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  <VOL>66</VOL>
  <NO>13</NO>
  <DATE>Friday, January 19, 2001</DATE>
  <UNITNAME>Contents</UNITNAME>
  <CNTNTS>
    <AGCY>
      <EAR>Agriculture</EAR>
      <PRTPAGE P="iii"/>
      <HD>Agriculture Department</HD>
      <SEE>
        <HD SOURCE="HED">See</HD>
        <P>Cooperative State Research, Education, and Extension Service</P>
      </SEE>
      <SEE>
        <HD SOURCE="HED">See</HD>
        <P>Food Safety and Inspection Service</P>
      </SEE>
      <SEE>
        <HD SOURCE="HED">See</HD>
        <P>Forest Service</P>
      </SEE>
    </AGCY>
    <AGCY>
      <EAR>Alcohol</EAR>
      <HD>Alcohol, Tobacco and Firearms Bureau</HD>
      <CAT>
        <HD>RULES</HD>
        <SJ>Organization, functions, and authority delegations:</SJ>
        <SJDENT>
          <SJDOC>Appropriate ATF officers,</SJDOC>
          <PGS>5469-5481</PGS>
          <FRDOCBP D="4" T="19JAR1.sgm">01-1162</FRDOCBP>
          <FRDOCBP D="5" T="19JAR1.sgm">01-1163</FRDOCBP>
          <FRDOCBP D="4" T="19JAR1.sgm">01-1164</FRDOCBP>
          <FRDOCBP D="2" T="19JAR1.sgm">01-1165</FRDOCBP>
        </SJDENT>
      </CAT>
    </AGCY>
    <AGCY>
      <EAR>Commerce</EAR>
      <HD>Commerce Department</HD>
      <SEE>
        <HD SOURCE="HED">See</HD>
        <P>Export Administration Bureau</P>
      </SEE>
      <SEE>
        <HD SOURCE="HED">See</HD>
        <P>National Oceanic and Atmospheric Administration</P>
      </SEE>
      <CAT>
        <HD>NOTICES</HD>
        <SJ>Agency information collection activities:</SJ>
        <SJDENT>
          <SJDOC>Submission for OMB review; comment request,</SJDOC>
          <PGS>5509</PGS>
          <FRDOCBP D="1" T="19JAN1.sgm">01-1563</FRDOCBP>
        </SJDENT>
      </CAT>
    </AGCY>
    <AGCY>
      <EAR>Cooperative</EAR>
      <HD>Cooperative State Research, Education, and Extension Service</HD>
      <CAT>
        <HD>NOTICES</HD>
        <SJ>Grants and cooperative agreements; availability, etc.:</SJ>
        <SJDENT>
          <SJDOC>Food and Agricultural Sciences National Needs Graduate Fellowship Program,</SJDOC>
          <PGS>6203-6208</PGS>
          <FRDOCBP D="6" T="19JAN2.sgm">01-1492</FRDOCBP>
        </SJDENT>
        <SUBSJ>Special Research Programs—</SUBSJ>
        <SSJDENT>
          <SUBSJDOC>Citrus Tristeza Research,</SUBSJDOC>
          <PGS>6207-6215</PGS>
          <FRDOCBP D="9" T="19JAN2.sgm">01-1493</FRDOCBP>
        </SSJDENT>
      </CAT>
    </AGCY>
    <AGCY>
      <EAR>Education</EAR>
      <HD>Education Department</HD>
      <CAT>
        <HD>NOTICES</HD>
        <SJ>Agency information collection activities:</SJ>
        <SJDENT>
          <SJDOC>Proposed collection; comment request,</SJDOC>
          <PGS>5511</PGS>
          <FRDOCBP D="1" T="19JAN1.sgm">01-1591</FRDOCBP>
        </SJDENT>
        <SJ>Reports and guidance documents; availability, etc.:</SJ>
        <SJDENT>
          <SJDOC>Sexual harassment guidance; harassment of students by school employees, other students, or third parties,</SJDOC>
          <PGS>5512</PGS>
          <FRDOCBP D="1" T="19JAN1.sgm">01-1606</FRDOCBP>
        </SJDENT>
      </CAT>
    </AGCY>
    <AGCY>
      <EAR>Employment</EAR>
      <HD>Employment Standards Administration</HD>
      <CAT>
        <HD>RULES</HD>
        <SJ>Fair Labor Standards Act:</SJ>
        <SJDENT>
          <SJDOC>Domestic service; companionship services exemption,</SJDOC>
          <PGS>5481-5489</PGS>
          <FRDOCBP D="9" T="19JAR1.sgm">01-1590</FRDOCBP>
        </SJDENT>
      </CAT>
      <CAT>
        <HD>NOTICES</HD>
        <DOCENT>
          <DOC>Minimum wages for Federal and federally-assisted construction; general wage determination decisions,</DOC>
          <PGS>5519-5520</PGS>
          <FRDOCBP D="2" T="19JAN1.sgm">01-1444</FRDOCBP>
        </DOCENT>
      </CAT>
    </AGCY>
    <AGCY>
      <EAR>EPA</EAR>
      <HD>Environmental Protection Agency</HD>
      <CAT>
        <HD>PROPOSED RULES</HD>
        <SJ>Water pollution control:</SJ>
        <SUBSJ>National pollutant discharge elimination system (NPDES)—</SUBSJ>
        <SSJDENT>
          <SUBSJDOC>Concentrated animal feeding operations; guidelines and standards; correction,</SUBSJDOC>
          <PGS>5524</PGS>
          <FRDOCBP D="1" T="19JACX.sgm">C1-1</FRDOCBP>
        </SSJDENT>
      </CAT>
      <CAT>
        <HD>NOTICES</HD>
        <SJ>Agency information collection activities:</SJ>
        <SJDENT>
          <SJDOC>Proposed collection; comment request,</SJDOC>
          <PGS>5512-5513</PGS>
          <FRDOCBP D="2" T="19JAN1.sgm">01-1345</FRDOCBP>
        </SJDENT>
        <SJ>Environmental statements; availability, etc.:</SJ>
        <SUBSJ>Agency statements- -</SUBSJ>
        <SSJDENT>
          <SUBSJDOC>Comment availability,</SUBSJDOC>
          <PGS>5513-5514</PGS>
          <FRDOCBP D="2" T="19JAN1.sgm">01-1688</FRDOCBP>
        </SSJDENT>
        <SSJDENT>
          <SUBSJDOC>Weekly receipts,</SUBSJDOC>
          <PGS>5514</PGS>
          <FRDOCBP D="1" T="19JAN1.sgm">01-1689</FRDOCBP>
        </SSJDENT>
        <SJ>Pesticide programs:</SJ>
        <SUBSJ>Restricted use pesticides; applicators certification; State plans—</SUBSJ>
        <SSJDENT>
          <SUBSJDOC>Delaware,</SUBSJDOC>
          <PGS>5514-5515</PGS>
          <FRDOCBP D="2" T="19JAN1.sgm">01-1350</FRDOCBP>
        </SSJDENT>
      </CAT>
    </AGCY>
    <AGCY>
      <EAR>Executive</EAR>
      <HD>Executive Office of the President</HD>
      <SEE>
        <HD SOURCE="HED">See</HD>
        <P>Presidential Documents</P>
      </SEE>
      <SEE>
        <HD SOURCE="HED">See</HD>
        <P>Trade Representative, Office of United States</P>
      </SEE>
    </AGCY>
    <AGCY>
      <EAR>Export</EAR>
      <HD>Export Administration Bureau</HD>
      <CAT>
        <HD>RULES</HD>
        <SJ>Export administration regulations:</SJ>
        <SJDENT>
          <SJDOC>License Exception CTP revisions; high performance computers, U.S. export controls; January 10, 2001 Presidential Announcement implementation,</SJDOC>
          <PGS>5443-5447</PGS>
          <FRDOCBP D="5" T="19JAR1.sgm">01-1623</FRDOCBP>
        </SJDENT>
      </CAT>
    </AGCY>
    <AGCY>
      <EAR>Federal Reserve</EAR>
      <HD>Federal Reserve System</HD>
      <CAT>
        <HD>NOTICES</HD>
        <DOCENT>
          <DOC>Meetings; Sunshine Act,</DOC>
          <PGS>5515</PGS>
          <FRDOCBP D="1" T="19JAN1.sgm">01-1780</FRDOCBP>
        </DOCENT>
      </CAT>
    </AGCY>
    <AGCY>
      <EAR>Food</EAR>
      <HD>Food and Drug Administration</HD>
      <CAT>
        <HD>RULES</HD>
        <SJ>Biological products:</SJ>
        <SJDENT>
          <SJDOC>Human cells, tissues, and cellular and tissue-based products; establishment registration and listing,</SJDOC>
          <PGS>5447-5469</PGS>
          <FRDOCBP D="23" T="19JAR1.sgm">01-1126</FRDOCBP>
        </SJDENT>
        <SJ>Food for human consumption:</SJ>
        <SUBSJ>Beverages—</SUBSJ>
        <SSJDENT>
          <SUBSJDOC>Fruit and vegetable juices and juice products; HACCP procedures for safe and sanitary processing and importing,</SUBSJDOC>
          <PGS>6137-6202</PGS>
          <FRDOCBP D="66" T="19JAR5.sgm">01-1291</FRDOCBP>
        </SSJDENT>
      </CAT>
      <CAT>
        <HD>NOTICES</HD>
        <SJ>Reports and guidance documents; availability, etc.:</SJ>
        <SJDENT>
          <SJDOC>Foodborne listeria monocytogenes among selected categories of ready-to-eat foods, relative risk to public health; risk assessment document, etc.,</SJDOC>
          <PGS>5515-5517</PGS>
          <FRDOCBP D="3" T="19JAN1.sgm">01-1439</FRDOCBP>
        </SJDENT>
        <SJDENT>
          <SJDOC>Vibrio parahaemolyticus in raw molluscan shellfish, public health impact; risk assessment document,</SJDOC>
          <PGS>5517-5518</PGS>
          <FRDOCBP D="2" T="19JAN1.sgm">01-1440</FRDOCBP>
        </SJDENT>
      </CAT>
    </AGCY>
    <AGCY>
      <EAR>Food</EAR>
      <HD>Food Safety and Inspection Service</HD>
      <CAT>
        <HD>NOTICES</HD>
        <SJ>Reports and guidance documents; availability, etc.:</SJ>
        <SJDENT>
          <SJDOC>Foodborne listeria monocytogenes among selected categories of ready-to-eat foods, relative risk to public health; risk assessment document, etc.,</SJDOC>
          <PGS>5515-5517</PGS>
          <FRDOCBP D="3" T="19JAN1.sgm">01-1439</FRDOCBP>
        </SJDENT>
      </CAT>
    </AGCY>
    <AGCY>
      <EAR>Forest</EAR>
      <HD>Forest Service</HD>
      <CAT>
        <HD>NOTICES</HD>
        <SJ>Agency information collection activities:</SJ>
        <SJDENT>
          <SJDOC>Proposed collection; comment request,</SJDOC>
          <PGS>5508-5509</PGS>
          <FRDOCBP D="2" T="19JAN1.sgm">01-1583</FRDOCBP>
        </SJDENT>
      </CAT>
    </AGCY>
    <AGCY>
      <EAR>Health</EAR>
      <HD>Health and Human Services Department</HD>
      <SEE>
        <HD SOURCE="HED">See</HD>
        <P>Food and Drug Administration</P>
      </SEE>
      <SEE>
        <HD SOURCE="HED">See</HD>
        <P>Health Care Financing Administration</P>
      </SEE>
    </AGCY>
    <AGCY>
      <EAR>Health</EAR>
      <HD>Health Care Financing Administration</HD>
      <CAT>
        <HD>RULES</HD>
        <SJ>Medicaid:</SJ>
        <SJDENT>
          <SJDOC>Managed care,</SJDOC>
          <PGS>6227-6426</PGS>
          <FRDOCBP D="200" T="19JAR7.sgm">01-1447</FRDOCBP>
        </SJDENT>
      </CAT>
    </AGCY>
    <AGCY>
      <EAR>Housing</EAR>
      <PRTPAGE P="iv"/>
      <HD>Housing and Urban Development Department</HD>
      <CAT>
        <HD>RULES</HD>
        <SJ>Housing programs:</SJ>
        <SJDENT>
          <SJDOC>Mandatory expense deductions and earned income disallowances for persons with disabilities; income adjustment determination,</SJDOC>
          <PGS>6217-6226</PGS>
          <FRDOCBP D="10" T="19JAR6.sgm">01-1536</FRDOCBP>
        </SJDENT>
        <SJ>Mortgage and loan insurance programs:</SJ>
        <SUBSJ>Single-family mortgage insurance—</SUBSJ>
        <SSJDENT>
          <SUBSJDOC>Section 221(d)(2) mortgage insurance program; discontinuation,</SUBSJDOC>
          <PGS>5911-5913</PGS>
          <FRDOCBP D="3" T="19JAR3.sgm">01-1534</FRDOCBP>
        </SSJDENT>
      </CAT>
      <CAT>
        <HD>NOTICES</HD>
        <SJ>Grants and cooperative agreements; availability, etc.:</SJ>
        <SUBSJ>Facilities to assist homeless—</SUBSJ>
        <SSJDENT>
          <SUBSJDOC>Excess and surplus Federal property,</SUBSJDOC>
          <PGS>5518</PGS>
          <FRDOCBP D="1" T="19JAN1.sgm">01-1398</FRDOCBP>
        </SSJDENT>
      </CAT>
    </AGCY>
    <AGCY>
      <EAR>Interior</EAR>
      <HD>Interior Department</HD>
      <CAT>
        <HD>NOTICES</HD>
        <SJ>Grants and cooperative agreements; availability, etc.:</SJ>
        <SJDENT>
          <SJDOC>Tribal self-governance program (2002 FY or CY),</SJDOC>
          <PGS>5518-5519</PGS>
          <FRDOCBP D="2" T="19JAN1.sgm">01-396</FRDOCBP>
        </SJDENT>
      </CAT>
    </AGCY>
    <AGCY>
      <EAR>International</EAR>
      <HD>International Trade Commission</HD>
      <CAT>
        <HD>NOTICES</HD>
        <DOCENT>
          <DOC>Meetings; Sunshine Act,</DOC>
          <PGS>5519</PGS>
          <FRDOCBP D="1" T="19JAN1.sgm">01-1815</FRDOCBP>
        </DOCENT>
      </CAT>
    </AGCY>
    <AGCY>
      <EAR>Labor</EAR>
      <HD>Labor Department</HD>
      <SEE>
        <HD SOURCE="HED">See</HD>
        <P>Employment Standards Administration</P>
      </SEE>
      <SEE>
        <HD SOURCE="HED">See</HD>
        <P>Mine Safety and Health Administration</P>
      </SEE>
      <SEE>
        <HD SOURCE="HED">See</HD>
        <P>Occupational Safety and Health Administration</P>
      </SEE>
    </AGCY>
    <AGCY>
      <EAR>Mine</EAR>
      <HD>Mine Safety and Health Administration</HD>
      <CAT>
        <HD>RULES</HD>
        <SJ>Coal mine safety and health:</SJ>
        <SUBSJ>Underground mines—</SUBSJ>
        <SSJDENT>
          <SUBSJDOC>Diesel particulate matter exposure of miners,</SUBSJDOC>
          <PGS>5525-5705</PGS>
          <FRDOCBP D="181" T="19JAR2.sgm">01-995</FRDOCBP>
        </SSJDENT>
        <SJ>Metal and nonmetal mine safety and health:</SJ>
        <SUBSJ>Underground mines—</SUBSJ>
        <SSJDENT>
          <SUBSJDOC>Diesel particulate matter exposure of miners,</SUBSJDOC>
          <PGS>5704-5909</PGS>
          <FRDOCBP D="206" T="19JAR2.sgm">01-996</FRDOCBP>
        </SSJDENT>
      </CAT>
    </AGCY>
    <AGCY>
      <EAR>NOAA</EAR>
      <HD>National Oceanic and Atmospheric Administration</HD>
      <CAT>
        <HD>RULES</HD>
        <SJ>Marine mammals:</SJ>
        <SUBSJ>Incidental taking—</SUBSJ>
        <SSJDENT>
          <SUBSJDOC>Atlantic Large Whale Take Reduction Plan,</SUBSJDOC>
          <PGS>5489-5490</PGS>
          <FRDOCBP D="2" T="19JAR1.sgm">01-1589</FRDOCBP>
        </SSJDENT>
      </CAT>
      <CAT>
        <HD>NOTICES</HD>
        <SJ>Environmental statements; notice of intent:</SJ>
        <SJDENT>
          <SJDOC>Northwestern Hawaiian Islands Coral Reef Ecosystem Reserve; designation as national marine sanctuary,</SJDOC>
          <PGS>5509-5510</PGS>
          <FRDOCBP D="2" T="19JAN1.sgm">01-1475</FRDOCBP>
        </SJDENT>
        <SJ>Permits:</SJ>
        <SJDENT>
          <SJDOC>Exempted fishing,</SJDOC>
          <PGS>5510-5511</PGS>
          <FRDOCBP D="2" T="19JAN1.sgm">01-1379</FRDOCBP>
        </SJDENT>
      </CAT>
    </AGCY>
    <AGCY>
      <EAR>Nuclear</EAR>
      <HD>Nuclear Regulatory Commission</HD>
      <CAT>
        <HD>RULES</HD>
        <SJ>Production and utilization facilities; domestic licensing:</SJ>
        <SJDENT>
          <SJDOC>Potassium iodide inclusion in emergency plans; consideration,</SJDOC>
          <PGS>5427-5440</PGS>
          <FRDOCBP D="14" T="19JAR1.sgm">01-1156</FRDOCBP>
        </SJDENT>
        <SJ>Regulatory agreements:</SJ>
        <SJDENT>
          <SJDOC>Louisiana; offshore waters inspection; Section 274i agreement terminated,</SJDOC>
          <PGS>5441-5443</PGS>
          <FRDOCBP D="3" T="19JAR1.sgm">01-1079</FRDOCBP>
        </SJDENT>
      </CAT>
    </AGCY>
    <AGCY>
      <EAR>Occupational</EAR>
      <HD>Occupational Safety and Health Administration</HD>
      <CAT>
        <HD>RULES</HD>
        <DOCENT>
          <DOC>Occupational injuries and illnesses; recording and reporting requirements,</DOC>
          <PGS>5915-6135</PGS>
          <FRDOCBP D="221" T="19JAR4.sgm">01-725</FRDOCBP>
        </DOCENT>
      </CAT>
    </AGCY>
    <AGCY>
      <EAR>Office of U.S. Trade</EAR>
      <HD>Office of United States Trade Representative</HD>
      <SEE>
        <HD SOURCE="HED">See</HD>
        <P>Trade Representative, Office of United States</P>
      </SEE>
    </AGCY>
    <AGCY>
      <EAR>Personnel</EAR>
      <HD>Personnel Management Office</HD>
      <CAT>
        <HD>PROPOSED RULES</HD>
        <SJ>Employment:</SJ>
        <SJDENT>
          <SJDOC>Recruitment and relocation bonuses and retention allowances,</SJDOC>
          <PGS>5491-5494</PGS>
          <FRDOCBP D="4" T="19JAP1.sgm">01-1486</FRDOCBP>
        </SJDENT>
      </CAT>
    </AGCY>
    <AGCY>
      <EAR>Presidential</EAR>
      <HD>Presidential Documents</HD>
      <CAT>
        <HD>EXECUTIVE ORDERS</HD>
        <SJ>Committees; establishment, renewal, termination, etc.:</SJ>
        <SJDENT>
          <SJDOC>District of Columbia, Federal Interagency Task Force on the; establishment (EO 13189),</SJDOC>
          <PGS>5421-5423</PGS>
          <FRDOCBP D="3" T="19JAE0.sgm">01-1813</FRDOCBP>
        </SJDENT>
        <SJDENT>
          <SJDOC>Educational Resource Equity, President's Commission on; establishment (EO 13190),</SJDOC>
          <PGS>5424-5425</PGS>
          <FRDOCBP D="2" T="19JAE1.sgm">01-1814</FRDOCBP>
        </SJDENT>
      </CAT>
    </AGCY>
    <AGCY>
      <EAR>Public</EAR>
      <HD>Public Health Service</HD>
      <SEE>
        <HD SOURCE="HED">See</HD>
        <P>Food and Drug Administration</P>
      </SEE>
    </AGCY>
    <AGCY>
      <EAR>SEC</EAR>
      <HD>Securities and Exchange Commission</HD>
      <CAT>
        <HD>NOTICES</HD>
        <DOCENT>
          <DOC>Meetings; Sunshine Act,</DOC>
          <PGS>5520</PGS>
          <FRDOCBP D="1" T="19JAN1.sgm">01-1701</FRDOCBP>
        </DOCENT>
      </CAT>
    </AGCY>
    <AGCY>
      <EAR>SBA</EAR>
      <HD>Small Business Administration</HD>
      <CAT>
        <HD>NOTICES</HD>
        <SJ>Organization, functions, and authority delegations:</SJ>
        <SJDENT>
          <SJDOC>Administrator; order of succession,</SJDOC>
          <PGS>5520</PGS>
          <FRDOCBP D="1" T="19JAN1.sgm">01-1584</FRDOCBP>
        </SJDENT>
      </CAT>
    </AGCY>
    <AGCY>
      <EAR>Social</EAR>
      <HD>Social Security Administration</HD>
      <CAT>
        <HD>PROPOSED RULES</HD>
        <SJ>Social security benefits and supplemental security income:</SJ>
        <SUBSJ>Federal old age, survivors, and disability insurance, and aged, blind, and disabled—</SUBSJ>
        <SSJDENT>
          <SUBSJDOC>New disability claims process,</SUBSJDOC>
          <PGS>5494-5507</PGS>
          <FRDOCBP D="14" T="19JAP1.sgm">01-1442</FRDOCBP>
        </SSJDENT>
      </CAT>
      <CAT>
        <HD>NOTICES</HD>
        <SJ>Ticket to Work and Work Incentives Improvement Act of 1999; implementation:</SJ>
        <SJDENT>
          <SJDOC>Attorney fee assessment; 2001 rate,</SJDOC>
          <PGS>5521</PGS>
          <FRDOCBP D="1" T="19JAN1.sgm">01-1608</FRDOCBP>
        </SJDENT>
      </CAT>
    </AGCY>
    <AGCY>
      <EAR>Trade</EAR>
      <HD>Trade Representative, Office of United States</HD>
      <CAT>
        <HD>NOTICES</HD>
        <SJ>Generalized System of Preferences:</SJ>
        <SJDENT>
          <SJDOC>India; modification of duty-free treatment for certain products; comment request,</SJDOC>
          <PGS>5521-5523</PGS>
          <FRDOCBP D="3" T="19JAN1.sgm">01-1645</FRDOCBP>
        </SJDENT>
      </CAT>
    </AGCY>
    <AGCY>
      <EAR>Treasury</EAR>
      <HD>Treasury Department</HD>
      <SEE>
        <HD SOURCE="HED">See</HD>
        <P>Alcohol, Tobacco and Firearms Bureau</P>
      </SEE>
    </AGCY>
    <PTS>
      <HD SOURCE="HED">Separate Parts In This Issue</HD>
      <HD>Part II</HD>
      <DOCENT>
        <DOC>Department of Labor, Mine Safety and Health Administration,</DOC>
        <PGS>5525-5909</PGS>
        <FRDOCBP D="181" T="19JAR2.sgm">01-995</FRDOCBP>
        <FRDOCBP D="206" T="19JAR2.sgm">01-996</FRDOCBP>
      </DOCENT>
      <HD>Part III</HD>
      <DOCENT>
        <DOC>Department of Housing and Urban Development,</DOC>
        <PGS>5911-5913</PGS>
        <FRDOCBP D="3" T="19JAR3.sgm">01-1534</FRDOCBP>
      </DOCENT>
      <HD>Part IV</HD>
      <DOCENT>
        <DOC>Department of Labor, Occupational Safety and Health Administration,</DOC>
        <PGS>5915-6135</PGS>
        <FRDOCBP D="221" T="19JAR4.sgm">01-725</FRDOCBP>
      </DOCENT>
      <HD>Part V</HD>
      <DOCENT>
        <DOC>Department of Health and Human Services, Food and Drug Administration,</DOC>
        <PGS>6137-6202</PGS>
        <FRDOCBP D="66" T="19JAR5.sgm">01-1291</FRDOCBP>
      </DOCENT>
      <PRTPAGE P="v"/>
      <HD>Part VI</HD>
      <DOCENT>
        <DOC>Department of Agriculture, Cooperative State Research, Education, and Extension Service,</DOC>
        <PGS>6203-6215</PGS>
        <FRDOCBP D="6" T="19JAN2.sgm">01-1492</FRDOCBP>
        <FRDOCBP D="9" T="19JAN2.sgm">01-1493</FRDOCBP>
      </DOCENT>
      <HD>Part VII</HD>
      <DOCENT>
        <DOC>Department of Housing and Urban Development,</DOC>
        <PGS>6217-6226</PGS>
        <FRDOCBP D="10" T="19JAR6.sgm">01-1536</FRDOCBP>
      </DOCENT>
      <HD>Part VIII</HD>
      <DOCENT>
        <DOC>Department of Health and Human Services, Health Care Financing Administration,</DOC>
        <PGS>6227-6426</PGS>
        <FRDOCBP D="200" T="19JAR7.sgm">01-1447</FRDOCBP>
      </DOCENT>
    </PTS>
    <AIDS>
      <HD SOURCE="HED">Reader Aids</HD>
      <P>Consult the Reader Aids section at the end of this issue for phone numbers, online resources, finding aids, reminders, and notice of recently enacted public laws.</P>
    </AIDS>
  </CNTNTS>
  <VOL>66</VOL>
  <NO>13</NO>
  <DATE>Friday, January 19, 2001</DATE>
  <UNITNAME>Rules and Regulations</UNITNAME>
  <RULES>
    <RULE>
      <PREAMB>
        <PRTPAGE P="5427"/>
        <AGENCY TYPE="F">NUCLEAR REGULATORY COMMISSION</AGENCY>
        <CFR>10 CFR Part 50</CFR>
        <RIN>RIN 3150-AG11</RIN>
        <SUBJECT>Consideration of Potassium Iodide in Emergency Plans</SUBJECT>
        <AGY>
          <HD SOURCE="HED">AGENCY:</HD>
          <P>Nuclear Regulatory Commission.</P>
        </AGY>
        <ACT>
          <HD SOURCE="HED">ACTION:</HD>
          <P>Final rule.</P>
        </ACT>
        <SUM>
          <HD SOURCE="HED">SUMMARY:</HD>
          <P>The Nuclear Regulatory Commission (NRC) is amending its emergency planning regulations governing the domestic licensing of production and utilization facilities. The final rule requires that consideration be given to including potassium iodide (KI) as a protective measure for the general public that would supplement sheltering and evacuation. KI would help prevent thyroid cancers in the unlikely event of a major release of radioactivity from a nuclear power plant. The final rule responds to petitions for rulemaking (PRM 50-63 and PRM 50-63A) submitted by Mr. Peter G. Crane concerning the use of KI in emergency plans.</P>
        </SUM>
        <EFFDATE>
          <HD SOURCE="HED">EFFECTIVE DATES:</HD>
          <P>April 19, 2001.</P>
        </EFFDATE>
        <FURINF>
          <HD SOURCE="HED">FOR FURTHER INFORMATION CONTACT:</HD>
          <P>Michael T. Jamgochian, Office of Nuclear Reactor Regulation, U.S. Nuclear Regulatory Commission, Washington, DC 20555-0001. Telephone: (301) 415-3224. Internet: MTJ1@nrc.gov.</P>
        </FURINF>
      </PREAMB>
      <SUPLINF>
        <HD SOURCE="HED">SUPPLEMENTARY INFORMATION:</HD>
        <P>Section 50.47 of the Commission's regulations establishes requirements for emergency plans for nuclear power reactors to provide reasonable assurance that adequate protective measures can and will be taken in the event of a radiological emergency. Section 50.47(b) contains 16 planning standards, and in particular, § 50.47(b)(10) requires that emergency plans include “a range of protective actions” for the plume exposure pathway emergency planning zone (EPZ) for emergency workers and the public. This provision does not identify specific protective actions that must be included in these emergency plans.</P>
        <HD SOURCE="HD1">The Petitioner's Requested Amendment to the NRC Regulations</HD>
        <P>On November 27, 1995 (60 FR 58256), the NRC published a document announcing the receipt of a petition for rulemaking (PRM 50-63) filed by Mr. Peter G. Crane on his own behalf and requested public comment on the suggested action. In the original petition (PRM 50-63), submitted on September 9, 1995, the petitioner requested that 10 CFR part 50 be amended to include language taken from FEMA's Federal Radiological Emergency Response Plan of September 1994. The petitioner requested that the NRC amend its regulations concerning emergency planning to include a requirement that emergency planning protective actions include the prophylactic use of potassium iodide (KI), which the petitioner stated prevents thyroid cancer after nuclear accidents.</P>
        <P>The petitioner proposed that section 50.47(b)(10) be amended to read as follows:</P>
        
        <EXTRACT>
          <P>(10) A range of protective actions<E T="03">including sheltering, evacuation and prophylactic use of iodine</E>have been developed for the plume exposure pathway EPZ [emergency planning zone] for emergency workers and the public.</P>
          <P>Guidelines for the choice of protective actions during an emergency, consistent with Federal guidelines, are developed and in place, and protective actions for the ingestion exposure pathway EPZ appropriate to the locale have been developed.</P>
        </EXTRACT>
        
        <P>In the September 9, 1995, petition (PRM 50-63), the petitioner stated that he believes that if his proposed rule change is adopted, the plan will become an accurate description of emergency preparedness for radiological emergencies; the recommendation of the Kemeny Commission to stockpile KI will at last be implemented; and the United States will be in compliance with the International Basic Safety Standards.</P>
        <P>On November 11, 1997, the petitioner submitted a revision to his original petition(PRM 50-63A). In the revised petition, the petitioner requested that 10 CFR 50.47(b) be amended to read: (10) “A range of protective actions have been developed for the plume exposure EPZ for emergency workers and the public. In developing this range of actions, consideration has been given to evacuation, sheltering, and the prophylactic use of potassium iodide (KI), as appropriate. Guidelines for the choice of protective actions during an emergency, consistent with Federal guidelines, are developed and in place, and protective actions for the ingestion exposure pathway EPZ appropriate to the locale have been developed.”</P>

        <P>The petitioner also provided a marked-up version of the NRC staff's proposed Federal Radiological Preparedness Coordinating Committee (FRPCC)<E T="04">Federal Register</E>document concerning a revision to the Federal policy relating to the use of KI by the general public. The NRC published a document announcing the receipt of the amended petition on December 17, 1997, (62 FR 66038) and requested public comment on the amended petition.</P>
        <P>As part of the petitioner's comments on the proposed rule, the petitioner also stated that his original petition was incorporated by reference and resubmitted because the amended petition was based in part upon the June 30, 1997, Commission decision to fund State supplies for those States that request it.</P>
        <P>The petitioner also requested in PRM 50-63 that the NRC, either on its own or jointly with other agencies, issue a policy statement declaring that KI stockpiling is a sensible and prudent measure necessary to assure that the drug will be available in the event of a major accident. The petitioner believes that this statement would clarify that KI can be used in conjunction with evacuation and sheltering to maximize protection to the public.</P>
        <HD SOURCE="HD1">Commission Action Concerning the Petitions</HD>

        <P>By staff requirements memorandum (SRM) dated June 26, 1998, to SECY 98-061, “Staff Options for Resolving a Petition for Rulemaking (PRM 50-63 and 50-63A) Relating to Re-evaluation of the Policy Regarding the use of Potassium Iodide (KI) by the General Public after a Severe Accident at a Nuclear Power Plant,” the Commission decided to grant the revised petition for rulemaking (PRM 50-63A). The Commission also directed that the<PRTPAGE P="5428"/>preamble for the proposed rule include a statement to the effect that State and local decision makers, provided with proper information, may find that the use of KI as a protective supplement is reasonable and prudent for specific local conditions.</P>

        <P>By SRM dated April 22, 1999, to SECY 98-264, “Proposed Amendments to 10 CFR 50.47; Granting of Petitions for Rulemaking (PRM 50-63 and 50-63A) Relating to a Re-evaluation of Policy on the Use of Potassium Iodide (KI) After a Severe Accident at a Nuclear Power Plant,” the Commission voted to approve publication in the<E T="04">Federal Register</E>of a [7590-01-P] proposed rule that would grant in part both the original petition (PRM 50-63) and the revised petition for rulemaking (PRM 50-63A). The proposed rule was published for public comment on June 14, 1999 (64 FR 31737). That notice provides greater detail concerning the basis for the petition and the NRC's rationale for the proposed rule language put forth for comment.</P>
        <HD SOURCE="HD1">Other Activities Related to the Rulemaking on KI</HD>
        <P>In its decision on June 30, 1997, the Commission endorsed the Federal offer to fund the purchase of KI for States at their request. On June 26, 1998, in a decision on this rulemaking petition, the Commission again noted that the Federal government (most likely the NRC) is prepared to fund the purchase of a stockpile of KI for the States, upon request.<SU>1</SU>
          <FTREF/>However, in its April 22, 1999, SRM, the Commission decided: (1) Not to fund State stockpiles of KI; (2) to direct the NRC staff to work with FEMA to establish and maintain regional KI stockpiles; and (3) to support NRC funding of the purchase and resupply of the regional KI stockpiles to the extent that this cannot be covered by FEMA under its initiatives. The Commission determined that notwithstanding the June 30, 1997, and June 26, 1998, intention that “most likely the NRC” would fund the purchase of State stockpiles of KI, NRC was not prepared to fund State stockpiles of KI absent Congressional funding specifically for this purpose.</P>
        <FTNT>
          <P>
            <SU>1</SU>This was in contrast to previous Commission statements, such as those made when the Commission amended its emergency planning regulations (45 FR 55402) on November 3, 1980, wherein the Commission stated that any direct funding of State or local governments solely for emergency preparedness purposes by the Federal government would come through the Federal Emergency Management Agency (FEMA).</P>
        </FTNT>
        <P>The Federal Radiological Preparedness Coordinating Committee (FRPCC) is responsible to coordinate all Federal responsibilities for assisting state and local governments in emergency planning and preparedness for peacetime radiological emergencies. Federal agencies which participate in the FRPCC include (among others): the Federal Emergency Management Agency (FEMA), NRC, the Environmental Protection Agency (EPA), and the Department of Health and Human Services (HHS). The 1985 Federal Policy recommends the stockpiling or distribution of KI during emergencies for emergency workers and institutionalized persons, but does not recommend requiring pre-distribution or stockpiling for the general public. In parallel with petitioning the NRC for rulemaking, Mr. Crane requested that the FRPCC policy be reconsidered. In early 1996, the FRPCC convened a subcommittee on Potassium Iodide. The subcommittee recommended the following to the FRPCC regarding the Federal KI policy: (1) Without changing the Federal policy that it is the State's prerogative to make its own decisions on whether to use KI, the Federal Government (NRC through FEMA), should fund the purchase of a stockpile for a State that, hereafter, decides to incorporate KI as a protective measure for the general public; (2) the language in the 1985 policy should be softened to be more flexible and balanced, as for instance, rewording it to state “it [potassium iodide for use by the general public] is not required, but may be selected as a protective measure at the option of the State or, in some cases, local governments;” and (3) local jurisdictions that wish to use KI should consult with the State to determine if the arrangements are appropriate. If local governments have the authority or secure the approval to incorporate KI as a protective measure for the general public, they would need to include such a measure in their emergency plans.</P>
        <P>On June 16, 1997, the NRC staff forwarded to the Commission a staff version of the FRPCC-proposed Policy Regarding Use of Potassium Iodide After a Severe Accident at a Nuclear Power Plant. In its SRM of June 30, 1997, the Commission endorsed the Federal offer to fund the purchase of KI for States. On June 26, 1998, the Commission directed that the FRPCC proposed Policy be modified to include a statement to the effect that State and local decision makers, provided with proper information, may find the use of KI as a protective supplement is reasonable and prudent for specific local conditions. As noted above, the Commission also reiterated its endorsement of the Federal offer to fund KI stockpiles for States. Subsequently, on April 22, 1999, the Commission directed the staff to amend the draft FRN on the Federal KI Policy to conform to the Commission decision on the petitions for rulemaking, and the decision not to fund State KI stockpiles.</P>
        <P>On April 29, 1999, the Director of FEMA, Mr. James Lee Witt, forwarded a letter to the Commission commenting on the issue of funding of stockpiles of KI for States. The letter objected to the Commission's “unilateral” decision on funding, and also noted “FEMA has always opposed the notion that Federal regional stockpiles of KI would be effective [and believes that] regional stockpiles would complicate, not strengthen radiological emergency preparedness.” FEMA believes that if a State opts to use KI as a supplemental protective measure, the NRC should provide the funds for such a purchase.</P>
        <P>The NRC responded to Mr. Witt's letter on June 15, 1999. This letter noted the Commission's decision not to fund state stockpiles of KI as well as the reasons underlying that decision. The letter also referred to the Commission's direction to “the NRC staff to work with FEMA staff to establish and maintain regional KI stockpiles to be used in the event that local stockpiles prove to be insufficient, or when a state without a stockpile elects to use KI on an ad hoc basis in the case of a nuclear emergency.” The letter expressed confidence that the staffs, working together would successfully resolve the KI supply issue. The status of the stockpile and funding issues are discussed later in this notice. NRC is working closely with the other Federal agencies to determine appropriate changes to the 1985 policy. A decision regarding policy changes will be reached after the conclusion of this rulemaking.</P>

        <P>In accordance with a Memorandum of Understanding between NRC and FEMA, NRC sent draft versions of this<E T="04">Federal Register</E>notice to FEMA for its review and comment. FEMA responded by letter dated January 12, 2000. That letter reiterated their previous comments opposing regional stockpiles and instead favoring NRC funding of State stockpiles. The letter also noted that the development of regional stockpiles of KI had not progressed.</P>

        <P>As discussed in the public comment evaluation, the Commission, as part of its decision to grant in full the amended rulemaking petition, has withdrawn its support for the funding of regional KI stockpiles and has reinstated its offer to provide for NRC funding of State or, in some cases, local stockpiles. The Commission agrees to fund a State's<PRTPAGE P="5429"/>stockpile of KI, subject to various restrictions and limitations (see Staff Requirements Memorandum for the Affirmation Session on December 22, 2000). NRC intends to work closely with FEMA and the other Federal agencies in FRPCC to finalize the draft Federal Policy to replace the 1985 Federal Policy. A decision regarding changes to the draft policy will be reached after the conclusion of this rulemaking. The substance of the specific comments attached to the FEMA letter is addressed by the issues in the public comment evaluation.</P>
        <P>On September 30, 1998, the Commission also directed the staff to withdraw its guidance document, NUREG-1633 and substantially revise it, in a number of respects, including an improved discussion on how the practical problems in KI stockpiling, distribution and use are handled by States and other nations who use KI as a supplement. To accomplish this task, the NRC formed a KI Core Group, consisting of representatives from those States that have KI as a supplemental protective action, the Conference of Radiation Control Program Directors, the National Emergency Management Association, the U.S. Food and Drug Administration (FDA), EPA and FEMA. The revised draft guidance document, NUREG-1633, “Assessment of the Use of KI as a Supplemental Protective Action During Severe Reactor Accidents”, Rev. 2 is expected to be issued for comment following receipt of the FDA's draft revised position on exposure action levels and proper dosage of KI which was issued for public comment on January 4, 2001 (66 FR 801).</P>
        <P>In addition, the NRC plans to develop a public information brochure concerning the use of KI by the general public following completion of the final NUREG.</P>
        <HD SOURCE="HD1">Public Comment Evaluation</HD>
        <P>On November 27, 1995 (60 FR 58256), the NRC announced the receipt of the original petition for rulemaking (PRM 50-63), and requested public comment on the suggested rule amendment. A total of 65 comment letters were received.<SU>2</SU>
          <FTREF/>Letters in favor of granting the petition came from 5 environmental groups, 22 members of the public (including 1 from the petitioner), and the American Thyroid Association. Letters opposed to the petition came from 20 utilities, 9 State governmental agencies, 2 utility interest organizations, a letter signed by 12 health physicists, 2 State university medical centers and 1 member of the public.</P>
        <FTNT>
          <P>
            <SU>2</SU>Two letters that were received in response to the notice did not address the issues in the petition and are not discussed further.</P>
        </FTNT>

        <P>On December 17, 1997 (62 FR 66038), the Commission published a request for public comment on the amended petition (PRM 50-63A) in the<E T="04">Federal Register</E>. In response to several requests, the comment period was extended until February 17, 1998, by a<E T="04">Federal Register</E>notice published on January 21, 1998 (63 FR 3052). A total of 86 comment letters were received. The letters in favor of granting the petition came from 8 public interest groups, 48 members of the public (including 3 from the petitioner), 3 physicians, 2 U.S. Senators, one State Representative, FEMA, the American Thyroid Association, a KI manufacturer, and the US Pharmacopeia Convention. Fourteen utilities, 3 State government agencies, 1 utility interest association, and 2 members of the public opposed the petition for rulemaking. A detailed analysis of the issues raised by the public comments with the response to those issues was published in the June 14, 1999, proposed rule<E T="04">Federal Register</E>notice.</P>

        <P>On June 14, 1999 (64 FR 31737), the Commission published a proposed rule in the<E T="04">Federal Register</E>, based on the revised petition for rulemaking (PRM 50-63A) and requested public comment by September 14, 1999. A total of 77 comment letters were received.<SU>3</SU>

          <FTREF/>The letters in favor of the proposed rulemaking and the revised petition for rulemaking originated from a United States Senator; a member of the U.S. House of Representatives; 3 State agencies; 4 public interest groups; 10 members of the public (including two from the petitioner); and one letter with 529 signatures. Letters that opposed the proposed rulemaking came from 14 utilities; 13 State or local government agencies; 1 utility interest association; one letter from the Conference of Radiation Control Program Directors Standards committee representing 5 committee members; a letter from the National Emergency Management Association representing emergency management directors in 50 states; a law firm representing 15 utilities; and a former Assistant Secretary of Nuclear Energy at DOE. The FEMA letter of April 29, 1999, was submitted before the rule was published and discussed KI stockpiles. Another 24 letters requested the Commission to grant the original petition (PRM 50-63) by<E T="03">requiring</E>the use of KI rather than the<E T="03">consideration</E>of KI in emergency planning. These letters originated from members of the public as well as public interest groups. As part of the petitioner's comment letter dated August 17, 1999, on the proposed rule the petitioner stated that, in light of the Commission's decision not to fund state stockpiles of KI, the Commission should consider his original petition (PRM 50-63) to be incorporated by reference and resubmitted. He also requested the Commission to grant the petition as originally submitted.</P>
        <FTNT>
          <P>
            <SU>3</SU>Three of the letters (those from FEMA, the senator and the congressional representative) were not submitted during the comment period in response to the notice, but are being treated as comment letters for purposes of this discussion.</P>
        </FTNT>
        <P>The following discussion addresses the significant comments and issues raised in the three public comment periods for the original and amended petitions for rulemaking and the proposed rule.</P>
        <HD SOURCE="HD2">Issue A: Should KI Be Considered as a Supplemental Protective Action to Evacuation and Sheltering</HD>
        <P>Several commenters on the proposed rule state that the rulemaking would not add significant public health and safety benefit beyond the current emergency plans, because evacuation and sheltering are the best means to protect the public in the event of a radiological emergency. According to these commenters, evacuation and sheltering are more effective at dose reduction because they reduce dose to all organs, not just to the thyroid.</P>
        <P>Other comments express the view that the Chernobyl experience (including use of KI in Poland) shows that (1) thyroid cancer is a major result of reactor accidents, (2) the exposure can continue for days and thus the institution of KI blocking at any time is beneficial, (3) deployment of KI is safe, and (4) shelf life is extremely long. These commenters note that EPA Manual [Manual of Protective Action Guides and Protective Actions for Nuclear Incidents, EPA-400-R-92-001 (May 1992)] quotes the FDA as stating that potassium iodide “will have substantial benefit even if it is taken 3 or 4 hours after acute exposure.” Thus, these commenters believe that the advantage of having a supply of KI on hand outweighs moderate cost and that KI should be a supplemental protective action. Further, these commenters note that just because there may be other radionuclides to which people are exposed is not a reason to deny them the availability of KI.</P>

        <P>Commenters who favor the use of KI as a supplemental protective action conclude that evacuation and sheltering alone may not be sufficient safety actions in the event that evacuation is not feasible. They state that natural<PRTPAGE P="5430"/>disasters could occur that would make evacuation difficult and time consuming at best, as for instance, earthquakes, hurricanes, blizzards, and ice storms. According to these commenters, a point against strong reliance upon evacuation is the evacuation routes themselves. As an example, a commenter cites the area around the Seabrook Nuclear Plant, noting that during the summer tourist season especially, it can be predicted that evacuees will be forced to wait in traffic for great lengths of time. This commenter believes that if KI were predistributed, instances of cancer, hypothyroidism and other thyroid disorders might be avoided.</P>
        <P>
          <E T="03">Response.</E>The Commission recognizes evacuation to be the most effective protective measure to be taken in the event of a radiological emergency because it protects the whole body (including the thyroid and other organs) from all radionuclides and all exposure pathways. The Commission recognizes that there may be situations when evacuation is not feasible or is delayed. In-place sheltering is an effective protective action in such a situation. However, it is important to note that the issue is not evacuation or sheltering<E T="03">versus</E>KI. Rather, it is evacuation or sheltering<E T="03">with</E>KI versus evacuation or sheltering<E T="03">without</E>KI. The use of KI is intended to supplement, not to replace, other protective measures. This amendment represents no change in the NRC's view that the primary and most desirable protective action in a radiological emergency is evacuation of the population before any exposure to radiation occurs. Depending on the circumstances, KI may offer additional protection for one radiation-sensitive organ, the thyroid, if used in conjunction with evacuation and sheltering. In developing the range of public protective actions for severe accidents at commercial nuclear power plants, evacuation and in-place sheltering provide adequate protection for the general public but the use of KI can be a reasonable and prudent supplement. Therefore, it seems reasonable, while continuing to recognize the role of the State and local governments in matters of emergency planning, to require explicitly that emergency planners consider the use of KI.</P>
        <HD SOURCE="HD2">Issue B: Is There a Need for New Regulation</HD>
        <P>Commenters in favor of the proposed rule note that a host of countries—France, Germany, Belarus, Russia, Switzerland, Austria, the Czech Republic, Japan, Great Britain, Sweden, Slovakia, and others—protect themselves with stockpiles of KI. These commenters point to soaring rates of thyroid cancer appearing in children in the Soviet Union who were exposed to the Chernobyl nuclear accident and who received too little potassium iodide, and too late. Thus, these commenters support the view that there is new information that suggests the need for consideration by State and local governments. In addition, many of these commenters would go further than the proposed rule language and require the use of KI, not just its consideration.</P>
        <P>In contrast to the above, letters from some state and local governments, and from utilities, say that the State and local governments have already considered the use of KI. They believe that the petitioner has not provided any compelling reasons why additional Federal requirements are needed or how they would benefit the health and safety of the public. These State and local government commenters reject the view that the States have not had access to sufficient technical information regarding potassium iodide, and that without accurate and current information on KI—including the Chernobyl experience and the consensus of international experts—States cannot make an informed judgment. They conclude that this assertion is without merit, as there has been no shortage of information related to the use of potassium iodide available to State radiological emergency planners, and oppose the implication that State and local governments, absent Federal actions, are incapable of making informed decisions regarding the protection of their citizens during a radiological emergency. One commenter stated that by issuing this rule, the Commission is ignoring the views of States where KI has been stockpiled or pre-distributed, and where experience shows the system is ineffective.</P>
        <P>The commenters opposing the proposed rule on this basis also note that reliance on the Chernobyl experience discounts the vast technical, political, and socio-economic differences between the United States and Eastern European countries at the time of the Chernobyl accident. The efficacy of any protective measure will depend on a large number of factors, including but not limited to: the type of reactor involved; accident sequences and timing; source term; timeliness of notification; the manner in which protective action decisions are made and transmitted to the public; the mobility of the public; and the receptiveness of the general public to official instructions. These commenters believe that the above factors have already been considered by State and local governments in the development of existing emergency response plans.</P>
        <P>
          <E T="03">Response.</E>The Commission did not intend to imply that States are not capable of making informed decisions regarding the protection of their citizens during a radiological emergency. In fact, the final rule calls on offsite authorities to make their own decision on this matter. Additionally, the Commission recognizes that most State and local governments have already considered the use of KI in the event of an emergency as part of their planning. Nevertheless, the Commission believes it appropriate to provide information that may be of aid to offsite authorities in their consideration of this matter. Offsite authorities may, of course, use this information as they see fit.</P>
        <P>Several States have welcomed the NRC's efforts in developing information relating to the benefits and risks associated with using KI as a supplemental protective measure for the general public. This information is intended to supplement and update information already available on this subject, including experience from State and foreign governments that have made KI available to the public. As noted earlier, this information will be in a revised NUREG-1633, which is scheduled for publication for comment after the FDA issues its draft guidance and in an information brochure.</P>
        <P>The Commission finds that KI is a reasonable, prudent, and inexpensive supplement to evacuation and sheltering for specific local conditions. Through its decision to require that the use of KI be “considered” (rather than being required), the Commission is acknowledging that the efficacy of any protective measure will depend upon a number of factors, including those noted by the commenter, that can vary not only between countries but in individual States. Thus, the Commission concluded that decisions on the use of KI need to be resolved on a State-by-State basis. As part of this consideration, State and local governments can weigh all relevant factors.</P>
        <HD SOURCE="HD2">Issue C: The Importance of Information in the Decisionmaking Process Concerning the Public Use of KI</HD>

        <P>In the proposed rule, the Commission noted that NUREG-1633 was being revised to provide information about experience in the United States and abroad with distribution of KI, and that an information brochure was also being prepared. According to some commenters, distribution of information on the benefits and risks associated with<PRTPAGE P="5431"/>the use of KI should not be limited to people living within nuclear power plant emergency planning zones. Further, commenters note that a comprehensive public information program outlining the potential range of benefits and risks of using KI and how to employ it most effectively in the event of a radiological emergency would be necessary to allow personal decisionmaking. Making the information and the KI itself available directly to members of the public provides them with the ability to decide for themselves how best to take advantage of the benefits associated with the use of KI as supplementary protection. One vehicle currently used for disseminating regular preparedness information which could be used to provide information on KI is the public information brochures and calendars already required to be distributed annually within each emergency planning zone. In this commenter's view, making information and KI available provides the greatest level of protection for the greatest number of people.</P>
        <P>Some State government organizations were concerned that making provisions for KI might give the public a false sense of security that they are fully protected, and that the public might not evacuate. Thus, these organizations believe that there is a need for public information concerning the supplemental role that the use of KI could play.</P>
        <P>Several of the commenters stated that it is desirable that the NRC would work with other appropriate Federal agencies to develop and promulgate clear and necessary guidance on the subject, similar to the guidance on sheltering and evacuation. These commenters also believe that the final decision should lie at the discretion of the State and local governments. A few commenters expressed the view that the rule puts the burden of assessment on States who have fewer technical resources than the NRC, the EPA or the FDA.</P>
        <P>One commenter thought that the decisionmaking about stockpiling KI must include rigorous assessments to ensure sufficient quantities of KI will be available for distribution to members of the public, in both the plume exposure pathway and the ingestion exposure pathway.</P>
        <P>
          <E T="03">Response.</E>The Commission recognizes that once a State decides to include KI as a protective measure for the general public, it would be up to the State to decide how and when to conduct an educational program on the benefits and risks associated with using KI and to supply KI for appropriate distribution to the general public. Additionally, the Commission agrees that more detailed guidance on the use of KI would be useful in assisting States to assess the merits of stockpiling KI for the general public, including logistics, amounts and public information needs. The Commission has formed a KI “Core Group” consisting of representatives of State, local, and Federal agencies whose responsibility is to develop clear guidance relating to the use of KI. This guidance (NUREG-1633, Rev. 2) should be published for comment after FDA issues its draft guidance, which was issued for public comment on January 4, 2001 (66 FR 801). The NRC is continuing to work with other Federal agencies through the FRPCC to coordinate government policies concerning radiation protection and emergency planning. Further, a public information brochure to be published later will assist States and individuals in making an informed decision on KI.</P>
        <HD SOURCE="HD2">Issue D: Making KI Available to the General Public</HD>
        <P>A range of comments were submitted concerning ways by which KI could be made available to the general public in the event of a radiological emergency. Many commenters simply asked NRC to “make KI available” without further detail. In the proposed rule, the NRC discussed Federal stockpiles of KI as part of Federal response to terrorist acts. One commenter indicated that expanding this supply may be the best approach. Another commenter stated that the public is not interested in stockpiles, but instead wants information to make their own decisions. Of those comments related to specific methods of availability, these can be generally grouped into individual availability, State stockpiles in the vicinity of nuclear power plants, or regional stockpiles.</P>
        <HD SOURCE="HD2">Individual Availability</HD>
        <P>One State submitted, as part of its comments, a report that discussed a plan they have developed that would allow citizens to gain access to KI in advance of an accident. The plan calls for the State to secure agreements with KI manufacturers to sell the medication directly to individuals or retail outlets, and to urge local pharmacies to stock KI as an over-the-counter drug. Information concerning KI availability and use would be included in the annual emergency information mailings prepared by nuclear power plant staffs and distributed to every property owner within the emergency planning zones. The State concluded that this method would allow individuals to make their own decisions about the use of KI. This State noted that one can envision this activity being conducted in conjunction with existing programs designed to remind and encourage family members to periodically check home first aid kits, smoke detectors, spare batteries for flashlights and radios, and other items that they might employ for their comfort and protection in the event of any emergency. In addition, one commenter noted that KI is now available via the Internet from at least two vendors at an affordable price. (See also comments above in issue C about decisionmaking.)</P>
        <HD SOURCE="HD2">State Stockpiles</HD>
        <P>A number of commenters believe that KI should be stockpiled in schools, fire houses or reception centers near nuclear power plants. These commenters state that this is the advice of the experts, for instance the World Health Organization and Dr. Jean Temeck, from FDA. These commenters believe that the young are the most vulnerable; and, in the words of Dr. Temeck, “in an emergency you want to get it to the children as quickly as possible and the teacher is right there on the spot. * * * You do not need to be medically trained to give KI. A permission slip to administer KI can be sent out by the school at the beginning of each year.” Further, it makes sense to these commenters that this time-critical medicine be available nearby, such as in a local school, hospital, or fire-station. Thus, these commenters believe that State stockpiles are appropriate because regional stockpiles will not adequately protect the public since KI must be taken prior to exposure, or very shortly thereafter (within about six hours), to be an effective blocking agent.</P>
        <HD SOURCE="HD2">Regional Stockpiles</HD>

        <P>A number of commenters, including emergency preparedness and response officials and FEMA, are concerned about the regional stockpiling and distribution process and its potential for reducing the effectiveness of measures which will provide much greater protection to the public. In their view, the complex logistics of storage and distribution of regional stockpiles far outweigh the usefulness of such a stockpile and that regional stockpiles of potassium iodide would complicate, not strengthen radiological emergency preparedness. These commenters believe regional stockpiling has disadvantages as compared to State stockpiling. The administration of KI is time-critical and regional stockpiling means critical time will be spent transporting the drug from a regional stockpile to the area where it is needed. For these reasons, they believe that<PRTPAGE P="5432"/>regional stockpiles should supplement, not substitute for State stockpiles.</P>
        <P>
          <E T="03">Response.</E>If a State decides to use KI as a supplemental protective measure, the Commission agrees that the State should focus on the early administration of KI to children. A decision to make KI available to the general public will require some planning by the State for its own supplies of KI and methods of distribution. Such planning (for implementation of protective actions) is a normal part of a State's emergency planning activities. As noted earlier, the NRC plans to issue a guidance document (NUREG-1633) to assist the States. The Commission recognizes the logistical challenges associated with the distribution of KI to the general public. For this reason, the staff intends to include a discussion of experience with KI distribution in the United States and abroad in the guidance document NUREG-1633.</P>
        <P>There are different approaches that a State can use in incorporating KI as a supplemental protective measure for the general public. One approach is that mentioned by a commenter to distribute information about the over-the-counter availability of KI. Making KI available over the counter would provide members of the public with the opportunity to decide for themselves if they wanted to store and use KI. In fact, some KI manufacturers have indicated that they would make KI available to any person who requests it, at a fee. This approach would minimize the need for State stockpiles or predistribution and would put KI in the hands of the public before an accident occurs, rather than attempting to distribute the KI from stockpiles after an emergency is declared.</P>
        <P>The concerns about the effectiveness of regional stockpiles for rapid deployment of KI to the public are also acknowledged. FEMA has stated that in its view, regional stockpiles will not enhance local radiological emergency preparedness because of complex logistics. The Commission agrees. As part of its decision on this final rule, the Commission has decided to provide funding for a supply of KI for States that request such funding through FEMA and to discontinue support of regional stockpiles. The Commission believes that in light of logistic difficulties, it is doubtful that regional stockpiles of KI could be effectively employed in the unlikely event of a radiological emergency at a commercial nuclear power plant.</P>
        <HD SOURCE="HD2">Issue E: Requiring versus Considering Use of KI</HD>

        <P>Several commenters thought that the proposed rule should be modified to require the use of KI, not just the consideration by State and local officials. These commenters believe, for instance, that the tragic comedy of errors surrounding attempts to distribute KI in the wake of the Three Mile Island partial core melt accident only serves to highlight the need for pre-distribution. The health of our children is too important to leave their protection to the consideration of states. These commenters ask that if the U.S. system is adequate, why do other industrialized nations believe that sheltering and evacuation alone are insufficient? Some of these commenters want all commercial reactor licensees to distribute KI to all individuals within the EPZ and to make KI available to anyone within a 50-mile radius of the reactor upon request. These commenters believe that the prophylactic use of KI for the general public should be a<E T="03">mandatory</E>emergency planning requirement and should not be merely an optional consideration, because, if given the choice, many States may not adequately protect their citizens. Another reason cited for wanting NRC to require KI is that “without a federal mandate for stockpiling KI, the nuclear industry will simply shift its fight against the policy to the State and local levels.”</P>
        <P>
          <E T="03">Response.</E>Because the Commission believes that current emergency planning and protective measures—evacuation and sheltering—are adequate and protective of public health and safety, the Commission will not<E T="03">require</E>use of KI by the general public. Rather, the Commission recognizes the<E T="03">supplemental</E>value of KI and the prerogative of the State to decide on the appropriateness of the use of KI by its citizens. The Commission believes the final rule together with the Commission's decision to provide funding for the purchase of a State's supply of KI strikes a proper balance between encouraging (but not requiring) the offsite authorities to take advantage of the benefits of KI and acknowledging the offsite authorities' role in such matters.</P>
        <P>The use of KI is intended to supplement, not to replace, other protective measures. This rule change thus represents no alteration in the NRC's view that the primary and most desirable protective action in a radiological emergency is evacuation of the population before any exposure to radiation occurs. The Commission recognizes that there may be situations when evacuation is not feasible or is delayed. In-place sheltering is an effective protective action in such a situation. Depending on the circumstances, KI may offer additional protection to one radiation-sensitive organ, the thyroid, if used in conjunction with evacuation and sheltering. In addition, the Commission notes that issues surrounding the prophylactic use of KI following such accidents do not lend themselves to across-the-board solutions. Therefore, the Commission has chosen to leave this decision to State and local emergency response planners, who may find that KI should be a supplementary protective measure, rather than to mandate its use. Additionally, the Commission's amendment to require explicitly that planners consider the use of KI, rather than require the use of KI, recognizes the important role of the States and local governments in matters of emergency planning and the use of medicinal protective measures by their citizens.</P>
        <HD SOURCE="HD2">Issue F: Funding</HD>

        <P>Some commenters, including FEMA, state that the recent decision of the Commissioners<E T="03">not</E>to fund the purchase of KI is an unfortunate reversal to the goal of providing supplementary protection for the general public. Thus, citing the Chernobyl accident, they urge the Commission to reconsider its position in light of the proven usefulness of KI in preventing childhood thyroid cancer. One State commenter was concerned that after two years of efforts made toward implementing this supplementary protection, the Commission's recent actions undermine that State's effort. While understanding the Commission's financial concerns leading to this decision, this commenter proposed that the Commission could approach Congress for a supplemental appropriation.</P>

        <P>Another commenter stated that the Commission's withdrawal of the offer to pay for State KI stockpiles sends a message that KI preparedness is not important, and that States who were considering plans to establish stockpiles have dropped such plans. Further, some commenters believe that the NRC reversal of position regarding funding of KI for States that elect to stockpile it adversely affects the implementation of the policy proposed by the Federal Radiological Preparedness Coordinating Committee (FRPCC). [That draft policy currently provides that if a State chooses to add KI as a supplement to its evacuation and sheltering protective<PRTPAGE P="5433"/>actions, the State will inform FEMA, which will forward the request to the NRC for payment.] Another commenter noted that the Kemeny Commission supported stockpiling KI, and that the Commission should fulfill an earlier NRC commitment to do so.</P>
        <P>Several States expressed the view that the requirement that use of KI be considered is an unfunded State mandate and is contrary to an Executive Order of 8/5/99.</P>
        <P>A number of commenters stated that they thought the utilities should pay for supplies of KI in the vicinity of the power plants. Some utilities expressed concern that the rulemaking might result in requests to the utilities from State and local organizations for such funding.</P>
        <P>
          <E T="03">Response.</E>The Commission decision not to fund State stockpiles has been reversed as the result of public comment on this rulemaking. Promulgation of this final rule underscores the Commission's views on the importance of emergency preparedness, including consideration of the use of KI. The Commission has decided to fund State and, in some cases, local stockpiles of KI, subject to certain restrictions and limitations (see Staff Requirements Memorandum for the Affirmation Session on December 22, 2000). The Commission believes that in light of logistical difficulties, it is doubtful that regional stockpiles of KI could be effectively employed in the unlikely event of a radiological emergency at a commercial nuclear power plant. The Commission's offer to fund the purchase of a supply of KI for a State choosing to use KI prophylaxis as a supplemental protective measure retains the FRPCC's proposal that the State remain responsible for all other funding connected with the incorporation of KI, such as preparing guidelines for its stockpiling, maintenance, distribution and use, and for all other ancillary costs.</P>
        <P>The Commission agrees that, in the past, licensees may have found it in their own self interest to assist State and local governments by providing resources for emergency planning needs. The Commission expects that those States who decide to use KI for the general public will make suitable arrangements to fund costs other than the initial purchase of a supply of KI. After funding the initial purchases of KI, the Commission may consider extending the program to fund stockpile replenishment, but has made no commitments in this regard. As with other aspects of offsite emergency planning, the NRC will not require licensees to fund State activities, but the States can, of course, act in cooperation and coordination with licensees.</P>
        <P>As to the issues whether the rule constitutes an “unfunded State mandate” or is contrary to an Executive Order of August 5, 1999, the Nuclear Regulatory Commission, as an independent regulatory agency, is not subject to the requirements of Title II of the Unfunded Mandates Reform Act of 1995 or Executive Order 13132, “Federalism,” August 5, 1999.</P>
        <HD SOURCE="HD2">Issue G: Whether This Rulemaking Is a Backfit</HD>
        <P>A commenter representing nuclear utilities raised a concern that if licensees would be required to expend significant resources in considering the use of KI in emergency plans, then the proposed rule is clearly a backfit and a backfitting analysis should be performed. Thus, the commenter requested that the NRC either limit the specific actions which would be required to be taken by licensees to demonstrate that the adequate consideration required by the proposed rule has been implemented, or the required backfitting analysis should be conducted and a suitably revised proposed rule should be published for comment.</P>
        <P>
          <E T="03">Response.</E>This notice contains a “Backfit Analysis” section, which notes that the Commission concludes that the rule imposes no new requirements on licensees, nor does it alter procedures at nuclear facilities. Rather, it is directed to States or local governments, the entities with the responsibility to determine the appropriateness of the use of KI for their citizens, calling upon the governments to consider KI as one of the elements of their offsite emergency planning. The final rule imposes no binding requirement for State or local governments to alter emergency plans and procedures.</P>
        <P>Furthermore, the basic standard that emergency planning must include consideration of a range of protective actions is already set forth in the existing § 50.47(b)(10). Once again, the rule does not impose new requirements on nuclear power plant licensees who are the intended beneficiaries of the Backfit Rule provisions. Therefore, no backfit is involved.</P>
        <HD SOURCE="HD2">Issue H: State Liabilities in Providing KI for the General Public</HD>

        <P>State and local government organizations raised concerns about legal implications should a member of the general public be given KI at their directive or recommendation and the individual has an extreme allergic reaction. Commenters note that the<E T="04">Federal Register</E>notice does not address legal issues for States who decide to adopt KI and for States who do not decide to adopt or administer KI to the public. Further, if the NRC decides to require stockpiling of KI for the general public, the commenters ask whether NRC has considered what liability may arise from any adverse health effects. Another concern was about who would assume liability if the KI was used prior to a Governor ordering its use.</P>
        <P>
          <E T="03">Response.</E>These comments focus principally on concerns that State and local governments involved in distribution and administration of KI may be liable in tort if an individual receiving the KI has a significant adverse medical reaction to the KI. As stated in the proposed rule FR notice, the question of whether a State or locality might be liable for involvement with administration of KI to the general public can only be answered by reference to the laws and precedents of particular States. The NRC presumes that this would be part of the “consideration” that States and localities will undertake as a result of promulgation of this rule. To the extent that commenters are raising the potential for Federal government liability for the promulgation of this proposed rule, the proposed rule FRN notes NRC views that whether the Commission may be subject to tort liability through the implementation of a KI program depends upon a number of factors. However, it would appear that a Commission decision to require State and local emergency planning officials to consider stockpiling KI for public distribution should be subject to the “discretionary function” exception to the Federal Tort Claims Act. 28 USC 2671,<E T="03">et seq.</E>, which protects the Federal Government from liability. The Commission's offer to fund State stockpiles would similarly be subject to the “discretionary function” exception. The Commission has directed the staff to ensure that NRC funding for KI is accompanied by appropriate disclaimers to ensure that the NRC and any of its employees are not to be held responsible for any activity connected with transporting, storing, distributing, administering, using, or determining proper doses of KI for adults and children.</P>
        <HD SOURCE="HD2">Issue I: FDA Input on KI</HD>

        <P>A few commenters thought that the dosage and intervention levels should be lowered from the values in the existing FDA guidance. For instance, they conclude that NRC should require using KI prophylaxis at one rem projected dose exposure not at the<PRTPAGE P="5434"/>current 25 rem. It was noted that Poland uses a 5 rem intervention level. The concern of these commenters is that continued use of the old guidance subjects children to greater risk than necessary.</P>
        <P>
          <E T="03">Response.</E>The FDA is the Federal agency responsible for decisions about appropriate thresholds and dosages for use of KI. Existing FDA guidance related to the use of KI on dosage intervention levels is contained in a June 29, 1982 notice (47 FR 28158). As stated therein, “FDA concludes in the final recommendations that risks from the short-term use of relatively low doses of potassium iodide for thyroid blocking in a radiation emergency are outweighed by the risks of radioiodine-induced thyroid nodules or cancer at a projected dose to the thyroid gland of 25 rem.” That notice also provides recommended dosages for adults and children. New FDA guidance was published in the<E T="04">Federal Register</E>for public comment on January 4, 2001 (66 FR 801). The Commission will incorporate it into its guidance documents.</P>
        <HD SOURCE="HD2">Issue J: Original Petition Versus Revised Petition</HD>
        <P>A few commenters state that in the proposed rule, the Commission claims to have granted the alternative submitted in the amended petition, but did not actually do so. In their view, the amended petition contained the combination of three elements— the requirement to consider KI stockpiling, the unequivocal recommendation that States establish stockpiles, and the offer of Federally-funded State stockpiles. Since the promise of funding removed a major impediment to States adopting a pro-KI policy, the commenters believe that the petitioner felt that amending his petition to require only “consideration” of the use of KI would likely result in State decisions favorable to using KI. In their view, the amended PRM was premised on the now-withdrawn NRC offer of Federally-funded State stockpiles of KI, and therefore it would be entirely appropriate for the petitioner to rescind his amendment to PRM 50-63 and to insist that the NRC adopt what was requested in his original petition.</P>
        <P>
          <E T="03">Response.</E>The Commission agrees with this comment. Since the Commission has decided to reinstate its offer to fund a supply of KI for State or, in some cases, local governments that choose to incorporate KI prophylaxis in their emergency plans, the Commission believes that it is granting the amended petition (PRM-50-63A) in all respects.</P>
        <HD SOURCE="HD2">Issue K: Meaning of “Consideration”</HD>
        <P>Several commenters stated that the proposed rule is vague in that it did not define “consideration.” They believe that the rule should clarify that the KI “consideration” within the context of radiological emergency planning and preparedness needs to be performed only once by the responsible State agency, which would provide written notice of the consideration to the Commission. Thereafter, no further “consideration” should be required unless the State determines there is reason to reconsider its position and that the “consideration” process is not subject to continuing oversight or recurring evaluation by the NRC, or any other federal agency.</P>
        <P>Another commenter questioned whether a State that considered the issue in the early 1980s, and rejected the use of KI, could now claim that the Commission's current proposal has already been fulfilled. Reliance upon the earlier consideration would violate the intent of the petitioner's proposal.</P>
        <P>Another commenter questioned whether the following scenario would be considered acceptable and in compliance with the rule: a State considered the use of KI, but found the licensee unwilling to pay for it, so the State decided that although use of KI might be a good idea, it couldn't afford it.</P>
        <P>
          <E T="03">Response.</E>The Commission would expect that a State's “consideration” would involve at least an internal review of this notice and brief deliberation on the State's position on the use of KI by the general public. In NRC's experience, States periodically review their emergency plans and preparedness, typically on an exercise frequency basis, to ensure that plans are up to date and account for local changed circumstances. For those States that conduct such periodic reviews, the Commission would expect the States to undertake their “consideration” of the use of KI during the first periodic review conducted by the State of offsite emergency plans and preparedness following the effective date of this rule amendment and issuance of revised NUREG-1633 guidance. For those States that do not routinely conduct periodic reviews, the Commission would expect the States to undertake their “consideration” of the use of KI on the same frequency as periodic emergency preparedness exercises following the effective date of this rule amendment and issuance of guidance. The rule does not require States to provide written notice of their “consideration.” The Commission expects that States will inform FEMA and the NRC of the results of their consideration.</P>
        <P>Additionally, the Commission agrees that the “consideration” process is not subject to continuing oversight or recurring evaluation by the NRC or any other Federal agency.</P>
        <P>By issuing this rule, the Commission is stating its conclusion that consideration of the use of KI that might have been performed many years ago, needs to be reexamined in light of new information. Thus reliance upon such earlier evaluations would not be consistent with the rule requirement.</P>
        <HD SOURCE="HD2">Issue L: Federal Distribution of KI</HD>
        <P>One commenter noted that the Commission's proposed rule would seem to support the same techniques used for forced KI distribution that were dictated by governments in Eastern Europe during the Chernobyl accident. The commenter urged the Commission to consider whether this posture would be endorsed by any government, be it Federal, State, or local. This commenter believes the NRC staff ignores the testimony of those States where KI is stockpiled or pre-distributed for the public and where experience shows the system is ineffective. Additionally, a commenter thought that the proposed rule is predicated on the false assumption that even if States decide not to stockpile KI for the general public, they will have access to Federal reserves of the drug. By the Commission's own admission, such reserves have yet to be established nor has the funding mechanism to support such reserves been identified. The proposal suggests that states “consider” the availability of resources that do not exist.</P>
        <P>Likewise, a commenter stated that the proposed rule implies that even when a State decides as a matter of public policy against distribution of KI for the general population, the Federal government will develop plans to override that decision. The purpose of such plans is unclear in the context of the proposed rule. Once a State has given due consideration to the use of KI stockpiling as a supplemental protective action and determined it to be unwarranted, the commenter seeks the basis on which the Commission proposes to develop a contingency plan.</P>
        <P>
          <E T="03">Response.</E>The Commission has never endorsed “forced KI distribution.” Under this final rule the use of KI continues to be a State option. Moreover, revised NUREG-1633 will discuss the benefits and risks associated with using KI and the U.S. and foreign experience with public distribution. While the Commission has always<PRTPAGE P="5435"/>recognized that distribution at the time of an accident will present difficulties if there has been no advance planning, the Commission believes that the States will take the distribution matters into account when they consider the use of KI for the general public under this rule.</P>
        <P>The Commission has decided to withdraw its decision to provide funding for regional Federal KI stockpiles. However, it should be noted that Commission efforts in this regard were not intended to “override” a State decision not to use KI during an emergency; rather, they were intended to make KI available in the event that a particular State changed its views and decided to use KI in an actual emergency, and had nowhere else to go for KI. The Commission believes that in light of logistical difficulties, it is doubtful that regional stockpiles of KI could be effectively employed in the unlikely event of a radiological emergency at a commercial nuclear power plant.</P>
        <HD SOURCE="HD2">Issue M: Importance of Emergency Planning</HD>
        <P>A few commenters feel that safe siting and Design-Engineered features alone do not optimize protection of the public-health and safety and that the Commission should not rely upon probabilistic risk assessments to obviate the need for stockpiling and predistribution of KI. Another commenter is concerned that the premature aging of reactor components, the economics of utility restructuring, and the long-term storage of high-level waste at reactor sites all contribute to the need for KI stockpiling.</P>
        <P>
          <E T="03">Response:</E>The Commission agrees with the importance of emergency planning to complement site and design features and stated so in the August 19, 1980,<E T="04">Federal Register</E>Notice (45 FR 55402) which codified the NRC's emergency planning regulations following the Three Mile Island accident: “The Commission's final rules are based on the significance of adequate emergency planning and preparedness to ensure adequate protection of the public health and safety. It is clear * * * that onsite and offsite emergency preparedness as well as proper siting and engineered design features are needed to protect the health and safety of the public. As the Commission reacted to the accident at Three Mile Island, it became clear that the protection provided by siting and engineered design features must be bolstered by the ability to take protective measures during the course of an accident.”</P>
        <P>The Commission did not rely upon probabilistic risk assessments in developing this final regulation on consideration of the use of KI.</P>
        <P>The Commission interprets the third comment to relate to factors that the commenter believes could increase the likelihood of an accident and which, in the commenter's view, heighten the importance of emergency planning. The Commission's regulations recognize the importance of emergency planning by requiring development of a range of protective actions, which include sheltering and evacuation and, by this rulemaking, consideration of the use of KI for the general public.</P>
        <HD SOURCE="HD2">
          <E T="03">Issue N:</E>Cost of KI and Shelf-Life</HD>
        <P>One commenter feels that the NRC has exaggerated the estimated cost of KI, ignoring comments that point to the availability of inexpensive and long-lasting KI. This commenter thinks that market forces are likely to bring down the cost of KI and that savings in the NRC budget could be effected without diminishing the safety of America's children.</P>
        <P>The U.S. Pharmacopeia wrote in its comment letter that the long-term viability of the drug was tested and it was found that 11 years after manufacture and eight years after the expiration date, the tablets were assayed at 99.1% of the labeled content of KI. The petitioner expressed the view that since the U.S. is currently engaged in a $15 million study of radiation-caused thyroid disease in the Ukraine, it was hard to understand why the government was not willing to spend a fraction of that amount to prevent radiation caused thyroid disease at home.</P>
        <P>
          <E T="03">Response.</E>Cost estimates used in past documents were based upon information available at those times. NRC presently estimates the cost of KI to be about 18 to 20 cents per tablet if purchased in bulk, with a shelf life of 7 to 10 years. As a result, the Commission finds that KI is a reasonable, prudent and inexpensive supplement to evacuation and sheltering for the general public for specific local conditions.</P>
        <P>As noted earlier, the Commission has decided to offer to provide funding for a supply of KI for State or, in some cases, local governments that choose to incorporate KI prophylaxis in their emergency plans.</P>
        <HD SOURCE="HD2">Issue O: Safety of KI</HD>
        <P>Commenters believe that there is new information available from Poland and Belarus regarding use of KI following a radioactive release. They state that there were no reported serious adverse reactions. Specifically, 18 million individuals received prophylactic KI with overall toxicity of 2.5% (mostly nausea) but with only a fraction of 1% having serious side-effects.<SU>4</SU>
          <FTREF/>Commenters state that this experience has been recognized by other countries who are stockpiling KI for use by the general public. This data has led some commenters to say that just because there are other lethal radionuclides to which people may be exposed, why deny them the availability of KI, which can counteract the deadly effects of radioactive iodine. Every drug has contraindications and the potential for allergic reactions. In an emergency as dire as a reactor accident where people risk illness and death, a possible adverse reaction to KI seems relatively minimal, and people absolutely should have the choice of making an informed decision and assuming possible risk.</P>
        <FTNT>
          <P>
            <SU>4</SU>Comment letter from the Massachusetts Coalition To Stockpile KI dated September 10, 1999.</P>
        </FTNT>
        <P>
          <E T="03">Response.</E>The Commission did consider the experience with mass distribution of KI during the Chernobyl radiological emergency (although the record on that distribution is not complete). That experience is still being investigated and evaluated by public health authorities worldwide. When the appropriate health agencies have established the applicability of the Polish experience to the United States, the findings will be followed in NRC guidance. The NRC acknowledges that KI is a reasonable, prudent, and inexpensive supplement to evacuation and sheltering for specific local conditions. The Commission guidance on emergency planning has long taken KI into consideration (see NUREG-0654/FEMA-REP-1, “Criteria for Preparation and Evaluation of Radiological Emergency Response Plans and Preparedness in Support of Nuclear Power Plants,” Rev. 1, p. 63, items e and f). The FDA has approved KI as an over-the-counter medication and has found it effective and safe as discussed in the response to issue I.</P>
        <HD SOURCE="HD1">Commission Decision on the Petitions for Rulemaking</HD>

        <P>Based on the foregoing, and as noted herein, the action by the Commission to approve this final rule grants in part and denies in part the original petition (PRM 50-63) and grants in all respects the amended petition (PRM 50-63A). The rule change, which requires “consideration” of the use of KI, is responsive to the amended petition. Further, including in this<E T="04">Federal Register</E>notice for the final rule, a<PRTPAGE P="5436"/>statement that “KI is a reasonable, prudent, inexpensive supplement to evacuation and sheltering for specific local conditions,” is also responsive to both petitions. This statement does not use the petitioner's exact language but is responsive to the petitioner's request. The Commission's final position on funding of State stockpiles grants that part of the original and amended petition to include a statement of such support in the Statement of Considerations for the rule. However, the final rulemaking would deny that part of the original petition requesting that the Commission amend 10 CFR 50.47(b)(10) to<E T="03">require</E>that the range of protective actions developed for the plume exposure pathway EPZ include sheltering, evacuation, and the prophylactic use of iodine.</P>
        <P>The Commission has found that “[I]n developing the range of actions for severe accidents at nuclear power plants, evacuation and sheltering provide adequate protection for the general public.” (Proposed Rule, 64 FR at 31745). In addition, the Commission notes that issues surrounding the prophylactic use of KI following such accidents do not lend themselves to across-the-board solutions. Therefore, the Commission has chosen to leave such decisions to State and local emergency response planners to determine whether their emergency plans should include the use of KI as a supplementary protective measure for the general public. The Commission's decision is implemented through this final rule that changes 10 CFR 50.47(b)(10). This final rule completes NRC action on PRM 50-63 and PRM 50-63A.</P>
        <HD SOURCE="HD1">Rationale for the Commission Decision</HD>
        <P>The Commission has considered the KI policy question on numerous occasions since 1984. The history of the Commission deliberations shows that reaching consensus on this policy question has been an elusive goal. An important reason for this historical lack of consensus is that this policy question is not a clear-cut one. Individual Commissioners, past and present, have differed in their views with respect to the relative importance to be given to factors bearing on the KI issue. These honest differences have led to divided Commission views on how to resolve the policy question. The Commission agrees that its historical difficulty in reaching consensus on the KI policy question underscores the reality that this policy question is not a simple one, is not one that is easily resolved and, as a result, has been the subject of protracted deliberation.</P>
        <P>After considering all public comments received, the information available in the literature, 20 years of experience gained in evaluating licensee emergency preparedness plans, and the arguments presented by the petitioner, the Commission has decided to amend 10 CFR 50.47(b)(10), by adding a sentence similar to the one suggested in the revised petition. Specifically the following sentence is inserted in § 50.47(b)(10), after the first sentence: “In developing this range of actions, consideration has been given to evacuation, sheltering, and, as a supplement to these, the prophylactic use of potassium iodide (KI), as appropriate.”</P>
        <P>The Commission finds that KI is a reasonable, prudent and inexpensive supplement to evacuation and sheltering for specific local conditions. The Commission's guidance on emergency planning has long taken KI into consideration (NUREG-0654/FEMA-REP-1, Rev. 1, p. 63, items e and f). However, since the last revision of that guidance, there has been experience with the mass distribution of KI during an international radiological emergency, and though the record on that distribution is not complete, the indications thus far are that mass distribution is effective in preventing thyroid cancer and causes few threatening side effects. Moreover, many nations in Europe and elsewhere—nations as different in their circumstances, politics, and regulatory structures as France, Canada, and Japan—have stockpiled KI and planned for its use. So have some U.S. States. The World Health Organization and the International Atomic Energy Agency recommend its use. Therefore, in order to achieve greater assurance that KI will receive due attention by planners, it is reasonable to take a further small step and, continuing to recognize the important role of the States and local governments in matters of offsite emergency planning, explicitly require that planners consider the use of KI.</P>
        <P>The amendment should not be taken to imply that the NRC believes that the present generation of nuclear power plants is any less safe than previously thought. On the contrary, present indications are that nuclear power plant safety has significantly improved since the current emergency planning requirements were put in place after the Three Mile Island-2 accident in 1979.</P>
        <P>The use of KI is intended to supplement, not to replace, other protective measures. This amendment does not change the NRC's view that the primary and most desirable protective action in a radiological emergency is evacuation of the population before any exposure to radiation occurs. The Commission recognizes that there may be situations when evacuation is not feasible or is delayed. In-place sheltering is an effective protective action in such a situation. Depending on the circumstances, KI may offer additional protection to one radiation-sensitive organ, the thyroid, if used in conjunction with evacuation and sheltering. In developing the range of public protective actions for severe accidents at commercial nuclear power plants, evacuation and in-place sheltering provide adequate protection for the general public. In appropriate circumstances, KI can provide additional protection. In addition, the Commission notes that issues surrounding the prophylactic use of KI following such accidents do not lend themselves to across-the-board solutions. Therefore, the Commission has chosen to leave such decisions to State and local emergency response planners, who may find that KI should be a supplementary protective measure.</P>
        <P>The NRC recognizes that any decision to use KI as a supplemental protective measure for the general public presents issues of how best to position and distribute the medicine, to ensure: (1) That optimal distribution takes place in an emergency, with first priority given to protecting children; (2) that persons with known allergies to iodine not take it; and (3) that members of the public understand that KI is not a substitute for measures that protect the whole body. To date, these issues have been addressed in different ways in the numerous countries that currently use KI as a protective measure for their citizens. The NRC is working with States and other Federal agencies to develop guidance on these and other issues relating to the use of KI. The NRC believes that these implementation issues can be solved, given the level of expertise in the relevant Federal and State agencies, and the experience of numerous nations that have built KI into their emergency plans.</P>
        <HD SOURCE="HD1">Commission Decision on Funding of State Stockpiles or Supplies of KI</HD>
        <P>The<E T="04">Federal Register</E>notice for the proposed rule (64 FR 31737) stated the Commission's then-held position only to support funding of regional stockpiles or other supplies of KI as opposed to funding of State stockpiling of KI. As described above, in its deliberations on this final rule, the Commission has withdrawn its support for funding of regional KI stockpiles and has reinstated its offer to provide NRC funding of State or, in some cases, local stockpiles,<PRTPAGE P="5437"/>subject to various restrictions and limitations (see Staff Requirements Memorandum for the Affirmation Session on December 22, 2000).</P>
        <P>In doing this, the Commission has responded to comments from FEMA and other commenters. The Commission is supporting the 1996 FRPCC's Ad Hoc Subcommittee on Potassium Iodide recommendation that the Federal government (NRC through FEMA) should fund the purchase of State, or in some cases local, KI stockpiles. The Commission recognizes that this policy contradicts the Commission's historical policy that funding for State and local emergency planning is the responsibility of those governments often working with licensees. The Commission is making this exception to the long-standing policy on the basis of the FRPCC's recommendation and recent petitions received. The Commission has determined that for a State that has decided to stockpile KI, NRC funding for purchase of KI for use by that State during a radiological emergency would directly contribute to fulfilling NRC's regulatory mission. The Commission also recognizes that any State choosing to incorporate KI prophylaxis as a supplemental protective action in its emergency planning will face costs, other than the cost of the purchase of KI. Consistent with the long-standing policy, these ancillary costs will remain the responsibility of the State government. Depending on how the State incorporates KI prophylaxis in its emergency plans, the ancillary costs could significantly exceed the cost of the purchase of the KI supply.</P>
        <HD SOURCE="HD1">Metric Policy</HD>
        <P>On October 7, 1992, the Commission published its final Policy Statement on Metrication. According to that policy, after January 7, 1993, all new regulations and major amendments to existing regulations were to be presented in dual units. The amendment to the regulations contains no units.</P>
        <HD SOURCE="HD1">National Technology Transfer and Advancement Act</HD>
        <P>The National Technology Transfer and Advancement Act of 1995, Pub. L. 104-113, requires that Federal agencies use technical standards developed or adopted by voluntary consensus standards bodies unless the use of such a standard is inconsistent with applicable law or otherwise impractical. In this final rule, the NRC is amending its emergency planning regulations to require that consideration be given to including potassium iodide as a protective measure for the general public that would supplement sheltering and evacuation in the event of a severe reactor accident. This action does not constitute the establishment of a consensus standard that contains generally applicable requirements to which the provisions of the Act apply.</P>
        <HD SOURCE="HD1">Environmental Assessment and Finding of No Significant Impact for Completing Action on the Petitions for Rulemaking Relating to the Use of Potassium Iodide (KI) for the General Public</HD>
        <HD SOURCE="HD2">I. Introduction</HD>
        <P>On September 9, 1995, a petition for rulemaking (PRM 50-63) was filed with the NRC by Mr. Peter Crane. The petitioner requested that the NRC amend its emergency planning regulations to require that emergency plans specify a range of protective actions to include sheltering, evacuation, and the prophylactic use of KI.</P>
        <P>In SECY-97-245, dated October 23, 1997, the NRC staff provided three options for the Commission's consideration in order to resolve PRM 50-63.</P>
        <P>On November 5, 1997, the Commission was briefed by the NRC staff, the Federal Emergency Management Agency (FEMA), and the petitioner regarding the options available for resolving the petition for rulemaking. During the meeting, the Commission invited the petitioner to submit a modification to his petition in order to address views he discussed during the meeting.</P>
        <P>On November 11, 1997, the petitioner submitted a revision to his petition PRM 50-63A, that requested two things:</P>
        <P>1. A statement clearly recommending stockpiling of KI as a “reasonable and prudent” measure, and</P>
        <P>2. A proposed rule change to 10 CFR 50.47(b)(10) which would be accomplished by inserting the following sentence after the first sentence: “In developing this range of actions, consideration has been given to evacuation, sheltering, and the prophylactic use of potassium iodide (KI), as appropriate.”</P>
        <P>On June 26, 1998, the Commission disagreed with the NRC staff's recommendation in SECY-98-061 dated March 31, 1998, “Staff Options for Resolving a Petition for Rulemaking (PRM 50-63 and 50-63A) Relating to a Re-evaluation of the Policy Regarding the use of Potassium Iodide (KI) by the General Public after a Severe Accident at a Nuclear Power Plant,” to deny the revised petition for rulemaking (PRM 50-63A) and directed the NRC staff to grant the petition by revising 10 CFR 50.47 (b)(10). This final rule responds to this directive.</P>
        <P>Alternatives were essentially considered in previous documents. In SECY-97-124 (June 16, 1997), “Proposed Federal Policy Regarding Use of Potassium Iodide after a Severe Accident at a Nuclear Power Plant,” the NRC staff identified three options, one of which contained three sub-options, concerning a proposed change in the Federal policy regarding the use of potassium iodide (KI) as a protective measure for the general public during severe reactor accidents.</P>

        <P>On April 22, 1999, the Commission voted to approve publication in the<E T="04">Federal Register</E>of a proposed rule that would grant the revised petition for rulemaking (PRM 50-63A). The proposed rule was published on June 14, 1999 (64 FR 31737). In the petitioner's comment letter on the proposed rule, he stated that in light of the Commission decision not to fund State stockpiles of KI, the Commission should consider his original petition (PRM 50-63) to be incorporated by reference and resubmitted in his comment letter. He also requested the Commission to grant the petition as originally submitted. The Commission, by undertaking this final rulemaking, is denying in part the original petition for rulemaking (PRM 50-63), which would<E T="03">require</E>the use of KI for the general public. In so doing, the Commission has decided to continue to recognize the important role of the State by explicitly requiring that planners<E T="03">consider</E>(PRM 50-63A) the use of KI for the general public. The Commission is granting in all respects the amended petition, including reinstating its support for funding State stockpiles of KI.</P>
        <HD SOURCE="HD2">II. Need for Action</HD>

        <P>In SECY-97-245, the NRC staff proposed options for resolving the original petition for rulemaking. In an SRM on SECY-98-061, the Commission directed the NRC staff to proceed with the rulemaking. In so doing, the Commission found that KI is a reasonable, prudent, and inexpensive supplement to evacuation and sheltering for specific local conditions. The Commission's guidance on emergency planning has long taken KI into consideration (NUREG-0654/FEMA-REP-1, Rev. 1, p. 63 items e and f). However, since the last revision of that guidance, there has been experience with the mass distribution of KI during an international radiological emergency. Although the record on that distribution is not complete, the indications thus far are that mass distribution is effective in<PRTPAGE P="5438"/>preventing thyroid cancer and causes few threatening side effects. Therefore, in order to achieve greater assurance that KI will receive due attention by planners, it seems reasonable, while continuing to recognize the important role of the States in matters of offsite emergency planning, to explicitly require that planners consider the use of KI. The rule is needed to ensure that the States are aware of and take into consideration the costs, risks, and benefits of KI in their decision making process in order to optimize emergency planning for the public health and safety.</P>
        <HD SOURCE="HD2">III. Environmental Impact of the Final Action</HD>
        <P>The environmental impacts of the final action and its alternative (deny the petitions in their entirety and take no action) are considered negligible by the NRC staff, given that the final action would only add the sentence: “In developing this range of actions, consideration has been given to evacuation, sheltering, and the prophylactic use of potassium iodide (KI), as appropriate.” The NRC staff is not aware of any environmental impacts as a result of this final action.</P>
        <HD SOURCE="HD2">IV. Alternative to the Final Action</HD>
        <P>The alternative to the final action at this time is to deny the petitions and take no action with respect to the use of KI by the public. Should this no-action alternative be pursued, the NRC staff is not aware of any resulting environmental impact.</P>
        <HD SOURCE="HD2">V. Agencies and Persons Consulted</HD>
        <P>Cognizant personnel from the States, FEMA, and FDA were consulted, as was the petitioner, as part of this rulemaking activity.</P>
        <HD SOURCE="HD2">VI. Finding of No Significant Environmental Impact: Availability</HD>
        <P>The Commission has determined under the National Environmental Policy Act of 1969, as amended, and the Commission's regulations in Subpart A of 10 CFR Part 51, that the amendment is not a major Federal action significantly affecting the quality of human environment and; therefore, an environmental impact statement is not required. This amendment will require that consideration be given to evacuation, sheltering, and as a supplement to these, the prophylactic use of KI. This action will not have a significant impact upon the environment.</P>
        <HD SOURCE="HD1">Paperwork Reduction Act Statement</HD>

        <P>This final rule does not contain a new or amended information collection requirement subject to the Paperwork Reduction Act of 1995 (44 U.S.C 3501<E T="03">et seq.</E>). Existing requirements were approved by the Office of Management and Budget (OMB) approval numbers 3150-0009 and 3150-0011.</P>
        <HD SOURCE="HD1">Public Protection Notification</HD>
        <P>If a means used to impose an information collection does not display a currently valid OMB control number, the NRC may not conduct or sponsor, and a person is not required to respond to, the information collection.</P>
        <HD SOURCE="HD1">Regulatory Analysis of the Final Rulemaking Completing Action on Petitions for Rulemaking (PRM 50-63) and (PRM 50-63A) Relating to the Use of Potassium Iodide (KI)</HD>
        <P>On September 9, 1995, a petition for rulemaking (PRM 50-63) was filed with the NRC by Mr. Peter Crane. The petitioner requested that the NRC amend its emergency planning regulations to require that emergency plans specify a range of protective actions to include sheltering, evacuation, and the prophylactic use of KI.</P>
        <P>In SECY-97-245, dated October 23, 1997, the NRC staff provided three options for the Commission's consideration to resolve PRM 50-63.</P>
        <P>On November 5, 1997, the Commission was briefed by the NRC staff, the Federal Emergency Management Agency (FEMA), and the petitioner regarding the options available for resolving the petition for rulemaking. During the meeting, the Commission invited the petitioner to submit a modification to his petition in order to address views he discussed during the meeting.</P>
        <P>On November 11, 1997, the petitioner submitted a revision to his petition (PRM 50-63A), which requested two things:</P>
        
        <EXTRACT>
          <P>A statement clearly recommending stockpiling of KI as a “reasonable and prudent” measure; and</P>
          <P>A proposed rule change to 10 CFR 50.47(b)(10) which would be accomplished by inserting the following sentence after the first sentence: “In developing this range of actions, consideration has been given to evacuation, sheltering, and the prophylactic use of potassium iodide (KI), as appropriate.”</P>
        </EXTRACT>
        

        <P>In the petitioner's comment letter on the proposed rule, he stated that in light of the Commission decision not to fund State stockpiles of KI, the Commission should consider his original petition (PRM 50-63) to be incorporated by reference and resubmitted in his comment letter. He also requested the Commission to grant the petition as originally submitted. The Commission, by undertaking this rulemaking, is granting the amended petition and is granting in part and denying in part the original petition. The Commission is denying that portion of the original petition for rulemaking (PRM 50-63), which would<E T="03">require</E>the use of KI for the general public. In so doing, the Commission has decided to continue to recognize the important role of the State in matters of emergency planning by explicitly requiring that planners<E T="03">consider</E>(PRM 50-63A) the use of KI for the general public.</P>
        <P>In SECY-97-245, the NRC staff proposed options for resolving the original petition for rulemaking. By SRM dated June 26, 1998, on SECY-97-245, “Staff Options for Resolving a Petition for Rulemaking (PRM 50-63) Relating to a Re-evaluation of the Policy Regarding use of Potassium Iodide (KI) after a Severe Accident at a Nuclear Power Plant,” the Commission directed the NRC staff to revise 10 CFR 50.47(b)(10). This final rule responds to this directive.</P>
        <P>Alternatives were essentially considered in previous documents. In SECY-97-124 dated June 16, 1997, “Proposed Federal Policy Regarding Use of Potassium Iodide after a Severe Accident at a Nuclear Power Plant,” the NRC staff identified three options, one of which contained three sub-options, concerning a proposed change in the Federal policy regarding the use of potassium iodide (KI) as a protective measure for the general public during severe reactor accidents. Given that the Commission considered the options and directed the NRC staff to grant the amended petition, the only alternatives considered here are the Commission-approved option and the baseline, no-action alternative.</P>

