The restrictions of these regulations upon the disclosure and use of drug abuse patient records were initially authorized by section 408 of the Drug Abuse Prevention, Treatment, and Rehabilitation Act (21 U.S.C. 1175). That section as amended was transferred by Pub. L. 98-24 to section 527 of the Public Health Service Act which is codified at 42 U.S.C. 290ee-3. The amended statutory authority is set forth below:

The restrictions of these regulations upon the disclosure and use of alcohol abuse patient records were initially authorized by section 333 of the Comprehensive Alcohol Abuse and Alcoholism Prevention, Treatment, and Rehabilitation Act of 1970 (42 U.S.C. 4582). The section as amended was transferred by Pub. L. 98-24 to section 523 of the Public Health Service Act which is codified at 42 U.S.C. 290dd-3. The amended statutory authority is set forth below:

Under 42 U.S.C. 290ee-3(f) and 42 U.S.C. 290dd-3(f), any person who violates any provision of those statutes or these regulations shall be fined not more than $500 in the case of a first offense, and not more than $5,000 in the case of each subsequent offense.

(a) The report of any violation of these regulations may be directed to the United States Attorney for the judicial district in which the violation occurs.

(b) The report of any violation of these regulations by a methadone program may be directed to the Regional Offices of the Food and Drug Administration.

For purposes of these regulations:

Alcohol abuse means the use of an alcoholic beverage which impairs the physical, mental, emotional, or social well-being of the user.

Drug abuse means the use of a psychoactive substance for other than medicinal purposes which impairs the physical, mental, emotional, or social well-being of the user.

Diagnosis means any reference to an individual's alcohol or drug abuse or to a condition which is identified as having been caused by that abuse which is made for the purpose of treatment or referral for treatment.

Disclose or disclosure means a communication of patient indentifying information, the affirmative verification of another person's communication of patient identifying information, or the communication of any information from the record of a patient who has been identified.

Informant means an individual:

(a) Who is a patient or employee of a program or who becomes a patient or employee of a program at the request of a law enforcement agency or official: and

(b) Who at the request of a law enforcement agency or official observes one or more patients or employees of the program for the purpose of reporting the information obtained to the law enforcement agency or official.

Patient means any individual who has applied for or been given diagnosis or treatment for alcohol or drug abuse at a federally assisted program and includes any individual who, after arrest on a criminal charge, is identified as an alcohol or drug abuser in order to determine that individual's eligibility to participate in a program.

Patient identifying information means the name, address, social security number, fingerprints, photograph, or similar information by which the identity of a patient can be determined with reasonable accuracy and speed either directly or by reference to other publicly available information. The term does not include a number assigned to a patient by a program, if that number does not consist of, or contain numbers (such as a social security, or driver's license number) which could be used to identify a patient with reasonable accuracy and speed from sources external to the program.

Person means an individual, partnership, corporation, Federal, State or local government agency, or any other legal entity.

Program means:

(a) An individual or entity (other than a general medical care facility) who holds itself out as providing, and provides, alcohol or drug abuse diagnosis, treatment or referral for treatment; or

(b) An identified unit within a general medical facility which holds itself out as providing, and provides, alcohol or drug abuse diagnosis, treatment or referral for treatment; or

(c) Medical personnel or other staff in a general medical care facility whose primary function is the provision of alcohol or drug abuse diagnosis, treatment or referral for treatment and who are identified as such providers. (See § 2.12(e)(1) for examples.)

Program director means:

(a) In the case of a program which is an individual, that individual:

(b) In the case of a program which is an organization, the individual designated as director, managing director, or otherwise vested with authority to act as chief executive of the organization.

Qualified service organization means a person which:

(a) Provides services to a program, such as data processing, bill collecting, dosage preparation, laboratory analyses, or legal, medical, accounting, or other professional services, or services to prevent or treat child abuse or neglect, including training on nutrition and child care and individual and group therapy, and

(b) Has entered into a written agreement with a program under which that person:

(1) Acknowledges that in receiving, storing, processing or otherwise dealing with any patient records from the progams, it is fully bound by these regulations; and

(2) If necessary, will resist in judicial proceedings any efforts to obtain access to patient records except as permitted by these regulations.

Records means any information, whether recorded or not, relating to a patient received or acquired by a federally assisted alcohol or drug program.

Third party payer means a person who pays, or agrees to pay, for diagnosis or treatment furnished to a patient on the basis of a contractual relationship with the patient or a member of his family or on the basis of the patient's eligibility for Federal, State, or local governmental benefits.

Treatment means the management and care of a patient suffering from alcohol or drug abuse, a condition which is identified as having been caused by that abuse, or both, in order to reduce or eliminate the adverse effects upon the patient.

Undercover agent means an officer of any Federal, State, or local law enforcement agency who enrolls in or becomes an employee of a program for the purpose of investigating a suspected violation of law or who pursues that purpose after enrolling or becoming employed for other purposes.

(a) General—(1) Restrictions on disclosure. The restrictions on disclosure in these regulations apply to any information, whether or not recorded, which:

(i) Would identify a patient as an alcohol or drug abuser either directly, by reference to other publicly available information, or through verification of such an identification by another person; and

(ii) Is drug abuse information obtained by a federally assisted drug abuse program after March 20, 1972, or is alcohol abuse information obtained by a federally assisted alcohol abuse program after May 13, 1974 (or if obtained before the pertinent date, is maintained by a federally assisted alcohol or drug abuse program after that date as part of an ongoing treatment episode which extends past that date) for the purpose of treating alcohol or drug abuse, making a diagnosis for that treatment, or making a referral for that treatment.

(2) Restriction on use. The restriction on use of information to initiate or substantiate any criminal charges against a patient or to conduct any criminal investigation of a patient (42 U.S.C. 290ee-3(c), 42 U.S.C. 290dd-3(c)) applies to any information, whether or not recorded which is drug abuse information obtained by a federally assisted drug abuse program after March 20, 1972, or is alcohol abuse information obtained by a federally assisted alcohol abuse program after May 13, 1974 (or if obtained before the pertinent date, is maintained by a federally assisted alcohol or drug abuse program after that date as part of an ongoing treatment episode which extends past that date), for the purpose of treating alcohol or drug abuse, making a diagnosis for the treatment, or making a referral for the treatment.

(b) Federal assistance. An alcohol abuse or drug abuse program is considered to be federally assisted if:

(1) It is conducted in whole or in part, whether directly or by contract or otherwise by any department or agency of the United States (but see paragraphs (c)(1) and (c)(2) of this section relating to the Veterans' Administration and the Armed Forces);

(2) It is being carried out under a license, certification, registration, or other authorization granted by any department or agency of the United States including but not limited to:

(i) Certification of provider status under the Medicare program;

(ii) Authorization to conduct methadone maintenance treatment (see 21 CFR 291.505); or

(iii) Registration to dispense a substance under the Controlled Substances Act to the extent the controlled substance is used in the treatment of alcohol or drug abuse;

(3) It is supported by funds provided by any department or agency of the United States by being:

(i) A recipient of Federal financial assistance in any form, including financial assistance which does not directly pay for the alcohol or drug abuse diagnosis, treatment, or referral activities; or

(ii) Conducted by a State or local government unit which, through general or special revenue sharing or other forms of assistance, receives Federal funds which could be (but are not necessarily) spent for the alcohol or drug abuse program; or

(4) It is assisted by the Internal Revenue Service of the Department of the Treasury through the allowance of income tax deductions for contributions to the program or through the granting of tax exempt status to the program.

(c) Exceptions—(1) Veterans' Administration. These regulations do not apply to information on alcohol and drug abuse patients maintained in connection with the Veterans' Administration provisions of hospital care, nursing home care, domiciliary care, and medical services under title 38, United States Code. Those records are governed by 38 U.S.C. 4132 and regulations issued under that authority by the Administrator of Veterans' Affairs.

(2) Armed Forces. These regulations apply to any information described in paragraph (a) of this section which was obtained by any component of the Armed Forces during a period when the patient was subject to the Uniform Code of Military Justice except:

(i) Any interchange of that information within the Armed Forces; and

(ii) Any interchange of that information between the Armed Forces and those components of the Veterans Administration furnishing health care to veterans.

(3) Communication within a program or between a program and an entity having direct administrative control over that program. The restrictions on disclosure in these regulations do not apply to communications of information between or among personnel having a need for the information in connection with their duties that arise out of the provision of diagnosis, treatment, or referral for treatment of alcohol or drug abuse if the communications are

(i) Within a program or

(ii) Between a program and an entity that has direct administrative control over the program.

(4) Qualified Service Organizations. The restrictions on disclosure in these regulations do not apply to communications between a program and a qualified service organization of information needed by the organization to provide services to the program.

(5) Crimes on program premises or against program personnel. The restrictions on disclosure and use in these regulations do not apply to communications from program personnel to law enforcement officers which—

(i) Are directly related to a patient's commission of a crime on the premises of the program or against program personnel or to a threat to commit such a crime; and

(ii) Are limited to the circumstances of the incident, including the patient status of the individual committing or threatening to commit the crime, that individual's name and address, and that individual's last known whereabouts.

(6) Reports of suspected child abuse and neglect. The restrictions on disclosure and use in these regulations do not apply to the reporting under State law of incidents of suspected child abuse and neglect to the appropriate State or local authorities. However, the restrictions continue to apply to the original alcohol or drug abuse patient records maintained by the program including their disclosure and use for civil or criminal proceedings which may arise out of the report of suspected child abuse and neglect.

(d) Applicability to recipients of information—(1) Restriction on use of information. The restriction on the use of any information subject to these regulations to initiate or substantiate any criminal charges against a patient or to conduct any criminal investigation of a patient applies to any person who obtains that information from a federally assisted alcohol or drug abuse program, regardless of the status of the person obtaining the information or of whether the information was obtained in accordance with these regulations. This restriction on use bars, among other things, the introduction of that information as evidence in a criminal proceeding and any other use of the information to investigate or prosecute a patient with respect to a suspected crime. Information obtained by undercover agents or informants (see § 2.17) or through patient access (see § 2.23) is subject to the restriction on use.

(2) Restrictions on disclosures—Third party payers, administrative entities, and others. The restrictions on disclosure in these regulations apply to:

(i) Third party payers with regard to records disclosed to them by federally assisted alcohol or drug abuse programs;

(ii) Entities having direct administrative control over programs with regard to information communicated to them by the program under § 2.12(c)(3); and

(iii) Persons who receive patient records directly from a federally assisted alcohol or drug abuse program and who are notified of the restrictions on redisclosure of the records in accordance with § 2.32 of these regulations.

(e) Explanation of applicability—(1) Coverage. These regulations cover any information (including information on referral and intake) about alcohol and drug abuse patients obtained by a program (as the terms “patient” and “program” are defined in § 2.11) if the program is federally assisted in any manner described in § 2.12(b). Coverage includes, but is not limited to, those treatment or rehabilitation programs, employee assistance programs, programs within general hospitals, school-based programs, and private practitioners who hold themselves out as providing, and provide alcohol or drug abuse diagnosis, treatment, or referral for treatment. However, these regulations would not apply, for example, to emergency room personnel who refer a patient to the intensive care unit for an apparent overdose, unless the primary function of such personnel is the provision of alcohol or drug abuse diagnosis, treatment or referral and they are identified as providing such services or the emergency room has promoted itself to the community as a provider of such services.

(2) Federal assistance to program required. If a patient's alcohol or drug abuse diagnosis, treatment, or referral for treatment is not provided by a program which is federally conducted, regulated or supported in a manner which constitutes Federal assistance under § 2.12(b), that patient's record is not covered by these regulations. Thus, it is possible for an individual patient to benefit from Federal support and not be covered by the confidentiality regulations because the program in which the patient is enrolled is not federally assisted as defined in § 2.12(b). For example, if a Federal court placed an individual in a private for-profit program and made a payment to the program on behalf of that individual, that patient's record would not be covered by these regulations unless the program itself received Federal assistance as defined by § 2.12(b).

(3) Information to which restrictions are applicable. Whether a restriction is on use or disclosure affects the type of information which may be available. The restrictions on disclosure apply to any information which would identify a patient as an alcohol or drug abuser. The restriction on use of information to bring criminal charges against a patient for a crime applies to any information obtained by the program for the purpose of diagnosis, treatment, or referral for treatment of alcohol or drug abuse. (Note that restrictions on use and disclosure apply to recipients of information under § 2.12(d).)

(4) How type of diagnosis affects coverage. These regulations cover any record of a diagnosis identifying a patient as an alcohol or drug abuser which is prepared in connection with the treatment or referral for treatment of alcohol or drug abuse. A diagnosis prepared for the purpose of treatment or referral for treatment but which is not so used is covered by these regulations. The following are not covered by these regulations:

(i) Diagnosis which is made solely for the purpose of providing evidence for use by law enforcement authorities; or

(ii) A diagnosis of drug overdose or alcohol intoxication which clearly shows that the individual involved is not an alcohol or drug abuser (e.g., involuntary ingestion of alcohol or drugs or reaction to a prescribed dosage of one or more drugs).

(a) General. The patient records to which these regulations apply may be disclosed or used only as permitted by these regulations and may not otherwise be disclosed or used in any civil, criminal, administrative, or legislative proceedings conducted by any Federal, State, or local authority. Any disclosure made under these regulations must be limited to that information which is necessary to carry out the purpose of the disclosure.

(b) Unconditional compliance required. The restrictions on disclosure and use in these regulations apply whether the holder of the information believes that the person seeking the information already has it, has other means of obtaining it, is a law enforcement or other official, has obtained a subpoena, or asserts any other justification for a disclosure or use which is not permitted by these regulations.

(c) Acknowledging the presence of patients: Responding to requests. (1) The presence of an identified patient in a facility or component of a facility which is publicly identified as a place where only alcohol or drug abuse diagnosis, treatment, or referral is provided may be acknowledged only if the patient's written consent is obtained in accordance with subpart C of these regulations or if an authorizing court order is entered in accordance with subpart E of these regulations. The regulations permit acknowledgement of the presence of an identified patient in a facility or part of a facility if the facility is not publicy identified as only an alcohol or drug abuse diagnosis, treatment or referral facility, and if the acknowledgement does not reveal that the patient is an alcohol or drug abuser.

(2) Any answer to a request for a disclosure of patient records which is not permissible under these regulations must be made in a way that will not affirmatively reveal that an identified individual has been, or is being diagnosed or treated for alcohol or drug abuse. An inquiring party may be given a copy of these regulations and advised that they restrict the disclosure of alcohol or drug abuse patient records, but may not be told affirmatively that the regulations restrict the disclosure of the records of an identified patient. The regulations do not restrict a disclosure that an identified individual is not and never has been a patient.

(a) Definition of minor. As used in these regulations the term “minor” means a person who has not attained the age of majority specified in the applicable State law, or if no age of majority is specified in the applicable State law, the age of eighteen years.

(b) State law not requiring parental consent to treatment. If a minor patient acting alone has the legal capacity under the applicable State law to apply for and obtain alcohol or drug abuse treatment, any written consent for disclosure authorized under subpart C of these regulations may be given only by the minor patient. This restriction includes, but is not limited to, any disclosure of patient identifying information to the parent or guardian of a minor patient for the purpose of obtaining financial reimbursement. These regulations do not prohibit a program from refusing to provide treatment until the minor patient consents to the disclosure necessary to obtain reimbursement, but refusal to provide treatment may be prohibited under a State or local law requiring the program to furnish the service irrespective of ability to pay.

(c) State law requiring parental consent to treatment. (1) Where State law requires consent of a parent, guardian, or other person for a minor to obtain alcohol or drug abuse treatment, any written consent for disclosure authorized under subpart C of these regulations must be given by both the minor and his or her parent, guardian, or other person authorized under State law to act in the minor's behalf.

(2) Where State law requires parental consent to treatment the fact of a minor's application for treatment may be communicated to the minor's parent, guardian, or other person authorized under State law to act in the minor's behalf only if:

(i) The minor has given written consent to the disclosure in accordance with subpart C of these regulations or

(ii) The minor lacks the capacity to make a rational choice regarding such consent as judged by the program director under paragraph (d) of this section.

(d) Minor applicant for services lacks capacity for rational choice. Facts relevant to reducing a threat to the life or physical well being of the applicant or any other individual may be disclosed to the parent, guardian, or other person authorized under State law to act in the minor's behalf if the program director judges that:

(1) A minor applicant for services lacks capacity because of extreme youth or mental or physical condition to make a rational decision on whether to consent to a disclosure under subpart C of these regulations to his or her parent, guardian, or other person authorized under State law to act in the minor's behalf, and

(2) The applicant's situation poses a substantial threat to the life or physical well being of the applicant or any other individual which may be reduced by communicating relevant facts to the minor's parent, guardian, or other person authorized under State law to act in the minor's behalf.

(a) Incompetent patients other than minors—(1) Adjudication of incompetence. In the case of a patient who has been adjudicated as lacking the capacity, for any reason other than insufficient age, to manage his or her own affairs, any consent which is required under these regulations may be given by the guardian or other person authorized under State law to act in the patient's behalf.

(2) No adjudication of incompetency. For any period for which the program director determines that a patient, other than a minor or one who has been adjudicated incompetent, suffers from a medical condition that prevents knowing or effective action on his or her own behalf, the program director may exercise the right of the patient to consent to a disclosure under subpart C of these regulations for the sole purpose of obtaining payment for services from a third party payer.

(b) Deceased patients—(1) Vital statistics. These regulations do not restrict the disclosure of patient identifying information relating to the cause of death of a patient under laws requiring the collection of death or other vital statistics or permitting inquiry into the cause of death.

(2) Consent by personal representative. Any other disclosure of information identifying a deceased patient as an alcohol or drug abuser is subject to these regulations. If a written consent to the disclosure is required, that consent may be given by an executor, administrator, or other personal representative appointed under applicable State law. If there is no such appointment the consent may be given by the patient's spouse or, if none, by any responsible member of the patient's family.

(a) Written records which are subject to these regulations must be maintained in a secure room, locked file cabinet, safe or other similar container when not in use; and

(b) Each program shall adopt in writing procedures which regulate and control access to and use of written records which are subject to these regulations.

(a) Restrictions on placement. Except as specifically authorized by a court order granted under § 2.67 of these regulations, no program may knowingly employ, or enroll as a patient, any undercover agent or informant.

(b) Restriction on use of information. No information obtained by an undercover agent or informant, whether or not that undercover agent or informant is placed in a program pursuant to an authorizing court order, may be used to criminally investigate or prosecute any patient.

No person may require any patient to carry on his or her person while away from the program premises any card or other object which would identify the patient as an alcohol or drug abuser. This section does not prohibit a person from requiring patients to use or carry cards or other identification objects on the premises of a program.

(a) General. If a program discontinues operations or is taken over or acquired by another program, it must purge patient identifying information from its records or destroy the records unless—

(1) The patient who is the subject of the records gives written consent (meeting the requirements of § 2.31) to a transfer of the records to the acquiring program or to any other program designated in the consent (the manner of obtaining this consent must minimize the likelihood of a disclosure of patient identifying information to a third party); or

(2) There is a legal requirement that the records be kept for a period specified by law which does not expire until after the discontinuation or acquisition of the program.

(b) Procedure where retention period required by law. If paragraph (a)(2) of this section applies, the records must be:

(1) Sealed in envelopes or other containers labeled as follows: “Records of [insert name of program] required to be maintained under [insert citation to statute, regulation, court order or other legal authority requiring that records be kept] until a date not later than [insert appropriate date]”; and

(2) Held under the restrictions of these regulations by a responsible person who must, as soon as practicable after the end of the retention period specified on the label, destroy the records.

The statutes authorizing these regulations (42 U.S.C. 290ee-3 and 42 U.S.C. 290dd-3) do not preempt the field of law which they cover to the exclusion of all State laws in that field. If a disclosure permitted under these regulations is prohibited under State law, neither these regulations nor the authorizing statutes may be construed to authorize any violation of that State law. However, no State law may either authorize or compel any disclosure prohibited by these regulations.

(a) Research privilege description. There may be concurrent coverage of patient identifying information by these regulations and by administrative action taken under: Section 303(a) of the Public Health Service Act (42 U.S.C. 242a(a) and the implementing regulations at 42 CFR part 2a); or section 502(c) of the Controlled Substances Act (21 U.S.C. 872(c) and the implementing regulations at 21 CFR 1316.21). These “research privilege” statutes confer on the Secretary of Health and Human Services and on the Attorney General, respectively, the power to authorize researchers conducting certain types of research to withhold from all persons not connected with the research the names and other identifying information concerning individuals who are the subjects of the research.

(b) Effect of concurrent coverage. These regulations restrict the disclosure and use of information about patients, while administrative action taken under the research privilege statutes and implementing regulations protects a person engaged in applicable research from being compelled to disclose any identifying characteristics of the individuals who are the subjects of that research. The issuance under subpart E of these regulations of a court order authorizing a disclosure of information about a patient does not affect an exercise of authority under these research privilege statutes. However, the research privilage granted under 21 CFR 291.505(g) to treatment programs using methadone for maintenance treatment does not protect from compulsory disclosure any imformation which is permitted to be disclosed under those regulations. Thus, if a court order entered in accordance with subpart E of these regulations authorizes a methadone maintenance treatment program to disclose certain information about its patients, that program may not invoke the research privilege under 21 CFR 291.505(g) as a defense to a subpoena for that information.

(a) Notice required. At the time of admission or as soon threreafter as the patient is capable of rational communication, each program shall:

(1) Communicate to the patient that Federal law and regulations protect the confidentiality of alcohol and drug abuse patient records; and

(2) Give to the patient a summary in writing of the Federal law and regulations.

(b) Required elements of written summary. The written summary of the Federal law and regulations must include:

(1) A general description of the limited circumstances under which a program may acknowledge that an individual is present at a facility or disclose outside the program information identifying a patient as an alcohol or drug abuser.

(2) A statement that violation of the Federal law and regulations by a program is a crime and that suspected violations may be reported to appropriate authorities in accordance with these regulations.

(3) A statement that information related to a patient's commission of a crime on the premises of the program or against personnel of the program is not protected.

(4) A statement that reports of suspected child abuse and neglect made under State law to appropriate State or local authorities are not protected.

(5) A citation to the Federal law and regulations.

(c) Program options. The program may devise its own notice or may use the sample notice in paragraph (d) to comply with the requirement to provide the patient with a summary in writing of the Federal law and regulations. In addition, the program may include in the written summary information concerning State law and any program policy not inconsistent with State and Federal law on the subject of confidentiality of alcohol and drug abuse patient records.

(d) Sample notice.

(a) Patient access not prohibited. These regulations do not prohibit a program from giving a patient access to his or her own records, including the opportunity to inspect and copy any records that the program maintains about the patient. The program is not required to obtain a patient's written consent or other authorization under these regulations in order to provide such access to the patient.

(b) Restriction on use of information. Information obtained by patient access to his or her patient record is subject to the restriction on use of his information to initiate or substantiate any criminal charges against the patient or to conduct any criminal investigation of the patient as provided for under § 2.12(d)(1).

(a) Required elements. A written consent to a disclosure under these regulations must include:

(1) The specific name or general designation of the program or person permitted to make the disclosure.

(2) The name or title of the individual or the name of the organization to which disclosure is to be made.

(3) The name of the patient.

(4) The purpose of the disclosure.

(5) How much and what kind of information is to be disclosed.

(6) The signature of the patient and, when required for a patient who is a minor, the signature of a person authorized to give consent under § 2.14; or, when required for a patient who is incompetent or deceased, the signature of a person authorized to sign under § 2.15 in lieu of the patient.

(7) The date on which the consent is signed.

(8) A statement that the consent is subject to revocation at any time except to the extent that the program or person which is to make the disclosure has already acted in reliance on it. Acting in reliance includes the provision of treatment services in reliance on a valid consent to disclose information to a third party payer.

(9) The date, event, or condition upon which the consent will expire if not revoked before. This date, event, or condition must insure that the consent will last no longer than reasonably necessary to serve the purpose for which it is given.

(b) Sample consent form. The following form complies with paragraph (a) of this section, but other elements may be added.

(c) Expired, deficient, or false consent. A disclosure may not be made on the basis of a consent which:

(1) Has expired;

(2) On its face substantially fails to conform to any of the requirements set forth in paragraph (a) of this section;

(3) Is known to have been revoked; or

(4) Is known, or through a reasonable effort could be known, by the person holding the records to be materially false.

Notice to accompany disclosure. Each disclosure made with the patient's written consent must be accompanied by the following written statement:

If a patient consents to a disclosure of his or her records under § 2.31, a program may disclose those records in accordance with that consent to any individual or organization named in the consent, except that disclosures to central registries and in connection with criminal justice referrals must meet the requirements of §§ 2.34 and 2.35, respectively.

(a) Definitions. For purposes of this section:

Central registry means an organization which obtains from two or more member progams patient identifying information about individuals applying for maintenance treatment or detoxification treatment for the purpose of avoiding an individual's concurrent enrollment in more than one program.

Detoxification treatment means the dispensing of a narcotic drug in decreasing doses to an individual in order to reduce or eliminate adverse physiological or psychological effects incident to withdrawal from the sustained use of a narcotic drug.

Maintenance treatment means the dispensing of a narcotic drug in the treatment of an individual for dependence upon heroin or other morphine-like drugs.

Member program means a detoxification treatment or maintenance treatment program which reports patient identifying information to a central registry and which is in the same State as that central registry or is not more than 125 miles from any border of the State in which the central registry is located.

(b) Restrictions on disclosure. A program may disclose patient records to a central registry or to any detoxification or maintenance treatment program not more than 200 miles away for the purpose of preventing the multiple enrollment of a patient only if:

(1) The disclosure is made when:

(i) The patient is accepted for treatment;

(ii) The type or dosage of the drug is changed; or

(iii) The treatment is interrupted, resumed or terminated.

(2) The disclosure is limited to:

(i) Patient identifying information;

(ii) Type and dosage of the drug; and

(iii) Relevant dates.

(3) The disclosure is made with the patient's written consent meeting the requirements of § 2.31, except that:

(i) The consent must list the name and address of each central registry and each known detoxification or maintenance treatment program to which a disclosure will be made; and

(ii) The consent may authorize a disclosure to any detoxification or maintenance treatment program established within 200 miles of the program after the consent is given without naming any such program.

(c) Use of information limited to prevention of multiple enrollments. A central registry and any detoxification or maintenance treatment program to which information is disclosed to prevent multiple enrollments may not redisclose or use patient identifying information for any purpose other than the prevention of multiple enrollments unless authorized by a court order under subpart E of these regulations.

(d) Permitted disclosure by a central registry to prevent a multiple enrollment. When a member program asks a central registry if an identified patient is enrolled in another member program and the registry determines that the patient is so enrolled, the registry may disclose—

(1) The name, address, and telephone number of the member program(s) in which the patient is already enrolled to the inquiring member program; and

(2) The name, address, and telephone number of the inquiring member program to the member program(s) in which the patient is already enrolled. The member programs may communicate as necessary to verify that no error has been made and to prevent or eliminate any multiple enrollment.

(e) Permitted disclosure by a detoxification or maintenance treatment program to prevent a multiple enrollment. A detoxification or maintenance treatment program which has received a disclosure under this section and has determined that the patient is already enrolled may communicate as necessary with the program making the disclosure to verify that no error has been made and to prevent or eliminate any multiple enrollment.

(a) A program may disclose information about a patient to those persons within the criminal justice system which have made participation in the program a condition of the disposition of any criminal proceedings against the patient or of the patient's parole or other release from custody if:

(1) The disclosure is made only to those individuals within the criminal justice system who have a need for the information in connection with their duty to monitor the patient's progress (e.g., a prosecuting attorney who is withholding charges against the patient, a court granting pretrial or posttrial release, probation or parole officers responsible for supervision of the patient); and

(2) The patient has signed a written consent meeting the requirements of § 2.31 (except paragraph (a)(8) which is inconsistent with the revocation provisions of paragraph (c) of this section) and the requirements of paragraphs (b) and (c) of this section.

(b) Duration of consent. The written consent must state the period during which it remains in effect. This period must be reasonable, taking into account:

(1) The anticipated length of the treatment;

(2) The type of criminal proceeding involved, the need for the information in connection with the final disposition of that proceeding, and when the final disposition will occur; and

(3) Such other factors as the program, the patient, and the person(s) who will receive the disclosure consider pertinent.

(c) Revocation of consent. The written consent must state that it is revocable upon the passage of a specified amount of time or the occurrence of a specified, ascertainable event. The time or occurrence upon which consent becomes revocable may be no later than the final disposition of the conditional release or other action in connection with which consent was given.

(d) Restrictions on redisclosure and use. A person who receives patient information under this section may redisclose and use it only to carry out that person's official duties with regard to the patient's conditional release or other action in connection with which the consent was given.

(a) General Rule. Under the procedures required by paragraph (c) of this section, patient identifying information may be disclosed to medical personnel who have a need for information about a patient for the purpose of treating a condition which poses an immediate threat to the health of any individual and which requires immediate medical intervention.

(b) Special Rule. Patient identifying information may be disclosed to medical personnel of the Food and Drug Administration (FDA) who assert a reason to believe that the health of any individual may be threatened by an error in the manufacture, labeling, or sale of a product under FDA jurisdiction, and that the information will be used for the exclusive purpose of notifying patients or their physicians of potential dangers.

