The regulations contained in this part implement the Marine Mammal Protection Act of 1972 (16 U.S.C. 1361-1407), which among other things, restricts the taking, possession, transportation, selling, offering for sale, and importing of marine mammals.

(a) This part 18 applies solely to marine mammals and marine mammal products as defined in § 18.3. For regulations under the Act with respect to cetacea (whales and porpoises), pinnipedia, other than walrus (seals and sea lions), see 50 CFR part 216.

(b) The provisions in this part are in addition to, and are not in lieu of, other regulations of this subchapter B which may require a permit or prescribe additional restrictions or conditions for the importation, exportation, and interstate transportation of wildlife. (See also part 13 of this subchapter.)

In addition to definitions contained in section 3 of the Act and in part 10 of this subchapter, and unless the context requires otherwise, in this part 18:

Act means the Marine Mammal Protection Act of 1972, 86 Stat. 1027, 16 U.S.C. 1361-1407; Pub. L. 92-522.

Alaskan Native means a person defined in the Alaska Native Claims Settlement Act (43 U.S.C. section 1603(b) (85 Stat. 588)) as a citizen of the United States who is of one-fourth degree or more Alaska Indian (including Tsimshian Indians enrolled or not enrolled in the Metlaktla Indian Community), Eskimo, or Aleut blood, or combination thereof. The term includes any Native, as so defined, either or both of whose adoptive parents are not Natives. It also includes, in the absence of proof of a minimum blood quantum, any citizen of the United States who is regarded as an Alaska Native by the Native village or town of which he claims to be a member and whose father or mother is (or, if deceased, was) regarded as Native by any Native village or Native town. Any citizen enrolled by the Secretary pursuant to section 5 of the Alaska Native Claims Settlement Act shall be conclusively presumed to be an Alaskan Native for purposes of this part.

Authentic native articles of handicrafts and clothing means items made by an Indian, Aleut, or Eskimo that (a) are composed wholly or in some significant respect of natural materials and (b) are significantly altered from their natural form and are produced, decorated, or fashioned in the exercise of traditional native handicrafts without the use of pantographs, multiple carvers, or similar mass-copying devices. Improved methods of production utilizing modern implements such as sewing machines or modern techniques at a tannery registered pursuant to § 18.23(c) may be used so long as no large-scale mass-production industry results. Traditional native handicrafts include, but are not limited to, weaving, carving, stitching, sewing, lacing, beading, drawing, and painting. The formation of traditional native groups, such as cooperatives, is permitted so long as no large-scale mass production results.

Commercial fishing operation means the lawful harvesting of fish from the marine environment for profit as part of an on-going business enterprise. Such term shall not include sport fishing activities whether or not carried out by charter boat or otherwise, and whether or not the fish so caught are subsequently sold.

Endangered species means a species of marine mammal listed as “endangered” pursuant to the Endangered Species Act of 1973, 87 Stat. 884, Pub. L. 93-205 (see part 17 of this subchapter).

Incidental catch means the taking of a marine mammal (a) because it is directly interfering with commercial fishing operations, or (b) as a consequence of the steps used to secure the fish in connection with commercial fishing operations: Provided, however, That a marine mammal so taken must immediately be returned to the sea with a minimum of injury; and Provided, further, That the taking of a marine mammal which otherwise meets the requirements of this definition shall not be considered as incidental catch of that mammal if it is used subsequently to assist in commercial fishing operations.

Marine mammal means any specimen of the following species, whether alive or dead, and any part thereof, including but not limited to, any raw, dressed, or dyed fur or skin:

Native village or town means any community, association, tribe, band, clan, or group.

Pregnant means pregnant near term.

Subsistence means the use by Alaskan Natives of marine mammals taken by Alaskan Natives for food, clothing, shelter, heating, transportation, and other uses necessary to maintain the life of the taker or for those who depend upon the taker to provide them with such subsistence.

Take means to harass, hunt, capture, collect, or kill, or attempt to harass, hunt, capture, collect, or kill any marine mammal, including, without limitation, any of the following: The collection of dead animals or parts thereof; the restraint or detention of a marine mammal, no matter how temporary; tagging a marine mammal; or the negligent or intentional operation of an aircraft or vessel, or the doing of any other negligent or intentional act which results in the disturbing or molesting of a marine mammal.

Threatened species means a species of marine mammal listed as “threatened” pursuant to the Endangered Species Act of 1973, 87 Stat. 884, Pub. L. 93-205.

Wasteful manner means any taking or method of taking which is likely to result in the killing or injuring of marine mammals beyond those needed for subsistence purposes or for the making of authentic native articles of handicrafts and clothing or which results in the waste of a substantial portion of the marine mammal and includes without limitation the employment of a method of taking which is not likely to assure the capture or killing of a marine mammal, or which is not immediately followed by a reasonable effort to retrieve the marine mammal.

(a) The Office of Management and Budget under 44 U.S.C. 3501 et seq. has approved the information collection requirements contained in Subpart D and assigned clearance number 1018-0022. The Service is collecting this information to review and evaluate permit applications and make decisions according to criteria established in various Federal wildlife conservation statutes and regulations, on the issuance or denial of permits. The applicant must respond to obtain or retain a permit.

(b) The Service estimated the public reporting burden for this collection of information to vary from 15 minutes to 4 hours per response, with an average of 1.028 hours per response, including the time for reviewing instructions, searching existing data sources, gathering and maintaining the data needed, and completing and reviewing the collection of information. Send comments regarding this burden or any other aspect of this collection of information, including suggestions for reducing the burden, to the Service Information Collection Clearance Office, Fish and Wildlife, Service Office of Management and Budget, Mail Stop 224, Arlington Square, U.S. Department of the Interior, 1849 C Street, NW., Washington, DC 20240 and the Office of Management and Budget, Paperwork Reduction Project (1018-0022), Washington, DC 20503.

Except as otherwise provided in subpart C, D, or H of this part 18, or part 403, it is unlawful for:

(a) Any person, vessel, or conveyance subject to the jurisdiction of the United States to take any marine mammal on the high seas, or

(b) Any person, vessel, or conveyance to take any marine mammal in waters or on lands under the jurisdiction of the United States.

(a) Except as otherwise provided in subparts C and D of this part 18, it is unlawful for any person to import any marine mammal or marine mammal product into the United States.

(b) Regardless of whether an importation is otherwise authorized pursuant to subparts C and D of this part 18, it is unlawful for any person to import into the United States any:

(1) Marine mammal: (i) Taken in violation of the Act, or

(ii) Taken in another country in violation of the laws of that country;

(2) Any marine mammal product if: (i) The importation into the United States of the marine mammal from which such product is made would be unlawful under paragraph (b)(1) of this section, or

(ii) The sale in commerce of such product in the country of origin of the product is illegal.

(c) Except in accordance with an exception referred to in subpart C and §§ 18.31 and 18.32 of this part, it is unlawful to import into the United States any:

(1) Marine mammal which was pregnant at the time of taking;

(2) Marine mammal which was nursing at the time of taking, or less than 8 months old, whichever occurs later;

(3) Specimen of an endangered or threatened species of marine mammals;

(4) Specimen taken from a depleted species or stock of marine mammals; or

(5) Marine mammal taken in an inhumane manner.

(d) It is unlawful to import into the United States any fish, whether fresh, frozen, or otherwise prepared, if such fish was caught in a manner proscribed by the Secretary of Commerce for persons subject to the jurisdiction of the United States, whether or not any marine mammals were in fact taken incident to the catching of the fish.

Except as otherwise provided in the Act or these regulations, it is unlawful for:

(a) Any person to use any port, harbor, or other place under the jurisdiction of the United States for any purpose in any way connected with a prohibited taking or any unlawful importation of any marine mammal or marine mammal products;

(b) Any person to possess any marine mammal, or product therefrom, taken in violation of the Act or these regulations;

(c) Any person to transport, purchase, sell, or offer to purchase or sell any marine mammal or marine mammal product; or

(d) Any person subject to the jurisdiction of the United States to use in a commercial fishery, any means or method of fishing in contravention of regulations and limitations issued by the Secretary of Commerce for that fishery to achieve the purposes of this Act.

(a) Section 102(e) of the Act provides in effect that the Act shall not apply to any marine mammal taken prior to December 21, 1972, or to any marine mammal product consisting of, or composed in whole or in part of, any marine mammal taken before such date. Such status may be established by submitting to the Director prior to, or at the time of importation, an affidavit containing the following:

(1) The Affiant's name and address;

(2) Identification of the Affiant;

(3) A description of the marine mammals or marine mammal products which the Affiant desires to import;

(4) A statement by the Affiant that to the best of his knowledge and belief, the marine mammals involved in the application were taken prior to December 21, 1972;

(5) A statement by the Affiant in the following language:

(b) Either one of two exhibits shall be attached to such affidavit, and will contain either:

(1) Records or other available evidence showing that the product consists of or is composed in whole or in part of marine mammals taken prior to December 21, 1972. Such records or other evidentiary material must include information on how, when, where, and by whom the animals were taken, what processing has taken place since taking, and the date and location of such processing; or

(2) A statement from a government agency of the country of origin exercising jurisdiction over marine mammals that any and all such mammals from which the products sought to be imported were derived were taken prior to December 21, 1972.

(c) Service agents, or Customs officers, may refuse to clear marine mammals or marine mammal products for importation into the United States, pursuant to § 14.53 of this subchapter, until the importer can demonstrate, by production of the affidavit referred in above or otherwise, that section 102(e) of the Act applies to all affected items.

(d) This section has no application to any marine mammal or marine mammal product intended to be imported pursuant to § 18.21, § 18.31 or § 18.32 of this part.

The Act and these regulations shall not apply to the extent that they are inconsistent with the provisions of any international treaty, convention or agreement, or any statute implementing the same, relating to the taking or importation of marine mammals or marine mammal products, which was existent and in force prior to December 21, 1972, and to which the United States was a party. Specifically, the regulations in subpart B of this part and the provisions of the Act shall not apply to activities carried out pursuant to the Interim Convention on the Conservation of North Pacific Fur Seals signed in Washington on February 9, 1957, and the Fur Seal Act of 1966, 16 U.S.C. 1151-1187, as, in each case, from time to time amended.

(a) A Federal, State or local government official or employee may take a marine mammal in the course of his duties as an official or employee and no permit shall be required, if such taking:

(1) Is accomplished in a humane manner;

(2) Is for the protection or welfare of such mammal or from the protection of the public health or welfare; and

(3) Includes steps designed to insure return of such mammal, if not killed in the course of such taking, to its natural habitat. In addition, any such official or employee may, incidental to such taking, possess and transport, but not sell or offer for sale, such mammal and use any port, harbor or other place under the jurisdiction of the United States. All steps reasonably practicable under the circumstances shall be taken by any such employee or official to prevent injury or death to the marine mammal as the result of such taking.

(b) Each taking permitted under this section should be included in a written report, to be submitted to the Director every six months, beginning December 31, 1973. Unless otherwise permitted by the Director, the report shall contain a description of:

(1) The animal involved;

(2) The circumstances requiring the taking;

(3) The method of taking;

(4) The name and official position of the State official or employee involved;

(5) The disposition of the animal, including in cases where the animal has been retained in captivity, a description of the place and means of confinement and the measures taken for its maintenance and care; and

(6) Such other information as the Director may require.

(a) Taking. Except as otherwise provided in part 403 of this title, any Indian, Aleut, or Eskimo who resides in Alaska and who dwells on the coast of the North Pacific Ocean or the Arctic Ocean may take any marine mammal without a permit, subject to the restrictions contained in this section, if such taking is:

(1) For subsistence purposes, or

(2) For purposes of creating and selling authentic native articles of handicraft and clothing, and

(3) In each case, not accomplished in a wasteful manner.

(b) Restrictions. (1) “Except for a transfer to a duly authorized representative of the Regional Director of the U.S. Fish and Wildlife Service for scientific research purposes, no marine mammal taken for subsistence may be sold or otherwise transferred to any person other than an Alaskan Native or delivered, carried, transported, or shipped in interstate or foreign commerce, unless:

(i) It is being sent by an Alaskan Native directly or through a registered agent to a tannery registered under paragraph (c) of this section for the purpose of processing, and will be returned directly or through a registered agent to the Alaskan Native; or

(ii) It is sold or transferred to a registered agent in Alaska for resale or transfer to an Alaskan Native; or

(iii) It is an edible portion and it is sold in an Alaskan Native village or town.

(2) “Except for a transfer to a duly authorized representative of the Regional Director of the U.S. Fish and Wildlife Service for scientific research purposes, no marine mammal taken for purposes of creating and selling authentic Native articles of handicraft and clothing may be sold or otherwise transferred to any person other than an Indian, Aleut or Eskimo, or delivered, carried, transported or shipped in interstate or foreign commerce, unless:

(i) It is being sent by an Indian, Aleut or Eskimo directly or through a registered agent to a tannery registered under paragraph (c) of this section for the purpose of processing, and will be returned directly or through a registered agent to the Indian, Aleut or Eskimo; or

(ii) It is sold or transferred to a registered agent for resale or transfer to an Indian, Aleut, or Eskimo; or

(iii) It has been first transformed into an authentic Native article of handicraft or clothing; or

(iv) It is an edible portion and it is sold (A) in an Alaskan Native village or town or (B) to an Alaskan Native for his consumption.

(c) The restriction in paragraph (b) shall not apply to parts or products of the Pacific walrus (Odobenis rosmarus) to the extent that the waiver of the moratorium and the approved State/Federal regulations relating to the taking and importation of walrus permits the delivery, sale, transportation or shipment of parts or products of the Pacific walrus in interstate or foreign commerce.

(d) Any tannery, or person who wishes to act as an agent, within the jurisdiction of the United States may apply to the Director for registration as a tannery or an agent which may possess and process marine mammal products for Indians, Aleuts, or Eskimos. The application shall include the following information:

(1) The name and address of the applicant;

(2) A description of the applicant's procedures for receiving, storing, processing, and shipping materials;

(3) A proposal for a system of bookkeeping and/or inventory segregation by which the applicant could maintain accurate records of marine mammals received from Indians, Aleuts, or Eskimos, pursuant to this section;

(4) Such other information as the Director may request;

(5) A certification in the following language:

(6) The signature of the applicant.

(e) Notwithstanding the preceding provisions of this section, whenever, under the Act, the Secretary determines any species or stock of marine mammals to be depleted, he may prescribe regulations pursuant to section 103 of the Act upon the taking of such marine mammals by any Indian, Aleut, or Eskimo and, after promulgation of such regulations, all takings of such marine mammals by such person shall conform to such regulations.

(f) Marking, tagging, and reporting. (1) In addition to definitions contained in the Act, 50 CFR 18.3, and 50 CFR 18.27, in this paragraph (f):

(i) The term “marking and tagging” of marine mammals as specified in section 109(i) of the Act refers to the actual physical attachment of an approved band or other such marking device or technique to the raw or unhandicrafted (including unmarked tanned skins) skin and skull of polar bears, the tusks of walruses, and the skin and skull of sea otters; and

(ii) The term “reporting” means the collection by Service personnel or the Service's authorized local representatives of biological data, harvest data, and other information regarding the effect of taking of marine mammals on populations, the collection of which the Service determines to be necessary for management purposes. Reporting will be done on forms provided by the Service upon presentation for marking, tagging, and reporting purposes of the marine mammal(s) or specified raw or unhandicrafted parts thereof.

(2) Notwithstanding the preceding provisions of this section, but subject to the provisions and conditions contained in this paragraph, no polar bear, walrus, or sea otter, or any parts thereof, taken or collected by an Alaskan Native for subsistence purposes or for purposes of creating and selling authentic Native articles of handicrafts and clothing may be possessed, transported within, or exported from Alaska unless the animal(s), or specified parts thereof, have been reported to, and properly marked and tagged by, Service personnel or the Service's authorized local representative; except:

(i) An Alaskan Native that harvested or participated in the harvest of a polar bear, sea otter, or walrus and who possesses the animal, or any parts thereof, may possess the unmarked, untagged, and unreported animal(s), or parts thereof, for a period of time not to exceed 30 days from the time of taking for the purpose of transporting the specified parts to Service personnel or the Service's local authorized representative for marking, tagging, and reporting;

(ii) Alaskan Natives and registered agents/tanneries may possess the specified unmarked or untagged raw, unhandicrafted, or tanned parts thereof for a period of time not to exceed 180 days from the effective date of this rulemaking for the purpose of transporting to Service personnel or the Service's local authorized representative for marking and tagging if the specified parts thereof were taken or possessed between December 21, 1972, and the effective date of this regulation. There is no reporting requirement for marine mammals, or specified parts thereof, covered by this paragraph.

(3) Those unmarked, untagged, and unreported specified parts of polar bear, walrus, and sea otter, that must be presented to Service personnel or an authorized Service representative for marking, tagging, and reporting are as follows:

(i) Polar bear—skin and skull.

(ii) Walrus—tusks.

(iii) Sea otter—skin and skull.

(4) The locations where Service personnel or the Service's authorized local representative will be available for marking, tagging, and reporting purposes will be announced annually by the Alaska Regional Director. Local persons authorized to act as representatives for marking, tagging, and reporting purposes in the absence of Service personnel will also be announced annually by the Alaska Regional Director.

(5) Marks and tags will be attached or applied to the skins, skulls, and tusks of the marine mammal(s) in such a manner as to maximize their longevity and minimize their adverse effects to the appearance of the specified parts that might result due to hindering the tanning or handicrafting of skins, or the handicrafting of tusks or skulls. If the tag or mark comes off of the specified part the person in possession of the part shall have 30 days to present the part and broken tag or other marking device to the Service or the Service's authorized local representative for remarking or retagging purposes.

(6) Marks and tags for skins, skulls, and tusks will be provided by the Service. They will be numbered for accountability and of such design, construction, and material so as to maximize their durability and longevity on the specified parts.

(7) Data collected pursuant to this paragraph will be reported on forms provided by the Service and maintained in the Service's Regional Office, Anchorage, Alaska. The Service will summarize the data annually and make it publicly available. The data will also be included in the Service's annual report to Congress as set forth in section 103(f) of the Act.

(8) All items of research (e.g., radio collars, satellite transmitters, tags, etc.) that were attached to animals taken by Alaskan Natives must be returned to Service personnel or an authorized Service representative at the time the animal, or specified unhandicrafted parts thereof, are presented for marking, tagging, and reporting. No penalty will be imposed under the Act for a violation of this paragraph. However, penalties may be sought by the Service under other applicable Federal laws governing the possession and use of Federal property.

(9) Pursuant to this paragraph (f), the following specific conditions and provisions apply:

(i) Marking, tagging, and reporting of polar bears or specified parts thereof.

(A) The skin and skull of an animal must accompany each other when presented for marking, tagging, and reporting except that the skin and skull of an animal need not be presented together for marking and tagging purposes if taken between December 21, 1972, and the effective date of this regulation.

(B) Except as provided in paragraph (f)(2)(ii) of this section, the following information must be reported by Alaskan Natives when presenting polar bears, or specified parts thereof, for marking and tagging: sex of animal, date of kill, and location of kill.

(C) Both the skin and the skull will be marked and tagged and a rudimentary pre-molar tooth may be removed from the skull and retained by the Service. The skin must have the sex identifiers, such as vaginal orifice, teats, or penal sheath or baculum, either attached to, or accompanying the skin.

(D) The skull must be skinned out and the skin may be frozen or unfrozen when presented for marking, tagging, and reporting. If the skin is frozen, the sex identifiers, such as vaginal orifice, teats, penal sheath or baculum, must be visible.

(E) Marks and tags must remain affixed to the skin through the tanning process and until the skin has been severed into parts for crafting into handicrafts or for as long as is practical during the handicrafting process.

(ii) Marking, tagging, and reporting of walrus or specified parts thereof.

(A) The paired tusks of the animal(s) must, to the maximum extent practical, accompany each other when presented for marking, tagging, and reporting purposes, except that paired tusks need not be presented together for marking and tagging purposes if taken between December 21, 1972, and the effective date of this regulation.

(B) Except as provided in paragraph (f)(2)(ii) of this section, the following information must be reported by Alaskan Natives when presenting walrus, or specified parts thereof, for marking and tagging: date of take, sex of animal, whether live-killed, floating-dead, or beach-found, and location of the take or location of animal if found floating and dead or beach-found.

(C) Marks and/or tags must remain affixed to the tusks until they have been crafted into a handicraft or for as long as is practical during the handicrafting process.

(iii) Marking, tagging, and reporting of sea otter or specified parts thereof.

(A) The skin and skull of an animal must accompany each other when presented for marking, tagging, and reporting, except that the skin and skull of an animal need not be presented together if taken between December 21, 1972, and the effective date of this regulation.

(B) Except as provided in paragraph (f)(2)(ii) of this section, the following information must be reported by Alaskan Natives when presenting sea otters, or specified parts thereof, for marking and tagging: date of kill, sex of animal, and location of kill.

(C) Both the skin and skull will be marked and tagged and a rudimentary pre-molar tooth may be removed from the skull and retained by the Service. The skin must have the sex identifiers, such as vaginal orifice, teats, or penal sheath or baculum, either attached to, or accompanying the skin.

(D) The skull must be skinned out and the skin may be frozen or unfrozen when presented for marking, tagging, and reporting. If the skin is frozen, the sex identifiers, such as vaginal orifice, teats, or penal sheath or baculum, must be visible.

(E) Marks and tags must remain affixed to the skin through the tanning process and until the skin has been severed into parts for crafting into handicrafts or for as long as is practical during the handicrafting process.

(10) No person may falsify any information required to be set forth on the reporting form when the marine mammal(s), or specified parts thereof, are presented as required by these regulations.

(11) Possession by any person of marine mammal(s), or any parts thereof, in violation of the provisions and conditions of this § 18.23(f) is subject to punishment under the penalties provided for in section 105(a)(1) of the Act.

(12) The information collection requirements contained in this § 18.23(f) have been approved by the Office of Management and Budget under 44 U.S.C. 3501 et seq. and assigned clearance number 1018-0066. The information is mandatory in order to have the marine mammal parts “marked and tagged,” and thereby made eligible for continued lawful possession. Non-response may result in the Service determining the wildlife to be illegally possessed and subject the individual to penalties under this title.

Persons may take marine mammals incidental to commercial fishing operations until October 21, 1974: Provided, That such taking is by means of equipment and techniques prescribed in regulations issued by the Secretary of Commerce. However, any marine mammal taken as an incidental catch may not be retained. It shall be the immediate goal that the incidental kill or incidental serious injury of marine mammals permitted in the course of commercial fishing operations be reduced to insignificant levels approaching a zero mortality and serious injury rate.

(a) The provisions of the Act and these regulations shall not apply:

(1) To any marine mammal taken before December 21, 1972, or

(2) To any marine mammal product if the marine mammal portion of such product consists solely of a marine mammal taken before such date.

(b) The prohibitions contained in § 18.12(c) (3) and (4) shall not apply to marine mammals or marine mammal products imported into the United States before the date on which notice is published in the Federal Register of the proposed rulemaking with respect to the designation of the species of stock concerned as depleted or endangered:

(c) Section 18.12(b) shall not apply to articles imported into the United States before the effective date of the foreign law making the taking or sale, as the case may be, of such marine mammals or marine mammal products unlawful.

(a) Any bones, teeth or ivory of any dead marine mammal may be collected from a beach or from land within 1/4 of a mile of the ocean. The term “ocean” includes bays and estuaries.

(b) Marine mammal parts so collected may be retained if registered within 30 days with an agent of the National Marine Fisheries Service, or an agent of the U.S. Fish and Wildlife Service.

(c) Registration shall include (1) the name of the owner, (2) a description of the article to be registered and (3) the date and location of collection.

(d) Title to any marine mammal parts collected under this section is not transferable, unless consented to in writing by the agent referred to in paragraph (b) of this section.

(a) Purpose of regulations. The regulations in this section implement Section 101(a)(5) of the Marine Mammal Protection Act of 1972, as amended, 16 U.S.C. 1371(a)(5), which provides a mechanism for allowing, upon request, during periods of not more than five consecutive years each, the incidental, but not intentional, taking of small numbers of marine mammals by U.S. citizens who engage in a specified activity (other than commercial fishing) within a specified geographical region.

(b) Scope of regulations. The taking of small numbers of marine mammals under section 101(a)(5) of the Marine Mammal Protection Act may be allowed only if the Director of the Fish and Wildlife Service (1) finds, based on the best scientific evidence available, that the total taking during the specified time period will have a negligible impact on the species or stock and will not have an unmitigable adverse impact on the availability of the species or stock for subsistence uses; (2) prescribes regulations setting forth permissible methods of taking and other means of effecting the least practicable adverse impact on the species and its habitat and on the availability of the species for subsistence uses, paying particular attention to rookeries, mating grounds, and areas of similar significance; and (3) prescribes regulations pertaining to the monitoring and reporting of such taking.

(c) Definitions. In addition to definitions contained in the Act and in 50 CFR 18.3 and unless the context otherwise requires, in this section:

Citizens of the United States and U.S. citizens mean individual U.S. citizens or any corporation or similar entity if it is organized under the laws of the United States or any governmental unit defined in 16 U.S.C. 1362(13). U.S. Federal, State and local government agencies shall also constitute citizens of the United States for purposes of this section.

Incidental, but not intentional, taking means takings which are infrequent, unavoidable, or accidental. It does not mean that the taking must be unexpected. (Complete definition of take is contained in 50 CFR 18.3.)

Negligible impact is an impact resulting from the specified activity that cannot be reasonably expected to, and is not reasonably likely to, adversely affect the species or stock through effects on annual rates of recruitment or survival.

Small numbers means a portion of a marine mammal species or stock whose taking would have a negligible impact on that species or stock.

Specified activity means any activity, other than commercial fishing, which takes place in a specified geographical region and potentially involves the taking of small numbers of marine mammals. The specified activity and specified geographical region should be identified so that the anticipated effects on marine mammals will be substantially similar.

Specified geographical region means an area within which a specified activity is conducted and which has similar biogeographic characteristics.

Unmitigable adverse impact means an impact resulting from the specified activity (1) that is likely to reduce the availability of the species to a level insufficient for a harvest to meet subsistence needs by (i) causing the marine mammals to abandon or avoid hunting areas, (ii) directly displacing subsistence users, or (iii) placing physical barriers between the marine mammals and the subsistence hunters; and (2) that cannot be sufficiently mitigated by other measures to increase the availability of marine mammals to allow subsistence needs to be met.

(d) Submission of requests. (1) In order for the Fish and Wildlife Service to consider allowing the taking by U.S citizens of small numbers of marine mammals incidental to a specified activity, a written request must be submitted to the Director, U.S. Fish and Wildlife Service, Department of the Interior, Washington, DC 20240. Requests shall include the following information on the activity as a whole, which includes, but is not limited to, an assessment of total impacts by all persons conducting the activity:

(i) A description of the specific activity or class of activities that can be expected to result in incidental taking of marine mammals;

(ii) The dates and duration of such activity and the specific geographical region where it will occur;

(iii) Based upon the best available scientific information;

(A) An estimate of the species and numbers of marine mammals likely to be taken by age, sex, and reproductive conditions, and the type of taking (e.g., disturbance by sound, injury or death resulting from collision, etc.) and the number of times such taking is likely to occur;

(B) A description of the status, distribution, and seasonal distribution (when applicable) of the affected species or stocks likely to be affected by such activities;

(C) The anticipated impact of the activity upon the species or stocks;

(D) The anticipated impact of the activity on the availability of the species or stocks for subsistence uses;

(iv) The anticipated impact of the activity upon the habitat of the marine mammal populations and the likelihood of restoration of the affected habitat;

(v) The anticipated impact of the loss or modification of the habitat on the marine mammal population involved;

(vi) The availability and feasibility (economic and technological) of equipment, methods, and manner of conducting such activity or other means of effecting the least practicable adverse impact upon the affected species or stocks, their habitat, and, where relevant, on their availability for subsistence uses, paying particular attention to rookeries, mating grounds, and areas of similar significance. (The applicant and those conducting the specified activity and the affected subsistence users are encouraged to develop mutually agreeable mitigating measures that will meet the needs of subsistence users.);

(vii) Suggested means of accomplishing the necessary monitoring and reporting which will result in increased knowledge of the species through an analysis of the level of taking or impacts and suggested means of minimizing burdens by coordinating such reporting requirements with other schemes already applicable to persons conducting such activity; and

(viii) Suggested means of learning of, encouraging, and coordinating research opportunities, plans and activities relating to reducing such incidental taking from such specified activities, and evaluating its effects.

(2) The Director shall determine the adequacy and completeness of a request, and if found to be adequate, will invite information, suggestions, and comments on the preliminary finding of negligible impact and on the proposed specific regulations through notice in the Federal Register, newspapers of general circulation, and appropriate electronic media in the coastal areas that may be affected by such activity. All information and suggestions will be considered by the Fish and Wildlife Service in developing final findings and effective specific regulations.

(3) The Director shall evaluate each request to determine, based on the best available scientific evidence, whether the total taking will have a negligible impact on the species or stock and, where appropriate, will not have an unmitigable adverse impact on the availability of such species or stock for subsistence uses. If the Director finds that mitigating measures would render the impact of the specified activity negligible when it would not otherwise satisfy that requirement, the Director may make a finding of negligible impact subject to such mitigating measures being successfully implemented. Any preliminary findings of “negligible impact” and “no unmitigable adverse impact” shall be proposed for public comment along with the proposed specific regulations.

(4) If the Director cannot make a finding that the total taking will have a negligible impact in the species or stock or will not have an unmitigable adverse impact on the availability of such species or stock for subsistence uses, the Director shall publish in the Federal Register the negative finding along with the basis for denying the request.

(e) Specific regulations. (1) Specific regulations will be established for each allowed activity which set forth (i) permissible methods of taking, (ii) means of effecting the least practicable adverse impact on the species and its habitat and on the availability of the species for subsistence uses, and (iii) requirements for monitoring and reporting.

(2) Regulations will be established based on the best available scientific information. As new information is developed, through monitoring, reporting, or research, the regulations may be modified, in whole or part, after notice and opportunity for public review.

(f) Letters of Authorization. (1) A Letter of Authorization, which may be issued only to U.S. citizens, is required to conduct activities pursuant to any specific regulations established. Requests for Letters of Authorization shall be submitted to the Director, U.S. Fish and Wildlife Service, Department of the Interior, Washington, DC 20240. The information to be submitted in a request may be obtained by writing the Director. Once specific regulations are effective, the Service will to the maximum extent possible, process subsequent applications for Letters of Authorization within 30 days after receipt of the application by the Service.

(2) Issuance of a Letter of Authorization will be based on a determination that the level of taking will be consistent with the findings made for the total taking allowable under the specific regulations.

(3) Notice of issuance of all Letters of Authorization will be published in the Federal Register within 30 days of issuance.

(4) Letters of Authorization will specify the period of validity and any additional terms and conditions appropriate for the specific request.

(5) Letters of Authorization shall be withdrawn or suspended, either on an individual or class basis, as appropriate, if, after notice and opportunity for public comment, the Director determines: (i) The regulations prescribed are not being substantially complied with, or (ii) the taking allowed is having, or may have, more than a negligible impact on the species or stock, or where relevant, an unmitigable adverse impact on the availability of the species or stock for subsistence uses.

(6) The requirement for notice and opportunity for public review in paragraph (f)(5) of this section shall not apply if the Director determines that an emergency exists which poses a significant risk to the well-being of the species or stocks of marine mammals concerned.

(7) A violation of any of the terms and conditions of a Letter of Authorization or of the specific regulations may subject the Holder and/or any individual who is operating under the authority of the Holder's Letter of Authorization to penalties provided in the Marine Mammal Protection Act of 1972 (16 U.S.C. 1361-1407).

(a) Application procedure. You, as the hunter or heir of the hunter's estate, must submit an application for a permit to import a trophy of a polar bear taken in Canada to the U.S. Fish and Wildlife Service, Office of Management Authority, 4401 N. Fairfax Drive, Arlington, Virginia 22203. You must use an official application (Form 3-200) provided by the Service and must include as an attachment all of the following additional information:

(1) Certification that:

(i) You or the deceased hunter took the polar bear as a personal sport-hunted trophy;

(ii) You will use the trophy only for personal display purposes;

(iii) The polar bear was not a pregnant female, a female with dependent nursing cub(s) or a nursing cub (such as in a family group), or a bear in a den or constructing a den when you took it; and

(iv) For a polar bear taken after April 30, 1994, you made sure the gall bladder and its contents were destroyed;

(2) Name and address of the person in the United States receiving the polar bear trophy if other than yourself;

(3) For a polar bear received as an inheritance, documentation to show that you are the legal heir of the decedent who took the trophy;

(4) Proof that you or the decedent legally harvested the polar bear in Canada as shown by one of the following:

(i) A copy of the Northwest Territories (NWT) or Nunavut Territory hunting license and tag number;

(ii) A copy of the Canadian CITES export permit that identifies the polar bear by hunting license and tag number;

(iii) A copy of the NWT or Nunavut Territory export permit; or

(iv) A certification from the Department of Resources, Wildlife, and Economic Development, Northwest Territories, or the Department of Sustainable Development, Nunavut Territory, that you or the decedent legally harvested the polar bear, giving the tag number, location (settlement and population), and season you or the decedent took the bear;

(5) An itemized description of the polar bear parts you wish to import, including size and the sex of the polar bear;

(6) The month and year the polar bear was sport hunted;

(7) The location (nearest settlement or community) where the bear was sport hunted;

(8) For a female bear or a bear of unknown sex that was taken before January 1, 1986, documentary evidence that the bear was not pregnant at the time of take, including, but not limited to, documentation, such as a hunting license or travel itinerary, that shows the bear was not taken in October, November, or December or that shows that the location of the hunt did not include an area that supported maternity dens; and

(9) For a female bear, bear of unknown sex, or male bear that is less than 6 feet in length (from tip of nose to the base of the tail) that was taken prior to the 1996/97 NWT polar bear harvest season, available documentation to show that the bear was not nursing, including, but not limited to, documentation, such as a certification from the NWT, that the bear was not taken while part of a family group.

(b) Definitions. In addition to the definitions in this paragraph, the definitions in 50 CFR 10.12, 18.3, and 23.3 apply to this section.

(1) Sport-hunted trophy means a mount, rug or other display item composed of the hide, hair, skull, teeth, baculum, bones, and claws of the specimen which was taken by the applicant or decedent during a sport hunt for personal, noncommercial use and does not include any internal organ of the animal, including the gall bladder. Articles made from the specimen, such as finished or unfinished, worked, manufactured, or handicraft items for use as clothing, curio, ornamentation, jewelry, or as a utilitarian item are not considered trophy items.

(2) Management agreement means a written agreement between parties that share management responsibilities for a polar bear population which describes what portion of the harvestable quota will be allocated to each party and other measures which may be taken for the conservation of the population, such as harvest seasons, sex ratio of the harvest, and protection of females and cubs.

(c) Procedures for issuance of permits and modification, suspension or revocation of permits. We, the Service, shall suspend, modify or revoke permits issued under this section:

(1) In accordance with regulations contained in § 18.33; and

(2) If, in consultation with the appropriate authority in Canada, we determine that the sustainability of Canada's polar bear populations is being adversely affected or that sport hunting may be having a detrimental effect on maintaining polar bear populations throughout their range.

(d) Issuance criteria. In deciding whether to issue an import permit for a sport-hunted trophy, we must determine in addition to the general criteria in part 13 of this subchapter whether:

(1) You previously imported the specimen into the United States without a permit;

(2) The specimen meets the definition of a sport-hunted trophy in paragraph (b) of this section;

(3) You legally harvested the polar bear in Canada;

(4) Canada has a monitored and enforced sport-hunting program consistent with the purposes of the 1973 International Agreement on the Conservation of Polar Bears;

(5) Canada has a sport-hunting program, based on scientifically sound quotas, ensuring the maintenance of the affected population at a sustainable level; and

(6) The export and subsequent import:

(i) Are consistent with the provisions of the Convention on International Trade in Endangered Species of Wild Fauna and Flora (CITES) and other international agreements and conventions; and

(ii) Are not likely to contribute to illegal trade in bear parts, including for bears taken after April 30, 1994, that the gall bladder and its contents were destroyed.

(e) Additional permit conditions. Your permit to import a sport-hunted trophy of a polar bear taken in Canada is subject to the permit conditions outlined in § 18.31(d) and the following additional permit conditions:

(1) You, the permittee, may not import internal organs of the polar bear, including the gall bladder;

(2) After import you may not alter or use the trophy in a manner inconsistent with the definition of a sport-hunted polar bear trophy as given in § 18.30(b);

(3) You may not import a sport-hunted trophy if the polar bear at the time you or the decedent took it was:

(i) A nursing bear or a female with nursing young (i.e., part of a family group);

(ii) A pregnant female; or

(iii) A bear moving into a den or in a den;

(4) You must present to Service personnel at the time of import a valid CITES document from the country of export or re-export;

(5) You must comply with the following import procedures:

(i) Import the sport-hunted trophy through a designated port for wildlife imports (see § 14.12 of this subchapter) during regular business hours, except for full mount trophies that have been granted an exception to designated port permit requirements under § 14.32 of this subchapter;

(ii) Not send the trophy through the international mail; and

(iii) Notify Service personnel at the port at least 48 hours before the import (see § 14.54 of this subchapter) and make arrangements for Service personnel to affix a tag in accordance with paragraph (e)(7) of this section prior to being cleared (see § 14.52 of this subchapter);

(6) You must import all parts of a single trophy at the same time;

(7) The following tagging/marking procedures apply:

(i) Service personnel must affix a permanently locking tag that contains a unique serial number and the common name “polar bear” to the hide which must remain fixed indefinitely to the hide as proof of legal import; and

(ii) Service personnel must permanently mark upon import the parts of the trophy other than the hide, such as the skull and bones, with the hide tag number; and

(8) If the tag comes off the hide, you must within 30 days:

(i) Contact the nearest Service office at a designated port or a Law Enforcement office as given in § 10.22 of this subchapter to schedule a time to present the trophy for retagging;

(ii) Provide as proof that the trophy had been tagged and legally imported a copy of the:

(A) Canceled CITES export permit or re-export certificate;

(B) Canceled U.S. import permit issued under this section; or

(C) Cleared wildlife declaration form (3-177); and

(iii) Present either the broken tag, or if the tag was lost, a signed written explanation of how and when the tag was lost.

(f) Duration of permits. The permit will be valid for no more than one year from the date of issuance.

(g) Fees. (1) You must pay the standard permit processing fee as given in § 13.11(4) when filing an application.

(2) You must pay the issuance fee of $1,000 when we notify you the application is approved. We cannot issue an import permit until you pay this fee. We will use the issuance fee to develop and implement cooperative research and management programs for the conservation of polar bears in Alaska and Russia under section 113(d) of the Marine Mammal Protection Act.

(h) Scientific review. (1) We will undertake a scientific review of the impact of permits issued under this section on the polar bear populations in Canada within 2 years of March 20, 1997.

(i) The review will provide an opportunity for public comment and include a response to the public comment in the final report; and

(ii) We will not issue permits under this section if we determine, based upon scientific review, that the issuance of permits under this section is having a significant adverse impact on the polar bear populations in Canada; and

(2) After the initial review, we may review whether the issuance of permits under this section is having a significant adverse impact on the polar bear populations in Canada annually in light of the best scientific information available. The review must be completed no later than January 31 in any year a review is undertaken.

(i) Findings. Polar bear sport-hunted trophies may only be imported after issuance of an import permit, and in accordance with the following findings and conditions:

(1) We have determined that the Northwest Territories and Nunavut Territory, Canada, have a monitored and enforced sport-hunting program that meets issuance criteria of paragraphs (d) (4) and (5) of this section for the following populations: Southern Beaufort Sea, Northern Beaufort Sea, Viscount Melville Sound (subject to the lifting of the moratorium in this population), Western Hudson Bay, M'Clintock Channel (only for polar bears lawfully taken on or before May 31, 2000), Lancaster Sound, and Norwegian Bay, and that:

(i) For the Southern Beaufort Sea population, no bears are taken west of the equidistant line of the Beaufort Sea;

(ii) For all populations, females with cubs, cubs, or polar bears moving into denning areas or already in dens are protected from taking by hunting activities; and

(iii) For all populations, management agreements among all management entities with scientifically sound quotas are in place; and

(2) Any sport-hunted trophy taken in the Northwest Territories, Canada, between December 21, 1972, and April 30, 1994, may be issued an import permit when:

(i) From an approved population listed in paragraph (i)(1); and

(ii) The issuance criteria of paragraph (d) (1), (2), (3), and (6) of this section are met.

The Director may, upon receipt of an application and in accordance with the issuance criteria of this section, issue a permit authorizing the taking and importation of marine mammals for scientific research purposes or for public display.

(a) Application procedure. Applications for permits to take and import marine mammals for scientific research purposes or for public display shall be submitted to the Director. Each such application must contain the general information and certification required by § 13.12(a) of this subchapter plus the following additional information:

(1) A statement of the purpose, date, location and manner of the taking or importation;

(2) A description of the marine mammal or the marine mammal products to be taken or imported, including the species or subspecies involved; the population stock, when known, the number of specimens or products (or the weight thereof, where appropriate); and the anticipated age, size, sex, and condition (i.e., whether pregnant or nursing) of the animals involved;

(3) If the marine mammal is to be taken and transported alive, a complete description of the manner of transportation, care and maintenance, including the type, size, and construction of the container or artificial environment; arrangements for feeding and sanitation; a statement of the applicant's qualifications and previous experience in caring for and handling captive marine mammals and a like statement as to the qualifications of any common carrier or agent to be employed to transport the animal; and a written certification of a licensed veterinarian knowledgeable in the field of marine mammals that he has personally reviewed the arrangements for transporting and maintaining the animals and that in his opinion they are adequate to provide for the well-being of the animal;

(4) If the application is for a scientific research permit, a detailed description of the scientific research project or program in which the marine mammal or marine mammal product is to be used including a copy of the research proposal relating to such program or project and the names and addresses of the sponsor or cooperating institution and the scientists involved;

(5) If the application is for a scientific research permit, and if the marine mammal proposed to be taken or imported is listed as an endangered or threatened species or has been designated by the Secretary as depleted, a detailed justification of the need for such a marine mammal, including a discussion of possible alternatives, whether or not under the control of the applicant; and

(6) If the application is for a public display permit, a detailed description of the proposed use to which the marine mammal or marine mammal product is to be put, including the manner, location, and times of display, whether such display is for profit, an estimate of the numbers and types of persons who it is anticipated will benefit for such display, and whether and to what extent the display is connected with educational or scientific programs. There shall also be included a complete description of the enterprise seeking the display permit and its educational, and scientific qualifications, if any.

(b) Review by Marine Mammal Commission. Upon receipt of an application the Director shall forward the application to the Marine Mammal Commission together with a request for the recommendations of the Commission and the Committee of Scientific Advisors on Marine Mammals. In order to comply with the time limits provided in these regulations, the Director shall request that such recommendation be submitted within 30 days of receipt of the application by the Commission. If the Commission or the Committee, as the case may be, does not respond within 30 days from the receipt of such application by the Commission, the Director shall advise the Commission in writing that failure to respond within 45 days from original receipt of the application (or such longer time as the Director may establish) shall be considered as a recommendation from the Commission and the Committee that the permit be issued. The Director may also consult with any other person, institution or agency concerning the application.

(c) Issuance criteria. Permits applied for under this section shall be issued, suspended, modified and revoked pursuant to regulations contained in § 18.33. In determining whether to issue a scientific research permit, the Director shall consider whether the proposed taking or importation will be consistent with the policies and purposes of the Act; and whether the granting of the permit is required to further a bona fide and necessary or desirable scientific purpose, taking into account the benefits anticipated to be derived from the scientific research contemplated and the effect of the purposed taking or importation on the population stock and the marine ecosystem. In determining whether to issue a public display permit, the Director shall consider whether the proposed taking or importation will be consistent with the policies and purposes of the Act; whether a substantial public benefit will be gained from the display contemplated, taking into account the manner of the display and the anticipated audience on the one hand, and the effect of the proposed taking or importation on the population stocks of the marine mammal in question and the marine ecosystem on the other; and the applicant's qualifications for the proper care and maintenance of the marine mammal or the marine mammal product, and the adequacy of his facilities.