        <P>The final rule does not “require” any action of licensees. States are to “consider” the use of KI along with evacuation and sheltering as protective actions. It is estimated that no more than 30 States will need to make this consideration. The rule does not impose any substantive requirements on States to actually stockpile or plan for the use of KI. Therefore, States would not accrue the costs associated with such actions. However, the Commission recognizes that consideration of using KI as a supplemental protective measure may result in some State expenditures. The NRC staff estimates that the labor needed by the States could range from a staff-week, to half of a staff-year. The latter would be the case if a State decided to hold hearings on the issue.<PRTPAGE P="5439"/>If one assumes an average hourly salary of $70 (this estimate includes benefits, prorated secretarial and managerial assistance, but not overhead), the range of estimates would be from $2800 to $63,000 per State. Using a base of 30 States, the range of impacts for the States to make the KI consideration is from $84,000 to $1.9 million.</P>
        <P>The Commission notes that when it amended its emergency planning regulations on November 3, 1980, the regulatory standards for emergency planning were a restatement of basic joint NRC-FEMA guidance to licensees and to State and local governments incorporated in NUREG-0654; FEMA-REP-1, “Criteria for Preparation and Evaluation of Radiological Emergency Response Plans and Preparedness in Support of Nuclear Power Plants for Interim Use and Comment.” This guidance was cited in the regulation and addresses the use of radioprotective drugs by the general public, including quantities, storage, and means of distribution and State and local plans for decision making with respect to their use. The Commission removed the citations of the guidance from the regulation in 1987, but the guidance has continued in use for planning purposes by States and licensees and by the Federal agencies for evaluating emergency plans. As a result, it is believed that all of the 30 affected States have at some point considered the use of KI. A few of the 30 affected States have made the decision to stockpile KI. Thus, in practical terms, the projected costs will occur only in those States that have not previously elected to stockpile KI and choose stockpiling in light of the Chernobyl accident, recent international practice, and the NRC requirement to consider the use of KI.</P>
        <P>It is difficult to estimate the benefit of a State's consideration to use KI for the general public. However, we believe the benefit of such an action by the States is summed up by the petitioner who stated that the decision to use KI for the general public should turn on whether, given the consequences of being without KI in a major accident, the drug is a prudent measure; not on whether it will necessarily pay for itself over time. As the petitioner further noted, “KI represents a kind of catastrophic-coverage insurance policy offering protection for events which, while they occur only rarely, can have such enormous consequences that it is sensible to take special precautions, especially where, as here, the cost of such additional precautions is relatively low.”</P>
        <P>Nonetheless, the Commission notes that this rule will introduce another element in the context of emergency planning requirements for which licensees are ultimately responsible. Licensees have the obligation to confirm that offsite authorities have considered the use of KI as a supplemental protective action for the general public. While this ultimate responsibility could have practical implications, with some associated burdens, the extent is considered minimal when viewed in the overall licensee burden of complying with all of the existing emergency planning requirements.</P>
        <P>Additionally, the rule does not articulate any implementation date or inspection criteria.</P>
        <P>As stated above, this analysis focuses on the rule being codified as the result of petitions for rulemaking and on the Commission direction to grant the amended petition in all respects and to grant in part the original petition.</P>
        <P>This constitutes the regulatory analysis for this action.</P>
        <HD SOURCE="HD1">Regulatory Flexibility Certification</HD>
        <P>In accordance with the Regulatory Flexibility Act of 1980, 5 U.S.C. 605(b), the Commission hereby certifies that this rule will not have a significant economic impact on a substantial number of small entities. This final rule would affect only States and indirectly licensees of nuclear power plants. These States and licensees do not fall within the scope of the definition of “small entities” set forth in the Regulatory Flexibility Act, 5 U.S.C. 601, or the size standards adopted by the NRC (10 CFR 2.810).</P>
        <HD SOURCE="HD1">Compatibility of Agreement State Regulations</HD>

        <P>Under the “Policy Statement on Adequacy and Compatibility of Agreement State Programs” that was approved by the Commission on June 30, 1997, and published in the<E T="04">Federal Register</E>on September 3, 1997 (62 FR 46517), Part 50 is classified as compatibility Category “NRC.” The NRC program elements in this category are those that relate directly to areas of regulation reserved to the NRC by the Atomic Energy Act or provisions of Title 10 of the Code of Federal Regulations.</P>
        <HD SOURCE="HD1">Plain Language</HD>
        <P>The President's Memorandum dated June 1, 1998, entitled “Plain Language in Government Writing,” directed that the government's writing be in plain language. This memorandum was published June 10, 1998 (63 FR 31883). In complying with this directive, editorial changes have been made in the final revisions to improve the organization and readability of the existing language of the paragraphs being revised. These types of changes are not discussed further in this notice.</P>
        <HD SOURCE="HD1">Backfit Analysis</HD>
        <P>The definition of backfit, as set forth in 10 CFR 50.109(a)(1), is clearly directed at obligations imposed upon licensees (and applicants) and their facilities and procedures. Section 50.109(a)(1) defines a backfit as:</P>
        
        <EXTRACT>
          <P>* * * the modification of or addition to systems, structures, components, or design of a facility; or the design approval or manufacturing license for a facility; or the procedures or organization required to design, construct or operate a facility, any of which may result from a new or amended provision in the Commission rules or the imposition of a regulatory staff position interpreting the Commission rules that is either new or different from a previously applicable staff position * * *</P>
        </EXTRACT>
        

        <P>Section 50.109 is replete with references to “facilities” and “licensees,” which in their totality make clear that the rule is intended to apply to actions taken with respect to nuclear power plant licensees and the facilities they operate.<E T="03">See</E>§ 50.109(a)(7), “If there are two or more ways to achieve compliance with a license or the rules or orders of the Commission, or with written<E T="03">licensee</E>commitments * * * then ordinarily the applicant or<E T="03">licensee</E>is free to choose the way that best suits its purposes [emphasis added].” This focus on licensees and their facilities is further confirmed by the Statement of Considerations accompanying the backfit rule (53 FR 20603; June 6, 1988), where the Commission stated that backfitting “means measures which are intended to improve the safety of nuclear power reactors * * *.” (53 FR at 20604). The nine factors to be considered under 10 CFR 50.109(c) further make clear that the rule is aimed at requirements applicable to licensees and facilities. These include: “(2) General description of the activity that would be required by the<E T="03">licensee</E>or<E T="03">applicant</E>in order to complete the backfit; * * * (5) Installation and continuing costs associated with the backfit, including the cost of<E T="03">facility</E>downtime or the cost of construction delay; [and] (6) The potential safety impact of changes in plant or operational complexity. * * * [emphasis added].”</P>

        <P>The final rule imposes no new requirements on licensees, nor does it alter procedures at nuclear facilities. Rather, it is directed to State or local governments, the entities with the important role to determine the appropriateness of the use of KI for their citizens, calling on these governments to<PRTPAGE P="5440"/>“consider” KI as one of the elements of their offsite emergency planning. However, the rule imposes no binding requirement to alter plans and procedures on State or local governments. Furthermore, the basic standard that emergency planning must include consideration of a range of protective actions is already set forth in the existing wording of § 50.47(b)(10). On this basis, the final rule does not impose new substantive requirements on<E T="03">anyone</E>. After consideration of these factors, no backfit is involved and no backfit analysis as defined in § 50.109 is required.</P>
        <P>Commission precedent also makes clear that the amendment does not constitute a backfit. The Commission's position was stated explicitly in 1987, when the last major change took place in emergency planning regulations (52 FR 42078; November 3, 1987). The Commission's final rule involving the “Evaluation of the Adequacy of Off-Site Emergency Planning for Nuclear Power Plants at the Operating License Review Stage Where State and Local Governments Decline to Participate in Off-Site Emergency Planning” stated that the emergency planning rule change in question “does not impose any new requirements on production or utilization facilities; it only provides an alternative method to meet the Commission's emergency planning regulations. The amendment therefore is not a backfit under 10 CFR 50.109 and a backfit analysis is not required” (52 FR 42084). Likewise, when the Commission altered its emergency planning requirements in 1987 to change the timing for full participation emergency exercises (a change that, as a practical matter, could be expected to result in licensees' modifying emergency preparedness-related procedures to accommodate exercise frequency changes), it stated: “The final rule does not modify or add to systems, structures, components or design of a facility; the design approval or manufacturing license for a facility; or the procedures or organization required to design, construct, or operate a facility. Accordingly, no backfit analysis pursuant to 10 CFR 50.109 is required for this final rule” (52 FR 16828; May 6, 1987). The final emergency planning rule change is of a similar nature and similarly does not involve a backfit.</P>

        <P>It has been argued by at least one commenter on the petition for rulemaking that, although licensees are not directly burdened by the final rule, they would be indirectly burdened because they would feel called upon to explain the new policy to their customers. By this logic, almost any Commission action that led an NRC licensee to issue a press release could be considered a backfit. Such a position is unsound law and policy. Here, the burden of public information on licensees or applicants, if any, appears<E T="03">de minimis</E>. It plainly does not rise to the level of the type of concrete burden contemplated by the Commission when it enacted the backfit rule. It might also be argued that, if a State or local government were to decide to stockpile and use KI for the general public, it would undertake interactions with the affected licensee to coordinate offsite emergency planning. Although this could result in some voluntary action by the licensee to coordinate its planning, the final rule itself does not impose any requirement or burden on the licensee. Accordingly, the Commission concludes that the final rule would not impose any backfits as defined in 10 CFR 50.109.</P>
        <P>Nonetheless, the Commission notes that this rule will introduce another element in the context of the emergency planning requirements that licensees are ultimately responsible for, whereby licensees have the obligation to confirm that offsite authorities have considered the use of KI as a supplemental protective action for the general public. That ultimate responsibility could have practical implications, with some associated burdens, the extent of which is considered minimal when viewed in the overall licensee burden of complying with all of the existing emergency planning requirements.</P>
        <HD SOURCE="HD1">Small Business Regulatory Enforcement Fairness Act</HD>
        <P>In accordance with the Small Business Regulatory Enforcement Fairness Act of 1996, the NRC has determined that this action is not a major rule and has verified this determination with the Office of Information and Regulatory Affairs of OMB.</P>
        <LSTSUB>
          <HD SOURCE="HED">List of Subjects in 10 CFR Part 50</HD>
          <P>Antitrust, Classified information, Criminal penalties, Fire protection, Intergovernmental relations, Nuclear power plants and reactors, Radiation protection, Reporting and recordkeeping requirements.</P>
        </LSTSUB>
        <REGTEXT PART="50" TITLE="10">
          <AMDPAR>For the reasons set out in the preamble and under the authority of the Atomic Energy Act for 1954, as amended, the Energy Reorganization Act of 1974, as amended, and 5 U.S.C. 552 and 553, the NRC is adopting the following amendment to 10 CFR part 50.</AMDPAR>
          <PART>
            <HD SOURCE="HED">PART 50—DOMESTIC LICENSING OF PRODUCTION AND UTILIZATION FACILITIES</HD>
          </PART>
          <AMDPAR>1. The authority citation for 10 CFR part 50 continues to read as follows:</AMDPAR>
          <AUTH>
            <HD SOURCE="HED">Authority:</HD>
            <P>Secs. 102, 103, 104, 105, 161, 182, 183, 186, 189, 68 Stat. 936, 938, 948, 953, 954, 955, 956, as amended, sec. 234, 83 Stat. 444, as amended (42 U.S.C. 2132, 2133, 2134, 2135, 2201, 2232, 2233, 2239, 2282); secs. 201, as amended, 202, 206, 88 Stat. 1242, as amended 1244, 1246, (42 U.S.C. 5841, 5842, 5846).</P>
          </AUTH>
          <EXTRACT>
            <P>Section 50.7 also issued under Pub. Law 95-601, sec. 10, 92 Stat. 2951, as amended by Pub. Law 102-486, sec. 2902, 106 Stat. 3123, (42 U.S.C. 5851). Sections 50.10 also issued under secs. 101, 185, 68 Stat. 936, 955, as amended (42 U.S.C. 2131, 2235); sec. 102, Pub. Law 91-190, 83 Stat. 853 (42 U.S.C. 4332). Section 50.13, 50.54(dd), and 50.103 also issued under sec. 108, 68 Stat. 939, as amended (42 U.S.C. 2138). Sections 50.23, 50.35, 50.55, and 50.56 also issued under sec. 185, 68 Stat. 955 (42 U.S.C. 2235). Sections 50.33a, 50.55a and Appendix Q also issued under sec. 102, Pub. Law 91-190, 83 Stat. 853 (42 U.S.C. 4332). Sections 50.34 and 50.54 also issued under Pub. Law 97-415, 96 Stat. 2073 (42 U.S.C. 2239). Section 50.78 also issued under sec. 122, 68 Stat. 939 (42 U.S.C. 2152). Sections 50.80, 50.81 also issued under sec. 184, 68 Stat. 954, as amended (42 U.S.C. 2234). Appendix F also issued under sec. 187, 68 Stat. 955 (42 U.S.C. 2237).</P>
          </EXTRACT>
        </REGTEXT>
        
        <REGTEXT PART="50" TITLE="10">
          <AMDPAR>2. In § 50.47, paragraph (b)(10) is revised to read as follows:</AMDPAR>
          <SECTION>
            <SECTNO>§ 50.47</SECTNO>
            <SUBJECT>Emergency plans.</SUBJECT>
            <STARS/>
            <P>(b) * * *</P>
            <P>(10) A range of protective actions has been developed for the plume exposure pathway EPZ for emergency workers and the public. In developing this range of actions, consideration has been given to evacuation, sheltering, and, as a supplement to these, the prophylactic use of potassium iodide (KI), as appropriate. Guidelines for the choice of protective actions during an emergency, consistent with Federal guidance, are developed and in place, and protective actions for the ingestion exposure pathway EPZ appropriate to the locale have been developed.</P>
            <STARS/>
          </SECTION>
        </REGTEXT>
        <SIG>
          <DATED>Dated at Rockville, Maryland, this 9th day of January, 2001.</DATED>
          
          <P>For the Nuclear Regulatory Commission.</P>
          <NAME>Annette Vietti-Cook,</NAME>
          <TITLE>Secretary of the Commission.</TITLE>
        </SIG>
      </SUPLINF>
      <FRDOC>[FR Doc. 01-1156 Filed 1-18-01; 8:45 am]</FRDOC>
      <BILCOD>BILLING CODE 7590-01-P</BILCOD>
    </RULE>
    <RULE>
      <PREAMB>
        <PRTPAGE P="5441"/>
        <AGENCY TYPE="S">NUCLEAR REGULATORY COMMISSION</AGENCY>
        <CFR>10 CFR Part 150</CFR>
        <RIN>RIN 3150-AG60</RIN>
        <SUBJECT>Termination of Section 274i Agreement Between the State of Louisiana and the Nuclear Regulatory Commission</SUBJECT>
        <AGY>
          <HD SOURCE="HED">AGENCY:</HD>
          <P>Nuclear Regulatory Commission.</P>
        </AGY>
        <ACT>
          <HD SOURCE="HED">ACTION:</HD>
          <P>Final rule.</P>
        </ACT>
        <SUM>
          <HD SOURCE="HED">SUMMARY:</HD>
          <P>The Nuclear Regulatory Commission (NRC) is revising its regulations to remove the reference to an inspection agreement, referred to as the 274i Agreement, with the State of Louisiana. The inspection agreement entered into pursuant to section 274i of the Atomic Energy Act allowed the State of Louisiana to perform inspections or other functions in offshore waters adjacent to Louisiana on behalf of the NRC. This reference is located in the reciprocity regulations in 10 CFR 150.20. Under section 150.20(c), certain general licensees are not required to file with the NRC if the licensee provides timely notification of its offshore activities to the Agreement State that issued the specific license, and that State is listed in 150.20(d) as agreeing to perform inspections for NRC under a 274i agreement. Louisiana is the only Agreement State listed in the regulation. This action responds to a request from the Governor of Louisiana to terminate the agreement. The NRC agreed that the 274i inspection agreement is no longer needed and should be terminated. Therefore, the NRC is revising the regulations by deleting 150.20 (c) and (d) in their entirety. In the event NRC enters into a 274i inspection agreement with an Agreement State in the future, the provisions of 150.20(c) and (d), which were promulgated following notice and comment rulemaking, will be reinstated via direct final rulemaking.</P>
        </SUM>
        <EFFDATE>
          <HD SOURCE="HED">DATES:</HD>
          <P>The final rule is effective January 19, 2001.</P>
        </EFFDATE>
        <FURINF>
          <HD SOURCE="HED">FOR FURTHER INFORMATION CONTACT:</HD>
          <P>Stephanie P. Bush-Goddard, Ph.D., Office of Nuclear Material Safety and Safeguards, telephone (301) 415-6257, e-mail, SPB@nrc.gov, U.S. Nuclear Regulatory Commission, Washington, DC 20555-0001.</P>
        </FURINF>
      </PREAMB>
      <SUPLINF>
        <HD SOURCE="HED">SUPPLEMENTARY INFORMATION:</HD>
        <HD SOURCE="HD1">Background</HD>

        <P>In 1967, the State of Louisiana and the United States Atomic Energy Commission (now the U.S. Nuclear Regulatory Commission) entered into an agreement pursuant to section 274b of the Atomic Energy Act of 1954, as amended, to discontinue the Commission's regulatory responsibilities over the use and possession of certain types of radioactive material in Louisiana. The State of Louisiana, in turn, assumed authority (formerly exercised by the NRC) over these regulatory activities. This agreement was noticed in the<E T="04">Federal Register</E>on May 3, 1967 (32 FR 6806). The discontinuance of the Commission's authority became effective May 1, 1967 and, at the same time, established Louisiana as an Agreement State. Additionally, on May 3, 1967 (32 FR 6807), the Commission published in the<E T="04">Federal Register</E>a notice of an agreement between the State of Louisiana and the Commission that permitted the State to perform inspections or other functions in offshore waters adjacent to Louisiana on behalf of the Commission. This inspection agreement, entered into pursuant to section 274i of the Act, did not expand the State's regulatory authority but rather specifically authorized the State to conduct inspection activities and other functions on the Commission's behalf.</P>
        <P>The NRC received a letter from Louisiana Governor M. J. “Mike” Foster, Jr., dated March 22, 2000, which requested termination of the section 274i agreement. The Governor stated that the termination would become effective 30 days from receipt of the letter. The request was filed in accordance with section 6 of the inspection agreement, which states:“* * * This Agreement shall become effective on May 1, 1967, and shall remain in effect so long as the 274b Agreement remains in effect unless sooner terminated by either party on 30 days' prior written notice.”</P>
        <P>Governor Foster noted that difficulties arranging transportation and a lack of financial and personnel resources made it burdensome to conduct field activities for the NRC. The State concluded that the section 274i inspection agreement was no longer needed and should be terminated.</P>
        <P>Effective April 26, 2000, the inspection agreement with the State of Louisiana and the NRC was terminated. Beginning April 26, 2000, the NRC, not the State, began conducting inspections of NRC-licensed activities in offshore waters adjacent to Louisiana. In this final rule, the NRC is issuing a conforming amendment to its reciprocity regulations in 10 CFR 150.20 (c) and (d). These sections provide that a licensee is not required to fulfill certain NRC reporting requirements for licensed activities performed in certain offshore waters. Under section 150.20 (c), certain general licensees are not required to file with the NRC if the licensee provides timely notification of its offshore activities to the Agreement State that issued the specific license, and that State is listed in 150.20(d) as agreeing to perform inspections for NRC under a 274i agreement. Louisiana was the only Agreement State listed in the regulation because it was the only State which had entered into such an agreement with the NRC.</P>
        <P>In a letter to Governor Foster acknowledging termination of the 274i Agreement, the NRC indicated it would remove from the regulation only the specific reference to the NRC's inspection agreement with Louisiana in section 150.20(d). However, to promote clarity in the regulations, these sections will be removed in their entirety. In the event NRC enters into a 274i inspection agreement with an Agreement State in the future, the provisions of 150.20(c) and (d), which were promulgated following notice and comment rulemaking, will be reinstated via direct final rulemaking. In a separate communication, the NRC will provide guidance to Louisiana licensees on the impacts that the termination of this agreement will have on the notification and fee requirements for activities conducted in offshore waters.</P>
        <P>However, termination of the section 274i inspection agreement does not in any way affect the existing agreement between the Commission and the State of Louisiana entered into pursuant to section 274b of the Act. Accordingly, termination of the inspection agreement does not affect Louisiana's status as an Agreement State.</P>
        <HD SOURCE="HD1">Procedural Background</HD>

        <P>This amendment involves a conforming change to NRC's regulations to reflect the fact that the State of Louisiana has terminated the section 274i inspection agreement. Accordingly, the NRC finds that, pursuant to 5 U.S.C. 553(b)(B), notice and comment is unnecessary. These amendments are effective upon publication in the<E T="04">Federal Register</E>. Good cause exists to dispense with the usual 30-day delay in the effective date, because these amendments are of a minor and administrative nature, conforming the NRC's regulations as a result of the April 26, 2000 termination of the 274i agreement with the State of Louisiana.</P>
        <HD SOURCE="HD1">Agreement State Compatibility</HD>

        <P>Under the “Policy Statement on Adequacy and Compatibility of Agreement State Programs” approved by the Commission on June 30, 1997, and<PRTPAGE P="5442"/>published in the<E T="04">Federal Register</E>on September 3, 1997 (62 FR 46517), this rule is classified as compatibility Category “NRC.” Compatibility is not required for Category “NRC” regulations. The NRC program elements in this category are those that relate directly to areas of regulation reserved to the NRC by the Atomic Energy Act of 1954, as amended (AEA), or the provisions of Title 10 of the Code of Federal Regulations. Although an Agreement State may not adopt program elements reserved to NRC, it may wish to inform its licensees of certain requirements via a mechanism that is consistent with the particular State's administrative procedure laws, but does not confer regulatory authority on the State.</P>
        <HD SOURCE="HD1">Voluntary Consensus Standards</HD>
        <P>The National Technology Transfer Act of 1995 (Public Law 104-113) requires that Federal agencies use technical standards that are developed or adopted by voluntary consensus standards bodies unless the use of such a standard is inconsistent with applicable law or otherwise impractical. In this final rule, the NRC is revising its regulations to remove the reference to an inspection agreement, referred to as the 274i Agreement, with the State of Louisiana. The inspection agreement entered into pursuant to section 274i of the Atomic Energy Act allowed the State of Louisiana to perform inspections or other functions in offshore waters adjacent to Louisiana on behalf of the NRC. This reference is located in the reciprocity regulations in 10 CFR 150.20. Under section 150.20(c), certain general licensees are not required to file with the NRC if the licensee provides timely notification of its offshore activities to the Agreement State that issued the specific license, and that State is listed in 150.20(d) as agreeing to perform inspections for NRC under a 274i agreement. Louisiana is the only Agreement State listed in the regulation. This action responds to a request from the Governor of Louisiana to terminate the agreement. The NRC agreed that the 274i inspection agreement is no longer needed and should be terminated. Therefore, the NRC is revising the regulations by deleting 150.20 (c) and (d) in their entirety. In the event NRC enters into a 274i inspection agreement with an Agreement State in the future, the provisions of 150.20 (c) and (d), which were promulgated following notice and comment rulemaking, will be reinstated via direct final rulemaking. This action does not constitute the establishment of a standard that establishes generally-applicable requirements.</P>
        <HD SOURCE="HD1">Environmental Impact: Categorical Exclusion</HD>
        <P>The NRC has determined that this final rule is the type of action described in categorical exclusion 10 CFR 51.22(c)(2). Therefore, neither an environmental impact statement nor an environmental assessment has been prepared for this final rule.</P>
        <HD SOURCE="HD1">Paperwork Reduction Act Statement</HD>

        <P>This final rule does not contain a new or amended information collection requirement subject to the Paperwork Reduction Act of 1995 (44 U.S.C. 3501<E T="03">et seq.</E>). Existing requirements were approved by the Office of Management and Budget, Approval Number 3150-0032.</P>
        <HD SOURCE="HD1">Public Protection Notification</HD>
        <P>The NRC may not conduct or sponsor, and a person is not required to respond to, collection of information unless it displays a currently valid OMB control number.</P>
        <HD SOURCE="HD1">Regulatory Analysis</HD>
        <P>These minor amendments impose no new restrictions or requirements, and therefore, have no significant impact. Accordingly, a regulatory analysis is considered not necessary and has not been prepared.</P>
        <HD SOURCE="HD1">Regulatory Flexibility Certification</HD>
        <P>As required by the Regulatory Flexibility Act (5 U.S.C. 605(b)), the Commission certifies that this rule will not have a significant economic impact on a substantial number of small entities. This administrative rule is being revised to remove the reference to an inspection agreement, referred to as the 274i Agreement, with the State of Louisiana. The inspection agreement entered into pursuant to section 274i of the Atomic Energy Act allowed the State of Louisiana to perform inspections or other functions in offshore waters adjacent to Louisiana on behalf of the NRC. This reference is located in the reciprocity regulations in 10 CFR 150.20. Under section 150.20(c), certain general licensees are not required to file with the NRC if the licensee provides timely notification of its offshore activities to the Agreement State that issued the specific license, and that State is listed in 150.20(d) as agreeing to perform inspections for NRC under a 274i agreement. Louisiana is the only Agreement State listed in the regulation. This action responds to a request from the Governor of Louisiana to terminate the agreement. The NRC agreed that the 274i inspection agreement is no longer needed and should be terminated. Therefore, the NRC is revising the regulations by deleting 150.20(c) and (d) in their entirety. In the event NRC enters into a 274i inspection agreement with an Agreement State in the future, the provisions of 150.20(c) and (d), which were promulgated following notice and comment rulemaking, will be reinstated via direct final rulemaking.</P>
        <HD SOURCE="HD1">Backfit Analysis</HD>
        <P>The NRC has determined that the backfit rule does not apply to this final rule because this amendment does not involve any provisions that would impose backfits as defined in 10 CFR Chapter 1. Therefore, a backfit analysis is not required for this final rule.</P>
        <HD SOURCE="HD1">Small Business Regulatory Enforcement Fairness Act</HD>
        <P>In accordance with the Small Business Regulatory Enforcement Fairness Act of 1996, the NRC has determined that this action is not a major rule and has verified this determination with the Office of Information and Regulatory Affairs, Office of Management and Budget.</P>
        <LSTSUB>
          <HD SOURCE="HED">List of Subjects in 10 CFR Part 150</HD>
          <P>Criminal penalties, Hazardous materials transportation, Intergovernmental relations, Nuclear materials, Reporting and recordkeeping requirements, Security measures.</P>
        </LSTSUB>
        <REGTEXT PART="150" TITLE="10">
          <AMDPAR>For the reasons set out in the preamble and under the authority of the Atomic Energy Act of 1954, as amended; the Energy Reorganization Act of 1974, as amended; and 5 U.S.C. 552 and 553, the NRC is adopting the following amendments to 10 CFR part 150.</AMDPAR>
          <PART>
            <HD SOURCE="HED">PART 150—EXEMPTIONS AND CONTINUED REGULATORY AUTHORITY IN AGREEMENT STATES AND IN OFFSHORE WATERS UNDER SECTION 274</HD>
          </PART>
          <AMDPAR>1. The authority citation for part 150 continues to read as follows:</AMDPAR>
          <AUTH>
            <HD SOURCE="HED">Authority:</HD>
            <P>Sec. 161, 68 Stat. 948, as amended, sec. 274, 73 Stat. 688 (42 U.S.C. 2201, 2021); sec. 201, 88 Stat. 1242, as amended (42 U.S.C. 5841). Sections 150.3, 150.15, 150.15a, 150.31, 150.32 also issued under secs. 11e(2), 81, 68 Stat. 923, 935, as amended, secs. 83, 84, 92 Stat. 3033, 3039 (42 U.S.C. 2014e(2), 2111, 2113, 2114). Section 150.14 also issued under sec. 53, 68 Stat. 930, as amended (42 U.S.C. 2073). Section 150.15 also issued under secs. 135, 141, Pub. Law 97-425, 96 Stat. 2232, 2241 (42 U.S.C. 10155, 10161). Section 150.17a also issued under sec. 122, 68 Stat. 939 (42 U.S.C. 2152). Section 150.30 also issued under sec 234, 83 Stat. 444 (42 U.S.C. 2282).</P>
          </AUTH>
        </REGTEXT>
        <REGTEXT PART="150" TITLE="10">
          <SECTION>
            <PRTPAGE P="5443"/>
            <SECTNO>§ 150.20</SECTNO>
            <SUBJECT>[Amended]</SUBJECT>
          </SECTION>
          <AMDPAR>2. In § 150.20, paragraph (b)(1), first sentence, remove the words “Except as specified in paragraph  (c) of this section, shall”, add in their place “shall” and remove paragraphs (c) and (d).</AMDPAR>
        </REGTEXT>
        <SIG>
          <DATED>Dated at Rockville, Maryland, this 28th day of December, 2000.</DATED>
          
          <P>For the Nuclear Regulatory Commission.</P>
          <NAME>Patricia G. Norry,</NAME>
          <TITLE>Acting Executive Director for Operations.</TITLE>
        </SIG>
      </SUPLINF>
      <FRDOC>[FR Doc. 01-1079 Filed 1-18-01; 8:45 am]</FRDOC>
      <BILCOD>BILLING CODE 7590-01-P</BILCOD>
    </RULE>
    <RULE>
      <PREAMB>
        <AGENCY TYPE="N">DEPARTMENT OF COMMERCE</AGENCY>
        <SUBAGY>Bureau of Export Administration</SUBAGY>
        <CFR>15 CFR Parts 740, 742, and 748</CFR>
        <DEPDOC>[Docket No. 010112014-1014-01]</DEPDOC>
        <RIN>RIN 0694-AC41</RIN>
        <SUBJECT>Implementation of Presidential Announcement of January 10, 2001: Revisions to License Exception CTP</SUBJECT>
        <AGY>
          <HD SOURCE="HED">AGENCY:</HD>
          <P>Bureau of Export Administration, Commerce.</P>
        </AGY>
        <ACT>
          <HD SOURCE="HED">ACTION:</HD>
          <P>Final rule.</P>
        </ACT>
        <SUM>
          <HD SOURCE="HED">SUMMARY:</HD>
          <P>The Bureau of Export Administration (BXA) is amending the Export Administration Regulations (EAR) by revising License Exception CTP to reflect rapid technological advances in computing capability. This rule implements the President's sixth revision to U.S. export controls on high performance computers (HPCs), announced January 10, 2001. License Exception CTP is revised by removing Computer Tier 2 and merging its countries into Computer Tier 1. All HPCs continue to be eligible for export to a Computer Tier 1 country under License Exception CTP. Additionally, HPCs with CTP up to 85,000 MTOPS can be exported to Computer Tier 3 countries under License Exception CTP, and beginning March 20, 2001, exporters will no longer be required to submit National Defense Authorization Act (NDAA) advance notifications for HPCs with CTP exceeding 85,000 MTOPS. The NDAA advance notification will not be required for these computers, because exporters will be submitting a license for exports to Computer Tier 3 countries of HPCs with CTP exceeding 85,000 MTOPS. This rule also moves Lithuania from Computer Tier 3 to Computer Tier 1, effective May 19, 2001. The President's action will promote our national security, enhance the effectiveness of our export control system and ease unnecessary regulatory burdens on both government and industry.</P>
        </SUM>
        <EFFDATE>
          <HD SOURCE="HED">DATES:</HD>
          <P>This rule is effective January 19, 2001.</P>
        </EFFDATE>
        <FURINF>
          <HD SOURCE="HED">FOR FURTHER INFORMATION CONTACT:</HD>
          <P>Tanya Hodge Mottley in the Office of Strategic Trade and Foreign Policy Controls, Bureau of Export Administration, at (202) 482-1837.</P>
        </FURINF>
      </PREAMB>
      <SUPLINF>
        <HD SOURCE="HED">SUPPLEMENTARY INFORMATION:</HD>
        <HD SOURCE="HD1">Background</HD>
        <P>On January 10, 2001, the President announced significant changes to U.S. export control policy for HPCs. The new policy continues the Administration's commitment, as announced on July 1, 1999, to review and update its HPC policy every six months in order to reflect rapid advancements in computer hardware, as well as identify any risk posed by HPC exports to certain end-users and countries. This policy strengthens America's high tech competitiveness, while maintaining export controls to protect U.S. national security.</P>
        <P>The Administration, in consultation with the national security community and industry, has determined that additional adjustments are warranted. Effective immediately, all countries in Computer Tier 2 have been moved to Computer Tier 1. Computer Tier 2 has been deleted. Those countries formerly in Computer Tier 2 do not pose proliferation or security threats to the United States.</P>
        <P>This rule implements the Administration's decision to increase License Exception CTP eligibility for HPC exports to countries in Computer Tier 3 by raising the CTP level to 85,000 MTOPS, to reflect the widespread availability of computers, including high performance computing capability attained by clustering numerous lower level personal computers together.</P>
        <P>Effective March 20, 2001, this rule raises the advance notification requirement level for HPC exports to Computer Tier 3 countries from 28,000 to 85,000 MTOPS. As required by the NDAA, changes in the advance notification level for HPC exports to Tier 3 destinations are only effective 60 days following the President's submission of a report to Congress. In addition, this rule revises the support documentation requirements for computers exported to the People's Republic of China.</P>
        <P>This rule removes Lithuania from Computer Tier 3 and places it in Computer Tier 1. However, due to the requirements in the 1998 National Defense Authorization Act (NDAA), removing Lithuania from Computer Tier 3 is not effective until 120 days after the Congress receives a report justifying such a removal.</P>
        <P>This rule revises the Export Administration Regulations by modifying computer exports under License Exception CTP, as follows:</P>
        <P>1. Moving all Computer Tier 2 countries to Computer Tier 1;</P>
        <P>2. Raising the CTP limit for computers eligible for License Exception CTP for exports and reexports to Computer Tier 3 destinations from “28,000 MTOPS” to “85,000 MTOPS”;</P>
        <P>3. Moving Lithuania to Tier 1 as of May 19, 2001;</P>
        <P>4. Revising the CTP range for which NDAA notification is required for computers exported or reexported to Computer Tier 3 countries;</P>
        <P>5. Revising the CTP level of computers for which PRC End-User Certificates are required as support documentation for export under License Exception CTP; and</P>
        <P>6. Revising the CTP level of the computers that require post shipment verification reports for exports to Computer Tier 3 countries.</P>
        <HD SOURCE="HD1">Rulemaking Requirements</HD>
        <P>1. This final rule has been determined to be not significant for purposes of Executive Order 12866.</P>
        <P>2. Notwithstanding any other provision of law, no person is required to respond to nor be subject to a penalty for failure to comply with a collection of information subject to the requirements of the Paperwork Reduction Act unless that collection of information displays a current valid OMB Control Number. This regulation involves collections previously approved by the Office of Management and Budget under control numbers 0694-0088, “Multi-PurposeApplication,” which carries a burden hour estimate of 45 minutes per manual submission and 40 minutes per electronic submission. Miscellaneous and recordkeeping activities account for 12 minutes per submission. Information is also collected under OMB control number 0694-0107, “National Defense Authorization Act,” Advance Notifications and Post-ShipmentVerification Reports, which carries a burden hour estimate of 15 minutes per report. This rule also involves collections of information under OMB control number 0694-0073, “Export Controls of High Performance Computers” and OMB control number 0694-0093, “Import Certificates and End-User Certificates.”</P>

        <P>3. This rule does not contain policies with Federalism implications as that<PRTPAGE P="5444"/>term is defined in Executive Order 13132.</P>

        <P>4. The provisions of the Administrative Procedure Act requiring notice of proposed rule making, the opportunity for public participation, and a delay in effective date, are inapplicable because this regulation involves a military or foreign affairs function of the UnitedStates (see 5 U.S.C. 553(a)(1)). Further, no other law requires that a notice of proposed rule making and an opportunity for public comment be given for this rule. Because a notice of proposed rule making and opportunities for public comment are not required to be given for this rule by 5 U.S.C. 553, or by any other law, the analytical requirements of the RegulatoryFlexibility Act, 5 U.S.C. 601<E T="03">et seq.</E>, are inapplicable.</P>
        <P>Therefore, this regulation is issued in final form. Although there is no formal comment period, public comments on this regulation are welcome on a continuing basis. Comments should be submitted to Office of Exporter Services, Bureau of Export Administration, Department of Commerce, P.O. Box 273, Washington, DC 20044.</P>
        <LSTSUB>
          <HD SOURCE="HED">List of Subjects</HD>
          <CFR>15 CFR Parts 740 and 748</CFR>
          <P>Administrative practice and procedure, Exports, Foreign trade, Reporting and record keeping requirements.</P>
          <CFR>15 CFR Part 742</CFR>
          <P>Exports, Foreign trade.</P>
        </LSTSUB>
        <REGTEXT PART="740" TITLE="15">
          <AMDPAR>Accordingly, parts 740, 742 and 748 of the Export Administration Regulations (15 CFR Parts 730-799) are amended as follows:</AMDPAR>
          <AMDPAR>1. The authority citation for 15 CFR Part 740 is revised to read as follows:</AMDPAR>
          
          <AUTH>
            <HD SOURCE="HED">Authority:</HD>
            <P>50 U.S.C. app. 2401<E T="03">et seq.</E>; Pub. L. No. 106-508; 50 U.S.C. 1701<E T="03">et seq.</E>; E.O. 12924, 59 FR 43437, 3 CFR, 1994 Comp., p. 917; E.O. 13026, 61 FR 58767, 3 CFR, 1996 Comp., p. 228; Notice of August 3, 2000 (65 FR 48347, August 8, 2000).</P>
          </AUTH>
        </REGTEXT>
        <REGTEXT PART="742" TITLE="15">
          
          <AMDPAR>2. The authority citation for 15 CFR Part 742 is revised to read as follows:</AMDPAR>
          <AUTH>
            <HD SOURCE="HED">Authority:</HD>
            <P>50 U.S.C. app. 2401<E T="03">et seq.</E>; Pub. L. No. 106-508; Pub.L. No. 106-398; 50 U.S.C. 1701<E T="03">et seq.</E>; 18 U.S.C. 2510<E T="03">et seq.</E>; 22 U.S.C. 3201<E T="03">et seq.</E>; 42 U.S.C. 2139a; E.O. 12058, 43 FR 20947, 3 CFR, 1978 Comp., p. 179; E.O. 12851, 58 FR 33181, 3 CFR, 1993 Comp., p. 608; E.O. 12924, 59 FR 43437, 3 CFR, 1994 Comp., p. 917; E.O. 12938, 59 FR 59099, 3 CFR, 1994 Comp., p. 950; E.O. 13026, 61 FR 58767, 3 CFR, 1996 Comp., p. 228; Notice of November 10, 1999, 64 FR 61767, 3 CFR, 1999 Comp., p. 318; Notice of August 3, 2000 (65 FR 48347, August 8, 2000).</P>
          </AUTH>
        </REGTEXT>
        <REGTEXT PART="748" TITLE="15">
          <AMDPAR>3. The authority citation for part 748 is revised to read as follows:</AMDPAR>
          <AUTH>
            <HD SOURCE="HED">Authority:</HD>
            <P>50 U.S.C. app. 2401<E T="03">et seq.</E>; Pub. L. No. 106-508; 50 U.S.C. 1701<E T="03">et seq.</E>; E.O. 12924, 59 FR 43437, 3 CFR, 1994 Comp., p. 917; E.O. 13026, 61 FR 58767, 3 CFR, 1996 Comp., p. 228; Notice of August 3, 2000 (65 FR 48347, August 8, 2000).</P>
          </AUTH>
        </REGTEXT>
        <REGTEXT PART="740" TITLE="15">
          <PART>
            <HD SOURCE="HED">PART 740—[AMENDED]</HD>
          </PART>
          <AMDPAR>4. Part 740 is amended by revising section 740.7, to read as follows:</AMDPAR>
          <SECTION>
            <SECTNO>§ 740.7</SECTNO>
            <SUBJECT>Computers (CTP).</SUBJECT>
            <P>(a)<E T="03">Scope</E>. License Exception CTP authorizes exports and reexports of computers and specially designed components therefor, exported or reexported separately or as part of a system for consumption in Computer Tier countries as provided by this section. (Related equipment controlled under 4A003.d and .g is authorized under this License Exception, only when exported or reexported with these computers as part of a system.) You may not use this License Exception to export or reexport items that you know will be used to enhance the CTP beyond the eligibility limit allowed to your country of destination. When evaluating your computer to determine License Exception CTP eligibility, use the CTP parameter to the exclusion of other technical parameters for computers classified under ECCN 4A003.a, .b and .c,<E T="03">except</E>of parameters specified as Missile Technology (MT) concerns or 4A003.e (equipment performing analog-to-digital conversions exceeding the limits in ECCN 3A001.a.5.a). This License Exception does not authorize the export or reexport of graphic accelerators or coprocessors, or of computers controlled for MT reasons.</P>
            <P>(b)<E T="03">Computer Tier 1.</E>(1)<E T="03">Eligible countries</E>. The countries that are eligible to receive exports under this License Exception include Antigua and Barbuda, Argentina, Australia, Austria, Bahamas, Barbados, Bangladesh, Belgium, Belize, Benin, Bhutan, Bolivia, Botswana, Brazil, Brunei, Burkina Faso, Burma, Burundi, Cameroon, Cape Verde, Central African Republic, Chad, Czech Republic, Chile, Colombia, Congo, Costa Rica, Cote d'Ivoire, Cyprus, Denmark, Dominica, Dominican Republic, Ecuador, El Salvador, Equatorial Guinea, Eritrea, Estonia, Ethiopia, Fiji, Gabon, Finland, France, Gambia (The), Germany, Ghana, Greece, Grenada, Guatemala, Guinea, Guinea-Bissau, Guyana, Haiti, Honduras, Hong Kong, Hungary, Iceland, Indonesia, Ireland, Italy, Jamaica, Japan, Kenya, Kiribati, Korea (Republic of), Lesotho, Liberia, Liechtenstein, Luxembourg, Madagascar, Malawi, Malaysia, Maldives, Mali, Malta, Marshall Islands, Mauritius, Mexico, Micronesia (Federated States of), Monaco, Mozambique, Namibia, Nauru, Nepal, Netherlands, New Zealand, Nicaragua, Niger, Nigeria, Norway, Palau, Panama, Papua New Guinea, Paraguay, Peru, Philippines, Poland, Portugal, Romania, Rwanda, St. Kitts  Nevis, St. Lucia, St. Vincent and Grenadines, Sao Tome  Principe, San Marino, Senegal, Seychelles, Sierra Leone, Singapore, Slovakia, Slovenia, Solomon Islands, Somalia, South Africa, Spain, Sri Lanka, Surinam, Swaziland, Sweden, Switzerland, Taiwan, Tanzania, Togo, Tonga, Thailand, Trinidad and Tobago, Turkey, Tuvalu, Uganda, United Kingdom, Uruguay, Vatican City, Venezuela, Western Sahara, Western Samoa, Zaire, Zambia, and Zimbabwe. As of May 19, 2001, Lithuania is a Computer Tier 1 country.</P>
            <P>(2)<E T="03">Eligible computers</E>. The computers eligible for License Exception CTP to Tier 1 destinations are those having a Composite Theoretical Performance (CTP) greater than 6,500 Millions of Theoretical Operations Per Second (MTOPS).</P>
            <P>(c) [Reserved]</P>
            <P>(d)<E T="03">Computer Tier 3</E>. (1)<E T="03">Eligible countries</E>. The countries that are eligible to receive exports and reexports under this License Exception are Afghanistan, Albania, Algeria, Andorra, Angola, Armenia, Azerbaijan, Bahrain, Belarus, Bosnia  Herzegovina, Bulgaria, Cambodia, China (People's Republic of), Comoros, Croatia, Djibouti, Egypt, Georgia, India, Israel, Jordan, Kazakhstan, Kosovo (Serbian province of), Kuwait, Kyrgyzstan, Laos, Latvia, Lebanon, Lithuania, Macau, Macedonia (The Former Yugoslav Republic of), Mauritania, Moldova, Mongolia, Montenegro, Morocco, Oman, Pakistan, Qatar, Russia, Saudi Arabia, Serbia, Tajikistan, Tunisia, Turkmenistan, Ukraine, United Arab Emirates, Uzbekistan, Vanuatu, Vietnam, and Yemen. As of May 19, 2001, Lithuania is moved to Computer Tier 1.</P>
            <P>(2)<E T="03">Eligible computers</E>. The computers eligible for License Exception CTP to Tier 3 destinations are those having a CTP greater than 6,500 MTOPS, but less than or equal to 85,000 MTOPS, subject to the restrictions in paragraph (d)(3) of this section.</P>
            <P>(3)<E T="03">Eligible exports</E>. Only exports and reexports to permitted end-users and end-uses located in countries in Computer Tier 3. License Exception CTP does not authorize exports and reexports to Computer Tier 3 for nuclear, chemical, biological, or missile end-users and end-uses and military<PRTPAGE P="5445"/>end-users and end-uses subject to license requirements under § 744.2, § 744.3, § 744.4, § 744.5, and § 744.12 of the EAR. Such exports and reexports will continue to require a license and will be considered on a case-by-case basis. Retransfers to these end-users and end-uses in eligible countries are strictly prohibited without prior authorization.</P>
            <P>(4)<E T="03">Supporting documentation</E>. Exporters are required to obtain a People's Republic of China (PRC) End-User Certificate before exporting computers described by paragraph (d)(2) of this section to the PRC, regardless of value. (See § 748.10(b)(3) of the EAR for information on obtaining the PRC End-User Certificate.) Exporters are required to provide the PRC End-User Certificate Number to BXA as part of their post-shipment report (see paragraph (d)(5)(v) of this section). When providing the PRC End-User Certificate Number to BXA, you must identify the transaction in the post shipment report to which that PRC End-User Certificate Number applies. The original PRC End-User Certificate shall be retained in the exporter's files in accordance with the recordkeeping provisions of § 762.2 of the EAR.</P>
            <P>(5)<E T="03">NDAA notification</E>. (i)<E T="03">General requirement and procedures</E>. The National Defense Authorization Act (NDAA) of FY98 (Public Law 105-85, 111 Stat. 1629), enacted on November 18, 1997 requires advance notification of certain exports and reexports of computers to Computer Tier 3 countries. For each such transaction destined to Computer Tier 3, prior to using License Exception CTP, you must first notify BXA by submitting a completed Multipurpose Application Form (BXA-748P). The Multipurpose Application Form must be completed including all information required for a license application according to the instructions described in Supplement No. 1 to part 748 of the EAR, with two exceptions. You (the applicant as listed in Block 14) shall in Block 5 (Type of Application) mark the box “Other.” This designator will permit BXA to route the NDAA notice into a special processing procedure. (Blocks 6 and 7, regarding support documentation, may be left blank.) BXA will not initiate the registration of an NDAA notice unless all information on the Multipurpose Application form is complete.</P>
            <P>(A)<E T="03">Prior to February 26, 2001</E>, advance notification is required for all exports and reexports of computers with a CTP greater than 12,500 but less than or equal to 85,000 MTOPS to Computer Tier 3 destinations. You must also provide a notice using this procedure prior to exporting or reexporting items that you know will be used to enhance the CTP of a previously exported or reexported computer beyond 12,500 MTOPS, but less than or equal to 85,000 MTOPS.</P>
          </SECTION>
        </REGTEXT>
        <P>(B)<E T="03">Beginning on February 26, 2001 but prior to March 20, 2001</E>, advanced notification is required for export and reexport of computers with a CTP greater than 28,000 MTOPS, but less than or equal to 85,000 MTOPS to Computer Tier 3 destinations. You must also provide a notice using this procedure prior to exporting or reexporting items that you know will be used to enhance the CTP of a previously exported or reexported computer beyond 28,000 MTOPS, but less than or equal to 85,000 MTOPS.</P>
        <P>(ii)<E T="03">Action by BXA</E>. Within 24 hours of the registration of the NDAA notice, BXA will refer the notice for interagency review. Registration is defined as the point at which the notice is entered into BXA's electronic system.</P>
        <P>(iii)<E T="03">Review by other departments or agencies</E>. The Departments of Defense, Energy, and State have the authority to review the NDAA notice. Objections by any department or agency must be received by the Secretary of Commerce within nine days of the referral. Unlike the provisions described in § 750.4(b) of the EAR, there are no provisions for stopping the processing time of the NDAA notice. If, within 10 days after the date of registration, any reviewing agency provides a written objection to the export or reexport of a computer, License Exception CTP may not be used. In such cases, you will be notified that a license is required for the export or reexport. The NDAA notice will then be processed by BXA as a license application in accordance to the provisions described in § 750.4 of the EAR, and the licensing policies set forth in the Export Administration Regulations. Its NDAA notice number will be changed to a license application number. BXA may at this time request additional information to properly review the license application. If BXA confirms that no objection has been raised within the 10-day period (as described in paragraph (d)(5)(iv) of this section), you may proceed with the transaction on the eleventh day following date of registration. (Note that the fact that you have been advised to proceed with the transaction does not exempt you from other licensing requirements under the EAR, such as those based on knowledge of a prohibited end-use or end-user as referenced in general prohibition five (part 736 of the EAR) and set forth in part 744 of the EAR.)</P>
        <P>(iv)<E T="03">Status of pending advance notification requests</E>. You must contact BXA's System for Tracking Export License Applications (“STELA”) at (202) 482-2752. (See § 750.5 of the EAR for procedures to access information on STELA.) STELA will provide the date of registration of the NDAA notice. If no departments or agencies raise objections within the 10-day period, STELA will provide you on the eleventh day following date of registration with confirmation that no objections have been raised and you may proceed with the transaction. BXA will subsequently issue written confirmation to you. If a license is required, STELA will notify you that an objection has been raised and a license is required. The NDAA notice will be processed as a license application. In addition, BXA may provide notice of an objection by telephone, fax, courier service, or other means.</P>
        <P>(v)<E T="03">Post-shipment verification</E>. This section outlines special post-shipment reporting requirements for exporters of certain computers to destinations in Computer Tier 3. Post-shipment reports must be submitted in accordance with the provisions of this paragraph (d)(5)(v), and all relevant records of such exports must be kept in accordance with part 762 of the EAR.</P>
        <P>(A) Exporters must file post-shipment reports for computer exports, as well as exports of items used to enhance previously exported or reexported computers, according to the following schedule:</P>
        <P>(<E T="03">1</E>) For exports occurring prior to February 26, 2001, where the CTP is greater than 12,500 MTOPS; and</P>
        <P>(<E T="03">2</E>) For exports on or after February 26, 2001, but prior to March 20, 2001, where the CTP is greater than 28,000 MTOPS.</P>
        <P>(B)<E T="03">Information that must be included in each post-shipment report</E>. No later than the last day of the month following the month in which the export takes place, the exporter must submit the following information to BXA at the address listed in paragraph (d)(5)(v)(C) of this section:</P>
        <P>(<E T="03">1</E>) Exporter name, address, and telephone number;</P>
        <P>(<E T="03">2</E>) NDAA notification number;</P>
        <P>(<E T="03">3</E>) Date of export;</P>
        <P>(<E T="03">4</E>) End-user name, point of contact, address, telephone number;</P>
        <P>(<E T="03">5</E>) Carrier;</P>
        <P>(<E T="03">6</E>) Air waybill or bill of lading number;</P>
        <P>(<E T="03">7</E>) Commodity description, quantities—listed by model numbers, serial numbers, and CTP level in MTOPS; and<PRTPAGE P="5446"/>
        </P>
        <P>(<E T="03">8</E>) Certification line for exporters to sign and date. The exporter must certify that the information contained in the report is accurate to the best of his or her knowledge.</P>
        <NOTE>
          <HD SOURCE="HED">Note to paragraph (d)(5)(v)(B) of this section:</HD>
          <P>For exports authorized under License Exception CTP to the People's Republic of China (PRC), you must submit the PRC End-User Certificate Number identifying the transaction for which the End-User Certificate Number applies.</P>
        </NOTE>
        <P>(C)<E T="03">Mailing address</E>. A copy of the post-shipment report[s] required under paragraph (d)(5)(v) of this section shall be delivered to one of the following addresses. Note that BXA will not accept reports sent C.O.D.</P>
        
        <FP SOURCE="FP-1">(<E T="03">1</E>) For deliveries by U.S. postal service: U.S. Department of Commerce, Bureau of Export Administration, P.O. Box 273, Washington, D.C. 20044, Attn: Office of Enforcement Analysis HPC Team, Room 4065.</FP>
        <FP SOURCE="FP-1">(<E T="03">2</E>) For courier deliveries: U.S. Department of Commerce, Office of Enforcement Analysis HPC Team, 14th Street and Constitution Ave., NW, Room 4065, Washington, DC 20230.</FP>
        
        <P>(e)<E T="03">Restrictions</E>. (1)<E T="03">Access by certain foreign nationals</E>. Computers eligible for License Exception CTP may not be accessed either physically or computationally by nationals of Cuba, Iran, Iraq, Libya, North Korea, Sudan or Syria, except commercial consignees described in Supplement No. 3 to part 742 of the EAR are prohibited only from giving such nationals user-accessible programmability.</P>
        <P>(2)<E T="03">Reexport and retransfers</E>. Computers eligible for License Exception CTP may not be reexported/retransferred without prior authorization from BXA i.e., a license, a permissive reexport, another License Exception, or “No License Required”. This restriction must be conveyed to the consignee, via the Destination Control Statement, see § 758.6 of the EAR. Additionally, the end-use and end-user restrictions in paragraph (d)(3) of this section must be conveyed to any consignee in Computer Tier 3.</P>
        <P>(f)<E T="03">Reporting requirements.</E>In addition to the reporting requirements set forth in paragraph (d) of this section, see § 743.1 of the EAR for additional reporting requirements of certain items under License Exception CTP.</P>
        <REGTEXT PART="742" TITLE="15">
          <PART>
            <HD SOURCE="HED">PART 742—[AMENDED]</HD>
          </PART>
          <AMDPAR>5. Section 742.12 is amended by removing the second sentence in paragraph (d); revising paragraph (a); removing and reserving paragraph (b)(2); and revising paragraph (b)(3) to read as follows:</AMDPAR>
          <SECTION>
            <SECTNO>§ 742.12</SECTNO>
            <SUBJECT>High performance computers.</SUBJECT>
            <P>(a)<E T="03">License and recordkeeping requirements</E>. (1) This section contains special provisions for exports, reexports, and certain intra-country transfers of high performance computers, including software, and technology. This section affects the following ECCNs: 4A001; 4A002; 4A003; 4D001; 4D002; and 4E001. Licenses are required under this section for ECCN's having an “XP” under “Reason for Control” when License Exception CTP is not available (see § 740.7 of the EAR). License requirements reflected in this section are based on particular destinations, end-users, or end-uses. For the calculation of CTP, see the Technical Note that follows the Advisory Notes for Category 4 in the Commerce Control List. Note that License Exception CTP contains restrictions on access by nationals of certain countries, and on reexports and transfers of computers.</P>
            <P>(2) In recognition of the strategic and proliferation significance of high performance computers, a license is required for the export or reexport of high performance computers to destinations, end-users, and end-uses, as specified in this section and on the CCL. These license requirements supplement requirements that apply for other control reasons, such as nuclear nonproliferation provided in section 742.3 of the EAR. The license requirements described in this section 742.12 are not reflected on the Country Chart (Supplement No. 1 to part 738 of the EAR). Three Computer Country Tiers have been established for the purposes of these controls. Countries included in Computer Tiers 1 and 3 are listed in License Exception CTP in section 740.7 of the EAR. As of January 19, 2001 there is no longer a Computer Tier 2, and countries that were in Tier 2 are incorporated into Computer Tier 1. Computer Tier 4 consists of Cuba, Iran, Iraq, Libya, North Korea, Sudan, and Syria.</P>
            <P>(3) Exporters must keep accurate records of each export to countries not included in Country Group A:1 (see Supplement No. 1 to part 740 of the EAR) of a computer with a CTP greater than 6,500 MTOPS. These records must be submitted semiannually to BXA and must contain the information as described in § 743.1 of the EAR.</P>
            <P>(b) * * *</P>
            <P>(1) * * *</P>
            <P>(2) [Reserved]</P>
            <P>(3) Computer Tier 3. (i)<E T="03">License requirement.</E>(A) A license is required to export or reexport computers to countries in Computer Tier 3 to nuclear, chemical, biological, or missile end-users and end-uses and military end-users and end-uses subject to license requirements under § 744.2, § 744.3, § 744.4, § 744.5, and § 744.12 of the EAR in Computer Tier 3 countries.</P>
            <P>(B) A license is required to export or reexport computers with a CTP greater than 85,000 MTOPS to a country in Computer Tier 3.</P>
            <P>(C) Prior to February 26, 2001, a license may be required to export or reexport computers with a CTP greater than 12,500 MTOPS to countries in Computer Tier 3 pursuant to the NDAA (see § 740.7(d)(5) of the EAR). Beginning on February 26, 2001 but prior to March 20, 2001, a license may be required to export or reexport computers with a CTP greater than 28,000 MTOPS but less than or equal to 85,000 MTOPS to countries in Computer Tier 3 pursuant to the NDAA.</P>
            <P>(ii)<E T="03">Licensing policy for nuclear, chemical, biological, or missile end-users and end-uses and military end-users and end-uses.</E>License applications for exports and reexports to nuclear, chemical, biological, or missile end-users and end-uses and military end-users and end-uses subject to license requirements under § 744.2, § 744.3, § 744.4, § 744.5, and § 744.12 of the EAR in countries in Computer Tier 3 will be reviewed on a case-by-case basis using the following criteria:</P>
            <P>(A) The presence and activities of countries and end-users of national security and proliferation concern and the relationships that exist between the government of the importing country and such countries and end-users;</P>
            <P>(B) The ultimate consignee's participation in, or support of, any of the following:</P>
            <P>(<E T="03">1</E>) Activities that involve national security concerns; or</P>
            <P>(<E T="03">2</E>) Nuclear, chemical, biological or missile proliferation activities described in part 744 of the EAR;</P>
            <P>(C) The extent to which the importing country is involved in nuclear, chemical, biological, or missile proliferation activities described in part 744 of the EAR;</P>
            <P>(D) The end-user, whether the end-use is single-purpose or multiple-purpose.</P>
            <P>(iii)<E T="03">Licensing policy for other end-users and end-uses.</E>License applications for exports and reexports to other end-uses and end-users located in Computer Tier 3 countries will generally be approved, except there is a presumption of denial for all applications for exports and reexports of computers having a CTP greater than 6,500 MTOPS destined to Indian and Pakistani entities determined to be<PRTPAGE P="5447"/>involved in nuclear, missile, or military activities included in Supplement No. 4 to part 744 (Entity List). All license applications for exports and reexports to India and Pakistan not meeting these criteria for presumption of denial will be considered on a case-by-case basis under other licensing policies set forth in the EAR applicable to such computers.</P>
            <P>(iv)<E T="03">Post-shipment verification.</E>This section outlines special post-shipment reporting requirements for exporters of certain computers to destinations in Computer Tier 3. Post-shipment reports must be submitted in accordance with the provisions of this paragraph (b)(3)(iv), and all relevant records of such exports must be kept in accordance with part 762 of the EAR.</P>
            <P>(A) Exporters must file post-shipment reports for computer exports, as well as exports of items used to enhance previously exported or reexported computers, according to the following schedule:</P>
            <P>(<E T="03">1</E>) For exports occurring prior to February 26, 2001, where the CTP is greater than 12,500 MTOPS;</P>
            <P>(<E T="03">2</E>) For exports on or after February 26, 2001, but before March 20, 2001 where the CTP is greater than 28,000 MTOPS; and</P>
            <P>(<E T="03">3</E>) For exports on or after March 20, 2001 where the CTP is greater than 85,000 MTOPS.</P>
            <P>(B)<E T="03">Information that must be included in each post-shipment report.</E>No later than the last day of the month following the month in which the export takes place, the exporter must submit the following information to BXA at the address listed in paragraph (b)(3)(iv)(C) of this section:</P>
            <P>(<E T="03">1</E>) Exporter name, address, and telephone number;</P>
            <P>(<E T="03">2</E>) License number;</P>
            <P>(<E T="03">3</E>) Date of export;</P>
            <P>(<E T="03">4</E>) End-user name, point of contact, address, telephone number;</P>
            <P>(<E T="03">5</E>) Carrier;</P>
            <P>(<E T="03">6</E>) Air waybill or bill of lading number;</P>
            <P>(<E T="03">7</E>) Commodity description, quantities—listed by model numbers, serial numbers, and CTP level in MTOPS; and</P>
            <P>(<E T="03">8</E>) Certification line for exporters to sign and date. The exporter must certify that the information contained in the report is accurate to the best of his or her knowledge.</P>
            <P>(C)<E T="03">Mailing address.</E>A copy of the post-shipment report[s] required under paragraph (b)(3)(iv)(A) of this section shall be delivered to one of the following addresses. Note that BXA will not accept reports sent C.O.D.</P>
            
            <FP SOURCE="FP-1">(<E T="03">1</E>) For deliveries by U.S. postal service: U.S. Department of Commerce, Bureau of Export Administration, P.O. Box 273, Washington, D.C. 20044, Attn: Office of Enforcement Analysis HPC Team, Room 4065.</FP>
            <FP SOURCE="FP-1">(<E T="03">2</E>) For courier deliveries: U.S. Department of Commerce, Office of Enforcement Analysis HPC Team, 14th Street and Constitution Ave., NW, Room 4065, Washington, DC 20230.</FP>
            <STARS/>
          </SECTION>
        </REGTEXT>
        <REGTEXT PART="748" TITLE="15">
          <PART>
            <HD SOURCE="HED">PART 748—[AMENDED]</HD>
          </PART>
          <AMDPAR>6. Section 748.10 is amended by revising paragraph (b)(3) as follows:</AMDPAR>
          <SECTION>
            <SECTNO>§ 748.10</SECTNO>
            <SUBJECT>Import and end-user certificates.</SUBJECT>
            <STARS/>
            <P>(b) * * *</P>
            <P>(3) Your transaction involves an export to the People's Republic of China (PRC) of a computer. You must obtain a PRC End-User Certificate, regardless of dollar value, as follows:</P>
            <P>(i) For exports of computers as described by § 740.7(d)(2) of the EAR, regardless of value, to the People's Republic of China. (See paragraph (c) of this section for information on obtaining the PRC End-User Certificate.) Exporters are required to obtain a PRC End-User Certificate before exporting computers to the PRC. In addition, exporters are required to provide the PRC End-User Certificate Number to BXA as part of their post-shipment report (see § 740.7(d)(5)(v) of the EAR). When providing the PRC End-User Certificate Number to BXA, you must identify the transaction in the post shipment report to which that PRC End-User Certificate Number applies. The original PRC End-User Certificate shall be retained in the exporter's files in accordance with the recordkeeping provisions of § 762.2 of the EAR.</P>
            <P>(ii) For exports of computers that require license applications.</P>
            <STARS/>
          </SECTION>
        </REGTEXT>
        <SIG>
          <DATED>Dated: January 16, 2001.</DATED>
          <NAME>Matthew S. Borman,</NAME>
          <TITLE>Acting Deputy Assistant Secretary for Export Administration.</TITLE>
        </SIG>
      </SUPLINF>
      <FRDOC>[FR Doc. 01-1623 Filed 1-16-01; 4:49 pm]</FRDOC>
      <BILCOD>BILLING CODE 3510-33-P</BILCOD>
    </RULE>
    <RULE>
      <PREAMB>
        <AGENCY TYPE="N">DEPARTMENT OF HEALTH AND HUMAN SERVICES</AGENCY>
        <SUBAGY>Food and Drug Administration</SUBAGY>
        <CFR>21 CFR Parts 207, 807, and 1271</CFR>
        <DEPDOC>[Docket No. 97N-484R]</DEPDOC>
        <SUBJECT>Human Cells, Tissues, and Cellular and Tissue-Based Products; Establishment Registration and Listing</SUBJECT>
        <AGY>
          <HD SOURCE="HED">AGENCY:</HD>
          <P>Food and Drug Administration, HHS.</P>
        </AGY>
        <ACT>
          <HD SOURCE="HED">ACTION:</HD>
          <P>Final rule.</P>
        </ACT>
        <SUM>
          <HD SOURCE="HED">SUMMARY:</HD>
          <P>The Food and Drug Administration (FDA) is issuing a final rule to require human cells, tissue, and cellular and tissue-based product establishments to register with the agency and list their human cells, tissues, and cellular and tissue-based products. FDA is also amending the registration and listing regulations that currently apply to human cells, tissues, and cellular and tissue-based products regulated as drugs, devices, and/or biological products. These actions are being taken to establish a unified registration and listing program for human cells, tissues, and cellular and tissue-based products.</P>
        </SUM>
        <EFFDATE>
          <HD SOURCE="HED">DATES:</HD>
          <P>The regulation is effective April 4, 2001, except for 21 CFR 207.20(f), 807.20(d), and 1271.3(d)(2), which are effective on January 21, 2003.</P>
        </EFFDATE>
        <FURINF>
          <HD SOURCE="HED">FOR FURTHER INFORMATION CONTACT:</HD>
          <P>Valerie A. Butler, Center for Biologics Evaluation and Research (HFM-17), Food and Drug Administration, 1401 Rockville Pike, suite 200N, Rockville, MD 20852-1448, 301-827-6210.</P>
        </FURINF>
      </PREAMB>
      <SUPLINF>
        <HD SOURCE="HED">SUPPLEMENTARY INFORMATION:</HD>
        <HD SOURCE="HD1">I. Introduction</HD>

        <P>We, FDA, are putting in place a comprehensive new system of regulation for human cells, tissues, and cellular and tissue-based products. The goal of the new approach is to improve protection of the public health without imposing unnecessary restrictions on research, development, or the availability of new products. Under the new system, the regulation of different types of human cells, tissues, and cellular and tissue-based products will be commensurate with the public health risks presented, enabling us to use our resources more effectively. Consolidating the regulation of human cells, tissues, and cellular and tissue-based products into one regulatory program is expected to lead to increased consistency and greater efficiency. Together, these planned improvements will increase the safety of human cells,<PRTPAGE P="5448"/>tissues, and cellular and tissue-based products, and public confidence in their safety, while encouraging the development of new products.</P>
        <HD SOURCE="HD2">A. Background</HD>
        <P>In 1997, we announced our regulatory plans for human cells, tissues, and cellular and tissue-based products in two documents:</P>
        <P>• “A Proposed Approach to the Regulation of Cellular and Tissue-Based Products” (62 FR 9721, March 4, 1997) and</P>
        <P>• “Reinventing the Regulation of Human Tissue” (Ref. 1).</P>
        
        <FP>The proposed approach described a comprehensive plan for regulating human cells, tissues, and cellular and tissue-based products that would include establishment registration and product listing, donor-suitability requirements, good tissue practice regulations, and other requirements. Under this tiered, risk-based approach, we proposed to exert only the type of government regulation necessary to protect the public health. To accomplish this goal, we planned to issue new regulations under the communicable disease provisions of the Public Health Service Act (the PHS Act). Some human cellular and tissue-based products would be regulated only under these new regulations, while other human cellular and tissue-based products would also be regulated as drugs, devices, and/or biological drugs. We requested written comments on the proposed approach and, on March 17, 1997, held a public meeting (62 FR 9721).</FP>
        <P>Since 1997, we have published three proposed rules to implement the proposed approach. In 1998, as a first step toward accomplishing these goals, we published the proposed rule, “Establishment Registration and Listing for Manufacturers of Human Cellular and Tissue-Based Products” (63 FR 26744, May 14, 1998) (the “registration proposed rule”). That rule proposed to require cell and tissue establishments to register with us and submit a list of their human cellular and tissue-based products. We also proposed modifications to current registration and listing requirements for drugs and devices under which cell and tissue establishments already regulated under the Federal Food, Drug, and Cosmetic Act (the act) and/or section 351 of the PHS Act (42 U.S.C 262) would register and list following the new procedures.</P>
        <P>In addition to the registration proposed rule, we published two more proposed rules:</P>
        <P>• Suitability Determination for Donors of Human Cellular and Tissue-Based Products (64 FR 52696, September 30, 1999) (the “donor-suitability proposed rule”); and</P>
        <P>• Current Good Tissue Practice for Manufacturers of Human Cellular and Tissue-Based Products; Inspection and Enforcement (66 FR 1508, January 8, 2000) (the “GTP proposed rule”).</P>
        <FP>Together, these three rules when finalized would establish a comprehensive regulatory program for human cellular and tissue-based products, to be contained in part 1271 (21 CFR part 1271).</FP>
        <P>In the three proposed rules, we used the term “human cellular and tissue-based products.” In this final rule, we have changed the term to “human cells, tissues, and cellular and tissue-based products” (abbreviated “HCT/P's”). This change in terminology is a clarification and does not affect the scope of the definition, which continues to encompass an array of articles containing or consisting of human cells or tissues, and intended for implantation, transplantation, infusion, or transfer into human recipients, including investigational products. The definition of “human cells, tissues, or cellular or tissue-based product” is intended to cover HCT/P's at all stages of their manufacture, from recovery through distribution. Some examples of HCT/P's include skin, tendons, bone, heart valves, corneas, hematopoietic stem cells, manipulated autologous chondrocytes, epithelial cells on a synthetic matrix, and semen or other reproductive tissue.</P>
        <HD SOURCE="HD2">B. Implementation of the New Regulations</HD>

        <P>We had intended to finalize the registration proposed rule with the two other rules that would make up part 1271 in its entirety, and to implement all three rules together. However, we are now making the registration rule final, with staggered effective dates, before finalizing the two remaining portions of part 1271. We are taking this action because of recent concerns raised about the safety of tissue, which have led us to believe that accelerating the collection of basic information about the rapidly growing tissue industry is vital. This medical sector has grown rapidly, with a need for clearer standards and improved accountability. The Department of Health and Human Services met in mid-2000 with representatives of key tissue-related organizations, who supported finalization of this regulation as quickly as possible, instead of awaiting simultaneous publication with the other tissue regulations. For these reasons, we are going to begin collecting registration and listing information, while continuing to develop the remainder of the final rules that will complete part 1271, and we have changed the effective date of this rule from the proposed 180 days to 75 days after the date of publication in the<E T="04">Federal Register</E>. As part of completing the rulemaking for part 1271, we would make any necessary conforming amendments to this regulation to make it consistent with any changes made in the remainder of the rulemaking process, and we would revoke part 1270.</P>
        <P>Establishments that engage in the recovery, screening, testing, processing, storage, or distribution of human tissue intended for transplantation currently regulated under section 361 of the PHS Act (42 U.S.C. 264) and the regulations in part 1270 (21 CFR part 1270) (“Human Tissue Intended for Transplantation”) will be required to begin registering with the agency and listing their HCT/P's within 30 days after the effective date of this final rule. The effective date for all other human cells, tissues, and cellular and tissue-based products (as described in § 1271.3(d)(2)) is 2 years after publication, by which time we expect to have completed rulemaking for all the subparts of part 1271. (Some establishments that are not required to register and list until the second effective date have expressed a desire to submit registration and listing forms as soon as possible. In response, FDA is prepared to accept registration and listing forms submitted in advance of the second effective date. However, FDA is not soliciting this information.) Once the entire rulemaking is complete, the new regulatory approach would apply to a broad range of human cells, tissues, and cellular and tissue-based products, including reproductive cells and tissue; hematopoietic stem cells; and tissues and cells regulated as devices, drugs, and/or biological products.</P>

        <P>Staggering the effective dates of this regulation permits us to begin collecting important registration and listing information soon from those establishments currently regulated under part 1270, while continuing to proceed through rulemaking to develop the remainder of part 1271. We believe that this action may prevent an unintentional gap in the regulation of certain currently regulated HCT/P's, permit an orderly implementation process, and avoid duplicative information collection. If we instead implemented the regulation immediately for all HCT/P's, this action could have the effect of shifting the regulation of certain products (e.g., HCT/P's currently regulated as devices<PRTPAGE P="5449"/>that meet the criteria set out in § 1271.10 for regulation solely under section 361 of the PHS Act) into the new regulatory system before standards and enforcement provisions are in place. Staggering the effective dates also helps permit an orderly implementation process. Establishments that manufacture cells and tissues that will be regulated for the first time under new part 1271 may require more time than those currently regulated to implement the provisions of this final rule. However, we also recognize that unanticipated delays in completing the rulemaking for the remainder of part 1271 could occur. Should the rulemaking proceedings be delayed past the 2-year timeframe, we will consider whether to maintain the 2-year effective date for the HCT/P's described in § 1271.3(d)(2) or whether to extend that date for some or all of those HCT/P's.</P>
        <HD SOURCE="HD2">C. Legal Authority</HD>

        <P>We are issuing this final rule under the authority of section 361 of the PHS Act. Under section 361 of the PHS Act, we may make and enforce regulations necessary to prevent the introduction, transmission, or spread of communicable diseases between the States or from foreign countries into the States. (See sec. 1, Reorg. Plan No. 3 of 1966 at 42 U.S.C. 202 for delegation of section 361 of the PHS Act authority from the Surgeon General to the Secretary, Health and Human Services; see 21 CFR 5.10(a)(4) for delegation from the Secretary to FDA.) Intrastate transactions may also be regulated under section 361 of the PHS Act. (See<E T="03">Louisiana</E>v.<E T="03">Mathews,</E>427 F. Supp. 174, 176 (E.D. La. 1977).)</P>
        <P>HCT/P's are derivatives of the human body and thus pose a potential risk of transmitting infectious disease. We have determined that some HCT/P's may be effectively regulated solely by controlling the infectious disease risks they present. The regulation now being finalized forms the foundation for a regulatory program that will further the goal of preventing the transmission of communicable disease. To begin implementing this regulatory program, we are publishing the registration final rule, with staggered effective dates so that those HCT/P establishments not currently subject to regulation under section 361 of the PHS Act will have adequate preparation time and FDA can continue working towards finalizing the remainder of the program.</P>
        <P>For this regulatory system to be effective in preventing the spread of disease, we must obtain basic information about the human cell and tissue industry and its HCT/P's. The information to be submitted in compliance with the registration and listing requirements in subpart B will provide baseline data on establishments that will be subject to part 1271. This information from the registration rule will assist us in reacting swiftly to newly discovered or understood risks by alerting members of the industry to our concerns and, when appropriate, by conducting establishment inspections. Without this information, we would not be able to effectively monitor compliance with the proposed donor-suitability, GTP, and other regulations that make up the rest of the regulatory program.</P>
        <P>Authority for enforcement of section 361 of the PHS Act is provided by section 368 of the PHS Act (42 U.S.C. 271). Under section 368(a) of the PHS Act, any person who violates a regulation prescribed under section 361 of the PHS Act may be punished by imprisonment for up to 1 year. Individuals may also be punished for violating such a regulation by a fine of up to $100,000 if death has not resulted from the violation or up to $250,000 if death has resulted (18 U.S.C. 3559 and 3571(c)). In addition, Federal District Courts have jurisdiction to enjoin individuals and organizations from violating regulations implementing section 361 of the PHS Act. The regulations that we have proposed specific to enforcement appear in the GTP proposed rule.</P>
        <P>HCT/P's that do not meet FDA's criteria set forth in part 1271 for regulation solely under section 361 of the PHS Act are regulated as drugs, devices, and/or biological products under the act and/or section 351 of the PHS Act, and their manufacturers are required to register with the agency under section 510 of the act (21 U.S.C. 360). Regulations implementing section 510 of the act are found in parts 207 and 807 (21 CFR parts 207 and 807), among other parts. In order to consolidate our data base on the cell and tissue industry and thus to improve our oversight functions, we are amending parts 207 and 807 to require registering establishments to follow the procedures set out in part 1271; these amendments are effective in 2 years, when we project the remaining two proposed tissue rules will be ready for implementation. Section 510 of the act remains the authority for the substantive registration requirement for products subject to parts 207 and 807. Because harmonizing the registration and listing procedures applicable to the various HCT/P's is intended to further the goal of preventing the spread of communicable disease, we are relying on the additional authority of section 361 of the PHS Act for the proposed amendments to parts 207 and 807.</P>
        <HD SOURCE="HD1">II. Highlights of the Final Rule</HD>
        <HD SOURCE="HD2">A. Plain Language</HD>
        <P>On June 1, 1998, President Clinton directed Federal agencies to begin using “plain language” in regulations and other documents. The goal of the plain language initiative is to publish government documents that are easier to understand.</P>
        <P>In response to this initiative, we have written the registration regulation in plain language. We have</P>
        <P>• Written the regulation in question-and-answer format,</P>
        <P>• Reorganized some regulatory sections for greater clarity, and</P>
        <P>• Followed other plain-language conventions, such as using “must” instead of “shall.”</P>
        
        <FP>The resulting codified language is easier to read and understand than the proposed regulation. These editorial changes are for clarity only and do not change the substance of the requirements.</FP>
        <HD SOURCE="HD2">B. Framework of the Final Regulation and Part 1271</HD>
        <P>When final, new part 1271 will be made up of six subparts. This final regulation contains subpart A (general provisions pertaining to the scope and applicability of part 1271; definitions); and subpart B (registration and listing procedures). The donor-suitability proposed rule contains subpart C of part 1271; and the GTP proposed rule contains subparts D, E, and F.</P>
        <P>Section 1271.10, in subpart A, sets out the criteria that form the foundation of our tiered, risk-based approach to regulating HCT/P's. HCT/P's that meet these criteria are subject only to regulation under section 361 of the PHS Act. When all the proposed rules that will make up part 1271 become effective, these HCT/P's would be subject to the regulations in part 1271, and no premarket submissions would be required. (We sometimes refer to these HCT/P's as “361 HCT/P's.” This term replaces “section 361 products,” which was used in the registration proposed rule.) HCT/P's that do not meet the criteria for regulation as 361 HCT/P's will be regulated as drugs, devices, and/or biological products.</P>

        <P>In September 1999, in the donor-suitability proposed rule, we modified proposed §§ 1271.1, 1271.3(e), 1271.10, and 1271.20 as they appeared in the registration proposed rule, and we added new § 1271.15. We made some of these changes to clarify our meaning.<PRTPAGE P="5450"/>We made other changes so that the provisions on scope and applicability contained in subpart A would apply not only to the registration procedures in subpart B but more generally to the rest of the requirements in part 1271. These changes obviated the need for the addition, in later rulemaking, of new sections dealing with scope and applicability and were consistent with our original regulatory intent, as set out in the proposed approach.</P>
        <P>We received comments on the registration proposed rule, and we received additional comments on subparts A and B of part 1271 in response to the donor-suitability proposed rule. To the extent possible we address these comments in this final rule; however, we recognize that additional discussion may be necessary as issues arise in the remaining rules that will makeup part 1271.</P>
        <HD SOURCE="HD2">C. Staggered Effective Dates</HD>
        <P>In order to accomplish the goal of staggering the effective dates of the registration and listing regulation for different types of HCT/P's, we have divided the definition of “HCT/P” in § 1271.3(d) into two paragraphs. Paragraph (d)(1) of § 1271.3 identifies the subgroup of human tissues defined in part 1270. Paragraph (d)(2) provides the broader definition of HCT/P based on proposed § 1271.3(e). The definition of the subgroup in paragraph (d)(1) incorporates the definition of “human tissue” set out in § 1270.3(j) and thus identifies those tissues that are currently regulated under part 1270, including, for example, such tissues as corneas, bone, and skin. This represents the subgroup of human cells, tissues, and cellular and tissue-based products for which this final rule will first go into effect. Paragraph (d)(2) of § 1271.3 provides the broader definition of HCT/P and includes those HCT/P's described in paragraph (d)(1) as well as such additional HCT/P's as reproductive cells and tissues, hematopoietic stem cells, and cells and tissues currently regulated as drugs, devices, and/or biological products. The definition in paragraph (d)(2) of § 1271.3 will eventually replace paragraph (d)(1), as described below.</P>

        <P>The effective date of § 1271.3(d)(1) is 75 days after the publication of this rule. The entire definition of HCT/P in § 1271.3(d)(2) is effective 2 years after the publication of this final rule in the<E T="04">Federal Register</E>. The effect of this action is to make this final regulation applicable first to those HCT/P's currently regulated under part 1270, and later to the complete range of HCT/P's defined in § 1271.3(d)(2). When all of the regulations that make up part 1271 are final and have superseded part 1270, we will revoke § 1271(d)(1) and renumber (d)(2) as a conforming amendment. At that time the new regulatory framework contained in part 1271 will be instituted as a whole.</P>
        <HD SOURCE="HD2">D. Other Highlights of This Final Rule</HD>
        <P>This final rule contains other changes from the proposed rule. Among these changes are the following:</P>
        <P>• We have broadened “family-related allogeneic use,” as used in proposed § 1271.10, to include first-degree and second-degree blood relatives.</P>
        <P>• We have modified the definition of “homologous use.”</P>
        <P>• We have replaced the phrase “combined with or modified by the addition of a drug or a device” in § 1271.10 with new language.</P>
        <P>• We have deleted the phrase “pending scheduled” from the exception in § 1271.15(d) for establishments that only receive or store HCT/P's.</P>
        <P>• We have added an exception for establishments that only recovers reproductive cells or tissues for immediate transfer into a sexually intimate partner of the cell or tissue donor. (§ 1271.15(e)).</P>
        <HD SOURCE="HD1">III. Comments on the Proposed Rule and FDA's Responses</HD>
        <P>We received 28 comments on the proposed rule as it was published in 1998. We received over 400 comments on the donor-suitability proposed rule; many of these raised issues related to subparts A and B of part 1271.</P>
        <HD SOURCE="HD2">A. General Comments</HD>
        <P>(Comment 1) Many comments expressed general approval of the rule. One comment stated that the proposed rule addresses the public health needs for regulation in this area, helping to assure an adequate supply of safe and functional products without imposing unnecessary regulatory burdens or inhibitions to progress. Another comment, in support of registration, noted the importance of establishing a known data base of the industry. Another comment stated that creation of an official inventory of establishments subject to FDA regulation is important to determine the actual level of compliance and to develop reliable estimates of the cost of enforcement.</P>
        <P>We acknowledge and appreciate these supportive comments. The new regulation on registration and listing will increase our knowledge and understanding of the HCT/P industry and will enable us to monitor industry developments and communicate with industry members. This final rule will enhance our compliance efforts in protecting the public from the spread of communicable diseases, when the remaining tissue regulations become effective.</P>
        <P>(Comment 2) Some comments objected to the development of a comprehensive regulatory system. One of these comments objected that the approach is based on potential, not actual, concerns, is more applicable to new products than to such tissues as corneal tissue offered for transplant, and is unnecessary in light of quality assurance programs established by professional organizations.</P>
        <P>We believe that this new regulatory program for HCT/P's, when it is in place, will be superior to the confusing patchwork of requirements that it will replace. We have created a simple registration system with uniform requirements for all HCT/P's and a one-page registration and listing form. The procedures in subpart B of part 1271 will be followed by all HCT/P establishments, along with those in proposed subparts C and D of part 1271. Together, they are intended to establish a communicable disease prevention program necessary to protect the public health.</P>
        <P>In developing and issuing the registration rule, we have recognized that, because all HCT/P's are derived from the human body, they share certain common characteristics, among other things the ability to transmit infectious diseases. Thus, basic requirements such as registration, communicable disease screening and testing, and GTP's may reasonably be applied to all HCT/P's. However, we have also recognized that within the larger group of HCT/P's, certain products may present a greater degree of risk, and that these HCT/P's should be subject to additional premarket requirements.</P>

        <P>With this tiered, risk-based approach, we will be putting in place a set of baseline requirements for all HCT/P's, while recognizing that different HCT/P's may present different concerns. As the comment points out, some concerns may be more applicable to new products than to such tissues as corneal tissue offered for transplant. We have identified criteria corresponding to the types of reduced risks that certain products may present. HCT/P's that do not meet all of these criteria will be regulated under the act and/or section 351 of the PHS Act (subject to subsequent effective dates). On the other hand, most HCT/P's, including cadaveric corneas, will be regulated solely under the communicable disease authority of section 361 of the PHS Act<PRTPAGE P="5451"/>and the regulations that will make up part 1271.</P>
        <P>When implemented, the registration, donor-suitability, and GTP regulations are intended to reduce the risk of transmission of communicable disease by HCT/P's. The donor-suitability proposed rule incorporates and expands upon many of the requirements for human tissue intended for transplantation in part 1270. The part 1270 requirements were put into place to prevent the transmission of human immunodeficiency virus and hepatitis through the transplantation of tissue from domestic and foreign sources, “Human Tissue Intended for Transplantation,” final rule (62 FR 40429, July 29, 1997).</P>
        <P>Registration and listing are crucial components of a regulatory program to increase the safety of HCT/P's. Indeed, the United States General Accounting Office (GAO) has urged the agency to put a program in place in response to the potential transmission of infectious diseases from cell and tissue donors to recipients, GAO, “Human Tissue Banks, FDA Taking Steps to Improve Safety, but Some Concerns Remain” (December 1997).</P>
        <P>We recognize the importance of voluntary quality assurance programs, and we respect the efforts and accomplishments of professional organizations. We have considered the efforts of professional organizations, and we will continue to do so as we implement the new regulations. However, not all HCT/P establishments belong to or are accredited by such groups, and voluntary programs are not enforceable.</P>
        <P>(Comment 3) Another comment stated that we should finalize the registration rule as soon as possible, without waiting for the other rules.</P>
        <P>We agree that there are benefits to publishing the registration final rule in advance of the other final rules, and we are doing so. However, as discussed earlier in this document, we are staggering the regulation's effective dates. Under this approach, we will be able to promptly begin receiving registration and listing information for HCT/P's currently subject to part 1270.</P>
        <P>(Comment 4) One comment asserted that we should identify those tissues and entities subject to part 1271 that are not currently subject to part 1270, and initiate rulemaking to broaden the coverage of the substantive regulations codified in part 1270.</P>
        <P>Rather than broaden the scope of the regulations in part 1270, we have earlier noted that we intend to replace part 1270 with the new regulations in part 1271 (donor-suitability proposed rule, 64 FR 52697). Revocation of part 1270 will occur at the time the GTP final rule becomes effective. We have earlier made clear (64 FR 52697 to 52698) that the new rules in part 1271, when complete, will be broader in scope than those in part 1270, will impose additional testing and screening requirements, and will cover more establishments and HCT/P's (e.g., hematopoietic stem cells, reproductive tissue). Thus, it is not necessary to initiate rulemaking to broaden the coverage of the regulations in part 1270.</P>
        <P>(Comment 5) One comment asked the agency to clarify if it intends to require registered organizations to pass along any information the agency disseminates. Another comment counseled against depending on a secondary dissemination system, from those required to register to those with whom they interact who are not required to register, to get educational information to all of the tissue community.</P>
        <P>We are not imposing a specific information-dissemination requirement at this time. The only members of the tissue community who would be subject to the rules in part 1271 and who are not required to register are those individuals who recover cells or tissue under contract, agreement, or other arrangement with a registered establishment, but who perform no other manufacturing step (except for sending the cells or tissue to the registered establishment). These individuals would be subject to the other requirements that will be contained in part 1271, when complete, and the establishments for whom they perform their services would be responsible for their work. (This exception is discussed in greater detail below.) Therefore, we believe that if we distribute information to registered establishments, we will be reaching the whole of the affected tissue community.</P>
        <P>(Comment 6) One comment expressed concern that the proposed rule failed to identify the party ultimately responsible for the tissue or for the decisions required in the process of determining donor and tissue suitability.</P>
        <P>We have addressed the question of responsibility in the GTP proposed rule.</P>
        <P>(Comment 7) Several comments raised the issue of dispute resolution, particularly with respect to questions about homologous use and minimal manipulation. One of these comments urged us to develop and follow a process for resolving disputes in a prompt and efficient manner. One comment recommended that the Tissue Reference Group (TRG) serve as the forum for resolving any disagreements that arise with regard to the application of definitions.</P>
        <P>We recognize that, as we implement this new regulation, there will be areas in which additional guidance may be desirable or interpretations may differ. To help answer questions about how a particular HCT/P will be regulated, the agency developed the TRG. If an establishment is not sure how its HCT/P may be regulated, it should contact the TRG.</P>
        <P>The TRG provides a single reference point and makes recommendations to the Center Directors regarding regulation of specific HCT/P's, e.g., regulation solely under section 361 of the PHS Act or additionally under the act and/or section 351 of PHS Act. The TRG is composed of: (1) Three representatives from the Center for Biologics Evaluation and Research (CBER), including the product jurisdictional officer; (2) three representatives from the Center for Devices and Radiological Health (CDRH), including the product jurisdictional officer; and (3) a liaison from the agency's Office of the Chief Mediator and Ombudsman (OCMO), a nonvoting member. Other FDA staff attend the TRG meetings as needed to discuss issues related to products in their area of expertise. Further information about the TRG can be found on CBER's website at http://www.fda.gov/cber/tissue/trg.htm.</P>
        <P>In some cases, a product regulated under the act will fall under the jurisdiction of more than one agency component, e.g., a combination device and biological product. Where the agency component with primary jurisdiction is unclear or in dispute, a sponsor may request designation from the product jurisdiction officer, who is the FDA Ombudsman, as detailed in 21 CFR part 3. In addition, the OCMO can assist in resolving disputes with the agency that may arise from decisions made by the Center Directors regarding the regulation of HCT/P's, after consideration of TRG recommendations, as described above.</P>

        <P>In addition, we recognize that further public discussion of how tissue regulation would be applied to certain categories of human cells, tissues, and cellular and tissue-based products may be warranted due to the complexity or sensitivity of the issues. For example, we held a public meeting on August 2, 2000, to discuss how proposed definitions for “minimally manipulated” and “homologous use” should be applied to human bone allograft products (65 FR 44485, July 18, 2000). We intend to provide further opportunities for public discussion of<PRTPAGE P="5452"/>how the regulatory approach should be applied to other HCT/P's. We anticipate that there may be additional needs for discussion through public meetings, public hearings, or guidance as we implement the new regulations.</P>
        <P>(Comment 8) One comment asserted that we have published no document describing the TRG's current composition, authoritative status, procedures, whether its decisions are or will be made public, or how industry is expected to communicate with the group. The comment also suggested that we should consider making the TRG's policy decisions routinely available to the public.</P>
        <P>We appreciate these comments and are committed to working on the issues raised. Among other things, the TRG is looking into mechanisms for increasing the transparency of its functions, while still protecting confidential information. Information about the TRG can be found on CBER's website at http://www.fda.gov/cber/tissue/trg.htm.</P>
        <P>(Comment 9) Several comments asserted that we are proposing to regulate the practice of medicine, especially with respect to reproductive tissue and hematopoietic stem cells.</P>
        <P>We disagree with this comment. This final rule sets out registration and listing requirements for establishments that recover, process, store, label, package, or distribute HCT/P's, or screen or test cell and tissue donors. HCT/P's, including hematopoietic stem cells and reproductive tissues, fall within our jurisdiction. Some HCT/P's will be regulated under the act and/or the PHS Act, while other HCT/P's will be effectively regulated solely by regulations issued under our authority to prevent the spread of communicable disease. We are not attempting to govern practitioners' use of HCT/P's, but rather to ensure that HCT/P's that would be used by practitioners in their treatment of patients are in compliance with applicable regulations, including regulations designed to prevent the transmission or spread of communicable disease.</P>
        <P>(Comment 10) We received several comments on our proposed regulation of hematopoietic stem cells. One comment supported the proposal that all establishments involved with hematopoietic stem cell therapy register with FDA. Two comments asserted that the proposed regulation would jeopardize patient treatment, impede the development of new therapies, and increase the costs of treatment. One comment asserted that we lack the legal authority to regulate intrastate hematopoietic stem cell transplants. Another comment argued that clinical research involving the use of blood or bone marrow transplantation for treatment of human diseases, but not involving an investigational drug or device, should not require an investigational new drug application or investigational device exemption. This comment further requested the development of simplified procedures for evaluating those investigational devices or cellular biologic products that are more than minimally manipulated. Two comments argued that there is no need for FDA regulation as industry standards suffice and FDA requirements would be duplicative.</P>

        <P>We believe that it is necessary to bring the regulation of hematopoietic stem cells in line with the regulation of other HCT/P's, and that we possess the legal authority to take this action. Like other HCT/P's, hematopoietic stem cells may transmit communicable diseases; thus, the basic communicable disease prevention requirements that will be contained in part 1271, including these registration and listing requirements, are as relevant to these cells as to any other HCT/P's. Intrastate activities involving hematopoietic stem cells, as well as other HCT/P's, can be regulated to prevent the interstate spread of communicable diseases under section 361 of the PHS Act. (See<E T="03">Louisiana</E>v.<E T="03">Mathews</E>, 427 F. Supp. 174, 176 (E.D. La. 1977).) The GAO has cited the lack of regulation of hematopoietic stem cells as a significant gap in our oversight, and urged us to proceed with implementing new regulations that would cover hematopoietic stem cells. We are now closing that gap.</P>
        <P>Although we applaud the development of industry standards noted by the comments received, such standards are not followed by all HCT/P establishments. Moreover, voluntary standards differ significantly from enforceable regulations. We cannot take enforcement actions to ensure compliance with voluntary industry standards and thus would be limited in our ability to protect the public health if we relied on such standards alone. Establishments that comply with industry standards, however, should have little trouble adapting their practices to the new requirements. Thus, any additional burden should be minimal.</P>

        <P>Rather than require data submission from each hematopoietic stem cell establishment, we have considered the development of standards for certain stem cell products. On January 20, 1998 (63 FR 2985), we published a notice in the<E T="04">Federal Register</E>requesting the submission of proposed standards and supporting data relating to certain stem cell products by January 20, 2000, entitled “Request for Proposed Standards for Unrelated Allogeneic Peripheral and Placental/Umbilical Cord Blood Hematopoietic Stem/Progenitor Cell Products.” Later, we extended the deadline for submitting data to July 17, 2000 (65 FR 20825, April 18, 2000).</P>
        <P>(Comment 11) One comment generally agreed with our proposal to require registration for certain reproductive tissue, but requested several clarifications and exceptions. Several comments questioned the need for the regulation of reproductive cells and tissues, citing current oversight from professional organizations, other Federal agencies, and States. Comments opposed registration for programs involved in egg donation, egg retrieval, semen processing, semen evaluation, or in vitro fertilization (IVF) in assisted reproductive technologies. One comment asserted that a large number of medical practitioners who perform inseminations would not be included in this new regulation, lessening their effectiveness. Another comment asserted that programs that manufacture tissue culture products for the growth of oocytes and sperm for sale should be required to register, but IVF programs making culture medium for their own uses should be exempt.</P>
        <P>We stand by our decision to extend regulatory requirements to reproductive cells and tissue. Currently, FDA does not have regulations in place to address the infectious disease risk of donating, processing, and storing reproductive cells and tissue. Because there has been no registration or listing requirement, we have not had accurate information about the industry. We agree with the GAO that extending regulation to reproductive cells and tissues will remedy a significant gap in oversight.</P>