(c) Procedures. Immediately following disclosure, the program shall document the disclosure in the patient's records, setting forth in writing:

(1) The name of the medical personnel to whom disclosure was made and their affiliation with any health care facility;

(2) The name of the individual making the disclosure;

(3) The date and time of the disclosure; and

(4) The nature of the emergency (or error, if the report was to FDA).

(a) Patient identifying information may be disclosed for the purpose of conducting scientific research if the program director makes a determination that the recipient of the patient identifying information:

(1) Is qualified to conduct the research;

(2) Has a research protocol under which the patient identifying information:

(i) Will be maintained in accordance with the security requirements of § 2.16 of these regulations (or more stringent requirements); and

(ii) Will not be redisclosed except as permitted under paragraph (b) of this section; and

(3) Has provided a satisfactory written statement that a group of three or more individuals who are independent of the research project has reviewed the protocol and determined that:

(i) The rights and welfare of patients will be adequately protected; and

(ii) The risks in disclosing patient identifying information are outweighed by the potential benefits of the research.

(b) A person conducting research may disclose patient identifying information obtained under paragraph (a) of this section only back to the program from which that information was obtained and may not identify any individual patient in any report of that research or otherwise disclose patient identities.

(a) Records not copied or removed. If patient records are not copied or removed, patient identifying information may be disclosed in the course of a review of records on program premises to any person who agrees in writing to comply with the limitations on redisclosure and use in paragraph (d) of this section and who:

(1) Performs the audit or evaluation activity on behalf of:

(i) Any Federal, State, or local governmental agency which provides financial assistance to the program or is authorized by law to regulate its activities; or

(ii) Any private person which provides financial assistance to the program, which is a third party payer covering patients in the program, or which is a quality improvement organization performing a utilization or quality control review; or

(2) Is determined by the program director to be qualified to conduct the audit or evaluation activities.

(b) Copying or removal of records. Records containing patient identifying information may be copied or removed from program premises by any person who:

(1) Agrees in writing to:

(i) Maintain the patient identifying information in accordance with the security requirements provided in § 2.16 of these regulations (or more stringent requirements);

(ii) Destroy all the patient identifying information upon completion of the audit or evaluation; and

(iii) Comply with the limitations on disclosure and use in paragraph (d) of this section; and

(2) Performs the audit or evaluation activity on behalf of:

(i) Any Federal, State, or local governmental agency which provides financial assistance to the program or is authorized by law to regulate its activities; or

(ii) Any private person which provides financial assistance to the program, which is a third part payer covering patients in the program, or which is a quality improvement organization performing a utilization or quality control review.

(c) Medicare or Medicaid audit or evaluation. (1) For purposes of Medicare or Medicaid audit or evaluation under this section, audit or evaluation includes a civil or administrative investigation of the program by any Federal, State, or local agency responsible for oversight of the Medicare or Medicaid program and includes administrative enforcement, against the program by the agency, of any remedy authorized by law to be imposed as a result of the findings of the investigation.

(2) Consistent with the definition of program in § 2.11, program includes an employee of, or provider of medical services under, the program when the employee or provider is the subject of a civil investigation or administrative remedy, as those terms are used in paragraph (c)(1) of this section.

(3) If a disclosure to a person is authorized under this section for a Medicare or Medicaid audit or evaluation, including a civil investigation or administrative remedy, as those terms are used in paragraph (c)(1) of this section, then a quality improvement organization which obtains the information under paragraph (a) or (b) may disclose the information to that person but only for purposes of Medicare or Medicaid audit or evaluation.

(4) The provisions of this paragraph do not authorize the agency, the program, or any other person to disclose or use patient identifying information obtained during the audit or evaluation for any purposes other than those necessary to complete the Medicare or Medicaid audit or evaluation activity as specified in this paragraph.

(d) Limitations on disclosure and use. Except as provided in paragraph (c) of this section, patient identifying information disclosed under this section may be disclosed only back to the program from which it was obtained and used only to carry out an audit or evaluation purpose or to investigate or prosecute criminal or other activities, as authorized by a court order entered under § 2.66 of these regulations.

(a) Effect. An order of a court of competent jurisdiction entered under this subpart is a unique kind of court order. Its only purpose is to authorize a disclosure or use of patient information which would otherwise be prohibited by 42 U.S.C. 290ee-3, 42 U.S.C. 290dd-3 and these regulations. Such an order does not compel disclosure. A subpoena or a similar legal mandate must be issued in order to compel disclosure. This mandate may be entered at the same time as and accompany an authorizing court order entered under these regulations.

(b) Examples. (1) A person holding records subject to these regulations receives a subpoena for those records: a response to the subpoena is not permitted under the regulations unless an authorizing court order is entered. The person may not disclose the records in response to the subpoena unless a court of competent jurisdiction enters an authorizing order under these regulations.

(2) An authorizing court order is entered under these regulations, but the person authorized does not want to make the disclosure. If there is no subpoena or other compulsory process or a subpoena for the records has expired or been quashed, that person may refuse to make the disclosure. Upon the entry of a valid subpoena or other compulsory process the person authorized to disclose must disclose, unless there is a valid legal defense to the process other than the confidentiality restrictions of these regulations.

A court order under these regulations may not authorize qualified personnel, who have received patient identifying information without consent for the purpose of conducting research, audit or evaluation, to disclose that information or use it to conduct any criminal investigation or prosecution of a patient. However, a court order under § 2.66 may authorize disclosure and use of records to investigate or prosecute qualified personnel holding the records.

(a) A court order under these regulations may authorize disclosure of confidential communications made by a patient to a program in the course of diagnosis, treatment, or referral for treatment only if:

(1) The disclosure is necessary to protect against an existing threat to life or of serious bodily injury, including circumstances which constitute suspected child abuse and neglect and verbal threats against third parties;

(2) The disclosure is necessary in connection with investigation or prosecution of an extremely serious crime, such as one which directly threatens loss of life or serious bodily injury, including homicide, rape, kidnapping, armed robbery, assault with a deadly weapon, or child abuse and neglect; or

(3) The disclosure is in connection with litigation or an administrative proceeding in which the patient offers testimony or other evidence pertaining to the content of the confidential communications.

(b) [Reserved]

(a) Application. An order authorizing the disclosure of patient records for purposes other than criminal investigation or prosecution may be applied for by any person having a legally recognized interest in the disclosure which is sought. The application may be filed separately or as part of a pending civil action in which it appears that the patient records are needed to provide evidence. An application must use a fictitious name, such as John Doe, to refer to any patient and may not contain or otherwise disclose any patient identifying information unless the patient is the applicant or has given a written consent (meeting the requirements of these regulations) to disclosure or the court has ordered the record of the proceeding sealed from public scrunity.

(b) Notice. The patient and the person holding the records from whom disclosure is sought must be given:

(1) Adequate notice in a manner which will not disclose patient identifying information to other persons; and

(2) An opportunity to file a written response to the application, or to appear in person, for the limited purpose of providing evidence on the statutory and regulatory criteria for the issuance of the court order.

(c) Review of evidence: Conduct of hearing. Any oral argument, review of evidence, or hearing on the application must be held in the judge's chambers or in some manner which ensures that patient identifying information is not disclosed to anyone other than a party to the proceeding, the patient, or the person holding the record, unless the patient requests an open hearing in a manner which meets the written consent requirements of these regulations. The proceeding may include an examination by the judge of the patient records referred to in the application.

(d) Criteria for entry of order. An order under this section may be entered only if the court determines that good cause exists. To make this determination the court must find that:

(1) Other ways of obtaining the information are not available or would not be effective; and

(2) The public interest and need for the disclosure outweigh the potential injury to the patient, the physician-patient relationship and the treatment services.

(e) Content of order. An order authorizing a disclosure must:

(1) Limit disclosure to those parts of the patient's record which are essential to fulfill the objective of the order;

(2) Limit disclosure to those persons whose need for information is the basis for the order; and

(3) Include such other measures as are necessary to limit disclosure for the protection of the patient, the physician-patient relationship and the treatment services; for example, sealing from public scrutiny the record of any proceeding for which disclosure of a patient's record has been ordered.

(a) Application. An order authorizing the disclosure or use of patient records to criminally investigate or prosecute a patient may be applied for by the person holding the records or by any person conducting investigative or prosecutorial activities with respect to the enforcement of criminal laws. The application may be filed separately, as part of an application for a subpoena or other compulsory process, or in a pending criminal action. An application must use a fictitious name such as John Doe, to refer to any patient and may not contain or otherwise disclose patient identifying information unless the court has ordered the record of the proceeding sealed from public scrutiny.

(b) Notice and hearing. Unless an order under § 2.66 is sought with an order under this section, the person holding the records must be given:

(1) Adequate notice (in a manner which will not disclose patient identifying information to third parties) of an application by a person performing a law enforcement function;

(2) An opportunity to appear and be heard for the limited purpose of providing evidence on the statutory and regulatory criteria for the issuance of the court order; and

(3) An opportunity to be represented by counsel independent of counsel for an applicant who is a person performing a law enforcement function.

(c) Review of evidence: Conduct of hearings. Any oral argument, review of evidence, or hearing on the application shall be held in the judge's chambers or in some other manner which ensures that patient identifying information is not disclosed to anyone other than a party to the proceedings, the patient, or the person holding the records. The proceeding may include an examination by the judge of the patient records referred to in the application.

(d) Criteria. A court may authorize the disclosure and use of patient records for the purpose of conducting a criminal investigation or prosecution of a patient only if the court finds that all of the following criteria are met:

(1) The crime involved is extremely serious, such as one which causes or directly threatens loss of life or serious bodily injury including homicide, rape, kidnapping, armed robbery, assault with a deadly weapon, and child abuse and neglect.

(2) There is a reasonable likelihood that the records will disclose information of substantial value in the investigation or prosecution.

(3) Other ways of obtaining the information are not available or would not be effective.

(4) The potential injury to the patient, to the physician-patient relationship and to the ability of the program to provide services to other patients is outweighed by the public interest and the need for the disclosure.

(5) If the applicant is a person performing a law enforcement function that:

(i) The person holding the records has been afforded the opportunity to be represented by independent counsel; and

(ii) Any person holding the records which is an entity within Federal, State, or local government has in fact been represented by counsel independent of the applicant.

(e) Content of order. Any order authorizing a disclosure or use of patient records under this section must:

(1) Limit disclosure and use to those parts of the patient's record which are essential to fulfill the objective of the order;

(2) Limit disclosure to those law enforcement and prosecutorial officials who are responsible for, or are conducting, the investigation or prosecution, and limit their use of the records to investigation and prosecution of extremely serious crime or suspected crime specified in the application; and

(3) Include such other measures as are necessary to limit disclosure and use to the fulfillment of only that public interest and need found by the court.

(a) Application. (1) An order authorizing the disclosure or use of patient records to criminally or administratively investigate or prosecute a program or the person holding the records (or employees or agents of that program or person) may be applied for by any administrative, regulatory, supervisory, investigative, law enforcement, or prosecutorial agency having jurisdiction over the program's or person's activities.

(2) The application may be filed separately or as part of a pending civil or criminal action against a program or the person holding the records (or agents or employees of the program or person) in which it appears that the patient records are needed to provide material evidence. The application must use a fictitious name, such as John Doe, to refer to any patient and may not contain or otherwise disclose any patient identifying information unless the court has ordered the record of the proceeding sealed from public scrutiny or the patient has given a written consent (meeting the requirements of § 2.31 of these regulations) to that disclosure.

(b) Notice not required. An application under this section may, in the discretion of the court, be granted without notice. Although no express notice is required to the program, to the person holding the records, or to any patient whose records are to be disclosed, upon implementation of an order so granted any of the above persons must be afforded an opportunity to seek revocation or amendment of that order, limited to the presentation of evidence on the statutory and regulatory criteria for the issuance of the court order.

(c) Requirements for order. An order under this section must be entered in accordance with, and comply with the requirements of, paragraphs (d) and (e) of § 2.64 of these regulations.

(d) Limitations on disclosure and use of patient identifying information: (1) An order entered under this section must require the deletion of patient identifying information from any documents made available to the public.

(2) No information obtained under this section may be used to conduct any investigation or prosecution of a patient, or be used as the basis for an application for an order under § 2.65 of these regulations.

(a) Application. A court order authorizing the placement of an undercover agent or informant in a program as an employee or patient may be applied for by any law enforcement or prosecutorial agency which has reason to believe that employees or agents of the program are engaged in criminal misconduct.

(b) Notice. The program director must be given adequate notice of the application and an opportunity to appear and be heard (for the limited purpose of providing evidence on the statutory and regulatory criteria for the issuance of the court order), unless the application asserts a belief that:

(1) The program director is involved in the criminal activities to be investigated by the undercover agent or informant; or

(2) The program director will intentionally or unintentionally disclose the proposed placement of an undercover agent or informant to the employees or agents who are suspected of criminal activities.

(c) Criteria. An order under this section may be entered only if the court determines that good cause exists. To make this determination the court must find:

(1) There is reason to believe that an employee or agent of the program is engaged in criminal activity;

(2) Other ways of obtaining evidence of this criminal activity are not available or would not be effective; and

(3) The public interest and need for the placement of an undercover agent or informant in the program outweigh the potential injury to patients of the program, physician-patient relationships and the treatment services.

(d) Content of order. An order authorizing the placement of an undercover agent or informant in a program must:

(1) Specifically authorize the placement of an undercover agent or an informant;

(2) Limit the total period of the placement to six months;

(3) Prohibit the undercover agent or informant from disclosing any patient identifying information obtained from the placement except as necessary to criminally investigate or prosecute employees or agents of the program; and

(4) Include any other measures which are appropriate to limit any potential disruption of the program by the placement and any potential for a real or apparent breach of patient confidentiality; for example, sealing from public scrutiny the record of any proceeding for which disclosure of a patient's record has been ordered.

(e) Limitation on use of information. No information obtained by an undercover agent or informant placed under this section may be used to criminally investigate or prosecute any patient or as the basis for an application for an order under § 2.65 of these regulations.

The purpose of this part is to implement the Patient Safety and Quality Improvement Act of 2005 (Pub. L. 109-41), which amended Title IX of the Public Health Service Act (42 U.S.C. 299 et seq.) by adding sections 921 through 926, 42 U.S.C. 299b-21 through 299b-26.

As used in this part, the terms listed alphabetically below have the meanings set forth as follows:

Affiliated provider means, with respect to a provider, a legally separate provider that is the parent organization of the provider, is under common ownership, management, or control with the provider, or is owned, managed, or controlled by the provider.

AHRQ stands for the Agency for Healthcare Research and Quality in HHS.

ALJ stands for an Administrative Law Judge of HHS.

Board means the members of the HHS Departmental Appeals Board, in the Office of the Secretary, which issues decisions in panels of three.

Bona fide contract means:

(1) A written contract between a provider and a PSO that is executed in good faith by officials authorized to execute such contract; or

(2) A written agreement (such as a memorandum of understanding or equivalent recording of mutual commitments) between a Federal, State, local, or Tribal provider and a Federal, State, local, or Tribal PSO that is executed in good faith by officials authorized to execute such agreement.

Complainant means a person who files a complaint with the Secretary pursuant to § 3.306.

Component organization means an entity that:

(1) Is a unit or division of a legal entity (including a corporation, partnership, or a Federal, State, local or Tribal agency or organization); or

(2) Is owned, managed, or controlled by one or more legally separate parent organizations.

Component PSO means a PSO listed by the Secretary that is a component organization.

Confidentiality provisions means for purposes of subparts C and D, any requirement or prohibition concerning confidentiality established by sections 921 and 922(b)-(d), (g) and (i) of the Public Health Service Act, 42 U.S.C. 299b-21, 299b-22(b)-(d), (g) and (i) and the provisions, at §§ 3.206 and 3.208, that implement the statutory prohibition on disclosure of identifiable patient safety work product.

Disclosure means the release, transfer, provision of access to, or divulging in any other manner of patient safety work product by:

(1) An entity or natural person holding the patient safety work product to another legally separate entity or natural person, other than a workforce member of, or a health care provider holding privileges with, the entity holding the patient safety work product; or

(2) A component PSO to another entity or natural person outside the component PSO and within the legal entity of which the component PSO is a part.

Entity means any organization or organizational unit, regardless of whether the organization is public, private, for-profit, or not-for-profit.

Group health plan means an employee welfare benefit plan (as defined in section 3(1) of the Employee Retirement Income Security Act of 1974 (ERISA)) to the extent that the plan provides medical care (as defined in paragraph (2) of section 2791(a) of the Public Health Service Act, including items and services paid for as medical care) to employees or their dependents (as defined under the terms of the plan) directly or through insurance, reimbursement, or otherwise.

Health insurance issuer means an insurance company, insurance service, or insurance organization (including a health maintenance organization, as defined in 42 U.S.C. 300gg-91(b)(3)) which is licensed to engage in the business of insurance in a State and which is subject to State law which regulates insurance (within the meaning of 29 U.S.C. 1144(b)(2)). This term does not include a group health plan.

Health maintenance organization means:

(1) A Federally qualified health maintenance organization (HMO) (as defined in 42 U.S.C. 300e(a));

(2) An organization recognized under State law as a health maintenance organization; or

(3) A similar organization regulated under State law for solvency in the same manner and to the same extent as such a health maintenance organization.

HHS stands for the United States Department of Health and Human Services.

HIPAA Privacy Rule means the regulations promulgated under section 264(c) of the Health Insurance Portability and Accountability Act of 1996 (HIPAA), at 45 CFR part 160 and subparts A and E of part 164.

Identifiable patient safety work product means patient safety work product that:

(1) Is presented in a form and manner that allows the identification of any provider that is a subject of the work product, or any providers that participate in, or are responsible for, activities that are a subject of the work product;

(2) Constitutes individually identifiable health information as that term is defined in the HIPAA Privacy Rule at 45 CFR 160.103; or

(3) Is presented in a form and manner that allows the identification of an individual who in good faith reported information directly to a PSO or to a provider with the intention of having the information reported to a PSO (“reporter”).

Nonidentifiable patient safety work product means patient safety work product that is not identifiable patient safety work product in accordance with the nonidentification standards set forth at § 3.212.

OCR stands for the Office for Civil Rights in HHS.

Parent organization means an organization that: owns a controlling interest or a majority interest in a component organization; has the authority to control or manage agenda setting, project management, or day-to-day operations; or the authority to review and override decisions of a component organization. The component organization may be a provider.

Patient Safety Act means the Patient Safety and Quality Improvement Act of 2005 (Pub. L. 109-41), which amended Title IX of the Public Health Service Act (42 U.S.C. 299 et seq.) by inserting a new Part C, sections 921 through 926, which are codified at 42 U.S.C. 299b-21 through 299b-26.

Patient safety activities means the following activities carried out by or on behalf of a PSO or a provider:

(1) Efforts to improve patient safety and the quality of health care delivery;

(2) The collection and analysis of patient safety work product;

(3) The development and dissemination of information with respect to improving patient safety, such as recommendations, protocols, or information regarding best practices;

(4) The utilization of patient safety work product for the purposes of encouraging a culture of safety and of providing feedback and assistance to effectively minimize patient risk;

(5) The maintenance of procedures to preserve confidentiality with respect to patient safety work product;

(6) The provision of appropriate security measures with respect to patient safety work product;

(7) The utilization of qualified staff; and

(8) Activities related to the operation of a patient safety evaluation system and to the provision of feedback to participants in a patient safety evaluation system.

Patient safety evaluation system means the collection, management, or analysis of information for reporting to or by a PSO.

Patient safety organization (PSO) means a private or public entity or component thereof that is listed as a PSO by the Secretary in accordance with subpart B. A health insurance issuer or a component organization of a health insurance issuer may not be a PSO. See also the exclusions in § 3.102 of this part.

Patient safety work product:

(1) Except as provided in paragraph (2) of this definition, patient safety work product means any data, reports, records, memoranda, analyses (such as root cause analyses), or written or oral statements (or copies of any of this material)

(i) Which could improve patient safety, health care quality, or health care outcomes; and

(A) Which are assembled or developed by a provider for reporting to a PSO and are reported to a PSO, which includes information that is documented as within a patient safety evaluation system for reporting to a PSO, and such documentation includes the date the information entered the patient safety evaluation system; or

(B) Are developed by a PSO for the conduct of patient safety activities; or

(ii) Which identify or constitute the deliberations or analysis of, or identify the fact of reporting pursuant to, a patient safety evaluation system.

(2)(i) Patient safety work product does not include a patient's medical record, billing and discharge information, or any other original patient or provider information; nor does it include information that is collected, maintained, or developed separately, or exists separately, from a patient safety evaluation system. Such separate information or a copy thereof reported to a PSO shall not by reason of its reporting be considered patient safety work product.

(ii) Patient safety work product assembled or developed by a provider for reporting to a PSO may be removed from a patient safety evaluation system and no longer considered patient safety work product if:

(A) The information has not yet been reported to a PSO; and

(B) The provider documents the act and date of removal of such information from the patient safety evaluation system.

(iii) Nothing in this part shall be construed to limit information that is not patient safety work product from being:

(A) Discovered or admitted in a criminal, civil or administrative proceeding;

(B) Reported to a Federal, State, local or Tribal governmental agency for public health or health oversight purposes; or

(C) Maintained as part of a provider's recordkeeping obligation under Federal, State, local or Tribal law.

Person means a natural person, trust or estate, partnership, corporation, professional association or corporation, or other entity, public or private.

Provider means:

(1) An individual or entity licensed or otherwise authorized under State law to provide health care services, including—

(i) A hospital, nursing facility, comprehensive outpatient rehabilitation facility, home health agency, hospice program, renal dialysis facility, ambulatory surgical center, pharmacy, physician or health care practitioner's office (includes a group practice), long term care facility, behavior health residential treatment facility, clinical laboratory, or health center; or

(ii) A physician, physician assistant, registered nurse, nurse practitioner, clinical nurse specialist, certified registered nurse anesthetist, certified nurse midwife, psychologist, certified social worker, registered dietitian or nutrition professional, physical or occupational therapist, pharmacist, or other individual health care practitioner;

(2) Agencies, organizations, and individuals within Federal, State, local, or Tribal governments that deliver health care, organizations engaged as contractors by the Federal, State, local, or Tribal governments to deliver health care, and individual health care practitioners employed or engaged as contractors by the Federal State, local, or Tribal governments to deliver health care; or

(3) A parent organization of one or more entities described in paragraph (1)(i) of this definition or a Federal, State, local, or Tribal government unit that manages or controls one or more entities described in paragraphs (1)(i) or (2) of this definition.

Research has the same meaning as the term is defined in the HIPAA Privacy Rule at 45 CFR 164.501.

Respondent means a provider, PSO, or responsible person who is the subject of a complaint or a compliance review.

Responsible person means a person, other than a provider or a PSO, who has possession or custody of identifiable patient safety work product and is subject to the confidentiality provisions.

Workforce means employees, volunteers, trainees, contractors, or other persons whose conduct, in the performance of work for a provider, PSO or responsible person, is under the direct control of such provider, PSO or responsible person, whether or not they are paid by the provider, PSO or responsible person.

(a) Eligibility and process for initial and continued listing—(1) Submission of certification. Any entity, except as specified in paragraph (a)(2) of this section, may request from the Secretary an initial or continued listing as a PSO by submitting a completed certification form that meets the requirements of this section, in accordance with § 3.112. An individual with authority to make commitments on behalf of the entity seeking listing will be required to submit contact information for the entity and:

(i) Attest that the entity is not subject to any exclusion in paragraph (a)(2) of this section;

(ii) Provide certifications that the entity meets each requirement for PSOs in paragraph (b) of this section;

(iii) If the entity is a component of another organization, provide the additional certifications that the entity meets the requirements of paragraph (c)(1)(i) of this section;

(iv) If the entity is a component of an excluded entity described in paragraph (a)(2)(ii), provide the additional certifications and information required by paragraph (c)(1)(ii) of this section;

(v) Attest that the entity has disclosed if the Secretary has ever delisted this entity (under its current name or any other) or refused to list the entity or whether any of its officials or senior managers held comparable positions of responsibility in an entity that was denied listing or delisted and, if any of these circumstances apply, submit with its certifications and related disclosures, the name of the entity or entities that the Secretary declined to list or delisted;

(vi) Attest that the PSO will promptly notify the Secretary during its period of listing if it can no longer comply with any of its attestations and the applicable requirements in §§ 3.102(b) and 3.102(c) or if there have been any changes in the accuracy of the information submitted for listing, along with the pertinent changes; and

(vii) Provide other information that the Secretary determines to be necessary to make the requested listing determination.

(2) Exclusion of certain entities. The following types of entities may not seek listing as a PSO:

(i) A health insurance issuer; a unit or division of a health insurance issuer; or an entity that is owned, managed, or controlled by a health insurance issuer;

(ii)(A) An entity that accredits or licenses health care providers;

(B) An entity that oversees or enforces statutory or regulatory requirements governing the delivery of health care services;

(C) An agent of an entity that oversees or enforces statutory or regulatory requirements governing the delivery of health care services; or

(D) An entity that operates a Federal, state, local or Tribal patient safety reporting system to which health care providers (other than members of the entity's workforce or health care providers holding privileges with the entity) are required to report information by law or regulation.

(iii) A component of an entity listed in paragraph (a)(2)(ii) may seek listing as a component PSO subject to the requirements and restrictions of paragraph (c)(1)(ii) of this section.

(3) Submission of certification for continued listing. To facilitate a timely Secretarial determination regarding acceptance of its certification for continued listing, a PSO must submit the required certification no later than 75 days before the expiration of a PSO's three-year period of listing.

(b) Fifteen general PSO certification requirements. The certifications submitted to the Secretary in accordance with paragraph (a)(1)(ii) of this section must conform to the following 15 requirements:

(1) Required certification regarding eight patient safety activities—(i) Initial listing. An entity seeking initial listing as a PSO must certify that it has written policies and procedures in place to perform each of the eight patient safety activities, defined in § 3.20. With respect to paragraphs (5) and (6) in the definition of patient safety activities regarding confidentiality and security, the policies and procedures must include and provide for:

(A) Compliance with the confidentiality provisions of subpart C of this part and with appropriate security measures as required by § 3.106 of this subpart.

(B) Notification of each provider that submitted patient safety work product or data as described in § 3.108(b)(2) to the entity if the submitted work product or data was subject to an unauthorized disclosure or its security was breached.

(ii) Continued Listing. A PSO seeking continued listing must certify that it is performing, and will continue to perform, each of the patient safety activities defined in § 3.20, and is and will continue to comply with the requirements of paragraphs (b)(1)(i)(A) and (B) of this section.

(2) Required certification regarding seven PSO criteria—(i) Initial Listing. In its initial certification submission, an entity must also certify that, if listed as a PSO, it will comply with the seven requirements in paragraphs (b)(2)(i)(A) through (G) of this section.

(A) The mission and primary activity of the PSO must be to conduct activities that are to improve patient safety and the quality of health care delivery.

(B) The PSO must have appropriately qualified workforce members, including licensed or certified medical professionals.

(C) The PSO, within the 24-month period that begins on the date of its initial listing as a PSO, and within each sequential 24-month period thereafter, must have 2 bona fide contracts, each of a reasonable period of time, each with a different provider for the purpose of receiving and reviewing patient safety work product.

(D) The PSO is not a health insurance issuer, and is not a component of a health insurance issuer.

(E) The PSO must make disclosures to the Secretary as required under § 3.102(d), in accordance with § 3.112 of this subpart.

(F) To the extent practical and appropriate, the PSO must collect patient safety work product from providers in a standardized manner that permits valid comparisons of similar cases among similar providers.

(G) The PSO must utilize patient safety work product for the purpose of providing direct feedback and assistance to providers to effectively minimize patient risk.

(ii) Continued Listing. A PSO seeking continued listing must certify that it is complying with, and will continue to comply with, the requirements of paragraphs (b)(2)(i)(A) through (G) of this section.

(iii) Compliance with the criterion for collecting patient safety work product in a standardized manner to the extent practical and appropriate. With respect to paragraph (b)(2)(i)(F) of this section, the Secretary will assess compliance by a PSO in the following manner.

(A) A PSO seeking continued listing must:

(1) Certify that the PSO is using the Secretary's published guidance for common formats and definitions in its collection of patient safety work product (option (I));

(2) Certify that the PSO is using an alternative system of formats and definitions that permits valid comparisons of similar cases among similar providers (option (II)); or

(3) Provide a clear explanation for why it is not practical or appropriate for the PSO to comply with options (I) or (II) at this time.

(B) The Secretary will consider a PSO to be in compliance if the entity complies with option (I), satisfactorily demonstrates that option (II) permits valid comparisons of similar cases among similar providers, or satisfactorily demonstrates that it is not practical or appropriate for the PSO to comply with options (I) or (II) at this time.

(c) Additional certifications required of component organizations—(1) Requirements when seeking listing—(i) Requirements that all component organizations must meet. In addition to meeting the 15 general PSO certification requirements of paragraph (b) of this section, an entity seeking initial listing that is a component of another organization must certify that it will comply with the requirements of paragraph (c)(2) of this section. A component PSO seeking continued listing must certify that it is complying with, and will continue to comply with, the requirements of this same paragraph (c)(2). At initial and continued listing, a component entity must attach to its certifications for listing contact information for its parent organization(s).

(ii) Additional requirements and limitations applicable to components of entities that are excluded from listing. In addition to the requirements under paragraph (c)(1)(i) of this section, a component of an organization excluded from listing under paragraph (a)(2)(ii) of this section must submit the additional certifications and specified information for initial and continued listing and comply with paragraph (c)(4) of this section.