(d) Additional permit conditions. In addition to the general conditions set forth in part 13 of this subchapter B, permits issued under this section shall be subject to the following conditions:

(1) Any permit issued under these regulations must be in the possession of the person to whom it is issued (or an agent of such person) during:

(i) The time of the authorized taking or importation;

(ii) The period of any transit of such person or agent which is incidental to such taking or importation; and

(iii) Any other time while any marine mammal taken or imported under such permit is in the possession of such person or agent.

(2) A duplicate copy of the issued permit must be physically attached to the container, package, enclosure, or other means of containment, in which the marine mammal is placed for purposes of storage, transit, supervision, or care.

(e) Tenure of permits. The tenure of permits for scientific research or public display shall be designated on the face of the permit.

See subpart F (Waiver of the moratorium; State laws and regulations) and subpart G (Notice and Hearing on section 103 Regulations) for procedures regarding waivers of the moratorium in those circumstances where a state provides an acceptable management program for a species or population stock within its jurisdiction.

(a) Whenever application for a permit is received by the director which the director deems sufficient, he shall, as soon as practicable, publish a notice thereof in the Federal Register. Such notice shall set forth a summary of the information contained in such application. Any interested party may, within 30 days after the date of publication of such notice, submit to the director his written data or views with respect to the taking or importation proposed in such application and may request a hearing in connection with the action to be taken thereon.

(b) If the request for a hearing is made within the 30-day period referred to in paragraph (a) of this section, or if the director determines that a hearing would otherwise be advisable, the director may, within 60 days after the date of publication of the notice referred to in paragraph (a) of this section, afford to such requesting party or parties an opportunity for a hearing. Such hearing shall also be open to participation by any interested members of the public. Notice of the date, time, and place of such hearing shall be published in the Federal Register not less than 15 days in advance of such hearing. Any interested person may appear in person or through representatives at the hearing and may submit any relevant material, data, views, comments, arguments, or exhibits. A summary record of the hearing shall be kept.

(c) As soon as practicable but not later than 30 days after the close of the hearing (or if no hearing is held, as soon as practicable after the end of the 30 days succeeding publication of the notice referred to in paragraph (a) of this section the director shall issue or deny issuance of the permit. Notice of the decision of the director shall be published in the Federal Register within 10 days after the date of such issuance or denial. Such notice shall include the date of the issuance or denial and indicate where copies of the permit, if issued, may be obtained.

(d) Any permit shall be subject to modification, suspension, or revocation by the director in whole or in part in accordance with these regulations and the terms of such permits. The permittee shall be given written notice by registered mail, return receipt requested, of any proposed modification, suspension, or revocation. Such notice shall specify:

(1) The action proposed to be taken along with a summary of the reasons therefor;

(2) In accordance with 5 U.S.C. 558, the steps which the permittee may take to demonstrate or achieve compliance with all lawful requirements; and

(3) That the permittee is entitled to a hearing thereon if a written request for such a hearing is received by the Director within 10 days after receipt of the aforesaid notice or such other later date as may be specified in the notice to the permittee. The time and place of the hearing, if requested by the permittee, shall be determined by the director and a written notice thereof given to the permittee by registered mail, return receipt requested, not less than 15 days prior to the date of hearing specified. The director may, in his discretion, allow participation at the hearing by interested members of the public. The permittee and other parties participating may submit all relevant material, data, views, comments, arguments, and exhibits at the hearing. A summary record shall be kept of any such hearing.

(e) The Director shall make a decision regarding the proposed modification, suspension, or revocation, as soon as practicable after the close of the hearing, or if no hearing is held, as soon as practicable after the close of the 10 day period during which a hearing could have been requested. Notice of the modification, suspension, or revocation shall be published in the Federal Register within 10 days from the date of the Director's decision. In no event shall the proposed action take effect until notice of the Director's decision is published in the Federal Register.

(a) Sections 101(a)(2), 101(a)(3)(A), and 101(b) of the Marine Mammal Protection Act of 1972 (16 U.S.C. 1371(a)(2), 1371(a)(3)(A), and 1371(b)) and these regulations authorize the Director, U.S. Fish and Wildlife Service, to: (1) Impose regulations governing the taking of marine mammals incidental to commercial fishing operations; (2) waive the moratorium and adopt regulations with respect to the taking and importing of animals from each species of marine mammals under his jurisdiction; and (3) prescribe regulations governing the taking of depleted marine mammals by any Indian, Aleut or Eskimo, respectively. In prescribing regulations to carry out the provisions of said sections, the act refers the Director to section 103 (16 U.S.C. 1373). In accordance with section 103(d), regulations must be made on the record after opportunity for an agency hearing on such regulations and, in the case of a waiver, on the determination by the Director to waive the moratorium pursuant to section 101(a)(3)(A) (16 U.S.C. 1371(a)(3)(A)).

(b) [Reserved]

Definitions shall be the same as in subpart A of this part except as follows:

(a) Party means for the purposes of this subpart:

(1) The Director or his representative; or

(2) A person who has notified the Director by specified dates of his or her intent to participate in the hearing pursuant to §§ 18.75 and 18.84(b).

(b) Presiding officer means, for the purposes of this subpart, an administrative law judge of the Office of Hearings and Appeals appointed in accordance with 5 U.S.C. 3105.

(c) Witness means, for the purposes of this subpart, any person who provides direct testimony on the proposed regulations and waiver. A person may be both a party and a witness.

The procedural regulations in this subpart govern the practice and procedure in hearings held under section 103(d) of the Act. These hearings will be governed by the provisions of sections 556 and 557 of the Administrative Procedure Act (5 U.S.C. 556 and 557). The regulations shall be construed to secure the just, speedy, and inexpensive determination of all issues raised with respect to any waiver and/or regulation proposed pursuant to section 103(d) of the act in a manner which gives full protection to the rights of all persons affected thereby.

The proponents of the proposed regulations and waiver must demonstrate that any taking or importation of any marine mammal under such proposed regulations and waiver would be consistent with the act.

(a) A notice of hearing on any proposed regulations shall be published in the Federal Register, together with the Director's proposed determination to waive the moratorium pursuant to section 101(a)(3)(A) (16 U.S.C. 1371(a)(3)(A)), where applicable.

(b) The notice shall state:

(1) The nature of the hearing;

(2) The place and date of the hearing. The date shall not be less than 60 days after publication of notice of the hearing;

(3) The legal authority under which the hearing is to be held;

(4) The proposed regulations and waiver, where applicable, and a summary of the statements required by section 103(d) of the Act (16 U.S.C. 1373(d));

(5) Issues of fact which may be involved in the hearing;

(6) If an Environmental Impact Statement is required, the date of publication of the Statement and the times and place(s) where the Statement and comments thereon may be viewed and copied;

(7) Any written advice received from the Marine Mammal Commission;

(8) The times and place(s) where records and submitted direct testimony will be kept for public inspection, along with appropriate references to any other documents;

(9) The final date for filing with the Director a notice of intent to participate in the hearing pursuant to § 18.75;

(10) The final date for submission of direct testimony on the proposed regulations and waiver, if applicable, and the number of copies required;

(11) The docket number assigned to the case which shall be used in all subsequent proceedings; and

(12) The place and date of the prehearing conference.

Any person desiring to participate as a party shall notify the Director, by certified mail, on or before the date specified in the notice of hearing.

(a) Upon publication of the notice of hearing pursuant to § 18.74, the Office of Hearings and Appeals shall appoint a presiding officer pursuant to 5 U.S.C. 3105. No individual who has any conflict of interest, financial or otherwise, shall serve as presiding officer in such proceeding.

(b) The presiding officer, in any proceeding under this subpart, shall have power to:

(1) Change the time and place of the hearing and adjourn the hearing;

(2) Evaluate direct testimony submitted pursuant to these regulations, make a preliminary determination of the issues, conduct a prehearing conference to determine the issues for the hearing agenda, and cause to be published in the Federal Register a final hearing agenda;

(3) Rule upon motions, requests and admissibility of direct testimony;

(4) Administer oaths and affirmations, question witnesses and direct witnesses to testify;

(5) Modify or waive any rule (after notice) when determining no party will be prejudiced;

(6) Receive written comments and hear oral arguments;

(7) Render a recommended decision; and

(8) Do all acts and take all measures, including regulation of media coverage, for the maintenance of order at and the efficient conduct of the proceeding.

(c) In case of the absence of the original presiding officer or his inability to act, the powers and duties to be performed by the original presiding officer under this part in connection with a proceeding may, without abatement of the proceeding, be assigned to any other presiding officer by the Office of Hearings and Appeals unless otherwise ordered by the Director.

(d) The presiding officer shall withdraw from the proceeding upon his own motion or upon the filing of a motion by a party under § 18.76(e) if he deems himself disqualified under recognized canons of judicial ethics.

(e) A presiding officer may be requested to withdraw at any time prior to the recommended decision. If there is filed by a party in good faith a timely and sufficient affidavit alleging the presiding officer's personal bias, malice, conflict of interest or other basis which might result in prejudice to a party, the hearing shall recess. The Director of the Office of Hearings and Appeals shall immediately determine the matter as a part of the record and decision in the proceeding, after making such investigation or holding such hearings, or both, as he may deem appropriate in the circumstances.

(a) Unless otherwise specified, all direct testimony, including accompanying exhibits, must be submitted to the presiding officer in writing no later than the dates specified in the notice of the hearing (§ 18.74), the prehearing order (§ 18.82), or within 15 days after the conclusion of the prehearing conference (§ 18.84) as the case may be. All direct testimony, referred to in the affidavit and made a part thereof, must be attached to the affidavit. Direct testimony submitted with exhibits must state the issue to which the exhibit relates; if no such statement is made, the presiding officer shall determine the relevance of the exhibit to the issues published in the Federal Register.

(b) The direct testimony submitted shall contain:

(1) A concise statement of the witness' interest in the proceeding and his position regarding the issues presented. If the direct testimony is presented by a witness who is not a party, the witness shall state his relationship to the party; and

(2) Facts that are relevant and material.

(c) The direct testimony may propose issues of fact not defined in the notice of the hearing and the reason(s) why such issues should be considered at the hearing.

(d) Ten copies of all direct testimony must be submitted unless the notice of the hearing otherwise specifies.

(e) Upon receipt, direct testimony shall be assigned a number and stamped with that number and the docket number.

(f) Contemporaneous with the publication of the notice of hearing, the Director's direct testimony in support of the proposed regulations and waiver, where applicable, shall be available for public inspection as specified in the notice of hearing. The Director may submit additional direct testimony during the time periods allowed for submission of such testimony by witnesses.

Unless otherwise specified in the notice of hearing, all direct testimony shall be addressed to the Presiding Officer, c/o Director, U.S. Fish and Wildlife Service, Washington, DC 20240. All affidavits and exhibits shall be clearly marked with the docket number of the proceedings.

Any document in a file pertaining to any hearing authorized by this subpart or any document forming part of the record of such a hearing may be inspected and/or copied in the Office of the Director, U.S. Fish and Wildlife Service, Washington, DC 20240, unless the file is in the care and custody of the presiding officer, in which case he shall notify the parties as to where and when the record may be inspected.

(a) After notice of a hearing is published in the Federal Register, all communications, whether oral or written, involving any substantive or procedural issue and directed either to the presiding officer or to the Director, Deputy Director or Marine Mammal Coordinator, U.S. Fish and Wildlife Service, without reference to these rules of procedure, shall be deemed ex parte communications and are not to be considered part of the record for decision.

(b) A record of oral conversations shall be made by the above persons who are contacted. All communications shall be available for public viewing at times and place(s) specified in the notice of hearing.

(c) The presiding officer shall not communicate with any party on any fact in issue or on the merits of the matter unless notice and opportunity is given for all parties to participate.

(a) After the prehearing conference, the presiding officer shall prepare a prehearing order which shall be published in the Federal Register within ten days after the conclusion of the conference. A copy of the prehearing order shall be mailed to all Parties.

(b) The prehearing order shall list: (1) All the issues which the hearing shall address, the order in which those issues shall be presented, and the direct testimony submitted which bears on the issues; and (2) a final date for submission of direct testimony on issues of fact not included in the notice of hearing if such issues are presented. The prehearing order may also specify a final date for submission of direct testimony to rebut testimony previously submitted during the time specified in the notice of the hearing.

(c) The presiding officer shall publish with the prehearing order a list of witnesses who may appear at the hearing, a list of parties, the nature of the interest of each party, and which parties interests are adverse on the issues presented.

(d) All parties shall be bound by the prehearing order.

(a) If the presiding officer determines that no issues of material fact are presented by the direct testimony submitted prior to the date of the hearing, he may publish in the Federal Register such determination and that on issues of material fact a hearing shall not be held. The presiding officer may provide an opportunity for argument on any issues of law presented by the direct testimony.

(b) Promptly after oral argument, if any, the presiding officer shall make a recommended decision based on the record, which in this case shall consist of the direct testimony and any oral argument presented. He shall transmit to the Director his recommended decision, the record and a certificate stating that the record contains all the written direct testimony. The Director shall then make a final decision in accordance with these regulations (§ 18.91).

(a) Direct testimony to rebut testimony offered during the time period specified in the notice of hearing may be submitted pursuant to these regulations within fifteen days after the conclusion of the prehearing conference unless the presiding officer otherwise specifies in the prehearing order.

(b) If the prehearing order presents issues not included in the notice of the hearing published pursuant to § 18.74:

(1) Any person interested in participating at the hearing on such issues presented shall notify the Director by certified mail of an intent to participate not later than ten days after publication of the prehearing order. Such person may present direct testimony or cross-examine witnesses only on such issues presented unless he previously notified the Director pursuant to § 18.75; and

(2) Additional written direct testimony concerning such issues may be submitted within the time provided in the prehearing order. Such direct testimony will comply with the requirements of § 18.77.

Any person who fails to notify the Director of his intent to participate pursuant to § 18.75 or § 18.84 shall be deemed to have waived his right to participate as a party.

(a) The hearing shall be held at the time and place fixed in the notice of hearing, unless the presiding officer changes the time or place. If a change occurs, the presiding officer shall publish the change in the Federal Register and shall expeditiously notify all parties by telephone or by mail. If the change in time or place of hearing is made less than five days before the date previously fixed for the hearing, the presiding officer shall also announce, or cause to be announced, the change at the time and place previously fixed for the hearing.

(b) The presiding officer shall, at the commencement of the hearing, introduce into the record the notice of hearing as published in the Federal Register, all subsequent notices published in the Federal Register, the Environmental Impact Statement if it is required and the comments thereon and agency responses to the comments, and a list of all parties. Direct testimony shall then be received with respect to the matters specified in the prehearing order in such order as the presiding officer shall announce. With respect to direct testimony submitted as rebuttal testimony or in response to new issues presented by the prehearing conference, the presiding officer shall determine the relevancy of such testimony.

(c) The hearing shall be publicly conducted and reported verbatim by an official reporter.

(d) If a party objects to the admission or rejection of any direct testimony or to any other ruling of the presiding officer during the hearing, he shall state briefly the grounds of such objection, whereupon an automatic exception will follow if the objection is overruled by the presiding officer. The transcript shall not include argument or debate thereon except as ordered by the presiding officer. The ruling of the presiding officer on any objection shall be a part of the transcript and shall be subject to review at the same time and in the same manner as the Director's final decision. Only objections made before the presiding officer may subsequently be relied upon in the proceedings.

(e) All motions and requests shall be addressed to, and ruled on by, the presiding officer if made prior to his certification of the transcript, or by the Director if made thereafter.

(a) Only direct testimony submitted as provided in these regulations and introduced at the hearing by a witness shall be considered part of the record. Such direct testimony, when written, shall not be read into evidence but shall become a part of the record subject to exclusion of irrelevant and immaterial parts thereof.

(b) The witness introducing direct testimony shall:

(1) State his name, address and occupation;

(2) State qualifications for introducing the direct testimony. If an expert, the witness shall briefly state the scientific or technical training which qualifies him as an expert;

(3) Identify the direct testimony previously submitted in accordance with these regulations; and

(4) Submit to appropriate cross- and direct-examination. Cross-examination shall be by a party whose interests are adverse on the issue presented to the witness if the witness is a party, or to the interests of the party who presented the witness.

(c) A party shall be deemed to have waived the right to introduce direct-testimony if such party fails to present a witness to introduce the direct-testimony.

(d) Official notice may be taken of such matters as are judicially noticed by the courts of the United States. Parties shall be given adequate notice, by the presiding officer, at the hearing, of matters so noticed and shall be given adequate opportunity to show that such facts are inaccurate or are erroneously noticed.

(a) The presiding officer may:

(1) Require the cross-examiner to outline the intended scope of the examination; and

(2) Exclude cross-examination questions that are immaterial, irrelevant or unduly repetitious.

(b) Any party shall be given an opportunity to appear, either in person or through an authorized counsel or representative, to cross-examine witnesses. Before cross-examining a witness, the party or counsel shall state his name, address and occupation. If counsel cross-examines the witness, counsel shall state for the record the authority to act as counsel. Cross-examiners shall be assumed to be familiar with the direct testimony.

(c) Any party or party's counsel who fails to appear at the hearing to cross-examine an “adverse” witness shall be deemed to have waived the right to cross-examine that witness.

(d) Scientific, technical or commercial publications may only be utilized for the limited purposes of impeaching witnesses under cross-examination unless previously submitted and introduced in accordance with these regulations.

(a) The presiding officer may, in his discretion, provide for oral argument by parties at the end of the hearing. Such argument, when permitted, may be limited by the presiding officer to the extent necessary for the expeditious disposition of the proceeding.

(b) The presiding officer shall announce at the hearing a reasonable period of time within which any party may file with the presiding officer proposed findings and conclusions and written arguments or briefs, which are based upon the record and citing where practicable the relevant page or pages of the transcript. If a party filing a brief desires the presiding officer to reconsider any objection made by such party to a ruling of the presiding officer, he shall specifically identify such rulings by reference to the pertinent pages of the transcript and shall state his arguments thereon as a part of the brief.

(c) Oral or written arguments shall be limited to issues arising from direct testimony on the record.

(a) Promptly after expiration of the period for receiving written briefs, the presiding officer shall make a recommended decision based on the record and transmit the decision to the Director. The recommended decision shall include:

(1) A statement containing a description of the history of the proceedings;

(2) Findings on the issues of fact with the reasons therefor; and

(3) Rulings on issues of law.

(b) The presiding officer shall also transmit to the Director the transcript of the hearing, the original and all copies of the direct testimony, and written comments. The presiding officer shall attach to the original transcript of the hearing a certificate stating that to the best of his knowledge and belief the transcript is a true transcript of the testimony given at the hearing except in such particulars as are specified.

(c) Upon receipt of the recommended decision, the Director shall send a copy thereof to each party by certified mail and shall publish in the Federal Register a notice of the receipt of the recommended decision by the Director. The notice shall include:

(1) A summary of the recommended decision;

(2) A statement that any interested person may file written comments on the recommended decision with the Director by a specified date;

(3) The time(s) and place(s) where the record of the hearing transmitted to the Director pursuant to paragraph (b) of this section may be inspected by interested persons; and

(4) The time(s) and place(s) where the recommended decision may be inspected and/or copied by interested persons.

(d) Within thirty days after the notice of receipt of the recommended decision has been published in the Federal Register, any interested person may file with the Director any written comments on the recommended decision. All comments, including recommendations from or consultation with the Marine Mammal Commission, must be submitted during the thirty-day period to the Director at the above address.

(a) Upon receipt of the recommended decision and transcript and after the thirty-day period for receiving written comments on the recommended decision has passed, the Director shall make a final decision on the proposed regulations and waiver, where applicable. The Director's decision may affirm, modify, or set aside, in whole or in part, the recommended findings, conclusions and decision of the presiding officer. The Director may also remand the hearing record to the presiding officer for a fuller development of the record.

(b) The Director's decision shall include:

(1) A statement containing a description of the history of the proceeding;

(2) Findings on the issues of fact with the reasons therefor;

(3) Rulings on issues of law; and

(4) Any other relevant information which the Director deems appropriate.

(c) The Director's decision shall be published in the Federal Register. If the waiver is approved, the final adopted regulations shall be promulgated with the decision, or as soon thereafter as practicable.

The regulations contained in this subpart fulfill the requirements of section 103 of the Act for regulations to govern the taking and importation of each species of marine mammal for which the moratorium imposed by section 101 has been waived.

(a) The provisions in this subpart apply only after (1) the Director has made a decision to waive a moratorium pursuant to section 101(a)(3)(A) of the Act, (2) the opportunity for a hearing required by section 103(d) of the Act has been provided, and (3) the Director has made a determination, in the case of State laws and regulations, to approve such State laws and regulations pursuant to section 109(a)(2) of the Act and subpart F of this part.

(b) The provisions of this subpart, unless specifically stated, apply to all taking and/or importation of each species of marine mammal for which the moratorium has been waived other than takings for scientific research or public display, which are governed by § 18.31 of this part, or takings incidental to commercial fishing operations which are governed by § 18.24.

(a) Pursuant to sections 101(a)(3)(A) 103, and 109 of the Marine Mammal Protection Act of 1972, the moratorium on the hunting and killing of Pacific walrus (Odobenus rosmarus) in waters or on lands subject to the jurisdiction of the State of Alaska, the United States, or on the high seas by any person, vessel, or conveyance subject to the jurisdiction of the State of Alaska or the United States, is waived, provided that beginning August 2, 1979 this waiver shall not be effective, and no taking or importation under the waiver shall be allowed, until this section is amended to establish regulations to effectively control taking and otherwise implement the waiver.

(b) [Reserved]

Regulations in this subpart apply to the nonlethal incidental, but not intentional, take of small numbers of Pacific walruses and polar bears by you (U.S. citizens as defined in § 18.27(c)) while engaged in oil and gas exploration activities in the Chukchi Sea and adjacent western coast of Alaska.

This subpart applies to the specified geographic region defined as the continental shelf of the Arctic Ocean adjacent to western Alaska. This area includes the waters (State of Alaska and Outer Continental Shelf waters) and seabed of the Chukchi Sea, which encompasses all waters north and west of Point Hope (68°20′20″ N, −166°50′40″ W, BGN 1947) to the U.S.-Russia Convention Line of 1867, west of a north-south line through Point Barrow (71°23′29″ N, −156° 28′30″ W, BGN 1944), and up to 200 miles north of Point Barrow. The region also includes the terrestrial coastal land 25 miles inland between the western boundary of the south National Petroleum Reserve-Alaska (NPR-A) near Icy Cape (70°20′00″ N, −148°12′00″ W) and the north-south line from Point Barrow. This terrestrial region encompasses a portion of the Northwest and South Planning Areas of the NPR-A. Figure 1 shows the area where this subpart applies.

Figure 1: The geographic area of the Chukchi Sea and onshore coastal areas covered by the incidental take regulations.

Regulations in this subpart are effective from June 11, 2008 through June 11, 2013 for year-round oil and gas exploration activities.

(a) You must be a U.S. citizen as defined in § 18.27(c).

(b) If you are conducting an oil and gas exploration activity in the specified geographic region described in § 18.112 that may cause the taking of Pacific walruses (walruses) or polar bears and you want nonlethal incidental take authorization under this rule, you must apply for a Letter of Authorization for each exploration activity. You must submit the application for authorization to our Alaska Regional Director (see 50 CFR 2.2 for address) at least 90 days prior to the start of the proposed activity.

(c) Your application for a Letter of Authorization must include the following information:

(1) A description of the activity, the dates and duration of the activity, the specific location, and the estimated area affected by that activity, i.e., a plan of operation.

(2) A site-specific plan to monitor and mitigate the effects of the proposed activity on walruses and polar bears encountered during the ongoing activities, i.e., a marine mammal monitoring and mitigation plan. Your monitoring program must document the effects on these marine mammals and estimate the actual level and type of take. The monitoring requirements will vary depending on the activity, the location, and the time of year.

(3) A site-specific polar bear awareness and interaction plan, i.e., a polar bear interaction plan.

(4) A record of community consultation. Applicants must consult with potentially affected subsistence communities along the Chukchi Sea coast (Point Hope, Point Lay, Wainwright, and Barrow) and appropriate subsistence user organizations (the Eskimo Walrus Commission and the Alaska Nanuuq (polar bear) Commission) to discuss the location, timing, and methods of proposed operations and support activities and identify any potential conflicts with subsistence walrus and polar bear hunting activities in the communities. Applications for Letters of Authorization must include documentation of all consultations with potentially affected user groups. Documentation must include a summary of any concerns identified by community members and hunter organizations, and the applicant's responses to identified concerns. Mitigation measures are described in § 18.118.

(a) We will evaluate each request for a Letter of Authorization based on the specific activity and the specific geographic location. We will determine whether the level of activity identified in the request exceeds that analyzed by us in considering the number of animals likely to be taken and evaluating whether there will be a negligible impact on the species or adverse impact on the availability of the species for subsistence uses. If the level of activity is greater, we will reevaluate our findings to determine if those findings continue to be appropriate based on the greater level of activity that you have requested. Depending on the results of the evaluation, we may grant the authorization, add further conditions, or deny the authorization.

(b) In accordance with § 18.27(f)(5), we will make decisions concerning withdrawals of Letters of Authorization, either on an individual or class basis, only after notice and opportunity for public comment.

(c) The requirement for notice and public comment in paragraph (b) of this section will not apply if we determine that an emergency exists that poses a significant risk to the well-being of species or stocks of walruses or polar bears.

(a) Your Letter of Authorization may allow the nonlethal incidental, but not intentional, take of walruses and polar bears when you are carrying out one or more of the following activities:

(1) Conducting geological and geophysical surveys and associated activities;

(2) Drilling exploratory wells and associated activities; or

(3) Conducting environmental monitoring activities associated with exploration activities to determine specific impacts of each activity.

(b) Each Letter of Authorization will identify conditions or methods that are specific to the activity and location.

(a) Intentional take and lethal incidental take of walruses or polar bears; and

(b) Any take that fails to comply with this part or with the terms and conditions of your Letter of Authorization.

(a) Mitigation. Holders of a Letter of Authorization must use methods and conduct activities in a manner that minimizes to the greatest extent practicable adverse impacts on walruses and polar bears, their habitat, and on the availability of these marine mammals for subsistence uses. Dynamic management approaches, such as temporal or spatial limitations in response to the presence of marine mammals in a particular place or time or the occurrence of marine mammals engaged in a particularly sensitive activity (such as feeding), must be used to avoid or minimize interactions with polar bears, walruses, and subsistence users of these resources.

(1) Operating conditions for operational and support vessels.

(i) Operational and support vessels must be staffed with dedicated marine mammal observers to alert crew of the presence of walruses and polar bears and initiate adaptive mitigation responses.

(ii) At all times, vessels must maintain the maximum distance possible from concentrations of walruses or polar bears. Under no circumstances, other than an emergency, should any vessel approach within a 805-m (0.5-mi) radius of walruses or polar bears observed on land or ice.

(iii) Vessel operators must take every precaution to avoid harassment of concentrations of feeding walruses when a vessel is operating near these animals. Vessels should reduce speed and maintain a minimum 805-m (0.5-mi) operational exclusion zone around feeding walrus groups. Vessels may not be operated in such a way as to separate members of a group of walruses from other members of the group. When weather conditions require, such as when visibility drops, vessels should adjust speed accordingly to avoid the likelihood of injury to walruses.

(iv) The transit of operational and support vessels through the specified geographic region is not authorized prior to July 1. This operating condition is intended to allow walruses the opportunity to disperse from the confines of the spring lead system and minimize interactions with subsistence walrus hunters. Exemption waivers to this operating condition may be issued by the Service on a case-by-case basis, based upon a review of seasonal ice conditions and available information on walrus and polar bear distributions in the area of interest.

(v) All vessels must avoid areas of active or anticipated subsistence hunting for walrus or polar bear as determined through community consultations.

(2) Operating conditions for aircraft.

(i) Operators of support aircraft should, at all times, conduct their activities at the maximum distance possible from concentrations of walruses or polar bears.

(ii) Under no circumstances, other than an emergency, should aircraft operate at an altitude lower than 305 m (1,000 ft) within 805 m (0.5 mi) of walruses or polar bears observed on ice or land. Helicopters may not hover or circle above such areas or within 805 m (0.5 mile) of such areas. When weather conditions do not allow a 305-m (1,000-ft) flying altitude, such as during severe storms or when cloud cover is low, aircraft may be operated below the 305-m (1,000-ft) altitude stipulated above. However, when aircraft are operated at altitudes below 305 m (1,000 ft) because of weather conditions, the operator must avoid areas of known walrus and polar bear concentrations and should take precautions to avoid flying directly over or within 805 m (0.5 mile) of these areas.

(iii) Plan all aircraft routes to minimize any potential conflict with active or anticipated walrus or polar bear hunting activity as determined through community consultations.

(3) Additional mitigation measures for offshore exploration activities.

(i) Offshore exploration activities will be authorized only during the open-water season, defined as the period July 1 to November 30. Exemption waivers to the specified open-water season may be issued by the Service on a case-by-case basis, based upon a review of seasonal ice conditions and available information on walrus and polar bear distributions in the area of interest.

(ii) To avoid significant additive and synergistic effects from multiple oil and gas exploration activities on foraging or migrating walruses, operators must maintain a minimum spacing of 24 km (15 mi) between all active seismic-source vessels and/or exploratory drilling operations. No more than four simultaneous seismic operations will be authorized in the Chukchi Sea region at any time.

(iii) No offshore exploration activities will be authorized within a 64-km (40-mi) radius of the communities of Barrow, Wainwright, Point Lay, or Point Hope, unless provided for in a Service-approved, site-specific Plan of Cooperation as described in paragraph (a)(6) of this section.

(iv) Aerial monitoring surveys or an equivalent monitoring program acceptable to the Service will be required to estimate the number of walruses and polar bears in a proposed project area.

(4) Additional mitigation measures for offshore seismic surveys. Any offshore exploration activity expected to include the production of pulsed underwater sounds with sound source levels ≥160 dB re 1 µPa will be required to establish and monitor acoustic exclusion and disturbance zones and implement adaptive mitigation measures as follows:

(i) Monitor zones. Establish and monitor with trained marine mammal observers an acoustically verified exclusion zone for walruses surrounding seismic airgun arrays where the received level would be ≥180 dB re 1 µPa; an acoustically verified exclusion zone for polar bear surrounding seismic airgun arrays where the received level would be ≥190 dB re 1 µPa; and an acoustically verified walrus disturbance zone ahead of and perpendicular to the seismic vessel track where the received level would be ≥160 dB re 1 µPa.

(ii) Ramp-up procedures. For all seismic surveys, including airgun testing, use the following ramp-up procedures to allow marine mammals to depart the exclusion zone before seismic surveying begins:

(A) Visually monitor the exclusion zone and adjacent waters for the absence of polar bears and walruses for at least 30 minutes before initiating ramp-up procedures. If no polar bears or walruses are detected, you may initiate ramp-up procedures. Do not initiate ramp-up procedures at night or when you cannot visually monitor the exclusion zone for marine mammals.

(B) Initiate ramp-up procedures by firing a single airgun. The preferred airgun to begin with should be the smallest airgun, in terms of energy output (dB) and volume (in3).

(C) Continue ramp-up by gradually activating additional airguns over a period of at least 20 minutes, but no longer than 40 minutes, until the desired operating level of the airgun array is obtained.

(iii) Power down/Shut down. Immediately power down or shut down the seismic airgun array and/or other acoustic sources whenever any walruses are sighted approaching close to or within the area delineated by the 180-dB re 1 µPa walrus exclusion zone, or polar bears are sighted approaching close to or within the area delineated by the 190-dB re 1 µPa polar bear exclusion zone. If the power down operation cannot reduce the received sound pressure level to 180-dB re 1 µPa (walrus) or 190-dB re 1 µPa (polar bears), the operator must immediately shut down the seismic airgun array and/or other acoustic sources.

(iv) Emergency shut down. If observations are made or credible reports are received that one or more walruses and/or polar bears are within the area of the seismic survey and are in an injured or mortal state, or are indicating acute distress due to seismic noise, the seismic airgun array will be immediately shut down and the Service contacted. The airgun array will not be restarted until review and approval has been given by the Service. The ramp-up procedures provided in paragraph (a)(4)(ii) of this section must be followed when restarting.

(v) Adaptive response for walrus aggregations. Whenever an aggregation of 12 or more walruses are detected within an acoustically verified 160-dB re 1 µPa disturbance zone ahead of or perpendicular to the seismic vessel track, the holder of this Authorization must:

(A) Immediately power down or shut down the seismic airgun array and/or other acoustic sources to ensure sound pressure levels at the shortest distance to the aggregation do not exceed 160-dB re 1 µPa; and

(B) Not proceed with powering up the seismic airgun array until it can be established that there are no walrus aggregations within the 160-dB zone based upon ship course, direction, and distance from last sighting. If shut down was required, the ramp-up procedures provided in paragraph (a)(4)(ii) of this section must be followed when restarting.

(5) Additional mitigation measures for onshore exploration activities.

(i) Polar bear interaction plan. Holders of Letters of Authorization will be required to develop and implement a Service-approved, site-specific polar bear interaction plan. Polar bear awareness training will also be required of certain personnel. Polar bear interaction plans will include:

(A) A description of the locations and types of activities to be conducted i.e., a plan of operation;

(B) A food and waste management plan;

(C) Personnel training materials and procedures;

(D) Site at-risk locations and situations;

(E) A snow management plan;

(F) Polar bear observation and reporting procedures; and

(G) Polar bear avoidance and encounter procedures.

(ii) Polar bear monitors. If deemed appropriate by the Service, holders of a Letter of Authorization will be required to hire and train polar bear monitors to alert crew of the presence of polar bears and initiate adaptive mitigation responses.

(iii) Efforts to minimize disturbance around known polar bear dens. Holders of a Letter of Authorization must take efforts to limit disturbance around known polar bear dens.

(A) Efforts to locate polar bear dens. Holders of a Letter of Authorization seeking to carry out onshore exploration activities in known or suspected polar bear denning habitat during the denning season (November-April) must make efforts to locate occupied polar bear dens within and near proposed areas of operation, utilizing appropriate tools, such as forward looking infrared (FLIR) imagery and/or polar bear scent-trained dogs. All observed or suspected polar bear dens must be reported to the Service prior to the initiation of exploration activities.

(B) Exclusion zone around known polar bear dens. Operators must observe a 1-mile operational exclusion zone around all known polar bear dens during the denning season (November-April, or until the female and cubs leave the areas). Should previously unknown occupied dens be discovered within 1 mile of activities, work in the immediate area must cease and the Service contacted for guidance. The Service will evaluate these instances on a case-by-case basis to determine the appropriate action. Potential actions may range from cessation or modification of work to conducting additional monitoring, and the holder of the authorization must comply with any additional measures specified.

(6) Mitigation measures for the subsistence use of walruses and polar bears. Holders of Letters of Authorization must conduct their activities in a manner that, to the greatest extent practicable, minimizes adverse impacts on the availability of Pacific walruses and polar bears for subsistence uses.

(i) Community Consultation. Prior to receipt of a Letter of Authorization, applicants must consult with potentially affected communities and appropriate subsistence user organizations to discuss potential conflicts with subsistence hunting of walrus and polar bear caused by the location, timing, and methods of proposed operations and support activities (see § 18.114(c)(4) for details). If community concerns suggest that the proposed activities may have an adverse impact on the subsistence uses of these species, the applicant must address conflict avoidance issues through a Plan of Cooperation as described below.

(ii) Plan of Cooperation (POC). Where prescribed, holders of Letters of Authorization will be required to develop and implement a Service-approved POC. The POC must include:

(A) A description of the procedures by which the holder of the Letter of Authorization will work and consult with potentially affected subsistence hunters; and

(B) A description of specific measures that have been or will be taken to avoid or minimize interference with subsistence hunting of walruses and polar bears and to ensure continued availability of the species for subsistence use.

(C) The Service will review the POC to ensure that any potential adverse effects on the availability of the animals are minimized. The Service will reject POCs if they do not provide adequate safeguards to ensure the least practicable adverse impact on the availability of walruses and polar bears for subsistence use.

(b) Monitoring. Depending on the siting, timing, and nature of proposed activities, holders of Letters of Authorization will be required to:

(1) Maintain trained, Service-approved, on-site observers to carry out monitoring programs for polar bears and walruses necessary for initiating adaptive mitigation responses.

(i) Marine Mammal Observers (MMOs) will be required on board all operational and support vessels to alert crew of the presence of walruses and polar bears and initiate adaptive mitigation responses identified in paragraph (a) of this section, and to carry out specified monitoring activities identified in the marine mammal monitoring and mitigation plan (see paragraph (b)(2) of this section) necessary to evaluate the impact of authorized activities on walruses, polar bears, and the subsistence use of these subsistence resources. The MMOs must have completed a marine mammal observer training course approved by the Service.

(ii) Polar bear monitors.—Polar bear monitors will be required under the monitoring plan if polar bears are known to frequent the area or known polar bear dens are present in the area. Monitors will act as an early detection system in regard to proximate bear activity to Industry facilities.

(2) Develop and implement a site-specific, Service-approved marine mammal monitoring and mitigation plan to monitor and evaluate the effects of authorized activities on polar bears, walruses, and the subsistence use of these resources.

(i) The marine mammal monitoring and mitigation plan must enumerate the number of walruses and polar bears encountered during specified exploration activities, estimate the number of incidental takes that occurred during specified exploration activities, and evaluate the effectiveness of prescribed mitigation measures.

(ii) Applicants must fund an independent peer review of proposed monitoring plans and draft reports of monitoring results. This peer review will consist of independent reviewers who have knowledge and experience in statistics, marine mammal behavior, and the type and extent of the proposed operations. The applicant will provide the results of these peer reviews to the Service for consideration in final approval of monitoring plans and final reports. The Service will distribute copies of monitoring reports to appropriate resource management agencies and co-management organizations.

(3) Cooperate with the Service and other designated Federal, State, and local agencies to monitor the impacts of oil and gas exploration activities in the Chukchi Sea on walruses or polar bears. Where insufficient information exists to evaluate the potential effects of proposed activities on walruses, polar bears, and the subsistence use of these resources, holders of Letters of Authorization may be required to participate in joint monitoring and/or research efforts to address these information needs and insure the least practicable impact to these resources. Information needs in the Chukchi Sea include, but are not limited to:

(i) Distribution, abundance, and habitat use patterns of walruses and polar bears in offshore environments; and

(ii) Cumulative effects of multiple simultaneous operations on walruses and polar bears.

(c) Reporting requirements. Holders of Letters of Authorization must report the results of specified monitoring activities to the Service's Alaska Regional Director (see 50 CFR 2.2 for address).

(1) In-season monitoring reports—(i) Activity progress reports. Operators must keep the Service informed on the progress of authorized activities by:

(A) Notifying the Service at least 48 hours prior to the onset of activities;

(B) Providing weekly progress reports of authorized activities noting any significant changes in operating state and or location; and

(C) Notifying the Service within 48 hours of ending activity.

(ii) Walrus observation reports. The operator must report, on a weekly basis, all observations of walruses during any Industry operation. Information within the observation report will include, but is not limited to:

(A) Date, time, and location of each walrus sighting;

(B) Number of walruses: sex and age;

(C) Observer name and contact information;

(D) Weather, visibility, and ice conditions at the time of observation;

(E) Estimated range at closest approach;

(F) Industry activity at time of sighting;

(G) Behavior of animals sighted;

(H) Description of the encounter;

(I) Duration of the encounter; and

(J) Actions taken.

(iii) Polar bear observation reports. The operator must report, within 24 hours, all observations of polar bears during any Industry operation. Information within the observation report will include, but is not limited to:

(A) Date, time, and location of observation;

(B) Number of bears: sex and age;

(C) Observer name and contact information;

(D) Weather, visibility, and ice conditions at the time of observation;

(E) Estimated closest point of approach for bears from personnel and facilities;

(F) Industry activity at time of sighting, possible attractants present;

(G) Bear behavior;

(H) Description of the encounter;

(I) Duration of the encounter; and

(J) Actions taken.

(iv) Notification of incident report. Reports should include all information specified under the species observation report, as well as a full written description of the encounter and actions taken by the operator. The operator must report to the Service within 24 hours:

(A) Any incidental lethal take or injury of a polar bear or walrus; and

(B) Observations of walruses or polar bears within prescribed mitigation-monitoring zones.

(2) After-action monitoring reports. The results of monitoring efforts identified in the marine mammal monitoring and mitigation plan must be submitted to the Service for review within 90 days of completing the year's activities. Results must include, but are not limited to, the following information:

(i) A summary of monitoring effort including: total hours, total distances, and distribution through study period;

(ii) Analysis of factors affecting the visibility and detectability of walruses and polar bears by specified monitoring;

(iii) Analysis of the distribution, abundance, and behavior of walrus and polar bear sightings in relation to date, location, ice conditions, and operational state; and

(iv) Estimates of take based on density estimates derived from monitoring and survey efforts.

(a) We may not conduct or sponsor and a person is not required to respond to a collection of information unless it displays a currently valid OMB control number. The Office of Management and Budget has approved the collection of information contained in this subpart and assigned control number 1018-0139. You must respond to this information collection request to obtain a benefit pursuant to section 101(a)(5) of the Marine Mammal Protection Act. We will use the information to:

(1) Evaluate the application and determine whether or not to issue specific Letters of Authorization and;

(2) Monitor impacts of activities conducted under the Letters of Authorization.

(b) You should direct comments regarding the burden estimate or any other aspect of this requirement to the Information Collection Clearance Officer, U.S. Fish and Wildlife Service, Department of the Interior, Mail Stop 222 ARLSQ, 1849 C Street, NW., Washington, DC 20240.

Regulations in this subpart apply to the nonlethal incidental, but not intentional, take of small numbers of polar bear and Pacific walrus by you (U.S. citizens as defined in § 18.27(c)) while engaged in oil and gas exploration, development, and production activities in the Beaufort Sea and adjacent northern coast of Alaska.

This subpart applies to the specified geographic region defined by a north-south line at Barrow, Alaska, and includes all Alaska coastal areas, State waters, and Outer Continental Shelf waters east of that line to the Canadian border and an area 25 miles inland from Barrow on the west to the Canning River on the east. The Arctic National Wildlife Refuge is not included in the area covered by this subpart. Figure 1 shows the area where this subpart applies.

Regulations in this subpart are effective from August 2, 2006 through August 2, 2011 for year-round oil and gas exploration, development, and production activities.

(a) You must be a U.S. citizen as defined in § 18.27(c).

(b) If you are conducting an oil and gas exploration, development, or production activity in the specified geographic region described in § 18.122 that may cause the taking of polar bear or Pacific walrus in execution of those activities and you want nonlethal incidental take authorization under this rule, you must apply for a Letter of Authorization for each exploration activity or a Letter of Authorization for activities in each development or production area. You must submit the application for authorization to our Alaska Regional Director (see 50 CFR 2.2 for address) at least 90 days prior to the start of the proposed activity.

(c) Your application for a Letter of Authorization must include the following information:

(1) A description of the activity, the dates and duration of the activity, the specific location, and the estimated area affected by that activity, i.e., a Plan of Operation.

(2) A site-specific plan to monitor the effects of the activity on the behavior of polar bear and Pacific walrus that may be present during the ongoing activities. Your monitoring program must document the effects to these marine mammals and estimate the actual level and type of take. The monitoring requirements will vary depending on the activity, the location, and the time of year.

(3) A site-specific polar bear awareness and interaction plan.

(4) A Plan of Cooperation to mitigate potential conflicts between the proposed activity and subsistence hunting, where relevant. This Plan of Cooperation must identify measures to minimize adverse effects on the availability of polar bear and Pacific walrus for subsistence uses if the activity takes place in or near a traditional subsistence hunting area. Some of these measures may include, but are not limited to, mitigation measures described in § 18.128.