        <P>Although we recognize the value of professional efforts to self-regulate, and of regulatory efforts of other agencies and the States, we disagree that these piecemeal, often voluntary, efforts are adequate. Nor will the new regulations in part 1271 be duplicative. State regulation varies from State to State and does not consistently address our concerns about the transmission of communicable disease. The model certification program for embryo laboratories developed by the Centers for Disease Control and Prevention (CDC) is a voluntary program that States may or may not choose to adopt; its primary focus is not on preventing the transmission of communicable disease. No State has yet adopted CDC's model certification program. Membership in professional societies is voluntary.<PRTPAGE P="5453"/>Moreover, many establishments do not report to the Society for Assisted Reproductive Technology. The Clinical Laboratories Improvement Amendment of 1988 (CLIA) covers clinical laboratory testing, including certain procedures performed in embryo laboratories; however, as discussed later in this document, CLIA certification is not equivalent to the requirements we are putting in place.</P>
        <P>We disagree that establishments that only deal with egg donation, retrieval, semen processing, or IVF should be exempt from the new regulations. These activities are vital to the handling of reproductive tissues. Performing these activities appropriately in order to prevent cross-contamination and mix-ups requires proper recordkeeping, storage practices, and accountability. Moreover, registration of these establishments is consistent with agency practice in other areas; e.g., establishments where only blood donation or processing occurs are required to register.</P>
        <P>As discussed later in this document, however, this final rule contains a new exception for certain reproductive tissue establishments that perform only certain limited activities that raise limited communicable disease concerns. Under the exception, an establishment that only recovers reproductive cells or tissue for immediate transfer into a sexually intimate partner of the cell or tissue donor is not required to comply with the requirements that will be contained in part 1271, including registration and listing.</P>
        <P>With respect to the comment about tissue culture media, these products are not considered HCT/P's. Rather, embryo culture media and other such products are regulated as medical devices by FDA, and establishments that manufacture embryo culture media are subject to the device regulations.</P>
        <P>(Comment 12) Several comments responded to our discussion of regulating dura mater and human heart valve allografts as 361 HCT/P's rather than as devices, if they meet the criteria in § 1271.10 (63 FR 26744 at 26747). Three comments supported the regulation of heart valves as 361 HCT/P's. One comment suggested that, to prevent a regulatory “open window,” the regulatory change should not take place until GTP requirements are effective or other steps are taken. One comment asked whether the transfer of heart valves would be reflected in a codified regulation. A fourth comment supported regulating dura mater as a 361 HCT/P and strongly suggested that “special controls” be included in the GTP requirements. No comments objected to regulating heart valve allografts and dura mater as 361 HCT/P's.</P>
        <P>We agree that we should avoid an “open window” where possible. Therefore, we have staggered effective dates for this rule to prevent such an outcome. We do not intend to begin regulating human heart valve allografts and dura mater that meet the criteria in § 1271.10 as 361 HCT/P's until the donor-suitability and GTP components of part 1271 become effective, or other appropriate steps have been taken. The GTP proposed rule contains special requirements for dura mater intended to address the communicable disease concerns about that product. Because § 1271.10 contains the criteria for regulation of HCT/P's as 361 HCT/P's, and we are now reiterating our view that heart valves meeting those criteria will not be regulated as devices, we do not intend to issue a separate regulation to change regulatory authority on that specific point.</P>
        <P>(Comment 13) One comment suggested that we consider voluntary accreditation and inspection programs in implementing our regulatory strategy. The comment further requested that we accord “deemed status” to certain accredited facilities.</P>
        <P>We are exploring various options for inspections and compliance actions to enforce the new regulations. Among other ideas, we are looking into those suggested by this comment, including the legal issues raised. At present, we have in place a tiered inspection approach to enforce the regulations in part 1270 that takes into consideration such factors as professional accreditation. We intend to provide a more detailed discussion of our regulatory intentions after consideration of comments to the GTP proposed rule.</P>
        <P>(Comment 14) One comment noted that tissue recovery is frequently performed by organ procurement organizations, and that the requirements with regard to the prevention of infectious disease transmission are appropriately much less stringent for organ donation than are comparable requirements for tissues. The comment asserted that exempting these organizations from regulation would immeasurably weaken the public health protection provided by this regulation.</P>
        <P>An organ procurement organization that also recovers cells or tissues in addition to organs is not exempt from these regulations, and must register with the agency and follow all other regulations applicable to its actions with respect to HCT/P's. An organ procurement establishment is not required to submit a list of the vascularized human organs for transplantation that it recovers, because these organs are not covered by the definition of HCT/P (see § 1271.3(d)(2)(i)). However, such an organization must list with the agency any HCT/P's that fall within the scope of part 1271 that the organization recovers or otherwise manufactures.</P>
        <HD SOURCE="HD2">B. Comments on Subpart A of Part 1271: Definitions</HD>
        <P>We received comments on many of the proposed definitions in § 1271.3(a) through (h). We did not receive comments on the definitions of “autologous” and “transfer.” We address many of these comments below. Comments on the definitions of “homologous use” and “minimal manipulation” are addressed in section III.C of this document.</P>
        <P>(Comment 15) The definition of<E T="03">establishment</E>in proposed § 1271.3(b) reads as follows:</P>
        
        <EXTRACT>
          <P>
            <E T="03">Establishment</E>means a place of business under one management, at one general physical location, that engages in the manufacture of human cellular or tissue-based products. The term includes, among others, facilities that engage in contract manufacturing services for a manufacturer of human cellular or tissue-based products. The term also includes any individual partnership, corporation, association, or other legal entity engaged in the manufacture of human cellular or tissue-based products,<E T="03">except that an individual engaged solely in the procurement or recovery of cells or tissues or under contract to a registered establishment is not required to independently register</E>(emphasis added).</P>
        </EXTRACT>
        
        <P>Comments raised issues about the proposed exception in the last sentence of the definition. Some comments asserted that individuals or organizations engaged solely in procurement under contract should be required to register. One comment pointed to the critical role in the suitability assessment of a cell and tissue donor that such organizations play. Another comment asserted that registration and listing should be applied to those who screen donors and that procurement of tissue that is not done in an aseptic manner places tissue recipients at risk. One comment expressed confusion about the exception and suggested that “or under contract” should read “and under contract.” This comment further suggested that individuals and other legal entities engaged solely in procurement or recovery be required to register unless contracted for that activity to a registered establishment.</P>

        <P>Three comments argued for an expanded exception. One comment urged us to clarify that the “under<PRTPAGE P="5454"/>contract to” language can apply to other contracting individuals, not just to contractors engaged in procurement or recovery (e.g., sales representatives who distribute HCT/P's). Two other comments requested clarification that clinical laboratories who perform testing are excluded from the registration and listing requirements.</P>
        <P>We have rewritten the exception and moved it to § 1271.15(f). The relevant language now states:</P>
        
        <EXTRACT>
          <P>(f) You are not required to register or list your HCT/P's independently, but you must comply with all other applicable requirements in this part, if you are an individual under contract, agreement, or other arrangement with a registered establishment and engaged solely in recovering cells or tissues and sending the recovered cells or tissues to the registered establishment.</P>
        </EXTRACT>
        
        <P>We believe this new language addresses many of the comments' concerns. We have replaced “or under contract” with “and under contract, agreement, or other arrangement.” In addition, because “procurement” and “recovery” refer to the same action—the removal of cells or tissue from a donor—we have decided that it is redundant and possibly confusing to use both words. Instead, the exception now uses the term “recovery,” the same term used in the definition of “manufacture” in § 1271.3(e). Therefore, the exception only applies to those individuals engaged solely in recovery of HCT/P's and who are under contract, agreement, or other arrangement with a registered establishment. We believe this is an appropriate way of easing the regulatory burden on individuals while ensuring the protection of the public health.</P>
        <P>This exception does not extend to an individual who does more than recover tissue and send it to the contracting establishment. (Thus, for example, an individual engaged in any aspect of donor screening is not covered by the exception and must register.) Further, an individual who meets the terms of the exception would be excepted only from registration and listing requirements and would be required to comply with all other requirements to be contained in part 1271.</P>
        <P>We are not extending the exception to “other legal entities.” Only individuals are covered. Examples of such individuals not required to register might include certain medical examiners, morticians, or physicians who recover hematopoietic stem cells or tissues (e.g., corneas, cord blood). Laboratories that perform donor testing are not excluded from registration, listing, or other requirements in part 1271.</P>
        <P>(Comment 16) We proposed to define<E T="03">family-related allogeneic use</E>in proposed § 1271.3(c) as “the implantation, transplantation, infusion, or transfer of a human cellular or tissue-based product into a first-degree blood relative of the individual from whom cells or tissue comprising such product were removed.” Under § 1271.10(d), as proposed, HCT/P's with a systemic effect that are for family-related allogeneic use would be regulated under section 361 of the PHS Act (provided that the HCT/P meets all other criteria set out in § 1271.10). This limited exception from the requirement for investigational use exemptions and premarketing submissions was first proposed in the proposed approach (62 FR 9721). In the registration proposed rule, we specifically requested further comments on the issue (63 FR 26744 at 26750).</P>
        <P>We received approximately 13 comments on our proposed definition of “family-related allogeneic use,” most from individuals and organizations involved in hematopoietic stem cell transplantation. One comment praised the proposed definition as clearer and more consistent than that used in the proposed approach, but cautioned that our terminology might create confusion. Other comments argued that we should expand the definition to more distantly related family members. Several comments suggested that the term include all ancestral relations, siblings, and collateral relations to the fourth degree by blood, marriage, or adoption. Another comment objected to distinguishing between family-related donors and other donors, stating that the same principles apply in both situations. This comment argued that the clinical use of unrelated versus related allogeneic transplants falls within the practice of medicine and should not be regulated by FDA.</P>
        <P>We have decided to change the term from “family-related allogeneic use” to “allogeneic use in a first-degree or second-degree blood relative.” Parents, children, and siblings are considered first-degree relatives. Aunts, uncles, nieces, nephews, first cousins, grandparents, and grandchildren are second-degree relatives. Relations by adoption or marriage are not included. Because we are using the phrase “first-degree or second-degree blood relative” in its ordinary sense, the final regulation does not contain a definition of this phrase.</P>
        <P>Our decision to broaden the scope of related donors to include second-degree blood relatives, rather than just first-degree, is based upon several factors. In the absence of a human leukocyte antigen (HLA) identical sibling, the search for donors in extended families is occurring now to a very limited degree, but is likely to increase with the continuing advances in deoxyribonucleic acid technology. The likelihood of finding a donor with a haplotype identical to that of the recipient is greater among blood-related individuals than among unrelated individuals. Indeed, statistical methods have been proposed to measure this probability (Refs. 2 and 3).</P>
        <P>In addition, for certain ethnic groups, it is extremely difficult to find an appropriate unrelated donor. Success at finding a match among the extended family can be equal to or even greater than the chance of finding a match using a single sibling search, if the haplotype is a common one within the patient's ethnic population, and the family members are of the same ethnic origin.</P>
        <P>Registry outcome data for some hematologic malignancies suggest that peripheral blood and bone marrow transplant recipients may have a better survival rate when transplanted with hematopoietic stem cells from related donors. One possible reason is that a related donor is likely to share identical haplotypes with the patient (the genotypic level), whereas an unrelated donor is matched at the phenotypic level. Also, family donors may be better matched for minor histocompatability loci for which testing is not routinely performed.</P>

        <P>We initially proposed a more limited exception. Having reviewed the comments on this issue, we believe there is some scientific merit in expanding the exception to second-degree blood relatives. This change is consistent with our goal of keeping regulatory burden to a minimum. The same scientific justification does not exist for expanding the exception to relatives by marriage or adoption, and is weaker for blood relatives beyond the second degree. In addition, the exception in § 1271.10(a)(4)(ii)(<E T="03">b</E>) for allogeneic use in a first-degree or second-degree blood relative does not extend to those situations where the HCT/P is more than minimally manipulated, is advertised, labeled or otherwise objectively intended by the manufacturer for a nonhomologous use, or is combined with a drug or device (except as described in § 1271.10(a)(3)).</P>

        <P>(Comment 17) One of the comments on “family-related allogeneic use” asserted that, in the context of reproductive medicine, the notion of appropriate use of family-related materials must include the close blood relatives of either partner. This<PRTPAGE P="5455"/>comment proposed that those facilities collecting or using reproductive tissues from sexually intimate partners or close relatives should not be required to register.</P>
        <P>Later in this document, we address the question of registration for reproductive tissue facilities. The change in terminology from “family-related allogeneic use” to “allogeneic use in first-degree or second-degree blood relatives” does not affect the registration of reproductive tissue establishments.</P>

        <P>(Comment 18) Several comments objected to the word “product” in the term<E T="03">human cellular or tissue-based product</E>, defined in proposed § 1271.3(e). These comments asserted that human cells and tissues are donations, not goods manufactured for sale. Some comments argued that the use of the word “product” might have legal implications; e.g., subjecting eye banks to inappropriate product liability litigation. Comments also noted that the word “product” is inconsistent with terms used in the tissue and eye banking field. We also received an objection to describing embryos and germ cells as “products.”</P>
        <P>In choosing “human cellular or tissue-based product,” we were seeking a term that would describe everything that will be subject to the regulations in part 1271. We needed a term broad enough to cover both cells and tissues, and one that would include within its scope such diverse articles as unprocessed tissue, highly processed cells, and tissues that are combined with certain drugs or devices. Although we have considered removing the word “product” from the definition, we are concerned that another term (e.g., “human cells and tissues”) would not be understood to include many of the highly manufactured products to which the regulations apply, or might be misconstrued to apply only to the cell or tissue component of such a product. Moreover, the term “product” is consistent with the language of the statutes under which we operate; for example, blood (which is also routinely donated) is a “biological product” under section 351 of the PHS Act. We do not believe that the use of the word “product” will affect the manner in which state laws apply to HCT/P's; our experience with the regulation of blood and blood products supports this view.</P>
        <P>We recognize, however, that conceptual difficulties may arise in calling certain cells or tissues “products.” Thus, as noted earlier in this document, we have expanded the term to “human cells, tissues, and cellular and tissue-based products,” abbreviated as “HCT/P's.” We have made appropriate substitutions throughout the regulation. The definition itself has not changed, and the scope of the term remains the same.</P>
        <P>Proposed § 1271.3(e) has been redesignated as § 1271.3(d)(2).</P>
        <P>(Comment 19) One comment stated that the proposed rule leaves vague peripheral blood lymphocytes that are not cultured or manipulated, but are used for their immunological effects for the treatment of disease. According to the comment, the definition in proposed § 1271.3(e)(2) (final§ 1271.3(d)(2)(ii)) implies that these cells are subject to regulation under 21 CFR part 607. The comment recommends that these cells be specifically included in this proposal and not be considered mature blood cells subject to regulation under other sections of title 21 of the CFR.</P>
        <P>We believe that the commenter is addressing donor lymphocytes (leukocytes) for infusion (DLI), which are the lymphocyte-rich cellular fractions obtained by leukapheresis of the peripheral blood of donors of bone marrow or peripheral blood hematopoietic stem/progenitor cells. Many DLI products are not further manipulated. These minimally manipulated products are administered to select patients to elicit a graft-versus-leukemia effect and to treat other transplant-associated complications.</P>
        <P>DLI, regardless of the level of manipulation, meet the definition of HCT/P in this rule. FDA intends to regulate all DLI as HCT/P's, rather than as traditional blood products.</P>
        <P>(Comment 20) One comment on proposed § 1271.3(e) requested clarification that an extract would not fall under the definition of human cellular or tissue-based product. The comment noted that the words “any cell or tissue-based component of such a product” may imply that an extract could fall within the definition.</P>
        <P>We do not consider extracts to be HCT/P's. When we revised the definition of human cellular or tissue-based product in the donor-suitability proposed rule (64 FR 52696 at 52719), we deleted the phrase “or any cell or tissue-based component of such a product.” Moreover, we listed “any secreted or extracted human products” as an exception to the definition of HCT/P in proposed § 1271.3(e)(3). These changes are codified in this rule at § 1271.3(d)(2)(iii).</P>
        <P>(Comment 21) One comment on proposed § 1271.3(e)(4) objected to the exclusion of bone marrow from the definition of HCT/P, since all three sources of hematopoietic stem cells (cord, peripheral blood, bone marrow) have the same risk of infectious disease transmission.</P>
        <P>Minimally manipulated bone marrow falls under the purview of the Health Resources and Services Administration (section 379 of the PHS Act (42 U.S.C. 274(k)). For this reason, we have excepted it from the definition of HCT/P's, and thus from the scope of this regulation issued under section 361 of the PHS Act authority.</P>
        <P>The exception for bone marrow in final § 1271.3(d)(2)(iv) extends only to “minimally manipulated bone marrow for homologous use and not combined with a drug or a device (except for a sterilizing, preserving, or storage agent, if the addition of the agent does not raise new clinical safety concerns with respect to the bone marrow).” Bone marrow would meet the definition of an HCT/P if it is: More than minimally manipulated; advertised, labeled, or otherwise objectively intended by the manufacturer for a nonhomologous use, or combined with certain drugs or devices.</P>

        <P>(Comment 22) In the proposed rule, we stated in proposed § 1271.3(f) that “<E T="03">manufacture</E>means, but is not limited to, any or all steps in the recovery, screening, testing, processing, storage, labeling, packaging, or distribution of any human cellular or tissue-based product” (63 FR 26744 at 26754). Approximately 10 comments objected that the term “manufacture” is inappropriate. Some comments asserted that fertility clinics are not “manufacturers” of human tissue. Comments from the eye banks asserted that it is inaccurate to use the word “manufacture” with respect to corneal tissue; along with “product,” the term could raise legal issues (e.g., subjecting eye banks to inappropriate product liability litigation). Another comment asserted that tissue banks do not manufacture tissue, but rather process it.</P>

        <P>We have considered substituting a different term for “manufacture,” but have been unable to find a satisfactory replacement. Most of the terms that we considered (e.g., produce, handle) were too limited in scope. Moreover, comments that objected to the term did not suggest alternatives. For these reasons, we continue to use the word “manufacture” as an umbrella term to capture the many different actions that HCT/P establishments might take in preparing HCT/P's for use. These steps may include, but are not limited to, recovery, screening, testing, processing, storage, labeling, packaging, and distribution. No comments disagreed with or objected to any of the actions listed in the definition of manufacture.<PRTPAGE P="5456"/>Rather than list each of these activities repeatedly throughout this preamble and the regulation, we have decided to maintain the term “manufacture,” as defined in this rule (proposed § 1271.3(f) is codified at § 1271.3(e)).</P>
        <P>(Comment 23) One comment on<E T="03">manufacture</E>questioned the rationale for requiring testing establishments to register. Three comments asserted that testing laboratories should not be required to register because CLIA certification is sufficient. One comment asked if labs that test for other diseases or that perform bacterial cultures need to register.</P>
        <P>The definition of “manufacture” is intended to cover all steps in the process of handling HCT/P's. Testing donors for communicable diseases is a critical step in this process and for that reason is included the definition of manufacture. The registration requirement for testing laboratories enables us to have a list of all parties involved in manufacturing activities.</P>
        <P>Having a list of testing laboratories enables us to inspect laboratories to ensure that testing is performed in a correct manner according to test kit instructions. The CLIA certification referred to in the comments is important, and in fact we are requiring CLIA certification. However, because there are differences between inspections under CLIA and inspections carried out by FDA, CLIA certification alone is not adequate for our purposes. CLIA requirements address only a limited spectrum of laboratory testing and personnel requirements and do not focus on donor testing. Moreover, our experience with inspecting testing laboratories indicates that significant violations have been found. To exclude testing laboratories from the scope of this regulation would not be consistent with our goal of preventing the transmission of communicable diseases.</P>
        <P>The registration requirement for testing laboratories extends to those laboratories that test donor specimens for communicable disease. Only laboratories that test for relevant communicable diseases as defined in the proposed donor-suitability rule are required to register. We have clarified the definition of “manufacture” to refer to “screening or testing of the cell or tissue donor” rather than to screening or testing of the cell or tissue. In the situation where communicable disease testing to determine donor suitability might be appropriately performed on the cells or tissues, rather than on the donor (as might be the situation with cord blood), such testing would be included within the meaning of donor testing.</P>
        <P>(Comment 24) One comment noted that entities engaged only in labeling and packaging are not explicitly within the scope of part 1270, but are covered by this new rule.</P>
        <P>Part 1271 covers more activities than part 1270.</P>

        <P>(Comment 25) In the preamble to the proposed rule, we noted that<E T="03">distribution</E>“includes any conveyance or shipment of human cellular or tissue-based product (including importation and exportation), whether or not such conveyance or shipment is entirely intrastate and whether or not possession of the human cellular or tissue-based product is taken” (63 FR 26750). We have proposed a codified definition of “distribution” in the GTP proposed rule.</P>
        <P>For purposes of the regulations in part 1271 only, we have proposed in the GTP rule to define “distribute” to mean the conveyance or shipment of an HCT/P. In other contexts, FDA has defined “distribution” more broadly. Under the act, FDA has interpreted the term “distribute” to include the delivery, transfer, and dispensing of products. Moreover, the ordinary, dictionary meaning of the term “distribute” includes acts such as delivering, dispensing, supplying, and giving out. In this rule, we do not intend the term to include the dispensing or the transfer of an HCT/P to or in a patient.</P>
        <P>Two comments on the registration proposed rule disagreed with the phrase “whether or not possession is taken.” They asserted that merely taking orders for a product should not be included within the meaning of “distribution,” and thus should be excluded from “manufacture.” One of these comments described its “service and distribution” agreement with a tissue processor, noting that although it does not ship or take possession of the product, its name appears on the product label along with that of the processor. A third comment recommended that the term “distributes” be clarified to exclude “distributors”; i.e., organizations that receive processed/manufactured allografts and ship them to hospitals. Another comment noted that hospitals and other establishments sometimes provide tissue to other institutions in emergencies or in cases of special need. The comment requested that these limited activities not be considered distribution.</P>
        <P>We agree that an entity that does not take possession of HCT/P's is not distributing them for the purposes of this rule. However, we disagree that distributors should be excluded from the terms of the definition of “distribution.” We agree that the occasional provision of HCT/P's to other institutions on an emergency basis does not fall within the meaning of “distribution.”</P>
        <P>We will consider any additional comments on the definition of “distribution” when finalizing the other proposed rules that will make up part 1271.</P>
        <HD SOURCE="HD2">C. Comments on Subpart A: Proposed §§ 1271.10 and 1271.15 (Final §§ 1271.10 and 1271.20)</HD>
        <P>In proposed § 1271.10, we set out the criteria for regulating certain HCT/P's solely under section 361 of the PHS Act and the regulations to be contained in part 1271. An HCT/P would be subject to this level of regulation if it: (1) Was minimally manipulated; (2) was not promoted or labeled for any use other than a homologous use; (3) was not combined with or modified by the addition of any component that is a drug or a device; and (4) either does not have a systemic effect, or has a systemic effect and is for autologous, family-related allogeneic, or reproductive use (64 FR 52720).</P>
        <P>Proposed § 1271.15 was intended to describe the HCT/P's that did not meet the criteria set out in § 1271.10 and for which we therefore did not consider regulation solely under section 361 of the PHS Act to be justified (64 FR 52699). The section set out the “mirror images” of the criteria in § 1271.10 to assist readers in understanding which HCT/P's would not be regulated solely under part 1271. However, rather than providing clarification, the proposed section could have been interpreted to create an additional hurdle for regulation of certain HCT/P's as drugs, devices, and/or biological products.</P>
        <P>Our ability to regulate an HCT/P as a drug, device, and/or biological product derives from the act and section 351 of the PHS Act, authorities that are distinct from our authority to issue regulations to prevent the transmission of communicable disease under section 361 of the PHS Act. If an HCT/P does not meet the criteria in § 1271.10 for regulation solely under section 361 of the PHS Act, and the establishment does not qualify for any of the exceptions in final § 1271.15, the HCT/P will be regulated under the act and/or the PHS Act and applicable regulations. As part of this rulemaking process, we are amending certain drug and device regulations (e.g., §§ 207.20, 807.20) to require compliance with certain subparts of part 1271.</P>

        <P>Therefore, we have modified proposed § 1271.15 and renumbered it § 1271.20. That section now refers to “an HCT/P that does not meet the<PRTPAGE P="5457"/>criteria set out in § 1271.10(a),” rather than setting out the mirror images of those criteria. As before, the section contains cross-references to those drug and device regulations (e.g., §§ 207.20 and 807.20) that will direct establishments to follow the procedures set out in subparts B, C, and D of part 1271. The section now also clarifies that the referenced drug and device regulations apply if the establishment does not qualify for any of the exceptions in § 1271.15.</P>
        <P>We address below the comments received on proposed § 1271.10 and on the proposed definitions of “homologous use” and “minimal manipulation.”</P>
        <P>(Comment 26) One comment requested that we schedule a public meeting to discuss the appropriateness, legality, and practicality of using the criteria in § 1271.10 to reach jurisdictional determinations.</P>
        <P>We value public input on the criteria in § 1271.10. In February 1997 we made available the proposed approach, which among other things described the factors that we would consider in choosing to regulate certain HCT/P's solely under the authority of section 361 of the PHS Act rather than as drugs, devices, and/or biological products. On March 17, 1997, we held a public meeting to solicit information and views on the proposed approach from the interested public, and we opened a docket for the submission of comments (Docket No. 97N-0068).</P>
        <P>We have published three proposed rules in the<E T="04">Federal Register</E>. Two of those rules specifically solicited comments on the criteria for regulating certain HCT/P's solely under section 361 of the PHS Act. On August 2, 2000, we held an open public meeting to solicit information on current practices related to the manipulation and homologous use of human bone allograft in the spine and other orthopedic reconstruction and repair. Many of the comments presented at the meeting indicated that there were misunderstandings about how the criteria set out in § 1271.10 would be applied, and about the meaning of the terms “minimal manipulation” and “homologous use.” This final rule contains clarifications and additional examples that we believe will clear up much of the confusion expressed at the meeting. We will consider issuing a guidance document if establishments need additional help in understanding the terms.</P>
        <P>We intend to schedule additional public meetings as necessary. For example, FDA believes that additional public discussion of how the criteria in § 1271.10 would apply to reproductive tissues would be helpful, and further development of policy in this area may be warranted.</P>

        <P>(Comment 27) We received numerous comments on the definition of<E T="03">minimal manipulation</E>. The proposed definition reads as follows:</P>
        
        <EXTRACT>
          <P>
            <E T="03">Minimal manipulation</E>means:</P>
          <P>(1) For structural tissue, processing that does not alter the original relevant characteristics of the tissue relating to the tissue's utility for reconstruction, repair, or replacement; and</P>
          <P>(2) For cells and nonstructural tissues, processing that does not alter the relevant biological characteristics of cells or tissues.</P>
        </EXTRACT>
        
        <P>One comment urged us to state in the preamble of the final rule those activities that FDA presently considers to be minimal manipulation. Two comments recommended that the following procedures be considered minimal manipulation: Selective removal of B-cells, T-cells, or malignant cells; blood or platelet depletion; centrifugation; density gradient separation; and cryopreservation. Two comments supported the use of clinical and scientific data to determine whether a tissue-processing method is appropriately considered to be minimal manipulation or more than minimal manipulation.</P>
        <P>Eight comments asserted that “minimal manipulation” is vague and open to subjective interpretation, and should be eliminated. Two comments asserted that it is difficult to draw a meaningful distinction between tissues that are minimally manipulated and those that are more than minimally manipulated. One of these comments suggested that instead of the minimal manipulation criterion, FDA should propose that tissue products labeled or promoted for tissue replacement, reconstruction, or restoration of function be regulated as tissue. Another comment requested the development of guidance and noted that, in light of future technological advances, a broader definition of minimal manipulation may be more appropriate. One comment recommended that the TRG serve as the liaison for communicating with manufacturers concerning FDA's intended application of the definition of minimal manipulation to particular tissues.</P>
        <P>We received many comments on the regulation of bone allografts, INCLUDING bone dowels, submitted in response to the donor-suitability proposed rule. (The agency had previously considered regulating certain bone dowels as medical devices.) Many of these comments addressed the concept of minimal manipulation. Several comments supported regulating machined bone allografts as medical devices in order to evaluate their safety and efficacy and protect the public health. However, most comments opposed such regulation, pointing to the long history of safe use of bone allografts and citing concerns about decreased supply, among other issues.</P>
        <P>Comments did not suggest changes to the definition of minimal manipulation, and we have not changed the regulation's wording. We disagree that the term should be eliminated, however, as it serves as a valid indicator of those HCT/P's that present fewer risks and that are most appropriately regulated solely under section 361 of the PHS Act and part 1271 (so long as other criteria are also met).</P>
        <P>We agree that the TRG will continue to play a role in providing recommendations for certain decisions made by the Center director interpreting the term “minimal manipulation.” At this time, examples of HCT/P's that we consider to be minimally manipulated include those that have been subjected to the following procedures: Density gradient separation; selective removal of B-cells, T-cells, malignant cells, red blood cells, or platelets; centrifugation; cutting, grinding, or shaping; soaking in antibiotic solution; sterilization by ethylene oxide treatment or irradiation; cell separation; lyophilization; cryopreservation; or freezing. We do not agree that the expansion of mesenchymal cells in culture or the use of growth factors to expand umbilical cord blood stem cells are minimal manipulation.</P>

        <P>Most of the comments we received on the regulation of bone allografts and bone dowels assumed that we planned to regulate all bone allografts as medical devices. This is a misunderstanding. We are not considering regulating all bone allografts as medical devices. Like all other HCT/P's, the regulation of bone allografts depends on the four factors set out in § 1271.10. If the allograft is minimally manipulated, is not advertised, labeled, or otherwise objectively intended by the manufacturer for a nonhomologous use, and is not combined with a drug or device (except as described in § 1271.10(a)(3)), then it will be regulated as a 361 HCT/P and subject only to the regulations in part 1271. (Bone allografts do not have a systemic effect, so the fourth factor is not at issue.) We consider cutting, shaping and grinding of bone minimal manipulation. Threading and other machining procedures that are performed to create bone dowels, screws, and pins are also considered minimal manipulation.<PRTPAGE P="5458"/>
        </P>
        <P>(Comment 28) We received many comments on the term<E T="03">homologous use</E>, which we defined in proposed § 1271.3(d) as follows:</P>
        
        <EXTRACT>
          <P>
            <E T="03">Homologous use</E>means the use of a cellular or tissue-based product for replacement or supplementation and:</P>
          <P>(1) For structural tissue-based products, occurs when the tissue is used for the same basic function that it fulfills in its native state, in a location where such structural function normally occurs; or</P>
          <P>(2) For cellular and nonstructural tissue-based products, occurs when the cells or tissue is used to perform the function(s) that they perform in the donor.</P>
        </EXTRACT>
        
        <P>One comment praised the definition as reasonable, but urged us to develop a process for resolving differences of opinion between FDA and tissue manufacturers. Another comment supported our preamble statement that the “[b]asic function of a structural tissue is what the tissue does from a biological/physiological point of view, or is capable of doing when in its native state” (63 FR 26744 at 26749). As an example, this comment pointed to surgical use of fascia lata or pericardium allografts to replace or repair damaged dura mater or to construct a bladder support sling from a fascia lata allograft to prevent incontinence. Another comment questioned whether the homologous/nonhomologous criterion is a meaningful indicator of the need for premarket review; this comment cited fascia lata as an example of a tissue that has been used safely and effectively for years in ways that may be considered nonhomologous. One comment in response to our statement (63 FR 26744 at 26749) that the use of hematopoietic stem cells for treatment of adrenal leukodystrophy is an example of nonhomologous use stated that logical application of hematopoietic stem cells for their known hematologic, immunologic or metabolic effects as treatment of human disease should be considered within the practice of medicine and not subject to regulation by FDA.</P>
        <P>Approximately 10 comments argued that the term “homologous use” should be eliminated. Many of these comments asserted that the term is vague and open to subjective interpretation. One comment stated that the phrase “fulfills in its native state” implies that tissue must be used in the identical place and for identical purposes, which ignores the realistic use of most tissue products. Many comments questioned the application of the term “homologous use” to bone allografts. One asserted that it is unusual for allograft tissues to be used in a homologous location, especially with regard to the spine.</P>
        <P>Below, in comment 29, we discuss our decision to look not at the actual use of an HCT/P, but at the manufactuer's objective intent for a nonhomologous use. Under this approach, a practitioner could use an HCT/P, such as hematopoietic stem cells or fascia lata, for a nonhomologous use in the treatment of the physician's patients. Thus, we would not look at the surgical use of HCT/P's such as fascia lata or pericardium allografts, but instead at whether they were advertised, labeled, or otherwise objectively intended by the manufacturer for a nonhomologous use. In the absence of advertising, labeling, or other indications of the manufacturer's intent for such use, we would not require premarket submissions. Should such review be required for a product that has been used safely and effectively for years in nonhomologous ways, and that is intended for a nonhomologous use, we would expect that data would already exist to facilitate the review process.</P>
        <P>We disagree that the term “homologous use” should be eliminated as a criterion for regulation of human cells or tissues under section 361 of the PHS Act. Regulation solely under section 361 and part 1271 is not warranted unless it is clearly demonstrated that the use of an HCT/P in the recipient is homologous to the function the HCT/P would carry out in the donor. We continue to consider nonhomologous use to be a meaningful indicator that regulation solely under section 361 of the PHS Act is not sufficient. For example, promotion of an HCT/P for an unproven therapeutic use, such as curing cancer, would clearly make it inappropriate to regulate the HCT/P solely under section 361 of the PHS Act and the regulations that will be in part 1271.</P>
        <P>We have, however, rewritten the definition of homologous use in response to the comments' concerns. The new definition (codified at § 1271.3(c)) reads: “Homologous use means the replacement or supplementation of a recipient's cells or tissues with an HCT/P that performs the same basic function or functions in the recipient as in the donor.” The rewording eliminates the distinction between, on the one hand, structural tissues and, on the other, nonstructural tissues and cells. The new wording does not include the statement that, for structural tissues, homologous use occurs “in a location where such structural function normally occurs.” This language was understood, contrary to our intention, to limit the use of structural tissue to the same location from which is was derived. However, a use of a structural tissue may be homologous even when it does not occur in the same location as it occurred in the donor. For example, the use of bone for repair, replacement, or reconstruction anywhere in the skeleton of the recipient (including the vertebral column) would be considered homologous use. However, it should be understood that, for the use of a structural tissue to be considered homologous, the HCT/P must perform the same basic function or functions in the recipient as it did in the donor; the use of structural tissue in a location where it does not perform the same basic function as it did in the donor would not be homologous.</P>
        <P>We intend to interpret “nonhomologous” narrowly. Examples of uses that would be considered nonhomologous include: The use of dermis as a replacement for dura mater, the use of amniotic membrane in the eye, and the use of cartilage in the bladder. As noted above, an HCT/P that is intended by the manufacturer for one of these uses would not be regulated solely under section 361 of the PHS Act and these regulations, but as a drug, device, and/or biological product.</P>
        <P>(Comment 29) We received approximately six comments agreeing with our focus in proposed § 1271.10(b) on the promotion or labeling of HCT/P's for nonhomologous uses, rather than on their actual use. One of these comments noted that the use of a product should be determined not by the practice of surgeons but by the promotion, labeling, and objective intent of the manufacturer. Another noted that the manner in which we intend to determine homologous use is consistent with the way we determine the intended use of other products under our jurisdiction. Two comments interpreted proposed § 1271.10(b) as relieving clinicians from restrictions on use of tissue, and one of these comments asserted that the exception should be extended to certain clinical transplant programs.</P>
        <P>Another supportive comment questioned how we will regulate the labeling of 361 HCT/P's. Among other things, the comment asked whether we will require 361 HCT/P's to be labeled for their homologous use. The comment also queried whether cutting, shaping, or processing a product in a manner that makes it amenable to nonhomologous use would be considered promotion, in the absence of labeling or advertising.</P>

        <P>We appreciate the comments on this issue, and we have decided to maintain the regulation's focus on the objective intent of the HCT/P's manufacturer for a nonhomologous use, rather than on<PRTPAGE P="5459"/>the intent of the practitioner who uses the HCT/P. We believe this approach will lead to more efficient use of our resources. The focus on labeling, advertising, and other indications of the manufacturer's objective intent does not relieve clinicians from all restrictions on the use of HCT/P's. However, it does mean that clinical use of an HCT/P in a nonhomologous manner, whether by an individual practitioner or a transplant program, can be consistent with regulation of the HCT/P solely under section 361 of the PHS Act and the regulations to be contained in part 1271. In order to clarify this provison, we are revising proposed § 1271.10(b) to read, in new § 1271.10(a)(2), as follows: “The HCT/P is intended for homologous use only, as reflected by the labeling, advertising, or other indications of the manufacturer's objective intent.</P>
        <P>By labeling, we refer to the HCT/P label and any written, printed, or graphic materials that supplement, explain, or are textually related to the product, and which are disseminated by or on behalf of its manufacturer. We will address specific labeling requirements after reviewing comments to the GTP proposed rule.</P>
        <P>In order to be more consistent with terminology used by the rest of the agency, we have replaced the word “promoted” with “advertised.” The terms “advertised,” “advertisement,” and “advertising” include information, other than labeling, that originates from the same source as the product and that is intended to supplement, explain, or be textually related to the product (e.g., print advertising, broadcast advertising, electronic advertising (including the Internet), statements of company representatives).</P>
        <P>(Comment 30) As originally proposed, § 1271.10(c) contained the following criterion for regulation of an HCT/P solely under section 361 of the PHS Act: “Not combined with or modified by the addition of any nontissue or noncellular component that is a drug or a device.” We modified that wording in the donor-suitability proposed rule by deleting the phrase “nontissue or noncellular.”</P>
        <P>Two comments questioned the meaning of § 1271.10(c) and requested additional explanation. For example, the comments asked whether we would regard a component as being a drug or device based on its actual function in the product, or based on how the component is already regulated. The comments also questioned whether all products containing a “nontissue or noncellular component that is a drug or device” would automatically be subject to regulation and premarket review as drugs or devices, and expressed concern that application of the criterion might result in unnecessary regulation of HCT/P's as drugs or devices. Another comment asserted that we should not regulate a product containing a drug or device component unless it could affect recipient safety, and that the manufacturer should make the initial determination of whether this threshold has been crossed. One comment stated that hematopoietic stem cell components are routinely processed using centrifuges and other laboratory equipment, combined with dimethylsulfoxide (DMSO) and other reagents for cryopreservation, and separated using devices approved for the processing of hematopoietic stem cells components, and that we have previously classified these steps as minimal manipulation. The comment expressed concern that these steps might be considered to combine the cells with a drug or device component.</P>
        <P>In response to the concerns expressed by these comments, we have rewritten the proposed language. Proposed § 1271.10(c) has been renumbered as § 1271.10(a)(3), and now reads: “The manufacture of the HCT/P does not involve the combination of the cell or tissue component with a drug or a device, except for a sterilizing, preserving, or storage agent, if the addition of the agent does not raise new clinical safety concerns with respect to the HCT/P.”</P>

        <P>The addition of a drug or a device to the cell or tissue component of an HCT/P may ordinarily be expected to add a therapeutic effect and may also raise safety concerns. For these reasons, the addition of a drug or a device to a cell or tissue makes it no longer appropriate to regulate the HCT/P solely under section 361 of the PHS Act. (As used, the terms<E T="03">drug</E>and<E T="03">device</E>are defined in section 201(g) of the act (21 U.S.C. 321(g)).</P>
        <P>However, we recognize that the use of certain sterilizing, preserving, and storage agents do not raise the same concerns. For this reason, we have excepted sterilizing, preserving, and storage agents, but only if the addition of the agent does not raise new clinical safety concerns with respect to the HCT/P. Examples of substances that would generally be acceptable include: (1) Cryoprotectants (e.g., DMSO); (2) chemicals used for sterilization (e.g., ethylene oxide); and (3) storage solutions. We encourage the development of industry standards that describe the safe use of sterilization, preserving, and storage agents.</P>
        <P>Some drugs or devices that have as their principal purpose sterilizing, preserving, or storage may also have a therapeutic effect or may be claimed to have such an effect. The addition of such drugs or devices would not fall within the exception for sterilizing, preserving, and storage agents. We agree that the establishment that manufactures the HCT/P should make the initial determination of whether the addition of a drug or device that is a sterilizing, preserving, or storage agent to an HCT/P raises new clinical safety concerns.</P>
        <P>(Comment 31) We received one comment in response to our request for comments on whether the term “systemic effect” adequately characterizes those HCT/P's that should be regulated under section 351 of the PHS Act, such as neural-derived tissues and cells used to replace or supplement neurons in the brain (donor suitability proposed rule, 64 FR 52699). This comment expressed concern that the intent of the proposed change is vague and that currently there is little or no evidence that supports such cells or tissues having any systemic effect when implanted in the brain.</P>
        <P>After further consideration, we agree that the term “systemic effect” may not cover all of the HCT/P's that we intended to cover. Because the effect of implanted neurons or neural tissue into the brain would likely be restricted to the site where the tissue/cells were placed, this effect might not be included within the meaning of systemic. However, as discussed in the proposed approach, HCT/P's that rely on living cells for their primary function, such as neuronal tissue, raise clinical safety and effectiveness concerns that are not appropriately addressed solely under section 361 of the PHS Act. Such concerns include viability, efficacy, malignant transformation, or rejection after transplantation. Thus, although neuronal cells may not be considered to have a systemic effect, they nonetheless require regulation under the act and/or section 351 of the PHS Act.</P>

        <P>Therefore, we have clarified § 1271.10(a)(4) to indicate that an HCT/P that either has systemic effect or depends upon the metabolic activity of living cells for its primary function would not be appropriately regulated solely under section 361 of the PHS Act, and therefore will be regulated as a drug, device, and/or biological product. Cells or tissues such as pancreatic islet cells, which have effects on many different organs throughout the body through the secretion of insulin, are appropriately characterized by the term “systemic effect.” Neurons for implantation in the brain would fall into the category of HCT/P's that depend upon the metabolic activity of living<PRTPAGE P="5460"/>cells for their primary function. In contrast, some HCT/P's (such as corneas, skin, or osteochondral allografts) may contain living cells, but do not depend on them for their primary function, which is structural.</P>
        <P>(Comment 32) Two comments on proposed § 1271.10 suggested that isolated human hepatocytes intended for transplantation be considered to meet the criteria in § 1271.10 and therefore be regulated as 361 HCT/P's.</P>
        <P>We do not consider human hepatocytes, isolated in tissue culture medium, infused into the spleen, and intended for temporary treatment of liver failure to be suitable for regulation solely under section 361 of the PHS Act. Human hepatocytes have a systemic effect. Therefore, regardless of the level of manipulation of the hepatocytes, these cells would be regulated under the act and section 351 of the PHS Act.</P>
        <HD SOURCE="HD2">D. Comments on Subpart A: Proposed § 1271.20 (Final § 1271.15)</HD>
        <P>Proposed § 1271.20, as modified in the donor-suitability proposed rule, set out four specific exceptions from the requirements of part 1271. We address comments on these proposed exceptions below. In this final rule, we have renumbered proposed § 1271.20 as § 1271.15.</P>
        <P>(Comment 33) We received one comment on the proposed exception in § 1271.20(b) for establishments that remove human cells or tissues from an individual and implant such cells or tissues into the same individual during the same surgical procedure. The comment assumed that hospitals retaining autologous tissue, not used in a scheduled surgical procedure, to be used in a subsequent application on the same patient, are exempt from registration and listing because the two applications are essentially a single continuous procedure.</P>
        <P>We agree that, so long as the hospital does not engage in any other activity encompassed with in the definition of “manufacture,” the hospital would not be required to register or comply with the other provisions to be codified in part 1271. For example, if the hospital expanded the cells or tissues, it would not meet the terms of the exception. In reaching this conclusion, we note that hospitals that store autologous cells or tissues for subsequent application in the same patient must follow the guidelines of the Joint Commission on Accreditation of Healthcare Organizations (JCAHO) for tissue storage, monitoring of storage devices, and tracking in order to obtain or maintain accreditation.</P>
        <P>(Comment 34) We received comments questioning the proposed exception in § 1271.20(d) for establishments that “receive or store human cellular or tissue-based products solely for pending scheduled implantation, transplantation, infusion, or transfer within the same facility.” Approximately eight comments asserted that hospitals and other surgical facilities keep tissue allografts on hand for future use and suggested that the phrase “pending scheduled” be deleted from the exception. One comment projected that institutions would discontinue stocking tissue in order to avoid the registration requirement, leading to the denial to patients of appropriate implants. Another comment noted that thousands of hospitals and physician's offices store cells and tissue, and argued that registration could cause an unnecessary burden for facilities and FDA. One comment asserted that hospitals must follow the JCAHO guidelines for storage of tissues, monitoring of storage devices, and tracking of tissue use to provide for the safe storage of tissue. Another comment questioned whether physicians who receive sperm from a sperm bank and examine it for viability would be covered by the exception.</P>
        <P>In response to many of these comments, we have deleted the phrase “pending scheduled.” The exception, codified at § 1271.15(d), now reads:</P>
        
        <EXTRACT>
          <P>You are not required to comply with the requirements of this part if you are an establishment that does not recover, screen, test, process, label, package, or distribute, but only receives or stores human cells or tissue solely for implantation, transplantation, infusion, or transfer within your facility.</P>
        </EXTRACT>
        
        <FP>As we noted in the preamble to the registration proposed rule (63 FR 26744 at 26748), this exception is intended only for end-user establishments; that is, establishments that do not recover, distribute, or otherwise manufacture human cells or tissue. Examples of such establishments might include some hospitals, dental offices, and physicians' offices. Physicians who do not recover sperm from donors but only receive sperm from a sperm bank would fall within the exception; examining the received sperm sample for viability would not be considered screening.</FP>
        <P>We believe that expanding this exception will ease the regulatory burden without posing public health concerns. To date, we have not become aware of problems with the types of facilities that will fall under the exception. However, should that situation change—e.g., should we encounter problems with tracking systems or learn of storage problems—we will consider narrowing the exception through rulemaking to bring these establishments within the scope of the regulation.</P>
        <P>(Comment 35) One comment argued that registration should not be required for facilities collecting or using reproductive tissues from sexually intimate partners or close relatives. The comment strongly urged us to expand proposed § 1271.20(d) to include establishments that collect reproductive materials for use between sexually intimate partners or close relatives.</P>
        <P>We agree with this comment, in part, and have added new paragraph (e) to the exceptions in § 1271.15. This exception is limited to establishments that recover reproductive materials for immediate use between sexually intimate partners. (By “immediate use,” we mean that the reproductive materials are used promptly enough that cryopreservation is not necessary and is not performed.) The exception is intended to cover an establishment that recovers semen for use in the artificial insemination of the donor's sexually intimate partner. We believe that this situation raises few new infectious disease concerns. For this reason, we are excepting these establishments from registering and from the other requirements that will be contained in part 1271. The exception does not extend to the recovery of cells or tissues from close relatives who are not sexually intimate partners, since an increased risk of communicable disease transmission exists in this situation.</P>
        <HD SOURCE="HD2">E. Comments on Subpart B of Part 1271: Procedures for Registration and Listing</HD>
        <P>Many comments expressed general agreement with the proposed registration and listing procedures. One comment stated that the rule set forth a reasonable structure of requirements to be applied uniformly.</P>
        <P>(Comment 36) One comment expressed concern that we might impose a registration fee.</P>
        <P>We stated in the preamble to the registration proposed rule that we were evaluating our authority to assess a fee and the impacts of such a fee (63 FR 26744 at 26751). At this time, we have no plans to impose a registration fee.</P>
        <P>(Comment 37) Comments opposed the proposed requirement in § 1271.21 for twice yearly reporting as excessive and supported annual listing updates instead. One comment noted that it is unlikely that the components processed by individual laboratories will change greatly over a 12-month period.</P>

        <P>We disagree that the requirement for updating HCT/P lists is excessive. Establishments are required to update<PRTPAGE P="5461"/>their listings with information on changes that have occurred since the previously submitted list. These changes include the introduction of new HCT/P's, the discontinuation of HCT/P's, the reintroduction of previously discontinued HCT/P's, and material changes in information previously submitted. However, if no such change has occurred since the previously submitted list, the establishment is not required to submit an update.</P>
        <P>Those establishments that must update their lists will likely find the task relatively simple. As discussed in section III.G of this document, Form FDA 3356 was designed with ease of completion in mind. Yet the information to be submitted on those updates is crucial if we are to keep abreast of developments in the cell and tissue industry. Without current information, we will be restricted in our ability to understand the industry and achieve our public health goals.</P>
        <P>In setting up a unified registration system for all HCT/P's, we incorporated certain components from current registration and listing regulations for drugs and devices, such as the update requirements. By doing so, we made it possible for establishments that manufacture HCT/P's regulated as devices, drugs, and/or biological drugs to register and list their products with the agency using the same form as manufacturers of 361 HCT/P's. Thus, the requirement for updating is similar to the requirements in §§ 207.30 and 807.30 and is consistent with the requirements of section 510(j)(2) of the act.</P>
        <P>We have rewritten the requirement for updates for greater clarity. Section 1271.21(c) now contains timeframes for updating. Section 1271.25(c) lists the changes that must be reported. The listed events to be reported have been corrected to reflect the type of information required to be included in the initial listing. Thus, for example, just as a listing includes the names of HCT/P's that an establishment recovers, processes, stores, labels, packages, distributes, or for which it performs donor screening or testing, so the updated listing would reflect any changes in the HCT/P's for which any of these activities are performed.</P>
        <P>We have made an additional change to proposed § 1271.25(c), which would have required that copies of all contract service agreements be available at the time of inspection of the establishment. In order to avoid duplicating a similar requirement proposed in the GTP regulations, we have deleted the requirement from § 1271.25(c).</P>
        <P>(Comment 38) We earlier stated that we were developing an electronic version of Form FDA 3356 (registration proposed rule, 63 FR 26750). One comment strongly supported these efforts and asserted that manufacturers should also be able to submit registration and listing information electronically.</P>
        <P>We understand that it would be convenient to submit registration and listing information electronically over the Internet. We intend to rely on our experience in developing electronic submission capability in other areas (e.g., biological product deviations in manufacturing reports) to develop an electronic submission process for HCT/P registration and listing. When electronic submissions of Form FDA 3356 are possible, we will make an announcement to that effect.</P>
        <P>(Comment 39) Two comments disagreed with the requirement proposed in § 1271.25(a)(4) for a statement affirming the truth and accuracy of all information in the registration and listing form. The comments argued that no similar requirement exists in the registration and listing regulations for drugs and devices, parts 207 and 807. The comments proposed that, if the requirement is maintained, the statement be qualified with a phrase such as “to the best of my knowledge.”</P>
        <P>To be of use, information submitted on the registration and listing form must be truthful and accurate. Moreover, the reporting official who completes and signs the form should be aware of the obligation to report truthfully and accurately. Although, as the comment points out, the registration and listing regulations for drugs and devices do not contain a similar statement, the act specifically prohibits the submission of false or misleading reports with respect to any device (section 301(q)(2) of the act (21 U.S.C. 331(q)(2)). Furthermore, a willfully false statement to a Federal agency is a criminal offense, and it is not uncommon for forms submitted to the agency to so note (18 U.S.C. 1001).</P>
        <P>For these reasons, we are maintaining the requirement for a statement affirming the truth and accuracy of the information submitted on the registration and listing form. However, the reporting official may reasonably obtain the reported information from reliable sources rather than firsthand. For this reason, we believe it is reasonable to modify the required statement with the language “to the best of my knowledge.” We have made this change to the regulation and to the form.</P>
        <P>(Comment 40) Two comments questioned the requirement proposed in § 1271.25(b) for a statement of whether each listed product meets the criteria set out in § 1271.10. One comment queried whether we plan to regard this statement as an admission that a product is or is not a 361 HCT/P. This comment suggested the addition of language consistent with that of other product registration and listing regulations clarifying that registration and listing under part 1271 does not constitute such an admission of product regulatory status. Both comments noted that only the statement is required, not an explanation or summary of why a product does or does not meet the criteria or which criteria are not met.</P>
        <P>The categorization of HCT/P's as 361 HCT/P's or as drugs, devices, and/or biological products is a fundamental component of the new tiered, risk-based system. We are requiring this information for each HCT/P type to help us understand the HCT/P industry. Establishments need to know how their products are regulated in order to comply with appropriate requirements; therefore, the information required should be readily available. We understand that there may be instances where an establishment is unsure into which category its HCT/P falls; the establishment should contact the executive secretariat of the TRG in these situations. (For more information on the TRG, see CBER's website at http://www.fda.gov/cber/tissue/trg.htm.)</P>
        <P>The requirement in § 1271.25(b) is for a statement only, not an explanation. The statement will inform the agency of the manufacturer's opinion, but will not be an “admission” with respect to how an HCT/P will be regulated. To be regulated solely under section 361 of the PHS Act and part 1271, an HCT/P must meet the criteria set forth under § 1271.10.</P>
        <P>(Comment 41) Two comments requested that we clarify whether individual sizes or configurations of tissues should be listed separately, or instead under more general headings. One of these comments questioned whether a “new” product would include a new size of a product.</P>
        <P>The information currently required on the registration and listing form is of a more general nature. Because the form does not ask for sizes, a new product would not include a new product size.</P>
        <P>(Comment 42) One comment encouraged the use of standard product names for hematopoietic progenitor cell therapies in order to make product listing consistent.</P>

        <P>We encourage the development of standard names. However, at this point we are requesting more general information on Form FDA 3356. In the<PRTPAGE P="5462"/>future, we may ask for more detailed information.</P>
        <P>(Comment 43) One comment recommended that required listing information include, with respect to each listed type of tissue, the specific manufacturing activities conducted at each registered establishment.</P>
        <P>To simplify the registration and listing form, we are not asking for specific manufacturing information for each product but for the establishment in general. If there is a need, we may possibly ask for more specific information in the future.</P>
        <P>(Comment 44) One comment questioned whether the addition of an adjacent building with a different address would be considered a new location, requiring an amendment to registration under § 1271.26.</P>
        <P>No. Adding an adjacent building would not require an amendment to registration.</P>
        <P>(Comment 45) No comments were received on proposed § 1271.27, which deals with the assignment of a registration number. We wish, however, to note that establishments that are currently registered under the drug or device registration and listing requirements, and who would in the future register and list using the procedures in part 1271, when that part is fully effective, would keep the same registration number that was issued previously. Those establishments should provide that number to us when registering for the first time using the new procedures.</P>
        <P>(Comment 46) One comment supported the release of registration and listing information under § 1271.37, but questioned how we would determine which information to disclose to the public.</P>
        <P>The information submitted on Form FDA 3356 is not proprietary or confidential in nature and may be released to the public. Section 1271.37(a)(4) notes that the agency may also release all data or information that has already become a matter of public record. The agency will follow the procedures and requirements set out in 21 CFR part 20 to determine which information has become a matter of public record and may be released.</P>
        <HD SOURCE="HD2">F. Comments on the Proposed Amendments to §§ 207.20 and 807.20</HD>
        <P>(Comment 47) No comments were submitted on the proposed amendments to §§ 207.20 and 807.20.</P>
        <P>We have modified the language proposed for §§ 207.20(f) and 807.20(e) to clarify that establishments that manufacture HCT/P's regulated as devices, drugs, and/or biological products will register and list their products following the procedures in part 1271 instead of the procedures in parts 207 and 807. Thus, when this rule is effective for HCT/P's regulated as devices, drugs, and or biological products, these establishments will submit Form FDA 3356 according to the procedures set out in subpart B of part 1271, at the same time as other cell and tissue establishments, and will no longer have to submit other registration and listing forms. We have also renumbered proposed § 807.20(e) as § 807.20(d).</P>
        <P>The effective date of §§ 207.20(f) and 807.20(d) is 2 years after the publication of this rule.</P>
        <HD SOURCE="HD2">G. Comments on the Registration and Listing Form (Form FDA 3356)</HD>
        <P>We asked nine manufacturers to participate in a pilot study to evaluate FDA Form 3356 in draft form, as allowed by the Office of Management and Budget (OMB) before we finalized the paperwork burden analysis. The pilot study had two purposes: To evaluate the ease of use of Form FDA 3356, and to validate the data base software developed for FDA under contract. The pilot study took place in May 1998, and in August 1998 we submitted to the docket a summary of the results of the study.</P>
        <P>Six of the participating establishments noted that the draft form was easy to use and required less than 1 hour to complete. Other comments on the form noted several areas of potential confusion. We have addressed many of these issues elsewhere in this document, in response to comments submitted to the docket. We have addressed other issues by modifying the instructions for completing the form.</P>
        <P>We have made minimal changes to Form FDA 3356 and its instructions to conform to the revised requirements in part 1271, subpart B. We have not added any additional information requirements.</P>
        <HD SOURCE="HD1">IV. Analysis of Economic Impacts</HD>
        <P>FDA has examined the impacts of the rule under Executive Order 12866 and the Regulatory Flexibility Act (5 U.S.C. 601-612) as amended by subtitle D of the Small Business Regulatory Fairness Act of 1996 (Public Law 104-121) and under the Unfunded Mandates Reform Act of 1995 (Public Law 104-4). Executive Order 12866 directs agencies to assess all costs and benefits of available regulatory alternatives and, when regulation is necessary, to select regulatory approaches that maximize net benefits (including potential economic, environmental, public health and safety, and other advantages; distributive impacts; and equity). The agency believes the final rule is consistent with the regulatory philosophy and principles identified in the Executive Order. OMB has determined that the final rule is a significant action as defined in Executive Order 12866.</P>
        <P>The Regulatory Flexibility Act requires agencies to analyze whether a rule may have a significant impact on a substantial number of small entities and, if it does, to analyze regulatory options that would minimize the impact. The Unfunded Mandates Reform Act requires that agencies prepare an assessment of anticipated costs and benefits before proposing any rule that may result in an expenditure by State, local, and tribal governments, in the aggregate, or by the private sector, of $100,000,000 (adjusted annually for inflation) in any one year. We have also determined that this rule will not result in aggregate expenditures for State, local, and tribal governments, or the private sector of $100 million in any one year (adjusted for inflation).</P>
        <P>An analysis of available information suggests that costs to the entities most affected by this rule, including small entities, are not expected to be significant, as described in the analysis below. Therefore, the agency certifies that this rule will not have a significant impact on a substantial number of small entities.</P>
        <HD SOURCE="HD2">A. Objective and Basis of the Action</HD>

        <P>This action is a first step in the regulation of the rapidly evolving industry of human cells and tissue. The entire industry has not been previously regulated under a single comprehensive regulatory program by FDA or other public health authorities. Lack of a single regulatory approach or registration system has prevented the agency from acquiring information regarding the full size of the cell and tissue industry and the scope of human cells, tissues, and cellular and tissue-based products (HCT/P's) that are used by the industry. The rule will require all manufacturers of HCT/P's to register with the agency and to submit to the agency a list of their HCT/P's. Through registration and listing, FDA will be able to identify industry participants and the scope of the HCT/P's produced. This will enable the agency to more efficiently monitor the industry, distribute new information such as guidances, policies, or requirements, and identify entities that may be subject to FDA oversight. This action is taken solely under the authority of section 361 of the PHS Act. Section 361 of the PHS<PRTPAGE P="5463"/>Act is also used as authority to amend parts 207 and 807 so that the registration and data bases for all human cells, tissues, and cellular and tissue-based products may be consolidated. FDA has reviewed related Federal rules and has not identified any rules that duplicate, overlap, or conflict with the rule.</P>
        <HD SOURCE="HD2">B. Small Entities Affected</HD>
        <P>This rule affects both establishments that currently register with FDA and submit product lists to the agency under applicable sections of the act (parts 207 and 807), and those establishments that are not presently required to register or list with the agency. FDA has structured registration and listing for HCT/P's to have a minimal impact on affected establishments. However, the agency anticipates that the impact will be greater for those establishments that do not currently register or list. Because the final rule is effective 75 days after publication of this document for those establishments currently regulated under part 1270, and is effective in 2 years for all other HCT/P establishments, the economic impact on the industry will be staggered.</P>
        <P>The total number of establishments that are required to register and list under part 1271 in 2 years after the publication of this rule is estimated to be 1,225. The registration and listing initiative will, in part, help the agency obtain more accurate numbers of HCT/P's establishments. In calculating the burden, the agency has relied on information obtained from trade organizations related to the human cells, tissue, and cellular and tissue-based products industry, several of which also provided estimates of what portion of the industry their membership represented. Along with this information and from our own research, we determined that 65 manufacturers of human cells, tissue, and cellular and tissue-based products are registered with the agency as required by part 807. The agency also determined that one manufacturer of an HCT/P drug is registered as required by part 207</P>
        <P>According to the U.S. Small Business Administration, a tissue bank is a small entity if it has annual revenues less than $5 million. FDA estimates that 110 tissue banks are involved in the manufacture of conventional tissue and that approximately 77.5 percent (or 85) of these banks are small entities. FDA estimates that there are 425 stem cell facilities (400 peripheral blood stem cell facilities and 25 cord blood facilities), and that all are small entities. FDA estimates that approximately 114 eye banks are currently operating in the United States, and industry experts estimate that virtually all facilities would be classified as small. FDA estimates that there are approximately 400 assisted reproductive technology (ART) facilities. This estimate is consistent with industry comments. Consultants estimate that two-thirds of all ART facilities (or 267 establishments) would be classified as small entities. In addition, the American Society of Reproductive Medicine (ASRM) has a 1996 list of approximately 110 sperm banks operating in the U.S. Information about sperm banks from a report by Eastern Research Group (ERG) indicates that 95 percent (or 105) of these sperm banks are small. Thus, approximately 996 (85 + 425 + 114 + 267 + 105) of all 1,225 establishments would be considered small entities. In addition, 66 establishments are currently regulated as drugs, devices, or biological products under parts 207 and 807. Approximately 90 percent of these (or 60 establishments) are small entities. Therefore, we estimate that a total 1,056 establishments (996 + 60) are small entities.</P>
        <HD SOURCE="HD2">C. Nature of the Impact</HD>
        <P>The main cost in implementing this final rule is staff time, which we estimate to cost $38.00 per hour, based on 1997 Bureau of Labor Statistics estimates.</P>
        <P>Out of a total 1,225 establishments affected by this rule, 66 HCT/P drug and device establishments currently submit registration and product listing information under parts 207 and 807. In the proposed rule, we incorrectly estimated both the time and the scope of annual information collection for these establishments. Our estimate inaccurately lumped the submission of all required information into one year and concluded that 2 hours would be needed annually to register and list initially, submit a subsequent annual registration, update HCT/P listings, and amend ownership or location information.</P>
        <P>As proposed, however, this final rule requires that HCT/P drug and device manufacturers use a new, single form to register and list their HCT/P products. This rule does not impose any new registration or listing requirements for establishments regulated under parts 207 and 807. To avoid duplication, the rule provides HCT/P drug and device manufacturers a single, new form to replace the multiple forms currently required under parts 207 and 807. Therefore, we now estimate only the time needed to transition from the use of multiple forms to the use of the one form. Based on results from the pilot study described above in section III.G of this document, we estimate that establishments will need approximately 0.5 hour to transition to Form FDA 3356 at a one-time transition cost of approximately $19 [$38 x 0.5]. We estimate that the total impact for all 66 establishments will be approximately $1,254 [66 x $38 x 0.5].</P>
        <P>For the 1,159 HCT/P manufacturers not regulated under parts 207 and 807, the costs are based upon the staff time needed to obtain the form, read the instructions, and complete and submit the form for the initial registration and HCP/T listing, subsequent annual registration, and, as needed, listing updates and location/ownership amendments. Based on the pilot study described above, FDA estimates that it will take an average of 0.75 hour of staff time per establishment for the initial submission. At $38.00 per hour of staff time, each establishment is expected to incur an initial one-time cost of approximately $28 [$38 x 0.75]. We estimate the total impact for all 1,159 establishments for the submission of initial registration and HCT/P listing to be approximately $33,032 [1,159 x $38 x 0.75].</P>
        <P>After the initial registration, the final rule requires annual registration, which we estimate will take 0.5 hour to complete and submit to FDA. We estimate that the annual cost of these submissions will be approximately $22,021 [1,159 x $38 x 0.5] or $19 per establishment.</P>
        <P>The final rule also requires HCT/P listing updates twice a year, a submission that is required only when a change has been made since the previous listing submission. FDA assumes that in any given year, 5 percent or 58 of the 1,159 establishments [1,159 x 0.05] will submit one listing. The listing update is estimated to take about 0.5 hours to complete and submit to FDA. We estimate that each establishment will incur an annual cost of approximately $19 [$38 x 0.5], for a total of $1,102 for all 58 establishments.</P>

        <P>The rule also requires changes in ownership or location to be reported as an amendment within 5 days of such changes. FDA expects that this will be a rare event and that in any given year, no more than 5 percent or 58 of the 1,159 establishments [1,159 x 0.05] will change location or ownership and submit an amendment. This amendment is estimated to take 0.25 hours of staff time. We estimate that each establishment will incur a cost of approximately $10 [$38 x 0.25], totaling $580 for all 58 establishments.<PRTPAGE P="5464"/>
        </P>
        <P>In sum, we estimate the total annual for all submissions subsequent to the initial registration and listing (annual registration and, as needed, listing updates and location/ownership amendments) to be $23,702 [$22,021 + $1,101 + $580].</P>
        <P>There are no specific educational or technical skills required to complete and submit the registration and listing form. Trained and qualified employees of an establishment who are involved with its operations generally complete similar activities.</P>
        <P>This final rule is the first step in creating a tiered, risk-based regulatory scheme that will tailor the degree of scrutiny afforded to different HCT/P's to the risks associated with each of them. Through registration and listing, FDA will acquire the information needed to characterize the nature and extent of HCT/P's. This information will enable FDA to efficiently and effectively respond to emerging public health concerns related to human cells or tissue. Lists of industry members and their HCT/P's will also help FDA disseminate educational materials and other important information regarding FDA policies, guidances, and requirements.</P>
        <HD SOURCE="HD2">D.<E T="03">Minimizing the Impact on Small Entities</E>
        </HD>
        <P>FDA recognizes that a large number of the establishments that would be required to register and list under the rule will be small entities with limited resources. In recognition of this, the agency is proposing that the information to be provided during registration and listing be only that which is necessary to achieve the agency's goals of industry characterization and identification of its participants. To alleviate the impact on entities, especially small entities, FDA will consider the use of electronic submissions (e-mail or Internet) and electronic signatures.</P>
        <HD SOURCE="HD1">V. Environmental Impact</HD>
        <P>The agency has determined under 21 CFR 25.30(h) that this action is of a type that is categorically excluded from the preparation of an environmental assessment because these actions, as a class, will not result in the production or distribution of any substance and therefore will not result in the production of any substance into the environment.</P>
        <HD SOURCE="HD1">VI. Federalism</HD>
        <P>FDA has analyzed this final rule in accordance with the principles set forth in Executive Order 13132. FDA has determined that the rule does not contain policies that have substantial direct effects on the States, on the relationship between National Government and the States, or on the distribution of power and responsibilities among the various levels of government. Accordingly, the agency has concluded that the rule does not contain policies that have federalism implications as defined in the order and, consequently, a federalism summary impact statement is not required.</P>
        <HD SOURCE="HD1">VII. The Paperwork Reduction Act of 1995</HD>
        <P>This final rule contains information collection requirements that are subject to review by the Office of Management and Budget (OMB) under the Paperwork Reduction Act of 1995 (PRA) (44 U.S.C. 3501-3520). The title, description, and respondent description of the information collection requirements are shown below with an estimate of the initial one-time reporting burden and the annual reporting burden. Included in the estimate is the time for reviewing the instructions, searching existing data sources, gathering and maintaining the data needed, completing and reviewing each collection of information.</P>
        <P>
          <E T="03">Title:</E>Establishment Registration and Listing Requirements for Human Cells, Tissues, and Cellular and Tissue-Based Products.</P>
        <P>
          <E T="03">Description:</E>The final rule requires establishments that recover, process, store, label, package, or distribute any human cell, tissue, and cellular and tissue-based product (HCT/P), or that perform donor screening or testing, to submit an initial establishment registration and HCT/P list to FDA. Subsequently, establishments must submit an annual update to their establishment registration. In addition, establishments are required to submit HCT/P list updates, if any, and amendments whenever an establishment changes ownership or locations. FDA provides a registration and listing form (Form FDA 3356) to facilitate the ease and speed of submissions. Form FDA 3356 is an approved information collection format under OMB control number 0910-0372. The approval expires July 31, 2001.</P>
        <P>
          <E T="03">Description of Respondents:</E>Establishments that recover, process, store, label, package, or distribute any human cells, tissue, and cellular and tissue-based product.</P>
        <P>As required by section 3506(c)(2)(B) of the PRA, FDA provided an opportunity for public comment on May 14, 1998 (63 FR 26744), on the information collection requirements of the proposed rule.</P>
        <P>Table 1 of this document lists the estimated one-time reporting burden for the initial establishment registration and HCT/P listing, which is required under § 1271.10(b). Section 1271.25(a) and (b) identify the initial establishment and HCT/P listing information required. Sections 207.20(f) and 807.20(d) require HCT/P establishments to use Form FDA 3356 for providing registration and listing information required under parts 207 and 807.</P>
        <P>Table 2 of this document provides the estimate of the ongoing annual reporting burden for establishment registration. In addition, table 2 of this document sets out estimated reporting burdens for HCT/P listing updates and establishment location or ownership amendments that would occur during any given year. If there is no change to an HCT/P listing, establishment location or ownership, a submission is not required.</P>
        <P>Sections 1271.21(b) and 1271.10(b) require the annual establishment registration by domestic and foreign HCT/P establishments that are solely regulated under section 361 of the PHS Act and this part.</P>
        <P>Sections 1271.21(c)(ii), 1271.25(c), and 1271.10(b) require domestic and foreign HCT/P establishments to submit HCT/P listing updates only when an HCT/P is changed, added, or discontinued, and when there has been a material change to information submitted previously to the agency. If no change has occurred since the previous submission, an update is not required.</P>
        <P>Sections 1271.26 and 1271.10(b) require domestic and foreign HCT/P establishments to submit an amendment, but only when the establishment makes a change in location or ownership.</P>

        <P>Sections 207.20, 207.26, 207.30, 807.20, 807.26, and 807.30 already require establishments that manufacture drug or device products to submit initial establishment registration and product listing, as well as annual establishment registration, product listing updates, and location and ownership amendments. This final rule adds §§ 207.20(f) and 807.20(d), which require that manufacturers of HCT/P drugs and devices submit this registration and listing information using Form FDA 3356 instead of the multiple forms identified under parts 207 and 807. Therefore, these establishments will incur only a one-time burden to transition from the use of several forms to the use of one form (see table 1 above). This rule adds no new registration and listing requirements.<PRTPAGE P="5465"/>
        </P>

        <P>This final rule is implemented according to the staggered effective dates. Human tissues intended for transplantation that are currently regulated under section 361 of the PHS Act and part 1270 are required to register with the agency and list their HCT/P's within 5 days of the first effective date. The effective date for all other HCT/P's is 2 years after publication of this rule in the<E T="04">Federal Register</E>, about which time we expect that the remaining subparts of part 1271 will become effective.</P>
        <P>In the proposed rule, FDA underestimated the number of respondents. Based on additional information provided to FDA by industry representatives, trade organizations, and professional societies, we have revised our estimate of establishments to approximately 1,225 (i.e., approximately 110 conventional tissue, 114 eye tissue banks, 400 peripheral blood stem cells, 25 stem cell products from cord blood, 400 reproductive tissue, 110 sperm banks, and 66 licensed biological products and approved devices).</P>
        <P>Our burden estimates for the annual frequency per response and average hours per response are based on institutional experience with comparable reporting provisions for drugs, including biological products, and devices, information from industry representatives and trade organizations, and data provided by the Eastern Research Group (ERG), a consulting firm hired by FDA to prepare an economic analysis of the potential economic impact on sperm banks and other reproductive tissue facilities.</P>
        <P>In the final rule, we have separated the initial, one-time reporting requirements (table 1 of this document) from the subsequent ongoing annual establishment registration, HCT/P updates and amendment requirements (table 2 of this document).</P>
        <P>Table 1 of this document provides the initial, one-time estimated burden for HCT/P establishment registration and HCT/P listing. This information may be submitted simultaneously on the same form, Form FDA 3356. We estimate that 0.75 hour of staff time will be needed for each initial submission. This estimate is based on a pilot program described above in section III.G of this document conducted to evaluate Form FDA 3356.</P>
        <P>In table 1 of this document we also include the one-time burden for HCT/P drug and device manufacturers regulated under parts 207 and 807. Parts 207 and 807 require that drug and device manufacturers submit initial establishment registration and product listing, annual establishment registration, product listing updates, and location/ownership amendments. New §§ 207.20(f) and 807.20(d) change only the reporting format and require use of only one form, new Form FDA 3356, in place of the multiple forms currently required, i.e., Forms FDA-2656 and FDA-2657 for drug manufacturers, and Forms FDA-2891, FDA-2891(a), and FDA-2892 for device manufacturers. Therefore, the one-time reporting burden estimate for §§ 207.20(f) and 807.20(d) in table 1 of this document reflects only the time necessary to transition from the use of current multiple forms to the use of Form FDA 3356. In the proposed rule, we incorrectly included the time needed to submit the registration and listing information already required under parts 207 and 807. As revised here, the reporting burden under new §§ 207.20(f) and 807.20(d) reflects only the time necessary to transition from the use of current multiple forms to the use of Form FDA 3356.</P>
        <P>Table 2 of this document shows more accurately than in the proposed rule that on-going annual registration, updates and amendments require 0.50 hour, while the initial submission requires on average 0.75 hour. In addition, table 2 of this document shows that the average hours per response is less for the HCT/P listing updates and location/ownership amendments, which are required only when a change is made, than for the annual registration, which must be submitted every year. In table 2 of this document, we also estimate that approximately 5 percent of the 1,159 establishments, or 58 establishments, will make changes to HCT/P's, location, or ownership in any one year after the initial registration and listing. Based on additional information from industry representatives and from our own experiences, we estimate that annual registration, HCT/P listing updates, and location/ownership amendments will require 0.5, 0.5, and 0.25 hours, respectively, as opposed to the full hour estimated for every establishment submission in the proposed rule. The greater precision afforded by this breakout shows that, despite the increased number of total estimated respondents, the estimated total burden hours is lower than in the proposed rule. In table 2 of this document, the total annual burden of 623 hours for ongoing reporting is slightly less than the initial, one-time reporting burden total of 902.25 hours in table 1 of this document.</P>
        <P>FDA estimates the burden of this collection of information as follows:</P>
        <GPOTABLE CDEF="xl20,6.6,6.6,6.6,6.6,6.6" COLS="6" OPTS="L2,nj,i1">
          <TTITLE>
            <E T="04">Table</E>1.—<E T="04">Estimated Initial (One-Time) Reporting Burden<SU>1</SU>
            </E>
          </TTITLE>
          <BOXHD>
            <CHED H="1">21 CFR</CHED>
            <CHED H="1">No. of<LI>respondents</LI>
            </CHED>
            <CHED H="1">Annual<LI>frequency per</LI>
              <LI>response</LI>
            </CHED>
            <CHED H="1">Total annual<LI>responses</LI>
            </CHED>
            <CHED H="1">Hours per<LI>response</LI>
              <LI>(average)</LI>
            </CHED>
            <CHED H="1">Total hours</CHED>
          </BOXHD>
          <ROW>
            <ENT I="01">207.20(f)</ENT>
            <ENT>1</ENT>
            <ENT>1</ENT>
            <ENT>1</ENT>
            <ENT>0.5</ENT>
            <ENT>0.5</ENT>
          </ROW>
          <ROW>
            <ENT I="01">807.20(d)</ENT>
            <ENT>65</ENT>
            <ENT>1</ENT>
            <ENT>65</ENT>
            <ENT>0.5</ENT>
            <ENT>32.50</ENT>
          </ROW>
          <ROW>
            <ENT I="01">Initial Registration and HCT/P Listing 1271.25(a), with 1271.25(b) and 1271.10(b)</ENT>
            <ENT>1,159</ENT>
            <ENT>1</ENT>
            <ENT>1,159</ENT>
            <ENT>0.75</ENT>
            <ENT>869.25</ENT>
          </ROW>
          <ROW>
            <ENT I="01">TOTAL</ENT>
            <ENT/>
            <ENT/>
            <ENT/>
            <ENT/>
            <ENT>902.25</ENT>
          </ROW>
          <TNOTE>
            <SU>1</SU>There are no capital costs or operating and maintenance costs associated with this collection of information.</TNOTE>
        </GPOTABLE>
        <GPOTABLE CDEF="xl50,6.6,6.6,6.6,6.6,8.8" COLS="6" OPTS="L2,nj,i1">
          <TTITLE>
            <E T="04">Table</E>2.—<E T="04">Estimated Annual Reporting Burden<SU>2</SU>
            </E>
          </TTITLE>
          <BOXHD>
            <CHED H="1">21 CFR</CHED>
            <CHED H="1">No. of<LI>respondents</LI>
            </CHED>
            <CHED H="1">Annual<LI>frequency per</LI>
              <LI>response</LI>
            </CHED>
            <CHED H="1">Total annual<LI>responses</LI>
            </CHED>
            <CHED H="1">Hours per<LI>response</LI>
              <LI>(average)</LI>
            </CHED>
            <CHED H="1">Total hours</CHED>
          </BOXHD>
          <ROW>
            <ENT I="01">Annual Registration 1271.21(b) and 1271.10(b)</ENT>
            <ENT>1,159</ENT>
            <ENT>1</ENT>
            <ENT>1,159</ENT>
            <ENT>0.5</ENT>
            <ENT>579.50</ENT>
          </ROW>
          <ROW>
            <ENT I="01">HCT/P Listing Update 1271.21(c), 1271.25(c), and 1271.10(b)</ENT>
            <ENT>58</ENT>
            <ENT>1</ENT>
            <ENT>58</ENT>
            <ENT>0.5</ENT>
            <ENT>29.00</ENT>
          </ROW>
          <ROW>
            <PRTPAGE P="5466"/>
            <ENT I="01">Location/Ownership Amendment 1271.26 and 1271.10(b)</ENT>
            <ENT>58</ENT>
            <ENT>1</ENT>
            <ENT>58</ENT>
            <ENT>0.25</ENT>
            <ENT>14.50</ENT>
          </ROW>
          <ROW>
            <ENT I="01">TOTAL</ENT>
            <ENT/>
            <ENT/>
            <ENT/>
            <ENT/>
            <ENT>623</ENT>
          </ROW>
          <TNOTE>
            <SU>2</SU>There are no capital costs or operating and maintenance costs associated with this collection of information.</TNOTE>
        </GPOTABLE>
        <P>Individuals and organizations may submit comments on these burden estimates or on any other aspect of these information collection requirements, including suggestions for reducing the burden. Comments should be directed to the Food and Drug Administration, Center for Biologics Evaluation and Research, Tissue Establishment Registration Coordinator (HFM-305), 1401 Rockville Pike, suite 200N, Rockville, MD 20852.</P>

        <P>The information collection requirements of the final rule have been submitted to OMB for review. Prior to the effective date of the final rule, FDA will publish a document in the<E T="04">Federal Register</E>announcing OMB's decision to approve, modify, or disapprove the information collection requirements in the final rule. An agency may not conduct or sponsor, and a person is not required to respond to, a collection of information unless it displays a currently valid OMB control number.</P>
        <HD SOURCE="HD1">VIII. References</HD>
        <P>The following references have been placed on display in the Dockets Management Branch (address above) and may be seen by interested persons between 9 a.m. and 4 p.m., Monday through Friday.</P>
        
        <EXTRACT>
          <P>1. Vice President's National Performance Review report, “Reinventing the Regulation of Human Tissue,” February 1997.</P>

          <P>2. Schipper, R. F., D'Amaro, J., and Oudshoorn, M., “The Probability of Finding a Suitable Related Donor for Bone Marrow Transplantation in Extended Families,”<E T="03">Blood</E>, 87:800-804, 1996.</P>

          <P>3. Kaufman, R., “A Generalized HLA Prediction Model for Related Donor Matches,”<E T="03">Bone Marrow Transplantation</E>, 17:1013-1020, 1996.</P>
        </EXTRACT>
        <LSTSUB>
          <HD SOURCE="HED">List of Subjects</HD>
          <CFR>21 CFR Part 207</CFR>
          <P>Drugs, Reporting and recordkeeping requirements.</P>
          <CFR>21 CFR Part 807</CFR>
          <P>Confidential business information, Imports, Medical devices, Reporting and recordkeeping requirements.</P>
          <CFR>21 CFR Part 1271</CFR>
          <P>Human cells, Reporting and recordkeeping requirements, tissue-based products.</P>
        </LSTSUB>
        
        <REGTEXT PART="207" TITLE="21">
          <AMDPAR>Therefore, under the Federal Food, Drug, and Cosmetic Act and the Public Health Service Act, and under authority delegated to the Commissioner of Food and Drugs, chapter I of title 21 of the Code of Federal Regulations is amended as follows:</AMDPAR>
          <PART>
            <HD SOURCE="HED">PART 207—REGISTRATION OF PRODUCERS OF DRUGS AND LISTING OF DRUGS IN COMMERCIAL DISTRIBUTION</HD>
          </PART>
          <AMDPAR>1. The authority citation for 21 CFR part 207 is revised to read as follows:</AMDPAR>
          <AUTH>
            <HD SOURCE="HED">Authority:</HD>
            <P>21 U.S.C. 331, 351, 352, 355, 356, 360, 360b, 371, 374; 42 U.S.C. 262, 264, 271.</P>
          </AUTH>
        </REGTEXT>
        
        <REGTEXT PART="207" TITLE="21">
          <AMDPAR>2. Section 207.20 is amended by revising the heading and adding paragraph (f) to read as follows:</AMDPAR>
          <SECTION>
            <SECTNO>§ 207.20</SECTNO>
            <SUBJECT>Who must register and submit a drug list?</SUBJECT>
            <STARS/>
            <P>(f) Owners and operators of establishments or persons engaged in the recovery, screening, testing, processing, storage, or distribution of human cells, tissues, and cellular and tissue-based products, as defined in § 1271.3(d) of this chapter, that are regulated under section 351 of the Public Health Service Act and/or the Federal Food, Drug, and Cosmetic Act must register and list those human cells, tissues, and cellular and tissue-based products with the Center for Biologics Evaluation and Research on Form FDA 3356 following the procedures set out in subpart B of part 1271 of this chapter, instead of the procedures for registration and listing contained in this part, except that the additional listing information requirements in § 207.31 remain applicable.</P>
          </SECTION>
        </REGTEXT>
        <REGTEXT PART="807" TITLE="21">
          <PART>
            <HD SOURCE="HED">PART 807—ESTABLISHMENT REGISTRATION AND DEVICE LISTING FOR MANUFACTURERS AND DISTRIBUTORS OF DEVICES</HD>
          </PART>
          <AMDPAR>3. The authority citation for 21 CFR part 807 is revised to read as follows:</AMDPAR>
          <AUTH>
            <HD SOURCE="HED">Authority:</HD>
            <P>21 U.S.C. 331, 351, 352, 360, 360c, 360e, 360i, 360j, 371, 374; 42 U.S.C. 264, 271.</P>
          </AUTH>
        </REGTEXT>
        
        <REGTEXT PART="807" TITLE="21">
          <AMDPAR>4. Section 807.20 is amended by revising the heading and adding paragraph (d) to read as follows:</AMDPAR>
          <SECTION>
            <SECTNO>§ 807.20</SECTNO>
            <SUBJECT>Who must register and submit a device list?</SUBJECT>
            <STARS/>
            <P>(d) Owners and operators of establishments or persons engaged in the recovery, screening, testing, processing, storage, or distribution of human cells, tissues, and cellular and tissue-based products, as defined in § 1271.3(d) of this chapter, that are regulated under the Federal Food, Drug, and Cosmetic Act must register and list those human cells, tissues, and cellular and tissue-based products with the Center for Biologics Evaluation and Research on Form FDA 3356 following the procedures set out in subpart B of part 1271 of this chapter, instead of the procedures for registration and listing contained in this part, except that the additional listing information requirements of § 807.31 remain applicable.</P>
          </SECTION>
        </REGTEXT>
        <REGTEXT PART="1271" TITLE="21">
          <AMDPAR>5. Part 1271 is added to read as follows:</AMDPAR>
          <PART>
            <HD SOURCE="HED">PART 1271—HUMAN CELLS, TISSUES, AND CELLULAR AND TISSUE-BASED PRODUCTS</HD>
            <CONTENTS>
              <SUBPART>
                <HD SOURCE="HED">Subpart A—General Provisions</HD>
                <SECHD>Sec.</SECHD>
                <SECTNO>1271.1</SECTNO>
                <SUBJECT>What are the purpose and scope of this part?</SUBJECT>
                <SECTNO>1271.3</SECTNO>
                <SUBJECT>How does FDA define important terms in this part?</SUBJECT>
                <SECTNO>1271.10</SECTNO>
                <SUBJECT>Are my HCT/P's regulated solely under section 361 of the PHS Act and the regulations in this part, and if so what must I do?</SUBJECT>
                <SECTNO>1271.15</SECTNO>
                <SUBJECT>Are there any exceptions from the requirements of this part?</SUBJECT>
                <SECTNO>1271.20</SECTNO>