(2) Required component certifications—(i) Separation of patient safety work product. A component PSO must maintain patient safety work product separately from the rest of the parent organization(s) of which it is a part, and establish appropriate security measures to maintain the confidentiality of patient safety work product. The information system in which the component PSO maintains patient safety work product must not permit unauthorized access by one or more individuals in, or by units of, the rest of the parent organization(s) of which it is a part.

(ii) Nondisclosure of patient safety work product. A component PSO must require that members of its workforce and any other contractor staff not make unauthorized disclosures of patient safety work product to the rest of the parent organization(s) of which it is a part.

(iii) No conflict of interest. The pursuit of the mission of a component PSO must not create a conflict of interest with the rest of the parent organization(s) of which it is a part.

(3) Written agreements for assisting a component PSO in the conduct of patient safety activities. Notwithstanding the requirements of paragraph (c)(2) of this section, a component PSO may provide access to identifiable patient safety work product to one or more individuals in, or to one or more units of, the rest of the parent organization(s) of which it is a part, if the component PSO enters into a written agreement with such individuals or units which requires that:

(i) The component PSO will only provide access to identifiable patient safety work product to enable such individuals or units to assist the component PSO in its conduct of patient safety activities, and

(ii) Such individuals or units that receive access to identifiable patient safety work product pursuant to such written agreement will only use or disclose such information as specified by the component PSO to assist the component PSO in its conduct of patient safety activities, will take appropriate security measures to prevent unauthorized disclosures and will comply with the other certifications the component has made pursuant to paragraph (c)(2) of this section regarding unauthorized disclosures and conducting the mission of the PSO without creating conflicts of interest.

(4) Required attestations, information and operational limitations for components of entities excluded from listing. A component organization of an entity that is subject to the restrictions of paragraph (a)(2)(ii) of this section must:

(i) Submit the following information with its certifications for listing:

(A) A statement describing its parent organization's role, and the scope of the parent organization's authority, with respect to any of the following that apply: Accreditation or licensure of health care providers, oversight or enforcement of statutory or regulatory requirements governing the delivery of health care services, serving as an agent of such a regulatory oversight or enforcement authority, or administering a public mandatory patient safety reporting system;

(B) An attestation that the parent organization has no policies or procedures that would require or induce providers to report patient safety work product to their component organization once listed as a PSO and that the component PSO will notify the Secretary within 5 calendar days of the date on which the component organization has knowledge of the adoption by the parent organization of such policies or procedures, and an acknowledgment that the adoption of such policies or procedures by the parent organization during the component PSO's period of listing will result in the Secretary initiating an expedited revocation process in accordance with § 3.108(e); and

(C) An attestation that the component organization will prominently post notification on its Web site and publish in any promotional materials for dissemination to providers, a summary of the information that is required by paragraph (c)(4)(i)(A) of this section.

(ii) Comply with the following requirements during its period of listing:

(A) The component organization may not share staff with its parent organization(s).

(B) The component organization may enter into a written agreement pursuant to paragraph (c)(3) but such agreements are limited to units or individuals of the parent organization(s) whose responsibilities do not involve the activities specified in the restrictions in paragraph (a)(2)(ii) of this section.

(d) Required notifications. Upon listing, PSOs must meet the following notification requirements:

(1) Notification regarding PSO compliance with the minimum contract requirement. No later than 45 calendar days prior to the last day of the pertinent 24-month assessment period, specified in paragraph (b)(2)(iii)(C) of this section, the Secretary must receive from a PSO a certification that states whether it has met the requirement of that paragraph regarding two bona fide contracts, submitted in accordance with § 3.112 of this subpart.

(2) Notification regarding a PSO's relationships with its contracting providers—(i) Requirement. A PSO must file a disclosure statement regarding a provider with which it has a contract that provides the confidentiality and privilege protections of the Patient Safety Act (hereinafter referred to as a Patient Safety Act contract) if the PSO has any other relationships with this provider that are described in paragraphs (d)(2)(i)(A) through (D) of this section. The PSO must disclose all such relationships. A disclosure statement is not required if all of its other relationships with the provider are limited to Patient Safety Act contracts.

(A) The provider and PSO have current contractual relationships, other than those arising from any Patient Safety Act contracts, including formal contracts or agreements that impose obligations on the PSO.

(B) The provider and PSO have current financial relationships other than those arising from any Patient Safety Act contracts. A financial relationship may include any direct or indirect ownership or investment relationship between the PSO and the contracting provider, shared or common financial interests or direct or indirect compensation arrangements whether in cash or in-kind.

(C) The PSO and provider have current reporting relationships other than those arising from any Patient Safety Act contracts, by which the provider has access to information regarding the work and operation of the PSO that is not available to other contracting providers.

(D) Taking into account all relationships that the PSO has with the provider, the PSO is not independently managed or controlled, or the PSO does not operate independently from, the contracting provider.

(ii) Content. A PSO must submit to the Secretary the required attestation form for disclosures with the information specified below in accordance with § 3.112 and this section. The substantive information that must be included with each submission has two required parts:

(A) The Required Disclosures. The first part of the substantive information must provide a succinct list of obligations between the PSO and the contracting provider apart from their Patient Safety Act contract(s) that create, or contain, any of the types of relationships that must be disclosed based upon the requirements of paragraphs (d)(2)(i)(A) through (D) of this section. Each reportable obligation or discrete set of obligations that the PSO has with this contracting provider should be listed only once; noting the specific aspects of the obligation(s) that reflect contractual or financial relationships, involve access to information that is not available to other providers, or affect the independence of PSO operations, management, or control.

(B) An Explanatory Narrative. The second required part of the substantive information must provide a brief explanatory narrative succinctly describing: The policies and procedures that the PSO has in place to ensure adherence to objectivity and professionally recognized analytic standards in the assessments it undertakes; and any other policies or procedures, or agreements with this provider, that the PSO has in place to ensure that it can fairly and accurately perform patient safety activities.

(iii) Deadlines for submission. The Secretary must receive a disclosure statement within 45 days of the date on which a PSO enters a contract with a provider if the circumstances described in any of the paragraphs (d)(2)(i)(A) through (D) of this section are met on the date the contract is entered. During the contract period, if these circumstances subsequently arise, the Secretary must receive a disclosure statement from the PSO within 45 days of the date that any disclosure requirement in paragraph (d)(2)(i) of this section first applies.

(a) Actions in response to certification submissions for initial and continued listing as a PSO. (1) In response to an initial or continued certification submission by an entity, pursuant to the requirements of § 3.102 of this subpart, the Secretary may—

(i) Accept the certification submission and list the entity as a PSO, or maintain the listing of a PSO, if the Secretary determines that the entity meets the applicable requirements of the Patient Safety Act and this subpart;

(ii) Deny acceptance of a certification submission and, in the case of a currently listed PSO, remove the entity from the list if the entity does not meet the applicable requirements of the Patient Safety Act and this subpart; or

(iii) Condition the listing of an entity or the continued listing of a PSO, following a determination made pursuant to paragraph (c) of this section or a determination after review of the pertinent history of an entity that has been delisted or refused listing and its officials and senior managers.

(2) Basis for determination. In making a determination regarding listing, the Secretary will consider the certification submission; any prior actions by the Secretary regarding the entity or PSO including delisting; any history of or current non-compliance by the entity or the PSO or its officials or senior managers with statutory or regulatory requirements or requests from the Secretary; the relationships of the entity or PSO with providers; and any findings made by the Secretary in accordance with paragraph (c) of this section.

(3) Notification. The Secretary will notify in writing each entity of action taken on its certification submission for initial or continued listing. The Secretary will provide reasons when an entity's certification is conditionally accepted and the entity is conditionally listed, when an entity's certification is not accepted and the entity is not listed, or when acceptance of its certification is revoked and the entity is delisted.

(b) Actions regarding PSO compliance with the minimum contract requirement. After the date on which the Secretary, under § 3.102(d)(1) of this subpart, must receive notification regarding compliance of a PSO with the minimum contract requirement—

(1) If the PSO has met the minimum contract requirement, the Secretary will acknowledge in writing receipt of the notification and add information to the list established pursuant to paragraph (d) of this section stating that the PSO has certified that it has met the requirement.

(2) If the PSO states that it has not yet met the minimum contract requirement by the date specified in § 3.102(d)(1), or if notice is not received by that date, the Secretary will issue to the PSO a notice of a preliminary finding of deficiency as specified in § 3.108(a)(2) and establish a period for correction that extends until midnight of the last day of the PSO's applicable 24-month period of assessment. Thereafter, if the requirement has not been met, the Secretary will provide the PSO a written notice of proposed revocation and delisting in accordance with § 3.108(a)(3).

(c) Actions regarding required disclosures by PSOs of relationships with contracting providers. The Secretary will review and make findings regarding each disclosure statement submitted by a PSO, pursuant to § 3.102(d)(2), regarding its relationships with contracting provider(s), determine whether such findings warrant action regarding the listing of the PSO in accordance with paragraph (c)(2) of this section, and make the findings public.

(1) Basis of findings regarding PSO disclosure statements. In reviewing disclosure statements, submitted pursuant to § 3.102(d)(2) of this subpart, the Secretary will consider the disclosed relationship(s) between the PSO and the contracting provider and the statements and material submitted by the PSO describing the policies and procedures that the PSO has in place to determine whether the PSO can fairly and accurately perform the required patient safety activities.

(2) Determination by the Secretary. Based on the Secretary's review and findings, he may choose to take any of the following actions:

(i) For an entity seeking an initial or continued listing, the Secretary may list or continue the listing of an entity without conditions, list the entity subject to conditions, or deny the entity's certification for initial or continued listing; or

(ii) For a listed PSO, the Secretary may determine that the entity will remain listed without conditions, continue the entity's listing subject to conditions, or remove the entity from the list of PSOs.

(3) Release of disclosure statements and Secretarial findings. (i) Subject to paragraph (c)(3)(ii) of this section, the Secretary will make disclosure statements available to the public along with related findings that are made available in accordance with paragraph (c) of this section.

(ii) The Secretary may withhold information that is exempt from public disclosure under the Freedom of Information Act, e.g., trade secrets or confidential commercial information that are subject to the restrictions of 18 U.S.C. 1905.

(d) Maintaining a list of PSOs. The Secretary will compile and maintain a publicly available list of entities whose certifications as PSOs have been accepted. The list will include contact information for each entity, a copy of all certification forms and disclosure statements submitted by each entity in accordance with paragraph (c)(3)(ii) of this section, the effective date of the PSO's listing, and information on whether a PSO has certified that it has met the two contract requirement. The list also will include a copy of the Secretary's findings regarding each disclosure statement submitted by an entity, information describing any related conditions that have been placed by the Secretary on the listing of an entity as a PSO, and other information that this Subpart states may be made public. AHRQ may maintain a PSO website (or a comparable future form of public notice) and may post the list on this website.

(e) Three-year period of listing. (1) The three-year period of listing of a PSO will automatically expire at midnight of the last day of this period, unless the listing had been revoked or relinquished earlier in accordance with § 3.108 of this subpart, or if, prior to this automatic expiration, the PSO seeks a new three-year listing, in accordance with § 3.102, and the Secretary accepts the PSO's certification for a new three-year listing, in accordance with § 3.104(a).

(2) The Secretary plans to send a written notice of imminent expiration to a PSO at least 60 calendar days prior to the date on which its three-year period of listing expires if the Secretary has not yet received a certification for continued listing. The Secretary plans to indicate, on the AHRQ PSO website, the PSOs from whom certifications for continued listing have not been timely received.

(f) Effective dates of Secretarial actions. Unless otherwise stated, the effective date of each action by the Secretary pursuant to this subpart will be specified in the written notice of such action that is sent to the entity. When the Secretary sends a notice that addresses acceptance or revocation of an entity's certifications or voluntary relinquishment by an entity of its status as a PSO, the notice will specify the effective date and time of listing or delisting.

(a) Application. A PSO must secure patient safety work product in conformance with the security requirements of paragraph (b) of this section. These requirements must be met at all times and at any location at which the PSO, its workforce members, or its contractors receive, access, or handle patient safety work product. Handling patient safety work product includes its processing, development, use, maintenance, storage, removal, disclosure, transmission and destruction.

(b) Security framework. A PSO must have written policies and procedures that address each of the considerations specified in this subsection. In addressing the framework that follows, the PSO may develop appropriate and scalable security standards, policies, and procedures that are suitable for the size and complexity of its organization.

(1) Security management. A PSO must address:

(i) Maintenance and effective implementation of written policies and procedures that conform to the requirements of this section to protect the confidentiality, integrity, and availability of the patient safety work product that is received, accessed, or handled; and to monitor and improve the effectiveness of such policies and procedures, and

(ii) Training of the PSO workforce and PSO contractors who receive, access, or handle patient safety work product regarding the requirements of the Patient Safety Act, this Part, and the PSO's policies and procedures regarding the confidentiality and security of patient safety work product.

(2) Distinguishing patient safety work product. A PSO must address:

(i) Maintenance of the security of patient safety work product, whether in electronic or other media, through either physical separation from non-patient safety work product, or if co-located with non-patient safety work product, by making patient safety work product distinguishable so that the appropriate form and level of security can be applied and maintained;

(ii) Protection of the media, whether in electronic, paper, or other media or format, that contain patient safety work product, limiting access to authorized users, and sanitizing and destroying such media before their disposal or release for reuse; and

(iii) Physical and environmental protection, to control and limit physical and virtual access to places and equipment where patient safety work product is received, accessed, or handled.

(3) Security control and monitoring. A PSO must address:

(i) Identification of those authorized to receive, access, or handle patient safety work product and an audit capacity to detect unlawful, unauthorized, or inappropriate receipt, access, or handling of patient safety work product, and

(ii) Methods to prevent unauthorized receipt, access, or handling of patient safety work product.

(4) Security assessment. A PSO must address:

(i) Periodic assessments of security risks and controls to establish if its controls are effective, to correct any deficiency identified, and to reduce or eliminate any vulnerabilities.

(ii) System and communications protection, to monitor, control, and protect PSO receipt, access, or handling of patient safety work product with particular attention to the transmission of patient safety work product to and from providers, other PSOs, contractors or any other responsible persons.

(a) Process for correction of a deficiency and revocation—(1) Circumstances leading to revocation. The Secretary may revoke his acceptance of an entity's certification (“revocation”) and delist the entity as a PSO if he determines—

(i) The PSO is not fulfilling the certifications made to the Secretary as required by § 3.102;

(ii) The PSO has not met the two contract requirement, as required by § 3.102(d)(1);

(iii) Based on a PSO's disclosures made pursuant to § 3.102(d)(2) , that the entity cannot fairly and accurately perform the patient safety activities of a PSO with a public finding to that effect; or

(iv) The PSO is not in compliance with any other provision of the Patient Safety Act or this part.

(2) Notice of preliminary finding of deficiency and establishment of an opportunity for correction of a deficiency. (i) Except as provided by paragraph (e) of this section, if the Secretary determines that a PSO is not in compliance with its obligations under the Patient Safety Act or this subpart, the Secretary must send a PSO written notice of the preliminary finding of deficiency. The notice must state the actions or inactions that encompass the deficiency finding, outline the evidence that the deficiency exists, specify the possible and/or required corrective actions that must be taken, and establish a date by which the deficiency must be corrected. The Secretary may specify in the notice the form of documentation required to demonstrate that the deficiency has been corrected.

(ii) The notice of a preliminary finding of deficiency is presumed received five days after it is sent, absent evidence of the actual receipt date. If a PSO does not submit evidence to the Secretary within 14 calendar days of actual or constructive receipt of such notice, whichever is longer, which demonstrates that the preliminary finding is factually incorrect, the preliminary finding will be the basis for a finding of deficiency.

(3) Determination of correction of a deficiency. (i) Unless the Secretary specifies another date, the Secretary must receive documentation to demonstrate that the PSO has corrected any deficiency cited in the preliminary finding of deficiency no later than five calendar days following the last day of the correction period that is specified by the Secretary in such notice.

(ii) In making a determination regarding the correction of any deficiency, the Secretary will consider the documentation submitted by the PSO, any assessments under § 3.110, recommendations of program staff, and any other information available regarding the PSO that the Secretary deems appropriate and relevant to the PSO's implementation of the terms of its certification.

(iii) After completing his review, the Secretary may make one of the following determinations:

(A) The action(s) taken by the PSO have corrected any deficiency, in which case the Secretary will withdraw the notice of deficiency and so notify the PSO;

(B) The PSO has acted in good faith to correct the deficiency, but the Secretary finds an additional period of time is necessary to achieve full compliance and/or the required corrective action specified in the notice of a preliminary finding of deficiency needs to be modified in light of the experience of the PSO in attempting to implement the corrective action, in which case the Secretary will extend the period for correction and/or modify the specific corrective action required; or

(C) The PSO has not completed the corrective action because it has not acted with reasonable diligence or speed to ensure that the corrective action was completed within the allotted time, in which case the Secretary will issue to the PSO a notice of proposed revocation and delisting.

(iv) When the Secretary issues a written notice of proposed revocation and delisting, the notice will specify the deficiencies that have not been timely corrected and will detail the manner in which the PSO may exercise its opportunity to be heard in writing to respond to the deficiencies specified in the notice.

(4) Opportunity to be heard in writing following a notice of proposed revocation and delisting. The Secretary will afford a PSO an opportunity to be heard in writing, as specified in paragraph (a)(4)(i) of this section, to provide a substantive response to the deficiency finding(s) set forth in the notice of proposed revocation and delisting.

(i) The notice of proposed revocation and delisting is presumed received five days after it is sent, absent evidence of actual receipt. The Secretary will provide a PSO with a period of time, beginning with the date of receipt of the notice of proposed revocation and delisting of which there is evidence, or the presumed date of receipt if there is no evidence of earlier receipt, and ending at midnight 30 calendar days thereafter, during which the PSO may submit a substantive response to the deficiency findings in writing.

(ii) The Secretary will provide to the PSO any rules of procedure governing the form or transmission of the written response to the notice of proposed revocation and delisting. Such rules may also be posted on the AHRQ PSO Web site or published in the Federal Register.

(iii) If a PSO does not submit a written response to the deficiency finding(s) within 30 calendar days of receipt of the notice of proposed revocation and delisting, the notice of proposed revocation becomes final as a matter of law and the basis for Secretarial action under paragraph (b)(1) of this section.

(5) The Secretary's decision regarding revocation. The Secretary will review the entire administrative record pertaining to a notice of proposed revocation and delisting and any written materials submitted by the PSO under paragraph (a)(4) of this section. The Secretary may affirm, reverse, or modify the notice of proposed revocation and delisting and will make a determination with respect to the continued listing of the PSO.

(b) Revocation of the Secretary's acceptance of a PSO's certifications—(1) Establishing the date and time of revocation and delisting. When the Secretary concludes, in accordance with a decision made under paragraphs (a)(5), (e)(3)(iii) or (e)(3)(iv)(C) of this section, that revocation of the acceptance of a PSO's certification is warranted for its failure to comply with requirements of the Patient Safety Act or of this Part, the Secretary will establish the effective time and date for such prompt revocation and removal of the entity from the list of PSOs, so notify the PSO in writing, and provide the relevant public notice required by § 3.108(d) of this subpart.

(2) Required notification of providers and status of data. (i) Upon being notified of the Secretary's action pursuant to paragraph (b)(1) of this section, the former PSO will take all reasonable actions to notify each provider, whose patient safety work product it collected or analyzed, of the Secretary's action(s) and the following statutory information: Confidentiality and privilege protections that applied to patient safety work product while the former PSO was listed continue to apply after the entity is removed from listing. Data submitted by providers to the former PSO for 30 calendar days following the date and time on which the entity was removed from the list of PSOs pursuant to paragraph (b)(1) of this section will have the same status as data submitted while the entity was still listed.

(ii) Within 15 days of being notified of the Secretary's action pursuant to paragraph (b)(1) of this section, the former PSO shall submit to the Secretary confirmation that it has taken the actions in paragraph (b)(2)(i) of this section.

(3) Disposition of patient safety work product and data. Within 90 days following the effective date of revocation and delisting pursuant to paragraph (b)(1) of this section, the former PSO will take one or more of the following measures in regard to patient safety work product and data described in paragraph (b)(2)(i) of this section:

(i) Transfer such patient safety work product or data, with the approval of the source from which it was received, to a PSO that has agreed to receive such patient safety work product or data;

(ii) Return such work product or data to the source from which it was submitted; or

(iii) If returning such patient safety work product or data to its source is not practicable, destroy such patient safety work product or data.

(c) Voluntary relinquishment—(1) Circumstances constituting voluntary relinquishment. A PSO will be considered to have voluntarily relinquished its status as a PSO if the Secretary accepts a notification from a PSO that it wishes to relinquish voluntarily its listing as a PSO.

(2) Notification of voluntary relinquishment. A PSO's notification of voluntary relinquishment to the Secretary must include the following:

(i) An attestation that all reasonable efforts have been made, or will have been made by a PSO within 15 calendar days of this statement, to notify the sources from which it received patient safety work product of the PSO's intention to cease PSO operations and activities, to relinquish voluntarily its status as a PSO, to request that these other entities cease reporting or submitting any further information to the PSO as soon as possible, and inform them that any information reported after the effective date and time of delisting that the Secretary sets pursuant to paragraph (c)(3) of this section will not be protected as patient safety work product under the Patient Safety Act.

(ii) An attestation that the entity has established a plan, or within 15 calendar days of this statement, will have made all reasonable efforts to establish a plan, in consultation with the sources from which it received patient safety work product, that provides for the disposition of the patient safety work product held by the PSO consistent with, to the extent practicable, the statutory options for disposition of patient safety work product as set out in paragraph (b)(3) of this section; and

(iii) Appropriate contact information for further communications from the Secretary.

(3) Response to notification of voluntary relinquishment. (i) After a PSO provides the notification required by paragraph (c)(2) of this section, the Secretary will respond in writing to the entity indicating whether the proposed voluntary relinquishment of its PSO status is accepted. If the voluntary relinquishment is accepted, the Secretary's response will indicate an effective date and time for the entity's removal from the list of PSOs and will provide public notice of the voluntary relinquishment and the effective date and time of the delisting, in accordance with § 3.108(d) of this subpart.

(ii) If the Secretary receives a notification of voluntary relinquishment during or immediately after revocation proceedings for cause under paragraphs (a)(4) and (a)(5) of this section, the Secretary, as a matter of discretion, may accept voluntary relinquishment in accordance with the preceding paragraph or decide not to accept the entity's proposed voluntary relinquishment and proceed with the revocation for cause and delisting pursuant to paragraph (b)(1) of this section.

(4) Non-applicability of certain procedures and requirements. (i) A decision by the Secretary to accept a request by a PSO to relinquish voluntarily its status as a PSO pursuant to paragraph (c)(2) of this section does not constitute a determination of a deficiency in PSO compliance with the Patient Safety Act or with this Subpart.

(ii) The procedures and requirements of § 3.108(a) of this subpart regarding deficiencies including the opportunity to correct deficiencies and to be heard in writing, and the procedures and requirements of § 3.108(b) are not applicable to determinations of the Secretary made pursuant to this subsection.

(d) Public notice of delisting regarding removal from listing. If the Secretary removes an entity from the list of PSOs following revocation of acceptance of the entity's certification pursuant to § 3.108(b)(1), voluntary relinquishment pursuant to § 3.108(c)(3), or expiration of an entity's period of listing pursuant to § 3.104(e)(1), the Secretary will promptly publish in the Federal Register and on the AHRQ PSO website, or in a comparable future form of public notice, a notice of the actions taken and the effective dates.

(e) Expedited revocation and delisting—(1) Basis for expedited revocation. Notwithstanding any other provision of this section, the Secretary may use the expedited revocation process described in paragraph (e)(3) of this section if he determines—

(i) The PSO is not in compliance with this part because it is or is about to become an entity described in § 3.102(a)(2).

(ii) The parent organization of the PSO is an entity described in § 3.102(a)(2) and requires or induces health care providers to report patient safety work product to its component PSO; or

(iii) The circumstances for revocation in paragraph (a)(1) of this section exist, and the Secretary has determined that there would be serious adverse consequences if the PSO were to remain listed.

(2) Applicable provisions. If the Secretary uses the expedited revocation process described in paragraph (e)(3) of this section, the procedures in paragraphs (a)(2) through (5) of this section shall not apply and paragraph (a)(1) and paragraphs (b) and (d) of this section shall apply.

(3) Expedited revocation process. (i) The Secretary must send the PSO a written notice of deficiency that:

(A) Identifies the evidence that the circumstances for revocation and delisting under paragraph (a)(1) of this section exist, and any corrective action that the PSO must take if the Secretary determines that corrective action may resolve the matter so that the entity would not be delisted; and

(B) Provides an opportunity for the PSO to respond in writing to correct the facts or the legal bases for delisting found in the notice, and to offer any other grounds for its not being delisted.

(ii) The notice of deficiency will be presumed to be received five days after it is sent, absent evidence of the actual receipt date.

(iii) If the PSO does not submit a written response to the Secretary within 14 calendar days of actual or constructive receipt of such notice, whichever is longer, the Secretary may revoke his acceptance of the PSO's certifications and remove the entity from the list of PSOs.

(iv) If the PSO responds in writing within the required 14-day time period, the Secretary may take any of the following actions:

(A) Withdraw the notice of deficiency;

(B) Provide the PSO with more time to resolve the matter to the Secretary's satisfaction; or

(C) Revoke his acceptance of the PSO's certifications and remove the entity from the list of PSOs.

The Secretary may request information or conduct announced or unannounced reviews of, or site visits to, PSOs, to assess or verify PSO compliance with the requirements of this subpart and for these purposes will be allowed to inspect the physical or virtual sites maintained or controlled by the PSO. The Secretary will be allowed to inspect and/or be given or sent copies of any PSO records deemed necessary and requested by the Secretary to implement the provisions of this subpart. Such PSO records may include patient safety work product in accordance with § 3.206(d) of this part.

(a) Forms referred to in this subpart may be obtained on the PSO Web site (http://www.pso.ahrq.gov) maintained for the Secretary by AHRQ or a successor agency or on successor publication technology or by requesting them in writing by e-mail at pso@ahrq.hhs.gov, or by mail from the Agency for Healthcare Research and Quality, CQuIPS, PSO Liaison, 540 Gaither Road, Rockville, MD 20850. A form (including any required attachments) must be submitted in accordance with the accompanying instructions.

(b) Information submitted to AHRQ in writing, but not required to be on or attached to a form, and requests for information from AHRQ, may be submitted by mail or other delivery to the Agency for Healthcare Research and Quality, CQuIPS, PSO Liaison, 540 Gaither Road, Rockville, MD 20850, by facsimile at (301) 427-1341, or by e-mail at pso@ahrq.hhs.gov.

(c) If a submission to the Secretary is incomplete or additional information is needed to allow a determination to be made under this subpart, the submitter will be notified if any additional information is required.

(a) Privilege. Notwithstanding any other provision of Federal, State, local, or Tribal law and subject to paragraph (b) of this section and § 3.208 of this subpart, patient safety work product shall be privileged and shall not be:

(1) Subject to a Federal, State, local, or Tribal civil, criminal, or administrative subpoena or order, including in a Federal, State, local, or Tribal civil or administrative disciplinary proceeding against a provider;

(2) Subject to discovery in connection with a Federal, State, local, or Tribal civil, criminal, or administrative proceeding, including in a Federal, State, local, or Tribal civil or administrative disciplinary proceeding against a provider;

(3) Subject to disclosure pursuant to section 552 of Title 5, United States Code (commonly known as the Freedom of Information Act) or any other similar Federal, State, local, or Tribal law;

(4) Admitted as evidence in any Federal, State, local, or Tribal governmental civil proceeding, criminal proceeding, administrative rulemaking proceeding, or administrative adjudicatory proceeding, including any such proceeding against a provider; or

(5) Admitted in a professional disciplinary proceeding of a professional disciplinary body established or specifically authorized under State law.

(b) Exceptions to privilege. Privilege shall not apply to (and shall not be construed to prohibit) one or more of the following disclosures:

(1) Disclosure of relevant patient safety work product for use in a criminal proceeding, subject to the conditions at § 3.206(b)(1) of this subpart.

(2) Disclosure to the extent required to permit equitable relief subject to the conditions at § 3.206(b)(2) of this subpart.

(3) Disclosure pursuant to provider authorizations subject to the conditions at § 3.206(b)(3) of this subpart.

(4) Disclosure of non-identifiable patient safety work product subject to the conditions at § 3.206(b)(5) of this subpart.

(c) Implementation and enforcement by the Secretary. Privilege shall not apply to (and shall not be construed to prohibit) disclosures of relevant patient safety work product to or by the Secretary if such patient safety work product is needed to investigate or determine compliance, or to seek or impose civil money penalties, with respect to this part or the HIPAA Privacy Rule, or to make or support decisions with respect to listing of a PSO.

(a) Confidentiality. Subject to paragraphs (b) through (e) of this section, and §§ 3.208 and 3.210 of this subpart, patient safety work product shall be confidential and shall not be disclosed.