(a) We will evaluate each request for a Letter of Authorization based on the specific activity and the specific geographic location. We will determine whether the level of activity identified in the request exceeds that analyzed by us in making a finding of negligible impact on the species and a finding of no unmitigable adverse impact on the availability of the species for take for subsistence uses. If the level of activity is greater, we will reevaluate our findings to determine if those findings continue to be appropriate based on the greater level of activity that you have requested. Depending on the results of the evaluation, we may grant the authorization, add further conditions, or deny the authorization.

(b) In accordance with § 18.27(f)(5), we will make decisions concerning withdrawals of Letters of Authorization, either on an individual or class basis, only after notice and opportunity for public comment.

(c) The requirement for notice and public comment in paragraph (b) of this section will not apply should we determine that an emergency exists that poses a significant risk to the well-being of the species or stock of polar bear or Pacific walrus.

(a) Your Letter of Authorization may allow the nonlethal incidental, but not intentional, take of polar bear and Pacific walrus when you are carrying out one or more of the following activities:

(1) Conducting geological and geophysical surveys and associated activities;

(2) Drilling exploratory wells and associated activities;

(3) Developing oil fields and associated activities;

(4) Drilling production wells and performing production support operations;

(5) Conducting environmental monitoring activities associated with exploration, development, and production activities to determine specific impacts of each activity;

(6) Conducting restoration, remediation, demobilization programs, and associated activities.

(b) You must use methods and conduct activities identified in your Letter of Authorization in a manner that minimizes to the greatest extent practicable adverse impacts on polar bear and Pacific walrus, their habitat, and on the availability of these marine mammals for subsistence uses.

(c) Each Letter of Authorization will identify conditions or methods that are specific to the activity and location.

(a) Intentional take and lethal incidental take of polar bear or Pacific walrus; and

(b) Any take that fails to comply with this part or with the terms and conditions of your Letter of Authorization.

(a) We require holders of Letters of Authorization to cooperate with us and other designated Federal, State, and local agencies to monitor the impacts of oil and gas exploration, development, and production activities on polar bear and Pacific walrus.

(b) Holders of Letters of Authorization must designate a qualified individual or individuals to observe, record, and report on the effects of their activities on polar bear and Pacific walrus.

(c) All holders of Letters of Authorization are required to have an approved polar bear and/or walrus interaction plan on file with the Service and on-site, and polar bear awareness training will also be required of certain personnel. Interaction plans must include:

(1) The type of activity and, where and when the activity will occur, i.e., a Plan of Operation;

(2) A food and waste management plan;

(3) Personnel training materials and procedures;

(4) Site at-risk locations and situations;

(5) Walrus/bear observation and reporting procedures; and

(6) Bear/walrus avoidance and encounter procedures.

(d) All applicants for a Letter of Authorization must contact affected subsistence communities to discuss potential conflicts caused by location, timing, and methods of proposed operations and submit to us a record of communication that documents these discussions. If appropriate, the applicant for a Letter of Authorization must also submit to us a Plan of Cooperation that ensures that activities will not interfere with subsistence hunting and that adverse effects on the availability of polar bear or Pacific walrus are minimized.

(e) Mitigation measures that may be required on a case-by-case basis include:

(1) The use of trained marine mammal monitors associated with marine activities. We may require a monitor on the site of the activity or on board drill ships, drill rigs, aircraft, icebreakers, or other support vessels or vehicles to monitor the impacts of Industry's activity on polar bear and Pacific walrus.

(2) The use of den habitat map developed by the USGS. A map of potential coastal polar bear denning habitat can be found at: http://www.absc.usgs.gov/research/sis_summaries/polar_bears_sis/mapping_dens.htm. This measure ensures that the location of potential polar bear dens is considered when conducting activities in the coastal areas of the Beaufort Sea.

(3) The use of Forward Looking Infrared (FLIR) imagery, polar bear scent-trained dogs, or both to determine the presence or absence of polar bear dens in area of the activity.

(4) Restricting the timing of the activity to limit disturbance around dens.

(5) Requiring a 1-mile exclusion buffer surrounding known dens. If known occupied dens are located within an operator's area of activity, we will require a 1-mile exclusion buffer around the den to limit disturbance or require that the operator conduct activities after the female bears emerge from their dens. We will review these requirements for extenuating circumstances on a case-by-case basis.

(f) For exploratory and development activities, holders of a Letter of Authorization must submit a report to our Alaska Regional Director (Attn: Marine Mammals Management Office) within 90 days after completion of activities. For production activities, holders of a Letter of Authorization must submit a report to our Alaska Regional Director (Attn: Marine Mammals Management Office) by January 15 for the preceding year's activities. Reports must include, at a minimum, the following information:

(1) Dates and times of activity;

(2) Dates and locations of polar bear or Pacific walrus activity as related to the monitoring activity; and

(3) Results of the monitoring activities required under subsection (g) of this section, including an estimated level of take.

(g) Monitoring requirements include, but are not limited to:

(1) For all activities, all sightings of polar bears and walrus must be recorded. To the extent possible, the monitor will record group size, age, sex, reaction, duration of interaction, and closest approach to Industry activity.

(2) Activities within the coast of the geographic region may incorporate daily polar bear watch logs.

(3) Polar bear monitors will be required under the monitoring plan if polar bears are known to frequent the area or known polar bear dens are present in the area. Monitors will act as an early detection system in regards to proximate bear activity to Industry facilities.

(4) Offshore sites may require systematic monitoring protocols for polar bears and walrus due to their nearshore locations. Systematic monitoring may be implemented to statistically monitor observation trends of walrus or polar bears in the nearshore areas where they usually occur.

(a) The Office of Management and Budget has approved the collection of information contained in this subpart and assigned control number 1018-0070. You must respond to this information collection request to obtain a benefit pursuant to section 101(a)(5) of the Marine Mammal Protection Act (MMPA). We will use the information to (1) evaluate the application and determine whether or not to issue specific Letters of Authorization and (2) monitor impacts of activities conducted under the Letters of Authorization.

(b) You should direct comments regarding the burden estimate or any other aspect of this requirement to the Information Collection Clearance Officer, U.S. Fish and Wildlife Service, Department of the Interior, Mail Stop 222 ARLSQ, 1849 C Street, NW., Washington, DC 20240.

The regulations contained in this part provide rules relative to the prohibition against shooting or harassing of wildlife from any aircraft, provide the requirements for the contents and filing of annual reports by the States regarding permits issued for such shooting or harassing, and provide regulations necessary for effective enforcement of the Fish and Wildlife Act of 1956 as amended (16 U.S.C. 742a—j-1).

The regulations contained in this part apply to all persons within the territorial jurisdiction of the United States, to all United States citizens whether within the territorial jurisdiction of the United States or on the high seas or on board aircraft in flight over the high seas, and to all persons on board aircraft belonging in whole or in part to any United States citizen, firm, or partnership, or corporation created by or under the laws of the United States, or any State, territory or possession thereof.

The exemptions to general prohibitions of the Fish and Wildlife Act of 1956, that permit airborne hunting in certain circumstances (See subpart B of this part) do not supersede, or authorize the violation of, other laws designed for the conservation or protection of wildlife, including those laws prohibiting the shooting or harassing of bald and golden eagles, polar bears and other marine mammals, migratory birds, and other wildlife, except to the extent that airborne hunting is authorized by regulations or permits issued under authority of those laws. (See e.g., § 21.41 of this subchapter.)

In addition to definitions contained in part 10 of this subchapter, and unless the context otherwise requires, in this part 19:

Harass means to disturb, worry, molest, rally, concentrate, harry, chase, drive, herd or torment.

(a) Except as otherwise authorized by the Fish and Wildlife Act of 1956 as amended, no person shall:

(1) While airborne in any aircraft shoot or attempt to shoot for the purpose of capturing or killing any wildlife;

(2) Use an aircraft to harass any wildlife; or

(3) Knowingly participate in using an aircraft whether in the aircraft or on the ground for any purpose referred to in paragraph (a) (1) or (2) of this section.

(b) The acts prohibited in this section include, but are not limited to, any person who:

(1) Pilots or assists in the operation of an aircraft from which another person shoots or shoots at wildlife while airborne, or

(2) While on the ground takes or attempts to take any wildlife by means, aid, or use of an aircraft.

The prohibitions of the preceding section shall not apply to any person who:

(1) Is acting within the scope of his official duties as an employee or authorized agent of a State or the United States to administer or protect or aid in the administration or protection of land, water, wildlife, livestock, domesticated animals, human life or crops; or

(2) Is acting within the limitations of a permit referred to in § 19.21 or § 19.31 of this part.

No Federal permits will be issued to authorize any person to hunt, shoot, or harass any wildlife from an aircraft, except for Federal permits to scare or herd migratory birds referred to in § 21.41 of this subchapter.

(a) Except as provided in § 19.3, States may issue permits to persons to engage in airborne hunting or harassing of wildlife for purposes of administering or protecting land, water, wildlife, livestock, domestic animals, human life or crops. States may not issue permits for the purpose of sport hunting.

(b) Upon issuance of a permit by a State to a person pursuant to this section, the issuing authority will provide immediate notification to the Special Agent in Charge having jurisdiction according to § 10.22.

(a) Any State issuing permits to persons to engage in airborne hunting or harassing of wildlife or any State whose employees or agents participate in airborne hunting or harassing of wildlife for purposes of administering or protecting land, water, wildlife, livestock, domestic animals, human life or crops, shall file with the Director, an annual report on or before July 1 for the preceding calendar year ending December 31.

(b) The annual report required by this section shall contain the following information as to each such permit issued:

(1) The name and address of each person to whom a permit was issued.

(2) Permit number and inclusive dates during which permit was valid.

(3) The aircraft number of the aircraft used and the location where such aircraft was based.

(4) Common name and number of the wildlife for which authorization to take was given and a description of the area from which the wildlife were authorized to be taken.

(5) The purpose for which the permit was issued, specifically identifying whether the permit was issued to protect land, water, wildlife, livestock, domestic animals, crops, or human life.

(6) The common name and number of wildlife taken by permittees and State employees or agents.

(c) A compilation of all annual reports required by this section shall be made by the Director and furnished to any State filing such annual report.

(a) In general. The regulations contained in this part relate only to the hunting of migratory game birds, and crows.

(b) Procedural and substantive requirements. Migratory game birds may be taken, possessed, transported, shipped, exported, or imported only in accordance with the restrictions, conditions, and requirements contained in this part. Crows may be taken, possessed, transported, exported, or imported only in accordance with subpart H of this part and the restrictions, conditions, and requirements prescribed in § 20.133.

(a) Migratory bird permits. The provisions of this part shall not be construed to alter the terms of any permit or other authorization issued pursuant to part 21 of this subchapter.

(b) Migratory bird hunting stamps. The provisions of this part are in addition to the provisions of the Migratory Bird Hunting Stamp Act of 1934 (48 Stat. 451, as amended; 16 U.S.C. 718a).

(c) National wildlife refuges. The provisions of this part are in addition to, and are not in lieu of, any other provision of law respecting migratory game birds under the National Wildlife Refuge System Administration Act of 1966 (80 Stat. 927, as amended; 16 U.S.C. 668dd) or any regulation made pursuant thereto.

(d) State Laws for the protection of migratory birds. No statute or regulation of any State shall be construed to relieve a person from the restrictions, conditions, and requirements contained in this part, however, nothing in this part shall be construed to prevent the several States from making and enforcing laws or regulations not inconsistent with these regulations and the conventions between the United States and any foreign country for the protection of migratory birds or with the Migratory Bird Treaty Act, or which shall give further protection to migratory game birds.

(e) Migratory bird subsistence harvest in Alaska. The provisions of this part, except for paragraphs (a) through (d) of this section, are not applicable to the regulations governing the migratory bird subsistence harvest in Alaska (part 92 of this subchapter) unless specifically referenced in part 92 of subchapter G of this chapter.

For the purpose of this part, the following terms shall be construed, respectively, to mean and to include:

(a) Migratory game birds means those migratory birds included in the terms of conventions between the United States and any foreign country for the protection of migratory birds, for which open seasons are prescribed in this part and belong to the following families:

(1) Anatidae (ducks, geese [including brant] and swans);

(2) Columbidae (doves and pigeons);

(3) Gruidae (cranes);

(4) Rallidae (rails, coots and gallinules); and

(5) Scolopacidae (woodcock and snipe).

A list of migratory birds protected by the international conventions and the Migratory Bird Treaty Act appears in § 10.13 of this subchapter.

(b) Seasons—(1) Open season means the days on which migratory game birds may lawfully be taken. Each period precribed as an open season shall be construed to include the first and last days thereof.

(2) Closed season means the days on which migratory game birds shall not be taken.

(c) Bag limits—(1) Aggregate bag limit means a condition of taking in which two or more usually similar species may be bagged (reduced to possession) by the hunter in predetermined or unpredetermined quantities to satisfy a maximum take limit.

(2) Daily bag limit means the maximum number of migratory game birds of single species or combination (aggregate) of species permitted to be taken by one person in any one day during the open season in any one specified geographic area for which a daily bag limit is prescribed.

(3) Aggregate daily bag limit means the maximum number of migratory game birds permitted to be taken by one person in any one day during the open season when such person hunts in more than one specified geographic area and/or for more than one species for which a combined daily bag limit is prescribed. The aggregate daily bag limit is equal to, but shall not exceed, the largest daily bag limit prescribed for any one species or for any one specified geographic area in which taking occurs.

(4) Possession limit means the maximum number of migratory game birds of a single species or a combination of species permitted to be possessed by any one person when lawfully taken in the United States in any one specified geographic area for which a possession limit is prescribed.

(5) Aggregate possession limit means the maximum number of migratory game birds of a single species or combination of species taken in the United States permitted to be possessed by any one person when taking and possession occurs in more than one specified geographic area for which a possession limit is prescribed. The aggegate possession limit is equal to, but shall not exceed, the largest possession limit prescribed for any one of the species or specified geographic areas in which taking and possession occurs.

(d) Personal abode means one's principal or ordinary home or dwelling place, as distinguished from one's temporary or transient place of abode or dwelling such as a hunting club, or any club house, cabin, tent or trailer house used as a hunting club, or any hotel, motel or rooming house used during a hunting, pleasure or business trip.

(e) Migratory bird preservation facility means:

(1) Any person who, at their residence or place of business and for hire or other consideration; or

(2) Any taxidermist, cold-storage facility or locker plant which, for hire or other consideration; or

(3) Any hunting club which, in the normal course of operations; receives, possesses, or has in custody any migratory game birds belonging to another person for purposes of picking, cleaning, freezing, processing, storage or shipment.

(f) Paraplegic means an individual afflicted with paralysis of the lower half of the body with involvement of both legs, usually due to disease of or injury to the spinal cord.

(g) Normal agricultural planting, harvesting, or post-harvest manipulation means a planting or harvesting undertaken for the purpose of producing and gathering a crop, or manipulation after such harvest and removal of grain, that is conducted in accordance with official recommendations of State Extension Specialists of the Cooperative Extension Service of the U.S. Department of Agriculture.

(h) Normal agricultural operation means a normal agricultural planting, harvesting, post-harvest manipulation, or agricultural practice, that is conducted in accordance with official recommendations of State Extension Specialists of the Cooperative Extension Service of the U.S. Department of Agriculture.

(i) Normal soil stabilization practice means a planting for agricultural soil erosion control or post-mining land reclamation conducted in accordance with official recommendations of State Extension Specialists of the Cooperative Extension Service of the U.S. Department of Agriculture for agricultural soil erosion control.

(j) Baited area means any area on which salt, grain, or other feed has been placed, exposed, deposited, distributed, or scattered, if that salt, grain, or other feed could serve as a lure or attraction for migratory game birds to, on, or over areas where hunters are attempting to take them. Any such area will remain a baited area for ten days following the complete removal of all such salt, grain, or other feed.

(k) Baiting means the direct or indirect placing, exposing, depositing, distributing, or scattering of salt, grain, or other feed that could serve as a lure or attraction for migratory game birds to, on, or over any areas where hunters are attempting to take them.

(l) Manipulation means the alteration of natural vegetation or agricultural crops by activities that include but are not limited to mowing, shredding, discing, rolling, chopping, trampling, flattening, burning, or herbicide treatments. The term manipulation does not include the distributing or scattering of grain, seed, or other feed after removal from or storage on the field where grown.

(m) Natural vegetation means any non-agricultural, native, or naturalized plant species that grows at a site in response to planting or from existing seeds or other propagules. The term natural vegetation does not include planted millet. However, planted millet that grows on its own in subsequent years after the year of planting is considered natural vegetation.

(n) Resident Canada geese means Canada geese that nest within the lower 48 States and the District of Columbia in the months of March, April, May, or June, or reside within the lower 48 States and the District of Columbia in the months of April, May, June, July, or August.

(a) Information collection requirements. The collections of information contained in § 20.20 have been approved by the Office of Management and Budget under 44 U.S.C. 3501 et seq. and assigned clearance number 1018-0015. An agency may not conduct or sponsor, and a person is not required to respond to a collection of information unless it displays a currently valid OMB control number. The information will be used to provide a sampling frame for the national Migratory Bird Harvest Survey. Response is required from licensed hunters to obtain the benefit of hunting migratory game birds. Public reporting burden for this information is estimated to average 2 minutes per response for 3,300,000 respondents, including the time for reviewing instructions, searching existing data sources, gathering and maintaining the data needed, and completing and reviewing the collection of information. Thus the total annual reporting and record-keeping burden for this collection is estimated to be 112,000 hours. Send comments regarding this burden estimate or any other aspect of this collection of information, including suggestions for reducing the burden, to the Service Information Collection Clearance Officer, ms-224 ARLSQ, Fish and Wildlife Service, Washington, DC 20240, or the Office of Management and Budget, Paperwork Reduction Project 1018-0015, Washington, DC 20503.

(b) General provisions. Each person hunting migratory game birds in any State except Hawaii must have identified himself or herself as a migratory bird hunter and given his or her name, address, and date of birth to the respective State hunting licensing authority and must have on his or her person evidence, provided by that State, of compliance with this requirement.

(c) Tribal exemptions. Nothing in paragraph (b) of this section shall apply to tribal members on Federal Indian Reservations or to tribal members hunting on ceded lands.

(d) State exemptions. Nothing in paragraph (b) of this section shall apply to those hunters who are exempt from State-licensing requirements in the State in which they are hunting.

(e) State responsibilities. The State hunting licensing authority will ask each licensed migratory bird hunter in the respective State to report approximately how many ducks, geese, doves, and woodcock he or she bagged the previous year, whether he or she hunted coots, snipe, rails, and/or gallinules the previous year, and, in States that have band-tailed pigeon hunting seasons, whether he or she intends to hunt band-tailed pigeons during the current year.

No person shall take migratory game birds during the closed season except as provided in part 21 of this chapter.

No person shall take migratory game birds except during the hours open to shooting as prescribed in subpart K of this part and subpart E of part 21 of this chapter.

No person shall take in any 1 calendar day, more than the daily bag limit or aggregate daily bag limit, whichever applies.

No person shall kill or cripple any migratory game bird pursuant to this part without making a reasonable effort to retrieve the bird, and retain it in his actual custody, at the place where taken or between that place and either (a) his automobile or principal means of land transportation; or (b) his personal abode or temporary or transient place of lodging; or (c) a migratory bird preservation facility; or (d) a post office; or (e) a common carrier facility.

(a) The Director may close or temporarily suspend any season established under subpart K of this part:

(1) Upon a finding that a continuation of such a season would constitute an imminent threat to the safety of any endangered or threatened species or other migratory bird populations.

(2) Upon issuance of local public notice by such means as publication in local newspapers of general circulation, posting of the areas affected, notifying the State wildlife conservation agency, and announcement on local radio and television.

(b) Any such closure or temporary suspension shall be announced by publication of a notice to that effect in the Federal Register simultaneous with the local public notice referred to in paragraph (a)(2) of this section. However, in the event that it is impractical to publish a Federal Register notice simultaneously, due to the restriction in time available and the nature of the particular emergency situation, such notice shall follow the steps outlined in paragraph (a) of this section as soon as possible.

(c) Any closure or temporary suspension under this section shall be effective on the date of publication of the Federal Register notice; or if such notice is not published simultaneously, then on the date and at the time specified in the local notification to the public. Every notice of closure shall include the date and time of closing of the season and the area or areas affected. In the case of a temporary suspension, the date and time when the season may be resumed shall be provided by a subsequent local notification to the public, and by publication in the Federal Register.

No person shall at any time, by any means, or in any manner, possess or have in custody any migratory game bird or part thereof, taken in violation of any provision of subpart C of this part.

No person shall possess more migratory game birds taken in the United States than the possession limit or the aggregate possession limit, whichever applies.

No person on the opening day of the season shall possess any freshly killed migratory game birds in excess of the daily bag limit, or aggregate daily bag limit, whichever applies.

No person shall possess, have in custody, or transport more than the daily bag limit or aggregate daily bag limit, whichever applies, of migratory game birds, tagged or not tagged, at or between the place where taken and either (a) his automobile or principal means of land transportation; or (b) his personal abode or temporary or transient place of lodging; or (c) a migratory bird preservation facility; or (d) a post office; or (e) a common carrier facility.

No person shall put or leave any migratory game birds at any place (other than at his personal abode), or in the custody of another person for picking, cleaning, processing, shipping, transportation, or storage (including temporary storage), or for the purpose of having taxidermy services performed, unless such birds have a tag attached, signed by the hunter, stating his address, the total number and species of birds, and the date such birds were killed. Migratory game birds being transported in any vehicle as the personal baggage of the possessor shall not be considered as being in storage or temporary storage.

No person shall receive or have in custody any migratory game birds belonging to another person unless such birds are tagged as required by § 20.36.

Every migratory game bird wounded by hunting and reduced to possession by the hunter shall be immediately killed and become a part of the daily bag limit. No person shall at any time, or by any means, possess or transport live migratory game birds taken under authority of this part.

Subject to all other requirements of this part, the possession of birds taken by any hunter shall be deemed to have ceased when such birds have been delivered by him to another person as a gift; or have been delivered by him to a post office, a common carrier, or a migratory bird preservation facility and consigned for transport by the Postal Service or a common carrier to some person other than the hunter.

No person may receive, possess, or give to another, any freshly killed migratory game birds as a gift, except at the personal abodes of the donor or donee, unless such birds have a tag attached, signed by the hunter who took the birds, stating such hunter's address, the total number and species of birds and the date such birds were taken.

No person shall at any time, by any means, or in any manner, transport any migratory game bird or part thereof, taken in violation of any provision of subpart C of this part.

No person shall transport migratory game birds belonging to another person unless such birds are tagged as required by § 20.36.

No person shall transport by the Postal Service or a common carrier migratory game birds unless the package or container in which such birds are transported has the name and address of the shipper and the consignee and an accurate statement of the numbers of each species of birds therein contained clearly and conspicuously marked on the outside thereof.

No person shall at any time, by any means, or in any manner, export or cause to be exported, any migratory game bird or part thereof, taken in violation of any provision of subpart C of this part.

No person shall export migratory game birds unless one fully feathered wing remains attached to each such bird while being transported from the United States and/or any of its possessions to any foreign country.

No person shall export migratory game birds via the Postal Service or a common carrier unless the package or container has the name and address of the shipper and the consignee and an accurate statement of the numbers of each species of birds therein contained clearly and conspicuously marked on the outside thereof.

No person shall import migratory game birds in excess of the following importation limits:

(a) Doves and pigeons. (1) From any foreign country except Mexico, during any one calendar week beginning on Sunday, not to exceed 25 doves, singly or in the aggregate of all species, and 10 pigeons, singly or in the aggregate of all species.

(2) From Mexico, not to exceed the maximum number permitted by Mexican authorities to be taken in any one day: Provided, That if the importer has his Mexican hunting permit date-stamped by appropriate Mexican wildlife authorities on the first day he hunts in Mexico, he may import the applicable Mexican possession limit corresponding to the days actually hunted during that particular trip.

(b) Waterfowl. (1) From any foreign country except Canada and Mexico, during any one calendar week beginning on Sunday, not to exceed 10 ducks, singly or in the aggregate of all species, and five geese including brant, singly or in the aggregate of all species.

(2) From Canada, not to exceed the maximum number permitted to be exported by Canadian authorities.

(3) From Mexico, not to exceed the maximum number permitted by Mexican authorities to be taken in any one day: Provided, That if the importer has his Mexican hunting permit date-stamped by appropriate Mexican wildlife authorities on the first day he hunts in Mexico, he may import the applicable Mexican possession limit corresponding to the days actually hunted during that particular trip.

No person shall import migratory game birds belonging to another person.

No person shall import migratory game birds unless each such bird has one fully feathered wing attached, and such wing must remain attached while being transported between the port of entry and the personal abode of the possessor or between the port of entry and a migratory bird preservation facility.

No person shall import, possess or transport, any migratory game birds killed in a foreign country unless such birds are accompanied by export permits, tags, or other documentation required by applicable foreign laws or regulations.

No person shall import migratory game birds killed in any foreign country, except Canada, unless such birds are dressed (except as required in § 20.63), drawn, and the head and feet are removed: Provided, That this shall not prohibit the importation of legally taken, fully feathered migratory game birds consigned for mounting purposes to a taxidermist who holds a current taxidermist permit issued to him pursuant to § 21.24 of this chapter and who is also licensed by the U.S. Department of Agriculture to decontaminate such birds.

No person shall import migratory game birds via the Postal Service or a common carrier unless the package or container has the name and address of the shipper and the consignee and an accurate statement of the numbers of each species of birds therein contained clearly and conspicuously marked on the outside thereof.

No person shall at any time, by any means or in any manner, take, possess, transport, or export any migratory bird, or any part, nest, or egg of any such bird, in violation of any act of Congress or any regulation issued pursuant thereto.

No person shall at any time, by any means or in any manner, take, possess, transport, or export any migratory bird, or any part, nest, or egg of any such bird, in violation of any applicable law or regulation of any State.

No person shall at any time, by any means, or in any manner, import, possess, or transport, any migratory bird, or any part, nest, or egg of any such bird taken, bought, sold, transported, possessed, or exported contrary to any applicable law or regulation of any foreign country, or State or province thereof.

No migratory bird preservation facility shall receive or have in custody any migratory game birds unless such birds are tagged as required by § 20.36.

(a) No migratory bird preservation facility shall:

(1) Receive or have in custody any migratory game bird unless accurate records are maintained which can identify each bird received by, or in the custody of, the facility by the name of the person from whom the bird was obtained, and show (i) the number of each species; (ii) the location where taken; (iii) the date such birds were received; (iv) the name and address of the person from whom such birds were received; (v) the date such birds were disposed of; and (vi) the name and address of the person to whom such birds were delivered, or

(2) Destroy any records required to be maintained under this section for a period of 1 year following the last entry on the record.

(b) Record keeping as required by this section will not be necessary at hunting clubs which do not fully process migratory birds by removal of both the head and wings.

Any person may possess, purchase, sell, barter, or transport for the making of fishing flies, bed pillows, and mattresses, and for similar commercial uses the feathers of migratory waterfowl (ducks, geese, brant, and swans) killed by hunting pursuant to this part, or seized and condemned by Federal or State game authorities, except that:

(a) No person shall purchase, sell, barter, or offer to purchase, sell, or barter for millinery or ornamental use the feathers of migratory game birds taken under authority of this part; and

(b) No person shall purchase, sell, barter, or offer to purchase, sell, or barter mounted specimens of migratory game birds taken under authority of this part.

Any person for his own use may possess, transport, ship, import, and export without a permit the feathers and skins of lawfully taken migratory game birds.

(a) The taking, possession, transportation, and other uses of migratory game birds by hunters is generally prohibited unless it is specifically provided for under regulations developed in accordance with the Migratory Bird Treaty Act. Consequently, hunting is prohibited unless regulatory schedules are established for seasons, daily bag and possession limits, and shooting (or hawking) hours. Migratory game bird population levels, including production and habitat conditions, vary annually. These conditions differ over North America, and within the United States, by flyways, States, and frequently areas within States. Thus, it is necessary to make annual adjustments in the schedules to limit the harvests of migratory game birds to permissible levels.

(b) The development of these schedules involves annual data gathering programs to determine migratory game bird population status and trends, evaluations of habitat conditions, harvest information, and other factors having a bearing on the anticipated size of the fall flights of these birds. The proposed hunting schedules are announced early in the spring, and following consideration of additional information as it becomes available, as well as public comment, they are modified and published as supplemental proposals. These are also open to public comment. Public hearings are held for the purpose of providing additional opportunity for public participation in the rulemaking process.

This section provides for the annual hunting of certain doves, pigeons, ducks, coots, gallinules and snipe in Puerto Rico; and for certain doves, pigeons and ducks in the Virgin Islands. In these Commonwealths, the hunting of waterfowl and coots (and other certain species, as applicable) must be with the use of nontoxic shot beginning in the 1991-92 waterfowl season.

This section provides for the annual hunting of certain waterfowl (ducks, tundra swans, geese, and brant), common snipe, and sandhill cranes in Alaska. In Alaska, the hunting of waterfowl must be with the use of nontoxic shot beginning in the 1991-92 waterfowl season.

This section provides for the annual hunting of certain doves and pigeons in the 48 contiguous United States. The mourning dove hunting regulations are arranged by the Eastern, Central, and Western Management Units.

This section provides for the annual hunting of certain rails, woodcock, and snipe in the 48 contiguous United States.

This section provides for the annual hunting of certain waterfowl (ducks, geese [including brant]), coots and gallinules in the 48 contiguous United States. The regulations are arranged by the Atlantic, Mississippi, Central and Pacific Flyways. These regulations often vary within Flyways or States, and by time periods. Those areas of the United States outside of State boundaries, i.e., the United States' territorial waters seaward of county boundaries, and including coastal waters claimed by the separate States, if not already included under the zones contained in § 20.108, are designated for the purposes of § 20.21(j) as nontoxic shot zones for waterfowl hunting beginning in the 1991-92 season.

This section provides for the annual hunting of sandhill cranes in designated portions of the 48 contiguous United States.

This section provides for the annual hunting of tundra swans in designated portions of the 48 contiguous United States.

Beginning September 1, 1991, the contiguous 48 United States, and the States of Alaska and Hawaii, the Territories of Puerto Rico and the Virgin Islands, and the territorial waters of the United States, are designated for the purpose of § 20.21(j) as nontoxic shot zones for hunting waterfowl, coots and certain other species. “Certain other species” refers to those species, other than waterfowl or coots, that are affected by reason of being included in aggregate bags and concurrent seasons.

This section provides annual regulations by which falconers may take permitted migratory game birds.

This section provides for establishing annual migratory bird hunting regulations for certain tribes on Federal Indian reservations, Indian Territory, and ceded lands.

Whenever the Secretary shall find that emergency State action to prevent forest fires in any extensive area has resulted in the shortening of the season during which the hunting of any species of migratory game bird is permitted and that compensatory extension or reopening the hunting season for such birds will not result in a diminution of the abundance of birds to any greater extent than that contemplated for the original hunting season, the hunting season for the birds so affected may, subject to all other provisions of this subchapter, be extended or reopened by the Secretary upon request of the chief officer of the agency of the State exercising administration over wildlife resources. The length of the extended or reopened season in no event shall exceed the number of days during which hunting has been so prohibited. The extended or reopened season will be publicly announced.

In Alaska, any person may, for subsistence purposes, take, possess, and transport, in any manner, from September 1 through April 1, snowy owls and cormorants for food and their skins for clothing, but birds and their parts may not be sold or offered for sale.

(a) Crows may be taken, possessed, transported, exported, or imported, only in accordance with such laws or regulations as may be prescribed by a State pursuant to this section.

(b) Except in the State of Hawaii, where no crows shall be taken, States may by statute or regulation prescribe a hunting season for crows. Such State statutes or regulations may set forth the method of taking, the bag and possession limits, the dates and duration of the hunting season, and such other regulations as may be deemed appropriate, subject to the following limitations for each State:

(1) Crows shall not be hunted from aircraft;

(2) The hunting season or seasons on crows shall not exceed a total of 124 days during a calendar year;

(3) Hunting shall not be permitted during the peak crow nesting period within a State; and

(4) Crows may only be taken by firearms, bow and arrow, and falconry.

(a) Approval. (1) The information collection requirements contained in § 20.134 have been approved by the Office of Management and Budget under 44 U.S.C. 3501 et seq. and assigned clearance number 1018-0067. The information is being collected to provide a basis for which the Director, Fish and Wildlife Service, can conduct a methodical and objective review to approve/disapprove nontoxic shot status sought by an applicant. The information will be used for toxicity assessment of candidate shot submitted for approval by applicant. Response is required to obtain a benefit.

(2) The Director, U.S. Fish and Wildlife Service, shall determine that a specific type of shot material is acceptable for the purposes of 50 CFR 20.21(j), if after a review of applications and supporting data submitted in accordance with this section, together with all other relevant evidence, including public comment, it is concluded that the spent shot material does not impose a significant danger to migratory birds and other wildlife or their habitats.

(b) Application and review—Tiered strategy for approval of nontoxic shot and shot coating. (1) All applications for approval under this section must be submitted with supporting documentation to the Director in accordance with the following procedures and must include at a minimum the supporting materials and information covered by Tier 1 in the tiered approval system as follows:

(2) Tier 1. (i)(A) Applicant provides statements of use, chemical characterization, production variability, volume of use of candidate material and shot sample as listed in paragraphs (b)(2)(i)(A)(1) through (5), (b)(2)(i)(B)(1) through (5), and (b)(2)(i)(C)(1) through (3) of this section. The candidate shot or shot coating may be chemically analyzed by the Service or an independent laboratory to compare the results with the applicant's descriptions of shot composition and composition variability. Rejection of the application will occur if it is incomplete or if the composition of the candidate material, upon analysis, varies significantly from that described by the applicant.

(1) Statement of proposed use, i.e., purpose and types.

(2) Description of the chemical composition of the intact material.

(i) Chemical names, Chemical Abstracts Service numbers (if available), and structures.

(ii) Chemical characterization for organics and organometallics for coating and core [e.g., empirical formula, melting point, molecular weight, solubility, specific gravity, partition coefficients, hydrolysis half-life, leaching rate (in water and soil), degradation half-life, vapor pressure, stability and other relevant characteristics].

(iii) Composition and weight of shot material.

(iv) Thickness, quantity (e.g., mg/shot), and chemical composition of shot coating.

(3) Statement of the expected variability of shot during production.

(4) Estimate of yearly volume of candidate shot and/or coated shot expected for use in hunting migratory birds in the U.S.

(5) Five pounds of the candidate shot and/or coated shot, as applicable, in size equivalent to United States standard size No. 4 (0.13 inches in diameter).

(B) Applicant provides information on the toxicological effects of the shot or shot coating as follows:

(1) A summary of the acute and chronic mammalian toxicity data of the shot or shot coating ranking its toxicity (e.g., LD50<5 mg/kg = super toxic, 5-50 mg/kg = extremely toxic, 50-500 mg/kg = very toxic, 500-5,000 mg/kg = moderately toxic, 5,000-15,000 = slightly toxic, >15,000 mg/kg = practically nontoxic) with citations.

(2) A summary of known acute, chronic, and reproductive toxicological data of the chemicals comprising the shot or shot coating with respect to birds, particularly waterfowl (include LD50 or LC50 data, and sublethal effects) with citations.

(3) A narrative description, with citations to relevant data, predicting the toxic effect in waterfowl of complete erosion and absorption of one shot or coated shot in a 24-hour period. Define the nature of toxic effect (e.g., mortality, impaired reproduction, substantial weight loss, disorientation and other relevant associated clinical observations).

(4) A statement, with supporting rationale and citations to relevant data, that there is or is not any reasonable basis for concern for shot or coated shot ingestion by fish, amphibians, reptiles or mammals. If there is some recognized impact on fish, amphibians, reptiles, or mammals, the Service may require additional study.

(5) Summarize the toxicity data of chemicals comprising the shot or shot coating to aquatic and terrestrial invertebrates, fish, amphibians, reptiles, and mammals.

(C) Applicant provides information on the environmental fate and transport, if any, of the shot or shot coating as follows:

(1) A statement of the alteration of the shot or shot coating, chemically or physically, upon firing. The statement must describe any alterations.

(2) An estimate of the environmental half-life of the organic or organometallic component of the shot or shot coating, and a description of the chemical form of the breakdown products.

(3) Information on the Estimated Environmental Concentration (EEC) assuming 69,000 shot per hectare (Bellrose 1959; Pain 1990) for:

(i) A terrestrial ecosystem, assuming complete dissolution of material in 5 cm of soil. What would be the EEC and would that EEC exceed existing clean soil standards? (Environmental Protection Agency [EPA] standards for the Use of Disposal of Sewage Sludge; 40 CFR Part 503). How does the estimated EEC relate to the toxicity threshold for plants, invertebrates, fish and wildlife?

(ii) An aquatic ecosystem, assuming complete dissolution of the shot or shot coating in 1 cubic foot of water. What is the estimated EEC, and how does it compare to the EPA Water Quality Criteria and toxicity thresholds in plants, invertebrates, fish and wildlife?

(D) Service evaluation of an application. (1) In reviewing the submission, the Service will use an exceedence of 1 LD50/square foot as the level of concern (U.S.E.P.A. 1992) as a criteria in the risk assessment.

(2) In cooperation with the applicant, the Service will conduct a risk assessment using the Quotient Method (Environmental Protection Agency 1986): Risk = EEC/Toxicological Level of Concern Compare EEC in ppm to an effect level (e.g., LD50 in ppm. If Q < 0.1 = No Adverse Effects; If 0.1 ≤ Q ≤ 10.0 = Possible Adverse Effects; If Q > 10.0 = Probable Adverse Effects.

(3) Upon receipt of the Tier 1 application, the Director will review it to determine if the submission is complete. If complete, the applicant is notified within 30 days of receipt that a thorough review of the application will commence. A Notice of Application will appear in the Federal Register announcing the initiation of review of a Tier 1 application. Complete review of a Tier 1 application will occur within 60 days of the date the Notice of Application is published in the Federal Register.

(E) If, after review of the Tier 1 data, the Service does not conclude that the shot or shot coating does not impose a significant danger to migratory birds, other wildlife, and their habitats, the applicant is advised to proceed with the additional testing described for Tier 2, Tier 3, or both. A Notice of Review will inform the public that Tier 1 test results are inconclusive, and Tier 2, Tier 3, or both testing are required before further consideration.

(F) If review of the Tier 1 data results in a preliminary determination that the candidate material does not impose a significant danger to migratory birds, other wildlife, and their habitats, the Director will publish in the Federal Register a proposed rule stating the Service's intention to approve this shot or shot coating based on the toxicological report and toxicity studies. The rulemaking will include a description of the chemical composition of the candidate shot or shot coating, and a synopsis of findings under the standards required for Tier 1. If, at the end of the comment period, the Service finds no technical or scientific basis upon which to alter its conclusion, the candidate material will be approved by the publication of a final rule in the Federal Register. If, after receiving public comment, the Service determines that all available information does not establish that the shot and/or shot coating does not impose a significant danger to migratory birds, other wildlife, and their habitats, Tier 2, Tier 3, or both testing will be required and a Notice of Review will appear in the Federal Register. If only one of these two Tier tests are required, the Service will explain in the notice why the other is not required. If the applicant chooses not to proceed, the determination denying approval will appear in the Federal Register.

(ii) [Reserved]

(3) Tier 2. (i) If Tier 2 testing is required, the applicant must submit a plan that addresses paragraph (b)(3)(ii) requirements. The Director will review the Tier 2 testing plan submitted by the applicant within 30 days of receipt. The Director may decline to approve the plan, or any part of it, if deficient in any manner with regard to timing, format or content. The Director shall apprise the applicant regarding what parts, if any, of the submitted testing procedures to disregard and any modifications to incorporate into the Tier 2 testing plan in order to gain plan approval. All testing procedures will be in compliance with the Good Laboratory Practices Standards (40 CFR part 160) except where they conflict with the regulations in this section or with a provision of an approved plan. The Director, or authorized representative, may elect to inspect the applicant's laboratory facilities and may decline to approve the plan and further consideration of the candidate shot if the facility does not meet the Good Laboratory Practices Standards. After the plan is accepted, Tier 2 testing will commence. Required analyses and reports, in accordance with the regulations in this section, must be sent to the Director. The applicant will ensure that copies of all the raw data and statistical analyses accompany the laboratory reports and final comprehensive report of this test.

(ii) Evaluation of the candidate shot or shot coating will first be in a standardized test under in vitro conditions (see paragraph be in a standardized test under in vitro conditions (see paragraph (b)(3)(ii)(A)) that will assess its erosion and any release of components into a liquid medium in an environment simulating in vivo conditions of a waterfowl gizzard. Erosion characteristics are to be compared with those of lead shot and steel shot of comparable size. Following the erosion rate testing, the applicant must conduct a 30-day acute toxicity test in mallards, and a test to determine the candidate shot and/or shot coating effects on selected invertebrates and fish and include the results in the report for the Director.

(A) In vitro erosion rate test. Conduct a standardized in vitro test to determine erosion rate of the candidate shot or shot coating using the guidelines in Kimball and Munir (1971), unless otherwise provided by the Service.

(1) Typical test materials: Atomic absorption spectrophotometer; Drilled aluminum block to support test tubes; Thermostatically controlled stirring hot plate; Small Teflon ®-coated magnets; Hydrochloric acid (pH 2.0) and pepsin; Capped test tubes; and Lead, steel and candidate shot/coated shot.

(2) Typical test procedures. Add hydrochloric acid and pepsin to each capped test tube at a volume and concentration that will erode a single No. 4 lead shot at a rate of 5 mg/day. Place three test tubes, each containing either lead shot, steel shot or candidate shot and/or coated shot, in an aluminum block on the stirring hot plate. Add a Teflon ® coated magnet to each test tube and set the hot plate at 42 degrees centigrade and 500 revolutions per minute. Determine the erosion of shot or coated shot daily for 14 consecutive days by weighing the shot and analyzing the digestion solution with an atomic absorption spectrophotometer. Replicate the 14-day procedure five times.

(3) Typical test analyses. Compare erosion rates of the three types of shot by appropriate analysis of variance and regression procedures. The statistical analysis will determine whether the rate of erosion of the shot and/or shot coating is significantly greater or less than that of lead and steel. This determination is important to any subsequent toxicity testing.

(B) Acute toxicity test—Tier 2 (Short-term, 30-day acute toxicity test using a commercially available duck food.). Over a 30-day period, conduct a short-term acute toxicity test that complies with the guidelines described as follows or as otherwise provided by the Service:

(1) Typical test materials: 30 male and 30 female hand-reared mallards approximately 6 to 8 months old (mallards must have plumage and body conformation that resemble wild mallards); 60 elevated outdoor pens equipped with feeders and waterers; Laboratory equipped to perform fluoroscopy, required blood and tissue assays, and necropsies; Commercial duck maintenance mash; and Lead, steel and candidate shot.

(2) Typical test procedures. House mallards individually in pens and give ad libitum access to food and water. After 3 weeks, randomly assign to 3 groups (10 males and 10 females/group), dose with eight pellets of either No. 4 lead shot (positive control), steel shot (negative control), or the candidate shot or coated shot. Fluoroscope birds at 1 week after dosage to check for shot retention. Observe birds daily for signs of intoxication and mortality over a 30-day period. Determine body weight at the time of dosing, and at days 15 and 30 of the test. On days 15 and 30, collect blood by venipuncture, determine hematocrit, hemoglobin concentration and other specified blood chemistries. Sacrifice all survivors on day 30. Remove the liver and other appropriate organs from the sacrificed birds and from birds that died prior to sacrifice on day 30 for histopathological analysis. Analyze the organs for lead and compounds contained in the candidate shot or coated shot. Necropsy all birds to determine any pathological conditions.

(3) Typical test analyses. Analyze mortality among the specified groups with appropriate chi-square statistical procedures. Analyze physiological data and tissue contaminant data by analysis of variance or other appropriate statistical procedures to include the factors of shot type and sex. Compare sacrificed birds and birds that died prior to sacrifice whenever sample sizes are adequate for meaningful comparison.