                <SUBJECT>If my HCT/P's do not meet the criteria in § 1271.10, and I do not qualify<PRTPAGE P="5467"/>for any of the exceptions in § 1271.15, what regulations apply?</SUBJECT>
              </SUBPART>
              <SUBPART>
                <HD SOURCE="HED">Subpart B—Procedures for Registration and Listing</HD>
                <SECTNO>1271.21</SECTNO>
                <SUBJECT>When do I register, submit an HCT/P list, and submit updates?</SUBJECT>
                <SECTNO>1271.22</SECTNO>
                <SUBJECT>How and where do I register and submit an HCT/P list?</SUBJECT>
                <SECTNO>1271.25</SECTNO>
                <SUBJECT>What information is required for establishment registration and HCT/P listing?</SUBJECT>
                <SECTNO>1271.26</SECTNO>
                <SUBJECT>When must I amend my establishment registration?</SUBJECT>
                <SECTNO>1271.27</SECTNO>
                <SUBJECT>Will FDA assign me a registration number?</SUBJECT>
                <SECTNO>1271.37</SECTNO>
                <SUBJECT>Will establishment registrations and HCT/P listings be available for inspection, and how do I request information on registrations and listings?</SUBJECT>
              </SUBPART>
            </CONTENTS>
            <AUTH>
              <HD SOURCE="HED">Authority:</HD>
              <P>42 U.S.C. 216, 243, 264, 271.</P>
            </AUTH>
            <SUBPART>
              <HD SOURCE="HED">Subpart A—General Provisions</HD>
              <SECTION>
                <SECTNO>§ 1271.1</SECTNO>
                <SUBJECT>What are the purpose and scope of this part?</SUBJECT>
                <P>(a)<E T="03">Purpose</E>. The purpose of this part, in conjunction with §§ 207.20(f), 210.1(c), 210.2, 807.20(d), and 820.1(a) of this chapter, is to create a unified registration and listing system for establishments that manufacture human cells, tissues, and cellular and tissue-based products (HCT/P's) and to establish donor-suitability, current good tissue practice, and other procedures to prevent the introduction, transmission, and spread of communicable diseases by HCT/P's.</P>
                <P>(b)<E T="03">Scope.</E>(1) If you are an establishment that manufactures HCT/P's that are regulated solely under the authority of section 361 of the Public Health Service Act (the PHS Act), this part requires you to register and list your HCT/P's with the Food and Drug Administration's (FDA's) Center for Biologics Evaluation and Research and to comply with the other requirements contained in this part, whether or not the HCT/P enters into interstate commerce. Those HCT/P's that are regulated solely under the authority of section 361 of the PHS Act are described in § 1271.10.</P>
                <P>(2) If you are an establishment that manufactures HCT/P's that are regulated as drugs, devices and/or biological products under section 351 of the PHS Act and/or the Federal Food, Drug, and Cosmetic Act, §§ 207.20(f) and 807.20(d) of this chapter require you to register and list your HCT/P's following the procedures in subpart B of this part. Sections 210.1(c), 210.2, 211.1(b), and 820.1(a) of this chapter require you to comply with the donor-suitability procedures in subpart C of this part and the current good tissue practice procedures in subpart D of this part, in addition to all other applicable regulations.</P>
              </SECTION>
              <SECTION>
                <SECTNO>§ 1271.3</SECTNO>
                <SUBJECT>How does FDA define important terms in this part?</SUBJECT>
                <P>The following definitions apply only to this part:</P>
                <P>(a)<E T="03">Autologous use</E>means the implantation, transplantation, infusion, or transfer of human cells or tissue back into the individual from whom the cells or tissue were recovered.</P>
                <P>(b)<E T="03">Establishment</E>means a place of business under one management, at one general physical location, that engages in the manufacture of human cells, tissues, and cellular and tissue-based products. “Establishment” includes:</P>
                <P>(1) Any individual, partnership, corporation, association, or other legal entity engaged in the manufacture of human cells, tissues, and cellular and tissue-based products; and</P>
                <P>(2) Facilities that engage in contract manufacturing services for a manufacturer of human cells, tissues, and cellular and tissue-based products.</P>
                <P>(c)<E T="03">Homologous use</E>means the replacement or supplementation of a recipient's cells or tissues with an HCT/P that performs the same basic function or functions in the recipient as in the donor.</P>
                <P>(d)(1)<E T="03">Human cells, tissues, or cellular or tissue-based products (HCT/P's)</E>means any human tissue derived from a human body and intended for transplantation into another human, as defined under § 1270.3(j). Examples of HCT/P's include, but are not limited to, bone, ligament, skin, and cornea.</P>
                <P>(2)<E T="03">Human cells, tissues, or cellular or tissue-based products (HCT/P's)</E>means articles containing or consisting of human cells or tissues that are intended for implantation, transplantation, infusion, or transfer into a human recipient. Examples of HCT/P's include, but are not limited to, bone, ligament, skin, dura mater, heart valve, cornea, hematopoietic stem cells derived from peripheral and cord blood, manipulated autologous chondrocytes, epithelial cells on a synthetic matrix, and semen or other reproductive tissue. The following articles are not considered HCT/P's:</P>
                <P>(i) Vascularized human organs for transplantation;</P>
                <P>(ii) Whole blood or blood components or blood derivative products subject to listing under parts 607 and 207 of this chapter, respectively;</P>
                <P>(iii) Secreted or extracted human products, such as milk, collagen, and cell factors; except that semen is considered an HCT/P;</P>
                <P>(iv) Minimally manipulated bone marrow for homologous use and not combined with a drug or a device (except for a sterilizing, preserving, or storage agent, if the addition of the agent does not raise new clinical safety concerns with respect to the bone marrow);</P>
                <P>(v) Ancillary products used in the manufacture of HCT/P;</P>
                <P>(vi) Cells, tissues, and organs derived from animals other than humans; and</P>
                <P>(vii) In vitro diagnostic products as defined in § 809.3(a) of this chapter.</P>
                <P>(e)<E T="03">Manufacture means</E>, but is not limited to, any or all steps in the recovery, processing, storage, labeling, packaging, or distribution of any human cell or tissue, and the screening or testing of the cell or tissue donor.</P>
                <P>(f)<E T="03">Minimal manipulation</E>means:</P>
                <P>(1) For structural tissue, processing that does not alter the original relevant characteristics of the tissue relating to the tissue's utility for reconstruction, repair, or replacement; and</P>
                <P>(2) For cells or nonstructural tissues, processing that does not alter the relevant biological characteristics of cells or tissues.</P>
                <P>(g)<E T="03">Transfer</E>means the placement of human reproductive cells or tissues into a human recipient.</P>
              </SECTION>
              <SECTION>
                <SECTNO>§ 1271.10</SECTNO>
                <SUBJECT>Are my HCT/P's regulated solely under section 361 of the PHS Act and the regulations in this part, and if so what must I do?</SUBJECT>
                <P>(a) An HCT/P is regulated solely under section 361 of the PHS Act and the regulations in this part if it meets all of the following criteria:</P>
                <P>(1) The HCT/P is minimally manipulated;</P>
                <P>(2) The HCT/P is intended for homologous use only, as reflected by the labeling, advertising, or other indications of the manufacturer's objective intent;</P>
                <P>(3) The manufacture of the HCT/P does not involve the combination of the cell or tissue component with a drug or a device, except for a sterilizing, preserving, or storage agent, if the addition of the agent does not raise new clinical safety concerns with respect to the HCT/P; and</P>
                <P>(4) Either:</P>
                <P>(i) The HCT/P does not have a systemic effect and is not dependent upon the metabolic activity of living cells for its primary function; or</P>
                <P>(ii) The HCT/P has a systemic effect or is dependent upon the metabolic activity of living cells for its primary function, and:</P>
                <P>(<E T="03">a</E>) Is for autologous use;</P>
                <P>(<E T="03">b</E>) Is for allogeneic use in a first-degree or second-degree blood relative; or</P>
                <P>(<E T="03">c</E>) Is for reproductive use.<PRTPAGE P="5468"/>
                </P>
                <P>(b) If you are a domestic or foreign establishment that manufactures an HCT/P described in paragraph (a) of this section:</P>
                <P>(1) You must register with FDA;</P>
                <P>(2) You must submit to FDA a list of each HCT/P manufactured; and</P>
                <P>(3) You must comply with the other requirements contained in this part.</P>
              </SECTION>
              <SECTION>
                <SECTNO>§ 1271.15</SECTNO>
                <SUBJECT>Are there any exceptions from the requirements of this part?</SUBJECT>
                <P>(a) You are not required to comply with the requirements of this part if you are an establishment that uses HCT/P's solely for nonclinical scientific or educational purposes.</P>
                <P>(b) You are not required to comply with the requirements of this part if you are an establishment that removes HCT/P's from an individual and implants such HCT/P's into the same individual during the same surgical procedure.</P>
                <P>(c) You are not required to comply with the requirements of this part if you are a carrier who accepts, receives, carries, or delivers HCT/P's in the usual course of business as a carrier.</P>
                <P>(d) You are not required to comply with the requirements of this part if you are an establishment that does not recover, screen, test, process, label, package, or distribute, but only receives or stores HCT/P's solely for implantation, transplantation, infusion, or transfer within your facility.</P>
                <P>(e) You are not required to comply with the requirements of this part if you are an establishment that only recovers reproductive cells or tissue and immediately transfers them into a sexually intimate partner of the cell or tissue donor.</P>
                <P>(f) You are not required to register or list your HCT/P's independently, but you must comply with all other applicable requirements in this part, if you are an individual under contract, agreement, or other arrangement with a registered establishment and engaged solely in recovering cells or tissues and sending the recovered cells or tissues to the registered establishment.</P>
              </SECTION>
              <SECTION>
                <SECTNO>§ 1271.20</SECTNO>
                <SUBJECT>If my HCT/P's do not meet the criteria in § 1271.10, and I do not qualify for any of the exceptions in § 1271.15, what regulations apply?</SUBJECT>
                <P>If you are an establishment that manufactures an HCT/P that does not meet the criteria set out in § 1271.10(a), and you do not qualify for any of the exceptions in § 1271.15, your HCT/P will be regulated as a drug, device, and/or biological product under the act and/or section 351 of the PHS Act, and applicable regulations in title 21, chapter I. Applicable regulations include, but are not limited to, §§ 207.20(f), 210.1(c), 210.2, 211.1(b), 807.20(d), and 820.1(a) of this chapter, which require you to follow the procedures in subparts B, C, and D of this part.</P>
              </SECTION>
            </SUBPART>
            <SUBPART>
              <HD SOURCE="HED">Subpart B—Procedures for Registration and Listing</HD>
              <SECTION>
                <SECTNO>§ 1271.21</SECTNO>
                <SUBJECT>When do I register, submit an HCT/P list, and submit updates?</SUBJECT>
                <P>(a) You must register and submit a list of every HCT/P that your establishment manufactures within 5 days after beginning operations or within 30 days of the effective date of this regulation, whichever is later.</P>
                <P>(b) You must update your establishment registration annually in December, except as required by § 1271.26. You may accomplish your annual registration in conjunction with updating your HCT/P list under paragraph (c) of this section.</P>
                <P>(c)(i) If no change described in § 1271.25(c) has occurred since youpreviously submitted an HCT/P list, you are not required to update your listing.</P>
                <P>(ii) If a change described in § 1271.25(c) has occurred, you must update your HCT/P listing with the new information:</P>
                <P>(<E T="03">a</E>) At the time of the change, or</P>
                <P>(<E T="03">b</E>) Each June or December, whichever month occurs first after the change.</P>
              </SECTION>
              <SECTION>
                <SECTNO>§ 1271.22</SECTNO>
                <SUBJECT>How and where do I register and submit an HCT/P list?</SUBJECT>
                <P>(a) You must use Form FDA 3356 for:</P>
                <P>(i) Establishment registration,</P>
                <P>(ii) HCT/P listings, and</P>
                <P>(iii) Updates of registration and HCT/P listing.</P>
                <P>(b) You may obtain Form FDA 3356:</P>
                <P>(i) By writing to the Center for Biologics Evaluation and Research (HFM-305), Food and Drug Administration, 1401 Rockville Pike, Rockville, MD 20852-1448, Attention: Tissue Establishment Registration Coordinator;</P>
                <P>(ii) By contacting any Food and Drug Administration district office;</P>
                <P>(iii) By calling the CBER Voice Information System at 1-800-835-4709 or 301-827--1800;</P>
                <P>(iv) By calling the Fax Information System at 1-888-CBER-FAX or 301-827-3844; or</P>
                <P>(v) By connecting to http://forms.psc.gov/forms/FDA/fda.html on the Internet.</P>
                <P>(c)(i) You may submit Form FDA 3356 to the Center for BiologicsEvaluation and Research (HFM-305), Food and Drug Administration, 1401 Rockville, Pike, Rockville, MD 20852-1448, Attention: Tissue Establishment Registration Coordinator; or</P>
                <P>(ii) You may submit Form FDA 3356 electronically in accordance with the instructions provided with the form.</P>
              </SECTION>
              <SECTION>
                <SECTNO>§ 1271.25</SECTNO>
                <SUBJECT>What information is required for establishment registration and HCT/P listing?</SUBJECT>
                <P>(a) Your establishment registration Form FDA 3356 must include:</P>
                <P>(1) The legal name(s) of the establishment;</P>
                <P>(2) Each location, including the street address of the establishment and the postal service zip code;</P>
                <P>(3) The name, address, and title of the reporting official; and</P>
                <P>(4) A dated signature by the reporting official affirming that all information contained in the establishment registration and HCT/P listing form is true and accurate, to the best of his or her knowledge.</P>
                <P>(b) Your HCT/P listing must include all HCT/P's (including the established name and the proprietary name) that you recover, process, store, label, package, distribute, or for which you perform donor screening or testing. You must also state whether each HCT/P meets the criteria set out in § 1271.10.</P>
                <P>(c) Your HCT/P listing update must include:</P>
                <P>(1) A list of each HCT/P that you have begun recovering, processing, storing, labeling, packaging, distributing, or for which you have begun donor screening or testing, that has not been included in any list previously submitted. You must provide all of the information required by § 1271.25(b) for each new HCT/P.</P>
                <P>(2) A list of each HCT/P formerly listed in accordance with § 1271.21(a) for which you have discontinued recovery, processing, storage, labeling, packaging, distribution, or donor screening or testing, including for each HCT/P so listed, the identity by established name and proprietary name, and the date of discontinuance. We request but do not require that you include the reason for discontinuance with this information.</P>
                <P>(3) A list of each HCT/P for which a notice of discontinuance was submitted under paragraph (c)(2) of this section and for which you have resumed recovery, processing, storage, labeling, packaging, distribution, or donor screening or testing, including the identity by established name and proprietary name, the date of resumption, and any other information required by § 1271.25(b) not previously submitted.</P>
                <P>(4) Any material change in any information previously submitted. Material changes include any change in information submitted on Form FDA 3356, such as whether the HCT/P meets the criteria set out in § 1271.10.</P>
              </SECTION>
              <SECTION>
                <PRTPAGE P="5469"/>
                <SECTNO>§ 1271.26</SECTNO>
                <SUBJECT>When must I amend my establishment registration?</SUBJECT>
                <P>If the ownership or location of your establishment changes, you must submit an amendment to registration within 5 days of the change.</P>
              </SECTION>
              <SECTION>
                <SECTNO>§ 1271.27</SECTNO>
                <SUBJECT>Will FDA assign me a registration number?</SUBJECT>
                <P>(a) FDA will assign each location a permanent registration number.</P>
                <P>(b) FDA acceptance of an establishment registration and HCT/P listing form does not constitute a determination that an establishment is in compliance with applicable rules and regulations or that the HCT/P is licensed or approved by FDA.</P>
              </SECTION>
              <SECTION>
                <SECTNO>§ 1271.37</SECTNO>
                <SUBJECT>Will establishment registrations and HCT/P listings be available for inspection, and how do I request information on registrations and listings?</SUBJECT>
                <P>(a) A copy of the Form FDA 3356 filed by each establishment will be available for public inspection at the Office of Communication, Training, and Manufacturers Assistance (HFM-48), Center for Biologics Evaluation and Research, Food and Drug Administration, 1401 Rockville Pike, suite 200N, Rockville, MD 20852-1448. In addition, there will be available for inspection at each of the Food and Drug Administration district offices the same information for firms within the geographical area of such district office. Upon request and receipt of a self-addressed stamped envelope, verification of a registration number or the location of a registered establishment will be provided. The following information submitted under the HCT/P requirements is illustrative of the type of information that will be available for public disclosure when it is compiled:</P>
                <P>(1) A list of all HCT/P's;</P>
                <P>(2) A list of all HCT/P's manufactured by each establishment;</P>
                <P>(3) A list of all HCT/P's discontinued; and</P>
                <P>(4) All data or information that has already become a matter of public record.</P>
                <P>(b) You should direct your requests for information regarding HCT/P establishment registrations and HCT/P listings to the Office of Communication, Training and Manufacturers Assistance (HFM-48), Center for Biologics Evaluation and Research, Food and Drug Administration, 1401 Rockville Pike, suite 200N, Rockville, MD 20852-1448.</P>
              </SECTION>
            </SUBPART>
          </PART>
        </REGTEXT>
        <SIG>
          <DATED>Dated: January 2, 2001.</DATED>
          <NAME>Jane E. Henney,</NAME>
          <TITLE>Commissioner of Food and Drugs.</TITLE>
          <NAME>Donna E. Shalala,</NAME>
          <TITLE>Secretary of Health and Human Services.</TITLE>
        </SIG>
      </SUPLINF>
      <FRDOC>[FR Doc. 01-1126 Filed 1-18-01; 8:45 am]</FRDOC>
      <BILCOD>BILLING CODE 4160-01-F</BILCOD>
    </RULE>
    <RULE>
      <PREAMB>
        <AGENCY TYPE="N">DEPARTMENT OF THE TREASURY</AGENCY>
        <SUBAGY>Bureau of Alcohol, Tobacco and Firearms</SUBAGY>
        <CFR>27 CFR Parts 17 and 18</CFR>
        <DEPDOC>[T.D. ATF-436]</DEPDOC>
        <RIN>RIN 1512-AB99</RIN>
        <SUBJECT>Delegation of Authority for Parts 17 and 18</SUBJECT>
        <AGY>
          <HD SOURCE="HED">AGENCY:</HD>
          <P>Bureau of Alcohol, Tobacco and Firearms (ATF), Treasury.</P>
        </AGY>
        <ACT>
          <HD SOURCE="HED">ACTION:</HD>
          <P>Treasury decision, final rule.</P>
        </ACT>
        <SUM>
          <HD SOURCE="HED">SUMMARY:</HD>
          <P>Authority delegation. This final rule places most ATF authorities contained in parts 17 and 18, title 27 Code of Federal Regulations (CFR), with the “appropriate ATF officer” and requires that persons file documents required by parts 17 and 18, title 27 Code of Federal Regulations (CFR), with the “appropriate ATF officer” or in accordance with the instructions on the ATF form. Also, this final rule removes the definitions of, and references to, specific officers subordinate to the Director. Concurrently with this Treasury Decision, ATF Order 1130.13 is being published. Through this order, the Director has delegated most of the authorities in 27 CFR parts 17 and 18 to the appropriate ATF officers and specified the ATF officers with whom applications, notices and other reports, which are not ATF forms, are filed.</P>
        </SUM>
        <EFFDATE>
          <HD SOURCE="HED">EFFECTIVE DATE:</HD>
          <P>January 19, 2001.</P>
        </EFFDATE>
        <FURINF>
          <HD SOURCE="HED">FOR FURTHER INFORMATION CONTACT:</HD>
          <P>Robert Ruhf, Regulations Division, Bureau of Alcohol, Tobacco and Firearms, 650 Massachusetts Avenue NW, Washington, DC 20226 (202-927-8210).</P>
        </FURINF>
      </PREAMB>
      <SUPLINF>
        <HD SOURCE="HED">SUPPLEMENTARY INFORMATION:</HD>
        <HD SOURCE="HD1">Background</HD>
        <P>Pursuant to Treasury Decision 120-01 (formerly 221), dated June 6, 1972, the Secretary of the Treasury delegated to the Director of the Bureau of Alcohol, Tobacco and Firearms (ATF), the authority to enforce, among other laws, the provisions of chapter 51 of the Internal Revenue Code of 1986 (IRC). The Director has subsequently redelegated certain of these authorities to appropriate subordinate officers by way of various means, including by regulation, ATF delegation orders, regional directives, or similar delegation documents. As a result, to ascertain what particular officer is authorized to perform a particular function under chapter 51, each of these various delegation instruments must be consulted. Similarly, each time a delegation of authority is revoked or redelegated, each of the delegation documents must be reviewed and amended as necessary.</P>
        <P>ATF has determined that this multiplicity of delegation instruments complicates and hinders the task of determining which ATF officer is authorized to perform a particular function. ATF also believes these multiple delegation instruments exacerbate the administrative burden associated with maintaining up-to-date delegations, resulting in an undue delay in reflecting current authorities.</P>
        <P>Accordingly, in this final rule, the Director of ATF is rescinding all authorities of the Director in parts 17 and 18 which were previously delegated to a specified ATF officer and placing all authorities of the Director with the “appropriate ATF officer.” Along with this final rule, ATF is publishing ATF Order 1130.13, Delegation Order—Delegation of the Director's Authorities in parts 17 and 18, in which certain of these authorities are then delegated down to the appropriate organizational level. The effect of these changes is to consolidate all delegations of authority in parts 17 and 18 into one delegation instrument. This action both simplifies the process for determining what ATF officer is authorized to perform a particular function and facilitates the updating of delegations in the event of a change in delegation or in the event of a restructuring. As a result, delegations of authority will be reflected in a more timely and user-friendly manner.</P>

        <P>In addition to the above, this final rule also eliminates all references in the regulations which identify the ATF officer with whom an ATF form is filed. Thus, in lieu of identifying the authorized officer in the regulations, the form itself will indicate the officer with whom it shall be filed. Similarly, this final rule also amends parts 17 and 18 to provide that documents other than ATF forms (such as letterhead applications, notices and reports) will be filed with the “appropriate ATF officer.” The “appropriate ATF officer” is the Director's delegate and will be identified in the accompanying ATF Order (ATF Order 1130.13, Delegation Order—Delegation of the Director's<PRTPAGE P="5470"/>Authorities in part 17 and 18). These changes will facilitate the identification of the officer with whom forms and other required submissions are filed in the event that authority to receive such submissions, or the title of the officer, changes.</P>
        <P>Consistent with the above, this final rule makes various technical amendments to subpart C—Administrative and Miscellaneous Provisions of 27 CFR parts 17 and 18. Specifically, new §§ 17.7 and 18.12 will be added to recognize the authority of the Director to delegate regulatory authorities in parts 17 and 18, respectively, and to identify ATF Order 1130.13 as the instrument reflecting such delegations. Also, §§ 17.2 and 18.16 are amended to provide that the instructions on an ATF form identify the ATF officer with whom it is filed.</P>
        <P>ATF has made or will make similar changes in delegations to all other parts of Title 27 of the Code of Federal Regulations through separate rulemakings. By amending the regulations part by part, rather than in one large rulemaking document and ATF Order, ATF minimizes the time expended in notifying interested parties of current delegations of authority.</P>
        <HD SOURCE="HD1">Paperwork Reduction Act</HD>
        <P>The provisions of the Paperwork Reduction Act of 1995, Public Law 104-13, 44 U.S.C. chapter 35, and its implementing regulations, 5 CFR part 1320, do not apply to this final rule because there are no new or revised recordkeeping or reporting requirements.</P>
        <HD SOURCE="HD1">Regulatory Flexibility Act</HD>

        <P>Because no notice of proposed rulemaking is required for this rule, the provisions of the Regulatory Flexibility Act (5 U.S.C. 601<E T="03">et seq.</E>) do not apply. A copy of this final rule was submitted to the Chief Counsel for Advocacy of the Small Business Administration in accordance with 26 U.S.C. 7805(f). No comments were received.</P>
        <HD SOURCE="HD1">Executive Order 12866</HD>
        <P>It has been determined that this rule is not a significant regulatory action because it will not: (1) Have an annual effect on the economy of $100 million or more or adversely affect in a material way the economy, a sector of the economy, productivity, competition, jobs, the environment, public health or safety, or State, local or tribal governments or communities; (2) Create a serious inconsistency or otherwise interfere with an action taken or planned by another agency; (3) Materially alter the budgetary impact of entitlements, grants, user fees, or loan programs or the rights and obligations of recipients thereof; or (4) Raise novel legal or policy issues arising out of legal mandates, the President's priorities, or the principles set forth in Executive Order 12866.</P>
        <HD SOURCE="HD1">Administrative Procedure Act</HD>
        <P>Because this final rule merely makes technical amendments and conforming changes to improve the clarity of the regulations, it is unnecessary to issue this final rule with notice and public procedure under 5 U.S.C. 553(b). Similarly it is unnecessary to subject this final rule to the effective date limitation of 5 U.S.C. 553(d).</P>
        <HD SOURCE="HD1">Drafting Information</HD>
        <P>The principal author of this document is Robert Ruhf, Regulations Division, Bureau of Alcohol, Tobacco and Firearms.</P>
        <LSTSUB>
          <HD SOURCE="HED">List of Subjects</HD>
          <CFR>27 CFR Part 17</CFR>
          <P>Alcohol and alcoholic beverages, Authority delegations, Claims, Drugs, Excise taxes, Foods, Reporting and recordkeeping requirements, Spices and flavorings, Surety bonds.</P>
          <CFR>27 CFR Part 18</CFR>
          <P>Administrative practice and procedure, Authority delegations, Excise taxes, Exports, Labeling, Reporting and recordkeeping requirements, Security measures, Spices and flavorings, Surety bonds.</P>
        </LSTSUB>
        <REGTEXT PART="17" TITLE="27">
          <HD SOURCE="HD1">Authority and Issuance</HD>
          <P>Title 27, Code of Federal Regulations is amended as follows:</P>
          <PART>
            <HD SOURCE="HED">PART 17—DRAWBACK ON TAXPAID DISTILLED SPIRITS USED IN MANUFACTURING NONBEVERAGE PRODUCTS</HD>
          </PART>
          <AMDPAR>
            <E T="04">Paragraph 1.</E>The authority citation for part 17 continues to read as follows:</AMDPAR>
          <AUTH>
            <HD SOURCE="HED">Authority:</HD>
            <P>26 U.S.C. 5010, 5131-5134, 5143, 5146, 5206, 5273, 6011, 6065, 6091, 6109, 6151, 6402, 6511, 7011, 7213, 7652, 7805, 5062, 5081, 5111-5113, 5121, 5122, 5142, 5143, 5173, 5206; 31 U.S.C. 9301, 9303, 9304, 9306.</P>
          </AUTH>
          <SECTION>
            <SECTNO>§§ 17.2, 17.3, 17.122 and 17.134</SECTNO>
            <SUBJECT>[Amended]</SUBJECT>
          </SECTION>
        </REGTEXT>
        <REGTEXT PART="17" TITLE="27">
          <AMDPAR>
            <E T="04">Par. 2.</E>In part 17 remove the word “Director” each place it appears and add, in substitution, the words “appropriate ATF officer” in the following places:</AMDPAR>
          <P>(a) Section 17.2(a);</P>
          <P>(b) Section 17.3(a), introductory text, and (c);</P>
          <P>(c) Section 17.122; and</P>
          <P>(d) Section 17.134.</P>
        </REGTEXT>
        <REGTEXT PART="17" TITLE="27">
          <AMDPAR>
            <E T="04">Par. 3.</E>In addition to the amendment made above, § 17.2 is amended by adding a sentence at the end of paragraph (a) and revising paragraph (b) to read as follows:</AMDPAR>
          <SECTION>
            <SECTNO>§ 17.2</SECTNO>
            <SUBJECT>Forms prescribed.</SUBJECT>
            <P>(a) * * * The form will be filed in accordance with the instructions for the form.</P>
            <P>(b) Forms may be requested from the ATF Distribution Center, P.O. Box 5950, Springfield, Virginia 22150-5190, or at the ATF web site (http://www.atf.treas.gov/).</P>
          </SECTION>
        </REGTEXT>
        <REGTEXT PART="17" TITLE="27">
          <AMDPAR>
            <E T="04">Par. 4.</E>The first sentence of paragraph (b) of § 17.3 is revised to read as follows:</AMDPAR>
          <SECTION>
            <SECTNO>§ 17.3</SECTNO>
            <SUBJECT>Alternate methods or procedures.</SUBJECT>
            <STARS/>
            <P>
              <E T="03">(b) Application.</E>A letter of application to employ an alternate method or procedure must be submitted to the appropriate ATF officer. * * *</P>
            <STARS/>
          </SECTION>
        </REGTEXT>
        <REGTEXT PART="17" TITLE="27">
          <SECTION>
            <SECTNO>§§ 17.6, 17.55, 17.121, 17.161, 17.171, 17.182 and 17.183</SECTNO>
            <SUBJECT>[Amended]</SUBJECT>
          </SECTION>
          <AMDPAR>
            <E T="04">Par. 5.</E>Part 17 is further amended by adding the word “appropriate” before the words “ATF officer” each place it appears in the following places:</AMDPAR>
          <P>(a) Section 17.6;</P>
          <P>(b) Section 17.55;</P>
          <P>(c) Section 17.121(d);</P>
          <P>(d) Section 17.161;</P>
          <P>(e) Section 17.171;</P>
          <P>(f) Section 17.182; and</P>
          <P>(g) Section 17.183(a).</P>
        </REGTEXT>
        <REGTEXT PART="17" TITLE="27">
          <AMDPAR>
            <E T="04">Par. 6.</E>A new § 17.7 is added in Subpart A—General Provisions to read as follows:</AMDPAR>
          <SECTION>
            <SECTNO>§ 17.7</SECTNO>
            <SUBJECT>Delegations of the Director.</SUBJECT>
            <P>The regulatory authorities of the Director contained in this part 17 are delegated to appropriate ATF officers. These ATF officers are specified in ATF Order 1130.13, Delegation Order—Delegation of the Director's Authorities in 27 CFR parts 17 and 18. ATF delegation orders, such as ATF Order 1130.13, are available to any interested person by mailing a request to the ATF Distribution Center, P.O. Box 5950, Springfield, VA 22150-5190, or by accessing the ATF web site (http://www.atf.treas.gov/).</P>
          </SECTION>
        </REGTEXT>
        <REGTEXT PART="17" TITLE="27">
          <AMDPAR>
            <E T="04">Par. 7.</E>Section 17.11 is amended by removing the definitions of “Alcohol and Tobacco Laboratory”, “ATF Officer”, and “Regional director (compliance)”, and by adding a new definition of “Appropriate ATF officer” and revising the definition of “Director” to read as follows:</AMDPAR>
          <SECTION>
            <PRTPAGE P="5471"/>
            <SECTNO>§ 17.11</SECTNO>
            <SUBJECT>Meaning of Terms.</SUBJECT>
            <STARS/>
            <P>
              <E T="03">Appropriate ATF Officer.</E>An officer or employee of the Bureau of Alcohol, Tobacco and Firearms (ATF) authorized to perform any functions relating to the administration or enforcement of this part by ATF Order 1130.13, Delegation Order—Delegation of the Director's Authorities in 27 CFR Parts 17 and 18.</P>
            <STARS/>
            <P>
              <E T="03">Director.</E>The Director, Bureau of Alcohol, Tobacco and Firearms, the Department of Treasury, Washington, DC 20226.</P>
            <STARS/>
          </SECTION>
        </REGTEXT>
        <REGTEXT PART="17" TITLE="27">
          <SECTION>
            <SECTNO>§§ 17.54, 17.101, 17.107, 17.108, 17.111, 17.112, 17.113, 17.114, 17.125, 17.141, 17.143, 17.147, 17.166, 17.167, 17.168, 17.170 and 17.183</SECTNO>
            <SUBJECT>[Amended]</SUBJECT>
          </SECTION>
          <AMDPAR>
            <E T="04">Par. 8.</E>Part 17 is further amended by removing the words “regional director (compliance)” or “regional directors (compliance)” each place it appears and adding, in substitution, the words “appropriate ATF officer” or “appropriate ATF officers”, respectively, in the following places:</AMDPAR>
          <P>(a) Section 17.54;</P>
          <P>(b) Section 17.101;</P>
          <P>(c) Section 17.107;</P>
          <P>(d) Section 17.108(c);</P>
          <P>(e) Section 17.111 (a) introductory text and (b);</P>
          <P>(f) Section 17.112;</P>
          <P>(g) Section 17.113;</P>
          <P>(h) Section 17.114;</P>
          <P>(i) Section 17.125(a);</P>
          <P>(j) Section 17.141;</P>
          <P>(k) Section 17.143;</P>
          <P>(l) Section 17.147(a);</P>
          <P>(m) Section 17.166(c);</P>
          <P>(n) Section 17.167(b);</P>
          <P>(o) Section 17.168(a);</P>
          <P>(p) Section 17.170; and</P>
          <P>(q) Section 17.183(b) and (c).</P>
        </REGTEXT>
        <REGTEXT PART="17" TITLE="27">
          <AMDPAR>
            <E T="04">Par. 9.</E>The first three sentences of § 17.92 are revised into two sentences to read as follows:</AMDPAR>
          <SECTION>
            <SECTNO>Sec. 17.92</SECTNO>
            <SUBJECT>Filing of refund claim.</SUBJECT>
            <P>Claim for refund of special tax must be filed on ATF Form 2635 (5620.8), Claim—Alcohol, Tobacco and Firearms Taxes. The claim must set forth in detail sufficient reasons and supporting facts of the exact basis of the claim.* * *</P>
            <STARS/>
          </SECTION>
        </REGTEXT>
        <REGTEXT PART="17" TITLE="27">
          <AMDPAR>
            <E T="04">Par. 10.</E>The last sentence of § 17.101 is amended to remove the words “Regional directors (compliance)” and add, in substitution, the words “Appropriate ATF officers”.</AMDPAR>
        </REGTEXT>
        <REGTEXT PART="17" TITLE="27">
          <SECTION>
            <SECTNO>§§ 17.105, 17.144 and 17.145</SECTNO>
            <SUBJECT>[Amended]</SUBJECT>
          </SECTION>
          <AMDPAR>
            <E T="04">Par. 11.</E>Part 17 is further amended by removing the phrase “with the regional director (compliance)” each place it appears in the following places.</AMDPAR>
          <P>(a) Section 17.105(b);</P>
          <P>(b) Section 17.144; and</P>
          <P>(c) Section 17.145.</P>
        </REGTEXT>
        <REGTEXT PART="17" TITLE="27">
          <AMDPAR>
            <E T="04">Par. 12.</E>Paragraph (b) of § 17.121 is amended to remove the phrase “with the Alcohol and Tobacco Laboratory”.</AMDPAR>
        </REGTEXT>
        <REGTEXT PART="17" TITLE="27">
          <AMDPAR>
            <E T="04">Par. 13.</E>Section 17.122 is amended by removing the phrase “to the Alcohol and Tobacco Laboratory” and adding, in substitution, the phrase “appropriate ATF officer”.</AMDPAR>
        </REGTEXT>
        <REGTEXT PART="17" TITLE="27">
          <AMDPAR>
            <E T="04">Par. 14.</E>The third sentence of paragraph (b) of § 17.125 is revised to read as follows:</AMDPAR>
          <SECTION>
            <SECTNO>§ 17.125</SECTNO>
            <SUBJECT>Adoption of formulas and processes.</SUBJECT>
            <STARS/>
            <P>
              <E T="03">(b) Adoption of manufacturer's own forumulas from a different location.</E>* * * A letterhead notice must be filed with the appropriate ATF officer and be accompanied by two photocopies of each formula to be adopted. * * *</P>
            <STARS/>
          </SECTION>
        </REGTEXT>
        <REGTEXT PART="17" TITLE="27">
          <SECTION>
            <SECTNO>§§ 17.126 and 17.136</SECTNO>
            <SUBJECT>[Amended]</SUBJECT>
          </SECTION>
          <AMDPAR>
            <E T="04">Par. 15.</E>Part 17 is further amended by removing the phrase “to the Alcohol and Tobacco Laboratory” each place it appears in the following places:</AMDPAR>
          <P>(a) Section 17.126(a); and</P>
          <P>(b) Section 17.136.</P>
        </REGTEXT>
        <REGTEXT PART="17" TITLE="27">
          <AMDPAR>
            <E T="04">Par. 16.</E>Section 17.131 is amended by removing the phrase “by the Alcohol and Tobacco Laboratory” each place it appears.</AMDPAR>
        </REGTEXT>
        <REGTEXT PART="17" TITLE="27">
          <AMDPAR>
            <E T="04">Par. 17.</E>The fifth sentence of paragraph (a) of § 17.142 is removed, and the first sentence of paragraph (a) of § 17.142 is revised to read as follows :</AMDPAR>
          <SECTION>
            <SECTNO>§ 17.142</SECTNO>
            <SUBJECT>Claims.</SUBJECT>
            <P>
              <E T="03">(a) General.</E>The manufacturer must file claim for drawback with the appropriate ATF officer who has the authority to approve or disapprove claims. * * *</P>
            <STARS/>
          </SECTION>
        </REGTEXT>
        <REGTEXT PART="18" TITLE="27">
          <PART>
            <HD SOURCE="HED">PART 18—PRODUCTION OF VOLATILE FRUIT FLAVOR CONCENTRATE</HD>
          </PART>
          <AMDPAR>
            <E T="04">Par. 18.</E>The authority citation for part 18 continues to read as follows:</AMDPAR>
          <AUTH>
            <HD SOURCE="HED">Authority:</HD>
            <P>26 U.S.C. 5001, 5172, 5178, 5179, 5203, 5511, 5552, 6065, 7805; 44 U.S.C. 3504(h).</P>
          </AUTH>
        </REGTEXT>
        <REGTEXT PART="18" TITLE="27">
          <AMDPAR>
            <E T="04">Par. 19.</E>Section 18.11 is amended by removing the definitions of “ATF officer” and “Regional director (compliance) and by adding the definition of “Appropriate ATF officer” and revising the definition of “Registry number” to read as follows:</AMDPAR>
          <SECTION>
            <SECTNO>§ 18.11</SECTNO>
            <SUBJECT>Meaning of Terms.</SUBJECT>
            <STARS/>
            <P>
              <E T="03">Appropriate ATF officer.</E>An officer or employee of the Bureau of Alcohol, Tobacco and Firearms (ATF) authorized to perform any functions relating to the administration or enforcement of this part by ATF Order 1130.13, Delegation Order—Delegation of the Director's Authorities in 27 CFR Parts 17 and 18.</P>
            <STARS/>
            <P>
              <E T="03">Registry number.</E>The number assigned to a concentrate plant or a bonded wine cellar for an approved application as required by Parts 18 and 24, respectively.</P>
            <STARS/>
          </SECTION>
        </REGTEXT>
        <REGTEXT PART="18" TITLE="27">
          <AMDPAR>
            <E T="04">Par. 20.</E>A new § 18.12 is added in subpart C—Administrative and Miscellaneous Provisions to read as follows:</AMDPAR>
          <SECTION>
            <SECTNO>§ 18.12</SECTNO>
            <SUBJECT>Delegations of the Director.</SUBJECT>
            <P>The regulatory authorities of the Director contained in this part 18 are delegated to appropriate ATF officers. These ATF officers are specified in ATF Order 1130.13, Delegation Order—Delegation of the Director's Authorities in 27 CFR Parts 17 and 18. ATF delegation orders, such as ATF Order 1130.13, are available to any interested person by mailing a request to the ATF Distribution Center, PO Box 5950, Springfield, VA 22150-5190, or by accessing the ATF web site (http://www.atf.treas.gov/).</P>
          </SECTION>
        </REGTEXT>
        <REGTEXT PART="18" TITLE="27">
          <SECTION>
            <SECTNO>§§ 18.13, 18.16 and 18.52</SECTNO>
            <SUBJECT>[Amended]</SUBJECT>
          </SECTION>
          <AMDPAR>
            <E T="04">Par. 21.</E>Part 18 is further amended by removing the word “Director” each place it appears and adding, in substitution, the words “appropriate ATF officer” in the following places:</AMDPAR>
          <P>(a) Section 18.13(a), introductory text;</P>
          <P>(b) Section 18.16(a); and</P>
          <P>(c) Section 18.52(b).</P>
        </REGTEXT>
        <REGTEXT PART="18" TITLE="27">
          <AMDPAR>
            <E T="04">Par. 22.</E>Paragraph (b) of § 18.13 is revised to read as follows:</AMDPAR>
          <SECTION>
            <SECTNO>§ 18.13</SECTNO>
            <SUBJECT>Alternate Methods or Procedures.</SUBJECT>
            <STARS/>
            <P>(b)<E T="03">Application.</E>A proprietor who desires to employ an alternate method or procedure shall submit a written application to the appropriate ATF officer. The application will specifically describe the proposed alternate method or procedure and set forth the reasons therefor. Alternate methods or procedures may not be employed until the application has been approved by the appropriate ATF officer. Authorization for any alternate method or procedure may be withdrawn whenever in the judgment of the appropriate ATF officer the revenue is jeopardized or the effective<PRTPAGE P="5472"/>administration of this part is hindered by the continuation of the authorization.</P>
            <STARS/>
          </SECTION>
        </REGTEXT>
        <REGTEXT PART="18" TITLE="27">
          <SECTION>
            <SECTNO>§§ 18.14, 18.22, 18.24 and 18.27</SECTNO>
            <SUBJECT>[Amended]</SUBJECT>
          </SECTION>
          <AMDPAR>
            <E T="04">Par. 23.</E>Part 18 is further amended by removing the words “regional director (compliance)” each place it appears and adding, in substitution, the words “appropriate ATF officer” in the following places:</AMDPAR>
          <P>(a) Section 18.14(a), introductory text and (b);</P>
          <P>(b) Section 18.22(b);</P>
          <P>(c) Section 18.24; and</P>
          <P>(d) Section 18.27(a).</P>
        </REGTEXT>
        <REGTEXT PART="18" TITLE="27">
          <SECTION>
            <SECTNO>§§ 18.15, 18.17, 18.19 and 18.61</SECTNO>
            <SUBJECT>[Amended]</SUBJECT>
          </SECTION>
          <AMDPAR>
            <E T="04">Par. 24.</E>Part 18 is further amended by adding the word “appropriate” before the phrase “ATF officers” or “ATF officer” each place it appears in the following places:</AMDPAR>
          <P>(a) Section 18.15;</P>
          <P>(b) Section 18.17;</P>
          <P>(c) Section 18.19; and</P>
          <P>(d) Section 18.61(a) and (b).</P>
        </REGTEXT>
        <REGTEXT PART="18" TITLE="27">
          <AMDPAR>
            <E T="04">Par. 25.</E>Section 18.16 is further amended by adding a sentence at the end of paragraph (a) and revising paragraph (b) to read as follows:</AMDPAR>
          <SECTION>
            <SECTNO>§ 18.16</SECTNO>
            <SUBJECT>Forms prescribed.</SUBJECT>
            <P>(a) * * * The form will be filed in accordance with the instructions for the form.</P>
            <P>(b) Forms may be requested from the ATF Distribution Center, P.O. Box 5950, Springfield, Virginia 22150-5190, or at the ATF web site (http://www.atf.treas.gov/).</P>
          </SECTION>
        </REGTEXT>
        <REGTEXT PART="18" TITLE="27">
          <AMDPAR>
            <E T="04">Par. 26.</E>Section 18.21 is amended by removing the words “to the regional director (compliance)”.</AMDPAR>
        </REGTEXT>
        <REGTEXT PART="18" TITLE="27">
          <AMDPAR>
            <E T="04">Par. 27.</E>Section 18.26 is amended by removing the words “with the regional director (compliance)”.</AMDPAR>
        </REGTEXT>
        <REGTEXT PART="18" TITLE="27">
          <AMDPAR>
            <E T="04">Par. 28.</E>Section 18.65 is revised to read as follows:</AMDPAR>
          <SECTION>
            <SECTNO>Sec. 18.65</SECTNO>
            <SUBJECT>Annual report.</SUBJECT>
            <P>An annual report, on Form 1695(5520.2), of concentrate plant operations shall be prepared by each proprietor and forwarded in accordance with the instructions for the form. When a proprietor permanently discontinues the business of manufacturing concentrate, the proprietor shall submit the annual report in accordance with the instructions for the form.</P>
          </SECTION>
        </REGTEXT>
        <SIG>
          <DATED>Signed: July 13, 2000.</DATED>
          <NAME>Bradley A. Buckles,</NAME>
          <TITLE>Director.</TITLE>
          <DATED>Approved: August 1, 2000.</DATED>
          <NAME>John P. Simpson,</NAME>
          <TITLE>Deputy Assistant Secretary (Regulatory, Tariff and Trade Enforcement).</TITLE>
        </SIG>
      </SUPLINF>
      <FRDOC>[FR Doc. 01-1162 Filed 1-18-01; 8:45 am]</FRDOC>
      <BILCOD>BILLING CODE 4810-31-P</BILCOD>
    </RULE>
    <RULE>
      <PREAMB>
        <AGENCY TYPE="S">DEPARTMENT OF THE TREASURY</AGENCY>
        <SUBAGY>Bureau of Alcohol, Tobacco and Firearms</SUBAGY>
        <CFR>27 CFR Parts 20, 21 and 22</CFR>
        <DEPDOC>[T.D. ATF-435]</DEPDOC>
        <RIN>RIN 1512-AC13</RIN>
        <SUBJECT>Delegation of Authority for Parts 20, 21 and 22</SUBJECT>
        <AGY>
          <HD SOURCE="HED">AGENCY:</HD>
          <P>Bureau of Alcohol, Tobacco and Firearms (ATF), Treasury.</P>
        </AGY>
        <ACT>
          <HD SOURCE="HED">ACTION:</HD>
          <P>Treasury decision, final rule.</P>
        </ACT>
        <SUM>
          <HD SOURCE="HED">SUMMARY:</HD>
          <P>This final rule places all ATF authorities contained in parts 20, 21 and 22, title 27 Code of Federal Regulations (CFR), with the “appropriate ATF officer” and requires that persons file documents required by such parts, with the “appropriate ATF officer” or in accordance with the instructions for the ATF form. Also, this final rule removes the definitions of, and references to, specific officers subordinate to the Director and the word “region.” Concurrently with this Treasury Decision, ATF Order 1130.9 is being published. Through this order, the Director has delegated all of the authorities in 27 CFR parts 20, 21 and 22 to the appropriate ATF officers and specified the ATF officers with whom applications, notices and other reports, which are not ATF forms, are filed.</P>
        </SUM>
        <EFFDATE>
          <HD SOURCE="HED">EFFECTIVE DATE:</HD>
          <P>This rule is effective January 19, 2001.</P>
        </EFFDATE>
        <FURINF>
          <HD SOURCE="HED">FOR FURTHER INFORMATION CONTACT:</HD>
          <P>Robert Ruhf, Regulations Division, Bureau of Alcohol, Tobacco and Firearms, 650 Massachusetts Avenue,  NW., Washington, DC 20226 (telephone 202-927-8210 or e-mail to alctob@atfhq.atf.treas.gov).</P>
        </FURINF>
      </PREAMB>
      <SUPLINF>
        <HD SOURCE="HED">SUPPLEMENTARY INFORMATION:</HD>
        <HD SOURCE="HD1">Background</HD>

        <P>Pursuant to Treasury Order 120-01 (formerly 221), dated June 6, 1972, the Secretary of the Treasury delegated to the Director of the Bureau of Alcohol, Tobacco and Firearms (ATF), the authority to enforce, among other laws, the provisions of<E T="03">chapter 51</E>of the Internal Revenue Code of 1986 (IRC). The Director has subsequently redelegated certain of these authorities to appropriate subordinate officers by way of various means, including by regulation, ATF delegation orders, regional directives, or similar delegation documents. As a result, to ascertain what particular officer is authorized to perform a particular function under chapter 51, each of these various delegation instruments must be consulted. Similarly, each time a delegation of authority is revoked or redelegated, each of the delegation documents must be reviewed and amended as necessary.</P>
        <P>ATF has determined that this multiplicity of delegation instruments complicates and hinders the task of determining which ATF officer is authorized to perform a particular function. ATF also believes these multiple delegation instruments exacerbate the administrative burden associated with maintaining up-to-date delegations, resulting in an undue delay in reflecting current authorities.</P>
        <P>Accordingly, this final rule rescinds all authorities of the Director in parts 20, 21 and 22 that were previously delegated and places those authorities with the “appropriate ATF officer.” All of the authorities of the Director that were not previously delegated are also placed with the “appropriate ATF officer.” Along with this final rule, ATF is publishing ATF Order 1130.9, Delegation Order—Delegation of the Director's Authorities in 27 CFR Parts 20, 21 and 22, Distilled Spirits Plants, which delegates certain of these authorities to the appropriate organizational level. The effect of these changes is to consolidate all delegations of authority in parts 20, 21 and 22 into one delegation instrument. This action both simplifies the process for determining what ATF officer is authorized to perform a particular function and facilitates the updating of delegations in the future. As a result, delegations of authority will be reflected in a more timely and user-friendly manner.</P>

        <P>In addition, this final rule also eliminates all references in the regulations that identify the ATF officer with whom an ATF form is filed. This is because ATF forms will indicate the officer with whom they must be filed. Similarly, this final rule also amends parts 20, 21 and 22 to provide that the submission of documents other than ATF forms (such as letterhead applications, notices and reports) must be filed with the “appropriate ATF officer” identified in ATF Order 1130.9. These changes will facilitate the<PRTPAGE P="5473"/>identification of the officer with whom forms and other required submissions are filed.</P>
        <P>This final rule also makes various technical amendments to parts 20, 21 and 22 of Title 27 of the Code of Federal Regulations. First, new sections are added in each part to recognize the authority of the Director to delegate regulatory authorities and to identify ATF Order 1130.9 as the instrument reflecting such delegations. Second, § 20.21, 21.2, 22.21 of Title 27 of the Code of Federal Regulations are amended to provide that the instructions for an ATF form identify the ATF officer with whom it must be filed. Third, this rule removes from part 22 of Title 27 of the Code of Federal Regulations the definition of the term “delegate.” This term is used only in the definition of Secretary in part 22 of Title 27 of the Code of Federal Regulations. We have removed the definition of “delegate” to be consistent with most other parts of Title 27 of the Code of Federal Regulations and to minimize potential confusion and misunderstanding with the appropriate ATF officers to whom the Director has delegated authority.</P>
        <P>ATF has begun to make similar changes in delegations to all other parts of Title 27 of the Code of Federal Regulations through separate rulemakings. By amending the regulations part by part, rather than in one large rulemaking document and ATF Order, ATF minimizes the time expended in notifying interested parties of current delegations of authority.</P>
        <HD SOURCE="HD1">Paperwork Reduction Act</HD>
        <P>The provisions of the Paperwork Reduction Act of 1995, Pub. L. 104-13, 44 U.S.C. Chapter 35, and its implementing regulations, 5 CFR part 1320, do not apply to this final rule because there are no new or revised recordkeeping or reporting requirements.</P>
        <HD SOURCE="HD1">Regulatory Flexibility Act</HD>

        <P>Because no notice of proposed rulemaking is required for this rule, the provisions of the Regulatory Flexibility Act (5 U.S.C. 601<E T="03">et seq.</E>) do not apply. A copy of this final rule was submitted to the Chief Counsel for Advocacy of the Small Business Administration in accordance with 26 U.S.C. 7805(f). No comments were received.</P>
        <HD SOURCE="HD1">Executive Order 12866</HD>
        <P>It has been determined that this rule is not a significant regulatory action because it will not: (1) Have an annual effect on the economy of $100 million or more or adversely affect in a material way the economy, a sector of the economy, productivity, competition, jobs, the environment, public health or safety, or State, local or tribal governments or communities; (2) Create a serious inconsistency or otherwise interfere with an action taken or planned by another agency; (3) Materially alter the budgetary impact of entitlements, grants, user fees, or loan programs or the rights and obligations of recipients thereof; or (4) Raise novel legal or policy issues arising out of legal mandates, the President's priorities, or the principles set forth in Executive Order 12866.</P>
        <HD SOURCE="HD1">Administrative Procedure Act</HD>

        <P>Because this final rule merely makes technical amendments and conforming changes to improve the clarity of the regulations, we can issue this final rule without the notice and public procedure under 5 U.S.C. 553(b). For these same reasons, we are issuing this final rule effective on the same date of its publication in the<E T="04">Federal Register</E>. This final rule is not subject to the effective date limitation of 5 U.S.C. 553(d).</P>
        <P>
          <E T="03">Drafting Information:</E>The principal author of this document is Robert Ruhf, Regulations Division, Bureau of Alcohol, Tobacco and Firearms.</P>
        <LSTSUB>
          <HD SOURCE="HED">List of Subjects</HD>
          <CFR>27 CFR Part 20</CFR>
          <P>Administrative practice and procedure, Advertising, Alcohol and alcoholic beverages, Authority delegations (Government agencies), Chemicals, Claims, Cosmetics, Excise taxes, Packaging and containers, Reporting and recordkeeping requirements, Security measures, Surety bonds, Transportation.</P>
          <CFR>27 CFR Part 21</CFR>
          <P>Administrative practice and procedure, Alcohol and alcoholic beverages, Authority delegations (Government agencies), Chemicals, Packaging and containers, Transportation.</P>
          <CFR>27 CFR Part 22</CFR>
          <P>Administrative practice and procedure, Alcohol and alcoholic beverages, Authority delegations (Government agencies), Claims, Excise taxes, Packaging and containers, Reporting and recordkeeping requirements, Security measures, Science and technology, Surety bonds, Transportation.</P>
        </LSTSUB>
        <REGTEXT PART="20" TITLE="27">
          <HD SOURCE="HD1">Authority and Issuance</HD>
          <AMDPAR>Title 27, Code of Federal Regulations is amended as follows:</AMDPAR>
          <PART>
            <HD SOURCE="HED">PART 20—DISTRIBUTION AND USE OF DENATURED ALCOHOL AND RUM</HD>
          </PART>
          <AMDPAR>
            <E T="04">Paragraph 1.</E>The authority citation for part 20 continues to read as follows:</AMDPAR>
          
          <AUTH>
            <HD SOURCE="HED">Authority:</HD>
            <P>20 U.S.C. 5001, 5206, 5214, 5271-5275, 5311, 5552, 5555, 5607, 6065, 7805.</P>
          </AUTH>
        </REGTEXT>
        <REGTEXT PART="20" TITLE="27">
          <AMDPAR>
            <E T="04">Par. 2.</E>Section 20.11 is amended by removing the definitions of “Area supervisor”, “ATF Officer”, “Region”, and “Regional director (compliance)”, by adding a new definition of “Appropriate ATF officer”, and by revising the definition of “Bulk conveyance” to read as follows:</AMDPAR>
          <SECTION>
            <SECTNO>§ 20.11</SECTNO>
            <SUBJECT>Meaning of Terms.</SUBJECT>
            <STARS/>
            <P>
              <E T="03">Appropriate ATF Officer.</E>An officer or employee of the Bureau of Alcohol, Tobacco and Firearms (ATF) authorized to perform any functions relating to the administration or enforcement of this part by ATF Order 1130.9, Delegation Order—Delegation of the Director's Authorities in 27 CFR Parts 20, 21 and 22.</P>
            <STARS/>
            <P>
              <E T="03">Bulk conveyance.</E>Any tank car, tank truck, tank ship, or tank barge, or a compartment of any such conveyance, or any other container approved by the appropriate ATF officer for the conveyance of comparable quantities of denatured spirits or articles.</P>
            <STARS/>
          </SECTION>
        </REGTEXT>
        <REGTEXT PART="20" TITLE="27">
          <AMDPAR>
            <E T="04">Par. 3.</E>In Subpart C—Administrative and Miscellaneous Provisions after the undesignated center heading “Authorities”, a new § 20.20 is added as follows:</AMDPAR>
          <SECTION>
            <SECTNO>§ 20.20</SECTNO>
            <SUBJECT>Delegations of the Director.</SUBJECT>
            <P>All of the regulatory authorities of the Director contained in this Part 20 are delegated to appropriate ATF officers. These ATF officers are specified in ATF Order 1130.9, Delegation Order—Delegation of the Director's Authorities in 27 CFR Parts 20, 21 and 22. ATF delegation orders, such as ATF Order 1130.9, are available to any interested person by mailing a request to the ATF Distribution Center, P.O. Box 5950, Springfield, Virginia 22150-5950, or by accessing the ATF web site (http://www.atf.treas.gov/).</P>
          </SECTION>
          <SECTION>
            <SECTNO>§§ 20.21, 20.22, 20.23, 20.48, 20.91, 20.92, 20.100, 20.103, 20.111, 20.144, 20.177, 20.211, 20.245 and 20.246</SECTNO>
            <SUBJECT>[Amended]</SUBJECT>
          </SECTION>
          <AMDPAR>
            <E T="04">Par. 4.</E>Part 20 is further amended by removing the word “Director” each place it appears and adding, in its place, the words “appropriate ATF officer” in the following places:</AMDPAR>
          <AMDPAR>(a) Section 20.21(a);<PRTPAGE P="5474"/>
          </AMDPAR>
          <AMDPAR>(b) Section 20.22(a)(2), (3) and (4), and (c);</AMDPAR>
          <AMDPAR>(c) Section 20.23;</AMDPAR>
          <AMDPAR>(d) Section 20.48(b) and (c);</AMDPAR>
          <AMDPAR>(e) Section 20.91(a) and (c);</AMDPAR>
          <AMDPAR>(f) Section 20.92(a) and (b);</AMDPAR>
          <AMDPAR>(g) Section 20.100(a) introductory text;</AMDPAR>
          <AMDPAR>(h) Section 20.103;</AMDPAR>
          <AMDPAR>(i) Section 20.111;</AMDPAR>
          <AMDPAR>(j) Section 20.144;</AMDPAR>
          <AMDPAR>(k) Section 20.178(c)(1);</AMDPAR>
          <AMDPAR>(l) Section 20.211(b);</AMDPAR>
          <AMDPAR>(m) Section 20.245; and</AMDPAR>
          <AMDPAR>(n) Section 20.246.</AMDPAR>
        </REGTEXT>
        <REGTEXT PART="20" TITLE="27">
          <AMDPAR>
            <E T="04">Par. 5.</E>Section 20.21 is further amended by adding a sentence at the end of paragraph (a) and revising paragraph (b) to read as follows:</AMDPAR>
          <SECTION>
            <SECTNO>§ 20.21</SECTNO>
            <SUBJECT>Forms prescribed.</SUBJECT>
            <P>(a) * * * The form will be filed in accordance with the instructions for the form.</P>
            <P>(b) Forms may be requested from the ATF Distribution Center, P.O. Box 5950, Springfield, Virginia 22150-5950, or by accessing the ATF web site (http://www.atf.treas.gov/).</P>
          </SECTION>
        </REGTEXT>
        <REGTEXT PART="20" TITLE="27">
          <P>
            <E T="04">Par. 6.</E>The first and second sentences of § 20.22(a)(1) are revised to read as follows:</P>
          <SECTION>
            <SECTNO>§ 20.22</SECTNO>
            <SUBJECT>Alternate methods or procedures; and emergency variations from requirements.</SUBJECT>
            <P>(a)<E T="03">Alternate methods or procedures</E>—(1)<E T="03">Application.</E>A permittee, after receiving approval from the appropriate ATF officer, may use an alternate method or procedure (including alternate construction or equipment) in lieu of a method or procedure prescribed by this part. A permittee wishing to use an alternate method or procedure may apply to the appropriate ATF officer. * * *</P>
            <STARS/>
          </SECTION>
        </REGTEXT>
        <REGTEXT PART="20" TITLE="27">
          <SECTION>
            <SECTNO>§ 20.22; 20.24, 20.26, 20.28, 20.41, 20.42, 20.43, 20.44, 20.48, 20.50, 20.51, 20.56, 20.57, 20.60, 20.61, 20.62, 20.63, 20.64, 20.68, 20.72, 20.74, 20.79, 20.80, 20.82, 20.132, 20.133, 20.134, 20.161, 20.163, 20.164, 20.181, 20.202, 20.204, 20.205, 20.213, 20.234, 20.235, 20.252, 20.261, 20.262, 20.263 and 20.265</SECTNO>
            <SUBJECT>[Amended]</SUBJECT>
          </SECTION>
          <AMDPAR>
            <E T="04">Par. 7.</E>Part 20 is further amended by removing the words “regional director (compliance)” each place it appears and adding, in substitution, the words “appropriate ATF officer” in the following places:</AMDPAR>
          <AMDPAR>(a) Section 20.22(b)(1), (2) and (3);</AMDPAR>
          <AMDPAR>(b) Section 20.24;</AMDPAR>
          <AMDPAR>(c) Section 20.26;</AMDPAR>
          <AMDPAR>(d) Section 20.28(b);</AMDPAR>
          <AMDPAR>(e) Section 20.41(c) introductory text;</AMDPAR>
          <AMDPAR>(f) Section 20.42(a)(11) and (b);</AMDPAR>
          <AMDPAR>(g) Section 20.43(a) introductory text;</AMDPAR>
          <AMDPAR>(h) Section 20.44 introductory text;</AMDPAR>
          <AMDPAR>(i) Section 20.48(b);</AMDPAR>
          <AMDPAR>(j) Section 20.50;</AMDPAR>
          <AMDPAR>(k) Section 20.51 introductory text;</AMDPAR>
          <AMDPAR>(l) Section 20.56(a)(1), (b) and (c)(1) and (3);</AMDPAR>
          <AMDPAR>(m) Section 20.57(b)(1) and (2);</AMDPAR>
          <AMDPAR>(n) Section 20.60;</AMDPAR>
          <AMDPAR>(o) Section 20.61;</AMDPAR>
          <AMDPAR>(p) Section 20.62(a);</AMDPAR>
          <AMDPAR>(q) Section 20.63(a);</AMDPAR>
          <AMDPAR>(r) Section 20.64;</AMDPAR>
          <AMDPAR>(s) Section 20.68(a) introductory text;</AMDPAR>
          <AMDPAR>(t) Section 20.72(b);</AMDPAR>
          <AMDPAR>(u) Section 20.74;</AMDPAR>
          <AMDPAR>(v) Section 20.79;</AMDPAR>
          <AMDPAR>(w) Section 20.80;</AMDPAR>
          <AMDPAR>(x) Section 20.82;</AMDPAR>
          <AMDPAR>(y) Section 20.132(c);</AMDPAR>
          <AMDPAR>(z) Section 20.133(a) introductory text and (b);</AMDPAR>
          <AMDPAR>(aa) Section 20.134(c);</AMDPAR>
          <AMDPAR>(bb) Section 20.161(c)(3);</AMDPAR>
          <AMDPAR>(cc) Section 20.163(c)(2);</AMDPAR>
          <AMDPAR>(dd) Section 20.164(e);</AMDPAR>
          <AMDPAR>(ee) Section 20.181(a);</AMDPAR>
          <AMDPAR>(ff) Section 20.202(a);</AMDPAR>
          <AMDPAR>(gg) Section 20.204(b);</AMDPAR>
          <AMDPAR>(hh) Section 20.205(f);</AMDPAR>
          <AMDPAR>(ii) Section 20.213(a) and (b);</AMDPAR>
          <AMDPAR>(jj) Section 20.234(b)(3);</AMDPAR>
          <AMDPAR>(kk) Section 20.235(c);</AMDPAR>
          <AMDPAR>(ll) Section 20.252(a);</AMDPAR>
          <AMDPAR>(mm) Section 20.261;</AMDPAR>
          <AMDPAR>(nn) Section 20.262(d);</AMDPAR>
          <AMDPAR>(oo) Section 20.263(d); and</AMDPAR>
          <AMDPAR>(pp) Section 20.265(b).</AMDPAR>
        </REGTEXT>
        <REGTEXT PART="20" TITLE="27">
          <AMDPAR>
            <E T="04">Par. 8.</E>Section 20.22(c) is amended by removing the phrase “or the regional director (compliance)” each place it appears.</AMDPAR>
        </REGTEXT>
        <REGTEXT PART="20" TITLE="27">
          <AMDPAR>
            <E T="04">Par. 9.</E>Section 20.25 is revised to read as follows:</AMDPAR>
          <SECTION>
            <SECTNO>§ 20.25</SECTNO>
            <SUBJECT>Permits.</SUBJECT>
            <P>The appropriate ATF officer must issue permits for the United States or a Governmental agency as provided in § 20.241 and industrial alcohol user permits, Form 5150.9, required under this part.</P>
          </SECTION>
        </REGTEXT>
        <REGTEXT PART="20" TITLE="27">
          <SECTION>
            <SECTNO>§ 20.27, 20.28, 20.37, 20.117, 20.166, 20.170, 20.213, 20.261, 20.262, 20.263 and 20.265</SECTNO>
            <SUBJECT>[Amended].</SUBJECT>
          </SECTION>
          <AMDPAR>
            <E T="04">Par. 10.</E>Part 20 is further amended by adding the word “appropriate” before the words “ATF officer” or “ATF officers” each place it appears in the following places:</AMDPAR>
          <AMDPAR>(a) Section 20.27;</AMDPAR>
          <AMDPAR>(b) Section 20.28(a);</AMDPAR>
          <AMDPAR>(c) Section 20.37;</AMDPAR>
          <AMDPAR>(d) Section 20.117(d)(2)(iv);</AMDPAR>
          <AMDPAR>(e) Section 20.166;</AMDPAR>
          <AMDPAR>(f) Section 20.170;</AMDPAR>
          <AMDPAR>(g) Section 20.213(b);</AMDPAR>
          <AMDPAR>(h) Section 20.261;</AMDPAR>
          <AMDPAR>(i) Section 20.262(c);</AMDPAR>
          <AMDPAR>(j) Section 20.263(c); and</AMDPAR>
          <AMDPAR>(k) Section 20.265(a) introductory text.</AMDPAR>
        </REGTEXT>
        <REGTEXT PART="20" TITLE="27">
          <AMDPAR>
            <E T="04">Par. 11.</E>The last sentence of § 20.45(c)(1) is revised to read as follows:</AMDPAR>
          <SECTION>
            <SECTNO>§ 20.45</SECTNO>
            <SUBJECT>Organizational Documents.</SUBJECT>
            <STARS/>
            <P>(c)<E T="03">Statement of interest.</E>(1) * * * If a corporation is wholly owned or controlled by another corporation, persons owning 10% or more of each of the classes of stock of the parent corporation are considered to be the persons interested in the business of the subsidiary, and the names and addresses of such persons must be submitted to the appropriate ATF officer if specifically requested.</P>
          </SECTION>
        </REGTEXT>
        <REGTEXT PART="20" TITLE="27">
          <STARS/>
          <SECTION>
            <SECTNO>§§ 20.53 and 20.205</SECTNO>
            <SUBJECT>[Amended]</SUBJECT>
          </SECTION>
          <AMDPAR>
            <E T="04">Par. 12.</E>Part 20 is further amended by removing the phrase “with the regional director (compliance)” each place it appears in the following places:</AMDPAR>
          <AMDPAR>(a) Section 20.53; and</AMDPAR>
          <AMDPAR>(b) Section 20.205 introductory text.</AMDPAR>
        </REGTEXT>
        <REGTEXT PART="20" TITLE="27">
          <AMDPAR>
            <E T="04">Par. 13.</E>The first sentence of § 20.62(a) is amended to remove the phrase “within the same region”.</AMDPAR>
        </REGTEXT>
        <REGTEXT PART="20" TITLE="27">
          <AMDPAR>
            <E T="04">Par. 14.</E>Paragraph (c) of § 20.92 is revised to read as follows:</AMDPAR>
          <SECTION>
            <SECTNO>§ 20.92</SECTNO>
            <SUBJECT>Samples.</SUBJECT>
            <STARS/>
            <P>(c) The appropriate ATF officer may, at any time, require submission of samples of:</P>
            <P>(1) Any ingredient used in the manufacture of an article, or;</P>
            <P>(2) Any article.</P>
            <STARS/>
          </SECTION>
        </REGTEXT>
        <REGTEXT PART="20" TITLE="27">
          <AMDPAR>
            <E T="04">Par. 15.</E>Paragraph (a) of § 20.95 is amended to remove the phrase “on request by the Director”.</AMDPAR>
        </REGTEXT>
        <REGTEXT PART="20" TITLE="27">
          <AMDPAR>
            <E T="04">Par. 16.</E>Paragraph (b) of § 20.100 is revised to read as follows:</AMDPAR>
          <SECTION>
            <SECTNO>§ 20.100</SECTNO>
            <SUBJECT>General.</SUBJECT>
            <STARS/>
            <P>(b) Approval by the appropriate ATF officer of formulas, samples, or statements of process means only that they meet the standards of the Bureau of Alcohol, Tobacco and Firearms. The approval does not require the issuance of a permit under subpart D of this part to withdraw and use specially denatured spirits in those formulas, articles, or statements of process.</P>
            <STARS/>
          </SECTION>
        </REGTEXT>
        <REGTEXT PART="20" TITLE="27">
          <AMDPAR>
            <E T="04">Par. 17.</E>Paragraph (d)(2)(v) of § 20.117 is amended by removing the phrase “which may be conditions of approval by the regional director (compliance)”.</AMDPAR>
        </REGTEXT>
        <REGTEXT PART="20" TITLE="27">
          <PRTPAGE P="5475"/>
          <AMDPAR>
            <E T="04">Par. 18.</E>Paragraph (b)(1)(ii) of § 20.134 is amended by removing the phrase “regional director (compliance) of the region where the manufacturing site is located” and adding in substitution, the words “appropriate ATF officer”.</AMDPAR>
          <AMDPAR>
            <E T="04">Par. 19.</E>Paragraph (b) of § 20.147 is amended by removing the word “Director's” and adding, in substitution, the words “appropriate ATF officer's.”</AMDPAR>
        </REGTEXT>
        <REGTEXT PART="20" TITLE="27">
          <AMDPAR>
            <E T="04">Par. 20.</E>Paragraph (e) of § 20.189 is amended by removing the phrase “by the Director” and adding, in substitution, the phrase “in accordance with subpart F of this part”.</AMDPAR>
        </REGTEXT>
        <REGTEXT PART="20" TITLE="27">
          <AMDPAR>
            <E T="04">Par. 21.</E>Section 20.190 is revised to read as follows:</AMDPAR>
          <SECTION>
            <SECTNO>§ 20.190</SECTNO>
            <SUBJECT>Diversion of articles for internal human use or beverage use.</SUBJECT>
            <P>An appropriate ATF officer who has reason to believe that the spirits in any article are being reclaimed or diverted to beverage or internal human use may direct the permittee to modify an approved formula to prevent the reclamation or diversion. The appropriate ATF officer may require the permittee to discontinue the use of the formula until it has been modified and again approved.</P>
          </SECTION>
        </REGTEXT>
        <REGTEXT PART="20" TITLE="27">
          <AMDPAR>
            <E T="04">Par. 22.</E>The second sentence of § 20.241 is amended to remove the phrase “from the Director” and adding, in substitution, the phrase “as provided in § 20.25”.</AMDPAR>
        </REGTEXT>
        <REGTEXT PART="20" TITLE="27">
          <AMDPAR>
            <E T="04">Par. 23.</E>The first sentence of § 20.242(b) is amended by removing the phrase “to the Director” and the preceding comma.</AMDPAR>
        </REGTEXT>
        <REGTEXT PART="20" TITLE="27">
          <SECTION>
            <SECTNO>§§ 20.244 and 20.252</SECTNO>
            <SUBJECT>[Amended]</SUBJECT>
          </SECTION>
          <AMDPAR>
            <E T="04">Par. 24.</E>Part 20 is further amended by removing the phrase “regional director (compliance) of the region” and adding in substitution, the words “appropriate ATF officer” each place it appears in the following places:</AMDPAR>
          <AMDPAR>(a) Section 20.244; and (b) Section 20.252(b).</AMDPAR>
        </REGTEXT>
        <REGTEXT PART="20" TITLE="27">
          <AMDPAR>
            <E T="04">Par. 25.</E>The first sentence of § 20.251 is amended by removing the phrase “for submission on request by the Director” and adding, in substitution, the phrase “as required by § 20.92”.</AMDPAR>
        </REGTEXT>
        <REGTEXT PART="20" TITLE="27">
          <AMDPAR>
            <E T="04">Par. 26.</E>The first sentence of paragraph (a) of § 20.267 is amended by removing the phrase “submitted to the regional director (compliance)” and adding, in substitution, the phrase “as required by this part”.</AMDPAR>
        </REGTEXT>
        <REGTEXT PART="20" TITLE="27">
          <AMDPAR>
            <E T="04">Par. 27.</E>The second sentence of paragraph (a) of § 20.267 is amended by removing the words “regional director (compliance)” and adding, in substitution, the words “appropriate ATF officer”.</AMDPAR>
        </REGTEXT>
        <REGTEXT PART="21" TITLE="27">
          <PART>
            <HD SOURCE="HED">PART 21—FORMULAS FOR DENATURED ALCOHOL AND RUM</HD>
          </PART>
          <AMDPAR>
            <E T="04">Par. 28.</E>The authority citation for part 21 continues to read as follows:</AMDPAR>
          
          <AUTH>
            <HD SOURCE="HED">Authority:</HD>
            <P>5 U.S.C. 552(a); 26 U.S.C. 5242, 7805.</P>
          </AUTH>
        </REGTEXT>
        <REGTEXT PART="21" TITLE="27">
          <SECTION>
            <SECTNO>§§ 21.2, 21.3, 21.5, 21.31 and 21.91</SECTNO>
            <SUBJECT>[Amended]</SUBJECT>
          </SECTION>
          <AMDPAR>
            <E T="04">Par. 29.</E>Part 21 is further amended by removing the word “Director” each place it appears and adding, in its place, the words “appropriate ATF officer” in the following places:</AMDPAR>
          <AMDPAR>(a) Section 21.2(a);</AMDPAR>
          <AMDPAR>(b) Section 21.3(d);</AMDPAR>
          <AMDPAR>(c) Section 21.5 introductory text;</AMDPAR>
          <AMDPAR>(d) Section 21.31(b); and</AMDPAR>
          <AMDPAR>(e) Section 21.91.</AMDPAR>
        </REGTEXT>
        <REGTEXT PART="21" TITLE="27">
          <AMDPAR>
            <E T="04">Par. 30.</E>Section 21.2 is further amended by adding a sentence at the end of paragraph (a) and revising paragraph (b) to read as follows:</AMDPAR>
          <SECTION>
            <SECTNO>§ 21.2</SECTNO>
            <SUBJECT>Forms prescribed.</SUBJECT>
            <P>(a) * * * The form will be filed in accordance with the instructions for the form.</P>
            <P>(b) Forms may be requested from the ATF Distribution Center, P.O. Box 5950, Springfield, Virginia 22150-5950, or by accessing the ATF web site (http://www.atf.treas.gov/).</P>
          </SECTION>
        </REGTEXT>
        <REGTEXT PART="21" TITLE="27">
          <SECTION>
            <SECTNO>21.3, 21.21, 21.31, 21.33, 21.34, 21.56 and 21.65</SECTNO>
            <SUBJECT>[Amended]</SUBJECT>
          </SECTION>
          <AMDPAR>
            <E T="04">Par. 31.</E>Part 21 is further amended by removing the words “Chief, Chemical Branch” each place it appears and, in substitution, adding the words “appropriate ATF officer” in the following places:</AMDPAR>
          <AMDPAR>(a) Section 21.3(b);</AMDPAR>
          <AMDPAR>(b) Section 21.21(b) and (c);</AMDPAR>
          <AMDPAR>(c) Section 21.31(c);</AMDPAR>
          <AMDPAR>(d) Section 21.33(c);</AMDPAR>
          <AMDPAR>(e) Section 21.34(c);</AMDPAR>
          <AMDPAR>(f) Section 21.56(a);</AMDPAR>
          <AMDPAR>(g) Section 21.65(a);</AMDPAR>
        </REGTEXT>
        <REGTEXT PART="21" TITLE="27">
          <AMDPAR>
            <E T="04">Par. 32.</E>Paragraph (c) of § 21.3 is revised to read as follows:</AMDPAR>
          <SECTION>
            <SECTNO>§ 21.3</SECTNO>
            <SUBJECT>Stocks of discontinued formulas.</SUBJECT>
            <STARS/>
            <P>(c) On approval of an application, filed with the appropriate ATF officer and approved by such officer, destroy those stocks under whatever supervision the appropriate ATF officer requires; or</P>
            <STARS/>
          </SECTION>
        </REGTEXT>
        <REGTEXT PART="21" TITLE="27">
          <AMDPAR>
            <E T="04">Par. 33.</E>Paragraph (d) of § 21.3 is further amended by removing the phrases “to be filed with the regional director (compliance) for transmittal to the Director” and the parentheses at the beginning and ending of these phrases.</AMDPAR>
        </REGTEXT>
        <REGTEXT PART="21" TITLE="27">
          <AMDPAR>
            <E T="04">Par. 34.</E>In Subpart A—General Provisions, a new § 21.7 is added as follows:</AMDPAR>
          <SECTION>
            <SECTNO>§ 21.7</SECTNO>
            <SUBJECT>Delegations of the Director.</SUBJECT>
            <P>All of the regulatory authorities of the Director contained Part 21 of the regulations are delegated to appropriate ATF officers. These ATF officers are specified in ATF Order 1130.9, Delegation Order—Delegation of the Director's Authorities in 27 CFR Parts 20, 21 and 22. ATF delegation orders, such as ATF Order 1130.9, are available to any interested person by mailing a request to the ATF Distribution Center, PO Box 5950, Springfield, Virginia 22150-5950, or by accessing the ATF web site ((http://www.atf.treas.gov/).</P>
          </SECTION>
        </REGTEXT>
        <REGTEXT PART="21" TITLE="27">
          <AMDPAR>
            <E T="04">Par. 35.</E>Section 21.11 is amended by removing the definitions of “Chief, Chemical Branch” and “Regional director (compliance)” and adding a new definition of “Appropriate ATF officer” to read as follows:</AMDPAR>
          <SECTION>
            <SECTNO>§ 21.11</SECTNO>
            <SUBJECT>Meaning of Terms.</SUBJECT>
            <STARS/>
            <P>
              <E T="03">Appropriate ATF Officer.</E>An officer or employee of the Bureau of Alcohol, Tobacco and Firearms (ATF) authorized to perform any functions relating to the administration or enforcement of this part by ATF Order 1130.9, Delegation Order—Delegation of the Director's Authorities in 27 CFR Parts 20, 21 and 22.</P>
          </SECTION>
        </REGTEXT>
        <REGTEXT PART="21" TITLE="27">
          <STARS/>
          <AMDPAR>
            <E T="04">Par. 36.</E>Footnote 1 of § 21.141 is amended by removing the phrase “by the Chief, Chemical Branch”.</AMDPAR>
        </REGTEXT>
        <REGTEXT PART="22" TITLE="27">
          <PART>
            <HD SOURCE="HED">PART 22—DISTRIBUTION AND USE OF TAX-FREE ALCOHOL</HD>
          </PART>
          <AMDPAR>
            <E T="04">Par. 37.</E>The authority citation continues to read as follows:</AMDPAR>
          
          <AUTH>
            <HD SOURCE="HED">Authority:</HD>
            <P>26 U.S.C. 5001, 5121,5142, 5143, 5146, 5206, 5214, 5271-5276, 5311, 5552, 5555, 6056, 6061, 6065, 6109, 6151, 6806, 7011, 7805; 31 U.S.C. 9304, 9306.</P>
          </AUTH>
          
        </REGTEXT>
        <REGTEXT PART="22" TITLE="27">
          <AMDPAR>
            <E T="04">Par. 38.</E>Section 22.11 is amended by removing the definitions of “Area supervisor”, “ATF officer”, “Delegate”, “Region” and “Regional director (compliance)” and adding a new definition of “Appropriate ATF officer” as to read as follows:</AMDPAR>
          <SECTION>
            <SECTNO>§ 22.11</SECTNO>
            <SUBJECT>Meaning of Terms.</SUBJECT>
            <STARS/>
            <P>
              <E T="03">Appropriate ATF Officer.</E>An officer or employee of the Bureau of Alcohol, Tobacco and Firearms (ATF) authorized to perform any functions relating to the administration or enforcement of this part by ATF Order 1130.9, Delegation Order—Delegation of the Director's<PRTPAGE P="5476"/>Authorities in 27 CFR Parts 20, 21 and 22.</P>
          </SECTION>
        </REGTEXT>
        <REGTEXT PART="22" TITLE="27">
          <STARS/>
          <AMDPAR>
            <E T="04">Par. 39.</E>In Subpart C—Administrative Provisions after the undesignated center heading “Authorities”, a new § 22.20 is added as follows:</AMDPAR>
          <SECTION>
            <SECTNO>§ 22.20</SECTNO>
            <SUBJECT>Delegations of the Director.</SUBJECT>
            <P>All of the regulatory authorities of the Director contained in this Part 22 are delegated to appropriate ATF officers. These ATF officers are specified in ATF Order 1130.9, Delegation Order—Delegation of the Director's Authorities in 27 CFR Parts 20, 21 and 22. ATF delegation orders, such as ATF Order 1130.9, are available to any interested person by mailing a request to the ATF Distribution Center, PO Box 5950, Springfield, Virginia 22150-5950, or by accessing the ATF web site ((http://www.atf.treas.gov/).</P>
          </SECTION>
        </REGTEXT>
        <REGTEXT PART="22" TITLE="27">
          <SECTION>
            <SECTNO>§ 22.21, 22.22, 22.24, 22.171, 22.175 and 22.176</SECTNO>
            <SUBJECT>[Amended]</SUBJECT>
          </SECTION>
          <AMDPAR>
            <E T="04">Par. 40.</E>Part 22 is further amended by removing the word “Director” each place it appears and adding, in its place, the words “appropriate ATF officer” in the following places:</AMDPAR>
          <AMDPAR>(a) Section 22.21(a);</AMDPAR>
          <AMDPAR>(b) Section 22.22(a)(2),(3) and (4);</AMDPAR>
          <AMDPAR>(c) Section 22.24(a);</AMDPAR>
          <AMDPAR>(d) Section 22.171(a);</AMDPAR>
          <AMDPAR>(e) Section 22.175; and</AMDPAR>
          <AMDPAR>(f) Section 22.176(c).</AMDPAR>
        </REGTEXT>
        <REGTEXT PART="22" TITLE="27">
          <AMDPAR>
            <E T="04">Par. 41.</E>Section 22.21 is further amended by adding a sentence at the end of paragraph (a) and revising paragraph (b) to read as follows:</AMDPAR>
          <SECTION>
            <SECTNO>§ 22.21</SECTNO>
            <SUBJECT>Forms prescribed.</SUBJECT>
            <P>(a) * * * The form will be filed in accordance with the instructions for the form.</P>
            <P>(b) Forms may be requested from the ATF Distribution Center, P.O. Box 5950, Springfield, Virginia 22150-5950, or by accessing the ATF web site (http://www.atf.treas.gov/).</P>
          </SECTION>
        </REGTEXT>
        <REGTEXT PART="22" TITLE="27">
          <AMDPAR>
            <E T="04">Par. 42.</E>The first two sentences of § 22.22(a)(1) and paragraph (c) of § 22.22 are revised to read as follows:</AMDPAR>
          <SECTION>
            <SECTNO>§ 22.22</SECTNO>
            <SUBJECT>Alternate methods or procedures; and emergency variations from requirements.</SUBJECT>
            <P>(a)<E T="03">Alternate methods or procedures</E>—(1)<E T="03">Application.</E>A permittee, after receiving approval from the appropriate ATF officer, may use an alternate method or procedure (including alternate construction or equipment) in lieu of a method or procedure prescribed by this part. A permittee wishing to use an alternate method or procedure may apply to the appropriate ATF officer. * * *</P>
            <STARS/>
            <P>(c)<E T="03">Withdrawal of approval.</E>The appropriate ATF officer may withdraw approval for an alternate method or procedure or an emergency variation from requirements, approved under paragraph (a) or (b) of this section, if the appropriate ATF officer finds that the revenue is jeopardized or the effective administration of this part is hindered by the approval.</P>
          </SECTION>
        </REGTEXT>
        <STARS/>
        <REGTEXT PART="22" TITLE="27">
          <SECTION>
            <SECTNO>§§ 22.22, 22.23, 22.24, 22.25, 22.27, 22.41, 22.42, 22.42, 22.43, 22.44, 22.45, 22.50, 22.51, 22.57, 22.58, 22.61, 22.62, 22.63, 22.64, 22.68, 22.72, 22.74, 22.79, 22.80, 22.82, 22.102, 22.103, 22.111, 22.113, 22.122, 22.124, 22.125, 22.154, 22.162 and 22.164</SECTNO>
            <SUBJECT>[Amended]</SUBJECT>
          </SECTION>
          <AMDPAR>
            <E T="04">Par. 43.</E>Part 22 is further amended by removing the words “regional director (compliance)” each place it appears and adding, in substitution, the words “appropriate ATF officer” in the following places:</AMDPAR>
          <AMDPAR>(a) Section 22.22(b)(1), (2) and (3);</AMDPAR>
          <AMDPAR>(b) Section 22.23;</AMDPAR>
          <AMDPAR>(c) Section 22.24(b);</AMDPAR>
          <AMDPAR>(d) Section 22.25;</AMDPAR>
          <AMDPAR>(e) Section 22.27(b);</AMDPAR>
          <AMDPAR>(f) Section 22.41(b);</AMDPAR>
          <AMDPAR>(g) Section 22.42(a)(11);</AMDPAR>
          <AMDPAR>(h) Section 22.42(b);</AMDPAR>
          <AMDPAR>(i) Section 22.43(a) introductory text;</AMDPAR>
          <AMDPAR>(j) Section 22.44 introductory text;</AMDPAR>
          <AMDPAR>(k) Section 22.45(c)(1);</AMDPAR>
          <AMDPAR>(l) Section 22.50;</AMDPAR>
          <AMDPAR>(m) Section 22.51 introductory text;</AMDPAR>
          <AMDPAR>(n) Section 22.57(a)(1), (b) and (c)(1) and (3);</AMDPAR>
          <AMDPAR>(o) Section 22.58(b)(1) and (2);</AMDPAR>
          <AMDPAR>(p) Section 22.61;</AMDPAR>
          <AMDPAR>(q) Section 22.62;</AMDPAR>
          <AMDPAR>(r) Section 22.63(a);</AMDPAR>
          <AMDPAR>(s) Section 22.64;</AMDPAR>
          <AMDPAR>(t) Section 22.68(a);</AMDPAR>
          <AMDPAR>(u) Section 22.72(b);</AMDPAR>
          <AMDPAR>(v) Section 22.74;</AMDPAR>
          <AMDPAR>(w) Section 22.79;</AMDPAR>
          <AMDPAR>(x) Section 22.80;</AMDPAR>
          <AMDPAR>(y) Section 22.82;</AMDPAR>
          <AMDPAR>(z) Section 22.102(c) introductory text;</AMDPAR>
          <AMDPAR>(aa) Section 22.103;</AMDPAR>
          <AMDPAR>(bb) Section 22.111(c)(3);</AMDPAR>
          <AMDPAR>(cc) Section 22.113(a)(1);</AMDPAR>
          <AMDPAR>(dd) Section 22.122(a);</AMDPAR>
          <AMDPAR>(ee) Section 22.124(b);</AMDPAR>
          <AMDPAR>(ff) Section 22.125(c);</AMDPAR>
          <AMDPAR>(gg) Section 22.154(b)(3);</AMDPAR>
          <AMDPAR>(hh) Section 22.162; and</AMDPAR>
          <AMDPAR>(ii) Section 22.164(a).</AMDPAR>
        </REGTEXT>
        <REGTEXT PART="22" TITLE="27">
          <SECTION>
            <SECTNO>§§ 22.26, 22.27, 22.36, 22.39, 22.113, 22.142 and 22.161</SECTNO>
            <SUBJECT>[Amended]</SUBJECT>
          </SECTION>
          <AMDPAR>
            <E T="04">Par. 44.</E>Part 22 is further amended by adding the word “appropriate” before the words “ATF officer” or “ATF officers” each place it appears in the following places:</AMDPAR>
          <AMDPAR>(a) Section 22.26;</AMDPAR>
          <AMDPAR>(b) Section 22.27(a);</AMDPAR>
          <P>(c) Section 22.36;</P>
          <P>(d) Section 22.39(c);</P>
          <P>(e) Section 22.113(c);</P>
          <P>(f) Section 22.142(a) and (c); and</P>
          <P>(g) Section 22.161(a) and (d).</P>
        </REGTEXT>
        <REGTEXT PART="22" TITLE="27">
          <AMDPAR>
            <E T="04">Par. 45.</E>The last sentence of § 22.45(c)(1) is revised to read as follows:</AMDPAR>
          <SECTION>
            <SECTNO>§ 22.45</SECTNO>
            <SUBJECT>Organizational Documents.</SUBJECT>
            <STARS/>
            <P>(c)<E T="03">Statement of interest.</E>(1) * *  * If a corporation is wholly owned or controlled by another corporation, persons owning 10% or more of each of the classes of stock of the parent corporation are considered to be the persons interested in the business of the subsidiary, and the names and addresses of such persons must be submitted to the appropriate ATF officer if specifically requested.</P>
          </SECTION>
        </REGTEXT>
        <REGTEXT PART="22" TITLE="27">
          <STARS/>
          <SECTION>
            <SECTNO>§§ 22.53 and 22.125</SECTNO>
            <SUBJECT>[Amended]</SUBJECT>
          </SECTION>
          <AMDPAR>
            <E T="04">Par. 46.</E>Part 22 is further amended by removing the phrase “with the regional director (compliance)” each place it appears in the following places:</AMDPAR>
          <AMDPAR>(a) Section 22.53; and</AMDPAR>
          <AMDPAR>(b) Section 22.125(a) introductory text.</AMDPAR>
        </REGTEXT>
        <REGTEXT PART="22" TITLE="27">
          <SECTION>
            <SECTNO>§ 22.142</SECTNO>
            <SUBJECT>[Amended]</SUBJECT>
          </SECTION>
          <AMDPAR>
            <E T="04">Par. 47.</E>Part 22 is further amended by removing the words “area supervisor” each place it appears and adding, in substitution, the words “appropriate ATF officer” in the following places:</AMDPAR>
          <AMDPAR>(a) Section 22.142(a), (c) and (d).</AMDPAR>
          <AMDPAR>
            <E T="04">Par. 48.</E>The first sentence of § 22.63(a) is amended by removing the phrase “within the same region'.</AMDPAR>
        </REGTEXT>
        <REGTEXT PART="22" TITLE="27">
          <AMDPAR>
            <E T="04">Par. 49.</E>The first sentence of § 22.172(b) is amended by removing the phrase “to the Director'.</AMDPAR>
          <AMDPAR>
            <E T="04">Par. 50.</E>The second sentence of § 22.174 is amended by removing the words “regional director (compliance) of the region from which the shipment was consigned” and adding, in substitution, the words “appropriate ATF officer.”</AMDPAR>
        </REGTEXT>
        <SIG>
          <DATED>Signed: July 13, 2000.</DATED>
          <NAME>Bradley A, Buckles,</NAME>
          <TITLE>Director.</TITLE>
          <APPR>Approved: August 1, 2000.</APPR>
          <NAME>John P. Simpson,</NAME>
          <TITLE>Deputy Assistant Secretary (Regulatory, Tariff and Trade Enforcement).</TITLE>
        </SIG>
      </SUPLINF>
      <FRDOC>[FR Doc. 01-1163 Filed 1-18-01; 8:45 am]</FRDOC>
      <BILCOD>BILLING CODE 4810-31-P</BILCOD>
    </RULE>
    <RULE>
      <PREAMB>
        <PRTPAGE P="5477"/>
        <AGENCY TYPE="S">DEPARTMENT OF THE TREASURY</AGENCY>
        <SUBAGY>Bureau of Alcohol, Tobacco and Firearms</SUBAGY>
        <CFR>27 CFR Part 25</CFR>
        <DEPDOC>[T.D. ATF-437]</DEPDOC>
        <RIN>RIN 1512-AC20</RIN>
        <SUBJECT>Delegation of Authority for Part 25</SUBJECT>
        <AGY>
          <HD SOURCE="HED">AGENCY:</HD>
          <P>Bureau of Alcohol, Tobacco and Firearms (ATF), Treasury.</P>
        </AGY>
        <ACT>
          <HD SOURCE="HED">ACTION:</HD>
          <P>Treasury decision, final rule.</P>
        </ACT>
        <SUM>
          <HD SOURCE="HED">SUMMARY:</HD>
          <P>This final rule places ATF authorities contained in part 25, title 27 Code of Federal Regulations (CFR), with the “appropriate ATF officer” and requires that persons file documents required by part 25, title 27 Code of Federal Regulations (CFR), with the “appropriate ATF officer” or in accordance with the instructions on the ATF form. Also, this final rule removes the definitions of, and references to, specific officers subordinate to the Director and the word “region.” Concurrently with this Treasury Decision, ATF Order 1130.10 is being published. Through this order, the Director has delegated most of the authorities in 27 CFR part 25 to the appropriate ATF officers and specified the ATF officers with whom applications, notices and other reports, which are not ATF forms, are filed.</P>
        </SUM>
        <EFFDATE>
          <HD SOURCE="HED">EFFECTIVE DATE:</HD>
          <P>This rule is effective January 19, 2001.</P>
        </EFFDATE>
        <FURINF>
          <HD SOURCE="HED">FOR FURTHER INFORMATION CONTACT:</HD>
          <P>Robert Ruhf, Regulations Division, Bureau of Alcohol, Tobacco and Firearms, 650 Massachusetts Avenue NW, Room 5003, Washington, DC 20226 (telephone 202-927-8210 or e-mail to alctob@atfhq.atf.treas.gov).</P>
        </FURINF>
      </PREAMB>
      <SUPLINF>
        <HD SOURCE="HED">SUPPLEMENTARY INFORMATION:</HD>
        <HD SOURCE="HD1">Background</HD>
        <P>Pursuant to Treasury Order 120-01 (formerly 221), dated June 6, 1972, the Secretary of the Treasury delegated to the Director of the Bureau of Alcohol, Tobacco and Firearms (ATF), the authority to enforce, among other laws, the provisions of chapter 51 of the Internal Revenue Code of 1986 (IRC). The Director has subsequently redelegated certain of these authorities to appropriate subordinate officers by way of various means, including by regulation, ATF delegation orders, regional directives, or similar delegation documents. As a result, to ascertain what particular officer is authorized to perform a particular function under chapter 51, each of these various delegation instruments must be consulted. Similarly, each time a delegation of authority is revoked or redelegated, each of the delegation documents must be reviewed and amended as necessary.</P>
        <P>ATF has determined that this multiplicity of delegation instruments complicates and hinders the task of determining which ATF officer is authorized to perform a particular function. ATF also believes these multiple delegation instruments exacerbate the administrative burden associated with maintaining up-to-date delegations, resulting in an undue delay in reflecting current authorities.</P>
        <P>Accordingly, this final rule rescinds all authorities of the Director in part 25 that were previously delegated and places those authorities with the “appropriate ATF officer.” All of the authorities of the Director that were not previously delegated are also placed with the “appropriate ATF officer.” Along with this final rule, ATF is publishing ATF Order 1130.10, Delegation Order—Delegation of the Director's Authorities in 27 CFR part 25, Beer, which delegates certain of these authorities to the appropriate organizational level. The effect of these changes is to consolidate all delegations of authority in part 25 into one delegation instrument. This action both simplifies the process for determining what ATF officer is authorized to perform a particular function and facilitates the updating of delegations in the future. As a result, delegations of authority will be reflected in a more timely and user-friendly manner.</P>
        <P>In addition, this final rule also eliminates all references in the regulations that identify the ATF officer with whom an ATF form is filed. This is because ATF forms will indicate the officer with whom they must be filed. Similarly, this final rule also amends part 25 to provide that the submission of documents other than ATF forms (such as letterhead applications, notices and reports) must be filed with the “appropriate ATF officer” identified in ATF Order 1130.10. These changes will facilitate the identification of the officer with whom forms and other required submissions are filed.</P>
        <P>This final rule also makes various technical amendments to Subpart A—Scope of Regulations of 27 CFR part 25. First, a new § 25.6 is added to recognize the authority of the Director to delegate regulatory authorities in part 25 and to identify ATF Order 1130.10 as the instrument reflecting such delegations. Second, § 25.3 is amended to provide that the instructions for an ATF form identify the ATF officer with whom it must be filed. Third, this rule removes from part 25 of Title 27 of the Code of Federal Regulations the definition of the term “delegate.” This term is used only in the definition of Secretary in part 25 of Title 27 of the Code of Federal Regulations. We have removed the definition of “delegate” to be consistent with most parts of title 27 of the Code of Federal Regulations and to minimize potential confusion and misunderstanding with the appropriate ATF officers to whom the Director has delegated authority.</P>
        <P>ATF has made or will make similar changes in delegations to all other parts of Title 27 of the Code of Federal Regulations through separate rulemakings. By amending the regulations part by part, rather than in one large rulemaking document and ATF Order, ATF minimizes the time expended in notifying interested parties of current delegations of authority.</P>
        <HD SOURCE="HD1">Paperwork Reduction Act</HD>
        <P>The provisions of the Paperwork Reduction Act of 1995, Pub. L. 104-13, 44 U.S.C. Chapter 35, and its implementing regulations, 5 CFR part 1320, do not apply to this final rule because there are no new or revised recordkeeping or reporting requirements.</P>
        <HD SOURCE="HD1">Regulatory Flexibility Act</HD>
        <P>Because no notice of proposed rulemaking is required for this rule, the provisions of the Regulatory Flexibility Act (5 U.S.C. 601 et seq.) do not apply. A copy of this final rule was submitted to the Chief Counsel for Advocacy of the Small Business Administration in accordance with 26 U.S.C. 7805(f). No comments were received.</P>
        <HD SOURCE="HD1">Executive Order 12866</HD>

        <P>It has been determined that this rule is not a significant regulatory action because it will not: (1) Have an annual effect on the economy of $100 million or more or adversely affect in a material way the economy, a sector of the economy, productivity, competition, jobs, the environment, public health or safety, or State, local or tribal governments or communities; (2) Create a serious inconsistency or otherwise interfere with an action taken or planned by another agency; (3) Materially alter the budgetary impact of entitlements, grants, user fees, or loan programs or the rights and obligations of recipients thereof; or (4) Raise novel legal or policy issues arising out of legal mandates, the President's priorities, or the principles set forth in Executive Order 12866.<PRTPAGE P="5478"/>
        </P>
        <HD SOURCE="HD1">Administrative Procedure Act</HD>
        <P>Because this final rule merely makes technical amendments and conforming changes to improve the clarity of the regulations, it is unnecessary to issue this final rule with notice and public procedure under 5 U.S.C. 553(b). Similarly it is unnecessary to subject this final rule to the effective date limitation of 5 U.S.C. 553(d).</P>
        <HD SOURCE="HD1">Drafting Information</HD>
        <P>The principal author of this document is Robert Ruhf, Regulations Division, Bureau of Alcohol, Tobacco and Firearms.</P>
        <LSTSUB>
          <HD SOURCE="HED">List of Subjects in 27 CFR Part 25</HD>
          <P>Administrative practice and procedure, Authority delegations, Beer, Claims, Custom duties and inspection, Electronic fund transfers, Excise taxes, Exports, Labeling, Liquors, Packaging and containers, Reporting and recordkeeping requirements, Research, Security measures, Surety bonds, Transportation.</P>
        </LSTSUB>
        <REGTEXT PART="25" TITLE="27">
          <HD SOURCE="HD1">Authority and Issuance</HD>
          <AMDPAR>Title 27, Code of Federal Regulations is amended as follows:</AMDPAR>
          <PART>
            <HD SOURCE="HED">PART 25—BEER</HD>
          </PART>
          <AMDPAR>
            <E T="04">Paragraph 1.</E>The authority citation for part 25 continues to read as follows:</AMDPAR>
          
          <AUTH>
            <HD SOURCE="HED">Authority:</HD>
            <P>19 U.S.C. 81c; 26 U.S.C. 5002, 5051-5054, 5056, 5061, 5091, 5111, 5113, 5142, 5143, 5146, 5222, 5401-5403, 5411-5417, 5551, 5552, 5555, 5556, 5671, 5673, 5684, 6011, 6061, 6065, 6091, 6109, 6151, 6301, 6302, 6311, 6313, 6402, 6651, 6656, 6676, 6806, 7011, 7342, 7606, 7805; 31 U.S.C. 9301, 9303-8.</P>
          </AUTH>
        </REGTEXT>
        <REGTEXT PART="25" TITLE="27">
          <SECTION>
            <SECTNO>§§ 25.3, 25.23, 25.52, 25.142 and 25.155</SECTNO>
            <SUBJECT>[Amended]</SUBJECT>
          </SECTION>
          <AMDPAR>
            <E T="04">Par. 2.</E>In part 25 remove the words “Director” each place it appears and add, in substitution, the words “appropriate ATF officer” in the following places:</AMDPAR>
          <AMDPAR>(a) Section 25.3(a);</AMDPAR>
          <AMDPAR>(b) Section 25.23(b) introductory text and (c);</AMDPAR>
          <AMDPAR>(c) Section 25.52(a)(1), (3), (4) and (5);</AMDPAR>
          <AMDPAR>(d) Section 25.142(c); and</AMDPAR>
          <AMDPAR>(e) Section 25.155.</AMDPAR>
        </REGTEXT>
        <REGTEXT PART="25" TITLE="27">
          <AMDPAR>
            <E T="04">Par. 3.</E>Part 25 is further amended by adding a sentence at the end of paragraph (a) and revising paragraph (b) of § 25.3 to read as follows:</AMDPAR>
          <SECTION>
            <SECTNO>§ 25.3</SECTNO>
            <SUBJECT>Forms prescribed.</SUBJECT>
            <P>(a) * * * The form will be filed in accordance with the instructions for the form.</P>
            <P>(b) Forms may be requested from the ATF Distribution Center, P.O. Box 5950, Springfield, Virginia 22150-5950, or by accessing the ATF web site (http://www.atf.treas.gov/).</P>
          </SECTION>
        </REGTEXT>
        <REGTEXT PART="25" TITLE="27">
          <AMDPAR>
            <E T="04">Par. 4.</E>In Subpart A—Scope of Regulations, a new § 25.6 is added as follows:</AMDPAR>
          <SECTION>
            <SECTNO>§ 25.6</SECTNO>
            <SUBJECT>Delegations of the Director.</SUBJECT>
            <P>Most of the regulatory authorities of the Director contained in this part 25 are delegated to appropriate ATF officers. These ATF officers are specified in ATF Order 1130.10, Delegation Order—Delegation of the Director's Authorities in 27 CFR part 25, Beer. ATF delegation orders, such as ATF Order 1130.10, are available to any interested person by mailing a request to the ATF Distribution Center, P.O. Box 5950, Springfield, Virginia 22150-5950, or by accessing the ATF web site (http://www.atf.treas.gov/).</P>
          </SECTION>
        </REGTEXT>
        <REGTEXT PART="25" TITLE="27">
          <AMDPAR>
            <E T="04">Par. 5.</E>Section 25.11 is amended by removing the definitions of “Area supervisor”, “ATF officer”, “Delegate”, “Region” and “Regional director (compliance)” and by adding a new definition of “Appropriate ATF officer” to read as follows:</AMDPAR>
          <SECTION>
            <SECTNO>§ 25.11</SECTNO>
            <SUBJECT>Meaning of Terms.</SUBJECT>
            <STARS/>
            <P>
              <E T="03">Appropriate ATF Officer.</E>An officer or employee of the Bureau of Alcohol, Tobacco and Firearms (ATF) authorized to perform any functions relating to the administration or enforcement of this part by ATF Order 1130.10, Delegation Order—Delegation of the Director's Authorities in 27 CFR part 25, Beer.</P>
            <STARS/>
          </SECTION>
        </REGTEXT>
        <REGTEXT PART="25" TITLE="27">
          <SECTION>
            <SECTNO>§§ 25.11, 25.22, 25.24, 25.25, 25.42, 25.52, 25.61, 25.63, 25.66, 25.71, 25.72, 25.74, 25.75, 25.77, 25.81, 25.91, 25.95, 25.96, 25.101, 25.103, 25.104, 25.105, 25.114, 25.144, 25.152, 25.158, 25.165, 25.167, 25.173, 25.182, 25.184, 25.196, 25.223, 25.225, 25.272, 25.274, 25.277, 25.281, 25.282, 25.283, 25.284, 25.291, 25.297 and 25.300</SECTNO>
            <SUBJECT>[Amended]</SUBJECT>
          </SECTION>
          <AMDPAR>
            <E T="04">Par. 6.</E>Part 25 is further amended by removing the words “regional director (compliance)” each place they appear and adding, in substitution, the words “appropriate ATF officer” in the following places:</AMDPAR>
          <AMDPAR>(a) The definition of Barrel in § 25.11;</AMDPAR>
          <AMDPAR>(b) Section 25.22;</AMDPAR>
          <AMDPAR>(c) Section 25.24(a)(7);</AMDPAR>
          <AMDPAR>(d) Section 25.25(a);</AMDPAR>
          <AMDPAR>(e) Section 25.42(c);</AMDPAR>
          <AMDPAR>(f) Section 25.52(a)(2) and (b)(1), (2), (3);</AMDPAR>
          <AMDPAR>(g) Section 25.61(a) and (c);</AMDPAR>
          <AMDPAR>(h) Section 25.63;</AMDPAR>
          <AMDPAR>(i) Section 25.66(c)(1);</AMDPAR>
          <AMDPAR>(j) Section 25.71(a)(2) and (b)(1);</AMDPAR>
          <AMDPAR>(k) Section 25.72(b)(2);</AMDPAR>
          <AMDPAR>(l) Section 25.74;</AMDPAR>
          <AMDPAR>(m) Section 25.75;</AMDPAR>
          <AMDPAR>(n) Section 25.77;</AMDPAR>
          <AMDPAR>(o) Section 25.81(e);</AMDPAR>
          <AMDPAR>(p) Section 25.91(c) and (d);</AMDPAR>
          <AMDPAR>(q) Section 25.95;</AMDPAR>
          <AMDPAR>(r) Section 25.96;</AMDPAR>
          <AMDPAR>(s) Section 25.101(a) introductory text and (b);</AMDPAR>
          <AMDPAR>(t) Section 25.103;</AMDPAR>
          <AMDPAR>(u) Section 25.104;</AMDPAR>
          <AMDPAR>(v) Section 25.105;</AMDPAR>
          <AMDPAR>(w) Section 25.114(a);</AMDPAR>
          <AMDPAR>(x) Section 25.144(b);</AMDPAR>
          <AMDPAR>(y) Section 25.152(a) undesignated paragraph;</AMDPAR>
          <AMDPAR>(z) Section 25.158(c);</AMDPAR>
          <AMDPAR>(aa) Section 25.165(b)(3) and (e);</AMDPAR>
          <AMDPAR>(bb) Section 25.167(a);</AMDPAR>
          <AMDPAR>(cc) Section 25.173(a);</AMDPAR>
          <AMDPAR>(dd) Section 25.182;</AMDPAR>
          <AMDPAR>(ee) Section 25.184(d);</AMDPAR>
          <AMDPAR>(ff) Section 25.196(b);</AMDPAR>
          <AMDPAR>(gg) Section 25.223(a);</AMDPAR>
          <AMDPAR>(hh) Section 25.225(b)(2);</AMDPAR>
          <AMDPAR>(ii) Section 25.272(a) introductory text, (b), (c), (d) and (e);</AMDPAR>
          <AMDPAR>(jj) Section 25.274(a);</AMDPAR>
          <AMDPAR>(kk) Section 25.277;</AMDPAR>
          <AMDPAR>(ll) Section 25.281(c);</AMDPAR>
          <AMDPAR>(mm) Section 25.282(b), (c), (d) and (f);</AMDPAR>
          <AMDPAR>(nn) Section 25.283(d);</AMDPAR>
          <AMDPAR>(oo) Section 25.284(b);</AMDPAR>
          <AMDPAR>(pp) Section 25.291(d)(3);</AMDPAR>
          <AMDPAR>(qq) Section 25.297(b)(4); and</AMDPAR>
          <AMDPAR>(rr) Section 25.300(c).</AMDPAR>
        </REGTEXT>
        <REGTEXT PART="25" TITLE="27">
          <SECTION>
            <SECTNO>§§ 25.31, 25.42, 25.64, 25.66, 25.68, 25.127, 25.213, 25.251, 25.252, 25.291, 25.294 and 25.300</SECTNO>
            <SUBJECT>[Amended]</SUBJECT>
          </SECTION>
          <AMDPAR>
            <E T="04">Par. 7.</E>Part 25 is further amended by adding the word “appropriate” before the words “ATF officer” or “ATF officers” each place they appear in the following places:</AMDPAR>
          <AMDPAR>(a) Section 25.31;</AMDPAR>
          <AMDPAR>(b) Section 25.42 introductory text;</AMDPAR>
          <AMDPAR>(c) Section 25.64;</AMDPAR>
          <AMDPAR>(d) Section 25.66(d);</AMDPAR>
          <AMDPAR>(e) Section 25.68(b);</AMDPAR>
          <AMDPAR>(f) Section 25.127;</AMDPAR>
          <AMDPAR>(g) Section 25.213(c);</AMDPAR>
          <AMDPAR>(h) Section 25.251(c);</AMDPAR>
          <AMDPAR>(i) Section 25.252(c);</AMDPAR>
          <AMDPAR>(j) Section 25.291(c)(2)(ii);</AMDPAR>
          <AMDPAR>(k) Section 25.294(c); and</AMDPAR>
          <AMDPAR>(l) Section 25.300(a) and (d)(3).</AMDPAR>
        </REGTEXT>
        <REGTEXT PART="25" TITLE="27">
          <AMDPAR>
            <E T="04">Par. 8.</E>Section 25.51 is revised to read as follows:</AMDPAR>
          <SECTION>
            <SECTNO>§ 25.51</SECTNO>
            <SUBJECT>Right of Entry and Examination.</SUBJECT>