(b) Exceptions to confidentiality. The confidentiality provisions shall not apply to (and shall not be construed to prohibit) one or more of the following disclosures:

(1) Disclosure in criminal proceedings. Disclosure of relevant patient safety work product for use in a criminal proceeding, but only after a court makes an in-camera determination that:

(i) Such patient safety work product contains evidence of a criminal act;

(ii) Such patient safety work product is material to the proceeding; and

(iii) Such patient safety work product is not reasonably available from any other source.

(2) Disclosure to permit equitable relief for reporters. Disclosure of patient safety work product to the extent required to permit equitable relief under section 922 (f)(4)(A) of the Public Health Service Act, provided the court or administrative tribunal has issued a protective order to protect the confidentiality of the patient safety work product in the course of the proceeding.

(3) Disclosure authorized by identified providers. (i) Disclosure of identifiable patient safety work product consistent with a valid authorization if such authorization is obtained from each provider identified in such work product prior to disclosure. A valid authorization must:

(A) Be in writing and signed by the provider from whom authorization is sought; and

(B) Contain sufficient detail to fairly inform the provider of the nature and scope of the disclosures being authorized;

(ii) A valid authorization must be retained by the disclosing entity for six years from the date of the last disclosure made in reliance on the authorization and made available to the Secretary upon request.

(4) Disclosure for patient safety activities—(i) Disclosure between a provider and a PSO. Disclosure of patient safety work product for patient safety activities by a provider to a PSO or by a PSO to that disclosing provider.

(ii) Disclosure to a contractor of a provider or a PSO. A provider or a PSO may disclose patient safety work product for patient safety activities to an entity with which it has contracted to undertake patient safety activities on its behalf. A contractor receiving patient safety work product for patient safety activities may not further disclose patient safety work product, except to the provider or PSO with which it is contracted.

(iii) Disclosure among affiliated providers. Disclosure of patient safety work product for patient safety activities by a provider to an affiliated provider.

(iv) Disclosure to another PSO or provider. Disclosure of patient safety work product for patient safety activities by a PSO to another PSO or to another provider that has reported to the PSO, or, except as otherwise permitted in paragraph (b)(4)(iii) of this section, by a provider to another provider, provided:

(A) The following direct identifiers of any providers and of affiliated organizations, corporate parents, subsidiaries, practice partners, employers, members of the workforce, or household members of such providers are removed:

(1) Names;

(2) Postal address information, other than town or city, State and zip code;

(3) Telephone numbers;

(4) Fax numbers;

(5) Electronic mail addresses;

(6) Social security numbers or taxpayer identification numbers;

(7) Provider or practitioner credentialing or DEA numbers;

(8) National provider identification number;

(9) Certificate/license numbers;

(10) Web Universal Resource Locators (URLs);

(11) Internet Protocol (IP) address numbers;

(12) Biometric identifiers, including finger and voice prints; and

(13) Full face photographic images and any comparable images; and

(B) With respect to any individually identifiable health information in such patient safety work product, the direct identifiers listed at 45 CFR 164.514(e)(2) have been removed.

(5) Disclosure of nonidentifiable patient safety work product. Disclosure of nonidentifiable patient safety work product when patient safety work product meets the standard for nonidentification in accordance with § 3.212 of this subpart.

(6) Disclosure for research. (i) Disclosure of patient safety work product to persons carrying out research, evaluation or demonstration projects authorized, funded, certified, or otherwise sanctioned by rule or other means by the Secretary, for the purpose of conducting research.

(ii) If the patient safety work product disclosed pursuant to paragraph (b)(6)(i) of this section is by a HIPAA covered entity as defined at 45 CFR 160.103 and contains protected health information as defined by the HIPAA Privacy Rule at 45 CFR 160.103, such patient safety work product may only be disclosed under this exception in the same manner as would be permitted under the HIPAA Privacy Rule.

(7) Disclosure to the Food and Drug Administration (FDA) and entities required to report to FDA. (i) Disclosure by a provider of patient safety work product concerning an FDA-regulated product or activity to the FDA, an entity required to report to the FDA concerning the quality, safety, or effectiveness of an FDA-regulated product or activity, or a contractor acting on behalf of FDA or such entity for these purposes.

(ii) Any person permitted to receive patient safety work product pursuant to paragraph (b)(7)(i) of this section may only further disclose such patient safety work product for the purpose of evaluating the quality, safety, or effectiveness of that product or activity to another such person or the disclosing provider.

(8) Voluntary disclosure to an accrediting body. (i) Voluntary disclosure by a provider of patient safety work product to an accrediting body that accredits that provider, provided, with respect to any identified provider other than the provider making the disclosure:

(A) The provider agrees to the disclosure; or

(B) The identifiers at § 3.206(b)(4)(iv)(A) are removed.

(ii) An accrediting body may not further disclose patient safety work product it receives pursuant to paragraph (b)(8)(i) of this section.

(iii) An accrediting body may not take an accrediting action against a provider based on a good faith participation of the provider in the collection, development, reporting, or maintenance of patient safety work product in accordance with this Part. An accrediting body may not require a provider to reveal its communications with any PSO.

(9) Disclosure for business operations. (i) Disclosure of patient safety work product by a provider or a PSO for business operations to attorneys, accountants, and other professionals. Such contractors may not further disclose patient safety work product, except to the entity from which they received the information.

(ii) Disclosure of patient safety work product for such other business operations that the Secretary may prescribe by regulation as consistent with the goals of this part.

(10) Disclosure to law enforcement. (i) Disclosure of patient safety work product to an appropriate law enforcement authority relating to an event that either constitutes the commission of a crime, or for which the disclosing person reasonably believes constitutes the commission of a crime, provided that the disclosing person believes, reasonably under the circumstances, that the patient safety work product that is disclosed is necessary for criminal law enforcement purposes.

(ii) Law enforcement personnel receiving patient safety work product pursuant to paragraph (b)(10)(i) of this section only may disclose that patient safety work product to other law enforcement authorities as needed for law enforcement activities related to the event that gave rise to the disclosure under paragraph (b)(10)(i) of this section.

(c) Safe harbor. A provider or responsible person, but not a PSO, is not considered to have violated the requirements of this subpart if a member of its workforce discloses patient safety work product, provided that the disclosure does not include materials, including oral statements, that:

(1) Assess the quality of care of an identifiable provider; or

(2) Describe or pertain to one or more actions or failures to act by an identifiable provider.

(d) Implementation and enforcement by the Secretary. The confidentiality provisions shall not apply to (and shall not be construed to prohibit) disclosures of relevant patient safety work product to or by the Secretary if such patient safety work product is needed to investigate or determine compliance or to seek or impose civil money penalties, with respect to this part or the HIPAA Privacy Rule, or to make or support decisions with respect to listing of a PSO.

(e) No limitation on authority to limit or delegate disclosure or use. Nothing in subpart C of this part shall be construed to limit the authority of any person to enter into a contract requiring greater confidentiality or delegating authority to make a disclosure or use in accordance with this subpart.

(a) Except as provided in paragraph (b) of this section, patient safety work product disclosed in accordance with this subpart, or disclosed impermissibly, shall continue to be privileged and confidential.

(b)(1) Patient safety work product disclosed for use in a criminal proceeding pursuant to section 922(c)(1)(A) of the Public Health Service Act, 42 U.S.C. 299b-22(c)(1)(A), and/or pursuant to § 3.206(b)(1) of this subpart continues to be privileged, but is no longer confidential.

(2) Non-identifiable patient safety work product that is disclosed is no longer privileged or confidential and not subject to the regulations under this part.

(3) Paragraph (b) of this section applies only to the specific patient safety work product disclosed.

Notwithstanding any other provision in this part, providers, PSOs, and responsible persons must disclose patient safety work product upon request by the Secretary when the Secretary determines such patient safety work product is needed to investigate or determine compliance or to seek or impose civil money penalties, with respect to this part or the HIPAA Privacy Rule, or to make or support decisions with respect to listing of a PSO.

(a) Patient safety work product is nonidentifiable with respect to a particular identified provider or a particular identified reporter if:

(1) A person with appropriate knowledge of and experience with generally accepted statistical and scientific principles and methods for rendering information not individually identifiable:

(i) Applying such principles and methods, determines that the risk is very small that the information could be used, alone or in combination with other reasonably available information, by an anticipated recipient to identify an identified provider or reporter; and

(ii) Documents the methods and results of the analysis that justify such determination; or

(2)(i) The following identifiers of such provider or reporter and of affiliated organizations, corporate parents, subsidiaries, practice partners, employers, members of the workforce, or household members of such providers or reporters are removed:

(A) The direct identifiers listed at § 3.206(b)(4)(iv)(A)(1) through (13) of this subpart;

(B) Geographic subdivisions smaller than a State, including street address, city, county, precinct, zip code and equivalent geocodes, except for the initial three digits of a zip code if, according to the current publicly available data from the Bureau of the Census, the geographic unit formed by combining all zip codes with the same three initial digits contains more than 20,000 people;

(C) All elements of dates (except year) for dates directly related to a patient safety incident or event; and

(D) Any other unique identifying number, characteristic, or code except as permitted for re-identification; and

(ii) The provider, PSO or responsible person making the disclosure does not have actual knowledge that the information could be used, alone or in combination with other information that is reasonably available to the intended recipient, to identify the particular provider or reporter.

(3) Re-identification. A provider, PSO, or responsible person may assign a code or other means of record identification to allow information made nonidentifiable under this section to be re-identified by such provider, PSO, or responsible person, provided that:

(i) The code or other means of record identification is not derived from or related to information about the provider or reporter and is not otherwise capable of being translated so as to identify the provider or reporter; and

(ii) The provider, PSO, or responsible person does not use or disclose the code or other means of record identification for any other purpose, and does not disclose the mechanism for re-identification.

(b) Patient safety work product is non-identifiable with respect to a particular patient only if the individually identifiable health information regarding that patient is de-identified in accordance with the HIPAA Privacy Rule standard and implementation specifications for the de-identification at 45 CFR 164.514(a) through (c).

(a) Cooperation. The Secretary will, to the extent practicable, seek the cooperation of providers, PSOs, and responsible persons in obtaining compliance with the applicable confidentiality provisions.

(b) Assistance. The Secretary may provide technical assistance to providers, PSOs, and responsible persons to help them comply voluntarily with the applicable confidentiality provisions.

(a) Right to file a complaint. A person who believes that patient safety work product has been disclosed in violation of the confidentiality provisions may file a complaint with the Secretary.

(b) Requirements for filing complaints. Complaints under this section must meet the following requirements:

(1) A complaint must be filed in writing, either on paper or electronically.

(2) A complaint must name the person that is the subject of the complaint and describe the act(s) believed to be in violation of the applicable confidentiality provision(s).

(3) A complaint must be filed within 180 days of when the complainant knew or should have known that the act complained of occurred, unless this time limit is waived by the Secretary for good cause shown.

(4) The Secretary may prescribe additional procedures for the filing of complaints, as well as the place and manner of filing, by notice in the Federal Register.

(c) Investigation. The Secretary may investigate complaints filed under this section. Such investigation may include a review of the pertinent policies, procedures, or practices of the respondent and of the circumstances regarding any alleged violation. At the time of initial written communication with the respondent about the complaint, the Secretary will describe the act(s) that are the basis of the complaint.

The Secretary may conduct compliance reviews to determine whether a respondent is complying with the applicable confidentiality provisions.

(a) Provide records and compliance reports. A respondent must keep such records and submit such compliance reports, in such time and manner and containing such information, as the Secretary may determine to be necessary to enable the Secretary to ascertain whether the respondent has complied or is complying with the applicable confidentiality provisions.

(b) Cooperate with complaint investigations and compliance reviews. A respondent must cooperate with the Secretary, if the Secretary undertakes an investigation or compliance review of the policies, procedures, or practices of the respondent to determine whether it is complying with the applicable confidentiality provisions.

(c) Permit access to information. (1) A respondent must permit access by the Secretary during normal business hours to its facilities, books, records, accounts, and other sources of information, including patient safety work product, that are pertinent to ascertaining compliance with the applicable confidentiality provisions. If the Secretary determines that exigent circumstances exist, such as when documents may be hidden or destroyed, a respondent must permit access by the Secretary at any time and without notice.

(2) If any information required of a respondent under this section is in the exclusive possession of any other agency, institution, or person, and the other agency, institution, or person fails or refuses to furnish the information, the respondent must so certify and set forth what efforts it has made to obtain the information.

(a) Resolution when noncompliance is indicated. (1) If an investigation of a complaint pursuant to § 3.306 of this subpart or a compliance review pursuant to § 3.308 of this subpart indicates noncompliance, the Secretary may attempt to reach a resolution of the matter satisfactory to the Secretary by informal means. Informal means may include demonstrated compliance or a completed corrective action plan or other agreement.

(2) If the matter is resolved by informal means, the Secretary will so inform the respondent and, if the matter arose from a complaint, the complainant, in writing.

(3) If the matter is not resolved by informal means, the Secretary will—

(i) So inform the respondent and provide the respondent an opportunity to submit written evidence of any mitigating factors. The respondent must submit any evidence to the Secretary within 30 days (computed in the same manner as prescribed under § 3.526 of this subpart) of receipt of such notification; and

(ii) If, following action pursuant to paragraph (a)(3)(i) of this section, the Secretary decides that a civil money penalty should be imposed, inform the respondent of such finding in a notice of proposed determination in accordance with § 3.420 of this subpart.

(b) Resolution when no violation is found. If, after an investigation pursuant to § 3.306 of this subpart or a compliance review pursuant to § 3.308 of this subpart, the Secretary determines that further action is not warranted, the Secretary will so inform the respondent and, if the matter arose from a complaint, the complainant, in writing.

(c) Uses and disclosures of information obtained. (1) Identifiable patient safety work product obtained by the Secretary in connection with an investigation or compliance review under this subpart will not be disclosed by the Secretary, except in accordance with § 3.206(d) of this subpart, or if otherwise permitted by this part or the Patient Safety Act.

(2) Except as provided for in paragraph (c)(1) of this section, information, including testimony and other evidence, obtained by the Secretary in connection with an investigation or compliance review under this subpart may be used by HHS in any of its activities and may be used or offered into evidence in any administrative or judicial proceeding.

(a) The Secretary may issue subpoenas in accordance with 42 U.S.C. 405(d) and (e), and 1320a-7a(j), to require the attendance and testimony of witnesses and the production of any other evidence including patient safety work product during an investigation or compliance review pursuant to this part.

(1) A subpoena issued under this paragraph must—

(i) State the name of the person (including the entity, if applicable) to whom the subpoena is addressed;

(ii) State the statutory authority for the subpoena;

(iii) Indicate the date, time, and place that the testimony will take place;

(iv) Include a reasonably specific description of any documents or items required to be produced; and

(v) If the subpoena is addressed to an entity, describe with reasonable particularity the subject matter on which testimony is required. In that event, the entity must designate one or more natural persons who will testify on its behalf, and must state as to each such person that person's name and address and the matters on which he or she will testify. The designated person must testify as to matters known or reasonably available to the entity.

(2) A subpoena under this section must be served by—

(i) Delivering a copy to the natural person named in the subpoena or to the entity named in the subpoena at its last principal place of business; or

(ii) Registered or certified mail addressed to the natural person at his or her last known dwelling place or to the entity at its last known principal place of business.

(3) A verified return by the natural person serving the subpoena setting forth the manner of service or, in the case of service by registered or certified mail, the signed return post office receipt, constitutes proof of service.

(4) Witnesses are entitled to the same fees and mileage as witnesses in the district courts of the United States (28 U.S.C. 1821 and 1825). Fees need not be paid at the time the subpoena is served.

(5) A subpoena under this section is enforceable through the district court of the United States for the district where the subpoenaed natural person resides or is found or where the entity transacts business.

(b) Investigational inquiries are non-public investigational proceedings conducted by the Secretary.

(1) Testimony at investigational inquiries will be taken under oath or affirmation.

(2) Attendance of non-witnesses is discretionary with the Secretary, except that a witness is entitled to be accompanied, represented, and advised by an attorney.

(3) Representatives of the Secretary are entitled to attend and ask questions.

(4) A witness will have the opportunity to clarify his or her answers on the record following questioning by the Secretary.

(5) Any claim of privilege must be asserted by the witness on the record.

(6) Objections must be asserted on the record. Errors of any kind that might be corrected if promptly presented will be deemed to be waived unless reasonable objection is made at the investigational inquiry. Except where the objection is on the grounds of privilege, the question will be answered on the record, subject to objection.

(7) If a witness refuses to answer any question not privileged or to produce requested documents or items, or engages in conduct likely to delay or obstruct the investigational inquiry, the Secretary may seek enforcement of the subpoena under paragraph (a)(5) of this section.

(8) The proceedings will be recorded and transcribed. The witness is entitled to a copy of the transcript, upon payment of prescribed costs, except that, for good cause, the witness may be limited to inspection of the official transcript of his or her testimony.

(9)(i) The transcript will be submitted to the witness for signature.

(A) Where the witness will be provided a copy of the transcript, the transcript will be submitted to the witness for signature. The witness may submit to the Secretary written proposed corrections to the transcript, with such corrections attached to the transcript. If the witness does not return a signed copy of the transcript or proposed corrections within 30 days (computed in the same manner as prescribed under § 3.526 of this part) of its being submitted to him or her for signature, the witness will be deemed to have agreed that the transcript is true and accurate.

(B) Where, as provided in paragraph (b)(8) of this section, the witness is limited to inspecting the transcript, the witness will have the opportunity at the time of inspection to propose corrections to the transcript, with corrections attached to the transcript. The witness will also have the opportunity to sign the transcript. If the witness does not sign the transcript or offer corrections within 30 days (computed in the same manner as prescribed under § 3.526 of this part) of receipt of notice of the opportunity to inspect the transcript, the witness will be deemed to have agreed that the transcript is true and accurate.

(ii) The Secretary's proposed corrections to the record of transcript will be attached to the transcript.

(a) General rule. A person who discloses identifiable patient safety work product in knowing or reckless violation of the confidentiality provisions shall be subject to a civil money penalty for each act constituting such violation.

(b) Violation attributed to a principal. A principal is independently liable, in accordance with the federal common law of agency, for a civil money penalty based on the act of the principal's agent, including a workforce member, acting within the scope of the agency if such act could give rise to a civil money penalty in accordance with § 3.402(a) of this subpart.

(a) The amount of a civil money penalty will be determined in accordance with paragraph (b) of this section and § 3.408 of this subpart.

(b) The Secretary may impose a civil money penalty in the amount of not more than $10,000.

As used in this part, the term:

(a) Act means the Public Health Service Act, 58 Stat. 682, as now or hereafter amended.

(b) Department means the Department of Health and Human Services.

(c) Secretary means the Secretary of Health and Human Services.

(d) Service means the Public Health Service.

(e) Surgeon General means the Surgeon General of the Public Health Service.

(f) Commissioned officer or officer, unless otherwise indicated, means either an officer of the Regular Corps or an officer of the Reserve Corps.

The terms approved school, approved college, approved postgraduate school, or approved training course means, except as otherwise provided by law:

(a) A school, college, postgraduate school, or training course which has been accredited or approved by a professional body or bodies recognized by the Surgeon General for such purpose, or which, in the absence of such a body, meets generally accepted professional standards as determined by the Surgeon General, or

(b) In the case of a candidate who is applying for appointment as a medical officer, any non-approved medical school provided that the candidate has passed examinations given by a professional body or bodies recognized by the Surgeon General for such purpose.

(a) Application form. Every candidate for examination for appointment as an officer shall submit a written application on such form as may be prescribed by the Surgeon General.

(b) Documentary evidence. The application shall be accompanied by such documentary evidence as may be required by the Surgeon General.

Willfully false statements shall be cause for rejection of the application or, as provided in subpart N of this part, for dismissal.

Every candidate for appointment as an officer shall undergo such physical examination as the Surgeon General may direct, and no candidate who is not found to be physically qualified shall be appointed as an officer.

(a) Requirements; all candidates. Except as provided in § 21.54, and as otherwise provided in this section, every candidate for examination for appointment in the grade of junior assistant:

(1) Shall be a citizen of the United States;

(2) Shall be at least 18 years of age; and

(3) Shall have been granted an academic or professional degree from an approved school, college, or postgraduate school, and, unless the required professional training has been otherwise obtained from an approved school, college, or postgraduate school, shall have majored in the profession in which the examination is being held.

(b) [Reserved]

(c) Special requirement; therapists. Every candidate for examination for appointment as a therapist shall have received a certificate from an approved school of physical therapy or an approved school of occupational therapy.

(a) Requirements; all candidates. Except as otherwise provided in this section every candidate for examination for appointment in the grade of assistant:

(1) Shall meet the requirements for eligibility for examination for appointment in the grade of junior assistant;

(2) Shall be at least 21 years of age; and

(3) Shall have had at least 7 years of educational and professional training or experience subsequent to high school, except that a candidate who applies for examination for appointment in the Reserve Corps to serve as a medical or dental intern may be examined for such appointment upon the completion of 6 years of such education, training, or experience.

(b) Additional requirements; dietitians. Every candidate for examination for appointment as a dietitian shall have successfully completed an approved training course for dietetic interns.

Every candidate for examination for appointment in the grade of senior assistant shall meet the requirements for eligibility for examination for appointment in the grade of assistant and shall have completed at least 10 years of educational and professional training or experience subsequent to high school.

Every candidate for examination for appointment in grades above that of senior assistant shall meet the requirements for eligibility for examination for appointment in the grade of senior assistant. Candidates for examination for appointment in the full, senior, or director grade shall have completed at least 7, 14, or 15 additional years, respectively, of postgraduate professional training for experience. When officers of the Service are unavailable for the performance of duties requiring highly specialized training and experience in special fields related to public health, the Surgeon General may specify that a candidate for appointment to the Regular Corps with such highly specialized training and experience shall be examined for appointment in the full or senior grade upon completion of at least 5 or 12 additional years, respectively, of postgraduate professional training or experience, except that the total number of such appointments during a fiscal year shall not exceed three.

The level of academic attainment, the number of calendar years and the quality of educational and professional training and experience shall be considered in determining the number of years of such training and experience with which each candidate for appointment may be credited.

The Surgeon General is authorized, subject to the other provisions of this subpart to adopt additional standards by which the education, training, and experience required under this subpart, and evidence thereof, shall be of such specific kind and quality, pertinent to the particular profession concerned, as in his judgment are necessary to limit the examination to qualified candidates.

The Surgeon General shall from time to time appoint boards and subboards of officers to consider the qualifications of candidates for appointment as officers, and shall refer to such boards the applications of those candidates who are eligible for examination for appointment. Such boards and subboards shall consist of three or more officers, the majority of whom, so far as practicable, shall be of the same profession as the candidate. The Surgeon General shall prescribe the duties of boards and subboards in relation to the examination process not otherwise prescribed in this subpart.

Officers shall be appointed only to general service and shall be subject to change of station.

From time to time the Surgeon General may order examinations to be held in such professions or specialties within professions and for such grades as he deems necessary for the purpose of providing merit rolls of eligible candidates for appointment in the Regular Corps and shall, if a professional examination is to be required, prescribe the subjects relating to each profession or specialty within such profession in which candidates will be examined.

The examination for appointment to the junior assistant, assistant, or senior assistant grade in the Regular Corps shall consist of (a) a written professional examination relating to the fundamentals of the candidate's profession or specialty within his profession and their relationship to the activities of the Service, and (b) an examination as to the candidate's general fitness, which shall include an oral interview, and a review and evaluation of the candidate's academic and professional education and professional training and experience, and may include other written tests to determine the candidate's fitness for appointment as an officer. If an applicant for appointment to any of these grades is an officer of the Reserve Corps who has been on active duty for not less than one year immediately preceding his application, the Surgeon General may direct that the officer be examined as provided in § 21.43.

The examination for appointment to the full, senior, or director grade in the Regular Corps shall consist of a review and evaluation of the candidate's academic and professional education and professional training and experience. The Surgeon General may, however, direct that the examination of a candidate for appointment to any such grade shall also include an oral interview, a written or oral professional examination, or both.

In the discretion of the Surgeon General a candidate for appointment to any grade up to and including the senior assistant grade in the Regular Corps may be required to perform successfully a clinical or other practical demonstration which, if required, shall constitute a part of the professional examination.

The examination of every candidate for appointment to any grade in the Regular Corps shall be rated by a board appointed pursuant to § 21.30 in accordance with such relative values for each part of the examination as are prescribed by the Surgeon General. No candidate who receives a final rating below 80 shall be appointed in the Regular Corps.

Each board appointed pursuant to § 21.30 to consider the qualifications of candidates for appointment as officers shall assign a numerical rating to each candidate for appointment in the Regular Corps who passes the examination, and shall submit a report to the Surgeon General of the ratings and the relative standing of all such candidates for each grade in each profession or specialty within a profession. The Surgeon General shall submit each such report with his recommendations to the Secretary, and, if approved by the Secretary, the report shall constitute a merit roll from which the Secretary shall, in accordance with relative standing, recommend available persons to the President for nomination as commissioned officers of the Regular Corps. A board may consider any newly discovered evidence relating to the physical, professional, or personal qualifications of any candidate examined for appointment. Upon recommendation of such board after review of such evidence, the Surgeon General, with the approval of the Secretary, may correct the rating of a candidate or may qualify or disqualify a candidate. The placing of a candidate's name on a merit roll shall give no assurance of an appointment. A merit roll shall expire when a new merit roll in the same profession or specialty within a profession and grade has been established, but no merit roll shall continue in effect longer than two years after its approval by the Secretary. Every candidate who has not been nominated by the President for appointment prior to the expiration of a merit roll on which his name appears, shall, unless he requests the opportunity to be reexamined, be rated with the next group of candidates of the same profession or specialty within a profession for appointment in the same grade and shall be given the same rating he had on the expired merit roll. If two candidates who were examined at the same time receive the same numerical rating the elder candidate shall assume relative standing on the merit roll over the younger candidate. If a candidate whose name is being transferred from an expired to a new merit roll has the same numerical rating as a candidate whose name is being placed on the new merit roll for the first time, the former shall assume relative standing on the merit roll over the latter. The name of a candidate may be removed from a merit roll in the event that he refuses an appointment when offered. No candidate's eligibility for appointment shall exceed two years unless he again becomes eligible as the result of another examination.

A potential candidate for appointment in any grade in the Regular Corps may be examined within a period of nine months prior to the date upon which it is anticipated that he will qualify for appointment under this subpart. Upon successful completion of the examination, his name will be entered on a merit roll. In the event that his name, in order of relative standing among all candidates, precedes that of fully qualified candidates, his name, for purpose of appointment, shall be passed over in favor of fully qualified candidates until such time as he becomes fully qualified, but in no event shall he otherwise lose his relative standing on the merit roll, except as provided in § 21.46. If the candidate fails to qualify for appointment at the time that it was anticipated that he would qualify, his name shall be removed from the merit roll.

The Surgeon General may recommend for original appointment in the Reserve Corps candidates who have specialized training or experience in administration and management relating to the functions of the Service. All such candidates shall be subject to the same eligibility requirements for original appointment as are applicable to other candidates, except that such a candidate may substitute experience in administration or management for the requirement of professional training or experience.

If, in time of war or national emergency proclaimed by the President, the Secretary determines that there is need for commissioned personnel to meet the needs of the Service, other than persons eligible for examination for original appointment under the eligibility requirements prescribed in this subpart, he may prescribe standards of eligibility for examination for the original appointment of officers in the Reserve Corps without regard to such eligibility requirements. Such standards shall, however, authorize the examination only of candidates with specialized experience in administration or management or candidates with training or experience in fields relating to public health. The permanent grade of an officer who becomes eligible for examination for appointment pursuant to such standards and who becomes eligible for appointment after passage of an examination shall be limited to the junior assistant or the assistant grade, except that, if upon examination a candidate is found to be exceptionally qualified for the performance of highly specialized duties with the Service pursuant to § 21.55, he may be recommended for appointment to any grade up to and including the director grade.

The examination of candidates for original appointment as officers to any grade in the Reserve Corps shall consist of a review and evaluation of their academic and other education and their training and experience. In the discretion of the Surgeon General the examination of any such candidate may include an oral interview, a written examination, or both.

A potential candidate for appointment in the Regular Corps who is pursuing a course of instruction which, upon completion, would qualify him under § 21.25 or § 21.26 for examination for appointment in the junior assistant or assistant grade may be examined for and appointed in the Reserve Corps in the junior assistant grade but shall not be called to extended active duty until the successful completion of such course of instruction, except that: (a) He may be called to active duty for purposes of training for periods not to exceed 120 days during any fiscal year, and (b) those students who have completed at least 3 years of collegiate or professional study leading to the qualifying degree for appointment may be called to active duty for the purpose of completing the requirements of § 21.25(a)(3). An appointment made under this subpart shall be terminated upon the officer's failure to continue a full-time course of study or failure to meet the requirements of § 21.25(a)(3) within 18 months after entering on active duty.

Any candidate eligible for examination for appointment in the grade of assistant pursuant to § 21.26 who, upon examination for such purpose, is found exceptionally qualified for the performance of duties requiring highly specialized training or experience may be recommended for appointment in the Reserve Corps in any grade up to and including the director grade without regard to the additional years of postgraduate training or experience prescribed for grades above the assistant grade.

An officer of the Reserve Corps, after being examined and found qualified for reappointment, may be recommended for reappointment to the same grade in the event that his commission expires before he becomes eligible for reappointment to a higher grade, or may be recommended for reappointment to a higher grade to be effective on or after the date on which he meets the qualifications prescribed in this subpart for original appointment to such higher grade.

