <SECTION>
          <SECTNO>§ 71.3</SECTNO>
          <RESERVED>[Reserved]</RESERVED>
        </SECTION>
        <SECTION>
          <SECTNO>§ 71.5</SECTNO>
          <SUBJECT>Reporting points.</SUBJECT>

          <P>The reporting points listed in subpart H of FAA Order 7400.9L (incorporated <PRTPAGE P="152"/>by reference, see § 71.1) consist of geographic locations at which the position of an aircraft must be reported in accordance with part 91 of this chapter.</P>
          <CITA>[Amdt. 71-14, 56 FR 65654, Dec. 17, 1991, as amended by Amdt. 71-20, 58 FR 36299, July 6, 1993; Amdt. 71-23, 59 FR 43035, Aug. 22, 1994; Amdt. 71-26, 60 FR 47267, Sept. 12, 1995; Amdt. 71-28, 61 FR 48404, Sept. 13, 1996; Amdt. 71-29, 62 FR 52492, Oct. 8, 1997; Amdt. 71-30, 63 FR 50140, Sept. 21, 1998; Amdt. 71-31, 64 FR 50444, Sept. 17, 1999; Amdt. 71-32, 65 FR 56467, Sept. 19, 2000; Amdt. 71-33, 66 FR 48793, Sept. 24, 2001; Amdt. 71-34, 67 FR 61259, Sept. 30, 2002; Amdt. 71-35, 68 FR 54329, Sept. 17, 2003]</CITA>
        </SECTION>
        <SECTION>
          <SECTNO>§ 71.7</SECTNO>
          <SUBJECT>Bearings, radials, and mileages.</SUBJECT>
          <P>All bearings and radials in this part are true and are applied from point of origin and all mileages in this part are stated as nautical miles.</P>
        </SECTION>
        <SECTION>
          <SECTNO>§ 71.9</SECTNO>
          <SUBJECT>Overlapping airspace designations.</SUBJECT>
          <P>(a) When overlapping airspace designations apply to the same airspace, the operating rules associated with the more restrictive airspace designation apply.</P>
          <P>(b) For the purpose of this section—</P>
          <P>(1) Class A airspace is more restrictive than Class B, Class C, Class D, Class E, or Class G airspace;</P>
          <P>(2) Class B airspace is more restrictive than Class C, Class D, Class E, or Class G airspace;</P>
          <P>(3) Class C airspace is more restrictive than Class D, Class E, or Class G airspace;</P>
          <P>(4) Class D airspace is more restrictive than Class E or Class G airspace; and</P>
          <P>(5) Class E is more restrictive than Class G airspace.</P>
        </SECTION>
        <SECTION>
          <SECTNO>§ 71.11</SECTNO>
          <SUBJECT>Air Traffic Service (ATS) routes.</SUBJECT>
          <P>Unless otherwise specified, the following apply:</P>
          <P>(a) An Air Traffic Service (ATS) route is based on a centerline that extends from one navigation aid, fix, or intersection, to another navigation aid, fix, or intersection (or through several navigation aids, fixes, or intersections) specified for that route.</P>
          <P>(b) ATS routes include the primary protected airspace dimensions defined in FAA Order 8260.3, “United States Standard For Terminal Instrument Procedures (TERPS).” Order 8260.3 is incorporated by reference in § 97.20 of this chapter.</P>
          <P>(c) An ATS route does not include the airspace of a prohibited area.</P>
          <CITA>[Doc. No. FAA-2003-14698, 68 FR 16947, Apr. 8, 2003]</CITA>
        </SECTION>
        <SECTION>
          <SECTNO>§ 71.13</SECTNO>
          <SUBJECT>Classification of Air Traffic Service (ATS) routes.</SUBJECT>
          <P>Unless otherwise specified, ATS routes are classified as follows:</P>
          <P>(a) In subpart A of this part:</P>
          <P>(1) Jet routes.</P>
          <P>(2) Area navigation (RNAV) routes.</P>
          <P>(b) In subpart E of this part:</P>
          <P>(1) VOR Federal airways.</P>
          <P>(2) Colored Federal airways.</P>
          <P>(i) Green Federal airways.</P>
          <P>(ii) Amber Federal airways.</P>
          <P>(iii) Red Federal airways.</P>
          <P>(iv) Blue Federal airways.</P>
          <P>(3) Area navigation (RNAV) routes.</P>
          <CITA>[Doc. No. FAA-2003-14698, 68 FR 16947, Apr. 8, 2003]</CITA>
        </SECTION>
        <SECTION>
          <SECTNO>§ 71.15</SECTNO>
          <SUBJECT>Designation of jet routes and VOR Federal airways.</SUBJECT>
          <P>Unless otherwise specified, the place names appearing in the descriptions of airspace areas designated as jet routes in subpart A of FAA Order 7400.9, and as VOR Federal airways in subpart E of FAA Order 7400.9, are the names of VOR or VORTAC navigation aids. FAA Order 7400.9 is incorporated by reference in § 71.1.</P>
          <CITA>[Doc. No. FAA-2003-14698, 68 FR 16947, Apr. 8, 2003]</CITA>
        </SECTION>
        <SUBPART>
          <HD SOURCE="HED">Subpart A—Class A Airspace</HD>
          <SECTION>
            <SECTNO>§ 71.31</SECTNO>
            <SUBJECT>Class A airspace.</SUBJECT>

            <P>The airspace descriptions contained in § 71.33 and the routes contained in subpart A of FAA Order 7400.9L (incorporated by reference, see § 71.1) are designated as Class A airspace within which all pilots and aircraft are subject to the rating requirements, operating <PRTPAGE P="153"/>rules, and equipment requirements of part 91 of this chapter.</P>
            <CITA>[Amdt. 71-14, 56 FR 65654, Dec. 17, 1991, as amended by Amdt. 71-20, 58 FR 36299, July 6, 1993; Amdt. 71-23, 59 FR 43035, Aug. 22, 1994; Amdt. 71-26, 60 FR 47267, Sept. 12, 1995; Amdt. 71-28, 61 FR 48404, Sept. 13, 1996; Amdt. 71-29, 62 FR 52492, Oct. 8, 1997; Amdt. 71-30, 63 FR 50140, Sept. 21, 1998; Amdt. 71-31, 64 FR 50444, Sept. 17, 1999; Amdt. 71-32, 65 FR 56467, Sept. 19, 2000; Amdt. 71-33, 66 FR 48793, Sept. 24, 2001; Amdt. 71-34, 67 FR 61259, Sept. 30, 2002; Amdt. 71-35, 68 FR 54329, Sept. 17, 2003]</CITA>
          </SECTION>
          <SECTION>
            <SECTNO>§ 71.33</SECTNO>
            <SUBJECT>Class A airspace areas.</SUBJECT>
            <P>(a) That airspace of the United States, including that airspace overlying the waters within 12 nautical miles of the coast of the 48 contiguous States, from 18,000 feet MSL to and including FL600 excluding the states of Alaska and Hawaii, Santa Barbara Island, Farallon Island, and the airspace south of latitude 25°04′00″ North.</P>
            <P>(b) That airspace of the State of Alaska, including that airspace overlying the waters within 12 nautical miles of the coast, from 18,000 feet MSL to and including FL600 but not including the airspace less than 1,500 feet above the surface of the earth and the Alaska Peninsula west of longitude 160°00′00″ West.</P>
            <P>(c) The airspace areas listed as offshore airspace areas in subpart A of FAA Order 7400.9L (incorporated by reference, see § 71.1) that are designated in international airspace within areas of domestic radio navigational signal or ATC radar coverage, and within which domestic ATC procedures are applied.</P>
            <CITA>[Amdt. 71-14, 56 FR 65654, Dec. 17, 1991, as amended by Amdt. 71-19, 58 FR 12137, Mar. 2, 1993; Amdt. 71-23, 59 FR 43035, Aug. 22, 1994; Amdt. 71-26, 60 FR 47267, Sept. 12, 1995; Amdt. 71-28, 61 FR 48404, Sept. 13, 1996; Amdt. 71-29, 62 FR 52492, Oct. 8, 1997; Amdt. 71-30, 63 FR 50140, Sept. 21, 1998; Amdt. 71-31, 64 FR 50444, Sept. 17, 1999; Amdt. 71-32, 65 FR 56467, Sept. 19, 2000; Amdt. 71-33, 66 FR 48793, Sept. 24, 2001; Amdt. 71-34, 67 FR 61259, Sept. 30, 2002; Amdt. 71-35, 68 FR 54329, Sept. 17, 2003]</CITA>
          </SECTION>
        </SUBPART>
        <SUBPART>
          <HD SOURCE="HED">Subpart B—Class B Airspace</HD>
          <SECTION>
            <SECTNO>§ 71.41</SECTNO>
            <SUBJECT>Class B airspace.</SUBJECT>
            <P>The Class B airspace areas listed in subpart B ofFAA Order 7400.9L (incorporated by reference, see § 71.1) consist of specified airspace within which all aircraft operators are subject to the minimum pilot qualification requirements, operating rules, and aircraft equipment requirements of part 91 of this chapter. Each Class B airspace area designated for an airport in subpart B of FAA Order 7400.9L (incorporated by reference, see § 71.1) contains at least one primary airport around which the airspace is designated.</P>
            <CITA>[Amdt. 71-14, 56 FR 65654, Dec. 17, 1991, as amended by Amdt. 71-20, 58 FR 36299, July 6, 1993; Amdt. 71-23, 59 FR 43035, Aug. 22, 1994; Amdt. 71-26, 60 FR 47267, Sept. 12, 1995; Amdt. 71-28, 61 FR 48404, Sept. 13, 1996; Amdt. 71-29, 62 FR 52492, Oct. 8, 1997; Amdt. 71-30, 63 FR 50140, Sept. 21, 1998; Amdt. 71-31, 64 FR 50444, Sept. 17, 1999; Amdt. 71-32, 65 FR 56467, Sept. 19, 2000; Amdt. 71-33, 66 FR 48793, Sept. 24, 2001; Amdt. 71-34, 67 FR 61259, Sept. 30, 2002; Amdt. 71-35, 68 FR 54329, Sept. 17, 2003]</CITA>
          </SECTION>
        </SUBPART>
        <SUBPART>
          <HD SOURCE="HED">Subpart C—Class C Airspace</HD>
          <SECTION>
            <SECTNO>§ 71.51</SECTNO>
            <SUBJECT>Class C airspace.</SUBJECT>
            <P>The Class C airspace areas listed in subpart C ofFAA Order 7400.9L (incorporated by reference, see § 71.1) consist of specified airspace within which all aircraft operators are subject to operating rules and equipment requirements specified in part 91 of this chapter. Each Class C airspace area designated for an airport in subpart C of FAA Order 7400.9KL (incorporated by reference, see § 71.1) contains at least one primary airport around which the airspace is designated</P>
            <CITA>[Amdt. 71-14, 56 FR 65654, Dec. 17, 1991, as amended by Amdt. 71-20, 58 FR 36299, July 6, 1993; Amdt. 71-23, 59 FR 43035, Aug. 22, 1994; Amdt. 71-26, 60 FR 47267, Sept. 12, 1995; Amdt. 71-28, 61 FR 48404, Sept. 13, 1996; Amdt. 71-29, 62 FR 52492, Oct. 8, 1997; Amdt. 71-30, 63 FR 50140, Sept. 21, 1998; Amdt. 71-31, 64 FR 50444, Sept. 17, 1999; Amdt. 71-32, 65 FR 56467, Sept. 19, 2000; Amdt. 71-33, 66 FR 48793, Sept. 24, 2001; Amdt. 71-34, 67 FR 61259, Sept. 30, 2002; Amdt. 71-35, 68 FR 54329, Sept. 17, 2003]</CITA>
          </SECTION>
        </SUBPART>
        <SUBPART>
          <HD SOURCE="HED">Subpart D—Class D Airspace</HD>
          <SECTION>
            <SECTNO>§ 71.61</SECTNO>
            <SUBJECT>Class D airspace.</SUBJECT>

            <P>The Class D airspace areas listed in subpart D ofFAA Order 7400.9L (incorporated by reference, see § 71.1) consist of specified airspace within which all <PRTPAGE P="154"/>aircraft operators are subject to operating rules and equipment requirements specified in part 91 of this chapter. Each Class D airspace area designated for an airport in subpart D of FAA Order 7400.9L (incorporated by reference, see § 71.1) contains at least one primary airport around which the airspace is designated.</P>
            <CITA>[Amdt. 71-14, 56 FR 65654, Dec. 17, 1991, as amended by Amdt. 71-20, 58 FR 36299, July 6, 1993; Amdt. 71-23, 59 FR 43035, Aug. 22, 1994; Amdt. 71-26, 60 FR 47267, Sept. 12, 1995; Amdt. 71-28, 61 FR 48404, Sept. 13, 1996; Amdt. 71-29, 62 FR 52492, Oct. 8, 1997; Amdt. 71-30, 63 FR 50140, Sept. 21, 1998; Amdt. 71-31, 64 FR 50444, Sept. 17, 1999; Amdt. 71-32, 65 FR 56467, Sept. 19, 2000; Amdt. 71-33, 66 FR 48793, Sept. 24, 2001; Amdt. 71-34, 67 FR 61259, Sept. 30, 2002; Amdt. 71-35, 68 FR 54329, Sept. 17, 2003]</CITA>
          </SECTION>
        </SUBPART>
        <SUBPART>
          <HD SOURCE="HED">Subpart E—Class E Airspace</HD>
          <SECTION>
            <SECTNO> 71.71</SECTNO>
            <SUBJECT>Class E airspace.</SUBJECT>
            <P>Class E Airspace consists of:</P>
            <P>(a) The airspace of the United States, including that airspace overlying the waters within 12 nautical miles of the coast of the 48 contiguous states and Alaska, extending upward from 14,500 feet MSL up to, but not including 18,000 feet MSL, and the airspace above FL600, excluding—</P>
            <P>(1) The Alaska peninsula west of longitude 160°00′00″W.; and</P>
            <P>(2) The airspace below 1,500 feet above the surface of the earth.</P>
            <P>(b) The airspace areas designated for an airport in subpart E of FAA Order 7400.9L (incorporated by reference, see § 71.1) within which all aircraft operators are subject to the operating rules specified in part 91 of this chapter.</P>
            <P>(c) The airspace areas listed as domestic airspace areas in subpart E of FAA Order 7400.9L (incorporated by reference, see § 71.1) which extend upward from 700 feet or more above the surface of the earth when designated in conjunction with an airport for which an approved instrument approach procedure has been prescribed, or from 1,200 feet or more above the surface of the earth for the purpose of transitioning to or from the terminal or en route environment. When such areas are designated in conjunction with airways or routes, the extent of such designation has the lateral extent identical to that of a Federal airway and extends upward from 1,200 feet or higher. Unless otherwise specified, the airspace areas in the paragraph extend upward from 1,200 feet or higher above the surface to, but not including, 14,500 feet MSL.</P>
            <P>(d) The Federal airways described in subpart E of FAA Order 7400.9L (incorporated by reference, see § 71.1).</P>
            <P>(e) The airspace areas listed as en route domestic airspace areas in subpart E of FAA Order 7400.9L (incorporated by reference, see § 71.1). Unless otherwise specified, each airspace area has a lateral extent identical to that of a Federal airway and extends unward from 1,200 feet above the surface of the earth to the overlying or adjacent controlled airspace.</P>
            <P>(f) The airspace areas listed as offshore airspace areas in subpart E of FAA Order 7400.9L (incorporated by reference, see § 71.1) that are designated in international airspace within areas of domestic radio navigational signal or ATC radar coverage, and within which domestic ATC procedures are applied. Unless otherwise specified, each airspace area extends upward from a specified, altitude up to, but not including, 18,000 feet MSL.</P>
            <CITA>[Amdt. 71-14, 56 FR 65654, Dec. 17, 1991, as amended by Amdt. 71-19, 58 FR 12137, Mar. 2, 1993; Amdt. 71-16, 58 FR 15259, Mar. 19, 1993; Amdt. 71-20, 58 FR 36299, July 6, 1993; Amdt. 71-21, 58 FR 44127, Aug. 19, 1993; Amdt. 71-23, 59 FR 43035, Aug. 22, 1994; Amdt. 71-26, 60 FR 47267, Sept. 12, 1995; Amdt. 71-28, 61 FR 48404, Sept. 13, 1996; Amdt. 71-29, 62 FR 52492, Oct. 8, 1997; Amdt. 71-30, 63 FR 50140, Sept. 21, 1998; Amdt. 71-31, 64 FR 50444, Sept. 17, 1999; Amdt. 71-32, 65 FR 56467, Sept. 19, 2000; Amdt. 71-33, 66 FR 48793, Sept. 24, 2001; Amdt. 71-34, 67 FR 61259, Sept. 30, 2002; Amdt. 71-35, 68 FR 54329, Sept. 17, 2003]</CITA>
          </SECTION>
        </SUBPART>
        <SUBPART>
          <RESERVED>Subparts F-G [Reserved]</RESERVED>
        </SUBPART>
        <SUBPART>
          <HD SOURCE="HED">Subpart H—Reporting Points</HD>
          <SECTION>
            <SECTNO>§ 71.901</SECTNO>
            <SUBJECT>Applicability.</SUBJECT>
            <P>Unless otherwise designated:</P>

            <P>(a) Each reporting point listed in subpart H ofFAA Order 7400.9L (incorporated by reference, see § 71.1) applies to all directions of flight. In any case where a geographic location is designated as a reporting point for less than all airways passing through that point, or for a particular direction of <PRTPAGE P="155"/>flight along an airway only, it is so indicated by including the airways or direction of flight in the designation of geographical location.</P>
            <P>(b) Place names appearing in the reporting point descriptions indicate VOR or VORTAC facilities identified by those names.</P>
            <CITA>[Amdt. 71-14, 56 FR 65654, Dec. 17, 1991, as amended by Amdt. 71-20, 58 FR 36299, July 6, 1993; Amdt. 71-23, 59 FR 43035, Aug. 22, 1994; Amdt. 71-26, 60 FR 47267, Sept. 12, 1995; Amdt. 71-28, 61 FR 48404, Sept. 13, 1996; Amdt. 71-29, 62 FR 52492, Oct. 8, 1997; Amdt. 71-30, 63 FR 50140, Sept. 21, 1998; Amdt. 71-31, 64 FR 50445, Sept. 17, 1999; Amdt. 71-32, 65 FR 56468, Sept. 19, 2000; Amdt. 71-33, 66 FR 48793, Sept. 24, 2001; Amdt. 71-34, 67 FR 61259, Sept. 30, 2002; Amdt. 71-35, 68 FR 54329, Sept. 17, 2003]</CITA>
          </SECTION>
        </SUBPART>
      </PART>
      <PART>
        <EAR>Pt. 73</EAR>
        <HD SOURCE="HED">PART 73—SPECIAL USE AIRSPACE</HD>
        <CONTENTS>
          <SUBPART>
            <HD SOURCE="HED">Subpart A—General</HD>
            <SECHD>Sec.</SECHD>
            <SECTNO>73.1</SECTNO>
            <SUBJECT>Applicability.</SUBJECT>
            <SECTNO>73.3</SECTNO>
            <SUBJECT>Special use airspace.</SUBJECT>
            <SECTNO>73.5</SECTNO>
            <SUBJECT>Bearings; radials; miles.</SUBJECT>
          </SUBPART>
          <SUBPART>
            <HD SOURCE="HED">Subpart B—Restricted Areas</HD>
            <SECTNO>73.11</SECTNO>
            <SUBJECT>Applicability.</SUBJECT>
            <SECTNO>73.13</SECTNO>
            <SUBJECT>Restrictions.</SUBJECT>
            <SECTNO>73.15</SECTNO>
            <SUBJECT>Using agency.</SUBJECT>
            <SECTNO>73.17</SECTNO>
            <SUBJECT>Controlling agency.</SUBJECT>
            <SECTNO>73.19</SECTNO>
            <SUBJECT>Reports by using agency.</SUBJECT>
          </SUBPART>
          <SUBPART>
            <HD SOURCE="HED">Subpart C—Prohibited Areas</HD>
            <SECTNO>73.81</SECTNO>
            <SUBJECT>Applicability.</SUBJECT>
            <SECTNO>73.83</SECTNO>
            <SUBJECT>Restrictions.</SUBJECT>
            <SECTNO>73.85</SECTNO>
            <SUBJECT>Using agency.</SUBJECT>
          </SUBPART>
        </CONTENTS>
        <AUTH>
          <HD SOURCE="HED">Authority:</HD>
          <P>49 U.S.C. 106(g), 40103, 40113, 40120; E.O. 10854, 24 FR 9565, 3 CFR, 1959-1963 Comp., p. 389.</P>
        </AUTH>
        <SOURCE>
          <HD SOURCE="HED">Source:</HD>
          <P>46 FR 779, Jan. 2, 1981, unless otherwise noted.</P>
        </SOURCE>
        <SUBPART>
          <HD SOURCE="HED">Subpart A—General</HD>
          <SECTION>
            <SECTNO>§ 73.1</SECTNO>
            <SUBJECT>Applicability.</SUBJECT>
            <P>The airspace that is described in subpart B and subpart C of this part is designated as special use airspace. These parts prescribe the requirements for the use of that airspace.</P>
          </SECTION>
          <SECTION>
            <SECTNO>§ 73.3</SECTNO>
            <SUBJECT>Special use airspace.</SUBJECT>
            <P>(a) Special use airspace consists of airspace of defined dimensions identified by an area on the surface of the earth wherein activities must be confined because of their nature, or wherein limitations are imposed upon aircraft operations that are not a part of those activities, or both.</P>
            <P>(b) The vertical limits of special use airspace are measured by designated altitude floors and ceilings expressed as flight levels or as feet above mean sea level. Unless otherwise specified, the word “to” (an altitude or flight level) means “to and including” (that altitude or flight level).</P>
            <P>(c) The horizontal limits of special use airspace are measured by boundaries described by geographic coordinates or other appropriate references that clearly define their perimeter.</P>
            <P>(d) The period of time during which a designation of special use airspace is in effect is stated in the designation.</P>
          </SECTION>
          <SECTION>
            <SECTNO>§ 73.5</SECTNO>
            <SUBJECT>Bearings; radials; miles.</SUBJECT>
            <P>(a) All bearings and radials in this part are true from point of origin.</P>
            <P>(b) Unless otherwise specified, all mileages in this part are stated as statute miles.</P>
          </SECTION>
        </SUBPART>
        <SUBPART>
          <HD SOURCE="HED">Subpart B—Restricted Areas</HD>
          <SECTION>
            <SECTNO>§ 73.11</SECTNO>
            <SUBJECT>Applicability.</SUBJECT>
            <P>This subpart designates restricted areas and prescribes limitations on the operation of aircraft within them.</P>
          </SECTION>
          <SECTION>
            <SECTNO>§ 73.13</SECTNO>
            <SUBJECT>Restrictions.</SUBJECT>
            <P>No person may operate an aircraft within a restricted area between the designated altitudes and during the time of designation, unless he has the advance permission of</P>
            <P>(a) The using agency described in § 73.15; or</P>
            <P>(b) The controlling agency described in § 73.17.</P>
          </SECTION>
          <SECTION>
            <SECTNO>§ 73.15</SECTNO>
            <SUBJECT>Using agency.</SUBJECT>
            <P>(a) For the purposes of this subpart, the following are using agencies;</P>
            <P>(1) The agency, organization, or military command whose activity within a restricted area necessitated the area being so designated.</P>

            <P>(b) Upon the request of the FAA, the using agency shall execute a letter establishing procedures for joint use of a restricted area by the using agency and the controlling agency, under which <PRTPAGE P="156"/>the using agency would notify the controlling agency whenever the controlling agency may grant permission for transit through the restricted area in accordance with the terms of the letter.</P>
            <P>(c) The using agency shall—</P>
            <P>(1) Schedule activities within the restricted area;</P>
            <P>(2) Authorize transit through, or flight within, the restricted area as feasible; and</P>
            <P>(3) Contain within the restricted area all activities conducted therein in accordance with the purpose for which it was designated.</P>
          </SECTION>
          <SECTION>
            <SECTNO>§ 73.17</SECTNO>
            <SUBJECT>Controlling agency.</SUBJECT>
            <P>For the purposes of this part, the controlling agency is the FAA facility that may authorize transit through or flight within a restricted area in accordance with a joint-use letter issued under § 73.15.</P>
          </SECTION>
          <SECTION>
            <SECTNO>§ 73.19</SECTNO>
            <SUBJECT>Reports by using agency.</SUBJECT>
            <P>(a) Each using agency shall prepare a report on the use of each restricted area assigned thereto during any part of the preceding 12-month period ended September 30, and transmit it by the following January 31 of each year to the Manager, Air Traffic Division in the regional office of the Federal Aviation Administration having jurisdiction over the area in which the restricted area is located, with a copy to the Program Director for Air Traffic Airspace Management, Federal Aviation Administration, Washington, DC 20591.</P>
            <P>(b) In the report under this section the using agency shall:</P>
            <P>(1) State the name and number of the restricted area as published in this part, and the period covered by the report.</P>
            <P>(2) State the activities (including average daily number of operations if appropriate) conducted in the area, and any other pertinent information concerning current and future electronic monitoring devices.</P>
            <P>(3) State the number of hours daily, the days of the week, and the number of weeks during the year that the area was used.</P>
            <P>(4) For restricted areas having a joint-use designation, also state the number of hours daily, the days of the week, and the number of weeks during the year that the restricted area was released to the controlling agency for public use.</P>
            <P>(5) State the mean sea level altitudes or flight levels (whichever is appropriate) used in aircraft operations and the maximum and average ordinate of surface firing (expressed in feet, mean sea level altitude) used on a daily, weekly, and yearly basis.</P>
            <P>(6) Include a chart of the area (of optional scale and design) depicting, if used, aircraft operating areas, flight patterns, ordnance delivery areas, surface firing points, and target, fan, and impact areas. After once submitting an appropriate chart, subsequent annual charts are not required unless there is a change in the area, activity or altitude (or flight levels) used, which might alter the depiction of the activities originally reported. If no change is to be submitted, a statement indicating “no change” shall be included in the report.</P>
            <P>(7) Include any other information not otherwise required under this part which is considered pertinent to activities carried on in the restricted area.</P>
            <P>(c) If it is determined that the information submitted under paragraph (b) of this section is not sufficient to evaluate the nature and extent of the use of a restricted area, the FAA may request the using agency to submit supplementary reports. Within 60 days after receiving a request for additional information, the using agency shall submit such information as the Program Director for Air Traffic Airspace Management considers appropriate. Supplementary reports must be sent to the FAA officials designated in paragraph (a) of this section.</P>
            <SECAUTH>(Secs. 307 and 313(a), Federal Aviation Act of 1958 (49 U.S.C. 1348 and 1354(a)))</SECAUTH>
            <CITA>[Doc. No. 15379, 42 FR 54798, Oct. 11, 1977, as amended by Amdt. 73-5, 54 FR 39292, Sept. 25, 1989; Amdt. 73-6, 58 FR 42001, Aug. 6, 1993; Amdt. 73-8, 61 FR 26435, May 28, 1996; Amdt. 73-8, 63 FR 16890, Apr. 7, 1998]</CITA>
            <EDNOTE>
              <HD SOURCE="HED">Editorial Note:</HD>

              <P>The restricted areas formerly carried as §§ 608.21 to 608.72 of this title were transferred to part 73 as §§ 73.21 to 73.72 under subpart B but are not carried in the Code of Federal Regulations. For Federal Register citations affecting these restricted <PRTPAGE P="157"/>areas, see the List of CFR Sections Affected, which appears in the Finding Aids section of the printed volume and on GPO Access.</P>
            </EDNOTE>
          </SECTION>
        </SUBPART>
        <SUBPART>
          <HD SOURCE="HED">Subpart C—Prohibited Areas</HD>
          <SECTION>
            <SECTNO>§ 73.81</SECTNO>
            <SUBJECT>Applicability.</SUBJECT>
            <P>This subpart designates prohibited areas and prescribes limitations on the operation of aircraft therein.</P>
          </SECTION>
          <SECTION>
            <SECTNO>§ 73.83</SECTNO>
            <SUBJECT>Restrictions.</SUBJECT>
            <P>No person may operate an aircraft within a prohibited area unless authorization has been granted by the using agency.</P>
          </SECTION>
          <SECTION>
            <SECTNO>§ 73.85</SECTNO>
            <SUBJECT>Using agency.</SUBJECT>
            <P>For the purpose of this subpart, the using agency is the agency, organization or military command that established the requirements for the prohibited area.</P>
            <EDNOTE>
              <HD SOURCE="HED">Editorial Note:</HD>
              <P>Sections 73.87 through 73.99 are reserved for descriptions of designated prohibited areas. For Federal Register citations affecting these prohibited areas, see the List of CFR Sections Affected, which appears in the Finding Aids section of the printed volume and on GPO Access.</P>
            </EDNOTE>
          </SECTION>
        </SUBPART>
      </PART>
      <PART>
        <RESERVED>PART 75 [RESERVED]</RESERVED>
      </PART>
      <PART>
        <EAR>Pt. 77</EAR>
        <HD SOURCE="HED">PART 77—OBJECTS AFFECTING NAVIGABLE AIRSPACE</HD>
        <CONTENTS>
          <APP>Special Federal Aviation Regulation No. 98</APP>
          <SUBPART>
            <HD SOURCE="HED">Subpart A—General</HD>
            <SECHD>Sec.</SECHD>
            <SECTNO>77.1</SECTNO>
            <SUBJECT>Scope.</SUBJECT>
            <SECTNO>77.2</SECTNO>
            <SUBJECT>Definition of terms.</SUBJECT>
            <SECTNO>77.3</SECTNO>
            <SUBJECT>Standards.</SUBJECT>
            <SECTNO>77.5</SECTNO>
            <SUBJECT>Kinds of objects affected.</SUBJECT>
          </SUBPART>
          <SUBPART>
            <HD SOURCE="HED">Subpart B—Notice of Construction or Alteration</HD>
            <SECTNO>77.11</SECTNO>
            <SUBJECT>Scope.</SUBJECT>
            <SECTNO>77.13</SECTNO>
            <SUBJECT>Construction or alteration requiring notice.</SUBJECT>
            <SECTNO>77.15</SECTNO>
            <SUBJECT>Construction or alteration not requiring notice.</SUBJECT>
            <SECTNO>77.17</SECTNO>
            <SUBJECT>Form and time of notice.</SUBJECT>
            <SECTNO>77.19</SECTNO>
            <SUBJECT>Acknowledgment of notice.</SUBJECT>
          </SUBPART>
          <SUBPART>
            <HD SOURCE="HED">Subpart C—Obstruction Standards</HD>
            <SECTNO>77.21</SECTNO>
            <SUBJECT>Scope.</SUBJECT>
            <SECTNO>77.23</SECTNO>
            <SUBJECT>Standards for determining obstructions.</SUBJECT>
            <SECTNO>77.25</SECTNO>
            <SUBJECT>Civil airport imaginary surfaces.</SUBJECT>
            <SECTNO>77.27</SECTNO>
            <SUBJECT>[Reserved]</SUBJECT>
            <SECTNO>77.28</SECTNO>
            <SUBJECT>Military airport imaginary surfaces.</SUBJECT>
            <SECTNO>77.29</SECTNO>
            <SUBJECT>Airport imaginary surfaces for heliports.</SUBJECT>
          </SUBPART>
          <SUBPART>
            <HD SOURCE="HED">Subpart D—Aeronautical Studies of Effect of Proposed Construction on Navigable Airspace</HD>
            <SECTNO>77.31</SECTNO>
            <SUBJECT>Scope.</SUBJECT>
            <SECTNO>77.33</SECTNO>
            <SUBJECT>Initiation of studies.</SUBJECT>
            <SECTNO>77.35</SECTNO>
            <SUBJECT>Aeronautical studies.</SUBJECT>
            <SECTNO>77.37</SECTNO>
            <SUBJECT>Discretionary review.</SUBJECT>
            <SECTNO>77.39</SECTNO>
            <SUBJECT>Effective period of determination of no hazard.</SUBJECT>
          </SUBPART>
          <SUBPART>
            <HD SOURCE="HED">Subpart E—Rules of Practice for Hearings Under Subpart D</HD>
            <SECTNO>77.41</SECTNO>
            <SUBJECT>Scope.</SUBJECT>
            <SECTNO>77.43</SECTNO>
            <SUBJECT>Nature of hearing.</SUBJECT>
            <SECTNO>77.45</SECTNO>
            <SUBJECT>Presiding officer.</SUBJECT>
            <SECTNO>77.47</SECTNO>
            <SUBJECT>Legal officer.</SUBJECT>
            <SECTNO>77.49</SECTNO>
            <SUBJECT>Notice of hearing.</SUBJECT>
            <SECTNO>77.51</SECTNO>
            <SUBJECT>Parties to the hearing.</SUBJECT>
            <SECTNO>77.53</SECTNO>
            <SUBJECT>Prehearing conference.</SUBJECT>
            <SECTNO>77.55</SECTNO>
            <SUBJECT>Examination of witnesses.</SUBJECT>
            <SECTNO>77.57</SECTNO>
            <SUBJECT>Evidence.</SUBJECT>
            <SECTNO>77.59</SECTNO>
            <SUBJECT>Subpoenas of witnesses and exhibits.</SUBJECT>
            <SECTNO>77.61</SECTNO>
            <SUBJECT>Revision of construction or alteration proposal.</SUBJECT>
            <SECTNO>77.63</SECTNO>
            <SUBJECT>Record of hearing.</SUBJECT>
            <SECTNO>77.65</SECTNO>
            <SUBJECT>Recommendations by parties.</SUBJECT>
            <SECTNO>77.67</SECTNO>
            <SUBJECT>Final decision of the Administrator.</SUBJECT>
            <SECTNO>77.69</SECTNO>
            <SUBJECT>Limitations on appearance and representation.</SUBJECT>
          </SUBPART>
          <SUBPART>
            <HD SOURCE="HED">Subpart F—Establishment of Antenna Farm Areas</HD>
            <SECTNO>77.71</SECTNO>
            <SUBJECT>Scope.</SUBJECT>
            <SECTNO>77.73</SECTNO>
            <SUBJECT>General provisions.</SUBJECT>
            <SECTNO>77.75</SECTNO>
            <SUBJECT>Establishment of antenna farm areas.</SUBJECT>
          </SUBPART>
        </CONTENTS>
        <AUTH>
          <HD SOURCE="HED">Authority:</HD>
          <P>49 U.S.C. 106(g), 40103, 40113-40114, 44502, 44701, 44718, 46101-46102, 46104.</P>
        </AUTH>
        <SOURCE>
          <HD SOURCE="HED">Source:</HD>
          <P>Docket No. 1882, 30 FR 1839, Feb. 10, 1965, unless otherwise noted.</P>
        </SOURCE>
        <APPENDIX>
          <EAR>Pt. 77, SFAR No. 98</EAR>
          <HD SOURCE="HED">Special Federal Aviation Regulation No. 98—Construction or Alteration in the Vicinity of the Private Residence of the President of the United States</HD>
          <P>Section 1. <E T="03">Construction or alteration near the private residence of the President.</E> This section applies to:</P>
          <P>(a) Any object of natural growth, terrain, or permanent or temporary construction or alteration, including appurtenances and equipment or materials used therein.</P>