(C) Daphnid and fish early-life toxicity tests. Determine the toxicity of the compounds that comprise the shot or shot coating (at conditions maximizing solubility without adversely affecting controls) to selected invertebrates and fish. These methods are subject to the environmental effects test regulations developed under the authority of the Toxic Substances Control Act (15 U.S.C. 2601 et seq.), as follows:

(1) The first test, the Daphnid Acute Toxicity Test (conducted in accordance with 40 CFR 797.1300), is a guideline for use in developing data on the acute toxicity of chemical substances. This guideline prescribes an acute toxicity test in which Daphnid exposure to a chemical in static and flow-through systems, with the agencies assessing the hazard the compound(s) may present to an aquatic environment.

(2) The second test is the Daphnid Chronic Toxicity Test (conducted in accordance with 40 CFR 797.1330). This gathers data on the chronic toxicity of chemical substances in which Daphnids (Daphnia spp.) are exposed to a chemical in a renewal or flow-through system. The data from this test are again used to assess the hazard that the compound(s) may present to an aquatic environment.

(3) A third test, Fish Early Life Stage Toxicity Test (conducted in accordance with 40 CFR Section 797.1600), assesses the adverse effects of chemical substances to fish in the early stages of their growth and development. Data from this test are used to determine the hazard the compound(s) may present to an aquatic environment.

(iii) After the Tier 2 testing, the applicant will report the results to the Director. If, after review of the Tier 2 data, the Service determines that the information does not establish that the shot or shot coating does not impose a significant danger to migratory birds, other wildlife, and their habitats, the applicant is advised to proceed with the additional testing in Tier 3. A Notice of Review advises the public that, in conjunction with Tier 1 data, Tier 2 test results are inconclusive and Tier 3 testing is required for continued consideration.

(iv) If review of the Tier 2 test data results in a preliminary determination that the candidate shot or shot coating does not impose a significant danger to migratory birds, other wildlife, and their habitats, the Director will publish in the Federal Register a proposed rule stating the Service's intention to approve this shot and/or coating and why Tier 3 testing is unnecessary. The rulemaking will include a description of chemical composition of the shot or shot coating, and a synopsis of findings under the standards required at Tier 2. If, at the end of the comment period, the Service finds no technical or scientific basis upon which to deny approval, the candidate shot or shot coating approval is published as a final rule in the Federal Register. If, as a result of the comment period, the Service determines that the information does not establish that the shot and/or shot coating does not impose a significant danger to migratory birds, other wildlife, and their habitats, Tier 3 testing will be required and a Notice of Review published in the Federal Register. If the applicant chooses not to proceed, the determination denying approval of the candidate shot or shot coating will appear in the Federal Register.

(4) Tier 3. (i) If the Director determines that the Tier 1 or Tier 2 information is inconclusive, the Director will notify the applicant to submit a Tier 3 testing plan for conducting further testing as outlined in paragraphs (b)(4)(i) (A) and (B) of this section. Review, by the Director, of the Tier 3 testing plan submitted by the applicant will occur within 30 days of receipt. The Director may decline to approve the plan, or any part of it, if deficient in any manner with regard to timing, format or content. The Director shall apprise the applicant regarding what parts, if any, of the submitted testing procedure to disregard and any modifications to incorporate into the Tier 3 plan in order to gain plan approval. All testing procedures should be in compliance with the Good Laboratory Practices Standards (40 CFR part 160), except where they conflict with the regulations in this section or with a provision of an approved plan. The Director, or authorized representative, may elect to inspect the applicant's laboratory facilities and may decline to approve the plan and further consideration of the candidate shot and/or shot coating if the facility is not in compliance with the Good Laboratory Practices Standards. After acceptance of the plan, Tier 3 testing will commence. Required analyses and reports must be sent to the Director. The applicant will ensure that copies of all the raw data and statistical analyses accompany the laboratory reports and final comprehensive report of this test.

(A) Chronic toxicity test—Tier 3 (Long-term toxicity test under depressed temperature conditions using a nutritionally-deficient diet). Conduct a chronic exposure test under adverse conditions that complies with the general guidelines described as follows unless otherwise provided by the Service:

(1) Typical test materials: 36 male and 36 female hand-reared mallards approximately 6 to 8 months old (Mallards must have plumage and body conformation that resembles wild mallards); 72 elevated outdoor pens equipped with feeders and waterers; Laboratory equipped to perform fluoroscopy, required blood and tissue assays, and necropsies; Whole kernel corn; and Lead, steel, and candidate shot or coated shot.

(2) Typical test procedures. (i) Conduct this test at a location where the mean monthly low temperature during December through March is between 20 and 40 degrees Fahrenheit (−6.6 and 4.4 degrees centigrade, respectively). Assign individual mallards to elevated outdoor pens during the first week of December and acclimate to an ad libitum diet of whole kernel corn for 2 weeks. Randomly assign birds to 5 groups (lead group of 4 males and 4 females, 4 other groups of 8 males and 8 females/group). Dose the lead group (positive control) with one size No. 4 pellet of lead shot. Dose one group (8 males and 8 females) with eight size No. 4 pellets of steel shot (negative control) and dose the 3 other groups (8 males and 8 females/group) with one, four and eight size No. 4 pellets of candidate shot or coated shot.

(ii) Weigh and fluoroscope birds weekly. Weigh all recovered shot to measure erosion. Determine blood parameters given in the 30-day acute toxicity test. Provide body weight and blood parameter measurements on samples drawn at 24 hours after dosage and at the end of days 30 and 60. At the end of 60 days, sacrifice all survivors. Remove the liver and other appropriate organs from sacrificed birds and birds dying prior to sacrifice on day 60 for histopathological analysis. Analyze organs for lead and other metals potentially contained in the candidate shot or shot coating. Necropsy all birds that died prior to sacrifice to determine pathological conditions associated with death.

(3) Typical test analyses. Analyze mortality among the specified groups with appropriate chi-square statistical procedures. Any effects on the previously mentioned physiological parameters caused by the shot or shot coating must be significantly less than those caused by lead shot and must not be significantly greater than those caused by steel shot. Analyze physiological data and tissue contaminant data by analysis of variance or appropriate statistical procedures to include the factors of shot type, dose and sex. Compare sacrificed birds and birds that died prior to sacrifice whenever sample sizes are adequate for a meaningful comparison.

(B) Chronic dosage study—Tier 3 (Moderately long-term study that includes reproductive assessment). Conduct chronic exposure reproduction trial with the general guidelines described as follows unless otherwise provided by the Service:

(1) Typical test materials: 44 male and 44 female hand-reared first year mallards (Mallards must have plumage and body conformation that resemble wild mallards); Pens suitable for quarantine and acclimation and for reasonably holding 5-10 ducks each; 44 elevated, pens equipped with feeders, waterers and nest boxes; Laboratory equipped to perform fluoroscopy, required blood and tissue assays, and necropsies; Whole kernel corn, and commercial duck maintenance and breeder mash; and Lead, steel and candidate shot or coated shot.

(2) Typical test procedures. (i) Randomly assign mallards to 3 groups (Lead group = 4 males and 4 females; steel group = 20 males and 20 females; candidate shot/coated shot group = 20 males and 20 females) in December and hold in same-sex groups until mid-January (dates apply to outdoor test facility only and will reflect where in the U.S. tests are conducted). Tests conducted in the southern U.S. will need to be completed in low temperature units. After a 3-week acclimation period with ducks receiving commercial maintenance mash, provide birds with an ad libitum diet of corn for 60 days and then pair birds (one pair/pen) and provide commercial breeder mash. Dosing of the 3 groups with one pellet of No. 4 lead shot (positive control); eight pellets of No. 4 steel shot (negative control); and eight pellets of No. 4 candidate shot or coated shot will occur after the acclimation period (day 0) and redosed after 30, 60, and 90 days. Few, if any, of the lead-dosed birds (positive control) should survive and reproduce.

(ii) Fluoroscope birds 1 week after dosage to check for shot retention. Weigh males and females the day of initial dosing (day 0), at each subsequent dosing, and at death. Measure blood parameters identified in the 30-Day Acute Toxicity Test in this test using samples drawn at time of weighing. Note the date of first egg and the mean number of days per egg laid. Conclude laying after 21 normal, uncracked eggs are laid or after 150 days. Sacrifice adults after completion of laying period. Remove the liver and other appropriate organs from sacrificed birds and from other birds that died prior to sacrifice for histopathological analysis. Analyze organs and the 11th egg for compounds contained in the shot or shot coating. Necropsy all birds to determine any pathological conditions. Check nests daily to collect eggs. Discard any eggs laid before pairing. Artificially incubate eggs and calculate the percent shell thickness, percent eggs cracked, percent fertility (as determined by candling), and percent hatch of fertile eggs for each female. Provide ducklings with starter mash after hatching. Sacrifice all ducklings at 14 days of age. Measure survival to day 14 and weight of the ducklings at hatching and sacrifice. Measure blood parameters identified in the 30-Day Acute Toxicity Test using samples drawn at sacrificing.

(3) Typical test analyses. (i) Any mortality, reproductive inhibition or effects on the physiological parameters in paragraph (b)(4) by the shot or shot coating must not be significantly greater than those caused by steel shot. Percentage data is subject to an arcsine, square root transformation prior to statistical analyses. Physiological and reproductive data is analyzed by one-tailed t-tests (α=0.05), or other appropriate statistical procedures by the applicant.

(ii) After conclusion of Tier 3 testing, the applicant must report the results to the Director. If after review of the Tier 3 data (completion 60 days after receipt of material) the Service determines that all of the information gathered and submitted in accordance with Tiers 1, 2, and 3, as applicable, does not establish that the shot or shot coating does not impose a significant danger to migratory birds, other wildlife, and their habitats, the applicant will have the option of repeating the tests that the Director deems are inconclusive. If the applicant chooses not to repeat the tests, approval of the candidate shot or shot coating is denied. A Notice of Review will inform the public that Tier 3 results are inconclusive, the applicant's decision not to repeat Tier 3 testing, and the Service's subsequent denial of the shot or shot coating.

(iii) If review of either the initial or repeated Tier 3 test data results in a preliminary determination that the shot or shot coating does not impose a significant danger to migratory birds, other wildlife and their habitats, the Director will publish in the Federal Register a proposed rule stating the Service's intention to approve this shot or shot coating and providing the public with the opportunity to comment. The rulemaking will include a description of the chemical composition of the shot or shot coating and a synopsis of findings under the standards required by Tier 3. If at the end of the comment period, the Service concludes that the shot or shot coating does not impose a significant danger to migratory birds, other wildlife, or their habitats, the shot or shot coating will be approved as nontoxic with publication of a final rule in the Federal Register.

(5) Residual lead levels. The Service's maximum environmentally acceptable level of lead in shot is trace amounts or <1 percent. Any shot manufactured with lead levels equal to or exceeding 1 percent are considered toxic and, therefore, illegal.

(6) Field detection device. Before approval of any shot for use in migratory game bird hunting, a noninvasive field testing device must be available for enforcement officers to determine the shot material in a given shell in the field.

The rules of this subpart N apply to the issuance of the annual regulations establishing seasons, bag limits, and other requirements for the seasonal hunting of migratory birds. The rules of this subpart N do not apply to the issuance of regulations under part 21 of this title or under subparts A through J and L through M of this part 20.

As used in this subpart N:

(a) Flyway Council means the Atlantic, Mississippi, Central, or Pacific Flyway Council;

(b) Regulations Committee means the Migratory Bird Regulations Committee of the Fish and Wildlife Service; and

(c) Significant, as used in reference to a communication or other form of information or data, means related to the merits of the regulation and received, utilized, or transmitted by an official of the Department who is or may reasonably be expected to be involved in the decisional process on the regulation.

(a) Notice of meetings. Notice of each meeting of the Regulations Committee to be attended by any person outside the Department will be published in the Federal Register at least two weeks before the meeting. The notice will state the time, place, and general subject(s) of the meeting, as well as the extent of public involvement.

(b) Public observation and written comment. Each meeting of the Regulations Committee for which notice is published pursuant to paragraph (a) of this section will be open to the public for observation and the submission of written comments.

(c) Public participation. Except for the mid-summer meetings held in Washington, DC, in conjuction with the public hearing on waterfowl and other late season frameworks, the public may participate in any meeting of the Regulations Committee for which notice is published pursuant to paragraph (a) of this section through the submission of oral statements that comply with the rules stated in the notice.

(d) Minutes of meetings. Minutes will be made of each meeting of the Regulations Committee for which notice is published pursuant to paragraph (a) of this section.

(a) Notice of meetings. Notice of each meeting of a Flyway Council to be attended by any official of the Department will be published in the Federal Register at least two weeks before the meeting or as soon as practicable after the Department learns of the meeting. The notice will state the time, place, and general subject(s) of the meeting.

(b) [Reserved]

(a) Establishment. A public file will be established for each rulemaking to which this subpart N is applicable.

(b) Contents. Except for information exempt from disclosure under 5 U.S.C. 552, a public file established pursuant to paragraph (a) of this section will contain:

(1) The minutes of Regulations Committee meetings made pursuant to paragraph (d) of § 20.153;

(2) Any written comments and other significant written communications which occur after the notice of proposed rulemaking;

(3) Summaries, identifying the source, of any significant oral communications which occure after the notice of proposed rulemaking; and

(4) Copies of or references to any other significant data or information.

The regulations contained in this part supplement the general permit regulations of part 13 of this subchapter with respect to permits for the taking, possession, transporation, sale, purchase, barter, importation, exportation, and banding or marking of migratory birds. This part also provides certain exceptions to permit requirements for public, scientific, or educational institutions, and establishes depredation orders which provide limited exceptions to the Migratory Bird Treaty Act (16 U.S.C. 703-712).

(a) Migratory birds, their parts, nests, or eggs, lawfully acquired prior to the effective date of Federal protection under the Migratory Bird Treaty Act (16 U.S.C. 703-712) may be possessed or transported without a permit, but may not be imported, exported, purchased, sold, bartered, or offered for purchase, sale or barter, and all shipments of such birds must be marked as provided by part 14 of this subchapter: Provide, no exemption from any statute or regulation shall accrue to any offspring of such migratory birds.

(b) This part, except for § 21.12(a), (c), and (d) (general permit exceptions); § 21.22 (banding or marking); § 21.29 (falconry); and § 21.31 (rehabilitation), does not apply to the bald eagle (Haliaeetus leucocephalus) or the golden eagle (Aquila chrysaetos), for which regulations are provided in part 22 of this subchapter.

(c) The provisions of this part are in addition to, and are not in lieu of other regulations of this subchapter B which may require a permit or prescribe additional restrictions or conditions for the importation, exportation, and interstate transportation of wildlife (see also part 13).

In addition to definitions contained in part 10 of this chapter, and unless the context requires otherwise, as used in this part:

Armed Forces means the Army, Navy, Air Force, Marine Corps, Coast Guard, and the National Guard of any State.

Bred in captivity or captive-bred refers to raptors, including eggs, hatched in captivity from parents that mated or otherwise transferred gametes in captivity.

Captivity means that a live raptor is held in a controlled environment that is intensively manipulated by man for the purpose of producing raptors of selected species, and that has boundaries designed to prevent raptors, eggs or gametes of the selected species from entering or leaving the controlled environment. General characteristics of captivity may include, but are not limited to, artificial housing, waste removal, health care, protection from predators, and artificially supplied food.

Conservation measures, as used in § 21.15, means project design or mitigation activities that are reasonable from a scientific, technological, and economic standpoint, and are necessary to avoid, minimize, or mitigate the take of migratory birds or other adverse impacts. Conservation measures should be implemented in a reasonable period of time.

Falconry is caring for and training raptors for pursuit of wild game, and hunting wild game with raptors. Falconry includes the taking of raptors from the wild to use in the sport; and caring for, training, and transporting raptors held for falconry.

Hacking is the temporary release of a raptor held for falconry to the wild so that it must survive on its own.

Hybrid means offspring of birds listed as two or more distinct species in § 10.13 of subchapter B of this chapter, or offspring of birds recognized by ornithological authorities as two or more distinct species listed in § 10.13 of subchapter B of this chapter.

Imprint, for the purposes of falconry, means a bird that is hand-raised in isolation from the sight of other raptors from 2 weeks of age until it has fledged. An imprinted bird is considered to be so for its entire lifetime.

Livestock depredation area means a specific geographic location in which depredation by golden eagles has been recognized. The boundaries and duration of a livestock depredation area are declared by U.S.D.A. Wildlife Services or by a State governor.

Military readiness activity, as defined in Pub. L. 107-314, § 315(f), 116 Stat. 2458 (Dec. 2, 2002) [Pub. L. § 319 (c)(1)], includes all training and operations of the Armed Forces that relate to combat, and the adequate and realistic testing of military equipment, vehicles, weapons, and sensors for proper operation and suitability for combat use. It does not include (a) routine operation of installation operating support functions, such as: administrative offices; military exchanges; commissaries; water treatment facilities; storage facilities; schools; housing; motor pools; laundries; morale, welfare, and recreation activities; shops; and mess halls, (b) operation of industrial activities, or (c) construction or demolition of facilities listed above.

Population, as used in § 21.15, means a group of distinct, coexisting, conspecific individuals, whose breeding site fidelity, migration routes, and wintering areas are temporally and spatially stable, sufficiently distinct geographically (at some time of the year), and adequately described so that the population can be effectively monitored to discern changes in its status.

Raptor means a migratory bird of the Order Falconiformes or the Order Strigiformes listed in § 10.13 of this chapter, including the bald eagle (Haliaeetus leucocephalus) and the golden eagle (Aquila chrysaetos).

Resident Canada geese means Canada geese that nest within the lower 48 States and the District of Columbia in the months of March, April, May, or June, or reside within the lower 48 States and the District of Columbia in the months of April, May, June, July, or August.

Secretary of Defense means the Secretary of Defense or any other national defense official who has been nominated by the President and confirmed by the Senate.

Service or we means the U.S. Fish and Wildlife Service, Department of the Interior.

Significant adverse effect on a population, as used in § 21.15, means an effect that could, within a reasonable period of time, diminish the capacity of a population of migratory bird species to sustain itself at a biologically viable level. A population is “biologically viable” when its ability to maintain its genetic diversity, to reproduce, and to function effectively in its native ecosystem is not significantly harmed. This effect may be characterized by increased risk to the population from actions that cause direct mortality or a reduction in fecundity. Assessment of impacts should take into account yearly variations and migratory movements of the impacted species. Due to the significant variability in potential military readiness activities and the species that may be impacted, determinations of significant measurable decline will be made on a case-by-case basis.

(a) The Office of Management and Budget approved the information collection requirements contained in this part 21 under 44 U.S.C. 3507 and assigned OMB Control Number 1018-0022. The Service may not conduct or sponsor, and you are not required to respond to, a collection of information unless it displays a currently valid OMB control number. We are collecting this information to provide information necessary to evaluate permit applications. We will use this information to review permit applications and make decisions, according to criteria established in the Migratory Bird Treaty Act, 16 U.S.C. 703-712 and its regulations, on the issuance, suspension, revocation, or denial of permits. You must respond to obtain or retain a permit.

(b) We estimate the public reporting burden for these reporting requirements to vary from 15 minutes to 4 hours per response, with an average of 0.803 hours per response, including time for reviewing instructions, gathering and maintaining data, and completing and reviewing the forms. Direct comments regarding the burden estimate or any other aspect of these reporting requirements to the Service Information Collection Control Officer, MS-222 ARLSQ, U.S. Fish and Wildlife Service, Washington, DC 20240, or the Office of Management and Budget, Paperwork Reduction Project (1018-0022), Washington, DC 20603.

No person may take, possess, import, export, transport, sell, purchase, barter, or offer for sale, purchase, or barter, any migratory bird, or the parts, nests, or eggs of such bird except as may be permitted under the terms of a valid permit issued pursuant to the provisions of this part and part 13 of this chapter, or as permitted by regulations in this part, or part 20 of this subchapter (the hunting regulations), or part 92 of subchapter G of this chapter (the Alaska subsistence harvest regulations). Birds taken or possessed under this part in “included areas” of Alaska as defined in § 92.5(a) are subject to this part and not to part 92 of subchapter G of this chapter.

The following persons or entities under the following conditions are exempt from the permit requirements:

(a) Employees of the Department of the Interior (DOI): DOI employees authorized to enforce the provisions of the Migratory Bird Treaty Act of July 3, 1918, as amended (40 Stat. 755; 16 U.S.C. 703-(711), may, without a permit, take or otherwise acquire, hold in custody, transport, and dispose of migratory birds or their parts, nests, or eggs as necessary in performing their official duties.

(b) Employees of certain public and private institutions:

(b)(1) State game departments, municipal game farms or parks, and public museums, public zoological parks, accredited institutional members of the American Association of Zoological Parks and Aquariums (AAZPA) and public scientific or educational institutions may acquire by gift or purchase, possess, transport, and by gift or sale dispose of lawfully acquired migratory birds or their progeny, parts, nests, or eggs without a permit: Provided, That such birds may be acquired only from persons authorized by this paragraph or by a permit issued pursuant to this part to possess and dispose of such birds, or from Federal or State game authorities by the gift of seized, condemned, r sick or injured birds. Any such birds, acquired without a permit, and any progeny therefrom may be disposed of only to persons authorized by this paragraph to acquire such birds without a permit. Any person exercising a privilege granted by this paragraph must keep accurate records of such operations showing the species and number of birds acquired, possessed, and disposed of; the names and addresses of the persons from whom such birds were acquired or to whom such birds were donated or sold; and the dates of such transactions. Records shall be maintained or reproducible in English on a calendar year basis and shall be retained for a period of five (5) years following the end of the calendar year covered by the records.

(b)(2) Employees of Federal, State, and local wildlife and land management agencies; employees of Federal, State, and local public health agencies; and laboratories under contract to such agencies may in the course of official business collect, possess, transport, and dispose of sick or dead migratory birds or their parts for analysis to confirm the presence of infectious disease. Nothing in this paragraph authorizes the take of uninjured or healthy birds without prior authorization from the Service. Additionally, nothing in this paragraph authorizes the taking, collection, or possession of migratory birds when circumstances indicate reasonable probability that death, injury, or disability was caused by factors other than infectious disease and/or natural toxins. These factors may include, but are not limited to, oil or chemical contamination, electrocution, shooting, or pesticides. If the cause of death of a bird is determined to be other than natural causes or disease, Service law enforcement officials must be contacted without delay.

(c) Licensed veterinarians: Licensed veterinarians are not required to obtain a Federal migratory bird permit to temporarily possess, stabilize, or euthanize sick and injured migratory birds. However, a veterinarian without a migratory bird rehabilitation permit must transfer any such bird to a federally permitted migratory bird rehabilitator within 24 hours after the bird's condition is stabilized, unless the bird is euthanized. If a veterinarian is unable to locate a permitted rehabilitator within that time, the veterinarian must contact his or her Regional Migratory Bird Permit Office for assistance in locating a permitted migratory bird rehabilitator and/or to obtain authorization to continue to hold the bird. In addition, veterinarians must:

(1) Notify the local U.S. Fish and Wildlife Service Ecological Services Office immediately upon receiving a threatened or endangered migratory bird species. Contact information for Ecological Services offices can be located on the Internet at http://offices.fws.gov;

(2) Euthanize migratory birds as required by § 21.31(e)(4)(iii) and § 21.31(e)(4)(iv), and dispose of dead migratory birds in accordance with § 21.31(e)(4)(vi); and

(3) Keep records for 5 years of all migratory birds that die while in their care, including those they euthanize. The records must include: the species of bird, the type of injury, the date of acquisition, the date of death, and whether the bird was euthanized.

(d) General public: Any person may remove a migratory bird from the interior of a building or structure under certain conditions.

(1) You may humanely remove a trapped migratory bird from the interior of a residence or a commercial or government building without a Federal permit if the migratory bird:

(i) Poses a health threat (for example, through damage to foodstuffs);

(ii) Is attacking humans, or poses a threat to human safety because of its activities (such as opening and closing automatic doors);

(iii) Poses a threat to commercial interests, such as through damage to products for sale; or

(iv) May injure itself because it is trapped.

(2) You must use a humane method to capture the bird or birds. You may not use adhesive traps to which birds may adhere (such as glue traps) or any other method of capture likely to harm the bird.

(3) Unless you have a permit that allows you to conduct abatement activities with a raptor, you may not release a raptor into a building to either frighten or capture another bird.

(4) You must immediately release a captured bird to the wild in habitat suitable for the species, unless it is exhausted, ill, injured, or orphaned.

(5) If a bird is exhausted or ill, or is injured or orphaned during the removal, the property owner is responsible for immediately transferring it to a federally permitted migratory bird rehabilitator.

(6) You may not lethally take a migratory bird for these purposes. If your actions to remove the trapped migratory bird are likely to result in its lethal take, you must possess a Federal Migratory Bird Permit. However, if a bird you are trying to remove dies, you must dispose of the carcass immediately unless you have reason to believe that a museum or scientific institution might be able to use it. In that case, you should contact your nearest Fish and Wildlife Service office or your State wildlife agency about donating the carcass.

(7) For birds of species on the Federal List of Threatened or Endangered Wildlife, provided at 50 CFR 17.11(h), you may need a Federal threatened or endangered species permit before removing the birds (see 50 CFR 17.21 and 50 CFR 17.31).

(8) You must have a permit from your Regional migratory bird permits office to remove a bald eagle or a golden eagle from a building (see 50 CFR Part 22).

(9) Your action must comply with State and local regulations and ordinances. You may need a State, Tribal, or Territorial permit before you can legally remove the bird or birds.

(10) If an active nest with eggs or nestlings is present, you must seek the assistance of a federally permitted migratory bird rehabilitator in removing the eggs or nestlings. The rehabilitator is then responsible for handling them properly.

(11) If you need advice on dealing with a trapped bird, you should contact your closest Fish and Wildlife Service office or your State wildlife agency.

Captive-reared and properly marked mallard ducks, alive or dead, or their eggs may be acquired, possessed, sold, traded, donated, transported, and disposed of by any person without a permit, subject to the following conditions, restrictions, and requirements:

(a) Nothing in this section shall be construed to permit the taking of live mallard ducks or their eggs from the wild.

(b) All mallard ducks possessed in captivity, without a permit, shall have been physically marked by at least one of the following methods prior to 6 weeks of age and all such ducks hatched, reared, and retained in captivity thereafter shall be so marked prior to reaching 6 weeks of age.

(1) Removal of the hind toe from the right foot.

(2) Pinioning of a wing: Provided, That this method shall be the removal of the metacarpal bones of one wing or a portion of the metacarpal bones which renders the bird permanently incapable of flight.

(3) Banding of one metatarsus with a seamless metal band.

(4) Tattooing of a readily discernible number or letter or combination thereof on the web of one foot.

(c) When so marked, such live birds may be disposed of to, or acquired from, any person and possessed and transferred in any number at any time or place: Provided, That all such birds shall be physically marked prior to sale or disposal regardless of whether or not they have attained 6 weeks of age.

(d) When so marked, such live birds may be killed, in any number, at any time or place, by any means except shooting. Such birds may be killed by shooting only in accordance with all applicable hunting regulations governing the taking of mallard ducks from the wild: Provided, That such birds may be killed by shooting, in any number, at any time, within the confines of any premises operated as a shooting preserve under State license, permit, or authorization; or they may be shot, in any number, at any time or place, by any person for bona fide dog training or field trial purposes: Provided further, That the provisions:

(1) The hunting regulations (part 20 of this subchapter), with the exception of § 20.108 (Nontoxic shot zones), and

(2) The Migratory Bird Hunting Stamp Act (duck stamp requirement) shall not apply to shooting preserve operations as provided for in this paragraph, or to bona fide dog training or field trial operations.

(e) At all times during possession, transportation, and storage until the raw carcasses of such birds are finally processed immediately prior to cooking, smoking, or canning, the marked foot or wing must remain attached to each carcass: Provided, That persons, who operate game farms or shooting preserves under a State license, permit, or authorization for such activities, may remove the marked foot or wing when either the number of his State license, permit, or authorization has first been legibly stamped in ink on the back of each carcass and on the container in which each carcass is maintained, or each carcass is identified by a State band on leg or wing pursuant to requirements of his State license, permit, or authorization. When properly marked, such carcasses may be disposed of to, or acquired from, any person and possessed and transported in any number at any time or place.

Any person may, without a permit, lawfully acquire captive-reared and properly marked migratory waterfowl of all species other than mallard ducks, alive or dead, or their eggs, and possess and transport such birds or eggs and any progeny or eggs therefrom solely for his own use subject to the following conditions and restrictions:

(a) Such birds, alive or dead, or their eggs may be lawfully acquired only from holders of valid waterfowl sale and disposal permits, unless lawfully acquired outside of the United States, except that properly marked carcasses of such birds may also be lawfully acquired as provided under paragraph (c) of this section.

(b) All progeny of such birds or eggs hatched, reared, and retained in captivity must be physically marked as defined in § 21.13(b).

(c) No such birds or eggs or any progeny or eggs thereof may be disposed of by any means, alive or dead, to any other person unless a waterfowl sale and disposal permit has first been secured authorizing such disposal: Provided, That bona fide clubs, hotels, restaurants, boarding houses, and dealers in meat and game may serve or sell to their customers the carcass of any such birds which they have acquired from the holder of a valid waterfowl sale and disposal permit.

(d) Lawfully possessed and properly marked birds may be killed, in any number, at any time or place, by any means except shooting. Such birds may be killed by shooting only in accordance with all applicable hunting regulations governing the taking of like species from the wild. (See part 20 of this subchapter.)

(e) At all times during possession, transportation, and storage until the raw carcasses of such birds are finally processed immediately prior to cooking, smoking, or canning, the marked foot or wing must remain attached to each carcass, unless such carcasses were marked as provided in § 21.25(c)(4) and the foot or wing removed prior to acquisition.

(f) When any such birds, alive or dead, or their eggs are acquired from a waterfowl sale and disposal permittee, the permittee shall furnish a copy of Form 3-186, Notice of Waterfowl Sale or Transfer, indicating all information required by the form and the method or methods by which individual birds are marked as required by § 21.25(c)(2). The buyer shall retain the Form 3-186 on file for the duration of his possession of such birds or eggs or progeny or eggs thereof.

(a) Take authorization and monitoring. (1) Except to the extent authorization is withdrawn or suspended pursuant to paragraph (b) of this section, the Armed Forces may take migratory birds incidental to military readiness activities provided that, for those ongoing or proposed activities that the Armed Forces determine may result in a significant adverse effect on a population of a migratory bird species, the Armed Forces must confer and cooperate with the Service to develop and implement appropriate conservation measures to minimize or mitigate such significant adverse effects.

(2) When conservation measures implemented under paragraph (a)(1) of this section require monitoring, the Armed Forces must retain records of any monitoring data for five years from the date the Armed Forces commence their action. During Integrated Natural Resource Management Plan reviews, the Armed Forces will also report to the Service migratory bird conservation measures implemented and the effectiveness of the conservation measures in avoiding, minimizing, or mitigating take of migratory birds.

(b) Suspension or Withdrawal of take authorization. (1) If the Secretary determines, after seeking the views of the Secretary of Defense and consulting with the Secretary of State, that incidental take of migratory birds during a specific military readiness activity likely would not be compatible with one or more of the migratory bird treaties, the Secretary will suspend authorization of the take associated with that activity.

(2) The Secretary may propose to withdraw, and may withdraw in accordance with the procedures provided in paragraph (b)(4) of this section the authorization for any take incidental to a specific military readiness activity if the Secretary determines that a proposed military readiness activity is likely to result in a significant adverse effect on the population of a migratory bird species and one or more of the following circumstances exists:

(i) The Armed Forces have not implemented conservation measures that:

(A) Are directly related to protecting the migratory bird species affected by the proposed military readiness activity;

(B) Would significantly reduce take of the migratory bird species affected by the military readiness activity;

(C) Are economically feasible; and

(D) Do not limit the effectiveness of the military readiness activity;

(ii) The Armed Forces fail to conduct mutually agreed upon monitoring to determine the effects of a military readiness activity on migratory bird species and/or the efficacy of the conservation measures implemented by the Armed Forces; or

(iii) The Armed Forces have not provided reasonably available information that the Secretary has determined is necessary to evaluate whether withdrawal of take authorization for the specific military readiness activity is appropriate.

(3) When the Secretary proposes to withdraw authorization with respect to a specific military readiness activity, the Secretary will first provide written notice to the Secretary of Defense. Any such notice will include the basis for the Secretary's determination that withdrawal is warranted in accordance with the criteria contained in paragraph (b)(2) of this section, and will identify any conservation measures or other measures that would, if implemented by the Armed Forces, permit the Secretary to cancel the proposed withdrawal of authorization.

(4) Within 15 days of receipt of the notice specified in paragraph (b)(3) of this section, the Secretary of Defense may notify the Secretary in writing of the Armed Forces' objections, if any, to the proposed withdrawal, specifying the reasons therefore. The Secretary will give due consideration to any objections raised by the Armed Forces. If the Secretary continues to believe that withdrawal is appropriate, he or she will provide written notice to the Secretary of Defense of the rationale for withdrawal and response to any objections to the withdrawal. If objections to the withdrawal remain, the withdrawal will not become effective until the Secretary of Defense has had the opportunity to meet with the Secretary within 30 days of the original notice from the Secretary proposing withdrawal. A final determination regarding whether authorization will be withdrawn will occur within 45 days of the original notice.

(5) Any authorized take incidental to a military readiness activity subject to a proposed withdrawal of authorization will continue to be authorized by this regulation until the Secretary makes a final determination on the withdrawal.

(6) The Secretary may, at his or her discretion, cancel a suspension or withdrawal of authorization at any time. A suspension may be cancelled in the event new information is provided that the proposed activity would be compatible with the migratory bird treaties. A proposed withdrawal may be cancelled if the Armed Forces modify the proposed activity to alleviate significant adverse effects on the population of a migratory bird species or the circumstances in paragraphs (b)(2)(i) through (iii) of this section no longer exist. Cancellation of suspension or withdrawal of authorization becomes effective upon delivery of written notice from the Secretary to the Department of Defense.

(7) The responsibilities of the Secretary under paragraph (b) of this section may be fulfilled by his/her delegatee who must be an official nominated by the President and confirmed by the Senate.

(a) Permit requirement. Except as provided in paragraphs (b), (c), and (d) of this section, you must have a permit to import or export migratory birds, their parts, nests, or eggs. You must meet the applicable permit requirements of the following parts of this subchapter B, even if the activity is exempt from a migratory bird import or export permit:

(1) 13 (General Permit Procedures);

(2) 14 (Importation, Exportation, and Transportation of Wildlife);

(3) 15 (Wild Bird Conservation Act);

(4) 17 (Taking, Possession, Transportation, Sale, Purchase, Barter, Exportation, and Importation of Wildlife and Plants);

(5) 20 (Migratory Bird Hunting);

(6) 21 (Migratory Bird Permits);

(7) 22 (Eagle Permits); and

(8) 23 (Convention on International Trade in Endangered Species of Wild Fauna and Flora (CITES)).

(b) Exception to the import permit requirements. If you comply with the requirements of parts 14, 20, and 23 of this subchapter B, you do not need a migratory bird permit to import or possess migratory birds in the families Anatidae, Columbidae, Gruidae, Rallidae, and Scolopacidae for personal use that were lawfully hunted by you in a foreign country. The birds may be carcasses, skins, or mounts. You must provide evidence that you lawfully took the bird or birds in, and exported them from, the country of origin. This evidence must include a hunting license and any export documentation required by the country of origin. You must keep these documents with the imported bird or birds permanently.

(c) General exceptions to the export permit requirements. You do not need a migratory bird export permit to:

(1) Export live, captive-bred migratory game birds (see § 20.11 of this subpart) to Canada or Mexico if they are marked by one of the following methods:

(i) Removal of the hind toe from the right foot;

(ii) Pinioning of a wing by removal of all or some of the metacarpal bones of one wing, which renders the bird permanently incapable of flight;

(iii) Banding of one metatarsus with a seamless metal band; or

(iv) A readily discernible tattoo of numbers and/or letters on the web of one foot.

(2) Export live, lawfully-acquired, captive-bred raptors provided you hold a valid raptor propagation permit issued under § 21.30 and you obtain a CITES permit or certificate issued under part 23 to do so. You must have full documentation of the lawful origin of each raptor, and each must be identifiable with a seamless band issued by the Service, including any raptor with an implanted microchip for identification.

(d) Falconry birds covered under a CITES “pet passport.” You do not need a migratory bird import or export permit to temporarily export and subsequently import a raptor or raptors you lawfully possess for falconry to and from another country for use in falconry when the following conditions are met:

(1) You must meet applicable requirements in part 14 (Importation, Exportation, and Transportation of Wildlife) of this subchapter B.

(2) You may need one or more additional permits to take a bird from the United States or to return home with it (see 50 CFR part 15 (Wild Bird Conservation Act), part 17 (Endangered and Threatened Wildlife and Plants), and part 23 (Convention on International Trade in Endangered Species of Wild Fauna and Flora)).

(3) Each raptor must be covered by a CITES certificate of ownership issued under part 23 of this chapter. You must have full documentation of the lawful origin of each raptor (a copy of a propagation report with band number or a 3-186A report), and each must be identifiable with a seamless band or a permanent, nonreusable, numbered Fish and Wildlife Service leg band issued by the Service, including any raptor with an implanted microchip for identification. We may exempt a raptor from banding because of health concerns, but you must provide proof of the exemption from your falconry permitting authority.

(4) You must bring any raptor that you export out of the country for falconry under a CITES “pet passport” back to the United States when you return.

(5) If the raptor dies or is lost, you are not required to bring it back, but you must report the loss immediately upon your return to the United States in the manner required by the falconry regulations of your State, and according to any conditions on your CITES certificate.

(e) Inspection of imported or exported migratory birds. All migratory birds imported into, or exported from, the United States, and any associated documentation, may be inspected by the Service. You must comply with the import and export regulations in Part 14 of this chapter.

(f) Applying for a migratory bird import or export permit. You must apply to the appropriate Regional Director—Attention Migratory Bird Permit Office. You can find the address for your Regional Director in § 2.2 of subchapter A of this chapter. Your application package must include a completed application (form 3-200-6, or 3-200-7 if the import or export is associated with an application for a scientific collecting permit), and a check or money order made payable to the U.S. Fish and Wildlife Service in the amount of the application fee for permits issued under this section, as listed in § 13.11 of this chapter.

(g) Criteria we will consider before issuing a permit. After we receive a completed import or export application, the Regional Director will decide whether to issue you a permit based on the general criteria of § 13.21 of this chapter, and whether you meet the following requirements:

(1) You are at least 18 years of age;

(2) The bird was lawfully acquired; and

(3) The purpose of the import or export is consistent with the conservation of the species; and

(4) For an import permit, whether you are authorized to lawfully possess the migratory bird after it is imported.

(h) Are there standard conditions for the permit? Yes, standard conditions for your permit are set forth in part 13 of this subchapter B. You must also comply with the regulations in part 14 (Importation, Exportation, and Transportation of Wildlife). We may place additional requirements or restrictions on your permit as appropriate.

(i) Term of a migratory bird import and export permit. Your migratory bird import or export permit will be valid for not more than 5 years. It will expire on the date designated on its face unless it is amended or revoked.

(a) Permit requirement. A banding or marking permit is required before any person may capture migratory birds for banding or marking purposes or use official bands issued by the Service for banding or marking any migratory bird.

(b) Application procedures. Applications for banding or marking permits shall be submitted by letter of application addressed to the Bird Banding Laboratory, Office of Migratory Bird Management, U.S. Fish and Wildlife Service, Laurel, Maryland 20708. Each such application shall contain the general information and certification set forth by § 13.12(a) of this subchapter plus the following additional information:

(1) Species and numbers proposed to be banded or marked;

(2) Purpose of banding or marking;

(3) State or States in which authorization is requested; and

(4) Name and address of the public, scientific, or educational institution to which any specimens will be donated that are salvaged pursuant to paragraphs (c) (3) and (4) of this section.

(c) Additional permit conditions. In addition to the general conditions set forth in part 13 of this subchapter B, banding or marking permits shall be subject to the following conditions:

(1) The banding of migratory birds shall only be by official numbered leg bands issued by the Service. The use of any other band, clip, dye, or other method of marking is prohibited unless specifically authorized in the permit.

(2) All traps or nets used to capture migratory birds for banding or marking purposes shall have attached thereto a tag or label clearly showing the name and address of the permittee and his permit number, or the area in which such traps or nets are located must be posted with notice of banding operations posters (Form 3-1155, available upon request from the Bird Banding Laboratory, Office of Migratory Bird Management, U.S. Fish and Wildlife Service, Laurel, Md. 20708) which shall bear the name and address of the permittee and the number of his permit.

(3) The holder of a banding or marking permit may salvage, for the purpose of donating to a public scientific or educational institution, birds killed or found dead as a result of the permittee's normal banding operations, and casualties from other causes. All dead birds salvaged under authority of a migratory bird banding or marking permit must be donated and transferred to a public scientific or educational institution at least every 6 months or within 60 days of the time such permit expires or is revoked, unless the permittee has been issued a special permit authorizing possession for a longer period of time.

(4) Permittees must keep accurate records of their operations and file reports as set forth in the North American Bird Banding Manual, or supplements thereto, in accordance with instructions contained therein.

(d) Term of permit. A banding or marking permit issued or renewed under this part expires on the date designated on the face of the permit unless amended or revoked, but the term of the permit shall not exceed three (3) years from the date of issuance or renewal.

(a) Permit requirement. A scientific collecting permit is required before any person may take, transport, or possess migratory birds, their parts, nests, or eggs for scientific research or educational purposes.

(b) Application procedures. Submit applications for scientific permits to the appropriate Regional Director (Attention: Migratory bird permit office). You can find addresses for the Regional Directors in 50 CFR 2.2. Each application must contain the general information and certification required in § 13.12(a) of this subchapter, and the following additional information:

(1) Species and numbers of migratory birds or their parts, nests, or eggs to be taken or acquired when it is possible to determine same in advance;

(2) Location or locations where such scientific collecting is proposed;

(3) Statement of the purpose and justification for granting such a permit, including an outline of any research project involved;

(4) Name and address of the public, scientific, or educational institution to which all specimens ultimately will be donated; and

(5) If a State permit is required by State law, a statement as to whether or not the applicant possesses such State permit, giving its number and expiration date.

(c) Additional permit conditions. In addition to the general conditions set forth in part 13 of this subchapter B, scientific collecting permits shall be subject to the following conditions:

(1) All specimens taken and possessed under authority of a scientific collecting permit must be donated and transferred to the public scientific, or educational institution designated in the permit application within 60 days following the date such permit expires or is revoked, unless the permittee has been issued a special purpose permit (See § 21.27) authorizing possession for a longer period of time.

(2) Unless otherwise provided on the permit, all migratory game birds taken pursuant to a scientific collecting permit during the open hunting season for such birds must be in conformance with part 20 of this subchapter;

(3) Unless specifically stated on the permit, a scientific collecting permit does not authorize the taking of live migratory birds from the wild.

(4) In addition to any reporting requirement set forth in the permit, a report of the scientific collecting activities conducted under authority of such permit shall be submitted to the issuing officer on or before January 10 of each calendar year following the year of issue unless a different date is stated in the permit.

(d) Term of permit. A scientific collecting permit issued or renewed under this part expires on the date designated on the face of the permit unless amended or revoked, but the term of the permit shall not exceed three (3) years from the date of issuance or renewal.

(a) Permit requirement. A taxidermist permit is required before any person may perform taxidermy services on migratory birds or their parts, nests, or eggs for any person other than himself.

(b) Application procedures. Submit application for taxidermist permits to the appropriate Regional Director (Attention: Migratory bird permit office). You can find addresses for the Regional Directors in 50 CFR 2.2. Each application must contain the general information and certification required in § 13.12(a) of this subchapter, and the following additional information:

(1) The address of premises where taxidermist services will be provided;

(2) A statement of the applicant's qualifications and experience as a taxidermist; and

(3) If a State permit is required by State law, a statement as to whether or not the applicant possesses such State permit, giving its number and expiration date.