            <P>An appropriate ATF officer may enter, during normal business hours, a brewery or other place where beer is stored and may, when the premises are open at other times, enter those premises in the performance of official duties. Appropriate ATF officers may<PRTPAGE P="5479"/>make inspections as the appropriate ATF officer deems necessary to determine that operations are conducted in compliance with the law and this part. The owner of any building or place where beer is produced, made, or kept, or person having charge over such premises, who refuses to admit an appropriate ATF officer acting under 26 U.S.C. 7606, or who refuses to permit an appropriate ATF officer to examine beer must, for each refusal, forfeit $500.</P>
          </SECTION>
        </REGTEXT>
        <REGTEXT PART="25" TITLE="27">
          <AMDPAR>
            <E T="04">Par. 9.</E>Section 25.52(d) is revised to read as follows:</AMDPAR>
          <SECTION>
            <SECTNO>§ 25.52</SECTNO>
            <SUBJECT>Variations from requirements.</SUBJECT>
            <STARS/>
            <P>(d)<E T="03">Withdrawal of approval.</E>The appropriate ATF officer may withdraw approval of an alternate method or procedure, approved under paragraph (a) or (b) of this section, if the appropriate ATF officer finds that the revenue is jeopardized or the effective administration of this part is hindered by the approval.</P>
            <STARS/>
          </SECTION>
        </REGTEXT>
        <REGTEXT PART="25" TITLE="27">
          <AMDPAR>
            <E T="04">Par. 10.</E>The first and second sentences of § 25.61(b) are revised to read as follows:</AMDPAR>
          <SECTION>
            <SECTNO>§ 25.61</SECTNO>
            <SUBJECT>General requirements for notice.</SUBJECT>
            <STARS/>
            <P>(b)<E T="03">Brewer's Notice, Form 5130.10.</E>Each person must, before commencing business as a brewer, give notice on Form 5130.10. Each person continuing business as a brewer as provided in § 25.71 must give notice on Form 5130.10. * * *</P>
          </SECTION>
        </REGTEXT>
        <REGTEXT PART="25" TITLE="27">
          <STARS/>
          <SECTION>
            <SECTNO>§ 25.62</SECTNO>
            <SUBJECT>[Amended]</SUBJECT>
          </SECTION>
          <AMDPAR>
            <E T="04">Par. 11.</E>Section 25.62(b) is amended by removing the words “the regional director of any ATF region” and adding, in substitution, the words “an ATF office'.</AMDPAR>
        </REGTEXT>
        <REGTEXT PART="25" TITLE="27">
          <SECTION>
            <SECTNO>§§ 25.65, 25.78, 25.81, 25.276 and 25.286</SECTNO>
            <SUBJECT>[Amended]</SUBJECT>
          </SECTION>
          <AMDPAR>
            <E T="04">Par. 12.</E>Part 25 is further amended by removing the phrase “with the regional director (compliance)” each place it appears in the following places:</AMDPAR>
          <AMDPAR>(a) Section 25.65;</AMDPAR>
          <AMDPAR>(b) Section 25.78;</AMDPAR>
          <AMDPAR>(c) Section 25.81(b) introductory text;</AMDPAR>
          <AMDPAR>(d) Section 25.276(b); and (e) The last sentence of § 25.286(a).</AMDPAR>
        </REGTEXT>
        <REGTEXT PART="25" TITLE="27">
          <AMDPAR>
            <E T="04">Par. 13.</E>Section 25.71 (a)(1) is amended by removing the words “to the regional director (compliance)” from the first sentence.</AMDPAR>
        </REGTEXT>
        <REGTEXT PART="25" TITLE="27">
          <SECTION>
            <SECTNO>§ 25.81</SECTNO>
            <SUBJECT>[Amended]</SUBJECT>
          </SECTION>
          <AMDPAR>
            <E T="04">Par. 14.</E>Section 25.81 (c) is amended by removing from the introductory text the words “regional director (compliance) through the ATF area supervisor” and adding, in substitution, the words “appropriate ATF officer”.</AMDPAR>
        </REGTEXT>
        <REGTEXT PART="25" TITLE="27">
          <AMDPAR>
            <E T="04">Par. 15.</E>The first through third sentences of § 25.85 are revised to read as follows:</AMDPAR>
          <SECTION>
            <SECTNO>§ 25.85</SECTNO>
            <SUBJECT>Notice of permanent discontinuance.</SUBJECT>
            <P>When a brewer desires to discontinue business permanently, he or she must file a notice on Form 5130.10. The brewer must state the purpose of the notice as “Discontinuance of business” and give the date of the discontinuance. When all beer has been lawfully disposed of, appropriate ATF officer will approve the Form 5130.10 and return a copy to the brewer. * * *</P>
            <STARS/>
          </SECTION>
          <SECTION>
            <SECTNO>§ 25.91</SECTNO>
            <SUBJECT>[Amended]</SUBJECT>
          </SECTION>
          <AMDPAR>
            <E T="04">Par. 16.</E>Section 25.91(a) is amended by removing from the second sentence the phrase “with the regional director (compliance)” and the comma preceding this phrase.</AMDPAR>
        </REGTEXT>
        <REGTEXT PART="25" TITLE="27">
          <AMDPAR>
            <E T="04">Par. 17.</E>Section 25.101(b) is revised to read as follows:</AMDPAR>
          <SECTION>
            <SECTNO>§ 25.101</SECTNO>
            <SUBJECT>Disapproval of bonds or consents of surety.</SUBJECT>
            <STARS/>
            <P>(b)<E T="03">Appeal of disapproval.</E>If the bond or consent of surety is disapproved, the person giving the bond or consent of surety may appeal the disapproval to the appropriate ATF officer, who will grant a hearing in the matter if requested by the applicant or brewer, and whose decision will be final.</P>
            <STARS/>
          </SECTION>
        </REGTEXT>
        <REGTEXT PART="25" TITLE="27">
          <AMDPAR>
            <E T="04">Par. 18.</E>The second and last sentences of § 25.141(b)(2) are revised to read as follows:</AMDPAR>
          <SECTION>
            <SECTNO>§ 25.141</SECTNO>
            <SUBJECT>Barrels and kegs.</SUBJECT>
            <STARS/>
            <P>(b) * * *</P>
            <P>(2) * * * The coding system employed will permit an appropriate ATF officer to determine the place of production (including street address if two or more breweries are located in the same city) of the beer. The brewer must notify the appropriate ATF officer prior to employing a coding system.</P>
          </SECTION>
        </REGTEXT>
        <REGTEXT PART="25" TITLE="27">
          <STARS/>
          <AMDPAR>
            <E T="04">Par. 19.</E>The second and last sentences of § 25.142(b)(2) are revised to read as follows:</AMDPAR>
          <SECTION>
            <SECTNO>§ 25.142</SECTNO>
            <SUBJECT>Bottles.</SUBJECT>
            <STARS/>
            <P>(b) * * *</P>
            <P>(2) * * * The coding system employed will permit an appropriate ATF officer to determine the place of production (including street address if two or more breweries are located in the same city) of the beer. The brewer must notify the appropriate ATF offcer prior to employing a coding system.</P>
            <STARS/>
          </SECTION>
          <SECTION>
            <SECTNO>§ 25.165</SECTNO>
            <SUBJECT>[Amended]</SUBJECT>
          </SECTION>
        </REGTEXT>
        <REGTEXT PART="25" TITLE="27">
          <AMDPAR>
            <E T="04">Par. 20.</E>Section 25.165(b)(1) is amended by removing the words “regional director (compliance), for each region in which taxes are paid” and adding, in substitution, the words “appropriate ATF officer”.</AMDPAR>
        </REGTEXT>
        <REGTEXT PART="25" TITLE="27">
          <SECTION>
            <SECTNO>§ 25.184</SECTNO>
            <SUBJECT>[Amended]</SUBJECT>
          </SECTION>
          <AMDPAR>
            <E T="04">Par. 21.</E>Section 25.184(c) is amended by removing the second sentence.</AMDPAR>
        </REGTEXT>
        <REGTEXT PART="25" TITLE="27">
          <AMDPAR>
            <E T="04">Par. 22.</E>Section 25.213(b) is amended by revising the first and third sentences of the introductory text to read as follows:</AMDPAR>
          <SECTION>
            <SECTNO>§ 25.213</SECTNO>
            <SUBJECT>Beer returned to brewery other than that from which removed.</SUBJECT>
            <STARS/>
            <P>(b)<E T="03">Notice.</E>A brewer need not file notice of intention to return beer to a brewery other than the one from which removed unless required by the appropriate ATF officer. * * * The brewer must file it with the appropriate ATF officer. * * *</P>
            <STARS/>
          </SECTION>
        </REGTEXT>
        <REGTEXT PART="25" TITLE="27">
          <AMDPAR>
            <E T="04">Par. 23.</E>Section 25.222 (a) is amended by revising the last sentence to read as follows:</AMDPAR>
          <SECTION>
            <SECTNO>§ 25.222</SECTNO>
            <SUBJECT>Notice of brewer.</SUBJECT>
            <P>(a) * * * The brewer must submit this notice to the appropriate ATF officer.</P>
            <STARS/>
          </SECTION>
        </REGTEXT>
        <REGTEXT PART="25" TITLE="27">
          <SECTION>
            <SECTNO>§§ 25.222 and 25.225</SECTNO>
            <SUBJECT>[Amended]</SUBJECT>
          </SECTION>
          <AMDPAR>
            <E T="04">Par. 24.</E>Part 25 is further amended by removing the words “area supervisor” each place they appear, and adding, in substitution, the words “appropriate ATF officer” in the following places:</AMDPAR>
          <P>(a) Section 25.222(b); and</P>
          <P>(b) Section 25.225(b)(2).</P>
        </REGTEXT>
        <REGTEXT PART="25" TITLE="27">
          <AMDPAR>
            <E T="04">Par. 25.</E>Section 25.223(b) is revised to read as follows:</AMDPAR>
          <SECTION>
            <SECTNO>§ 25.223</SECTNO>
            <SUBJECT>Destruction of beer off brewery premises.</SUBJECT>
            <STARS/>
            <P>(b)<E T="03">Destruction with supervision.</E>The appropriate ATF officer may require that an approriate ATF officer verify the information in the notice of destruction or witness the destruction of the beer. The appropriate ATF officer may also require a delay in the destruction of the beer or, if the place of destruction is not readily accessible to an appropriate ATF<PRTPAGE P="5480"/>officer, may require that the beer be moved to a more convenient location. In this case, the brewer may not destroy the beer except under the conditions imposed by the appropriate ATF officer.</P>
          </SECTION>
        </REGTEXT>
        <REGTEXT PART="25" TITLE="27">
          <AMDPAR>
            <E T="04">Par. 26.</E>Section 25.273 is revised to read as follows:</AMDPAR>
          <SECTION>
            <SECTNO>§ 25.273</SECTNO>
            <SUBJECT>Action on application.</SUBJECT>
            <P>If the appropriate ATF officer approves the application for a pilot brewing plant, he or she will note approval on the application and forward a copy to the applicant. The applicant must file the copy of the approved application at the premises, available for inspection by an appropriate ATF officer.</P>
          </SECTION>
        </REGTEXT>
        <REGTEXT PART="25" TITLE="27">
          <AMDPAR>
            <E T="04">Par. 27.</E>Section 25.276 (c) amended by revising the first and last sentences to read as follows:</AMDPAR>
          <SECTION>
            <SECTNO>§ 25.276</SECTNO>
            <SUBJECT>Operations and records.</SUBJECT>
            <STARS/>
            <P>(c)<E T="03">Records.</E>The operator of a pilot brewing plant must maintain records which, in the opinion of the appropriate ATF officer, are appropriate to the type of operation being conducted. * * * These records will be available for inspection by an appropriate ATF officer.</P>
            <STARS/>
          </SECTION>
        </REGTEXT>
        <REGTEXT PART="25" TITLE="27">
          <AMDPAR>
            <E T="04">Par. 28.</E>Section 25.282(e) is revised to read as follows:</AMDPAR>
          <SECTION>
            <SECTNO>§ 25.282</SECTNO>
            <SUBJECT>Beer lost by fire, theft, casualty, or act of God.</SUBJECT>
            <STARS/>
            <P>(e)<E T="03">Notification of appropriate ATF officer.</E>(1) A brewer who sustains a loss of beer before transfer of title of the beer to another person and who desires to adjust the tax on the excise tax return or to file a claim for refund or for relief from liability of tax, must, on learning of the loss of beer, immediately notify in writing the appropriate ATF officer of the nature, cause, and extent of the loss, and the place where the loss occurred. Statements of witnesses or other supporting documents must be furnished if available.</P>
            <P>(2) A brewer possessing unmerchantable beer and who desires to adjust the tax on the excise tax return or to file a claim for refund or for relief from liability must notify in writing the appropriate ATF officer, of the circumstances by which the beer became unmerchantable, and must state why the beer cannot be salvaged and returned to the market for consumption or sale.</P>
          </SECTION>
        </REGTEXT>
        <REGTEXT PART="25" TITLE="27">
          <SECTION>
            <SECTNO>§ 25.283</SECTNO>
            <SUBJECT>[Amended]</SUBJECT>
          </SECTION>
          <AMDPAR>
            <E T="04">Par. 29.</E>Section 25. 283(e) is amended by removing the words “with the regional director (compliance) of the region in which the beer was lost, returned, destroyed, or rendered unmerchantable”.</AMDPAR>
        </REGTEXT>
        <REGTEXT PART="25" TITLE="27">
          <AMDPAR>
            <E T="04">Par. 30.</E>Section 25.284(d) is amended by revising the third and last sentences to read as follows:</AMDPAR>
          <SECTION>
            <SECTNO>§ 25.284</SECTNO>
            <SUBJECT>Adjustment of tax.</SUBJECT>
            <STARS/>
            <P>(d)<E T="03">Beer lost, destroyed or rendered unmerchantable.</E>* * * A brewer may not make an adjustment prior to notification required under § 25.282(e). When beer appears to have been lost due to theft, the brewer may not make an adjustment to the tax return until establishing to the satisfaction of the regional director (compliance) that the theft occurred before removal from the brewery and occurred without connivance, collusion, fraud, or negligence on the part of the brewer, consignor, consignee, bailee, or carrier, or the employees or agents of any of them.</P>
          </SECTION>
        </REGTEXT>
        <REGTEXT PART="25" TITLE="27">
          <STARS/>
          <SECTION>
            <SECTNO>§ 25.285</SECTNO>
            <SUBJECT>[Amended]</SUBJECT>
          </SECTION>
          <AMDPAR>
            <E T="04">Par. 31.</E>Section 25.285(a) is amended by removing from the third sentence the words “with regional director (compliance) in which the brewer's principal place of business is located” and the comma following these words.</AMDPAR>
        </REGTEXT>
        <REGTEXT PART="25" TITLE="27">
          <SECTION>
            <SECTNO>§ 25.297</SECTNO>
            <SUBJECT>[Amended]</SUBJECT>
          </SECTION>
          <AMDPAR>
            <E T="04">Par. 32.</E>Section 25.297(a) is amended by removing the words “to the regional director (compliance) not later than the 15th day of the month following the close of the month for which prepared”.</AMDPAR>
        </REGTEXT>
        <REGTEXT PART="25" TITLE="27">
          <AMDPAR>
            <E T="04">Par. 33.</E>Section 25.297(b) is amended by removing from the first sentence the words “with the regional director (compliance) not later than the 15th day of the month following the close of the calendar quarter for which prepared”.</AMDPAR>
        </REGTEXT>
        <SIG>
          <DATED>Signed: July 19, 2000.</DATED>
          <NAME>Bradley A. Buckles,</NAME>
          <TITLE>Director.</TITLE>
          <APPR>Approved: August 1, 2000.</APPR>
          <NAME>John P. Simpson,</NAME>
          <TITLE>Deputy Assistant Secretary (Regulatory, Tariff and Trade Enforcement).</TITLE>
        </SIG>
      </SUPLINF>
      <FRDOC>[FR Doc. 01-1164 Filed 1-18-01; 8:45 am]</FRDOC>
      <BILCOD>BILLING CODE 4810-31-U</BILCOD>
    </RULE>
    <RULE>
      <PREAMB>
        <AGENCY TYPE="S">DEPARTMENT OF THE TREASURY</AGENCY>
        <SUBAGY>Bureau of Alcohol, Tobacco and Firearms</SUBAGY>
        <CFR>27 CFR Part 30</CFR>
        <DEPDOC>[T.D. ATF-438]</DEPDOC>
        <RIN>RIN 1512-AC16</RIN>
        <SUBJECT>Delegation of Authority in 27 CFR Part 30</SUBJECT>
        <AGY>
          <HD SOURCE="HED">AGENCY:</HD>
          <P>Bureau of Alcohol, Tobacco and Firearms (ATF), Treasury.</P>
        </AGY>
        <ACT>
          <HD SOURCE="HED">ACTION:</HD>
          <P>Treasury decision, final rule.</P>
        </ACT>
        <SUM>
          <HD SOURCE="HED">SUMMARY:</HD>
          <P>Authority delegation. This final rule places all ATF authorities contained in part 30, title 27 Code of Federal Regulations (CFR), with the “appropriate ATF officer.” Also, this final rule removes the definitions of, and references to, specific officers subordinate to the Director. Concurrently with this Treasury Decision, ATF Order 1130.17 is being published. Through this order, the Director has delegated the authorities in 27 CFR part 30 to the appropriate ATF officers.</P>
        </SUM>
        <EFFDATE>
          <HD SOURCE="HED">EFFECTIVE DATE:</HD>
          <P>January 19, 2001.</P>
        </EFFDATE>
        <FURINF>
          <HD SOURCE="HED">FOR FURTHER INFORMATION CONTACT:</HD>
          <P>Lisa Gesser, Regulations Division, Bureau of Alcohol, Tobacco and Firearms, 650 Massachusetts Avenue NW., Washington, DC 20226, (202-927-9347) or e-mail at alctob@atfhq.atf.treas.gov.</P>
        </FURINF>
      </PREAMB>
      <SUPLINF>
        <HD SOURCE="HED">SUPPLEMENTARY INFORMATION:</HD>
        <HD SOURCE="HD1">Background</HD>
        <P>Pursuant to Treasury Order 120-01 (formerly 221), dated June 6, 1972, the Secretary of the Treasury delegated to the Director of the Bureau of Alcohol, Tobacco and Firearms (ATF), the authority to enforce, among other laws, the provisions of chapter 51 of the Internal Revenue Code of 1986 (IRC). The Director has subsequently redelegated certain of these authorities to appropriate subordinate officers by way of various means, including by regulation, ATF delegation orders, regional directives, or similar delegation documents. As a result, to ascertain what particular officer is authorized to perform a particular function under chapter 51, each of these various delegation instruments must be consulted. Similarly, each time a delegation of authority is revoked or redelegated, each of the delegation documents must be reviewed and amended as necessary.</P>

        <P>ATF has determined that this multiplicity of delegation instruments complicates and hinders the task of determining which ATF officer is<PRTPAGE P="5481"/>authorized to perform a particular function. ATF also believes these multiple delegation instruments exacerbate the administrative burden associated with maintaining up-to-date delegations, resulting in an undue delay in reflecting current authorities.</P>
        <P>Accordingly, this final rule rescinds all authorities of the Director in part 30 that were previously delegated and places those authorities with the “appropriate ATF officer.” Most of the authorities of the Director that were not previously delegated are also placed with the “appropriate ATF officer.” Along with this final rule, ATF is publishing ATF Order 1130.17, Delegation Order—Delegation of the Director's Authorities in part 30, Gauging Manual, which delegates certain of these authorities to the appropriate organizational level.</P>
        <P>The effect of these changes is to consolidate all delegations of authority in part 30 into one delegation instrument. This action both simplifies the process for determining what ATF officer is authorized to perform a particular function and facilitates the updating of delegations in the future. As a result, delegations of authority will be reflected in a more timely and user-friendly manner.</P>
        <HD SOURCE="HD1">Paperwork Reduction Act</HD>
        <P>The provisions of the Paperwork Reduction Act of 1995, Public Law 104-13, 44 U.S.C. Chapter 35, and its implementing regulations, 5 CFR part 1320, do not apply to this final rule because there are no new or revised recordkeeping or reporting requirements.</P>
        <HD SOURCE="HD1">Regulatory Flexibility Act</HD>

        <P>Because no notice of proposed rulemaking is required for this rule, the provisions of the Regulatory Flexibility Act (5 U.S.C. 601<E T="03">et seq.</E>) do not apply. A copy of this final rule was submitted to the Chief Counsel for Advocacy of the Small Business Administration in accordance with 26 U.S.C. 7805(f). No comments were received.</P>
        <HD SOURCE="HD1">Executive Order 12866</HD>
        <P>It has been determined that this rule is not a significant regulatory action because it will not: (1) have an annual effect on the economy of $100 million or more or adversely affect in a material way the economy, a sector of the economy, productivity, competition, jobs, the environment, public health or safety, or State, local or tribal governments or communities; (2) create a serious inconsistency or otherwise interfere with an action taken or planned by another agency; (3) Materially alter the budgetary impact of entitlements, grants, user fees, or loan programs or the rights and obligations of recipients thereof; or (4) raise novel legal or policy issues arising out of legal mandates, the President's priorities, or the principles set forth in Executive Order 12866.</P>
        <HD SOURCE="HD1">Administrative Procedure Act</HD>
        <P>Because this final rule merely makes technical amendments and conforming changes to improve the clarity of the regulations, it is unnecessary to issue this final rule with notice and public procedure under 5 U.S.C. 553(b). Similarly it is unnecessary to subject this final rule to the effective date limitation of 5 U.S.C. 553(d).</P>
        <HD SOURCE="HD1">Drafting Information</HD>
        <P>The principal author of this document is Lisa Gesser, Regulations Division, Bureau of Alcohol, Tobacco and Firearms.</P>
        <LSTSUB>
          <HD SOURCE="HED">List of Subjects in 27 CFR Part 30</HD>
          <P>Alcohol and alcoholic beverages, Measurement standards, Scientific equipment.</P>
        </LSTSUB>
        <REGTEXT PART="30" TITLE="27">
          <HD SOURCE="HD1">Authority and Issuance</HD>
          <AMDPAR>Title 27, Code of Federal Regulations is amended as follows:</AMDPAR>
          <PART>
            <HD SOURCE="HED">PART 30—GAUGING MANUAL</HD>
          </PART>
          <AMDPAR>
            <E T="04">Paragraph 1.</E>The authority citation for part 30 continues to read as follows:</AMDPAR>
          
          <AUTH>
            <HD SOURCE="HED">Authority:</HD>
            <P>26 U.S.C. 7805.</P>
          </AUTH>
        </REGTEXT>
        
        <REGTEXT PART="30" TITLE="27">
          <AMDPAR>
            <E T="04">Par. 2.</E>Section 30.11 is amended by removing the definitions of “ATF officer” and “Regional director” and by adding a new definition of “Appropriate ATF officer” to read as follows:</AMDPAR>
          <SECTION>
            <SECTNO>§ 30.11</SECTNO>
            <SUBJECT>Meaning of terms.</SUBJECT>
            <STARS/>
            <P>
              <E T="03">Appropriate ATF Officer.</E>An officer or employee of the Bureau of Alcohol, Tobacco and Firearms (ATF) authorized to perform any functions relating to the administration or enforcement of this part by ATF Order 1130.17, Delegation Order—Delegation of the Director's Authorities in 27 CFR Part 30—Gauging Manual.</P>
            <STARS/>
          </SECTION>
        </REGTEXT>
        <REGTEXT PART="30" TITLE="27">
          <SECTION>
            <SECTNO>§§ 30.11, 30.31, 30.36, 30.43, and 30.51</SECTNO>
            <SUBJECT>[Amended]</SUBJECT>
          </SECTION>
          <AMDPAR>
            <E T="04">Par. 3.</E>Part 30 is further amended by removing the words “Director” each place it appears and adding, in substitution, the words “appropriate ATF officer” in the following places:</AMDPAR>
          <AMDPAR>(a) The definition of “Bulk conveyance” in § 30.11;</AMDPAR>
          <AMDPAR>(b) Section 30.31(b);</AMDPAR>
          <AMDPAR>(c) Section 30.36;</AMDPAR>
          <AMDPAR>(d) The last sentence of § 30.43; and</AMDPAR>
          <AMDPAR>(e) The first sentence of § 30.51.</AMDPAR>
        </REGTEXT>
        <REGTEXT PART="30" TITLE="27">
          <AMDPAR>
            <E T="04">Par. 4.</E>Section 30.21(c) is revised to read as follows:</AMDPAR>
          <SECTION>
            <SECTNO>§ 30.21</SECTNO>
            <SUBJECT>Requirements.</SUBJECT>
            <STARS/>
            <P>(c)<E T="03">Appropriate ATF Officers.</E>Appropriate ATF officers shall use only hydrometers and thermometers furnished by the Government. However, where this part requires the use of a specific gravity hydrometer, ATF officers shall use precision grade specific gravity hydrometers conforming to the provisions of § 30.24, furnished by the proprietor. However, the appropriate ATF officer may authorize the use of other instruments approved by the appropriate ATF officer as being equally satisfactory for determination of specific gravity and for gauging. From time to time appropriate ATF officers shall verify the accuracy of hydrometers and thermometers used by proprietors.</P>
            <STARS/>
          </SECTION>
        </REGTEXT>
        <REGTEXT PART="30" TITLE="27">
          <AMDPAR>
            <E T="04">Par. 5.</E>Section 30.24(a) is amended by adding the word “appropriate” before the words “ATF officers.”</AMDPAR>
        </REGTEXT>
        <REGTEXT PART="30" TITLE="27">
          <AMDPAR>
            <E T="04">Par. 6.</E>Section 30.24(b) is amended by adding the word “appropriate” before the words “ATF officer.”</AMDPAR>
        </REGTEXT>
        <SIG>
          <NAME>Bradley A. Buckles,</NAME>
          <TITLE>Director.</TITLE>
          <DATED>Approved: August 11, 2001.</DATED>
          <NAME>John P. Simpson,</NAME>
          <TITLE>Deputy Assistant Secretary (Regulatory, Tariff and Trade Enforcement).</TITLE>
        </SIG>
      </SUPLINF>
      <FRDOC>[FR Doc. 01-1165 Filed 1-18-01; 8:45 am]</FRDOC>
      <BILCOD>BILLING CODE 4810-31-P</BILCOD>
    </RULE>
    <RULE>
      <PREAMB>
        <AGENCY TYPE="N">DEPARTMENT OF LABOR</AGENCY>
        <SUBAGY>Employment Standards Administration, Wage and Hour Division</SUBAGY>
        <CFR>29 CFR Part 552</CFR>
        <RIN>RIN 1215-AA82</RIN>
        <SUBJECT>Application of the Fair Labor Standards Act to Domestic Service</SUBJECT>
        <AGY>
          <HD SOURCE="HED">AGENCY:</HD>
          <P>Wage and Hour Division, Employment Standards Administration, Labor.</P>
        </AGY>
        <ACT>
          <HD SOURCE="HED">ACTION:</HD>
          <P>Notice of proposed rulemaking and request for comments.</P>
        </ACT>
        <SUM>
          <HD SOURCE="HED">SUMMARY:</HD>

          <P>The Department of Labor is proposing to amend several of the existing regulations under the Fair Labor Standards Act (FLSA) pertaining to the exemption for companionship<PRTPAGE P="5482"/>services. Section 13(a)(15) exempts from the minimum wage and overtime provisions of the FLSA domestic service employees employed “to provide companionship services for individuals who (because of age or infirmity) are unable to care for themselves (as such terms are defined and delimited by regulations of the Secretary).” This exemption was enacted in 1974 at the same time that Congress amended the FLSA to cover domestic service employees generally. The pertinent regulations governing this exemption have been unchanged since they were promulgated in 1975. Due to significant changes in the home care industry over the last 25 years, workers who today provide in-home care to individuals needing assistance with activities of daily living are performing types of duties and working in situations that were not envisioned when the companionship services regulations were promulgated. The number of workers providing these services has also greatly increased, and most of these workers are being excluded from the FLSA under the companionship services exemption. The Department has reevaluated the regulations and determined that—as currently written—they exempt types of employees far beyond those whom Congress intended to exempt when it enacted section 13(a)(15). Therefore, the Department proposes to amend the regulations to revise the definition of “companionship services,” which sets out the duties that a companion must be employed to perform in order to qualify for the exemption, to more closely mirror Congressional intent. The Department also proposes to amend the regulations to clarify the criteria used to judge whether employees qualify as trained personnel, who are not recognized as exempt companions. Finally, the Department proposes to amend the regulations pertaining to employment by a third party. This change would deny the companionship services exemption if the worker is employed by someone other than a member of the family in whose home he or she works. It would similarly deny the exemption for live-in domestics, who are exempt from the FLSA's overtime requirements pursuant to section 13(b)(21), if they are employed by someone other than a member of the family in whose home they reside and work.</P>
        </SUM>
        <DATES>
          <HD SOURCE="HED">DATES:</HD>
          <P>Comments are due on or before March 20, 2001.</P>
        </DATES>
        <ADD>
          <HD SOURCE="HED">ADDRESSES:</HD>
          <P>Submit written comments to T. Michael Kerr, Administrator, Wage and Hour Division, Employment Standards Administration, U.S. Department of Labor, Attention: Fair Labor Standards Team, Room S-3516, 200 Constitution Avenue NW., Washington, DC 20210. Commenters who wish to receive notification of receipt of comments are requested to include a self-addressed, stamped postcard, or to submit comments by certified mail, return receipt requested. As a convenience, commenters may transmit comments by facsimile (“FAX”) machine to (202) 693-1432. This is not a toll free number. If comments are transmitted by FAX and a hard copy is also submitted by mail, please indicate on the hard copy that it is a duplicate copy of the FAX transmission.</P>
        </ADD>
        <FURINF>
          <HD SOURCE="HED">FOR FURTHER INFORMATION CONTACT:</HD>
          <P>Richard M. Brennan, Deputy Director, Office of Enforcement Policy, Wage and Hour Division, Employment Standards Administration, U.S. Department of Labor, Room S-3510, 200 Constitution Avenue, NW., Washington, DC 20210; telephone: (202) 693-0745. This is not a toll free number. Copies of this proposed rulemaking may be obtained in alternative formats by calling (202) 693-0745 or (202) 693-1461 (TTY). The alternative formats available are large print electronic file on computer disk (Word Perfect, ASCII, Mates with Duxbury Braille System) and audiotape.</P>
        </FURINF>
      </PREAMB>
      <SUPLINF>
        <HD SOURCE="HED">SUPPLEMENTARY INFORMATION</HD>
        <HD SOURCE="HD1">I. Background</HD>
        <P>Congress expressly extended coverage to “domestic service” workers under the FLSA in 1974, amending the law to apply to employees performing services of a household nature in or about the private home of the person by whom they are employed. 29 U.S.C. 202(a), 206(f), 207(l). Domestic service workers were made subject to the FLSA even though they worked for a private household and not for a covered enterprise. Domestic service workers include, for example, employees working as cooks, butlers, valets, maids, housekeepers, governesses, janitors, laundresses, caretakers, handymen, gardeners, and family chauffeurs. Senate Report No. 93-690, 93d Cong., 2d Sess. (1974), p. 20. Simultaneously with extending coverage under the FLSA to domestic service workers, Congress created a complete exemption from both the minimum wage and overtime requirements for casual babysitters and persons “employed in domestic service employment to provide companionship services for individuals who (because of age or infirmity) are unable to care for themselves (as such terms are defined and delimited by regulations of the Secretary [of Labor]).” 29 U.S.C. 213(a)(15). Congress also created a more limited exemption from the overtime requirements for domestic service employees in a household who reside in that household. 29 U.S.C. 213(b)(21).</P>
        <P>Congressional committee reports describe the reasons for extending the minimum wage protections to domestics as “so compelling and generally recognized as to make it hardly necessary to cite them.” Senate Report No. 93-690, p. 18. Private household work had been one of the least attractive fields of employment. Wages were low, work hours were highly irregular, and non-wage benefits were few. Senate Report No. 93-690, p. 18.</P>
        <P>The U.S. House of Representatives, Committee on Education and Labor stated its expectation “that extending minimum wage and overtime protection to domestic workers will not only raise the wages of these workers but will improve the sorry image of household employment. * * * Including domestic workers under the protection of the Act should help to raise the status and dignity of this work.” House Report No. 93-913, 93d Cong., 2d Sess., (1974), pp. 33-34. The legislative history states that the 1974 Amendments were intended to include all employees whose vocation was domestic service, but to exempt from coverage babysitters and companions who were not regular bread-winners or responsible for their families' support. It was not intended that the statute exclude trained personnel such as nurses, whether registered or practical, from the protections of the Act. Senate Report No. 93-690, p. 20. Senator Williams, Chairman of the Senate Subcommittee on Labor and the Senate floor manager of the 1974 FLSA Amendments, described companions as “elder sitters” whose main purpose of employment is to watch over an elderly or infirm person in the same manner that a babysitter watches over children. All other work (such as occasionally making a meal or washing clothes for the person) must be incidental to that main purpose. 119 Cong. Rec. 24773, 24801 (1973).</P>

        <P>The Department promulgated implementing regulations in 1975 that define “companionship services” as including “fellowship, care, and protection” provided to a person who, because of advanced age or physical or mental infirmity, could not care for his or her own needs. The regulation defined such exempt services as including household work related to the person's care (such as meal preparation, bed making, washing of clothes, and other similar services). A companion could also perform additional general<PRTPAGE P="5483"/>household work without losing the exemption if it was incidental and comprised not more than 20 percent of the total weekly hours worked. Finally, a companion could be exempt even if employed solely by a third-party employer or agency, rather than by an individual or family directly. 29 CFR 552.6; 552.109(a). Similarly, live-in domestic service workers could be exempt even if employed solely by a third-party employer or agency, rather than by the individual or family in whose home they resided and worked. 29 CFR 552.109(c).</P>

        <P>The home care industry has changed dramatically since the Department published the 1975 regulations implementing the exemption for companionship services. There has been a growing demand for long-term in-home care for persons of all ages, in part because of the rising cost of and increasing dissatisfaction with traditional institutional care, and because of the availability of public funding assistance for in-home care under Medicare and Medicaid. According to the National Association of Home Care (NAHC) publication,<E T="03">Basic Statistics About Home Care (March 2000)</E>, data from the Department of Health and Human Services' Health Care Financing Administration (HCFA) show that the number of Medicare-certified home care agencies increased over three-fold from 2,242 in 1975 to 7,747 in 1999. The number of for-profit agencies not associated with a hospital, rehabilitation facility, or skilled nursing facility,<E T="03">i.e.</E>, freestanding agencies, increased more than any other category of agency from 47 in 1975 to 3,129 in 1999. These for-profit agencies grew from 2 percent of total Medicare-certified agencies to over 40 percent by 1999, and now represent the greatest percentage of certified agencies. Public health agencies, which constituted over half of the certified agencies in 1975, now represent only 12 percent.</P>
        <P>The Federal Government pays for much of the cost of providing home care services to care recipients. Medicare provides a notable portion of the industry's total revenues; other payment sources include Medicaid, insurance plans, and direct pay. Based on data from “A Profile of Medicare Home Health”—a HCFA publication—Medicare and Medicaid together account for more than half of the revenues paid to freestanding agencies (40 and 15 percent, respectively). Other private funds (philanthropy) account for 12 percent, while private health insurance accounts for 11 percent. Out-of-pocket funds account for 22 percent of agency revenues.</P>
        <P>There has been a similarly dramatic increase in the employment of home health aides and personal and home care aides in the private homes of individuals who need assistance with basic daily living or health maintenance activities. Bureau of Labor Statistics' (BLS) national occupational employment and wage estimates from the Occupational Employment Statistics (OES) survey show that the number of workers in these jobs tripled during the decade between 1988 and 1998, and by 1998 there were 430,440 people working as home health aides and 255,960 people working as personal and home care aides. The combined occupations of personal care and home health aides constitute the seventh most rapidly growing occupational group, and BLS estimates that their number will increase by another 150 percent from 1998 to 2008. The earnings of both categories of employees remain among the lowest in the service industry—a 1998 mean annual wage of $16,250 for home health aides and $14,920 for personal and home care aides according to the OES data. Based on the same data source, ten percent of home health aides and personal and home care aides earn below $12,300 a year—lower than the 1999 poverty threshold level of $13,880 for a family of three.</P>
        <P>Home health aides generally received more than personal and home care aides—$7.51 per hour (mean hourly wage) for personal and home care aides, and $8.17 per hour for home health aides. However, 10 percent of home health aides were paid less than $5.87 an hour, while 10 percent of personal and home care aides received less than $5.60 per hour. Although 90 percent of home health aides and personal and home care aides received hourly wages at or above $5.87 or $5.60, nearly 70,000 of these workers received hourly wages at or below such rates, and possibly below the minimum wage.</P>
        <P>According to the BLS National Industry-Occupation Employment Matrix (1998), the largest percentage (38 percent) of personal care and home health care aides are employed in the home health care services industry. Others are employed by miscellaneous social service agencies, residential care facilities, personnel supply service agencies, nursing homes and hospitals. Only about two percent were self-employed and another two percent were employed in private households.</P>

        <P>Current data suggest that many workers in the home care industry are now employed in their primary occupation. BLS National Current Employment Statistics for 1999 show an average weekly number of hours worked among non-supervisory employees in the home health care services industry (SIC 808) of 29.1 hours. Workers in the individual and family social services industry (SIC 832) averaged 31.2 hours per week. In the residential care industry (SIC 836), workers averaged 32.4 weekly hours worked. To the extent that time spent traveling from one client to the next has not been considered hours worked and thus captured in the above data, home care workers may actually be working longer than revealed by the BLS statistics. As indicated earlier, it clearly was Congress' intent under the 1974 FLSA Amendments to cover all workers who performed domestic services as a<E T="03">vocation</E>, excluding casual babysitters and providers of companionship services who were<E T="03">not</E>regular bread winners or responsible for their families' support.</P>
        <P>These workers perform a variety of housekeeping, personal care, and medical duties for individuals who need assistance with activities of daily living to enable them to remain in their homes. Home health aides perform duties such as preparing meals, dressing patients, administering medication and performing medical procedures under a doctor's or nurse's direction. Personal and home care aides perform a variety of tasks in the home, including household work and assistance with nutrition and cleanliness. Employers have generally treated workers employed as home health aides and personal and home care aides as exempt companions, based upon the Department's current regulations. To the extent that the current regulations allow for the exemption of an employee who provides very little fellowship, and whose duties involve almost exclusively the performance of household chores or medical services, they do not appropriately implement Congress' limited exemption for employees who provide companionship services. As a result, the Department believes it is necessary to amend the regulations to focus them on the fellowship and protection duties that Congress originally intended the companion exemption to cover.</P>
        <HD SOURCE="HD1">II. Proposed Regulatory Revisions</HD>
        <HD SOURCE="HD2">A. Duties of a Companion (29 CFR 552.6)</HD>

        <P>The Department proposes to amend the definition of “companionship services” in section 552.6 to clarify the focus on the element of fellowship, to align the regulation more closely with Congressional intent. The dictionary definition of “companionship” is<PRTPAGE P="5484"/>instructive in revising the regulation to conform to the concept of a companion as originally intended in the legislative history: someone in the home primarily to watch over and care for the elderly or infirm person, much as a neighbor or babysitter would. The dictionary defines companionship as the “relationship of companions; fellowship.” And the term “companion” is defined as a “person who accompanies or associates with another; comrade” and as a person “employed to assist, live with, or travel with another.” It further defines “fellowship” as including “the condition of being together,” “friendship” and coming together “in a congenial atmosphere.” The American Heritage Dictionary of the English Language, 1976 Edition. Thus, we propose a revision of the regulation that requires that fellowship be a significant, important and fundamental aspect of the job under the companionship services exemption. Only where the worker and the person being served or assisted interact on a close personal basis, for a significant percentage of the time, would the companionship services exemption be applicable. Of course, the precise nature of what activities constitute fellowship will vary, depending upon the needs, capabilities, and interests of the care recipient. For example, fellowship might involve reading a book or a newspaper to the person, chatting with him or her about family or other events, playing cards, watching television, or going for a walk. Whatever the specific activity, it must involve personal interaction between the in-home care provider and the care recipient in order for the proposed companionship services exemption to apply.</P>
        <P>The regulatory definition of companionship services cannot be so broad as to include someone who essentially is serving as a maid or household worker. In 1974, Congress amended the FLSA specifically to include domestic service workers (such as maids, cooks, valets and laundresses) among those intended to be covered by the Act. Congress simultaneously created a narrowly-tailored exemption for casual babysitters and those providing companionship services to the elderly and infirm. The regulations implementing the exemption should strike a balance that implements Congress' twin goals by recognizing that the fellowship and protection provided by a companion are very different from the household chores performed by a maid or cook or laundress. Furthermore, the regulations should also reflect that coverage under the FLSA is construed broadly and exemptions narrowly to effectuate the Act's remedial purposes.</P>
        <P>The Department recognizes that it is possible to define companionship services in several different ways, with the options arrayed along a spectrum. The definitions may vary in the degree to which they require the provision of fellowship only, or allow the provision of fellowship in conjunction with hands-on care. The percentage of time that must be spent in fellowship as compared to other care duties also may vary. The Department proposes three alternatives for defining companionship services and seeks comments on all three alternatives. The three possible definitions involve variations in the specific types of duties the employee may perform and the amount of time the employee may spend in performing such duties. All of the alternatives increase the emphasis on fellowship as a critical component of a companion's duties, and narrow or eliminate the type of care that may comprise a companion's duties. In all three alternatives, we also propose to eliminate the current regulatory provision that allows the exemption to apply when the worker spends up to 20 percent of his or her time performing general household work which is unrelated to the care of the person, such as general vacuuming and dusting. Such general household work is precisely the sort of work that Congress sought to cover when it amended the Act in 1974 to reach domestic service workers, and therefore would be precluded.</P>
        <P>The first proposal requires that fellowship be a significant part of the person's duties for the companionship services exemption to apply, but does not require fellowship duties to occupy a set percentage of the worker's time. This proposal anticipates that fellowship would occur in conjunction with the performance of other intimate personal care chores, such as bathing, grooming, and dressing, which also would constitute exempt duties. The first proposal also would allow the exemption if the worker performs a limited amount (up to 20 percent of the hours worked per week) of work of a household nature that is directly related to the client's personal care, such as cooking the person's meal, making the person's bed, or washing the dishes for that person.</P>
        <P>The second proposal focuses on fellowship and protection as the primary duties in order for the companionship services exemption to apply. Thus, an employee must spend more than 50 percent of his or her time engaging in fellowship or protection duties to be exempt. Such fellowship and protection duties would include activities providing only fellowship or protection as well as activities in which fellowship or protection is provided concurrently with the performance of other intimate personal care chores, such as bathing, grooming, and toileting. However, only one-half the time spent providing fellowship or protection simultaneously with such other intimate personal care chores would count when determining if the employee's primary duty was providing fellowship or protection. The second proposal also would allow the exemption if the worker performs a limited amount (up to 20 percent of the weekly hours) of work of a household nature that is directly related to the person's care.</P>
        <P>The third proposal would require that fellowship and protection be the sole core duties in order for the exemption to apply. To qualify for the exemption, the individual would have to spend at least 80 percent of his or her time in activities that provide fellowship or protection, not in conjunction with other personal care duties. The 20 percent tolerance for other types of work would apply to other intimate care and related chores. Thus, under this proposal, time spent on intimate personal care chores (such as grooming, toileting, and feeding) and on directly related work for the person (such as cooking the person's meal) may not exceed 20 percent of the weekly hours worked for the companionship services exemption to apply.</P>
        <HD SOURCE="HD2">B. Trained Personnel (29 CFR 552.6)</HD>
        <P>There has also been a dramatic change since the enactment of the 1974 FLSA Amendments in the nature of the duties performed by many employees classified as exempt under the companionship services exemption. Because many individuals who were formerly institutionalized or moved to nursing homes are able, with assistance, to stay in their homes, home care providers have taken on a broader range of medically-related duties. For example, individuals treated as exempt in providing companionship services may now perform duties such as medication management, taking vital signs (pulse, temperature, respiration), routine skin and back care, and assistance with exercise and the performance of simple procedures as an extension of physical therapy service.</P>

        <P>The training necessary for an employee to perform such duties, while less than the training of a physician or nurse, means that such individuals are not acting simply as elder sitters or as babysitters watching over their charge.<PRTPAGE P="5485"/>
        </P>

        <P>Some courts, interpreting the current regulations, have allowed employees to qualify for exemption under the present regulatory definition of companionship services despite the fact that they had extensive training, on the theory that they did not have the two or more years of training generally required for LPNs and RNs. For example, in<E T="03">McCune</E>v.<E T="03">Oregon Senior Services Division</E>, 894 F.2d 1107 (9th Cir. 1990), the court found that certified nursing assistants who had to pass a 60-hour training class were exempt despite their extensive medical training. Similarly, in<E T="03">Cox</E>v.<E T="03">Acme Health Services, Inc.</E>, 55 F.3d 1304 (7th Cir. 1995), the court held that certified home health aides with 75 hours of state-required training were exempt. The court in<E T="03">Terwilliger</E>v.<E T="03">Home of Hope, Inc.</E>, 21 F. Supp. 2d 1294 (N.D. Okla. 1998), also found that employees with 160 hours of training, who had to obtain 40 additional hours of training each year, were exempt.</P>
        <P>The Department believes that Congress did not intend for the companionship services exemption to apply to employees with the level of training necessary to perform medically-related duties such as medication management and assistance with physical therapy. Duties being performed that require such extensive training are beyond what Congress envisioned when it stated that persons providing companionship services are present in the home, as a neighbor might be, to watch over an elderly person the way a babysitter watches over a child. Thus, the Department proposes to clarify the regulatory definition of companionship services in section 552.6 to exclude personnel trained in the performance of such medically related duties from the companion exemption.</P>
        <HD SOURCE="HD2">C. Third Party Employment (29 CFR 552.109)</HD>
        <P>The Department also proposes to amend section 552.109, the regulation pertaining to employment by a third party. People providing in-home care and assistance to individuals with activities of daily living may be employed, or jointly employed, by various parties such as the family or household using the companionship services, State or local governments, private for-profit agencies, and hospital-related and not-for-profit agencies.</P>
        <P>Under the existing regulation, employees who are employed by an employer or agency other than the family or household using the companionship services may still qualify for the exemption. Similarly, under the current regulation live-in workers who are employed by a third party, rather than by the family in whose household they work and reside, nevertheless may qualify for an overtime exemption under section 13(b)(21) of the FLSA.</P>
        <P>The Department believes that employment by a party other than the family or household using the companionship services is inconsistent with the status of a companion, because the exemption for companionship services in section 13(a)(15) of the FLSA is limited to employees who are domestic service employees. The overtime exemption in section 13(b)(21) for live-in employees who reside in the household is similarly limited to domestic service employees. While domestic service was not defined by Congress in the Act, the Senate report reflects Congress' view that “the generally accepted meaning of domestic service relates to service of a household nature performed by an employee in or about a private home of the person by whom he or she is employed.” Senate Report No. 93-690, p. 20 (emphasis added). The regulations mirror Congressional intent in defining domestic service employment as services of a household nature performed by an “employee in or about a private home (permanent or temporary) of the person by whom he or she is employed.” 29 CFR 552.3. Thus, the current regulations contain an internal inconsistency, because they allow the companion and live-in domestic exemptions to be applied to an employee employed by someone other than the person in whose private home the work is being performed.</P>
        <P>In 1993, the Department published a proposal to amend this regulation in light of the statutory requirement that the exemptions for companionship services and live-ins only applied to domestic service employees. The proposal provided that the companionship services exemption would not apply unless the person receiving the companionship services acted, alone or jointly, as an employer. 58 FR 69310, December 30, 1993. The subsection pertaining to live-in employees was similarly proposed for amendment. In 1995 the rule was reproposed, suggesting that the exemption might apply if either the person receiving the services or a family member or state agency acted as an employer of the person providing companionship services, if the care recipient was unable to act on his or her own behalf. 60 FR 46797, September 8, 1995. The Department received very few comments on either of those proposals, and many of the comments indicated that there was confusion about the impact and effect of the proposals.</P>

        <P>The Department continues to believe that the current regulation impermissibly extends the exemption for companionship services and for live-in workers to employees who do not qualify as domestic service employees, because they are not working<E T="03">in</E>the home of their employer,<E T="03">i.e.</E>, the third party employer. In addition, as discussed above, changes in the industry and in the nature of the duties being performed in peoples' homes by this segment of the work force have resulted in increasing numbers of employees working for third-party employers. Under the 1974 Amendments, Congress extended coverage of the FLSA to domestic service employees who were not previously covered,<E T="03">i.e.,</E>those who worked only for a private family and not for a covered enterprise. Anyone who prior to 1974 had worked for a covered placement agency, for example, but who was assigned to work in someone's home, would have been covered previously by the FLSA. The Department believes that Congress did not intend the 1974 amendments to change the status of workers already covered by the FLSA, but only intended to exclude casual babysitters and companions from those newly covered by the law, that is, those exclusively employed by the homeowner or family member.</P>

        <P>Accordingly, we propose to amend section 552.109 (a) and (c) to make the exemptions in sections 13(a)(15) and 13(b)(21) of the FLSA applicable only with respect to the family or household using the worker's services. For employees who are employed, whether solely or jointly, by an employer<E T="03">other than</E>the family or household, such workers would<E T="03">not</E>be engaged in “domestic service employment” with respect to those third party employers, and those third party employers, therefore, would<E T="03">not</E>be able to avail themselves of the exemptions. A corresponding revision is made to the definition of<E T="03">domestic service employment</E>in section 552.103.</P>
        <HD SOURCE="HD1">III. Paperwork Reduction Act</HD>
        <P>This proposed regulation does not contain any information collection requirements that require the approval of the Office of Management and Budget under the Paperwork Reduction Act.</P>
        <HD SOURCE="HD1">IV. Executive Order 12866</HD>

        <P>The proposed rule is not an “economically significant” regulatory action within the meaning of section 3(f)(1) of Executive Order 12866 on<PRTPAGE P="5486"/>“Regulatory Planning and Review.” The rule is not likely to: (1) Have an annual effect on the economy of $100 million or more or adversely affect in a material way the economy, a sector of the economy, productivity, competition, jobs, the environment, public health or safety, or State, local, or tribal governments or communities; (2) create a serious inconsistency or otherwise interfere with an action taken or planned by another agency; or (3) materially alter the budgetary impact of entitlements, grants, user fees, or loan programs or the rights and obligations of recipients thereof. As a result, the Department concluded that a full economic impact and cost/benefit analysis was not required for the rule under Section 6(a)(3) of the Order. However, because of its importance to the public and to the Administration's priorities, the rule was treated as a significant regulatory action and it was, therefore, reviewed by the Office of Management and Budget.</P>

        <P>Based on our preliminary analysis of the data, it is our conclusion that the proposals to change how the companionship services exemption is applied under the FLSA will not produce a significant economic or budgetary impact on affected entities. The data indicate that more than 90 percent of the workers employed in the potentially affected occupational categories already receive the current federal minimum wage of $5.15 an hour or higher, and changing their status under the FLSA from exempt to non-exempt would not impose any new wage costs to meet minimum wage requirements. Similarly, because it appears that most of the workers in these occupational categories do not regularly work overtime (<E T="03">i.e.,</E>more than 40 hours per week), there would be little impact from overtime wage costs if their status were changed from exempt to non-exempt. Our analysis suggests that most of the likely impact, although small, will be limited to the less than 10 percent of workers who do not receive at least $5.15 an hour and to those workers who may be entitled to additional compensation (minimum wage or overtime) for time spent traveling between multiple client work sites during the day. Some employers may not now pay for such travel time. For those few workers who may be paid at or near the $5.15 minimum wage or who work overtime hours once the travel time is included, some employers could incur minor additional wage costs to meet FLSA's minimum wage or overtime requirements. However, there are many scheduling options available to employers to enable them in that event to limit the total hours worked by an employee to 40 or fewer hours per week to ensure that overtime costs are not incurred if paying overtime wages is not in their own economic self-interests.</P>
        <P>The Department of Health and Human Services' Health Care Finance Administration informally estimates that the proposal will have a negligible effect on Medicare costs as the types of services at issue are not a significant component of the Medicare program. Annual Medicaid program expenditures may increase somewhere within a $30 to $40 million range, of which 57 percent would be the Federal share. An equivalent percent increase in private expenditures for home health services would suggest the possibility of a maximum additional increase of $35 million in total private expenditures. The combined private and public total would likely be no greater than $75 million.</P>
        <P>Accordingly, it is our conclusion that this rulemaking is not an economically significant regulatory action for purposes of Executive Order 12866.</P>
        <HD SOURCE="HD1">V. Small Business Regulatory Enforcement Fairness Act</HD>

        <P>For similar reasons as noted above, the Department has concluded that this proposed rule is not a “major” rule requiring approval by the Congress under the Small Business Regulatory Enforcement Fairness Act of 1996 (5 U.S.C. 801<E T="03">et seq.</E>). It will not likely result in (1) an annual effect on the economy of $100 million or more; (2) a major increase in costs or prices for consumers, individual industries, Federal, State or local government agencies, or geographic regions; or (3) significant adverse effects on competition, employment, investment, productivity, innovation, or on the ability of United States-based enterprises to compete with foreign-based enterprises in domestic or export markets.</P>
        <HD SOURCE="HD1">VI. Unfunded Mandates Reform Act</HD>
        <P>For similar reasons for purposes of the Unfunded Mandates Reform Act of 1995, this rule does not include a Federal mandate that may result in increased expenditures by State, local, and tribal governments in the aggregate of more than $100 million, or increased expenditures by the private sector of more than $100 million.</P>
        <HD SOURCE="HD1">VII. Executive Order 13132 (Federalism)</HD>
        <P>The Department has reviewed this rule under the terms of Executive Order 13132 regarding federalism and has determined that it does not have federalism implications. Because the economic effects under the rule will not be substantial for the reasons noted above, the rule does not have “substantial direct effects on the States, on the relationship between the national government and the States, or on the distribution of power and responsibilities among the various levels of government.”</P>
        <HD SOURCE="HD1">VIII. Effects on Families</HD>
        <P>The Department has assessed this rule under section 654 of the Treasury and General Government Appropriations Act, 1999, for its effect on family well-being and hereby certifies that it will not adversely affect the well-being of families.</P>
        <HD SOURCE="HD1">IX. Regulatory Flexibility Act</HD>
        <P>The Department has determined for similar reasons that this proposed regulation will not have a significant economic impact on a substantial number of small entities within the meaning of the Regulatory Flexibility Act, and the Department has so certified to the Chief Counsel for Advocacy of the Small Business Administration. As discussed above in the analysis under Executive Order 12866, more than 90 percent of the workers employed in occupational categories addressed by this rulemaking already receive wages at rates above the current federal minimum wage, and they typically work fewer than 40 hours per week. Furthermore, employers are reimbursed by the Federal government or insurance companies for most of the cost of providing these benefits. Thus, even assuming that the alternative covering the most additional (and therefore exempting the fewest) workers is adopted, the rule will not have a significant economic impact. The following regulatory flexibility analysis supports this determination.</P>
        <HD SOURCE="HD2">(1) Reasons Why Action is Being Considered</HD>

        <P>Section 13(a)(15) of the Fair Labor Standards Act (29 U.S.C. 213(a)(15)) contains an exemption from both the minimum wage and overtime pay requirements for “3 any employee employed in domestic service employment to provide companionship services for individuals who (because of age or infirmity) are unable to care for themselves (as such terms are defined and delimited by regulations of the Secretary)” (emphasis added). Due to considerable growth in home care and the home health care industry since the implementing regulations were promulgated in 1975, the Department's<PRTPAGE P="5487"/>more recent experience indicates that the “companionship services” exemption is being asserted in an expansive way for many more workers than we believe the Congress originally intended based on a careful analysis of the background and legislative history to the exemption. Vast numbers of workers employed in regular vocations to provide domestic services and care for individuals in their private homes are being excluded from FLSA coverage as a result of this misapplication of this exemption, which we believe is contrary to the intent and specific purposes of the 1974 FLSA Amendments. The Department is therefore issuing this proposal to invite public comments on possible clarifications to the definitional terms describing the companionship services exemption to bring it more in line with original Congressional intent.</P>
        <HD SOURCE="HD2">(2) Objectives of and Legal Basis for Rule</HD>
        <P>This proposed rule is issued under the authority provided by section 13(a)(15) of the FLSA (29 U.S.C. 213(a)(15)), which grants the Secretary of Labor legislative rulemaking authority to define and delimit the terms “employee employed in domestic service employment to provide companionship services” for purposes of exempting such workers from the minimum wage and overtime pay requirements of the FLSA.</P>
        <HD SOURCE="HD2">(3) Number of Small Entities Covered Under the Rule</HD>
        <P>A small business profile obtained from the U.S. Small Business Administration's Office of Advocacy web site indicates that the health services industry is among the top small business industries in the United States according to employment figures. The SBA small business size standard for Home Health Care Services, NAICS 6216, applies a $10 million threshold in annual receipts for defining a small business. Based on data from the U.S. Census Bureau's 1997 Economic Census, there were 16,895 home health care establishments (both exempt from and subject to federal income tax) in 1997 that operated for the entire year. Of that number, 16,486 (or 98%) had revenues (in the case of tax exempt firms) or receipts (in the case of non-exempt firms) of less than $10,000,000. For purposes of this analysis, we have assumed that most of the entities potentially affected by this proposal would likely meet the applicable criteria defining a small business in the home health care industry.</P>
        <HD SOURCE="HD2">(4) Reporting, Recordkeeping, and Other Compliance Requirements of the Rule</HD>
        <P>The rule contains no reporting, recordkeeping or other compliance requirements. All employers covered by the FLSA must comply with its minimum wage, overtime pay, child labor, and generally applicable recordkeeping requirements with respect to each employee who is not otherwise exempt from the FLSA's requirements.</P>
        <HD SOURCE="HD2">(5) Relevant Federal Rules Duplicating, Overlapping, or Conflicting With the Rule</HD>
        <P>There are no Federal rules that duplicate, overlap, or conflict with this rule governing the scope of the companionship services exemption under the FLSA. Regulations issued under the Medicare and Medicaid programs govern qualifying reimbursements for eligible expenses under those programs.</P>
        <HD SOURCE="HD2">(6) Differing Compliance or Reporting Requirements for Small Entities</HD>
        <P>This proposed rule contains no reporting, recordkeeping, or other compliance requirements specifically applicable to small entities or that differ from FLSA requirements generally applicable to all employers subject to the FLSA. Furthermore, since this is a question of application of the basic minimum wage and overtime requirements of the Act, and most affected employers would be small, no special treatment would be appropriate for small entities. However, the Department has prepared three alternative definitions of the scope of exempt duties and requested comments on all three.</P>
        <HD SOURCE="HD2">(7) Clarification, Consolidation, and Simplification of Compliance and Reporting Requirements</HD>

        <P>There is continuing confusion, among both employees and employers, over the scope of the companionship services exemption as it relates to the home health care industry. This proposal is intended to delimit how the exemption applies in a manner that conforms more fully with Congressional intent. Compliance requirements—<E T="03">i.e.</E>, payment of not less than the minimum wage for all hours worked and overtime pay, computed at time-and-one-half the regular rate for hours worked over 40 per week to all covered employees—are imposed by statute but are also relatively simple and easy to comply with. Under the recordkeeping requirements generally applicable to all FLSA-covered employers, no particular order or form of records is prescribed by regulation and employers are free to use any format that assures the essential records are kept that meets compliance needs.</P>
        <HD SOURCE="HD2">(8) Use of Other Standards</HD>
        <P>This proposed regulation addresses only statutory coverage and definitional terms used in applying the “companionship services” exemption. Different standards for a statutory exemption are not appropriate for small businesses. It should be noted, however, that the proposed modification to the exemption to exclude from the exemption those workers who are employed by an employer or agency other than the family or household using their services would have the effect of excluding all large employers (as well as small employers other than the family or household).</P>
        <HD SOURCE="HD2">(9) Exemption of Small Entities From Coverage of the Rule</HD>
        <P>An exemption based on the size of the entity/employer would not be permitted by the terms of the statute. Coverage and applicability of the wage and hours provisions of the FLSA are based on engagement in interstate commerce, production of goods for interstate commerce, employment in domestic service employment in private households (per se), and employment by certain enterprises named in the statute as subject to its provisions.</P>
        <HD SOURCE="HD1">X. Document Preparation</HD>
        <P>This document was prepared under the direction and control of Thomas M. Markey, Deputy Administrator for Operations, Wage and Hour Division, Employment Standards Administration, U.S. Department of Labor.</P>
        <LSTSUB>
          <HD SOURCE="HED">List of Subjects in 29 CFR Part 552</HD>
          <P>Domestic service workers, Employment, Labor, Minimum wages, Overtime pay, Wages.</P>
        </LSTSUB>
        <SIG>
          <DATED>Signed at Washington, DC on this 12th day of January, 2001.</DATED>
          <NAME>T. Michael Kerr,</NAME>
          <TITLE>Administrator, Wage and Hour Division.</TITLE>
        </SIG>
        <REGTEXT PART="552" TITLE="29">
          <AMDPAR>For the reasons set forth above, part 552 of title 29 of the Code of Federal Regulations is proposed to be amended as follows:</AMDPAR>
          <PART>
            <HD SOURCE="HED">PART 552—APPLICATION OF THE FAIR LABOR STANDARDS ACT TO DOMESTIC SERVICE</HD>
          </PART>
          <AMDPAR>1. The authority citation for part 552 continues to read as follows:</AMDPAR>
          <AUTH>
            <HD SOURCE="HED">Authority:</HD>

            <P>Secs. 13(a)(15) and 13(b)(21) of the Fair Labor Standards Act, as amended (29 U.S.C. 213(a)(15), (b)(21)), 88 Stat. 62; Sec. 29(b) of the Fair Labor Standards<PRTPAGE P="5488"/>Amendments of 1974 (Pub. L. 93-259, 88 Stat. 76), unless otherwise noted.</P>
          </AUTH>
        </REGTEXT>
        
        <REGTEXT PART="552" TITLE="29">
          <AMDPAR>2. § 552.3 is proposed to be revised by adding a sentence to the end of the section to read as follows:</AMDPAR>
          <SECTION>
            <SECTNO>§ 552.3</SECTNO>
            <SUBJECT>Domestic service employment.</SUBJECT>
            <P>* * * Employees who are employed, whether solely or jointly, by an employer or agency other than the family or household using their services are not engaged in domestic service employment within the meaning of this part with respect to such third-party employer.</P>
          </SECTION>
        </REGTEXT>
        <REGTEXT PART="552" TITLE="29">
          <AMDPAR>3. § 552.6 is proposed to be revised to read as follows:</AMDPAR>
          <HD SOURCE="HD3">Alternative 1 for § 552.6</HD>
          <SECTION>
            <SECTNO>§ 552.6</SECTNO>
            <SUBJECT>Companionship services for the aged or infirm.</SUBJECT>

            <P>As used in section 13(a)(15) of the Act, the term companionship services shall mean those services which provide fellowship, care and protection for a person who, because of advanced age or physical or mental infirmity, cannot care for his or her own needs. Although no specific percentage of time must be devoted exclusively to fellowship, fellowship must be a significant component of a companion's duties. Protection generally involves being present in the home of the individual to ensure the safety and well being of that individual. Care generally involves providing intimate personal care services to that individual, such as feeding the person or assisting the person with bathing, dressing, grooming, or toileting. A companion may also perform household work but only insofar as it is directly related to the care of the individual, such as preparing the individual's meal, making the individual's bed, washing the individual's clothes and other similar services for the person, provided, however, that such work is incidental,<E T="03">i.e.</E>, does not exceed 20 percent of the total weekly hours worked. The term “companionship services” does not include services relating to the care and protection of the individual which require and are performed by personnel with training in medical procedures, including, but not limited to, catheter and ostomy care, injections, and tube feeding, regardless of whether the caregiver is a registered or practical nurse. While such trained personnel do not qualify as companions, this fact does not remove them from the category of covered domestic service employees when employed in or about a private household.</P>
            <HD SOURCE="HD3">Alternative 2 for § 552.6</HD>
          </SECTION>
          <SECTION>
            <SECTNO>§ 552.6</SECTNO>
            <SUBJECT>Companionship services for the aged or infirm.</SUBJECT>

            <P>As used in section 13(a)(15) of the Act, the term companionship services shall mean those services which provide fellowship, care and protection for a person who, because of advanced age or physical or mental infirmity, cannot care for his or her own needs. Fellowship and protection must be a companion's primary duties and the companion must spend at least 50% of his or her weekly hours worked providing fellowship or protection. A companion's time may be devoted exclusively to fellowship or protection, or fellowship and protection may be provided in conjunction with and concurrently with intimate personal care activities; however, only one-half of the time spent providing fellowship or protection in the context of and concurrently with intimate personal care activities may count towards the 50 percent requirement. Protection generally involves being present in the home of the individual to ensure the safety and well being of that individual. Care generally involves providing intimate personal care services to that individual, such as feeding the person or assisting the person with bathing, dressing, grooming, or toileting. A companion may also perform household work but only insofar as it is directly related to the care of the individual, such as preparing the individual's meal, making the individual's bed, washing the individual's clothes and other similar services for the person, provided, however, that such work is incidental,<E T="03">i.e.</E>, does not exceed 20 percent of the total weekly hours worked. The term “companionship services” does not include services relating to the care and protection of the individual which require and are performed by personnel with training in medical procedures, including, but not limited to, catheter and ostomy care, injections, and tube feeding, regardless of whether the caregiver is a registered or practical nurse. While such trained personnel do not qualify as companions, this fact does not remove them from the category of covered domestic service employees when employed in or about a private household.</P>
            <HD SOURCE="HD3">Alternative 3 for § 552.6</HD>
          </SECTION>
          <SECTION>
            <SECTNO>§ 552.6</SECTNO>
            <SUBJECT>Companionship services for the aged or infirm.</SUBJECT>
            <P>As used in section 13(a)(15) of the Act, the term companionship services shall mean those services which provide fellowship and protection for a person who, because of advanced age or physical or mental infirmity, cannot care for his or her own needs. Fellowship and protection are a companion's sole core duties and a companion must spend at least 80% or his or her weekly hours worked exclusively providing fellowship or protection. Protection generally involves being present in the home of the individual to ensure the safety and well being of that individual. A companion may also perform duties that provide care, which generally involves providing intimate personal care services to the individual, such as feeding the person or assisting the person with bathing, dressing, grooming, or toileting. A companion also may perform household work but only insofar as it is directly related to the care of the individual, such as preparing the individual's meal, making the individual's bed, washing the individual's clothes and other similar services for the person. However, all intimate personal care services and household work directly related to the individual must be incidental, i.e., may not exceed 20 percent of the total weekly hours worked. The term “companionship services” does not include services relating to the care and protection of the individual which require and are performed by personnel with training in medical procedures, including, but not limited to, catheter and ostomy care, injections, and tube feeding, regardless of whether the caregiver is a registered or practical nurse. While such trained personnel do not qualify as companions, this fact does not remove them from the category of covered domestic service employees when employed in or about a private household.</P>
          </SECTION>
        </REGTEXT>
        <REGTEXT PART="552" TITLE="29">
          <AMDPAR>4. In § 552.109, paragraphs (a) and (c) are proposed to be revised to read as follows:</AMDPAR>
          <SECTION>
            <SECTNO>§ 552.109</SECTNO>
            <SUBJECT>Third party employment.</SUBJECT>
            <P>(a) Employees who are employed, whether solely or jointly, by an employer or agency other than the family or household using their services are not engaged in “domestic service employment” within the meaning of these regulations with respect to such third party employer. Consequently, such a third party employer may not avail itself of the minimum wage and overtime pay exemption provided by section 13(a)(15) of the Act for employees employed in domestic service employment to provide companionship services.</P>
            <P>(b) * * *</P>

            <P>(c) Household workers who are employed, whether solely or jointly, by an employer or agency other than the<PRTPAGE P="5489"/>family or household using their services are not engaged “in domestic service employment” within the meaning of these regulations with respect to such third party employer. Consequently, such a third party employer may not avail itself of the overtime pay exemption provided by section 13(b)(21) of the Act for employees employed in domestic service who reside in the household.</P>
            
          </SECTION>
        </REGTEXT>
      </SUPLINF>
      <FRDOC>[FR Doc. 01-1590 Filed 1-18-01; 8:45 am]</FRDOC>
      <BILCOD>BILLING CODE 4510-27-P</BILCOD>
    </RULE>
    <RULE>
      <PREAMB>
        <AGENCY TYPE="N">DEPARTMENT OF COMMERCE</AGENCY>
        <SUBAGY>National Oceanic and Atmospheric Administration</SUBAGY>
        <CFR>50 CFR Part 229</CFR>
        <DEPDOC>[Docket No. 001128334-0334-01; I.D. 111300E]</DEPDOC>
        <RIN>RIN 648-AN40</RIN>
        <SUBJECT>Taking of Marine Mammals Incidental to Commercial Fishing Operations; Atlantic Large Whale Take Reduction Plan Regulations</SUBJECT>
        <AGY>
          <HD SOURCE="HED">AGENCY:</HD>
          <P>National Marine Fisheries Service (NMFS), National Oceanic and Atmospheric Administration (NOAA), Commerce.</P>
        </AGY>
        <ACT>
          <HD SOURCE="HED">ACTION:</HD>
          <P>Interim final rule; delay of effective date.</P>
        </ACT>
        <SUM>
          <HD SOURCE="HED">SUMMARY:</HD>
          <P>This interim final rule delays the effective date of an interim final rule amending the Atlantic Large Whale Take Reduction Plan (ALWTRP) from January 22, 2001,  until February 21, 2001.  Due to the rough January weather conditions in the Gulf of Maine, the affected fishers have not been able to implement the gear modifications in the interim final rule in time to meet the January 22, 2001 effective date.  The intent of this delay of effective date is to allow fishers 30 additional days to implement the gear modifications.</P>
        </SUM>
        <DATES>
          <HD SOURCE="HED">DATES:</HD>
          <P>The effective date of the interim final rule amending 50 CFR  part 229 published at 65 FR 80368, December 21, 2000, is delayed until February 21, 2001.</P>
        </DATES>
        <ADD>
          <HD SOURCE="HED">ADDRESSES:</HD>
          <P>Send comments on this interim final rule to the Chief, Marine Mammal Division, NMFS, Office of Protected Resources, 1315 East-West Highway, Silver Spring, MD 20910.  Copies of the Environmental Assessment, Atlantic Large Whale Take Reduction Team (ALWTRT) meeting summaries, progress reports on implementation of the ALWTRP, and a map and table of the changes to the ALWTRP may be obtained by writing Douglas Beach, NMFS/Northeast Region, 1 Blackburn Dr., Gloucester, MA 01930 or Katherine Wang, NMFS/Southeast Region, 9721 Executive Center Dr., St. Petersburg, Fl 33702-2432.</P>

          <P>Send comments regarding any ambiguity or unnecessary complexity arising from the language used in this interim final rule to the Marine Mammal Division Chief at the previously listed address.  See<E T="02">SUPPLEMENTARY INFORMATION,</E>under the heading Electronic Access, for Internet addresses pertaining to this interim final rule.</P>
        </ADD>
        <FURINF>
          <HD SOURCE="HED">FOR FURTHER INFORMATION CONTACT:</HD>
          <P>Douglas Beach, NMFS, Northeast Region, 978-281-9254; Katherine Wang, NMFS, Southeast Region, 727-570-5312; or Patricia Lawson, NMFS, Office of Protected Resources, 301-713-2322.</P>
        </FURINF>
      </PREAMB>
      <SUPLINF>
        <HD SOURCE="HED">SUPPLEMENTARY INFORMATION:</HD>
        <HD SOURCE="HD1">Electronic Access</HD>
        <P>Several of the background documents for this interim final rule and the take reduction planning process can be downloaded from the ALWTRP web site at http://www.nero.nmfs.gov/whaletrp/.</P>
        <HD SOURCE="HD1">Background</HD>

        <P>The ALWTRP was developed pursuant to the Marine Mammal Protection Act (MMPA) to reduce the level of serious injury/mortality of all large whale species in East Coast lobster trap and finfish gillnet fisheries.  The background for the take reduction planning process and development of the ALWTRP is set out in the preamble to the proposed (62 FR 16519, April 7, 1997), interim final (62 FR 39157, July 22, 1997), and final (64 FR 7529, February 16, 1999) rules implementing the ALWTRP.  Additional information is available in the report from the ALWTRT after its recent series of meetings in 2000.  Copies of these documents and supporting Environmental Assessments (EAs) are available from the NMFS/Northeast Region contact in the<E T="02">ADDRESSES</E>section of this document.</P>
        <P>Because of the status of the right whale population, there is a need to further reduce entanglement.  The interim final rule published December 21, 2000, (65 FR 80368), with an effective date of January 22, 2001, implemented gear modifications (buoy line weak links, net panel weak links with anchoring systems, restrictions on number of buoy lines, and gear marking) that were initially discussed in the 1997 proposed and 1999 final rules and recommended by the TRT after the 2000 meetings.  NMFS responded to these recommendations by promulgating the gear modifications in the December 21, 2000, interim final rule.  It was agreed that the regulations implementing these gear modifications should be issued as soon as practicable.  However, due to rough January weather conditions in the Gulf of Maine, effected fishers will be unable to retrieve and modify active gear by the January 22, 2001 effective date.  This interim final rule delays the effective date until February 21, 2001, to allow fishers time to implement the gear modifications.</P>
        <P>NMFS expects that a delay of the rule to February 21, 2001 will have minimal impact on the North Atlantic right whale population.  Available sighting data for the January through February period suggests that most right whales in New England are congregated in Cape Cod Bay.  Data reported by the NE Right Whale Alert System during 1999-2001, included only two sightings of right whales in New England waters outside of Cape Cod Bay.  Whales do not begin to leave the Bay until late March (when they move to Stellwagen Bank and then perhaps on to the Great South Channel Area) by which time gear will have been modified as per the Interim Final Rule.  Thus, the 30 day delay is not expected to adversely affect right whales in these waters.</P>
        <HD SOURCE="HD1">Classification</HD>
        <P>An Environmental Assessment (EA) describing the impacts to the environment that would result from the implementation of the ALWTRP was prepared for the July 22, 1997, interim final rule (62 FR 39157).  Supplemental EAs were also prepared for the April 9, 1999, final rule (64 FR 17292) and the December 21, 2000, interim final rule (65 FR 80368).  The conclusion of those EAs was that the ALWTRP’s actions would pose no significant adverse environmental impact.  The delay of the effective date by 30 days does not change the determination of those EAs.  This action is categorically excluded from further review because it is an action of limited size and magnitude that does not result in a significant change in the original action.</P>
        <P>This interim final rule has been determined to be not significant for purposes of Executive Order 12866.</P>

        <P>Given the status of the species to be protected and the fact that entanglements continue to occur under the existing regulations, the Assistant Administrator for Fisheries (AA) NOAA, for good cause under 5 U.S.C. 553(b)(3)(B), found that extending the December 21, 2000, interim final rule (65 FR 80368) to allow for prior notice and an opportunity for public comment<PRTPAGE P="5490"/>would be contrary to the public interest.  In addition, the AA finds for good cause under 5 U.S.C. 553(b)(3) that extending this interim final rule for prior notice and an opportunity for public comment would be contrary to the public interest.  It would be unfair to subject fishers to changes in gear requirements under the December 21, 2000 interim final rule (65 FR 80368) when, due to weather, the affected fishers have been unable to implement these changes.  Because prior notice and an opportunity for public comment are not required to be provided for this interim final rule by 5 U.S.C. 553 or by any other law, the analytical requirements of the Regulatory Flexibility Act, 5 U.S.C. 601<E T="03">et  seq.</E>, are inapplicable.</P>
        <P>This interim final rule delays implementation of a collection-of information requirement subject to the Paperwork Reduction Act that has already been approved by Office of Management and Budget (OMB control number: 0648-0364).</P>
        <P>A biological opinion (BO) on the ALWTRP was finalized on July 15, 1997.  That opinion concluded that implementation of the ALWTRP and continued operation of fisheries conducted under the American Lobster, Northeast Multispecies, and Shark Fishery Management Plans (FMPs), as modified by the ALWTRP, may adversely affect, but are not likely to jeopardize the continued existence of any listed species or adversely modify critical habitat.  A further determination was made that the February 16, 1999, final rule (64 FR 7529) did not change the basis for that BO.  NMFS also determined that the December 21, 2000, interim final rule (65 FR 80368) does not change the basis for the 1997 and 1999 ESA determinations.  Because this interim final rule simply delays the effective date of the December 21, 2000, interim final rule, NMFS finds this action also does not change the basis for that BO.</P>
        <P>This interim final rule should have no adverse impacts on marine mammals.  Whale entanglement rates are not expected to increase significantly as a result of this action.</P>
        <P>This interim final rule does not change the determination for the December 21, 2000, interim final rule (65 FR 80368) that the ALWTRP will be implemented in a manner that is consistent to the maximum extent practicable with the approved coastal zone management programs of the U.S. Atlantic coastal states.</P>
        <P>This interim final rule does not contain policies with federalism implications sufficient to warrant preparation of a federalism assessment under Executive Order 12612.</P>
        <P>This interim final rule is promulgated in compliance with all procedural requirements established by the Administrative Procedure Act.</P>
        <HD SOURCE="HD1">Plain Language Requirement for Rulemaking</HD>

        <P>The President has directed Federal agencies to use plain language in their communications with the public, including regulations.  To comply with this directive, we seek public comment on any ambiguity or unnecessary complexity arising from the language used in this interim final rule.  Send comments to the NMFS Marine Mammal Division Chief (see<E T="02">ADDRESSES</E>).</P>
        <LSTSUB>
          <HD SOURCE="HED">List of Subjects in 50 CFR Part 229</HD>
          <P>Administrative practice and procedure, Confidential business information, Fisheries, Marine mammals, Reporting and recordkeeping requirements.</P>
        </LSTSUB>
        <SIG>
          <DATED>Dated: January 12, 2001.</DATED>
          <NAME>William T. Hogarth,</NAME>
          <TITLE>Deputy Assistant Administrator for Fisheries, National Marine Fisheries Service.</TITLE>
        </SIG>
      </SUPLINF>
      <FRDOC>[FR Doc. 01-1589 Filed 1-18-01; 8:45 am]</FRDOC>
      <BILCOD>BILLING CODE 3510-22-S</BILCOD>
    </RULE>
  </RULES>
  <VOL>66</VOL>
  <NO>13</NO>
  <DATE>Friday, January 19, 2001</DATE>
  <UNITNAME>Proposed Rules</UNITNAME>
  <PRORULES>
    <PRORULE>
      <PREAMB>
        <PRTPAGE P="5491"/>
        <AGENCY TYPE="F">OFFICE OF PERSONNEL MANAGEMENT</AGENCY>
        <CFR>5 CFR Part 575</CFR>
        <RIN>RIN 3206-AJ08</RIN>
        <SUBJECT>Recruitment and Relocation Bonuses and Retention Allowances</SUBJECT>
        <AGY>
          <HD SOURCE="HED">AGENCY:</HD>
          <P>Office of Personnel Management.</P>
        </AGY>
        <ACT>
          <HD SOURCE="HED">ACTION:</HD>
          <P>Proposed rule with request for comments.</P>
        </ACT>
        <SUM>
          <HD SOURCE="HED">SUMMARY:</HD>
          <P>The Office of Personnel Management (OPM) is issuing proposed regulations to provide agencies with greater flexibility to use recruitment and relocation bonuses and retention allowances. These proposed regulations would provide agencies with the flexibility to pay retention allowances to employees who are likely to leave their positions for other Federal employment under certain limited circumstances. This proposal also would allow agencies to pay recruitment and relocation bonuses and retention allowances to prevailing rate (wage) employees.</P>
        </SUM>
        <DATES>
          <HD SOURCE="HED">DATES:</HD>
          <P>Comments must be received on or before March 20, 2001.</P>
        </DATES>
        <FURINF>
          <HD SOURCE="HED">FOR FURTHER INFORMATION CONTACT:</HD>
          <P>Jeanne Jacobson, (202) 606-2858; FAX: (202) 606-0824; email: payleave@opm.gov.</P>
        </FURINF>
        <ADD>
          <HD SOURCE="HED">ADDRESSES:</HD>

          <P>Comments may be sent or delivered to Donald J. Winstead, Assistant Director for Compensation Administration, Workforce Compensation and Performance Service, Office of Personnel Management, Room 7H31, 1900 E Street NW., Washington, DC 20415, FAX: (202) 606-0824, or email:<E T="03">payleave@opm.gov.</E>
          </P>
        </ADD>
      </PREAMB>
      <SUPLINF>
        <HD SOURCE="HED">SUPPLEMENTARY INFORMATION:</HD>
        <P>The Office of Personnel Management (OPM) is proposing to amend the recruitment and relocation bonus and retention allowance regulations in 5 CFR part 575, subparts A, B, and C, to provide agencies with additional flexibility to use these incentives. The proposed regulations would allow agencies to grant a retention allowance to a current employee likely to leave for other Federal employment under certain limited circumstances. The proposed regulations also would allow agencies to pay recruitment and relocation bonuses and retention allowances to prevailing rate (wage) employees.</P>
        <HD SOURCE="HD1">Retention Allowances for Employees Likely To Leave for Other Federal Employment</HD>
        <P>Under current law (5 U.S.C. 5754), OPM may authorize agencies to grant a retention allowance to an employee if the unusually high or unique qualifications of the employee or a special need for the employee's services makes it essential to retain the employee, and the agency determines that the employee would be likely to leave in the absence of an allowance. Our regulations initially authorized agencies to grant retention allowances only if the employee was likely to leave the Federal service for employment outside the executive, legislative, or judicial branch of the Federal Government (60 FR 12833, March 28, 1991). Later, we broadened this authority to provide agencies with the flexibility to grant retention allowances to employees who were likely to leave the Federal service for any reason (60 FR 33323, June 28, 1995). We did not authorize agencies to pay retention allowances to employees likely to leave for other Federal employment because of concerns about potentially disruptive and costly bidding wars among Federal agencies competing for employees with highly desired skills or competencies.</P>
        <P>Agencies have recently requested that OPM amend its regulations to authorize retention allowances for employees likely to leave for other Federal employment in certain limited circumstances. We recognize that agencies may experience significant staffing problems that hinder their ability to meet mission objectives when their employees leave for other Federal jobs. In some cases, the retention allowance authority may be the most effective way to resolve such problems. However, we must also continue to be cognizant of the potential costs of interagency competition.</P>
        <P>We propose to amend the regulations at 5 CFR 575.304(b) to allow agencies to pay a retention allowance to an employee likely to leave for other Federal employment when (1) the other Federal position is under a different pay system (with certain exceptions) or (2) it is essential to retain the employee during a temporary but critical work situation. (Agencies would continue to have authority under § 575.304(b)(1) to pay retention allowances to employees who are likely to leave the Federal service for any reason.)</P>
        <P>Section 575.304(b)(2) of the proposed regulations would authorize an agency to pay a retention allowance to an employee likely to leave for another Federal position that is under a pay system that is different from the pay system of the employee's current position. The proposed regulations would prohibit agencies from using this authority to pay retention allowances to an employee likely to leave for a General Schedule (GS), prevailing rate (wage), senior-level and scientific or professional (SL/ST), Senior Executive Service (SES), administrative law judge (ALJ), Executive Schedule (EX), or Board of Contract Appeals (BCA) position when his or her current position is also under any of these pay systems. (See proposed § 575.304(d).)</P>

        <P>For example, using this new authority an agency could pay a retention allowance to a General Schedule employee likely to leave for a higher-paying position under a pay system outside of title 5, United States Code, (<E T="03">e.g.,</E>the Federal Aviation Administration). In this situation, the recruiting agency may have independent statutory authority to offer salaries or other incentives that are greater than those available under the General Schedule, making it very difficult for the employee's current agency to compete effectively. We believe allowing agencies to grant retention allowances in such situations will help level the playing field among agencies with similar staffing needs.</P>

        <P>Section 575.304(b)(3) of the proposed regulations would allow Federal agencies to grant retention allowances to an employee likely to leave for other Federal employment (under the same or different pay system) during temporary but critical staffing situations. Private sector organizations pay “staying-on” or “retention bonuses” to help retain employees and keep operations running smoothly during “crisis” situations, such as mergers, acquisitions, and plant closings. We believe it would be reasonable to allow Federal agencies to use the retention allowance authority on<PRTPAGE P="5492"/>a temporary basis to help retain experienced employees who otherwise would be likely to leave during similar critical periods.</P>
        <P>For example, an agency may need to retain an employee until the completion of a project critical to the mission of the agency or during the closure of a facility or office or the relocation of an office or facility to a different commuting area. Such employees may be likely to leave for other Federal employment if, for example, the agency has announced that it will eliminate or substantially change the duties of the employee's position as a result of the critical situation or upon completion of the important project or if the office relocation will compel the employee to change his or her residence to continue employment. A retention allowance may help entice an employee to stay through the temporary but critical work period.</P>
        <P>To help ensure that agencies use this new authority only for temporary staffing difficulties, § 575.307(b) would limit payment of retention allowances to an employee working on a critical project to a period of no longer than 1 year. On a case-by-case basis, the head of an agency may ask OPM to extend this time limit. The proposed regulations would allow an agency to pay retention allowances to an employee likely to leave for other Federal employment prior to an office closure or relocation as long as the agency continues to have an essential need for the employee's services.</P>
        <P>When authorizing a retention allowance for an employee likely to leave for other Federal employment under § 575.304(b)(2) and (3), the proposed regulations would require agencies to follow the payment criteria and documentation provisions currently prescribed in § 575.305(c). In addition, before approving a retention allowance for an employee who is likely to leave during a critical work period, § 575.305(c)(2) of the proposed regulations would require the agency to determine how the employee's departure would affect its ability to function effectively during the critical period.</P>
        <P>The proposed regulations at § 575.305(c)(3)(iii) also would require agencies to consider other relevant factors when authorizing a retention allowance and determining the amount for an employee who is likely to leave for other Federal employment. These factors may include the likelihood of attracting candidates to fill the employee's position if the agency has announced that it will relocate the position, the cost and time required to hire and train a new employee to complete a critical project, or the salaries typically paid by another Federal agency.</P>