          <P>(b) Any apparatus of a permanent or temporary character.<PRTPAGE P="158"/>
          </P>
          <P>Section 2. <E T="03">Notice of Construction/Alteration.</E> Proponents proposing construction or alteration of any object described in Section 1 that would exceed 50 feet AGL and is within 3 NM radius of lat. 31°34′45 N, long. 97°32′00 W shall notify the Administrator in the form and manner prescribed in 14 CFR 77.17.</P>
          <P>Section 3. <E T="03">Obstruction Standard.</E>
          </P>
          <P>(a) Any object described in Section 1 that would exceed 50 feet AGL and is within 3 NM radius of lat. 31°34′45N, long. 97°32′00W is an obstruction and is presumed to adversely affect aviation safety and therefore is a hazard to air navigation.</P>
          <P>(b) A Determination of No Hazard will be issued only when the FAA determines, based upon submitted information and in consultation with the USMC and the SSPPD, that the construction or alteration will not adversely affect safety and would not result in a hazard to air navigation.</P>
          <P>Section 4. <E T="03">Termination.</E> This rule will terminate at the end of President George W. Bush's term in office.</P>
          <CITA>[Doc. No. FAA-2003-14972, 68 FR 19732, Apr. 22, 2003; 68 FR 23584, May 5, 2003]</CITA>
        </APPENDIX>
        <SUBPART>
          <HD SOURCE="HED">Subpart A—General</HD>
          <SECTION>
            <SECTNO>§ 77.1</SECTNO>
            <SUBJECT>Scope.</SUBJECT>
            <P>This part:</P>
            <P>(a) Establishes standards for determining obstructions in navigable airspace;</P>
            <P>(b) Sets forth the requirements for notice to the Administrator of certain proposed construction or alteration;</P>
            <P>(c) Provides for aeronautical studies of obstructions to air navigation, to determine their effect on the safe and efficient use of airspace;</P>
            <P>(d) Provides for public hearings on the hazardous effect of proposed construction or alteration on air navigation; and</P>
            <P>(e) Provides for establishing antenna farm areas.</P>
          </SECTION>
          <SECTION>
            <SECTNO>§ 77.2</SECTNO>
            <SUBJECT>Definition of terms.</SUBJECT>
            <P>For the purpose of this part:</P>
            <P>
              <E T="03">Airport available for public use</E> means an airport that is open to the general public with or without a prior request to use the airport.</P>
            <P>
              <E T="03">A seaplane base</E> is considered to be an airport only if its sea lanes are outlined by visual markers.</P>
            <P>
              <E T="03">Nonprecision instrument runway</E> means a runway having an existing instrument approach procedure utilizing air navigation facilities with only horizontal guidance, or area type navigation equipment, for which a straight-in nonprecision instrument approach procedure has been approved, or planned, and for which no precision approach facilities are planned, or indicated on an FAA planning document or military service military airport planning document.</P>
            <P>
              <E T="03">Precision instrument runway</E> means a runway having an existing instrument approach procedure utilizing an Instrument Landing System (ILS), or a Precision Approach Radar (PAR). It also means a runway for which a precision approach system is planned and is so indicated by an FAA approved airport layout plan; a military service approved military airport layout plan; any other FAA planning document, or military service military airport planning document.</P>
            <P>
              <E T="03">Utility runway</E> means a runway that is constructed for and intended to be used by propeller driven aircraft of 12,500 pounds maximum gross weight and less.</P>
            <P>
              <E T="03">Visual runway</E> means a runway intended solely for the operation of aircraft using visual approach procedures, with no straight-in instrument approach procedure and no instrument designation indicated on an FAA approved airport layout plan, a military service approved military airport layout plan, or by any planning document submitted to the FAA by competent authority.</P>
            <CITA>[Doc. No. 8276, 33 FR 5256, Apr. 2, 1968, as amended by Amdt. 77-9, 36 FR 5969, Apr. 1, 1971]</CITA>
          </SECTION>
          <SECTION>
            <SECTNO>§ 77.3</SECTNO>
            <SUBJECT>Standards.</SUBJECT>
            <P>(a) The standards established in this part for determining obstructions to air navigation are used by the Administrator in:</P>
            <P>(1) Administering the Federal-aid Airport Program and the Surplus Airport Program;</P>
            <P>(2) Transferring property of the United States under section 16 of the Federal Airport Act;</P>
            <P>(3) Developing technical standards and guidance in the design and construction of airports; and</P>

            <P>(4) Imposing requirements for public notice of the construction or alteration <PRTPAGE P="159"/>of any structure where notice will promote air safety.</P>
            <P>(b) The standards used by the Administrator in the establishment of flight procedures and aircraft operational limitations are not set forth in this part but are contained in other publications of the Administrator.</P>
            <CITA>[Doc. No. 1882, 30 FR 1839, Feb. 10, 1965, as amended by Amdt. 77-9, 36 FR 5970, Apr. 1, 1971]</CITA>
          </SECTION>
          <SECTION>
            <SECTNO>§ 77.5</SECTNO>
            <SUBJECT>Kinds of objects affected.</SUBJECT>
            <P>This part applies to:</P>
            <P>(a) Any object of natural growth, terrain, or permanent or temporary construction or alteration, including equipment or materials used therein, and apparatus of a permanent or temporary character; and</P>
            <P>(b) Alteration of any permanent or temporary existing structure by a change in its height (including appurtenances), or lateral dimensions, including equipment or materials used therein.</P>
          </SECTION>
        </SUBPART>
        <SUBPART>
          <HD SOURCE="HED">Subpart B—Notice of Construction or Alteration</HD>
          <SECTION>
            <SECTNO>§ 77.11</SECTNO>
            <SUBJECT>Scope.</SUBJECT>
            <P>(a) This subpart requires each person proposing any kind of construction or alteration described in § 77.13(a) to give adequate notice to the Administrator. It specifies the locations and dimensions of the construction or alteration for which notice is required and prescribes the form and manner of the notice. It also requires supplemental notices 48 hours before the start and upon the completion of certain construction or alteration that was the subject of a notice under § 77.13(a).</P>
            <P>(b) Notices received under this subpart provide a basis for:</P>
            <P>(1) Evaluating the effect of the construction or alteration on operational procedures and proposed operational procedures;</P>
            <P>(2) Determinations of the possible hazardous effect of the proposed construction or alteration on air navigation;</P>
            <P>(3) Recommendations for identifying the construction or alteration in accordance with the current Federal Aviation Administration Advisory Circular AC 70/7460-1 entitled “Obstruction Marking and Lighting,” which is available without charge from the Department of Transportation, Distribution Unit, TAD 484.3, Washington, DC 20590.</P>
            <P>(4) Determining other appropriate measures to be applied for continued safety of air navigation; and</P>
            <P>(5) Charting and other notification to airmen of the construction or alteration.</P>
            <SECAUTH>(Sec. 6, 80 Stat. 937, 49 U.S.C. 1655)</SECAUTH>
            <CITA>[Doc. No. 1882, 30 FR 1839, Feb. 10, 1965, as amended by Amdt. 77-8, 33 FR 18614, Dec. 17, 1968; Amdt. 77-10, 37 FR 4705, Mar. 4, 1972]</CITA>
          </SECTION>
          <SECTION>
            <SECTNO>§ 77.13</SECTNO>
            <SUBJECT>Construction or alteration requiring notice.</SUBJECT>
            <P>(a) Except as provided in § 77.15, each sponsor who proposes any of the following construction or alteration shall notify the Administrator in the form and manner prescribed in § 77.17:</P>
            <P>(1) Any construction or alteration of more than 200 feet in height above the ground level at its site.</P>
            <P>(2) Any construction or alteration of greater height than an imaginary surface extending outward and upward at one of the following slopes:</P>
            <P>(i) 100 to 1 for a horizontal distance of 20,000 feet from the nearest point of the nearest runway of each airport specified in paragraph (a)(5) of this section with at least one runway more than 3,200 feet in actual length, excluding heliports.</P>
            <P>(ii) 50 to 1 for a horizontal distance of 10,000 feet from the nearest point of the nearest runway of each airport specified in paragraph (a)(5) of this section with its longest runway no more than 3,200 feet in actual length, excluding heliports.</P>
            <P>(iii) 25 to 1 for a horizontal distance of 5,000 feet from the nearest point of the nearest landing and takeoff area of each heliport specified in paragraph (a)(5) of this section.</P>

            <P>(3) Any highway, railroad, or other traverse way for mobile objects, of a height which, if adjusted upward 17 feet for an Interstate Highway that is part of the National System of Military and Interstate Highways where overcrossings are designed for a minimum of 17 feet vertical distance, 15 feet for any other public roadway, 10 feet or <PRTPAGE P="160"/>the height of the highest mobile object that would normally traverse the road, whichever is greater, for a private road, 23 feet for a railroad, and for a waterway or any other traverse way not previously mentioned, an amount equal to the height of the highest mobile object that would normally traverse it, would exceed a standard of paragraph (a) (1) or (2) of this section.</P>
            <P>(4) When requested by the FAA, any construction or alteration that would be in an instrument approach area (defined in the FAA standards governing instrument approach procedures) and available information indicates it might exceed a standard of subpart C of this part.</P>
            <P>(5) Any construction or alteration on any of the following airports (including heliports):</P>
            <P>(i) An airport that is available for public use and is listed in the Airport Directory of the current Airman's Information Manual or in either the Alaska or Pacific Airman's Guide and Chart Supplement.</P>
            <P>(ii) An airport under construction, that is the subject of a notice or proposal on file with the Federal Aviation Administration, and, except for military airports, it is clearly indicated that that airport will be available for public use.</P>
            <P>(iii) An airport that is operated by an armed force of the United States.</P>
            <P>(b) Each sponsor who proposes construction or alteration that is the subject of a notice under paragraph (a) of this section and is advised by an FAA regional office that a supplemental notice is required shall submit that notice on a prescribed form to be received by the FAA regional office at least 48 hours before the start of the construction or alteration.</P>
            <P>(c) Each sponsor who undertakes construction or alteration that is the subject of a notice under paragraph (a) of this section shall, within 5 days after that construction or alteration reaches its greatest height, submit a supplemental notice on a prescribed form to the FAA regional office having jurisdiction over the region involved, if—</P>
            <P>(1) The construction or alteration is more than 200 feet above the surface level of its site; or</P>
            <P>(2) An FAA regional office advises him that submission of the form is required.</P>
            <CITA>[Doc. No. 8276, 33 FR 5256, Apr. 2, 1968, as amended by Amdt. 77-9, 36 FR 5970, Apr. 1, 1971; Amdt. 77-10, 37 FR 4705, Mar. 4, 1972]</CITA>
          </SECTION>
          <SECTION>
            <SECTNO>§ 77.15</SECTNO>
            <SUBJECT>Construction or alteration not requiring notice.</SUBJECT>
            <P>No person is required to notify the Administrator for any of the following construction or alteration:</P>
            <P>(a) Any object that would be shielded by existing structures of a permanent and substantial character or by natural terrain or topographic features of equal or greater height, and would be located in the congested area of a city, town, or settlement where it is evident beyond all reasonable doubt that the structure so shielded will not adversely affect safety in air navigation.</P>
            <P>(b) Any antenna structure of 20 feet or less in height except one that would increase the height of another antenna structure.</P>
            <P>(c) Any air navigation facility, airport visual approach or landing aid, aircraft arresting device, or meteorological device, of a type approved by the Administrator, or an appropriate military service on military airports, the location and height of which is fixed by its functional purpose.</P>
            <P>(d) Any construction or alteration for which notice is required by any other FAA regulation.</P>
            <CITA>[Doc. No. 1882, 30 FR 1839, Feb. 10, 1965, as amended by Amdt. 77-5, 33 FR 5257, Apr. 2, 1968; Amdt. 77-9, 36 FR 5970, Apr. 1, 1971]</CITA>
          </SECTION>
          <SECTION>
            <SECTNO>§ 77.17</SECTNO>
            <SUBJECT>Form and time of notice.</SUBJECT>
            <P>(a) Each person who is required to notify the Administrator under § 77.13(a) shall send one executed form set (four copies) of FAA Form 7460-1, Notice of Proposed Construction or Alteration, to the Manager, Air Traffic Division, FAA Regional Office having jurisdiction over the area within which the construction or alteration will be located. Copies of FAA Form 7460-1 may be obtained from the headquarters of the Federal Aviation Administration and the regional offices.</P>

            <P>(b) The notice required under § 77.13(a) (1) through (4) must be submitted at least 30 days before the earlier of the following dates:<PRTPAGE P="161"/>
            </P>
            <P>(1) The date the proposed construction or alteration is to begin.</P>
            <P>(2) The date an application for a construction permit is to be filed.</P>
            <FP>However, a notice relating to proposed construction or alteration that is subject to the licensing requirements of the Federal Communications Act may be sent to FAA at the same time the application for construction is filed with the Federal Communications Commission, or at any time before that filing.</FP>
            <P>(c) A proposed structure or an alteration to an existing structure that exceeds 2,000 feet in height above the ground will be presumed to be a hazard to air navigation and to result in an inefficient utilization of airspace and the applicant has the burden of overcoming that presumption. Each notice submitted under the pertinent provisions of this part 77 proposing a structure in excess of 2,000 feet above ground, or an alteration that will make an existing structure exceed that height, must contain a detailed showing, directed to meeting this burden. Only in exceptional cases, where the FAA concludes that a clear and compelling showing has been made that it would not result in an inefficient utilization of the airspace and would not result in a hazard to air navigation, will a determination of no hazard be issued.</P>
            <P>(d) In the case of an emergency involving essential public services, public health, or public safety that requires immediate construction or alteration, the 30-day requirement in paragraph (b) of this section does not apply and the notice may be sent by telephone, telegraph, or other expeditious means, with an executed FAA Form 7460-1 submitted within 5 days thereafter. Outside normal business hours, emergency notices by telephone or telegraph may be submitted to the nearest FAA Flight Service Station.</P>
            <P>(e) Each person who is required to notify the Administrator by paragraph (b) or (c) of § 77.13, or both, shall send an executed copy of FAA Form 117-1, Notice of Progress of Construction or Alteration, to the Manager, Air Traffic Division, FAA Regional Office having jurisdiction over the area involved.</P>
            <SECAUTH>(Sec. 6, 80 Stat. 937, 49 U.S.C. 1655)</SECAUTH>
            <CITA>[Doc. No. 1882, 30 FR 1839, Feb. 10, 1965, as amended by Amdt. 77-2, 31 FR 9449, July 12, 1966; Amdt. 77-8, 33 FR 18614, Dec. 17, 1968; Amdt. 77-10, 37 FR 4705, Mar. 4, 1972; Amdt. 77-11, 54 FR 39292, Sept. 25, 1989]</CITA>
          </SECTION>
          <SECTION>
            <SECTNO>§ 77.19</SECTNO>
            <SUBJECT>Acknowledgment of notice.</SUBJECT>
            <P>(a) The FAA acknowledges in writing the receipt of each notice submitted under § 77.13(a).</P>
            <P>(b) If the construction or alteration proposed in a notice is one for which lighting or marking standards are prescribed in the FAA Advisory Circular AC 70/7460-1, entitled “Obstruction Marking and Lighting,” the acknowledgment contains a statement to that effect and information on how the structure should be marked and lighted in accordance with the manual.</P>
            <P>(c) The acknowledgment states that an aeronautical study of the proposed construction or alteration has resulted in a determination that the construction or alteration:</P>
            <P>(1) Would not exceed any standard of subpart C and would not be a hazard to air navigation;</P>
            <P>(2) Would exceed a standard of subpart C but would not be a hazard to air navigation; or</P>
            <P>(3) Would exceed a standard of subpart C and further aeronautical study is necessary to determine whether it would be a hazard to air navigation, that the sponsor may request within 30 days that further study, and that, pending completion of any further study, it is presumed the construction or alteration would be a hazard to air navigation.</P>
            <CITA>[Doc. No. 1882, 30 FR 1839, Feb. 10, 1965, as amended by Amdt. 77-4, 32 FR 12997, Sept. 13, 1967; Amdt. 77-5, 33 FR 5257, Apr. 2, 1968]</CITA>
          </SECTION>
        </SUBPART>
        <SUBPART>
          <HD SOURCE="HED">Subpart C—Obstruction Standards</HD>
          <SECTION>
            <SECTNO>§ 77.21</SECTNO>
            <SUBJECT>Scope.</SUBJECT>

            <P>(a) This subpart establishes standards for determining obstructions to air navigation. It applies to existing and proposed manmade objects, objects of natural growth, and terrain. The standards apply to the use of navigable <PRTPAGE P="162"/>airspace by aircraft and to existing air navigation facilities, such as an air navigation aid, airport, Federal airway, instrument approach or departure procedure, or approved off-airway route. Additionally, they apply to a planned facility or use, or a change in an existing facility or use, if a proposal therefor is on file with the Federal Aviation Administration or an appropriate military service on the date the notice required by § 77.13(a) is filed.</P>
            <P>(b) At those airports having defined runways with specially prepared hard surfaces, the primary surface for each such runway extends 200 feet beyond each end of the runway. At those airports having defined strips or pathways that are used regularly for the taking off and landing of aircraft and have been designated by appropriate authority as runways, but do not have specially prepared hard surfaces, each end of the primary surface for each such runway shall coincide with the corresponding end of the runway. At those airports, excluding seaplane bases, having a defined landing and takeoff area with no defined pathways for the landing and taking off of aircraft, a determination shall be made as to which portions of the landing and takeoff area are regularly used as landing and takeoff pathways. Those pathways so determined shall be considered runways and an appropriate primary surface as defined in § 77.25(c) will be considered as being longitudinally centered on each runway so determined, and each end of that primary surface shall coincide with the corresponding end of that runway.</P>
            <P>(c) The standards in this subpart apply to the effect of construction or alteration proposals upon an airport if, at the time of filing of the notice required by § 77.13(a), that airport is—</P>
            <P>(1) Available for public use and is listed in the Airport Directory of the current Airman's Information Manual or in either the Alaska or Pacific Airman's Guide and Chart Supplement; or</P>
            <P>(2) A planned or proposed airport or an airport under construction, that is the subject of a notice or proposal on file with the Federal Aviation Administration, and, except for military airports, it is clearly indicated that that airport will be available for public use; or,</P>
            <P>(3) An airport that is operated by an armed force of the United States.</P>
            <CITA>[Doc. No. 1882, 30 FR 1839, Feb. 10, 1965, as amended by Amdt. 77-5, 33 FR 5257, Apr. 2, 1968; Amdt. 77-9, 36 FR 5970, Apr. 1, 1971]</CITA>
          </SECTION>
          <SECTION>
            <SECTNO>§ 77.23</SECTNO>
            <SUBJECT>Standards for determining obstructions.</SUBJECT>
            <P>(a) An existing object, including a mobile object, is, and a future object would be, an obstruction to air navigation if it is of greater height than any of the following heights or surfaces:</P>
            <P>(1) A height of 500 feet above ground level at the site of the object.</P>
            <P>(2) A height that is 200 feet above ground level or above the established airport elevation, whichever is higher, within 3 nautical miles of the established reference point of an airport, excluding heliports, with its longest runway more than 3,200 feet in actual length, and that height increases in the proportion of 100 feet for each additional nautical mile of distance from the airport up to a maximum of 500 feet.</P>
            <P>(3) A height within a terminal obstacle clearance area, including an initial approach segment, a departure area, and a circling approach area, which would result in the vertical distance between any point on the object and an established minimum instrument flight altitude within that area or segment to be less than the required obstacle clearance.</P>
            <P>(4) A height within an en route obstacle clearance area, including turn and termination areas, of a Federal airway or approved off-airway route, that would increase the minimum obstacle clearance altitude.</P>
            <P>(5) The surface of a takeoff and landing area of an airport or any imaginary surface established under § 77.25, § 77.28, or § 77.29. However, no part of the take-off or landing area itself will be considered an obstruction.</P>

            <P>(b) Except for traverse ways on or near an airport with an operative ground traffic control service, furnished by an air traffic control tower or by the airport management and coordinated with the air traffic control service, the standards of paragraph (a) of this section apply to traverse ways <PRTPAGE P="163"/>used or to be used for the passage of mobile objects only after the heights of these traverse ways are increased by:</P>
            <P>(1) Seventeen feet for an Interstate Highway that is part of the National System of Military and Interstate Highways where overcrossings are designed for a minimum of 17 feet vertical distance.</P>
            <P>(2) Fifteen feet for any other public roadway.</P>
            <P>(3) Ten feet or the height of the highest mobile object that would normally traverse the road, whichever is greater, for a private road.</P>
            <P>(4) Twenty-three feet for a railroad, and,</P>
            <P>(5) For a waterway or any other traverse way not previously mentioned, an amount equal to the height of the highest mobile object that would normally traverse it.</P>
            <CITA>[Doc. No. 10183, 36 FR 5970, Apr. 1, 1971]</CITA>
          </SECTION>
          <SECTION>
            <SECTNO>§ 77.25</SECTNO>
            <SUBJECT>Civil airport imaginary surfaces.</SUBJECT>
            <P>The following civil airport imaginary surfaces are established with relation to the airport and to each runway. The size of each such imaginary surface is based on the category of each runway according to the type of approach available or planned for that runway. The slope and dimensions of the approach surface applied to each end of a runway are determined by the most precise approach existing or planned for that runway end.</P>
            <P>(a) <E T="03">Horizontal surface.</E> A horizontal plane 150 feet above the established airport elevation, the perimeter of which is constructed by swinging arcs of specified radii from the center of each end of the primary surface of each runway of each airport and connecting the adjacent arcs by lines tangent to those arcs. The radius of each arc is:</P>
            <P>(1) 5,000 feet for all runways designated as utility or visual;</P>
            <P>(2) 10,000 feet for all other runways. The radius of the arc specified for each end of a runway will have the same arithmetical value. That value will be the highest determined for either end of the runway. When a 5,000-foot arc is encompassed by tangents connecting two adjacent 10,000-foot arcs, the 5,000-foot arc shall be disregarded on the construction of the perimeter of the horizontal surface.</P>
            <P>(b) <E T="03">Conical surface.</E> A surface extending outward and upward from the periphery of the horizontal surface at a slope of 20 to 1 for a horizontal distance of 4,000 feet.</P>
            <P>(c) <E T="03">Primary surface.</E> A surface longitudinally centered on a runway. When the runway has a specially prepared hard surface, the primary surface extends 200 feet beyond each end of that runway; but when the runway has no specially prepared hard surface, or planned hard surface, the primary surface ends at each end of that runway. The elevation of any point on the primary surface is the same as the elevation of the nearest point on the runway centerline. The width of a primary surface is:</P>
            <P>(1) 250 feet for utility runways having only visual approaches.</P>
            <P>(2) 500 feet for utility runways having nonprecision instrument approaches.</P>
            <P>(3) For other than utility runways the width is:</P>
            <P>(i) 500 feet for visual runways having only visual approaches.</P>
            <P>(ii) 500 feet for nonprecision instrument runways having visibility minimums greater than three-fourths statute mile.</P>
            <P>(iii) 1,000 feet for a nonprecision instrument runway having a nonprecision instrument approach with visibility minimums as low as three-fourths of a statute mile, and for precision instrument runways.</P>
            <FP>The width of the primary surface of a runway will be that width prescribed in this section for the most precise approach existing or planned for either end of that runway.</FP>
            <P>(d) <E T="03">Approach surface.</E> A surface longitudinally centered on the extended runway centerline and extending outward and upward from each end of the primary surface. An approach surface is applied to each end of each runway based upon the type of approach available or planned for that runway end.</P>
            <P>(1) The inner edge of the approach surface is the same width as the primary surface and it expands uniformly to a width of:</P>

            <P>(i) 1,250 feet for that end of a utility runway with only visual approaches;<PRTPAGE P="164"/>
            </P>
            <P>(ii) 1,500 feet for that end of a runway other than a utility runway with only visual approaches;</P>
            <P>(iii) 2,000 feet for that end of a utility runway with a nonprecision instrument approach;</P>
            <P>(iv) 3,500 feet for that end of a nonprecision instrument runway other than utility, having visibility minimums greater than three-fourths of a statute mile;</P>
            <P>(v) 4,000 feet for that end of a nonprecision instrument runway, other than utility, having a nonprecision instrument approach with visibility minimums as low as three-fourths statute mile; and</P>
            <P>(vi) 16,000 feet for precision instrument runways.</P>
            <P>(2) The approach surface extends for a horizontal distance of:</P>
            <P>(i) 5,000 feet at a slope of 20 to 1 for all utility and visual runways;</P>
            <P>(ii) 10,000 feet at a slope of 34 to 1 for all nonprecision instrument runways other than utility; and,</P>
            <P>(iii) 10,000 feet at a slope of 50 to 1 with an additional 40,000 feet at a slope of 40 to 1 for all precision instrument runways.</P>
            <P>(3) The outer width of an approach surface to an end of a runway will be that width prescribed in this subsection for the most precise approach existing or planned for that runway end.</P>
            <P>(e) <E T="03">Transitional surface.</E> These surfaces extend outward and upward at right angles to the runway centerline and the runway centerline extended at a slope of 7 to 1 from the sides of the primary surface and from the sides of the approach surfaces. Transitional surfaces for those portions of the precision approach surface which project through and beyond the limits of the conical surface, extend a distance of 5,000 feet measured horizontally from the edge of the approach surface and at right angles to the runway centerline.</P>
            <CITA>[Doc. No. 10183, 36 FR 5970, Apr. 1, 1971; 36 FR 6741, Apr. 8, 1971]</CITA>
          </SECTION>
          <SECTION>
            <SECTNO>§ 77.27</SECTNO>
            <RESERVED>[Reserved]</RESERVED>
          </SECTION>
          <SECTION>
            <SECTNO>§ 77.28</SECTNO>
            <SUBJECT>Military airport imaginary surfaces.</SUBJECT>
            <P>(a) <E T="03">Related to airport reference points.</E> These surfaces apply to all military airports. For the purposes of this section a military airport is any airport operated by an armed force of the United States.</P>
            <P>(1) <E T="03">Inner horizontal surface.</E> A plane is oval in shape at a height of 150 feet above the established airfield elevation. The plane is constructed by scribing an arc with a radius of 7,500 feet about the centerline at the end of each runway and interconnecting these arcs with tangents.</P>
            <P>(2) <E T="03">Conical surface.</E> A surface extending from the periphery of the inner horizontal surface outward and upward at a slope of 20 to 1 for a horizontal distance of 7,000 feet to a height of 500 feet above the established airfield elevation.</P>
            <P>(3) <E T="03">Outer horizontal surface.</E> A plane, located 500 feet above the established airfield elevation, extending outward from the outer periphery of the conical surface for a horizontal distance of 30,000 feet.</P>
            <P>(b) <E T="03">Related to runways.</E> These surfaces apply to all military airports.</P>
            <P>(1) <E T="03">Primary surface.</E> A surface located on the ground or water longitudinally centered on each runway with the same length as the runway. The width of the primary surface for runways is 2,000 feet. However, at established bases where substantial construction has taken place in accordance with a previous lateral clearance criteria, the 2,000-foot width may be reduced to the former criteria.</P>
            <P>(2) <E T="03">Clear zone surface.</E> A surface located on the ground or water at each end of the primary surface, with a length of 1,000 feet and the same width as the primary surface.</P>
            <P>(3) <E T="03">Approach clearance surface.</E> An inclined plane, symmetrical about the runway centerline extended, beginning 200 feet beyond each end of the primary surface at the centerline elevation of the runway end and extending for 50,000 feet. The slope of the approach clearance surface is 50 to 1 along the runway centerline extended until it reaches an elevation of 500 feet above the established airport elevation. It then continues horizontally at this elevation to a point 50,000 feet from the point of beginning. The width of this surface at <PRTPAGE P="165"/>the runway end is the same as the primary surface, it flares uniformly, and the width at 50,000 is 16,000 feet.</P>
            <P>(4) <E T="03">Transitional surfaces.</E> These surfaces connect the primary surfaces, the first 200 feet of the clear zone surfaces, and the approach clearance surfaces to the inner horizontal surface, conical surface, outer horizontal surface or other transitional surfaces. The slope of the transitional surface is 7 to 1 outward and upward at right angles to the runway centerline.</P>
            <CITA>[Doc. No. 1882, 30 FR 1839, Feb. 10, 1965, as amended by Amdt. 77-1, 30 FR 6713, May 18, 1965; Amdt. 77-9, 36 FR 5971, Apr. 1, 1971]</CITA>
          </SECTION>
          <SECTION>
            <SECTNO>§ 77.29</SECTNO>
            <SUBJECT>Airport imaginary surfaces for heli-ports.</SUBJECT>
            <P>(a) <E T="03">Heliport primary surface.</E> The area of the primary surface coincides in size and shape with the designated take-off and landing area of a heliport. This surface is a horizontal plane at the elevation of the established heliport elevation.</P>
            <P>(b) <E T="03">Heliport approach surface.</E> The approach surface begins at each end of the heliport primary surface with the same width as the primary surface, and extends outward and upward for a horizontal distance of 4,000 feet where its width is 500 feet. The slope of the approach surface is 8 to 1 for civil heliports and 10 to 1 for military heliports.</P>
            <P>(c) <E T="03">Heliport transitional surfaces</E> These surfaces extend outward and upward from the lateral boundaries of the heliport primary surface and from the approach surfaces at a slope of 2 to 1 for a distance of 250 feet measured horizontally from the centerline of the primary and approach surfaces.</P>
            <CITA>[Doc. No. 1882, 30 FR 1839, Feb. 10, 1965, as amended by Amdt. 77-9, 36 FR 5971, Apr. 1, 1971; 36 FR 6741, Apr. 8, 1971]</CITA>
          </SECTION>
        </SUBPART>
        <SUBPART>
          <HD SOURCE="HED">Subpart D—Aeronautical Studies of Effect of Proposed Construction on Navigable Airspace</HD>
          <SECTION>
            <SECTNO>§ 77.31</SECTNO>
            <SUBJECT>Scope.</SUBJECT>
            <P>(a) This subpart applies to the conduct of aeronautical studies of the effect of proposed construction or alteration on the use of air navigation facilities or navigable airspace by aircraft. In the aeronautical studies, present and future IFR and VFR aeronautical operations and procedures are reviewed and any possible changes in those operations and procedures and in the construction proposal that would eliminate or alleviate the conflicting demands are ascertained.</P>
            <P>(b) The conclusion of a study made under this subpart is normally a determination as to whether the specific proposal studied would be a hazard to air navigation.</P>
            <CITA>[Doc. No. 1882, 30 FR 1839, Feb. 10, 1965, as amended by Amdt. 77-6, 33 FR 10843, July 31, 1968]</CITA>
          </SECTION>
          <SECTION>
            <SECTNO>§ 77.33</SECTNO>
            <SUBJECT>Initiation of studies.</SUBJECT>
            <P>(a) An aeronautical study is conducted by the FAA:</P>
            <P>(1) Upon the request of the sponsor or any construction or alteration for which a notice is submitted under subpart B of this part, unless that construction or alteration would be located within an antenna farm area established under subpart F of this part; or</P>
            <P>(2) Whenever the FAA determines it appropriate.</P>
            <CITA>[Doc. No. 1882, 30 FR 1839, Feb. 10, 1965, as amended by Amdt. 77-4, 32 FR 12997, Sept. 13, 1967]</CITA>
          </SECTION>
          <SECTION>
            <SECTNO>§ 77.35</SECTNO>
            <SUBJECT>Aeronautical studies.</SUBJECT>
            <P>(a) The Regional Manager, Air Traffic Division of the region in which the proposed construction or alteration would be located, or his designee, conducts the aeronautical study of the effect of the proposal upon the operation of air navigation facilities and the safe and efficient utilization of the navigable airspace. This study may include the physical and electromagnetic radiation effect the proposal may have on the operation of an air navigation facility.</P>
            <P>(b) To the extent considered necessary, the Regional Manager, Air Traffic Division or his designee:</P>
            <P>(1) Solicits comments from all interested persons;</P>

            <P>(2) Explores objections to the proposal and attempts to develop recommendations for adjustment of aviation requirements that would accommodate the proposed construction or alteration;<PRTPAGE P="166"/>
            </P>
            <P>(3) Examines possible revisions of the proposal that would eliminate the exceeding of the standards in subpart C of this part; and</P>
            <P>(4) Convenes a meeting with all interested persons for the purpose of gathering all facts relevant to the effect of the proposed construction or alteration on the safe and efficient utilization of the navigable airspace.</P>
            <P>(c) The Regional Manager, Air Traffic Division or his designee issues a determination as to whether the proposed construction or alteration would be a hazard to air navigation and sends copies to all known interested persons. This determination is final unless a petition for review is granted under § 77.37.</P>
            <P>(d) If the sponsor revises his proposal to eliminate exceeding of the standards of subpart C of this part, or withdraws it, the Regional Manager, Air Traffic Division, or his designee, terminates the study and notifies all known interested persons.</P>
            <CITA>[Doc. No. 1882, 30 FR 1839, Feb. 10, 1965, as amended by Amdt. 77-6, 33 FR 10843, July 31, 1968; Amdt. 77-11, 54 FR 39292, Sept. 25, 1989]</CITA>
          </SECTION>
          <SECTION>
            <SECTNO>§ 77.37</SECTNO>
            <SUBJECT>Discretionary review.</SUBJECT>
            <P>(a) The sponsor of any proposed construction or alteration or any person who stated a substantial aeronautical objection to it in an aeronautical study, or any person who has a substantial aeronautical objection to it but was not given an opportunity to state it, may petition the Administrator, within 30 days after issuance of the determination under § 77.19 or § 77.35 or revision or extension of the determination under § 77.39(c), for a review of the determination, revision, or extension. This paragraph does not apply to any acknowledgment issued under § 77.19(c)(1).</P>
            <P>(b) The petition must be in triplicate and contain a full statement of the basis upon which it is made.</P>
            <P>(c) The Administrator examines each petition and decides whether a review will be made and, if so, whether it will be:</P>
            <P>(1) A review on the basis of written materials, including study of a report by the Regional Manager, Air Traffic Division of the aeronautical study, briefs, and related submissions by any interested party, and other relevant facts, with the Administrator affirming, revising, or reversing the determination issued under § 77.19, § 77.35 or § 77.39(c); or</P>
            <P>(2) A review on the basis of a public hearing, conducted in accordance with the procedures prescribed in subpart E of this part.</P>
            <CITA>[Doc. No. 1882, 30 FR 1839, Feb. 10, 1965, as amended by Amdt. 77-3, 32 FR 6970, May 6, 1967; Amdt. 77-11, 54 FR 39292, Sept. 25, 1989]</CITA>
          </SECTION>
          <SECTION>
            <SECTNO>§ 77.39</SECTNO>
            <SUBJECT>Effective period of determination of no hazard.</SUBJECT>
            <P>(a) Unless it is otherwise extended, revised, or terminated, each final determination of no hazard made under this subpart or subpart B or E of this part expires 18 months after its effective date, regardless of whether the proposed construction or alteration has been started, or on the date the proposed construction or alteration is abandoned, whichever is earlier.</P>
            <P>(b) In any case, including a determination to which paragraph (d) of this section applies, where the proposed construction or alteration has not been started during the applicable period by actual structural work, such as the laying of a foundation, but not including excavation, any interested person may, at least 15 days before the date the final determination expires, petition the FAA official who issued the determination to:</P>
            <P>(1) Revise the determination based on new facts that change the basis on which it was made; or</P>
            <P>(2) Extend its effective period.</P>
            <P>(c) The FAA official who issued the determination reviews each petition presented under paragraph (b) of this section, and revises, extends, or affirms the determination as indicated by his findings.</P>
            <P>(d) In any case in which a final determination made under this subpart or subpart B or E of this part relates to proposed construction or alteration that may not be started unless the Federal Communications Commission issues an appropriate construction permit, the effective period of each final determination includes—</P>