(c) Permit authorizations. A permit authorizes a taxidermist to:

(1) Receive, transport, hold in custody or possession, mount or otherwise prepare, migratory birds, and their parts, nests, or eggs, and return them to another.

(2) Sell properly marked, captive reared migratory waterfowl which he has lawfully acquired and mounted. Such mounted birds may be placed on consignment for sale and may be possessed by such consignee for the purpose of sale.

(d) Additional permit conditions. In addition to the general conditions set forth in part 13 of this subchapter B, taxidermist permits shall be subject to the following conditions:

(1) Permittees must keep accurate records of operations, on a calendar year basis, showing the names and addresses of persons from and to whom migratory birds or their parts, nests, or eggs were received or delivered, the number and species of such, and the dates of receipt and delivery. In addition to the other records required by this paragraph, the permittee must maintain in his files, the original of the completed Form 3-186, Notice of Waterfowl Sale or Transfer, confirming his acquisition of captive reared, properly marked migratory waterfowl from the holder of a current waterfowl sale and disposal permit.

(2) Notwithstanding the provisions of paragraph (c) of this section, the receipt, possession, and storage by a taxidermist of any migratory game birds taken by another by hunting is not authorized unless they are tagged as required by § 20.36 of this subchapter. The required tags may be removed during the taxidermy operations but must be retained by the taxidermist with the other records required to be kept and must be reattached to the mounted specimen after mounting. The tag must then remain attached until the mounted specimen is delivered to the owner.

(e) Term of permit. A taxidermist permit issued or renewed under this part expires on the date designated on the face of the permit unless amended or revoked, but the term of the permit will not exceed five (5) years from the date of issuance or renewal.

(a) Permit requirement. A waterfowl sale and disposal permit is required before any person may lawfully sell, trade, donate, or otherwise dispose of, to another person, any species of captive-reared and properly marked migratory waterfowl or their eggs, except that such a permit is not required for such sales or disposals of captive-reared and properly marked mallard ducks or their eggs.

(b) Application procedures. Submit application for waterfowl sale and disposal permits to the appropriate Regional Director (Attention: Migratory bird permit office). You can find addresses for the Regional Directors in 50 CFR 2.2. Each application must contain the general information and certification required in § 13.12(a) of this subchapter, and the following additional information:

(1) A description of the area where waterfowl are to be kept;

(2) Species and numbers of waterfowl now in possession and a statement showing from whom these were obtained;

(3) A statement indicating the method by which individual birds are marked as required by the provisions of this part 21; and

(4) If a State permit is required by State law, a statement as to whether or not the applicant possesses such State permit, giving its number and expiration date.

(c) Additional permit conditions. In addition to the general conditions set forth in part 13 of this subchapter B, waterfowl sale and disposal permits shall be subject to the following conditions:

(1) Permittees may not take migratory waterfowl or their eggs from the wild, and may not acquire such birds or their eggs from any person not authorized by a valid permit issued pursuant to this part to dispose of such birds or their eggs.

(2) All live migratory waterfowl possessed in captivity under authority of a valid waterfowl sale and disposal permit shall have been, prior to 6 weeks of age, physically marked as defined in § 21.13(b). All offspring of such birds hatched, reared, and retained in captivity shall be so marked prior to attaining 6 weeks of age. The preceding does not apply to captive adult geese, swans, and brant which were marked previous to March 1, 1967, by a “V” notch in the web of one foot, nor to such birds held in captivity at public zoological parks, and public scientific or educational institutions.

(3) Such properly marked birds may be killed, in any number, at any time or place, by any means except shooting. Such birds may be killed by shooting only in accordance with all the applicable hunting regulations governing the taking of like species from the wild.

(4) At all times during possession, transportation, and storage until the raw carcasses of such birds are finally processed immediately prior to cooking, smoking, or canning, the marked foot or wing must remain attached to each carcass: Provided, That permittees who are also authorized to sell game under a State license, permit or authorization may remove the marked foot or wing from the raw carcasses if the number of his State license, permit, or authorization has first been legibly stamped in ink on the back of each carcass and on the wrapping or container in which each carcass is maintained, or each carcass is identified by a State band on leg or wing pursuant to requirements of his State license, permit, or authorization.

(5) Such properly marked birds, alive or dead, or their eggs may be disposed of in any number, at any time or place, to any person: Provided, That all such birds shall be physically marked prior to sale or disposal regardless of whether or not they have attained 6 weeks of age: And provided further, That on each date that any such birds or their eggs, are transferred to another person, the permittee must complete a Form 3-186, Notice of Waterfowl Sale or Transfer, indicating all information required by the form and the method or methods by which individual birds are marked as required by § 21.25(c)(2). (Service will provide supplies of form.) The permittee will furnish the original of completed Form 3-186 to the person acquiring the birds or eggs; retain one copy in his files as a record of his operations: attach one copy to the shipping container for the birds or eggs, or include the copy in shipping documents which accompany the shipment; and, on or before the last day of each month, mail two copies of each form completed during that month to the office of the Fish and Wildlife Service which issued his permit.

(6) Permittees shall submit an annual report within 10 days following the 31st day of December of each calendar year to the office of the Fish and Wildlife Service which issued the permit. The information provided shall give the total number of waterfowl by species in possession on that date and the method or methods by which individual birds are marked as required by the provisions of this part 21.

(d) Term of permit. A waterfowl sale and disposal permit issued or renewed under this part expires on the date designated on the face of the permit unless amended or revoked, but the term of the permit will not exceed five (5) years from the date of issuance or renewal.

(a) What is the special Canada goose permit and what is its purpose? The special Canada goose permit is a permit issued by us to a State wildlife agency authorizing certain resident Canada goose management and control activities that are normally prohibited. We will only issue such a permit when it will contribute to human health and safety, protect personal property, or allow resolution or prevention of injury to people or property. The management and control activities conducted under the permit are intended to relieve or prevent injurious situations only. No person should construe the permit as opening, reopening, or extending any hunting season contrary to any regulations established under Section 3 of the Migratory Bird Treaty Act.

(b) Who may receive a permit? Only State wildlife agencies (State) are eligible to receive a permit to undertake the various goose management and control activities. Additionally, only employees or designated agents of a permitted State wildlife agency may undertake activities for injurious resident Canada geese in accordance with the conditions specified in the permit, conditions contained in 50 CFR part 13, and conditions specified in paragraph (d) of this section.

(c) How does a State apply for a permit? Any State wildlife agency wishing to obtain a permit must submit an application to the appropriate Regional Director (see § 13.11(b) of this subchapter) containing the general information and certification required by § 13.12(a) of this subchapter plus the following information:

(1) A detailed statement showing that the goose management and control activities will either provide for human health and safety, protect personal property, or allow resolution of other injury to people or property;

(2) An estimate of the size of the resident Canada goose breeding population in the State;

(3) The requested annual take of resident Canada geese, including eggs and nests;

(4) A statement indicating that the State will inform and brief all employees and designated agents of the requirements of these regulations and permit conditions.

(d) What are the conditions of the permit? The special Canada goose permits are subject to the general conditions in 50 CFR part 13, the conditions elsewhere in this section, and, unless otherwise specifically authorized on the permit, the conditions outlined below:

(1) What are the limitations on management and control activities? (i) Take of resident Canada geese as a management tool under this section may not exceed the number authorized by the permit. States should utilize non-lethal goose management tools to the extent they deem appropriate in an effort to minimize lethal take.

(ii) Methods of take for the control of injurious resident Canada geese are at the State's discretion. Methods include, but are not limited to, firearms, alpha-chloralose, traps, egg and nest manipulation and other damage control techniques consistent with accepted wildlife damage-management programs.

(2) When may a State conduct management and control activities? States and their employees and agents may conduct management and control activities, including the take of resident Canada geese, under this section between March 11 and August 31. In California, Oregon and Washington, in areas where the threatened Aleutian Canada goose (B. c. leucoperia) has been present during the previous 10 years, lethal control activities are restricted to May 1 through August 31, inclusive.

(3) How must the States dispose or utilize geese taken under this permit? States and their employees and agents may possess, transport, and otherwise dispose of Canada geese taken under this section. States must utilize such birds by donation to public museums or public institutions for scientific or educational purposes, by processing them for human consumption and distributing them free of charge to charitable organizations, or by burying or incinerating them. States, their employees, and designated agents may not sell, offer for sale, barter, or ship for the purpose of sale or barter any Canada geese taken under this section, nor their plumage or eggs.

(4) How does the permit relate to existing State law? No person conducting management and control activities under this section should construe the permit to authorize the killing of injurious resident Canada geese contrary to any State law or regulation, nor on any Federal land without specific authorization by the responsible management agency. No person may exercise the privileges granted under this section unless they possess any permits required for such activities by any State or Federal land manager.

(5) When conducting management and control activities, are there any special inspection requirements? Any State employee or designated agent authorized to carry out management and control activities must have a copy of the permit and designation in their possession when carrying out any activities. The State must also require the property owner or occupant on whose premises the State is conducting activities to allow, at all reasonable times, including during actual operations, free and unrestricted access to any Service special agent or refuge officer, State wildlife or deputy wildlife agent, warden, protector, or other wildlife law enforcement officer (wildlife officer) on the premises where they are, or were, conducting activities. Furthermore, any State employee or designated agent conducting such activities must promptly furnish whatever information is required concerning such activities to any such wildlife officer.

(6) What are the reporting requirements of the permit? Any State employee or designated agent exercising the privileges granted by this section must keep records of all activities carried out under the authority of this permit, including the number of Canada geese killed and their disposition. The State must submit an annual report detailing activities, including the time, numbers and location of birds, eggs, and nests taken and non-lethal techniques utilized, before December 31 of each year. The State should submit the annual report to the appropriate Assistant Regional Director—Refuges and Wildlife (see § 10.22 of this subchapter).

(7) What are the limitations of the special permit? The following limitations apply:

(i) Nothing in this section applies to any Federal land within a State's boundaries without written permission of the Federal Agency with jurisdiction.

(ii) States may not undertake any actions under any permit issued under this section if the activities adversely affect other migratory birds or species designated as endangered or threatened under the authority of the Endangered Species Act.

(iii) We will only issue permits to State wildlife agencies in the conterminous United States.

(iv) States may designate agents who must operate under the conditions of the permit.

(v) How long is the special permit valid? A special Canada goose permit issued or renewed under this section expires on the date designated on the face of the permit unless it is amended or revoked or such time that we determine that the State's population of resident Canada geese no longer poses a threat to human health or safety, personal property, or injury to other interests. In all cases, the term of the permit may not exceed five (5) years from the date of issuance or renewal.

(vi) Can we revoke the special permit? We reserve the right to suspend or revoke any permit, as specified in §§ 13.27 and 13.28 of this subchapter.

(e) What are the OMB information collection requirements of the permit program? OMB has approved the information collection requirements of the permit and assigned clearance number 1018-0099. Federal agencies may not conduct or sponsor, and a person is not required to respond to, a collection of information unless it displays a currently valid OMB control number. We will use the information collection requirements to administer this program and in the issuance and monitoring of these special permits. We will require the information from State wildlife agencies responsible for migratory bird management in order to obtain a special Canada goose permit, and to determine if the applicant meets all the permit issuance criteria, and to protect migratory birds. We estimate the public reporting burden for this collection of information to average 8 hours per response for 45 respondents (States), including the time for reviewing instructions, gathering and maintaining data needed, and completing and reviewing the collection of information. Thus, we estimate the total annual reporting and record-keeping for this collection to be 360 hours. States may send comments regarding this burden estimate or any other aspect of this collection of information, including suggestions for reducing the burden, to the Service Information Collection Clearance Officer, Fish and Wildlife Service, ms 224-ARLSQ, 1849 C Street N.W., Washington, DC 20240, or the Office of Management and Budget, Paperwork Reduction Project 1018-0099, Washington, DC 20503.

Permits may be issued for special purpose activities related to migratory birds, their parts, nests, or eggs, which are otherwise outside the scope of the standard form permits of this part. A special purpose permit for migratory bird related activities not otherwise provided for in this part may be issued to an applicant who submits a written application containing the general information and certification required by part 13 and makes a sufficient showing of benefit to the migratory bird resource, important research reasons, reasons of human concern for individual birds, or other compelling justification.

(a) Permit requirement. A special purpose permit is required before any person may lawfully take, salvage, otherwise acquire, transport, or possess migratory birds, their parts, nests, or eggs for any purpose not covered by the standard form permits of this part. In addition, a special purpose permit is required before any person may sell, purchase, or barter captive-bred, migratory game birds, other than waterfowl, that are marked in compliance with § 21.13(b) of this part.

(b) Application procedures. Submit application for special purpose permits to the appropriate Regional Director (Attention: Migratory bird permit office). You can find addresses for the Regional Directors in 50 CFR 2.2. Each application must contain the general information and certification required in § 13.12(a) of this subchapter, and the following additional information:

(1) A detailed statement describing the project or activity which requires issuance of a permit, purpose of such project or activity, and a delineation of the area in which it will be conducted. (Copies of supporting documents, research proposals, and any necessary State permits should accompany the application);

(2) Numbers and species of migratory birds involved where same can reasonably be determined in advance; and

(3) Statement of disposition which will be made of migratory birds involved in the permit activity.

(c) Additional permit conditions. Inaddition to the general conditions set forth in part 13 of this subchapter B, special purpose permits shall be subject to the following conditions:

(1) Permittees shall maintain adequate records describing the conduct of the permitted activity, the numbers and species of migratory birds acquired and disposed of under the permit, and inventorying and identifying all migratory birds held on December 31 of each calendar year. Records shall be maintained at the address listed on the permit; shall be in, or reproducible in English; and shall be available for inspection by Service personnel during regular business hours. A permittee may be required by the conditions of the permit to file with the issuing office an annual report of operation. Annual reports, if required, shall be filed no later than January 31 of the calendar year followng the year for which the report is required. Reports, if required, shall describe permitted activities, numbers and species of migratory birds acquired and disposed of, and shall inventory and describe all migratory birds possessed under the special purpose permit on December 31 of the reporting year.

(2) Permittees shall make such other reports as may be requested by the issuing officer.

(3) All live, captive-bred, migratory game birds possessed under authority of a valid special purpose permit shall be physically marked as defined in § 21.13(b) of this part.

(4) No captive-bred migratory game bird may be sold or bartered unless marked in accordance with § 21.13(b) of this part.

(5) No permittee may take, purchase, receive or otherwise acquire, sell, barter, transfer, or otherwise dispose of any captive-bred migratory game bird unless such permittee submits a Service form 3-186A (Migratory Bird Acquisition/Disposition Report), completed in accordance with the instructions on the form, to the issuing office within five (5) days of such transaction.

(6) No permittee, who is authorized to sell or barter migratory game birds pursuant to a permit issued under this section, may sell or barter such birds to any person unless that person is authorized to purchase and possess such migratory game birds under a permit issued pursuant to this part and part 13, or as permitted by regulations in this part.

(d) Term of permit. A special purpose permit issued or renewed under this part expires on the date designated on the face of the permit unless amended or revoked, but the term of the permit shall not exceed three (3) years from the date of issuance or renewal.

(a) Background—(1) The legal basis for regulating falconry. The Migratory Bird Treaty Act prohibits any person from taking, possessing, purchasing, bartering, selling, or offering to purchase, barter, or sell, among other things, raptors (birds of prey) listed in § 10.13 of this subchapter unless the activities are allowed by Federal permit issued under this part and part 13 of this chapter, or as permitted by regulations in this part.

(i) This section covers all Falconiformes (vultures, kites, eagles, hawks, caracaras, and falcons) and all Strigiformes (owls) listed in § 10.13 of this subchapter (“native” raptors), and applies to any person who possesses one or more wild-caught, captive-bred, or hybrid raptors protected under the MBTA to use in falconry.

(ii) The Bald and Golden Eagle Protection Act (16 U.S.C. 668-668d, 54 Stat. 250) provides for the taking of golden eagles from the wild to use in falconry. It specifies that the only golden eagles that may be used for falconry are those that would be taken because of depredations on livestock or wildlife (16 U.S.C. 668a).

(2) “Possession” and short-term handling of a falconry raptor. We do not consider short-term handling, such as letting any other person hold or practice flying a raptor you possess under your permit, to be possession for the purposes of this section if you are present and the person is under your supervision.

(3) Regulatory year for governing falconry. For determining possession and take of raptors for falconry, a year is any 12-month period for take defined by the State, tribe, or territory.

(b) Federal approval of State, tribal, and territorial falconry programs—(1) General. (i) A State (including the District of Columbia), tribe, or territory under the jurisdiction of the United States that wishes to allow falconry must establish laws and regulations (hereafter referred to as laws) that meet the standards established in this section. To allow the practice of falconry on tribal lands by tribal members or residents, a tribe may either certify that it has adopted Service-approved State laws if those laws are fully enforceable on tribal lands, or issue its own laws and request our approval.

(ii) The U.S. Fish and Wildlife Service (Service) Director must determine that a State, tribal, or territorial falconry permitting program meets the requirements and standards of this section. The Director must certify no later than January 1, 2014, that a State, tribe, and territory willing to allow falconry meets the federal standards. At that time, all Federal falconry permits and the Federal permitting program will end. Falconry will not be permitted in a State or territory or by a tribe after this date until that State, tribe, or territory develops a permitting program the Director certifies to be in compliance with these regulations. Also see paragraph (b)(12) of this section.

(iii) State, tribal, or territorial laws may be more restrictive than these Federal standards but may not be less restrictive. For instance, a State, tribe, or territory may choose not to allow possession of some species of raptors otherwise allowed in this section. State, tribal, and territorial laws must be consistent with the terms contained in any convention between the United States and any foreign country for the protection of raptors and the Migratory Bird Treaty Act.

(2) State, tribal, or territorial submission for approval. A State, tribe, or territory that wishes to allow falconry must submit to the Director:

(i) The data required by paragraph (b)(1) of this section;

(ii) A copy of the State's, tribe's, or territory's Apprentice Falconer examination, which must at a minimum cover laws and regulations, raptor biology and raptor identification, trapping methods, facilities requirements, care of raptors held for falconry, and diseases and health problems of raptors, and training methods; and

(iii) Copies of the laws and regulations governing falconry of the State, tribe, or territory, and certification that the laws and regulations meet the requirements of this section.

(3) Electronic reporting. The State, tribe, or territory must work with us to ensure that the electronic 3-186A reporting system (http://permits.fws.gov/186A) for reporting take, transfers, and loss of falconry birds is fully operational for residents of that jurisdiction.

(4) Federal approval and terms. If we concur that the regulations and the examination meet the requirements of this section, we will publish a rule in the Federal Register adding the State, tribe, or territory to the list of those approved for allowing the practice of falconry. We will terminate Federal falconry permitting in any State certified under these regulations on January 1st of the calendar year following publication of the rule.

(i) An approved State, tribe, or territory must notify the Service Director of any substantive revisions of their laws governing falconry and certify that they meet the requirements of this section.

(ii) We must approve the falconry examination any time it is revised.

(5) Review of a State, tribal, or territorial falconry program. We may review the administration of an approved State's, tribe's, or territory's falconry program if complaints from the public or law enforcement investigations that indicate the need for a review, or revisions to the State's, tribe's, or territory's laws or falconry examination. The review may involve, but is not limited to:

(i) Inspecting falconers' facilities to ensure that facilities standards in this section are met;

(ii) Processing time of applications;

(iii) Reviewing approved applications for completeness;

(iv) Determining that permits issued are appropriate for the experience of the applicants;

(v) Determining the adequacy of the State's, tribe's, or territory's recordkeeping for the needs of State, tribal, or territorial and Federal law enforcement;

(vi) Reviewing laws to determine if they meet the requirements of this section; and

(vii) Reviewing a revised falconry examination to determine if it meets the requirements of this section.

(6) Suspension of a State's, tribe's, or territory's certification. (i) We may propose to suspend, and may suspend the approval of a State, tribal, or territorial falconry program in accordance with the procedures in paragraph (b)(6)(ii) of this section if we determine that the State, tribe, or territory has deficiencies in one or more items in paragraph (b)(5) of this section.

(ii) When we propose to suspend approval of a State, tribal, or territorial falconry program, we will first provide written notice to the State, tribe, or territory. Any such notice will include the basis for our determination that suspension is warranted. We will identify the actions that would, if implemented by the State, tribe, or territory, allow us to cancel the proposed suspension of approval.

(iii) The State, tribe, or territory will have 2 years from the date of our notification to correct the deficiencies. The State, tribe, or territory must respond in writing within that time to the proposed suspension, specifying the reasons why the certification should not be suspended. We will give due consideration to any objections and evidence raised by the State, tribe, or territory.

(iv) If we continue to believe that suspension is warranted, we will provide written notice of suspension, including the rationale for suspension, and respond to any objections to the suspension.

(A) The suspension of approval of the State's, tribe's, or territory's falconry program will be effective 180 days from the date of the Service's final notification of suspension.

(B) The State, tribe, or territory must then inform all falconry applicants and permittees of the impending cancellation of permitting.

(v) We will honor all falconry permits in that jurisdiction for 2 years from the date of our final notification of suspension of certification. At the end of the 2 years, you must transfer all raptors (including captive-bred raptors) held under permits from the State, tribal, or territorial falconry program to other falconry permittees in other States or territories, or to Federal raptor propagation or education permittees, institutions exempt from the Federal permit requirements, or permanently released to the wild (if it is allowed by the State, tribe, or territory and by this section), or euthanized. However, you may not permanently release hybrid raptors to the wild.

(7) Appeal of a decision to suspend State, tribal, or territorial certification. The State, tribe, or territory may appeal a decision to suspend certification to the Director within 180 days of the date of the Director's decision. The Director will then respond to the State, tribe, or territory within 180 days of receipt of the appeal. The State, tribe, or territory certification will remain effective until the Director makes a final decision on the appeal.

(8) Recertification of compliance with this section if a State's, tribe's, or territory's falconry permitting authority has been suspended. If a State, tribe, or territory has had its falconry permitting authority suspended but has corrected its problems, it must submit a request for approval of its permitting activities. We will then either recertify the program, or report in writing why we do not believe that earlier permitting problems have been rectified.

(9) Authority to suspend or revoke a falconry permit issued by a State, tribe, or territory. Suspension or revocation of a falconry permit is the responsibility of the State, tribe, or territory. However, compliance with all provisions of these regulations remains under the purview of the Fish and Wildlife Service.

(10) Standards in effect in your place of residence.

(11) Compliance date for the regulations in this section. A State with existing Federally-approved falconry regulations wishing to continue to allow falconry after January 1, 2014 must certify to the Director of the Fish and Wildlife Service that it is in compliance with this section. This section will be applicable for a State upon publication in the Federal Register of our notice of approval of the State's certification. Any State certified to allow falconry under the Federal falconry regulations contained in §§ 21.28 and § 21.29 in effect prior to November 7, 2008 may continue to allow falconry under those provisions until:

(i) We publish a notice of our approval of the State's certification in the Federal Register; or

(ii) January 1, 2014.

(12) What will happen if a State with falconry regulations certified under earlier regulations does not come into compliance with this section by January 1, 2014? If a State does not come into compliance with this section by the compliance date, we will require that all raptors held for falconry in that State or (including captive-bred raptors) be transferred to falconers in other jurisdictions, transferred to captive propagation programs, permanently released to the wild (if that is allowed by the State and by this section), or euthanized. However, you may not permanently release hybrid raptors to the wild.

(c) Practicing falconry—(1) Practicing falconry where you reside.

(2) Permits and inspections to practice falconry. You must have a valid falconry permit from the State, tribe, or territory in which you reside (or the tribe on whose land you wish to practice falconry if you reside on tribal land or are a tribal member), to take, possess, or transport raptors for falconry, or to hunt with them. Depending on the game you hunt as a falconer and where you hunt, you also may need a Federal Migratory Bird Hunting and Conservation Stamp (a “Duck Stamp”), and State, tribal, or territorial hunting permits or stamps to hunt with a raptor.

(i) Some State, tribal, territorial, or local governments may require you to have additional permits or licenses to practice falconry or to take a raptor from the wild.

(ii) You must comply with all regulations governing migratory bird permitting.

(iii) If you reside for more than 120 consecutive days in a State or territory or on tribal lands other than the location of your primary residence, your falconry facilities in the second location must meet the standards in paragraph (d) of this section and of the corresponding State, tribal, or territorial lands, and your facilities must be listed on your falconry permit.

(3) Classes of permit to practice falconry. We recognize Apprentice, General, and Master Falconer levels. Each State, tribe, or territory may have any number of permit levels, but the standards for them must be at least as restrictive as these Federal standards. Your State, tribe, or territory may have more restrictive laws or regulations governing falconry.

(i) Requirements and possession options for an Apprentice Falconer.

(A) You must be at least 12 years of age.

(B) If you are under 18 years of age, a parent or legal guardian must sign your application and is legally responsible for your activities.

(C) You must have a letter from a Master Falconer or a General Falconer with a valid State, tribal, or territorial falconry permit who is at least 18 years old and has at least 2 years experience at the General Falconer level, stating that he or she will assist you, as necessary, in:

(1) Learning about the husbandry and training of raptors held for falconry;

(2) Learning and about relevant wildlife laws and regulations, and

(3) Deciding what species of raptor is appropriate for you to possess while an Apprentice.

(D) Regardless of the number of State, tribal, or territorial falconry permits you have, you may possess no more than one raptor for use in falconry.

(E) You may possess a wild-caught or captive-bred raptor of any Falconiform or Strigiform species except the following: American swallow-tailed kite (Elanoides forficatus), bald eagle (Haliaeetus leucocephalus), white-tailed eagle (Haliaeetus albicilla), Steller's sea-eagle (Haliaeetus pelagicus), northern harrier (Circus cyaneus), Swainson's hawk (Buteo swainsoni), ferruginous hawk (Buteo regalis), golden eagle (Aquila chrysaetos), peregrine falcon (Falco peregrinus), prairie falcon (Falco mexicanus), flammulated owl (Otus flammeolus), burrowing owl (Athene cunicularia), and short-eared owl (Asio flammeus).

(F) You do not need to capture a wild raptor yourself; it can be transferred to you by another falconry permittee.

(G) You may not possess a raptor taken from the wild as a nestling.

(H) You may not possess a bird that is imprinted on humans.

(I) Your raptor facilities must pass inspection by your State, tribe, or territory before you may be granted a permit.

(ii) Requirements and possession options for a General Falconer.

(A) You must be at least 16 years of age.

(B) If you are 16 or 17 years of age, a parent or legal guardian must sign your application and must be legally responsible for your activities.

(C) You must submit a document from a General Falconer or Master Falconer (preferably your sponsor) to your State, tribal, or territorial wildlife agency stating that you have practiced falconry with wild raptor(s) at the Apprentice Falconer level or equivalent for at least 2 years, including maintaining, training, flying, and hunting the raptor(s) for least 4 months in each year. That practice may include capture and release of falconry raptors.

(D) You may not substitute any falconry school program or education to shorten the period of 2 years at the Apprentice level.

(E) You may take and possess any species of Falconiform or Strigiform except a golden eagle, a bald eagle, a white-tailed eagle, or a Steller's sea-eagle. You may use captive-bred individuals and hybrids of the species you are allowed to possess.

(F) Regardless of the number of State, tribal, or territorial falconry permits you have, you may possess no more than 3 raptors.

(iii) Requirements and possession options for a Master Falconer.

(A) You must have practiced falconry with your own raptor(s) at the General Falconer level for at least 5 years.

(B) You may take and possess any species of Falconiform or Strigiform except a bald eagle. However, you may take and possess a golden eagle, a white-tailed eagle, or a Steller's sea eagle only if you meet the qualifications set forth under paragraph (c)(3)(iv).

(C) You may possess any captive-bred individuals or hybrids of species your State, tribe, or territory allows you to possess.

(D) Regardless of the number of State, tribal, or territorial falconry permits you have, you may possess no more than 5 wild raptors, including golden eagles.

(E) You may possess any number of captive-bred raptors. However, you must train them in the pursuit of wild game and use them in hunting.

(iv) If you meet the requirements in paragraph (c) of this section for falconry you may possess up to 3 eagles of the following species: golden eagle, white-tailed eagle, or Steller's sea eagle.

(A) Your State, tribal, or territorial agency that regulates falconry must document the following before approving your request to possess an eagle to use in falconry:

(1) Your experience in handling large raptors, including information about the species you have handled and the type and duration of the activity in which you gained the experience.

(2) At least two letters of reference from people with experience handling and/or flying large raptors such as eagles, ferruginous hawks (Buteo regalis), goshawks (Accipiter gentilis), or great horned owls (Bubo virginianus). Each must contain a concise history of the author's experience with large raptors, which can include, but is not limited to, handling of raptors held by zoos, rehabilitating large raptors, or scientific studies involving large raptors. Each letter must also assess your ability to care for eagles and fly them in falconry.

(B) A golden eagle, white-tailed eagle, or Steller's sea-eagle you hold will count as one of the raptors you are allowed to possess.

(4) Taking a test to qualify for a falconry permit. Before you are issued an Apprentice permit you must correctly answer at least 80 percent of the questions on an examination administered by the State, tribe, or territory under which you wish to obtain a falconry permit. The examination must cover care and handling of falconry raptors, Federal, State or territorial, and tribal (if applicable) laws and regulations relevant to falconry, and other appropriate subject matter. Contact your State, tribal, or territorial agency that regulates falconry for information about permits and taking the test.

(5) Reinstatement of a lapsed falconry permit if your State, tribe, or territory allows it. (i) If your permit has lapsed for fewer than 5 years, it may be reinstated at the level you held previously if you have proof of your certification at that level.

(ii) If your permit has lapsed for 5 years or longer, you must correctly answer at least 80 percent of the questions on an examination administered by the State, tribe, or territory in which you wish to obtain a falconry permit. If you pass the exam, your permit may be reinstated at the level you previously held. Your facilities must pass State, tribal, or territorial inspection before you may possess a falconry bird.

(6) Permit to practice falconry at an appropriate level if you have experience in falconry but are a new resident in the United States. You may qualify for the falconry permit appropriate for your experience. To demonstrate your knowledge of U.S. falconry laws and regulations, you must correctly answer at least 80 percent of the questions on the supervised examination for falconers administered by the State, tribe, or territory under which you wish to obtain a falconry permit. If you pass the test, the State, tribe, or territory will decide for which level of falconry permit you are qualified, consistent with the class requirements in paragraph (c)(3) of this section. To do so, the State, tribe, or territory should base its decision on your documentation of your experience. Your falconry facilities must meet the standards in paragraph (d)(1) of this section before you may keep a raptor to use in falconry.

(7) Banding or tagging raptors used in falconry. (i) If you take a goshawk, Harris's hawk (Parabuteo unicinctus), peregrine falcon, or gyrfalcon (Falco rusticolus) from the wild or acquire one from a rehabilitator, you must band the raptor with a permanent, nonreusable, numbered Fish and Wildlife Service leg band that your State, tribal, or territorial agency will supply. If you wish, you may purchase and implant an ISO (International Organization for Standardization)-compliant (134.2 kHz) microchip in the bird in lieu of a band. You must report the band number and/or microchip information when you report your acquisition of the bird. Contact your State, tribal, or territorial agency for information on obtaining and disposing of bands. Within 10 days from the day on which you take the raptor from the wild, you must report take of the bird by entering the required information (including band number and/or microchip information) in the electronic database at http://permits.fws.gov/186A or by submitting a paper form 3-186A to your State, tribal, or territorial agency that governs falconry. You may request an appropriate band from your State, tribal, or territorial agency in advance of any effort to capture a raptor. Your State, tribe, or territory may require that you band other species taken from the wild.

(ii) A raptor bred in captivity must be banded with a seamless metal band (see § 21.30) or have an implanted ISO-compliant (134.2 kHz) microchip. If you must remove a seamless band or if it is lost, within 10 days from the day you remove or note the loss of the band you must report it and request a replacement U.S. Fish and Wildlife Service nonreusable band from your State, tribe, or territory. You must submit the required information electronically immediately upon rebanding or microchipping the raptor at http://permits.fws.gov/186A, and by submitting a paper form 3-186A to your State, tribal, or territorial agency that governs falconry if your regulating agency requires a signed form. You must replace a band that is removed or lost, or you may implant an ISO-compliant (134.2 kHz) microchip in the bird and report the microchip information at http://permits.fws.gov/186A or by submitting a paper form 3-186A form submitted to your State, tribal, or territorial agency that governs falconry.

(iii) If the band must be removed or is lost from a raptor in your possession, you must report the loss of the band within 5 days, and you must then do at least one of the following:

(A) Request a U.S. Fish and Wildlife Service nonreusable band from your State, tribal, or territorial agency that regulates falconry. You must submit the required information immediately upon rebanding the raptor at http://permits.fws.gov/186A or by submitting a paper form 3-186A to your State, tribal, or territorial agency that governs falconry.

(B) Purchase and implant an ISO-compliant (134.2 kHz) microchip in the bird and report the microchip information at http://permits.fws.gov/186A or by submitting a paper form 3-186A form to your State, tribal, or territorial agency that governs falconry.

(iv) You must not alter, deface, or counterfeit a band. You may remove the rear tab on a band on a raptor you take from the wild, and you may smooth any imperfect surface if you do not affect the integrity of the band or the numbering on it.

(v) If you document health or injury problems for a raptor you possess that are caused by the band, the State, tribe, or territory may provide an exemption to the requirement for that raptor. In that case, you must keep a copy of the exemption paperwork with you when transporting or flying the raptor. If your bird is a wild goshawk, Harris's hawk, peregrine falcon, or gyrfalcon, you must replace the band with an ISO-compliant microchip that we will supply to your State, tribe, or territory. We will not provide a microchip for a wild goshawk, Harris's hawk, peregrine falcon, or gyrfalcon unless you have demonstrated that a band causes an injury or a health problem for the bird.

(vi) You may not band a raptor removed from the wild with a seamless numbered band.

(8) Carrying your permit(s) when conducting falconry activities. You must have your permit(s) or legible copies of them in your immediate possession if you are not at the location of your falconry facilities and you are trapping, transporting, working with, or flying your falconry raptor(s).

(9) Transporting a falconry raptor or raptors to other States or territories. If you have a valid falconry permit, you may possess and transport for falconry purposes a lawfully possessed raptor through other States or territories. However, any State, tribe, or territory may further regulate such transport.

(d) Facilities and care requirements—(1) Facilities you must have and maintain. You must keep all raptors you hold under your falconry permit in humane and healthful conditions.

(i) Whether they are indoors (a “mews”) or outdoors (a “weathering area”), your raptor facilities must protect raptors in them from the environment, predators, and domestic animals. You are responsible for the maintenance and security (protection from predators) of raptors you possess under your permit.

(ii) You must have raptor housing facilities approved by your State, tribe, or territory before you may obtain a bird to use in falconry. Your State, tribe, or territory may require that you have both indoor and outdoor facilities. A representative of your agency that regulates falconry, or its designee, must certify that your facilities and equipment meet the following standards:

(A) For housing wild raptors indoors or outdoors, the facility must protect raptors from predators and domestic animals.

(1) The facility must have a suitable perch for each raptor, at least one opening for sunlight, and must provide a healthy environment for raptors inside.

(2) You may house untethered raptors together if they are compatible with each other.

(3) Each raptor must have an area large enough to allow it to fly if it is untethered or, if tethered, to fully extend its wings or bate (attempt to fly while tethered) without damaging its feathers or contacting other raptors.

(4) Each raptor must have a pan of clean water available.

(B) An indoor facility must be large enough to allow easy access for the care and feeding of raptors kept there.

(1) If raptors you house in this indoor facility are not tethered, all walls that are not solid must be protected on the inside. Suitable materials may include vertical bars spaced narrower than the width of the body of the smallest raptor you house in the enclosure. However, heavy-duty netting or other such materials may be used to cover the walls or roof of the enclosure.

(2) Acceptable indoor facilities include shelf perch enclosures where raptors are tethered side by side. Other innovative housing systems are acceptable if they provide the enclosed raptors with protection and maintain healthy feathers.

(C) You may keep a falconry raptor or raptors inside your place of residence if you provide a suitable perch or perches. If you house your raptor(s) inside your home, you do not need to modify windows or other openings of the structure. Raptors kept in your home must be tethered when they are not being moved into or out of the location in which they are kept.

(D) An outdoor facility must be totally enclosed, and may be made of heavy-gauge wire, heavy-duty plastic mesh, slats, pipe, wood, or other suitable material.

(1) The facility must be covered and have at least a covered perch to protect a raptor held in it from predators and weather.

(2) The facility must be large enough to insure that the birds cannot strike the enclosure when flying from the perch.

(3) New types of housing facilities and/or husbandry practices may be used if they satisfy the requirements above and are approved by the State, tribal, or territorial authority regulating falconry.

(iii) You may keep falconry raptors outside in the open if they are under watch, such as by you or a family member at any location or, for example, by a designated individual in a weathering yard at a falconry meet.

(iv) You must inform your State, tribal, or territorial agency within 5 business days if you change the location of your facilities.

(2) Falconry facilities on property you do not own. (i) Your falconry facilities may be on property owned by another person where you reside, or at a different location. Regardless of location, the facilities must meet the standards in paragraph (d)(1) of this section and those of the State, tribe, or territory from which you have a falconry permit.

(ii) You must submit to your State, tribal, or territorial agency that regulates falconry a signed and dated statement showing that you or the property owner (if your facilities are not on property that you own) agrees that the falconry facilities, equipment, and raptors may be inspected without advance notice by State, tribal (if applicable), or territorial authorities at any reasonable time of day. Inspections must be in the presence of the permittee.

(3) Equipment you must have and maintain. You must have jesses or the materials and equipment to make them, leash and swivel, bath container, and appropriate scales or balances for weighing raptor(s) you possess.

(4) Facilities you must have for a raptor when you are transporting it, using it for hunting, or are away from your home with it. You must be sure that the bird has a suitable perch and is protected from extreme temperatures, wind, and excessive disturbance. A “giant hood” or similar container is acceptable for transporting or housing a raptor when you are away from your home.

(5) Temporarily housing a raptor outside of your permanent facilities when you are not transporting it or using it for hunting. You may house a raptor in temporary facilities for no more than 120 consecutive calendar days if the bird has a suitable perch and is protected from predators, domestic animals, extreme temperatures, wind, and excessive disturbance.

(6) Care of falconry raptors by another falconry permittee. Another falconry permittee may care for a raptor or raptors for you at your facilities or at that person's facilities for up to 120 consecutive calendar days. The other person must have a signed and dated statement from you authorizing the temporary possession, plus a copy of FWS form 3-186A that shows that you are the possessor of each of the raptors. The statement must include information about the time period for which he or she will keep the raptor(s), and about what he or she is allowed to do with it or them.

(i) Your raptor(s) will remain on your falconry permit, and will not be counted against the possession limit of the person caring for your raptors.

(ii) If the person caring for your raptor(s) holds the appropriate level falconry permit, he or she may fly your raptor(s) in whatever way you authorize, including hunting.

(iii) This care of your raptors may be extended indefinitely in extenuating circumstances, such as illness, military service, or for a family emergency. The State, tribe, or territory may consider such instances on a case-by-case basis.

(7) Care of falconry raptors by someone who does not have a falconry permit. Another person may care for falconry birds you possess at your facilities for up to 45 consecutive calendar days.

(i) The raptor(s) will remain on your falconry permit.

(ii) The raptors must remain in your facilities.

(iii) This care may be extended indefinitely in extenuating circumstances, such as illness, military service, or for a family emergency.

(iv) The person(s) caring for your raptors may not fly them for any reason.

(8) Residence part of the year in another jurisdiction. (i) The State, tribe, or territory in which you live part-time may require that you obtain its falconry permit. You must contact the State, tribal, or territorial agency that regulates falconry to determine whether you need a permit.

(ii) If you live for more than 120 consecutive days in a State or territory or on tribal lands other than where you maintain your primary residence, your falconry facilities in the second State must meet the standards in this section.

(9) Falconry facilities, raptors, equipment, and records inspections. Falconry bird(s), facilities, equipment, and records may be inspected only in the presence of the permittee, during business hours on any day of the week by State, tribal, or territorial officials.

(e) Taking, possessing, and transporting raptors for falconry—(1) Raptor species you may take from the wild to use for falconry. (i) You may not intentionally capture a raptor species that your classification as a falconer does not allow you to possess for falconry. If you capture a bird you are not allowed to possess, you must release it immediately.

(ii) On some tribal lands and in some States there may be State, tribal, or Federal restrictions on the take or use of these species, and you may need a tribal or State permit or permits to capture a bird.

(iii) State, tribal, or territorial regulations on take may be more restrictive than those in this section.

(iv) Take of any species must be in compliance with these regulations.

(v) If you are a Master Falconer and your State, tribe, or territory allows you to possess golden eagles, in any year you may take one or two golden eagles from the wild only in a livestock depredation area during the time the depredation area is in effect. A livestock depredation area is declared by U.S.D.A. Wildlife Services or upon the request of a State governor.

(2) How and when you may take raptors from the wild to use in falconry. You may take no more than two raptors from the wild each year to use in falconry.

(i) If you transfer a bird you take from the wild to another permittee in the same year in which you capture it, the bird will count as one of the raptors you are allowed to take from the wild that year; it will not count as a capture by the recipient, though it will always be considered a wild bird.

(ii) If you are a General or Master Falconer, you may remove nestlings from a nest or aerie in accordance with tribal (if applicable), State, territorial, and Federal restrictions.

(iii) You may not take raptors at any time or in any manner that violates any law of the State, tribe, or territory on whose land you are trapping.

(iv) If you are responsible for reporting take of a raptor from the wild, you can report by entering the required information in the electronic database at http://permits.fws.gov/186A or by submitting a paper form 3-186A to your State, tribal, or territorial agency that governs falconry. You must do this at your first opportunity to do so, but no later than 10 days after the capture of the bird.

(v) If you are present at the capture site, even if another person captures the bird for you, you are considered the person who removes the bird from the wild. You are responsible for filing a 3-186A form reporting take of the bird from the wild. This would occur, for example, if another person climbs a tree or rappells down a cliff and takes a nestling for you and gives it to you at the tree or cliff.

(vi) If you are not at the immediate location where the bird is taken from the wild, the person who removes the bird from the wild must be a General or Master Falconer, and must report take of the bird. If that person then transfers the bird to you, you must both file 3-186A forms reporting the transaction at your first opportunity to do so, but no later than 10 days after the transfer. The bird will count as one of the two raptors the person who took it from the wild is allowed to capture in any year. The bird will not count as a bird you took from the wild. The person who takes the bird from the wild must report the take even if he or she promptly transfers the bird to you.

(vii) If you have a long-term or permanent physical impairment that prevents you from attending the capture of a species you can use for falconry, a General or Master Falconer may capture a bird for you. You are then responsible for filing a 3-186A form reporting take of the bird from the wild, and the bird will count against the take of wild raptors that you are allowed in any year.

(viii) You must promptly release any bird you capture unintentionally.

(3) Other restrictions on taking raptors from the wild for falconry. (i) If you are an Apprentice Falconer, you may take any species from the wild except the following: American swallow-tailed kite, bald eagle, white-tailed eagle, Steller's sea-eagle, northern harrier, Swainson's hawk, ferruginous hawk, golden eagle, peregrine falcon, prairie falcon, flammulated owl, burrowing owl, and short-eared owl.

(ii) If you are a General or Master Falconer, you may take raptors less than 1 year of age from the wild during any period or periods specified by the State, tribe, or territory. However, you may take an American kestrel or great horned owl of any age from the wild during any period or periods specified by the State, tribe, or territory.

(iii) If you are a Master Falconer authorized to possess golden eagles for use in falconry, you may capture an immature or subadult golden eagle in a livestock depredation area during the time the depredation area is in effect.