        <P>To help avoid unwarranted and possibly costly interagency competition, § 575.305(c)(4) of the proposed regulations also would require agencies to consider the use of non-pay alternatives to help resolve staffing problems before paying a retention allowance to an employee likely to leave for another Federal position. Such non-pay alternatives may include alternative recruitment strategies; use of temporary or term appointments or appointments with varying work schedules, such as part-time, intermittent, and seasonal schedules; employment of experts and consultants; alternative work schedules (<E T="03">i.e.,</E>flexible or compressed work schedules), job sharing, and telecommuting arrangements; paying or sharing the cost of employee training and higher education; or redesigning jobs so that a larger pool of candidates may qualify for a position or to make a job more appealing to candidates by adding desirable duties or eliminating undesirable duties.</P>
        <P>All other conditions and requirements for paying a retention allowance under 5 CFR part 575, subpart C, would continue to apply to employees who receive an allowance on the basis of being likely to leave for other Federal employment. For example, §§ 575.306(c) and 575.307(b) would require agencies to reduce or terminate a retention allowance paid to an employee likely to leave for other Federal employment when the conditions giving rise to the original determination to pay the allowance have changed. In addition, under § 575.307(d)(4), an agency could authorize a retention allowance of up to 10 percent (or up to 25 percent with OPM approval) of an employee's rate of basic pay for a group or category of employees likely to leave for other Federal employment. (In response to agency inquiries, the proposed regulations at § 575.305(c)(1) clarify that, when the group retention allowance authority is not used, agencies must make likely-to-leave determinations (for any reason, including for other Federal employment) only on an individual, case-by-case basis.)</P>
        <HD SOURCE="HD1">Recruitment, Relocation, and Retention Payments for Prevailing Rate (Wage) Employees</HD>
        <P>Sections 5753(e) and 5754(e) of title 5, United States Code, permit the President to authorize the application of recruitment, relocation, and retention payments to one or more categories of employees in an agency who would not otherwise be covered by these provisions of law upon the request of the head of the agency. Under section 6 of Executive Order 12748 of February 1, 1991, the President delegated this authority to the Director of OPM. In response to an agency request, these proposed regulations would provide agencies with discretionary authority to pay recruitment and relocation bonuses and retention allowances to an employee in a prevailing rate (wage) position, as defined in 5 U.S.C. 5342(a)(3). This would include Federal Wage System or “wage grade” employees. Under the proposed regulations, the same payment criteria, procedures, and documentation requirements that apply to other covered groups of employees also would apply to wage employees.</P>
        <HD SOURCE="HD1">E.O. 12866, Regulatory Review</HD>
        <P>This rule has been reviewed by the Office of Management and Budget in accordance with E.O. 12866.</P>
        <HD SOURCE="HD1">Regulatory Flexibility Act</HD>
        <P>I certify that these regulations would not have a significant economic impact on a substantial number of small entities because they would apply only to Federal agencies and employees.</P>
        <LSTSUB>
          <HD SOURCE="HED">List of Subjects in 5 CFR Part 575</HD>
          <P>Government employees, Wages.</P>
        </LSTSUB>
        <SIG>
          <FP>U.S. Office of Personnel Management.</FP>
          <NAME>Janice R. Lachance,</NAME>
          <TITLE>Director.</TITLE>
        </SIG>
        <P>Accordingly, OPM is proposing to amend part 575 of title 5, Code of Federal Regulations, as follows:</P>
        <PART>
          <HD SOURCE="HED">PART 575—RECRUITMENT AND RELOCATION BONUSES; RETENTION ALLOWANCES; SUPERVISORY DIFFERENTIALS</HD>
          <P>1. The authority citation for part 575 continues to read as follows:</P>
          <AUTH>
            <HD SOURCE="HED">Authority:</HD>
            <P>5 U.S.C. 1104(a)(2), 5753, 5754, and 5755; secs. 302 and 404 of the Federal Employees Pay Comparability Act of 1990 (FEPCA) (Pub. L. 101-509), 104 Stat. 1462 and 1466, respectively; E.O. 12748, 3 CFR, 1992 Comp., p. 316.</P>
          </AUTH>
          <SUBPART>
            <HD SOURCE="HED">Subpart A—Recruitment Bonuses</HD>
          </SUBPART>
          <P>2. In § 575.102, paragraph (a)(5) is amended by removing “or”; paragraph (a)(6) is amended by removing “.” and inserting in its place “; or”; and a new paragraph (a)(7) is added to read as follows:</P>
          <SECTION>
            <SECTNO>§ 575.102</SECTNO>
            <SUBJECT>Delegation of authority.</SUBJECT>
            <P>(a) * * *<PRTPAGE P="5493"/>
            </P>
            <P>(7) A prevailing rate position, as defined in 5 U.S.C. 5342(a)(3).</P>
            <STARS/>
          </SECTION>
          <SUBPART>
            <HD SOURCE="HED">Subpart B—Relocation Bonuses</HD>
          </SUBPART>
          <P>3. In § 575.202, paragraph (a)(5) is amended by removing “or”; paragraph (a)(6) is amended by removing “.” and inserting in its place “; or”; and a new paragraph (a)(7) is added to read as follows:</P>
          <SECTION>
            <SECTNO>§ 575.202</SECTNO>
            <SUBJECT>Delegation of authority.</SUBJECT>
            <P>(a) * * *</P>
            <P>(7) A prevailing rate position, as defined in 5 U.S.C. 5342(a)(3).</P>
            <STARS/>
          </SECTION>
          <SUBPART>
            <HD SOURCE="HED">Subpart C—Retention Allowances</HD>
          </SUBPART>
          <P>4. In § 575.302, paragraph (a)(5) is amended by removing “or”; paragraph (a)(6) is amended by removing “.” and inserting in its place “; or”; and paragraph (a)(7) is added to read as follows:</P>
          <SECTION>
            <SECTNO>§ 575.302</SECTNO>
            <SUBJECT>Delegation of authority.</SUBJECT>
            <P>(a) * * *</P>
            <P>(7) A prevailing rate position, as defined in 5 U.S.C. 5342(a)(3).</P>
            <STARS/>
            <P>5. In § 575.303, the definition of<E T="03">commuting area</E>is added in alphabetical order to read as follows:</P>
          </SECTION>
          <SECTION>
            <SECTNO>§ 575.303</SECTNO>
            <SUBJECT>Definitions.</SUBJECT>
            <STARS/>
            <P>
              <E T="03">Commuting area</E>has the meaning given that term in § 575.203.</P>
            <STARS/>
            <P>6. In § 575.304, paragraph (d) is redesignated as paragraph (e), paragraphs (b) and (c) are revised, and a new paragraph (d) is added, to read as follows:</P>
          </SECTION>
          <SECTION>
            <SECTNO>§ 575.304</SECTNO>
            <SUBJECT>Conditions for payment.</SUBJECT>
            <STARS/>
            <P>(b) An agency may consider an employee likely to leave if he or she is—</P>
            <P>(1) Likely to leave the Federal service for any reason;</P>
            <P>(2) Likely to leave his or her position for another Federal position under a different pay system (except as provided in paragraph (c) of this section); or</P>
            <P>(3) Likely to leave his or her position for a position under the same or different Federal pay system prior to the closure of the employee's office or facility; relocation of the employee's office or facility to a different commuting area; or the completion of a project critical to the mission of an agency.</P>
            <P>(c) An agency may not pay a retention allowance under paragraph (b)(2) of this section to an employee likely to leave for a General Schedule, prevailing rate (wage), senior-level and scientific or professional, Senior Executive Service, administrative law judge, Executive Schedule, or Board of Contract Appeals position when his or her current position is also under any of these pay systems.</P>
            <P>(d) An agency may not pay a retention allowance to an employee who is likely to leave his or her position for another Federal position other than under the conditions described in paragraphs (b)(2) and (3) of this section.</P>
            <STARS/>
            <P>7. In § 575.305, paragraphs (a)(2)(iii), (c), and (d)(1)(i) are revised to read as follows:</P>
          </SECTION>
          <SECTION>
            <SECTNO>§ 575.305</SECTNO>
            <SUBJECT>Agency retention allowance plans; higher level review and approval; and criteria for payment.</SUBJECT>
            <P>(a) * * *</P>
            <P>(2) * * *</P>
            <P>(iii) Procedures for paying allowances; and</P>
            <STARS/>
            <P>(c)<E T="03">Criteria for payment.</E>(1) An agency must base each allowance paid under this subpart on a written determination that the unusually high or unique qualifications of the employee or a special need of the agency for the employee's services makes it essential to retain the employee and that, in the absence of such an allowance, the employee would be likely to leave under one of the conditions specified in § 575.304(b). Except when using the group retention allowance authority under paragraph (d) of this section, an agency must make the determination that an employee is likely to leave on an individual, case-by-case basis.</P>
            <P>(2) An agency must base the determination required by paragraph (c)(1) of this section on a written description of the extent to which the employee's departure would affect the agency's ability to carry out an activity or perform a function that the agency deems essential to its mission or to operate effectively during a critical period.</P>
            <P>(3) An agency must consider the following factors, as applicable in the case at hand, in determining whether to pay a retention allowance and the amount of any such payment:</P>
            <P>(i) The success of recent efforts to recruit candidates and retain employees with qualifications similar to those possessed by the employee for positions similar to the position held by the employee;</P>
            <P>(ii) The availability in the labor market of candidates for employment who, with minimal training or disruption of service to the public, could perform the full range of duties and responsibilities of the employee's position; or</P>
            <P>(iii) Other supporting factors, such as the likelihood of attracting candidates to fill the employee's position if the agency has announced that it will soon relocate the position, the cost and time required to hire and train a new employee to complete a critical, time-sensitive project, or the salaries typically paid by another Federal agency.</P>
            <P>(4) For an employee likely to leave for other Federal employment under the conditions described in § 575.304(b)(2) and (3), the agency must consider the use of non-pay solutions to help retain the employee before authorizing a retention allowance. Such solutions may include conducting an aggressive recruiting program, using alternative appointing authorities, redesigning jobs, establishing training programs, implementing alternative work schedules, or improving working conditions.</P>
            <P>(d) * * *</P>
            <P>(1)(i) An agency may authorize a retention allowance of up to 10 percent of an employee's rate of basic pay for a group or category of employees (excluding individuals covered by § 575.302(a)(2), (3), (5), or (6) or those in similar positions to which OPM has delegated authority to approve retention allowances to agency heads under § 575.302(c)). An agency must determine in writing that the category of employees has unusually high or unique qualifications, or that the agency has a special need for the employees' services that makes it essential to retain the employees in that category. The agency must also determine in writing that it is reasonable to presume that there is a high risk that a significant number of employees in the targeted category are likely to leave under one of the conditions specified in § 575.304(b) in the absence of an allowance.</P>
            <STARS/>
            <P>8. In § 575.306, paragraph (c) is revised to read as follows:</P>
          </SECTION>
          <SECTION>
            <SECTNO>§ 575.306</SECTNO>
            <SUBJECT>Payment of retention allowance.</SUBJECT>
            <STARS/>
            <P>(c) An agency may continue paying a retention allowance as long as the conditions giving rise to the original determination to pay the allowance still exist, except as provided in § 575.307(a) and (b). However, at least annually, the agency must review each determination to pay an allowance to determine whether payment is still warranted. The agency approving official must certify this determination in writing.</P>
            <STARS/>

            <P>9. In § 575.307, paragraphs (b) and (c) are redesignated as paragraphs (c) and<PRTPAGE P="5494"/>(d), respectively, and a new paragraph (b) is added to read as follows:</P>
          </SECTION>
          <SECTION>
            <SECTNO>§ 575.307</SECTNO>
            <SUBJECT>Reduction or termination of retention allowance.</SUBJECT>
            <STARS/>
            <P>(b) An agency must terminate a retention allowance paid to an employee (or group of employees) under § 575.304(b)(3) (for work on a project critical to the mission of the agency) not later than 1 year after the initial allowance payment. On a case-by-case basis, the head of an agency may ask OPM to extend this time limit.</P>
            <STARS/>
          </SECTION>
        </PART>
      </SUPLINF>
      <FRDOC>[FR Doc. 01-1486 Filed 1-18-01; 8:45 am]</FRDOC>
      <BILCOD>BILLING CODE 6325-01-P</BILCOD>
    </PRORULE>
    <PRORULE>
      <PREAMB>
        <AGENCY TYPE="N">SOCIAL SECURITY ADMINISTRATION</AGENCY>
        <CFR>20 CFR Parts 404, 416, and 422</CFR>
        <DEPDOC>[Regulations Nos. 4 and 16]</DEPDOC>
        <RIN>RIN 0960-AF44</RIN>
        <SUBJECT>New Disability Claims Process</SUBJECT>
        <AGY>
          <HD SOURCE="HED">AGENCY:</HD>
          <P>Social Security Administration (SSA).</P>
        </AGY>
        <ACT>
          <HD SOURCE="HED">ACTION:</HD>
          <P>Notice of proposed rulemaking.</P>
        </ACT>
        <SUM>
          <HD SOURCE="HED">SUMMARY:</HD>
          <P>We are proposing to revise our regulations that pertain to the processing of initial claims for disability benefits under title II (Social Security Disability Insurance) and title XVI (Supplemental Security Income) of the Social Security Act (the Act). The proposed rules would incorporate modifications to our administrative review process and disability determination procedures based on testing that we are conducting. The changes, which would apply to initial applications for disability benefits, would:</P>
          <P>• First, permit disability examiners in our State agencies the flexibility to decide whether input from a medical or psychological consultant is needed to make a disability determination, so that our State agencies may use the expertise of the disability examiners and medical and psychological consultants more effectively;</P>
          <P>• Second, provide claimants with an opportunity for an informal disability conference with the adjudicators of their claims at the initial level in cases in which it appears that the evidence does not support a fully favorable determination; and</P>
          <P>• Third, eliminate the reconsideration step of the administrative review process.</P>
          <P>We plan to phase in these changes over a period of 1 year until they apply in every State.</P>
        </SUM>
        <EFFDATE>
          <HD SOURCE="HED">DATES:</HD>
          <P>To be sure that your comments are considered, we must receive them no later than March 20, 2001.</P>
        </EFFDATE>
        <ADD>
          <HD SOURCE="HED">ADDRESSES:</HD>

          <P>Comments should be submitted to the Commissioner of Social Security, P.O. Box 17703, Baltimore, Maryland 21235-7703; sent by telefax to (410) 966-2830; sent by e-mail to<E T="03">regulations@ssa.gov;</E>or delivered to the Office of Process and Innovation Management, Social Security Administration, L2109 West Low Rise Building, 6401 Security Boulevard, Baltimore, MD 21235-6401, between 8:00 a.m. and 4:30 p.m. on regular business days. During these same hours, you may inspect the comments that we receive by making arrangements with the contact person shown below.</P>
        </ADD>
        <FURINF>
          <HD SOURCE="HED">FOR FURTHER INFORMATION CONTACT:</HD>
          <P>Georgia E. Myers, Regulations Officer, Office of Process and Innovation Management, L2109 West Low Rise Building, 6401 Security Boulevard, Baltimore, MD 21235-6401, (410) 965-3632 or TTY (410) 966-5609, for information about this notice. For information on eligibility or claiming benefits, call our national toll-free number, 1-800-772-1213 or TTY 1-800-325-0778, or visit our Internet web site, Social Security Online, at www.ssa.gov.</P>
        </FURINF>
      </PREAMB>
      <SUPLINF>
        <HD SOURCE="HED">SUPPLEMENTARY INFORMATION:</HD>
        <HD SOURCE="HD1">In Brief, What Are We Proposing To Do?</HD>
        <P>We are proposing to change our rules in three ways:</P>

        <P>1. We are proposing to change our rules for how State agencies make disability determinations for us. The change would allow State agency adjudicators, called “disability examiners,” to decide whether input from a medical or psychological consultant is needed to make a disability determination. The medical or psychological consultant would not be responsible for the determination;<E T="03">i.e.,</E>would not be an adjudicator of the claim.</P>
        <P>2. We are proposing to add rules providing that disability examiners will offer claimants an opportunity for an informal conference whenever it appears that the evidence does not support a fully favorable determination.</P>
        <P>3. We are proposing to eliminate the reconsideration step of our administrative review process.</P>
        <P>On August 30, 1999, we published a notice in the<E T="04">Federal Register</E>announcing a “prototype” involving these three major modifications to our disability determination process for initial applications under titles II and XVI of the Act. (See 64 FR 47218.) In the notice, we stated that, before proceeding to national implementation, we expected that the prototype would provide a body of information about the impact of these modifications on agency operations, notice and other procedures, and the quality and timeliness of our determinations and decisions. Although the prototype is continuing and we continue to gather information and gain operational experience, we believe that we now have sufficient information to propose changes to our regulations. Public comments received on these proposed changes will assist us in fine-tuning these changes.</P>
        <P>Because we now know that implementation of the process in each State agency requires support during the period of transition, we are considering a plan by which we would implement the process in groups of State agencies until all States use the new process. Our projected completion date will be in 2003. We explain our current plan in more detail later in this preamble, and invite public comment.</P>
        <HD SOURCE="HD1">What Is the Current Process?</HD>
        <P>Sections 404.1503 and 416.903 of our regulations provide that State agencies make disability and blindness determinations, following rules that we provide. Sections 404.1615(c) and 416.1015(c) of our regulations provide with respect to initial disability claims that, in most cases, these disability determinations must be made by a State agency medical or psychological consultant and a State agency disability examiner, a lay adjudicator with expertise in evaluating disability. The medical or psychological consultant and the disability examiner work together as a team and are jointly responsible for the determination. Under current rules, a disability examiner alone may make a determination only in the very unusual circumstance in which:</P>
        <P>• There is no medical evidence to be evaluated (<E T="03">i.e.,</E>no medical evidence exists or we are unable, despite making every reasonable effort, to obtain any medical evidence that may exist); and</P>
        <P>• The individual fails or refuses, without good reason, to attend a consultative examination.</P>

        <P>State agency determinations in initial claims are generally based on review of the written information in a claimant's case record. Although our procedures permit disability examiners and medical and psychological consultants to speak to claimants to obtain more information, there are no formal requirements for such contact. Also, we have no procedures requiring a State agency adjudicator to explain and discuss our disability standards with claimants or to<PRTPAGE P="5495"/>explain the determination, apart from the information that we provide in the written notice of determination;<E T="03">i.e.,</E>after we have already made the determination.</P>
        <P>Sections 205(b)(1) and 1631(c)(1)(A) of the Act provide that an individual who disagrees with our initial determination has a right to a hearing. However, §§ 404.900 and 404.907 (for title II) and 416.1400 and 416.1407 (for title XVI) of our regulations have long provided that, when an individual is dissatisfied with an initial determination, he or she may appeal the determination first to the “reconsideration” level of our administrative review process. In initial disability claims, the reconsideration determination consists of a case review of evidence from the initial claim as well as evidence obtained subsequently. Only after the reconsideration determination may individuals who are dissatisfied with their determinations appeal to a hearing before an administrative law judge.</P>
        <HD SOURCE="HD1">What Led Us to These Proposed Rules?</HD>
        <P>For many years, we have been exploring methods for improving the disability determination process to make it more consistent, accurate, efficient, and timely. For example, for several years we have engaged in what we call “process unification” activities aimed at improving our ability to achieve similar results in similar cases at all stages of the administrative review process. In 1995, we also published § § 404.906 and 416.1406, “Testing modifications to the disability determination procedures,” which permitted us to test a number of variations to our current processes. We called the various test processes “models.” (See 60 FR 20023, April 24, 1995.)</P>
        <P>Among the models that we included in § § 404.906 and 416.1406 were revisions to our current process that would permit a disability examiner in the State agency to assume sole authority for making disability determinations in certain cases, thereby giving examiners the flexibility to decide whether to obtain input from a medical or psychological consultant when making the disability determination. One of the models also included a “predecision interview” with the claimant to ensure that the case record was complete and that the claimant understood our disability standards. In the preamble to the Notice of Proposed Rulemaking (NPRM) for these rules, we indicated that in recent years we had conducted various studies on how to improve the disability determination process, and that we had a number of goals in proposing the models. We stated that our goals were:</P>
        <P>• To provide assistance to the disability applicant by making the filing of a disability claim simpler;</P>
        <P>• To promote fairness in each disability determination by ensuring that each disability applicant is given an opportunity to provide all of the necessary information to complete the claim and is aware of his or her rights under the program; and</P>
        <P>• To ensure that our determination is equitable.(See 58 FR 54532, 54533, October 22, 1993.)</P>
        <P>In 1994, we included a number of similar features in our proposal to redesign the disability claims process and the subsequent final redesign plan. (See 59 FR 18188, April 15, 1994, and 59 FR 47887, September 19, 1994.) Both the redesign proposal and the final plan were especially critical of:</P>
        <P>• The time it takes for us to adjudicate some disability claims,</P>
        <P>• The number of SSA and State agency employees who may be involved in processing a claim initially and throughout the appeals process,</P>
        <P>• The lack of interaction between the claimant and the decisionmaker, and</P>
        <P>• The lack of thorough explanations, in many cases, of the basis for the disability determinations.</P>
        <P>Therefore, the redesign of the disability process included the following goals that are important to this NPRM:</P>
        <P>• To ensure that claims that should be allowed are allowed at the earliest point in the process;</P>
        <P>• To provide more opportunity for claimant interaction with the decisionmaker; and</P>
        <P>• To reduce the amount of time required processing a claim to a final disability determination or decision.</P>
        <P>Over the years since 1994, we have tested various ideas for addressing these goals and improving the claims process. For example, in 1997, we integrated several of the redesign proposals into what we called the “Full Process Model.” We tested this model in eight States and got especially positive results from several features of the model:</P>
        <P>• We allowed disability examiners the flexibility to decide whether to obtain medical or psychological consultant input in making a disability determination. (This did not apply to certain cases, described below, in which the Act requires a medical or psychological consultant or other health care professional to participate in making the determination.) This process change revised the role of the medical and psychological consultants to act as true consultants in these cases, to be used as needed.</P>
        <P>• We provided claimants with an opportunity for a conference with the disability examiners who were deciding their claims when it appeared that the evidence was not sufficient to support a fully favorable determination. This gave claimants an opportunity to provide additional explanations and evidence, or sources of evidence. The disability examiners also explained the Social Security definition of disability and why it appeared that the claimants did not meet that definition or why it did not appear that the evidence supported a fully favorable determination.</P>
        <P>• Finally, we eliminated the reconsideration step of the administrative review process. Claimants who were dissatisfied with their initial determinations appealed directly to the administrative law judge hearing level.</P>
        <P>We found that these actions resulted in better determinations at the initial level, with more allowances of claims that should have been allowed. We believe that many claims that would have been allowed only after appeal under the old process were allowed at the initial step under the new process. These claimants were able to receive benefits months sooner than they otherwise would have, an important protection for individuals who are unable to work. By eliminating the reconsideration step, claimants who appealed reached the hearing level an average of 2 months sooner than claimants who went through the reconsideration step and therefore had an opportunity to receive their hearing decisions sooner. Also, the quality of our determinations improved. Reviews of disability determinations from the FPM by SSA's Office of Quality Assessment indicated that the new process improved the accuracy of initial decisions to deny claims from 92.6 percent to 94.8 percent. If implemented nationally, this would translate to approximately 34,000 fewer disabled claimants being erroneously denied benefits and facing the prospect of a lengthy appeal.</P>
        <P>We believe that these positive results were due to a number of factors. For example, we know that removing the reconsideration step permitted the State agencies to redirect their resources so that the individuals who formerly worked on reconsideration claims could work on initial claims. This permitted increased contact with the claimants and improved documentation of the disability determinations.</P>

        <P>The success of the Full Process Model provided the impetus for our current<PRTPAGE P="5496"/>prototype, which includes the three most successful elements of the Full Process Model, the elements we are proposing in this Notice of Proposed Rulemaking (NPRM). We have been operating the prototype in 10 States since October 1999. The States are: Alabama, Alaska, California, Colorado, Louisiana, Michigan, Missouri, New Hampshire, New York, and Pennsylvania. In New York at this time, the prototype applies only to residents in areas served by the Albany and Brooklyn branches of the State agency. In California, it applies only to residents in areas served by the Los Angeles North and Los Angeles West branches of the State agency.</P>
        <P>This notice pertains to features that have been used in these Prototype States. We continue testing other features that were part of the 1995 proposal separately from the prototype process, but this notice does not pertain to those features.</P>
        <HD SOURCE="HD1">What Are the Key Features of the Proposed Rules?</HD>
        <P>The process we are proposing in this NPRM is similar to the prototype process with some modifications based on our experience with the Full Process Model and in the prototype States. The following are the key features and our reasons for proposing them. We explain the specific changes in the proposed rules in detail later in this preamble.</P>
        <HD SOURCE="HD2">1. Enhanced Roles of State Agency Disability Examiners and Medical and Psychological Consultants</HD>
        <P>By “enhanced roles” of these individuals, we mean that disability examiners would be responsible for making the disability determination in many claims, and may decide whether medical consultant or psychological consultant input is needed. We also mean that medical or psychological consultants will serve as true consultants in these claims by providing review and advice in cases with difficult or complex medical issues. Medical and psychological consultants would be expected to participate in training and mentoring the disability examiners. This change would let us better use the expertise of our adjudicators and medical resources, minimize file handoffs and allow State agencies to make disability determinations in a more timely and cost-effective manner.</P>
        <P>However, the proposed rules provide two situations in which a medical or psychological consultant must be involved in assessing disability because of requirements in the Act:</P>
        <P>• Sections 221(h) and 1614(a)(3)(H) of the Act, and §§ 404.1503(e), 404.1615(d), 416.903(e), and 416.1015(e) of our regulations require that, before we may find an individual “not disabled” in any case in which there is evidence of a mental impairment, we will make every reasonable effort to ensure that a qualified psychiatrist or psychologist has completed the medical portion of the case review and any applicable residual functional capacity assessment. Therefore, the proposed rules provide that a disability examiner alone may make a fully favorable determination, but that any determination that is less than fully favorable must be made by a team that includes a medical or psychological consultant, as under current procedures. However, in these cases, the disability examiner will still offer a claimant conference, and the first stage of appeal will be to the administrative law judge hearing level.</P>
        <P>• Section 1614(a)(3)(I) of the Act and §§ 416.903(f) and 416.1015(e) of our regulations require that, for all claims for childhood disability benefits under title XVI, we will make reasonable efforts to ensure that a qualified pediatrician or other individual who specializes in a field of medicine appropriate to the child's impairment(s) evaluates the case of the child. Therefore, the proposed rules provide that we must use disability examiners and medical or psychological consultants as a team in all determinations of childhood disability under title XVI, including fully favorable determinations. However, the disability examiner will still offer a claimant conference, and appeal will be to the administrative law judge hearing level.</P>
        <P>We also provide that, in addition to these two mandatory situations in which a determination is made by a disability examiner and medical or psychological consultant team, State agencies may require medical or psychological consultant involvement in other cases. For example, we would expect a State agency to require its trainees and other less experienced disability examiners to work in teams with medical and psychological consultants until they have become sufficiently expert to determine cases alone.</P>
        <P>• We are proposing this change because our experience in the prototype States continues to affirm the successes we had in the Full Process Model. We believe that enhancing the roles of disability examiners and medical and psychological consultants will maximize the effectiveness of adjudicative resources, focusing State agency medical and psychological consultants on duties and responsibilities commensurate with their training and experience. Furthermore, evidence from the Full Process Model as well as the prototype States shows that the accuracy of initial determinations improves, reducing the likelihood that a disabled claimant will have to go through the appeals process in order to receive benefits for which he or she is eligible.</P>
        <HD SOURCE="HD2">2. Increased Contact Between Claimants and Adjudicators</HD>
        <P>The proposed rules would require disability examiners to provide claimants with an opportunity for an “informal disability conference” in any claim in which the evidence does not appear to support a fully favorable determination. By “fully favorable” we mean a determination that the claimant is (1) disabled and (2) that the determination matches the claimant's allegations about onset of disability and (3) that the claimant is still disabled at the time of the determination.</P>
        <P>The purpose of the conference would be to:</P>
        <P>• Explain our disability requirements to the claimant;</P>
        <P>• Explain why the facts currently in the case record indicate that the determination should be less than fully favorable; and</P>
        <P>• Ensure that we have identified and made every reasonable effort to obtain relevant evidence from all appropriate sources.</P>
        <P>The proposed rules do not prohibit a disability examiner from contacting a claimant at other times. For example, a disability examiner may contact a claimant before he or she requests any evidence to ensure that the information in the case file about the claimant's medical sources is complete. However, under the proposed rules, the disability examiner must still make contact with the claimant at or near the end of the process, when the disability examiner believes that he or she has obtained sufficient evidence on which to base a determination and it appears that the determination will be less than fully favorable.</P>

        <P>Our experience in the Full Process Model and the prototype States has shown that increased interaction between claimants and disability examiners makes the process more personal, and it changes the determinations in some claims because of new information provided by claimants during their conferences.<PRTPAGE P="5497"/>
        </P>
        <HD SOURCE="HD2">3. Eliminate the Reconsideration Step of the Administrative Review Process for Initial Disability Claims</HD>
        <P>We are proposing to remove the reconsideration step of our administrative review process in all determinations on initial disability applications except appeals of determinations based on a finding that the claimant is engaging in, or has engaged in, substantial gainful activity. Findings about substantial gainful activity are made in our field offices, not in the State agencies, and the appropriate appeal will continue to be to the reconsideration level.</P>
        <P>We are proposing this change primarily because evidence indicates that the reconsideration step adds little value to the disability determination process, at a great cost of staffing resources and processing time. Eliminating the reconsideration step permits State agencies to use their resources to make better determinations at the initial level, thereby increasing the accuracy of initial determinations. It will also provide an opportunity for denied claimants to request a hearing sooner than under the current process and, therefore, result in earlier administrative law judge decisions in many claims.</P>
        <HD SOURCE="HD1">How Do We Plan To Implement the New Disability Claims Process?</HD>
        <P>We have determined that it is not feasible to change over to the new process in all of our State agencies all at once. As we have already noted, it is clear from both the Full Process Model and the Prototype that each State will need substantial lead time for training and preparation, and we must retain our capacity to process new claims as timely as possible during implementation.</P>
        <P>We believe that our only option for accomplishing this goal is to implement the redesigned process in smaller groups of States in several stages over approximately a 1-year period beginning with the publication of the final rules that result from this NPRM. This will permit us to plan and conduct critical activities in each group of States, such as training, systems enhancement, staffing, and workload management. Most importantly, a staged implementation will also allow us to minimize delays in processing claims. Our goal is to ensure to the extent possible that, while we implement the new process, we continue to make all of our disability determinations timely.</P>
        <P>Therefore, the proposed rules explain that only individuals whose cases are adjudicated by State agencies that have implemented the new process will be subject to the new rules. In the proposed revisions, we have described which cases are subject to the new rules and which will continue to be adjudicated under the current rules.</P>

        <P>To make clear which cases will be handled using the new rules, we are proposing to include a new temporary appendix 1 to subpart J of part 404 that lists participating State agencies and the criteria for identifying which cases will be handled under the proposed rules. We are printing the appendix only in part 404 to save space; the proposed rules in part 416 cross-refer to the appendix in part 404. As we add more State agencies, we will publish an appropriate notice in the<E T="04">Federal Register</E>changing the appendix to include them.</P>
        <P>When all State agencies are using the new rules, we will publish rules removing the appendix and all language in the proposed rules that indicates that there are two processes.</P>
        <HD SOURCE="HD1">What Are the Specific Provisions of the Proposed Rules?</HD>
        <P>The following are the major revisions of the proposed rules:</P>
        <HD SOURCE="HD2">Proposed §§ 404.904 and 416.1404Informal Disability Conference</HD>
        <P>We are proposing to redesignate current §§ 404.904 and 416.1404, “Notice of the initial determination,” as §§ 404.904a and 416.1404a so that we can insert these new provisions. Proposed §§ 404.904 and 416.1404 would provide our rules explaining:</P>
        <P>• Who will be offered an informal disability conference;</P>
        <P>• What a disability conference is; and</P>
        <P>• The procedures associated with the informal disability conference.</P>
        <P>Paragraph (a), “What is an informal disability conference?” explains that we will offer a claimant an informal disability conference in a case of an initial application for benefits if the individual meets all of the following factors:</P>
        <P>1. Based on the evidence in the individual's case record, it appears that we will not be able to make a “fully favorable” determination, except if the determination will be based on a finding that the individual is, or was, engaging in substantial gainful activity. We provide an explanation of what we mean by a “fully favorable” determination and to specify what is “not fully favorable” for purposes of this section. We adopted the language for the definition of a “fully favorable” determination from §§ 404.948(a) and 416.1448(a).</P>
        <P>2. The individual's case is being determined according to the identifying criteria listed in proposed appendix 1 to subpart J of part 404. These criteria involve people who have filed applications for benefits based on disability and whose claims are handled by one of the State agencies that is using the new rules. As already noted, we intend this proposed provision to be temporary. When all State agencies are participating in the new process, we will delete appendix 1 to subpart J.</P>
        <P>Other paragraphs in these proposed sections provide more information about the procedures we would require in connection with the informal disability conference.</P>

        <P>• In paragraph (b)—“How will I be contacted?”—we explain how we will notify the individual of the date, time, and place or method (<E T="03">e.g.,</E>telephone) of the informal disability conference. We also explain that we will notify the claimant's representative when he or she is represented.</P>
        <P>In paragraph (c)—“Where will my informal disability conference be held?—we explain that we may hold the conference by telephone, in person, or using videoconferencing technology but that in most cases we will hold the conference by telephone. We also explain that we will decide the method we will use for the conference.</P>
        <P>• In paragraph (d)—“Can an attorney or other representative participate in the informal disability conference?”—we indicate that the individual has the right to have an attorney or other representative present at the informal disability conference.</P>
        <HD SOURCE="HD2">Sections 404.908 and 416.1408Parties to a Reconsideration</HD>
        <P>We propose to revise the first sentence of paragraph (a), “Who may request a reconsideration,” to add an exception to the statement that the first level of appeal from an initial determination is a reconsideration. The proposed language includes cross-references to the new appendix and to § 404.930.</P>
        <HD SOURCE="HD2">Sections 404.930 and 416.1430Availability of a Hearing Before an Administrative Law Judge</HD>

        <P>We propose to add a new subparagraph (a)(2) to explain that individuals who meet the criteria in the new appendix appeal their initial determinations to the administrative law judge hearing level. Because of this, we would redesignate the numbers of the other subparagraphs within these paragraphs.<PRTPAGE P="5498"/>
        </P>
        <HD SOURCE="HD2">Sections 404.948 and 416.1448Deciding a Case Without an Oral Hearing Before an Administrative Law Judge</HD>
        <P>We propose to revise the heading of paragraph (a) from “Decision wholly favorable” to “Decision fully favorable.” This will make the heading consistent with the text of current §§ 404.948(c) and 404.1448(c) and these proposed rules. The change is only editorial.</P>
        <HD SOURCE="HD2">Proposed Appendix 1 to Subpart J of Part 404</HD>
        <P>As we explained earlier in this preamble, we are proposing to add this new appendix to list the types of claims that will be handled under the new disability claims process and the State agencies that will be using the new process. The proposed appendix includes three paragraphs. In paragraph (a)—“What is this appendix for?”—we briefly note the three major differences between the new process and the current process.</P>
        <P>In paragraph (b)—“Why aren't all State agencies using the new disability claims process?”—we explain briefly how we are implementing the rules gradually in the States. We also explain that the appendix is temporary and that we will remove it when all State agencies are using the new process.</P>
        <P>Paragraph (c)—“Which claims will be handled under the new disability claims process?”—explains that applications for benefits based on disability processed in certain state agencies come under the new rules. It is central to all of the other rules in this NPRM because we refer back to it to provide the basic criteria for all three of the major features of these proposed rules: The informal disability conference, no reconsideration appeal step, and permitting disability examiners the flexibility to decide whether to obtain medical or psychological consultant input when making the disability determination except in cases in which the Act requires that a medical or psychological consultant participate in making the determination. For example, in proposed §§ 404.930(a)(2) and 416.1430(a)(2), we explain that the first level of appeal for a person who meets the criteria in the proposed appendix is the administrative law judge hearing. (We also include this provision in proposed §§ 404.904(g) and 416.1404(g).) Likewise, we explain in proposed §§ 404.1615(c)(1) and 416.1015(c)(1) that a disability examiner may make the determination in the case of an individual who meets the criteria in the proposed appendix, except in cases requiring by statute participation by a medical or psychological consultant.</P>

        <P>Paragraph (d)—“Which State agencies are using the new disability claims process?”—lists the participating State agencies. The State agencies listed in this NPRM are the same State agencies and branches of State agencies that have been participating in the Prototype test. When we decide which State agencies will be in the next group to begin using the new process, we will publish an appropriate notice in the<E T="04">Federal Register</E>revising the list.</P>
        <HD SOURCE="HD2">Sections 404.1512 and 416.912Evidence of Your Impairment</HD>

        <P>We propose to revise paragraph (b)(6) of these sections for consistency with the changes we are proposing in §§ 404.1615 and 416.1015. In current §§ 404.1527(f) and 416.927(f), we recognize that State agency medical and psychological consultants are members of the teams that make determinations of disability under the current process. Therefore, we do not consider their administrative findings of fact (<E T="03">e.g.,</E>about residual functional capacity) at the initial level to be medical opinions that must be weighed together with the evidence in the case record. However, our regulations have long provided that at the administrative law judge hearing and Appeals Council levels of administrative review, administrative law judges and administrative appeal judges must consider these findings as opinions of nonexamining sources. For this reason, current §§ 404.1512(b)(6) and 416.912(b)(6) provide that our term “evidence” includes opinions from State agency medical and psychological consultants when a case is at the administrative law judge hearing or Appeals Council level.</P>
        <P>Under the proposed rules, there will now be cases in which disability examiners will make initial determinations when there are opinions from state agency medical or psychological consultants in the claims file. In these cases, we will expect disability examiners to consider these opinions as evidence from nonexamining sources in the same way as administrative law judges and administrative appeals judges. Therefore, we propose to revise §§ 404.1512(b)(6) and 416.912(b)(6) to include disability examiners who make decisions alone.</P>
        <HD SOURCE="HD2">Sections 404.1526 and 416.926Medical Equivalence</HD>
        <P>We propose to revise paragraph (b), “Medical equivalence must be based on medical findings,” to be consistent with the changes in these proposed rules that provide an enhanced role for disability examiners in making disability determinations. The current provision requires that in every case we must consider the medical opinion given by one or more medical or psychological consultants designated by the Commissioner in deciding medical equivalence. Under the current process, this requirement is always satisfied at the initial level of administrative review because medical and psychological consultants are always members of teams that make the initial determination and are responsible for this finding.</P>

        <P>In view of the changes we are proposing to our process, we now propose to remove this requirement for cases that are adjudicated under the new process. Proposed paragraph (b) would provide that we “may” consider the opinion of a medical or psychological consultant designated by the Commissioner,<E T="03">i.e.,</E>when a medical consultant provides an opinion on equivalency we will consider it. Under the Full Process Model and the Prototype, we found no evidence that omitting a medical or psychological consultant's opinion from the determination whether an impairment(s) medically equaled a listing lowered the quality of the determinations.</P>

        <P>The proposed change would also affect adjudication at the administrative law judge hearing and Appeals Council levels of administrative review (when the Appeals Council makes a decision). Under §§ 404.1526(b) and 416.926(b), and Social Security Ruling (SSR) 96-6p, we require that administrative law judges and administrative appeals judges (when the Appeals Council makes a decision) must also consider the opinion of a medical or psychological consultant designated by the Commissioner when they consider whether an individual's impairment or combination of impairments medically equals a listing. See SSR 96-6p, “Titles II and XVI: Consideration of Administrative Findings of Fact by State Agency Medical and Psychological Consultants and Other Program Physicians and Psychologists at the Administrative Law Judge and Appeals Council Levels of Administrative Review; Medical Equivalence,” (61 FR 34466, July 2, 1996). In many cases, this requirement is satisfied because State agency medical and psychological consultants have already considered the issue and provided this opinion in connection with the initial and reconsideration determinations. SSR 96-6p provides that their signatures on the determinations satisfy the<PRTPAGE P="5499"/>requirement to obtain an opinion from a medical or psychological consultant designated by the Commissioner at the administrative law judge hearing and Appeals Council levels of administrative review when an administrative law judge or the Appeals Council finds that an individual's impairment(s) does not medically equal a listing.</P>
        <P>However, SSR 96-6p requires that, when an administrative law judge or administrative appeals judge determines that he or she may make a finding that an individual's impairment(s) medically equals a listing, he or she must obtain an updated medical opinion from a medical expert. If the proposed revision in §§ 404.1526(b) and 416.926(b) becomes final, we will remove this requirement for administrative law judges and the Appeals Council, in order to be consistent with the changes for disability examiners.</P>
        <P>In current § 416.926, we include a paragraph (d), “Responsibility for determining medical equivalence,” which we do not now include in § 404.1526. We propose to add a new paragraph (d) in § 404.1526 that is identical to the paragraph in § 416.926, and to revise the paragraph to incorporate reference to disability examiners who make determinations. The new language would explain that in such cases, the disability examiner is responsible for determining medical equivalence.</P>
        <HD SOURCE="HD2">Sections 404.1527 and 416.927Evaluating Opinion Evidence</HD>
        <P>We propose to revise paragraph (f), “Opinions of nonexamining sources,” to include disability examiners when they make disability determinations. As we have already explained under the explanation of the proposed revisions to §§ 404.1512(b)(6) and 416.912(b)(6), these individuals must consider opinions from medical and psychological consultants to be opinion evidence from nonexamining sources in the same way that administrative law judges and the administrative appeals judges do (when the Appeals Council makes a decision).</P>
        <P>To reflect this change, we propose to add a new paragraph (f)(2) for disability examiners who make disability determinations. The language in the proposed provision is similar to the provisions for administrative law judges in current paragraph (f)(2). Because we would add a new paragraph (f)(2), we would redesignate current paragraphs (f)(2) and (f)(3) as paragraphs (f)(3) and (f)(4).</P>
        <P>We propose minor revisions in paragraph (f)(1) to make clear that the current rules would continue to apply to cases that are adjudicated in State agencies that are not using the new process.</P>
        <HD SOURCE="HD2">Sections 404.1546 and 416.946Responsibility for Assessing and Determining Residual Functional Capacity</HD>
        <P>We propose to revise this section to clarify the responsibility for making assessments of a claimant's residual functional capacity.</P>
        <P>The existing, unnumbered paragraph will be replaced by numbered paragraphs that will clarify the responsibility for making assessments of residual functional capacity in various types of claims. We will add a paragraph that will state that a State agency disability examiner may make assessments of residual functional capacity.</P>
        <HD SOURCE="HD2">Sections 404.1615 and 416.1015Making Disability Determinations</HD>
        <P>In paragraph (c) of these sections, we propose to add the rules that will permit disability examiners to make disability determinations in certain cases.</P>
        <P>In proposed paragraph (c)(1)(i), we explain that a State agency disability examiner may make the disability determination in cases of individuals who meet the criteria in the appendix and that are not excluded in proposed paragraph (c)(2). We explain that this is not an absolute rule, because each State agency will have the option to decide whether to permit a disability examiner to make these determinations. Our intent is to provide each State agency with the authority to determine whether a given disability examiner is sufficiently skilled to make disability determinations without working in a team with a medical or psychological consultant.</P>
        <P>We also provide in the third sentence of the proposed paragraph a reminder that a disability examiner may still request assistance from a medical or psychological consultant. In the prototype States, there have been many cases in which disability examiners sought opinions from medical and psychological consultants on various aspects of claims.</P>
        <P>Proposed paragraph (c)(1)(ii) is the same as current paragraph (c)(2).</P>
        <P>In the proposed rule, we would redesignate current paragraph (c)(1) as paragraph (c)(2). The current paragraph provides the requirement that a disability examiner and a medical or psychological consultant must make the determination in almost all cases. In the proposed paragraph, we would retain this provision for States that are not yet using the new process in proposed §§ 404.1615(c)(2)(iii) and 416.1015(c)(2)(iv). The reason the part 404 and part 416 sections have different numbers is that there is an additional section (proposed paragraph (c)(2)(iii)) containing the requirement of title XVI of the Act that in any case of a child claiming SSI disability benefits, we must make reasonable efforts to ensure that a qualified pediatrician or other individual who specializes in a field of medicine appropriate to a child's impairment(s) evaluates the case of the child. We decided to make the paragraphs providing the current rule for using teams last so that when we need to revise the rules again after all State agencies are using the new process, we can delete them without having to renumber the paragraphs.</P>
        <P>In proposed paragraph (c)(2)(i), we would provide, as required by the Act, that a team must make the determination in any case in which the State agency determines that the individual is not disabled and there is evidence that indicates the existence of a mental impairment. In proposed paragraph (c)(2)(ii) we provide that a State agency may at its option require any disability examiner to work in a team with a medical or psychological consultant.</P>
        <P>We are also proposing two changes to current paragraph (c) that are not related to the Prototype. At the end of § 404.1615(c), are two undesignated paragraphs. There is one undesignated paragraph at the end of § 416.1015(c) that contains the same text as the two undesignated paragraphs at the end of § 404.1615(c). The first sentence of both versions provides cross-references to the rules defining “medical or psychological consultant” and “disability hearing officer.” In the proposed rules, we have moved those cross-references to the appropriate sections of paragraph (c) that address these individuals.</P>
        <P>The second sentence explains that State agency disability examiners and disability hearing officers must be qualified to interpret and evaluate medical reports and other evidence as necessary to determine the capacities of the claimant to perform substantial gainful activity. We propose to designate this sentence as paragraph (d) so that it can be cited, and to redesignate all the subsequent paragraphs in the sections. We are not proposing any changes to this sentence.</P>

        <P>The second undesignated paragraph at the end of current § 404.1615(c), which is the third sentence in the single undesignated paragraph in current § 416.1015(c), provides a cross-reference to § 404.1572 (in § 404.1615(c)) and to<PRTPAGE P="5500"/>§ 416.972 (in § 416.1015(c)) “for what we mean by substantial gainful activity.” Although these rules do in fact define the term “substantial gainful activity” for purposes of evaluating a person's earnings and work activity, the cross-references are misleading in the context of the preceding text. Disability examiners and disability hearing officers do not determine whether claimants who are working are engaging in “substantial gainful activity” and do not use the rules in §§ 404.1572 and 416.972. This determination is made in our field offices. Disability examiners and disability hearing officers make determinations about whether an individual is able to work using other rules regarding medical and vocational factors. Therefore, we propose to delete these sentences since they could be confusing.</P>
        <HD SOURCE="HD2">Other Changes</HD>
        <P>We are proposing changes to other rules in subparts J, P, and Q of part 404, subparts I, J, and N of part 416, and subparts B and C of part 422. These changes are intended to make these other rules consistent with the proposed changes we have explained above.</P>
        <HD SOURCE="HD1">Clarity of This Regulation</HD>
        <P>Executive Order (E.O.) 12866 and the President's memorandum of June 1, 1998, require each agency to write all rules in plain language. In addition to your substantive comments on these proposed rules, we invite your comments on how to make these proposed rules easier to understand.</P>
        <P>For example:</P>
        <P>• Have we organized the material to suit your needs?</P>
        <P>• Are the requirements in the rules clearly stated?</P>
        <P>• Do the rules contain technical language or jargon that is unclear?</P>
        <P>• Would a different format (grouping and order of sections, use of headings, paragraphing) make the rules easier to understand?</P>
        <P>• Would more (but shorter) sections be better?</P>
        <P>• Could we improve clarity by adding tables, lists, or diagrams?</P>
        <P>• What else could we do to make the rules easier to understand?</P>
        <HD SOURCE="HD1">Electronic Version</HD>

        <P>The electronic file of this document is available on the date of publication in the<E T="04">Federal Register</E>on the Internet site for the Government Printing Office:<E T="03">http://www.access.gpo.gov/su_docs/aces/aces140.html.</E>It is also available on the Internet site for SSA (<E T="03">i.e., Social Security Online</E>):<E T="03">http://www.ssa.gov/.</E>
        </P>
        <HD SOURCE="HD1">Regulatory Procedures</HD>
        <HD SOURCE="HD1">
          <E T="03">Executive Order 12866 and the Congressional Review Act</E>
        </HD>
        <P>We have consulted with the Office of Management and Budget (OMB) and determined that these proposed regulations meet the criteria of an economically significant regulatory action under E.O. 12866 because the impact in any single year exceeds $100 million. Thus, they were subject to OMB review. We have provided below an assessment of the costs and benefits of these proposed rules. It should also be noted that this proposed rule is a major rule under the criteria of the Congressional Review Act (Chapter 8 of 5 U.S.C.).</P>
        <HD SOURCE="HD3">Program Savings</HD>
        <P>We do not expect any program savings to result from these regulations.</P>
        <HD SOURCE="HD3">Program Costs</HD>
        <P>1. Title II</P>
        <P>We estimate that these rules will result in increased program outlays resulting in the following costs (in millions of dollars) to the title II program:</P>
        <GPOTABLE CDEF="7,7,7,7,7,7,7" COLS="7" OPTS="L2,tp0,i1">
          <TTITLE/>
          <TDESC>[Million of dollars]</TDESC>
          <BOXHD>
            <CHED H="1">FY2001</CHED>
            <CHED H="1">FY2002</CHED>
            <CHED H="1">FY2003</CHED>
            <CHED H="1">FY2004</CHED>
            <CHED H="1">FY2005</CHED>
            <CHED H="1">FY2001-<LI>2005</LI>
            </CHED>
            <CHED H="1">FY2001-<LI>2010</LI>
            </CHED>
          </BOXHD>
          <ROW>
            <ENT I="01">70</ENT>
            <ENT>155</ENT>
            <ENT>360</ENT>
            <ENT>751</ENT>
            <ENT>1,247</ENT>
            <ENT>2,583</ENT>
            <ENT>17,105</ENT>
          </ROW>
        </GPOTABLE>
        <HD SOURCE="HD3">Related Medicare Costs</HD>
        <GPOTABLE CDEF="7,7,7,7,7,7,7" COLS="7" OPTS="L2,tp01,i1">
          <TTITLE/>
          <TDESC>[Millions of dollars]</TDESC>
          <BOXHD>
            <CHED H="1">FY2001</CHED>
            <CHED H="1">FY2002</CHED>
            <CHED H="1">FY2003</CHED>
            <CHED H="1">FY2004</CHED>
            <CHED H="1">FY2005</CHED>
            <CHED H="1">FY2001-<LI>2005</LI>
            </CHED>
            <CHED H="1">FY2001-<LI>2010</LI>
            </CHED>
          </BOXHD>
          <ROW>
            <ENT I="01"/>
            <ENT>3</ENT>
            <ENT>26</ENT>
            <ENT>75</ENT>
            <ENT>174</ENT>
            <ENT>277</ENT>
            <ENT>4,420</ENT>
          </ROW>
        </GPOTABLE>
        <WIDE>
          <P>2. Title XVI</P>
          <P>We estimate that these rules will result in increased program outlays resulting in the following costs (in millions of dollars) to the title XVI program:</P>
        </WIDE>
        <GPOTABLE CDEF="s40,7,7,7,7,7,7,7" COLS="8" OPTS="L2,tp0,i1">
          <TTITLE/>
          <TDESC>[Millions of dollars]</TDESC>
          <BOXHD>
            <CHED H="1"/>
            <CHED H="1">FY2001</CHED>
            <CHED H="1">FY2002</CHED>
            <CHED H="1">FY2003</CHED>
            <CHED H="1">FY2004</CHED>
            <CHED H="1">FY2005</CHED>
            <CHED H="1">FY2001-<LI>2005</LI>
            </CHED>
            <CHED H="1">FY2001-<LI>2010</LI>
            </CHED>
          </BOXHD>
          <ROW>
            <ENT I="01">Federal</ENT>
            <ENT>4</ENT>
            <ENT>30</ENT>
            <ENT>81</ENT>
            <ENT>188</ENT>
            <ENT>335</ENT>
            <ENT>638</ENT>
            <ENT>3,922</ENT>
          </ROW>
          <ROW>
            <ENT I="01">State</ENT>
            <ENT/>
            <ENT>3</ENT>
            <ENT>8</ENT>
            <ENT>19</ENT>
            <ENT>34</ENT>
            <ENT>64</ENT>
            <ENT>392</ENT>
          </ROW>
        </GPOTABLE>
        <PRTPAGE P="5501"/>
        <HD SOURCE="HD3">Related Medicaid Costs</HD>
        <GPOTABLE CDEF="s40,7,7,7,7,7,7,7" COLS="8" OPTS="L2,tp0,i1">
          <TTITLE/>
          <TDESC>[Millions of dollars]</TDESC>
          <BOXHD>
            <CHED H="1"/>
            <CHED H="1">FY2001</CHED>
            <CHED H="1">FY2002</CHED>
            <CHED H="1">FY2003</CHED>
            <CHED H="1">FY2004</CHED>
            <CHED H="1">FY2005</CHED>
            <CHED H="1">FY2001-<LI>2005</LI>
            </CHED>
            <CHED H="1">FY2001-<LI>2010</LI>
            </CHED>
          </BOXHD>
          <ROW>
            <ENT I="01">Federal</ENT>
            <ENT>3</ENT>
            <ENT>40</ENT>
            <ENT>120</ENT>
            <ENT>310</ENT>
            <ENT>576</ENT>
            <ENT>1,049</ENT>
            <ENT>8,940</ENT>
          </ROW>
          <ROW>
            <ENT I="01">State</ENT>
            <ENT>2</ENT>
            <ENT>30</ENT>
            <ENT>91</ENT>
            <ENT>234</ENT>
            <ENT>435</ENT>
            <ENT>791</ENT>
            <ENT>6,743</ENT>
          </ROW>
        </GPOTABLE>
        <HD SOURCE="HD3">Administrative Savings</HD>
        <P>We do not expect any administrative savings to result from these regulations.</P>
        <HD SOURCE="HD3">Administrative Costs</HD>
        <P>We expect there will be some administrative costs associated with the transition to these rules.</P>
        <HD SOURCE="HD3">Policy Alternatives</HD>
        <P>We considered, but did not select, the following policy alternative:</P>
        <HD SOURCE="HD3">Keep the Current Disability Claim Process</HD>
        <P>As noted above, the initiative to redesign the disability claim process was critical of several aspects of the current process, including: the time it takes for a final agency decision; the lack of interaction between the claimant and the decisionmaker; and the lack of thorough explanations, in many cases, of the basis for the disability determination. Based on the Full Process Model test and our experience with the prototype so far, we found that the proposed new process results in better determinations at the initial level, with more allowances of claims that should be allowed. Many claims that would have been allowed only after appeal under the old process, were allowed at the initial step of the new process. Eliminating the reconsideration step enables claimants who appeal to reach the hearing level sooner than under the old process, and the resources previously used at the reconsideration step can be used to ensure a more complete determination process at the initial level. These positive results support implementation of the redesigned claim process.</P>
        <HD SOURCE="HD2">Unfunded Mandates Reform Act</HD>
        <P>Title II of the Unfunded Mandates Reform Act of 1995 (2 U.S.C. 1531-1538) establishes requirements for Federal agencies to assess the effects of their regulatory actions on State, local, and tribal governments, and on the private sector. This final rule would not impose any Federal mandates on any State, local, or tribal governments, or on the private sector, within the meaning of the Unfunded Mandates Reform Act of 1995.</P>
        <HD SOURCE="HD2">Regulatory Flexibility Act</HD>
        <P>We certify that these proposed rules will not have a significant economic impact on a substantial number of small entities because they affect only individuals. Thus, a regulatory flexibility analysis as provided in the Regulatory Flexibility Act, as amended, is not required.</P>
        <HD SOURCE="HD2">Paperwork Reduction Act</HD>
        <P>These proposed regulations would impose no new reporting or recordkeeping requirements requiring OMB clearance.</P>
        
        <EXTRACT>
          <FP>
            <E T="03">(Catalog of Federal Domestic Assistance Programs No. 96.001, Social Security—Disability Insurance; 96.002, Social Security—Retirement Insurance; 96-004, Social Security—Survivors Insurance; 96.006, Supplemental Security Income)</E>
          </FP>
        </EXTRACT>
        <LSTSUB>
          <HD SOURCE="HED">List of Subjects</HD>
          <CFR>20 CFR Part 404</CFR>
          <P>Administrative practice and procedure, Blind, Disability benefits, Old-Age, Survivors and Disability Insurance, Reporting and recordkeeping requirements, Social Security.</P>
          <CFR>20 CFR Part 416</CFR>
          <P>Administrative practice and procedure, Aged, Blind, Disability benefits, Public assistance programs, Reporting and recordkeeping requirements, Supplemental Security Income (SSI).</P>
          <CFR>20 CFR Part 422</CFR>
          <P>Administrative practice and procedure, Freedom of information, Organization and functions (Government agencies), Social Security.</P>
        </LSTSUB>
        <SIG>
          <DATED>Dated: January 11, 2001.</DATED>
          <NAME>Kenneth S. Apfel,</NAME>
          <TITLE>Commissioner of Social Security.</TITLE>
        </SIG>
        <P>For the reasons set out in the preamble, we propose to amend subparts J, P, and Q of part 404, subparts I, J, and N of part 416, and subparts B and C of part 422 of 20 CFR, chapter III as set forth below:</P>
        <PART>
          <HD SOURCE="HED">PART 404—FEDERAL OLD-AGE, SURVIVORS AND DISABILITY INSURANCE (1950-)</HD>
          <P>1. The authority citation for subpart J of part 404 continues to read as follows:</P>
          <AUTH>
            <HD SOURCE="HED">Authority:</HD>
            <P>Secs. 201(j), 204(f), 205(a), (b), (d)-(h), and (j), 221, 225, and 702(a)(5) of the Social Security Act (42 U.S.C. 401(j), 404(f), 405(a), (b), (d)-(h), and (j), 421, 425, and 902(a)(5)); 31 U.S.C. 3720A; sec. 5, Pub. L. 97-455, 96 Stat. 2500 (42 U.S.C. 405 note); secs. 5, 6(c)-(e), and 15, Pub. L. 98-460, 98 Stat. 1802 (42 U.S.C. 421 note).</P>
          </AUTH>
          
          <P>2. Section 404.900 is amended by revising paragraphs (a)(2) and (a)(3) to read as follows:</P>
          <SECTION>
            <SECTNO>§ 404.900</SECTNO>
            <SUBJECT>Introduction.</SUBJECT>
            <P>(a) * * *</P>
            <P>(2)<E T="03">Reconsideration.</E>If you are dissatisfied with an initial determination, except for certain determinations about whether you are disabled (see paragraph (a)(3)(ii) of this section), you may ask us to reconsider it.</P>
            <P>(3)<E T="03">Hearing before an administrative law judge.</E>You may request a hearing before an administrative law judge if you are dissatisfied with:</P>
            <P>(i) A reconsideration determination; or</P>
            <P>(ii) Certain initial determinations on your application for benefits based on disability, if you are a person entitled to an informal disability conference, as explained in § 404.904 and appendix 1 to this subpart.</P>
            <STARS/>
            <P>3. Section 404.901 is amended by adding the following definition to the alphabetical list of definitions:</P>
          </SECTION>
          <SECTION>
            <SECTNO>§ 404.901</SECTNO>
            <SUBJECT>Definitions</SUBJECT>
            <STARS/>
            <P>“Fully favorable,” with respect to a disability determination, means that we determine that: the claimant is disabled; the beginning date of disability is no later than the date alleged by the claimant; and either disability has not ended or, if the claimant alleges that disability has ended, it ended no earlier than the date alleged by the claimant.</P>
            <STARS/>
            <P>4. Section 404.904 is redesignated as Section 404.904a and revised to read as follows:</P>
          </SECTION>
          <SECTION>
            <SECTNO>§ 404.904a</SECTNO>
            <SUBJECT>Notice of the initial determination.</SUBJECT>

            <P>We will mail a written notice of the initial determination to you at your last known address. The notice will state the reasons for the initial determination and the effect of the initial determination.<PRTPAGE P="5502"/>The notice also will explain your right to appeal the determination and whether the appeal should be for a reconsideration or a hearing before an administrative law judge. (See §§ 404.900(a), 404.904(g), 404.907, and 404.930, and appendix 1 to this subpart.) We will not mail a notice if the beneficiary's entitlement to benefits has ended because of his or her death.</P>
            <P>5. A new section 404.904 is added to read as follows:</P>
          </SECTION>
          <SECTION>
            <SECTNO>§ 404.904</SECTNO>
            <SUBJECT>Informal disability conference.</SUBJECT>
            <P>(a)<E T="03">What is an informal disability conference?</E>When you file an application for disability benefits, the disability examiner may offer you an opportunity to have an informal disability conference. If your claim is decided by a component of our office other than a State agency, the disability examiner in that component may offer you an opportunity to have an informal disability conference. The purpose of the informal disability conference is to explain how your medical condition relates to our disability requirements, and to make sure that we have all of the information we need to make a determination about whether you are disabled. We will offer you an informal disability conference if all of the following apply in your case:</P>
            <P>(1) Based on the evidence in your case record, it appears that we will not be able to make a fully favorable disability determination. However, we will not offer you an informal disability conference if the determination is less than fully favorable because:</P>
            <P>(i) You are, or were, engaging in substantial gainful activity; or</P>
            <P>(ii) You fail to cooperate in the processing of your claim; or</P>

            <P>(iii) You fail to meet one or more eligibility requirement that is not related to your medical condition (<E T="03">e.g.,</E>insured status).</P>
            <P>(2) Your claim meets the requirements in paragraphs (c) and (d) of Appendix 1 of this subpart (claims for disability being determined by certain State agencies).</P>
            <P>(b)<E T="03">Notification.</E>We will notify you in writing to offer you the conference. You may choose to have a conference or not have a conference. If you have an attorney or other representative, we will also notify that person about the conference. The attorney or representative may participate in the conference.</P>
            <P>(c)<E T="03">How will my informal disability conference be held?</E>In most cases, we will hold your informal disability conference by telephone. In some cases, we may ask you to come to the State agency for a conference in person. We may also ask you to go to a location near you for a videoconference. We will decide how your conference will be held.</P>
            <P>(d)<E T="03">What happens during the informal disability conference?</E>The disability examiner will have an informal conversation with you. If he or she has not already done so in earlier conversations, the disability examiner will explain our disability standard. He or she also will tell you why the evidence in your case does not appear to support a fully favorable determination. You will have a chance to give us any information that we may not have. If you want to give us information that we need to make a determination, we will give you a chance to get the information or we will try to get it for you, following our rules in § 404.1512.</P>
            <P>(e)<E T="03">What happens if I decide not to have an informal disability conference?</E>If you decide not to have a conference, we will make an initial determination based on the information that we have.</P>
            <P>6. Section 404.905 is revised to read as follows:</P>
          </SECTION>
          <SECTION>
            <SECTNO>§ 404.905</SECTNO>
            <SUBJECT>Effect of an initial determination.</SUBJECT>
            <P>Our initial determination is final unless you request appeal (see § 404.907) within the stated time period, or we revise the determination.</P>
            <P>7. Section 404.907 is revised to read as follows:</P>
          </SECTION>
          <SECTION>
            <SECTNO>§ 404.907</SECTNO>
            <SUBJECT>Reconsideration—general.</SUBJECT>
            <P>(a) If you are dissatisfied with the initial determination, reconsideration is the first step in the administrative review process that we provide, except for the following determinations. In these cases, the next step in the administrative review process is to the administrative law judge hearing level.</P>
            <P>(1) Determinations described in § § 404.930(a)(6) and (a)(7), where you appeal an initial determination denying your request for waiver or adjustment or recovery of an overpayment (see § 404.506).</P>
            <P>(2) If you meet the requirements in paragraphs (c) and (d) of Appendix 1 of this subpart, an initial determination about whether you are disabled that is not fully favorable to you, except for a determination based on a finding that you are, or were, engaging in substantial gainful activity. (See appendix 1 to this subpart.)</P>
            <P>(b) If you are dissatisfied with our reconsidered determination, you may request a hearing before an administrative law judge.</P>
            <P>8. Section 404.908 is amended by revising paragraph (a) to read as follows:</P>
          </SECTION>
          <SECTION>
            <SECTNO>§ 404.908</SECTNO>
            <SUBJECT>Parties to a reconsideration.</SUBJECT>
            <P>(a)<E T="03">Who may request a reconsideration.</E>If you are dissatisfied with our initial determination, you may request that we reconsider it, unless you are entitled to request a hearing before an administrative law judge, as we explain in § 404.930 and Appendix 1 of this subpart. In addition, a person who shows in writing that his or her rights may be adversely affected by the initial determination may request a reconsideration.</P>
            <STARS/>
            <P>9. Section 404.930 is amended by redesignating existing paragraphs (a)(2) through (a)(7) as paragraphs (a)(3) through (a)(8), and adding a new paragraph (a)(2) to read as follows:</P>
          </SECTION>
          <SECTION>
            <SECTNO>§ 404.930</SECTNO>
            <SUBJECT>Availability of a hearing before an administrative law judge.</SUBJECT>
            <P>(a) * * *</P>
            <P>(2) an initial determination about whether you are disabled that is not fully favorable to you, unless that determination was about whether you are engaging or were engaging in substantial gainful activity, if your claim meets the requirements in paragraphs (c) and (d) of Appendix 1 of this subpart;</P>
            <STARS/>
            <P>10. Section 404.948 is amended by revising the heading of paragraph (a) to read as follows:</P>
          </SECTION>
          <SECTION>
            <SECTNO>§ 404.948</SECTNO>
            <SUBJECT>Deciding a case without an oral hearing before an administrative law judge.</SUBJECT>
            <P>(a)<E T="03">Decision fully favorable.</E>* * *</P>
            <STARS/>
            <P>11. A new appendix 1 to subpart J is added to read as follows:</P>
            <HD SOURCE="HD1">Appendix 1—Claims That Will Be Handled Under the New Disability Claims Process</HD>
            <EXTRACT>
              <P>(a)<E T="03">What is this appendix for?</E>This appendix lists the types of claims that will be handled under the new disability claims process, and which State agencies will participate in the process. Individuals who meet the criteria in paragraphs (c) and (d) of this appendix, except for individuals whose determinations of disability are based on a finding that they are, or were, engaging in substantial gainful activity, may appeal to an administrative law judge hearing if they are dissatisfied with their initial determinations. In the States listed in paragraph (d), a disability examiner is responsible for making the disability determination in certain cases. The disability examiner will have the flexibility to decide whether input from a medical or psychological consultant is needed in making the disability determination. See §§ 404.1615 and 416.1015. Individuals who also meet the criteria in § 404.904(a) of this section or § 416.1404 of part 416 and whose State agencies are using the new claims process<PRTPAGE P="5503"/>will be offered an informal disability conference.</P>
              <P>(b)<E T="03">Why aren't all State agencies using the new disability claims process?</E>We are phasing in the new process gradually, because each State will need substantial lead time for training and preparation, and we must retain our capacity to process new claims as timely as possible during implementation. This means that we will add more State agencies to this list from time-to-time until all State agencies are using the new process. When all State agencies are using the new process, we will delete this appendix and the new process will apply to everyone.</P>
              <P>(c)<E T="03">Which claims will be handled under the new disability claims process?</E>Your claim will be handled under the new process if you filed an application for benefits (disability insurance benefits or Supplemental Security Income) based on disability or blindness and if your case is processed in one of the State agencies listed in paragraph (d) of this appendix.</P>
              <P>(d)<E T="03">Which State agencies are using the new disability claims process?</E>The following State agencies are using the new process:</P>
              <P>Alabama; Alaska; California (North Los Angeles and West Los Angeles branches); Colorado; Louisiana; Michigan; Missouri; New Hampshire; New York (Brooklyn and Albany branches); Pennsylvania.</P>
            </EXTRACT>
            
            <P>12. The authority citation for subpart P of part 404 continues to read as follows:</P>
            <AUTH>
              <HD SOURCE="HED">Authority:</HD>
              <P>Secs. 202, 205(a), (b), and (d)-(h), 216(I), 221(a) and (i), 222(c), 223, 225, and 702(a)(5) of the Social Security Act (42 U.S.C. 402, 405(a), (b), and (d)-(h), 416(i), 421(a) and (i), 422(c), 423, 425, and 902(a)(5)); sec. 211(b), 104-193, 110 Stat. 2105, 2189.</P>
            </AUTH>
            
            <P>13. Section 404.1512 is amended by revising paragraph (b)(6) to read as follows:</P>
          </SECTION>
          <SECTION>
            <SECTNO>§ 404.1512</SECTNO>
            <SUBJECT>Evidence of your impairment.</SUBJECT>
            <STARS/>
            <P>(b) * * *</P>
            <P>(6) Findings, other than the ultimate determination about whether you are disabled, made by State agency medical or psychological consultants and other program physicians or psychologists, and opinions expressed by medical experts we consult based on their review of the evidence in your case record. See § § 404.1527(f)(2) and (f)(3).</P>
            <STARS/>
            <P>14. Section 404.1526 is amended by revising the last sentence of paragraph (b) and by adding a new paragraph (d) to read as follows:</P>
          </SECTION>
          <SECTION>
            <SECTNO>§ 404.1526</SECTNO>
            <SUBJECT>Medical equivalence.</SUBJECT>
            <STARS/>
            <P>(b) * * * We may request, and will consider if requested, any medical opinion from one or more medical or psychological consultants designated by the Commissioner when we decide medical equivalence. (See § 404.1616.)</P>
            <STARS/>
            <P>(d)<E T="03">Responsibility for determining medical equivalence.</E>In cases where the State agency or other designee of the Commissioner makes the initial disability determination, a disability examiner is responsible for determining medical equivalence in cases in which a medical or psychological consultant does not make the determination together with the disability examiner (see § 404.1615 and Appendix 1 of subpart J). In cases in which a medical or psychological consultant makes the determination together with the disability examiner, the medical or psychological consultant is responsible for assessing medical severity, and the disability examiner and medical or psychological consultant are jointly responsible for determining medical equivalence. For cases in the disability hearing process or otherwise decided by a disability hearing officer, the responsibility for determining medical equivalence rests with either the disability hearing officer or, if the disability hearing officer's reconsideration determination is changed under § 404.918, with the Associate Commissioner for Disability or his or her delegate. For cases at the Administrative Law Judge or Appeals Council level, the responsibility for deciding medical equivalence rests with the administrative law judge or Appeals Council.</P>
            <P>15. Section 404.1527 is amended by revising paragraph (f)(1), by redesignating existing paragraphs (f)(2) and (f)(3) as paragraphs (f)(3) and (f)(4) and by adding a new paragraph (f)(2) to read as follows:</P>
          </SECTION>
          <SECTION>
            <SECTNO>§ 404.1527</SECTNO>
            <SUBJECT>Evaluating opinion evidence.</SUBJECT>
            <STARS/>
            <P>(f) * * *</P>
            <P>(1) In some cases, State agency medical and psychological consultants are members of teams that make initial determinations of disability (see § 404.1615(c)(2)). In these cases, a State agency medical or psychological consultant will consider the evidence in your case record and make findings of fact about the medical issues, including, but not limited to, the existence and severity of your impairment(s), the existence and severity of your symptoms, whether your impairment(s) meets or equals the requirements for any impairment listed in appendix 1 to this subpart, and your residual functional capacity. These administrative findings of fact are based on the evidence in your case record but they are not themselves evidence at this step.</P>
            <P>(2) In other cases, a State agency disability examiner is responsible for making the initial determination (see § 404.1615(c)(1)). In these cases, the disability examiner may obtain the opinion of a State agency medical or psychological consultant with respect to issues, including, but not limited to, the existence and severity of your impairment(s), the existence and severity of your symptoms, whether your impairment(s) meets or equals the requirements for any impairment listed in appendix 1 to this subpart, and your residual functional capacity. In these cases, State agency disability examiners weigh any opinions provided by State agency medical or psychological consultants in accordance with these rules. State agency medical and psychological consultants are highly qualified and are also experts in Social Security disability evaluation. See § 404.1512(b)(6). When a State agency disability examiner considers findings of a State agency medical or psychological consultant, the State agency disability examiner will evaluate the findings using relevant factors in paragraphs (a) through (e) of this section, such as the medical or psychological consultant's medical specialty and expertise in our rules, the supporting explanations provided by the medical or psychological consultant, and any other factors relevant to the weighing of the opinions.</P>
            <STARS/>
            <P>16. Section 404.1529 is amended by revising the third sentence of paragraph (b) and by adding a new fourth sentence to paragraph (b) to read as follows:</P>
          </SECTION>
          <SECTION>
            <SECTNO>§ 404.1529</SECTNO>
            <SUBJECT>How we evaluate symptoms, including pain.</SUBJECT>
            <STARS/>
            <P>(b)<E T="03">Need for medically determinable impairment that could reasonably be expected to produce your symptoms, such as pain.</E>* * * In some cases at the initial step in the administrative review process, and all cases at the reconsideration step, a State agency medical or psychological consultant (or other medical or psychological consultant designated by the Commissioner) directly participates in determining whether your medically determinable impairment(s) could reasonably be expected to produce your alleged symptoms (see § 404.1615(c)(2)). In other cases at the initial step of the administrative review process, a State agency disability examiner may ask for and consider the opinion of a State agency medical or psychological consultant in determining whether your medically determinable impairment(s) could reasonably be expected to<PRTPAGE P="5504"/>produce your alleged symptoms (see § 404.1615). * * *</P>
            <STARS/>
            <P>17. Section 404.1546 is revised to read as follows:</P>
          </SECTION>
          <SECTION>
            <SECTNO>§ 404.1546</SECTNO>
            <SUBJECT>Responsibility for assessing and determining residual functional capacity.</SUBJECT>
            <P>(a)<E T="03">Initial determinations.</E>(1) In cases in which a State agency disability determination is made by a team consisting of a State agency disability examiner and a medical or psychological consultant, the medical or psychological consultant is responsible for assessing your residual functional capacity (see § 404.1615(c)(2)).</P>
            <P>(2) In cases in which a State agency disability examiner makes the disability determination, the State agency disability examiner is responsible for assessing your residual functional capacity (see § 404.1615(c)(1)).</P>
            <P>(b)<E T="03">Disability hearing cases.</E>For cases in the disability hearing process, the responsibility for deciding your residual functional capacity rests with either the disability hearing officer or, if the disability hearing officer's reconsidered determination is changed under § 404.918, with the Associate Commissioner for Disability or his or her delegate.</P>
            <P>(c)<E T="03">Administrative law judge or Appeals Council cases.</E>For cases at the Administrative Law Judge or Appeals Council level, the administrative law judge or Appeals Council is responsible for assessing your residual functional capacity.</P>
            <P>18. The authority citation for subpart Q of part 404 continues to read as follows:</P>
            <AUTH>
              <HD SOURCE="HED">Authority:</HD>
              <P>Secs. 205(a), 221, and 702(a)(5) of the Social Security Act (42 U.S.C. 405(a), 421, and 902(a)(5)).</P>
            </AUTH>
            
            <P>19. Section 404.1615 is amended by revising paragraph (c), by redesignating the first undesignated paragraph following paragraph (c)(3) as paragraph (d), by removing the second undesignated paragraph following paragraph (c)(3), by revising new paragraph (d), and by redesignating existing paragraphs (d), (e), (f), and (g), as paragraphs (e), (f), (g), and (h), to read as follows:</P>
          </SECTION>
          <SECTION>
            <SECTNO>§ 404.1615</SECTNO>
            <SUBJECT>Making disability determinations.</SUBJECT>
            <STARS/>
            <P>(c) The following individuals in the State agency will make disability determinations:</P>
            <P>(1)(i) If your claim meets the requirements in paragraphs (c) and (d) of Appendix 1 of subpart J, a State agency disability examiner is responsible for making the disability determination in your claim, unless it is a claim described in (c)(2) of this section. The State agency disability examiner may request advice from a State agency medical or psychological consultant on the medical aspects of your impairment.</P>
            <P>(ii) In any State agency, a State agency disability examiner may make the disability determination when there is no medical evidence to be evaluated (i.e., no medical evidence exists or we are unable, despite making every reasonable effort, to obtain any medical evidence that may exist) and the individual fails or refuses, without a good reason, to attend a consultative examination (see § 404.1518).</P>
            <P>(2) A State agency medical or psychological consultant (see § 404.1616) and a State agency disability examiner together will make the disability determination in the following situations:</P>
            <P>(i) Any case in which the State agency determines that you are not disabled and there is evidence that indicates the existence of a mental impairment, as described in paragraph (e) of this section;</P>
            <P>(ii) Any case in which the State agency decides to require a State agency medical or psychological consultant and a State agency disability examiner to make the disability determination together; and</P>
            <P>(iii) Any case, if your claim does not meet the requirements in paragraphs (c) and (d) of Appendix 1 of subpart J.</P>
            <P>(3) A State agency disability hearing officer (see § 404.915).</P>
            <P>(d) The State agency disability examiner and disability hearing officer must be qualified to interpret and evaluate medical reports and other evidence relating to the claimant's physical or mental impairments and as necessary to determine the capacities of the claimant to perform substantial gainful activity.</P>
            <STARS/>
            <P>20. Section 404.1616 is amended by revising paragraph (a) to read as follows:</P>
          </SECTION>
          <SECTION>
            <SECTNO>§ 404.1616</SECTNO>
            <SUBJECT>Medical or psychological consultants.</SUBJECT>
            <P>(a)<E T="03">What is a medical consultant?</E>A medical consultant is a person who is a member of a team that makes disability determinations in a State agency, as explained in § 404.1615(c)(2), or who provides advice to a State agency disability examiner, as explained in § 404.1615(c)(1). A medical consultant may also be a person who serves the same functions for us when a federal component makes the disability determination.</P>
            <STARS/>
          </SECTION>
        </PART>
        <PART>
          <HD SOURCE="HED">PART 416—SUPPLEMENTAL SECURITY INCOME FOR THE AGED, BLIND, AND DISABLED</HD>
          <P>21. The authority citation for subpart I of part 416 continues to read as follows:</P>
          <AUTH>
            <HD SOURCE="HED">Authority:</HD>
            <P>Secs. 702(a)(5), 1611, 1614, 1619, 1631(a), (c), and (d)(1), and 1633 of the Social Security Act (42 U.S.C. 902(a)(5), 1382, 1382c, 1382h, 1383(a), (c), and (d)(1), and 1383b); secs. 4(c) and 5, 6(c)-(e), 14(a), and 15, Pub. L. 98-460, 98 Stat.1794, 1801, 1802, and 1808 (42 U.S.C. 421 note, 423 note, 1382h note).</P>
          </AUTH>
          
          <P>22. Section 416.912 is amended by revising paragraph (b)(6) to read as follows:</P>
          <SECTION>
            <SECTNO>§ 416.912</SECTNO>
            <SUBJECT>Evidence of your impairment.</SUBJECT>
            <STARS/>
            <P>(b) * * *</P>
            <P>(6) Findings, other than the ultimate determination about whether you are disabled, made by State agency medical or psychological consultants and other program physicians or psychologists, and opinions expressed by medical experts we consult based on their review of the evidence in your case record. See §§ 416.1527(f)(2) and (f)(3).</P>
            <STARS/>
            <P>23. Section 416.926 is amended by revising the last sentence of paragraph (b) and by adding a new paragraph (d) to read as follows:</P>
          </SECTION>
          <SECTION>
            <SECTNO>§ 416.926</SECTNO>
            <SUBJECT>Medical equivalence for adults and children.</SUBJECT>
            <STARS/>
            <P>(b) * * * We may request, and will consider if requested, any medical opinion from one or more medical or psychological consultants designated by the Commissioner when we decide medical equivalence. (See § 416.1016.)</P>
            <STARS/>
            <P>(d)<E T="03">Responsibility for determining medical equivalence.</E>In cases where the State agency or other designee of the Commissioner makes the initial disability determination, a disability examiner is responsible for determining medical equivalence in cases in which a medical or psychological consultant does not make the determination together with the disability examiner (see § 416.1015 and Appendix 1 of subpart J). In cases in which a medical or psychological consultant makes the determination together with the disability examiner, the medical or psychological consultant is responsible for assessing medical severity, and the disability examiner and medical or<PRTPAGE P="5505"/>psychological consultant are jointly responsible for determining medical equivalence. For cases in the disability hearing process or otherwise decided by a disability hearing officer, the responsibility for determining medical equivalence rests with either the disability hearing officer or, if the disability hearing officer's reconsideration determination is changed under § 416.1418, with the Associate Commissioner for Disability or his or her delegate. For cases at the Administrative Law Judge or Appeals Council level, the responsibility for deciding medical equivalence rests with the administrative law judge or Appeals Council.</P>
            <P>24. Section 416.927 is amended by revising paragraph (f)(1), by redesignating existing paragraphs (f)(2) and (f)(3) as paragraphs (f)(3) and (f)(4) and by adding a new paragraph (f)(2) to read as follows:</P>
          </SECTION>
          <SECTION>
            <SECTNO>§ 416.927</SECTNO>
            <SUBJECT>Evaluating opinion evidence.</SUBJECT>
            <STARS/>
            <P>(f) * * *</P>
            <P>(1) In some cases, State agency medical and psychological consultants are members of teams that make initial determinations of disability (see § 416.1015(c)(2)). In these cases, a State agency medical or psychological consultant will consider the evidence in your case record and make findings of fact about the medical issues, including, but not limited to, the existence and severity of your impairment(s), the existence and severity of your symptoms, whether your impairment(s) meets or equals the requirements for any impairment listed in appendix 1 to subpart P of part 404 of this chapter, and your residual functional capacity. These administrative findings of fact are based on the evidence in your case record but they are not themselves evidence at this step.</P>
            <P>(2) In other cases, a State agency disability examiner is responsible for making the initial determination (see § 416.1015(c)(1)). In these cases, the disability examiner may obtain the opinion of a State agency medical or psychological consultant with respect to issues, including, but not limited to, the existence and severity of your impairment(s), the existence and severity of your symptoms, whether your impairment(s) meets or equals the requirements for any impairment listed in appendix 1 to subpart P of part 404 of this chapter, and your residual functional capacity. In these cases, State agency disability examiners weigh any opinions provided by State agency medical or psychological consultants in accordance with these rules. State agency medical and psychological consultants are trained and are also experts in Social Security disability evaluation. See § 416.912(b)(6). When a State agency disability examiner considers findings of a State agency medical or psychological consultant, the State agency disability examiner will evaluate the findings using relevant factors in paragraphs (a) through (e) of this section, such as the medical or psychological consultant's medical specialty and expertise in our rules, the supporting explanations provided by the medical or psychological consultant, and any other factors relevant to the weighing of the opinions.</P>
            <STARS/>
            <P>25. Section 416.929 is amended by revising the third sentence of paragraph (b) and by adding a new fourth sentence to paragraph (b) to read as follows:</P>
          </SECTION>
          <SECTION>
            <SECTNO>§ 416.929</SECTNO>
            <SUBJECT>How we evaluate symptoms, including pain.</SUBJECT>
            <STARS/>
            <P>(b)<E T="03">Need for medically determinable impairment that could reasonably be expected to produce your symptoms, such as pain.</E>* * * In some cases at the initial step in the administrative review process, and all cases at the reconsideration step, a State agency medical or psychological consultant (or other medical or psychological consultant designated by the Commissioner) directly participates in determining whether your medically determinable impairment(s) could reasonably be expected to produce your alleged symptoms (see § 416.1015(c)(2)). In other cases at the initial step of the administrative review process, a State agency disability examiner may ask for and consider the opinion of a State agency medical or psychological consultant in determining whether your medically determinable impairment(s) could reasonably be expected to produce your alleged symptoms (see § 416.1015). * * *</P>
            <STARS/>
            <P>26. Section 416.946 is revised to read as follows:</P>
          </SECTION>
          <SECTION>
            <SECTNO>§ 416.946</SECTNO>
            <SUBJECT>Responsibility for assessing and determining residual functional capacity.</SUBJECT>
            <P>(a)<E T="03">Initial determinations.</E>(1) In cases in which a State agency disability determination is made by a team consisting of a State agency disability examiner and a medical or psychological consultant, the medical or psychological consultant is responsible for assessing your residual functional capacity (see § 416.1015(c)(2)).</P>
            <P>(2) In cases in which a State agency disability examiner makes the disability determination, the State agency disability examiner is responsible for assessing your residual functional capacity (see § 416.1015(c)(1)).</P>
            <P>(b)<E T="03">Disability hearing cases.</E>For cases in the disability hearing process, the responsibility for deciding your residual functional capacity rests with either the disability hearing officer or, if the disability hearing officer's reconsidered determination is changed under § 416.1418, with the Associate Commissioner for Disability or his or her delegate.</P>
            <P>(c)<E T="03">Administrative law judge or Appeals Council cases.</E>For cases at the Administrative Law Judge or Appeals Council level, the administrative law judge or Appeals Council is responsible for assessing your residual functional capacity.</P>
            <P>27. The authority citation for subpart J of part 416 continues to read as follows:</P>
            <AUTH>
              <HD SOURCE="HED">Authority:</HD>
              <P>Secs. 702(a)(5), 1614, 1631, and 1633 of the Social Security Act (42 U.S.C. 902(a)(5), 1382c, 1383, and 1383b).</P>
            </AUTH>
            
            <P>28. Section 416.1015 is amended by redesignating paragraphs (d) through (h) as paragraphs (e) through (i), by redesignating the undesignated paragraph following paragraph (c)(3) as paragraph (d) and revising it, and by revising paragraph (c) to read as follows:</P>
          </SECTION>
          <SECTION>
            <SECTNO>§ 416.1015</SECTNO>
            <SUBJECT>Making disability determinations.</SUBJECT>
            <STARS/>
            <P>(c) The following individuals in the State agency will make disability determinations:</P>
            <P>(1) (i) If your claim meets the requirements of paragraphs (c) and (d) of Appendix 1 of subpart J, part 404 of this chapter, a State agency disability examiner is responsible for making the disability determination in your claim, unless it is a claim described in (c)(2) of this section. The State agency disability examiner may request advice from a State agency medical or psychological consultant on the medical aspects for your impairment.</P>

            <P>(ii) In any State agency, a State agency disability examiner may make the disability determination when there is no medical evidence to be evaluated (<E T="03">i.e.,</E>no medical evidence exists or we are unable, despite making every reasonable effort, to obtain any medical evidence that may exist) and the individual fails or refuses, without a good reason, to attend a consultative examination (see § 416.918).</P>

            <P>(2) A State agency medical or psychological consultant (see § 416.1016) and a State agency disability examiner together will make the disability determination in the following situations:<PRTPAGE P="5506"/>
            </P>
            <P>(i) Any case in which the State agency determines that you are not disabled and there is evidence that indicates the existence of a mental impairment, as described in paragraph (e) of this section;</P>
            <P>(ii) Any case in which the State agency decides to require a State agency medical or psychological consultant and a State agency disability examiner to make the disability determination together; and</P>
            <P>(iii) Any case of a child claiming disability benefits, as described in paragraph (f) of this section;</P>
            <P>(iv) Any case, if your claim does not meet the requirements in paragraphs (c) and (d) of Appendix 1 of subpart J, part 404 of this chapter.</P>
            <P>(3) A State agency disability hearing officer (see § 416.1015).</P>
            <P>(d) The State agency disability examiner and disability hearing officer must be qualified to interpret and evaluate medical reports and other evidence relating to the claimant's physical or mental impairments and as necessary to determine the capacities of the claimant to perform substantial gainful activity.</P>
            <STARS/>
            <P>29. Section 416.1016 is  amended by revising paragraph (a) to read as follows:</P>
          </SECTION>
          <SECTION>
            <SECTNO>§ 416.1016</SECTNO>
            <SUBJECT>Medical or psychological consultants.</SUBJECT>
            <P>(a)<E T="03">What is a medical consultant?</E>A medical consultant is a person who is a member of a team that makes disability determinations in a State agency, as explained in § 416.1015(c)(2), or who provides advice to a State agency disability examiner, as explained in § 416.1015(c)(1). A medical consultant may also be a person who serves the same functions for us when a federal component makes the disability determination.</P>
            <STARS/>
            <P>30. The authority citation for subpart N of part 416 continues to read as follows:</P>
            <AUTH>
              <HD SOURCE="HED">Authority:</HD>
              <P>Secs. 702(a)(5), 1631, and 1633 of the Social Security Act (42 U.S.C. 902(a)(5), 1383, and 1383b); 31 U.S.C. 3720A.</P>
            </AUTH>
            
            <P>31. Section 416.1400 is amended by revising paragraphs (a)(2) and (a)(3) to read as follows:</P>
          </SECTION>
          <SECTION>
            <SECTNO>§ 416.1400</SECTNO>
            <SUBJECT>Introduction.</SUBJECT>
            <P>(a) * * *</P>
            <P>(2)<E T="03">Reconsideration.</E>If you are dissatisfied with an initial determination, except for certain determinations about whether you are disabled (see (a)(3)(ii) of this section), you may ask us to reconsider it.</P>
            <P>(3)<E T="03">Hearing before an administrative law judge.</E>You may request a hearing before an administrative law judge if you are dissatisfied with:</P>
            <P>(i) A reconsideration determination; or</P>
            <P>(ii) Certain initial determinations on your application for benefits based on disability, if you are a person entitled to an informal disability conference, as explained in § 416.1404 and appendix 1 to subpart J of part 404 of this chapter.</P>
            <STARS/>
            <P>32. Section 416.1401 is amended by adding the following definition to the alphabetical listing of definitions in this section, to read as follows:</P>
          </SECTION>
          <SECTION>
            <SECTNO>§ 416.1401</SECTNO>
            <SUBJECT>Definitions.</SUBJECT>
            <STARS/>
            <P>“Fully favorable” with respect to a disability determination, means that we determine that: the claimant is disabled; the beginning date of disability is no later than the date alleged by the claimant; and either disability has not ended or, if the claimant alleges that disability has ended, it ended no earlier than the date alleged by the claimant.</P>
            <STARS/>
            <P>33. Section 416.1404 is redesignated as Section 416.1404a and revised to read as follows:</P>
          </SECTION>
          <SECTION>
            <SECTNO>§ 416.1404a</SECTNO>
            <SUBJECT>Notice of the initial determination.</SUBJECT>
            <P>(a) We will mail a written notice of the initial determination to you at your last known address. Generally, we will not send a notice if your benefits are stopped because of your death, or if the initial determination is a redetermination that your eligibility for benefits and the amount of your benefits have not changed.</P>
            <P>(b) The written notice that we send will tell you:</P>
            <P>(1) What our initial determination is;</P>
            <P>(2) The reasons for our determination; and</P>
            <P>(3) What rights you have to a reconsideration of the determination or a hearing before an administrative law judge. (See § § 416.1400(a), 416.1404(g), 416.1407, and 416.1430, and appendix 1 to subpart J of part 404 of this chapter.)</P>
            <P>(c) If our initial determination is that we must suspend, reduce or terminate your benefits, the notice will also tell you that you have a right to a reconsideration before the determination takes effect (see § 416.1336).</P>
            <P>34. A new section 416.1404 is added to read as follows:</P>
          </SECTION>
          <SECTION>
            <SECTNO>§ 416.1404</SECTNO>
            <SUBJECT>Informal disability conference.</SUBJECT>
            <P>(a)<E T="03">What is an informal disability conference?</E>When you file an application for disability benefits, the disability examiner may offer you an opportunity to have an informal disability conference. If your claim is decided by a component of our office other than a State agency, the disability examiner in that component may offer you an opportunity to have an informal disability conference. The purpose of the informal disability conference is to explain how your medical condition relates to our disability requirements, and to make sure that we have all of the information we need to make a determination about whether you are disabled. We will offer you an informal disability conference if all of the following apply in your case:</P>
            <P>(1) Based on the evidence in your case record, it appears that we will not be able to make a fully favorable disability determination. However, we will not offer you an informal disability conference if the determination is less than fully favorable because:</P>
            <P>(i) You are, or were, engaging in substantial gainful activity; or</P>
            <P>(ii) You fail to cooperate in the processing of your claim; or</P>
            <P>(iii) You fail to meet one or more eligibility requirement that is not related to your medical condition (e.g., limitations on income and resources).</P>
            <P>(2) Your claim meets the requirements of paragraphs (c) and (d) of appendix 1, subpart J of part 404.</P>
            <P>(b)<E T="03">Notification</E>We will notify you in writing to offer you the conference. You may choose to have a conference or not have a conference. If you have an attorney or other representative, we will also notify that person. The attorney or representative may participate in the conference.</P>
            <P>(c) How<E T="03">will my informal disability conference be held?</E>In most cases, we will hold your informal disability conference by telephone. In some cases, we may ask you to come to the State agency for a conference in person. We may also ask you to go to a location near you for a videoconference. We will decide how your conference will be held.</P>
            <P>(d)<E T="03">What happens during the informal disability conference?</E>The disability examiner will have an informal conversation with you. If he or she has not already done so in earlier conversations, he or she will explain our disability standard. He or she also will tell you why the evidence in your case does not appear to support a fully favorable determination. You will have a chance to provide information that we may not have. If you want to give us information that we need to make a determination, we will give you a chance to get the information or we will try to get it for you, following our rules in § 416.912.<PRTPAGE P="5507"/>
            </P>
            <P>(e)<E T="03">What happens if I decide not to have an informal disability conference?</E>If you decide not to have a conference, we will make an initial determination based on the information that we have.</P>
            <P>35. Section 416.1405 is revised to read as follows:</P>
          </SECTION>
          <SECTION>
            <SECTNO>§ 416.1405</SECTNO>
            <SUBJECT>Effect of an initial determination.</SUBJECT>
            <P>Our initial determination is final unless you request a reconsideration or an administrative law judge hearing within the stated time period, or we revise the determination.</P>
            <P>36. Section 416.1407 is revised to read as follows:</P>
          </SECTION>
          <SECTION>
            <SECTNO>§ 416.1407</SECTNO>
            <SUBJECT>Reconsideration—general.</SUBJECT>
            <P>If you are dissatisfied with the initial determination, reconsideration is the first step in the administrative review process that we provide, with one exception. If your claim meets the requirements of paragraphs (c) and (d) of Appendix 1, subpart J, part 404 of this chapter, and we make an initial determination about whether you are disabled that is not fully favorable to you, except for a determination based on a finding that you are, or were, engaging in substantial gainful activity, the next step in the administrative review process is to the administrative law judge hearing level. If you are dissatisfied with our reconsidered determination, you may request a hearing before an administrative law judge.</P>
            <P>37. Section 416.1408 is amended by revising paragraph (a) to read as follows:</P>
          </SECTION>
          <SECTION>
            <SECTNO>§ 416.1408</SECTNO>
            <SUBJECT>Parties to a reconsideration.</SUBJECT>
            <P>(a)<E T="03">Who may request a reconsideration.</E>If you are dissatisfied with our initial determination, you may request that we reconsider it, unless you are entitled to request a hearing before an administrative law judge, as we explain in § 416.1430 and appendix 1 of subpart J, part 404 of this chapter. In addition, a person who shows in writing that his or her rights may be adversely affected by the initial determination may request a reconsideration.</P>
            <STARS/>
            <P>38. Section 416.1430 is amended by redesignating existing paragraphs (a)(2), (a)(3), and (a)(4) as paragraphs (a)(3), (a)(4), and (a)(5), and by adding a new paragraph (a)(2) to read as follows:</P>
          </SECTION>
          <SECTION>
            <SECTNO>§ 416.1430</SECTNO>
            <SUBJECT>Availability of a hearing before an administrative law judge.</SUBJECT>
            <P>(a) * * *</P>
            <P>(2) An initial determination about whether you are disabled that is not fully favorable to you, unless that determination was about whether you are engaging or were engaging in substantial gainful activity, if your claim meets the requirements of paragraphs (c) and (d) of appendix 1 of subpart J, part 404 of this chapter;</P>
            <STARS/>
            <P>39. Section 416.1448 is amended by revising the heading of paragraph (a) to read as follows:</P>
          </SECTION>
          <SECTION>
            <SECTNO>§ 416.1448</SECTNO>
            <SUBJECT>Deciding a case without an oral hearing before an administrative law judge.</SUBJECT>
            <P>(a)<E T="03">Decision fully favorable.</E>* * *</P>
            <STARS/>
          </SECTION>
        </PART>
        <PART>
          <HD SOURCE="HED">PART 422—ORGANIZATION AND PROCEDURES</HD>
          <P>40. The authority citation for subpart B of part 422 continues to read as follows:</P>
          <AUTH>
            <HD SOURCE="HED">Authority:</HD>
            <P>Secs. 205, 232, and 702(a)(5), 1131, and 1143 of the Social Security Act (42 U.S.C. 405, 432, 902(a)(5), 1320b-l, and 1320b-13).</P>
          </AUTH>
          
          <P>41. Section 422.140 is amended by revising the first sentence to read as follows:</P>
          <SECTION>
            <SECTNO>§ 422.140</SECTNO>
            <SUBJECT>Reconsideration of initial determination.</SUBJECT>
            <P>Except in the case of certain determinations regarding disability (see § 404.930 and appendix 1 of subpart J, part 404 of this chapter), any party who is dissatisfied with an initial determination with respect to entitlement to monthly benefits, a lump-sum death payment, a period of disability, a revision of an earnings record, with respect to any other right under title II of the Social Security Act, or with respect to entitlement to hospital insurance benefits or supplementary medical insurance benefits, or the amount of hospital insurance benefits, may request that the Social Security Administration reconsider such determination. * * *</P>
            <P>42. The authority citation for subpart C of part 422 continues to read as follows:</P>
            <AUTH>
              <HD SOURCE="HED">Authority:</HD>
              <P>Secs. 205, 221, and 702(a)(5) of the Social Security Act (42 U.S.C. 405, 421, and 902(a)(5)); 30 U.S.C. 923(b).</P>
            </AUTH>
            