            <P>(1) The time required to apply to the Commission for a construction permit, but not more than 6 months after the <PRTPAGE P="167"/>effective date of the determination; and</P>
            <P>(2) The time necessary for the Commission to process the application except in a case where the Administrator determines a shorter effective period is required by the circumstances.</P>
            <P>(e) If the Commission issues a construction permit, the final determination is effective until the date prescribed for completion of the construction. If the Commission refuses to issue a construction permit, the final determination expires on the date of its refusal.</P>
            <CITA>[Doc. No. 1882, 30 FR 1839, Feb. 10, 1965, as amended by Amdt. 77-5, 33 FR 5257, Apr. 2, 1968]</CITA>
          </SECTION>
        </SUBPART>
        <SUBPART>
          <HD SOURCE="HED">Subpart E—Rules of Practice for Hearings Under Subpart D</HD>
          <SECTION>
            <SECTNO>§ 77.41</SECTNO>
            <SUBJECT>Scope.</SUBJECT>
            <P>This subpart applies to hearings held by the FAA under titles I, III, and X of the Federal Aviation Act of 1958 (49 U.S.C. subchapters I, III, and X), on proposed construction or alteration that affects the use of navigable airspace.</P>
          </SECTION>
          <SECTION>
            <SECTNO>§ 77.43</SECTNO>
            <SUBJECT>Nature of hearing.</SUBJECT>
            <P>Sections 4, 5, 7, and 8 of the Administrative Procedure Act (5 U.S.C. 1003, 1004, 1006, and 1007) do not apply to hearings held on proposed construction or alteration to determine its effect on the safety of aircraft and the efficient use of navigable airspace because those hearings are factfinding in nature. As a factfinding procedure, each hearing is nonadversary and there are no formal pleadings or adverse parties.</P>
          </SECTION>
          <SECTION>
            <SECTNO>§ 77.45</SECTNO>
            <SUBJECT>Presiding officer.</SUBJECT>
            <P>(a) If, under § 79.37, the Administrator grants a public hearing on any proposed construction or alteration covered by this part, the Director, Air Traffic Operations Service designates an FAA employee to be the presiding officer at the hearing.</P>
            <P>(b) The presiding officer may:</P>
            <P>(1) Give notice of the date and location of the hearing and any prehearing conference that may be held;</P>
            <P>(2) Administer oaths and affirmations;</P>
            <P>(3) Examine witnesses;</P>
            <P>(4) Issue subpoenas and take depositions or have them taken;</P>
            <P>(5) Obtain, in the form of a public record, all pertinent and relevant facts relating to the subject matter of the hearing;</P>
            <P>(6) Rule, with the assistance of the legal officer, upon the admissibility of evidence;</P>
            <P>(7) Regulate the course and conduct of the hearing; and</P>
            <P>(8) Designate parties to the hearing and revoke those designations.</P>
            <CITA>[Doc. No. 1882, 30 FR 1839, Feb. 10, 1965, as amended by Amdt. 77-11, 54 FR 39292, Sept. 25, 1989]</CITA>
          </SECTION>
          <SECTION>
            <SECTNO>§ 77.47</SECTNO>
            <SUBJECT>Legal officer.</SUBJECT>
            <P>The Chief Counsel designates a member of his staff to serve as legal officer at each hearing under this subpart. The legal officer may examine witnesses and assist and advise the presiding officer on questions of evidence or other legal questions arising during the hearing.</P>
            <CITA>[Doc. No. 1882, 30 FR 1839, Feb. 10, 1965, as amended at 38 FR 26444, Sept. 17, 1973]</CITA>
          </SECTION>
          <SECTION>
            <SECTNO>§ 77.49</SECTNO>
            <SUBJECT>Notice of hearing.</SUBJECT>

            <P>In designating a time and place for a hearing under this subpart the presiding officer considers the needs of the FAA and the convenience of the parties and witnesses. The time and place of each hearing is published in the “Notices” section of the <E T="04">Federal Register</E> before the date of the hearing, unless the notice is impractical or unnecessary.</P>
          </SECTION>
          <SECTION>
            <SECTNO>§ 77.51</SECTNO>
            <SUBJECT>Parties to the hearing.</SUBJECT>
            <P>The presiding officer designates the following as parties to the hearing—</P>
            <P>(a) The proponent of the proposed construction or alteration.</P>
            <P>(b) Those persons whose activities would be substantially affected by the proposed construction or alteration.</P>
          </SECTION>
          <SECTION>
            <SECTNO>§ 77.53</SECTNO>
            <SUBJECT>Prehearing conference.</SUBJECT>

            <P>(a) The presiding officer may, in his discretion, hold a prehearing conference with the parties to the hearing and the legal officer before the hearing.<PRTPAGE P="168"/>
            </P>
            <P>(b) At the direction of the presiding officer, each party to a prehearing conference shall submit a brief written statement of the evidence he intends to provide through his witnesses and by questioning other witnesses at the hearing, and shall provide enough copies of the statement so that the presiding officer may keep three for the FAA and give one to each other party.</P>
            <P>(c) At the prehearing conference, the presiding officer reduces and simplifies the subject matter of the hearing so far as possible and advises the parties of the probable order of presenting the evidence.</P>
          </SECTION>
          <SECTION>
            <SECTNO>§ 77.55</SECTNO>
            <SUBJECT>Examination of witnesses.</SUBJECT>
            <P>(a) Each witness at a hearing under this subpart shall, after being sworn by the presiding officer, give his testimony under oath.</P>
            <P>(b) The party for whom a witness, other than an employee of the FAA, is testifying shall examine that witness. After that examination, other parties to the hearing may examine the witness, in the order fixed by the presiding officer. The presiding officer and the legal officer may then examine the witness. The presiding officer may grant any party an additional opportunity to examine any witness, if that party adequately justifies the additional examination.</P>
            <P>(c) The legal officer examines each FAA employee who is a witness, before the other parties examine him. After that examination, the order prescribed in paragraph (b) of this section applies. An FAA employee may testify only as to facts within his personal knowledge and the application of FAA regulations, standards, and policies.</P>
          </SECTION>
          <SECTION>
            <SECTNO>§ 77.57</SECTNO>
            <SUBJECT>Evidence.</SUBJECT>
            <P>(a) The presiding officer receives all testimony and exhibits that are relevant to the issues of the hearing. So far as possible, each party shall submit enough copies of his exhibits that the presiding officer may keep three copies for the FAA and give one to each other party.</P>
            <P>(b) The presiding officer excludes any testimony that is irrelevant, unduly repetitious, or consists of statements made during an aeronautical study in an effort to reconcile or compromise aviation or construction or alteration requirements. A party to the hearing may object to the admission of evidence only on the ground that it is irrelevant.</P>
          </SECTION>
          <SECTION>
            <SECTNO>§ 77.59</SECTNO>
            <SUBJECT>Subpoenas of witnesses and exhibits.</SUBJECT>
            <P>(a) The presiding officer of a hearing may issue subpoenas for any witness or exhibit that he determines may be material and relevant to the issues of the hearing. So far as possible, each party to the hearing shall provide the witnesses and exhibits that he intends to present at the hearing.</P>
            <P>(b) If any party to the hearing is unable to provide his necessary witnesses and exhibits, he shall advise the presiding officer far enough in advance that the presiding officer can determine whether he should issue subpoenas for the desired witnesses or exhibits.</P>
          </SECTION>
          <SECTION>
            <SECTNO>§ 77.61</SECTNO>
            <SUBJECT>Revision of construction or alteration proposal.</SUBJECT>
            <P>(a) The sponsor of any proposed construction or alteration covered by this part may revise his proposal at any time before or during the hearing. If he revises it, the presiding officer decides whether the revision affects the proposal to the extent that he should send it to the Administrator for a redetermination of the need for a hearing.</P>
            <P>(b) If the presiding officer decides that it does not need to be resubmitted to the Administrator, he advises the parties of the revised proposal and takes the action necessary to allow all parties to effectively participate in the hearing on the revised proposal. Without limiting his discretion, the presiding officer may recess and reconvene the hearing, or hold another prehearing conference.</P>
          </SECTION>
          <SECTION>
            <SECTNO>§ 77.63</SECTNO>
            <SUBJECT>Record of hearing.</SUBJECT>
            <P>(a) Each hearing is recorded verbatim by an official reporter under an FAA contract. The transcript, and all exhibits, become a part of the record of the hearing.</P>

            <P>(b) Any person may buy a copy of the transcript of the hearing from the reporter at the price fixed for it.<PRTPAGE P="169"/>
            </P>
            <P>(c) The presiding officer may allow any party to withdraw an original document if he submits authenticated copies of it.</P>
            <P>(d) Any person may buy, from the FAA, photostatic copies of any exhibit by paying the copying costs.</P>
            <P>(e) A change in the official transcript of a hearing may be made only if it involves an error of substance. Any recommendation to correct the transcript must be filed with the presiding officer within 5 days after the hearing closes. The presiding officer reviews each request for a correction to the extent he considers appropriate and shall make any revisions that he finds appropriate as a result of that review.</P>
          </SECTION>
          <SECTION>
            <SECTNO>§ 77.65</SECTNO>
            <SUBJECT>Recommendations by parties.</SUBJECT>
            <P>Within 20 days after the mailing of the record of hearing by the official reporter, or as otherwise directed by the presiding officer, each party may submit to the presiding officer five copies of his recommendations for a final decision to be made by the Administrator.</P>
          </SECTION>
          <SECTION>
            <SECTNO>§ 77.67</SECTNO>
            <SUBJECT>Final decision of the Administrator.</SUBJECT>
            <P>After reviewing the evidence relevant to the questions of fact in a hearing, including the official transcript and the exhibits, The Administrator resolves all these questions, based on the weight of evidence, and makes his determination, stating the basis and reasons for it. He then issues an appropriate order to be served on each of the parties.</P>
          </SECTION>
          <SECTION>
            <SECTNO>§ 77.69</SECTNO>
            <SUBJECT>Limitations on appearance and representation.</SUBJECT>
            <P>(a) A former officer or employee of the FAA may not appear on behalf of, or represent, any party before the FAA in connection with any matter to which this part applies, if he considered or passed on that matter while he was an officer or employee of the FAA.</P>
            <P>(b) A person appearing before the FAA on any matter to which this part applies may not, in connection with that appearance, knowingly accept assistance from, or share fees with, any person who is prohibited by paragraph (a) of this section, from appearing himself on that matter.</P>
            <P>(c) A former official or employee of the FAA may not, within 6 months after he ceases to be such an officer or employee, appear before the FAA on behalf of, or represent, any party in connection with any proceeding that was pending under this part while he was an officer or employee of the FAA, unless he obtains written consent from an appropriate officer of the FAA, based on a verified showing that he did not personally consider the matter concerned or gain particular knowledge of it while he was an officer or employee of the FAA.</P>
          </SECTION>
        </SUBPART>
        <SUBPART>
          <HD SOURCE="HED">Subpart F—Establishment of Antenna Farm Areas</HD>
          <SECTION>
            <SECTNO>§ 77.71</SECTNO>
            <SUBJECT>Scope.</SUBJECT>
            <P>(a) This subpart establishes antenna farm areas in which antenna structures may be grouped to localize their effect on the use of navigable airspace.</P>
            <P>(b) It is the policy of the FAA to encourage the use of antenna farms and the single structure-multiple antenna concept for radio and television towers whenever possible. In considering proposals for establishing antenna farm areas, it considers as far as possible the revision of aeronautical procedures and operations to accommodate antenna structures that will fulfill broadcasting requirements.</P>
          </SECTION>
          <SECTION>
            <SECTNO>§ 77.73</SECTNO>
            <SUBJECT>General provisions.</SUBJECT>
            <P>(a) An antenna farm area consists of a specified geographical location with established dimensions of area and height, where antenna towers with a common impact on aviation may be grouped. Each such area is established by appropriate rule making action.</P>

            <P>(b) Each proposal for an antenna farm area is evaluated on the basis of its effect on the use of navigable airspace. The views of the Federal Communications Commission are requested on the effect that each establishment of an antenna farm area would have on its statutory responsibilities. Any views submitted by it are fully considered before the antenna farm concerned is established. If the Commission advises that the establishment of any proposed antenna farm area would <PRTPAGE P="170"/>interfere with its statutory responsibility, the proposed area is not established.</P>
            <P>(c) The establishment of an antenna farm area is considered whenever it is proposed by:</P>
            <P>(1) The FAA;</P>
            <P>(2) The Federal Communications Commission;</P>
            <P>(3) The sponsor of a proposed antenna tower; or</P>
            <P>(4) Any other person having a substantial interest in a proposed antenna tower.</P>
            <CITA>[Doc. No. 1882, 30 FR 1839, Feb. 10, 1965, as amended by Amdt. 77-10, 37 FR 4705, Mar. 4, 1972]</CITA>
          </SECTION>
          <SECTION>
            <SECTNO>§ 77.75</SECTNO>
            <SUBJECT>Establishment of antenna farm areas.</SUBJECT>

            <P>The airspace areas described in the following sections of this subpart are established as antenna farm areas.
            </P>
            <NOTE>
              <HD SOURCE="HED">Note:</HD>
              <P>Sections 77.77 through 77.1100 reserved for descriptions of antenna farm areas.</P>
            </NOTE>
          </SECTION>
        </SUBPART>
      </PART>
    </SUBCHAP>
    <SUBCHAP TYPE="P">
      <PRTPAGE P="171"/>
      <HD SOURCE="HED">SUBCHAPTER F—AIR TRAFFIC AND GENERAL OPERATING RULES</HD>
      <PART>
        <EAR>Pt. 91</EAR>
        <HD SOURCE="HED">PART 91—GENERAL OPERATING AND FLIGHT RULES</HD>
        <CONTENTS>
          <APP>Special Federal Aviation Regulation No. 50-2</APP>
          <APP>Special Federal Aviation Regulation No. 60</APP>
          <APP>Special Federal Aviation Regulation No. 65-1</APP>
          <APP>Special Federal Aviation Regulation No. 71</APP>
          <APP>Special Federal Aviation Regulation No. 77</APP>
          <APP>Special Federal Aviation Regulation No. 79</APP>
          <APP>Special Federal Aviation Regulation No. 87</APP>
          <APP>Special Federal Aviation Regulation No. 94</APP>
          <APP>Special Federal Aviation Regulation No. 97</APP>
          <SUBPART>
            <HD SOURCE="HED">Subpart A—General</HD>
            <SECHD>Sec.</SECHD>
            <SECTNO>91.1</SECTNO>
            <SUBJECT>Applicability.</SUBJECT>
            <SECTNO>91.3</SECTNO>
            <SUBJECT>Responsibility and authority of the pilot in command.</SUBJECT>
            <SECTNO>91.5</SECTNO>
            <SUBJECT>Pilot in command of aircraft requiring more than one required pilot.</SUBJECT>
            <SECTNO>91.7</SECTNO>
            <SUBJECT>Civil aircraft airworthiness.</SUBJECT>
            <SECTNO>91.9</SECTNO>
            <SUBJECT>Civil aircraft flight manual, marking, and placard requirements.</SUBJECT>
            <SECTNO>91.11</SECTNO>
            <SUBJECT>Prohibition on interference with crewmembers.</SUBJECT>
            <SECTNO>91.13</SECTNO>
            <SUBJECT>Careless or reckless operation.</SUBJECT>
            <SECTNO>91.15</SECTNO>
            <SUBJECT>Dropping objects.</SUBJECT>
            <SECTNO>91.17</SECTNO>
            <SUBJECT>Alcohol or drugs.</SUBJECT>
            <SECTNO>91.19</SECTNO>
            <SUBJECT>Carriage of narcotic drugs, marihuana, and depressant or stimulant drugs or substances.</SUBJECT>
            <SECTNO>91.21</SECTNO>
            <SUBJECT>Portable electronic devices.</SUBJECT>
            <SECTNO>91.23</SECTNO>
            <SUBJECT>Truth-in-leasing clause requirement in leases and conditional sales contracts.</SUBJECT>
            <SECTNO>91.25</SECTNO>
            <SUBJECT>Aviation Safety Reporting Program: Prohibition against use of reports for enforcement purposes.</SUBJECT>
            <SECTNO>91.27-91.99</SECTNO>
            <SUBJECT>[Reserved]</SUBJECT>
          </SUBPART>
          <SUBPART>
            <HD SOURCE="HED">Subpart B—Flight Rules</HD>
            <SUBJGRP>
              <HD SOURCE="HED">General</HD>
              <SECTNO>91.101</SECTNO>
              <SUBJECT>Applicability.</SUBJECT>
              <SECTNO>91.103</SECTNO>
              <SUBJECT>Preflight action.</SUBJECT>
              <SECTNO>91.105</SECTNO>
              <SUBJECT>Flight crewmembers at stations.</SUBJECT>
              <SECTNO>91.107</SECTNO>
              <SUBJECT>Use of safety belts, shoulder harnesses, and child restraint systems.</SUBJECT>
              <SECTNO>91.109</SECTNO>
              <SUBJECT>Flight instruction; Simulated instrument flight and certain flight tests.</SUBJECT>
              <SECTNO>91.111</SECTNO>
              <SUBJECT>Operating near other aircraft.</SUBJECT>
              <SECTNO>91.113</SECTNO>
              <SUBJECT>Right-of-way rules: Except water operations.</SUBJECT>
              <SECTNO>91.115</SECTNO>
              <SUBJECT>Right-of-way rules: Water operations.</SUBJECT>
              <SECTNO>91.117</SECTNO>
              <SUBJECT>Aircraft speed.</SUBJECT>
              <SECTNO>91.119</SECTNO>
              <SUBJECT>Minimum safe altitudes: General.</SUBJECT>
              <SECTNO>91.121</SECTNO>
              <SUBJECT>Altimeter settings.</SUBJECT>
              <SECTNO>91.123</SECTNO>
              <SUBJECT>Compliance with ATC clearances and instructions.</SUBJECT>
              <SECTNO>91.125</SECTNO>
              <SUBJECT>ATC light signals.</SUBJECT>
              <SECTNO>91.126</SECTNO>
              <SUBJECT>Operating on or in the vicinity of an airport in Class G airspace.</SUBJECT>
              <SECTNO>91.127</SECTNO>
              <SUBJECT>Operating on or in the vicinity of an airport in Class E airspace.</SUBJECT>
              <SECTNO>91.129</SECTNO>
              <SUBJECT>Operations in Class D airspace.</SUBJECT>
              <SECTNO>91.130</SECTNO>
              <SUBJECT>Operations in Class C airspace.</SUBJECT>
              <SECTNO>91.131</SECTNO>
              <SUBJECT>Operations in Class B airspace.</SUBJECT>
              <SECTNO>91.133</SECTNO>
              <SUBJECT>Restricted and prohibited areas.</SUBJECT>
              <SECTNO>91.135</SECTNO>
              <SUBJECT>Operations in Class A airspace.</SUBJECT>
              <SECTNO>91.137</SECTNO>
              <SUBJECT>Temporary flight restrictionsin the vicinity of disaster/hazard areas.</SUBJECT>
              <SECTNO>91.138</SECTNO>
              <SUBJECT>Temporary flight restrictions in national disaster areas in the State of Hawaii.</SUBJECT>
              <SECTNO>91.139</SECTNO>
              <SUBJECT>Emergency air traffic rules.</SUBJECT>
              <SECTNO>91.141</SECTNO>
              <SUBJECT>Flight restrictions in the proximity of the Presidential and other parties.</SUBJECT>
              <SECTNO>91.143</SECTNO>
              <SUBJECT>Flight limitation in the proximity of space flight operations.</SUBJECT>
              <SECTNO>91.144</SECTNO>
              <SUBJECT>Temporary restriction on flight operations during abnormally high barometric pressure conditions.</SUBJECT>
              <SECTNO>91.145</SECTNO>
              <SUBJECT>Management of aircraft operations in the vicinity of aerial demonstrations and major sporting events.</SUBJECT>
              <SECTNO>91.146-91.149</SECTNO>
              <SUBJECT>[Reserved]</SUBJECT>
            </SUBJGRP>
            <SUBJGRP>
              <HD SOURCE="HED">Visual Flight Rules</HD>
              <SECTNO>91.151</SECTNO>
              <SUBJECT>Fuel requirements for flight in VFR conditions.</SUBJECT>
              <SECTNO>91.153</SECTNO>
              <SUBJECT>VFR flight plan: Information required.</SUBJECT>
              <SECTNO>91.155</SECTNO>
              <SUBJECT>Basic VFR weather minimums.</SUBJECT>
              <SECTNO>91.157</SECTNO>
              <SUBJECT>Special VFR weather minimums.</SUBJECT>
              <SECTNO>91.159</SECTNO>
              <SUBJECT>VFR cruising altitude or flight level.</SUBJECT>
              <SECTNO>91.161-91.165</SECTNO>
              <SUBJECT>[Reserved]</SUBJECT>
            </SUBJGRP>
            <SUBJGRP>
              <HD SOURCE="HED">Instrument Flight Rules</HD>
              <SECTNO>91.167</SECTNO>
              <SUBJECT>Fuel requirements for flight in IFR conditions.</SUBJECT>
              <SECTNO>91.169</SECTNO>
              <SUBJECT>IFR flight plan: Information required.</SUBJECT>
              <SECTNO>91.171</SECTNO>
              <SUBJECT>VOR equipment check for IFR operations.</SUBJECT>
              <SECTNO>91.173</SECTNO>
              <SUBJECT>ATC clearance and flight plan required.</SUBJECT>
              <SECTNO>91.175</SECTNO>
              <SUBJECT>Takeoff and landing under IFR.</SUBJECT>
              <SECTNO>91.177</SECTNO>
              <SUBJECT>Minimum altitudes for IFR operations.</SUBJECT>
              <SECTNO>91.179</SECTNO>
              <SUBJECT>IFR cruising altitude or flight level.</SUBJECT>
              <SECTNO>91.180</SECTNO>

              <SUBJECT>Operations within airspace designated as Reduced Vertical Separation Minimum airspace.<PRTPAGE P="172"/>
              </SUBJECT>
              <SECTNO>91.181</SECTNO>
              <SUBJECT>Course to be flown.</SUBJECT>
              <SECTNO>91.183</SECTNO>
              <SUBJECT>IFR radio communications.</SUBJECT>
              <SECTNO>91.185</SECTNO>
              <SUBJECT>IFR operations: Two-way radio communications failure.</SUBJECT>
              <SECTNO>91.187</SECTNO>
              <SUBJECT>Operation under IFR in controlled airspace: Malfunction reports.</SUBJECT>
              <SECTNO>91.189</SECTNO>
              <SUBJECT>Category II and III operations: General operating rules.</SUBJECT>
              <SECTNO>91.191</SECTNO>
              <SUBJECT>Category II and Category III manual.</SUBJECT>
              <SECTNO>91.193</SECTNO>
              <SUBJECT>Certificate of authorization for certain Category II operations.</SUBJECT>
              <SECTNO>91.195-91.199</SECTNO>
              <SUBJECT>[Reserved]</SUBJECT>
            </SUBJGRP>
          </SUBPART>
          <SUBPART>
            <HD SOURCE="HED">Subpart C—Equipment, Instrument, and Certificate Requirements</HD>
            <SECTNO>91.201</SECTNO>
            <SUBJECT>[Reserved]</SUBJECT>
            <SECTNO>91.203</SECTNO>
            <SUBJECT>Civil aircraft: Certifications required.</SUBJECT>
            <SECTNO>91.205</SECTNO>
            <SUBJECT>Powered civil aircraft with standard category U.S. airworthiness certificates: Instrument and equipment requirements.</SUBJECT>
            <SECTNO>91.207</SECTNO>
            <SUBJECT>Emergency locator transmitters.</SUBJECT>
            <SECTNO>91.209</SECTNO>
            <SUBJECT>Aircraft lights.</SUBJECT>
            <SECTNO>91.211</SECTNO>
            <SUBJECT>Supplemental oxygen.</SUBJECT>
            <SECTNO>91.213</SECTNO>
            <SUBJECT>Inoperative instruments and equipment.</SUBJECT>
            <SECTNO>91.215</SECTNO>
            <SUBJECT>ATC transponder and altitude reporting equipment and use.</SUBJECT>
            <SECTNO>91.217</SECTNO>
            <SUBJECT>Data correspondence between automatically reported pressure altitude data and the pilot's altitude reference.</SUBJECT>
            <SECTNO>91.219</SECTNO>
            <SUBJECT>Altitude alerting system or device: Turbojet-powered civil airplanes.</SUBJECT>
            <SECTNO>91.221</SECTNO>
            <SUBJECT>Traffic alert and collision avoidance system equipment and use.</SUBJECT>
            <SECTNO>91.223</SECTNO>
            <SUBJECT>Terrain awareness and warning system.</SUBJECT>
            <SECTNO>91.224-91.299</SECTNO>
            <SUBJECT>[Reserved]</SUBJECT>
          </SUBPART>
          <SUBPART>
            <HD SOURCE="HED">Subpart D—Special Flight Operations</HD>
            <SECTNO>91.301</SECTNO>
            <SUBJECT>[Reserved]</SUBJECT>
            <SECTNO>91.303</SECTNO>
            <SUBJECT>Aerobatic flight.</SUBJECT>
            <SECTNO>91.305</SECTNO>
            <SUBJECT>Flight test areas.</SUBJECT>
            <SECTNO>91.307</SECTNO>
            <SUBJECT>Parachutes and parachuting.</SUBJECT>
            <SECTNO>91.309</SECTNO>
            <SUBJECT>Towing: Gliders.</SUBJECT>
            <SECTNO>91.311</SECTNO>
            <SUBJECT>Towing: Other than under § 91.309.</SUBJECT>
            <SECTNO>91.313</SECTNO>
            <SUBJECT>Restricted category civil aircraft: Operating limitations.</SUBJECT>
            <SECTNO>91.315</SECTNO>
            <SUBJECT>Limited category civil aircraft: Operating limitations.</SUBJECT>
            <SECTNO>91.317</SECTNO>
            <SUBJECT>Provisionally certificated civil aircraft: Operating limitations.</SUBJECT>
            <SECTNO>91.319</SECTNO>
            <SUBJECT>Aircraft having experimental certificates: Operating limitations.</SUBJECT>
            <SECTNO>91.321</SECTNO>
            <SUBJECT>Carriage of candidates in Federal elections.</SUBJECT>
            <SECTNO>91.323</SECTNO>
            <SUBJECT>Increased maximum certificated weights for certain airplanes operated in Alaska.</SUBJECT>
            <SECTNO>91.325</SECTNO>
            <SUBJECT>Primary category aircraft: Operating limitations.</SUBJECT>
            <SECTNO>91.326-91.399</SECTNO>
            <SUBJECT>[Reserved]</SUBJECT>
          </SUBPART>
          <SUBPART>
            <HD SOURCE="HED">Subpart E—Maintenance, Preventive Maintenance, and Alterations</HD>
            <SECTNO>91.401</SECTNO>
            <SUBJECT>Applicability.</SUBJECT>
            <SECTNO>91.403</SECTNO>
            <SUBJECT>General.</SUBJECT>
            <SECTNO>91.405</SECTNO>
            <SUBJECT>Maintenance required.</SUBJECT>
            <SECTNO>91.407</SECTNO>
            <SUBJECT>Operation after maintenance, preventive maintenance, rebuilding, or alteration.</SUBJECT>
            <SECTNO>91.409</SECTNO>
            <SUBJECT>Inspections.</SUBJECT>
            <SECTNO>91.410</SECTNO>
            <SUBJECT>Special maintenance program requirements.</SUBJECT>
            <SECTNO>91.411</SECTNO>
            <SUBJECT>Altimeter system and altitude reporting equipment tests and inspections.</SUBJECT>
            <SECTNO>91.413</SECTNO>
            <SUBJECT>ATC transponder tests and inspections.</SUBJECT>
            <SECTNO>91.415</SECTNO>
            <SUBJECT>Changes to aircraft inspection programs.</SUBJECT>
            <SECTNO>91.417</SECTNO>
            <SUBJECT>Maintenance records.</SUBJECT>
            <SECTNO>91.419</SECTNO>
            <SUBJECT>Transfer of maintenance records.</SUBJECT>
            <SECTNO>91.421</SECTNO>
            <SUBJECT>Rebuilt engine maintenance records.</SUBJECT>
            <SECTNO>91.423-91.499</SECTNO>
            <SUBJECT>[Reserved]</SUBJECT>
          </SUBPART>
          <SUBPART>
            <HD SOURCE="HED">Subpart F—Large and Turbine-Powered Multiengine Airplanes and Fractional Ownership Program Aircraft</HD>
            <SECTNO>91.501</SECTNO>
            <SUBJECT>Applicability.</SUBJECT>
            <SECTNO>91.503</SECTNO>
            <SUBJECT>Flying equipment and operating information.</SUBJECT>
            <SECTNO>91.505</SECTNO>
            <SUBJECT>Familiarity with operating limitations and emergency equipment.</SUBJECT>
            <SECTNO>91.507</SECTNO>
            <SUBJECT>Equipment requirements: Over-the-top or night VFR operations.</SUBJECT>
            <SECTNO>91.509</SECTNO>
            <SUBJECT>Survival equipment for overwater operations.</SUBJECT>
            <SECTNO>91.511</SECTNO>
            <SUBJECT>Radio equipment for overwater operations.</SUBJECT>
            <SECTNO>91.513</SECTNO>
            <SUBJECT>Emergency equipment.</SUBJECT>
            <SECTNO>91.515</SECTNO>
            <SUBJECT>Flight altitude rules.</SUBJECT>
            <SECTNO>91.517</SECTNO>
            <SUBJECT>Passenger information.</SUBJECT>
            <SECTNO>91.519</SECTNO>
            <SUBJECT>Passenger briefing.</SUBJECT>
            <SECTNO>91.521</SECTNO>
            <SUBJECT>Shoulder harness.</SUBJECT>
            <SECTNO>91.523</SECTNO>
            <SUBJECT>Carry-on baggage.</SUBJECT>
            <SECTNO>91.525</SECTNO>
            <SUBJECT>Carriage of cargo.</SUBJECT>
            <SECTNO>91.527</SECTNO>
            <SUBJECT>Operating in icing conditions.</SUBJECT>
            <SECTNO>91.529</SECTNO>
            <SUBJECT>Flight engineer requirements.</SUBJECT>
            <SECTNO>91.531</SECTNO>
            <SUBJECT>Second in command requirements.</SUBJECT>
            <SECTNO>91.533</SECTNO>
            <SUBJECT>Flight attendant requirements.</SUBJECT>
            <SECTNO>91.535</SECTNO>
            <SUBJECT>Stowage of food, beverage, and passenger service equipment during aircraft movement on the surface, takeoff, and landing.</SUBJECT>
            <SECTNO>91.537-91.599</SECTNO>
            <SUBJECT>[Reserved]</SUBJECT>
          </SUBPART>
          <SUBPART>
            <HD SOURCE="HED">Subpart G—Additional Equipment and Operating Requirements for Large and Transport Category Aircraft</HD>
            <SECTNO>91.601</SECTNO>
            <SUBJECT>Applicability.</SUBJECT>
            <SECTNO>91.603</SECTNO>
            <SUBJECT>Aural speed warning device.</SUBJECT>
            <SECTNO>91.605</SECTNO>
            <SUBJECT>Transport category civil airplane weight limitations.</SUBJECT>
            <SECTNO>91.607</SECTNO>
            <SUBJECT>Emergency exits for airplanes carrying passengers for hire.</SUBJECT>
            <SECTNO>91.609</SECTNO>
            <SUBJECT>Flight recorders and cockpit voice recorders.</SUBJECT>
            <SECTNO>91.611</SECTNO>
            <SUBJECT>Authorization for ferry flight with one engine inoperative.</SUBJECT>
            <SECTNO>91.613</SECTNO>
            <SUBJECT>Materials for compartment interiors.<PRTPAGE P="173"/>
            </SUBJECT>
            <SECTNO>91.615-91.699</SECTNO>
            <SUBJECT>[Reserved]</SUBJECT>
          </SUBPART>
          <SUBPART>
            <HD SOURCE="HED">Subpart H—Foreign Aircraft Operations and Operations of U.S.-Registered Civil Aircraft Outside of the United States; and Rules Governing Persons on Board Such Aircraft</HD>
            <SECTNO>91.701</SECTNO>
            <SUBJECT>Applicability.</SUBJECT>
            <SECTNO>91.702</SECTNO>
            <SUBJECT>Persons on board.</SUBJECT>
            <SECTNO>91.703</SECTNO>
            <SUBJECT>Operations of civil aircraft of U.S. registry outside of the United States.</SUBJECT>
            <SECTNO>91.705</SECTNO>
            <SUBJECT>Operations within airspace designated as Minimum Navigation Performance Specification Airspace.</SUBJECT>
            <SECTNO>91.706</SECTNO>
            <SUBJECT>Operations within airspace designed as Reduced Vertical Separation Minimum Airspace.</SUBJECT>
            <SECTNO>91.707</SECTNO>
            <SUBJECT>Flights between Mexico or Canada and the United States.</SUBJECT>
            <SECTNO>91.709</SECTNO>
            <SUBJECT>Operations to Cuba.</SUBJECT>
            <SECTNO>91.711</SECTNO>
            <SUBJECT>Special rules for foreign civil aircraft.</SUBJECT>
            <SECTNO>91.713</SECTNO>
            <SUBJECT>Operation of civil aircraft of Cuban registry.</SUBJECT>
            <SECTNO>91.715</SECTNO>
            <SUBJECT>Special flight authorizations for foreign civil aircraft.</SUBJECT>
            <SECTNO>91.717-91.799</SECTNO>
            <RESERVED>[Reserved]</RESERVED>
          </SUBPART>
          <SUBPART>
            <HD SOURCE="HED">Subpart I—Operating Noise Limits</HD>
            <SECTNO>91.801</SECTNO>
            <SUBJECT>Applicability: Relation to part 36.</SUBJECT>
            <SECTNO>91.803</SECTNO>
            <SUBJECT>Part 125 operators: Designation of applicable regulations.</SUBJECT>
            <SECTNO>91.805</SECTNO>
            <SUBJECT>Final compliance: Subsonic airplanes.</SUBJECT>
            <SECTNO>91.807—91.813</SECTNO>
            <SUBJECT>[Reserved]</SUBJECT>
            <SECTNO>91.815</SECTNO>
            <SUBJECT>Agricultural and fire fighting airplanes: Noise operating limitations.</SUBJECT>
            <SECTNO>91.817</SECTNO>
            <SUBJECT>Civil aircraft sonic boom.</SUBJECT>
            <SECTNO>91.819</SECTNO>
            <SUBJECT>Civil supersonic airplanes that do not comply with part 36.</SUBJECT>
            <SECTNO>91.821</SECTNO>
            <SUBJECT>Civil supersonic airplanes: Noise limits.</SUBJECT>
            <SECTNO>91.823-91.849</SECTNO>
            <RESERVED>[Reserved]</RESERVED>
            <SECTNO>91.851</SECTNO>
            <SUBJECT>Definitions.</SUBJECT>
            <SECTNO>91.853</SECTNO>
            <SUBJECT>Final compliance: Civil subsonic airplanes.</SUBJECT>
            <SECTNO>91.855</SECTNO>
            <SUBJECT>Entry and nonaddition rule.</SUBJECT>
            <SECTNO>91.857</SECTNO>
            <SUBJECT>Stage 2 operations outside of the 48 contiguous United States.</SUBJECT>
            <SECTNO>91.858</SECTNO>
            <SUBJECT>Special flight authorizations for non-revenue Stage 2 operations.</SUBJECT>
            <SECTNO>91.859</SECTNO>
            <SUBJECT>[Reserved]</SUBJECT>
            <SECTNO>91.861</SECTNO>
            <SUBJECT>Base level.</SUBJECT>
            <SECTNO>91.863</SECTNO>
            <SUBJECT>Transfers of Stage 2 airplanes with base level.</SUBJECT>
            <SECTNO>91.865</SECTNO>
            <SUBJECT>Phased compliance for operators with base level.</SUBJECT>
            <SECTNO>91.867</SECTNO>
            <SUBJECT>Phased compliance for new entrants.</SUBJECT>
            <SECTNO>91.869</SECTNO>
            <SUBJECT>Carry-forward compliance.</SUBJECT>
            <SECTNO>91.871</SECTNO>
            <SUBJECT>Waivers from interim compliance requirements.</SUBJECT>
            <SECTNO>91.873</SECTNO>
            <SUBJECT>Waivers from final compliance.</SUBJECT>
            <SECTNO>91.875</SECTNO>
            <SUBJECT>Annual progress reports.</SUBJECT>
            <SECTNO>91.877</SECTNO>
            <SUBJECT>Annual reporting of Hawaiian operations.</SUBJECT>
            <SECTNO>91.879-91.899</SECTNO>
            <RESERVED>[Reserved]</RESERVED>
          </SUBPART>
          <SUBPART>
            <HD SOURCE="HED">Subpart J—Waivers</HD>
            <SECTNO>91.901</SECTNO>
            <RESERVED>[Reserved]</RESERVED>
            <SECTNO>91.903</SECTNO>
            <SUBJECT>Policy and procedures.</SUBJECT>
            <SECTNO>91.905</SECTNO>
            <SUBJECT>List of rules subject to waivers.</SUBJECT>
            <SECTNO>91.907-91.999</SECTNO>
            <RESERVED>[Reserved]</RESERVED>
          </SUBPART>
          <SUBPART>
            <HD SOURCE="HED">Subpart K—Fractional Ownership Operations</HD>
            <SECTNO>91.1001</SECTNO>
            <SUBJECT>Applicability.</SUBJECT>
            <SECTNO>91.1002</SECTNO>
            <SUBJECT>Compliance date.</SUBJECT>
            <SECTNO>91.1003</SECTNO>
            <SUBJECT>Management contract between owner and program manager.</SUBJECT>
            <SECTNO>91.1005</SECTNO>
            <SUBJECT>Prohibitions and limitations.</SUBJECT>
            <SECTNO>91.1007</SECTNO>
            <SUBJECT>Flights conducted under part 121 or part 135 of this chapter.</SUBJECT>
            <SECTNO>91.1009</SECTNO>
            <SUBJECT>Clarification of operational control.</SUBJECT>
            <SECTNO>91.1011</SECTNO>
            <SUBJECT>Operational control responsibilities and delegation.</SUBJECT>
            <SECTNO>91.1013</SECTNO>
            <SUBJECT>Operational control briefing and acknowledgment.</SUBJECT>
            <SECTNO>91.1014</SECTNO>
            <SUBJECT>Issuing or denying management specifications.</SUBJECT>
            <SECTNO>91.1015</SECTNO>
            <SUBJECT>Management specifications.</SUBJECT>
            <SECTNO>91.1017</SECTNO>
            <SUBJECT>Amending program manager's management specifications.</SUBJECT>
            <SECTNO>91.1019</SECTNO>
            <SUBJECT>Conducting tests and inspections.</SUBJECT>
            <SECTNO>91.1021</SECTNO>
            <SUBJECT>Internal safety reporting and incident/accident response.</SUBJECT>
            <SECTNO>91.1023</SECTNO>
            <SUBJECT>Program operating manual requirements.</SUBJECT>
            <SECTNO>91.1025</SECTNO>
            <SUBJECT>Program operating manual contents.</SUBJECT>
            <SECTNO>91.1027</SECTNO>
            <SUBJECT>Recordkeeping.</SUBJECT>
            <SECTNO>91.1029</SECTNO>
            <SUBJECT>Flight scheduling and locating requirements.</SUBJECT>
            <SECTNO>91.1031</SECTNO>
            <SUBJECT>Pilot in command or second in command: Designation required.</SUBJECT>
            <SECTNO>91.1033</SECTNO>
            <SUBJECT>Operating information required.</SUBJECT>
            <SECTNO>91.1035</SECTNO>
            <SUBJECT>Passenger awareness.</SUBJECT>
            <SECTNO>91.1037</SECTNO>
            <SUBJECT>Large transport category airplanes: Turbine engine powered; Limitations; Destination and alternate airports.</SUBJECT>
            <SECTNO>91.1039</SECTNO>
            <SUBJECT>IFR takeoff, approach and landing minimums.</SUBJECT>
            <SECTNO>91.1041</SECTNO>
            <SUBJECT>Aircraft proving and validation tests.</SUBJECT>
            <SECTNO>91.1043</SECTNO>
            <SUBJECT>[Reserved]</SUBJECT>
            <SECTNO>91.1045</SECTNO>
            <SUBJECT>Additional equipment requirements.</SUBJECT>
            <SECTNO>91.1047</SECTNO>
            <SUBJECT>Drug and alcohol misuse education program.</SUBJECT>
            <SECTNO>91.1049</SECTNO>
            <SUBJECT>Personnel.</SUBJECT>
            <SECTNO>91.1051</SECTNO>
            <SUBJECT>Pilot safety background check.</SUBJECT>
            <SECTNO>91.1053</SECTNO>
            <SUBJECT>Crewmember experience.</SUBJECT>
            <SECTNO>91.1055</SECTNO>
            <SUBJECT>Pilot operating limitations and pairing requirement.</SUBJECT>
            <SECTNO>91.1057</SECTNO>
            <SUBJECT>Flight, duty and rest time requirements; All crewmembers.</SUBJECT>
            <SECTNO>91.1059</SECTNO>
            <SUBJECT>Flight time limitations and rest requirements: One or two pilot crews.</SUBJECT>
            <SECTNO>91.1061</SECTNO>
            <SUBJECT>Augmented flight crews.</SUBJECT>
            <SECTNO>91.1062</SECTNO>
            <SUBJECT>Duty periods and rest requirements: Flight attendants.</SUBJECT>
            <SECTNO>91.1063</SECTNO>
            <SUBJECT>Testing and training: Applicability and terms used.</SUBJECT>
            <SECTNO>91.1065</SECTNO>