(A) You may capture a nesting adult golden eagle, or take a nestling from its nest, in a livestock depredation area if a biologist representing the agency responsible for declaring the depredation area has determined that the adult eagle is preying on livestock.

(B) You must determine the locations of the livestock depredation areas declared by USDA Wildlife Services, or the State that has established a livestock depredation area. We will not notify you about them.

(C) Before you begin any trapping activities, you must inform our regional Law Enforcement office of your capture plans. You must notify the offices in person, in writing, or via facsimile or email at least 3 business days before you start trapping. You may send an email to with your trapping plans to lawenforcement@fws.gov, or

(D) You also must meet all requirements of the State or territory in which you plan to trap, or the tribe on whose lands you plan to trap.

(E) You must have permission from the landowner to capture an eagle; or if you wish to capture one on public land, the responsible agency must allow it.

(iv) You may recapture a falconry bird you have lost at any time. We do not consider recapture of a wild bird to be taking a bird from the wild.

(v) You may recapture a raptor wearing falconry equipment or a captive-bred bird at any time - even if you are not allowed to possess the species. The bird will not count against your possession limit, nor will its take from the wild count against your limit. You must report your recapture of the bird to your State, tribal, or territorial agency that regulates falconry no more than 5 working days after the recapture. You must return a recaptured falconry bird to the person who lost it, if that person may legally possess it. Disposition of a bird whose legal possession cannot be determined will be at the discretion of the State, tribe, or territory.

(vi) You may take any raptor that you are authorized to possess from the wild if the bird is banded with a Federal Bird Banding Laboratory aluminum bandexcept that you may not take a banded peregrine falcon from the wild.

(A) If a raptor (including a peregrine falcon) you capture is marked with a seamless metal band, a transmitter, or any other item identifying it as a falconry bird, you must report your capture of the bird to your State, tribal, or territorial agency that regulates falconry no more than 5 working days after the capture. You must return a recaptured falconry bird to the person who lost it. If that person cannot possess the bird or does not wish to possess it, you may keep it. Otherwise, disposition of a bird whose legal possession cannot be determined will be at the discretion of the State, tribe, or territory. While you keep a bird for return to the person who lost it, the bird will not count against your possession limit or your limit on take of raptors from the wild if you have reported possessing the bird to your State, tribal, or territorial falconry permit office.

(B) If you capture a peregrine falcon that has a research band (such as a colored band with alphanumeric codes) or a research marking attached to it, you must immediately release the bird, except that if the falcon has a transmitter attached to it, you are authorized to possess the bird up to 30 days if you wish to contact the researcher to determine if he or she wishes to replace the transmitter or its batteries. If the researcher wishes to do so, or to have the transmitter removed, the researcher or his or her designee can make the change or allow you to do so before you release the bird. If the researcher does not wish to keep the transmitter on the falcon, you may keep the bird if you captured it in circumstances in which capture of wild peregrines is allowed.

(C) If a raptor you capture has any other band, research marking, or transmitter attached to it, you must promptly report the band numbers and all other relevant information to the Federal Bird Banding Laboratory at 1-800-327-2263.

(1) You may contact the researcher and determine if he or she wishes to replace a transmitter attached to a bird you capture. If so, you are authorized to possess the bird up to 30 days until the researcher or his or her designee does so, or until you can replace it yourself. Disposition of the bird will be at the discretion of the researcher and your State, tribal, or territorial agency that regulates falconry.

(2) If you possess such a bird temporarily, it will not count against your possession limit for falconry raptors.

(vii) You must leave at least one young from any nest or aerie from which you take a nestling.

(viii) If you are an Apprentice Falconer, you may not take a nestling from the wild.

(ix) If you are a Master Falconer with a permit to do so, you may take, transport, or possess up to three eagles, including golden eagles, white-tailed eagles, or Steller's sea-eagles, subject to the requirements in paragraph (c)(3)(iv) of this section and § 22.24 of this part. A golden eagle, white-tailed eagle, or Steller's sea-eagle you possess counts as a bird to be included under your possession limit.

(x) If you are a General or Master Falconer, you may take no more than one bird of a threatened species from the wild each year if the regulations in part 17 of this subchapter allow it and if you obtain a Federal endangered species permit to do so before you take the bird. You also may need a State, tribal, or territorial endangered species permit to take a listed species.

(4) Take of a species or subspecies that was recently removed from the Federal List of Endangered and Threatened Wildlife to use in falconry. We must first publish a management plan for the species. If take is allowed in the management plan, you may do so in accordance with the provisions for take in the plan.

(5) Raptors injured due to falconer trapping efforts. You have two options for dealing with a bird injured by your trapping efforts. In either case, you are responsible for the costs of care and rehabilitation of the bird.

(i) You may put the bird on your falconry permit. You must report take of the bird by entering the required information in the electronic database at http://permits.fws.gov/186A or by submitting a paper form 3-186A to your State, tribal, or territorial agency that governs falconry at your first opportunity to do so, but no more than 10 days after capture of the bird. You must then have the bird treated by a veterinarian or a permitted wildlife rehabilitator. The bird will count against your possession limit.

(ii) You may give the bird directly to a veterinarian, or a permitted wildlife rehabilitator, or an appropriate wildlife agency employee. If you do so, it will not count against your allowed take or the number of raptors you may possess.

(6) Acquisition, transfer, release, loss, or rebanding of a raptor. (i) If you acquire a raptor; transfer, reband, or microchip a raptor; if a raptor you possess is stolen; if you lose a raptor to the wild and you do not recover it within 30 days; or if a bird you possess for falconry dies; you must report the change within 10 days by entering the required information in the electronic database at http://permits.fws.gov/186A or by submitting a paper form 3-186A to your State, tribal, or territorial agency that governs falconry.

(ii) If a raptor you possess is stolen, you must report the theft to your State, tribal, or territorial agency that regulates falconry and to your Fish and Wildlife Service Regional Law Enforcement office (see paragraph (e)(3)(iii)(C) of this section) within 10 days of the theft of the bird.

(iii) You must keep copies of all electronic database submissions documenting take, transfer, loss, rebanding or microchipping of each falconry raptor until 5 years after you have transferred or lost the bird, or it has died.

(7) Acquiring a bird for falconry from a permitted rehabilitator. You may acquire a raptor of any age of a species that you are permitted to possess directly from a rehabilitator. Transfer to you is at the discretion of the rehabilitator.

(i) If you acquire a bird from a rehabilitator, within 10 days of the transaction you must report it by entering the required information in the electronic database at http://permits.fws.gov/186A or by submitting a paper form 3-186A to your State, tribal, or territorial agency that governs falconry.

(ii) If you acquire a bird from a rehabilitator, it will count as one of the raptors you are allowed to take from the wild that year.

(8) Flying a hybrid raptor in falconry. When flown free, a hybrid raptor must have at least two attached radio transmitters to help you to locate the bird.

(9) Releasing a falconry bird to the wild. You must follow all applicable State or territorial and Federal laws and regulations before releasing a falconry bird to the wild.

(i) If the species you wish to release is not native to the State or territory, or is a hybrid of any kind, you may not release the bird to the wild. You may transfer it to another falconry permittee.

(ii) If the species you wish to release is native to the State or territory and is captive-bred, you may not release the bird to the wild unless you have permission from the State, tribe, or territory to release the bird. If you are permitted to do so, you must hack the bird (allow it to adjust) to the wild at an appropriate time of year and an appropriate location. You must remove its falconry band (if it has one) and report release of the bird by entering the required information in the electronic database at http://permits.fws.gov/186A or by submitting a paper form 3-186A to your State, tribal, or territorial agency that governs falconry.

(iii) If the species you wish to release is native to the State and was taken from the wild, you may release the bird only at an appropriate time of year and an appropriate location. You must remove its falconry band and report release of the bird by entering the required information in the electronic database at http://permits.fws.gov/186A or by submitting a paper form 3-186A to your State, tribal, or territorial agency that governs falconry.

(iv) You may not permanently release hybrid raptors to the wild.

(10) Restrictions on transfers of falconry raptors from other falconers. We do not restrict the number of wild-caught or captive-bred raptors transferred to you, but you may not exceed your possession limit.

(f) Additional information on the practice of falconry—(1) Raptors removed from the wild for falconry are always considered “wild” raptors. No matter how long such a bird is held in captivity or whether it is transferred to another permittee or permit type, it is always considered a “wild” bird. However, it is considered to be taken from the wild only by the person who originally captured it. We do not consider the raptor to be taken from the wild by any subsequent permittee to whom it is legally transferred.

(2) “Hacking” of falconry raptors. Hacking (temporary release to the wild) is an approved method for falconers to condition raptors for falconry. If you are a General Falconer or a Master Falconer, you may hack a falconry raptor or raptors.

(i) You may need permission from your State, tribal, or territorial wildlife agency to hack a bird you possess for falconry. Check with your State, tribal, or territorial agency that regulates falconry to determine if hacking is allowed.

(ii) Any bird you are hacking counts against your possession limit and must be a species you are authorized to possess.

(iii) Any hybrid you hack must have two attached functioning radio transmitters during hacking.

(iv) You may not hack a falconry bird near a nesting area of a Federally threatened or endangered bird species or in any other location where the raptor is likely to harm a Federally listed threatened or endangered animal species that might be disturbed or taken by your falconry bird. You should contact your State or territorial wildlife agency before hacking a falconry bird to ensure that this does not occur. You can contact the State Fish and Wildlife Service office in your State or territory for information on Federally-listed species.

(3) Use of other falconry training or conditioning techniques. You may use other acceptable falconry practices, such as, but not limited to, the use of creance (tethered) flying, lures, balloons, or kites in training or conditioning falconry raptors. You also may fly falconry birds at bird species not protected under the Migratory Bird Treaty Act or at pen-raised animals.

(4) Selling or trading raptors under a falconry permit. (i) If allowed by your State, tribe or territory, you may sell, purchase, or barter, or offer to sell, purchase, or barter captive-bred raptors marked with seamless bands to other permittees who are authorized to possess them.

(ii) You may not purchase, sell, trade, or barter wild raptors. You may only transfer them.

(5) Transfer of wild-caught raptors captured for falconry to another type of permit. Under some circumstances you may transfer a raptor to another permit type if the recipient of the bird (which could be you) possesses the necessary permits for the other activity.

(i) If your State, tribe, or territory allows you to do so, you may transfer a wild-caught falconry bird to a raptor propagation permit after the bird has been used in falconry for at least 2 years (1 year for a sharp-shinned hawk, a Cooper's hawk, a merlin, or an American kestrel). When you transfer the bird, you must provide a copy of the 3-186A form documenting acquisition of the bird by the propagator to the Federal migratory bird permit office that administers the propagation permit.

(ii) You may transfer a wild-caught bird to another permit type in less than 2 years (1 year for a sharp-shinned hawk, a Cooper's hawk, a merlin, or an American kestrel) if the bird has been injured and a veterinarian or permitted wildlife rehabilitator has determined that the bird can no longer be flown for falconry.

(A) When you transfer the bird, you must provide a copy of the 3-186A form documenting acquisition of the bird to the Federal migratory bird permit office that administers the other permit type.

(B) When you transfer the bird, you must provide a copy of the certification from the veterinarian or rehabilitator that the bird is not useable in falconry to the Federal migratory bird permits office that administers the other permit type.

(6) Transfer of captive-bred falconry raptors to another type of permit. You may transfer captive-bred falconry raptors if the holder of the other permit type is authorized to possess the bird(s). Within 10 days you must report the transfer by entering the required information in the electronic database at http://permits.fws.gov/186A or by submitting a standard paper form 3-186A to your State, tribal, or territorial agency that governs falconry.

(7) Use of raptors held under a falconry permit in captive propagation. You may use raptors you possess for falconry in captive propagation if you or the person overseeing the propagation has the necessary permit(s) (see § 21.30). You do not need to transfer a bird from your falconry permit if you use it for fewer than 8 months in a year in captive propagation, but you must do so if you permanently transfer the bird for propagation. The bird must then be banded as required in § 21.30.

(8) Use of falconry raptors in conservation education programs. If you are a General or Master Falconer, you may use a bird you possess in conservation education programs presented in public venues.

(i) You do not need a Federal education permit to conduct conservation education activities using a falconry raptor held under a State, tribal, or territorial falconry permit.

(ii) You may present conservation programs as an Apprentice Falconer if you are under the supervision of a General or Master Falconer when you do so.

(iii) You must use the bird primarily for falconry.

(iv) You may charge a fee for presentation of a conservation education program. The fee may not exceed the amount required to recoup your costs.

(v) In conservation education programs, you must provide information about the biology, ecological roles, and conservation needs of raptors and other migratory birds, although not all of these topics must be addressed in every presentation. You may not give presentations that do not address falconry and conservation education.

(vi) You are responsible for all liability associated with conservation education activities you undertake (see 50 CFR 13.50).

(9) Other educational uses of falconry raptors. You may allow photography, filming, or other such uses of falconry raptors to make movies or other sources of information on the practice of falconry or on the biology, ecological roles, and conservation needs of raptors and other migratory birds, though you may not be paid for doing so.

(i) You may not use falconry raptors to make movies, commercials, or in other commercial ventures that are not related to falconry.

(ii) You may not use falconry raptors for entertainment; advertisements; promotion or endorsement of any products, merchandise, goods, services, meetings, or fairs; or as a representation of any business, company, corporation, or other organization.

(10) Assisting in rehabilitation of raptors to prepare them for release. If your State, tribe, or territory allows you to do so, and if you are a General or Master Falconer, you may assist a permitted migratory bird rehabilitator to condition raptors in preparation for their release to the wild. You may keep a bird you are helping to rehabilitate in your facilities.

(i) The rehabilitator must provide you with a letter or form that identifies the bird and explains that you are assisting in its rehabilitation.

(ii) You do not need to meet the rehabilitator facility standards. You need only meet the facility standards in this section; your facilities are not subject to inspection for compliance with the standards in § 21.31.

(iii) You do not have to add any raptor you possess for this purpose to your falconry permit; it will remain under the permit of the rehabilitator.

(iv) You must return any such bird that cannot be permanently released to the wild to the rehabilitator for placement within the 180-day timeframe in which the rehabilitator is authorized to possess the bird, unless the issuing office authorizes you to retain the bird for longer than 180 days.

(v) Upon coordination with the rehabilitator, you must release all releaseable raptors to the wild or return them to the rehabilitator for release within the 180-day timeframe in which the rehabilitator is authorized to possess the birds, unless the issuing office authorizes you to retain and condition a bird for longer than 180 days, or unless the rehabilitator transfers the bird to you to hold under your falconry permit.

(11) Using a falconry bird in abatement activities. (i) If you are a Master Falconer, you may conduct abatement activities with a bird or birds you possess for falconry, if you have a Special Purpose Abatement permit. If you are a General Falconer, you may conduct abatement activities only as a subpermittee of the holder of the abatement permit.

(ii) You may receive payment for providing abatement services if you have a Special Purpose Abatement permit.

(12) Feathers that a falconry bird or birds molts. (i) For imping (replacing a damaged feather with a molted feather), you may possess flight feathers for each species of raptor you possess or previously held for as long as you have a valid falconry permit. You may receive feathers for imping from other permitted falconers, wildlife rehabilitators, or propagators in the United States, and you may give feathers to them. You may not buy, sell, or barter such feathers.

(ii) You may donate feathers from a falconry bird, except golden eagle feathers, to any person or institution with a valid permit to have them, or to anyone exempt from the permit requirement under § 21.12.

(iii) Except for primary or secondary flight feathers or retrices from a golden eagle, you are not required to gather feathers that are molted or otherwise lost by a falconry bird. You may leave the feathers where they fall, store them for imping, or destroy them. However, you must collect molted flight feathers and retrices from a golden eagle. If you choose not to keep them for imping, you must send them to the National Eagle Repository.

(iv) We request that you send all feathers (including body feathers) that you collect from any falconry golden eagle and that you do not need for imping, to the National Eagle Repository at the following address: U.S. Fish and Wildlife Service, National Eagle Repository, Rocky Mountain Arsenal, Building 128, Commerce City, Colorado 80022. The telephone number at the Repository is 303-287-2110.

(v) If your permit expires or is revoked, you must donate the feathers of any species of falconry raptor except a golden eagle to any person or any institution exempt from the permit requirement under § 21.12 or authorized by permit to acquire and possess the feathers. If you do not donate the feathers, you must burn, bury, or otherwise destroy them.

(13) Disposition of carcasses of falconry birds that die. (i) You must send the entire body of a golden eagle you held for falconry, including all feathers, talons, and other parts, to the National Eagle Repository.

(ii) You may donate the body or feathers of any other species of falconry raptor to any person or institution exempt under § 21.12 or authorized by permit to acquire and possess such parts or feathers.

(iii) If the bird was banded or microchipped prior to its death, you may keep the body of any falconry raptor except that of a golden eagle. You may keep the body so that the feathers are available for imping, or you may have the body mounted by a taxidermist. You may use the mount in giving conservation education programs. If the bird was banded, you must leave the band on the body. If the bird has an implanted microchip, you must leave the microchip in place.

(iv) If you do not wish to donate the bird body or feathers or keep it yourself, you must burn, bury, or otherwise destroy it or them within 10 days of the death of the bird or after final examination by a veterinarian to determine cause of death. Carcasses of euthanized raptors could pose a risk of secondary poisoning of eagles and other scavengers. You must take appropriate precautions to avoid such poisonings.

(v) If you do not donate the bird body or feathers or have the body mounted by a taxidermist, you may possess the flight feathers for as long as you have a valid falconry permit. However, you may not buy, sell, or barter the feathers. You must keep the paperwork documenting your acquisition of the bird.

(14) Visitors practicing falconry in the United States. (i) A visitor to the United States may qualify for a temporary falconry permit appropriate for his or her experience.

(A) The permit may be valid for any period specified by the State, tribe, or territory.

(B) To demonstrate knowledge of U.S. falconry laws and regulations, the visitor must correctly answer at least 80 percent of the questions on the supervised examination for falconers administered by the tribe, State, or territory from which he or she wishes to obtain a temporary falconry permit. If the visitor passes the test, the tribe, State, or territory will decide for what level of temporary permit the person is qualified. The decision should be based on the individual's documentation of his or her experience.

(C) If you hold a temporary falconry permit, you may possess raptors for falconry if you have approved falconry facilities.

(D) A holder of a temporary falconry permit may fly raptors held for falconry by a permitted falconer.

(E) A holder of a temporary falconry permit may not take a bird from the wild to use in falconry.

(ii) For the duration of a permit from a State, tribe, or territory, a visitor may use any bird for falconry that he or she possess legally in his or her country of residence for that purpose, provided that import of that species to the United States is not prohibited, and provided that he or she has met all permitting requirements of his or her country of residence.

(A) A visitor must comply with the provisions in this section, those of the State, tribe or territory where he or she wishes to conduct falconry, and all States through which he or she will travel with the bird.

(B) The visitor may transport registered raptors. He or she may need one or more additional permits to bring a raptor into the United States or to return home with it (see 50 CFR part 14 (importation, exportation, and transportation of wildlife), part 15 (Wild Bird Conservation Act), part 17 (endangered and threatened species), part 21 (migratory bird import and export permits), and part 23 (endangered species convention)).

(C) Unless the visitor has the necessary permit(s) to bring a raptor into the United States and leave it here, he or she must take raptors brought into the country for falconry out of the country when he or she leaves. If a raptor brought into the United States dies or is lost while in this country, the visitor must document the loss before leaving the United States by reporting the loss to the State, tribal, or territorial agency that governs falconry where the bird was lost.

(D) When flown free, any bird brought to this country temporarily must have two attached radio transmitters that will allow the falconer to locate it.

(E )There also may be tribal or State restrictions on nonresidents practicing falconry or importing a raptor or raptors held for falconry.

(15) Taking falconry raptors to another country to use in falconry activities. A permit issued under this section authorizes you to export and then import raptors you legally possess for falconry to another country to use in falconry without an additional migratory bird import/export permit issued under § 21.21.

(i) You must meet any requirements in 50 CFR 14 subpart B.

(ii) You may need one or more additional permits to take a bird from the United States or to return home with it (see 50 CFR part 15 (Wild Bird Conservation Act), part 17 (endangered and threatened species), and part 23 (endangered species convention)).

(iii) Unless you have the necessary permit(s) to permanently export a raptor from the United States, you must bring any raptor you take out of the country for falconry back to the United States when you return. Each raptor must be covered by a CITES certificate of ownership issued under part 23 of this chapter. You must have full documentation of the lawful origin of each raptor (a copy of a propagation report with band number or a 3-186A report), and each must be identifiable with a seamless band or a permanent, nonreusable, numbered Fish and Wildlife Service leg band issued by the Service or an implanted microchip for identification.

(iv) If the raptor dies or is lost, you are not required to bring it back but must report the loss immediately upon your return to the United States in the manner required by the falconry regulations of your State, and any conditions on your CITES certificate.

(16) Permission to capture, fly, or release a falconry bird at any location. You do not need special or written permission for any of these activities on public lands if it is authorized. However, you must comply with all applicable Federal, State, tribal, or territorial laws regarding falconry activities, including hunting. Your falconry permit does not authorize you to capture or release raptors or practice falconry on public lands if it is prohibited on those lands, or on private property, without permission from the landowner or custodian.

(17) Practicing falconry in the vicinity of a Federally listed threatened or endangered animal species. In practicing falconry you must ensure that your activities do not cause the take of Federally listed threatened or endangered wildlife. “Take” under the Endangered Species Act means “to harass, pursue, hunt, shoot, wound, kill, trap, capture, or collect or attempt to engage in any such conduct” (Endangered Species Act § 3(18)). Within this definition, “harass” means any act that may injure wildlife by disrupting normal behavior, including breeding, feeding, or sheltering, and harm” means an act that actually kills or injures wildlife (50 CFR 17.3). To obtain information about threatened or endangered species that may occur in your State or on tribal lands where you wish to practice falconry, contact your State, tribal, or territorial agency that regulates falconry. You can contact your State Fish and Wildlife Service office for information on Federally-listed species.

(18) Trapping a bird for use in falconry in areas used by the northern aplomado falcon. Capture of a northern aplomado falcon (Falco femoralis septentrionalis) is not authorized because it is a violation of the Endangered Species Act. To avoid trapping northern aplomado falcons, you must comply with the following conditions when trapping a bird for use in falconry in the following counties.

(iv) If you are an Apprentice Falconer, you must be accompanied by a General or Master Falconer when trapping in one of these counties.

(v) You may not begin trapping if you observe a northern aplomado falcon in the vicinity of your intended trapping effort.

(vi) You must suspend trapping if a northern aplomado falcon arrives in the vicinity of your trapping effort.

(19) Prey item killed by a falconry bird without your intent, including an animal taken outside of a regular hunting season. (i) You may allow your falconry bird to feed on the animal, but you may not take the animal into your possession.

(ii) You must report take of any federally listed threatened or endangered species to our Ecological Services Field Office for the location in which the take occurred.

(20) Take of bird species for which a depredation order is in place. With a falconry bird, you may take any species listed in parts 21.43, 44, 45, or 46 of this subchapter at any time in accordance with the conditions of the applicable depredation order, as long as you are not paid for doing so.

(21) Transfer of falconry raptors if a permittee dies. A surviving spouse, executor, administrator, or other legal representative of a deceased falconry permittee may transfer any bird held by the permittee to another authorized permittee within 90 days of the death of the falconry permittee. After 90 days, disposition of a bird held under the permit is at the discretion of the authority that issued it.

(g) Applying for a falconry permit. If you apply for a falconry permit, you must include the following information plus any other information required by your State, tribe, or territory.

(1) The completed application form from your State, tribal, or territorial agency that regulates falconry permits.

(2) Proof that you have passed the falconry test administered by the State, tribe, or territory where you maintain your legal residence, or proof that you have previously held a falconry permit at the level you seek.

(3) For an Apprentice permit, you must provide the following:

(i) A letter from a General or Master Falconer stating that he or she has agreed to assist you in learning about the husbandry and training of raptors held for falconry and about relevant wildlife laws and regulations, and in deciding what species of raptor is appropriate for you to possess while an Apprentice.

(ii) An original, signed certification that you are particularly familiar with § 10.13 of this subchapter, the list of migratory bird species to which the Migratory Bird Treaty Act applies; part 13 of this subchapter, general permit regulations; part 21 of this subchapter, migratory bird permits; and part 22 of this subchapter, eagle permits. The certification can be incorporated into tribal and State application forms, and must be worded as follows:

(4) For an Apprentice or General Falconry permit, a parent or legal guardian must co-sign your application if you are under 18.

(5) For a General Falconer permit:

(i) Information documenting your experience maintaining falconry raptors, including a summary of what species you held as an Apprentice Falconer and how long you possessed each bird, and

(ii) A letter from a General Falconer or Master Falconer (preferably your sponsor) attesting that you have practiced falconry with raptor(s) taken from the wild at the Apprentice Falconer level for at least 2 years, including maintaining, training, flying, and hunting the raptor(s) for an average of 6 months per year, with at least 4 months in each year.

(6) For a Master Falconer permit, you must attest that you have practiced falconry at the General Falconer level for at least 5 years.

(h) Updating a falconry permit after a move. If you move to a new State or outside the jurisdiction of your tribe or territory and take falconry birds with you, within 30 days you must inform both your former State, tribe, or territory and the permitting authority for your new place of residence of your address change. To obtain a new falconry permit, you must follow the permit application procedures of the authority under which you wish to acquire a new permit. You may keep falconry birds you hold while you apply for a new falconry permit. However, the State, tribe, or territory into which you move may place restrictions on your possession of falconry birds until you meet the residency requirements there.

(i) Restoration of revoked permits. Upon request of the person whose permit has been revoked, the State, tribe, or territory may restore the person's falconry permit at the end of the revocation period.

(j) Information collection requirements. The information collection required for falconry applications and for falconry bird disposition on FWS Form 3-186A is approved by the Office of Management and Budget under control number 1018-0022. The information is necessary to determine take of raptors from the wild for falconry.

(k) Database required of States, tribes, and territories. Each State, tribe, or territory that permits falconry must maintain information in a database. The information will enable enforcement of this section.

(1) The State, tribal, or territorial database must be compatible with the database that we maintain. The State, tribal, or territorial database must contain the following information:

(i) The current address of each person with a falconry permit.

(ii) The classification of each person with a falconry permit - Apprentice Falconer, General Falconer, or Master Falconer.

(iii) The address of the falconry facilities of each person with a falconry permit.

(iv) The Federal falconry identifier number assigned via the 3-186A system to each person with a falconry permit.

(v) Whether each permittee is authorized to possess eagles.

(vi) Information on the status of each person's permit: whether it is active, suspended, or revoked.

(2) Information on each permit granted, including changes in status from Apprentice Falconer to General Falconer or General Falconer to Master Falconer, and moves of falconers or their facilities must be entered into the State's, tribe's, or territory's database within 30 days of the granting of the permit or a falconer's change in status. New additions to the State, tribal, or territorial database must be forwarded to us monthly.

(a) Permit requirement. A raptor propagation permit is required before any person may take, possess, transport, import, purchase, barter, or offer to sell, purchase, or barter any raptor, raptor egg, or raptor semen for propagation purposes.

(b) Application procedures. Submit application for raptor propagation permits to the appropriate Regional Director (Attention: Migratory bird permit office). You can find addresses for the Regional Directors in 50 CFR 2.2. Each application must contain the general information and certification required in § 13.12(a) of this subchapter, and the following additional information:

(1) A statement indicating the purpose(s) for which a raptor propagation permit is sought and, where applicable, the scientific or educational objectives of the applicant;

(2) A statement indicating whether the applicant has been issued a State permit authorizing raptor propagation (include name of State, permit number, and expiration date);

(3) A statement fully describing the nature and extent of the applicant's experience with raptor propagation or handling raptors;

(4) A description of each raptor the applicant possesses or will acquire for propagation purposes to include the species, age (if known), sex (if known), date of acquisition, source, and raptor marker number;

(5) A description of each raptor the applicant possesses for purposes other than raptor propagation to include the species, age (if known), sex (if known), date of acquisition, source, raptor marker number, and purpose for which it is possessed;

(6) A description and photographs of the facilities and equipment to be used by the applicant including the dimensions of any structures intended for housing the birds;

(7) A statement indicating whether the applicant requests authority to take raptors or raptor eggs from the wild.

(c) Issuance criteria. Upon receiving an application completed in accordance with paragraph (b) of this section, the Director will decide whether a permit should be issued. In making this decision, the Director shall consider, in addition to the general criteria in § 13.21(b) of this chapter, the following factors:

(1) Whether an applicant's raptor propagation facilities are adequate for the number and species of raptors to be held under the permit.

(2) Whether propagation is authorized by the State in which the propagation will occur, and if authorized, whether the applicant has any required State propagation permit.

(3) Whether the applicant is at least 18 years old with a minimum of 2 years experience handling raptors, and if the applicant requests authority to propagate endangered or threatened species, whether the applicant is at least 23 years old with a minimum of 7 years experience handling raptors.

(4) If the applicant requests authority to take raptors or raptor eggs from the wild:

(i) Whether issuance of the permit would have a significant effect on any wild population of raptors;

(ii) Whether suitable captive stock is available; and

(iii) Whether wild stock is needed to enhance the genetic variability of captive stock.

(d) Additional permit conditions. In addition to the general conditions found in part 13 of this chapter, raptor propagation permits are subject to the following additional conditions:

(1) Facilities. Any tethered raptor possessed under this permit must be maintained in accordance with the Federal falconry standards for “facilities and equipment” described in § 21.29(g), unless a specific exception in writing is obtained. For untethered raptors, the breeding facilities must be soundly constructed and entirely enclosed with wood, wire netting, or other suitable material which provides a safe, health, environment. The design of such facilities and ancillary equipment must:

(i) Minimize the risk of injury by providing protection from predators, disturbances that would likely cause harm, extreme weather conditions, and collision with interior or perimeter construction materials and equipment such as support poles, windows, wire netting, perches, or lights;

(ii) Enhance sanitation by providing a well-drained floor, fresh air ventilation, source of light, fresh water for bathing and drinking, access for cleaning, and interior construction materials suitable for thorough cleaning or disinfection; and

(iii) Enhance the welfare and breeding success of the raptors by providing suitable perches, nesting and feeding sites, and observation ports or inspection windows during times when disturbance is felt to be undesirable.

(2) Incubation of eggs. Each permittee must notify the Director in writing within 5 days from the day the first egg is laid by any raptor held under a raptor propagation permit, but notice is not required more often than once every 60 days.

(3) Marking requirement. Unless otherwise specifically exempted, every raptor possessed for propagation, including all progeny produced pursuant to the permitted activity, must be banded in accordance with the following provisions:

(i) Except for captive-bred raptors lawfully marked with a seamless, numbered band provided by the Service, any raptor possessed for propagation purposes shall be banded with a permanent, non-reusable, numbered band issued by the Service.

(ii) Unless specifically exempted by the conditions of the raptor propagation permit, each captive-bred raptor produced under authority of a raptor propagation permit shall be banded within two (2) weeks of hatching with a numbered, seamless band provided by the Service, placed on the raptor's leg (metatarsus). In marking captive-bred raptors, permittees:

(A) Shall use a band with an opening (inside diameter) which is small enough to prevent its removal when the raptor is fully grown without causing serious injury to the raptor or damaging the bands integrity or one-piece construction;

(B) May band a raptor with more than one size band when the potential diameter of the raptor's leg at maturity cannot be determined at the time of banding;

(C) Shall remove all but one band from any raptor with more than one band before the raptor is five (5) weeks of age and return all bands removed to the issuing office.

(iii) No raptor taken from the wild, produced from an egg taken from the wild, or produced from an egg from any source other than bred in captivity under authority of a raptor propagation permit may be banded with a numbered seamless band issued by the Service.

(iv) No permittee under this section may band any raptor with any band issued or authorized by the Service unless that raptor is lawfully possessed by the permittee.

(4) Taking Raptors or Raptor Eggs from the Wild. Any permit authorizing the permittee to take raptors or raptor eggs from the wild for propagation purposes is subject to the following additional restrictions:

(i) The State or foreign country in which the raptors or raptor eggs are taken must authorize the permittee in writing to take raptors or raptor eggs from the wild for propagation purposes;

(ii) No raptor listed in § 17.11 of this chapter as “endangered” or “threatened” may be taken from the wild without first obtaining the proper permit under part 17 of this chapter; and

(iii) No raptor or raptor egg may be taken from the wild except in accordance with State law.

(5) Transfer, purchase, sale, or barter of raptors, raptor eggs, or raptor semen. (i) A permittee may transfer any lawfully possessed raptor, raptor egg, or raptor semen to another permittee or transfer any raptor to a falconer who holds a valid State falconry permit if no money or other consideration is involved.

(ii) A permittee may transfer, purchase, sell, or barter any raptor which is banded with a numbered seamless marker provided or authorized by the Service, subject to the following conditions:

(A) When the permittee purchases from, sells to, or barters with any person in the U.S., that person must be authorized under this part to purchase, sell, or barter captive-bred raptors;

(B) When the permittee purchases from or barters with any person in a foreign country, that person must be authorized by the competent wildlife management authority of the foreign country in which the transaction occurs to sell or barter captive-bred raptors; and

(C) When the permittee transfers to, sells to or barters with any person in a foreign country, that person must be authorized to possess, purchase or barter captive-bred raptors by the competent wildlife management authority of his/her country of residence or domicile and the same wildlife management authority must certify in writing that the recipient is an experienced falconer or raptor propagator who is required to maintain any raptors in his/her possession under conditions that are comparable to the conditions under which a permittee must maintain raptors under § 21.29 or § 21.30. No certification is required if the competent wildlife management authority itself is the recipient of captive-bred raptors for conservation purposes.

(iii) No raptor may be traded, transferred, purchased, sold, or bartered until it is two weeks old and only after it is properly banded with a nonreuseable marker provided or authorized by the Service, unless it is transferred, sold, or bartered to a State or Federal wildlife management agency for conservation purposes.

(iv) A permittee may purchase, sell, or barter semen collected from any captive-bred raptor.

(v) A permittee may not purchase, sell or barter any raptor eggs, any raptors taken from the wild, any raptor semen collected from the wild, or any raptors hatched from eggs taken from the wild.

(6) Use of Service form 3-186A. No permittee may take, purchase, receive, or otherwise acquire, sell, trade, barter, transfer, or otherwise dispose of any raptor unless such permittee submits a form 3-186A (Migratory Bird Acquisition/Disposition Report), completed in accordance with the instructions on the form, to the issuing office within five (5) calendar days of any such transfer. Provided, that a permittee does not have to submit a form 3-186A (Migratory Bird Acquisition/Disposition Report) to report the acquisition raptors hatched from eggs produced as a result of the permittee's propagation activities as long as these raptors remain in the possession of the permittee.

(7) Documentation of lawful possession. No raptor may be possessed under authority of a raptor propagation permit unless the permittee has a properly completed form 3-186A (Migratory Bird Acquisition/Disposition Report) for each bird possessed, except as provided in paragraph (d)(5) of this section.

(8) Temporary possession. A raptor possessed under authority of a raptor propagation permit may be temporarily held by a person other than the permittee only if that person is otherwise authorized to possess raptors, and only if the raptor is accompanied at all times by the properly completed form 3-186A (Migratory Bird Acquisition/Disposition Report) designating the permittee as the possessor of record and by a signed, dated statement from the permittee authorizing the temporary possession.

(9) Sale, purchase, barter. A permittee may not sell, purchase, barter, or offer to sell, purchase, or barter any raptor unless the raptor is marked on the metatarsus by a seamless, numbered band supplied by the Service.

(10) Transfer to another. A permittee may not receive or otherwise acquire from, may not transfer or otherwise dispose of to, and may not loan to or temporarily place with another person any raptor unless that person is authorized to acquire, possess, and dispose of such raptors under a valid permit issued pursuant to this part and part 13 or as permitted by regulations in this part.

(11) Use in falconry. A permittee may use a raptor possessed for propagation in the sport of falconry only if such use is designated in both the propagation permit and the permittee's falconry permit.

(12) Interspecific hybridization. Hybridization between species (interspecific hybridization) is authorized only if each raptor produced by interspecific hybridization is either imprinted on humans (hand-raised in isolation from the sight of other raptors from two weeks of age until it is fully feathered) or surgically sterilized.

(13) Possession of dead raptors, non-viable eggs, nests, and feathers. (i) Upon the death of any raptor held under permit, a permittee must remove the marker and immediately return it to the Director. The carcass must be destroyed immediately, unless the permittee requests authorization from the Director to retain possession of it. A permittee who has obtained written authorization from the Director to retain possession of the carcass may transfer it to any other person authorized by the Service to possess it, provided no money or other consideration is involved.

(ii) A permittee may possess addled or blown eggs, nests, and feathers from raptors held under permit and may transfer any of these items to any other person authorized by the Service to possess them provided no money or other consideration is involved.

(14) Intentional release to the wild. (i) A permittee must obtain written authorization from the Director and the Director of the wildlife conservation department of the State in which release to the wild is proposed before intentionally releasing any raptor to the wild. The raptor marker must be removed from each bird and immediately returned to the Director. A Federal bird band must be attached to each raptor by a person designated by the Director before its release.

(ii) No raptor produced by interspecific hybridization may be intentionally released to the wild.

(15) Recordkeeping. A permittee must maintain complete and accurate records of all operations, to include the following:

(i) Acquisition of raptors, eggs, or semen from sources other than production.

(A) Description of stock:

(1) Species, sex, age of each (if applicable),

(2) Genotype-natal area (geographical breeding site or area that captive stock represents, e.g., Colville River, Alaska; unknown; migrant taken in Maryland, etc.), and

(3) Marker number (if applicable).

(B) Type of stock (including number or amount):

(1) Semen,

(2) Egg, or

(3) Bird.

(C) How acquired:

(1) Purchase, barter, or transfer (include the purchase price or a description of any other consideration involved), or

(2) Taken from the wild.

(D) Date acquired: month, day, and year.

(E) From whom or where stock acquired:

(1) Name, address, and permit number of seller, barterer, or transferor; or

(2) Location where stock taken from the wild.

(ii) Disposition of raptors, eggs, or semen.

(A) Description of stock:

(1) Species, sex, age of each (if applicable),

(2) Genotype-natal area (geographical breeding site or area that captive stock represents, e.g., Colville River, Alaska; unknown; migrant taken in Maryland, etc.), and

(3) Marker number (if applicable).

(B) Type of stock (including number or amount):

(1) Semen,

(2) Egg, or

(3) Bird.

(C) Manner of disposition:

(1) Sale, barter, or transfer (include the sale price or a description of any other consideration involved),

(2) Live loss,

(3) Intentional release to the wild, or

(4) Death.

(D) Date of disposition: month, day, and year.

(E) To whom or where stock disposed:

(1) Name, address, and permit number of purchaser, barterer, or transferee, or

(2) Description and location of other disposition.

(iii) Production and pedigree record.

(A) Mother and father(s):

(1) Species,

(2) Genotype-natal area, and

(3) Marker number.

(B) Insemination:

(1) Natural,

(2) Artificial, or

(3) Combined.

(C) Eggs laid:

(1) Total,

(2) First date, and

(3) Last date.

(D) Eggs hatched:

(1) Total,

(2) First date, and

(3) Last date.

(E) Young raised to 2 weeks of age:

(1) Total produced, and

(2) Marker number and date marked for each raptor.

(16) Annual report. A permittee must submit an annual report by January 31 of each year for the preceding year to the Director. The report must include the following information for each species possessed by the permittee:

(i) Number of raptors possessed as of December 31 (including the species, marker number, sex, and age of each raptor).

(ii) Number of females laying eggs.

(iii) Number of eggs laid.

(iv) Number of eggs hatched.

(v) Number of young raised to 2 weeks of age.

(vi) Number of raptors purchased, sold, bartered, received, or transferred (including the species, marker number, sex, and age of each raptor) the date of the transaction, and the name, address and permit number of each purchaser, seller, barterer, transferor, or transferee.

(e) Term of permit. A raptor propagation permit issued or renewed under this part expires on the date designated on the face of the permit unless amended or revoked, but the term of the permit shall not exceed three (3) years from the date of issuance or renewal.

(a) What is the permit requirement? Except as provided in § 21.12, a rehabilitation permit is required to take, temporarily possess, or transport any migratory bird for rehabilitation purposes. However, any person who finds a sick, injured, or orphaned migratory bird may, without a permit, take possession of the bird in order to immediately transport it to a permitted rehabilitator.

(b) What are the general permit provisions? (1) The permit authorizes you to:

(i) Take from the wild or receive from another person sick, injured, or orphaned migratory birds and to possess them and provide rehabilitative care for them for up to 180 days;

(ii) Transport such birds to a suitable habitat for release, to another permitted rehabilitator's facilities, or to a veterinarian;

(iii) Transfer, release, or euthanize such birds;

(iv) Transfer or otherwise dispose of dead specimens; and

(v) Receive, stabilize, and transfer within 48 hours types of migratory bird species not authorized by your permit, in cases of emergency. If a rehabilitator authorized to care for the bird is not available within that timeframe, you must contact the issuing office for authorization to retain the bird until it can be transferred.

(2) The permit does not authorize the use of migratory birds for educational purposes.

(c) How do I apply for a migratory bird rehabilitation permit? You must apply to the appropriate Regional Director—Attention Migratory Bird Permit Office. You can find addresses for the appropriate Regional Directors in § 2.2 of subchapter A of this chapter. Your application package must consist of the following:

(1) A completed application (Form 3-200-10b);

(2) A copy of your State rehabilitation permit, license, or other authorization, if one is required in your State; and

(3) A check or money order made payable to the “U.S. Fish and Wildlife Service” in the amount of the application fee for permits issued under this section listed in § 13.11 of this chapter.

(d) What criteria will the Service consider before issuing a permit? (1) Upon receiving an application completed in accordance with paragraph (c) of this section, the Regional Director will decide whether to issue you a permit based on the general criteria of § 13.21 of this chapter and whether you meet the following requirements:

(i) You must be at least 18 years of age with at least 100 hours of hands-on experience, gained over the course of at least 1 whole year, rehabilitating the types of migratory birds you intend to rehabilitate (e.g., waterbirds, raptors), or comparable experience. Up to 20 hours of the 100-hour time requirement may be fulfilled by participation in migratory bird rehabilitation seminars and courses.

(ii) Your facilities must be adequate to properly care for the type(s) of migratory bird species you intend to rehabilitate, or you must have a working relationship with a person or organization with such facilities.

(iii) You must have an agreement with a licensed veterinarian to provide medical care for the birds you intend to rehabilitate, unless you are a licensed veterinarian.

(iv) You must have a State permit, license, or other authorization to rehabilitate migratory birds if such authorization required by your State.

(2) In issuing a permit, the Regional Director may place restrictions on the types of migratory bird species you are authorized to rehabilitate, based on your experience and facilities as well as on the specific physical requirements and behavioral traits of particular species.

(e) What are the standard conditions for this permit? In addition to the general permit conditions set forth in part 13 of this chapter, rehabilitation permits are subject to the following conditions:

(1) Facilities. You must conduct the activities authorized by this permit in appropriate facilities that are approved and identified on the face of your permit. In evaluating whether caging dimensions are adequate, the Service will use as a guideline the standards developed by the National Wildlife Rehabilitators Association and the International Wildlife Rehabilitation Council (Minimum Standards for Wildlife Rehabilitation, 2000). 1 The Regional Migratory Bird Permit Office will authorize variation from the standards where doing so is reasonable and necessary to accommodate a particular rehabilitator's circumstances, unless a determination is made that such variation will jeopardize migratory birds. However, except as provided by paragraph (f)(2)(i) of this section, all facilities must adhere to the following criteria:

(i) Rehabilitation facilities for migratory birds must be secure and provide protection from predators, domestic animals, undue human disturbance, sun, wind, and inclement weather.

(ii) Caging must be made of a material that will not entangle or cause injury to the type of birds that will be housed within.

(iii) Enclosures must be kept clean, well-ventilated, and hygienic.

(iv) Birds must not be overcrowded, and must be provided enough perches, if applicable.