            <P>43. Section 422.203 is amended by revising the first sentence of paragraph (a)(1), by redesignating paragraph (c) as paragraph (c)(1), and by adding paragraph (c)(2) to read as follows:</P>
          </SECTION>
          <SECTION>
            <SECTNO>§ 422.203</SECTNO>
            <SUBJECT>Hearings.</SUBJECT>
            <P>(a) * * * (1) After certain determinations regarding disability (see § 404.930 and appendix 1 of subpart J, part 404 of this chapter), and after a reconsidered or a revised determination (i) of a claim for benefits or any other right under title II of the Social Security Act; or (ii) of eligibility or amount of benefits or any other matter under title XVI of the Act, except where an initial or reconsidered determination involving an adverse action is revised, after such revised determination has been reconsidered; or (iii) as to entitlement under part A or part B of title XVIII of the Act, or as to the amount of benefits under part A of such title XVIII (where the amount in controversy is $100 or more); or of health services to be provided by a health maintenance organization without additional costs (where the amount in controversy is $100 or more); or as to the amount of benefits under part B of title XVIII (where the amount in controversy is $500 or more); or as to a determination by a peer review organization (PRO) under title XI (where the amount in controversy is $200 or more); or as to certain determinations made under section 1154, 1842(1), 1866(f)(2), or 1879 of the Act; any party to such a determination may, pursuant to the applicable section of the Act, file a written request for a hearing on the determination. * * *</P>
            <STARS/>
            <P>(c) * * *</P>
            <P>(2) Unless for good cause shown on extension of time has been granted, a request for hearing must be filed within 60 days after the receipt of the notice of the reconsidered or revised determination, or after an initial determination described in § 404.900(a)(3)(ii), 42 CFR 498.3(b) and (c) (see §§ 404.933, 410.631, and 416.1433 of this chapter and 42 CFR 405,722, 498.40, and 417.260.)</P>
            <STARS/>
          </SECTION>
        </PART>
      </SUPLINF>
      <FRDOC>[FR Doc. 01-1442 Filed 1-18-01; 8:45 am]</FRDOC>
      <BILCOD>BILLING CODE 4191-02-P</BILCOD>
    </PRORULE>
  </PRORULES>
  <VOL>66</VOL>
  <NO>13</NO>
  <DATE>Friday, January 19, 2001</DATE>
  <UNITNAME>Notices</UNITNAME>
  <NOTICES>
    <NOTICE>
      <PREAMB>
        <PRTPAGE P="5508"/>
        <AGENCY TYPE="F">DEPARTMENT OF AGRICULTURE</AGENCY>
        <SUBAGY>Forest Service</SUBAGY>
        <SUBJECT>Information Collection; Request for Comments; Improve Management of the Tongass National Forest and Service to Southeast Alaska Residents</SUBJECT>
        <AGY>
          <HD SOURCE="HED">AGENCY:</HD>
          <P>Forest Service, USDA.</P>
        </AGY>
        <ACT>
          <HD SOURCE="HED">ACTION:</HD>
          <P>Notice.</P>
        </ACT>
        <SUM>
          <HD SOURCE="HED">SUMMARY:</HD>
          <P>In accordance with the Paperwork Reduction Act of 1995, the Forest Service announces its intention to establish a new information collection. The collected information will help the Forest Service identify and meet the needs of southeast Alaska residents who use, visit, or benefit in other ways from the Tongass National Forest in southeast Alaska. Information will be collected from southeast Alaska residents.</P>
        </SUM>
        <DATES>
          <HD SOURCE="HED">DATES:</HD>
          <P>Comments must be received in writing on or before March 20, 2001.</P>
        </DATES>
        <ADD>
          <HD SOURCE="HED">ADDRESSES:</HD>
          <P>All comments should be addressed to Robert F. Schroeder, Forestry Sciences Lab, Forest Service, USDA, 2770 Sherwood Lane, Suite 2A, Juneau, AK 99801.</P>
          <P>Comments also may be submitted via facsimile to (907) 586-7848 or by email to: rschroeder@fs.fed.us.</P>
          <P>The public may inspect comments received at the Office of the Forestry Sciences Lab, Forest Service, USDA, 2770 Sherwood Lane, Suite 2A, Juneau, Alaska. Visitors are asked to call (907) 586-8811, extension 240, to facilitate entrance into the building.</P>
        </ADD>
        <FURINF>
          <HD SOURCE="HED">FOR FURTHER INFORMATION CONTACT:</HD>
          <P>Robert F. Schroeder, Forestry Sciences Lab, at (907) 586-8811, extension 240.</P>
        </FURINF>
      </PREAMB>
      <SUPLINF>
        <HD SOURCE="HED">SUPPLEMENTARY INFORMATION:</HD>
        <HD SOURCE="HD1">Background</HD>

        <P>The Tongass National Forest encompasses nearly 85 percent of the land in southeast Alaska, and activities conducted on the Forest form the basis for the regional economy. Commercial fishing, timber production, mineral extraction, and the quickly growing tourism industry depend on the renewable and non-renewable natural resources of this National Forest. The Forest Service completed a revision of the Tongass Land Management Plan in 1997 and published a revised Record of Decision in the<E T="04">Federal Register</E>on May 11, 1999 (64 FR 25274). The Tongass Land Management Plan and Record of Decision will serve as a blueprint for how the Forest Service will manage the Tongass National Forest over the next 10 to 15 years.</P>
        <P>While revising the Tongass Land Management Plan in 1997, the Forest Service identified critical information needs. Some of these information needs were associated with the human component of Tongass National Forest ecosystems, that is the people and social systems that benefit from these ecosystems.</P>
        <P>The collected data, by addressing the human component, will provide the Forest Service with a better understanding of how forest management practices influence community well-being and social change within the southeast Alaska geographic area and will help the agency meet the needs of residents of southeast Alaska who are affected by forest management actions on a day-to-day basis.</P>
        <P>The agency will gain a better understanding of the demands that southeast Alaska residents make on the Tongass National Forest programs and services, how well information about agency programs and services are communicated to southeast Alaska residents, and how well the agency meets the needs and expectations of the residents of southeast Alaska.</P>
        <P>Forest Service personnel from the Pacific Northwest Research Station Forestry Sciences Lab in Juneau, Alaska, will work in cooperation with University of Alaska research staff to design, administer, and evaluate these surveys. Interviewers will conduct surveys by telephone. Persons interviewed will be asked to respond to questions that include their perceptions of how the Tongass National Forest is managed by the agency, their preferences for how this National Forest should be managed, their perceptions of Tongass National Forest ecosystems, their past and planned visits to the Tongass National Forest, their use of the forest's resources, their vision of the forest of the future, their household and community economic dependence on the forest, and their attitudes and values concerning timber management.</P>
        <P>University of Alaska and Forestry Sciences Lab scientists will tabulate the results from this information collection. The results will be available to the public and to State and Federal agencies in printed and electronic formats. The results also will be published in the Pacific Northwest Research Station's General Technical Report series and in referenced journals.</P>
        <P>This data collection will provide information on how southeast Alaska residents use the Tongass National Forest, the extent of their economic and subsistence reliance on the forest, and their attitudes and values concerning future management of the Tongass National Forest.</P>
        <HD SOURCE="HD1">Description of Information Collection</HD>
        <P>The following describes the information collection to be established:</P>
        <P>
          <E T="03">Title:</E>The Tongass Southeast Alaska Resident Survey.</P>
        <P>
          <E T="03">OMB Number:</E>New.</P>
        <P>
          <E T="03">Expiration Date of Approval:</E>New.</P>
        <P>
          <E T="03">Type of Request:</E>This is a new information collection requirement and has not yet received approval from the Office of Management and Budget.</P>
        <P>
          <E T="03">Abstract:</E>The Forest Service, other Federal agencies, and the State of Alaska conducted a survey in 1979 to assess the interaction of the southeast Alaska residents with the Tongass National Forest. This survey also included the perceptions these residents had of the Tongass as a natural resource. The 1979 survey provided the most recent comprehensive information on southeast Alaska residents' subsistence and recreational use of the Tongass, their attitudes and values concerning the Tongass National Forest, their interest in the development of a regional timber economy, and their perceptions of Forest Service land management practices. This important benchmark survey is now 20 years old and may not be an accurate reflection of the views, perceptions, and activities of current southeast Alaska residents.</P>

        <P>This new information collection will provide more current data and will identify issues that have become important to the southeast Alaska residents in the intervening years.<PRTPAGE P="5509"/>Respondents also will be asked questions that relate to issues that were not important at the time of the 1979 survey. These issues include large scale timber harvesting on national forest and private lands; a large increase in tourist and recreational use of the Tongass National Forest; expansion of tourist use into back-country areas; economic restructuring of the area that is moving away from timber, mining, and commercial fishing toward tourism and service industries; and an increasing resident and visitor population competing for limited fish and wildlife resources.</P>
        <P>Forest Service personnel and University of Alaska research staff will conduct a random sample survey of southeast Alaska residents, through telephone interviews.</P>
        <P>Data gathered in this information collection are not available from other sources.</P>
        <P>
          <E T="03">Estimate of Annual Burden:</E>30 minutes per respondent.</P>
        <P>
          <E T="03">Type of Respondents:</E>Individual residents of southeast Alaska communities.</P>
        <P>
          <E T="03">Estimated Annual Number of Respondents:</E>1600 per year.</P>
        <P>
          <E T="03">Estimated Annual Number of Responses per Respondent:</E>1.</P>
        <P>
          <E T="03">Estimated Total Annual Burden on Respondents:</E>800 hours.</P>
        <HD SOURCE="HD1">Comment Is Invited</HD>
        <P>The agency invites comments on the following: (a) Whether the proposed collection of information is necessary for the stated purposes and the proper performance of the functions of the agency, including whether the information will have practical or scientific utility; (b) the accuracy of the agency's estimate of the burden of the proposed collection of information, including the validity of the methodology and assumptions used; (c) ways to enhance the quality, utility, and clarity of the information to be collected; and (d) ways to minimize the burden of the collection of information on respondents, including the use of automated, electronic, mechanical, or other technological collection techniques or other forms of information technology.</P>
        <HD SOURCE="HD1">Use of Comments</HD>
        <P>All comments received in response to this notice, including names and addresses when provided, will become a matter of public record. Comments will be summarized and included in the request for Office of Management and Budget approval.</P>
        <SIG>
          <DATED>Dated: January 9, 2001.</DATED>
          <NAME>Barbara C. Weber,</NAME>
          <TITLE>Associate Deputy Chief for Research  Development.</TITLE>
        </SIG>
      </SUPLINF>
      <FRDOC>[FR Doc. 01-1583 Filed 1-18-01; 8:45 am]</FRDOC>
      <BILCOD>BILLING CODE 3410-11-U</BILCOD>
    </NOTICE>
    <NOTICE>
      <PREAMB>
        <AGENCY TYPE="N">DEPARTMENT OF COMMERCE</AGENCY>
        <SUBJECT>Submission for OMB Review; Comment Request</SUBJECT>
        <P>The Department of Commerce (DOC) has submitted to the Office of Management and Budget (OMB) for clearance the following proposal for collection of information under provisions of the Paperwork Reduction Act (44 U.S.C. Chapter 35).</P>
        <P>
          <E T="03">Agency:</E>Bureau of Export Administration (BXA).</P>
        <P>
          <E T="03">Title:</E>Short Supply Regulations—Unprocessed Western Red Cedar.</P>
        <P>
          <E T="03">Agency Form Number:</E>None.</P>
        <P>
          <E T="03">OMB Approval Number:</E>0694-0025.</P>
        <P>
          <E T="03">Type of Request:</E>Extension of a currently approved collection of information.</P>
        <P>
          <E T="03">Burden:</E>35 hours.</P>
        <P>
          <E T="03">Average Time Per Response:</E>60 minutes per response.</P>
        <P>
          <E T="03">Number of Respondents:</E>35 respondents.</P>
        <P>
          <E T="03">Needs and Uses:</E>The information is collected as supporting documentation for license applications to export western red cedar logs to enforce the Export Administration Act's prohibition against the export of such logs from State or Federal lands.</P>
        <P>
          <E T="03">Affected Public:</E>Individuals, businesses or other for-profit institutions.</P>
        <P>Required to obtain or retain a benefit.</P>
        <P>
          <E T="03">OMB Desk Officer:</E>David Rostker.</P>

        <P>Copies of the above information collection proposal can be obtained by calling or writing Madeleine Clayton, Departmental Clearance Officer, Office of the Chief Information Officer, (202) 482-3129, Department of Commerce, Room 6086, 14th and Constitution Avenue, NW, Washington, D.C. 20230, or via e-mail at<E T="03">MClayton@doc.gov.</E>
        </P>
        <P>Written comments and recommendations for the proposed information collection should be sent within 30 days of publication of this notice to David Rostker, OMB Desk Officer, Room 10202, New Executive Office Building, Washington, DC 20230.</P>
        <SIG>
          <DATED>Dated: January 12, 2001.</DATED>
          <NAME>Madeleine Clayton,</NAME>
          <TITLE>Departmental Clearance Officer, Office of the Chief Information Officer.</TITLE>
        </SIG>
      </PREAMB>
      <FRDOC>[FR Doc. 01-1563 Filed 1-18-01; 8:45 am]</FRDOC>
      <BILCOD>BILLING CODE 3510-33-P</BILCOD>
    </NOTICE>
    <NOTICE>
      <PREAMB>
        <AGENCY TYPE="S">DEPARTMENT OF COMMERCE</AGENCY>
        <SUBAGY>National Oceanic and Atmospheric Administration</SUBAGY>
        <DEPDOC>[Docket No. 010111011-1011-01]</DEPDOC>
        <RIN>RIN 0648-AO99</RIN>
        <SUBJECT>Announcement of Intent To Initiate the Process To Designate the Northwestern Hawaiian Islands Coral Reef Ecosystem Reserve as a National Marine Sanctuary; Intent To Prepare a Draft Environmental Impact Statement and Management Plan</SUBJECT>
        <AGY>
          <HD SOURCE="HED">AGENCY:</HD>
          <P>Marine Sanctuaries Division (MSD), National Ocean Service (NOS), National Oceanic and Atmospheric Administration, Department of Commerce (DOC).</P>
        </AGY>
        <ACT>
          <HD SOURCE="HED">ACTION:</HD>
          <P>Notice</P>
        </ACT>
        <SUM>
          <HD SOURCE="HED">SUMMARY:</HD>
          <P>On December 4, 2000, President William Clinton signed Executive Order 13178 establishing the Northwestern Hawaiian Islands Coral Reef Ecosystem Reserve, pursuant to the National Marine Sanctuaries Amendments Act of 2000. The Reserve extends approximately 1200 nautical miles long and 100 nautical miles wide. Pursuant to this Act and the Executive Order, NOAA, on behalf of the Secretary is initiating the process to designate the Reserve as a national marine sanctuary and will proceed with the subsequent steps of the designation process. In designating the sanctuary, the Executive Order directs NOAA to supplement or compliment the existing Reserve.</P>
          <P>NOAA will prepare an environmental impact statement and management plan which will examine the management, boundary and regulatory alternatives associated with sanctuary designation. NOAA will hold scoping meetings to solicit information and comments on the range and significance of issues related to sanctuary designation and management.</P>
        </SUM>
        <FURINF>
          <HD SOURCE="HED">FOR FURTHER INFORMATION CONTACT:</HD>
          <P>Helen Golde, (301) 713-3125, ext. 152 or helen.golde@noaa.gov.</P>
        </FURINF>
      </PREAMB>
      <SUPLINF>
        <HD SOURCE="HED">SUPPLEMENTARY INFORMATION:</HD>
        <P>The National Marine Sanctuaries Act (NMSA), 16 U.S.C. 1431<E T="03">et seq.</E>, authorizes the Secretary of Commerce (Secretary) to designate discrete areas of the marine environment as national marine sanctuaries to protect their special conservation, recreational, ecological, historical, cultural, archaeological, scientific, educational, or esthetic qualities. The NMSA is administered by the National Oceanic and Atmospheric Administration (NOAA) through the Marine Sanctuaries Division (MSD).<PRTPAGE P="5510"/>
        </P>
        <P>On May 26, 2000, President Clinton directed the Secretaries of Commerce and the Interior, working cooperatively with the State of Hawaii and consulting with the Western Pacific Fishery Management Council, to develop recommendations for a new, coordinated management regime to increase protection of the coral reef ecosystem of the Northwestern Hawaiian Islands and provide for sustainable use of the area. Upon consideration of their recommendations and comments received during the public visioning process on this intiative, President Clinton issued Executive Order 13178 on December 4, 2000, establishing the Northwestern Hawaiian Islands Coral Reef Ecosystem Reserve (Reserve), pursuant to the National Marine Sanctuaries Amendments Act of 2000 (Act), Public Law 106-513.</P>
        <P>As described in Executive Order 13178, the approximately 1,200 mile stretch of coral islands, seamounts, banks, and shoals of the Northwestern Hawaiian Islands are some of the healthiest and most extensive coral reefs in the United States. In their own right, the spectacular coral reefs and lands provide an amazing geological record of volcanic and erosive powers that have shaped this area. This vast area supports a dynamic reef ecosystem that supports more that 7,000 marine species, of which approximately half are unique to the Hawaiian Island chain. This incredibly diverse ecosystem is home to many species of coral, fish, birds, marine mammals, and other flora and fauna including the endangered Hawaiian monk seal, the threatened green sea turtle, and others. In addition, this area has great cultural significance to Native Hawaiian as well as linkages to early Polynesian culture—making it additionally worthy of protection and understanding. This is truly a unique and special place, a coral reef ecosystem like no place on earth, and a source of pride, inspiration, and satisfaction for all Americans, especially the people of Hawaii.</P>
        <P>The purpose of the Reserve is to ensure the comprehensive, strong, and lasting protection of the coral reef ecosystem and related marine resource and species of the Northwestern Hawaiian Islands. The Reserve extends approximately 1200 nautical miles long and 100 nautical miles wide. The Reserve is adjacent to and seaward of the seaward boundaries of the State of Hawaii and the Midway Atoll National Wildlife Refuge, and overlays the Hawaiian Islands National Wildlife Refuge to the extent that it extends beyond the seaward boundaries of the State of Hawaii.</P>
        <P>As required by the Act and Executive Order 13178, NOAA is initiating the process to designate the Reserve as a national marine sanctuary and will proceed with the steps of the designation process pursuant to the applicable provisions of sections 303 and 304 of the NMSA (16 U.S.C. 1433 and 1434). In designating the sanctuary, the Executive Order directs NOAA to supplement or compliment the existing Reserve. As part of the process, NOAA shall, in consultation with the Governor of the State of Hawaii, determine whether State submerged lands and waters should be included as part of the sanctuary. In designating and managing the sanctuary, the Secretary shall consider the advice and recommendations of the Reserve Council established pursuant to paragraph (f) of section 5 of E.O. 13178. The Reserve Council is expected to be established in January, 2001.</P>

        <P>NOAA will prepare an environmental impact statement, pursuant to the National Environmental Policy Act, and management plan which will examine the management, boundary and regulatory alternatives associated with sanctuary designation. NOAA will hold scoping meetings, tentatively planned for spring 2001, to solicit information and comments on the range and significance of issues related to sanctuary designation and management. Individuals and representatives of interested organizations and government agencies are invited and encouraged to attend. Opportunities for comment will exist throughout this process and will be announced in the<E T="04">Federal Register</E>, the local media, and other appropriate channels.</P>
        <AUTH>
          <HD SOURCE="HED">Authority:</HD>
          <P>16 U.S.C. Section 1431<E T="03">et seq.</E>, Pub. L. 106-513.</P>
        </AUTH>
        
        <SIG>
          <FP>(Federal Domestic Assistance Catalog Number 11.429 Marine Sanctuary Program)</FP>
          <DATED>Dated: January 11, 2001.</DATED>
          <NAME>John Oliver,</NAME>
          <TITLE>Chief Financial Officer/Chief Administrative Officer.</TITLE>
        </SIG>
      </SUPLINF>
      <FRDOC>[FR Doc. 01-1475 Filed 1-18-01; 8:45 am]</FRDOC>
      <BILCOD>BILLING CODE 3510-08-U</BILCOD>
    </NOTICE>
    <NOTICE>
      <PREAMB>
        <AGENCY TYPE="S">DEPARTMENT OF COMMERCE</AGENCY>
        <SUBAGY>National Oceanic and Atmospheric Administration</SUBAGY>
        <DEPDOC>[I.D. 092500B]</DEPDOC>
        <SUBJECT>Coral, Golden Crab, Shrimp, Spiny Lobster, Red Drum, Coastal Migratory Pelagic Resources, and Snapper-Grouper Fisheries of the South Atlantic</SUBJECT>
        <AGY>
          <HD SOURCE="HED">AGENCY:</HD>
          <P>National Marine Fisheries Service (NMFS), National Oceanic and Atmospheric Administration (NOAA), Commerce.</P>
        </AGY>
        <ACT>
          <HD SOURCE="HED">ACTION:</HD>
          <P>Issuance of an exempted fishing permit.</P>
        </ACT>
        <SUM>
          <HD SOURCE="HED">SUMMARY:</HD>
          <P>NMFS announces the issuance of an exempted fishing permit (EFP) for the North Carolina Aquariums (applicant), headquartered in Raleigh, NC.  The EFP authorizes the applicant, with certain conditions, to collect for public display up to 60 red porgy and up to 500 lb (227 kg) of coral/live rock in Federal waters off North Carolina each year for 2 years.  The three North Carolina Aquariums are located at Roanoke Island, Pine Knoll Shores, and Kure Beach, North Carolina.  This EFP is similar to a previously approved EFP for North Carolina Aquariums that expired earlier this year.</P>
        </SUM>
        <DATES>
          <HD SOURCE="HED">DATES:</HD>
          <P>The newly issued EFP is effective January 12, 2001, through December 31, 2002.</P>
        </DATES>
        <ADD>
          <HD SOURCE="HED">ADDRESSES:</HD>
          <P>Copies of the EFP are available from Peter Eldridge, Southeast Regional Office, NMFS, 9721 Executive Center Drive N., St. Petersburg, FL  33702.</P>
        </ADD>
        <FURINF>
          <HD SOURCE="HED">FOR FURTHER INFORMATION CONTACT:</HD>
          <P>Peter Eldridge, 727-570-5305; fax 727-570-5583; e-mail: peter.eldridge@noaa.gov.</P>
        </FURINF>
      </PREAMB>
      <SUPLINF>
        <HD SOURCE="HED">SUPPLEMENTARY INFORMATION:</HD>

        <P>The EFP is issued under the authority of the Magnuson-Stevens Fishery Conservation and Management Act (16 U.S.C. 1801<E T="03">et seq.</E>), and regulations at 50 CFR 600.745(b) concerning exempted fishing.</P>
        <P>The EFP authorizes the applicant, with certain conditions, to collect for public display up to 60 red porgy and up to 500 lb (227 kg) of coral/live rock in Federal waters off North Carolina each year for 2 years.</P>

        <P>The North Carolina Aquariums (NCA), with aquariums located at Roanoke Island, Pine Knoll Shores, and Kure Beach, is a public, non-profit, self-supporting institution established to promote an awareness, understanding, and appreciation of the diverse natural and cultural resources associated with North Carolina’s ocean, estuaries, rivers,<PRTPAGE P="5511"/>streams, and other aquatic environments.  The several aquariums are major educational and conservation institutions with extensive field study and outreach programs.  The specimens will be maintained in the various NCA facilities for public display.</P>
        <P>The proposed collection involves activities otherwise prohibited by Federal regulations implementing the Fishery Management Plans for Coral, Coral Reefs, and Live/Hard Bottom Habitats, and the Fishery Management Plan for the Snapper-Grouper Fisheries of the South Atlantic Region.  The applicant requests authorization in order to harvest and possess corals, live rock, and red porgy taken from Federal waters off North Carolina.</P>
        <P>The EFP has a number of conditions concerning the harvest of prohibited species and corals, the gear that can be employed, and bycatch restrictions.  The EFP requires an annual report to NMFS that lists taken specimens.</P>

        <P>A notice of receipt of the application for this permit was published in the<E T="04">Federal Register</E>on October 2, 2000 (65 FR 58745).  In addition to announcing the receipt of the application, public comments were requested.  No public comments were received.  Also, consistent with the requirements of 50 CFR 600-745(b)(3)(1), NMFS provided copies of the EFP application to the State of North Carolina, the South Atlantic Fishery Management Council, and the U.S. Coast Guard along with information on the EFP’s effects on target species.  All of the consulted entities supported the issuance of the EFP.</P>
        <P>Failure of the permittee to comply with the terms and conditions of the EFP may be grounds for revocation, suspension or modification of this permit, as well as civil or criminal sanctions.</P>
        <AUTH>
          <HD SOURCE="HED">Authority:</HD>
          <P>16 U.S.C. 1801<E T="03">et seq.</E>
          </P>
        </AUTH>
        <SIG>
          <DATED>Dated:  January 10, 2001.</DATED>
          <NAME>Bruce C. Morehead,</NAME>
          <TITLE>Acting Director, Office of Sustainable Fisheries, National Marine Fisheries Service.</TITLE>
        </SIG>
      </SUPLINF>
      <FRDOC>[FR Doc. 01-1379  Filed 1-18-01; 8:45 am]</FRDOC>
      <BILCOD>BILLING CODE 3510-22-S</BILCOD>
    </NOTICE>
    <NOTICE>
      <PREAMB>
        <AGENCY TYPE="N">DEPARTMENT OF EDUCATION</AGENCY>
        <SUBJECT>Notice of Proposed Information Collection Requests</SUBJECT>
        <AGY>
          <HD SOURCE="HED">AGENCY:</HD>
          <P>Department of Education.</P>
        </AGY>
        <ACT>
          <HD SOURCE="HED">ACTION:</HD>
          <P>Notice of proposed information collection requests.</P>
        </ACT>
        <SUM>
          <HD SOURCE="HED">SUMMARY:</HD>
          <P>The Acting Leader, Regulatory Information Management, Office of the Chief Information Officer, invites comments on the proposed information collection requests as required by the Paperwork Reduction Act of 1995.</P>
        </SUM>
        <DATES>
          <HD SOURCE="HED">DATES:</HD>
          <P>An emergency review has been requested in accordance with the Act (44 U.S.C. chapter 3507(j)), since public harm is reasonably likely to result if normal clearance procedures are followed. Approval by the Office of Management and Budget (OMB) has been requested by January 31, 2001. A regular clearance process is also beginning. Interested persons are invited to submit comments on or before March 20, 2001.</P>
        </DATES>
        <ADD>
          <HD SOURCE="HED">ADDRESSES:</HD>
          <P>Written comments regarding the emergency review should be addressed to the Office of Information and Regulatory Affairs, Attention: Lauren Wittenberg, Desk Officer: Department of Education, Office of Management and Budget; 725 17th Street, NW., Room 10235, New Executive Office Building, Washington, DC 20503 or should be electronically mailed to the internet address Lauren_Wittenberg@omb.eop.gov.</P>
        </ADD>
      </PREAMB>
      <SUPLINF>
        <HD SOURCE="HED">SUPPLEMENTARY INFORMATION:</HD>

        <P>Section 3506 of the Paperwork Reduction Act of 1995 (44 U.S.C. chapter 35) requires that the Director of OMB provide interested Federal agencies and the public an early opportunity to comment on information collection requests. The Office of Management and Budget (OMB) may amend or waive the requirement for public consultation to the extent that public participation in the approval process would defeat the purpose of the information collection, violate State or Federal law, or substantially interfere with any agency's ability to perform its statutory obligations. The Acting Leader, Information Management Group, Office of the Chief Information Officer, publishes this notice containing proposed information collection requests at the beginning of the Departmental review of the information collection. Each proposed information collection, grouped by office, contains the following: (1) Type of review requested,<E T="03">e.g.,</E>new, revision, extension, existing or reinstatement; (2) Title; (3) Summary of the collection; (4) Description of the need for, and proposed use of, the information; (5) Respondents and frequency of collection; and (6) Reporting and/or Recordkeeping burden. ED invites public comment. The Department of Education is especially interested in public comment addressing the following issues: (1) Is this collection necessary to the proper functions of the Department; (2) will this information be processed and used in a timely manner; (3) is the estimate of burden accurate; (4) how might the Department enhance the quality, utility, and clarity of the information to be collected; and (5) how might the Department minimize the burden of this collection on respondents, including through the use of information technology.</P>
        <SIG>
          <DATED>Dated: January 12, 2001.</DATED>
          <NAME>Joe Schubart,</NAME>
          <TITLE>Acting Leader, Regulatory Information Management, Office of the Chief Information Officer.</TITLE>
        </SIG>
        <HD SOURCE="HD1">Office of Special Education and Rehabilitative Services</HD>
        <P>
          <E T="03">Type of Review:</E>New.</P>
        <P>
          <E T="03">Title:</E>Performance Report—Training Personnel for the Education of Individuals with Disabilities Education Act (IDEA)</P>
        <P>
          <E T="03">Abstract:</E>This package contains instructions and the form necessary for grantees and contractors supported under Training Personnel for the Education of Individuals, CFDA No. 84.325. Data are obtained from grantees and are used to assess and monitor the implementation of IDEA and for Congressional reporting.</P>
        <P>
          <E T="03">Additional Information:</E>This program is a high priority initiative and an essential part of the Administration's overall strategy to allow the Department of Education to better facilitate the availability of an adequate amount of qualified personnel to better serve the needs of our children.</P>
        <P>
          <E T="03">Frequency:</E>Annually.</P>
        <P>
          <E T="03">Affected Public:</E>Not-for-profit institutions</P>
        <P>
          <E T="03">Reporting and Recordkeeping Hour Burden:</E>
        </P>
        <P>Responses: 450</P>
        <P>
          <E T="03">Burden Hours:</E>2,250</P>
        <P>Requests for copies of the proposed information collection request should be addressed to Vivian Reese, Department of Education, 400 Maryland Avenue, SW., Room 4050, Regional Office Building 3, Washington, DC 20202-4651, or should be electronically mailed to the internet address OCIO_IMG_Issues@ed.gov, or should be faxed to 202-708-9346.</P>
        <P>Comments regarding burden and/or the collection activity requirements, contact Sheila Carey at (202) 708-6287 or via her internet address Sheila_Carey@ed.gov. Individuals who use a telecommunications device for the deaf (TDD) may call the Federal Information Relay Service (FIRS) at 1-800-877-8339.</P>
        
      </SUPLINF>
      <FRDOC>[FR Doc. 01-1591 Filed 1-18-01; 8:45 am]</FRDOC>
      <BILCOD>BILLING CODE 4000-01-U</BILCOD>
    </NOTICE>
    <NOTICE>
      <PREAMB>
        <PRTPAGE P="5512"/>
        <AGENCY TYPE="S">DEPARTMENT OF EDUCATION</AGENCY>
        <SUBJECT>Revised Sexual Harassment Guidance: Harassment of Students by School Employees, Other Students, or Third Parties</SUBJECT>
        <AGY>
          <HD SOURCE="HED">AGENCY:</HD>
          <P>Office for Civil Rights, Department of Education.</P>
        </AGY>
        <ACT>
          <HD SOURCE="HED">ACTION:</HD>
          <P>Notice of availability.</P>
        </ACT>
        <SUM>
          <HD SOURCE="HED">SUMMARY:</HD>
          <P>The Assistant Secretary for Civil Rights, U.S. Department of Education (Department), announces the availability of a document (revised sexual harassment guidance) that replaces the 1997 document entitled “Sexual Harassment Guidance: Harassment of Students by School Employees, Other Students, or Third Parties,” issued by the Office for Civil Rights (OCR) on March 13, 1997 (1997 guidance). We revised the guidance in limited respects in light of subsequent Supreme Court cases relating to sexual harassment in schools.</P>
          <P>The revised guidance reaffirms the compliance standards that OCR applies in investigations and administrative enforcement of Title IX of the Education Amendments of 1972 (Title IX) regarding sexual harassment. The revised guidance re-grounds these standards in the Title IX regulations, distinguishing them from the standards applicable to private litigation for money damages and clarifying their regulatory basis as distinct from Title VII of the Civil Rights Act of 1964 agency law. In most other respects the revised guidance is identical to the 1997 guidance. Thus, we intend the revised guidance to serve the same purpose as the 1997 guidance. It continues to provide the principles that a school should use to recognize and effectively respond to sexual harassment of students in its program as a condition of receiving Federal financial assistance.</P>
        </SUM>
        <FURINF>
          <HD SOURCE="HED">FOR FURTHER INFORMATION CONTACT:</HD>
          <P>Address requests for copies of the revised sexual harassment guidance to Jeanette J. Lim, U.S. Department of Education, 400 Maryland Avenue, SW., room 5212 Switzer Building, Washington, DC 20202-1100. Telephone: (202) 205-5557 or 1-800-421-3481. For all requests submitted by letter, you must include the term “Revised Sexual Harassment Guidance.”</P>

          <P>If you use a telecommunications device for the deaf (TDD), you may call the TDD number at (202) 260-0471. The document is also available through the Internet at the following site:<E T="03">http://www.ed.gov/ocr/shguide</E>
          </P>
          <P>If you prefer to send your request through the Internet, use the following address: ocr@ed.gov</P>
          <P>You must include the term “Revised Sexual Harassment Guidance” in the subject line of your electronic message.</P>

          <P>Individuals with disabilities may obtain this document in an alternative format (<E T="03">e.g.,</E>Braille, large print, audiotape, or computer diskette) by contacting the OCR Customer Service Team at 1-800-421-3481.</P>
          <HD SOURCE="HD1">Electronic Access to This Document</HD>

          <P>You may view this notice, as well as all other Department of Education documents published in the<E T="04">Federal Register</E>, in text or Adobe Portable Document Format (PDF) on the Internet at either of the following sites:</P>
          
          <FP SOURCE="FP-1">
            <E T="03">http://ocfo.ed.gov/fedreg.htm</E>
          </FP>
          <FP SOURCE="FP-1">
            <E T="03">http://www.ed.gov/news.html</E>
          </FP>
          
          <FP>To use PDF, you must have Adobe Acrobat Reader, which is available free at either of the previous sites. If you have questions about using PDF, call the U.S. Government Printing Office (GPO), toll free, at 1-888-293-6498; or in the Washington, DC, area at (202) 512-1530.</FP>
          <NOTE>
            <HD SOURCE="HED">Note:</HD>

            <P>The official version of this notice is the notice published in the<E T="04">Federal Register</E>. Free Internet access to the official edition of the Federal Register and the Code of Federal Regulations is available on GPO Access at: http://www.access.gpo.gov/nara/index.html.</P>
          </NOTE>
          <SIG>
            <DATED>Dated: January 16, 2001.</DATED>
            <NAME>Norma V. Cantu<AC T="1"/>,</NAME>
            <TITLE>Assistant Secretary for Civil Rights.</TITLE>
          </SIG>
        </FURINF>
      </PREAMB>
      <FRDOC>[FR Doc. 01-1606 Filed 1-18-01; 8:45 am]</FRDOC>
      <BILCOD>BILLING CODE 4000-01-U</BILCOD>
    </NOTICE>
    <NOTICE>
      <PREAMB>
        <AGENCY TYPE="N">ENVIRONMENTAL PROTECTION AGENCY</AGENCY>
        <DEPDOC>[FRL-6933-6]</DEPDOC>
        <SUBJECT>Agency Information Collection Activities: Proposed Collection; Comment Request; Impact of Formal Environmental Policy Statements on the Teaching, Research and Operations of Colleges and Universities</SUBJECT>
        <AGY>
          <HD SOURCE="HED">AGENCY:</HD>
          <P>Environmental Protection Agency (EPA).</P>
        </AGY>
        <ACT>
          <HD SOURCE="HED">ACTION:</HD>
          <P>Notice.</P>
        </ACT>
        <SUM>
          <HD SOURCE="HED">SUMMARY:</HD>

          <P>In compliance with the Paperwork Reduction Act (44 U.S.C. 3501<E T="03">et seq.</E>), this document announces that EPA is planning to submit the following proposed Information Collection Request (ICR) to the Office of Management and Budget (OMB): “Impact of Formal Environmental Policy Statements on the Teaching, Research and Operations of Colleges and Universities”; EPA ICR #2013.01. Before submitting the ICR to OMB for review and approval, EPA is soliciting comments on specific aspects of the proposed information collection as described below.</P>
        </SUM>
        <DATES>
          <HD SOURCE="HED">DATES:</HD>
          <P>Comments must be submitted on or before March 20, 2001.</P>
        </DATES>
        <ADD>
          <HD SOURCE="HED">ADDRESSES:</HD>
          <P>Office of Enforcement and Compliance, EPA Region 10, 1200 6th Ave. (MS OEC-164), Seattle, WA 98101. Interested persons may obtain a copy of the ICR without charge; to do so, see the following Further Information Contact section.</P>
        </ADD>
        <FURINF>
          <HD SOURCE="HED">FOR FURTHER INFORMATION CONTACT:</HD>
          <P>Clark L. Gaulding; Academic Program Manager and Senior Policy Advisor; (206) 553-1849; fax (206) 553-7176. E-mail at gaulding.clark@epa.gov</P>
        </FURINF>
      </PREAMB>
      <SUPLINF>
        <HD SOURCE="HED">SUPPLEMENTARY INFORMATION:</HD>
        <P SOURCE="NPAR">
          <E T="03">Affected entities:</E>Entities potentially affected by this action are institutions providing college or university education leading to bachelors and graduate degrees.</P>
        <P>
          <E T="03">Title:</E>“Impact of Formal Environmental Policy Statements on the Teaching, Research and Operations of Colleges and Universities”; EPA ICR #2013.01.</P>
        <P>
          <E T="03">Abstract:</E>Many universities and colleges have adopted formal statements of environmental policy, and more are being adopted all the time. This is probably good, but little is known about the impacts that these statements have on the actual behavior of our academic institutions. Do they make a difference, and, if so, how? Where's the evidence? Is articulated environmental policy a prophesy of future behavior at the schools that adopt them, or is it rhetoric, however well intended?</P>
        <P>This survey study is intended to develop some possible answers to these questions. Written surveys and selected follow-up interviews will be conducted on a representative number of the approximately 4,000 campuses across the U.S. Part of the inquiry is statistical in nature; how many schools have a formal policy on the environment, and how many do not; does it make a difference whether the school is public or private, large or small, urban or rural? Does region make a difference? Of the schools with policies, when were they adopted and is there a trend? Finally, can anything be made of the numbers?</P>

        <P>Beyond the numbers, the survey, and especially the interviews, will focus on (1) substance and (2) impact. A random cross-section of written policy statements will be analyzed in comparative fashion to understand not only who wrote them, but what topics they literally address (especially,<PRTPAGE P="5513"/>teaching, research and operations) and what tone they impart (especially, how purely philosophical or action-oriented are they).</P>
        <P>The impact of articulated environmental policy on institutional behavior will be weighed in two ways. The institutions themselves will be asked to explain and document the impacts across the full range of university activities. In parallel, EPA data will be used to look at environmental compliance at schools both with and without written policy to see whether there is any inferential relationship. Response to the study will be voluntary, and results will be reported in statistical fashion rather than with reference to any particular school. The analytical information and conclusions resulting from this study will be useful to academic institutions as they consider their role and responsibility toward society with respect to the natural environment, and to EPA in its policy deliberations regarding its relationship with higher education as an important element of society.</P>
        <P>An agency may not conduct or sponsor, and a person is not required to respond to, a collection of information unless it displays a currently valid OMB control number. The OMB control numbers for EPA's regulations are listed in 40 CFR part 9 and 48 CFR Chapter 15.</P>
        <P>The EPA would like to solicit comments to:</P>
        <P>(i) Evaluate whether the proposed collection of information is necessary for the proper performance of the functions of the agency, including whether the information will have practical utility;</P>
        <P>(ii) Evaluate the accuracy of the agency's estimate of the burden of the proposed collection of information, including the validity of the methodology and assumptions used;</P>
        <P>(iii) Enhance the quality, utility, and clarity of the information to be collected; and</P>

        <P>(iv) Minimize the burden of the collection of information on those who are to respond, including through the use of appropriate automated electronic, mechanical, or other technological collection techniques or other forms of information technology,<E T="03">e.g.,</E>permitting electronic submission of responses.</P>
        <P>
          <E T="03">Burden statement:</E>Burden means the total time, effort, or financial resources expended by persons to generate, maintain, retain, or disclose or provide information to or for a Federal agency. This includes the time needed to review instructions; develop, acquire, install, and utilize technology and systems for the purposes of collecting, validating, and verifying information, processing and maintaining information, and disclosing and providing information; adjust the existing ways to comply with any previously applicable instructions and requirements; train personnel to be able to respond to a collection of information; search data sources; complete and review the collection of information; and transmit or otherwise disclose the information.</P>
        <P>There are two elements to this proposed study: a written survey questionnaire and a follow-up interview for a selected sub-set of those responding to the questionnaire. Using the burden definition above, it is estimated that the total hour burden for an institution to respond to the written survey questionnaire will be between five (5) and fifteen (15) hours depending on the size and organization of the respondent institution. The hour burden for an institution to participate in a follow-up interview is estimated not to exceed two (2) hours. It is not expected that any institution will incur any capital or recurring costs to participate in the study. Therefore, the dollar cost burden of participation will be directly related to the hour burden and the wage or salary rate of the individuals who handle the response at each institution.</P>
        <SIG>
          <DATED>Dated: January 8, 2001.</DATED>
          <NAME>Lauris Davies,</NAME>
          <TITLE>Director, Office of Enforcement and Compliance, Region 10.</TITLE>
        </SIG>
      </SUPLINF>
      <FRDOC>[FR Doc. 01-1345 Filed 1-18-01; 8:45 am]</FRDOC>
      <BILCOD>BILLING CODE 6560-50-P</BILCOD>
    </NOTICE>
    <NOTICE>
      <PREAMB>
        <AGENCY TYPE="S">ENVIRONMENTAL PROTECTION AGENCY</AGENCY>
        <DEPDOC>[ER-FRL-6614-8]</DEPDOC>
        <SUBJECT>Environmental Impact Statements and Regulations; Availability of EPA Comments</SUBJECT>
        <P>Availability of EPA comments prepared pursuant to the Environmental ReviewProcess (ERP), under Section 309 of the Clean Air Act and Section 102(2)(c) of the National Environmental Policy Act as amended. Requests for copies of EPA comments can be directed to the Office of Federal Activities at (202) 564-7167.An explanation of the ratings assigned to draft environmental impact statements(EISs) was published in FR datedApril 14, 2000 (65 FR 20157).</P>
        <HD SOURCE="HD1">Draft EISs</HD>
        <P>
          <E T="03">ERP No. D-AFS-L65367-AK Rating EC2,</E>Chugach National Forest, Proposed Revised Land and Resource Management Plan, Implementation,Glacier, Seward and Cordora Ranger Districts,Kenai Peninsula Borough, AK.</P>
        <P>
          <E T="03">Summary:</E>EPA expressed environmental concerns with the lack of clarity in the direction and protections in the proposed Standards and Guidelines and the lack of detail in the proposed monitoring and evaluation plan. EPA recommended that the FEIS be revised clarifying how the new plan would conform with the new planning rule, clarify and strengthen the standards and guidelines, revise and refine the monitoring plan, and provide information to support conclusions of the predicted effects.</P>
        <HD SOURCE="HD1">Final EISs</HD>
        <P>
          <E T="03">ERP No. F-AFS-L65327-WA</E>Stimson Alaska National Interest LandsConservation Act (ANILCA) Access Easement Project,Easement Authorization Grant for Construction,Reconstruction and Use of Seven Road Segments for Hauling Logs and Resource Management, ColvilleNational Forest, Sullivan Ranger District, PendOreille County, WA.</P>
        <P>
          <E T="03">Summary:</E>No formal comment letter was sent to the preparing agency.</P>
        <P>
          <E T="03">ERP No. F-AFS-L65353-ID</E>Lakeface-Lamb Fuel Reduction Project, To Reduce the Risk of Lethal Fires within a Wildland/UrbanInterface, Implementation, Idaho PanhandleNational Forests, Priest Lake Ranger District,Bonner County, ID.</P>
        <P>
          <E T="03">Summary:</E>No formal comment letter was sent to the preparing agency.</P>
        <P>
          <E T="03">ERP No. F-AFS-L65365-ID</E>Swan Flat Timber Sale, Proposal to Cut and HaulSawtimber, Caribou National Forest, Land ResourceManagement Plan (LRMP), Montpelier RangerDistrict, Bear Lake County, ID.</P>
        <P>
          <E T="03">Summary:</E>No formal comment letter was sent to the preparing agency.</P>
        <P>
          <E T="03">ERP No. F-BLM-K67040-CA</E>Imperial Project, Open-Pit Precious Metal MiningOperation Utilizing Heap Leach Processes, UpdatedInformation concerning “Endangered, Rare or Threatened” Biological Resources,Plan of Operations and Reclamation Plan Approvals,Right-of-Way Grants, Conditional Use/U.S. COEPermits, El Centro Resource Area, Desert District.</P>
        <P>
          <E T="03">Summary:</E>EPA commended BLM on its consideration of the unique characteristics of the project area within the California Desert Conservation Area, and the proposed project's potential irreparable degradation of sacred and historic values of the Indian Pass-Running ManArea of Traditional Cultural Concern, in identifying its preference for the No Action Alternative.<PRTPAGE P="5514"/>
        </P>
        <P>
          <E T="03">ERP No. F-COE-H36110-NB</E>Western Sarpy/Clear Creek Flood Reduction StudyIncluding Environmental Restoration Component,Lower Platte River and Tributaries, Saunders and Sarpy Counties, NB.</P>
        <P>
          <E T="03">Summary:</E>EPA expressed its continuing objections to this levee project, as proposed, citing two significant environmental issues: (1) Project need and alternatives; and (2) economic analysis.</P>
        <P>
          <E T="03">ERP No. F-SFW-K99029-CA</E>San Joaquin County Multi-Species HabitatConservation and Open Space Plan, Issuance of Incidental Take Permit, San Joaquin County, CA.</P>
        <P>
          <E T="03">Summary:</E>EPA expressed continued concern with the proposedSJMSCP's compliance with EPA's CWA Section 404(b)(1) guidelines. The Record of Decision (ROD) should state that CWA Section 404 coverage is not provided by the SJMSCP, describe Section 404(b)(1) requirements, and describe the measures that will be taken to ensure full compensation for temporal, spacial, and functional losses of open-space and multi-species habitat. EPA requested early notification and participation in the project's Regional General 404Permit process.</P>
        <P>
          <E T="03">ERP No. FS-FHW-A42026-NB</E>US Highway 75 Roadway Improvement, Murray, Nebraska (Highway N-1) to Bellevue, Nebraska(Fairview Road), Updated Information concerningProject Changes and Changes to the ExistingEnvironmental Setting, Funding, Cass and Sarpy Counties, NB.</P>
        <P>
          <E T="03">Summary:</E>EPA expressed no objections to the project as proposed.</P>
        <SIG>
          <DATED>Dated: January 16, 2001.</DATED>
          <NAME>Joseph C. Montgomery,</NAME>
          <TITLE>Director, NEPA Compliance Division, Office of Federal Activities.</TITLE>
        </SIG>
      </PREAMB>
      <FRDOC>[FR Doc. 01-1688 Filed 1-18-01; 8:45 am]</FRDOC>
      <BILCOD>BILLING CODE 6560-50-U</BILCOD>
    </NOTICE>
    <NOTICE>
      <PREAMB>
        <AGENCY TYPE="S">ENVIRONMENTAL PROTECTION AGENCY</AGENCY>
        <DEPDOC>[ER-FRL-6614-7]</DEPDOC>
        <SUBJECT>Environmental Impact Statements; Notice of Availability</SUBJECT>
        <P>
          <E T="03">Responsible Agency:</E>
        </P>

        <P>Office of Federal Activities, General Information (202)564-7167 or<E T="03">www.epa.gov/oeca/ofa</E>
        </P>
        <FP SOURCE="FP-1">Weekly receipt of Environmental Impact Statements</FP>
        <FP SOURCE="FP-1">Filed January 8, 2001 Through January 12, 2001</FP>
        <FP SOURCE="FP-1">Pursuant to 40 CFR 1506.9.</FP>
        
        <FP SOURCE="FP-1">
          <E T="03">EIS No. 010008, Final EIS, AFS, ID</E>, East Beaver and Miner's Creek Timber Sales and PrescribedBurning Project, Implementation, Caribou-TargheeNational Forest, Dubois Ranger District, ClarkCounty, ID, Due: February 20, 2001, Contact:John Councilman (208) 558-7301.</FP>
        <FP SOURCE="FP-1">
          <E T="03">EIS No. 010009, Final EIS, AFS, WY,</E>SquirrelMeadows—Grand Targhee Land Exchange Proposal,Implementation, Targhee National Forest, TetonCounty, WY, Due: February 20, 2001, Contact:Patty Bates (208) 354-2312.</FP>
        <FP SOURCE="FP-1">
          <E T="03">EIS No. 010010, Final EIS, FHW, LA,</E>North-SouthExpressway Const. I-220 in Shreveport, LA to the Arkansas State Line, Funding and COE Section 404Permit Issuance, Caddo Parish, LA, Due: February 20, 2001, Contact: William C. Farr (225)757-7615.</FP>
        <FP SOURCE="FP-1">
          <E T="03">EIS No. 010011, Final EIS, FHW, NY,</E>MillerHighway Project (P.I.N. 103.27), Relocation of Miller Highway between West 59th Street to West 72nd Streets, on the Upper West Side of Manhattan, Funding and COE Section 404 Permit,New York County, NY, Due: February 20, 2001,Contact: Harold Brown (518) 431-4127.</FP>
        <FP SOURCE="FP-1">
          <E T="03">EIS No. 010012, Final EIS, FHW, NV, AZ,</E>US 93Hoover Dam Bypass Project, Construction of a NewBridge and Highway, Funding, Right-of-WayEasement, U.S. Coast Guard, NPDES and COE Section 404 Permits, Federal Lands—Lake Mead NationalRecreation Area and Hoover Dam Reservation, ClarkCounty, NV and Mohave County, AZ, Due: February 20, 2001, Contact: Dave Zanetell (303) 716-2167.</FP>
        <FP SOURCE="FP-1">
          <E T="03">EIS No. 010013, Draft EIS, AFS, AK,</E>ThreemileTimber Sale, Implementation, Petersburg RangerDistrict, Tongass National Forest, AK, Due:March 12, 2001, Contact: Everett Kissinger (907)772-5860.</FP>
        <FP SOURCE="FP-1">
          <E T="03">EIS No. 010014, Draft EIS, AFS, AK,</E>GravinaIsland Timber Sale, Implementation, TimberHarvest and Related Activities, Ketchikan-MistyFiords Ranger District, Tongass National Forest,AK, Due: March 5, 2001, Contact: SusanMarthaller (907) 225-2148.</FP>
        <FP SOURCE="FP-1">
          <E T="03">EIS No. 010015, Draft EIS, BLM, CO, NM,</E>Programmatic EIS—Southern Ute IndianReservation Oil and Gas Development,Implementation, San Juan Basin, LaPlata,Archuleta, Montezuma Counties, CO and Rio Arriba and San Juan Counties, NM, Due: March 20, 2001,Contact: Don Englishman (970) 385-1346.</FP>
        <FP SOURCE="FP-1">
          <E T="03">EIS No. 010016, Final EIS, AFS, OR,</E>Triangle LandExchange Project, Between Clearwater LandExchange Oregon (Clearwater) an OregonPartnership, Implementation, Malheur, Umatilla and Wallowa-Whitman National Forests, Baker,Grant, Harney and Wallowa Counties, OR, Due:February 20, 2001, Contact: John Day (541)575-3000.</FP>
        <FP SOURCE="FP-1">
          <E T="03">EIS No. 010017, Final EIS, NPS, CA, NV,</E>Legislative EIS—Timbisha Shoshone TribalHomeland, To Establish a Permanent Tribal LandBase and Related Cooperative Activities, TheTransfer of Federal Land and Acquisition of Private Land, Death Valley National Park, SalineValley, CA and Lida Ranch near Lida, NV, Due:February 20, 2001, Contact: Joan DeGraff (760)255-8830.</FP>
        <FP SOURCE="FP-1">
          <E T="03">EIS No. 010018, Draft EIS, FHW, OK,</E>I-40Crosstown Expressway Transportation Improvements, From I-235/I-35 Interchange West to Meridan Avenue, Funding, Oklahoma City, OK, Due: March 15, 2001, Contact: Lubin Quinones (405) 605-6011.</FP>
        <SIG>
          <DATED>Dated: January 16, 2001.</DATED>
          <NAME>Joseph C. Montgomery,</NAME>
          <TITLE>Director, NEPA Compliance Division, Office of Federal Activities.</TITLE>
        </SIG>
      </PREAMB>
      <FRDOC>[FR Doc. 01-1689 Filed 1-18-01; 8:45 am]</FRDOC>
      <BILCOD>BILLING CODE 6560-50-U</BILCOD>
    </NOTICE>
    <NOTICE>
      <PREAMB>
        <AGENCY TYPE="S">ENVIRONMENTAL PROTECTION AGENCY</AGENCY>
        <DEPDOC>[OPP-42077A; FRL-6747-2]</DEPDOC>
        <SUBJECT>Delaware State Plan for Certification ofApplicators of Restricted Use Pesticides; Notice of Approval</SUBJECT>
        <AGY>
          <HD SOURCE="HED">AGENCY:</HD>
          <P>Environmental Protection Agency (EPA).</P>
        </AGY>
        <ACT>
          <HD SOURCE="HED">ACTION:</HD>
          <P>Notice of approval.</P>
        </ACT>
        <SUM>
          <HD SOURCE="HED">SUMMARY:</HD>
          <P>In the<E T="04">Federal Register</E>of May 26, 2000 (65 FR 34178) (FRL-6488-6), EPA issued  a notice of intent to approve an amended Delaware Plan for the certification of applicators of restricted use pesticides. In this notice EPA solicited comments from the public on the proposed action to approve the amended Delaware Plan. The amended Certification Plan Delaware submitted to EPA contained several statutory, regulatory, and programmatic changes to its current Certification Plan. The proposed amendments establish new requirements for the certification and recertification of pesticide applicators, requires training for registration of non-certified employees, adopts EPA's requirements for directsupervision, adds new commercial subcategories, and establishes the payment of fees for commercial applicators, issuance of business licenses, and dealer permits.<PRTPAGE P="5515"/>No comments were received and EPA hereby approves the amended Delaware Plan.</P>
        </SUM>
        <ADD>
          <HD SOURCE="HED">ADDRESSES:</HD>

          <P>The amended Delaware Certification Plan can be reviewed at the locations listed under Unit I.B. of the<E T="02">SUPPLEMENTARY INFORMATION</E>.</P>
        </ADD>
        <FURINF>
          <HD SOURCE="HED">FOR FURTHER INFORMATION CONTACT:</HD>
          <P>Magda Rodriguez-Hunt, Pesticides/Asbestos Programs and Enforcement Branch (3WC32),  Environmental Protection Agency, Region III, 1650 Arch St., Philadelphia, PA 19103; telephone number: 215-814-2128; fax number:  215-814-3113; e-mail address: rodriguez-hunt.magda.@epa.gov.</P>
        </FURINF>
      </PREAMB>
      <SUPLINF>
        <HD SOURCE="HED">SUPPLEMENTARY INFORMATION:</HD>
        <HD SOURCE="HD1">I.  General Information</HD>
        <HD SOURCE="HD2">A.  Does this Action Apply to Me?</HD>

        <P>This action is directed to the public in general.  This action may, however, be of interest to those involved in agriculture and anyone involved with the distribution and application of pesticides for agricultural purposes. Others involved with pesticides in a non-agricultural setting may also be affected. In addition, it may be of interest to others, such as, those personswho are or may be required to conduct testing of chemical substances under the Federal Food, Drug, and Cosmetic Act (FFDCA), or the Federal Insecticide, Fungicide, and Rodenticide Act (FIFRA).  Since other entities may also be interested, the Agency has not attempted to describe all the specific entities that may be affected by this action.  If you have any questions regarding the applicability of this action to a particular entity, consult the person listed under<E T="02">FOR FURTHER INFORMATION CONTACT</E>.</P>
        <HD SOURCE="HD2">B. How Can I Get Copies of the Amended State Plan, Other Related Documents, and Additional Information?</HD>
        <P>To obtain copies of the amended Delaware Certification Plan, other related documents, or additional information contact:</P>
        <P>1.  Magda Rodriguez-Hunt at the address listed under<E T="02">FOR FURTHER INFORMATION CONTACT</E>.</P>
        <P>2.  Larry Towle, Delaware Department of Agriculture, Pesticides Compliance, 2320 Dupont Highway, Dover, DE 19901; telephone number: 302-739-4811; e-mail address: larry@smtp.dda.state.de.us.</P>
        <P>3.  John MacDonald, Field and External Affairs Division (7506C), Office of Pesticide Programs, Environmental Protection Agency, 1200 Pennsylvania Ave., NW.; telephone number:  703-305-7370; e-mail address: macdonald.john@epa.gov.</P>
        <HD SOURCE="HD1">II.  What Action is the Agency Taking?</HD>

        <P>EPA is approving the amended Delaware Certification Plan. This approval is based upon the EPA review of the Delaware Plan and finding it in compliance with FIFRA and 40 CFR part 171. Further, there were no public comments submitted to the earlier<E T="04">Federal Register</E>Notice soliciting comments. The amended Delaware Certification Plan is therefore approved.</P>
        <LSTSUB>
          <HD SOURCE="HED">List of Subjects</HD>
          <P>Environmental protection.</P>
        </LSTSUB>
        
        <SIG>
          <DATED>Dated:  January 2, 2001,</DATED>
          <NAME>Bradley Campbell,</NAME>
          <TITLE>Regional Administrator, Region III.</TITLE>
        </SIG>
      </SUPLINF>
      <FRDOC>[FR Doc. 01-1350 Filed 1-18-01 8:45 am]</FRDOC>
      <BILCOD>BILLING CODE 6560-50-S</BILCOD>
    </NOTICE>
    <NOTICE>
      <PREAMB>
        <AGENCY TYPE="N">FEDERAL RESERVE SYSTEM</AGENCY>
        <SUBJECT>Sunshine Act Meeting</SUBJECT>
        <PREAMHD>
          <HD SOURCE="HED">Agency Holding the Meeting:</HD>
          <P>Board of Governors of the Federal Reserve System</P>
        </PREAMHD>
        <PREAMHD>
          <HD SOURCE="HED">Time and Date:</HD>
          <P>11 a.m., Wednesday, January 24, 2001.</P>
        </PREAMHD>
        <PREAMHD>
          <HD SOURCE="HED">Place:</HD>
          <P>Marriner S. Eccles Federal Reserve Board Building, 20th and C Streets, NW., Washington, DC 20551.</P>
        </PREAMHD>
        <PREAMHD>
          <HD SOURCE="HED">Status:</HD>
          <P>Closed.</P>
        </PREAMHD>
        <PREAMHD>
          <HD SOURCE="HED">Matters to be Considered:</HD>
          <P/>
          <P>1. Personnel actions (appointments, promotions, assignments, reassignments, and salary actions) involving individual Federal Reserve System employees.</P>
          <P>2. Any items carried forward from a previously announced meeting.</P>
        </PREAMHD>
        <FURINF>
          <HD SOURCE="HED">CONTACT PERSON FOR MORE INFORMATION:</HD>
          <P>Lynn S. Fox, Assistant to the Board; 202-452-3204.</P>
        </FURINF>
      </PREAMB>
      <SUPLINF>
        <HD SOURCE="HED">SUPPLEMENTARY INFORMATION:</HD>
        <P>You may call 202-452-3206 beginning at approximately 5 p.m. two business days before the meeting for a recorded announcement of bank and bank holding company applications scheduled for the meeting; or you may contact the Board's Web site at http://www.federalreserve.gov for an electronic announcement that not only lists applications, but also indicates procedural and other information about the meeting.</P>
        <SIG>
          <DATED>Dated: January 17, 2001.</DATED>
          <NAME>Robert deV. Frierson,</NAME>
          <TITLE>Associate Secretary of the Board.</TITLE>
        </SIG>
      </SUPLINF>
      <FRDOC>[FR Doc. 01-1780 Filed 1-17-01; 11:13 am]</FRDOC>
      <BILCOD>BILLING CODE 6210-01-M</BILCOD>
    </NOTICE>
    <NOTICE>
      <PREAMB>
        <AGENCY TYPE="N">DEPARTMENT OF HEALTH AND HUMAN SERVICES</AGENCY>
        <SUBAGY>Food and Drug Administration</SUBAGY>
        <DEPDOC>[Docket No. 99N-1168]</DEPDOC>
        <AGENCY TYPE="O">DEPARTMENT OF AGRICULTURE</AGENCY>
        <SUBAGY>Food Safety and Inspection Service</SUBAGY>
        <DEPDOC>[Docket No. 00-048N]</DEPDOC>
        <SUBJECT>Relative Risk to Public Health from Foodborne Listeria Monocytogenes Among Selected Categories of Ready-to-Eat Foods; Draft Risk Assessment Document and Risk Management Action Plan; Availability</SUBJECT>
        <AGY>
          <HD SOURCE="HED">AGENCY:</HD>
          <P>Food and Drug Administration, HHS, and Food Safety and Inspection Service, USDA.</P>
        </AGY>
        <ACT>
          <HD SOURCE="HED">ACTION:</HD>
          <P>Notice.</P>
        </ACT>
        <SUM>
          <HD SOURCE="HED">SUMMARY:</HD>

          <P>The Food and Drug Administration (FDA), and the Food Safety and Inspection Service (FSIS) of the U.S. Department of Agriculture (USDA) are announcing the availability of two documents: A draft risk assessment on the relationship between foodborne<E T="03">Listeria monocytogenes</E>and human health that considers 20 ready-to-eat food categories, and a risk management action plan based on the<E T="03">L. monocytogenes</E>risk assessment. We are making these documents available, and we are seeking public comment of a technical nature on the draft risk assessment. The risk management action plan identifies immediate actions as well as short-term and long-term activities targeted to reduce<E T="03">L. monocytogenes</E>associated illnesses. This plan is intended to respond to the President's directive to reduce<E T="03">L. monocytogenes</E>associated illnesses by 50 percent by the year 2005. HHS and USDA invite comments on the risk management strategies reflected in the action plan. A public meeting to discuss the draft risk assessment and the risk management plan will be announced in a future issue of the<E T="04">Federal Register</E>.</P>
        </SUM>
        <DATES>
          <HD SOURCE="HED">DATES:</HD>
          <P>Comments on the draft risk assessment and the HHS/USDA risk management action plan must be submitted by March 20, 2001.</P>
        </DATES>
        <ADD>
          <HD SOURCE="HED">ADDRESSES:</HD>

          <P>Printed copies of the draft risk assessment and the risk management action plan may be requested by faxing your name and mailing address with the names of the documents you are requesting by faxing your name and mailing address with the names of the documents you are requesting to the CFSAN Outreach and Information Center at 1-877-366-3322. The documents may be reviewed at the<PRTPAGE P="5516"/>FDA Dockets Management Branch (address above) between 9 a.m. and 4 p.m., Monday through Friday, and at the FSIS Docket Clerk's Office between 8:30 a.m. and 4:30 p.m., Monday through Friday.</P>
          <P>Submit written comments to the Dockets Management Branch (HFA-305), Docket No. 99N-1168, Food and Drug Administration, 5630 Fishers Lane, rm. 1061, Rockville, MD 20852. Two copies of comments are to be submitted, except that individuals may submit one copy.</P>
          <FP>or</FP>

          <P>Submit one original and two copies of written comments to FSIS Docket Clerk, Docket No. 00-048N, U.S. Department of Agriculture, Food Safety and Inspection Service, Room 102, Cotton Annex, 300 12th St. SW., Washington, DC 20250-3700. All comments submitted in response to this notice will be available for public inspection in the Docket Clerk's Office between 8:30 a.m. and 4:30 p.m., Monday through Friday. For electronic access to these documents see section III of the<E T="02">SUPPLEMENTARY INFORMATION</E>section of this document.</P>
        </ADD>
        <FURINF>
          <HD SOURCE="HED">FOR FURTHER INFORMATION CONTACT:</HD>
          <P SOURCE="P-2">
            <E T="03">For information concerning the draft risk assessment document:</E>Sherri B. Dennis, Risk Assessment Coordinator, Center for Food Safety and Applied Nutrition (HFS-032), Food and Drug Administration, 200 C St. SW., Washington, DC 20204, 202-260-3984, FAX 202-260-9653, or e-mail: sdennis@cfsan.fda.gov.</P>
          <P SOURCE="P-2">
            <E T="03">For information concerning the risk management actionplan:</E>Kathy Gombas, Center for Food Safety and Applied Nutrition (HFS-615), Food and Drug Administration, 200 C St. SW., Washington, DC 20204; 202-205-4231; FAX 202-260-0136, e-mail: Kathy.Gombas@cfsan.fda.gov or Charles Edwards, Food Safety and Inspection Service, U.S. Department of Agriculture, rm. 405, Cotton Annex, 300 12th St. SW., Washington, DC 20250-3700; 202-205-0675; FAX 202-205-0080.</P>
        </FURINF>
      </PREAMB>
      <SUPLINF>
        <HD SOURCE="HED">SUPPLEMENTARY INFORMATION:</HD>
        <HD SOURCE="HD1">I. Draft Risk Assessment</HD>
        <HD SOURCE="HD2">A. Background</HD>
        <P>The draft risk assessment was written by FDA's Center for Food Safety and Applied Nutrition (CFSAN) and USDA/FSIS, in consultation with the Centers for Disease Control and Prevention (CDC). These agencies began this comprehensive quantitative microbial risk assessment (QMRA) in 1999, and have held two public meetings to present the framework of the assessment, the assumptions, and the modeling procedures.</P>
        <P>In the<E T="04">Federal Register</E>of May 7, 1999 (64 FR 24661), FDA, in collaboration with USDA/FSIS, announced plans to conduct a risk assessment to determine the extent of consumer exposure to foodborne<E T="03">L. monocytogenes</E>. In the<E T="04">Federal Registers</E>of May 7, 1999 (64 FR 24663), and August 13, 1999 (64 FR 44225), the agencies announced public meetings to discuss issues related to the risk models under development. You may refer to these notices for further background information.</P>
        <HD SOURCE="HD2">B. The<E T="03">Listeria monocytogenes</E>QMRA</HD>

        <P>The goal of this QMRA is to provide FDA and USDA/FSIS with information that will assist the agencies with the review of current programs and the development of new programs relating to the regulation of<E T="03">L. monocytogenes</E>contamination in foods to ensure that such programs protect the public health. QMRA is a structured and systematic process of collecting and evaluating data and information to establish the risks to human health from consumption of pathogenic microorganisms. The draft risk assessment evaluates the available data on food consumption, contamination of various foods within 20 ready-to-eat food product categories by<E T="03">L. monocytogenes</E>, growth of the pathogen in such foods, and the infectious dose. The draft risk assessment follows the framework recommended by both the National Academy of Sciences and the Codex Alimentarius Commission. This structured framework involves the following steps:</P>
        <P>(1)<E T="03">Hazard identification</E>. The collection and critical review of data and information on<E T="03">L. monocytogenes</E>.</P>
        <P>(2)<E T="03">Exposure assessment</E>. The determination of total exposure to<E T="03">L. monocytogenes</E>from consumption of various foods using prevalence and food consumption data.</P>
        <P>(3)<E T="03">Hazard characterization/Dose-response</E>. The assessment of the potential for<E T="03">L. monocytogenes</E>to cause illness in human populations using epidemiological investigations and data from animal studies.</P>
        <P>(4)<E T="03">Risk characterization</E>. The integration of the exposure and dose-response data into a complex model to estimate both the risk to the public health and the uncertainty associated with this estimate.</P>
        <FP>The risk assessment process also includes the identification of data gaps and the development of, and the reliance on, reasonable assumptions when data are unavailable.</FP>
        <P>As part of a peer evaluation of the draft risk assessment, FDA and USDA/FSIS are seeking comments that can be used to improve:</P>
        <P>(1) The assumptions made,</P>
        <P>(2) the modeling technique,</P>
        <P>(3) the data used, and</P>
        <P>(4) the transparency of the draft risk assessment document.</P>
        <P>It is our intent to review and evaluate all public comments and make modifications to the assessment, as appropriate. As noted previously, the draft risk assessment is available electronically on websites listed in section III of the Supplementary Information section of this document and may be reviewed at the FDA's Dockets Management Branch and FSIS's Docket Clerk's Office (addresses above).</P>
        <HD SOURCE="HD1">II. HHS/USDA Risk Management Action Plan</HD>
        <HD SOURCE="HD2">A. Background</HD>

        <P>On May 5, 2000, the President directed the Secretary of HHS and the Secretary of Agriculture to identify aggressive steps to reduce significantly the risk of illness and death from<E T="03">L. monocytogenes</E>in ready-to-eat foods. The President called for action to reduce the number of<E T="03">L. monocytogenes</E>illnesses by 50 percent by the year 2005—5 years ahead of the previously established Healthy People 2010 target.</P>

        <P>The President directed the Secretary of HHS to develop an action plan identifying additional steps necessary to reduce<E T="03">L. monocytogenes</E>contamination. He specifically directed that the HHS plan include consideration of control measures for at-risk foods, publication of guidance for processors, retailers, and food service facilities, and consideration of enhanced labeling to provide additional safeguards for consumers. The President also directed the Secretary of Agriculture to report back on the actions that would reduce significantly the risk of illness and death from<E T="03">L. monocytogenes</E>in ready-to-eat foods. The President in particular directed the Secretary of Agriculture to “complete proposed regulations that include any appropriate microbiological testing and other industry measures” to prevent cross-contamination in the processing environment; ensure that the processing of ready-to-eat products meets appropriate standards; and ensure that such products are safe throughout their shelf-life. Taken together, these actions are designed to reduce<E T="03">L. monocytogene</E>s-related illnesses by 50 percent by 2005.</P>
        <HD SOURCE="HD2">B. The L. Monocytogenes Action Plan</HD>

        <P>The action plan outlines the actions HHS and USDA intend to undertake to<PRTPAGE P="5517"/>reduce<E T="03">L. monocytogenes</E>illnesses from ready-to-eat foods. The plan focuses on those food categories identified in the draft risk assessment as either warranting additional measures to reduce<E T="03">L. monocytogenes</E>contamination or warranting collection of additional data. Within HHS, FDA and CDC have the primary responsibility for implementation of this action plan. Within USDA, FSIS has the primary responsibility for implementation of this plan, working in concert with other USDA agencies through the Office of Food Safety.</P>
        <P>The action plan contains the following eight action areas:</P>
        <P>(1) Enhance consumer and health care provider information and education efforts;</P>
        <P>(2) Develop and revise guidance for processors, retailers, and food service/institutional establishments that manufacture or prepare ready-to-eat foods;</P>
        <P>(3) Develop and deliver training/technical assistance to the regulated industry and food safety regulatory employees;</P>
        <P>(4) Review and redirect enforcement and regulatory strategies including microbial product sampling;</P>
        <P>(5) Propose new regulations and revisions to existing regulations as needed;</P>
        <P>(6) Enhance disease surveillance and outbreak response;</P>

        <P>(7) Initiate projects with retail operations such as delicatessens and salad bars to pilot new<E T="03">L. monocytogenes</E>control measures including employee practices; and</P>
        <P>(8) Coordinate research activities to refine the risk assessment, enhance preventive controls, and support regulatory, enforcement, and educational activities.</P>
        <P>As noted, the draft risk assessment will be available, along with other information, to assist HHS and USDA as they consider the specific means to implement the elements of the action plan.</P>
        <HD SOURCE="HD1">III. Electronic Access</HD>
        <P>The draft risk assessment document and the risk management plan are available electronically as follows:</P>
        <GPOTABLE CDEF="xl75,xl100" COLS="2" OPTS="L4(4,4,4,4),nj,tp0,p1,10/24,bl,i1">
          <TTITLE/>
          <BOXHD>
            <CHED H="1"/>
            <CHED H="1"/>
          </BOXHD>
          <ROW RUL="s">
            <ENT I="01">Draft Risk Assessment Document</ENT>
            <ENT>www.cfsan.fda.gov<LI>www.fsis.usda.gov</LI>
              <LI>www.foodsafety.gov</LI>
              <LI>www.foodriskclearinghouse.umd.edu</LI>
            </ENT>
          </ROW>
          <ROW>
            <ENT I="01">The Risk Management Action Plan</ENT>
            <ENT>www.cfsan.fda.gov<LI>www.foodsafety.gov</LI>
              <LI>www.fsis.usda.gov</LI>
            </ENT>
          </ROW>
        </GPOTABLE>
        <SIG>
          <DATED>Dated: January 11, 2001.</DATED>
          <NAME>William K. Hubbard,</NAME>
          <TITLE>Senior Associate Commissioner for Policy, Planning, and Legislation, Food and Drug Administration, HHS.</TITLE>
          <NAME>Thomas J. Billy,</NAME>
          <TITLE>Administrator, Food Safety Inspection Service, USDA.</TITLE>
        </SIG>
      </SUPLINF>
      <FRDOC>[FR Doc. 01-1439 Filed 1-18-01; 8:45 am]</FRDOC>
      <BILCOD>BILLING CODE 4160-01-F</BILCOD>
    </NOTICE>
    <NOTICE>
      <PREAMB>
        <AGENCY TYPE="S">DEPARTMENT OF HEALTH AND HUMAN SERVICES</AGENCY>
        <SUBAGY>Food and Drug Administration</SUBAGY>
        <DEPDOC>[Docket No. 99N-1075]</DEPDOC>
        <SUBJECT>Public Health Impact of Vibrio Parahaemolyticus in Raw Molluscan Shellfish; Draft Risk Assessment Document; Availability</SUBJECT>
        <AGY>
          <HD SOURCE="HED">AGENCY:</HD>
          <P>Food and Drug Administration, HHS.</P>
        </AGY>
        <ACT>
          <HD SOURCE="HED">ACTION:</HD>
          <P>Notice.</P>
        </ACT>
        <SUM>
          <HD SOURCE="HED">SUMMARY:</HD>

          <P>The Food and Drug Administration (FDA) is announcing the availability of a draft risk assessment on the relationship between<E T="03">Vibrio parahaemolyticus</E>in raw molluscan shellfish, specifically oysters, and human health. FDA began this quantitative microbial risk assessment (QMRA) in 1999, and the agency has held three public meetings on the framework of the assessment, the assumptions, and the modeling procedures. As part of the review process, the agency is making this draft risk assessment available and is seeking comments on the technical aspects of the draft risk assessment. A public meeting to discuss the draft risk assessment will be announced in a future issue of the<E T="04">Federal Register</E>.</P>
        </SUM>
        <DATES>
          <HD SOURCE="HED">DATES:</HD>
          <P>Submit written comments on the draft risk assessment by March 20, 2001.</P>
        </DATES>
        <ADD>
          <HD SOURCE="HED">ADDRESSES:</HD>
          <P>The draft risk assessment is available electronically on the FDA Internet at www.foodsafety.gov/dms/fs-toc.html. Hard copies of the draft risk assessment will be available upon request; fax requests to 1-877-366-3322. The draft risk assessment may also be reviewed at the Dockets Management Branch (address below) between 9 a.m. and 4 p.m., Monday through Friday.</P>
          <P>Submit written comments to the Dockets Management Branch (HFA-305), Food and Drug Administration, 5630 Fishers Lane, rm. 1061, Rockville, MD 20852. Two copies of comments are to be submitted, except that individuals may submit one copy. Comments must be identified with the docket number found in brackets in the heading of this document.</P>
        </ADD>
        <FURINF>
          <HD SOURCE="HED">FOR FURTHER INFORMATION CONTACT:</HD>
          <P SOURCE="P-2">
            <E T="03">For specific technical information contact:</E>Marianne Miliotis,<E T="03">Vibrio parahaemolyticus</E>Risk Assessment<PRTPAGE P="5518"/>Team Leader, Center for Food Safety and Applied Nutrition (HFS-327), Food and Drug Administration, 200 C St. SW., Washington, DC 20204, 202-205-4824, FAX 202-205-4939, or e-mail: mmilioti@cfsan.fda.gov.</P>
          <P SOURCE="P-2">
            <E T="03">For general information contact:</E>Sherri B. Dennis, Risk Assessment Coordinator, Center for Food Safety and Applied Nutrition (HFS-032), Food and Drug Administration, 200 C St. SW., Washington, DC 20204, 202-260-3984, FAX 202-260-9653, or e-mail: sdennis@cfsan.fda.gov.</P>
        </FURINF>
      </PREAMB>
      <SUPLINF>
        <HD SOURCE="HED">SUPPLEMENTARY INFORMATION:</HD>
        <HD SOURCE="HD1">I. Background</HD>
        <P>In the<E T="04">Federal Register</E>of May 7, 1999 (64 FR 24664), FDA announced plans to conduct a risk assessment to determine the extent of exposure of consumers to<E T="03">V. parahaemolyticus</E>in raw molluscan shellfish. On August 13, 1999 (64 FR 44226), FDA announced public meetings to discuss issues related to the risk models under development. You may refer to these notices for background.</P>
        <HD SOURCE="HD1">II. The V. Parahaemolyticus QMRA</HD>

        <P>The goal of this QMRA is to provide FDA with information that will assist the agency with the review of current programs relating to the regulation of<E T="03">V. parahaemolyticus</E>in raw molluscan shellfish to ensure that such programs protect the public health. QMRA is a structured and systematic process of collecting and evaluating data and information to determine the risks to human health from consumption of pathogenic microorganisms. This draft risk assessment evaluates factors that most influence the prevalence of<E T="03">V. parahaemolyticus</E>in shellfish at harvest and after harvest handling practices. The draft risk assessment also evaluates preventive and intervention strategies, as well as the FDA and Interstate Shellfish Sanitation Conference guideline of up to 10,000 viable<E T="03">V. parahaemolyticus</E>cells per gram of seafood. The draft risk assessment follows the framework recommended by both the National Academy of Sciences and the Codex Alimentarius Commission. This structured framework involves the following steps:</P>
        <P>•<E T="03">Hazard identification</E>. The collection and critical review of data and information on<E T="03">V. parahaemolyticus</E>.</P>
        <P>•<E T="03">Exposure assessment</E>. The determination of the likelihood of ingesting pathogenic<E T="03">V. parahaemolyticus</E>by eating raw molluscan shellfish harboring the organism and the amount of pathogenic<E T="03">V. parahaemolyticus</E>present when consumed.</P>
        <P>•<E T="03">Hazard characterization/dose-response</E>. The relationship of the levels of<E T="03">V. parahaemolyticus</E>ingested with the frequency and magnitude of illness using epidemiological investigations and clinical trials.</P>
        <P>•<E T="03">Risk characterization</E>. The integration of dose-response and exposure assessments into a complex model to estimate risk of illness and range of uncertainty associated with this estimate. The risk assessment process also involves the identification of data gaps and the development of reasonable assumptions if data are unavailable.</P>
        <P>FDA began this QMRA in 1999. Recognizing the public health importance of this pathogen, the scientific knowledge and data currently available were rigorously evaluated to assure that this assessment will serve to facilitate several processes, including the formulation of effective guidance for the industry, regulators, and consumers and the evaluations of risk mitigation strategies.</P>
        <P>As part of a peer evaluation of the draft risk assessment, FDA is seeking comments in the following areas: (1) The assumptions, (2) the modeling technique, (3) the data sets used, and (4) transparency of the document. FDA intends to review and evaluate all public comments and make modifications to the assessment, as appropriate.</P>
        <P>As noted previously, the draft risk assessment is available electronically on FDA's website and may be reviewed in the agency's Dockets Management Branch.</P>
        <SIG>
          <DATED>Dated: December 18, 2000.</DATED>
          <NAME>Margaret M. Dotzel,</NAME>
          <TITLE>Associate Commissioner for Policy.</TITLE>
        </SIG>
      </SUPLINF>
      <FRDOC>[FR Doc. 01-1440 Filed 1-18-01; 8:45 am]</FRDOC>
      <BILCOD>BILLING CODE 4160-01-F</BILCOD>
    </NOTICE>
    <NOTICE>
      <PREAMB>
        <AGENCY TYPE="N">DEPARTMENT OF HOUSING AND URBAN DEVELOPMENT</AGENCY>
        <DEPDOC>[Docket No. FR-4644-N-03]</DEPDOC>
        <SUBJECT>Federal Property Suitable as Facilities To Assist the Homeless</SUBJECT>
        <AGY>
          <HD SOURCE="HED">AGENCY:</HD>
          <P>Office of the Assistant Secretary for Community Planning and Development, HUD.</P>
        </AGY>
        <ACT>
          <HD SOURCE="HED">ACTION:</HD>
          <P>Notice.</P>
        </ACT>
        <SUM>
          <HD SOURCE="HED">SUMMARY:</HD>
          <P>This Notice identifies unutilized, underutilized, excess, and surplus Federal property reviewed by HUD for suitability for possible use to assist the homeless.</P>
        </SUM>
        <EFFDATE>
          <HD SOURCE="HED">EFFECTIVE DATE:</HD>
          <P>January 19, 2001.</P>
        </EFFDATE>
        <FURINF>
          <HD SOURCE="HED">FOR FURTHER INFORMATION CONTACT:</HD>
          <P>Clifford Taffet, Department of Housing and  Urban Development, Room 7262, 451 Seventh Street SW, Washington, DC 20410; telephone (202) 708-1234; TTY number for the hearing- and speech-impaired (202) 708-2565, (these telephone numbers are not toll-free), or call the toll-free Title V information line at 1-800-927-7588.</P>
        </FURINF>
      </PREAMB>
      <SUPLINF>
        <HD SOURCE="HED">SUPPLEMENTARY INFORMATION:</HD>
        <P>In accordance with the December 12, 1988 court order in<E T="03">National Coalition for the Homeless</E>v.<E T="03">Veterans Administration</E>, No. 88-2503-OG (D.D.C.), HUD publishes a Notice, on a weekly basis, identifying unutilized, underutilized, excess and surplus Federal buildings and real property that HUD has reviewed for suitability for use to assist the homeless. Today's Notice is for the purpose of announcing that no additional properties have been determined suitable or unsuitable this week.</P>
        <SIG>
          <DATED>Dated: January 11, 2001.</DATED>
          <NAME>John D. Garrity,</NAME>
          <TITLE>Director, Office of Special Needs Assistance Programs.</TITLE>
        </SIG>
      </SUPLINF>
      <FRDOC>[FR Doc. 01-1398 Filed 1-18-01; 8:45 am]</FRDOC>
      <BILCOD>BILLING CODE 4210-29-M</BILCOD>
    </NOTICE>
    <NOTICE>
      <PREAMB>
        <AGENCY TYPE="N">DEPARTMENT OF THE INTERIOR</AGENCY>
        <SUBJECT>Office of the Secretary; Notice of Deadline for Submitting Completed Applications To Begin Participation in the Tribal Self-Governance Program in Fiscal Year 2002 or Calendar Year 2002</SUBJECT>
        <AGY>
          <HD SOURCE="HED">AGENCY:</HD>
          <P>Office of Self-Governance, Interior.</P>
        </AGY>
        <ACT>
          <HD SOURCE="HED">ACTION:</HD>
          <P>Notice of application deadline.</P>
        </ACT>
        <SUM>
          <HD SOURCE="HED">SUMMARY:</HD>
          <P>In this notice, the Office of Self-Governance (OSG) establishes a March 1, 2001, deadline for tribes/consortia to submit completed applications to begin participation in the tribal self-governance program in fiscal year 2002 or calendar year 2002.</P>
        </SUM>
        <DATES>
          <HD SOURCE="HED">DATES:</HD>
          <P>Completed application packages must be received by the Director, Office of Self-Governance by March 1, 2001.</P>
        </DATES>
        <ADD>
          <HD SOURCE="HED">ADDRESSES:</HD>
          <P>Application packages for inclusion in the applicant pool should be sent to the Director, Office of Self-Governance, U.S. Department of the Interior, Mail Stop 2548, 1849 C Street, NW., Washington DC 20240.</P>
        </ADD>
        <FURINF>
          <HD SOURCE="HED">FOR FURTHER INFORMATION CONTACT:</HD>

          <P>Dr. Kenneth D. Reinfeld, U.S. Department of the Interior, Office of Self-Governance, 1849 C Street NW., Mail Stop 2548, Washington DC 20240; Telephone 202-208-5734.<PRTPAGE P="5519"/>
          </P>
        </FURINF>
      </PREAMB>
      <SUPLINF>
        <HD SOURCE="HED">SUPPLEMENTARY INFORMATION:</HD>
        <P>Under the Tribal Self-Governance Act of 1994 (Public Law 103-413), as amended by the Fiscal Year 1997 Omnibus Appropriations Bill (Public Law 104-208), the Director, Office of Self-Governance may select up to 50 additional participating tribes/consortia per year for the tribal self-governance program, and negotiate and enter into an annual written funding agreement with each participating tribe. The Act mandates that the Secretary submit copies of the funding agreements at least 90 days before the proposed effective date to the appropriate committees of the Congress and to each tribe that is served by the Bureau of Indian Affairs (BIA) agency that is serving the tribe that is a party to the funding agreement. Initial negotiations with a tribe/consortium located in a BIA region and/or agency which has not previously been involved with self-governance negotiations, will take approximately two months from start to finish. Agreements for an October 1 to September 30 fiscal year need to be signed and submitted by July 1. Agreements for a January 1 to December 31 fiscal year need to be signed and submitted by October 1.</P>
        <HD SOURCE="HD1">Background</HD>
        <P>On December 15, 2000, a final rule was published in the<E T="04">Federal Register</E>implementing Tribal Self-Governance, as authorized by Title IV of the Indian Self-Determination and Education Assistance Act. This rule has been negotiated among representatives of Self-Governance and non-Self-Governance Tribes and the U.S. Department of the Interior. Selection of additional tribes for participation in tribal self-governance is governed by subparts 1000.10 to 1000.31.</P>
        <HD SOURCE="HD1">Purpose of Notice</HD>
        <P>The final rule established at 25 CFR subparts 1000.10 to 1000.31 will be used to govern the application and selection process for tribes/consortia to begin their participation in the tribal self-governance program in fiscal year 2002 and calendar year 2002. Applicants should be guided by the requirements in these subparts in preparing their applications. Copies of these subparts may be obtained from the information contact person identified in this notice.</P>
        <P>Tribes/consortia wishing to be considered for participation in the tribal self-governance program in fiscal year 2002 or calendar year 2002 must respond to this notice, except for those which are (1) currently involved with negotiations with the Department; (2) one of the 77 tribal entities with signed agreements; or (3) one of the tribal entities already included in the applicant pool as of the date of this notice.</P>
        <SIG>
          <DATED>Dated: December 22, 2000.</DATED>
          <NAME>Kevin Gover,</NAME>
          <TITLE>Assistant Secretary—Indian Affairs.</TITLE>
        </SIG>
      </SUPLINF>
      <FRDOC>[FR Doc. 01-396 Filed 1-18-01; 8:45 am]</FRDOC>
      <BILCOD>BILLING CODE 4310-02-P</BILCOD>
    </NOTICE>
    <NOTICE>
      <PREAMB>
        <AGENCY TYPE="N">INTERNATIONAL TRADE COMMISSION</AGENCY>
        <SUBJECT>Sunshine Act Meeting; Emergency Notice of Change of Time of Meeting</SUBJECT>
        <PREAMHD>
          <HD SOURCE="HED">Agency Holding the Meeting:</HD>
          <P>United States International Trade Commission.</P>
        </PREAMHD>
        <PREAMHD>
          <HD SOURCE="HED">Date and Time:</HD>
          <P>January 18, 2001 at 11 a.m.</P>
        </PREAMHD>
        <PREAMHD>
          <HD SOURCE="HED">Place:</HD>
          <P>Room 101, 500 E Street SW., Washington, DC 20436, Telephone: (202) 205-2000.</P>
        </PREAMHD>
        <PREAMHD>
          <HD SOURCE="HED">Status:</HD>
          <P>Open to the public.</P>
          <P>In accordance with 19 CFR § 201.35(d)(1), notice is hereby given that the Commission has determined to change the time of the meeting being held Thursday, January 18, 2001 from 2 p.m. to 11 a.m. Earlier notification of such change was not possible.</P>
        </PREAMHD>
        <SIG>
          <DATED>Issued: January 17, 2001.</DATED>
          
          <P>By order of the Commission.</P>
          <NAME>Donna R. Koehnke,</NAME>
          <TITLE>Secretary.</TITLE>
        </SIG>
      </PREAMB>
      <FRDOC>[FR Doc. 01-1815  Filed 1-17-01; 2:18 pm]</FRDOC>
      <BILCOD>BILLING CODE 7020-02-M</BILCOD>
    </NOTICE>
    <NOTICE>
      <PREAMB>
        <AGENCY TYPE="N">DEPARTMENT OF LABOR</AGENCY>
        <SUBAGY>Employment Standards Administration, Wage and Hour Division</SUBAGY>
        <SUBJECT>Minimum Wages for Federal and Federally Assisted Construction; General Wage Determination Decisions</SUBJECT>
        
        <P>General wage determination decisions of the Secretary of Labor are issued in accordance with applicable law and are based on the information obtained by the Department of Labor from its study of local wage conditions and date made available from other sources. They specify the basic hourly wage rates and fringe benefits which are determined to be prevailing for the described classes of laborers and mechanics employed on construction projects of a similar character and in the localities specified therein.</P>
        <P>The determinations in these decisions of prevailing rates and fringe benefits have been made in accordance with 29 CFR Part 1, by authority of the Secretary of Labor pursuant to the provisions of the Davis-Bacon Act of March 3, 1931, as amended (46 Stat. 1494, as amended, 40 U.S.C. 276a) and of other Federal statutes referred to in 29 CFR Part 1, Appendix, as well as such additional statutes as may from time to time be enacted containing provisions for the payment of wages determined to be prevailing by the Secretary of Labor in accordance with the Davis-Bacon Act. The prevailing rates and fringe benefits determined in these decisions shall, in accordance with the provisions of the foregoing statutes, constitute the minimum wages payable on Federal and federally assisted construction projects to laborers and mechanics of the specified classes engaged on contract work of the character and in the localities described therein.</P>
        <P>Good cause is hereby found for not utilizing notice and public comment procedure thereon prior to the issuance of these determinations as prescribed in 5 U.S.C. 553 and not providing for delay in the effective date as prescribed in that section, because the necessity to issue current construction industry wage determinations frequently and in large volume causes procedures to be impractical and contrary to the public interest.</P>

        <P>General wage determination decisions, and modifications and supersedes decisions thereto, contain no expiration dates and are effective from their date of notice in the<E T="04">Federal Register</E>, or on the date written notice is received by the agency, whichever is earlier. These decisions are to be used in accordance with the provisions of 29 CFR Parts 1 and 5. Accordingly, the applicable decision, together with any modifications issued, must be made a part of every contract for performance of the described work within the geographic area indicated as required by an applicable Federal prevailing wage law and 29 CFR Part 5. The wage rates and fringe benefits, notice of which is published herein, and which are contained in the Government Printing Office (GPO) document entitled “General Wage Determinations Issued Under The Davis-Bacon and Related Acts,” shall be the minimum paid by contractors and subcontractors to laborers and mechanics.</P>

        <P>Any person, organization, or governmental agency having an interest in the rates determined as prevailing is encouraged to submit wage rate and fringe benefit information for consideration by the Department. Further information and self-explanatory forms for the purpose of<PRTPAGE P="5520"/>submitting this data may be obtained by writing to the U.S. Department of Labor, Employment Standards Administration, Wage and Hour Division, Division of Wage Determinations, 200 Constitution Avenue, NW., Room S-3014, Washington, DC 20210.</P>
        <HD SOURCE="HD1">Modifications to General Wage Determination Decisions</HD>

        <P>The number of decisions listed in the Government Printing Office document entitled “General Wage Determinations Issued Under the Davis-Bacon and Related Acts” being modified are listed by Volume and State. Dates of publication in the<E T="04">Federal Register</E>are in parentheses following the decisions being modified.</P>
        <EXTRACT>
          <HD SOURCE="HD2">Volume I</HD>
          <FP>None</FP>
          <HD SOURCE="HD2">Volume II</HD>
          <FP>None</FP>
          <HD SOURCE="HD2">Volume III</HD>
          <FP>None</FP>
          <HD SOURCE="HD2">Volume IV</HD>
          <FP>None</FP>
          <HD SOURCE="HD2">Volume V</HD>
          <FP>None</FP>
          <HD SOURCE="HD2">Volume VI</HD>
          <FP>None</FP>
          <HD SOURCE="HD2">Volume VII</HD>
          <FP>None</FP>
        </EXTRACT>
        <HD SOURCE="HD1">General Wage Determination Publication</HD>
        <P>General wage determinations issued under the Davis-Bacon and Related Acts, including those noted above, may be found in the Government Printing Office (GPO) document entitled “General Wage Determinations Issued Under The Davis-Bacon and Related Acts.” This publication is available at each of the 50 Regional Government Depository Libraries and many of the 1,400 Government Depository Libraries across the country.</P>
        <P>The general wage determinations issued under the Davis-Bacon and Related Acts are available electronically by subscription to the FedWorld Bulletin Board System of the National Technical Information Service (NTIS) of the U.S. Department of Commerce at 1-800-363-2068.</P>
        <P>Hard-copy subscriptions may be purchased from: Superintendent of Documents, U.S. Government Printing Office, Washington, DC 20402, (202) 512-1800.</P>
        <P>When ordering hard-copy subscription(s), be sure to specify the State(s) of interest, since subscriptions may be ordered for any or all of the seven separate volumes, arranged by State. Subscriptions include an annual edition (issued in January or February) which includes all current general wage determinations for the States covered by each volume. Throughout the remainder of the year, regular weekly updates are distributed to subscribers.</P>
        <SIG>
          <DATED>Dated: Signed at Washington, DC this 11th Day of January 2001.</DATED>
          <NAME>Carl J. Poleskey,</NAME>
          <TITLE>Chief, Branch of Construction Wage Determinations.</TITLE>
        </SIG>
      </PREAMB>
      <FRDOC>[FR Doc. 01-1444  Filed 1-18-01; 8:45 am]</FRDOC>
      <BILCOD>BILLING CODE 4510-27-M</BILCOD>
    </NOTICE>
    <NOTICE>
      <PREAMB>
        <AGENCY TYPE="N">SECURITIES AND EXCHANGE COMMISSION</AGENCY>
        <SUBJECT>Sunshine Act Meeting</SUBJECT>
        <P>Notice is hereby given, pursuant to the provisions of the Government in the Sunshine Act, Pub. L. 94-409, that the Securities and Exchange Commission will hold the following meeting during the week of January 22, 2001.</P>
        <P>A closed meeting will be held on Tuesday, January 23, 2001, at 10 a.m.</P>
        <P>Commissioners, Counsel to the Commissioners, the Secretary to the Commission, and recording secretaries will attend the closed meeting. Certain staff members who have an interest in the matters may also be present.</P>
        <P>The General Counsel of the Commission, or his designee, has certified that, in his opinion, one or more of the exemptions set forth in 5 U.S.C. 552b(c)(4), (8), (9)(A) and (10) and 17 CFR 200.402(a)(4), (8), (9)(A) and (10), permit consideration of the scheduled matters at the closed meeting.</P>
        <P>The subject matters of the closed meeting will be:</P>
        
        <FP SOURCE="FP-2">institution and settlement of injunctive actions; and</FP>
        <FP SOURCE="FP-2">institution and settlement of administrative proceedings of an enforcement nature.</FP>
        
        <P>At times, changes in Commission priorities require alterations in the scheduling of meeting items. For further information and to ascertain what, if any, matters have been added, deleted or postponed, please contact:</P>
        <P>The Office of the Secretary at (202) 942-7070.</P>
        <SIG>
          <DATED>Dated: January 16, 2001.</DATED>
          <NAME>Jonathan G. Katz,</NAME>
          <TITLE>Secretary.</TITLE>
        </SIG>
      </PREAMB>
      <FRDOC>[FR Doc. 01-1701  Filed 1-16-01; 4:20 pm]</FRDOC>
      <BILCOD>BILLING CODE 8010-01-M</BILCOD>
    </NOTICE>
    <NOTICE>
      <PREAMB>
        <AGENCY TYPE="N">SMALL BUSINESS ADMINISTRATION</AGENCY>
        <SUBJECT>Administrator's Line of Succession Designation, No. 1-A, Revision 23</SUBJECT>
        <P>This document replaces and supercedes “Line of Succession Designation No. 1-A, Revision 22.”</P>
        <HD SOURCE="HD1">Line of Succession Designation No. 1-A, Revision 23</HD>
        <P>Effective immediately, the Administrator's Line of Succession Designation is as follows:</P>
        <P>(a) If I am absent from the office the Deputy Administrator will assume all functions and duties of the Administrator. In the event both I and the Deputy Administrator are absent from the office, I designate the officials in listed order below to serve as Acting Administrator with full authority to perform all acts which the Administrator is authorized to perform:</P>
        <P>(1) Chief of Staff;</P>
        <P>(2) General Counsel;</P>
        <P>(3) Associate Deputy Administrator for Management and Administration;</P>
        <P>(4) Associate Deputy Administrator for Capital Access;</P>
        <P>(5) Associate Deputy Administrator for Government Contracting and Business Development;</P>
        <P>(6) Associate Deputy Administrator for Entrepreneurial Development;</P>
        <P>(7) Counselor to the Administrator;</P>
        <P>(8) Chief Operating Officer;</P>
        <P>(9) Deputy General Counsel;</P>
        <P>(10) Chief Financial Officer.</P>
        <P>(a) An individual serving in an acting capacity in any of the positions listed in paragraph (a)(1) through (10) is not also included in this Line of Succession. Instead, the next non-acting incumbent on the list shall serve as Acting Administrator.</P>
        <P>(b) This designation shall remain in full force and effect until revoked or superceded in writing by the Administrator, or by the Deputy Administrator when serving as Acting Administrator.</P>
        <P>(c) Serving as Acting Administrator has no effect on the officials listed in paragraph (a)(1) through (10), above, with respect to their full-time position's authorities, duties and responsibilities (except that such official cannot both recommend and approve an action).</P>
        <SIG>
          <DATED>Dated: January 5, 2001.</DATED>
          <NAME>Aida Alvarez,</NAME>
          <TITLE>Administrator.</TITLE>
        </SIG>
      </PREAMB>
      <FRDOC>[FR Doc. 01-1584 Filed 1-18-01; 8:45 am]</FRDOC>
      <BILCOD>BILLING CODE 8010-01-U</BILCOD>
    </NOTICE>
    <NOTICE>
      <PREAMB>
        <PRTPAGE P="5521"/>
        <AGENCY TYPE="N">SOCIAL SECURITY ADMINISTRATION</AGENCY>
        <SUBJECT>Rate for Attorney Fee Assessment Beginning in 2001</SUBJECT>
        <AGY>
          <HD SOURCE="HED">AGENCY:</HD>
          <P>Social Security Administration.</P>
        </AGY>
        <ACT>
          <HD SOURCE="HED">ACTION:</HD>
          <P>Notice.</P>
        </ACT>
        <SUM>
          <HD SOURCE="HED">SUMMARY:</HD>
          <P>The Social Security Administration is announcing that the attorney-fee assessment rate under section 206(d) of the Social Security Act, 42 U.S.C. 406(d), for 2001 is 6.3 percent.</P>
        </SUM>
        <FURINF>
          <HD SOURCE="HED">FOR FURTHER INFORMATION CONTACT:</HD>