            <SUBJECT>Initial and recurrent pilot testing requirements.<PRTPAGE P="174"/>
            </SUBJECT>
            <SECTNO>91.1067</SECTNO>
            <SUBJECT>Initial and recurrent flight attendant crewmember testing requirements.</SUBJECT>
            <SECTNO>91.1069</SECTNO>
            <SUBJECT>Flight crew: Instrument proficiency check requirements.</SUBJECT>
            <SECTNO>91.1071</SECTNO>
            <SUBJECT>Crewmember: Tests and checks, grace provisions, training to accepted standards.</SUBJECT>
            <SECTNO>91.1073</SECTNO>
            <SUBJECT>Training program: General.</SUBJECT>
            <SECTNO>91.1075</SECTNO>
            <SUBJECT>Training program: Special rules.</SUBJECT>
            <SECTNO>91.1077</SECTNO>
            <SUBJECT>Training program and revision: Initial and final approval.</SUBJECT>
            <SECTNO>91.1079</SECTNO>
            <SUBJECT>Training program: Curriculum.</SUBJECT>
            <SECTNO>91.1081</SECTNO>
            <SUBJECT>Crewmember training requirements.</SUBJECT>
            <SECTNO>91.1083</SECTNO>
            <SUBJECT>Crewmember emergency training.</SUBJECT>
            <SECTNO>91.1085</SECTNO>
            <SUBJECT>Hazardous materials recognition training.</SUBJECT>
            <SECTNO>91.1087</SECTNO>
            <SUBJECT>Approval of aircraft simulators and other training device.</SUBJECT>
            <SECTNO>91.1089</SECTNO>
            <SUBJECT>Qualifications: Check pilots (aircraft) and check pilots (simulator).</SUBJECT>
            <SECTNO>91.1091</SECTNO>
            <SUBJECT>Qualifications: Flight instructors (aircraft) and flight instructors (simulator).</SUBJECT>
            <SECTNO>91.1093</SECTNO>
            <SUBJECT>Initial and transition training and checking: Check pilots (aircraft), check pilots (simulator).</SUBJECT>
            <SECTNO>91.1095</SECTNO>
            <SUBJECT>Initial and transition training and checking: Flight instructors (aircraft), flight instructors (simulator).</SUBJECT>
            <SECTNO>91.1097</SECTNO>
            <SUBJECT>Pilot and flight attendant crewmember training programs.</SUBJECT>
            <SECTNO>91.1099</SECTNO>
            <SUBJECT>Crewmember initial and recurrent training requirements.</SUBJECT>
            <SECTNO>91.1101</SECTNO>
            <SUBJECT>Pilots: Initial, transition, and upgrade ground training.</SUBJECT>
            <SECTNO>91.1103</SECTNO>
            <SUBJECT>Pilots: Initial, transition, upgrade, requalification, and differences flight training.</SUBJECT>
            <SECTNO>91.1105</SECTNO>
            <SUBJECT>Flight attendants: Initial and transition ground training.</SUBJECT>
            <SECTNO>91.1107</SECTNO>
            <SUBJECT>Recurrent training.</SUBJECT>
            <SECTNO>91.1109</SECTNO>
            <SUBJECT>Aircraft maintenance: Inspection program.</SUBJECT>
            <SECTNO>91.1111</SECTNO>
            <SUBJECT>Maintenance training.</SUBJECT>
            <SECTNO>91.1113</SECTNO>
            <SUBJECT>Maintenance recordkeeping.</SUBJECT>
            <SECTNO>91.1115</SECTNO>
            <SUBJECT>Inoperable instruments and equipment.</SUBJECT>
            <SECTNO>91.1411</SECTNO>
            <SUBJECT>Continuous airworthiness maintenance program use by fractional ownership program manager.</SUBJECT>
            <SECTNO>91.1413</SECTNO>
            <SUBJECT>CAMP: Responsibility for airworthiness.</SUBJECT>
            <SECTNO>91.1415</SECTNO>
            <SUBJECT>CAMP: Mechanical reliability reports.</SUBJECT>
            <SECTNO>91.1417</SECTNO>
            <SUBJECT>CAMP: Mechanical interruption summary report.</SUBJECT>
            <SECTNO>91.1423</SECTNO>
            <SUBJECT>CAMP: Maintenance organization.</SUBJECT>
            <SECTNO>91.1425</SECTNO>
            <SUBJECT>CAMP: Maintenance, preventive maintenance, and alteration programs.</SUBJECT>
            <SECTNO>91.1427</SECTNO>
            <SUBJECT>CAMP: Manual requirements.</SUBJECT>
            <SECTNO>91.1429</SECTNO>
            <SUBJECT>CAMP: Required inspection personnel.</SUBJECT>
            <SECTNO>91.1431</SECTNO>
            <SUBJECT>CAMP: Continuing analysis and surveillance.</SUBJECT>
            <SECTNO>91.1433</SECTNO>
            <SUBJECT>CAMP: Maintenance and preventive maintenance training program.</SUBJECT>
            <SECTNO>91.1435</SECTNO>
            <SUBJECT>CAMP: Certificate requirements.</SUBJECT>
            <SECTNO>91.1437</SECTNO>
            <SUBJECT>CAMP: Authority to perform and approve maintenance.</SUBJECT>
            <SECTNO>91.1439</SECTNO>
            <SUBJECT>CAMP: Maintenance recording requirements.</SUBJECT>
            <SECTNO>91.1441</SECTNO>
            <SUBJECT>CAMP: Transfer of maintenance records.</SUBJECT>
            <SECTNO>91.1443</SECTNO>
            <SUBJECT>CAMP: Airworthiness release or aircraft maintenance log entry.</SUBJECT>
            <APP>Appendix A to Part 91—Category II Operations: Manual, Instruments, Equipment, and Maintenance</APP>
            <APP>Appendix B to Part 91—Authorizations to Exceed Mach 1 (§ 91.817)</APP>
            <APP>Appendix C to Part 91—Operations in the North Atlantic (NAT) Minimum Navigation Performance Specifications (MNPS) Airspace</APP>
            <APP>Appendix D to Part 91—Airports/Locations: Special Operating Restrictions</APP>
            <APP>Appendix E to Part 91—Airplane Flight Recorder Specifications</APP>
            <APP>Appendix F to Part 91—Helicopter Flight Recorder Specifications</APP>
            <APP>Appendix G to Part 91—Operations in Reduced Vertical Separation Minimum (RVSM) Airspace</APP>
          </SUBPART>
        </CONTENTS>
        <AUTH>
          <HD SOURCE="HED">Authority:</HD>
          <P>49 U.S.C. 106(g), 1155, 40103, 40113, 40120, 44101, 44111, 44701, 44709, 44711, 44712, 44715, 44716, 44717, 44722, 46306, 46315, 46316, 46504, 46506-46507, 47122, 47508, 47528-47531, articles 12 and 29 of the Convention on International Civil Aviation (61 stat. 1180).</P>
        </AUTH>
        <APPENDIX>
          <EAR>Pt. 91, SFAR No. 50-2</EAR>
          <HD SOURCE="HED">Special Federal Aviation Regulation No. SFAR No. 50-2—Special Flight Rules in the Vicinity of the Grand Canyon National Park, AZ</HD>
          <P>
            <E T="03">Section 1. Applicability.</E> This rule prescribes special operating rules for all persons operating aircraft in the following airspace, designated as the Grand Canyon National Park Special Flight Rules Area:</P>

          <P>That airspace extending upward from the surface up to but not including 14,500 feet MSL within an area bounded by a line beginning at lat. 36°09′30″ N., long. 114°03′00″ W.; northeast to lat. 36°14′00″ N., long. 113°09′50″ W.; thence northeast along the boundary of the Grand Canyon National Park to lat. 36°24′47″ N., long. 112°52′00″ W.; to lat. 36°30′30″ N., long. 112°36′15″ W. to lat. 36°21′30″ N., long. 112°00′00″ W. to lat. 36°35′30″ N., long. 111°53′10″ W., to lat. 36°53′00″ N., long. 111°36′45″ W. to lat. 36°53′00″ N., long. 111°33′00″ W.; to lat. 36°19′00″ N., long. 111°50′50″ W.; to lat. 36°17′00″ N., long. 111°42′00″ W.; to lat. 35°59′30″ N., long. 111°42′00″ W.; to lat. 35°57′30″ N., long. 112°03′55″ W.; thence counterclockwise via the 5 statute mile radius of the Grand Canyon Airport airport reference point (lat. 35°57′09″ N., long. 112°08′47″ W.) to lat. 35°57′30″ N., long. 112°14′00″ W.; to lat. 35°57′30″ N., long. 113°11′00″ W.; to lat. 35°42′30″ N., long. 113°11′00″ W.; to 35°38′30″ N.; long. 113°27′30″ <PRTPAGE P="175"/>W.; thence counterclockwise via the 5 statute mile radius of the Peach Springs VORTAC to lat. 35°41′20″ N., long. 113°36′00″ W.; to lat. 35°55′25″ N., long. 113°49′10″ W.; to lat. 35°57′45″ N., 113°45′20″ W.; thence northwest along the park boundary to lat. 36°02′20″ N., long. 113°50′15″ W.; to 36°00′10″ N., long. 113°53′45″ W.; thence to the point of beginning.</P>
          <P>
            <E T="03">Section 3. Aircraft operations: general.</E> Except in an emergency, no person may operate an aircraft in the Special Flight Rules, Area under VFR on or after September 22, 1988, or under IFR on or after April 6, 1989, unless the operation—(a) Is conducted in accordance with the following procedures:</P>
          <NOTE>
            <HD SOURCE="HED">Note:</HD>
            <P>The following procedures do not relieve the pilot from see-and-avoid responsibility or compliance with FAR 91.119.</P>
          </NOTE>
          <P>(1) Unless necessary to maintain a safe distance from other aircraft or terrain—</P>
          <P>(i) Remain clear of the areas described in Section 4; and</P>
          <P>(ii) Remain at or above the following altitudes in each sector of the canyon:</P>
          <P>Eastern section from Lees Ferry to North Canyon and North Canyon to Boundary Ridge: as prescribed in Section 5.</P>
          <P>Boundary Ridge to Supai Point (Yumtheska Point): 10,000 feet MSL.</P>
          <P>Western section from Diamond Creek to the Grant Wash Cliffs: 8,000 feet MSL.</P>
          <P>(2) Proceed through the four flight corridors describe in Section 4 at the following altitudes unless otherwise authorized in writing by the Flight Standards District Office:</P>
          <HD SOURCE="HD2">Northbound</HD>
          <P>11,500 or</P>
          <P>13,500 feet MSL</P>
          <HD SOURCE="HD2">Southbound</HD>
          <P>&gt;10,500 or</P>
          <P>&gt;12,500 feet MSL</P>
          <P>(b) Is authorized in writing by the Flight Standards District Office and is conducted in compliance with the conditions contained in that authorization. Normally authorization will be granted for operation in the areas described in Section 4 or below the altitudes listed in Section 5 only for operations of aircraft necessary for law enforcement, firefighting, emergency medical treatment/evacuation of persons in the vicinity of the Park; for support of Park maintenance or activities; or for aerial access to and maintenance of other property located within the Special Flight Rules Area. Authorization may be issued on a continuing basis.(c)(1) Prior to November 1, 1988, is conducted in accordance with a specific authorization to operate in that airspace incorporated in the operator's part 135 operations specifications in accordance with the provisions of SFAR 50-1, notwithstanding the provisions of Sections 4 and 5; and</P>
          <P>(2) On or after November 1, 1988, is conducted in accordance with a specific authorization to operate in that airspace incorporated in the operated in the operator's operations specifications and approved by the Flight Standards District Office in accordance with the provisions of SFAR 50-2.</P>
          <P>(d) Is a search and rescue mission directed by the U.S. Air Force Rescue Coordination Center.</P>
          <P>(e) Is conducted within 3 nautical miles of Whitmore Airstrip, Pearce Ferry Airstrip, North Rim Airstrip, Cliff Dwellers Airstrip, or Marble Canyon Airstrip at an altitudes less than 3,000 feet above airport elevation, for the purpose of landing at or taking off from that facility. Or</P>
          <P>(f) Is conducted under an IFR clearance and the pilot is acting in accordance with ATC instructions. An IFR flight plan may not be filed on a route or at an altitude that would require operation in an area described in Section 4.</P>
          <P>
            <E T="03">Section 4. Flight-free zones.</E> Except in an emergency or if otherwise necessary for safety of flight, or unless otherwise authorized by the Flight Standards District Office for a purpose listed in Section 3(b), no person may operate an aircraft in the Special Flight Rules Area within the following areas:</P>
          <P>(a) Desert View Flight-Free Zone. Within an area bounded by a line beginning at Lat. 35°59′30″ N., Long. 111°46′20″ W. to 35°59′30″ N., Long. 111°52′45″ W.; to Lat. 36°04′50″ N., Long. 111°52′00″ W.; to Lat. 36°06′00″ N., Long. 111°46′20″ W.; to the point of origin; but not including the airspace at and above 10,500 feet MSL within 1 mile of the western boundary of the zone. The area between the Desert View and Bright Angel Flight-Free Zones is designated the “Zuni Point Corridor.”</P>
          <P>(b) Bright Angel Flight-Free Zone. Within an area bounded by a line beginning at Lat. 35°59′30″ N., Long. 111°55′30″ W.; to Lat. 35°59′30″ N., Long. 112°04′00″ W.; thence counterclockwise via the 5 statute mile radius of the Grand Canyon Airport point (Lat. 35°57′09″ N., Long. 112°08′47″ W.) to Lat. 36°01′30″ N., Long. 112°11′00″ W.; to Lat. 36°06′15″ N., Long. 112°12′50″ W.; to Lat. 36°14′40″ N., Long. 112°08′50″ W.; to Lat. 36°14′40″ N., Long. 111°57′30″ W.; to Lat. 36°12′30″ N., Long. 111°53′50″ W.; to the point of origin; but not including the airspace at and above 10,500 feet MSL within 1 mile of the eastern boundary between the southern boundary and Lat. 36°04′50″ N. or the airspace at and above 10,500 feet MSL within 2 miles of the northwest boundary. The area bounded by the Bright Angel and Shinumo Flight-Free Zones is designated the “Dragon Corridor.”</P>

          <P>(c) Shinumo Flight-Free Zone. Within an area bounded by a line beginning at Lat. 36°04′00″ N., Long. 112°16′40″ W.; northwest <PRTPAGE P="176"/>along the park boundary to a point at Lat. 36°12′47″ N., Long. 112°30′53″ W.; to Lat. 36°21′15″ N., Long. 112°20′20″ W.; east along the park boundary to Lat. 36°21′15″ N., Long. 112°13′55″ W.; to Lat. 36°14′40″ N., Long. 112°11′25″ W.; to the point of origin. The area between the Thunder River/Toroweap and Shinumo Flight Free Zones is designated the “Fossil Canyon Corridor.”</P>
          <P>(d) Toroweap/Thunder River Flight-Free Zone. Within an area bounded by a line beginning at Lat. 36°22′45″ N., Long. 112°20′35″ W.; thence northwest along the boundary of the Grand Canyon National Park to Lat. 36°17′48″ N., Long. 113°03′15″ W.; to Lat. 36°15′00″ N., Long. 113°07′10″ W.; to Lat. 36°10′30″ N., Long. 113°07′10″ W.; thence east along the Colorado River to the confluence of Havasu Canyon (Lat. 36°18′40″ N., Long. 112°45′45″ W.;) including that area within a 1.5 nautical mile radius of Toroweap Overlook (Lat. 36°12′45″ N., Long. 113°03′30″ W.); to the point of origin; but not including the following airspace designated as the “Tuckup Corridor”: at or above 10,500 feet MSL within 2 nautical miles either side of a line extending between Lat. 36°24′47″ N., Long. 112°48′50″ W. and Lat. 36°17′10″ N., Long. 112°48′50″ W.; to the point of origin.</P>
          <P>
            <E T="03">Section 5. Minimum flight altitudes.</E> Except in an emergency or if otherwise necessary for safety of flight, or unless otherwise authorized by the Flight Standards District Office for a purpose listed in Section 3(b), no person may operate an aircraft in the Special Flight Rules Area at an altitude lower than the following:</P>
          <P>(a) Eastern section from Lees Ferry to North Canyon: 5,000 feet MSL.</P>
          <P>(b) Eastern section from North Canyon to Boundary Ridge: 6,000 feet MSL.</P>
          <P>(c) Boundary Ridge to Supai (Yumtheska) Point: 7,500 feet MSL.</P>
          <P>(d) Supai Point to Diamond Creek: 6,500 feet MSL.</P>
          <P>(e) Western section from Diamond Creek to the Grand Wash Cliffs: 5,000 feet MSL.</P>
          <P>
            <E T="03">Section 9. Termination date.</E> Section 1. Applicability, Section 4, Flight-free zones, and Section 5. Minimum flight altitudes, expire on April 19, 2001.</P>
          <NOTE>
            <HD SOURCE="HED">Note:</HD>

            <P>An informational map of the special flight rules areas defined by SFAR 50-2 is available on the Office of Rulemaking's website at <E T="03">http://www.faa.gov/avr/armhome.htm</E>. A paper copy is available from the Office of Rulemaking by calling Linda Williams at (202) 267-9685.</P>
          </NOTE>
          <CITA>[66 FR 1003, Jan. 4, 2001, as amended at 66 FR 16584, Mar. 26, 2001]</CITA>
        </APPENDIX>
        <APPENDIX>
          <EAR>Pt. 91, SFAR No. 60</EAR>
          <HD SOURCE="HED">Special Federal Aviation Regulation No. 60—Air Traffic Control System Emergency Operation</HD>
          <P>1. Each person shall, before conducting any operation under the Federal Aviation Regulations (14 CFR chapter I), be familiar with all available information concerning that operation, including Notices to Airmen issued under § 91.139 and, when activated, the provisions of the National Air Traffic Reduced Complement Operations Plan available for inspection at operating air traffic facilities and Regional air traffic division offices, and the General Aviation Reservation Program. No operator may change the designated airport of intended operation for any flight contained in the October 1, 1990, OAG.</P>
          <P>2. Notwithstanding any provision of the Federal Aviation Regulations to the contrary, no person may operate an aircraft in the Air Traffic Control System:</P>
          <P>a. Contrary to any restriction, prohibition, procedure or other action taken by the Director of the Office of Air Traffic Systems Management (Director) pursuant to paragraph 3 of this regulation and announced in a Notice to Airmen pursuant to § 91.139 of the Federal Aviation Regulations.</P>
          <P>b. When the National Air Traffic Reduced Complement Operations Plan is activated pursuant to paragraph 4 of this regulation, except in accordance with the pertinent provisions of the National Air Traffic Reduced Complement Operations Plan.</P>
          <P>3. Prior to or in connection with the implementation of the RCOP, and as conditions warrant, the Director is authorized to:</P>
          <P>a. Restrict, prohibit, or permit VFR and/or IFR operations at any airport, Class B airspace area, Class C airspace area, or other class of controlled airspace.</P>
          <P>b. Give priority at any airport to flights that are of military necessity, or are medical emergency flights, Presidential flights, and flights transporting critical Government employees.</P>
          <P>c. Implement, at any airport, traffic management procedures, that may include reduction of flight operations. Reduction of flight operations will be accomplished, to the extent practical, on a pro rata basis among and between air carrier, commercial operator, and general aviation operations. Flights cancelled under this SFAR at a high density traffic airport will be considered to have been operated for purposes of part 93 of the Federal Aviation Regulations.</P>

          <P>4. The Director may activate the National Air Traffic Reduced Complement Operations Plan at any time he finds that it is necessary for the safety and efficiency of the National Airspace System. Upon activation of the RCOP and notwithstanding any provision of <PRTPAGE P="177"/>the FAR to the contrary, the Director is authorized to suspend or modify any airspace designation.</P>
          <P>5. Notice of restrictions, prohibitions, procedures and other actions taken by the Director under this regulation with respect to the operation of the Air Traffic Control system will be announced in Notices to Airmen issued pursuant to § 91.139 of the Federal Aviation Regulations.</P>
          <P>6. The Director may delegate his authority under this regulation to the extent he considers necessary for the safe and efficient operation of the National Air Traffic Control System.</P>