(v) Birds must be housed only with compatible migratory bird species.

(vi) Birds may not be displayed to the public unless you use video equipment, barriers, or other methods to reduce noise and exposure to humans to levels the birds would normally encounter in their habitat. You may not use any equipment for this purpose that causes stress or harm, or impedes the rehabilitation of any bird.

(2) Dietary requirements. You must provide the birds in your care with a diet that is appropriate and nutritionally approximates the natural diet consumed by the species in the wild, with consideration for the age and health of the individual bird.

(3) Subpermittees. Except as provided by paragraph (f)(2)(ii) of this section, anyone who will be performing activities that require permit authorization under paragraph (b)(1) of this section when you or a subpermittee are not present, including any individual who transports birds to or from your facility on a regular basis, must either possess a Federal rehabilitation permit or be authorized as your subpermittee by being named in writing to your issuing Migratory Bird Permit Office. This does not apply to General Falconers or Master Falconers, who may assist with conditioning raptors for release without being your subpermittee. If you have a falconer assist in conditioning a rehabilitated raptor for release, you must provide the falconer with a letter or form that identifies the bird and explains that the falconer is assisting in rehabilitation of the raptor.

(i) Your subpermittees must be at least 18 years of age and possess sufficient experience to tend the species in their care.

(ii) Your subpermittees who are authorized to care for migratory birds at a site other than your facility must have facilities adequate to house the species in their care, based on the criteria of paragraph (e)(1) of this section. All such facilities except those of a falconer assisting in conditioning raptors for release must be approved by the issuing office.

(iii) As the primary permittee, you are legally responsible for ensuring that your subpermittees, staff, and volunteers adhere to the terms of your permit when conducting migratory bird rehabilitation activities.

(4) Disposition of birds under your care. (i) You must take every precaution to avoid imprinting or habituating birds in your care to humans. If a bird becomes imprinted to humans while under your care, you will be required to transfer the bird as directed by the issuing office.

(ii) After a bird is rehabilitated to a condition suitable for release to the wild, you must release it to suitable habitat as soon as seasonal conditions allow, except that you may transfer a rehabilitated wild raptor to a holder of a State, tribal, or territorial falconry permit if the permit holder is authorized to hold the species for use in falconry. The transfer may need the approval of your State, tribe, or territory. The falconer must complete a Form 3-186A reporting the transfer.

(A) You may not retain migratory birds longer than 180 days without additional authorization from your Regional Migratory Bird Permit Office. If the appropriate season for release is outside the 180-day timeframe, you must seek authorization from your Fish and Wildlife Service Regional Migratory Bird Permit Office to possess the bird until the appropriate season.

(B) Before releasing a threatened or endangered migratory bird, you must comply with any requirements for the release from your Fish and Wildlife Service Regional Migratory Bird Permit Office.

(iii) You must euthanize any bird that cannot feed itself, perch upright, or ambulate without inflicting additional injuries to itself where medical and/or rehabilitative care will not reverse such conditions. You must euthanize any bird that is completely blind, and any bird that has sustained injuries that would require amputation of a leg, a foot, or a wing at the elbow or above (humero-ulnar joint) rather than performing such surgery, unless:

(A) A licensed veterinarian submits a written recommendation that the bird should be kept alive, including an analysis of why the bird is not expected to experience the injuries and/or ailments that typically occur in birds with these injuries and a commitment (from the veterinarian) to provide medical care for the bird for the duration of its life, including complete examinations at least once a year;

(B) A placement is available for the bird with a person or facility authorized to possess it, where it will receive the veterinary care described in paragraph (e)(4)(iii)(A) of this section; and

(C) The issuing office specifically authorizes continued possession, medical treatment, and rehabilitative care of the bird.

(iv) You must obtain authorization from your issuing Migratory Bird Permit Office before euthanizing endangered and threatened migratory bird species. In rare cases, the Service may designate a disposition other than euthanasia for those birds. If Service personnel are not available, you may euthanize endangered and threatened migratory birds without Service authorization when prompt euthanasia is warranted by humane consideration for the welfare of the bird.

(v) You may place nonreleasable live birds that are suitable for use in educational programs, foster parenting, research projects, or other permitted activities with persons permitted or otherwise authorized to possess such birds, with prior approval from your issuing Migratory Bird Permit Office.

(vi)(A) You may donate dead birds and parts thereof, except threatened and endangered species, and bald and golden eagles, to persons authorized by permit to possess migratory bird specimens or exempted from permit requirements under § 21.12.

(B) You must obtain approval from your issuing office before disposing of or transferring any live or dead endangered or threatened migratory bird specimen, parts, or feathers.

(C) You must send all dead bald and golden eagles, and their parts and feathers to: National Eagle Repository, Building 128, Rocky Mountain Arsenal, Commerce City, CO 80022. If your State requires you to notify State wildlife officers of a dead bald or golden eagle before sending the eagle to the Repository you must comply with State regulations. States may assume temporary possession of the carcasses for purposes of necropsy.

(D) Unless specifically required to do otherwise by the Service, you must promptly destroy all other dead specimens by such means as are necessary to prevent any exposure of the specimens to animals in the wild.

(vii) With authorization from your issuing Migratory Bird Permit Office, you may hold a nonreleasable bird longer than 180 days for the purpose of fostering juveniles during their rehabilitation. You may also use birds you possess under an educational permit to foster juveniles.

(viii) You may possess a reasonable number of feathers for imping purposes, based on the numbers and species of birds for which you regularly provide care.

(ix) You may draw blood and take other medical samples for purposes of the diagnosis and recovery of birds under your care, or for transfer to authorized facilities conducting research pertaining to a contagious disease or other public health hazard.

(x) You may conduct necropsies on dead specimens in your possession, except that you must obtain approval from your Regional Migratory Bird Permit Office before conducting necropsies on threatened or endangered species.

(xi) This permit does not confer ownership of any migratory bird. All birds held under this permit remain under the stewardship of the U.S. Fish and Wildlife Service.

(5) Notification to the U.S. Fish and Wildlife Service. (i) You must notify your issuing Migratory Bird Permit Office within 24 hours of acquiring a threatened or endangered migratory bird species, or bald or golden eagle, whether live or dead. You may be required to transfer these birds to another facility designated by the Service.

(ii) You must immediately notify the local U.S. Fish and Wildlife Service Law Enforcement Office if you have reason to believe a bird has been poisoned, electrocuted, shot, or otherwise subjected to criminal activity. Contact information for your local Service Law Enforcement office is listed on your permit, or you can obtain it on the Internet at http://offices.fws.gov.

(iii) If the sickness, injury, or death of any bird is due or likely due to avian virus, or other contagious disease or public health hazard, you must notify and comply with the instructions given by the State or local authority that is responsible for tracking the suspected disease or hazard in your location, if that agency is currently collecting such information from the public.

(6) You must maintain a working relationship with a licensed veterinarian. If your working relationship with your original cooperating veterinarian is dissolved, you must establish an agreement within 30 days with another licensed veterinarian to provide medical services to the birds in your care, and furnish a copy of this agreement to the issuing office.

(7) Recordkeeping. You must maintain complete and accurate records of all migratory birds that you receive, including for each bird the date received, type of injury or illness, disposition, and date of disposition. You must retain these records for 5 years following the end of the calendar year covered by the records.

(8) Annual report. You must submit an annual report that includes the information required by paragraph (e)(7) for the preceding calendar year to your issuing Migratory Bird Permit Office by the date required on your permit. You may complete Service Form 3-202-4, or submit your annual report from a database you maintain, provided your report contains all, and only, the information required by Form 3-202-4.

(9) At the discretion of the Regional Director, we may stipulate on the face of your permit additional conditions compatible with the permit conditions set forth in this section, to place limits on numbers and/or types of birds you may possess under your permit, to stipulate authorized location(s) for your rehabilitation activities, or otherwise specify permitted activities, based on your experience and facilities.

(f) How does this permit apply to oil and hazardous waste spills? Prior to entering the location of an oil or hazardous material spill, you must obtain authorization from the U.S. Fish and Wildlife Service Field Response Coordinator or other designated Service representative and obtain permission from the On-Scene Coordinator. All activities within the location of the spill are subject to the authority of the On-Scene Coordinator. The U.S. Fish and Wildlife Service is responsible for the disposition of all migratory birds, dead or alive.

(1) Permit provisions in oil or hazardous material spills. (i) In addition to the rehabilitation permit provisions set forth in paragraph (b) of this section, when under the authority of the designated U.S. Fish and Wildlife Service representative this permit further authorizes you to temporarily possess healthy, unaffected birds for the purpose of removing them from imminent danger.

(ii) This permit does not authorize salvage of dead migratory birds. When dead migratory birds are discovered, a Service law enforcement officer must be notified immediately in order to coordinate the handling and collection of evidence. Contact information for your local Service Law Enforcement office is listed on your permit and on the Internet at http://offices.fws.gov. The designated Service representative will have direct control and responsibility over all live migratory birds, and will coordinate the collection, storage, and handling of any dead migratory birds with the Service's Division of Law Enforcement.

(iii) You must notify your issuing Migratory Bird Permit Office of any migratory birds in your possession within 24 hours of removing such birds from the area.

(2) Conditions specific to oil and hazardous waste spills—(i) Facilities. Facilities used at the scene of oil or hazardous waste spills may be temporary and/or mobile, and may provide less space and protection from noise and disturbance than facilities authorized under paragraph (e)(1) of this section. Such facilities should conform as closely as possible with the facility specifications contained in the Service policy titled Best Practices for Migratory Bird Care During Oil Spill Response. 2

(ii) Subpermittees. In cases of oil and hazardous waste spills, persons who assist with cleaning or treating migratory birds at the on-scene facility will not be required to have a rehabilitation permit or be a subpermittee; however, volunteers must be trained in rescue protocol for migratory birds affected by oil and hazardous waste spills. A permit (or subpermittee designation) is required to perform extended rehabilitation of such birds, after initial cleaning and treating, at a subsequent location.

(g) Will I also need a permit from the State in which I live? If your State requires a license, permit, or other authorization to rehabilitate migratory birds, your Federal migratory bird rehabilitation permit will not be valid if you do not also possess and adhere to the terms of the required State authorization, in addition to the Federal permit. Nothing in this section prevents a State from making and enforcing laws or regulations consistent with this section that are more restrictive or give further protection to migratory birds.

(h) How long is a migratory bird rehabilitation permit valid? Your rehabilitation permit will expire on the date designated on the face of the permit unless amended or revoked. No rehabilitation permit will have a term exceeding 5 years.

(i) Will I need to apply for a new permit under this section if I already have a special purpose permit to rehabilitate migratory birds, issued under § 21.27 (Special purpose permits)? (1) If you had a valid Special Purpose—Migratory Bird Rehabilitation Permit issued under § 21.27 on November 26, 2003, your permit will remain valid until the expiration date listed on its face. If you renew your permit, it will be issued under this section.

(2) If your original permit authorization predates permit application procedures requiring submission of photographs and diagrams for approval of your facilities, and your facilities have never been approved by the migratory bird permit office on the basis of such photographs and diagrams, you must submit photographs and diagrams of your facilities as part of your renewal application. If those facilities do not meet the criteria set forth under this section, your permit may be renewed for only 1 year. We will re-evaluate your facilities when you seek renewal in a year. If you have made the improvements necessary to bring your facilities into compliance with paragraph (e)(1) of this section, and the other criteria within this section for permit issuance are met, your permit may be renewed for up to the full 5-year tenure.

(3) If your facilities have already been approved on the basis of photographs and diagrams, and authorized under a valid § 21.27 special purpose permit, then they are preapproved to be authorized under your new permit issued under this section, unless those facilities have materially diminished in size or quality from what was authorized when you last renewed your permit, or unless you wish to expand the authorizations granted by your permit (e.g., the number or types of birds you rehabilitate). Regulations governing permit renewal are set forth in § 13.22 of this chapter.

(a) Permit requirement. Except as provided in §§ 21.42 through 21.46, a depredation permit is required before any person may take, possess, or transport migratory birds for depredation control purposes. No permit is required merely to scare or herd depredating migratory birds other than endangered or threatened species or bald or golden eagles.

(b) Application procedures. Submit application for depredation permits to the appropriate Regional Director (Attention: Migratory bird permit office). You can find addresses for the Regional Directors in 50 CFR 2.2. Each application must contain the general information and certification required in § 13.12(a) of this subchapter, and the following additional information:

(1) A description of the area where depredations are occurring;

(2) The nature of the crops or other interests being injured;

(3) The extent of such injury; and

(4) The particular species of migratory birds committing the injury.

(c) Additional permit conditions. Inaddition to the general conditions set forth in part 13 of this subchapter B, depredation permits shall be subject to requires, in this section:

(1) Permittees may not kill migratory birds unless specifically authorized on the permit.

(2) Unless otherwise specifically authorized, when permittees are authorized to kill migratory birds they may do so only with a shotgun not larger than No. 10 gauge fired from the shoulder, and only on or over the threatened area or area described on the permit.

(3) Permittees may not use blinds, pits, or other means of concealment, decoys, duck calls, or other devices to lure or entice birds within gun range.

(4) All migratory birds killed shall be retrieved by the permittee and turned over to a Bureau representative or his designee for disposition to charitable or other worthy institutions for use as food, or otherwise disposed of as provided by law.

(5) Only persons named on the permit are authorized to act as agents of the permittee under authority of the permit.

(d) Tenure of permits. The tenure of depredation permits shall be limited to the dates which appear on its face, but in no case shall be longer than one year.

Upon the receipt of evidence clearly showing that migratory game birds have accumulated in such numbers in a particular area as to cause or about to cause serious damage to agricultural, horticultural, and fish cultural interests, the Director is authorized to issue by publication in the Federal Register a depredation order to permit the killing of such birds under the following conditions:

(a) That such birds may only be killed by shooting with a shotgun not larger than No. 10 gauge fired from the shoulder, and only on or over the threatened area or areas;

(b) That shooting shall be limited to such time as may be fixed by the Director on the basis of all circumstances involved. If prior to termination of the period fixed for such shooting, the Director receives information that there no longer exists a serious threat to the area or areas involved, he shall without delay cause to be published in the Federal Register an order of revocation;

(c) That such migratory birds as are killed under the provisions of any depredation order may be used for food or donated to public museums or public scientific and educational institutions for exhibition, scientific, or educational purposes, but shall not be sold, offered for sale, bartered, or shipped for purpose of sale or barter, or be wantonly wasted or destroyed: Provided, That any migratory game birds which cannot be so utilized shall be disposed of as prescribed by the Director;

(d) That any order issued pursuant to this section shall not authorize the killing of the designated species of depredating birds contrary to any State laws or regulations. The order shall specify that it is issued as an emergency measure designed to relieve depredations only and shall not be construed as opening, reopening, or extending any open hunting season contrary to any regulations promulgated pursuant to section 3 of the Migratory Bird Treaty Act.

A Federal permit shall not be required to control yellow-headed red-winged, rusty, and Brewer's blackbirds, cowbirds, all grackles, crows, and magpies, when found committing or about to commit depredations upon ornamental or shade trees, agricultural crops, livestock, or wildlife, or when concentrated in such numbers and manner as to constitute a health hazard or other nuisance: Provided:

(a) That none of the birds killed pursuant to this section, nor their plumage, shall be sold or offered for sale, but may be possessed, transported, and otherwise disposed of or utilized.

(b) That any person exercising any of the privileges granted by this section shall permit at all reasonable times including during actual operations, any Federal or State game or deputy game agent, warden, protector, or other game law enforcement officer free and unrestricted access over the premises on which such operations have been or are being conducted; and shall furnish promptly to such officer whatever information he may require, concerning said operations.

(c) That nothing in this section shall be construed to authorize the killing of such birds contrary to any State laws or regulations; and that none of the privileges granted under this section shall be exercised unless the person possesses whatever permit as may be required for such activities by the State concerned.

In any county in California in which horned larks, golden-crowned, white-crowned and other crowned sparrows, and house finches are, under extraordinary conditions, seriously injurious to agricultural or other interests, the Commissioner of Agriculture may, without a permit, kill or cause to be killed under his/her general supervision such of the above migratory birds as may be necessary to safeguard any agricultural or horticultural crop in the county: Provided:

(a) That such migratory birds shall be killed only when necessary to protect agricultural or horticultural crops from depredation; that none of the above migratory birds killed, or the parts thereof, or the plumage of such birds, shall be sold or removed from the area where killed; but that all such dead migratory birds shall be buried or otherwise destroyed within this area, except that any specimens needed for scientific purposes, as determined by the State or the Director shall not be destroyed.

(b) That any Commissioner of Agriculture exercising the privileges granted by this section shall keep records of the persons authorized by the Commissioner to kill such migratory birds, and the estimated number of such birds killed pursuant to the exercise of his authority, and the Commissioner shall submit a report thereof to the Director on or before December 31 of each year or whenever the Director so requests.

Landowners, sharecroppers, tenants, or their employees or agents actually engaged in the production of nut crops in Washington and Oregon may, without a permit, take scrub jays (Aphelocoma coerulescens) and Steller's jays (Cyanocitta stelleri) when found committing or about to commit serious depredations to nut crops on the premises owned or occupied by such persons: Provided:

(a) That scrub jays and Steller's jays may only be taken pursuant to this section between August 1 and December 1 in any year, in the Washington counties of Clark, Cowlitz, and Lewis; and the Oregon counties of Benton, Clackamas, Lane, Linn, Marion, Multnomah, Polk, Washington, and Yamhill.

(b) That scrub jays and Steller's jays taken pursuant to this section shall not be transported or sold or offered for sale except that, such transportation within the area, as may be necessary to bury or otherwise destroy the carcasses of such birds is permitted: Provided, That the Director of the State agricultural department, college, or other public institution may requisition such scrub jays and Steller's jays killed as may be needed for scientific investigations.

(c) That such birds may be taken only by trapping or shooting and on areas where serious depredations are being or are about to be committed.

(d) That any person exercising any of the privileges granted by this section shall permit at all reasonable times, including during actual operations, any Federal or State game or deputy game agent, warden, protector, or other law enforcement officer free and unrestricted access over the premises on which such operations have been or are being conducted; and shall furnish promptly to such officer whatever information he may require, concerning said operations.

(e) That nothing in this section shall be construed to authorize the killing of such migratory birds contrary to any State laws or regulations; and that none of the privileges granted under this section shall be exercised unless the person possesses whatever permit as may be required for such activities by the States of Washington and Oregon.

(f) That any person authorized by this section to exercise the privileges granted therein shall maintain records of the number of birds killed on the premises and shall submit a report thereof, on or before December 31 of each year, to the appropriate Special Agent in Charge (see § 10.22 of this subchapter).

(a) What is the purpose of this depredation order? The purpose of this depredation order is to help reduce depredation of aquacultural stock by double-crested cormorants at private fish farms and State and Federal fish hatcheries.

(b) In what areas can this depredation order be implemented? This depredation order applies to commercial freshwater aquaculture facilities and to State and Federal fish hatcheries in the States of Alabama, Arkansas, Florida, Georgia, Kentucky, Louisiana, Minnesota, Mississippi, North Carolina, Oklahoma, South Carolina, Tennessee, and Texas.

(c) What does this depredation order allow and who can participate? (1) This depredation order authorizes landowners, operators, and tenants (or their employees or agents) actually engaged in the commercial, Federal, or State production of freshwater aquaculture stocks to take, without a Federal permit, double-crested cormorants when they are found committing or about to commit depredations to aquaculture stocks. This authority is applicable only during daylight hours and only within the boundaries of freshwater commercial aquaculture facilities or State and Federal hatcheries.

(2) This depredation order authorizes employees of the Wildlife Services program of the U.S. Department of Agriculture Animal and Plant Health Inspection Service to take double-crested cormorants, with appropriate landowner permission, at roost sites in the vicinity of aquaculture facilities, at any time, day or night, during the months of October, November, December, January, February, March, and April.

(3) Authorized employees of the Wildlife Services program of the U.S. Department of Agriculture Animal and Plant Health Inspection Service may designate agents to carry out control, provided these individuals act under the conditions of the order.

(d) What are the terms and conditions of this order? (1) Persons operating under paragraph (c)(1) of this section may only do so in conjunction with an established nonlethal harassment program as certified by officials of the Wildlife Services program of the U.S. Department of Agriculture Animal and Plant Health Inspection Service. Wildlife Services directive 2.330 outlines this certification process.

(2) Double-crested cormorants may be taken only by shooting with firearms, including rifles. Persons using shotguns are required to use nontoxic shot as listed in 50 CFR 20.21(j).

(3) Persons operating under this depredation order may use decoys, taped calls, or other devices to lure within gun range birds committing or about to commit depredations.

(4) Persons operating under this depredation order must obtain appropriate landowner permission before implementing activities authorized by the order.

(5) Double-crested cormorants may not be killed contrary to the laws or regulations of any State, and none of the privileges of this section may be exercised unless the person possesses the appropriate State or other permits, if required.

(6) Persons operating under this depredation order must properly dispose of double-crested cormorants killed in control efforts:

(i) Individuals may donate birds killed under authority of this order to museums or other such scientific and educational institutions for the purposes of scientific or educational exhibition;

(ii) Individuals may also bury or incinerate birds taken; and

(iii) Individuals may not allow birds taken under this order, or their plumage, to be sold, offered for sale, bartered, or shipped for purpose of sale or barter.

(7) Nothing in this depredation order authorizes the take of any migratory bird species other than double-crested cormorants. Two look-alike species co-occur with double-crested cormorants in the southeastern States: the anhinga, which occurs across the southeastern United States, and the neotropic cormorant, which is found in varying numbers in Texas, Louisiana, and Oklahoma. Both species can be mistaken for double-crested cormorants, but take of these two species is not authorized under this depredation order. Persons operating under this order must immediately report the take of a migratory bird species other than double-crested cormorants to the appropriate Service Regional Migratory Bird Permit Office.

(8) Nothing in this depredation order authorizes the take of any species protected by the Endangered Species Act. Persons operating under this order must immediately report the take of species protected under the Endangered Species Act to the Service.

(i) To protect wood storks and bald eagles, the following conservation measures must be observed within any geographic area where Endangered Species Act protection applies to these species: All control activities are allowed if the activities occur more than 1,500 feet from active wood stork nesting colonies, more than 1,000 feet from active wood stork roost sites, and more than 750 feet from feeding wood storks, and if they occur more than 750 feet from active bald eagle nests.

(ii) At their discretion, landowners, operators, and tenants may contact the Regional Migratory Bird Permit Office to request modification of the measures listed in paragraph (d)(8)(i) of this section. Such modification can occur only if the Regional Director determines, on the basis of coordination between the Regional Migratory Bird Permit Office and the Endangered Species Field Office, that wood storks and bald eagles will not be adversely affected.

(iii) If adverse effects are anticipated from the control activities in a geographical area where Endangered Species Act protection applies to wood storks or bald eagles, either during the intra-Service coordination discussions described above or at any other time, the Regional Migratory Bird Permit Office will initiate consultation with the Endangered Species Field Offices.

(9) Persons operating under this depredation order must:

(i) Keep a log recording the date, number, and location of all birds killed each year under this authorization;

(ii) Maintain this log for a period of 3 years (and maintain records for 3 previous years of takings at all times thereafter); and

(iii) Each year, provide the previous year's log to the appropriate Service Regional Migratory Bird Permit Office. Regional Office addresses are found in § 2.2 of subchapter A of this chapter.

(10) We reserve the right to suspend or revoke the authority of any Agency or individual granted by this order if we find that the specified purpose, terms, and conditions have not been adhered to by that Agency or individual or if the long-term sustainability of double-crested cormorant populations is threatened by that Agency's or individual's action(s). The criteria and procedures for suspension, revocation, reconsideration, and appeal are outlined in §§ 13.27 through 13.29 of this subchapter. For the purposes of this section, “issuing officer” means the Regional Director and “permit” means the authority to act under this depredation order. For purposes of § 13.29(e), appeals shall be made to the Director.

(e) Does this section contain information collection requirements? Yes, the information collection requirements in this section are approved by the Office of Management and Budget (OMB) under OMB control number 1018-0121. Federal agencies may not conduct or sponsor, and you are not required to respond to, a collection of information unless it displays a currently valid OMB control number.

(f) When does this depredation order expire? This depredation order will automatically expire on June 30, 2014, unless revoked or extended prior to that date.

(a) What is the purpose of this depredation order? The purpose of this depredation order is to reduce the occurrence and/or minimize the risk of adverse impacts to public resources (fish, wildlife, plants, and their habitats) caused by double-crested cormorants.

(b) In what areas can this depredation order be implemented? This depredation order applies to all lands and freshwaters in the States of Alabama, Arkansas, Florida, Georgia, Illinois, Indiana, Iowa, Kansas, Kentucky, Louisiana, Michigan, Minnesota, Mississippi, Missouri, New York, North Carolina, Ohio, Oklahoma, South Carolina, Tennessee, Texas, Vermont, West Virginia, and Wisconsin.

(c) What does this depredation order allow and who can participate? (1) This depredation order authorizes State fish and wildlife agencies, Federally recognized Tribes, and State Directors of the Wildlife Services program of the U.S. Department of Agriculture Animal and Plant Health Inspection Service (collectively termed “Agencies”) to prevent depredations on the public resources of fish (including hatchery stock at Federal, State, and Tribal facilities), wildlife, plants, and their habitats by taking without a permit double-crested cormorants found committing or about to commit, such depredations.

(2) Agencies may designate agents to carry out control, provided those individuals act under the conditions of the order.

(3) Federally recognized Tribes and their agents may carry out control only on reservation lands or ceded lands within their jurisdiction.

(d) What are the terms and conditions of this order? (1) Persons operating under this order should first utilize nonlethal control methods such as harassment and exclusion devices when these are considered effective and practicable and not harmful to other nesting birds by the responsible Agency.

(2) Double-crested cormorants may be taken only by means of egg oiling, egg and nest destruction, cervical dislocation, firearms, and CO2 asphyxiation. Persons using shotguns must use nontoxic shot, as listed in 50 CFR 20.21(j). Persons using egg oiling must use 100 percent corn oil, a substance exempted from regulation by the U.S. Environmental Protection Agency under the Federal Insecticide, Fungicide, and Rodenticide Act.

(3) Persons operating under this depredation order may use decoys, taped calls, or other devices to lure within gun range birds committing or about to commit depredation of public resources.

(4) Persons operating under this depredation order must obtain appropriate landowner permission before implementing activities authorized by the order.

(5) Persons operating under this depredation order may not take double-crested cormorants contrary to the laws or regulations of any State, and none of the privileges of this section may be exercised unless the person possesses the appropriate State or other permits, if required.

(6) Persons operating under this depredation order must properly dispose of double-crested cormorants killed in control efforts:

(i) Individuals may donate birds killed under authority of this order to museums or other such scientific and educational institutions for the purposes of scientific or educational exhibition;

(ii) Individuals may also bury or incinerate birds taken; and

(iii) Individuals may not allow birds taken under this order, or their plumage, to be sold, offered for sale, bartered, or shipped for purpose of sale or barter.

(7) Nothing in this depredation order authorizes the take of any migratory bird species other than double-crested cormorants. Two look-alike species co-occur with double-crested cormorants in the southeastern States: the anhinga, which occurs across the southeastern United States, and the neotropic cormorant, which is found in varying numbers in Texas, Louisiana, Kansas, and Oklahoma. Both species can be mistaken for double-crested cormorants, but take of these two species is not authorized under this depredation order. Persons operating under this order must immediately report the take of a migratory bird species other than double-crested cormorants to the appropriate Service Regional Migratory Bird Permit Office.

(8) Nothing in this depredation order authorizes the take of any species protected by the Endangered Species Act. Persons operating under this order must immediately report the take of species protected under the Endangered Species Act to the Service.

(i) To protect piping plovers, interior least terns, wood storks, and bald eagles, the following conservation measures must be observed within any geographic area where Endangered Species Act protection applies to these species:

(A) The discharge/use of firearms to kill or harass double-crested cormorants or use of other harassment methods are allowed if the control activities occur more than 1,000 feet from active piping plover or interior least tern nests or colonies; occur more than 1,500 feet from active wood stork nesting colonies, more than 1,000 feet from active wood stork roost sites, and more than 750 feet from feeding wood storks; or occur more than 750 feet from active bald eagle nests;

(B) Other control activities such as egg oiling, cervical dislocation, CO2 asphyxiation, egg destruction, or nest destruction are allowed if these activities occur more than 500 feet from active piping plover or interior least tern nests or colonies; occur more than 1,500 feet from active wood stork nesting colonies, more than 1,000 feet from active wood stork roost sites, and more than 750 feet from feeding wood storks; or occur more than 750 feet from active bald eagle nests;

(C) To ensure adequate protection of piping plovers, any Agency or its agents who plan to implement control activities that may affect areas designated as piping plover critical habitat in the Great Lakes Region are to obtain prior approval from the appropriate Regional Director. Requests for approval of activities in these areas must be submitted to the Regional Migratory Bird Permit Office. The Regional Migratory Bird Permit Office will then coordinate with the Endangered Species Field Office staff to assess whether the measures in paragraph (d)(8)(i)(B) of this section are adequate.

(ii) At their discretion, Agencies or their agents may contact the Regional Migratory Bird Permit Office to request modification of the above measures. Such modification can occur only if the Regional Director determines, on the basis of coordination between the Regional Migratory Bird Permit Office and the Endangered Species Field Office, that the species listed in paragraph (d)(8)(i) of this section will not be adversely affected.

(iii) If adverse effects are anticipated from the control activities in a geographical area where Endangered Species Act protection applies to any of the four species listed in paragraph (d)(8)(i) of this section, either during the intra-Service coordination discussions described in paragraph (d)(8)(i)(C) of this section or at any other time, the Regional Migratory Bird Permit Office will initiate consultation with the Endangered Species Field Offices.

(9) Responsible Agencies must, before they initiate any control activities in a given year, provide a one-time written notice to the appropriate Service Regional Migratory Bird Permit Office indicating that they intend to act under this order.

(i) Additionally, if any Agency plans a single control action that would individually, or a succession of such actions that would cumulatively, kill more than 10 percent of the double-crested cormorants in a breeding colony, it must first provide written notification to the appropriate Service Regional Migratory Bird Permit Office. This letter must be received no later than 30 days in advance of the activity and must provide:

(A) The location (indicating specific colonies, if applicable) of the proposed control activity;

(B) A description of the proposed control activity, specifying what public resources are being impacted, how many birds are likely to be taken and what approximate percentage they are of total DCCOs present, and which species of other birds are present; and

(C) Contact information for the person in charge of the control action.

(ii) The Regional Director may prevent any such activity by notifying the agency in writing if the Regional Director deems the activity a threat to the long-term sustainability of double-crested cormorants or any other migratory bird species.

(10) Persons operating under this order must keep records of all activities, including those of designated agents, carried out under this order. On an annual basis, Agencies must provide the Service Regional Migratory Bird Permit Office with a report detailing activities conducted under the authority of this order, including:

(i) By date and location, a summary of the number of double-crested cormorants killed and/or number of nests in which eggs were oiled;

(ii) A statement of efforts being made to minimize incidental take of nontarget species and a report of the number and species of migratory birds involved in such take, if any;

(iii) A description of the impacts or anticipated impacts to public resources by double-crested cormorants and a statement of the management objectives for the area in question;

(iv) A description of the evidence supporting the conclusion that double-crested cormorants are causing or will cause these impacts;

(v) A discussion of other limiting factors affecting the resource (e.g., biological, environmental, and socioeconomic); and

(vi) A discussion of how control efforts are expected to, or actually did, alleviate resource impacts.

(11) Agencies must provide annual reports to the appropriate Service Regional Migratory Bird Permit Office, as described in paragraph (d)(10) of this section, by December 31 for the reporting period October 1 of the previous year to September 30 of the same year. For example, reports for the period October 1, 2003, to September 30, 2004, would be due on or before December 31, 2004. The Service will regularly review Agency reports and will periodically assess the overall impact of this program to ensure compatibility with the long-term conservation of double-crested cormorants and other resources.

(12) In some situations, Agencies may deem it necessary to reduce or eliminate local breeding populations of double-crested cormorants to reduce the occurrence of resource impacts.

(i) For such actions, Agencies must:

(A) Comply with paragraph (d)(9) of this section;

(B) Carefully plan activities to avoid disturbance of nontarget species;

(C) Evaluate effects of management activities on cormorants at the control site;

(D) Evaluate, by means of collecting data or using best available information, effects of management activities on the public resources being protected and on nontarget species; and

(E) Include this information in the report described in paragraph (d)(10) of this section.

(ii) Agencies may coordinate with the appropriate Service Regional Migratory Bird Permit Office in the preparation of this information to attain technical or other assistance.

(13) We reserve the right to suspend or revoke the authority of any Agency, Tribe, or State Director granted by this order if we find that the specified purpose, terms, and conditions have not been adhered to or if the long-term sustainability of double-crested cormorant populations is threatened by the action(s) of that Agency, Tribe, or State Director. The criteria and procedures for suspension, revocation, reconsideration, and appeal are outlined in §§ 13.27 through 13.29 of this subchapter. For the purposes of this section, “issuing officer” means the Regional Director and “permit” means the authority to act under this depredation order. For purposes of § 13.29(e), appeals shall be made to the Director.

(e) Does this section contain information collection requirements? Yes, the information collection requirements in this section are approved by the Office of Management and Budget (OMB) under OMB control number 1018-0121. Federal agencies may not conduct or sponsor, and you are not required to respond to, a collection of information unless it displays a currently valid OMB control number.

(f) When does this depredation order expire? This depredation order will automatically expire on June 30, 2014, unless revoked or extended prior to that date.

(a) Which Canada geese are covered by this order? This regulation addresses the control and management of resident Canada geese, as defined in § 21.3.

(b) What is the control order for resident Canada geese at airports, and what is its purpose? The airport control order authorizes managers at commercial, public, and private airports (airports) (and their employees or their agents) and military air operation facilities (military airfields) (and their employees or their agents) to establish and implement a control and management program when necessary to resolve or prevent threats to public safety from resident Canada geese. Control and management activities include indirect and/or direct control strategies such as trapping and relocation, nest and egg destruction, gosling and adult trapping and culling programs, or other lethal and non-lethal control strategies.

(c) Who may participate in the program? To be designated as an airport that is authorized to participate in this program, an airport must be part of the National Plan of Integrated Airport Systems and have received Federal grant-in-aid assistance, or a military airfield, meaning an airfield or air station that is under the jurisdiction, custody, or control of the Secretary of a military department. Only airports and military airfields in the lower 48 States and the District of Columbia are eligible to conduct and implement the various resident Canada goose control and management program components.

(d) What are the restrictions of the control order for resident Canada geese at airports and military airfields? The airport control order for resident Canada geese is subject to the following restrictions:

(1) Airports and military airfields should use nonlethal goose management tools to the extent they deem appropriate. To minimize lethal take, airports and military airfields should follow this procedure:

(i) Assess the problem to determine its extent or magnitude, its impact on current operations, and the appropriate control method to be used.

(ii) Base control methods on sound biological, environmental, social, and cultural factors.

(iii) Formulate appropriate methods into a control strategy that uses several control techniques rather than relying on a single method.

(iv) Implement all appropriate nonlethal management techniques (such as harassment and habitat modification) in conjunction with take authorized under this order.

(2)(i) Methods of take for the control of resident Canada geese are at the airport's and military airfield's discretion from among the following:

(A) Egg oiling,

(B) Egg and nest destruction,

(C) Shooting,

(D) Lethal and live traps,

(E) Nets,

(F) Registered animal drugs, pesticides, and repellants,

(G) Cervical dislocation, and

(H) CO2 asphyxiation.

(ii) Birds caught live may be euthanized or transported and relocated to another site approved by the State or Tribal wildlife agency, if required.

(iii) All techniques used must be in accordance with other Federal, State, and local laws, and their use must comply with any labeling restrictions.

(iv) Persons using shotguns must use nontoxic shot, as listed in § 20.21(j) of this subchapter.

(v) Persons using egg oiling must use 100 percent corn oil, a substance exempted from regulation by the U.S. Environmental Protection Agency under the Federal Insecticide, Fungicide, and Rodenticide Act.

(3) Airports and military airfields may conduct management and control activities, involving the take of resident Canada geese, under this section between April 1 and September 15. The destruction of resident Canada goose nests and eggs may take place between March 1 and June 30.

(4) Airports and military airfields and their employees and agents may possess, transport, and otherwise dispose of resident Canada geese taken under this section. Disposal of birds taken under this order may be by donation to public museums or public institutions for scientific or educational purposes, processing for human consumption and subsequent distribution free of charge to charitable organizations, or burial or incineration. Airports/military airfields, their employees, and designated agents may not sell, offer for sale, barter, or ship for the purpose of sale or barter any resident Canada geese taken under this section, nor their plumage or eggs. Any specimens needed for scientific purposes as determined by the Regional Director must not be destroyed, and information on birds carrying metal leg bands must be submitted to the Bird Banding Laboratory by means of a toll-free telephone number at 1-800-327-BAND (or 2263).

(5) Resident Canada geese may be taken only within the airport, or the military base on which a military airfield is located, or within a 3-mile radius of the outer boundary of such a facility. Airports and military airfields or their agents must first obtain all necessary authorizations from landowners for all management activities conducted outside the airport or military airfield's boundaries and be in compliance with all State and local laws and regulations.

(6) Nothing in this section authorizes the killing of resident Canada geese or destruction of their nests and eggs contrary to the laws or regulations of any State or Tribe, and none of the privileges of this section may be exercised unless the airport or military airfield possesses the appropriate State or Tribal authorization or other permits required by the State or Tribe. Moreover, this section does not authorize the killing of any migratory bird species or destruction of their nest or eggs other than resident Canada geese.

(7) Authorized airports and military airfields, and their employees and agents operating under the provisions of this section may not use decoys, calls, or other devices to lure birds within gun range.

(8) Airports and military airfields exercising the privileges granted by this section must submit an annual report summarizing activities, including the date and numbers and location of birds, nests, and eggs taken, by December 31 of each year to the Regional Migratory Bird Permit Office listed in § 2.2 of this subchapter.

(9) Nothing in this section applies to any Federal land without written permission of the Federal agency with jurisdiction.

(10) Airports and military airfields may not undertake any actions under this section if the activities adversely affect other migratory birds or species designated as endangered or threatened under the authority of the Endangered Species Act. Persons operating under this order must immediately report the take of any species protected under the Endangered Species Act to the Service. Further, to protect certain species from being adversely affected by management actions, airports and military airfields must:

(i) Follow the Federal-State Contingency Plan for the whooping crane;

(ii) Conduct no activities within 300 meters of a whooping crane or Mississippi sandhill crane nest;

(iii) Follow all Regional (or National when available) Bald Eagle Nesting Management guidelines for all management activities;

(iv) Contact the Arizona Ecological Services Office (for the Colorado River and Arizona sites) or the Carlsbad Fish and Wildlife Office (for Salton Sea sites) if control activities are proposed in or around occupied habitats (cattail or cattail bulrush marshes) to discuss the proposed activity and ensure that implementation will not adversely affect clapper rails or their habitats; and

(v) In California, any control activities of resident Canada geese in areas used by the following species listed under the Endangered Species Act must be done in coordination with the appropriate local FWS field office and in accordance with standard local operating procedures for avoiding adverse effects to the species or its critical habitat:

(A) Birds: Light-footed clapper rail, California clapper rail, Yuma clapper rail, California least tern, southwestern willow flycatcher, least Bell's vireo, western snowy plover, California gnatcatcher.

(B) Amphibians: California red-legged frog and California tiger salamander.

(C) Insects: Valley elderberry longhorn beetle and delta green ground beetle.

(D) Crustaceans: Vernal pool fairy shrimp, conservancy fairy shrimp, longhorn fairy shrimp, vernal pool tadpole shrimp, San Diego fairy shrimp, and Riverside fairy shrimp.

(E) Plants: Butte County meadowfoam, large-flowered wooly meadowfoam, Cook's lomatium, Contra Costa goldfields, Hoover's spurge, fleshy owl's clover, Colusa grass, hairy Orcutt grass, Solano grass, Greene's tuctoria, Sacramento Valley Orcutt grass, San Joaquin Valley Orcutt grass, slender Orcutt grass, California Orcutt grass, spreading navarretia, and San Jacinto Valley crownscale.

(e) Can the control order be suspended? We reserve the right to suspend or revoke an airport's or military airfield's authority under this control order if we find that the terms and conditions specified in the control order have not been adhered to by that airport or military airfield. Final decisions to revoke authority will be made by the appropriate Regional Director. The criteria and procedures for suspension, revocation, reconsideration, and appeal are outlined in §§ 13.27 through 13.29 of this subchapter. For the purposes of this section, “issuing officer” means the Regional Director and “permit” means the authority to act under this control order. For purposes of § 13.29(e), appeals must be made to the Director.

(f) Has the Office of Management and Budget (OMB) approved the information collection requirements of the control order? OMB has approved the information collection and recordkeeping requirements of the control order under OMB control number 1018-0133. We may not conduct or sponsor, and you are not required to respond to, a collection of information unless it displays a currently valid OMB control number. You may send comments on the information collection and recordkeeping requirements to the Service's Information Collection Clearance Officer, U.S. Fish and Wildlife Service, MS 222—ARLSQ, 1849 C Street NW., Washington, DC 20240.

(a) Which Canada geese are covered by this order? This regulation addresses the control and management of resident Canada geese, as defined in § 21.3.

(b) What is the depredation order for resident Canada geese nests and eggs, and what is its purpose? The nest and egg depredation order for resident Canada geese authorizes private landowners and managers of public lands (landowners); homeowners' associations; and village, town, municipality, and county governments (local governments); and the employees or agents of any of these persons or entities to destroy resident Canada goose nests and eggs on property under their jurisdiction when necessary to resolve or prevent injury to people, property, agricultural crops, or other interests.

(c) Who may participate in the depredation order? Only landowners, homeowners' associations, and local governments (and their employees or their agents) in the lower 48 States and the District of Columbia are eligible to implement the resident Canada goose nest and egg depredation order.

(d) What are the restrictions of the depredation order for resident Canada goose nests and eggs? The resident Canada goose nest and egg depredation order is subject to the following restrictions:

(1) Before any management actions can be taken, landowners, homeowners' associations, and local governments must register with the Service at https://epermits.fws.gov/eRCGR. Landowners, homeowners' associations, and local governments (collectively termed “registrants”) must also register each employee or agent working on their behalf. Once registered, registrants and agents will be authorized to act under the depredation order.

(2) Registrants authorized to operate under the depredation order must use nonlethal goose management techniques to the extent they deem appropriate in an effort to minimize take.

(3) Methods of nest and egg destruction or take are at the registrant's discretion from among the following:

(i) Egg oiling, using 100 percent corn oil, a substance exempted from regulation by the U.S. Environmental Protection Agency under the Federal Insecticide, Fungicide, and Rodenticide Act, and

(ii) Egg and nest destruction, including but not limited to the removal and disposal of eggs and nest material.

(4) Registrants may conduct resident Canada goose nest and egg destruction activities between March 1 and June 30. Homeowners' associations and local governments or their agents must obtain landowner consent prior to destroying nests and eggs on private property within the homeowners' association or local government's jurisdiction and be in compliance with all State and local laws and regulations.

(5) Registrants authorized to operate under the depredation order may possess, transport, and dispose of resident Canada goose nests and eggs taken under this section. Registrants authorized to operate under the program may not sell, offer for sale, barter, or ship for the purpose of sale or barter any resident Canada goose nest or egg taken under this section.

(6) Registrants exercising the privileges granted by this section must submit an annual report summarizing activities, including the date, numbers, and location of nests and eggs taken by October 31 of each year at https://epermits.fws.gov/eRCGR before any subsequent registration for the following year.

(7) Nothing in this section authorizes the destruction of resident Canada goose nests or the take of resident Canada goose eggs contrary to the laws or regulations of any State or Tribe, and none of the privileges of this section may be exercised unless the registrant is authorized to operate under the program and possesses the appropriate State or Tribal permits, when required. Moreover, this section does not authorize the killing of any migratory bird species or destruction of their nest or eggs other than resident Canada geese.