The examination of an officer of the Reserve Corps on active duty who is being considered for reappointment in such corps shall consist of a review and evaluation of his record with the Service. The examination of an officer of the Reserve Corps on inactive duty who is being considered for reappointment in such corps shall consist of (a) a review and evaluation of his record with the Service while on active duty, if any, and (b) the record of his training or experience during the period of his inactive duty preceding such examination. In the discretion of the Surgeon General the examination for reappointment of an officer, whether on active or inactive duty, may include an oral interview.

Every officer of the Reserve Corps being considered for reappointment shall undergo such physical examination as the Surgeon General may direct. An officer on active duty may be recommended for reappointment unless he is found to have a physical disability which is determined to render him physically unfit to perform the duties of his office under section 402 of the Career Compensation Act of 1949, as amended. An officer may be recommended for promotion only if he meets the physical qualifications for original appointment. If an officer is not available to be physically examined because of circumstances which make it impracticable for the Service to require such examination, he may, in the discretion of the Surgeon General, be reappointed without such examination, but shall be examined as soon thereafter as practicable and his physical qualification or disqualification for continued or future active service shall be determined on the same basis as if the physical examination had been given prior to reappointment.

Under references 37 U.S.C. 101, 15 U.S.C. 1673, and 42 U.S.C. 665, this subpart provides implementing policies governing involuntary child or child and spousal support allotments, assigns responsibilities, and prescribes procedures.

(a) This subpart applies to officers in the Public Health Service Commissioned Corps. The term “Public Health Service,” hereinafter shall be referred to as Service.

(b) Its provisions pertain to officers of the Service under a call or order to active duty for a period of six months or more.

(a) Child support. Periodic payments for the support and maintenance of a child or children, subject to and in accordance with State or local law. This includes, but is not limited to payments to provide for health care, education, recreation, clothing, or to meet other specific needs of such a child or children.

(b) Spousal support. Periodic payments for the support and maintenance of a spouse or former spouse in accordance with State or local law. It includes, but is not limited to, separate maintenance, alimony pendente lite, and maintenance. Spousal support does not include any payment for transfer of property or its value by an individual to his or her spouse or former spouse in compliance with any community property settlement, equitable distribution of property, or other division of property between spouse or former spouse.

(c) Notice. A court order, letter, or similar documentation issued by an authorized person, which provides notification that an officer has failed to make periodic support payments under a support order.

(d) Support order. Any order providing for child or child and spousal support issued by a court of competent jurisdiction or by administrative procedures established under State law that affords substantially due process and is subject to judicial review. A court of competent jurisdiction includes Indian tribal courts within any State, territory, or possession of the United States and the District of Columbia.

(e) Authorized person. (1) Any agent or attorney of any State having in effect a plan approved under part D of title IV of the Social Security Act (42 U.S.C. 651-665), who has the duty or authority to seek recovery of any amounts owed as child or child and spousal support (including, when authorized under a State plan, any official of a political subdivision); and (2) the court which has authority to issue an order against the officer for the support and maintenance of a child, or any agent of such court.

(f) Active duty. Full-time duty in the Service, including full-time training duty.

(g) Legal officer. Shall be an officer of the Service or employee of the Department who is a lawyer and who has substantial knowledge of the regulations, policies, and procedures relating to the implementation of section 172 of Pub. L. 97-248.

(a) It is the policy of the Department of Health and Human Services to withhold allotments from pay and allowances of commissioned officers on active duty in the Service to make involuntary allotments from pay and allowances as payment of child, or child and spousal, support payments when the officer has failed to make periodic payments under a support order in a total amount equal to the support payable for two months or longer. Failure to make such payments shall be established by notice from an authorized person to the designated official of the Department. Such notice shall specify the name and address of the payee to whom the allotment is payable. The amount of the allotment shall be the amount necessary to comply with the support order including amounts for arrearages as well as for current support. However the amount of the allotment, when added to any other amounts withheld from the officer's pay pursuant to a support order, shall not exceed the limits for involuntary allotments from pay as prescribed in section 303 (b) and (c) of the Consumer Credit Protection Act, 15 U.S.C. 1673. An allotment under this Subpart shall be adjusted or discontinued upon notice from any authorized person.

(b) Notwithstanding the above, no action shall be taken to withhold an allotment from the pay and allowances of any officer until such officer has had an opportunity to consult with a legal officer of the Department to discuss the legal and other factors involved with respect to the officer's support obligation and his or her failure to make payments. The Department shall exercise continuing good faith efforts to arrange such a consultation, but must begin to withhold allotments on the first end-of-month payday after 30 days have elapsed since notice of an opportunity to consult was sent to the officer.

(a) The General Counsel, Office of the Secretary, Department of Health and Human Services, shall be the Designated Official for the Department and shall provide guidance to the Service regarding administration of the provisions of these regulations.

(b) The Commissioned Personnel Operations Division, Office of Personnel Management, Office of Management, Office of the Assistant Secretary for Health, shall implement the provisions of these regulations.

(a) Service of notice. (1) An authorized person shall serve on the designated official of the Department a signed notice including:

(i) Full name of the officer;

(ii) Social security number of the officer;

(iii) Duty station location of the officer, if known;

(iv) A statement that support payments are delinquent by an amount at least equal to the amount of support payable for two months;

(v) A photocopy, along with any modifications, of the underlying support order;

(vi) A statement of the amount of arrearages provided for in the court order and the amount which is to be applied each month toward liquidation of the arrearages, if applicable;

(vii) The full name and address of the payee to whom the allotment will be payable;

(viii) Any limitations on the duration of the support allotment.

(2) The service of notice shall be accomplished by certified or registered mail, return receipt requested, or by personal service, upon the appropriate designated official of the Department. The designated official shall note the date and time of receipt on the notice.

(3) Valid service is not accomplished until the notice is received in the office of the designated official.

(4) If the order of a court or duly authorized administrative agency seeks collection of arrearages, the notice must state that the support allotment qualifies for the additional 5 percent in excess of the maximum percentage limitations found in 15 U.S.C. 1673. Supporting evidence must be submitted to the Department establishing that the support order is 12 or more weeks in arrears.

(5) When the information submitted is not sufficient to identify the officer the notice shall be returned directly to the authorized person with an explanation of the deficiency. However, before returning the notice, an attempt should be made to inform the authorized person who caused the notice to be served that it will not be honored unless adequate information is supplied.

(6) Upon proper service of notice of delinquent support payments and together with all required supplementary documents and information, the Service shall identify the officer from whom moneys are due and payable. The pay of the officer shall be reduced by the amount necessary to comply with the support order and liquidate arrearages if any, if provided by order of a court or duly authorized administrative agency. The maximum amount to be alloted under the provision together with any other moneys withheld from the officer for support pursuant to a court order may not exceed:

(i) 50 percent of the officer's disposable earnings for any month when the officer asserts by affidavit or other acceptable evidence that he or she is supporting a spouse or dependent child or both, other than a party in the support order. When the officer submits evidence, copies shall be sent to the authorized person, together with notification that the officer's support claim will be honored. If the support claim is contested by the authorized person, the authorized person may refer it to the appropriate court or other authority for resolution. Pending resolution of a contested support claim, the allotment shall be made but the amount of such allotment may not exceed 50 percent of the officer's disposable earnings;

(ii) 60 percent of the officer's disposable earnings for any month when the officer fails to assert by affidavit or other acceptable evidence, that he or she is supporting a spouse or dependent child or both;

(iii) Regardless of the limitations above, an additional five percent of the officer's disposable earnings shall be withheld when it is stated in the notice that the officer is in arrears in an amount equivalent to 12 or more weeks' support.

(b) Disposable earnings. (1) The following moneys, as defined in the U.S. Public Health Service Commissioned Corps Personnel Manual, are subject to inclusion in computation of the officer's disposable earnings:

(i) Basic pay;

(ii) Basic allowances for quarters for officers with dependents and officers without dependents;

(iii) Basic allowance for subsistence;

(iv) Special pay for physicians, dentists, optometrists, and veterinarians;

(v) Hazardous duty pay;

(vi) Flying pay; and

(vii) Family separation allowances (only for officers assigned outside the contiguous United States).

(c) Exclusions. The following moneys are excluded from the computation of the officer's disposable earnings. Amounts due from or payable by the United States shall be offset by any amounts:

(1) Owed by the officer to the United States.

(2) Required by law to be deducted from the remuneration or other payment involved including but not limited to:

(i) Amounts withheld from benefits payable under title II of the Social Security Act when the withholding is required by law;

(ii) FICA.

(3) Properly withheld for Federal and State income tax purposes if the withholding of the amounts is authorized or required by law and if amounts withheld are not greater than would be the case if the individual claimed all dependents to which he or she were entitled. The withholding of additional amounts pursuant to 26 U.S.C. 3402(i) may be permitted only when the officer presents evidence of a tax obligation which supports the additional withholding.

(4) Deducted for the Servicemen's Group Life Insurance coverage.

(5) Advances of pay that may be due and payable by the officer in the future.

(d) Officer Notification. (1) As soon as possible, but not later than 30 calendar days after the date of receipt of notice, the Commissioned Personnel Operations Division shall send to the officer at his or her duty station, written notice:

(i) That notice has been served, including a copy of the documents submitted;

(ii) Of the maximum limitations set forth, with a request that the officer submit supporting affidavits or other documentation necessary for determining the applicable percentage limitation;

(iii) That by submitting supporting affidavits or other necessary documentation, the officer consents to the disclosure of such information to the party requesting the support allotment;

(iv) Of the amount of percentage that will be deducted if the officer fails to submit the documentation necessary to enable the designated official of the Service to respond to the legal process within the time limits set forth;

(v) That a consultation with a legal officer is authorized and will be provided by the Department. The name, address, and telephone number of the legal officer will be provided;

(vi) That the officer may waive the personal consultation with a legal officer; however if consultation is waived action will be taken to initiate the allotment by the first end-of-month payday after notification is received that the officer has waived his/her consultation;

(vii) That the allotment will be initiated without the officer having received a personal consultation with a legal officer if the legal officer provides documentation that consultation could not be arranged even though good faith attempts to do so had been made; and

(viii) Of the date that the allotment is scheduled to begin.

(2) The Commissioned Personnel Operations Division shall inform the appropriate legal officer of the need for consultation with the officer and shall provide the legal officer with a copy of the notice and other legal documentation served on the designated official.

(3) If possible, the Commissioned Personnel Operations Division shall provide the officer with the following:

(i) A consultation in person with the appropriate legal officer to discuss the legal and other factors involved with the officer's support obligation and his/her failures to make payment;

(ii) Copies of any other documents submitted with the notice.

(4) The legal officer concerned will confirm in writing to the Commissioned Personnel Operations Division within 30 days of notice that the officer received a consultation concerning the officer's support obligation and the consequences of failure to make payments. The legal officer concerned must advise the Commissioned Personnel Operations Division of the inability to arrange such consultation and the status of continuing efforts to contact the officer.

(e) Lack of money. (1) When notice is served and the identified officer is found not to be entitled to any moneys due from or payable by the Department of Health and Human Services, the Commissioned Personnel Operations Division shall return the notice to the authorized person, and advise in writing that no moneys are due from or payable by the Department of Health and Human Services to the named individual.

(2) Where it appears that moneys are only temporarily exhausted or otherwise unavailable, the Commissioned Personnel Operations Division shall advise the authorized person in writing on a timely basis as to why, and for how long, the moneys will be unavailable.

(3) In instances where the officer separates from active duty, the authorized person shall be informed in writing on a timely basis that the allotment is discontinued.

(f) Effective date of allotment. Allotments shall be withheld beginning on the first end-of-month payday after the Commissioned Personnel Operations Division is notified that the officer has had a consultation with a legal officer, has waived his/her right to such consultation, or the legal officer has submitted documentation that a consultation with the officer could not be arranged after good faith attempts to do so were made by the legal officer. The Service shall not be required to vary its normal allotment payment cycle to comply with the notice.

(g) Designated official. Department of Health and Human Services, General Counsel, Room 5362 North Building, 330 Independence Avenue, SW., Washington, DC 20201.

This regulation applies to the assignment of National Health Service Corps personnel under section 333 et seq. of the Public Health Service Act (42 U.S.C. 254f) to provide health services in or to health manpower shortage areas as designated under section 332 of the Public Health Service Act (42 U.S.C. 254e).

As used in this subpart:

Act means the Public Health Service Act, as amended.

Assigned National Health Service Corps personnel or Corps personnel means health personnel of the Regular and Reserve Corps of the Public Health Service Commissioned Corps and civilian personnel as designated by the Secretary including, but not limited to, physicians, dentists, nurses, and other health professions personnel who are assigned under section 333 of the Act and this regulation.

Health manpower shortage area means the geographic area, the population group, the public or nonprofit private medical facility or any other public facility which has been determined by the Secretary to have a shortage of health manpower under section 332 of the Act and its implementing regulation (42 CFR part 5).

National Health Service Corps site means the entity to which personnel have been assigned under section 333 of the Act and this regulation to provide health services in or to health manpower shortage area.

Nonprofit private entity means as entity which may not lawfully hold or use any part of its net earnings to the benefit of any private shareholder or individual and which does not hold or use its net earnings for that purpose.

Secretary means the Secretary of Health and Human Services and any other officer or employee of that Department to whom the authority involved has been delegated.

Any public or nonprofit private entity which is located in a health manpower shortage area, or has a demonstrated interest in the shortage area, may apply for the assignment of National Health Service Corps personnel.

(a) An application for the assignment of National Health Service Corps personnel must be submitted to the Secretary by an eligibe applicant in the form and at the time prescribed by the Secretary. 1 The application must be signed by an individual authorized to act for the applicant and to assume on behalf of the applicant the obligations imposed by law, the Act, this regulation, and any additional conditions of assignment imposed under these authorities.

(b) In addition to other pertinent information required by the Secretary, an application for the assignment of Corps personnel must include—

(1) A description of the applicant's overall organizational structure;

(2) A justification of the request for the assignment of personnel based upon the needs of the health manpower shortage area;

(3) A description of the applicant's financial plan for operating the National Health Service Corps site including a proposed budget, sources of non-Federal support obtained, and the proposed expenditures for obtaining adequate support staff, equipment and supplies;

(4) A list of the proposed fees and discounted fees to be charged for the provision of health services; and

(5) If an entity wishes to request an interest free loan (not to exceed $50,000) under section 335(c) of the Act to assist the applicant in establishing the practice of the assigned National Health Service Corps personnel, a detailed justification of the amount requested must be included.

(c) An application for assignment must include evidence that the applicant has provided a copy of the completed application for review to (1) each health systems agency designated under section 1515 of the Act for the health service area which includes all or part of the health manpower shortage area for which as assignment of National Health Service Corps personnel is sought or (2) if no health systems agency has been designated for such a health service area, to each State health planning and development agency designated under section 1521 of the Act for each State which includes all or part of the health manpower shortage area for which an assignment of National Health Service Corps personnel is sought.

(d) If an application for assignment is filed by an applicant which had previously been assigned National Health Service Corps personnel under an agreement entered into under section 329 of the Act as in effect before October 1, 1977, or under section 334 of the Act, the applicant must provide the information the Secretary considers necessary to make the determinations required by section 333(a)(1)(D) of the Act.

(a) In approving or disapproving an application for assignment of Corps personnel, the Secretary will consider, among other pertinent factors:

(1) The applicant's ability and plans to meet the operational requirements in § 23.8.

(2) The administrative and managerial capability of the applicant.

(3) The soundness of the applicant's financial plan for operating the National Health Service Corps site.

(4) The extent to which community resources will be used in operating the National Health Service Corps site.

(5) Comments received from any designated health systems agency or any designated State health planning and development agency to which an application was submitted for review under § 23.4(c).

(6) Comments received from health professional societies serving the health manpower shortage area.

(b) Special consideration for the assignment of Corps personnel will be given to the entity which is located in a health manpower shortage area over an entity which is not located in a health manpower shortage area but has a demonstrated interest in it.

(a) The Secretary may, upon approving an application for the assignment of personnel and after entering into an agreement with an applicant under § 23.7, assign National Health Service Corps personnel to provide health services in or to a health manpower shortage area.

(b) In assigning National Health Service Corps personnel to serve in a health manpower shortage area, the Secretary will seek to assign personnel who have those characteristics which will increase the probability of their remaining to serve in the health manpower shortage area upon completion of the period of assignment. In addition, the Secretary will apply a weighted-value system in which the first factor listed below is assigned the greatest weight and the second, and third factors are assigned lesser weights in descending order:

(1) The need of the health manpower shortage area as determined by criteria established under section 332(b) of the Act.

(2) The willingness of individuals, government agencies, or health entities within the health manpower shortage area to cooperate with the National Health Service Corps in providing effective health services.

(3) The comments of health professional societies serving the health manpower shortage area.

(a) Requirements. To carry out the purposes of section 334 of the Act, each National Health Service Corps site must enter into an agreement with the Secretary under which the site agrees to:

(1) Be responsible for charging for health services provided by assigned National Health Service Corps personnel;

(2) Take reasonable action for the collection of the charges for those health services;

(3) Reimburse the United States the sums required under section 334 of the Act; and

(4) Prepare and submit an annual report. The agreement will set forth the period of assignment (not to exceed 4 years), the number and type of Corps personnel to be assigned to the site, and other requirements which the Secretary determines necessary to carry out the purposes of the Act.

(b) Termination. An agreement entered into under this section may be terminated by either party on 30-days written notice or modified by mutual consent consistent with section 333 of the Act.

Each National Health Service Corps site must:

(a) Operate a health care delivery system within a planned or existing community structure to assure:

(1) The provision of high quality comprehensive health care;

(2) To the extent feasible, full professional health care coverage for the health manpower shortage area;

(3) Continuum of care; and

(4) The availability and accessibility of secondary and tertiary health care (the two more sophisticated levels of health care beyond primary care);

(b) Establish and maintain a patient record system;

(c) Implement a system for maintaining the confidentiality of patient records;

(d) Meet the requirements of applicable fire and safety codes;

(e) Develop, to the extent feasible, linkages with other health care facilities for the provision of services which supplement or complement the services furnished by the assigned Corps personnel;

(f) Operate a quality assurance system which meets the requirements of 42 CFR 51c.303(c) for the establishment and operation of a quality assurance system in a community health center; and

(g) Establish basic data, cost accounting, and management information and reporting systems as prescribed by the Secretary.

(a) The Secretary may waive in whole or in part the reimbursement requirements of section 334(a)(3) of the Act if he determines that:

(1) The National Health Service Corps site is financially unable to meet the reimbursement requirements or that compliance with those requirements will unreasonably limit the ability of the site to adequately support the provision of services by assigned Corps personnel. In making these determinations, the Secretary will consider—

(i) The costs necessary to adequately support the health services provided by the assigned National Health Service Corps personnel and the income and financial resources available to meet the costs;

(ii) The ability of the applicant to obtain credit from suppliers, lending institutions, private organizations and individuals;

(iii) The need of the health manpower shortage area for health services; and

(iv) The extent to which the National Health Service Corps site utilizes health professions personnel.

(2) A significant percentage of the individuals who are located in the health manpower shortage area and are receiving the health services of the assigned National Health Service Corps personnel are elderly, living in poverty, or have other characteristics which indicate an inability to pay. For purposes of this section, “elderly” means persons 65 years or older and the “CSA Income Poverty Guidelines” will be used as the standard for determining whether individuals are living in poverty. Other characteristics indicating inability to pay include, but are not to be limited to, the ratio of unemployment in the health manpower shortage area and the area's cost-of-living index.

(b) The Secretary may waive in whole or in part the reimbursement requirements of section 334(f)(1) of the Act if he or she determines that the National Health Service Corps site is a small health center (as defined by section 334(f)(5) of the Act) that needs all or part of the amount otherwise payable to—

(1) Expand or improve its provision of health services;

(2) Increase the number of individuals served;

(3) Renovate or modernize facilities for its provision of health services;

(4) Improve the administration of its health service programs; or

(5) Establish a financial reserve to assure its ability to continue providing health services;

(c) Where the Secretary determines that a National Health Service Corps site is eligible for a waiver under paragraph (a) (1) or (2) of this section. the Secretary may waive the application of the reimbursement requirements of section 334(a)(3) of the Act and apply the reimbursement requirements of section 334(f)(1) of the Act. The Secretary may waive in whole or in part the reimbursement requirements of section 334(f)(1) for such a site if he or she determines that the National Health Service Corps site meets the requirements of paragraph (a)(1) of this section. Funds retained by a National Health Service Corps site as a result of such waiver must be used for the purposes set forth in paragraphs (b) (1) through (5) of this section.

(d) Requests for a prospective or retrospective waiver must be made at the time and in the manner and contain the documentation prescribed by the Secretary.

(a) Upon expiration of the assignment of all Corps personnel to a health manpower shortage area, the Secretary may sell equipment and other property of the United States used by the assigned personnel. The equipment may be sold at the fair market value or less than the fair market value to any entity providing health services in or to a health manpower shortage area if the Secretary determines that an entity is unable to pay the fair market value. In determining whether an entity is financially unable to purchase equipment or property at fair market value, the Secretary will consider (1) the present financial resources of the entity available to purchase the equipment or property based upon its current liabilities, and (2) the entity's ability to obtain the funds necessary to purchase the equipment or property. However, the Secretary will not sell the equipment or property for less than fair market value to a profitmaking organization unless the organization gives reasonable assurance that it will use the equipment or property to provide health services in or to the health manpower shortage area.

(b) The Secretary will give priority to sales to an entity providing reasonable assurance that it will use the equipment or property for the purpose of retaining within the health manpower shortage area National Health Service Corps personnel who have completed their assignments.

Assigned National Health Service Corps personnel will at all times remain under the direct supervision and control of the Secretary. Observance of institutional rules and regulations by the assigned personnel is a mere incident of the performance of their Federal functions and does not alter their direct professional and administrative responsibility to the Secretary.

National Health Service Corps sites are advised that in addition to complying with the terms and conditions of this regulation, the following laws and regulations are applicable—

(a) Title VI of the Civil Rights Act of 1964 (43 U.S.C. 2000d et seq.) and its implementing regulations, 45 CFR part 80 (prohibiting discrimination in federally assisted programs on the grounds of race, color, or national origin); and

(b) Section 504 of the Rehabilitation Act of 1973 (29 U.S.C. 794) and its implementing regulations, 45 CFR part 84 (prohibiting discrimination in federally assisted programs on the basis of handicap).

(c) The Age Discrimination Act of 1975 (42 U.S.C. 6101 et seq.) and its implementing regulations, 45 CFR part 91 (prohibiting nondiscrimination on the basis of age in HHS programs or activities receiving Federal financial assistance).

As used in this subpart, terms have the same meanings as those given to them in subpart A, § 23.2. In addition:

National Health Service Corps scholarship recipient means an individual receiving a scholarship under the Public Health and National Health Service Corps Scholarship Training Program authorized by section 225 of the Act as in effect on September 30, 1977, and repealed on October 1, 1977, or a scholarship under the NHSC Scholarship Program authorized by section 338A of the Act, formerly section 751 of the Act.

Private full-time clinical practice means the provision of ambulatory clinical services for a minimum of 40 hours per week for at least 45 weeks a year, including the provision of hospital coverage services appropriate to meet the needs of patients treated and to assure continuity of care. The 40 hours per week must be performed in no less than 4 days per week with no more than 12 hours of work being performed in any 24-hour period.

The purpose of the private practice loan is to assist NHSC scholarship recipients in establishing private full-time clinical practices in designated health manpower shortage areas.

(a) Eligibility for loans is limited to NHSC scholarship recipients who have completed at least 2 years of their service obligations at a NHSC site. NHSC scholarship recipients remain eligible for loans under this subpart for 1 year after they have completed their service obligations at a NHSC site.

(b) Scholarship recipients who are in arrears 31 days or more on a Health Professions Student Loan (42 U.S.C. 294m et seq.), Health Education Assistance Loan (42 U.S.C. 294, et seq.), Nursing Student Loan (42 U.S.C. 297a et seq.), or any other Federally guaranteed or direct student loan are ineligible for this loan program.

(c) NHSC scholarship recipients who have received loans under either this subpart or subpart C of this part are ineligible for loans under this subpart.

The Secretary may make loans either in the amount of $12,500, if the recipient agrees to practice in accordance with the loan agreement for a period of at least 1 year but less than 2 years, or $25,000, if the recipient agrees to practice in accordance with the loan agreement for a period of at least 2 years.

Interest will be charged at the Treasury Current Value of Funds (CVF) rate in effect on April 1 immediately preceding the date on which the loan is approved and will accrue from the date the loan funds are disbursed to the borrower.

Payments shall be made at monthly intervals, beginning 1 month from the date of the loan disbursement, in accordance with the repayment schedule established by the Secretary and set forth in the loan agreement. Only interest payments are required during the first 2 years. The repayment schedule may be extended in accordance with § 23.31(a).

(a) Failure to make full payment of principal and/or interest when due will subject the borrower to the assessment of administrative costs and penalty charges, in addition to the regular interest charge, in accordance with 45 CFR part 30.

(b) Failure to make full payment of principal and/or interest when due may result in the Secretary placing the borrower in default of the loan. See § 23.28(a).

The following events will constitute defaults of the loan agreement:

(a) Failure to make full payment of principal and/or interest when due, and continuance of that failure for a period of sixty (60) days, or a lesser period of time if the Secretary determines that more immediate action is necessary in order to protect the interests of the Government.

(b) Failure to perform or observe any of the terms and conditions of the loan agreement and continuance of that failure for a period of sixty (60) days.

(c) The institution of bankruptcy proceedings, either voluntary or involuntary, under any State or Federal statute, which may adversely affect the borrower's ability to comply with the terms and conditions of the agreement or the promissory note.

(a) In the event of default, the Secretary may declare the entire amount owed (including principal, accrued interest and any applicable charges) immediately due and payable. Collection of the amount owed will be made in accordance with 45 CFR part 30.

(b) The borrower is not entitled to written notice of any default and the failure to deliver written notice of default in no way affects the Secretary's right to declare the loan in default and take any appropriate action under the loan agreement or the promissory note.

(c) The failure of the Secretary to exercise any remedy available under law or regulation shall in no event be construed as a waiver of his or her right to exercise that remedy if any subsequent or continued default or breach occurs.

The borrower shall have the option to prepay the balance of any part of the loan, together with accrued interest, at any time without prepayment penalty.

(a) Whenever health, economic, or other personal problems affect the borrower's ability to make scheduled payments on the loan, the Secretary may allow the borrower an extension of time or allow the borrower to make smaller payments than were previously scheduled; however, interest will continue to accrue at the rate specified in the promissory note until the loan is repaid in full. The loan must be fully repaid within 10 years after it was made.

(b) No waiver, full or partial, of repayment of the loan will be granted; except that the obligation of a borrower to repay a loan shall be cancelled upon the death or total and permanent disability of the borrower, as determined by the Secretary.

(c) In order to make a determination under paragraph (a) or (b) of this section, the Secretary may require supporting medical, financial, or other documentation.

(a) The borrower must use the total amount of the loan to purchase or lease, or both, equipment and supplies, to hire authorized personnel to assist in providing health services and/or to renovate facilities for use in providing health services in his or her private practice. Equipment and supplies purchased and/or leased, personnel hired and facilities renovated shall be limited to the items requested in the loan application and approved by the Secretary.

(b) The borrower must expend the loan funds within 6 months from the date of the loan or within such other time as the Secretary may approve. Documentation of the expenditure of funds must be furnished to the Secretary upon request.

The Secretary may require the borrower to pledge to the Secretary a security interest in specified collateral.

Approval of loan applications will be based on the criteria set forth below:

(a) The need in the HMSA for the applicant's health profession as determined under section 332 of the Act;

(b) The applicant's need for the loan funds; and

(c) The comments from State or local health professional societies on the appropriateness of the applicant's intended private practice; and

(d) The applicant's credit worthiness and projected financial ability to repay the loan.

The officer in charge of a station or hospital of the Service is authorized to adopt such rules and issue such instructions, not inconsistent with the regulations in this part and other provisions of law, as he deems necessary for the efficient operation of the station or hospital and for the proper and humane care and treatment of all patients therein. All general rules governing the conduct and privileges of patients, and of members of the public while on the premises, shall be posted in prominent places.

All patients and visitors in stations and hospitals of the Service are expected to comply with the rules and instructions issued under the authority of the officer in charge.

Any patient who wilfully fails or refuses to comply with rules or instructions of a hospital or station or with regulations of the Service, may, by the direction of the officer in charge, be deprived of recreational or other privileges accorded patients. Any visitor who wilfully fails or refuses to comply with any such rules, instructions, or regulations may, by direction of the officer in charge, be denied visiting privileges.

(a) If the officer in charge finds, upon investigation, that a patient other than a leprosy patient, by willful and persistent failure or refusal to comply with such rules, instructions, or regulations is seriously impeding the course of his own care and treatment, or that of other patients, he may (1) discharge the patient, or (2) if the patient is not a voluntary patient, arrange for his transfer to the custody of the authority responsible for his admission to the station or hospital. No patient shall be discharged or transferred on account of noncompliance if to do so would seriously endanger his life or health, nor shall any patient be discharged if his failure to comply is due, in the opinion of the officer in charge, to a mental disease or disorder.