          <SECAUTH>Authority: 49 U.S.C. app. 1301(7), 1303, 1344, 1348, 1352 through 1355, 1401, 1421 through 1431, 1471, 1472, 1502, 1510, 1522, and 2121 through 2125; articles 12, 29, 31, and 32(a) of the Convention on International Civil Aviation (61 stat. 1180); 42 U.S.C. 4321 <E T="03">et seq.;</E> E.O. 11514, 35 FR 4247, 3 CFR, 1966-1970 Comp., p. 902; 49 U.S.C. 106(g).</SECAUTH>
          <CITA>[Doc. No. 26351, 55 FR 40760, Oct. 4, 1990, as amended by Amdt. 91-227, 56 FR 65652, Dec. 17, 1991]</CITA>
        </APPENDIX>
        <APPENDIX>
          <EAR>Pt. 91, SFAR No. 65-1</EAR>
          <HD SOURCE="HED">Special Federal Aviation Regulation No. 65-1—Prohibition Against Certain Flights Between the United States and Libya</HD>
          <P>1. Applicability. This Special Federal Aviation Regulation (SFAR) No. 65-1 applies to all aircraft operations originating from, landing in, or overflying the territory of the United States.</P>
          <P>2. Special flight restrictions. Except as provided in paragraphs 3 and 4 of this SFAR No. 65-1—</P>
          <P>(a) No person shall operate an aircraft on a flight to any point in Libya, or to any intermediate point on a flight where the ultimate destination is any point in Libya or that includes a landing at any point in Libya in its intended itinerary, from any point in the United States;</P>
          <P>(b) No person shall operate an aircraft on a flight to any point in the United States from any point in Libya, or from any intermediate point on a flight where the origin is in Libya, or from any point on a flight which includes a departure from any point in Libya in its intended itinerary; or</P>
          <P>(c) No person shall operate an aircraft over the territory of the United States if that aircraft's flight itinerary includes any landing at or departure from any point in Libya.</P>
          <P>3. Permitted operations. This SFAR shall not prohibit the flight operations between the United States and Libya described in section 2 of this SFAR by an aircraft authorized to conduct such operations by the United States Government in consultation with the committee established by UN Security Council Resolution 748 (1992), as affirmed by UN Security Council Resolution 883 (1993).</P>
          <P>4. Emergency situations. In an emergency that requires immediate decision and action for the safety of the flight, the pilot in command of an aircraft may deviate from this SFAR to the extent required by that emergency. Except for U.S. air carriers and commercial operators that are subject to the requirements of 14 CFR 121.557, 121.559, or 135.19, each person who deviates from this rule shall, within ten (10) days of the deviation, excluding Saturdays, Sundays, and Federal holidays, submit to the nearest FAA Flight Standards District Office a complete report of the operations or the aircraft involved in the deviation, including a description of the deviation and the reasons therefor.</P>
          <P>5. Duration. This SFAR No. 65-1 shall remain in effect until further notice.</P>
          <CITA>[SFAR 65-1, 60 FR 48644, Sept. 20, 1995]</CITA>
        </APPENDIX>
        <APPENDIX>
          <EAR>Pt. 91, SFAR No. 71</EAR>
          <HD SOURCE="HED">Special Federal Aviation Regulation No. 71—Special Operating Rules for Air Tour Operators in the State of Hawaii</HD>
          <P>
            <E T="03">Section 1. Applicability.</E> This Special Federal Aviation Regulation prescribes operating rules for airplane and helicopter visual flight rules air tour flights conducted in the State of Hawaii under 14 CFR parts 91, 121, and 135. This rule does not apply to:</P>
          <P>(a) Operations conducted under 14 CFR part 121 in airplanes with a passenger seating configuration of more than 30 seats or a payload capacity of more than 7,500 pounds.</P>
          <P>(b) Flights conducted in gliders or hot air balloons.</P>
          <P>
            <E T="03">Section 2. Definitions.</E> For the purposes of this SFAR:</P>
          <P>“Air tour” means any sightseeing flight conducted under visual flight rules in an airplane or helicopter for compensation or hire.</P>
          <P>“Air tour operator” means any person who conducts an air tour.</P>
          <P>
            <E T="03">Section 3. Helicopter flotation equipment.</E> No person may conduct an air tour in Hawaii in a single-engine helicopter beyond the shore of any island, regardless of whether the helicopter is within gliding distance of the shore, unless:</P>
          <P>(a) The helicopter is amphibious or is equipped with floats adequate to accomplish a safe emergency ditching and approved flotation gear is easily accessible for each occupant; or</P>
          <P>(b) Each person on board the helicopter is wearing approved flotation gear.</P>
          <P>
            <E T="03">Section 4. Helicopter performance plan.</E> Each operator must complete a performance plan before each helicopter air tour flight. The performance plan must be based on the information in the Rotorcraft Flight Manual <PRTPAGE P="178"/>(RFM), considering the maximum density altitude for which the operation is planned for the flight to determine the following:</P>
          <P>(a) Maximum gross weight and center of gravity (CG) limitations for hovering in ground effect;</P>
          <P>(b) Maximum gross weight and CG limitations for hovering out of ground effect; and,</P>
          <P>(c) Maximum combination of weight, altitude, and temperature for which height-velocity information in the RFM. is valid.</P>
          <P>The pilot in command (PIC) must comply with the performance plan.</P>
          <P>
            <E T="03">Section 5. Helicopter operating limitations.</E> Except for approach to and transition from a hover, the PIC shall operate the helicopter at a combination of height and forward speed (including hover) that would permit a safe landing in event of engine power loss, in accordance with the height-speed envelope for that helicopter under current weight and aircraft altitude.</P>
          <P>
            <E T="03">Section 6. Minimum flight altitudes.</E> Except when necessary for takeoff and landing, or operating in compliance with an air traffic control clearance, or as otherwise authorized by the Administrator, no person may conduct an air tour in Hawaii:</P>
          <P>(a) Below an altitude of 1,500 feet above the surface over all areas of the State of Hawaii, and,</P>
          <P>(b) Closer than 1,500 feet to any person or property; or,</P>
          <P>(c) Below any altitude prescribed by federal statute or regulation.</P>
          <P>
            <E T="03">Section 7. Passenger briefing.</E> Before takeoff, each PIC of an air tour flight of Hawaii with a flight segment beyond the ocean shore of any island shall ensure that each passenger has been briefed on the following, in addition to requirements set forth in 14 CFR 91.107, 121.571, or 135.117:</P>
          <P>(a) Water ditching procedures;</P>
          <P>(b) Use of required flotation equipment; and</P>
          <P>(c) Emergency egress from the aircraft in event of a water landing.</P>
          <P>Section 8. <E T="03">Termination date.</E> This SFAR No. 71 shall remain in effect until further notice.</P>
          <CITA>[SFAR 71, 59 FR 49145, Sept. 26, 1994, as amended at 60 FR 65913, Dec. 20, 1995; 62 FR 58859, Oct. 30, 1997; 65 FR 58612, Sept. 29, 2000; 68 FR 60839, Oct. 23, 2003]</CITA>
        </APPENDIX>
        <APPENDIX>
          <EAR>Pt. 91, SFAR No. 77</EAR>
          <HD SOURCE="HED">Special Federal Aviation Regulation No. 77—Prohibition Against Certain Flights Within the Territory and Airspace of Iraq</HD>
          <P>1. <E T="03">Applicability.</E> This rule applies to the following persons:</P>
          <P>(a) All U.S. air carriers or commercial operators;</P>
          <P>(b) All persons exercising the privileges of an airman certificate issued by the FAA except such persons operating U.S.-registered aircraft for a foreign air carrier; or</P>
          <P>(c) All operators of aircraft registered in the United States except where the operator of such aircraft is a foreign air carrier.</P>
          <P>
            <E T="03">2. Flight prohibition.</E> No person may conduct flight operations over or within the territory of Iraq except as provided in paragraphs 3 and 4 of this SFAR or except as follows:</P>
          <P>(a) Overflights of Iraq may be conducted above flight level (FL) 200 subject to the approval of, and in accordance with the conditions established by, the appropriate authorities of Iraq.</P>
          <P>(b) Flights departing from countries adjacent to Iraq whose climb performance will not permit operation above FL 200 prior to entering Iraqi airspace may operate at altitudes below FL 200 within Iraq to the extent necessary to permit a climb above FL 200, subject to the approval of, and in accordance with the conditions established by, the appropriate authorities of Iraq.</P>
          <P>(c) [Reserved]</P>
          <P>3. <E T="03">Permitted operations.</E> This SFAR does not prohibit persons described in paragraph 1 from conducting flight operations within the territory and airspace of Iraq when such operations are authorized either by another agency of the United States Government with the approval of the FAA or by an exemption issued by the Administrator.</P>
          <P>4. <E T="03">Emergency situations.</E> In an emergency that requires immediate decision and action for the safety of the flight, the pilot in command of an aircraft may deviate from this SFAR to the extent required by that emergency. Except for U.S. air carriers or commercial operators that are subject to the requirements of 14 CFR parts 119, 121, or 135, each person who deviates from this rule shall, within ten (10) days of the deviation, excluding Saturdays, Sundays, and Federal holidays, submit to the nearest FAA Flight Standards District Office a complete report of the operations of the aircraft involved in the deviation including a description of the deviation and the reasons therefore.</P>
          <P>5. <E T="03">Expiration.</E> This Special Federal Aviation Regulation will remain in effect until further notice.</P>
          <CITA>[Doc. No. 28691, 61 FR 54021, Oct. 16, 1996, as amended by Doc. No. FAA-2003-14766, 68 FR 17870, Apr. 11, 2003; 68 FR 65382, Nov. 19, 2003]</CITA>
        </APPENDIX>
        <APPENDIX>
          <EAR>Pt. 91, SFAR No. 79</EAR>
          <HD SOURCE="HED">Special Federal Aviation Regulation No. 79—Prohibition Against Certain Flights Within the Flight Information Region (FIR) of the Democratic People's Republic of Korea (DPRK)</HD>
          <P>1. <E T="03">Applicability.</E> This rule applies to the following persons:<PRTPAGE P="179"/>
          </P>
          <P>(a) All U.S. air carriers or commercial operators.</P>
          <P>(b) All persons exercising the privileges of an airman certificate issued by the FAA, except such persons operating U.S.-registered aircraft for a foreign air carrier.</P>
          <P>(c) All operators of aircraft registered in the United States except where the operator of such aircraft is a foreign air carrier.</P>
          <P>2. <E T="03">Flight Prohibition.</E> Except as provided in paragraphs 3 and 4 of this SFAR, no person described in paragraph 1 may conduct flight operations through the Pyongyang FIR west of 132 degrees east longitude.</P>
          <P>3. <E T="03">Permitted Operations.</E> This SFAR does not prohibit persons described in paragraph 1 from conducting flight operations within the Pyongyang FIR west of 132 degrees east longitude where such operations are authorized either by exemption issued by the Administrator or by another agency of the United States Government with FAA approval.</P>
          <P>4. <E T="03">Emergency situations.</E> In an emergency that requires immediate decision and action for the safety of the flight, the pilot in command on an aircraft may deviate from this SFAR to the extent required by that emergency. Except for U.S. air carriers and commercial operators that are subject to the requirements of 14 CFR parts 121, 125, or 135, each person who deviates from this rule shall, within ten (10) days of the deviation, excluding Saturdays, Sundays, and Federal holidays, submit to the nearest FAA Flight Standards District Office a complete report of the operations of the aircraft involved in the deviation, including a description of the deviation and the reasons therefore.</P>
          <P>5. <E T="03">Expiration.</E> This Special Federal Aviation Regulation No. 79 will remain in effect until further notice.</P>
          <CITA>[Doc. No. 28831, 62 FR 20078, Apr. 24, 1997, as amended at 63 FR 8017, Feb. 17, 1998; 63 FR 19286, Apr. 17, 1998]</CITA>
        </APPENDIX>
        <APPENDIX>
          <EAR>Pt. 91, SFAR No. 87</EAR>
          <HD SOURCE="HED">Special Federal Aviation Regulation No. 87—Prohibition Against Certain Flights Within the Territory and Airspace of Ethiopia</HD>
          <P>1. <E T="03">Applicability</E>. This Special Federal Aviation Regulation (SFAR) No. 87 applies to all U.S. air carriers or commercial operators, all persons exercising the privileges of an airman certificate issued by the FAA unless that person is engaged in the operation of a U.S.-registered aircraft for a foreign air carrier, and all operators using aircraft registered in the United States except where the operator of such aircraft is a foreign air carrier.</P>
          <P>2. <E T="03">Flight prohibition</E>. Except as provided in paragraphs 3 and 4 of this SFAR, no person described in paragraph 1 may conduct flight operations within the territory and airspace of Ethiopia north of 12 degrees north latitude.</P>
          <P>3. <E T="03">Permitted operations</E>. This SFAR does not prohibit persons described in paragraph 1 from conducting flight operations within the territory and airspace of Ethiopia where such operations are authorized either by exemption issued by the Administrator or by an authorization issued by another agency of the United States Government with the approval of the FAA.</P>
          <P>4. <E T="03">Emergency situations</E>. In an emergency that requires immediate decision and action for the safety of the flight, the pilot in command of an aircraft may deviate from this SFAR to the extent required by that emergency. Except for U.S. air carriers and commercial operators that are subject to the requirements of 14 CFR 121.557, 121.559, or 135.19, each person who deviates from this rule shall, within ten (10) days of the deviation, excluding Saturdays, Sundays, and Federal holidays, submit to the nearest FAA Flight Standards District Office a complete report of the operations of the aircraft involved in the deviation, including a description of the deviation and the reasons therefor.</P>
          <P>5. <E T="03">Expiration</E>. This Special Federal Aviation Regulation shall remain in effect until further notice.</P>
          <CITA>[Doc. No. FAA-2000-7360; 65 FR 31215, May 16, 2000]</CITA>
        </APPENDIX>
        <APPENDIX>
          <EAR>Pt. 91, SFAR No. 94</EAR>
          <HD SOURCE="HED">SFAR NO. 94—Enhanced Security Procedures for Operations at Certain Airports in the Washington, DC Metropolitan Area Special Flight Rules Area</HD>
          <P>1. <E T="03">Applicability.</E> This Special Federal Aviation Regulation (SFAR) establishes rules for all persons operating an aircraft to or from the following airports located within the airspace designated as the Washington, DC Metropolitan Area Special Flight Rules Area:</P>
          <P>(a) College Park Airport (CGS).</P>
          <P>(b) Potomac Airfield (VKX).</P>
          <P>(c) Washington Executive/Hyde Field (W32).</P>
          <P>2. <E T="03">Definitions.</E> For the purposes of this SFAR the following definitions apply:</P>
          <P>
            <E T="03">Administrator</E> means the Federal Aviation Administrator, the Under Secretary of Transportation for Security, or any person delegated the authority of the Federal Aviation Administrator or Under Secretary of Transportation for Security.</P>
          <P>
            <E T="03">Washington, DC Metropolitan Area Special Flight Rules Area</E> means that airspace within an area from the surface up to but not including Flight Level 180, bounded by a line beginning at the Washington (DCA) VOR/DME 300 degree radial at 15 nautical miles (Lat. 38°56′55″ N., Long. 77°20′08″ W.); thence clockwise along the DCA 15 nautical mile arc <PRTPAGE P="180"/>to the DCA 022 degree radial at 15 nautical miles (Lat. 39°06′11″ N., Long 76°57′51″ W.); thence southeast via a line drawn to the DCA 049 degree radial at 14 nautical miles (Lat. 39°02′18″ N., Long. 76°50′38″ W.); thence south via a line drawn to the DCA 064 degree radial at 13 nautical miles (Lat. 38°59′01″ N., Long. 76°48′32″ W.); thence clockwise along the DCA 13 nautical mile arc to the DCA 282 degree radial at 13 nautical miles (Lat. 38°52′14″ N., Long 77°18′48″ W.); thence north via a line drawn to the point of the beginning; excluding the airspace within a one nautical mile radius of Freeway Airport (W00), Mitchellville, Md.</P>
          <P>3. <E T="03">Operating requirements.</E>
          </P>
          <P>(a) Except as specified in paragraph 3(c) of this SFAR, no person may operate an aircraft to or from an airport to which this SFAR applies unless security procedures that meet the provisions of paragraph 4 of this SFAR have been approved by the Administrator for operations at that airport.</P>
          <P>(b) Except as specified in paragraph 3(c) of this SFAR, each person serving as a required flightcrew member of an aircraft operating to or from an airport to which this SFAR applies must:</P>
          <P>(1) Prior to obtaining authorization to operate to or from the airport, present to the Administrator the following:</P>
          <P>(i) A current and valid airman certificate;</P>
          <P>(ii) A current medical certificate;</P>
          <P>(iii) One form of Government issued picture identification; and</P>
          <P>(iv) A list containing the make, model, and registration number of each aircraft that the pilot intends to operate to or from the airport;</P>
          <P>(2) Successfully complete a background check by a law enforcement agency, which may include submission of fingerprints and the conduct of a criminal history, records check.</P>
          <P>(3) Attend a briefing acceptable to the Administrator that describes procedures for operating to or from the airport;</P>
          <P>(4) Not have been convicted or found not guilty by reason of insanity, in any jurisdiction, during the 10 years prior to being authorized to operate to or from the airport, or while authorized to operate to or from the airport, of those crimes specified in § 108.229 (d) of this chapter;</P>
          <P>(5) Not have a record on file with the FAA of:</P>
          <P>(i) A violation of a prohibited area designated under part 73 of this chapter, a flight restriction established under § 91.141 of this chapter, or special security instructions issued under § 99.7 of this chapter; or</P>
          <P>(ii) More than one violation of a restricted area designated under part 73 of this chapter, emergency air traffic rules issued under § 91.139 of this chapter, a temporary flight restriction designated under § 91.137, § 91.138, or § 91.145 of this chapter, an area designated under § 91.143 of this chapter, or any combination thereof;</P>
          <P>(6) Be authorized by the Administrator to conduct operations to or from the airport;</P>
          <P>(7) Protect from unauthorized disclosure any identification information issued by the Administrator for the conduct of operations to or from the airport;</P>
          <P>(8) Operate an aircraft that is authorized by the Administrator for operations to or from the airport;</P>
          <P>(9) File an IFR or VFR flight plan telephonically with Leesburg AFSS prior to departure and obtain an ATC clearance prior to entering the Washington, DC Metropolitan Area Special Flight Rules Area;</P>
          <P>(10) Operate the aircraft in accordance with an open IFR or VFR flight plan while in the Washington, DC Metropolitan Area Special Flight Rules Area, unless otherwise authorized by ATC;</P>
          <P>(11) Maintain two-way communications with an appropriate ATC facility while in the Washington, DC Metropolitan Area Special Flight Rules Area;</P>
          <P>(12) Ensure that the aircraft is equipped with an operable transponder with altitude reporting capability and use an assigned discrete beacon code while operating in the Washington, DC Metropolitan Area Special Flight Rules Area;</P>
          <P>(13) Comply with any instructions issued by ATC for the flight;</P>
          <P>(14) Secure the aircraft after returning to the airport from any flight;</P>
          <P>(15) Comply with all additional safety and security requirements specified in applicable NOTAMs; and</P>
          <P>(16) Comply with any Transportation Security Administration, or law enforcement requirements to operate to or from the airport.</P>
          <P>(c) A person may operate a U.S. Armed Forces, law enforcement, or aeromedical services aircraft to or from an affected airport provided the operator complies with paragraphs 3(b)(10) through 3(b)(16) of this SFAR and any additional procedures specified by the Administrator necessary to provide for the security of aircraft operations to or from the airport.</P>
          <P>4. <E T="03">Airport Security Procedures.</E>
          </P>
          <P>(a) Airport security procedures submitted to the Administrator for approval must:</P>
          <P>(1) Identify and provide contact information for the airport manager who is responsible for ensuring that the security procedures at the airport are implemented and maintained;</P>
          <P>(2) Contain procedures to identify those aircraft eligible to be authorized for operations to or from the airport;</P>

          <P>(3) Contain procedures to ensure that a current record of those persons authorized to conduct operations to or from the airport and the aircraft in which the person is authorized to conduct those operations is maintained at the airport;<PRTPAGE P="181"/>
          </P>
          <P>(4) Contain airport arrival and departure route descriptions, air traffic control clearance procedures, flight plan requirements, communications procedures, and procedures for transponder use;</P>
          <P>(5) Contain procedures to monitor the security of aircraft at the airport during operational and non-operational hours and to alert aircraft owners and operators, airport operators, and the Administrator of unsecured aircraft;</P>
          <P>(6) Contain procedures to ensure that security awareness procedures are implemented and maintained at the airport;</P>
          <P>(7) Contain procedures to ensure that a copy of the approved security procedures is maintained at the airport and can be made available for inspection upon request of the Administrator;</P>
          <P>(8) Contain procedures to provide the Administrator with the means necessary to make any inspection to determine compliance with the approved security procedures; and</P>
          <P>(9) Contain any additional procedures necessary to provide for the security of aircraft operations to or from the airport.</P>
          <P>(b) Airport security procedures are approved without an expiration date and remain in effect unless the Administrator makes a determination that operations at the airport have not been conducted in accordance with those procedures or that those procedures must be amended in accordance with paragraph 4.(a)(9) of this SFAR.</P>
          <P>5. <E T="03">Waivers.</E> The Administrator may permit an operation to or from an airport to which this SFAR applies, in deviation from the provisions of this SFAR if the Administrator finds that such action is in the public interest, provides the level of security required by this SFAR, and the operation can be conducted safely under the terms of the waiver.</P>
          <P>6. <E T="03">Delegation.</E> The authority of the Administrator under this SFAR is also exercised by the Associate Administrator for Civil Aviation Security and the Deputy Associate Administrator for Civil Aviation Security. This authority may be further delegated.</P>
          <P>7. <E T="03">Expiration.</E> This Special Federal Aviation Regulation shall remain in effect until February 13, 2005.</P>
          <CITA>[Doc. No. FAA-2002-11580, 67 FR 7544, Feb. 19, 2002; 68 FR 7691, Feb. 14, 2003]</CITA>
          <EFFDNOT>
            <HD SOURCE="HED">Effective Date Note:</HD>
            <P>At 67 FR 7544, Feb. 19, 2002, SFAR No. 94 was added, effective Feb. 13, 2002, until Feb. 13, 2005.</P>
          </EFFDNOT>
        </APPENDIX>
        <APPENDIX>
          <EAR>Pt. 91, SFAR No. 97</EAR>
          <HD SOURCE="HED">SFAR NO. 97—Special Operating Rules for the Conduct of Instrument Flight Rules (IFR) Area Navigation (RNAV) Operations using Global Positioning Systems (GPS) in Alaska</HD>
          <P>Those persons identified in Section 1 may conduct IFR en route RNAV operations in the State of Alaska and its airspace on published air traffic routes using TSO C145a/C146a navigation systems as the only means of IFR navigation. Despite contrary provisions of parts 71, 91, 95, 121, 125, and 135 of this chapter, a person may operate aircraft in accordance with this SFAR if the following requirements are met.</P>
          <HD SOURCE="HD3">Section 1. <E T="03">Purpose, use, and limitations</E>
          </HD>
          <P>a. This SFAR permits TSO C145a/C146a GPS (RNAV) systems to be used for IFR en route operations in the United States airspace over and near Alaska (as set forth in paragraph c of this section) at Special Minimum En Route Altitudes (MEA) that are outside the operational service volume of ground-based navigation aids, if the aircraft operation also meets the requirements of sections 3 and 4 of this SFAR.</P>
          <P>b. Certificate holders and part 91 operators may operate aircraft under this SFAR provided that they comply with the requirements of this SFAR.</P>
          <P>c. Operations conducted under this SFAR are limited to United States Airspace within and near the State of Alaska as defined in the following area description:</P>
          <P>From 62°00′00.000″N, Long. 141°00′00.00″W.; to Lat. 59°47′54.11″N., Long. 135°28′38.34″W.; to Lat. 56°00′04.11″N., Long. 130°00′07.80″W.; to Lat. 54°43′00.00″N., Long. 130°37′00.00″W.; to Lat. 51°24′00.00″N., Long. 167°49′00.00″W.; to Lat. 50°08′00.00″N., Long. 176°34′00.00″W.; to Lat. 45°42′00.00″N., Long. −162°55′00.00″E.; to Lat. 50°05′00.00″N., Long. −159°00′00.00″E.; to Lat. 54°00′00.00″N., Long. −169°00′00.00″E.; to Lat. 60°00 00.00″N., Long. −180°00′ 00.00″E; to Lat. 65°00′00.00″N., Long. 168°58′23.00″W.; to Lat. 90°00′00.00″N., Long. 00°00′0.00″W.; to Lat. 62°00′00.000″N, Long. 141°00′00.00″W.</P>
          <P>(d) No person may operate an aircraft under IFR during the en route portion of flight below the standard MEA or at the special MEA unless the operation is conducted in accordance with sections 3 and 4 of this SFAR.</P>
          <HD SOURCE="HD3">Section 2. <E T="03">Definitions and abbreviations</E>
          </HD>

          <P>For the purposes of this SFAR, the following definitions and abbreviations apply.<PRTPAGE P="182"/>
          </P>
          <P>
            <E T="03">Area navigation (RNAV).</E> RNAV is a method of navigation that permits aircraft operations on any desired flight path.</P>
          <P>
            <E T="03">Area navigation (RNAV) route.</E> RNAV route is a published route based on RNAV that can be used by suitably equipped aircraft.</P>
          <P>
            <E T="03">Certificate holder.</E> A certificate holder means a person holding a certificate issued under part 119 or part 125 of this chapter or holding operations specifications issued under part 129 of this chapter.</P>
          <P>
            <E T="03">Global Navigation Satellite System (GNSS).</E> GNSS is a world-wide position and time determination system that uses satellite ranging signals to determine user location. It encompasses all satellite ranging technologies, including GPS and additional satellites. Components of the GNSS include GPS, the Global Orbiting Navigation Satellite System, and WAAS satellites.</P>
          <P>
            <E T="03">Global Positioning System (GPS).</E> GPS is a satellite-based radio navigational, positioning, and time transfer system. The system provides highly accurate position and velocity information and precise time on a continuous global basis to properly equipped users.</P>
          <P>
            <E T="03">Minimum crossing altitude (MCA).</E> The minimum crossing altitude (MCA) applies to the operation of an aircraft proceeding to a higher minimum en route altitude when crossing specified fixes.</P>
          <P>
            <E T="03">Required navigation system.</E> Required navigation system means navigation equipment that meets the performance requirements of TSO C145a/C146a navigation systems certified for IFR en route operations.</P>
          <P>
            <E T="03">Route segment.</E> Route segment is a portion of a route bounded on each end by a fix or NAVAID.</P>
          <P>
            <E T="03">Special MEA.</E> Special MEA refers to the minimum en route altitudes, using required navigation systems, on published routes outside the operational service volume of ground-based navigation aids and are depicted on the published Low Altitude and High Altitude En Route Charts using the color blue and with the suffix “G.” For example, a GPS MEA of 4000 feet MSL would be depicted using the color blue, as 4000G.</P>
          <P>
            <E T="03">Standard MEA.</E> Standard MEA refers to the minimum en route IFR altitude on published routes that uses ground-based navigation aids and are depicted on the published Low Altitude and High Altitude En Route Charts using the color black.</P>
          <P>
            <E T="03">Station referenced.</E> Station referenced refers to radio navigational aids or fixes that are referenced by ground based navigation facilities such as VOR facilities.</P>
          <P>
            <E T="03">Wide Area Augmentation System (WAAS).</E> WAAS is an augmentation to GPS that calculates GPS integrity and correction data on the ground and uses geo-stationary satellites to broadcast GPS integrity and correction data to GPS/WAAS users and to provide ranging signals. It is a safety critical system consisting of a ground network of reference and integrity monitor data processing sites to assess current GPS performance, as well as a space segment that broadcasts that assessment to GNSS users to support en route through precision approach navigation. Users of the system include all aircraft applying the WAAS data and ranging signal.</P>
          <HD SOURCE="HD3">Section 3. <E T="03">Operational Requirements</E>
          </HD>
          <P>To operate an aircraft under this SFAR, the following requirements must be met:</P>
          <P>a. Training and qualification for operations and maintenance personnel on required navigation equipment used under this SFAR.</P>
          <P>b. Use authorized procedures for normal, abnormal, and emergency situations unique to these operations, including degraded navigation capabilities, and satellite system outages.</P>
          <P>c. For certificate holders, training of flight crewmembers and other personnel authorized to exercise operational control on the use of those procedures specified in paragraph b of this section.</P>
          <P>d. Part 129 operators must have approval from the State of the operator to conduct operations in accordance with this SFAR.</P>
          <P>e. In order to operate under this SFAR, a certificate holder must be authorized in operations specifications.</P>
          <HD SOURCE="HD3">Section 4. <E T="03">Equipment Requirements</E>
          </HD>
          <P>a. The certificate holder must have properly installed, certificated, and functional dual required navigation systems as defined in section 2 of this SFAR for the en route operations covered under this SFAR.</P>
          <P>b. When the aircraft is being operated under part 91, the aircraft must be equipped with at least one properly installed, certificated, and functional required navigation system as defined in section 2 of this SFAR for the en route operations covered under this SFAR.</P>
          <HD SOURCE="HD3">Section 5. <E T="03">Expiration date</E>
          </HD>
          <P>This Special Federal Aviation Regulation will remain in effect until rescinded.</P>
          <CITA>[Doc. No. FAA-2003-14305, 68 FR 14077, Mar. 21, 2003]</CITA>
        </APPENDIX>
        <SUBPART>
          <HD SOURCE="HED">Subpart A—General</HD>
          <SOURCE>
            <HD SOURCE="HED">Source:</HD>
            <P>Docket No. 18334, 54 FR 34292, Aug. 18, 1989, unless otherwise noted.</P>
          </SOURCE>
          <SECTION>
            <SECTNO>§ 91.1</SECTNO>
            <SUBJECT>Applicability.</SUBJECT>

            <P>(a) Except as provided in paragraphs (b) and (c) of this section and §§ 91.701 and 91.703, this part prescribes rules governing the operation of aircraft <PRTPAGE P="183"/>(other than moored balloons, kites, unmanned rockets, and unmanned free balloons, which are governed by part 101 of this chapter, and ultralight vehicles operated in accordance with part 103 of this chapter) within the United States, including the waters within 3 nautical miles of the U.S. coast.</P>
            <P>(b) Each person operating an aircraft in the airspace overlying the waters between 3 and 12 nautical miles from the coast of the United States shall comply with §§ 91.1 through 91.21; §§ 91.101 through 91.143; §§ 91.151 through 91.159; §§ 91.167 through 91.193; § 91.203; § 91.205; §§ 91.209 through 91.217; § 91.221; §§ 91.303 through 91.319; § 91.323; § 91.605; § 91.609; §§ 91.703 through 91.715; and 91.903.</P>
            <P>(c) This part applies to each person on board an aircraft being operated under this part, unless otherwise specified.</P>
            <CITA>[Doc. No. 18334, 54 FR 34292, Aug. 18, 1989, as amended by Amdt. 91-257, 64 FR 1079, Jan. 7, 1999]</CITA>
          </SECTION>
          <SECTION>
            <SECTNO>§ 91.3</SECTNO>
            <SUBJECT>Responsibility and authority of the pilot in command.</SUBJECT>
            <P>(a) The pilot in command of an aircraft is directly responsible for, and is the final authority as to, the operation of that aircraft.</P>
            <P>(b) In an in-flight emergency requiring immediate action, the pilot in command may deviate from any rule of this part to the extent required to meet that emergency.</P>
            <P>(c) Each pilot in command who deviates from a rule under paragraph (b) of this section shall, upon the request of the Administrator, send a written report of that deviation to the Administrator.</P>
            <APPRO>(Approved by the Office of Management and Budget under control number 2120-0005)</APPRO>
          </SECTION>
          <SECTION>
            <SECTNO>§ 91.5</SECTNO>
            <SUBJECT>Pilot in command of aircraft requiring more than one required pilot.</SUBJECT>
            <P>No person may operate an aircraft that is type certificated for more than one required pilot flight crewmember unless the pilot in command meets the requirements of § 61.58 of this chapter.</P>
          </SECTION>
          <SECTION>
            <SECTNO>§ 91.7</SECTNO>
            <SUBJECT>Civil aircraft airworthiness.</SUBJECT>
            <P>(a) No person may operate a civil aircraft unless it is in an airworthy condition.</P>
            <P>(b) The pilot in command of a civil aircraft is responsible for determining whether that aircraft is in condition for safe flight. The pilot in command shall discontinue the flight when unairworthy mechanical, electrical, or structural conditions occur.</P>
          </SECTION>
          <SECTION>
            <SECTNO>§ 91.9</SECTNO>
            <SUBJECT>Civil aircraft flight manual, marking, and placard requirements.</SUBJECT>
            <P>(a) Except as provided in paragraph (d) of this section, no person may operate a civil aircraft without complying with the operating limitations specified in the approved Airplane or Rotorcraft Flight Manual, markings, and placards, or as otherwise prescribed by the certificating authority of the country of registry.</P>
            <P>(b) No person may operate a U.S.-registered civil aircraft—</P>
            <P>(1) For which an Airplane or Rotorcraft Flight Manual is required by § 21.5 of this chapter unless there is available in the aircraft a current, approved Airplane or Rotorcraft Flight Manual or the manual provided for in § 121.141(b); and</P>
            <P>(2) For which an Airplane or Rotorcraft Flight Manual is not required by § 21.5 of this chapter, unless there is available in the aircraft a current approved Airplane or Rotorcraft Flight Manual, approved manual material, markings, and placards, or any combination thereof.</P>
            <P>(c) No person may operate a U.S.-registered civil aircraft unless that aircraft is identified in accordance with part 45 of this chapter.</P>
            <P>(d) Any person taking off or landing a helicopter certificated under part 29 of this chapter at a heliport constructed over water may make such momentary flight as is necessary for takeoff or landing through the prohibited range of the limiting height-speed envelope established for the helicopter if that flight through the prohibited range takes place over water on which a safe ditching can be accomplished and if the helicopter is amphibious or is equipped with floats or other emergency flotation gear adequate to accomplish a safe emergency ditching on open water.</P>
          </SECTION>
          <SECTION>
            <PRTPAGE P="184"/>
            <SECTNO>§ 91.11</SECTNO>
            <SUBJECT>Prohibition on interference with crewmembers.</SUBJECT>
            <P>No person may assault, threaten, intimidate, or interfere with a crewmember in the performance of the crewmember's duties aboard an aircraft being operated.</P>
          </SECTION>
          <SECTION>
            <SECTNO>§ 91.13</SECTNO>
            <SUBJECT>Careless or reckless operation.</SUBJECT>
            <P>(a) <E T="03">Aircraft operations for the purpose of air navigation.</E> No person may operate an aircraft in a careless or reckless manner so as to endanger the life or property of another.</P>
            <P>(b) <E T="03">Aircraft operations other than for the purpose of air navigation.</E> No person may operate an aircraft, other than for the purpose of air navigation, on any part of the surface of an airport used by aircraft for air commerce (including areas used by those aircraft for receiving or discharging persons or cargo), in a careless or reckless manner so as to endanger the life or property of another.</P>
          </SECTION>
          <SECTION>
            <SECTNO>§ 91.15</SECTNO>
            <SUBJECT>Dropping objects.</SUBJECT>
            <P>No pilot in command of a civil aircraft may allow any object to be dropped from that aircraft in flight that creates a hazard to persons or property. However, this section does not prohibit the dropping of any object if reasonable precautions are taken to avoid injury or damage to persons or property.</P>
          </SECTION>
          <SECTION>
            <SECTNO>§ 91.17</SECTNO>
            <SUBJECT>Alcohol or drugs.</SUBJECT>
            <P>(a) No person may act or attempt to act as a crewmember of a civil aircraft—</P>
            <P>(1) Within 8 hours after the consumption of any alcoholic beverage;</P>
            <P>(2) While under the influence of alcohol;</P>
            <P>(3) While using any drug that affects the person's faculties in any way contrary to safety; or</P>
            <P>(4) While having .04 percent by weight or more alcohol in the blood.</P>
            <P>(b) Except in an emergency, no pilot of a civil aircraft may allow a person who appears to be intoxicated or who demonstrates by manner or physical indications that the individual is under the influence of drugs (except a medical patient under proper care) to be carried in that aircraft.</P>
            <P>(c) A crewmember shall do the following:</P>
            <P>(1) On request of a law enforcement officer, submit to a test to indicate the percentage by weight of alcohol in the blood, when—</P>
            <P>(i) The law enforcement officer is authorized under State or local law to conduct the test or to have the test conducted; and</P>
            <P>(ii) The law enforcement officer is requesting submission to the test to investigate a suspected violation of State or local law governing the same or substantially similar conduct prohibited by paragraph (a)(1), (a)(2), or (a)(4) of this section.</P>
            <P>(2) Whenever the Administrator has a reasonable basis to believe that a person may have violated paragraph (a)(1), (a)(2), or (a)(4) of this section, that person shall, upon request by the Administrator, furnish the Administrator, or authorize any clinic, hospital, doctor, or other person to release to the Administrator, the results of each test taken within 4 hours after acting or attempting to act as a crewmember that indicates percentage by weight of alcohol in the blood.</P>
            <P>(d) Whenever the Administrator has a reasonable basis to believe that a person may have violated paragraph (a)(3) of this section, that person shall, upon request by the Administrator, furnish the Administrator, or authorize any clinic, hospital, doctor, or other person to release to the Administrator, the results of each test taken within 4 hours after acting or attempting to act as a crewmember that indicates the presence of any drugs in the body.</P>
            <P>(e) Any test information obtained by the Administrator under paragraph (c) or (d) of this section may be evaluated in determining a person's qualifications for any airman certificate or possible violations of this chapter and may be used as evidence in any legal proceeding under section 602, 609, or 901 of the Federal Aviation Act of 1958.</P>
          </SECTION>
          <SECTION>
            <SECTNO>§ 91.19</SECTNO>
            <SUBJECT>Carriage of narcotic drugs, marihuana, and depressant or stimulant drugs or substances.</SUBJECT>

            <P>(a) Except as provided in paragraph (b) of this section, no person may operate a civil aircraft within the United States with knowledge that narcotic <PRTPAGE P="185"/>drugs, marihuana, and depressant or stimulant drugs or substances as defined in Federal or State statutes are carried in the aircraft.</P>
            <P>(b) Paragraph (a) of this section does not apply to any carriage of narcotic drugs, marihuana, and depressant or stimulant drugs or substances authorized by or under any Federal or State statute or by any Federal or State agency.</P>
          </SECTION>
          <SECTION>
            <SECTNO>§ 91.21</SECTNO>
            <SUBJECT>Portable electronic devices.</SUBJECT>
            <P>(a) Except as provided in paragraph (b) of this section, no person may operate, nor may any operator or pilot in command of an aircraft allow the operation of, any portable electronic device on any of the following U.S.-registered civil aircraft:</P>
            <P>(1) Aircraft operated by a holder of an air carrier operating certificate or an operating certificate; or</P>
            <P>(2) Any other aircraft while it is operated under IFR.</P>
            <P>(b) Paragraph (a) of this section does not apply to—</P>
            <P>(1) Portable voice recorders;</P>
            <P>(2) Hearing aids;</P>
            <P>(3) Heart pacemakers;</P>
            <P>(4) Electric shavers; or</P>
            <P>(5) Any other portable electronic device that the operator of the aircraft has determined will not cause interference with the navigation or communication system of the aircraft on which it is to be used.</P>
            <P>(c) In the case of an aircraft operated by a holder of an air carrier operating certificate or an operating certificate, the determination required by paragraph (b)(5) of this section shall be made by that operator of the aircraft on which the particular device is to be used. In the case of other aircraft, the determination may be made by the pilot in command or other operator of the aircraft.</P>
          </SECTION>
          <SECTION>
            <SECTNO>§ 91.23</SECTNO>
            <SUBJECT>Truth-in-leasing clause requirement in leases and conditional sales contracts.</SUBJECT>
            <P>(a) Except as provided in paragraph (b) of this section, the parties to a lease or contract of conditional sale involving a U.S.-registered large civil aircraft and entered into after January 2, 1973, shall execute a written lease or contract and include therein a written truth-in-leasing clause as a concluding paragraph in large print, immediately preceding the space for the signature of the parties, which contains the following with respect to each such aircraft:</P>
            <P>(1) Identification of the Federal Aviation Regulations under which the aircraft has been maintained and inspected during the 12 months preceding the execution of the lease or contract of conditional sale, and certification by the parties thereto regarding the aircraft's status of compliance with applicable maintenance and inspection requirements in this part for the operation to be conducted under the lease or contract of conditional sale.</P>
            <P>(2) The name and address (printed or typed) and the signature of the person responsible for operational control of the aircraft under the lease or contract of conditional sale, and certification that each person understands that person's responsibilities for compliance with applicable Federal Aviation Regulations.</P>
            <P>(3) A statement that an explanation of factors bearing on operational control and pertinent Federal Aviation Regulations can be obtained from the nearest FAA Flight Standards district office.</P>
            <P>(b) The requirements of paragraph (a) of this section do not apply—</P>
            <P>(1) To a lease or contract of conditional sale when—</P>
            <P>(i) The party to whom the aircraft is furnished is a foreign air carrier or certificate holder under part 121, 125,  135, or 141 of this chapter, or</P>
            <P>(ii) The party furnishing the aircraft is a foreign air carrier or a person operating under part 121, 125, and 141 of this chapter, or a person operating under part 135 of this chapter having authority to engage in on-demand operations with large aircraft.</P>
            <P>(2) To a contract of conditional sale, when the aircraft involved has not been registered anywhere prior to the execution of the contract, except as a new aircraft under a dealer's aircraft registration certificate issued in accordance with § 47.61 of this chapter.</P>