(8) Registrants may not undertake any actions under this section if the activities adversely affect species designated as endangered or threatened under the authority of the Endangered Species Act. Persons operating under this order must immediately report the take of any species protected under the Endangered Species Act to the Service. Further, to protect certain species from being adversely affected by management actions, registrants must:

(i) Follow the Federal-State Contingency Plan for the whooping crane;

(ii) Conduct no activities within 300 meters of a whooping crane or Mississippi sandhill crane nest;

(iii) Follow all Regional (or National when available) Bald Eagle Nesting Management guidelines for all management activities;

(iv) Contact the Arizona Ecological Services Office (for the Colorado River and Arizona sites) or the Carlsbad Fish and Wildlife Office (for Salton Sea sites) if control activities are proposed in or around occupied habitats (cattail or cattail bulrush marshes) to discuss the proposed activity and ensure that implementation will not adversely affect clapper rails or their habitats; and

(v) In California, any control activities of resident Canada geese in areas used by the following species listed under the Endangered Species Act must be done in coordination with the appropriate local FWS field office and in accordance with standard local operating procedures for avoiding adverse effects to the species or its critical habitat:

(A) Birds: Light-footed clapper rail, California clapper rail, Yuma clapper rail, California least tern, southwestern willow flycatcher, least Bell's vireo, western snowy plover, California gnatcatcher.

(B) Amphibians: California red-legged frog and California tiger salamander.

(C) Insects: Valley elderberry longhorn beetle and delta green ground beetle.

(D) Crustaceans: Vernal pool fairy shrimp, conservancy fairy shrimp, longhorn fairy shrimp, vernal pool tadpole shrimp, San Diego fairy shrimp, and Riverside fairy shrimp.

(E) Plants: Butte County meadowfoam, large-flowered wooly meadowfoam, Cook's lomatium, Contra Costa goldfields, Hoover's spurge, fleshy owl's clover, Colusa grass, hairy Orcutt grass, Solano grass, Greene's tuctoria, Sacramento Valley Orcutt grass, San Joaquin Valley Orcutt grass, slender Orcutt grass, California Orcutt grass, spreading navarretia, and San Jacinto Valley crownscale.

(e) Can the depredation order be suspended? We reserve the right to suspend or revoke this authorization for a particular landowner, homeowners' association, or local government if we find that the registrant has not adhered to the terms and conditions specified in the depredation order. Final decisions to revoke authority will be made by the appropriate Regional Director. The criteria and procedures for suspension, revocation, reconsideration, and appeal are outlined in §§ 13.27 through 13.29 of this subchapter. For the purposes of this section, “issuing officer” means the Regional Director and “permit” means the authority to act under this depredation order. For purposes of § 13.29(e), appeals must be made to the Director. Additionally, at such time that we determine that resident Canada goose populations no longer need to be reduced in order to resolve or prevent injury to people, property, agricultural crops, or other interests, we may choose to terminate part or all of the depredation order by subsequent regulation. In all cases, we will annually review the necessity and effectiveness of the depredation order.

(f) Has the Office of Management and Budget (OMB) approved the information collection requirements of the depredation order? OMB has approved the information collection and recordkeeping requirements of the depredation order under OMB control number 1018-0133. We may not conduct or sponsor, and you are not required to respond to, a collection of information unless it displays a currently valid OMB control number. You may send comments on the information collection and recordkeeping requirements to the Service's Information Collection Clearance Officer, U.S. Fish and Wildlife Service, MS 222—ARLSQ, 1849 C Street NW., Washington, DC 20240.

(a) Which Canada geese are covered by this order? This regulation addresses the control and management of resident Canada geese, as defined in § 21.3.

(b) What is the depredation order for resident Canada geese at agricultural facilities, and what is its purpose? The depredation order for resident Canada geese at agricultural facilities authorizes States and Tribes, via the State or Tribal wildlife agency, to implement a program to allow landowners, operators, and tenants actively engaged in commercial agriculture (agricultural producers) (or their employees or agents) to conduct direct damage management actions such as nest and egg destruction, gosling and adult trapping and culling programs, or other lethal and non-lethal wildlife-damage management strategies on resident Canada geese when the geese are committing depredations to agricultural crops and when necessary to resolve or prevent injury to agricultural crops or other agricultural interests from resident Canada geese.

(c) Who may participate in the depredation order? State and Tribal wildlife agencies in the following States may authorize agricultural producers (or their employees or agents) to conduct and implement various components of the depredation order at agricultural facilities in the Atlantic, Central, and Mississippi Flyway portions of these States: Alabama, Arkansas, Colorado, Connecticut, Delaware, Florida, Georgia, Illinois, Indiana, Iowa, Kansas, Kentucky, Louisiana, Maine, Maryland, Massachusetts, Michigan, Minnesota, Mississippi, Missouri, Montana, Nebraska, New Hampshire, New Mexico, New Jersey, New York, North Carolina, North Dakota, Ohio, Oklahoma, Pennsylvania, Rhode Island, South Carolina, South Dakota, Tennessee, Texas, Vermont, Virginia, West Virginia, Wisconsin, and Wyoming.

(d) What are the restrictions of the depredation order for resident Canada geese at agricultural facilities? The depredation order for resident Canada geese at agricultural facilities is subject to the following restrictions:

(1) Only landowners, operators, and tenants (or their employees or agents) actively engaged in commercial activities (agricultural producers) so designated by the States may act under this order.

(2) Authorized agricultural producers should use nonlethal goose management tools to the extent they deem appropriate. To minimize lethal take, agricultural producers should adhere to the following procedure:

(i) Assess the problem to determine its extent or magnitude, its impact to current operations, and the appropriate control method to be used.

(ii) Base control methods on sound biological, environmental, social, and cultural factors.

(iii) Formulate appropriate methods into a control strategy that uses the approach/concept that encourages the use of several control techniques rather than relying on a single method.

(iv) Implement all appropriate nonlethal management techniques (such as harassment and habitat modification) in conjunction with take authorized under this order.

(3)(i) Methods of take for the control of resident Canada geese are at the State's or Tribe's discretion among the following:

(A) Egg oiling,

(B) Egg and nest destruction,

(C) Shotguns,

(D) Lethal and live traps,

(E) Nets,

(F) Registered animal drugs, pesticides, and repellants,

(G) Cervical dislocation, and

(H) CO2 asphyxiation.

(ii) Birds caught live may be euthanized or transported and relocated to another site approved by the State or Tribal wildlife agency, if required.

(iii) All techniques used must be in accordance with other Federal, State, Tribal, and local laws, and their use must comply with any labeling restrictions.

(iv) Persons using shotguns must use nontoxic shot, as listed in § 20.21(j) of this subchapter.

(v) Persons using egg oiling must use 100 percent corn oil, a substance exempted from regulation by the U.S. Environmental Protection Agency under the Federal Insecticide, Fungicide, and Rodenticide Act.

(4) Authorized agricultural producers and their employees and agents may conduct management and control activities, involving the take of resident Canada geese, under this section between May 1 and August 31. The destruction of resident Canada goose nests and eggs may take place between March 1 and June 30.

(5) Authorized agricultural producers and their employees and agents may possess, transport, and otherwise dispose of resident Canada geese taken under this section. Disposal of birds taken under this order may be by donation to public museums or public institutions for scientific or educational purposes, processing for human consumption and subsequent distribution free of charge to charitable organizations, or burial or incineration. Agricultural producers, their employees, and designated agents may not sell, offer for sale, barter, or ship for the purpose of sale or barter any resident Canada geese taken under this section, nor their plumage or eggs. Any specimens needed for scientific purposes as determined by the Director must not be destroyed, and information on birds carrying metal leg bands must be submitted to the Bird Banding Laboratory by means of a toll-free telephone number at 1-800-327-BAND (or 2263).

(6) Resident Canada geese may be taken only on land which an authorized agricultural producer personally controls and where geese are committing depredations to agricultural crops.

(7) Authorized agricultural producers, and their employees and agents, operating under the provisions of this section may not use decoys, calls, or other devices to lure birds within gun range.

(8) Any authorized agricultural producer exercising the privileges of this section must keep and maintain a log that indicates the date and number of birds killed and the date and number of nests and eggs taken under this authorization. The log must be maintained for a period of 3 years (and records for 3 previous years of takings must be maintained at all times thereafter). The log and any related records must be made available to Federal, State, or Tribal wildlife enforcement officers upon request during normal business hours.

(9) Nothing in this section authorizes the killing of resident Canada geese or the destruction of their nests and eggs contrary to the laws or regulations of any State or Tribe, and none of the privileges of this section may be exercised unless the agricultural producer possesses the appropriate State or Tribal permits, when required. Moreover, this regulation does not authorize the killing of any migratory bird species or destruction of their nests or eggs other than resident Canada geese.

(10) States and Tribes exercising the privileges granted by this section must submit an annual report summarizing activities, including the numbers and County of birds, nests, and eggs taken, by December 31 of each year to the Regional Migratory Bird Permit Office listed in § 2.2 of this subchapter.

(11) Nothing in this section applies to any Federal land without written permission of the Federal agency with jurisdiction.

(12) Authorized agricultural producers may not undertake any actions under this section if the activities adversely affect other migratory birds or species designated as endangered or threatened under the authority of the Endangered Species Act. Persons operating under this order must immediately report the take of any species protected under the Endangered Species Act to the Service. Further, to protect certain species from being adversely affected by management actions, agricultural producers must:

(i) Follow the Federal-State Contingency Plan for the whooping crane;

(ii) Conduct no activities within 300 meters of a whooping crane or Mississippi sandhill crane nest; and

(iii) Follow all Regional (or National when available) Bald Eagle Nesting Management guidelines for all management activities.

(e) Can the depredation order be suspended? We reserve the right to suspend or revoke a State, Tribal, or agricultural producer's authority under this program if we find that the terms and conditions specified in the depredation order have not been adhered to by that State or Tribe. Final decisions to revoke authority will be made by the appropriate Regional Director. The criteria and procedures for suspension, revocation, reconsideration, and appeal are outlined in §§ 13.27 through 13.29 of this subchapter. For the purposes of this section, “issuing officer” means the Regional Director and “permit” means the authority to act under this depredation order. For purposes of § 13.29(e), appeals must be made to the Director. Additionally, at such time that we determine that resident Canada geese populations no longer pose a threat to agricultural crops or no longer need to be reduced in order to resolve or prevent injury to agricultural crops or other agricultural interests, we may choose to terminate part or all of the depredation order by subsequent regulation. In all cases, we will annually review the necessity and effectiveness of the depredation order.

(f) Has the Office of Management and Budget (OMB) approved the information collection requirements of the depredation order? OMB has approved the information collection and recordkeeping requirements of the depredation order under OMB control number 1018-0133. We may not conduct or sponsor, and you are not required to respond to, a collection of information unless it displays a currently valid OMB control number. You may send comments on the information collection and recordkeeping requirements to the Service's Information Collection Clearance Officer, U.S. Fish and Wildlife Service, MS 222-ARLSQ, 1849 C Street, NW., Washington, DC 20240.

(a) Which Canada geese are covered by this order? This regulation addresses the control and management of resident Canada geese, as defined in § 21.3.

(b) What is the public health control order for resident Canada geese, and what is its purpose? The public health control order for resident Canada geese authorizes States, Tribes, and the District of Columbia, via the State or Tribal wildlife agency, to conduct resident Canada goose control and management activities including direct control strategies such as trapping and relocation, nest and egg destruction, gosling and adult trapping and culling programs, or other lethal and non-lethal wildlife damage-management strategies when resident Canada geese are posing a direct threat to human health.

(c) What is a direct threat to human health? A direct threat to human health is one where a Federal, State, Tribal, or local public health agency has determined that resident Canada geese pose a specific, immediate human health threat by creating conditions conducive to the transmission of human or zoonotic pathogens. The State or Tribe may not use this control order for situations in which resident Canada geese are merely causing a nuisance.

(d) Who may participate in the program? Only State and Tribal wildlife agencies in the lower 48 States and the District of Columbia (or their employees or agents) may conduct and implement the various components of the public health control order for resident Canada geese.

(e) What are the restrictions of the public health depredation order for resident Canada geese? The public health control order for resident Canada geese is subject to the following restrictions:

(1) Authorized State and Tribal wildlife agencies should use nonlethal goose management tools to the extent they deem appropriate.

(2)(i) Methods of take for the control of resident Canada geese are at the State's and Tribe's discretion from among the following:

(A) Egg oiling,

(B) Egg and nest destruction,

(C) Shotguns,

(D) Lethal and live traps,

(E) Nets,

(F) Registered animal drugs, pesticides, and repellants,

(G) Cervical dislocation, and

(H) CO2 asphyxiation.

(ii) Birds caught live may be euthanized or transported and relocated to another site approved by the State or Tribal wildlife agency, if required.

(iii) All techniques used must be in accordance with other Federal, State, Tribal, and local laws, and their use must comply with any labeling restrictions.

(iv) Persons using shotguns must use nontoxic shot, as listed in § 20.21(j) of this subchapter.

(v) Persons using egg oiling must use 100 percent corn oil, a substance exempted from regulation by the U.S. Environmental Protection Agency under the Federal Insecticide, Fungicide, and Rodenticide Act.

(3) Authorized State and Tribal wildlife agencies and their employees and agents may conduct management and control activities, involving the take of resident Canada geese, under this section between April 1 and August 31. The destruction of resident Canada goose nests and eggs may take place between March 1 and June 30.

(4) Authorized State and Tribal wildlife agencies and their employees and agents may possess, transport, and otherwise dispose of resident Canada geese taken under this section. Disposal of birds taken under this order may be by donation to public museums or public institutions for scientific or educational purposes, processing for human consumption and subsequent distribution free of charge to charitable organizations, or burial or incineration. States, their employees, and designated agents may not sell, offer for sale, barter, or ship for the purpose of sale or barter any resident Canada geese taken under this section, nor their plumage or eggs. Any specimens needed for scientific purposes as determined by the Regional Director must not be destroyed, and information on birds carrying metal leg bands must be submitted to the Bird Banding Laboratory by means of a toll-free telephone number at 1-800-327-BAND (or 2263).

(5) Resident Canada geese may be taken only within the specified area of the direct threat to human health.

(6) Authorized State and Tribal wildlife agencies, and their employees and agents operating under the provisions of this section may not use decoys, calls, or other devices to lure birds within gun range.

(7) No person conducting activities under this section should construe the program as authorizing the killing of resident Canada geese or destruction of their nests and eggs contrary to any State law or regulation, nor may any control activities be conducted on any Federal land without specific authorization by the responsible management agency. No person may exercise the privileges granted under this section unless they possess any permits required for such activities by any State or Federal land manager.

(8) Any State or Tribal employee or designated agent authorized to carry out activities under this section must have a copy of the State's or Tribal authorization and designation in their possession when carrying out any activities. If the State or Tribe is conducting operations on private property, the State or Tribe must also require the property owner or occupant on whose premises resident Canada goose activities are being conducted to allow, at all reasonable times, including during actual operations, free and unrestricted access to any Service special agent or refuge officer, State or Tribal wildlife or deputy wildlife agent, warden, protector, or other wildlife law enforcement officer on the premises where they are, or were, conducting activities. Furthermore, any State or Tribal employee or designated agent conducting such activities must promptly furnish whatever information is required concerning such activities to any such wildlife officer.

(9) States and Tribes exercising the privileges granted by this section must submit an annual report summarizing activities, including the numbers and County of birds taken, by December 31 of each year to the Regional Migratory Bird Permit Office listed in § 2.2 of this subchapter.

(10) Authorized State and Tribal wildlife agencies may not undertake any actions under this section if the activities adversely affect other migratory birds or species designated as endangered or threatened under the authority of the Endangered Species Act. Persons operating under this order must immediately report the take of any species protected under the Endangered Species Act to the Service. Further, to protect certain species from being adversely affected by management actions, State and Tribal wildlife agencies must:

(i) Follow the Federal-State Contingency Plan for the whooping crane;

(ii) Conduct no activities within 300 meters of a whooping crane or Mississippi sandhill crane nest;

(iii) Follow all Regional (or National when available) Bald Eagle Nesting Management guidelines for all management activities;

(iv) Contact the Arizona Fish and Wildlife Service Ecological Services Office (for the Colorado River and Arizona sites) or the Carlsbad Fish and Wildlife Office (for Salton Sea sites) if control activities are proposed in or around occupied habitats (cattail or cattail bulrush marshes) to discuss the proposed activity and ensure that implementation will not adversely affect clapper rails or their habitats; and

(v) In California, any control activities of resident Canada geese in areas used by the following species listed under the Endangered Species Act must be done in coordination with the appropriate local FWS field office and in accordance with standard local operating procedures for avoiding adverse effects to the species or its critical habitat:

(A) Birds: Light-footed clapper rail, California clapper rail, Yuma clapper rail, California least tern, southwestern willow flycatcher, least Bell's vireo, western snowy plover, California gnatcatcher.

(B) Amphibians: California red-legged frog and California tiger salamander.

(C) Insects: Valley elderberry longhorn beetle and delta green ground beetle.

(D) Crustaceans: Vernal pool fairy shrimp, conservancy fairy shrimp, longhorn fairy shrimp, vernal pool tadpole shrimp, San Diego fairy shrimp, and Riverside fairy shrimp.

(E) Plants: Butte County meadowfoam, large-flowered wooly meadowfoam, Cook's lomatium, Contra Costa goldfields, Hoover's spurge, fleshy owl's clover, Colusa grass, hairy Orcutt grass, Solano grass, Greene's tuctoria, Sacramento Valley Orcutt grass, San Joaquin Valley Orcutt grass, slender Orcutt grass, California Orcutt grass, spreading navarretia, and San Jacinto Valley crownscale.

(f) Can the control order be suspended? We reserve the right to suspend or revoke a State's or Tribe's authority under this program if we find that the terms and conditions specified in the depredation order have not been adhered to by that agency. Final decisions to revoke authority will be made by the appropriate Regional Director. The criteria and procedures for suspension, revocation, reconsideration, and appeal are outlined in §§ 13.27 through 13.29 of this subchapter. For the purposes of this section, “issuing officer” means the Regional Director and “permit” means the authority to act under this control order. For purposes of § 13.29(e), appeals must be made to the Director. Additionally, at such time that we determine that resident Canada geese populations no longer pose direct threats to human health, we may choose to terminate part or all of the control order by subsequent regulation. In all cases, we will annually review the necessity and effectiveness of the control order.

(g) Has the Office of Management and Budget (OMB) approved the information collection requirements of the control order? OMB has approved the information collection and recordkeeping requirements of the control order under OMB control number 1018-0133. We may not conduct or sponsor, and you are not required to respond to, a collection of information unless it displays a currently valid OMB control number. You may send comments on the information collection and recordkeeping requirements to the Service's Information Collection Clearance Officer, U.S. Fish and Wildlife Service, MS 222-ARLSQ, 1849 C Street, NW., Washington, DC 20240.

(a) What is a conservation order? A conservation order is a special management action that is needed to control certain wildlife populations when traditional management programs are unsuccessful in preventing overabundance of the population. We are authorizing a conservation order under the authority of the Migratory Bird Treaty Act to reduce and stabilize various light goose populations. The conservation order allows new methods of taking light geese, allows shooting hours for light geese to end one-half hour after sunset, and imposes no daily bag limits for light geese inside or outside the migratory bird hunting season frameworks as described in this section.

(b) Which waterfowl species are covered by the order? The conservation order addresses management of greater snow (Chen caerulescens atlantica), lesser snow (C. c. caerulescens), and Ross's (C. rossii) geese that breed, migrate, and winter in North America. The term light geese refers collectively to greater and lesser snow geese and Ross's geese.

(c) Where can the conservation order be authorized? The Director can authorize the conservation order in these areas:

(1) The following States that are contained within the boundaries of the Atlantic Flyway: Connecticut, Delaware, Florida, Georgia, Maine, Maryland, Massachusetts, New Hampshire, New Jersey, New York, North Carolina, Pennsylvania, Rhode Island, South Carolina, Vermont, Virginia, West Virginia.

(2) The following States, or portions of States, that are contained within the boundaries of the Mississippi and Central Flyways: Alabama, Arkansas, Colorado, Illinois, Indiana, Iowa, Kansas, Kentucky, Louisiana, Michigan, Minnesota, Mississippi, Missouri, Montana, Nebraska, New Mexico, North Dakota, Ohio, Oklahoma, South Dakota, Tennessee, Texas, Wisconsin, and Wyoming.

(3) The following States, or portions of States, that are contained within the boundaries of the Pacific Flyway: Alaska, Arizona, California, Colorado, Idaho, Montana, Nevada, New Mexico, Oregon, Utah, Washington, and Wyoming.

(4) Tribal lands within the geographic boundaries in paragraphs (c)(1), (2), and (3) of this section.

(d) When will the Director authorize the conservation order in a particular Flyway? (1) The Director may authorize the conservation order for the reduction of greater snow geese for any State or Tribe contained within the Atlantic Flyway by publishing a notice under paragraph (e) of this section when the May Waterfowl Population Status report indicates that the management goal of 500,000 birds has been exceeded and that special conservation actions conducted in Canada are insufficient to reduce the population. Authorization of the conservation order in the U.S. portion of the Atlantic Flyway will occur after the Director determines the degree to which the management goal has been exceeded, the trajectory of population growth, anticipated harvest that would result from implementation of the conservation order, and whether or not similar conservation actions will be conducted in Canada.

(2) The Director may authorize the conservation order for the reduction of mid-continent light geese (lesser snow and Ross's geese) for any State or Tribe contained within the Mississippi and Central Flyways by publishing a notice under paragraph (e) of this section when the May Waterfowl Population Status report indicates that the management goal of 1,600,000 birds (winter index for Mid-continent Population and Western Central Flyway Population, combined) has been exceeded. Authorization of the conservation order in the U.S. portion of the Mississippi and Central Flyways will occur after the Director determines the degree to which the management goal has been exceeded, the trajectory of population growth, anticipated harvest that would result from implementation of the conservation order, and whether or not similar conservation actions will be conducted in Canada.

(3) The Director may authorize a conservation order for the reduction of light geese (lesser snow and Ross's geese) for any State or Tribe contained within the Pacific Flyway by publishing a notice under paragraph (e) of this section when the Director determines that light goose numbers in the western Arctic have exceeded the ability of their breeding habitat to support them.

(e) How will the conservation order be authorized for a particular Flyway? The Director will publish a notice in the Federal Register when the conservation order is authorized in a particular Flyway.

(f) What is required for State/Tribal governments to participate in the conservation order? When authorized by the Director, any State or Tribal government responsible for the management of wildlife and migratory birds may, without permit, kill or cause to be killed under its general supervision, light geese under the following conditions:

(1) Activities conducted under the conservation order may not affect endangered or threatened species as designated under the Endangered Species Act.

(2) Control activities must be conducted clearly as such and are intended to relieve pressures on migratory birds and habitat essential to migratory bird populations only and are not to be construed as opening, reopening, or extending any open hunting season contrary to any regulations promulgated under Section 3 of the Migratory Bird Treaty Act.

(3) Control activities may be conducted only when all waterfowl (including light goose) and crane hunting seasons, excluding falconry, are closed.

(4) Control measures employed through this section may be used only between the hours of one-half hour before sunrise to one-half hour after sunset.

(5) Nothing in the conservation order may limit or initiate management actions on Federal land without concurrence of the Federal agency with jurisdiction.

(6) States and Tribes must designate participants who must operate under the conditions of the conservation order.

(7) States and Tribes must inform participants of the requirements and conditions of the conservation order that apply.

(8) States and Tribes must keep annual records of activities carried out under the authority of the conservation order. Specifically, information must be collected on:

(i) The number of persons participating in the conservation order;

(ii) The number of days people participated in the conservation order;

(iii) The number of persons who pursued light geese with the aid of a shotgun capable of holding more than three shells;

(iv) The number of persons who pursued light geese with the aid of an electronic call;

(v) The number of persons who pursued light geese during the period one-half hour after sunset;

(vi) The total number of light geese shot and retrieved during the conservation order;

(vii) The number of light geese taken with the aid of an electronic call;

(viii) The number of light geese taken with the fourth, fifth, or sixth shotgun shell;

(ix) The number of light geese taken during the period one-half hour after sunset; and

(x) The number of light geese shot but not retrieved.

(9) The States and Tribes must submit an annual report summarizing activities conducted under the conservation order on or before September 15 of each year, to the Chief, Division of Migratory Bird Management, U.S. Fish and Wildlife Service, 4401 N. Fairfax Drive, Mail Stop MBSP-4107, Arlington, Virginia 22203. Information from Tribes may be incorporated in State reports.

(g) What is required for persons to participate in the conservation order? Individual participants in State or Tribal programs covered by the conservation order must comply with the following provisions:

(1) Nothing in the conservation order authorizes the take of light geese contrary to any State or Tribal laws or regulations, and none of the privileges granted under the conservation order may be exercised unless persons acting under the authority of the conservation order possess whatever permit or other authorization(s) may be required for such activities by the State or Tribal government concerned.

(2) Persons who take light geese under the conservation order may not sell or offer for sale those birds or their plumage but may possess, transport, and otherwise properly use them.

(3) Persons acting under the authority of the conservation order must permit at all reasonable times, including during actual operations, any Federal or State game or deputy game agent, warden, protector, or other game law enforcement officer free and unrestricted access over the premises on which such operations have been or are being conducted and must promptly furnish whatever information an officer requires concerning the operation.

(4) Persons acting under the authority of the conservation order may take light geese by any method except those prohibited as follows:

(i) With a trap, snare, net, rifle, pistol, swivel gun, shotgun larger than 10 gauge, punt gun, battery gun, machine gun, fish hook, poison, drug, explosive, or stupefying substance.

(ii) From or by means, aid, or use of a sinkbox or any other type of low floating device having a depression affording the person a means of concealment beneath the surface of the water.

(iii) From or by means, aid, or use of any motor vehicle, motor-driven land conveyance, or aircraft of any kind, except that paraplegics and persons missing one or both legs may carry out take activities from any stationary motor vehicle or stationary motor-driven land conveyance.

(iv) From or by means of any motorboat or other craft having a motor attached, or any sailboat, unless the motor has been completely shut off and the sails furled, and its progress has ceased. A craft under power may be used only to retrieve dead or crippled birds; however, the craft may not be used under power to shoot any crippled bird.

(v) By the use or aid of live birds as decoys. It is a violation of this paragraph (g) for any person to take light geese on an area where tame or captive live geese are present unless such birds are and have been for a period of 10 consecutive days before the taking, confined within an enclosure that substantially reduces the audibility of their calls and totally conceals the birds from the sight of light geese.

(vi) By means or aid of any motor-driven land, water, or air conveyance, or any sailboat used for the purpose of or resulting in the concentrating, driving, rallying, or stirring up of light geese.

(vii) By the aid of baiting, or on or over any baited area, where a person knows or reasonably should know that the area is or has been baited as described in § 20.11(j-k). Light geese may not be taken on or over lands or areas that are baited areas, and where grain or other feed has been distributed or scattered solely as the result of manipulation of an agricultural crop or other feed on the land where grown, or solely as the result of a normal agricultural operation as described in § 20.11(h) and (l). However, nothing in this paragraph (g) prohibits the taking of light geese on or over the following lands or areas that are not otherwise baited areas:

(A) Standing crops or flooded standing crops (including aquatics); standing, flooded, or manipulated natural vegetation; flooded harvested croplands; or lands or areas where seeds or grains have been scattered solely as the result of a normal agricultural planting, harvesting, postharvest manipulation or normal soil stabilization practice as described in § 20.11(g), (i), (l), and (m);

(B) From a blind or other place of concealment camouflaged with natural vegetation;

(C) From a blind or other place of concealment camouflaged with vegetation from agricultural crops, as long as such camouflaging does not result in the exposing, depositing, distributing, or scattering of grain or other feed; or

(D) Standing or flooded standing agricultural crops where grain is inadvertently scattered solely as a result of a hunter entering or exiting a hunting area, placing decoys, or retrieving downed birds.

(viii) Participants may not possess shot (either in shotshells or as loose shot for muzzleloading) other than steel shot, bismuth-tin, tungsten-iron, tungsten-polymer, tungsten-matrix, tungsten-bronze, tungsten-nickel-iron, tungsten-tin-iron, tungsten-nickel-iron-tin, tungsten-iron-copper-nickel, or other shots that are authorized in § 20.21(j).

(h) Can the conservation order be suspended? The Director reserves the right to suspend or revoke a State's or Tribe's authority under the conservation order if we find that the State or Tribe has not adhered to the terms and conditions specified in this section. The criteria for suspension and revocation are outlined in § 13.27 and § 13.28 of this subchapter. Upon appeal, final decisions to revoke authority will be made by the Director. Additionally, at such time that the Director determines that a specific population of light geese no longer poses a threat to habitats, agricultural crops, or other interests, or is within Flyway management objectives, the Director may choose to terminate part or all of the conservation order.

(i) Under what conditions would the conservation order be suspended? The Director will annually assess the overall impact and effectiveness of the conservation order on each light goose population to ensure compatibility with long-term conservation of this resource. The Director will suspend the conservation order if at any time evidence clearly demonstrates that an individual light goose population no longer presents a serious threat of injury to the area or areas involved. Suspension by the Director will occur by publication of a notice in the Federal Register. However, resumption of growth by the light goose population in question may warrant reinstatement of the conservation order to control the population. The Director will publish a notice of such reinstatement in the Federal Register. Depending on the status of individual light goose populations, it is possible that a conservation order may be in effect for one or more light goose populations, but not others.

(j) What are the information collection requirements? The information collection requirements associated with the conservation order are described in paragraphs (f)(6) through (9) of this section. Reported information helps us to assess the effectiveness of light geese population control methods and strategies and assess whether or not additional population control methods are needed. The Office of Management and Budget has approved this information collection and assigned OMB Control No. 1018-0103. We may not conduct or sponsor and a person is not required to respond to a collection of information unless it displays a currently valid OMB control number. At any time, you may submit comments on these information collection requirements to the Information Collection Clearance Officer, U.S. Fish and Wildlife Service, 1849 C Street, NW., (mailstop ARL SQ-222), Washington, DC 20240.

(a) Which Canada geese are covered by this regulation? This regulation addresses the population control of resident Canada geese, as defined in § 21.3.

(b) What is the resident Canada goose population control program, and what is its purpose? The resident Canada goose population control program is a managed take program implemented under the authority of the Migratory Bird Treaty Act to reduce and stabilize resident Canada goose populations when traditional and otherwise authorized management measures are unsuccessful, not feasible for dealing with, or applicable, in preventing injury to property, agricultural crops, public health, and other interests from resident Canada geese. The Director is authorized to allow States and Tribes to implement a population control, or managed take, program to remedy these injuries. When authorized by the Director, managed take allows additional methods of taking resident Canada geese, allows shooting hours for resident Canada geese to extend to one-half hour after sunset, and removes daily bag limits for resident Canada geese inside or outside the migratory bird hunting season frameworks as described in this section. The intent of the program is to reduce resident Canada goose populations in order to protect personal property and agricultural crops and other interests from injury and to resolve potential concerns about human health. The management and control activities allowed or conducted under the program are intended to relieve or prevent damage and injurious situations. No person should construe this program as opening, reopening, or extending any hunting season contrary to any regulations established under section 3 of the Migratory Bird Treaty Act.

(c) What areas are eligible to participate in the program? When approved by the Director, the State and Tribal wildlife agencies of Alabama, Arkansas, Colorado, Connecticut, Delaware, Florida, Georgia, Illinois, Indiana, Iowa, Kansas, Kentucky, Louisiana, Maine, Maryland, Massachusetts, Michigan, Minnesota, Mississippi, Missouri, Montana, Nebraska, New Hampshire, New Jersey, New Mexico, New York, North Carolina, North Dakota, Ohio, Oklahoma, Pennsylvania, Rhode Island, South Carolina, South Dakota, Tennessee, Texas, Vermont, Virginia, West Virginia, Wisconsin, and Wyoming may implement the resident Canada goose population control program components in the Atlantic, Central, and Mississippi Flyway portions of these States.

(d) What is required in order for State governments to participate in a managed take program? Following the conclusion of the first full operational year of §§ 21.49 through 21.52 of this part, any wildlife agency from a State listed in 21.61(c) may request approval for the population control program. A request must include a discussion of the State's or Tribe's efforts to address its injurious situations utilizing the methods approved in this rule or a discussion of the reasons why the methods authorized by these rules are not feasible for dealing with, or applicable to, the injurious situations that require further action. Discussions should be detailed and provide the Service with a clear understanding of the injuries that continue, why the authorized methods utilized have not worked, and why methods not utilized could not effectuate resolution of the injuries. A State's request for approval may be for an area or areas smaller than the entire State. Upon written approval by the Director, any State or Tribal government responsible for the management of wildlife and migratory birds may, without permit, kill or cause to be killed under its general supervision, resident Canada geese under the following conditions:

(1) Activities conducted under the managed take program may not affect endangered or threatened species as designated under the Endangered Species Act.

(2) Control activities may be conducted under this section only between August 1 and August 31.

(3) Control measures employed through this section may be implemented only between the hours of one-half hour before sunrise to one-half hour after sunset.

(4) Nothing in the program may limit or initiate management actions on Federal land without concurrence of the Federal agency with jurisdiction.

(5) States and Tribes must designate participants who must operate under the conditions of the managed take program.

(6) States and Tribes must inform participants of the requirements/conditions of the program that apply.

(7) States and Tribes must keep annual records of activities carried out under the authority of the program. Specifically, information must be collected on:

(i) The number of individuals participating in the program;

(ii) The number of days individuals participated in the program;

(iii) The total number of resident Canada geese shot and retrieved during the program; and

(iv) The number of resident Canada geese shot but not retrieved. The States and Tribes must submit an annual report summarizing activities conducted under the program and an assessment of the continuation of the injuries on or before June 1 of each year to the Chief, Division of Migratory Bird Management, 4401 North Fairfax Drive, ms-MBSP-4107, Arlington, Virginia 22203.

(e) What is required for individuals to participate in the program? Individual participants in State and Tribal programs covered by the managed take program must comply with the following requirements:

(1) Participants must comply with all applicable State and Tribal laws or regulations including possession of whatever permit(s) or other authorization(s) may be required by the State or Tribal government concerned.

(2) Participants who take resident Canada geese under the program may not sell or offer for sale those birds or their plumage, but may possess, transport, and otherwise properly use them.

(3) Participants must permit at all reasonable times, including during actual operations, any Service special agent or refuge officer, State or Tribal wildlife or deputy wildlife agent, warden, protector, or other wildlife law enforcement officer free and unrestricted access over the premises on which such operations have been or are being conducted and must promptly furnish whatever information an officer requires concerning the operation.

(4) Participants may take resident Canada geese by any method except those prohibited as follows:

(i) With a trap, snare, net, rifle, pistol, swivel gun, shotgun larger than 10 gauge, punt gun, battery gun, machine gun, fish hook, poison, drug, explosive, or stupefying substance.

(ii) From or by means, aid, or use of a sinkbox or any other type of low-floating device, having a depression affording the person a means of concealment beneath the surface of the water.

(iii) From or by means, aid, or use of any motor vehicle, motor-driven land conveyance, or aircraft of any kind, except that paraplegic persons and persons missing one or both legs may take from any stationary motor vehicle or stationary motor-driven land conveyance.

(iv) From or by means of any motorboat or other craft having a motor attached, or any sailboat, unless the motor has been completely shut off and the sails furled, and its progress has ceased. A craft under power may be used only to retrieve dead or crippled birds; however, the craft may not be used under power to shoot any crippled birds.

(v) By the use or aid of live birds as decoys. No person may take resident Canada geese on an area where tame or captive live geese are present unless such birds are, and have been for a period of 10 consecutive days before the taking, confined within an enclosure that substantially reduces the audibility of their calls and totally conceals the birds from the sight of resident Canada geese.

(vi) By means or aid of any motor-driven land, water, or air conveyance, or any sailboat used for the purpose of or resulting in the concentrating, driving, rallying, or stirring up of resident Canada geese.

(vii) By the aid of baiting, or on or over any baited area, where a person knows or reasonably should know that the area is or has been baited as described in § 20.11(j) and (k) of this part. Resident Canada geese may not be taken on or over lands or areas that are baited areas, and where grain or other feed has been distributed or scattered solely as the result of manipulation of an agricultural crop or other feed on the land where grown, or solely as the result of a normal agricultural operation as described in § 20.11(h) and (l) of this part. However, nothing in this paragraph prohibits the taking of resident Canada geese on or over the following lands or areas that are not otherwise baited areas:

(A) Standing crops or flooded standing crops (including aquatics); standing, flooded, or manipulated natural vegetation; flooded harvested croplands; or lands or areas where seeds or grains have been scattered solely as the result of a normal agricultural planting, harvesting, post-harvest manipulation or normal soil stabilization practice as described in § 20.11(g), (i), (l), and (m) of this part;

(B) From a blind or other place of concealment camouflaged with natural vegetation;

(C) From a blind or other place of concealment camouflaged with vegetation from agricultural crops, as long as such camouflaging does not result in the exposing, depositing, distributing, or scattering of grain or other feed; or

(D) Standing or flooded standing agricultural crops where grain is inadvertently scattered solely as a result of a hunter entering or exiting a hunting area, placing decoys, or retrieving downed birds.

(E) Participants may not possess shot (either in shotshells or as loose shot for muzzleloading) other than steel shot, bismuth-tin, tungsten-iron, tungsten-polymer, tungsten-matrix, tungsten-nickel iron, or other shots that are authorized in § 20.21(j) of this part.

(f) Under what conditions would we suspend the managed take program? Following authorization by the Director, we will annually assess the overall impact and effectiveness of the program on resident Canada goose populations to ensure compatibility with long-term conservation of this resource. If at any time evidence is presented that clearly demonstrates that resident Canada geese populations no longer need to be reduced in order to allow resolution or prevention of injury to people, property, agricultural crops, or other interests, the Director, in writing, will suspend the program for the resident Canada goose population in question. However, resumption of injuries caused by growth of the population and not otherwise addressable by the methods available in part 21 may warrant reinstatement of such regulations. A State must reapply for approval, including the same information and discussions noted in 21.61(d). Depending on the location of the injury or threat or injury, the Director, in writing, may suspend or reinstate this authorization for one or more resident Canada goose populations, but not others.

(g) What population information is the State or Tribe required to collect concerning the resident Canada goose managed take program? Participating States and Tribes must provide an annual estimate of the breeding population and distribution of resident Canada geese in their State. The States and Tribes must submit this estimate on or before August 1 of each year, to the Chief, Division of Migratory Bird Management, 4401 N. Fairfax Dr., MBSP-4107, Arlington, Virginia 22203.

(h) What are the general program conditions and restrictions? The program is subject to the conditions elsewhere in this section, and, unless otherwise specifically authorized, the following conditions:

(1) Nothing in this section applies to any Federal land within a State's or Tribe's boundaries without written permission of the Federal agency with jurisdiction.

(2) States may not undertake any actions under this section if the activities adversely affect other migratory birds or species designated as endangered or threatened under the authority of the Endangered Species Act. Persons operating under this section must immediately report the take of any species protected under the Endangered Species Act to the Service. Further, to protect certain species from being adversely affected by management actions, States must:

(i) Follow the Federal State Contingency Plan for the whooping crane;

(ii) Conduct no activities within 300 meters of a whooping crane or Mississippi sandhill crane nest; and

(iii) Follow all Regional (or National when available) Bald Eagle Nesting Management guidelines for all management activities.

(i) Has the Office of Management and Budget (OMB) approved the information collection requirements of the program? OMB has approved the information collection and recordkeeping requirements of the program under OMB control number 1018-0133. We may not conduct or sponsor, and you are not required to respond to, a collection of information unless it displays a currently valid OMB control number. You may send comments on the information collection and recordkeeping requirements to the Service's Information Collection Clearance Officer, U.S. Fish and Wildlife Service, MS 222—ARLSQ, 1849 C Street, NW., Washington, DC 20240.

This part controls the taking, possession, and transportation within the United States of bald eagles (Haliaeetus leucocephalus) and golden eagles (Aquila chrysaetos) and their parts, nests, and eggs for scientific, educational, and depredation control purposes; for the religious purposes of American Indian tribes; and to protect other interests in a particular locality. This part also governs the transportation into or out of the United States of bald and golden eagle parts for scientific, educational, and Indian religious purposes. The import, export, purchase, sale, trade, or barter of bald and golden eagles, or their parts, nests, or eggs is prohibited.

(a)(1) You can possess or transport within the United States, without a Federal permit:

(i) Any live or dead bald eagles, or their parts, nests, or eggs that were lawfully acquired before June 8, 1940; and

(ii) Any live or dead golden eagles, or their parts, nests, or eggs that were lawfully acquired before October 24, 1962.

(2) You may not transport into or out of the United States, import, export, purchase, sell, trade, barter, or offer for purchase, sale, trade, or barter bald or golden eagles, or their parts, nests, or eggs of these lawfully acquired pre-act birds. However, you may transport into or out of the United States any lawfully acquired dead bald or golden eagles, their parts, nests, or dead eagles, if you acquire a permit issued under § 22.22 of this part.

(3) No exemption from any statute or regulation will apply to any offspring of these pre-act birds.

(4) You must mark all shipments containing bald or golden eagles, alive or dead, their parts, nests, or eggs as directed in § 14.81 of this subchapter. The markings must contain the name and address of the person the shipment is going to, the name and address of the person the shipment is coming from, an accurate list of contents by species, and the number of each species.

(b) The provisions in this part are in addition to, and are not in lieu of, other regulations of this subchapter B which may require a permit or prescribe additional restrictions or conditions for the importation, exportation, and interstate transportation of wildlife (see also part 13 of this subchapter).

In addition to definitions contained in part 10 of this subchapter, the following definitions apply within this part 22:

Area nesting population means the number of pairs of golden eagles known to have a resting attempt during the preceding 12 months within a 10-mile radius of a golden eagle nest.

Disturb means to agitate or bother a bald or golden eagle to a degree that causes, or is likely to cause, based on the best scientific information available, (1) injury to an eagle, (2) a decrease in its productivity, by substantially interfering with normal breeding, feeding, or sheltering behavior, or (3) nest abandonment, by substantially interfering with normal breeding, feeding, or sheltering behavior.

Export for the purpose of this part does not include the transportation of any dead bald or golden eagles, or their parts, nests, or dead eggs out of the United States when accompanied with a valid transportation permit.

Golden eagle nest means any readily identifiable structure built, maintained or occupied by golden eagles for propagation purposes.

Import for the purpose of this part does not include the transportation of any dead bald or golden eagles, or their parts, nests, or dead eggs into the United States when accompanied with a valid transportation permit.

Inactive nest means a golden eagle nest that is not currently used by golden eagles as determined by the absence of any adult, egg, or dependent young at the nest during the 10 days before the nest is taken.

Nesting attempt means any activity by golden eagles involving egg laying and incubation as determined by the presence of an egg attended by an adult, an adult in incubation posture, or other evidence indicating recent use of a golden eagle nest for incubation of eggs or rearing of young.

Person means an individual, corporation, partnership, trust, association, or any other private entity, or any officer, employee, agent, department, or instrumentality of any State or political subdivision of a State.

Resource development or recovery includes, but is not limited to, mining, timbering, extracting oil, natural gas and geothermal energy, construction of roads, dams, reservoirs, power plants, power transmission lines, and pipelines, as well as facilities and access routes essential to these operations, and reclamation following any of these operations.

Take includes also pursue, shoot, shoot at, poison, wound, kill, capture, trap, collect, or molest or disturb.

Transportation into or out of the United States for the purpose of this part means that the permitted item or items transported into or out of the United States do not change ownership at any time, they are not transferred from one person to another in the pursuit of gain or profit, and they are transported into or out of the United States for Indian religious purposes, or for scientific or exhibition purposes under the conditions and during the time period specified on a transportation permit for the items.