(b) If the discharge or transfer of a patient is likely to endanger the health of persons other than the patient or officers or employees of the station or hospital, the officer in charge shall give advance notice to appropriate State, county, or municipal authorities of the discharge or transfer.

No person otherwise entitled to care, treatment, or hospitalization at Service facilities, or in other facilities at the expense of the Service, shall be denied such care or treatment by reason of his prior discharge or transfer from any such facility under the provisions of § 35.4.

Except as may otherwise be provided for specific classes of patients by the regulations of this chapter, the officer in charge of the station or hospital to which application is made is authorized to determine the eligibility of applicants, as beneficiaries of the Service, for care and for treatment. Such determinations shall be subject to review by the chief of the division of the Service responsible for administration of the station or hospital concerned upon referral made by the officer in charge in doubtful cases or upon appeal made by an applicant who has been denied care or treatment.

Every in-patient, at the time of admission to the hospital or station or as soon thereafter as practicable, shall be requested to designate a person or persons to be notified in case of emergency.

(a) A place for the safekeeping of money and effects of patients shall be provided at each station or hospital, and an itemized receipt therefor shall be furnished to the patient and to any other person who places money or effects therein for the benefit of the patient.

(b) Money and effects may be withdrawn only by or on behalf of the patient, by his legally appointed representative authorized to receive or dispose of his property (including the money and effects in the custody of the station or hospital), or by a person who is authorized, under the law of the State in which the station or hospital is located, to receive or dispose of the patient's money and effects. In any case in which the officer in charge has had actual notice of the appointment of a legal representative, withdrawals may be made only by such representative or in accordance with his written directions. No delivery shall be made under this paragraph unless (1) the person receiving the money or effects shall sign an itemized receipt therefor, or (2) the delivery is witnessed by two persons. The provisions of this paragraph do not prohibit withdrawals made necessary by the provisions of this part for the disposition of money and effects left by patients on death or on departure from the station or hospital, or by the provisions of § 35.10.

Money and effects left on the premises by a patient shall be forwarded promptly to him. If because his whereabouts are unknown his money and effects cannot be delivered to him within 120 days after his departure, his money shall be deposited into the Treasury and credited to the account entitled “Money and Effects of Former Patients (PHS (T) name of patient),” and his effects shall be held for him for six months and then sold in accordance with § 35.49, and the proceeds deposited into the Treasury and credited to the above account.

The officer in charge shall cause to be destroyed effects brought into or received in the station or hospital area by patients which, in the judgement of such officer, are dangerous as a source of disease to the health or life of patients or personnel of the station or hospital or visitors therein and cannot otherwise be safely disposed of or rendered harmless by disinfection or other means. The destruction of effects shall be witnessed by at least one officer or employee designated for that purpose by the officer in charge, and appropriate records of the destruction shall be maintained.

A complete clinical record shall be maintained for each patient admitted to a station or hospital of the Service. Such records shall be confidential and shall not be disclosed except as may be provided elsewhere in regulations of the Service.

The solicitation, directly or indirectly, of legal business or of a retainer or agreement authorizing an attorney to render legal services, is prohibited in all stations and hospitals of the Service.

(a) No person shall be permitted to enter a station or hospital of the Service for the purpose of negotiating a settlement or obtaining a general or special release or statement from any patient with reference to any illness or personal injury for which the patient is receiving care or treatment, or for the purpose of conferring with him as an attorney or representative of an attorney with reference to such illness or injury, unless the patient has signified his willingness to have such person enter for such purpose and, in the judgment of the officer in charge, the physical or mental condition of the patient will not thereby be impaired.

(b) Any person entering a station or hospital for a purpose enumerated in paragraph (a) of this section shall register in the manner prescribed by the officer in charge, and shall furnish for the records of the station or hospital the name of each patient by whom he has been received for such a purpose.

All employees of the Service and all persons attached in any capacity to a station or hospital, including patients, are forbidden to communicate, directly or indirectly, with any person for the purpose of aiding in the solicitation of legal business or in the negotiation of a settlement or the obtaining of a general or special release or statement from any patient with reference to any illness or personal injury for which the patient is receiving care or treatment therein. No patient is prohibited by this section from communicating on his own behalf with an attorney of his choice or with other persons.

Except in emergencies when the patient is physically or mentally incapable of consenting and the delay required to obtain the consent of his natural or legal guardian would seriously endanger the patient's health, no operative procedure shall be undertaken unless the patient or, in the case of a minor or incompetent, his natural or legal guardian gives his consent, nor shall any major operative procedure or the administration of a general anaesthetic be undertaken unless such consent has been obtained in writing. The consent or refusal of consent shall be made a part of the clinical record.

Autopsies, or other post-mortem operations, including removal of tissue for transplanting, may be performed on the body of a deceased patient only by direction of the officer in charge and only if consented to in writing by a person authorized under the law of the State in which the station or hospital is located to permit an autopsy or such other post-mortem operation under the circumstances of the particular death involved. Restrictions or limitations imposed by the person consenting thereto on the extent of the autopsy or other post-mortem operation shall be observed. Documents embodying consent shall be made a part of the clinical record.

A prescribed fee, in accordance with the schedule in paragraph (c) of this section, shall be collected for each of the listed services.

(a) Application for services. Any person requesting (1) a copy of a clinical record, clinical abstract, or other document containing clinical information; or (2) a certification of a clinical record or document; or (3) a search of clinical records, shall make written application therefor to the Public Health Service facility having custody of the subject matter involved. Such application shall state specifically the particular record or document requested, and the purpose for which such copy or document is desired to be used. The application shall be accompanied by a deposit in an amount equal to the prescribed charge for the service rendered. Where it is not known if a clinical record or other document is in existence, the application shall be accompanied by a minimum deposit of $2.50.

(b) Authorization for disclosure. The furnishing of copies of PHS records containing confidential clinical information must comply with the requirements of part I, title 42, Code of Federal Regulations, governing authorization for the disclosure of such information.

(c) Schedule of fees.

(d) Waiver of fee. The prescribed fee may be waived, in the discretion of the medical officer in charge, under the following circumstances:

(1) When the service or document is requested by another agency of the Federal Government for use in carrying out official Government business.

(2) When a clinical record is requested for the purpose of providing continued medical care to a Service beneficiary by a non-Service physician, clinic, or hospital, in which case the record will be forwarded only to the physician, clinic, or hospital concerned.

(3) When the service or document is requested by an attorney in the prosecution of a Service beneficiary's personal injury claim against a third person, involving the concurrent assertion of a government medical care claim under 42 U.S.C. 2651-2653. In such case, the service or document requested will be furnished only upon compliance with all additional requirements for the release of records in third party recovery cases, including the proper execution of form PHS-4686, Agreement to Assign Claim Upon Request.

(4) When the service or document is requested by, and furnished to, a Member of Congress for official use.

(5) When the service or document is requested by, and furnished to, a court in lieu of the personal court appearance of an employee of the Public Health Service.

(6) When the service or document is required to be furnished free in accordance with a Federal statute or an Executive order.

(7) When the furnishing of the service or document requested without charge would be an appropriate courtesy to a foreign country or international organization.

Except as otherwise provided by law or regulation with respect to certain classes of patients, the officer in charge of a station or hospital of the Service may provide, without any cost to the patient, for the transfer of the patient either from such station or hospital to another station or hospital of the Service or to any non-Service station or hospital at which the patient may be received, or from any non-Service hospital at which he is receiving care or treatment as a patient of the Service to a station or hospital of the Service.

Patients shall be transferred by such means and accompanied by such medical, nursing, or other attendants as may be necessary to protect the health and safety of the patient and other persons likely to come into contact with him, including in the case of a prisoner such guards as may be necessary to assure his safekeeping. A female patient requiring the services of attendants shall be accompanied by at least one female attendant. Medical or nursing attendants shall be qualified to care for persons suffering from the type of disease or disorder with which the patient is afflicted and shall be provided with equipment and medicines necessary for the care of the patient.

Subject to the rules of the station or hospital, patients may be accorded the privilege of retaining articles produced by them in the course of their curative treatment with the aid of materials furnished by the Service. Articles not retained by patients shall be disposed of as provided in this subpart. The provisions of this subpart do not apply to the products of industrial activities established for narcotic addicts.

The officer in charge shall appoint, from the personnel of the station or hospital, a board of three persons to serve at his pleasure. The board shall provide for the sale of articles having commercial value and shall keep appropriate records of such articles and their disposition.

The board shall determine and redetermine from time to time the prices at which articles are to be sold, and in doing so shall consider the cost of materials used, reasonable handling charges, and the fair market value of the articles. The sale price shall be indicated on each article by tag or other appropriate means, and a list of articles offered for sale and their respective sale prices shall be posted from time to time in the hospital or station area. In its discretion, the board may offer such articles for purchase by other patients or by charitable organizations before offering them for purchase to the general public. No article shall be sold or resold to any officer or employee of the Service. Moneys received from the sale of articles shall be deposited into the Treasury to the credit of the appropriation from which the materials for making such articles were purchased.

No article purchased under the provisions of this subpart shall be resold in the hospital or station area at a price to exceed the sale price fixed by the board for such article.

Articles having no commercial value shall be stored, destroyed, or otherwise disposed of as the officer in charge may direct.

Promptly after the death of a patient in a station or hospital of the Service, an inventory of his money and effects left therein shall be made by two or more officers or employees of the Service designated for such purpose by the officer in charge.

The officer in charge shall notify in writing all persons known to him to whom delivery of the patient's money and effects might be made hereunder, and, in the case of an alien patient, a consul of the country of his apparent nationality. Each person so notified shall be requested to furnish information concerning (a) the existence or whereabouts of any persons to whom delivery of the deceased patient's money and effects may be made pursuant to these provisions, and (b) the permanent residence or home of the deceased.

(a) Delivery of the money and effects of a deceased patient shall be made only to a person who has filed a claim therefor on a form prescribed by the Surgeon General.

(b) A claimant shall furnish, in addition to the information on the prescribed form, such additional information as the officer in charge may consider necessary to establish the identity of the claimant and the truth of his statements.

(c) A person filing a claim as a legal representative shall be required to present letters of administration or a certificate of a court attesting his qualification or appointment.

(d) If a claim is made after the money, or proceeds from the sale of the effects, of a deceased patient have been deposited in the Treasury, the claim shall be referred to the General Accounting Office. If the claim is for checks or evidences of indebtedness of the United States which have been trasnsmitted to the issuing agency pursuant to §§ 35.47 and 35.48, the claimant shall be referred to such agency.

The money and effects of the deceased patient shall in all cases be delivered to the legal representative, if any, of his estate. If the value is $1,000 or less, and the officer in charge has neither notice nor other knowledge of the appointment or qualification of a legal representative, nor reason to believe that a legal representative will be appointed or qualified, he shall deliver all the money and effects, as soon as practicable after the expiration of 10 days from the sending of notices to one of the following in the indicated order of priority:

(a) A person, if any, designated in writing by the patient to receive the same.

(b) The patient's surviving spouse.

(c) The patient's child or children in equal parts.

(d) The patient's parent or parents in equal parts.

(e) Any other person who would be entitled to receive the money and effects under the law of the patient's domicile: Provided, That delivery of such money and effects may be made immediately upon application by one of the persons specified above if the officer in charge has neither notice nor other knowledge that a person higher in the indicated order of priority exists.

Irrespective of the provisions of this subpart, the officer in charge may (a) release from among the effects of the deceased patient so much of the patient's clothing as may be necessary for use in preparation of his body for burial and (b) cause to be destroyed, or otherwise disposed of, such used toilet articles of the patient as appear to have no commercial or other value.

In any case in which conflicting claims are filed or the officer in charge considers it to be in the interest of persons who may be ultimately entitled thereto, delivery may be withheld from all persons other than a duly qualified legal representative.

Notwithstanding any other provisions of this subpart, immediately upon completion of the inventory, checks drawn on the Treasurer of the United States shall be sent by safe means to the department, agency, or establishment of the Government of the United States issuing such checks. The transmittal shall be accompanied by a statement of the reasons therefor and of all available information which may aid the issuing unit in the disposition of the check transmitted. Notice of the disposition of any checks, with identifying information, shall be given to the person or persons, if any, to which money and effects are delivered in accordance with § 35.44.

If, within 120 days after sending of notices no claim has been filed pursuant to the provisions of § 35.43, the patient's money, consisting of all types of United States currency and coin, shall be deposited in the Treasury to the credit of the trust-fund account entitled “Money and Effects of Deceased Patients, Public Health Service.” If, within six months after the death of a patient, no claim has been filed pursuant to the provisions of § 35.43, his effects (including foreign currency and coin but excluding Postal Savings Certificates and other evidences of indebtedness of the United States) shall be sold at public auction or by sealed bids to the highest bidder and the proceeds deposited to the credit of the trust-fund account entitled “Money and Effects of Deceased Patients, Public Health Service.” Postal Savings Certificates and other evidences of indebtedness of the United States shall be transmitted to the issuing department or agency with a statement of the occasion therefor.

The following provisions shall govern the sale of effects:

(a) Notice. Reasonable advance notice of proposed sales shall be posted at such prominent places in the station or hospital area as the officer in charge may designate. In addition, a notice shall be posted at the nearest post office, and notices shall be sent by mail to all known persons to whom delivery of money and effects of the patient may be made under the provisions of this subpart. The officer or employee who posts or sends notices of sales shall make an appropriate affidavit on a copy of the notice as to his action in that respect, including in his affidavit the names of persons to whom copies of the notices were mailed and the mailing dates. The copy of the notice on which the affidavit appears shall be retained in the files of the station or hospital.

(b) Form and contents of notice. Notice of proposed sales shall be given on a form prescribed by the Surgeon General. The notice shall include: an inventory of the effects to be offered for sale; the names of the patients from whom the effects were received; the precise date, time, and place when and where the sale will be held; a statement that the articles will be available for inspection immediately prior to sale, if sold at public auction, or on a day and during the hours appointed for the inspection of articles if sold by sealed bid; a statement that the sale is to be held pursuant to the provisions of the regulations in this part, that, if the articles are to be sold by sealed bid, the right to reject all bids is reserved, and that, if otherwise authorized, delivery will be made of effects or proceeds of sales to persons filing claims prior to the sale of effects or prior to the transmittal of proceeds to the Surgeon General.

(c) Time and place of sales. All sales shall be held at reasonable hours and at such places within the station or hospital area as the officer in charge may designate.

(d) Who shall conduct sales. All sales shall be conducted by the officer in charge or by a responsible officer or employee designated by him.

(e) Sale and delivery. All effects offered for sale shall be sold to the highest bidder and delivered to him immediately upon payment of the sale price in cash or by postal money order or certified check and execution of an appropriate receipt by the person to whom delivery is made.

The officer in charge shall dispose of effects offered for sale but remaining unsold in such manner as he considers to be proper, but, if practicable, such effects shall be used for the benefit of other patients of the Service.

(a) If a person entitled under this subpart to receive the money and effects of a patient is unable to take possession thereof at the station or hospital, they shall be sent to him at the expense of the United States in the most economical manner available. The records of the station or hospital shall show the names and addresses of persons to whom money or effects have been sent, the date of sending, the means used, an itemized list of the money or effects sent, and a statement by a witnessing officer or employee verifying the foregoing from his own observation.

(b) If not delivered personally by an authorized officer or employee of the Service, money, evidences of indebtedness, and other valuable papers and documents shall be sent by registered mail (or other safe means).

(c) Persons receiving the money and effects of a patient shall be required to execute an itemized receipt therefor.

Except for delivery of effects to purchasers at sales held in accordance with § 35.49, delivery or deposit under this subpart of the money or effects, or the proceeds of a sale of the effects, of a deceased patient constitutes only a transfer of possession and is not intended to affect in any manner the title to such money, effects, or proceeds.

This subpart sets forth the policies and procedures governing the acceptance and administration of contributions of money or property intended solely for the benefit of all patients in a ward or unit or a particular hospital or station of the Public Health Service, excluding outpatient clinics. Such contributions are distinguishable from (a) monies or other valuables belonging to specific patients which are accepted and held in custody for the convenience of the patient until such time as he or she wishes to withdraw them, and (b) gifts to the United States to support Public Health Service functions under section 501 of the Public Health Service Act or other statutory provisions, which may be accepted and administered only in accordance with such statutory provisions or other applicable laws.

(a) The officer in charge of a hospital or station or his delegate may accept contributions of money or personal property which are donated for the general benefit of all patients within the hospital or station (or a ward or unit thereof) without further specification or conditions as to use. Contributions tendered subject to conditions by the donor, such as expenditure or use only on behalf of certain patients or for specific purposes, may not be accepted.

(b) Contribution of money or property shall be accepted in writing.

(a) Contributions of money accepted pursuant to § 35.62 (hereinafter referred to as “patient fund”) will be treated consistently with Federal deposit rules and as supplemented with appropriate procedures of the facility. This regulation is not intended to exclude contributions for the benefit of patients from proper accountability and control of funds and property.

(b) Contributions of property accepted pursuant to § 35.62 shall be recorded and accounted for in the same manner as other property of a similar kind maintained in the hospital or station, but with suitable identification so that it can be distinguished from government-owned property.

Authorized contributions may be accepted from patients, employees and other individuals, and agencies and organizations.

Contributions of personal property which may be accepted pursuant to § 35.62 include, but are not limited to, recreational equipment, furniture, radios and television sets. After its useful life, any cash proceeds realized upon disposition of such property shall be deposited to the credit of the patient fund and shall be available for expenditure pursuant to § 35.66(c).

(a) Officials authorized to accept contributions shall not maintain control over the actual obligation or expenditure of such monies.

(b) Only those officers or employees specifically designated in writing by the officer in charge for such purpose may obligate and expend monies from the patient fund. The names of officials so designated shall be provided to the relevant fiscal control office.

(c) Subject to availability of sufficient funds, monies in the patient fund may be expended for materials, services or activities which contribute to the well-being or morale of patients, including but not limited to provision of reading and entertainment materials, recreation activities, and, in appropriate cases, necessary financial support (including travel expenses, meals, and lodging) of relatives, guardians, or friends of patients to enable such persons to be available for the patient's comfort and support.

(d) Officers in charge may issue such additional instructions, not inconsistent with this subpart, as may be necessary to implement its provisions.

The provisions of this subpart set forth the specifications for giving, interpreting, classifying, and submitting chest roentgenograms required by section 203 of the act to be given to underground coal miners and new miners.

Any term defined in the Federal Mine Safety and Health Act of 1977 and not defined below shall have the meaning given it in the act. As used in this subpart:

(a) Act means the Federal Mine Safety and Health Act of 1977 (30 U.S.C. 801, et seq.).

(b) ALOSH means the Appalachian Laboratory for Occupational Safety and Health, Box 4258, Morgantown, WV 26505. Although the Division of Respiratory Disease Studies, National Institute for Occupational Safety and Health, has programmatic responsibility for the chest roentgenographic examination program, the Institute's facility in Morgantown—ALOSH—is used throughout this subpart in referring to the administration of the program.

(c) Chest roentgenogram means a single posteroanterior roentgenographic projection or radiograph of the chest at full inspiration recorded on roentgenographic film.

(d) Convenient time and place with respect to the conduct of any examination under this subpart means that the examination must be given at a reasonable hour in the locality in which the miner resides or a location that is equally accessible to the miner. For example, examinations at the mine during, immediately preceding, or immediately following work and a “no appointment” examination at a medical facility in a community easily accessible to the residences of a majority of the miners working at the mine, shall be considered of equivalent convenience for purposes of this paragraph.

(e) Institute and NIOSH mean the National Institute for Occupational Safety and Health Center for Disease Control, Public Health Service, Department of Health and Human Services.

(f) ILO-U/C Classification means the classification of radiographs of the pneumoconioses devised in 1971 by an international committee of the International Labor Office and described in “Medical Radiography and Photography,” volume 48, No. 3, December 1972. “ILO Classification” means the classification of radiographs of the pneumoconioses revised in 1980 by an international committee of the International Labor Office and described in “Medical Radiography and Photography” volume 57, No. 1, 1981, and in ILO publication 22 (revised 1980) from the ILO Occupational Safety and Health Series.

(g) Miner means any individual including any coal mine construction worker who is working in or at any underground coal mine, but does not include any surface worker who does not have direct contact with underground coal mining or with coal processing operations.

(h) Operator means any owner, lessee, or other person who operates, controls, or supervises an underground coal mine or any independent contractor performing services or construction at such mine.

(i) Panel of ‘B’ Readers means the U.S. Public Health Service Consultant Panel of “B” Readers, c/o ALOSH, P.O. Box 4258, Morgantown, WV 26505.

(j) Preemployment physical examination means any medical examination which includes a chest roentgenographic examination given in accordance with the specifications of this subpart to a person not previously employed by the same operator or at the same mine for which that person is being considered for employment.

(k) Secretary means the Secretary of Health and Human Services and any other officer or employee of the Department of Health and Human Services to whom the authority involved may be delegated.

(l) MSHA means the Mine Safety and Health Administration, Department of Labor.

(a) Voluntary examinations. Every operator shall provide to each miner who is employed in or at any of its underground coal mines and who was employed in underground coal mining prior to December 30, 1969, or who has completed the required examinations under § 37.3(b) an opportunity for a chest roentgenogram in accordance with this subpart:

(1) Following August 1, 1978 ALOSH will notify the operator of each underground coal mine of a period within which the operator may provide examinations to each miner employed at its coal mine. The period shall begin no sooner than the effective date of these regulations and end no later than a date specified by ALOSH separately for each coal mine. The termination date of the period will be approximately 5 years from the date of the first examination which was made on a miner employed by the operator in its coal mine under the former regulations of this subpart adopted July 27, 1973. Within the period specified by ALOSH for each mine, the operator may select a 6-month period within which to provide examinations in accordance with a plan approved under § 37.5.

(2) For all future voluntary examinations, ALOSH will notify the operator of each underground coal mine when sufficient time has elapsed since the end of the previous 6-month period of examinations. ALOSH will specify to the operator of each mine a period within which the operator may provide examinations to its miners employed at its coal mine. The period shall begin no sooner than 31/2 years and end no later than 41/2 years subsequent to the ending date of the previous 6-month period specified for a coal mine either by the operator on an approved plan or by ALOSH if the operator did not submit an approved plan. Within the period specified by ALOSH for each mine, the operator may select a 6-month period within which to provide examinations in accordance with a plan approved under § 37.5.

(3) Within either the next or future period(s) specified by ALOSH to the operator for each of its coal mines, the operator of the coal mine may select a different 6-month period for each of its mines within which to offer examinations. In the event the operator does not submit an approved plan, ALOSH will specify a 6-month period to the operator within which miners shall have the opportunity for examinations.

(b) Mandatory examinations. Every operator shall provide to each miner who begins working in or at a coal mine for the first time after December 30, 1969:

(1) An initial chest roentgenogram as soon as possible, but in no event later than 6 months after commencement of employment. A preemployment physical examination which was made within the 6 months prior to the date on which the miner started to work will be considered as fulfilling this requirement. An initial chest roentgenogram given to a miner according to former regulations for this subpart prior to August 1, 1978 will also be considered as fulfilling this requirement.

(2) A second chest roentgenogram, in accordance with this subpart, 3 years following the initial examination if the miner is still engaged in underground coal mining. A second roentgenogram given to a miner according to former regulations under this subpart prior to August 1, 1978 will be considered as fulfilling this requirement.

(3) A third chest roentgenogram 2 years following the second chest roentgenogram if the miner is still engaged in underground coal mining and if the second roentgenogram shows evidence of category 1, category 2, category 3 simple pneumoconioses, or complicated pneumoconioses (ILO Classification).

(c) ALOSH will notify the miner when he or she is due to receive the second or third mandatory examination under (b) of this section. Similarly, ALOSH will notify the coal mine operator when the miner is to be given a second examination. The operator will be notified concerning a miner's third examination only with the miner's written consent, and the notice to the operator shall not state the medical reason for the examination nor that it is the third examination in the series. If the miner is notified by ALOSH that the third mandatory examination is due and the operator is not so notified, availability of the roentgenographic examination under the operator's plan shall constitute the operator's compliance with the requirement to provide a third mandatory examination even if the miner refuses to take the examination.

(d) The opportunity for chest roentgenograms to be available by an operator for purposes of this subpart shall be provided in accordance with a plan which has been submitted and approved in accordance with this subpart.

(e) Any examinations conducted by the Secretary in the National Study of Coal Workers' Pneumoconiosis after January 1, 1977, but before August 1, 1978 shall satisfy the requirements of this section with respect to the specific examination given (see § 37.6(d)).

(a) Every plan for chest roentgenographic examinations of miners shall be submitted on forms prescribed by the Secretary to ALOSH within 120 calendar days after August 1, 1978. In the case of a person who after August 1, 1978, becomes an operator of a mine for which no plan has been approved, that person shall submit a plan within 60 days after such event occurs. A separate plan shall be submitted by the operator and by each construction contractor for each underground coal mine which has a MSHA identification number. The plan shall include:

(1) The name, address, and telephone number of the operator(s) submitting the plan;

(2) The name, MSHA identification number for respirable dust measurements, and address of the mine included in the plan;

(3) The proposed beginning and ending date of the 6-month period for voluntary examinations (see § 37.3(a)) and the estimated number of miners to be given or offered examinations during the 6-month period under the plan;

(4) The name and location of the approved X-ray facility or facilities, and the approximate date(s) and time(s) of day during which the roentgenograms will be given to miners to enable a determination of whether the examinations will be conducted at a convenient time and place;

(5) If a mobile facility is proposed, the plan shall provide that each miner be given adequate notice of the opportunity to have the examination and that no miner shall have to wait for an examination more than 1 hour before or after his or her work shift. In addition, the plan shall include:

(i) The number of change houses at the mine.

(ii) One or more alternate nonmobile approved facilities for the reexamination of miners and for the mandatory examination of miners when necessary (see § 37.3(b)), or an assurance that the mobile facility will return to the location(s) specified in the plan as frequently as necessary to provide for examinations in accordance with these regulations.

(iii) The name and location of each change house at which examinations will be given. For mines with more than one change house, the examinations shall be given at each change house or at a change house located at a convenient place for each miner.

(6) The name and address of the “A” or “B” reader who will interpret and classify the chest roentgenograms.

(7) Assurances that: (i) The operator will not solicit a physician's roentgenographic or other findings concerning any miner employed by the operator,

(ii) Instructions have been given to the person(s) giving the examinations that duplicate roentgenograms or copies of roentgenograms will not be made and that (except as may be necessary for the purpose of this subpart) the physician's roentgenographic and other findings, as well as the occupational history information obtained from a miner unless obtained prior to employment in a preemployment examination, and disclosed prior to employment, will not be disclosed in a manner which will permit identification of the employee with the information about him, and

(iii) The roentgenographic examinations will be made at no charge to the miner.

(b) Operators may provide for alternate facilities and “A” or “B” readers in plans submitted for approval.

(c) The change of operators of any mine operating under a plan approved pursuant to § 37.5 shall not affect the plan of the operator which has transferred responsibility for the mine. Every plan shall be subject to revision in accordance with paragraph (d) of this section.

(d) The operator shall advise ALOSH of any change in its plan. Each change in an approved plan is subject to the same review and approval as the originally approved plan.

(e) The operator shall promptly display in a visible location on the bulletin board at the mine its proposed plan or proposed change in plan when it is submitted to ALOSH. The proposed plan or change in plan shall remain posted in a visible location on the bulletin board until ALOSH either grants or denies approval of it at which time the approved plan or denial of approval shall be permanently posted. In the case of an operator who is a construction contractor and who does not have a bulletin board, the construction contractor must otherwise notify its employees of the examination arrangements. Upon request, the contractor must show ALOSH written evidence that its employees have been notified.

(f) Upon notification from ALOSH that sufficient time has elapsed since the previous period of examinations, the operator will resubmit its plan for each of its coal mines to ALOSH for approval for the next period of examinations (see § 37.3(a)(2)). The plan shall include the proposed beginning and ending dates of the next period of examinations and all information required by paragraph (a) of this section.

(a) Approval of plans granted prior to August 1, 1978 is no longer effective.

(b) If, after review of any plan submitted pursuant to this subpart, the Secretary determines that the action to be taken under the plan by the operator meets the specifications of this subpart and will effectively achieve its purpose, the Secretary will approve the plan and notify the operator(s) submitting the plan of the approval. Approval may be conditioned upon such terms as the Secretary deems necessary to carry out the purpose of section 203 of the act.

(c) Where the Secretary has reason to believe that he will deny approval of a plan he will, prior to the denial, give reasonable notice in writing to the operator(s) of an opportunity to amend the plan. The notice shall specify the ground upon which approval is proposed to be denied.

(d) If a plan is denied approval, the Secretary shall advise the operator(s) in writing of the reasons for the denial.

(a) The Secretary will give chest roentgenograms or make arrangements with an appropriate person, agency, or institution to give the chest roentgenograms and with “A” or “B” readers to interpret the roentgenograms required under this subpart in the locality where the miner resides, at the mine, or at a medical facility easily accessible to a mining community or mining communities, under the following circumstances:

(1) Where, in the judgment of the Secretary, due to the lack of adequate medical or other necessary facilities or personnel at the mine or in the locality where the miner resides, the required roentgenographic examination cannot be given.

(2) Where the operator has not submitted an approvable plan.

(3) Where, after commencement of an operator's program pursuant to an approved plan and after notice to the operator of his failure to follow the approved plan and, after allowing 15 calendar days to bring the program into compliance, the Secretary determines and notifies the operator in writing that the operator's program still fails to comply with the approved plan.