            <P>(c) No person may operate a large civil aircraft of U.S. registry that is <PRTPAGE P="186"/>subject to a lease or contract of conditional sale to which paragraph (a) of this section applies, unless—</P>
            <P>(1) The lessee or conditional buyer, or the registered owner if the lessee is not a citizen of the United States, has mailed a copy of the lease or contract that complies with the requirements of paragraph (a) of this section, within 24 hours of its execution, to the Aircraft Registration Branch, Attn: Technical Section, P.O. Box 25724, Oklahoma City, OK 73125;</P>
            <P>(2) A copy of the lease or contract that complies with the requirements of paragraph (a) of this section is carried in the aircraft. The copy of the lease or contract shall be made available for review upon request by the Administrator, and</P>
            <P>(3) The lessee or conditional buyer, or the registered owner if the lessee is not a citizen of the United States, has notified by telephone or in person the FAA Flight Standards district office nearest the airport where the flight will originate. Unless otherwise authorized by that office, the notification shall be given at least 48 hours before takeoff in the case of the first flight of that aircraft under that lease or contract and inform the FAA of—</P>
            <P>(i) The location of the airport of departure;</P>
            <P>(ii) The departure time; and</P>
            <P>(iii) The registration number of the aircraft involved.</P>
            <P>(d) The copy of the lease or contract furnished to the FAA under paragraph (c) of this section is commercial or financial information obtained from a person. It is, therefore, privileged and confidential and will not be made available by the FAA for public inspection or copying under 5 U.S.C. 552(b)(4) unless recorded with the FAA under part 49 of this chapter.</P>
            <P>(e) For the purpose of this section, a lease means any agreement by a person to furnish an aircraft to another person for compensation or hire, whether with or without flight crewmembers, other than an agreement for the sale of an aircraft and a contract of conditional sale under section 101 of the Federal Aviation Act of 1958. The person furnishing the aircraft is referred to as the lessor, and the person to whom it is furnished the lessee.</P>
            <APPRO>(Approved by the Office of Management and Budget under control number 2120-0005)</APPRO>
            <CITA>[Doc. No. 18334, 54 FR 34292, Aug. 18, 1989, as amended by Amdt. 91-212, 54 FR 39293, Sept. 25, 1989; Amdt. 91-253, 62 FR 13253, Mar. 19, 1997; Amdt. 91-267, 66 FR 21066, Apr. 27, 2001]</CITA>
          </SECTION>
          <SECTION>
            <SECTNO>§ 91.25</SECTNO>
            <SUBJECT>Aviation Safety Reporting Program: Prohibition against use of reports for enforcement purposes.</SUBJECT>
            <P>The Administrator of the FAA will not use reports submitted to the National Aeronautics and Space Administration under the Aviation Safety Reporting Program (or information derived therefrom) in any enforcement action except information concerning accidents or criminal offenses which are wholly excluded from the Program.</P>
          </SECTION>
          <SECTION>
            <SECTNO>§§ 91.27-91.99</SECTNO>
            <RESERVED>[Reserved]</RESERVED>
          </SECTION>
        </SUBPART>
        <SUBPART>
          <HD SOURCE="HED">Subpart B—Flight Rules</HD>
          <SOURCE>
            <HD SOURCE="HED">Source:</HD>
            <P>Docket No. 18334, 54 FR 34294, Aug. 18, 1989, unless otherwise noted.</P>
          </SOURCE>
          <SUBJGRP>
            <HD SOURCE="HED">General</HD>
            <SECTION>
              <SECTNO>§ 91.101</SECTNO>
              <SUBJECT>Applicability.</SUBJECT>
              <P>This subpart prescribes flight rules governing the operation of aircraft within the United States and within 12 nautical miles from the coast of the United States.</P>
            </SECTION>
            <SECTION>
              <SECTNO>§ 91.103</SECTNO>
              <SUBJECT>Preflight action.</SUBJECT>
              <P>Each pilot in command shall, before beginning a flight, become familiar with all available information concerning that flight. This information must include—</P>
              <P>(a) For a flight under IFR or a flight not in the vicinity of an airport, weather reports and forecasts, fuel requirements, alternatives available if the planned flight cannot be completed, and any known traffic delays of which the pilot in command has been advised by ATC;</P>
              <P>(b) For any flight, runway lengths at airports of intended use, and the following takeoff and landing distance information:</P>

              <P>(1) For civil aircraft for which an approved Airplane or Rotorcraft Flight Manual containing takeoff and landing <PRTPAGE P="187"/>distance data is required, the takeoff and landing distance data contained therein; and</P>
              <P>(2) For civil aircraft other than those specified in paragraph (b)(1) of this section, other reliable information appropriate to the aircraft, relating to aircraft performance under expected values of airport elevation and runway slope, aircraft gross weight, and wind and temperature.</P>
            </SECTION>
            <SECTION>
              <SECTNO>§ 91.105</SECTNO>
              <SUBJECT>Flight crewmembers at stations.</SUBJECT>
              <P>(a) During takeoff and landing, and while en route, each required flight crewmember shall—</P>
              <P>(1) Be at the crewmember station unless the absence is necessary to perform duties in connection with the operation of the aircraft or in connection with physiological needs; and</P>
              <P>(2) Keep the safety belt fastened while at the crewmember station.</P>
              <P>(b) Each required flight crewmember of a U.S.-registered civil aircraft shall, during takeoff and landing, keep his or her shoulder harness fastened while at his or her assigned duty station. This paragraph does not apply if—</P>
              <P>(1) The seat at the crewmember's station is not equipped with a shoulder harness; or</P>
              <P>(2) The crewmember would be unable to perform required duties with the shoulder harness fastened.</P>
              <CITA>[Doc. No. 18334, 54 FR 34294, Aug. 18, 1989, as amended by Amdt. 91-231, 57 FR 42671, Sept. 15, 1992]</CITA>
            </SECTION>
            <SECTION>
              <SECTNO>§ 91.107</SECTNO>
              <SUBJECT>Use of safety belts, shoulder harnesses, and child restraint systems.</SUBJECT>
              <P>(a) Unless otherwise authorized by the Administrator—</P>
              <P>(1) No pilot may take off a U.S.-registered civil aircraft (except a free balloon that incorporates a basket or gondola, or an airship type certificated before November 2, 1987) unless the pilot in command of that aircraft ensures that each person on board is briefed on how to fasten and unfasten that person's safety belt and, if installed, shoulder harness.</P>
              <P>(2) No pilot may cause to be moved on the surface, take off, or land a U.S.-registered civil aircraft (except a free balloon that incorporates a basket or gondola, or an airship type certificated before November 2, 1987) unless the pilot in command of that aircraft ensures that each person on board has been notified to fasten his or her safety belt and, if installed, his or her shoulder harness.</P>
              <P>(3) Except as provided in this paragraph, each person on board a U.S.-registered civil aircraft (except a free balloon that incorporates a basket or gondola or an airship type certificated before November 2, 1987) must occupy an approved seat or berth with a safety belt and, if installed, shoulder harness, properly secured about him or her during movement on the surface, takeoff, and landing. For seaplane and float equipped rotorcraft operations during movement on the surface, the person pushing off the seaplane or rotorcraft from the dock and the person mooring the seaplane or rotorcraft at the dock are excepted from the preceding seating and safety belt requirements. Notwithstanding the preceding requirements of this paragraph, a person may:</P>
              <P>(i) Be held by an adult who is occupying an approved seat or berth, provided that the person being held has not reached his or her second birthday and does not occupy or use any restraining device;</P>
              <P>(ii) Use the floor of the aircraft as a seat, provided that the person is on board for the purpose of engaging in sport parachuting; or</P>
              <P>(iii) Notwithstanding any other requirement of this chapter, occupy an approved child restraint system furnished by the operator or one of the persons described in paragraph (a)(3)(iii)(A) of this section provided that:</P>
              <P>(A) The child is accompanied by a parent, guardian, or attendant designated by the child's parent or guardian to attend to the safety of the child during the flight;</P>
              <P>(B) Except as provided in paragraph (a)(3)(iii)(B)(<E T="03">4</E>) of this action, the approved child restraint system bears one or more labels as follows:</P>
              <P>(<E T="03">1</E>) Seats manufactured to U.S. standards between January 1, 1981, and February 25, 1985, must bear the label: “This child restraint system conforms to all applicable Federal motor vehicle safety standards”;<PRTPAGE P="188"/>
              </P>
              <P>(<E T="03">2</E>) Seats manufactured to U.S. standards on or after February 26, 1985, must bear two labels:</P>
              <P>(<E T="03">i</E>) “This child restraint system conforms to all applicable Federal motor vehicle safety standards”; and</P>
              <P>(<E T="03">ii</E>) “THIS RESTRAINT IS CERTIFIED FOR USE IN MOTOR VEHICLES AND AIRCRAFT” in red lettering;</P>
              <P>(<E T="03">3</E>) Seats that do not qualify under paragraphs (a)(3)(iii)(B)(<E T="03">1</E>) and (a)(3)(iii)(B)(<E T="03">2</E>) of this section must bear either a label showing approval of a foreign government or a label showing that the seat was manufactured under the standards of the United Nations;</P>
              <P>(<E T="03">4</E>) Notwithstanding any other provision of this section, booster-type child restraint systems (as defined in Federal Motor Vehicle Safety Standard No. 213 (49 CFR 571.213)), vest- and harness-type child restraint systems, and lap held child restraints are not approved for use in aircraft; and</P>
              <P>(C) The operator complies with the following requirements:</P>
              <P>(<E T="03">1</E>) The restraint system must be properly secured to an approved forward-facing seat or berth;</P>
              <P>(<E T="03">2</E>) The child must be properly secured in the restraint system and must not exceed the specified weight limit for the restraint system; and</P>
              <P>(<E T="03">3</E>) The restraint system must bear the appropriate label(s).</P>
              <P>(b) Unless otherwise stated, this section does not apply to operations conducted under part 121, 125, or 135 of this chapter. Paragraph (a)(3) of this section does not apply to persons subject to § 91.105.</P>
              <CITA>[Doc. No. 26142, 57 FR 42671, Sept. 15, 1992, as amended by Amdt. 91-250, 61 FR 28421, June 4, 1996]</CITA>
            </SECTION>
            <SECTION>
              <SECTNO>§ 91.109</SECTNO>
              <SUBJECT>Flight instruction; Simulated instrument flight and certain flight tests.</SUBJECT>
              <P>(a) No person may operate a civil aircraft (except a manned free balloon) that is being used for flight instruction unless that aircraft has fully functioning dual controls. However, instrument flight instruction may be given in a single-engine airplane equipped with a single, functioning throwover control wheel in place of fixed, dual controls of the elevator and ailerons when—</P>
              <P>(1) The instructor has determined that the flight can be conducted safely; and</P>
              <P>(2) The person manipulating the controls has at least a private pilot certificate with appropriate category and class ratings.</P>
              <P>(b) No person may operate a civil aircraft in simulated instrument flight unless—</P>
              <P>(1) The other control seat is occupied by a safety pilot who possesses at least a private pilot certificate with category and class ratings appropriate to the aircraft being flown.</P>
              <P>(2) The safety pilot has adequate vision forward and to each side of the aircraft, or a competent observer in the aircraft adequately supplements the vision of the safety pilot; and</P>
              <P>(3) Except in the case of lighter-than-air aircraft, that aircraft is equipped with fully functioning dual controls. However, simulated instrument flight may be conducted in a single-engine airplane, equipped with a single, functioning, throwover control wheel, in place of fixed, dual controls of the elevator and ailerons, when—</P>
              <P>(i) The safety pilot has determined that the flight can be conducted safely; and</P>
              <P>(ii) The person manipulating the controls has at least a private pilot certificate with appropriate category and class ratings.</P>
              <P>(c) No person may operate a civil aircraft that is being used for a flight test for an airline transport pilot certificate or a class or type rating on that certificate, or for a part 121 proficiency flight test, unless the pilot seated at the controls, other than the pilot being checked, is fully qualified to act as pilot in command of the aircraft.</P>
            </SECTION>
            <SECTION>
              <SECTNO>§ 91.111</SECTNO>
              <SUBJECT>Operating near other aircraft.</SUBJECT>
              <P>(a) No person may operate an aircraft so close to another aircraft as to create a collision hazard.</P>
              <P>(b) No person may operate an aircraft in formation flight except by arrangement with the pilot in command of each aircraft in the formation.</P>
              <P>(c) No person may operate an aircraft, carrying passengers for hire, in formation flight.</P>
            </SECTION>
            <SECTION>
              <PRTPAGE P="189"/>
              <SECTNO>§ 91.113</SECTNO>
              <SUBJECT>Right-of-way rules: Except water operations.</SUBJECT>
              <P>(a) <E T="03">Inapplicability.</E> This section does not apply to the operation of an aircraft on water.</P>
              <P>(b) <E T="03">General.</E> When weather conditions permit, regardless of whether an operation is conducted under instrument flight rules or visual flight rules, vigilance shall be maintained by each person operating an aircraft so as to see and avoid other aircraft. When a rule of this section gives another aircraft the right-of-way, the pilot shall give way to that aircraft and may not pass over, under, or ahead of it unless well clear.</P>
              <P>(c) <E T="03">In distress.</E> An aircraft in distress has the right-of-way over all other air traffic.</P>
              <P>(d) <E T="03">Converging.</E> When aircraft of the same category are converging at approximately the same altitude (except head-on, or nearly so), the aircraft to the other's right has the right-of-way. If the aircraft are of different categories—</P>
              <P>(1) A balloon has the right-of-way over any other category of aircraft;</P>
              <P>(2) A glider has the right-of-way over an airship, airplane, or rotorcraft; and</P>
              <P>(3) An airship has the right-of-way over an airplane or rotorcraft.</P>
              <P>However, an aircraft towing or refueling other aircraft has the right-of-way over all other engine-driven aircraft.</P>
              <P>(e) <E T="03">Approaching head-on.</E> When aircraft are approaching each other head-on, or nearly so, each pilot of each aircraft shall alter course to the right.</P>
              <P>(f) <E T="03">Overtaking.</E> Each aircraft that is being overtaken has the right-of-way and each pilot of an overtaking aircraft shall alter course to the right to pass well clear.</P>
              <P>(g) <E T="03">Landing.</E> Aircraft, while on final approach to land or while landing, have the right-of-way over other aircraft in flight or operating on the surface, except that they shall not take advantage of this rule to force an aircraft off the runway surface which has already landed and is attempting to make way for an aircraft on final approach. When two or more aircraft are approaching an airport for the purpose of landing, the aircraft at the lower altitude has the right-of-way, but it shall not take advantage of this rule to cut in front of another which is on final approach to land or to overtake that aircraft.</P>
            </SECTION>
            <SECTION>
              <SECTNO>§ 91.115</SECTNO>
              <SUBJECT>Right-of-way rules: Water operations.</SUBJECT>
              <P>(a) <E T="03">General.</E> Each person operating an aircraft on the water shall, insofar as possible, keep clear of all vessels and avoid impeding their navigation, and shall give way to any vessel or other aircraft that is given the right-of-way by any rule of this section.</P>
              <P>(b) <E T="03">Crossing.</E> When aircraft, or an aircraft and a vessel, are on crossing courses, the aircraft or vessel to the other's right has the right-of-way.</P>
              <P>(c) <E T="03">Approaching head-on.</E> When aircraft, or an aircraft and a vessel, are approaching head-on, or nearly so, each shall alter its course to the right to keep well clear.</P>
              <P>(d) <E T="03">Overtaking.</E> Each aircraft or vessel that is being overtaken has the right-of-way, and the one overtaking shall alter course to keep well clear.</P>
              <P>(e) <E T="03">Special circumstances.</E> When aircraft, or an aircraft and a vessel, approach so as to involve risk of collision, each aircraft or vessel shall proceed with careful regard to existing circumstances, including the limitations of the respective craft.</P>
            </SECTION>
            <SECTION>
              <SECTNO>§ 91.117</SECTNO>
              <SUBJECT>Aircraft speed.</SUBJECT>
              <P>(a) Unless otherwise authorized by the Administrator, no person may operate an aircraft below 10,000 feet MSL at an indicated airspeed of more than 250 knots (288 m.p.h.).</P>
              <P>(b) Unless otherwise authorized or required by ATC, no person may operate an aircraft at or below 2,500 feet above the surface within 4 nautical miles of the primary airport of a Class C or Class D airspace area at an indicated airspeed of more than 200 knots (230 mph.). This paragraph (b) does not apply to any operations within a Class B airspace area. Such operations shall comply with paragraph (a) of this section.</P>

              <P>(c) No person may operate an aircraft in the airspace underlying a Class B airspace area designated for an airport or in a VFR corridor designated through such a Class B airspace area, at an indicated airspeed of more than 200 knots (230 mph).<PRTPAGE P="190"/>
              </P>
              <P>(d) If the minimum safe airspeed for any particular operation is greater than the maximum speed prescribed in this section, the aircraft may be operated at that minimum speed.</P>
              <CITA>[Doc. No. 18334, 54 FR 34292, Aug. 18, 1989, as amended by Amdt. 91-219, 55 FR 34708, Aug. 24, 1990; Amdt. 91-227, 56 FR 65657, Dec. 17, 1991; Amdt. 91-233, 58 FR 43554, Aug. 17, 1993]</CITA>
            </SECTION>
            <SECTION>
              <SECTNO>§ 91.119</SECTNO>
              <SUBJECT>Minimum safe altitudes: General.</SUBJECT>
              <P>Except when necessary for takeoff or landing, no person may operate an aircraft below the following altitudes:</P>
              <P>(a) <E T="03">Anywhere.</E> An altitude allowing, if a power unit fails, an emergency landing without undue hazard to persons or property on the surface.</P>
              <P>(b) <E T="03">Over congested areas.</E> Over any congested area of a city, town, or settlement, or over any open air assembly of persons, an altitude of 1,000 feet above the highest obstacle within a horizontal radius of 2,000 feet of the aircraft.</P>
              <P>(c) <E T="03">Over other than congested areas.</E> An altitude of 500 feet above the surface, except over open water or sparsely populated areas. In those cases, the aircraft may not be operated closer than 500 feet to any person, vessel, vehicle, or structure.</P>
              <P>(d) <E T="03">Helicopters.</E> Helicopters may be operated at less than the minimums prescribed in paragraph (b) or (c) of this section if the operation is conducted without hazard to persons or property on the surface. In addition, each person operating a helicopter shall comply with any routes or altitudes specifically prescribed for helicopters by the Administrator.</P>
            </SECTION>
            <SECTION>
              <SECTNO>§ 91.121</SECTNO>
              <SUBJECT>Altimeter settings.</SUBJECT>
              <P>(a) Each person operating an aircraft shall maintain the cruising altitude or flight level of that aircraft, as the case may be, by reference to an altimeter that is set, when operating—</P>
              <P>(1) Below 18,000 feet MSL, to—</P>
              <P>(i) The current reported altimeter setting of a station along the route and within 100 nautical miles of the aircraft;</P>
              <P>(ii) If there is no station within the area prescribed in paragraph (a)(1)(i) of this section, the current reported altimeter setting of an appropriate available station; or</P>
              <P>(iii) In the case of an aircraft not equipped with a radio, the elevation of the departure airport or an appropriate altimeter setting available before departure; or</P>
              <P>(2) At or above 18,000 feet MSL, to 29.92″ Hg.</P>
              <P>(b) The lowest usable flight level is determined by the atmospheric pressure in the area of operation as shown in the following table:</P>
              <GPOTABLE CDEF="s25,7" COLS="2" OPTS="L2,i1">
                <BOXHD>
                  <CHED H="1">Current altimeter setting</CHED>
                  <CHED H="1">Lowest usable flight level</CHED>
                </BOXHD>
                <ROW>
                  <ENT I="01">29.92 (or higher)</ENT>
                  <ENT>180</ENT>
                </ROW>
                <ROW>
                  <ENT I="01">29.91 through 29.42</ENT>
                  <ENT>185</ENT>
                </ROW>
                <ROW>
                  <ENT I="01">29.41 through 28.92</ENT>
                  <ENT>190</ENT>
                </ROW>
                <ROW>
                  <ENT I="01">28.91 through 28.42</ENT>
                  <ENT>195</ENT>
                </ROW>
                <ROW>
                  <ENT I="01">28.41 through 27.92</ENT>
                  <ENT>200</ENT>
                </ROW>
                <ROW>
                  <ENT I="01">27.91 through 27.42</ENT>
                  <ENT>205</ENT>
                </ROW>
                <ROW>
                  <ENT I="01">27.41 through 26.92</ENT>
                  <ENT>210</ENT>
                </ROW>
              </GPOTABLE>
              <P>(c) To convert minimum altitude prescribed under §§ 91.119 and 91.177 to the minimum flight level, the pilot shall take the flight level equivalent of the minimum altitude in feet and add the appropriate number of feet specified below, according to the current reported altimeter setting:</P>
              <GPOTABLE CDEF="s25,7" COLS="2" OPTS="L2,i1">
                <BOXHD>
                  <CHED H="1">Current altimeter setting</CHED>
                  <CHED H="1">Adjustment factor</CHED>
                </BOXHD>
                <ROW>
                  <ENT I="01">29.92 (or higher)</ENT>
                  <ENT>None</ENT>
                </ROW>
                <ROW>
                  <ENT I="01">29.91 through 29.42</ENT>
                  <ENT>500</ENT>
                </ROW>
                <ROW>
                  <ENT I="01">29.41 through 28.92</ENT>
                  <ENT>1,000</ENT>
                </ROW>
                <ROW>
                  <ENT I="01">28.91 through 28.42</ENT>
                  <ENT>1,500</ENT>
                </ROW>
                <ROW>
                  <ENT I="01">28.41 through 27.92</ENT>
                  <ENT>2,000</ENT>
                </ROW>
                <ROW>
                  <ENT I="01">27.91 through 27.42</ENT>
                  <ENT>2,500</ENT>
                </ROW>
                <ROW>
                  <ENT I="01">27.41 through 26.92</ENT>
                  <ENT>3,000</ENT>
                </ROW>
              </GPOTABLE>
            </SECTION>
            <SECTION>
              <SECTNO>§ 91.123</SECTNO>
              <SUBJECT>Compliance with ATC clearances and instructions.</SUBJECT>

              <P>(a) When an ATC clearance has been obtained, no pilot in command may deviate from that clearance unless an amended clearance is obtained, an emergency exists, or the deviation is in response to a traffic alert and collision avoidance system resolution advisory. However, except in Class A airspace, a pilot may cancel an IFR flight plan if the operation is being conducted in VFR weather conditions. When a pilot is uncertain of an ATC clearance, that pilot shall immediately request clarification from ATC.<PRTPAGE P="191"/>
              </P>
              <P>(b) Except in an emergency, no person may operate an aircraft contrary to an ATC instruction in an area in which air traffic control is exercised.</P>
              <P>(c) Each pilot in command who, in an emergency, or in response to a traffic alert and collision avoidance system resolution advisory, deviates from an ATC clearance or instruction shall notify ATC of that deviation as soon as possible.</P>
              <P>(d) Each pilot in command who (though not deviating from a rule of this subpart) is given priority by ATC in an emergency, shall submit a detailed report of that emergency within 48 hours to the manager of that ATC facility, if requested by ATC.</P>
              <P>(e) Unless otherwise authorized by ATC, no person operating an aircraft may operate that aircraft according to any clearance or instruction that has been issued to the pilot of another aircraft for radar air traffic control purposes.</P>
              <APPRO>(Approved by the Office of Management and Budget under control number 2120-0005)</APPRO>
              <CITA>[Doc. No. 18834, 54 FR 34294, Aug. 18, 1989, as amended by Amdt. 91-227, 56 FR 65658, Dec. 17, 1991; Amdt. 91-244, 60 FR 50679, Sept. 29, 1995]</CITA>
            </SECTION>
            <SECTION>
              <SECTNO>§ 91.125</SECTNO>
              <SUBJECT>ATC light signals.</SUBJECT>
              <P>ATC light signals have the meaning shown in the following table:</P>
              <GPOTABLE CDEF="s25,r25,r25" COLS="3" OPTS="L2,i1">
                <BOXHD>
                  <CHED H="1">Color and type of signal</CHED>
                  <CHED H="1">Meaning with respect to aircraft on the surface</CHED>
                  <CHED H="1">Meaning with respect to aircraft in flight</CHED>
                </BOXHD>
                <ROW>
                  <ENT I="01">Steady green</ENT>
                  <ENT>Cleared for takeoff</ENT>
                  <ENT>Cleared to land.</ENT>
                </ROW>
                <ROW>
                  <ENT I="01">Flashing green</ENT>
                  <ENT>Cleared to taxi</ENT>
                  <ENT>Return for landing (to be followed by steady green at proper time).</ENT>
                </ROW>
                <ROW>
                  <ENT I="01">Steady red</ENT>
                  <ENT>Stop</ENT>
                  <ENT>Give way to other aircraft and continue circling.</ENT>
                </ROW>
                <ROW>
                  <ENT I="01">Flashing red</ENT>
                  <ENT>Taxi clear of runway in use</ENT>
                  <ENT>Airport unsafe—do not land.</ENT>
                </ROW>
                <ROW>
                  <ENT I="01">Flashing white</ENT>
                  <ENT>Return to starting point on airport</ENT>
                  <ENT>Not applicable.</ENT>
                </ROW>
                <ROW>
                  <ENT I="01">Alternating red and green</ENT>
                  <ENT>Exercise extreme caution</ENT>
                  <ENT>Exercise extreme caution.</ENT>
                </ROW>
              </GPOTABLE>
            </SECTION>
            <SECTION>
              <SECTNO>§ 91.126</SECTNO>
              <SUBJECT>Operating on or in the vicinity of an airport in Class G airspace.</SUBJECT>
              <P>(a) <E T="03">General</E>. Unless otherwise authorized or required, each person operating an aircraft on or in the vicinity of an airport in a Class G airspace area must comply with the requirements of this section.</P>
              <P>(b) <E T="03">Direction of turns.</E> When approaching to land at an airport without an operating control tower in Class G airspace—</P>
              <P>(1) Each pilot of an airplane must make all turns of that airplane to the left unless the airport displays approved light signals or visual markings indicating that turns should be made to the right, in which case the pilot must make all turns to the right; and</P>
              <P>(2) Each pilot of a helicopter must avoid the flow of fixed-wing aircraft.</P>
              <P>(c) <E T="03">Flap settings.</E> Except when necessary for training or certification, the pilot in command of a civil turbojet-powered aircraft must use, as a final flap setting, the minimum certificated landing flap setting set forth in the approved performance information in the Airplane Flight Manual for the applicable conditions. However, each pilot in command has the final authority and responsibility for the safe operation of the pilot's airplane, and may use a different flap setting for that airplane if the pilot determines that it is necessary in the interest of safety.</P>
              <P>(d) <E T="03">Communications with control towers.</E> Unless otherwise authorized or required by ATC, no person may operate an aircraft to, from, through, or on an airport having an operational control tower unless two-way radio communications are maintained between that aircraft and the control tower. Communications must be established prior to 4 nautical miles from the airport, up to and including 2,500 feet AGL. However, if the aircraft radio fails in flight, the pilot in command may operate that aircraft and land if weather conditions are at or above basic VFR weather minimums, visual contact with the tower is maintained, and a clearance to land is received. If the aircraft radio fails while in flight under IFR, the pilot must comply with § 91.185.</P>
              <CITA>[Doc. No. 24458, 56 FR 65658, Dec. 17, 1991, as amended by Amdt. 91-239, 59 FR 11693, Mar. 11, 1994]</CITA>
            </SECTION>
            <SECTION>
              <SECTNO>§ 91.127</SECTNO>
              <SUBJECT>Operating on or in the vicinity of an airport in Class E airspace.</SUBJECT>

              <P>(a) Unless otherwise required by part 93 of this chapter or unless otherwise authorized or required by the ATC facility having jurisdiction over the <PRTPAGE P="192"/>Class E airspace area, each person operating an aircraft on or in the vicinity of an airport in a Class E airspace area must comply with the requirements of § 91.126.</P>
              <P>(b) <E T="03">Departures.</E> Each pilot of an aircraft must comply with any traffic patterns established for that airport in part 93 of this chapter.</P>
              <P>(c) <E T="03">Communications with control towers.</E> Unless otherwise authorized or required by ATC, no person may operate an aircraft to, from, through, or on an airport having an operational control tower unless two-way radio communications are maintained between that aircraft and the control tower. Communications must be established prior to 4 nautical miles from the airport, up to and including 2,500 feet AGL. However, if the aircraft radio fails in flight, the pilot in command may operate that aircraft and land if weather conditions are at or above basic VFR weather minimums, visual contact with the tower is maintained, and a clearance to land is received. If the aircraft radio fails while in flight under IFR, the pilot must comply with § 91.185.</P>
              <CITA>[Doc. No. 24458, 56 FR 65658, Dec. 17, 1991, as amended by Amdt. 91-239, 59 FR 11693, Mar. 11, 1994]</CITA>
            </SECTION>
            <SECTION>
              <SECTNO>§ 91.129</SECTNO>
              <SUBJECT>Operations in Class D airspace.</SUBJECT>
              <P>(a) <E T="03">General.</E> Unless otherwise authorized or required by the ATC facility having jurisdiction over the Class D airspace area, each person operating an aircraft in Class D airspace must comply with the applicable provisions of this section. In addition, each person must comply with §§ 91.126 and 91.127. For the purpose of this section, the primary airport is the airport for which the Class D airspace area is designated. A satellite airport is any other airport within the Class D airspace area.</P>
              <P>(b) <E T="03">Deviations.</E> An operator may deviate from any provision of this section under the provisions of an ATC authorization issued by the ATC facility having jurisdiction over the airspace concerned. ATC may authorize a deviation on a continuing basis or for an individual flight, as appropriate.</P>
              <P>(c) <E T="03">Communications.</E> Each person operating an aircraft in Class D airspace must meet the following two-way radio communications requirements:</P>
              <P>(1) <E T="03">Arrival or through flight</E>. Each person must establish two-way radio communications with the ATC facility (including foreign ATC in the case of foreign airspace designated in the United States) providing air traffic services prior to entering that airspace and thereafter maintain those communications while within that airspace.</P>
              <P>(2) <E T="03">Departing flight.</E> Each person—</P>
              <P>(i) From the primary airport or satellite airport with an operating control tower must establish and maintain two-way radio communications with the control tower, and thereafter as instructed by ATC while operating in the Class D airspace area; or</P>
              <P>(ii) From a satellite airport without an operating control tower, must establish and maintain two-way radio communications with the ATC facility having jurisdiction over the Class D airspace area as soon as practicable after departing.</P>
              <P>(d) <E T="03">Communications failure.</E> Each person who operates an aircraft in a Class D airspace area must maintain two-way radio communications with the ATC facility having jurisdiction over that area.</P>
              <P>(1) If the aircraft radio fails in flight under IFR, the pilot must comply with § 91.185 of the part.</P>
              <P>(2) If the aircraft radio fails in flight under VFR, the pilot in command may operate that aircraft and land if—</P>
              <P>(i) Weather conditions are at or above basic VFR weather minimums;</P>
              <P>(ii) Visual contact with the tower is maintained; and</P>
              <P>(iii) A clearance to land is received.</P>
              <P>(e) <E T="03">Minimum Altitudes.</E> When operating to an airport in Class D airspace, each pilot of—</P>
              <P>(1) A large or turbine-powered airplane shall, unless otherwise required by the applicable distance from cloud criteria, enter the traffic pattern at an altitude of at least 1,500 feet above the elevation of the airport and maintain at least 1,500 feet until further descent is required for a safe landing;</P>

              <P>(2) A large or turbine-powered airplane approaching to land on a runway served by an instrument landing system (ILS), if the airplane is ILS equipped, shall fly that airplane at an <PRTPAGE P="193"/>altitude at or above the glide slope between the outer marker (or point of interception of glide slope, if compliance with the applicable distance from cloud criteria requires interception closer in) and the middle marker; and</P>
              <P>(3) An airplane approaching to land on a runway served by a visual approach slope indicator shall maintain an altitude at or above the glide slope until a lower altitude is necessary for a safe landing.</P>
              <FP>Paragraphs (e)(2) and (e)(3) of this section do not prohibit normal bracketing maneuvers above or below the glide slope that are conducted for the purpose of remaining on the glide slope.</FP>
              <P>(f) <E T="03">Approaches.</E> Except when conducting a circling approach under part 97 of this chapter or unless otherwise required by ATC, each pilot must—</P>
              <P>(1) Circle the airport to the left, if operating an airplane; or</P>
              <P>(2) Avoid the flow of fixed-wing aircraft, if operating a helicopter.</P>
              <P>(g) <E T="03">Departures.</E> No person may operate an aircraft departing from an airport except in compliance with the following:</P>
              <P>(1) Each pilot must comply with any departure procedures established for that airport by the FAA.</P>
              <P>(2) Unless otherwise required by the prescribed departure procedure for that airport or the applicable distance from clouds criteria, each pilot of a turbine-powered airplane and each pilot of a large airplane must climb to an altitude of 1,500 feet above the surface as rapidly as practicable.</P>
              <P>(h) <E T="03">Noise abatement.</E> Where a formal runway use program has been established by the FAA, each pilot of a large or turbine-powered airplane assigned a noise abatement runway by ATC must use that runway. However, consistent with the final authority of the pilot in command concerning the safe operation of the aircraft as prescribed in § 91.3(a), ATC may assign a different runway if requested by the pilot in the interest of safety.</P>
              <P>(i) <E T="03">Takeoff, landing, taxi clearance.</E> No person may, at any airport with an operating control tower, operate an aircraft on a runway or taxiway, or take off or land an aircraft, unless an appropriate clearance is received from ATC. A clearance to “taxi to” the takeoff runway assigned to the aircraft is not a clearance to cross that assigned takeoff runway, or to taxi on that runway at any point, but is a clearance to cross other runways that intersect the taxi route to that assigned takeoff runway. A clearance to “taxi to” any point other than an assigned takeoff runway is clearance to cross all runways that intersect the taxi route to that point.</P>
              <CITA>[Doc. No. 24458, 56 FR 65658, Dec. 17, 1991, as amended by Amdt. 91-234, 58 FR 48793, Sept. 20, 1993]</CITA>
            </SECTION>
            <SECTION>
              <SECTNO>§ 91.130</SECTNO>
              <SUBJECT>Operations in Class C airspace.</SUBJECT>
              <P>(a) <E T="03">General.</E> Unless otherwise authorized by ATC, each aircraft operation in Class C airspace must be conducted in compliance with this section and § 91.129. For the purpose of this section, the primary airport is the airport for which the Class C airspace area is designated. A satellite airport is any other airport within the Class C airspace area.</P>
              <P>(b) <E T="03">Traffic patterns.</E> No person may take off or land an aircraft at a satellite airport within a Class C airspace area except in compliance with FAA arrival and departure traffic patterns.</P>
              <P>(c) <E T="03">Communications.</E> Each person operating an aircraft in Class C airspace must meet the following two-way radio communications requirements:</P>
              <P>(1) <E T="03">Arrival or through flight.</E> Each person must establish two-way radio communications with the ATC facility (including foreign ATC in the case of foreign airspace designated in the United States) providing air traffic services prior to entering that airspace and thereafter maintain those communications while within that airspace.</P>
              <P>(2) <E T="03">Departing flight.</E> Each person—</P>
              <P>(i) From the primary airport or satellite airport with an operating control tower must establish and maintain two-way radio communications with the control tower, and thereafter as instructed by ATC while operating in the Class C airspace area; or</P>