(b) The operator of the mine shall reimburse the Secretary or other person, agency, or institution as the Secretary may direct, for the cost of conducting each examination made in accordance with this section.

(c) All examinations given or arranged by the Secretary will comply with the time requirements of § 37.3. Whenever the Secretary gives or arranges for the examinations of miners at a time, a written notice of the arrangements will be sent to the operator who shall post the notice on the mine bulletin board.

(d) Operators of mines selected by ALOSH to participate in the National Study of Coal Workers' Pneumoconiosis (an epidemiological study of respiratory diseases in coal miners) and who agree to cooperate will have all their miners afforded the opportunity to have a chest roentgenogram required hereunder at no cost to the operator. For future examinations and for mandatory examinations each participating operator shall submit an approvable plan.

(a) Any miner who, in the judgment of the Secretary based upon the interpretation of one or more of the miner's chest roentgenograms, shows category 1 (1/0, 1/1, 1/2), category 2 (2/1, 2/2, 2/3), or category 3 (3/2, 3/3, 3/4) simple pneumoconioses, or complicated pneumoconioses (ILO Classification) shall be afforded the option of transferring from his or her position to another position in an area of the mine where the concentration of respirable dust in the mine atmosphere is not more than 1.0 mg/m3 of air, or if such level is not attainable in the mine, to a position in the mine where the concentration of respirable dust is the lowest attainable below 2.0 mg/m3 of air.

(b) Any transfer under this section shall be in accordance with the procedures specified in part 90 of title 30, Code of Federal Regulations.

Any miner who wishes to obtain an examination at his or her own expense at an approved facility and to have submitted to NIOSH for him or her a complete examination may do so, provided that the examination is made no sooner than 6 months after the most recent examination of the miner submitted to ALOSH. ALOSH will provide an interpretation and report of the examinations made at the miner's expense in the same manner as if it were submitted under an operator's plan. Any change in the miner's transfer rights under the act which may result from this examination will be subject to the terms of § 37.7.

As part of the roentgenographic examination, a miner identification document which includes an occupational history questionnaire shall be completed for each miner at the facility where the roentgenogram is made at the same time the chest roentgenogram required by this subpart is given.

The provisions of this subpart set forth the conditions under which the Secretary will pay pathologists to obtain results of autopsies performed by them on miners.

As used in this subpart:

(a) Secretary means the Secretary of Health and Human Services.

(b) Miner means any individual who during his life was employed in any underground coal mine.

(c) Pathologist means

(1) A physician certified in anatomic pathology or pathology by the American Board of Pathology or the American Osteopathic Board of Pathology,

(2) A physician who possesses qualifications which are considered “Board of eligible” by the American Board of Pathology or American Osteopathic Board of Pathology, or

(3) An intern, resident, or other physician in a training program in pathology who performs the autopsy under the supervision of a pathologist as defined in paragraph (c) (1) or (2) of this section.

(d) ALFORD means the Appalachian Laboratory for Occupational Respiratory Diseases, Public Health Service, Department of Health and Human Services, Post Office Box 4257, Morgantown, WV 26505.

(a) The Secretary will pay up to $200 to any pathologist who, after the effective date of the regulations in this part and with legal consent:

(1) Performs an autopsy on a miner in accordance with this subpart; and

(2) Submits the findings and other materials to ALFORD in accordance with this subpart within 180 calendar days after having performed the autopsy; and

(3) Receives no other specific payment, fee, or reimbursement in connection with the autopsy from the miner's widow, his family, his estate, or any other Federal agency.

(b) The Secretary will pay to any pathologist entitled to payment under paragraph (a) of this section and additional $10 if the pathologist can obtain and submits a good quality copy or original of a chest roentgenogram (posteroanterior view) made of the subject of the autopsy within 5 years prior to his death together with a copy of any interpretation made.

(a) Every autopsy for which a claim for payment is submitted pursuant to this part:

(1) Shall be performed consistent with standard autopsy procedures such as those, for example, set forth in the “Autopsy Manual” prepared by the Armed Forces Institute of Pathology, July 1, 1960. (Technical Manual No. 8-300. NAVMED P-5065, Air Force Manual No. 160-19.) Copies of this document may be borrowed from ALFORD.

(2) Shall include:

(i) Gross and microscopic examination of the lungs, pulmonary pleura, and tracheobronchial lymph nodes;

(ii) Weights of the heart and each lung (these and all other measurements required under this subparagraph shall be in the metric system);

(iii) Circumference of each cardiac valve when opened;

(iv) Thickness of right and left ventricles; these measurements shall be made perpendicular to the ventricular surface and shall not include trabeculations or pericardial fat. The right ventricle shall be measured at a point midway between the tricuspid valve and the apex, and the left ventricle shall be measured directly above the insertion of the anterior papillary muscle;

(v) Size, number, consistency, location, description and other relevant details of all lesions of the lungs;

(vi) Level of the diaphragm;

(vii) From each type of suspected pneumoconiotic lesion, representative microscopic slides stained with hematoxylin eosin or other appropriate stain, and one formalin fixed, paraffin-impregnated block of tissue; a minimum of three stained slides and three blocks of tissue shall be submitted. When no such lesion is recognized, similar material shall be submitted from three separate areas of the lungs selected at random; a minimum of three stained slides and three formalin fixed, paraffin-impregnated blocks of tissue shall be submitted.

(b) Needle biopsy techniques shall not be used.

Every claim for payment under this subpart shall be submitted to ALFORD and shall include:

(a) An invoice (in duplicate) on the pathologist's letterhead or billhead indicating the date of autopsy, the amount of the claim and a signed statement that the pathologist is not receiving any other specific compensation for the autopsy from the miner's widow, his surviving next-of-kin, the estate of the miner, or any other source.

(b) Completed PHS Consent, Release and History Form (See Fig. 1). This form may be completed with the assistance of the pathologist, attending physician, family physician, or any other responsible person who can provide reliable information.

(c) Report of autopsy:

(1) The information, slides, and blocks of tissue required by this subpart.

(2) Clinical abstract of terminal illness and other data that the pathologist determines is relevant.

(3) Final summary, including final anatomical diagnoses, indicating presence or absence of simple and complicated pneumoconiosis, and correlation with clinical history if indicated.

The provisions of this subpart are applicable to programs or projects for health services which are supported in whole or in part by Federal financial assistance, whether by grant or contract, administered by the Public Health Service.

As used in this subpart:

Arrange for means to make arrangements (other than mere referral of an individual to, or the mere making of an appointment for him or her with, another health care provider) for the performance of a medical procedure on an individual by a health care provider other than the program or project.

Hysterectomy means a medical procedure or operation for the purpose of removing the uterus.

Institutionalized individual means an individual who is (1) involuntarily confined or detained, under a civil or criminal statute, in a correctional or rehabilitative facility, including a mental hospital or other facility for the care and treatment of mental illness, or (2) confined, under a voluntary commitment, in a mental hospital or other facility for the care and treatment of mental illness.

Mentally incompetent individual means an individual who has been declared mentally incompetent by a Federal, State, or local court of competent jurisdiction for any purpose unless he or she has been declared competent for purposes which include the ability to consent to sterilization.

Public Health Service means the Office of the Assistant Secretary for Health, Health Resources and Services Administration, National Institutes of Health, Centers for Disease Control, Alcohol, Drug Abuse and Mental Health Administration and all of their constituent agencies.

The Secretary means the Secretary of Health and Human Services and any other officer or employee of the Department of Health and Human Services to whom the authority involved has been delegated.

Sterilization means any medical procedure, treatment, or operation for the purpose of rendering an individual permanently incapable of reproducing.

Programs or projects to which this subpart applies shall perform or arrange for the performance of sterilization of an individual only if the following requirements have been met:

(a) The individual is at least 21 years old at the time consent is obtained.

(b) The individual is not a mentally incompetent individual.

(c) The individual has voluntarily given his or her informed consent in accordance with the procedures of § 50.204 of this subpart.

(d) At least 30 days but not more than 180 days have passed between the date of informed consent and the date of the sterilization, except in the case of premature delivery or emergency abdominal surgery. An individual may consent to be sterilized at the time of premature delivery or emergency abdominal surgery, if at least 72 hours have passed after he or she gave informed consent to sterilization. In the case of premature delivery, the informed consent must have been given at least 30 days before the expected date of delivery.

Informed consent does not exist unless a consent form is completed voluntarily and in accordance with all the requirements of this section and § 50.205 of this subpart.

(a) A person who obtains informed consent for a sterilization procedure must offer to answer any questions the individual to be sterilized may have concerning the procedure, provide a copy of the consent form, and provide orally all of the following information or advice to the individual who is to be sterilized:

(1) Advice that the individual is free to withhold or withdraw consent to the procedure any time before the sterilization without affecting his or her right to future care or treatment and without loss or withdrawal of any federally funded program benefits to which the individual might be otherwise entitled:

(2) A description of available alternative methods of family planning and birth control;

(3) Advice that the sterilization procedure is considered to be irreversible;

(4) A thorough explanation of the specific sterilization procedure to be performed;

(5) A full description of the discomforts and risks that may accompany or follow the performing of the procedure, including an explanation of the type and possible effects of any anesthetic to be used;

(6) A full description of the benefits or advantages that may be expected as a result of the sterilization; and

(7) Advice that the sterilization will not be performed for at least 30 days except under the circumstances specified in § 50.203(d) of this subpart.

(b) An interpreter must be provided to assist the individual to be sterilized if he or she does not understand the language used on the consent form or the language used by the person obtaining the consent.

(c) Suitable arrangements must be made to insure that the information specified in paragraph (a) of this section is effectively communicated to any individual to be sterilized who is blind, deaf or otherwise handicapped.

(d) A witness chosen by the individual to be sterilized may be present when consent is obtained.

(e) Informed consent may not be obtained while the individual to be sterilized is:

(1) In labor or childbirth;

(2) Seeking to obtain or obtaining an abortion; or

(3) Under the influence of alcohol or other substances that affect the individual's state of awareness.

(f) Any requirement of State and local law for obtaining consent, except one of spousal consent, must be followed.

(a) Required consent form. The consent form appended to this subpart or another consent form approved by the Secretary must be used.

(b) Required signatures. The consent form must be signed and dated by:

(1) The individual to be sterilized; and

(2) The interpreter, if one is provided; and

(3) The person who obtains the consent; and

(4) The physician who will perform the sterilization procedure.

(c) Required certifications. (1) The person obtaining the consent must certify by signing the consent form that:

(i) Before the individual to be sterilized signed the consent form, he or she advised the individual to be sterilized that no Federal benefits may be withdrawn because of the decision not to be sterilized,

(ii) He or she explained orally the requirements for informed consent as set forth on the consent form, and

(iii) To the best of his or her knowledge and belief, the individual to be sterilized appeared mentally competent and knowingly and voluntarily consented to be sterilized.

(2) The physician performing the sterilization must certify by signing the consent form, that:

(i) Shortly before the performance of the sterilization, he or she advised the individual to be sterilized that no Federal benefits may be withdrawn because of the decision not to be sterilized,

(ii) He or she explained orally the requirements for informed consent as set forth on the consent form, and

(iii) To the best of his or her knowledge and belief, the individual to be sterilized appeared mentally competent and knowingly and voluntarily consented to be sterilized. Except in the case of premature delivery or emergency abdominal surgery, the physician must further certify that at least 30 days have passed between the date of the individual's signature on the consent form and the date upon which the sterilization was performed. If premature delivery occurs or emergency abdominal surgery is required within the 30-day period, the physician must certify that the sterilization was performed less than 30 days but not less than 72 hours after the date of the individual's signature on the consent form because of premature delivery or emergency abdominal surgery, as applicable. In the case of premature delivery, the physician must also state the expected date of delivery. In the case of emergency abdominal surgery, the physician must describe the emergency.

(3) If an interpreter is provided, the interpreter must certify that he or she translated the information and advice presented orally, read the consent form and explained its contents and to the best of the interpreter's knowledge and belief, the individual to be sterilized understood what the interpreter told him or her.

Programs or projects to which this subpart applies shall not perform or arrange for the performance of a sterilization of any mentally incompetent individual or institutionalized individual.

(a) Programs or projects to which this subpart applies shall not perform or arrange for the performance of any hysterectomy solely for the purpose of rendering an individual permanently incapable of reproducing or where, if there is more than one purpose to the procedure, the hysterectomy would not be performed but for the purpose of rendering the individual permanently incapable of reproducing.

(b) Except as provided in paragraph (c) of this section, programs or projects to which this subpart applies may perform or arrange for the performance of a hysterectomy not covered by paragraph (a) of this section only if:

(1) The person who secures the authorization to perform the hysterectomy has informed the individual and her representative, if any, orally and in writing, that the hysterectomy will make her permanently incapable of reproducing; and

(2) The individual or her representative, if any, has signed a written acknowledgment of receipt of that information.

(c)(1) A program or project is not required to follow the procedures of paragraph (b) of this section if either of the following circumstances exists:

(i) The individual is already sterile at the time of the hysterectomy.

(ii) The individual requires a hysterectomy because of a life-threatening emergency in which the physician determines that prior acknowledgment is not possible.

(2) If the procedures of paragraph (b) of this section are not followed because one or more of the circumstances of paragraph (c)(1) exist, the physician who performs the hysterectomy must certify in writing:

(i) That the woman was already sterile, stating the cause of that sterility; or

(ii) That the hysterectomy was performed under a life-threatening emergency situation in which he or she determined prior acknowledgment was not possible. He or she must also include a description of the nature of the emergency.

(a) A program or project must, with respect to any sterilization procedure or hysterectomy it performs or arranges, meet all requirements of this subpart.

(b) The program or project shall maintain sufficient records and documentation to assure compliance with these regulations, and must retain such data for at least 3 years.

(c) The program or project shall submit other reports as required and when requested by the Secretary.

(a) Federal financial assistance adminstered by the Public Health Service may not be used for expenditures for sterilization procedures unless the consent form appended to this section or another form approved by the Secretary is used.

(b) A program or project shall not use Federal financial assistance for any sterilization or hysterectomy without first receiving documentation showing that the requirements of this subpart have been met. Documentation includes consent forms, and as applicable, either acknowledgments of receipt of hysterectomy information or certification of an exception for hysterectomies.

The Secretary will request public comment on the operation of the provisions of this subpart not later than 3 years after their effective date.

The provisions of this subpart are applicable to programs or projects for health services which are supported in whole or in part by Federal financial assistance, whether by grant or contract, appropriated to the Department of Health and Human Services and administered by the Public Health Service.

As used in this subpart: (a) Law enforcement agency means an agency, or any part thereof, charged under applicable law with enforcement of the general penal statutes of the United States, or of any State or local jurisdiction.

(b) Medical procedures performed upon a victim of rape or incest means any medical service, including an abortion, performed for the purpose of preventing or terminating a pregnancy arising out of an incident of rape or incest.

(c) Physician means a doctor of medicine or osteopathy legally authorized to practice medicine and surgery by the State in which he or she practices.

(d) Public health service means: (1) An agency of the United States or of a State or local government, that provides health or medical services; and

(2) A rural health clinic, as defined under section 1(d)(aa)(2) of Pub. L. 95-210, 91 Stat. 1485; except that any agency or facility whose principal function is the performance of abortions is specifically excluded from this definition.

Federal financial participation is not available for the performance of an abortion in programs or projects to which this subpart applies except under circumstances described in § 50.304 or § 50.306.

Federal financial participation is available in expenditures for an abortion when a physician has found, and so certified in writing to the program or project, that on the basis of his/her professional judgment, the life of the mother would be endangered if the fetus were carried to term. The certification must contain the name and address of the patient.

Federal financial participation is available in expenditures for medical procedures performed upon a victim of rape or incest if the program or project has received signed documentation from a law enforcement agency or public health service stating:

(a) That the person upon whom the medical procedure was performed was reported to have been the victim of an incident of rape or incest;

(b) The date on which the incident occurred;

(c) The date on which the report was made, which must have been within 60 days of the date on which the incident occurred;

(d) The name and address of the victim and the name and address of the person making the report (if different from the victim); and

(e) That the report included the signature of the person who reported the incident.

Federal financial participation is unavailable for the performance of abortions or other medical procedures otherwise provided for under §§ 50.304 and 50.306 if the program or project has paid without first having received the certifications and documentation specified in those sections.

Federal financial participation is available with respect to the cost of drugs or devices to prevent implantation of the fertilized ovum, and for medical procedures necessary for the termination of an ectopic pregnancy.

Programs or projects to which this subpart applies must maintain copies of the certifications and documentation specified in §§ 50.304 and 50.306 for three years pursuant to the retention and custodial requirements for records at 45 CFR 74.20 et seq.

Information in the records or in the possession of programs or projects which is acquired in connection with the requirements of this subpart may not be disclosed in a form which permits the identification of an individual without the individual's consent except as may be necessary for the health of the individual or as may be necessary for the Secretary to monitor the activities of those programs or projects. In any event, any disclosure shall be subject to appropriate safeguards which will minimize the likelihood of disclosures of personal information in identifiable form.

This subpart establishes an informal procedure for the resolution of certain postaward grant and cooperative agreement disputes within the agencies and offices identified in § 50.402.

This subpart applies to all grant and cooperative agreement programs, except block grants, which are administered by the National Institutes of Health; The Centers for Disease Control and Prevention; the Agency for Toxic Substances and Disease Registry; the Food and Drug Administration; and the Office of Public Health and Science. For purposes of this subpart, these entities are hereinafter referred to as “agencies.”

The Secretary of Health and Human Services has established a Departmental Appeals Board for the purpose of providing a fair and flexible process for the appeal of written final decisions involving certain grant and cooperative agreement programs administered by constituent agencies of the Department. The regulatory provision which establishes the circumstances under which the Board will accept an appeal (45 CFR 16.3) provides, among other things, that the appellant must have exhausted any preliminary appeal process required by regulation before a formal appeal to the Departmental Board will be allowed. This subpart provides such an informal preliminary procedure for resolution of disputes in order to preclude submission of cases to the Departmental Appeals Board before an agency identified in § 50.402 has had an opportunity to review decisions of its officials and to settle disputes with grantees.

(a) These procedures are applicable to the following adverse determinations under discretionary project grants and cooperative agreements (both referred to in this subpart as grants) issued by the agencies identified at § 50.402;

(1) Termination, in whole or in part, of a grant for failure of the grantee to carry out its approved project in accordance with the applicable law and the terms and conditions of such assistance or for failure of the grantee otherwise to comply with any law, regulation, assurance, term, or condition applicable to the grant.

(2) A determination that an expenditure not allowable under the grant has been charged to the grant or that the grantee has otherwise failed to discharge its obligation to account for grant funds.

(3) A determination that a grant is void.

(4) A denial of a noncompeting continuation award under the project period system of funding where the denial is for failure to comply with the terms of a previous award.

(b) A determination subject to this subpart may not be reviewed by the review committee described in § 50.405 unless an officer or employee of the agency has notified the grantee in writing of the adverse determination. The notification must set forth the reasons for the determination in sufficient detail to enable the grantee to respond and must inform the grantee of the opportunity for review under this subpart.

(a) A grantee with respect to whom an adverse determination described in § 50.404(a) above has been made and who desires a review of that determination must submit a request for such review to the head of the appropriate agency or his or her designee no later than 30 days after the written notification of the determination is received, except that if the grantee shows good cause why an extension of time should be granted, the head of the appropriate agency or his or her designee may grant an extension of time.

(b) The request for review must include a copy of the adverse determination, must identify the issue(s) in dispute, and must contain a full statement of the grantee's position with respect to such issue(s) and the pertinent facts and reasons in support of the grantee's position. In addition to the required written statement, the grantee shall provide copies of any documents supporting its claim.

(c) When a request for review has been filed under this subpart with respect to an adverse determination, no action may be taken by the awarding agency pursuant to such determination until the request has been disposed of, except that the filing of the request shall not affect any authority which the agency may have to suspend assistance or otherwise to withhold or defer payments under the grant during proceedings under this subpart. This paragraph does not require the awarding agency to provide continuation funding during the appeal process to a grantee whose noncompeting continuation award has been denied.

(d) Upon receipt of a request for review, the head of the agency or his or her designee will make a decision as to whether the dispute is reviewable under this subpart and will promptly notify the grantee and the office responsible for the adverse determination of this decision. If the head of the agency or his or her designee determines that the dispute is reviewable, he or she will forward the matter to the review committee appointed under § 50.405.

(e) The agency involved will provide the review committee appointed under § 50.405 with copies of all relevant background materials (including applications(s), award(s), summary statement(s), and correspondence) and any additional pertinent information available. These materials must be tabbed and organized chronologically and accompanied by an indexed list identifying each document.

(f) The grantee shall be given an opportunity to provide the review committee with additional statements and documentation not provided in the request for review described in paragraph (b) of this section. This additional submission, which must be organized and indexed as indicated under paragraph (e) of this section, should provide only material that is relevant to the review committee's deliberation of the issues in the case.

(g) The review committee may, at its discretion, invite the grantee and/or the agency staff to discuss the pertinent issues with the committee and to submit such additional information as the committee deems appropriate.

(h) Based on its review, the review committee will prepare a written decision to be signed by the chairperson and each of the other committee members. The review committee shall send the written decision with a transmittal letter to the grantee and shall send a copy of both to the official responsible for the adverse determination. If the decision is adverse to the grantee's position, the transmittal letter must state the grantee's right to appeal to the Departmental Appeals Board under 45 CFR part 16.

This subpart is applicable to programs or projects for health services which are supported in whole or in part by Federal financial assistance, whether by grant or contract, administered by the Public Health Service. It applies to Federal funds and to non-Federal funds which are required to be expended as a condition to receiving Federal funds under such programs or projects.

As used in this subpart:

(a) Public Health Service means the Office of the Assistant Secretary for Health, Health Resources and Services Administration, National Institutes of Health, Centers for Disease Control, Alcohol, Drug Abuse and Mental Health Administration, Food and Drug Administration, and all of their constituent agencies.

(b) Secretary means the Secretary of Health and Human Services and any other officer or employee of the Department of Health and Human Services to whom the authority involved has been delegated.

(c) Program funds means (1) Federal funds provided through grant or contract to support a program or project covered by § 50.501, and (2) any non-Federal funds that are required as a condition of such grant or contract to be expended to carry out such program or project.

(d) Provider means one who furnishes medical or pharmaceutical services or supplies for which program funds may be expended under any of the programs or projects described in § 50.501.

(e) Acquisition cost means the price generally and currently paid by providers for a drug marketed or sold by a particular formulator or labeler in the package size of drug most frequently purchased by providers, as determined by the Secretary on the basis of drug price information furnished by the Department.

It is the policy of the Secretary that program funds which are utilized for the acquisition of drugs be expended in the most economical manner feasible. In furtherance of this policy, the Secretary has established, in 45 CFR part 19, a procedure for determining the Maximum Allowable Cost for drugs which are purchased with program funds.

(a) The maximum amount which may be expended from program funds for the acquisition of any drug shall be the lowest of

(1) The maximum allowable cost (MAC) of the drug, if any, established in accordance with 45 CFR part 19, plus a dispensing fee determined by the Secretary in accordance with paragraph (b) of this section, to be reasonable;

(2) The acquisition cost of the drug plus a dispensing fee determined by the Secretary, in accordance with paragraph (b) of this section, to be reasonable; or

(3) The provider's usual and customary charge to the public for the drug; Provided, That the MAC established for any drug shall not apply to a brand of that drug prescribed for a patient which the prescriber has certified, in accordance with paragraph (c) of this section, is medically necessary for that patient; And Provided further, That where compensation for drug dispensing is included in other costs allowable under the applicable program statute and regulations, the terms and conditions of the grant or contract, and the applicable cost principles prescribed in 45 CFR part 74, no separate dispensing fee will be recognized.

(b) In determining whether a dispensing fee is reasonable, the Secretary will take into account:

(1) Cost components such as overhead, professional services, and profits,

(2) Payment practices of third-party payment organizations, including other Federal programs such as titles XVIII and XIX of the Social Security Act; and

(3) Any surveys by States, universities or others of costs of pharmacy operations and the fees charged in the particular area.

(c) A certification by a prescriber, pursuant to paragraph (a) of this section, that a brand of drug is medically necessary for a particular patient shall be in the prescriber's own handwriting, in such form and manner as the Secretary may prescribe. An example of an acceptable certification is the notation “brand necessary”. A procedure for checking a box on a form will not constitute an acceptable certification.

This subpart promotes objectivity in research by establishing standards to ensure there is no reasonable expectation that the design, conduct, or reporting of research funded under PHS grants or cooperative agreements will be biased by any conflicting financial interest of an Investigator.

This subpart is applicable to each Institution that applies for PHS grants or cooperative agreements for research and, through the implementation of this subpart by each Institution, to each Investigator participating in such research (see § 50.604(a)); provided, that this subpart does not apply to SBIR Program Phase I applications. In those few cases where an individual, rather than an institution, is an applicant for PHS grants or cooperative agreements for research, PHS Awarding Components will make case-by-case determinations on the steps to be taken to ensure that the design, conduct, and reporting of the research will not be biased by any conflicting financial interest of the individual.

As used in this subpart:

HHS means the United States Department of Health and Human Services, and any components of the Department to which the authority involved may be delegated.

Institution means any domestic or foreign, public or private, entity or organization (excluding a Federal agency).

Investigator means the principal investigator and any other person who is responsible for the design, conduct, or reporting of research funded by PHS, or proposed for such funding. For purposes of the requirements of this subpart relating to financial interests, “Investigator” includes the Investigator's spouse and dependent children.

PHS means the Public Health Service, an operating division of the U.S. Department of Health and Human Services, and any components of the PHS to which the authority involved may be delegated.

PHS Awarding Component means the organizational unit of the PHS that funds the research that is subject to this subpart.

Public Health Service Act or PHS Act means the statute codified at 42 U.S.C. 201 et seq.

Research means a systematic investigation designed to develop or contribute to generalizable knowledge relating broadly to public health, including behavioral and social-sciences research. The term encompasses basic and applied research and product development. As used in this subpart, the term includes any such activity for which research funding is available from a PHS Awarding Component through a grant or cooperative agreement, whether authorized under the PHS Act or other statutory authority.

Significant Financial Interest means anything of monetary value, including but not limited to, salary or other payments for services (e.g., consulting fees or honoraria); equity interests (e.g., stocks, stock options or other ownership interests); and intellectual property rights (e.g., patents, copyrights and royalties from such rights). The term does not include:

(1) Salary, royalties, or other remuneration from the applicant institution;

(2) Any ownership interests in the institution, if the institution is an applicant under the SBIR Program;

(3) Income from seminars, lectures, or teaching engagements sponsored by public or nonprofit entities;

(4) Income from service on advisory committees or review panels for public or nonprofit entities;

(5) An equity interest that when aggregated for the Investigator and the Investigator's spouse and dependent children, meets both of the following tests: Does not exceed $10,000 in value as determined through reference to public prices or other reasonable measures of fair market value, and does not represent more than a five percent ownership interest in any single entity; or

(6) Salary, royalties or other payments that when aggregated for the Investigator and the Investigator's spouse and dependent children over the next twelve months, are not expected to exceed $10,000.

Small Business Innovation Research (SBIR) Program means the extramural research program for small business that is established by the Awarding Components of the Public Health Service and certain other Federal agencies under Pub. L. 97-219, the Small Business Innovation Development Act, as amended. For purposes of this subpart, the term SBIR Program includes the Small Business Technology Transfer (STTR) Program, which was established by Pub. L. 102-564.

Each Institution must:

(a) Maintain an appropriate written, enforced policy on conflict of interest that complies with this subpart and inform each Investigator of that policy, the Investigator's reporting responsibilities, and of these regulations. If the Institution carries out the PHS-funded research through subgrantees, contractors, or collaborators, the Institution must take reasonable steps to ensure that Investigators working for such entities comply with this subpart, either by requiring those Investigators to comply with the Institution's policy or by requiring the entities to provide assurances to the Institution that will enable the Institution to comply with this subpart.

(b) Designate an institutional official(s) to solicit and review financial disclosure statements from each Investigator who is planning to participate in PHS-funded research.

(c)(1) Require that by the time an application is submitted to PHS each Investigator who is planning to participate in the PHS-funded research has submitted to the designated official(s) a listing of his/her known Significant Financial Interests (and those of his/her spouse and dependent children):

(i) That would reasonably appear to be affected by the research for which PHS funding is sought; and

(ii) In entities whose financial interests would reasonably appear to be affected by the research.

(2) All financial disclosures must be updated during the period of the award, either on an annual basis or as new reportable Significant Financial Interests are obtained.

(d) Provide guidelines consistent with this subpart for the designated official(s) to identify conflicting interests and take such actions as necessary to ensure that such conflicting interests will be managed, reduced, or eliminated.

(e) Maintain records of all financial disclosures and all actions taken by the Institution with respect to each conflicting interest for at least three years from the date of submission of the final expenditures report or, where applicable, from other dates specified in 45 CFR 74.53(b) for different situations.

(f) Establish adequate enforcement mechanisms and provide for sanctions where appropriate.