              <P>(ii) From a satellite airport without an operating control tower, must establish and maintain two-way radio communications with the ATC facility having jurisdiction over the Class C airspace area as soon as practicable after departing.<PRTPAGE P="194"/>
              </P>
              <P>(d) <E T="03">Equipment requirements.</E> Unless otherwise authorized by the ATC having jurisdiction over the Class C airspace area, no person may operate an aircraft within a Class C airspace area designated for an airport unless that aircraft is equipped with the applicable equipment specified in § 91.215.</P>
              <P>(e) <E T="03">Deviations.</E> An operator may deviate from any provision of this section under the provisions of an ATC authorization issued by the ATC facility having jurisdiction over the airspace concerned. ATC may authorize a deviation on a continuing basis or for an individual flight, as appropriate.</P>
              <CITA>[Doc. No. 24458, 56 FR 65659, Dec. 17, 1991, as amended by Amdt. 91-232, 58 FR 40736, July 30, 1993; Amdt. 91-239, 59 FR 11693, Mar. 11, 1994]</CITA>
            </SECTION>
            <SECTION>
              <SECTNO>§ 91.131</SECTNO>
              <SUBJECT>Operations in Class B airspace.</SUBJECT>
              <P>(a) <E T="03">Operating rules.</E> No person may operate an aircraft within a Class B airspace area except in compliance with § 91.129 and the following rules:</P>
              <P>(1) The operator must receive an ATC clearance from the ATC facility having jurisdiction for that area before operating an aircraft in that area.</P>
              <P>(2) Unless otherwise authorized by ATC, each person operating a large turbine engine-powered airplane to or from a primary airport for which a Class B airspace area is designated must operate at or above the designated floors of the Class B airspace area while within the lateral limits of that area.</P>
              <P>(3) Any person conducting pilot training operations at an airport within a Class B airspace area must comply with any procedures established by ATC for such operations in that area.</P>
              <P>(b) <E T="03">Pilot requirements.</E> (1) No person may take off or land a civil aircraft at an airport within a Class B airspace area or operate a civil aircraft within a Class B airspace area unless—</P>
              <P>(i) The pilot in command holds at least a private pilot certificate; or</P>
              <P>(ii) The aircraft is operated by a student pilot or recreational pilot who seeks private pilot certification and has met the requirements of § 61.95 of this chapter.</P>
              <P>(2) Notwithstanding the provisions of paragraph (b)(1)(ii) of this section, no person may take off or land a civil aircraft at those airports listed in section 4 of appendix D of this part unless the pilot in command holds at least a private pilot certificate.</P>
              <P>(c) <E T="03">Communications and navigation equipment requirements.</E> Unless otherwise authorized by ATC, no person may operate an aircraft within a Class B airspace area unless that aircraft is equipped with—</P>
              <P>(1) <E T="03">For IFR operation.</E> An operable VOR or TACAN receiver; and</P>
              <P>(2) <E T="03">For all operations.</E> An operable two-way radio capable of communications with ATC on appropriate frequencies for that Class B airspace area.</P>
              <P>(d) <E T="03">Transponder requirements.</E> No person may operate an aircraft in a Class B airspace area unless the aircraft is equipped with the applicable operating transponder and automatic altitude reporting equipment specified in paragraph (a) of § 91.215, except as provided in paragraph (d) of that section.</P>
              <CITA>[Doc. No. 24458, 56 FR 65658, Dec. 17, 1991]</CITA>
            </SECTION>
            <SECTION>
              <SECTNO>§ 91.133</SECTNO>
              <SUBJECT>Restricted and prohibited areas.</SUBJECT>
              <P>(a) No person may operate an aircraft within a restricted area (designated in part 73) contrary to the restrictions imposed, or within a prohibited area, unless that person has the permission of the using or controlling agency, as appropriate.</P>
              <P>(b) Each person conducting, within a restricted area, an aircraft operation (approved by the using agency) that creates the same hazards as the operations for which the restricted area was designated may deviate from the rules of this subpart that are not compatible with the operation of the aircraft.</P>
            </SECTION>
            <SECTION>
              <SECTNO>§ 91.135</SECTNO>
              <SUBJECT>Operations in Class A airspace.</SUBJECT>
              <P>Except as provided in paragraph (d) of this section, each person operating an aircraft in Class A airspace must conduct that operation under instrument flight rules (IFR) and in compliance with the following:</P>
              <P>(a) <E T="03">Clearance.</E> Operations may be conducted only under an ATC clearance received prior to entering the airspace.<PRTPAGE P="195"/>
              </P>
              <P>(b) <E T="03">Communications.</E> Unless otherwise authorized by ATC, each aircraft operating in Class A airspace must be equipped with a two-way radio capable of communicating with ATC on a frequency assigned by ATC. Each pilot must maintain two-way radio communications with ATC while operating in Class A airspace.</P>
              <P>(c) <E T="03">Transponder requirement.</E> Unless otherwise authorized by ATC, no person may operate an aircraft within Class A airspace unless that aircraft is equipped with the applicable equipment specified in § 91.215.</P>
              <P>(d) <E T="03">ATC authorizations.</E> An operator may deviate from any provision of this section under the provisions of an ATC authorization issued by the ATC facility having jurisdiction of the airspace concerned. In the case of an inoperative transponder, ATC may immediately approve an operation within a Class A airspace area allowing flight to continue, if desired, to the airport of ultimate destination, including any intermediate stops, or to proceed to a place where suitable repairs can be made, or both. Requests for deviation from any provision of this section must be submitted in writing, at least 4 days before the proposed operation. ATC may authorize a deviation on a continuing basis or for an individual flight.</P>
              <CITA>[Doc. No. 24458, 56 FR 65659, Dec. 17, 1991]</CITA>
            </SECTION>
            <SECTION>
              <SECTNO>§ 91.137</SECTNO>
              <SUBJECT>Temporary flight restrictions in the vicinity of disaster/hazard areas.</SUBJECT>
              <P>(a) The Administrator will issue a Notice to Airmen (NOTAM) designating an area within which temporary flight restrictions apply and specifying the hazard or condition requiring their imposition, whenever he determines it is necessary in order to—</P>
              <P>(1) Protect persons and property on the surface or in the air from a hazard associated with an incident on the surface;</P>
              <P>(2) Provide a safe environment for the operation of disaster relief aircraft; or</P>
              <P>(3) Prevent an unsafe congestion of sightseeing and other aircraft above an incident or event which may generate a high degree of public interest.</P>
              <FP>The Notice to Airmen will specify the hazard or condition that requires the imposition of temporary flight restrictions.</FP>
              <P>(b) When a NOTAM has been issued under paragraph (a)(1) of this section, no person may operate an aircraft within the designated area unless that aircraft is participating in the hazard relief activities and is being operated under the direction of the official in charge of on scene emergency response activities.</P>
              <P>(c) When a NOTAM has been issued under paragraph (a)(2) of this section, no person may operate an aircraft within the designated area unless at least one of the following conditions are met:</P>
              <P>(1) The aircraft is participating in hazard relief activities and is being operated under the direction of the official in charge of on scene emergency response activities.</P>
              <P>(2) The aircraft is carrying law enforcement officials.</P>
              <P>(3) The aircraft is operating under the ATC approved IFR flight plan.</P>
              <P>(4) The operation is conducted directly to or from an airport within the area, or is necessitated by the impracticability of VFR flight above or around the area due to weather, or terrain; notification is given to the Flight Service Station (FSS) or ATC facility specified in the NOTAM to receive advisories concerning disaster relief aircraft operations; and the operation does not hamper or endanger relief activities and is not conducted for the purpose of observing the disaster.</P>
              <P>(5) The aircraft is carrying properly accredited news representatives, and, prior to entering the area, a flight plan is filed with the appropriate FAA or ATC facility specified in the Notice to Airmen and the operation is conducted above the altitude used by the disaster relief aircraft, unless otherwise authorized by the official in charge of on scene emergency response activities.</P>
              <P>(d) When a NOTAM has been issued under paragraph (a)(3) of this section, no person may operate an aircraft within the designated area unless at least one of the following conditions is met:</P>

              <P>(1) The operation is conducted directly to or from an airport within the <PRTPAGE P="196"/>area, or is necessitated by the impracticability of VFR flight above or around the area due to weather or terrain, and the operation is not conducted for the purpose of observing the incident or event.</P>
              <P>(2) The aircraft is operating under an ATC approved IFR flight plan.</P>
              <P>(3) The aircraft is carrying incident or event personnel, or law enforcement officials.</P>
              <P>(4) The aircraft is carrying properly accredited news representatives and, prior to entering that area, a flight plan is filed with the appropriate FSS or ATC facility specified in the NOTAM.</P>
              <P>(e) Flight plans filed and notifications made with an FSS or ATC facility under this section shall include the following information:</P>
              <P>(1) Aircraft identification, type and color.</P>
              <P>(2) Radio communications frequencies to be used.</P>
              <P>(3) Proposed times of entry of, and exit from, the designated area.</P>
              <P>(4) Name of news media or organization and purpose of flight.</P>
              <P>(5) Any other information requested by ATC.</P>
            </SECTION>
            <SECTION>
              <SECTNO>§ 91.138</SECTNO>
              <SUBJECT>Temporary flight restrictions in national disaster areas in the State of Hawaii.</SUBJECT>
              <P>(a) When the Administrator has determined, pursuant to a request and justification provided by the Governor of the State of Hawaii, or the Governor's designee, that an inhabited area within a declared national disaster area in the State of Hawaii is in need of protection for humanitarian reasons, the Administrator will issue a Notice to Airmen (NOTAM) designating an area within which temporary flight restrictions apply. The Administrator will designate the extent and duration of the temporary flight restrictions necessary to provide for the protection of persons and property on the surface.</P>
              <P>(b) When a NOTAM has been issued in accordance with this section, no person may operate an aircraft within the designated area unless at least one of the following conditions is met:</P>
              <P>(1) That person has obtained authorization from the official in charge of associated emergency or disaster relief response activities, and is operating the aircraft under the conditions of that authorization.</P>
              <P>(2) The aircraft is carrying law enforcement officials.</P>
              <P>(3) The aircraft is carrying persons involved in an emergency or a legitimate scientific purpose.</P>
              <P>(4) The aircraft is carrying properly accredited newspersons, and that prior to entering the area, a flight plan is filed with the appropriate FAA or ATC facility specified in the NOTAM and the operation is conducted in compliance with the conditions and restrictions established by the official in charge of on-scene emergency response activities.</P>
              <P>(5) The aircraft is operating in accordance with an ATC clearance or instruction.</P>
              <P>(c) A NOTAM issued under this section is effective for 90 days or until the national disaster area designation is terminated, whichever comes first, unless terminated by notice or extended by the Administrator at the request of the Governor of the State of Hawaii or the Governor's designee.</P>
              <CITA>[Doc. No. 26476, 56 FR 23178, May 20, 1991, as amended by Amdt. 91-270, 66 FR 47377, Sept. 11, 2001]</CITA>
            </SECTION>
            <SECTION>
              <SECTNO>§ 91.139</SECTNO>
              <SUBJECT>Emergency air traffic rules.</SUBJECT>
              <P>(a) This section prescribes a process for utilizing Notices to Airmen (NOTAMs) to advise of the issuance and operations under emergency air traffic rules and regulations and designates the official who is authorized to issue NOTAMs on behalf of the Administrator in certain matters under this section.</P>
              <P>(b) Whenever the Administrator determines that an emergency condition exists, or will exist, relating to the FAA's ability to operate the air traffic control system and during which normal flight operations under this chapter cannot be conducted consistent with the required levels of safety and efficiency—</P>
              <P>(1) The Administrator issues an immediately effective air traffic rule or regulation in response to that emergency condition; and</P>

              <P>(2) The Administrator or the Associate Administrator for Air Traffic <PRTPAGE P="197"/>may utilize the NOTAM system to provide notification of the issuance of the rule or regulation.
              </P>
              <FP>Those NOTAMs communicate information concerning the rules and regulations that govern flight operations, the use of navigation facilities, and designation of that airspace in which the rules and regulations apply.</FP>
              <P>(c) When a NOTAM has been issued under this section, no person may operate an aircraft, or other device governed by the regulation concerned, within the designated airspace except in accordance with the authorizations, terms, and conditions prescribed in the regulation covered by the NOTAM.</P>
            </SECTION>
            <SECTION>
              <SECTNO>§ 91.141</SECTNO>
              <SUBJECT>Flight restrictions in the proximity of the Presidential and other parties.</SUBJECT>
              <P>No person may operate an aircraft over or in the vicinity of any area to be visited or traveled by the President, the Vice President, or other public figures contrary to the restrictions established by the Administrator and published in a Notice to Airmen (NOTAM).</P>
            </SECTION>
            <SECTION>
              <SECTNO>§ 91.143</SECTNO>
              <SUBJECT>Flight limitation in the proximity of space flight operations.</SUBJECT>
              <P>No person may operate any aircraft of U.S. registry, or pilot any aircraft under the authority of an airman certificate issued by the Federal Aviation Administration within areas designated in a Notice to Airmen (NOTAM) for space flight operations except when authorized by ATC, or operated under the control of the Department of Defense Manager for Space Transportation System Contingency Support Operations.</P>
            </SECTION>
            <SECTION>
              <SECTNO>§ 91.144</SECTNO>
              <SUBJECT>Temporary restriction on flight operations during abnormally high barometric pressure conditions.</SUBJECT>
              <P>(a) <E T="03">Special flight restrictions</E>. When any information indicates that barometric pressure on the route of flight currently exceeds or will exceed 31 inches of mercury, no person may operate an aircraft or initiate a flight contrary to the requirements established by the Administrator and published in a Notice to Airmen issued under this section.</P>
              <P>(b) <E T="03">Waivers</E>. The Administrator is authorized to waive any restriction issued under paragraph (a) of this section to permit emergency supply, transport, or medical services to be delivered to isolated communities, where the operation can be conducted with an acceptable level of safety.</P>
              <CITA>[Amdt. 91-240, 59 FR 17452, Apr. 12, 1994; 59 FR 37669, July 25, 1994]</CITA>
            </SECTION>
            <SECTION>
              <SECTNO>§ 91.145</SECTNO>
              <SUBJECT>Management of aircraft operations in the vicinity of aerial demonstrations and major sporting events.</SUBJECT>
              <P>(a) The FAA will issue a Notice to Airmen (NOTAM) designating an area of airspace in which a temporary flight restriction applies when it determines that a temporary flight restriction is necessary to protect persons or property on the surface or in the air, to maintain air safety and efficiency, or to prevent the unsafe congestion of aircraft in the vicinity of an aerial demonstration or major sporting event. These demonstrations and events may include:</P>
              <P>(1) United States Naval Flight Demonstration Team (Blue Angels);</P>
              <P>(2) United States Air Force Air Demonstration Squadron (Thunderbirds);</P>
              <P>(3) United States Army Parachute Team (Golden Knights);</P>
              <P>(4) Summer/Winter Olympic Games;</P>
              <P>(5) Annual Tournament of Roses Football Game;</P>
              <P>(6) World Cup Soccer;</P>
              <P>(7) Major League Baseball All-Star Game;</P>
              <P>(8) World Series;</P>
              <P>(9) Kodak Albuquerque International Balloon Fiesta;</P>
              <P>(10) Sandia Classic Hang Gliding Competition;</P>
              <P>(11) Indianapolis 500 Mile Race;</P>
              <P>(12) Any other aerial demonstration or sporting event the FAA determines to need a temporary flight restriction in accordance with paragraph (b) of this section.</P>
              <P>(b) In deciding whether a temporary flight restriction is necessary for an aerial demonstration or major sporting event not listed in paragraph (a) of this section, the FAA considers the following factors:</P>
              <P>(1) Area where the event will be held.<PRTPAGE P="198"/>
              </P>
              <P>(2) Effect flight restrictions will have on known aircraft operations.</P>
              <P>(3) Any existing ATC airspace traffic management restrictions.</P>
              <P>(4) Estimated duration of the event.</P>
              <P>(5) Degree of public interest.</P>
              <P>(6) Number of spectators.</P>
              <P>(7) Provisions for spectator safety.</P>
              <P>(8) Number and types of participating aircraft.</P>
              <P>(9) Use of mixed high and low performance aircraft.</P>
              <P>(10) Impact on non-participating aircraft.</P>
              <P>(11) Weather minimums.</P>
              <P>(12) Emergency procedures that will be in effect.</P>
              <P>(c) A NOTAM issued under this section will state the name of the aerial demonstration or sporting event and specify the effective dates and times, the geographic features or coordinates, and any other restrictions or procedures governing flight operations in the designated airspace.</P>
              <P>(d) When a NOTAM has been issued in accordance with this section, no person may operate an aircraft or device, or engage in any activity within the designated airspace area, except in accordance with the authorizations, terms, and conditions of the temporary flight restriction published in the NOTAM, unless otherwise authorized by:</P>
              <P>(1) Air traffic control; or</P>
              <P>(2) A Flight Standards Certificate of Waiver or Authorization issued for the demonstration or event.</P>
              <P>(e) For the purpose of this section:</P>
              <P>(1) <E T="03">Flight restricted airspace area for an aerial demonstration—</E>The amount of airspace needed to protect persons and property on the surface or in the air, to maintain air safety and efficiency, or to prevent the unsafe congestion of aircraft will vary depending on the aerial demonstration and the factors listed in paragraph (b) of this section. The restricted airspace area will normally be limited to a 5 nautical mile radius from the center of the demonstration and an altitude 17000 mean sea level (for high performance aircraft) or 13000 feet above the surface (for certain parachute operations), but will be no greater than the minimum airspace necessary for the management of aircraft operations in the vicinity of the specified area.</P>
              <P>(2) <E T="03">Flight restricted area for a major sporting event—</E>The amount of airspace needed to protect persons and property on the surface or in the air, to maintain air safety and efficiency, or to prevent the unsafe congestion of aircraft will vary depending on the size of the event and the factors listed in paragraph (b) of this section. The restricted airspace will normally be limited to a 3 nautical mile radius from the center of the event and 2500 feet above the surface but will not be greater than the minimum airspace necessary for the management of aircraft operations in the vicinity of the specified area.</P>
              <P>(f) A NOTAM issued under this section will be issued at least 30 days in advance of an aerial demonstration or a major sporting event, unless the FAA finds good cause for a shorter period and explains this in the NOTAM.</P>
              <P>(g) When warranted, the FAA Administrator may exclude the following flights from the provisions of this section:</P>
              <P>(1) Essential military.</P>
              <P>(2) Medical and rescue.</P>
              <P>(3) Presidential and Vice Presidential.</P>
              <P>(4) Visiting heads of state.</P>
              <P>(5) Law enforcement and security.</P>
              <P>(6) Public health and welfare.</P>
              <CITA>[Doc. No. FAA-2000-8274, 66 FR 47378, Sept. 11, 2001]</CITA>
            </SECTION>
            <SECTION>
              <SECTNO>§§ 91.146-91.149</SECTNO>
              <RESERVED>[Reserved]</RESERVED>
            </SECTION>
          </SUBJGRP>
          <SUBJGRP>
            <HD SOURCE="HED">Visual Flight Rules</HD>
            <SECTION>
              <SECTNO>§ 91.151</SECTNO>
              <SUBJECT>Fuel requirements for flight in VFR conditions.</SUBJECT>
              <P>(a) No person may begin a flight in an airplane under VFR conditions unless (considering wind and forecast weather conditions) there is enough fuel to fly to the first point of intended landing and, assuming normal cruising speed—</P>
              <P>(1) During the day, to fly after that for at least 30 minutes; or</P>
              <P>(2) At night, to fly after that for at least 45 minutes.</P>

              <P>(b) No person may begin a flight in a rotorcraft under VFR conditions unless (considering wind and forecast weather conditions) there is enough fuel to fly to the first point of intended landing <PRTPAGE P="199"/>and, assuming normal cruising speed, to fly after that for at least 20 minutes.</P>
            </SECTION>
            <SECTION>
              <SECTNO>§ 91.153</SECTNO>
              <SUBJECT>VFR flight plan: Information required.</SUBJECT>
              <P>(a) <E T="03">Information required.</E> Unless otherwise authorized by ATC, each person filing a VFR flight plan shall include in it the following information:</P>
              <P>(1) The aircraft identification number and, if necessary, its radio call sign.</P>
              <P>(2) The type of the aircraft or, in the case of a formation flight, the type of each aircraft and the number of aircraft in the formation.</P>
              <P>(3) The full name and address of the pilot in command or, in the case of a formation flight, the formation commander.</P>
              <P>(4) The point and proposed time of departure.</P>
              <P>(5) The proposed route, cruising altitude (or flight level), and true airspeed at that altitude.</P>
              <P>(6) The point of first intended landing and the estimated elapsed time until over that point.</P>
              <P>(7) The amount of fuel on board (in hours).</P>
              <P>(8) The number of persons in the aircraft, except where that information is otherwise readily available to the FAA.</P>
              <P>(9) Any other information the pilot in command or ATC believes is necessary for ATC purposes.</P>
              <P>(b) <E T="03">Cancellation.</E> When a flight plan has been activated, the pilot in command, upon canceling or completing the flight under the flight plan, shall notify an FAA Flight Service Station or ATC facility.</P>
            </SECTION>
            <SECTION>
              <SECTNO>§ 91.155</SECTNO>
              <SUBJECT>Basic VFR weather minimums.</SUBJECT>
              <P>(a) Except as provided in paragraph (b) of this section and § 91.157, no person may operate an aircraft under VFR when the flight visibility is less, or at a distance from clouds that is less, than that prescribed for the corresponding altitude and class of airspace in the following table:</P>
              <GPOTABLE CDEF="s10,xs60,r10" COLS="3" OPTS="L2">
                <BOXHD>
                  <CHED H="1">Airspace</CHED>
                  <CHED H="1">Flight visibility</CHED>
                  <CHED H="1">Distance from clouds</CHED>
                </BOXHD>
                <ROW>
                  <ENT I="01">Class A</ENT>
                  <ENT>Not Applicable</ENT>
                  <ENT>Not Applicable.</ENT>
                </ROW>
                <ROW>
                  <ENT I="01">Class B</ENT>
                  <ENT>3 statute miles</ENT>
                  <ENT>Clear of Clouds.</ENT>
                </ROW>
                <ROW>
                  <ENT I="01">Class C</ENT>
                  <ENT>3 statute miles</ENT>
                  <ENT>500 feet below.<LI>1,000 feet above.</LI>
                    <LI>2,000 feet horizontal.</LI>
                  </ENT>
                </ROW>
                <ROW>
                  <ENT I="01">Class D</ENT>
                  <ENT>3 statute miles</ENT>
                  <ENT>500 feet below.<LI>1,000 feet above.</LI>
                    <LI>2,000 feet horizontal.</LI>
                  </ENT>
                </ROW>
                <ROW>
                  <ENT I="11">Class E:</ENT>
                </ROW>
                <ROW>
                  <ENT I="02">Less than 10,000 feet MSL</ENT>
                  <ENT>3 statute miles</ENT>
                  <ENT>500 feet below.<LI>1,000 feet above.</LI>
                    <LI>2,000 feet horizontal</LI>
                  </ENT>
                </ROW>
                <ROW>
                  <ENT I="02">At or above 10,000 feet MSL</ENT>
                  <ENT>5 statute miles</ENT>
                  <ENT>1,000 feet below.<LI>1,000 feet above.</LI>
                    <LI>1 statute mile horizontal.</LI>
                  </ENT>
                </ROW>
                <ROW>
                  <ENT I="11">Class G:</ENT>
                </ROW>
                <ROW>
                  <ENT I="02">1,200 feet or less above the surface (regardless of MSL altitude)</ENT>
                </ROW>
                <ROW>
                  <ENT I="01">Day, except as provided in § 91.155(b)</ENT>
                  <ENT>1 statute mile</ENT>
                  <ENT>Clear of clouds.</ENT>
                </ROW>
                <ROW>
                  <ENT I="01">Night, except as provided in § 91.155(b)</ENT>
                  <ENT>3 statute miles</ENT>
                  <ENT>500 feet below.<LI>1,000 feet above.</LI>
                    <LI>2,000 feet horizontal.</LI>
                  </ENT>
                </ROW>
                <ROW>
                  <ENT I="11">More than 1,200 feet above the surface but less than 10,000 feet MSL</ENT>
                </ROW>
                <ROW>
                  <ENT I="01">Day</ENT>
                  <ENT>1 statute mile</ENT>
                  <ENT>500 feet below.<LI>1,000 feet above.</LI>
                    <LI>2,000 feet horizontal.</LI>
                  </ENT>
                </ROW>
                <ROW>
                  <ENT I="01">Night</ENT>
                  <ENT>3 statute miles</ENT>
                  <ENT>500 feet below.<LI>1,000 feet above.</LI>
                    <LI>2,000 feet horizontal.</LI>
                  </ENT>
                </ROW>
                <ROW>
                  <ENT I="01">More than 1,200 feet above the surface and at or above 10,000 feet MSL</ENT>
                  <ENT>5 statute miles</ENT>
                  <ENT>1,000 feet below.<LI>1,000 feet above.</LI>
                    <LI>1 statute mile horizontal.</LI>
                  </ENT>
                </ROW>
              </GPOTABLE>
              <P>(b) <E T="03">Class G Airspace.</E> Notwithstanding the provisions of paragraph (a) of this section, the following operations may be conducted in Class G airspace below 1,200 feet above the surface:</P>
              <P>(1) <E T="03">Helicopter.</E> A helicopter may be operated clear of clouds if operated at a speed that allows the pilot adequate opportunity to see any air traffic or obstruction in time to avoid a collision.</P>
              <P>(2) <E T="03">Airplane.</E> When the visibility is less than 3 statute miles but not less than 1 statute mile during night hours, an airplane may be operated clear of clouds if operated in an airport traffic pattern within one-half mile of the runway.</P>

              <P>(c) Except as provided in § 91.157, no person may operate an aircraft beneath <PRTPAGE P="200"/>the ceiling under VFR within the lateral boundaries of controlled airspace designated to the surface for an airport when the ceiling is less than 1,000 feet.</P>
              <P>(d) Except as provided in § 91.157 of this part, no person may take off or land an aircraft, or enter the traffic pattern of an airport, under VFR, within the lateral boundaries of the surface areas of Class B, Class C, Class D, or Class E airspace designated for an airport—</P>
              <P>(1) Unless ground visibility at that airport is at least 3 statute miles; or</P>
              <P>(2) If ground visibility is not reported at that airport, unless flight visibility during landing or takeoff, or while operating in the traffic pattern is at least 3 statute miles.</P>
              <P>(e) For the purpose of this section, an aircraft operating at the base altitude of a Class E airspace area is considered to be within the airspace directly below that area.</P>
              <CITA>[Doc. No. 24458, 56 FR 65660, Dec. 17, 1991, as amended by Amdt. 91-235, 58 FR 51968, Oct. 5, 1993]</CITA>
            </SECTION>
            <SECTION>
              <SECTNO>§ 91.157</SECTNO>
              <SUBJECT>Special VFR weather minimums.</SUBJECT>
              <P>(a) Except as provided in appendix D, section 3, of this part, special VFR operations may be conducted under the weather minimums and requirements of this section, instead of those contained in § 91.155, below 10,000 feet MSL within the airspace contained by the upward extension of the lateral boundaries of the controlled airspace designated to the surface for an airport.</P>
              <P>(b) Special VFR operations may only be conducted—</P>
              <P>(1) With an ATC clearance;</P>
              <P>(2) Clear of clouds;</P>
              <P>(3) Except for helicopters, when flight visibility is at least 1 statute mile; and</P>
              <P>(4) Except for helicopters, between sunrise and sunset (or in Alaska, when the sun is 6 degrees or more below the horizon) unless—</P>
              <P>(i) The person being granted the ATC clearance meets the applicable requirements for instrument flight under part 61 of this chapter; and</P>
              <P>(ii) The aircraft is equipped as required in § 91.205(d).</P>
              <P>(c) No person may take off or land an aircraft (other than a helicopter) under special VFR—</P>
              <P>(1) Unless ground visibility is at least 1 statute mile; or</P>
              <P>(2) If ground visibility is not reported, unless flight visibility is at least 1 statute mile. For the purposes of this paragraph, the term flight visibility includes the visibility from the cockpit of an aircraft in takeoff position if:</P>
              <P>(i) The flight is conducted under this part 91; and</P>
              <P>(ii) The airport at which the aircraft is located is a satellite airport that does not have weather reporting capabilities.</P>
              <P>(d) The determination of visibility by a pilot in accordance with paragraph (c)(2) of this section is not an official weather report or an official ground visibility report.</P>
              <CITA>[Amdt. 91-235, 58 FR 51968, Oct. 5, 1993, as amended by Amdt. 91-247, 60 FR 66874, Dec. 27, 1995; Amdt. 91-262, 65 FR 16116, Mar. 24, 2000]</CITA>
            </SECTION>
            <SECTION>
              <SECTNO>§ 91.159</SECTNO>
              <SUBJECT>VFR cruising altitude or flight level.</SUBJECT>
              <EXT-XREF HREF="20031217" REFID="20">Link to an amendment published at 68 FR 70133, Dec. 17, 2003.</EXT-XREF>
              <P>Except while holding in a holding pattern of 2 minutes or less, or while turning, each person operating an aircraft under VFR in level cruising flight more than 3,000 feet above the surface shall maintain the appropriate altitude or flight level prescribed below, unless otherwise authorized by ATC:</P>
              <P>(a) When operating below 18,000 feet MSL and—</P>
              <P>(1) On a magnetic course of zero degrees through 179 degrees, any odd thousand foot MSL altitude +500 feet (such as 3,500, 5,500, or 7,500); or</P>
              <P>(2) On a magnetic course of 180 degrees through 359 degrees, any even thousand foot MSL altitude +500 feet (such as 4,500, 6,500, or 8,500).</P>
              <P>(b) When operating above 18,000 feet MSL to flight level 290 (inclusive) and—</P>
              <P>(1) On a magnetic course of zero degrees through 179 degrees, any odd flight level +500 feet (such as 195, 215, or 235); or</P>
              <P>(2) On a magnetic course of 180 degrees through 359 degrees, any even flight level +500 feet (such as 185, 205, or 225).</P>
              <P>(c) When operating above flight level 290 and—<PRTPAGE P="201"/>
              </P>
              <P>(1) On a magnetic course of zero degrees through 179 degrees, any flight level, at 4,000-foot intervals, beginning at and including flight level 300 (such as flight level 300, 340, or 380) or</P>
              <P>(2) On a magnetic course of 180 degrees through 359 degrees, any flight level, at 4,000-foot intervals, beginning at and including flight level 320 (such as flight level 320, 360, or 400).</P>
              <CITA>[Doc. No. 18334, 54 FR 34294, Aug. 18, 1989, as amended by Amdt. 91-276, 68 FR 61321, Oct. 27, 2003; 68 FR 70133, Dec. 17, 2003]</CITA>
              <EFFDNOTP>
                <HD SOURCE="HED">Effective Date Note:</HD>
                <P>By Amdt. 91-276, 68 FR 70133, Dec. 17, 2003, § 91.159 was amended by revising paragraph (b), and removing paragraph (c), effective Jan. 26, 2004. For the convenience of the user, the revised text follows:</P>
                <REVTXT>
                  <SECTION>
                    <SECTNO>§ 91.159</SECTNO>
                    <SUBJECT>VFR cruising altitude or flight level.</SUBJECT>
                    <STARS/>
                    <P>(b) When operating above 18,000 feet MSL, maintain the altitude or flight level assigned by ATC.<STARS/>
                    </P>
                  </SECTION>
                  <SECTION>
                    <SECTNO>§§ 91.161-91.165</SECTNO>
                    <RESERVED>[Reserved]</RESERVED>
                  </SECTION>
                  <SUBJGRP>
                    <HD SOURCE="HED">Instrument Flight Rules</HD>
                    <SECTION>
                      <SECTNO>§ 91.167</SECTNO>
                      <SUBJECT>Fuel requirements for flight in IFR conditions.</SUBJECT>
                      <P>(a) No person may operate a civil aircraft in IFR conditions unless it carries enough fuel (considering weather reports and forecasts and weather conditions) to—</P>
                      <P>(1) Complete the flight to the first airport of intended landing;</P>
                      <P>(2) Except as provided in paragraph (b) of this section, fly from that airport to the alternate airport; and</P>
                      <P>(3) Fly after that for 45 minutes at normal cruising speed or, for helicopters, fly after that for 30 minutes at normal cruising speed.</P>
                      <P>(b) Paragraph (a)(2) of this section does not apply if:</P>
                      <P>(1) Part 97 of this chapter prescribes a standard instrument approach procedure to, or a special instrument approach procedure has been issued by the Administrator to the operator for, the first airport of intended landing; and</P>
                      <P>(2) Appropriate weather reports or weather forecasts, or a combination of them, indicate the following:</P>
                      <P>(i) <E T="03">For aircraft other than helicopters.</E> For at least 1 hour before and for 1 hour after the estimated time of arrival, the ceiling will be at least 2,000 feet above the airport elevation and the visibility will be at least 3 statute miles.</P>
                      <P>(ii) <E T="03">For helicopters.</E> At the estimated time of arrival and for 1 hour after the estimated time of arrival, the ceiling will be at least 1,000 feet above the airport elevation, or at least 400 feet above the lowest applicable approach minima, whichever is higher, and the visibility will be at least 2 statute miles.</P>
                      <CITA>[Doc. No. 98-4390, 65 FR 3546, Jan. 21, 2000]</CITA>
                    </SECTION>
                    <SECTION>
                      <SECTNO>§ 91.169</SECTNO>
                      <SUBJECT>IFR flight plan: Information required.</SUBJECT>
                      <P>(a) <E T="03">Information required.</E> Unless otherwise authorized by ATC, each person filing an IFR flight plan must include in it the following information:</P>
                      <P>(1) Information required under § 91.153 (a) of this part;</P>
                      <P>(2) Except as provided in paragraph (b) of this section, an alternate airport.</P>
                      <P>(b) Paragraph (a)(2) of this section does not apply if :</P>
                      <P>(1) Part 97 of this chapter prescribes a standard instrument approach procedure to, or a special instrument approach procedure has been issued by the Administrator to the operator for, the first airport of intended landing; and</P>
                      <P>(2) Appropriate weather reports or weather forecasts, or a combination of them, indicate the following:</P>
                      <P>(i) <E T="03">For aircraft other than helicopters.</E> For at least 1 hour before and for 1 hour after the estimated time of arrival, the ceiling will be at least 2,000 feet above the airport elevation and the visibility will be at least 3 statute miles.</P>
                      <P>(ii) <E T="03">For helicopters.</E> At the estimated time of arrival and for 1 hour after the estimated time of arrival, the ceiling will be at least 1,000 feet above the airport elevation, or at least 400 feet above the lowest applicable approach minima, whichever is higher, and the visibility will be at least 2 statute miles.<PRTPAGE P="202"/>
                      </P>
                      <P>(c) <E T="03">IFR alternate airport weather minima.</E> Unless otherwise authorized by the Administrator, no person may include an alternate airport in an IFR flight plan unless appropriate weather reports or weather forecasts, or a combination of them, indicate that, at the estimated time of arrival at the alternate airport, the ceiling and visibility at that airport will be at or above the following weather minima:</P>
                      <P>(1) If an instrument approach procedure has been published in part 97 of this chapter, or a special instrument approach procedure has been issued by the Administrator to the operator, for that airport, the following minima:</P>
                      <P>(i) <E T="03">For aircraft other than helicopters:</E> The alternate airport minima specified in that procedure, or if none are specified the following standard approach minima:</P>
                      <P>(A) <E T="03">For a precision approach procedure.</E> Ceiling 600 feet and visibility 2 statute miles.</P>
                      <P>(B) <E T="03">For a nonprecision approach procedure.</E> Ceiling 800 feet and visibility 2 statute miles.</P>
                      <P>(ii) <E T="03">For helicopters:</E> Ceiling 200 feet above the minimum for the approach to be flown, and visibility at least 1 statute mile but never less than the minimum visibility for the approach to be flown, and</P>
                      <P>(2) If no instrument approach procedure has been published in part 97 of this chapter and no special instrument approach procedure has been issued by the Administrator to the operator, for the alternate airport, the ceiling and visibility minima are those allowing descent from the MEA, approach, and landing under basic VFR.</P>
                      <P>(d) <E T="03">Cancellation.</E> When a flight plan has been activated, the pilot in command, upon canceling or completing the flight under the flight plan, shall notify an FAA Flight Service Station or ATC facility.</P>
                      <CITA>[Doc. No. 18334, 54 FR 34294, Aug. 18, 1989, as amended by Amdt. 91-259, 65 FR 3546, Jan. 21, 2000]</CITA>
                    </SECTION>
                    <SECTION>
                      <SECTNO>§ 91.171</SECTNO>
                      <SUBJECT>VOR equipment check for IFR operations.</SUBJECT>
                      <P>(a) No person may operate a civil aircraft under IFR using the VOR system of radio navigation unless the VOR equipment of that aircraft—</P>
                      <P>(1) Is maintained, checked, and inspected under an approved procedure; or</P>
                      <P>(2) Has been operationally checked within the preceding 30 days, and was found to be within the limits of the permissible indicated bearing error set forth in paragraph (b) or (c) of this section.</P>
                      <P>(b) Except as provided in paragraph (c) of this section, each person conducting a VOR check under paragraph (a)(2) of this section shall—</P>
                      <P>(1) Use, at the airport of intended departure, an FAA-operated or approved test signal or a test signal radiated by a certificated and appropriately rated radio repair station or, outside the United States, a test signal operated or approved by an appropriate authority to check the VOR equipment (the maximum permissible indicated bearing error is plus or minus 4 degrees); or</P>
                      <P>(2) Use, at the airport of intended departure, a point on the airport surface designated as a VOR system checkpoint by the Administrator, or, outside the United States, by an appropriate authority (the maximum permissible bearing error is plus or minus 4 degrees);</P>
                      <P>(3) If neither a test signal nor a designated checkpoint on the surface is available, use an airborne checkpoint designated by the Administrator or, outside the United States, by an appropriate authority (the maximum permissible bearing error is plus or minus 6 degrees); or</P>
                      <P>(4) If no check signal or point is available, while in flight—</P>
                      <P>(i) Select a VOR radial that lies along the centerline of an established VOR airway;</P>
                      <P>(ii) Select a prominent ground point along the selected radial preferably more than 20 nautical miles from the VOR ground facility and maneuver the aircraft directly over the point at a reasonably low altitude; and</P>
                      <P>(iii) Note the VOR bearing indicated by the receiver when over the ground point (the maximum permissible variation between the published radial and the indicated bearing is 6 degrees).</P>

                      <P>(c) If dual system VOR (units independent of each other except for the antenna) is installed in the aircraft, the person checking the equipment <PRTPAGE P="203"/>may check one system against the other in place of the check procedures specified in paragraph (b) of this section. Both systems shall be tuned to the same VOR ground facility and note the indicated bearings to that station. The maximum permissible variation between the two indicated bearings is 4 degrees.</P>
                      <P>(d) Each person making the VOR operational check, as specified in paragraph (b) or (c) of this section, shall enter the date, place, bearing error, and sign the aircraft log or other record. In addition, if a test signal radiated by a repair station, as specified in paragraph (b)(1) of this section, is used, an entry must be made in the aircraft log or other record by the repair station certificate holder or the certificate holder's representative certifying to the bearing transmitted by the repair station for the check and the date of transmission.</P>
                      <APPRO>(Approved by the Office of Management and Budget under control number 2120-0005)</APPRO>
                    </SECTION>
                    <SECTION>
                      <SECTNO>§ 91.173</SECTNO>
                      <SUBJECT>ATC clearance and flight plan required.</SUBJECT>
                      <P>No person may operate an aircraft in controlled airspace under IFR unless that person has—</P>
                      <P>(a) Filed an IFR flight plan; and</P>
                      <P>(b) Received an appropriate ATC clearance.</P>
                    </SECTION>
                    <SECTION>
                      <SECTNO>§ 91.175</SECTNO>
                      <SUBJECT>Takeoff and landing under IFR.</SUBJECT>
                      <P>(a) <E T="03">Instrument approaches to civil airports.</E>
                      </P>
                      <P>Unless otherwise authorized by the Administrator, when an instrument letdown to a civil airport is necessary, each person operating an aircraft, except a military aircraft of the United States, shall use a standard instrument approach procedure prescribed for the airport in part 97 of this chapter.</P>
                      <P>(b) <E T="03">Authorized DH or MDA.</E> For the purpose of this section, when the approach procedure being used provides for and requires the use of a DH or MDA, the authorized DH or MDA is the highest of the following:</P>
                      <P>(1) The DH or MDA prescribed by the approach procedure.</P>
                      <P>(2) The DH or MDA prescribed for the pilot in command.</P>
                      <P>(3) The DH or MDA for which the aircraft is equipped.</P>
                      <P>(c) <E T="03">Operation below DH or MDA.</E> Where a DH or MDA is applicable, no pilot may operate an aircraft, except a military aircraft of the United States, at any airport below the authorized MDA or continue an approach below the authorized DH unless—</P>
                      <P>(1) The aircraft is continuously in a position from which a descent to a landing on the intended runway can be made at a normal rate of descent using normal maneuvers, and for operations conducted under part 121 or part 135 unless that descent rate will allow touchdown to occur within the touchdown zone of the runway of intended landing;</P>
                      <P>(2) The flight visibility is not less than the visibility prescribed in the standard instrument approach being used; and</P>
                      <P>(3) Except for a Category II or Category III approach where any necessary visual reference requirements are specified by the Administrator, at least one of the following visual references for the intended runway is distinctly visible and identifiable to the pilot:</P>
                      <P>(i) The approach light system, except that the pilot may not descend below 100 feet above the touchdown zone elevation using the approach lights as a reference unless the red terminating bars or the red side row bars are also distinctly visible and identifiable.</P>
                      <P>(ii) The threshold.</P>
                      <P>(iii) The threshold markings.</P>
                      <P>(iv) The threshold lights.</P>
                      <P>(v) The runway end identifier lights.</P>
                      <P>(vi) The visual approach slope indicator.</P>
                      <P>(vii) The touchdown zone or touchdown zone markings.</P>
                      <P>(viii) The touchdown zone lights.</P>
                      <P>(ix) The runway or runway markings.</P>
                      <P>(x) The runway lights.</P>
                      <P>(d) <E T="03">Landing.</E> No pilot operating an aircraft, except a military aircraft of the United States, may land that aircraft when the flight visibility is less than the visibility prescribed in the standard instrument approach procedure being used.</P>
                      <P>(e) <E T="03">Missed approach procedures.</E> Each pilot operating an aircraft, except a military aircraft of the United States, <PRTPAGE P="204"/>shall immediately execute an appropriate missed approach procedure when either of the following conditions exist:</P>
                      <P>(1) Whenever the requirements of paragraph (c) of this section are not met at either of the following times:</P>
                      <P>(i) When the aircraft is being operated below MDA; or</P>
                      <P>(ii) Upon arrival at the missed approach point, including a DH where a DH is specified and its use is required, and at any time after that until touchdown.</P>
                      <P>(2) Whenever an identifiable part of the airport is not distinctly visible to the pilot during a circling maneuver at or above MDA, unless the inability to see an identifiable part of the airport results only from a normal bank of the aircraft during the circling approach.</P>
                      <P>(f) <E T="03">Civil airport takeoff minimums.</E> Unless otherwise authorized by the Administrator, no pilot operating an aircraft under parts 121, 125,  129, or 135 of this chapter may take off from a civil airport under IFR unless weather conditions are at or above the weather minimum for IFR takeoff prescribed for that airport under part 97 of this chapter. If takeoff minimums are not prescribed under part 97 of this chapter for a particular airport, the following minimums apply to takeoffs under IFR for aircraft operating under those parts:</P>
                      <P>(1) For aircraft, other than helicopters, having two engines or less—1 statute mile visibility.</P>
                      <P>(2) For aircraft having more than two engines—<FR>1/2</FR> statute mile visibility.</P>
                      <P>(3) For helicopters—<FR>1/2</FR> statute mile visibility.</P>
                      <P>(g) <E T="03">Military airports.</E> Unless otherwise prescribed by the Administrator, each person operating a civil aircraft under IFR into or out of a military airport shall comply with the instrument approach procedures and the takeoff and landing minimum prescribed by the military authority having jurisdiction of that airport.</P>
                      <P>(h) <E T="03">Comparable values of RVR and ground visibility.</E> (1) Except for Category II or Category III minimums, if RVR minimums for takeoff or landing are prescribed in an instrument approach procedure, but RVR is not reported for the runway of intended operation, the RVR minimum shall be converted to ground visibility in accordance with the table in paragraph (h)(2) of this section and shall be the visibility minimum for takeoff or landing on that runway.</P>
                      <P>(2)</P>
                      <GPOTABLE CDEF="s25,10" COLS="2" OPTS="L2,i1">
                        <BOXHD>
                          <CHED H="1">RVR (feet)</CHED>
                          <CHED H="1">Visibility (statute miles)</CHED>
                        </BOXHD>
                        <ROW>
                          <ENT I="01">1,600</ENT>
                          <ENT>
                            <FR>1/4</FR>
                          </ENT>
                        </ROW>
                        <ROW>
                          <ENT I="01">2,400</ENT>
                          <ENT>
                            <FR>1/2</FR>
                          </ENT>
                        </ROW>
                        <ROW>
                          <ENT I="01">3,200</ENT>
                          <ENT>
                            <FR>5/8</FR>
                          </ENT>
                        </ROW>
                        <ROW>
                          <ENT I="01">4,000</ENT>
                          <ENT>
                            <FR>3/4</FR>
                          </ENT>
                        </ROW>
                        <ROW>
                          <ENT I="01">4,500</ENT>
                          <ENT>
                            <FR>7/8</FR>
                          </ENT>
                        </ROW>
                        <ROW>
                          <ENT I="01">5,000</ENT>
                          <ENT>1</ENT>
                        </ROW>
                        <ROW>
                          <ENT I="01">6,000</ENT>
                          <ENT>1<FR>1/4</FR>
                          </ENT>
                        </ROW>
                      </GPOTABLE>
                      <P>(i) <E T="03">Operations on unpublished routes and use of radar in instrument approach procedures.</E> When radar is approved at certain locations for ATC purposes, it may be used not only for surveillance and precision radar approaches, as applicable, but also may be used in conjunction with instrument approach procedures predicated on other types of radio navigational aids. Radar vectors may be authorized to provide course guidance through the segments of an approach to the final course or fix. When operating on an unpublished route or while being radar vectored, the pilot, when anapproach clearance is received, shall, in addition to complying with § 91.177, maintain the last altitude assigned to that pilot until the aircraft is established on a segment of a published route or instrument approach procedure unless a different altitude is assigned by ATC. After the aircraft is so established, published altitudes apply to descent within each succeeding route or approach segment unless a different altitude is assigned by ATC. Upon reaching the final approach course or fix, the pilot may either complete the instrument approach in accordance with a procedure approved for the facility or continue a surveillance or precision radar approach to a landing.</P>
                      <P>(j) <E T="03">Limitation on procedure turns.</E> In the case of a radar vector to a final approach course or fix, a timed approach from a holding fix, or an approach for which the procedure specifies “No PT,” no pilot may make a procedure turn unless cleared to do so by ATC.</P>
                      <P>(k) <E T="03">ILS components.</E> The basic ground components of an ILS are the localizer, <PRTPAGE P="205"/>glide slope, outer marker, middle marker, and, when installed for use with Category II or Category III instrument approach procedures, an inner marker. A compass locator or precision radar may be substituted for the outer or middle marker. DME, VOR, or nondirectional beacon fixes authorized in the standard instrument approach procedure or surveillance radar may be substituted for the outer marker. Applicability of, and substitution for, the inner marker for Category II or III approaches is determined by the appropriate part 97 approach procedure, letter of authorization, or operations specification pertinent to the operations.</P>
                      <CITA>[Doc. No. 18334, 54 FR 34294, Aug. 18, 1989, as amended by Amdt. 91-267, 66 FR 21066, Apr. 27, 2001]</CITA>
                    </SECTION>
                    <SECTION>
                      <SECTNO>§ 91.177</SECTNO>
                      <SUBJECT>Minimum altitudes for IFR operations.</SUBJECT>
                      <P>(a) <E T="03">Operation of aircraft at minimum altitudes.</E> Except when necessary for takeoff or landing, no person may operate an aircraft under IFR below—</P>
                      <P>(1) The applicable minimum altitudes prescribed in parts 95 and 97 of this chapter; or</P>
                      <P>(2) If no applicable minimum altitude is prescribed in those parts—</P>
                      <P>(i) In the case of operations over an area designated as a mountainous area in part 95, an altitude of 2,000 feet above the highest obstacle within a horizontal distance of 4 nautical miles from the course to be flown; or</P>
                      <P>(ii) In any other case, an altitude of 1,000 feet above the highest obstacle within a horizontal distance of 4 nautical miles from the course to be flown.</P>
                      <FP>However, if both a MEA and a MOCA are prescribed for a particular route or route segment, a person may operate an aircraft below the MEA down to, but not below, the MOCA, when within 22 nautical miles of the VOR concerned (based on the pilot's reasonable estimate of that distance).</FP>
                      <P>(b) <E T="03">Climb.</E> Climb to a higher minimum IFR altitude shall begin immediately after passing the point beyond which that minimum altitude applies, except that when ground obstructions intervene, the point beyond which that higher minimum altitude applies shall be crossed at or above the applicable MCA.</P>
                    </SECTION>
                    <SECTION>
                      <SECTNO>§ 91.179</SECTNO>
                      <SUBJECT>IFR cruising altitude or flight level.</SUBJECT>
                      <EXT-XREF HREF="20031217" REFID="22">Link to an amendment published at 68 FR 70133, Dec. 17, 2003.</EXT-XREF>
                      <P>(a) <E T="03">In controlled airspace.</E> Each person operating an aircraft under IFR in level cruising flight in controlled airspace shall maintain the altitude or flight level assigned that aircraft by ATC. However, if the ATC clearance assigns “VFR conditions on-top,” that person shall maintain an altitude or flight level as prescribed by § 91.159.</P>
                      <P>(b) <E T="03">In uncontrolled airspace.</E> Except while in a holding pattern of 2 minutes or less or while turning, each person operating an aircraft under IFR in level cruising flight in uncontrolled airspace shall maintain an appropriate altitude as follows:</P>
                      <P>(1) When operating below 18,000 feet MSL and—</P>
                      <P>(i) On a magnetic course of zero degrees through 179 degrees, any odd thousand foot MSL altitude (such as 3,000, 5,000, or 7,000); or</P>
                      <P>(ii) On a magnetic course of 180 degrees through 359 degrees, any even thousand foot MSL altitude (such as 2,000, 4,000, or 6,000).</P>
                      <P>(2) When operating at or above 18,000 feet MSL but below flight level 290, and—</P>
                      <P>(i) On a magnetic course of zero degrees through 179 degrees, any odd flight level (such as 190, 210, or 230); or</P>
                      <P>(ii) On a magnetic course of 180 degrees through 359 degrees, any even flight level (such as 180, 200, or 220).</P>
                      <P>(3) When operating at flight level 290 and above airspace, and—</P>
                      <P>(i) On a magnetic course of zero degrees through 179 degrees, any flight level, at 4,000-foot intervals, beginning at and including flight level 290 (such as flight level 290, 330, or 370); or</P>
                      <P>(ii) On a magnetic course of 180 degrees through 359 degrees, any flight level, at 4,000-foot intervals, beginning at and including flight level 310 (such as flight level 310, 350, or 390).</P>
                      <CITA>[Doc. No. 18334, 54 FR 34294, Aug. 18, 1989, as amended by Amdt. 91-276, 68 FR 61321, Oct. 27, 2003; 68 FR 70133, Dec. 17, 2003]</CITA>
                      <EFFDNOTP>
                        <HD SOURCE="HED">Effective Date Note:</HD>

                        <P>By Amdt. 91-276, 68 FR 70133, Dec. 17, 2003, § 91.179 was amended by revising paragraph (b)(3) introductory <PRTPAGE P="206"/>text, and adding a new paragraph (b)(4), effective Jan. 26, 2004. For the convenience of the user, the revised text follows:</P>
                        <REVTXT>
                          <SECTION>
                            <SECTNO>§ 91.179</SECTNO>
                            <SUBJECT>IFR cruising altitude or flight level.</SUBJECT>
                            <P>(b) * * *</P>
                            <P>(3) When operating at flight level 290 and above in non-RVSM airspace, and—<STARS/>
                            </P>
                            <P>(4) When operating at flight level 290 and above in airspace designated as Reduced Vertical Separation Minimum (RVSM) airspace and—</P>
                            <P>(i) On a magnetic course of zero degrees through 179 degrees, any odd flight level, at 2,000-foot intervals beginning at and including flight level 290 (such as flight level 290, 310, 330, 350, 370, 390, 410); or</P>
                            <P>(ii) On a magnetic course of 180 degrees through 359 degrees, any even flight level, at 2000-foot intervals beginning at and including flight level 300 (such as 300, 320, 340, 360, 380, 400).</P>
                          </SECTION>
                          <SECTION>
                            <SECTNO>§ 91.180</SECTNO>
                            <SUBJECT>Operations within airspace designated as Reduced Vertical Separation Minimum airspace.</SUBJECT>
                            <EXT-XREF HREF="20031217" REFID="24">Link to an amendment published at 68 FR 70133, Dec. 17, 2003.</EXT-XREF>
                            <P>(a) Except as provided in paragraph (b) of this section, no person may operate a civil aircraft in airspace designated as Reduced Vertical Separation Minimum (RVSM) airspace unless:</P>
                            <P>(1) The operator and the operator's aircraft comply with the minimum standards of appendix G of this part; and</P>
                            <P>(2) The operator is authorized by the Administrator or the country of registry to conduct such operations.</P>
                            <P>(b) The Administrator may authorize a deviation from the requirements of this section.</P>
                            <CITA>[Amdt. 91-276, 68 FR 70133, Dec. 17, 2003]</CITA>
                            <EFFDNOT>
                              <HD SOURCE="HED">Effective Date Note:</HD>
                              <P>By Doc. No. FAA-2002-12261, § 91.180 was added, effective Jan. 26, 2004.</P>
                            </EFFDNOT>
                          </SECTION>
                          <SECTION>
                            <SECTNO>§ 91.181</SECTNO>
                            <SUBJECT>Course to be flown.</SUBJECT>
                            <P>Unless otherwise authorized by ATC, no person may operate an aircraft within controlled airspace under IFR except as follows:</P>
                            <P>(a) On a Federal airway, along the centerline of that airway.</P>
                            <P>(b) On any other route, along the direct course between the navigational aids or fixes defining that route. However, this section does not prohibit maneuvering the aircraft to pass well clear of other air traffic or the maneuvering of the aircraft in VFR conditions to clear the intended flight path both before and during climb or descent.</P>
                          </SECTION>
                          <SECTION>
                            <SECTNO>§ 91.183</SECTNO>
                            <SUBJECT>IFR radio communications.</SUBJECT>
                            <P>The pilot in command of each aircraft operated under IFR in controlled airspace shall have a continuous watch maintained on the appropriate frequency and shall report by radio as soon as possible—</P>
                            <P>(a) The time and altitude of passing each designated reporting point, or the reporting points specified by ATC, except that while the aircraft is under radar control, only the passing of those reporting points specifically requested by ATC need be reported;</P>
                            <P>(b) Any unforecast weather conditions encountered; and</P>
                            <P>(c) Any other information relating to the safety of flight.</P>
                          </SECTION>
                          <SECTION>
                            <SECTNO>§ 91.185</SECTNO>
                            <SUBJECT>IFR operations: Two-way radio communications failure.</SUBJECT>
                            <P>(a) <E T="03">General.</E> Unless otherwise authorized by ATC, each pilot who has two-way radio communications failure when operating under IFR shall comply with the rules of this section.</P>
                            <P>(b) <E T="03">VFR conditions.</E> If the failure occurs in VFR conditions, or if VFR conditions are encountered after the failure, each pilot shall continue the flight under VFR and land as soon as practicable.</P>
                            <P>(c) <E T="03">IFR conditions.</E> If the failure occurs in IFR conditions, or if paragraph (b) of this section cannot be complied with, each pilot shall continue the flight according to the following:</P>
                            <P>(1) <E T="03">Route.</E> (i) By the route assigned in the last ATC clearance received;</P>
                            <P>(ii) If being radar vectored, by the direct route from the point of radio failure to the fix, route, or airway specified in the vector clearance;</P>
                            <P>(iii) In the absence of an assigned route, by the route that ATC has advised may be expected in a further clearance; or</P>
                            <P>(iv) In the absence of an assigned route or a route that ATC has advised may be expected in a further clearance, by the route filed in the flight plan.</P>
                            <P>(2) <E T="03">Altitude.</E> At the highest of the following altitudes or flight levels for the route segment being flown:<PRTPAGE P="207"/>
                            </P>
                            <P>(i) The altitude or flight level assigned in the last ATC clearance received;</P>
                            <P>(ii) The minimum altitude (converted, if appropriate, to minimum flight level as prescribed in § 91.121(c)) for IFR operations; or</P>
                            <P>(iii) The altitude or flight level ATC has advised may be expected in a further clearance.</P>
                            <P>(3) <E T="03">Leave clearance limit.</E> (i) When the clearance limit is a fix from which an approach begins, commence descent or descent and approach as close as possible to the expect-further-clearance time if one has been received, or if one has not been received, as close as possible to the estimated time of arrival as calculated from the filed or amended (with ATC) estimated time en route.</P>
                            <P>(ii) If the clearance limit is not a fix from which an approach begins, leave the clearance limit at the expect-further-clearance time if one has been received, or if none has been received, upon arrival over the clearance limit, and proceed to a fix from which an approach begins and commence descent or descent and approach as close as possible to the estimated time of arrival as calculated from the filed or amended (with ATC) estimated time en route.</P>
                            <CITA>[Doc. No. 18334, 54 FR 34294, Aug. 18, 1989; Amdt. 91-211, 54 FR 41211, Oct. 5, 1989]</CITA>
                          </SECTION>
                          <SECTION>
                            <SECTNO>§ 91.187</SECTNO>
                            <SUBJECT>Operation under IFR in controlled airspace: Malfunction reports.</SUBJECT>
                            <P>(a) The pilot in command of each aircraft operated in controlled airspace under IFR shall report as soon as practical to ATC any malfunctions of navigational, approach, or communication equipment occurring in flight.</P>
                            <P>(b) In each report required by paragraph (a) of this section, the pilot in command shall include the—</P>
                            <P>(1) Aircraft identification;</P>
                            <P>(2) Equipment affected;</P>
                            <P>(3) Degree to which the capability of the pilot to operate under IFR in the ATC system is impaired; and</P>
                            <P>(4) Nature and extent of assistance desired from ATC.</P>
                          </SECTION>
                          <SECTION>
                            <SECTNO>§ 91.189</SECTNO>
                            <SUBJECT>Category II and III operations: General operating rules.</SUBJECT>
                            <P>(a) No person may operate a civil aircraft in a Category II or III operation unless—</P>
                            <P>(1) The flight crew of the aircraft consists of a pilot in command and a second in command who hold the appropriate authorizations and ratings prescribed in § 61.3 of this chapter;</P>
                            <P>(2) Each flight crewmember has adequate knowledge of, and familiarity with, the aircraft and the procedures to be used; and</P>
                            <P>(3) The instrument panel in front of the pilot who is controlling the aircraft has appropriate instrumentation for the type of flight control guidance system that is being used.</P>
                            <P>(b) Unless otherwise authorized by the Administrator, no person may operate a civil aircraft in a Category II or Category III operation unless each ground component required for that operation and the related airborne equipment is installed and operating.</P>
                            <P>(c) <E T="03">Authorized DH.</E> For the purpose of this section, when the approach procedure being used provides for and requires the use of a DH, the authorized DH is the highest of the following:</P>
                            <P>(1) The DH prescribed by the approach procedure.</P>
                            <P>(2) The DH prescribed for the pilot in command.</P>
                            <P>(3) The DH for which the aircraft is equipped.</P>
                            <P>(d) Unless otherwise authorized by the Administrator, no pilot operating an aircraft in a Category II or Category III approach that provides and requires use of a DH may continue the approach below the authorized decision height unless the following conditions are met:</P>
                            <P>(1) The aircraft is in a position from which a descent to a landing on the intended runway can be made at a normal rate of descent using normal maneuvers, and where that descent rate will allow touchdown to occur within the touchdown zone of the runway of intended landing.</P>
                            <P>(2) At least one of the following visual references for the intended runway is distinctly visible and identifiable to the pilot:</P>

                            <P>(i) The approach light system, except that the pilot may not descend below <PRTPAGE P="208"/>100 feet above the touchdown zone elevation using the approach lights as a reference unless the red terminating bars or the red side row bars are also distinctly visible and identifiable.</P>
                            <P>(ii) The threshold.</P>
                            <P>(iii) The threshold markings.</P>
                            <P>(iv) The threshold lights.</P>
                            <P>(v) The touchdown zone or touchdown zone markings.</P>
                            <P>(vi) The touchdown zone lights.</P>
                            <P>(e) Unless otherwise authorized by the Administrator, each pilot operating an aircraft shall immediately execute an appropriate missed approach whenever, prior to touchdown, the requirements of paragraph (d) of this section are not met.</P>
                            <P>(f) No person operating an aircraft using a Category III approach without decision height may land that aircraft except in accordance with the provisions of the letter of authorization issued by the Administrator.</P>
                            <P>(g) Paragraphs (a) through (f) of this section do not apply to operations conducted by certificate holders operating under part 121, 125, 129, or 135 of this chapter, or holders of management specifications issued in accordance with subpart K of this part. Holders of operations specifications or management specifications may operate a civil aircraft in a Category II or Category III operation only in accordance with their operations specifications or management specifications, as applicable.</P>
                            <CITA>[Doc. No. 18334, 54 FR 34294, Aug. 18, 1989, as amended by Amdt. 91-274, 68 FR 54560, Sept. 17, 2003]</CITA>
                          </SECTION>
                          <SECTION>
                            <SECTNO>§ 91.191</SECTNO>
                            <SUBJECT>Category II and Category III manual.</SUBJECT>
                            <P>(a) Except as provided in paragraph (c) of this section, after August 4, 1997, no person may operate a U.S.-registered civil aircraft in a Category II or a Category III operation unless—</P>
                            <P>(1) There is available in the aircraft a current and approved Category II or Category III manual, as appropriate, for that aircraft;</P>
                            <P>(2) The operation is conducted in accordance with the procedures, instructions, and limitations in the appropriate manual; and</P>
                            <P>(3) The instruments and equipment listed in the manual that are required for a particular Category II or Category III operation have been inspected and maintained in accordance with the maintenance program contained in the manual.</P>
                            <P>(b) Each operator must keep a current copy of each approved manual at its principal base of operations and must make each manual available for inspection upon request by the Administrator.</P>
                            <P>(c) This section does not apply to operations conducted by a certificate holder operating under part 121 or part 135 of this chapter or a holder of management specifications issued in accordance with subpart K of this part.</P>
                            <CITA>[Doc. No. 26933, 61 FR 34560, July 2, 1996, as amended by Amdt. 91-274, 68 FR 54560, Sept. 17, 2003]</CITA>
                          </SECTION>
                          <SECTION>
                            <SECTNO>§ 91.193</SECTNO>
                            <SUBJECT>Certificate of authorization for certain Category II operations.</SUBJECT>
                            <P>The Administrator may issue a certificate of authorization authorizing deviations from the requirements of §§ 91.189, 91.191, and 91.205(f) for the operation of small aircraft identified as Category A aircraft in § 97.3 of this chapter in Category II operations if the Administrator finds that the proposed operation can be safely conducted under the terms of the certificate. Such authorization does not permit operation of the aircraft carrying persons or property for compensation or hire.</P>
                          </SECTION>
                          <SECTION>
                            <SECTNO>§§ 91.195-91.199</SECTNO>
                            <RESERVED>[Reserved]</RESERVED>
                          </SECTION>
                          <SUBPART>
                            <HD SOURCE="HED">Subpart C—Equipment, Instrument, and Certificate Requirements</HD>
                            <SOURCE>
                              <HD SOURCE="HED">Source:</HD>
                              <P>Docket No. 18334, 54 FR 34304, Aug. 18, 1989, unless otherwise noted.</P>
                            </SOURCE>
                            <SECTION>
                              <SECTNO>§ 91.201</SECTNO>
                              <RESERVED>[Reserved]</RESERVED>
                            </SECTION>
                            <SECTION>
                              <SECTNO>§ 91.203</SECTNO>
                              <SUBJECT>Civil aircraft: Certifications required.</SUBJECT>
                              <P>(a) Except as provided in § 91.715, no person may operate a civil aircraft unless it has within it the following:</P>

                              <P>(1) An appropriate and current airworthiness certificate. Each U.S. airworthiness certificate used to comply with this subparagraph (except a special flight permit, a copy of the applicable operations specifications issued <PRTPAGE P="209"/>under § 21.197(c) of this chapter, appropriate sections of the air carrier manual required by parts 121 and 135 of this chapter containing that portion of the operations specifications issued under § 21.197(c), or an authorization under § 91.611) must have on it the registration number assigned to the aircraft under part 47 of this chapter. However, the airworthiness certificate need not have on it an assigned special identification number before 10 days after that number is first affixed to the aircraft. A revised airworthiness certificate having on it an assigned special identification number, that has been affixed to an aircraft, may only be obtained upon application to an FAA Flight Standards district office.</P>
                              <P>(2) An effective U.S. registration certificate issued to its owner or, for operation within the United States, the second duplicate copy (pink) of the Aircraft Registration Application as provided for in § 47.31(b), or a registration certificate issued under the laws of a foreign country.</P>
                              <P>(b) No person may operate a civil aircraft unless the airworthiness certificate required by paragraph (a) of this section or a special flight authorization issued under § 91.715 is displayed at the cabin or cockpit entrance so that it is legible to passengers or crew.</P>
                              <P>(c) No person may operate an aircraft with a fuel tank installed within the passenger compartment or a baggage compartment unless the installation was accomplished pursuant to part 43 of this chapter, and a copy of FAA Form 337 authorizing that installation is on board the aircraft.</P>
                              <P>(d) No person may operate a civil airplane (domestic or foreign) into or out of an airport in the United States unless it complies with the fuel venting and exhaust emissions requirements of part 34 of this chapter.</P>
                              <CITA>[Doc. No. 18334, 54 FR 34292, Aug. 18, 1989, as amended by Amdt. 91-218, 55 FR 32861, Aug. 10, 1990]</CITA>
                            </SECTION>
                            <SECTION>
                              <SECTNO>§ 91.205</SECTNO>
                              <SUBJECT>Powered civil aircraft with standard category U.S. airworthiness certificates: Instrument and equipment requirements.</SUBJECT>
                              <P>(a) <E T="03">General.</E> Except as provided in paragraphs (c)(3) and (e) of this section, no person may operate a powered civil aircraft with a standard category U.S. airworthiness certificate in any operation described in paragraphs (b) through (f) of this section unless that aircraft contains the instruments and equipment specified in those paragraphs (or FAA-approved equivalents) for that type of operation, and those instruments and items of equipment are in operable condition.</P>
                              <P>(b) <E T="03">Visual-flight rules (day).</E> For VFR flight during the day, the following instruments and equipment are required:</P>
                              <P>(1) Airspeed indicator.</P>
                              <P>(2) Altimeter.</P>
                              <P>(3) Magnetic direction indicator.</P>
                              <P>(4) Tachometer for each engine.</P>
                              <P>(5) Oil pressure gauge for each engine using pressure system.</P>
                              <P>(6) Temperature gauge for each liquid-cooled engine.</P>
                              <P>(7) Oil temperature gauge for each air-cooled engine.</P>
                              <P>(8) Manifold pressure gauge for each altitude engine.</P>
                              <P>(9) Fuel gauge indicating the quantity of fuel in each tank.</P>
                              <P>(10) Landing gear position indicator, if the aircraft has a retractable landing gear.</P>
                              <P>(11) For small civil airplanes certificated after March 11, 1996, in accordance with part 23 of this chapter, an approved aviation red or aviation white anticollision light system. In the event of failure of any light of the anticollision light system, operation of the aircraft may continue to a location where repairs or replacement can be made.</P>
                              <P>(12) If the aircraft is operated for hire over water and beyond power-off gliding distance from shore, approved flotation gear readily available to each occupant and at least one pyrotechnic signaling device. As used in this section, “shore” means that area of the land adjacent to the water which is above the high water mark and excludes land areas which are intermittently under water.</P>
                              <P>(13) An approved safety belt with an approved metal-to-metal latching device for each occupant 2 years of age or older.</P>

                              <P>(14) For small civil airplanes manufactured after July 18, 1978, an approved shoulder harness for each front <PRTPAGE P="210"/>seat. The shoulder harness must be designed to protect the occupant from serious head injury when the occupant experiences the ultimate inertia forces specified in § 23.561(b)(2) of this chapter. Each shoulder harness installed at a flight crewmember station must permit the crewmember, when seated and with the safety belt and shoulder harness fastened, to perform all functions necessary for flight operations. For purposes of this paragraph—</P>
                              <P>(i) The date of manufacture of an airplane is the date the inspection acceptance records reflect that the airplane is complete and meets the FAA-approve