(g) Certify, in each application for the funding to which this subpart applies, that:

(1) There is an effect at that Institution a written and enforced administrative process to identify and manage, reduce or eliminate conflicting interests with respect to all research projects for which funding is sought from the PHS,

(2) Prior to the Institution's expenditure of any funds under the award, the Institution will report to the PHS Awarding Component the existence of a conflicting interest (but not the nature of the interest or other details) found by the institution and assure that the interest has been managed, reduced or eliminated in accordance with this subpart; and, for any interest that the Institution identifies as conflicting subsequent to the Institution's initial report under the award, the report will be made and the conflicting interest managed, reduced, or eliminated, at least on an interim basis, within sixty days of that identification;

(3) The Institution agrees to make information available, upon request, to the HHS regarding all conflicting interests identified by the Institution and how those interests have been managed, reduced, or eliminated to protect the research from bias; and

(4) The Institution will otherwise comply with this subpart.

(a) The designated official(s) must: Review all financial disclosures; and determine whether a conflict of interest exists and, if so, determine what actions should be taken by the institution to manage, reduce or eliminate such conflict of interest. A conflict of interest exists when the designated official(s) reasonably determines that a Significant Financial Interest could directly and significantly affect the design, conduct, or reporting of the PHS-funded research. Examples of conditions or restrictions that might be imposed to manage conflicts of interest include, but are not limited to:

(1) Public disclosure of significant financial interests;

(2) Monitoring of research by independent reviewers;

(3) Modification of the research plan;

(4) Disqualification from participation in all or a portion of the research funded by the PHS;

(5) Divestiture of significant financial interests; or

(6) Severance of relationships that create actual or potential conflicts.

(b) In addition to the types of conflicting financial interests described in this paragraph that must be managed, reduced, or eliminated, an Institution may require the management of other conflicting financial interests, as the Institution deems appropriate.

(a) If the failure of an Investigator to comply with the conflict of interest policy of the Institution has biased the design, conduct, or reporting of the PHS-funded research, the Institution must promptly notify the PHS Awarding Component of the corrective action taken or to be taken. The PHS Awarding Component will consider the situation and, as necessary, take appropriate action, or refer the matter to the Institution for further action, which may include directions to the Institution on how to maintain appropriate objectivity in the funded project.

(b) The HHS may at any time inquire into the Institutional procedures and actions regarding conflicting financial interests in PHS-funded research, including a requirement for submission of, or review on site, all records pertinent to compliance with this subpart. To the extent permitted by law, HHS will maintain the confidentiality of all records of financial interests. On the basis of its review of records and/or other information that may be available, the PHS Awarding Component may decide that a particular conflict of interest will bias the objectivity of the PHS-funded research to such an extent that further corrective action is needed or that the Institution has not managed, reduced, or eliminated the conflict of interest in accordance with this subpart. The PHS Awarding Component may determine that suspension of funding under 45 CFR 74.62 is necessary until the matter is resolved.

(c) In any case in which the HHS determines that a PHS-funded project of clinical research whose purpose is to evaluate the safety or effectiveness of a drug, medical device, or treatment has been designed, conducted, or reported by an Investigator with a conflicting interest that was not disclosed or managed as required by this subpart, the Institution must require the Investigator(s) involved to disclose the conflicting interest in each public presentation of the results of the research.

Several other regulations and policies apply to this subpart.

They include, but are not necessarily limited to:

The Secretary shall make allotments to eligible Systems from amounts apportioned each year under the Act on the basis of a formula prescribed by the Secretary in accordance with the requirements of sections 112 and 113 of the Act (42 U.S.C. 10822 and 10823).

The following parts of titles 42 and 45 CFR apply to grants funded under this part.

(a) Federal financial assistance for protection and advocacy activities for individuals with mental illness will be given only to a System that has been established under Part C of the Developmental Disabilities Assistance and Bill of Rights Act (42 U.S.C. 6041, et seq.) and designated in accordance with 45 CFR part 1386, subpart B.

(b) The P&A system must meet the requirements of sections 105 and 111 of the Act (42 U.S.C. 10805 and 10821) and that P&A system must be operational. Each system shall submit an application at the beginning of each PAIMI authorization period. This application shall contain at a minimum the program priorities and budget for the first year of the authorization period and the required assurances and certifications. Thereafter, the system shall submit yearly updates of the budget and program priorities for the upcoming fiscal year through its annual report.

(c) Written assurances of compliance with sections 105 and 111 of the Act (42 U.S.C. 10805 and 10821) and other requirements of the Act and this part shall be submitted by the P&A system in the format designated by the Director. These assurances will remain in effect for the period specified in the application for funds unless changes occur within the State which affect the functioning of the P&A system, in which case an amendment will be required 30 days prior to the effective date of the change. The P&A system shall also provide the Department the name of the designated official.

(d) The Governor's written assurance that the allotments made available under the Act will be used to supplement and not to supplant the level of non-Federal funds available in the State to protect and advocate the rights of individuals with mental illness shall be submitted by the P&A system. The Governor may provide this assurance along with the assurances provided to ADD under 45 CFR part 1386, as long as it can reasonably be construed as applying to the PAIMI program. Any future “supplement and not supplant” assurance shall explicitly refer to the PAIMI program.

(a) Allotments must be used to supplement and not to supplant the level of non-Federal funds available in the State to protect and advocate the rights of individuals with mental illness.

(b) Allotments may not be used to support lobbying activities to influence proposed or pending Federal legislation or appropriations. This restriction does not affect the right of any P&A system, organization or individual to petition Congress or any other government body or official using other resources.

(c) Allotments may not be used to produce or distribute written, audio or visual materials or publicity intended or designed to support or defeat any candidate for public office.

(d) If an eligible P&A system is a public entity, that P&A system shall not be required by the State to obligate more than five percent of its annual allotment for State oversight administrative expenses under this grant such as costs of internal or external evaluations, monitoring or auditing. This restriction does not include:

(1) Salaries, wages and benefits of program staff;

(2) Costs associated with attending governing board or advisory council meetings; or

(3) Expenses associated with the provision of training or technical assistance for staff, contractors, members of the governing board or advisory council.

(e) No more than ten percent of each annual allotment may be used for providing technical assistance and training, including travel expenses for staff, contractors, or members of the governing board or advisory council as defined in § 51.27.

(f) Allotments may be used to pay the otherwise allowable costs incurred by a P&A system in bringing lawsuits in its own right to redress incidents of abuse or neglect, discrimination, and other rights violations impacting on individuals with mental illness and when it appears on behalf of named plaintiffs or a class of plaintiffs for such purposes.

In accordance with section 105(a)(1)(C) of the Act (42 U.S.C. 10805(a)(1)(C)) and the priorities established by the P&A system governing authority, together with the advisory council, pursuant to section 105(c)(2)(B) of the Act (42 U.S.C. 10805(c)(2)(B)), allotments may be used:

(a) To provide protection and advocacy services for:

(1) Individuals with mental illness as defined in 42 U.S.C. 10802(4) and 10805(a), including persons who report matters which occurred while they were individuals with mental illness;

(2) Persons who were individuals with mental illness who are residents of the State, but only with respect to matters which occur within 90 days after the date of the discharge of such individuals from a facility providing care or treatment; and

(3) Individuals with mental illness in Federal facilities rendering care or treatment who request representation by the eligible P&A system. Representation may be requested by an individual with mental illness, or by a legal guardian, conservator or legal representative.

(b) To provide representation of clients in civil commitment proceedings if the P&A system is acting on behalf of an eligible individual to obtain judicial review of his or her commitment in order to appeal or otherwise challenge acts or omissions which have subjected the individual to abuse or neglect or otherwise violated his or her rights. This restriction does not prevent a P&A system from representing clients in commitment or recommitment proceedings using other resources so long as this representation does not conflict with responsibilities under the Act.

By January 1 of each year, a report shall be submitted, pursuant to section 105(a)(7) of the Act (42 U.S.C. 10805(a)(7)), to the Secretary which is in the format designated by the Secretary.

Failure to submit an annual report in the designated format on time or to submit requested information and documentation, corrective action plans and ongoing implementation status reports in response to Federal review and monitoring activities or to satisfy any other requirement of the Act, this part, or other requirements, may be considered a breach of the terms and conditions of the grant award and may required remedial action, such as the suspension or termination of an active grant, withholding of payments or converting to a reimbursement method of payment. Any remedial actions shall be taken consistent with 45 CFR Part 74 and 42 CFR Part 50, as appropriate.

(a) An eligible P&A system should work cooperatively with existing advocacy agencies and groups and, where appropriate, consider entering into contracts for protection and advocacy services with organizations already working on behalf of individuals with metal illness. Special consideration should be given to contracting for the services of groups run by individuals who have received or are receiving mental health services or by family members of such individuals.

(b) An eligible P&A system may contract for the operation of all or part of its program with another public or private nonprofit organization with demonstrated experience in working with individuals with mental illness provided that:

(1) Any organization that will operate the full program meets the requirements of section 104(a)(1), 105 and 111 of the Act (42 U.S.C. 10804(a)(1), 10805 and 10821) and has the capacity to perform protection and advocacy activities throughout the State;

(2) The eligible P&A system institutes oversight and monitoring procedures which ensure that this system will be able to meet all applicable terms, conditions and obligations of the Federal grant;

(3) The eligible P&A system and the contractor organization enter into a written agreement that includes at least the following:

(i) A description of the protection and advocacy services to be provided;

(ii) The type of personnel, their qualifications and training;

(iii) The methods to be used;

(iv) A timetable for performance;

(v) A budget;

(vi) Assurances that the contractor will meet all applicable terms and conditions of the grant;

(vii) Assurances that the contractor has adequate management and fiscal systems in place, including insurance coverage, if appropriate:

(viii) Assurances that the contractor's staff is trained to provide advocacy services to and conduct full investigations on behalf of individuals with mental illness; and

(ix) Assurances that the contractor staff is trained to work with family members of clients served by the P&A system where the clients are:

(A) Minors;

(B) Legally competent and choose to involve the family member; or,

(C) Legally incompetent and the legal guardians, conservators or other legal representatives are family members.

(a) Each P&A system shall have a governing authority responsible for its planning, designing, implementing and functioning. It shall, jointly with the advisory council, annually establish program priorities and policies.

(b) If the P&A system is organized with a multi-member governing board:

(1) Each P&A system shall establish policies and procedures for the selection of its governing board members and for the board evaluation of the P&A system director. The terms of board members shall be staggered and for 4 years except that any member appointed to fill a vacancy for an unexpired term shall serve for the remainder of such term. A member who has been appointed for a term of 4 years may not be reappointed to the governing board during the 2-year period beginning on the date on which such 4-year term expired.

(2) The board shall be composed of members who broadly represent or are knowledgeable about the needs of the clients served by the P&A system and shall include a significant representation of individuals with mental illness who are, or have been eligible for services, or have received or are receiving mental health services, and family members, guardians, advocates, or authorized representatives of such individuals.

(3) If the governing authority is organized as a private nonprofit entity, the chairperson of the advisory council shall be a member of the governing board.

(c) Continuing efforts shall be made to include members of racial and ethnic minority groups as board members.

(d) Any member of the advisory council may also serve on the governing board.

(a) Each P&A system shall establish an advisory council to:

(1) Provide independent advice and recommendations to the system.

(2) Work jointly with the governing authority in the development of policies and priorities.

(3) Submit a section of the system's annual report as required under § 51.8.

(b) Members of the council shall include attorneys, mental health professionals, individuals from the public who are knowledgeable about mental illness, the advocacy needs of persons with mental illness and have demonstrated a substantial commitment to improving mental health services, a provider of mental health services, individuals who have received or are receiving mental health services and family members of such individuals. Continuing efforts shall be made to include members of racial and ethnic minority groups on the advisory council.

(1) At least 60 percent of the membership of the advisory council shall be comprised of individuals who have received or are receiving mental health services or who are family members of such individuals. At least one family member shall be a primary care giver for an individual who is currently a minor child or youth who is receiving or has received mental health services;

(2) The council shall be chaired by an individual who has received or is receiving mental health services or who is a family member of such an individual;

(3) The advisory council shall meet no less than three times annually. The terms of council members shall be staggered and for 4 years except that any member appointed to fill a vacancy for an unexpired term shall serve for the remainder of such term. A member who has been appointed for a term of 4 years may not be reappointed to the council during the 2-year period beginning on the date on which such 4-year term expired.

(c) Each P&A system shall provide its advisory council with reports, materials and fiscal data to enable review of existing program policies, priorities and performance outcomes. Such submissions shall be made at least annually and shall report expenditures for the past two fiscal years, as well as projected expenses for the next fiscal year, identified by budget category (e.g., salary and wages, contract for services, administrative expenses) including the amount allotted for training of each the advisory council, governing board and staff.

(d) Reimbursement of expenses. (1) Allotments may be used to pay for all or a part of the expenses incurred by members of the advisory council in order to participate in its activities. Expenses may include transportation costs, parking, meals, hotel costs, per diem expenses, stipends or subsistence allowances, and the cost of day care or child care (or its equivalent for the child's travel and subsistence expenses) for their dependents with mental illness or developmental disabilities.

(2) Each P&A system shall establish its own policies and procedures for reimbursement of expenses of council members, taking into account the needs of individual council members, available resources, and applicable restrictions on use of grant funds, including the restrictions in §§ 51.31(e) and 51.6(e).

(a) Program priorities and policies shall be established annually by the governing authority, jointly with the advisory council. Priorities shall specify short-term program goals and objectives, with measurable outcomes, to implement the established priorities. In developing priorities, consideration shall be given to, at a minimum, case selection criteria, the availability of staff and monetary resources, and special problems and cultural barriers faced by individuals with mental illness who are multiply handicapped or who are members of racial or ethnic minorities in obtaining protection of their rights. Systemic and legislative activities shall also be addressed in the development and implementation of program priorities.

(b) Members of the public shall be given an opportunity, on an annual basis, to comment on the priorities established by, and the activities of, the P&A system. Procedures for public comment must provide for notice in a format accessible to individuals with mental illness, including such individuals who are in residential facilities, to family members and representatives of such individuals and to other individuals with disabilities. Procedures for public comment must provide for receipt of comments in writing or in person.

(a) The P&A system shall establish procedures to address grievances from:

(1) Clients or prospective clients of the P&A system to assure that individuals with mental illness have full access to the services of the program; and

(2) Individuals who have received or are receiving mental health services in the State, family members of such individuals, or representatives of such individuals or family members to assure that the eligible P&A system is operating in compliance with the Act.

(b) At a minimum, the grievance procedures shall provide for:

(1) An appeal to the governing authority from any final staff review and/or determination; in cases where the governing authority is the director of the P&A system, the final review and/or determination shall be made by a superior of the governing authority, e.g., a supervisor, or by an independent entity, e.g., an appointed board or committee.

(2) Reports, at least annually, to the governing authority and the advisory council describing the grievances received and processed and their resolution;

(3) Identification of individuals responsible for review;

(4) A timetable to ensure prompt notification concerning the grievance procedure to clients, prospective clients or persons denied representation, and to ensure prompt resolution;

(5) A written response to the grievant; and

(6) Protection of client confidentiality.

The P&A system must develop appropriate policies and procedures to avoid actual or apparent conflict of interest involving clients, employees, contractors and subcontractors, and members of the governing authority and advisory council, particularly with respect to matters affecting client services, particular contracts and subcontracts, grievance review procedures, reimbursements and expenses, and the employment or termination of staff.

A P&A system shall provide training for program staff, and may also provide training for contractors, governing board and advisory council members to enhance the development and implementation of effective protection and advocacy services for individuals with mental illness, including at a minimum:

(a)(1) Training of program staff to work with family members of clients served by the program where the individual with mental illness is:

(i) A minor,

(ii) Legally competent and chooses to involve the family member; or

(iii) Legally incompetent and the legal guardian, conservator or other legal representative is a family member.

(2) This training may be provided by individuals who have received or are receiving mental health services and family members of such individuals.

(b) Training to enhance sensitivity to and understanding of individuals with mental illness who are members of racial or ethnic minorities and to develop strategies for outreach to those populations.

(c) Training to conduct full investigations of abuse or neglect.

(a) Consistent with State and Federal law and the canons of professional ethics, a P&A system may use any appropriate technique and pursue administrative, legal or other appropriate remedies to protect and advocate on behalf of individuals with mental illness to address abuse, neglect or other violations of rights.

(b) A P&A system shall establish policies and procedures to guide and coordinate advocacy activities. The P&A system shall not implement a policy or practice restricting the remedies which may be sought on behalf of individuals with mental illness or compromising the authority of the P&A system to pursue such remedies through litigation, legal action or other forms of advocacy. However, this requirement does not prevent the P&A system from placing limitations on case or client acceptance criteria developed as part of the annual priorities. Prospective clients must be informed of any such limitations at the time they request service.

(c) Wherever possible, the program should establish an ongoing presence in residential mental health care or treatment facilities, and relevant hospital units.

(d) Program activities should be carried out in a manner which allows program staff to:

(1) Interact regularly with those individuals who are current or potential recipients of protection and advocacy services;

(2) Interact regularly with staff providing care or treatment;

(3) Obtain information and review records; and

(4) Communicate with family members, social and community service workers and others involved in providing care or treatment.

(e) A P&A system may support or provide training, including related travel expenses, for individuals with mental illness, family members of such individuals, and other persons who are not program staff, contractors, or board or council members, to increase knowledge about protection and advocacy issues, to enhance leadership capabilities, or to promote Federal-State and intra-State cooperation on matter related to mental health system improvement. Decisions concerning the selection of individuals to receive such training shall be made in accordance with established policies, procedures and priorities of the P&A system.

(f) A P&A system may monitor, evaluate and comment on the development and implementation of Federal, State and local laws, regulations, plans, budgets, levies, projects, policies and hearings affecting individuals with mental illness as a part of federally funded advocacy activities. A P&A system shall carry out systemic advocacy—those efforts to implement changes in policies and practices of systems that impact persons with mental illness.

(g) Determination of “probable cause” may result from P&A system monitoring or other activities, including observation by P&A system personnel, and reviews of monitoring and other reports prepared by others whether pertaining to individuals with mental illness or to general conditions affecting their health or safety.

(h) A P&A which is a public P&A system shall be free from hiring freezes, reductions in force, prohibitions on staff travel, or other policies imposed by the State to the extend that such policies would impact program staff or activities funded with Federal dollars and would prevent the P&A system from carrying out its mandates under the Act.

(i) A P&A system may exercise its authority under State law where the authority exceeds the authority required by the Act. However, State law must not diminish the required authority of the Act.

(a) Each P&A system is encouraged to develop and employ techniques such as those involving negotiation, conciliation and mediation to resolve disputes early in the protection and advocacy process.

(b) Disputes should be resolved whenever possible through nonadversarial process involving negotiation, mediation and conciliation. Consistent with State and Federal laws and canons of professional responsibility, family members should be involved in this process, as appropriate, where the individual with mental illness is:

(1) A minor,

(2) Legally competent and chooses to involve the family member, or

(3) Legally incompetent and the legal guardian, conservator or other legal representative is a family member or the legal guardian, conservator or other legal representative chose to involve the family member.

(c) A P&A system must exhaust in a timely manner all administrative remedies, where appropriate, prior to initiating legal action in a Federal or State court.

(d) Paragraph (c) of this section does not apply to any legal action instituted to prevent or eliminate imminent serious harm to an individual with mental illness nor does it apply in circumstances where administrative procedures do not exist. If in pursing administrative remedies, the P&A system determines that any matter with respect to an individual with mental illness with mental illness with not be resolved within a reasonable time, the P&A system may pursue alternative remedies, including initiating legal action.

(e) A P&A system shall be held to the standard of exhaustion of remedies provided under State and Federal law. The Act imposes no additional burden respecting exhaustion of remedies.

(a) Access to records shall be extended promptly to all authorized agents of a P&A system.

(b) A P&A system shall have access to the records of any of the following individuals with mental illness:

(1) An individual who is a client of the P&A system if authorized by that individual or the legal guardian, conservator or other legal representative.

(2) An individual, including an individual who has died or whose whereabouts is unknown to whom all of the following conditions apply:

(i) The individual, due to his or her mental or physical condition, is unable to authorize the P&A system to have access.

(ii) The individual does not have a legal guardian, conservator or other legal representative, or the individual's guardian is the State or one of its political subdivisions; and

(iii) A complaint or report has been received and the P&A system has determined that there is probable cause to believe that the individual has been or may be subject to abuse or neglect.

(3) An individual who has a legal guardian, conservator, or other legal representative, with respect to whom a complaint or report has been received by the P&A system and with respect to whom the P&A system has determined that there is probable cause to believe that the health or safety of the individual is in serious and immediate jeopardy, whenever all of the following conditions exists:

(i) The P&A system has made a good faith effort to contact the representative upon prompt receipt of the representative's name and address;

(ii) The P&A system has made a good faith effort to offer assistance to the representative to resolve the situation; and

(iii) The representative has failed or refused to act on behalf of the individual.

(1) Information and individual records, obtained in the course of providing intake, assessment, evaluation, supportive and other services, including medical records, financial records, and reports prepared or received by a member of the staff of a facility or program rendering care or treatment. This includes records stored or maintained in locations other than the facility or program as long as the system has obtained appropriate consent consistent with section 105(a)(4) of the Act. The system shall request of facilities that in requesting records from service providers or other facilities on residents that they indicate in the release form the records may be subject to review by a system.

(2) Reports prepared by an agency charged with investigating abuse neglect, or injury occurring at a facility rendering care or treatment, or by or for the facility itself, that describe any or all of the following:

(i) Abuse, neglect, or injury occurring at the facility;

(ii) The steps taken to investigate the incidents;

(iii) Reports and records, including personnel records, prepared or maintained by the facility, in connection with such reports of incidents; or

(iv) Supporting information that was relied upon in creating a report, including all information and records used or reviewed in preparing reports of abuse, neglect or injury such as records which describe persons who were interviewed, physical and documentary evidence that was reviewed, and the related investigative findings.

(3) Discharge planning records.

(4) Reports prepared by individuals and entities performing certification or licensure reviews, or by professional accreditation organizations, as well as related assessments prepared for the facility by its staff, contractors or related entities, except that nothing in this section is intended to preempt State law protecting records produced by medical care evaluation or peer review committees.

(5) Professional, performance, building or other safety standards, demographic and statistical information relating to the facility.

(d) A P&A system shall have reasonable access and authority to interview and examine all relevant records of any facility service recipient (consistent with the provisions of section 105(a)(4) of the Act) or employee.

(e) A P&A system shall be permitted to inspect and copy records, subject to a reasonable charge to offset duplicating costs.

(a) Access to facilities and residents shall be extended to all authorized agents of a P&A system.

(b) A P&A system shall have reasonable unaccompanied access to public and private facilities and programs in the State which render care or treatment for individuals with mental illness, and to all areas of the facility which are used by residents or are accessible to residents. The P&A system shall have reasonable unaccompanied access to residents at all times necessary to conduct a full investigation of an incident of abuse or neglect. This authority shall include the opportunity to interview any facility service recipient, employee, or other persons, including the person thought to be the victim of such abuse, who might be reasonably believed by the system to have knowledge of the incident under investigation. Such access shall be afforded, upon request, by the P&A system when:

(1) An incident is reported or a complaint is made to the P&A system;

(2) The P&A system determines there is probable cause to believe that an incident has or may have occurred; or

(3) The P&A system determines that there is or may be imminent danger of serious abuse or neglect of an individual with mental illness.

(c) In addition to access as prescribed in paragraph (b) of this section, a P&A system shall have reasonable unaccompanied access to facilities including all area which are used by residents, are accessible to residents, and to programs and their residents at reasonable times, which at a minimum shall include normal working hours and visiting hours. Residents include adults or minors who have legal guardians or conservators. P&A activities shall be conducted so as to minimize interference with facility programs, respect residents' privacy interests, and honor a resident's request to terminate an interview. This access is for the purpose of:

(1) Providing information and training on, and referral to programs addressing the needs of individuals with mental illness, and information and training about individual rights and the protection and advocacy services available from the P&A system, including the name, address, and telephone number of the P&A system.

(2) Monitoring compliance with respect to the rights and safety of residents; and

(3) Inspecting, viewing and photographing all areas of the facility which are used by residents or are accessible to residents.

(d) Unaccompanied access to residents shall include the opportunity to meet and communicate privately with individuals regularly, both formally and informally, by telephone, mail and in person. Residents include minors or adults who have legal guardians or conservators.

(e) The right of access specified in paragraph (c) of this section shall apply despite the existence of any State or local laws or regulations which restrict informal access to minors and adults with legal guardians or conservators. The system shall make very effort to ensure that the parents of minors or guardians of individuals in the care of a facility are informed that the system will be monitoring activities at the facility and may in the course of such monitoring have access to the minor or adult with a legal guardian. The system shall take no formal action on behalf of individuals with legal guardians or conservators, or initiate a formal attorney/client or advocate/client relationship without appropriate consent, except in emergency situations as described in § 51.41(b)(3).

(f) A P&A system providing representation to individuals with mental illness in Federal facilities shall have all the rights and authority accorded other representatives of residents of such facilities pursuant to State and Federal laws.

If a P&A system's access to facilities, programs, residents or records covered by the Act or this part is delayed or denied, the P&A system shall be provided promptly with a written statement of reasons, including, in the case of a denial for alleged lack of authorization, the name, address and telephone number of the legal guardian, conservator, or other legal representative of an individual with mental illness. Access to facilities, records or residents shall not be delayed or denied without the prompt provision of written statements of the reasons for the denial.

(a) Records maintained by the P&A system are the property of the P&A system which must protect them from loss, damage, tampering or use by unauthorized individuals. The P&A system must:

(1) Except as provided elsewhere in this section, keep confidential all records and information, including information contained in any automated electronic database pertaining to:

(i) Clients to the same extent as is required under Federal or State laws for a provider of mental health services;

(ii) Individuals who have been provided general information or technical assistance on a particular matter;

(iii) Identity of individuals who report incidents of abuse or neglect or furnish information that forms the basis for a determination that probable cause exists; and

(iv) Names of individuals who are residents and provide information for the record.

(2) Have written policies governing access to, storage of, duplication and release of information from client records; and

(3) Obtain written consent from the client, if competent, or from his or her legal representative, from individuals who have been provided general information or technical assistance on a particular matter and from individuals who furnish reports or information that forms the basis for a determination of probable cause, before releasing information to individuals not otherwise authorized to receive it.

(b) Nothing in this subpart shall prevent the P&A system from. (1) Issuing a public report of the results of an investigation which maintains the confidentiality of the individuals listed in paragraph (a)(1) of this section or,

(2) Reporting the results of an investigation which maintains the confidentiality of individual service recipients to responsible investigative or enforcement agencies should an investigation reveal information concerning the facility, its staff, or employees warranting possible sanctions or corrective action. this information may be reported to agencies responsible for facility licensing or accreditation, employee discipline, employee licensing or certification, or criminal prosecution.

(c) For purposes of any periodic audit, report, or evaluation of the performance of the P&A system, the Secretary shall not require the P&A system to disclose the identity, or any other personally identifiable information, of any individual requesting assistance under a program. This requirement does not restrict access by the Department or other authorized Federal or State officials to client records or other records of the P&A system when deemed necessary for audit purposes and for monitoring P&A system compliance with applicable Federal or State laws and regulations. The purpose of obtaining such information is solely to determine that P&A systems are spending their grant funds awarded under the Act on serving individuals with mental illness. Officials that have access to such information must keep it confidential to the maximum extent permitted by law and regulations. If photostatic copies of materials are provided, then the destruction of such evidence is required once such reviews have been completed.

(d) Subject to the restrictions and procedures set out in this section, implementing section 106 (a) and (b) of the Act (42 U.S.C. 10806 (a) and (b)), this part does not limit access by a legal guardian, conservator, or other legal representative of an individual with mental illness, unless prohibited by State or Federal law, court order or the attorney-client privilege.

(a) Except as provided in paragraph (b) of this section, if a P&A system has access to records pursuant to section 105(a)(4) of the Act (42 U.S.C. 10805(a)(4)) which, under Federal or State law, are required to be maintained in a confidential manner by a provider of mental health services, it may not disclose information from such records to the individual who is the subject of the information if the mental health professional responsible for supervising the provision of mental health services to that individual has given the P&A system a written determination that disclosure of such information to the individual would be detrimental to the individual's health. The provider shall be responsible for giving any such written determination to the P&A system at the same time as access to the records containing the information is granted.

(b)(1) If the disclosure of information has been denied under paragraph (a) of this section to an individual, the following individuals or the P&A system may select another mental health professional to review the information and to determine if disclosure of the information would be detrimental to the individual's health:

(i) Such individual;

(ii) The legal guardian, conservator or other legal representative of the individual; or

(iii) An eligible P&A system, acting on behalf of an individual:

(A) Whose legal guardian is the State; or

(B) Whose legal guardian, conservator, or other legal representative has not, within a reasonable time after the denial of access to information under paragraph (a), selected a mental health professional to review the information.

(2) If such mental health professional determines, based on professional judgment, that disclosure of the information would not be detrimental to the health of the individual, the P&A system may disclose such information to the individual.

(c) The restriction in paragraph (b) of this section does not affect the P&A system's access to the records.

The regulations in this part apply to grants for preventive health service programs authorized under section 317 (42 U.S.C. 247b) and for venereal disease prevention and control programs authorized under section 318 (42 U.S.C. 247c) of the Act.

As used in these regulations:

Act means the Public Health Service Act, as amended.

Secretary means the Secretary of Health and Human Services (HHS) or any other officer or employee of that Department to whom the authority involved has been delegated.