          <P>John Watson, Social Security Administration, Office of the General Counsel, Phone: (410) 965-3137, email:<E T="03">John.Watson@ssa.gov.</E>
          </P>
        </FURINF>
      </PREAMB>
      <SUPLINF>
        <HD SOURCE="HED">SUPPLEMENTARY INFORMATION:</HD>
        <P>Section 406 of Public Law No. 106-170, the Ticket to Work and Work Incentives Improvement Act of 1999, established an assessment for the services required to determine and certify payments to attorneys from the benefits due claimants under Title II of the Social Security Act. This provision is codified in section 206 of the Social Security Act (42 U.S.C. 406). The legislation set the assessment for the calendar year 2000 at 6.3 percent of the amount that would be required to be certified for direct payment to the attorney under either section 206(a)(4) or 206(b)(1) before the application of the assessment. For subsequent years, the legislation requires the Commissioner of Social Security to determine the percentage rate necessary to achieve full recovery of the costs of determining and certifying fees to attorneys, but not in excess of 6.3 percent.</P>
        <P>The Commissioner of Social Security has determined, based on available data, that the current rate of 6.3 percent will continue. We based our decision to continue the 6.3 percent assessment rate on work sampling and management information data for performing these functions. We are continuing to review our data to determine if a change is appropriate subsequently.</P>
        <SIG>
          <DATED>Dated: January 16, 2001.</DATED>
          <NAME>Yvette S. Jackson,</NAME>
          <TITLE>Deputy Commissioner for Finance, Assessment and Management.</TITLE>
        </SIG>
      </SUPLINF>
      <FRDOC>[FR Doc. 01-1608 Filed 1-18-01; 8:45 am]</FRDOC>
      <BILCOD>BILLING CODE 4191-02-U</BILCOD>
    </NOTICE>
    <NOTICE>
      <PREAMB>
        <AGENCY TYPE="N">OFFICE OF THE UNITED STATES TRADE REPRESENTATIVE</AGENCY>
        <SUBJECT>Generalized System of Preferences (GSP); Deadline for Submitting Public Comments on Modification of Duty-Free Treatment for Certain Products Imported From India.</SUBJECT>
        <AGY>
          <HD SOURCE="HED">AGENCY:</HD>
          <P>Office of the United States Trade Representative (USTR).</P>
        </AGY>
        <ACT>
          <HD SOURCE="HED">ACTION:</HD>
          <P>Notice of request for public comment</P>
        </ACT>
        <SUM>
          <HD SOURCE="HED">SUMMARY:</HD>
          <P>This notice informs the public that the U.S. Government is considering whether to modify duty-free treatment accorded to certain imports from India under the U.S. Generalized System of Preferences (GSP). The review is being undertaken to determine whether India offers “equitable and reasonable market access for U.S. goods and services.” If the conclusion is negative, the U.S. government is prepared to take steps that would lead to withdrawal of existing benefits on some products imported from India. Some or all of the products listed in the Annex may be affected. This notice sets forth the deadline for submitting public comments. A decision on this matter is expected on or about April 1, 2001.</P>
        </SUM>
        <FURINF>
          <HD SOURCE="HED">FOR FURTHER INFORMATION CONTACT:</HD>
          <P>GSP Subcommittee, Office of the United States Trade Representative, 600 17th Street, NW., Room 518, Washington, DC 20508 (Tel. 202/395-6971). Public versions of all documents relating to this review are available for public inspection by appointment in the USTR public reading room between 9:30-12 a.m. and 1-4 p.m. (Tel. 202/395-6186).</P>
        </FURINF>
      </PREAMB>
      <SUPLINF>
        <HD SOURCE="HED">SUPPLEMENTARY INFORMATION:</HD>

        <P>The GSP program is authorized pursuant to Title V of the Trade Act of 1974, as amended (“the Trade Act”) (19 U.S.C. 2461<E T="03">et seq.</E>). The GSP program grants duty-free treatment to designated eligible articles that are imported from designated beneficiary developing countries. Once granted, GSP benefits may be withdrawn, suspended or limited by the President with respect to any article or with respect to any country. In determining whether to withdraw, suspend, or limit GSP benefits, the President must consider several factors, one of which is whether the country offers equitable and reasonable market access for U.S. goods and services (19 U.S.C. 2462(c)(4)). India is a beneficiary of the GSP program. In 1999, more than $1 billion in imports from India were granted duty-free treatment under the GSP program; through October 2000, more than $966 million in imports from India received duty-free treatment under GSP, an increase of over 13% over 1999.</P>
        <P>On June 12, 1998, the American National Soda Ash Corporation (ANSAC) filed a petition in the 1998 GSP country review contending that the Government of India has failed to provide the United States equitable and reasonable access to India's soda ash market. ANSAC requested that India's benefits under the GSP program be withdrawn, suspended or limited. This petition was accepted for review and was the subject of public comment and hearings. The United States also raised these concerns with the Government of India over the course of two years without resolution. Accordingly, absent a substantial improvement in equitable and reasonable market access for U.S. goods and services in India, the TPSC may recommend that the President withdraw GSP benefits for India on some or all of the products identified in the Annex to this notice.</P>
        <HD SOURCE="HD1">Opportunities for Public Comment and Inspection of Comments</HD>
        <P>The GSP Subcommittee of the TPSC invites comments in support of, or in opposition to, the withdrawal, suspension or limitation of duty-free treatment under the GSP program for certain products imported from India. The deadline for submissions is 5 p.m. on Friday, February 16, 2001.</P>

        <P>Parties submitting comments must submit an original and 14 copies, in English, to the Chairman of the GSP Subcommittee, Trade Policy Staff Committee, 600 17th Street, NW., Room 518, Washington, DC 20508. Information and comments will be available for public inspection by appointment with the staff of the USTR public reading room, except for information submitted in confidence pursuant to 15 CFR 2007.7. If the document contains business confidential information, an original and 14 copies of a public version of the submission along with 15 copies of the confidential version must be also submitted. The business confidential version of the submission should be clearly marked “business confidential” at the top and bottom of each page of the document. A nonconfidential summary of the business confidential information must be included with the business confidential submission, along with a written explanation of why the business confidential material should be protected. The public version should also be clearly marked at the top and bottom of each and every page (either “public version” or “nonconfidential”). Submissions should comply with 15<PRTPAGE P="5522"/>CFR part 2007, including sections 2007.0, and 2007.1.</P>
        <SIG>
          <NAME>Jon Rosenbaum,</NAME>
          <TITLE>Assistant U.S. Trade Representative for Trade and Development.</TITLE>
        </SIG>
        <EXTRACT>
          <HD SOURCE="HD1">Annex</HD>
          <P>The products under consideration in this Annex encompass all articles that are classified under the specified numerical subheadings in the Harmonized Tariff Schedule of the United States listed below.</P>
          
          <FP>2008.19.15</FP>
          <FP>2008.19.25</FP>
          <FP>2008.19.90</FP>
          <FP>2008.30.37</FP>
          <FP>2008.30.48</FP>
          <FP>2008.30.60</FP>
          <FP>2008.30.95</FP>
          <FP>2008.91.00</FP>
          <FP>2008.99.15</FP>
          <FP>2008.99.20</FP>
          <FP>2008.99.28</FP>
          <FP>2008.99.35</FP>
          <FP>2008.99.40</FP>
          <FP>2008.99.45</FP>
          <FP>2008.99.50</FP>
          <FP>2008.99.61</FP>
          <FP>2008.99.63</FP>
          <FP>2008.99.65</FP>
          <FP>2008.99.80</FP>
          <FP>2008.99.90</FP>
          <FP>2511.10.50</FP>
          <FP>3907.10.00</FP>
          <FP>3907.20.00</FP>
          <FP>3907.40.00</FP>
          <FP>3907.50.00</FP>
          <FP>3907.91.40</FP>
          <FP>3907.91.50</FP>
          <FP>3917.10.10</FP>
          <FP>3917.10.90</FP>
          <FP>3917.21.00</FP>
          <FP>3917.22.00</FP>
          <FP>3917.23.00</FP>
          <FP>3917.29.00</FP>
          <FP>3917.31.00</FP>
          <FP>3917.32.60</FP>
          <FP>3917.33.00</FP>
          <FP>3917.39.00</FP>
          <FP>3917.40.00</FP>
          <FP>3926.10.00</FP>
          <FP>3926.20.90</FP>
          <FP>3926.30.10</FP>
          <FP>3926.40.00</FP>
          <FP>3926.90.10</FP>
          <FP>3926.90.15</FP>
          <FP>3926.90.20</FP>
          <FP>3926.90.25</FP>
          <FP>3926.90.30</FP>
          <FP>3926.90.33</FP>
          <FP>3926.90.35</FP>
          <FP>3926.90.40</FP>
          <FP>3926.90.45</FP>
          <FP>3926.90.50</FP>
          <FP>3926.90.56</FP>
          <FP>3926.90.57</FP>
          <FP>3926.90.60</FP>
          <FP>3926.90.70</FP>
          <FP>3926.90.75</FP>
          <FP>3926.90.83</FP>
          <FP>3926.90.87</FP>
          <FP>3926.90.98</FP>
          <FP>4104.31.20</FP>
          <FP>4203.10.20</FP>
          <FP>4203.30.00</FP>
          <FP>4203.40.30</FP>
          <FP>5903.10.10</FP>
          <FP>5903.10.20</FP>
          <FP>5903.20.20</FP>
          <FP>5903.90.10</FP>
          <FP>5903.90.20</FP>
          <FP>6307.90.60</FP>
          <FP>6307.90.85</FP>
          <FP>6307.90.99</FP>
          <FP>7113.11.10</FP>
          <FP>7113.11.20</FP>
          <FP>7113.19.10</FP>
          <FP>7113.19.30</FP>
          <FP>7113.20.10</FP>
          <FP>7113.20.30</FP>
          <FP>7113.20.50</FP>
          <FP>7202.11.10</FP>
          <FP>7202.19.10</FP>
          <FP>7202.19.50</FP>
          <FP>7202.41.00</FP>
          <FP>7202.49.50</FP>
          <FP>7202.80.00</FP>
          <FP>7202.99.10</FP>
          <FP>7307.11.00</FP>
          <FP>7307.19.30</FP>
          <FP>7307.21.10</FP>
          <FP>7307.22.10</FP>
          <FP>7307.22.50</FP>
          <FP>7307.23.00</FP>
          <FP>7307.29.00</FP>
          <FP>7307.91.10</FP>
          <FP>7307.92.30</FP>
          <FP>7307.92.90</FP>
          <FP>7307.93.60</FP>
          <FP>7307.93.90</FP>
          <FP>7307.99.10</FP>
          <FP>7307.99.30</FP>
          <FP>7307.99.50</FP>
          <FP>7308.10.00</FP>
          <FP>7308.20.00</FP>
          <FP>7308.30.10</FP>
          <FP>7308.30.50</FP>
          <FP>7308.40.00</FP>
          <FP>7318.12.00</FP>
          <FP>7318.13.00</FP>
          <FP>7318.15.60</FP>
          <FP>7318.15.80</FP>
          <FP>7318.19.00</FP>
          <FP>7318.21.00</FP>
          <FP>7318.24.00</FP>
          <FP>7318.29.00</FP>
          <FP>7320.10.30</FP>
          <FP>7320.10.90</FP>
          <FP>7320.20.10</FP>
          <FP>7320.20.50</FP>
          <FP>7320.90.50</FP>
          <FP>7323.91.50</FP>
          <FP>7323.93.00</FP>
          <FP>7323.94.00</FP>
          <FP>7323.99.30</FP>
          <FP>7323.99.70</FP>
          <FP>7323.99.90</FP>
          <FP>7325.91.00</FP>
          <FP>7325.99.50</FP>
          <FP>7326.19.00</FP>
          <FP>7326.20.00</FP>
          <FP>7326.90.60</FP>
          <FP>7326.90.85</FP>
          <FP>7606.11.30</FP>
          <FP>7606.11.60</FP>
          <FP>7606.12.30</FP>
          <FP>7606.12.60</FP>
          <FP>7606.91.30</FP>
          <FP>7606.91.60</FP>
          <FP>7606.92.30</FP>
          <FP>7606.92.60</FP>
          <FP>7609.00.00</FP>
          <FP>7615.11.00</FP>
          <FP>7615.19.10</FP>
          <FP>7615.19.30</FP>
          <FP>7615.19.50</FP>
          <FP>7615.19.70</FP>
          <FP>7615.19.90</FP>
          <FP>7615.20.00</FP>
          <FP>7616.10.10</FP>
          <FP>7616.10.30</FP>
          <FP>7616.10.50</FP>
          <FP>7616.10.70</FP>
          <FP>7616.10.90</FP>
          <FP>7616.91.00</FP>
          <FP>7616.99.50</FP>
          <FP>8203.20.20</FP>
          <FP>8203.20.60</FP>
          <FP>8203.20.80</FP>
          <FP>8203.40.30</FP>
          <FP>8203.40.60</FP>
          <FP>8204.11.00</FP>
          <FP>8204.12.00</FP>
          <FP>8204.20.00</FP>
          <FP>8205.10.00</FP>
          <FP>8205.20.30</FP>
          <FP>8205.30.30</FP>
          <FP>8205.30.60</FP>
          <FP>8205.40.00</FP>
          <FP>8205.51.30</FP>
          <FP>8205.51.60</FP>
          <FP>8205.51.75</FP>
          <FP>8205.59.10</FP>
          <FP>8205.59.45</FP>
          <FP>8205.59.55</FP>
          <FP>8205.59.70</FP>
          <FP>8205.59.80</FP>
          <FP>8205.60.00</FP>
          <FP>8205.70.00</FP>
          <FP>8207.13.00</FP>
          <FP>8207.19.30</FP>
          <FP>8207.19.60</FP>
          <FP>8207.30.30</FP>
          <FP>8207.30.60</FP>
          <FP>8207.40.30</FP>
          <FP>8207.40.60</FP>
          <FP>8207.50.20</FP>
          <FP>8207.50.40</FP>
          <FP>8207.50.60</FP>
          <FP>8207.50.80</FP>
          <FP>8207.60.00</FP>
          <FP>8207.70.30</FP>
          <FP>8207.70.60</FP>
          <FP>8207.80.30</FP>
          <FP>8207.80.60</FP>
          <FP>8207.90.15</FP>
          <FP>8207.90.30</FP>
          <FP>8207.90.45</FP>
          <FP>8207.90.60</FP>
          <FP>8207.90.75</FP>
          <FP>8413.30.90</FP>
          <FP>8413.91.10</FP>
          <FP>8466.10.80</FP>
          <FP>8466.20.10</FP>
          <FP>8466.20.80</FP>
          <FP>8466.30.10</FP>
          <FP>8466.30.60</FP>
          <FP>8466.30.80</FP>
          <FP>8466.92.50</FP>
          <FP>8466.93.30</FP>
          <FP>8466.93.53</FP>
          <FP>8466.93.75</FP>
          <FP>8466.93.95</FP>
          <FP>8466.94.65</FP>
          <FP>8466.94.85</FP>
          <FP>8483.10.10</FP>
          <FP>8483.10.30<PRTPAGE P="5523"/>
          </FP>
          <FP>8483.20.40</FP>
          <FP>8483.30.40</FP>
          <FP>8483.40.50</FP>
          <FP>8483.40.70</FP>
          <FP>8483.40.80</FP>
          <FP>8483.40.90</FP>
          <FP>8483.50.40</FP>
          <FP>8483.50.60</FP>
          <FP>8483.50.90</FP>
          <FP>8483.60.40</FP>
          <FP>8483.90.10</FP>
          <FP>8483.90.20</FP>
          <FP>8483.90.50</FP>
          <FP>8501.10.20</FP>
          <FP>8501.10.40</FP>
          <FP>8501.10.60</FP>
          <FP>8501.20.20</FP>
          <FP>8501.20.40</FP>
          <FP>8501.20.50</FP>
          <FP>8501.20.60</FP>
          <FP>8501.31.20</FP>
          <FP>8501.31.40</FP>
          <FP>8501.31.50</FP>
          <FP>8501.31.60</FP>
          <FP>8501.31.80</FP>
          <FP>8501.32.20</FP>
          <FP>8501.32.60</FP>
          <FP>8501.33.30</FP>
          <FP>8501.33.40</FP>
          <FP>8501.33.60</FP>
          <FP>8501.34.30</FP>
          <FP>8501.34.60</FP>
          <FP>8501.40.20</FP>
          <FP>8501.40.40</FP>
          <FP>8501.40.50</FP>
          <FP>8501.40.60</FP>
          <FP>8501.51.20</FP>
          <FP>8501.51.40</FP>
          <FP>8501.51.50</FP>
          <FP>8501.51.60</FP>
          <FP>8501.52.40</FP>
          <FP>8501.53.60</FP>
          <FP>8501.53.80</FP>
          <FP>8501.61.00</FP>
          <FP>8501.62.00</FP>
          <FP>8501.63.00</FP>
          <FP>8501.64.00</FP>
          <FP>8543.19.00</FP>
          <FP>8543.20.00</FP>
          <FP>8543.30.00</FP>
          <FP>8543.40.00</FP>
          <FP>8543.89.40</FP>
          <FP>8543.89.60</FP>
          <FP>8543.89.70</FP>
          <FP>8543.89.80</FP>
          <FP>8543.89.96</FP>
          <FP>8543.90.15</FP>
          <FP>8543.90.35</FP>
          <FP>8543.90.68</FP>
          <FP>8543.90.88</FP>
          <FP>8544.11.00</FP>
          <FP>8544.19.00</FP>
          <FP>8544.20.00</FP>
          <FP>8544.41.80</FP>
          <FP>8544.49.80</FP>
          <FP>8544.51.90</FP>
          <FP>8544.59.20</FP>
          <FP>8544.59.40</FP>
          <FP>8544.60.20</FP>
          <FP>8544.60.40</FP>
          <FP>8544.60.60</FP>
          <FP>8708.10.30</FP>
          <FP>8708.10.60</FP>
          <FP>8708.21.00</FP>
          <FP>8708.29.10</FP>
          <FP>8708.29.15</FP>
          <FP>8708.29.20</FP>
          <FP>8708.29.50</FP>
          <FP>8708.31.50</FP>
          <FP>8708.39.50</FP>
          <FP>8708.40.10</FP>
          <FP>8708.40.20</FP>
          <FP>8708.50.50</FP>
          <FP>8708.50.80</FP>
          <FP>8708.60.50</FP>
          <FP>8708.70.45</FP>
          <FP>8708.80.30</FP>
          <FP>8708.80.45</FP>
        </EXTRACT>
        
      </SUPLINF>
      <FRDOC>[FR Doc. 01-1645 Filed 1-16-01; 2:41 pm]</FRDOC>
      <BILCOD>BILLING CODE 3190-01-U</BILCOD>
    </NOTICE>
  </NOTICES>
  <VOL>66</VOL>
  <NO>13</NO>
  <DATE>Friday, January 19, 2001</DATE>
  <UNITNAME>Presidential Documents</UNITNAME>
  <PRESDOCS>
    <PRESDOCU>
      <EXECORD>
        <TITLE3>Title 3—</TITLE3>
        <PRES>The President<PRTPAGE P="5421"/>
        </PRES>
        <EXECORDR>Executive Order 13189 of January 15, 2001</EXECORDR>
        <HD SOURCE="HED">Federal Interagency Task Force on the District of Columbia</HD>
        <FP>By the authority vested in me as President by the Constitution and the laws of the United States of America, and in order to further the revitalization of, and to improve prospects for the success of “home rule” in the District of Columbia, the Nation's Capital, it is hereby ordered as follows:</FP>
        <FP>
          <E T="04">Section 1.</E>
          <E T="03">Background and Policy.</E>The District of Columbia is the Nation's Capital, and the Federal Government is the largest employer, landholder, and purchaser in the region. The Executive Office of the President has established and maintained an interest in fostering the Federal relationship with the District of Columbia since 1963. This Administration has long sought to strengthen the relationship between the Federal Government and the District of Columbia by initiating a historic restructuring of this relationship. At the request of the President, in 1995, the Federal D.C. Interagency Task Force, chaired by the Director of the Office of Management and Budget, and directed by the Special Advisor to the President and Executive Director of the Federal D.C. Interagency Task Force, was created to revitalize the District of Columbia and improve prospects for “home rule” to succeed in the Nation's Capital. The Federal D.C. Interagency Task Force Office has worked with Federal agencies, the Congress, and local officials to promote long-term financial stability, economic growth, and opportunity for self-government for the District of Columbia. In 1997, the President signed into law the National Capital Revitalization and Self-Government Improvement Act of 1997, under which the Federal Government undertook certain responsibilities and governmental functions befitting a State or county government. Also in 1997, the President signed into law tax incentives designed to spur economic growth in the District of Columbia.</FP>
        <FP>It is the policy of this Administration, therefore, to build on the momentum of the accomplishments over the last 5 years by formally establishing the Federal D.C. Interagency Task Force to further assist the District of Columbia in achieving financial stability, economic growth, and improvement in management and service delivery.</FP>
        <FP>
          <E T="04">Sec. 2.</E>
          <E T="03">Establishment of the Federal Interagency Task Force on the District of Columbia.</E>
        </FP>
        <P>(a) There is established the “Federal Interagency Task Force on the District of Columbia” (Task Force).</P>
        <P>(b) The Task Force shall be composed of the following members:</P>
        <FP SOURCE="FP1">(1) The Attorney General;</FP>
        <FP SOURCE="FP1">(2) The Secretary of Housing and Urban Development;</FP>
        <FP SOURCE="FP1">(3) The Secretary of Health and Human Services;</FP>
        <FP SOURCE="FP1">(4) The Secretary of Labor;</FP>
        <FP SOURCE="FP1">(5) The Secretary of Transportation;</FP>
        <FP SOURCE="FP1">(6) The Secretary of the Treasury;</FP>
        <FP SOURCE="FP1">(7) The Administrator of General Services;</FP>
        <FP SOURCE="FP1">(8) The Secretary of Education;</FP>
        <FP SOURCE="FP1">(9) The Secretary of the Interior;</FP>

        <FP SOURCE="FP1">(10) The Administrator of the Environmental Protection Agency;<PRTPAGE P="5422"/>
        </FP>
        <FP SOURCE="FP1">(11) The Secretary of Commerce;</FP>
        <FP SOURCE="FP1">(12) The Secretary of Agriculture;</FP>
        <FP SOURCE="FP1">(13) The Director of the Office of Management and Budget;</FP>
        <FP SOURCE="FP1">(14) The Administrator of the Small Business Administration;</FP>
        <FP SOURCE="FP1">(15) The Commissioner of the Social Security;</FP>
        <FP SOURCE="FP1">(16) The Secretary of Energy;</FP>
        <FP SOURCE="FP1">(17) The Director of the Office of Personnel Management; and</FP>
        <FP SOURCE="FP1">(18) Such other members as the Director of the Office of Management and Budget may provide (including the Director of the Court Services and Offender Supervision Agency, which office is located in the Department of Justice.)</FP>
        <P>(c) The Task Force shall be chaired by the Director of the Office of Management and Budget (Director). The Director may appoint an Assistant Director or other senior official to assist in the management of the Task Force.</P>
        <P>(d) The Office of Management and Budget shall provide administrative support for the Task Force. To the extent permitted by law, other executive departments and agencies may provide such staff, resources, and information as may be required in carrying out the provisions of this order.</P>
        <P>(e) The Director shall develop, review, modify, and, as appropriate, implement program recommendations, in cooperation with the appropriate elected Federal and local officials and agencies, to promote long-term financial stability, economic growth, and opportunity for self-government for the District of Columbia.</P>
        <P>(f) To the extent permitted by law, the Task Force staff shall communicate with Federal and local elected officials as early in program planning cycles as reasonably feasible, to develop and explain specific Federal and local plans and program actions.</P>
        <FP>
          <E T="04">Sec. 3.</E>
          <E T="03">Purpose.</E>The purpose of the Interagency Task Force will be to coordinate and better leverage Administration efforts and initiatives for the District of Columbia in concert with local and regional initiatives to improve the long-term financial stability of the Nation's Capital and to improve self-governance. The Director's designee shall serve as liaison between the executive branch and the executive, legislative, and judicial branches of government of the District of Columbia, as well as the private sector.</FP>
        <FP>
          <E T="04">Sec. 4.</E>
          <E T="03">Responsibilities.</E>To the extent permitted by law, the Interagency Task Force shall:</FP>
        <P>(a) formulate and recommend interagency compacts and cooperative agreements between Federal agencies and the District of Columbia;</P>
        <P>(b) develop, on a continuing basis, a comprehensive and coordinated plan to establish priorities to promote long-term financial stability, economic growth, and opportunity for self-government for the District of Columbia;</P>
        <P>(c) provide for an understanding by the public of the needs and assets of the District of Columbia;</P>
        <P>(d) support District efforts to encourage economic growth in the District of Columbia;</P>
        <P>(e) serve as the focal point and coordinating unit for Federal programs, technical assistance, and other support for the District of Columbia; and</P>
        <P>(f) provide a forum for consideration of problems within the District of Columbia and propose and effectuate solutions.</P>
        <FP>
          <E T="04">Sec. 5.</E>
          <E T="03">Assistance to Economically Distressed Areas.</E>Members of the Task Force, to the extent permitted by law and within existing budgetary resources, shall provide targeted assistance to economically distressed areas within the District of Columbia and to projects that require economic development<PRTPAGE P="5423"/>assistance. To the extent permitted by law, members of the Task Force shall also participate in comprehensive neighborhood revitalization initiatives requiring Federal assistance, including programs organized by the government of the District of Columbia, and collaborative efforts organized by private organizations, such as the Anacostia Best Practices initiative.</FP>
        <FP>
          <E T="04">Sec. 6.</E>
          <E T="03">Local Accommodation.</E>To the extent permitted by law, the Federal Interagency Task Force shall make efforts to accommodate the concerns of local elected officials in proposing Federal technical or other assistance.</FP>
        <FP>
          <E T="04">Sec. 7.</E>
          <E T="03">Judicial Review.</E>This order does not create any right or benefit, substantive or procedural, enforceable by law against the United States, its officers, its employees, or any other person.</FP>
        <PSIG>wj</PSIG>
        <PLACE>THE WHITE HOUSE,</PLACE>
        <DATE>January 15, 2001.</DATE>
        <FRDOC>[FR Doc. 01-1813</FRDOC>
        <FILED>Filed 1-18-01; 8:45 am]</FILED>
        <BILCOD>Billing code 3195-01-P</BILCOD>
      </EXECORD>
    </PRESDOCU>
  </PRESDOCS>
  <VOL>66</VOL>
  <NO>13</NO>
  <DATE>Friday, January 19, 2001</DATE>
  <UNITNAME>Presidential Documents</UNITNAME>
  <PRESDOC>
    <PRESDOCU>
      <EXECORD>
        <PRTPAGE P="5424"/>
        <EXECORDR>Executive Order 13190 of January 15, 2001</EXECORDR>
        <HD SOURCE="HED">President's Commission on Educational Resource Equity</HD>
        <FP>By the authority vested in me as President by the Constitution and the laws of the United States of America, including the Federal Advisory Committee Act, as amended (5 U.S.C. App.), it is hereby ordered as follows:</FP>
        <FP>
          <E T="04">Section 1.</E>
          <E T="03">Policy.</E>A quality education is essential to the success of every child in the 21st century and to the continued strength and prosperity of our Nation. Our Nation has embraced the goal of promoting high educational standards for all children and increasing accountability in education. Although we know it is crucial that all children have access to the educational resources and opportunity necessary to achieve high standards, long-standing gaps in access to educational resources exist, including disparities based on race and ethnicity. These gaps limit the ability of individuals, as well as our Nation, to reach their full potential. Therefore, it is the policy of this Administration that our Nation undertake appropriate steps to understand fully the current status of resource equity in education and to identify and implement strategies at the local, State, and national levels that will ensure that all students have a full and equal opportunity to succeed.</FP>
        <FP>
          <E T="04">Sec. 2.</E>
          <E T="03">Establishment.</E>To carry out this policy, there is established the “President's Commission on Educational Resource Equity” (Commission). The Commission shall be composed of not more than 13 members appointed by the President from the public and private sectors. The members may include current and former Federal, State, and local government officials, corporate and foundation leaders, recognized education and civil rights experts, educational practitioners, and others with experience and expertise in educational resource equity. The President shall designate from among the Commission members such official or officials to be chairperson or chairpersons, as he shall deem appropriate.</FP>
        <FP>
          <E T="04">Sec. 3.</E>
          <E T="03">Duties and Commission Report.</E>(a) The Commission shall collect and review information about the current status of gaps in the availability of educational resources, including the underlying causes and effects of such resource gaps. The Commission shall, as appropriate, invite experts and communities to provide information and guidance in furtherance of their duties.</FP>
        <P>(b) Not later than August 31, 2001, the Commission shall prepare and submit a report for the President and the Congress on the issue of resource equity in education. The report shall include, but not be limited to:</P>
        <FP SOURCE="FP1">(i) An analysis of the status of resource equity in education with regard to such factors as finances, staff, facilities, instructional programs, and support services, taking into account, as appropriate, differences in costs and needs for different students and communities;</FP>
        <FP SOURCE="FP1">(ii) An analysis of how resource gaps in education affect the success of individuals and our Nation;</FP>
        <FP SOURCE="FP1">(iii) An examination of the effectiveness of targeted Federal resources toward disadvantaged students and low-income schools as compared with the provision of State and local resources toward disadvantaged students and low-income schools;</FP>

        <FP SOURCE="FP1">(iv) A summary of best practices with regard to overcoming gaps in the availability of educational resources; and<PRTPAGE P="5425"/>
        </FP>
        <FP SOURCE="FP1">(v) Short- and long-term recommendations for educational policy makers, including local, State, and Federal officials, to achieve resource equity in education.</FP>
        <FP>
          <E T="04">Sec. 4.</E>
          <E T="03">Administration, Compensation, and Termination.</E>(a) The Department of Education shall, to the extent permitted by law, provide administrative support and funding for the Commission.</FP>
        <P>(b) Members of the Commission shall serve without compensation, but while engaged in the work of the Commission, members appointed from among private citizens of the United States shall be allowed travel expenses, including per diem in lieu of subsistence, as authorized by law for persons serving intermittently in the Government service (5 U.S.C. 5701-5707) to the extent funds are available for such purposes.</P>
        <P>(c) The functions of the President under the Federal Advisory Committee Act, as amended, except that of reporting to the Congress, that are applicable to the Commission, shall be performed by the Department of Education in accordance with the guidelines that have been issued by the Administrator of General Services.</P>
        <P>(d) The chairperson (or chairpersons) may from time to time prescribe such rules, procedures, and policies relating to the activities of the Commission as are not inconsistent with law or with the provisions of this order.</P>
        <P>(e) The Commission shall terminate 30 days after submitting its final report, unless extended by the President.</P>
        <PSIG>wj</PSIG>
        <PLACE>THE WHITE HOUSE,</PLACE>
        <DATE>January 15, 2001.</DATE>
        <FRDOC>[FR Doc. 01-1814</FRDOC>
        <FILED>Filed 1-18-01; 8:45 am]</FILED>
        <BILCOD>Billing code 3195-01-P</BILCOD>
      </EXECORD>
    </PRESDOCU>
  </PRESDOC>
  <VOL>66</VOL>
  <NO>13</NO>
  <DATE>Friday, January 19, 2001</DATE>
  <UNITNAME>CORRECTIONS</UNITNAME>
  <CORRECT>
    <EDITOR>Diedra</EDITOR>
    <PREAMB>
      <PRTPAGE P="5524"/>
      <AGENCY TYPE="F">ENVIRONMENTAL PROTECTION AGENCY</AGENCY>
      <CFR>40 CFR Parts 122 and 412</CFR>
      <DEPDOC>[FRL-6921-4]</DEPDOC>
      <RIN>RIN 2040-AD19</RIN>
      <SUBJECT>National Pollutant Discharge Elimination System Permit Regulation and Effluent Limitations Guidelines and Standards for Concentrated Animal Feeding Operations</SUBJECT>
    </PREAMB>
    <SUPLINF>
      <HD SOURCE="HD2">Correction</HD>
      <P>In proposed rule document 01-1 beginning on page 2960 in the issue of Friday, January 12, 2001, make the following correction:</P>
      <P>On page 2960, in the second column, in the<E T="02">DATES</E>section, “May 2, 2001” should read “May 14, 2001”.</P>
      
    </SUPLINF>
    <FRDOC>[FR Doc. C1-1 Filed 1-18-01; 8:45 am]</FRDOC>
    <BILCOD>BILLING CODE 1505-01-D</BILCOD>
  </CORRECT>
  <VOL>66</VOL>
  <NO>13</NO>
  <DATE>Friday, January 19, 2001</DATE>
  <UNITNAME>Rules and Regulations</UNITNAME>
  <NEWPART>
    <PTITLE>
      <PRTPAGE P="5525"/>
      <PARTNO>Part II</PARTNO>
      <AGENCY TYPE="P">Department of Labor</AGENCY>
      <SUBAGY>Mine Safety and Health Administration</SUBAGY>
      <HRULE/>
      <CFR>30 CFR Part 72</CFR>
      <TITLE>Diesel Particulate Matter Exposure of Underground Coal Miners; Final Rule</TITLE>
      <HRULE/>
      <CFR>30 CFR Part 57</CFR>

      <TITLE>Diesel Particulate Matter Exposure of Undergound Metal and Nonmetal Miners; Final R<PRTPAGE P="5526"/>ule</TITLE>
    </PTITLE>
    <RULES>
      <RULE>
        <PREAMB>
          <AGENCY TYPE="S">DEPARTMENT OF LABOR</AGENCY>
          <SUBAGY>Mine Safety and Health Administration</SUBAGY>
          <CFR>30 CFR Part 72</CFR>
          <RIN>RIN 1219-AA74</RIN>
          <SUBJECT>Diesel Particulate Matter Exposure of Underground Coal Miners</SUBJECT>
          <AGY>
            <HD SOURCE="HED">AGENCY:</HD>
            <P>Mine Safety and Health Administration (MSHA), Labor.</P>
          </AGY>
          <ACT>
            <HD SOURCE="HED">ACTION:</HD>
            <P>Final rule.</P>
          </ACT>
          <SUM>
            <HD SOURCE="HED">SUMMARY:</HD>
            <P>This rule establishes new health standards for underground coal mines that use equipment powered by diesel engines.</P>
            <P>This rule is designed to reduce the risks to underground coal miners of serious health hazards that are associated with exposure to high concentrations of diesel particulate matter (dpm). DPM is a very small particle in diesel exhaust. Underground miners are exposed to far higher concentrations of this fine particulate than any other group of workers. The best available evidence indicates that such high exposures put these miners at excess risk of a variety of adverse health effects, including lung cancer.</P>
            <P>The final rule for underground coal mines would require that the dpm emissions from certain pieces of equipment be restricted to prescribed levels. Underground coal mine operators would also be required to train miners about the hazards of dpm exposure.</P>
            <P>By separate notice, MSHA will publish a rule to reduce dpm exposures in underground coal mines.</P>
          </SUM>
          <EFFDATE>
            <HD SOURCE="HED">DATES:</HD>
            <P>The provisions of the final rule are effective March 20, 2001. However, § 72.500(b) will not apply until July 19, 2002; §72.501(b) will not apply until July 21, 2003; and, §72.501(c) will not apply until January 19, 2005.</P>
          </EFFDATE>
          <FURINF>
            <HD SOURCE="HED">FOR FURTHER INFORMATION CONTACT:</HD>
            <P>David L. Meyer, Director, Office of Standards, Regulations, and Variances, MSHA, 4015 Wilson Boulevard, Arlington, VA 22203-1984. Mr. Meyer can be reached at dmeyer@msha.gov (Internet E-mail), 703-235-1910 (voice), or 703-235-5551 (fax). You may obtain copies of the final rule in alternative formats by calling this number. The alternative formats available are either a large print version of the final rule or the final rule in an electronic file on computer disk. The final rule also is available on the Internet at http://www.msha.gov/REGSINFO.HTM.</P>
          </FURINF>
        </PREAMB>
        <SUPLINF>
          <HD SOURCE="HED">SUPPLEMENTARY INFORMATION:</HD>
          <HD SOURCE="HD1">I. Key Features of MSHA's Final Rule Limiting the Concentration of Diesel Particulate Matter (DPM) in Underground Coal Mines</HD>
          <HD SOURCE="HD2">(1) What are the requirements for permissible equipment?</HD>
          <P>Permissible equipment must not emit more than 2.5 grams per hour of dpm, as measured in a laboratory test. Any permissible equipment that is added to a mine's inventory underground more than 60 days after the date this rule is published will have to meet this standard upon introduction. This includes newly purchased equipment, used equipment, or a piece of equipment receiving a replacement engine with a different serial number than the engine it is replacing, including engines or equipment coming from one mine into another. It does not include a piece of equipment whose engine was previously part of the mine's inventory and rebuilt.</P>
          <P>Within 18 months from the date the rule is issued, the entire permissible fleet must meet this standard.</P>

          <P>The rule leaves the choice of controls used to achieve the emissions limit to operators. Operators may use any combination of controls (<E T="03">e.g.,</E>cleaner engine, OCC, filter) to meet the emissions standard specified in this section.</P>
          <P>As a practical matter, MSHA expects that to comply with this standard, most permissible equipment will be equipped with a paper filter. As explained in Part IV of this preamble, MSHA has verified that there are commercially available paper filters which will allow 99% of the existing 541 units in the permissible fleet to meet this requirement—including permissible units powered by the Deutz MWM 916, the Caterpillar 3304 and the Caterpillar 3306. Commercially available paper filters capable of bringing the emissions of these units into compliance include a model which can be installed directly on the exhaust coming from a water scrubber or on the exhaust coming from a heat exchanger, as well as the integrated DST® system. Other filters which use paper with the same performance characteristics will also be acceptable. Control devices whose dpm removal efficiency has not been demonstrated by laboratory testing on a diesel engine can be evaluated following the procedures in 30 CFR 72.503 of this part added by this rulemaking. Moreover, the rule provides that MSHA may rely upon the test results of other organizations who perform equivalent tests.</P>
          <P>MSHA will publish on its web site a list of tested control devices and their performance. Compliance will be determined by reference to this data—there will be no in-mine testing.</P>
          <P>The only engine which might not be able to meet these requirements for dpm emissions from permissible equipment with a paper filter is the Isuzu QD-100. MSHA's inventory indicates there are currently only two units of permissible equipment using this engine; however, these two units can comply at a derated power setting.</P>

          <P>The engines currently approved for permissible use are generally high in particulate emissions. MSHA is committed to taking actions which will facilitate the approval for permissible use of the lower-emission engines which have become available in recent years. These actions could include waiving test fees, contracting for the performance of such tests, or on an interim basis permitting the use of an engine approved for nonpermissible use in a permissible package. MSHA will solicit input from the mining community, through a<E T="04">Federal Register</E>notice as it considers how to proceed in this regard.</P>
          <HD SOURCE="HD2">(2) What are the requirements for heavy-duty non-permissible equipment?</HD>
          <P>Non-permissible heavy duty equipment will ultimately not be permitted under the final rule to emit more than 2.5 grams per hour of dpm. For reasons of feasibility, this requirement will be implemented in phases.</P>
          <P>Any heavy duty equipment added to a mine's inventory more than 60 days after the date of publication of this rule will have to comply with an interim emissions limit for that machine of 5.0 gr/hr. This includes newly purchased equipment, used equipment, or a piece of equipment receiving a replacement engine with a different serial number than the engine it is replacing, including engines or equipment coming from one mine into another. It does not include a piece of equipment whose engine was previously part of the mine's inventory and rebuilt.</P>
          <P>All heavy duty equipment in the fleet must meet the interim standard of 5.0 grams per hour of dpm in 30 months.</P>
          <P>Finally, another 18 months later (4 years in all), all nonpermissible heavy duty equipment in the fleet will have to meet the final standard of 2.5 grams per hour of dpm.</P>

          <P>As with permissible equipment, the rule leaves the choice of controls used to achieve the emissions limit to operators. Any combination of controls (<E T="03">e.g.,</E>cleaner engine, OCC, filter) can be used as long as compliance with the standard specified in this section is met.<PRTPAGE P="5527"/>
          </P>

          <P>As a practical matter, MSHA believes that most existing heavy duty equipment will utilize commercially available hot gas filters (<E T="03">e.g.,</E>ceramic cell, wound fiber, sintered metal, etc.) to comply with the final limit. All the existing fleet can reach the interim limit with such a filter; some will not need one. MSHA determined that all but a few can reach the final limit with such a filter.</P>
          <P>The rule provides that MSHA may rely upon the test results of organizations who perform filtration efficiency tests. In this regard, MSHA will accept the results of filter tests performed by VERT. VERT is an acronym for Verminderung der Emissionen von Realmaschinen in Tunnelbau, a consortium of several European agencies conducting diesel emission research in connection with major planned tunneling projects in Austria, Switzerland and Germany. VERT was established to advance hot gas filter technology due to concerns in Europe about dpm levels. This gave VERT the opportunity to acquire the necessary filter evaluation expertise. A wide range of commercially available hot gas filters have been tested by VERT and the filtration efficiency determined. The Secretary may also accept filter efficiency test results from other testing organizations that can demonstrate a high level of expertise in filter evaluation (see § 72.503(c) of the final rule).</P>
          <P>Operators using the DST” system with the catalytic convertor on heavy duty equipment, or the Jeffrey dry exhaust system, will also be deemed in compliance with the final rule, since test results conducted in the same manner as the requirement in the final rule demonstrate that those systems can reduce the emissions from all existing heavy duty engines to below the limit. Filtration devices whose filter efficiency has not been demonstrated by testing on a diesel engine can be evaluated following the procedures in 30 CFR 72.503 of this part added by this rulemaking.</P>
          <P>MSHA will publish on its web site a list of tested control devices and their performance. Compliance will be determined by reference to this data—there will be no in-mine testing.</P>
          <P>The standard may also be met through the use of newer, cleaner engines in some heavy duty equipment with low horsepower engines. There are already many engines approved for non-permissible use in underground coal mines that will enable heavy duty equipment to limit emissions, thus allowing the use of lower efficiency filters. MSHA is also considering approaches that would expedite the approval of additional engines based on evidence that such engines meet EPA standards which ensure the engines are at least as clean as required under MSHA approval standards.</P>
          <HD SOURCE="HD2">(3) What are the requirements for generators and compressors?</HD>
          <P>The final rule provides that generators and compressors meet the same dpm emissions standards as heavy duty equipment. Thus, generators and compressors will ultimately not be permitted to emit more than 2.5 grams per hour of dpm. Generators and compressors introduced into the fleet of an underground coal mine more than 60 days after the final rule is published will have to meet an interim emissions limit of 5.0 g/hr. Generators and compressors in the existing fleet will have 30 months to meet the interim standard of 5.0 grams per hour of dpm. After an additional 18 months (4 years in all), all generators and compressors underground will have to meet the final standard of 2.5 grams per hour of dpm.</P>
          <P>Although the proposed rule would not have covered generators and compressors, MSHA explicitly asked the mining community if there were types of light duty equipment that should, because of operating characteristics, be treated like heavy duty equipment. Generators and compressors generate more dpm emissions than other light-duty equipment based on their known duty cycle and type of work for which they are designed; indeed, they use engines whose horsepower often exceeds that in permissible equipment. Accordingly, MSHA has determined they should be covered by this rulemaking.</P>
          <P>MSHA's inventory indicates that the 34 generators and 29 compressors constitute less than 3% of the underground light duty diesel fleet. The existing compressors are using engines which should meet the standard's interim and final requirements with a commercially available hot gas filter.</P>
          <P>Generators and compressors will be able to utilize the same technologies as heavy duty machines to comply with this standard. This will include hot gas filters or paper filters, as appropriate. Smaller generators and compressors may utilize the clean engine technologies.</P>
          <HD SOURCE="HD2">(4) What are the requirements for other nonpermissible equipment?</HD>
          <P>The final rule provides that any piece of nonpermissible light-duty equipment introduced into an underground coal mine more than 60 days after the date of publication of the rule must not emit more than 5.0 grams per hour of dpm. This includes newly purchased equipment, used equipment, or a piece of equipment receiving a replacement engine with a different serial number than the engine it is replacing, including engines or equipment coming from one mine into another, but it does not include a piece of equipment whose engine was previously part of the mine's inventory and rebuilt.</P>
          <P>The final rule does not impose any new requirements on the existing nonpermissible light-duty fleet (except for generators and compressors as noted above).</P>
          <P>While new light duty equipment would not have been covered by the proposed rule, MSHA explicitly asked the mining community if it would be feasible to cover such new light duty equipment, even if it were not feasible to set limits for all light duty equipment. MSHA has determined that it is feasible to require that newly introduced light duty equipment meet the same 5 gr/hr standard as new heavy duty equipment.</P>
          <P>To facilitate compliance with this standard, light duty equipment which uses an engine meeting certain EPA standards listed in the MSHA rule will be deemed to automatically meet the MSHA dpm standard for newly introduced light-duty equipment. For example, any “heavy duty highway engine” produced after 1994 will be deemed to meet this dpm standard. The agency has determined that there are already MSHA approved engines available in a full range of horsepower sizes that can meet the EPA standards listed in this final rule.</P>
          <P>In practice, what this rule does is simply ensure that very old engines with few, if any, emission controls are not added to a mine's current light duty fleet, thus accelerating the turnover to a newer generation of technology.</P>
          <HD SOURCE="HD2">(5) Is there a summary of the applicable requirements and effective dates?</HD>
          <P>All of the emissions standards established by MSHA's final rule are summarized in Table I-1.</P>
          
          <BILCOD>BILLING CODE 4510-43-P</BILCOD>
          
          <GPH DEEP="310" SPAN="3">
            <PRTPAGE P="5528"/>
            <GID>ER19JA01.000</GID>
          </GPH>
          
          <BILCOD>BILLING CODE 4510-43-C</BILCOD>
          
          <PRTPAGE P="5529"/>
          <HD SOURCE="HD2">(6) What other requirements are contained in the final rule for underground coal mines?</HD>
          <P>Miners have to be trained annually in the risks of dpm exposure and in control methods being used at the mine. Also, certain information about diesel engines and aftertreatment devices has to be added to the mine ventilation plan. The paperwork requirements added by this rule are small—on average, less than 7 hours in the first year and 4 hours per year thereafter for a mine operator that uses diesel powered equipment. Furthermore, manufacturers of diesel powered equipment will incur burden hours only during the first year that the rule is in effect in order to amend existing MSHA approvals. During the first year that the rule is in effect the average manufacturer will incur 70 paperwork burden hours.</P>
          <HD SOURCE="HD2">(7) Will the final rule eliminate any health risks to miners resulting from the use of diesel powered equipment underground?</HD>
          <P>Although the Agency expects that health risks will be substantially reduced by this rule, the best available evidence indicates that a significant risk of adverse health effects due to dpm exposures will remain after the rule is fully implemented.</P>
          <P>MSHA considered establishing stricter standards for certain types of equipment, and covering more light duty equipment, but concluded that such actions would either be technologically or economically infeasible for the coal mining industry as a whole at this time. As MSHA takes actions to facilitate the introduction of newer and cleaner engines underground, and as control technologies continue to develop, additional reductions in dpm levels may become feasible for the industry as a whole. MSHA will continue to monitor developments in this area.</P>
          <HD SOURCE="HD2">(8) What are the costs and benefits of the final rule?</HD>
          <HD SOURCE="HD3">Costs</HD>

          <P>Table I-2 summarizes the compliance costs to mine operators that use diesel powered equipment for each section of the rule; total compliance costs are about $7 million a year. Table I-3 summarizes the compliance costs to mine operators that use diesel powered equipment by mine size (<E T="03">i.e.,</E>mines employing fewer than 20 workers, mines employing between 20 and 500 workers, and mines employing more than 500 workers). In addition, there is a total annualized cost to diesel equipment manufacturers of $30,030.</P>
          <P>MSHA's full Regulatory Economic Analysis, (REA) from which Tables I-2 and I-3 are derived, provides considerable detail on the assumptions MSHA used in developing these cost estimates, and on the costs associated with the controls required for particular engines in the current fleet. For example, MSHA is estimating that for a Caterpillar 3304 PCNA in a heavy duty piece of equipment, an operator will have to spend about $4,500 a year to achieve compliance with the limits for that equipment (hot gas filter, cost annualized, plus annual costs of regeneration). Copies of MSHA's full (REA) analysis are in the record and are available to the mining community upon request.</P>
          
          <BILCOD>BILLING CODE 4510-43-P</BILCOD>
          
          <GPH DEEP="497" SPAN="3">
            <PRTPAGE P="5530"/>
            <GID>ER19JA01.001</GID>
          </GPH>
          
          <BILCOD>BILLING CODE 4510-43-C</BILCOD>
          
          <PRTPAGE P="5531"/>
          <HD SOURCE="HD3">Benefits</HD>
          <P>Benefits of the rule include reductions in lung cancer. In the long run, as the mining population turns over, MSHA estimates that a minimum of 1.8 lung cancer deaths will be avoided per year.<SU>1</SU>
            <FTREF/>
          </P>
          <FTNT>
            <P>
              <SU>1</SU>This lower bound figure could significantly underestimate the magnitude of the health benefits. For example, the estimate based on the mean value of all the studies examined is 13 lung cancer deaths avoided per year.</P>
          </FTNT>
          <P>Benefits of the rule will also include reductions in the risk of death from cardiovascular, cardiopulmonary, or respiratory causes and in sensory irritation and respiratory symptoms. MSHA does not believe that the available data can support reliable or precise quantitative estimates of these benefits. Nevertheless, the expected reductions in the risk of death from cardiovascular, cardiopulmonary, or respiratory causes appear to be significant, and the expected reductions in sensory irritation and respiratory symptoms appear to be rather large.</P>
          <HD SOURCE="HD2">(9) What actions has MSHA taken, and what additional actions does it plan to take, to facilitate compliance with this rule?</HD>
          <P>This rule is a continuation of efforts by MSHA to help the mining community deal with the use of diesel engines in mining. The diesel equipment rule, now in effect, has itself contributed to the reduction of diesel exhaust emissions through the use of low sulfur diesel fuel, the requirement that all engines underground be approved, and improved maintenance. In one case, testimony was presented by a mine operator that timely engine maintenance, triggered by the weekly undiluted exhaust emissions test required by the new regulation, has greatly reduced carbon monoxide emissions from diesel equipment. These properly tuned engines will generate less particulate. MSHA has devoted workshops specifically to dpm control, issued a Toolbox of control methods to assist the mining community in this regard, and developed a computerized Estimator to help individual mines evaluate the impact of alternative approaches of controlling dpm emissions. The agency has verified the efficiency of the current generation of paper filters, and has sponsored work on the measurement of dpm in ambient mine atmospheres.</P>

          <P>This final rule includes certain provisions to facilitate compliance—<E T="03">e.g.,</E>authorizing MSHA to rely on the testing requirements of organizations like VERT, and permitting compliance with certain EPA requirements to be deemed as compliance with the requirements in this rule for newly introduced light duty equipment. The agency is, as described above, planning to take action in consultation with the mining community to facilitate the approval, and in particular the approval for permissible use, of a newer, cleaner generation of diesel engines. The agency will be preparing a compliance guide for this rule, and posting a variety of useful information on its web site. If necessary, additional workshops may be scheduled. In addition, MSHA is ready to provide special technical assistance to those who are planning to bring new engines or equipment underground in the next few months.</P>
          <HD SOURCE="HD2">(10) Are surface mines addressed in this rule?</HD>

          <P>Surface areas of underground mines, and surface mines, are not covered by this rule. In certain situations the concentrations of dpm at surface mines may be a cause for concern:<E T="03">e.g.,</E>production areas where miners work in the open air in close proximity to loader-haulers and trucks powered by older, out-of-tune diesel engines, shops, or other confined spaces where diesel engines are running. The Agency believes, however, that these problems are currently limited and readily controlled through education and technical assistance. The Agency would like to emphasize, however, that surface miners are entitled to the same level of protection as other miners; and the Agency's risk assessment indicates that even short-term exposures to concentrations of dpm like those observed may result in serious health problems. Accordingly, in addition to providing education and technical assistance to surface mines, the Agency will also continue to evaluate the hazards of diesel particulate exposure at surface mines and will take any necessary action, including regulatory action if warranted, to help the mining community minimize any hazards.</P>
          <HD SOURCE="HD1">II. Background Information</HD>
          <P>This part provides the context for this preamble. The nine topics covered are:</P>
          <P>(1) The role of diesel-powered equipment in underground coal mining in the United States;</P>
          <P>(2) The composition of diesel exhaust and diesel particulate matter (dpm);</P>
          <P>(3) The difficulties in measuring ambient dpm in underground coal mines;</P>
          <P>(4) Limiting the public's exposure to diesel and other fine particulates—ambient air quality standards;</P>
          <P>(5) The impact on emissions of MSHA approval standards and environmental tailpipe standards;</P>
          <P>(6) Methods for controlling dpm emissions in underground coal mines;</P>
          <P>(7) Existing standards for underground coal mines that limit miner exposure to diesel emissions;</P>
          <P>(8) Information on how certain states are restricting occupational exposure to diesel particulate matter; and</P>
          <P>(9) A history of this rulemaking.</P>

          <P>Material on these subjects which was available to MSHA at the time of the proposed rulemaking was included in Part II of the preamble that accompanied the proposed rule (63 FR 17501<E T="03">et seq.</E>). This version has been updated to reflect the record, to discuss certain issues relevant to underground coal mines in more detail, and reorganized as appropriate.</P>
          <HD SOURCE="HD2">(1) The Role of Diesel-Powered Equipment in Underground Coal Mining in the United States</HD>
          <P>Diesel engines, first developed about a century ago, now power a full range of mining equipment. However at this time, less than 20% of underground coal mines (fewer than 150 underground coal mines) utilize this technology. Equipment powered by other sources (electrical power delivered by cable or trolley, and battery power) continues to predominate in this mining sector. Moreover, unlike in other mining sectors, most of the current diesel fleet in underground coal mines consists of light-duty support vehicles, and only limited numbers of the equipment used in digging or hauling coal is powered by diesel engines.</P>
          <P>Many in the mining industry believe that diesel-powered equipment has productivity and safety advantages over equipment powered by other sources. Others cite evidence to the contrary, and several key underground coal mining states continue to ban or significantly restrict the use of diesel-powered equipment in underground coal mines. The use of diesel engines to power equipment in underground coal mining is increasing and appears likely to continue to do so absent significant improvement in other power technologies.</P>
          <P>
            <E T="03">Historical Overview of Diesel Power Use in Mining.</E>As discussed in the notice of proposed rulemaking, the diesel engine was developed in 1892 by the German engineer Rudolph Diesel. It was originally intended to burn coal dust with high thermodynamic efficiency. Later, the diesel engine was modified to burn middle distillate petroleum (diesel fuel). In diesel engines, liquid fuel droplets are injected<PRTPAGE P="5532"/>into a prechamber or directly into the cylinder of the engine. Due to compression of air in the cylinder the temperature rises high enough in the cylinder to ignite the fuel.</P>
          <P>The first diesel engines were not suited for many tasks because they were too large and heavy (weighing 450 lbs. per horsepower). It was not until the 1920's that an efficient lightweight diesel power unit was developed. Since diesel engines were built ruggedly and had few operational failures, they were used in the military, railway, farm, construction, trucking, and busing industries. The U.S. mining industry was slow to begin using these engines. Thus, when in 1935 the former U.S. Bureau of Mines published a comprehensive overview on metal mine ventilation (McElroy, 1935), it did not mention ventilation requirements for diesel-powered equipment. By contrast, the European mining community began using these engines in significant numbers, and various reports on the subject were published during the 1930's. According to a 1936 summary of these reports (Rice, 1936), the diesel engine had been introduced into German mines by 1927. By 1936, diesel engines were used extensively in coal mines in Germany, France, Belgium and Great Britain. Diesel engines were also used in potash, iron and other mines in Europe. Their primary use was in locomotives for hauling material.</P>
          <P>It was not until 1939 that the first diesel engine was used in the United States mining industry, when a diesel haulage truck was used in a limestone mine in Pennsylvania, and not until 1946 was a diesel engine used in coal mines. Today, however, diesel engines are used to power a wide variety of equipment in all sectors of U.S. mining. Production equipment includes vehicles such as haultrucks and shuttle cars, load-haul-dump units, face drills, and explosives trucks. Diesel engines are also used in support equipment including generators and air compressors, ambulances, crane trucks, ditch diggers, foam machines, forklifts, graders, locomotives, longwall component carriers, lube units, mine sealant machines, personnel carriers, hydraulic power units, rock dusting machines, roof drills, tractors, utility trucks, water spray units, and welders.</P>
          <P>
            <E T="03">Current Patterns of Diesel Power Use in Underground Coal Mining.</E>The underground coal mining sector is not as reliant upon diesel power as are other mining sectors. While nearly all underground metal and nonmetal mines, and nearly all surface mines, use diesel-powered equipment, less than 20% of underground coal mines use it. Table II-1 provides further information on the current inventory.</P>
          
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          <P>The great majority of the diesel engines used in underground coal mines are used to power support equipment, rather than production equipment. This is in sharp contrast to other sectors. For example, in underground metal and nonmetal mines, of the approximate 4,100 pieces of diesel equipment normally in use at the time of MSHA's proposal, nearly half of the units were estimated to be used for loading and hauling. By contrast, of the approximately 3,000 pieces of diesel equipment in use in underground coal mines, MSHA estimates that fewer than 10% are used for coal loading and haulage. Moreover, because of space constraints and other operating conditions in underground coal mines, virtually all coal loading and hauling equipment has engines less than 200 horsepower; by contrast, virtually all such equipment in metal and nonmetal mines has engines greater than 200 horsepower and ranging to more than 750 horsepower or greater. As a result, the average horsepower of diesel engines powering equipment in underground coal mines is much less than the average engine in underground metal and nonmetal mines and all surface mines. This is significant because, other things being equal, lower horsepower engines are going to produce less dpm emissions by mass than higher horsepower engines.</P>
          <P>The engines in underground coal mines can be divided into three categories recognized under existing MSHA regulations: “permissible”, “heavy-duty nonpermissible”, and “light-duty nonpermissible.” In this final dpm rule, MSHA is establishing different requirements for each of these categories. Accordingly, some background on this categorization is needed.</P>
          <P>
            <E T="03">Use of Diesel Engines in Permissible Equipment.</E>Under existing regulations, equipment, whether powered by diesel engines or electricity, that is used in areas of the mine where methane gas is likely to be present in dangerous concentrations must be MSHA-approved “permissible” equipment.<PRTPAGE P="5533"/>Permissible diesel powered equipment for use in coal mines is provided with special equipment to prevent the ignition of methane. This special equipment includes flame arresters and special treatment of flanges and joints. Since diesel engines normally have very hot surface temperatures and hot exhaust gas that can constitute an ignition source, permissible diesels must be provided with a means to maintain the temperatures of surfaces and the exhaust gas below 302°F.</P>
          <P>MSHA regulations are very specific in defining those areas of the mine where permissible equipment is required. Generally, permissible equipment is required where the coal mining is actually being performed, because the mining process typically liberates methane. These areas are commonly referred to as “inby” areas. In some cases, however, permissible equipment is required to be used in other areas of the mine. For example, only permissible diesel-powered equipment may be used in return aircourses. The permissible equipment provides an additional level of fire protection because of the strict temperature controls on the equipment surface and exhaust. This increased protection is required because of the potential for the accumulation of dangerous levels of methane in these aircourses.</P>
          <P>MSHA's January 2000 inventory indicates that of the 3,121 diesel powered pieces of equipment in underground coal mines, 528 units are permissible pieces. The emissions generated by permissible equipment make a significant contribution to dpm concentrations in the mines where they are functioning. This is because the equipment has large engines, works hard and continuously in locations generally far from ventilation sources, and in close quarters with miners.</P>
          <P>Moreover, the engines which have to date been approved for permissible use are among those which emit the highest levels of dpm (in grams/hour): the Caterpillar 3304, Caterpillar 3306 (available in two horsepower sizes), the Deutz D916-6, and the Isuzu QD-100. The Deutz D916-6 is still used in underground coal mines, however, it is no longer in production. MSHA recently approved the Caterpillar 3306PCTA permissible, the first approved turbocharged engine.</P>
          <P>Diesel engines in the horsepower ratings required to power permissible equipment are now available in new low emissions technology engines. However, none of them has been approved for use on permissible equipment because no applications for MSHA approval have been received. This situation may reflect a lack of adequate incentives for engine and equipment manufacturers to incur the development costs to meet MSHA permissibility requirements or to pay the fees required for approval.</P>
          <P>MSHA is developing programs that would facilitate the availability of engines that utilize the latest technologies to reduce gaseous and particulate emissions for use in permissible equipment. Current engine designs that utilize low emissions technologies are currently approved by MSHA in nonpermissible form.</P>
          <P>One of the programs that MSHA is considering would follow the precedent established in the recently published diesel equipment rule. To facilitate compliance with this dpm rule, MSHA is considering funding the additional emissions testing needed to gain permissibility approval, previously approved, non-permissible engines that utilize low emissions technology engines, or waiving the normal fees that the Agency charges for the administrative and technical evaluation portion of the approval process.</P>
          <P>Alternatively, MSHA may relax, as an interim measure, the requirement that engine approvals be issued only to engine manufacturers. Under this program an equipment manufacturer could utilize an engine, approved by MSHA as nonpermissible, in a permissible power package. MSHA would ensure that the additional emissions tests required for permissible engines are conducted as part of the power package approval process. Provisions of the two programs could be combined.</P>
          <P>While the availability of cleaner engines would help reduce the dpm emissions from the permissible fleet, there are aftertreatment filters available for such equipment that are both highly efficient and relatively low cost. As discussed in more detail in section 6 of this part, because the exhaust temperature of these permissible pieces of equipment must be cooled for safety reasons, aftertreatment devices whose filtration media consists of paper can be directly installed on this equipment. Paper filters exposed to uncooled exhaust pose a fire and ignition hazard.</P>
          <P>
            <E T="03">Use of Diesel Engines in Nonpermissible Equipment.</E>In those areas of an underground coal mine where methane concentrations can be limited through the control of ventilation air, permissible equipment is not required. Generally, this is the case in areas away from the face, often referred to as “outby” areas. Most equipment operating in underground coal mines is “nonpermissible” equipment.</P>
          <P>Nonpermissible equipment is divided into several categories for purposes of the diesel equipment rules that currently apply in underground coal mines (30 CFR part 75). In pertinent part, those rules provide:</P>
          
          <EXTRACT>
            <HD SOURCE="HD3">§ 75.1908Nonpermissible diesel-powered equipment; categories</HD>
            <P>(a) Heavy-duty diesel-powered equipment includes—</P>
            <P>(1) Equipment that cuts or moves rock or coal;</P>
            <P>(2) Equipment that performs drilling or bolting functions;</P>
            <P>(3) Equipment that moves longwall components;</P>
            <P>(4) Self-propelled diesel fuel transportation units and self-propelled lube units; or</P>
            <P>(5) Machines used to transport portable diesel fuel transportation units or portable lube units.</P>
            <P>(b) Light-duty diesel-powered equipment is any diesel-powered equipment that does not meet the criteria of paragraph (a) * * *</P>
            <P>(c) * * *.</P>
            <P>(d) Diesel-powered ambulances and fire fighting equipment are a special category of equipment that may be used underground only in accordance with the mine fire fighting and evacuation plan * * *.</P>
          </EXTRACT>
          
          <P>MSHA's inventory indicates that of the 3,121 diesel powered pieces of equipment, 497 are heavy duty nonpermissible pieces, 66 are generators and air compressors, and 2,030—that is, about two-thirds of the total underground coal diesel fleet at present—are other light duty nonpermissible pieces.</P>
          <P>The rationale for the division of nonpermissible dieselized equipment into these classes requires some background here because in this rulemaking on dpm, MSHA proposed making a significant distinction between the requirements applicable to each class.</P>
          <P>The division resulted from MSHA's 1996 regulation establishing safety rules for the use of dieselized equipment in underground coal mines (the general history and purpose of which are summarized in section 9 of this Part). As discussed in the preamble to the final diesel safety rule (61 FR 55459-61), the purpose of the categorization was to take the diversity of nonpermissible equipment into account in establishing regulatory requirements relevant to safety. The final categorization scheme for nonpermissible equipment developed over the course of time in response to public comments to the proposed rule.</P>

          <P>Equipment falling within the heavy duty category is typically used for extended periods during a shift on a continuous, rather than an intermittent,<PRTPAGE P="5534"/>basis. Heavy duty equipment also moves heavy loads or performs considerable work. Accordingly, to ensure such equipment could operate in a safe manner, the safety rule required that each piece of heavy duty equipment:</P>
          
          <EXTRACT>
            <FP>* * * has to be equipped with an automatic fire suppression system addressing the additional fire risks resulting from the way this equipment is used. Heavy-duty equipment also produces greater levels of gaseous contaminants, and under the final rule is therefore subject to weekly undiluted exhaust emissions tests * * * and is included in the air quantity calculation of ventilation of diesel-powered equipment * * *. (61 FR 55461)</FP>
          </EXTRACT>
          

          <P>It is important to note that there are other types of underground coal mining equipment which, although they have operating characteristics much like heavy duty equipment, were not designated as such under the diesel equipment rule. That is because such equipment (<E T="03">e.g.,</E>generators and compressors) is considered as portable equipment and special requirements were established in that rule to address the hazards presented by that equipment.</P>
          <P>Ambulances and fire-fighting equipment which use diesel engines have operating characteristics like light-duty equipment, but under the diesel equipment rule are considered a special category of equipment that does not have to meet the requirements of that rule. The equipment in this category must only be used in emergencies or fire drills and in compliance with fire fighting and evaluation plan requirements. Consequently, such equipment is not required to have an approved engine or power package or comply with the design and performance requirements of §§ 75.1909 and 75.1910 (61 FR 55461).</P>
          <P>Under the diesel equipment rule, heavy-duty equipment may be used to perform light-duty work; but equipment that is classified as light-duty may not be used, even intermittently, to perform the functions listed in paragraphs (a)(1) through (a)(5) of 30 CFR 75.1908 because it is not required to have the automatic fire suppression system that MSHA determined was necessary for such kinds of work. (Id.) As noted in the preamble, two machines of the same model could fall into different equipment categories depending on how they are used. Although of the same design, they do not present the same risk of fire because of the way in which they are used, nor do they produce the same quantities of exhaust contaminants:</P>
          
          <EXTRACT>
            <FP>“* * * machines that are operated for extended periods of time under heavy load generate more contaminants than machines that are not.” (Id.)</FP>
          </EXTRACT>
          
          <P>It was for this reason—the rate of contaminant generation—that in proposing a rule to limit the concentration of dpm in underground coal mines, MSHA proposed making a distinction between heavy-duty equipment and light-duty equipment. MSHA proposed requiring heavy-duty nonpermissible equipment and permissible equipment to be equipped with filters capable of removing 95% of the dpm emitted by the engines in those pieces of equipment. The proposal did not include any controls for the dpm emitted from light-duty equipment nor for ambulances and fire-fighting equipment. As noted in section 9 of this part, the Agency asked the mining community to comment on the Agency's assumptions and consider some options in this regard. The record on this matter and MSHA's final decision are discussed in Part IV.</P>

          <P>Whether categorized as heavy-duty or light-duty, the engine exhaust from nonpermissible equipment is not required to be cooled for safety reasons like exhaust from permissible equipment. Accordingly, this means that paper-type filters cannot be added directly to nonpermissible equipment without first adding a water scrubber or heat exchanger; otherwise, the paper would burn. As a result, control devices that are designed to filter hot exhaust gases (<E T="03">e.g.,</E>ceramic filters) provide a cost effective alternative for dpm control with nonpermissible equipment.</P>
          <P>
            <E T="03">Does Diesel Power Have Advantages Over Alternative Sources of Power for Equipment Used in Underground Coal Mines?</E>As pointed out by a commenter, a number of power sources for mining equipment have been tried in the mining industry only to be rejected for various reasons (<E T="03">e.g.,</E>gasoline engines, cables, and compressed air). Today, this commenter continued, there are three general ways of powering mining equipment: electric power (delivered by electric trailing cables or by trolley wires), on-board battery power, and diesel. Table II-2 reproduces a list provided by this commenter as to his view of some of the “advantages and challenges” of these power sources; MSHA is reproducing this list as a convenient summary, but does not necessarily agree or disagree with each specific entry.</P>
          
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          <P>Some in the mining industry strongly favor the use of diesel engines to power equipment in underground coal mines. A representative of a company with four underground coal mines testified that it has 200 pieces operated by diesel power, and is continuing to add more. Another commenter stated that diesel is the power source of choice for moving personnel and supplies in large underground mines where coal is moved by conveyor belt.</P>
          <P>A number of commenters asserted that diesel-powered equipment has productivity and safety advantages over electrically-powered and battery-powered equipment.</P>
          <P>One commenter argued that diesel reduces the risks associated with the use of electrical equipment by eliminating the need for trolley wires, trolley poles and trailing cables that cause injuries, accidents and fatalities—shocks, electrocutions, burns, fires, tripping or being struck by trolley poles, and also reduce the number of material handling injuries. This commenter also argued that unlike electrical power, diesel use does not restrict mining plans or the mining cycle because operations are not hampered by cable length or time consuming power moves, provide greater flexibility in underground travel routes, and make equipment moves from one area of a mine to another more efficient. This commenter further claimed that compared to battery-powered mining equipment (which arguably provides the same flexibility), diesels can haul coal more efficiently over longer distance, provide more power, and eliminate time-consuming battery change-out time.</P>
          <P>Another commenter noted the increased potential for fatalities and injuries in underground coal mines when trolley wires are present, and further that trolley wires restrict ventilation in one entry.</P>
          <P>Another commenter noted the difficulties of evacuating miners in the event of emergencies over the large distances in some underground mines using sources of power that were more prone to failure than diesel.</P>
          <P>Another commenter asserted that all of the 18 employees who had died since 1972 as a result of exposed overhead direct current trolley lines could have lived if diesel power had been in use, and pointed to examples of fires initiated by trolley wires with associated loss of productivity. This commenter also noted that battery powered equipment has been known to cause injuries, and explosions both from its production of hydrogen gas and from sparks igniting methane in the mine atmosphere.</P>
          <P>Commenters also note that many asserted safety risks associated with the use of diesel powered equipment in underground coal mines have now been addressed as a result of MSHA's safety rules.</P>
          <P>Other commenters, however, pointed out that there are a number of the nation's most productive underground coal mines (including both those using longwall and those using room and pillar mining techniques) which do not use this technology. These commenters challenged industry claims that diesel power is necessary for business to survive. Some also noted that miners are trained to protect themselves better from safety hazards that accompany the use of electrical power, like tripping on cables and electrical hazards, but are not able to protect themselves from health hazards they cannot see. In this regard, the hearing transcripts are replete with reminders by underground coal miners of their concern about what they are breathing in light of the tragic experience with black lung disease.</P>
          <P>As indicated by MSHA in the preamble to the proposed rule (63 FR 17503), not many studies done recently address the contentions that diesel power provides safety and/or productivity advantages, and the studies which have been reviewed by MSHA do not clearly support this hypothesis.</P>
          <HD SOURCE="HD2">Outlook for Use of Diesel Engines To Power Equipment in Underground Coal Mines</HD>
          <P>The use of diesel engines to power equipment in underground coal mining is increasing. In fact, since this rulemaking was proposed, MSHA's inventory has recorded an increase of about 5% in the number of diesel-powered pieces of equipment at the roughly 145 coal mines using diesel power underground. This trend appears likely to continue, absent significant improvement in other power technologies.</P>
          <P>Several key underground coal mining states—Ohio, Pennsylvania and West Virginia—continue to ban or significantly restrict the use of diesel-powered equipment in underground coal mines (as discussed in section 8 of this Part). There are 339 underground coal mines in these states. If the current restrictions in these States were relaxed, in accordance with the expressed interest of industry groups toward this end, many of these underground coal mines are likely to begin using diesel to power some equipment.</P>
          <P>Full implementation of MSHA's recent rules for the safe use of diesel-powered equipment in underground coal mines (discussed in section 7 of this part), is also likely to lead to increased diesel use because they resolve certain safety concerns that discouraged the mining community from using such equipment more widely. Another factor suggesting that the use of diesel power will expand is that both miners and mine operators are concerned about the future of their industry.</P>
          <P>On the other hand, operators as well as miners have acknowledged that potential health hazards associated with the use of diesel power must be addressed if its use is to become widespread. Although the Agency expects that health risks will be substantially reduced by this rule, the best available evidence indicates that a significant risk of adverse health effects due to dpm exposures will remain after the rule is fully implemented. As explained in Part V of this preamble, however, MSHA has concluded that the underground coal mining sector as a whole cannot feasibly reduce dpm concentrations further at this time. Nevertheless, the efforts by US and overseas environmental regulators to restrict dpm and other diesel emissions into the environment, discussed in sections 4, 5 and 6 of this Part, are leading to technological improvements in engines, fuel and filters that will help reduce this risk.</P>

          <P>Currently, diesel power faces only a limited number of competitive power sources. It is unclear how quickly new ways to generate energy to run mobile vehicles will be available for use in underground mining activities. New hybrid electric automobiles have been introduced this year by two manufacturers (Honda and Toyota); these vehicles combine traditional internal combustion power sources (in this case gasoline) with electric storage and generating devices that can take over during part of the operating period. By reducing the time the vehicle is directly powered by combustion, such vehicles reduce emissions. Further developments in electric storage devices (batteries), and chemical systems that generate electricity (fuel cells) are being encouraged by government-private sector partnerships. For further information on recent developments, see the Department of Energy alternative fuels web site at http://www.afdc.doe.gov/altfuels.html., and “The Future of Fuel Cells” in the July 1999 issue of<E T="03">Scientific American.</E>Until such new technologies mature, and are reviewed for safe use underground, MSHA assumes that the mining community's interest in the use underground of diesel-power as an<PRTPAGE P="5537"/>alternative to direct electric power is likely to continue.</P>
          <HD SOURCE="HD2">(2) The Composition of Diesel Exhaust and Diesel Particulate Matter (DPM)</HD>
          <P>The emissions from diesel engines are actually a complex mixture of compounds, containing gaseous and particulate fractions. The specific composition of the diesel exhaust in a mine will vary with the type of engines used and how they are used. Factors such as type of fuel, load cycle, engine maintenance, tuning, and exhaust treatment will affect the composition of both the gaseous and particulate fractions of the exhaust. This complexity is compounded by the multitude of environmental settings in which diesel-powered equipment is operated. Nevertheless, there are a few basic facts about diesel emissions that are of general applicability.</P>

          <P>The gaseous constituents of diesel exhaust include oxides of carbon, nitrogen and sulfur, alkanes and alkenes (<E T="03">e.g.,</E>butadiene), aldehydes (<E T="03">e.g.,</E>formaldehyde), monocyclic aromatics (<E T="03">e.g.,</E>benzene, toluene), and polycyclic aromatic hydrocarbons (<E T="03">e.g.,</E>phenanthrene, fluoranthene). The oxides of nitrogen (NO<E T="52">X</E>) merit particular mention because in the atmosphere they can precipitate onto particulate matter. Thus, reducing the emissions of  NO<E T="52">X</E>is a way that engine manufacturers can control particulate production indirectly. (See section 5 of this part).</P>
          <P>The particulate components of the diesel exhaust gas include the so-called diesel soot and solid aerosols such as ash particulates, metallic abrasion particles, sulfates and silicates. Most of these particulates are in the invisible sub-micron range of 100nm.</P>
          <P>The main particulate fraction of diesel exhaust is made up of very small individual particles. These particles have a solid core consisting mainly of elemental carbon. They also have a very surface-rich morphology. This extensive surface absorbs many other toxic substances, that are transported with the particulates, and can penetrate deep into the lungs. More than 1,800 different organic compounds have been identified as absorbed onto the elemental carbon core. A portion of this hydrocarbon material results from incomplete combustion of fuel; however, most is derived from engine lubrication. In addition, the diesel particles contain a fraction of non-organic adsorbed materials. Figure II-1 illustrates the composition of dpm.</P>
          
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          <P>Diesel particles released to the atmosphere can be in the form of individual particles or chain aggregates (Vuk, Jones, and Johnson, 1976). In underground coal mines, more than 90% of these particles and chain aggregates are submicrometer in size—i.e., less than 1 micrometer (1 micron) in diameter. Dust generated by mining and crushing of material—<E T="03">e.g.,</E>silica dust, coal dust, rock dust—is generally not submicrometer in size. Figure II-2 shows a typical size distribution of the particles found in the environment of a mine using equipment powered by diesel engines (Cantrell and Rubow, 1992). The vertical axis represents relative dpm concentration, and the horizontal axis the particle diameter.</P>
          <P>As can be seen, the distribution is bimodal, with dpm generally less than 1 μm in size, and dust generated by the mining process greater than 1 μm.</P>
          
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          <P>As shown on Figure II-3 diesel particulates have a bimodal size distribution which includes small nuclei mode particles and larger accumulation mode particles. As further shown, most of diesel particle mass is contained in the accumulation mode but most of the particle number can be found in the nuclei mode.</P>
          
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          <P>The particles in the nuclei mode, also know as nanoparticles, are being investigated for their health hazard relevance. Interest in these particles has been sparked by the finding that newer “low polluting” engines emit higher numbers of small particles than the old engine technology engines. Although the exact composition of diesel nanoparticles is not known, it is thought that they may be composed of condensates (hydrocarbons, water, sulfuric acid). The amount of these condensates and the number of nanoparticles depends very significantly on the particulate sampling conditions, such as dilution ratios, which were applied during the measurement.</P>

          <P>Both the maximum particle concentration and the position of the nuclei and accumulation mode peaks, however, depend on which representation is chosen. In mass distributions, the majority of the particulates (<E T="03">i.e.</E>, the particulate mass) is found in the accumulation mode. The nuclei mode, depending on the engine technology and particle sampling technique, may be as low as a few percent, sometimes even less than 1%. A different picture is presented when the number distribution representation is used. Generally, the number of particles in the nuclei mode contributes to more than 50% of the total particle count. However, sometimes the nuclei mode particles represent as much as 99% of the total particulate number. The topic of dpm, with particular reference to very tiny particles known as nanoparticles, is discussed further in section 5 of this Part.</P>
          <HD SOURCE="HD2">(3) The Difficulties of Measuring Ambient DPM in Underground Coal Mines.</HD>
          <P>As it indicated in its notice of proposed rulemaking to limit the concentrations of dpm in underground coal mines (63 FR 17498, 17500), MSHA decided not to propose a rule to require the measurement of ambient dpm levels in underground coal mines in order to determine compliance. The Agency observed that while there are a number of methods which can measure ambient dpm at high concentrations in underground coal mines with reasonable accuracy. When the purpose is exposure assessment, MSHA does not believe any of these methods provide the accuracy that would be required to measure ambient dpm levels in underground coal mines at lower concentrations.</P>

          <P>In particular, MSHA expressed concern about potential difficulties in using the available methods to distinguish between dpm and submicron coal mine dust (63 FR 17506-17507). While the use of an available impactor device can prevent larger particles from entering the sampler (<E T="03">e.g.,</E>carbonates), albeit at the expense of eliminating the larger fraction of dpm as well, there are limits on the extent to which it can help MSHA distinguish how much of the fine particulate reaching the sampler is coal dust and how much is dpm. To make the distinction analytically, NIOSH method 5040 would have to be adjusted so that only the elemental carbon is determined. However, as MSHA noted, there are no established relationships between the concentration of elemental carbon and total dpm under various operating conditions. The organic carbon component of dpm can vary with engine type and duty cycle; hence, the amount of whole dpm present for a measured amount of elemental carbon may vary. Accordingly, MSHA concluded that it was “not confident that there is a measurement method for dpm that will provide accurate, consistent and verifiable results at lower concentration levels in underground coal mines” (63 FR 17500).</P>

          <P>Since there has been no disagreement with MSHA's initial conclusion about the current availability of an accurate, consistent and verifiable method of measuring dpm concentration levels in underground coal mines, the final rule is not dependent on ambient air measurements. MSHA has proposed using such a method for underground metal and nonmetal mines, and the validity of the measurement was the subject of much comment; accordingly, a more complete discussion of this topic will be found in the preamble of the final rule for underground metal and nonmetal mines.<PRTPAGE P="5540"/>
          </P>
          <HD SOURCE="HD2">(4) Limiting the Public's Exposure to Diesel and Other Fine Particulates—Ambient Air Quality Standards</HD>
          <P>Pursuant to the Clean Air Act, the Federal Environmental Protection Agency (EPA) is responsible for setting air pollution standards to protect the public from toxic air contaminants. These include standards to limit exposure to particulate matter. The pressures to comply with these limits have an impact upon the mining industry, which emits various types of particulate matter into the environment during mining operations, and a special impact on the coal mining industry whose product is used extensively in emission-generating power facilities. But those standards hold interest for the mining community in other ways as well, for underlying some of them is a large body of evidence on the harmful effects of airborne particulate matter on human health. Increasingly, that evidence has pointed toward the risks of the smallest particulates—including the particles generated by diesel engines.</P>
          <P>This section provides an overview of EPA's rulemaking efforts to limit the ambient air concentration of particulate matter, including its recent particular focus on diesel and other fine particulates. Additional and up-to-date information about the most current rulemaking in this regard is available on an EPA's Web site, http://www.epa.gov/ttn/oarpg/naaqsfin/.</P>
          <P>EPA is also engaged in other work of interest to the mining community. Together with some state environmental agencies, EPA has actually established limits on the amount of particulate matter that can be emitted by diesel engines. This topic is discussed in the next section of this Part (section 5). Environmental regulations also establish the maximum sulfur content permitted in diesel fuel used in highway vehicles, and such sulfur content can be an important factor in dpm generation. This topic is discussed in section 6 of this Part. In addition, EPA and some state environmental agencies have also been exploring whether diesel particulate matter is a carcinogen or a toxic material at the concentrations in which it appears in the ambient atmosphere; discussion of these studies can be found in Part III of this preamble.</P>
          <P>
            <E T="03">Background.</E>Air quality standards involve a two-step process: Standard setting by EPA, and implementation by each State.</P>
          <P>Under the law, EPA is specifically responsible for reviewing the scientific literature concerning air pollutants, and establishing and revising National Ambient Air Quality Standards (NAAQS) to minimize the risks to health and the environment associated with such pollutants. This review is to be conducted every five years. Feasibility of compliance by pollution sources is not supposed to be a factor in establishing NAAQS. Rather, EPA is required to set the level that provides “an adequate margin of safety” in protecting the health of the public.</P>

          <P>Implementation of each national standard is the responsibility of the states. Each must develop a state implementation plan that ensures air quality in the state consistent with the ambient air quality standard. Thus, each state has a great deal of flexibility in targeting particular modes of emission (<E T="03">e.g.,</E>mobile or stationary, specific industry or all, public sources of emissions vs. private-sector sources), and in what requirements to impose on polluters. However, EPA must approve the state plans pursuant to criteria it establishes, and then take measurements of pollution to determine whether all counties within the state are meeting each ambient air quality standard. An area not meeting an NAAQS is known as a “nonattainment area”.</P>
          <P>
            <E T="03">Total Suspended Particulates (TSP).</E>Particulate matter originates from all types of stationary, mobile and natural sources, and can also be created from the transformation of a variety of gaseous emissions from such sources. In the context of a global atmosphere, all these particles mix together, and both people and the environment are exposed to a “particulate soup,” the chemical and physical properties of which vary greatly with time, region, meteorology, and source category.</P>
          <P>The first ambient air quality standards dealing with particulate matter did not distinguish among these particles. Rather, the EPA established a single NAAQS for “total suspended particulates”, known as “TSP.” Under this approach, the states could come into compliance with the ambient air requirement by controlling any type or size of TSP. As long as the total TSP was under the NAAQS—which was established based on the science available in the 1970s—the state met the requirement.</P>
          <P>
            <E T="03">Particulates Less than 10 Microns in Diameter (PM</E>
            <E T="52">10</E>). When the EPA completed a new review of the scientific evidence in the mid-eighties, its conclusions led it to revise the particulate NAAQS to focus more narrowly on those particulates less than 10 microns in diameter, or PM<E T="52">10</E>. The standard issued in 1987 contained two components: an annual average PM<E T="52">10</E>limit of 50 μg/m<E T="51">3</E>, and a 24-hour PM<E T="52">10</E>limit of 150 μg/m<E T="51">3</E>. This new standard required the states to reevaluate their situations and, if they had areas that exceeded the new PM<E T="52">10</E>limit, to refocus their compliance plans on reducing the levels of particulates smaller than 10 microns in size. Sources of PM<E T="52">10</E>include power plants, iron and steel production, chemical and wood products manufacturing, wind-blown and roadway fugitive dust, secondary aerosols and many natural sources.</P>

          <P>Some state implementation plans required surface mines to take actions to help the state meet the PM<E T="52">10</E>standard. In particular, some surface mines in Western states were required to control the coarser particles—<E T="03">e.g.,</E>by spraying water on roadways to limit dust. The mining industry has objected to such controls, arguing that the coarser particles do not adversely impact health, and has sought to have them excluded from the EPA ambient air standards (Shea, 1995; comments of Newmont Gold Company, March 11, 1997, EPA docket number A-95-54, IV-D-2346).</P>
          <P>
            <E T="03">Particulate Less than 2.5 Microns in Diameter (PM</E>
            <E T="52">2.5</E>). The next EPA scientific review was completed in 1996. A proposed rule was published in November of 1996, and, after public hearings and review by the Office of Management and Budget, a final rule was promulgated on July 18, 1997 (62 FR 38651).</P>

          <P>The new rule further modifies the standard for particulate matter. Under the new rule, the existing national ambient air quality standard for PM<E T="52">10</E>remains basically the same—an annual average limit of 50 μg/m<E T="51">3</E>(with some adjustment as to how this is measured for compliance purposes), and a 24-hour ceiling of 150 μg/m<E T="51">3</E>. In addition, however, the new rule would establish a NAAQS for “fine particulate matter” that is less than 2.5 microns in size. The PM<E T="52">2.5</E>annual limit was set at 15 μg/m<E T="51">3</E>, with a 24-hour ceiling of 65 μg/m<E T="51">3</E>.</P>
          <P>The basis for the PM<E T="52">2.5</E>NAAQS was a large body of scientific data indicating that particles in this size range are responsible for the most serious health effects associated with particulate matter. The evidence was thoroughly reviewed by a number of scientific panels through an extended process. The proposed rule resulted in considerable public attention, and hearings by Congress, in which the scientific evidence was further discussed. Moreover, challenges to the EPA's determination that this size category warranted rulemaking were rejected by a three-judge panel of the DC Circuit Court. (<E T="03">ATA</E>v.<E T="03">EPA</E>, 175 F.3d 1027, D.C. Circuit 1999).<PRTPAGE P="5541"/>
          </P>

          <P>A majority of the DC Circuit Court, however, agreed with challenges to the EPA's determination to keep the existing requirements on PM<E T="52">10</E>as a surrogate for the coarser particulates in this category (those particulates between 2.5 and 10 microns in diameter); instead, the Court ordered EPA to develop a new standard for this size category.</P>
          <P>
            <E T="03">Implications for the Mining Community.</E>As noted earlier in this part, diesel particulate matter is mostly less than 1.0 micron in size. It is, therefore, a fine particulate; in some regions of the country, diesel particulate generated by highway and off-road vehicles constitutes a significant portion of the ambient fine particulate (June 16, 1997, PM-2.5 Composition and Sources, Office of Air Quality Planning and Standards, EPA). As noted in Part III of this preamble, some of the scientific studies of health risk from fine particulates used to support the EPA rulemaking were conducted in areas where the major fine particulate was from diesel emissions. Accordingly, MSHA has concluded that it must consider the body of evidence of human health risk from environmental exposure to fine particulates in assessing the risk of harm to miners of occupational exposure to diesel particulate, and did so in its risk assessment (see part III of this preamble). Comments on the appropriateness of this conclusion by MSHA, are reviewed in Part III.</P>
          <P>(5)<E T="03">The impact on emissions of MSHA approval standards and environmental tailpipe standards.</E>
          </P>
          <P>MSHA requires that the gaseous emissions from all diesel engines used in underground coal mines meet certain minimum standards of cleanliness; only engines which meet those standards are “approved” for use in underground coal mines. The 1996 diesel equipment safety rule required that all engines in the underground mining fleet be approved engines. Thus, these rules set a ceiling for various types of diesel gas emissions. But diesel engines do not have to meet a dpm emissions standard to be “approved” for underground use.</P>
          <P>Engine emissions of dpm are however, restricted by Federal environmental regulations, supplemented in some cases by State restrictions. Over time, these regulations have required, and are continuing to require, that new diesel engines meet tighter and tighter standards on dpm emissions. As these cleaner engines replace or supplement older engines in underground coal mines, they can lead to a significant reduction in the amount of dpm emitted by the underground fleet.</P>
          <P>This section reviews developments in this area. Although this subject was discussed in the preamble of the proposed dpm rule (63 FR 17507), this review here updates the relevant information.</P>
          <P>
            <E T="03">MSHA Approval Requirements for Engines Used in Underground Coal Mines.</E>MSHA requires that all diesel engines used in underground coal mines be “approved” by MSHA for such use, and be maintained by operators in approved condition. Among other things, approval of an engine by MSHA ensures that engines exceeding certain pollutant standards are not used in underground coal mines. MSHA sets the standards for such approval, establishes the testing criteria for the approval process, and administers the tests. The costs to obtain approval of an engine are usually borne by the engine manufacturer or equipment manufacturer.</P>
          <P>MSHA's 1996 diesel equipment rule (discussed in more detail in section 7 of this Part) made significant changes to diesel engine requirements for underground coal mines. The new rule required the entire underground coal fleet to convert to approved engines no later than November 1999. Accordingly, by the time this rule to limiting dpm exposure goes into effect, all diesel engines in underground coal mines are expected to be approved engines.</P>
          <P>The new rule also required that during the approval process the agency determine the particulate index (PI) for the engine. The particulate index (or PI), calculated under the provisions of 30 CFR 7.89, indicates the air quantity necessary to dilute the diesel particulate in the engine exhaust to 1 milligram of diesel particulate matter per cubic meter of air.</P>
          <P>Unlike the ventilation rate set for each engine, the PI does not appear on the engine's approval plate (61 FR 55421). Furthermore, the particulate index of an engine is not, under the diesel equipment rule, used to determine whether or not the engine can be used in an underground coal mine.</P>
          <P>At the time the diesel equipment rule was issued, MSHA explicitly deferred the question of whether to require engines used in mining environments to meet a specific PI (61 FR 55420-21, 55437). While the matter was discussed during the diesel equipment rulemaking, the approach taken in the final rule was to adopt the multi-level aproach recommended by the Diesel Advisory Committee. This multi-level approach included the requirement to use clean fuel, low emission engines, equipment design, maintenance, and ventilation, all of which are included in the final rule. The requirement for determining the particulate index was included in the diesel equipment rule in order to provide information to the mining community in purchasing equipment—so that mine operators can compare the particulate levels generated by different engines. Mine operators and equipment manufacturers, can use the information along with consideration of the type of machine the engines would power and the area of the mine in which it would be used to make decisions concerning the engine's contribution of diesel particulate to the mine's total respirable dust. Equipment manufacturers can use the particulate index to design and install exhaust after-treatments (61 FR 55421). So that the PI for any engine is known to the mining community, MSHA reports the index in the approval letter, posts the PI and ventilating air requirement for all approved engines on its website, and publishes the index containing its lists of approved engines.</P>
          <P>In the proposed dpm rule, MSHA indicated that given that the equipment rule was recently promulgated, it did not yet have enough information to determine the feasibility of a requirement that certain engines meet a specific PI in order to be used underground (63 FR 17564). MSHA received comments on this subject during the hearings and thereafter; the Agency's response to these comments is included in Part IV of this preamble.</P>
          <P>
            <E T="03">Authority for Environmental Engine Emission Standards.</E>The Clean Air Act authorizes the federal Environmental Protection Agency (EPA) to establish nationwide standards for mobile sources of air pollution, including those powered by diesel engines (often referred to in environmental regulations as “compression ignition” or “CI” engines). These standards are designed to reduce the amount of certain harmful atmospheric pollutants emanating from mobile sources: the mass of particulate matter, nitrogen oxides (which as previously noted, can result in the generation of particulates in the atmosphere), hydrocarbons and carbon monoxide.</P>

          <P>California has its own engine emission standards. New engines destined for use in California must meet these standards. The standards are issued and administered by the California Air Resources Board (CARB). In many cases, the California standards are the same as the national standards; as noted herein, the EPA and CARB have worked on certain agreements with the industry toward that end. In other<PRTPAGE P="5542"/>situations, the California standards may be more stringent than federal standards.</P>
          <P>Regulatory responsibility for implementation of the Clean Air Act is vested in the Office of Transportation and Air Quality (formerly the Office of Mobile Sources), part of the Office of Air and Radiation of the EPA. Some of the discussion which follows was derived from materials which can be accessed from the agency's home page on the World Wide Web at (http://www.epa.gov/omswww/omshome.htm). Information about the California standards may be found at the CARB home page at (http://www.arb.ca.gov/homepage.htm).</P>

          <P>Diesel engines are generally divided into three broad categories for purposes of engine emissions standards, in accordance with the primary use for which the type of engine is designed: (1) Light duty vehicles and light duty trucks (<E T="03">i.e.,</E>trucks under 8500 lbs GVWR, which include pick-up trucks and SUVs. EPA has also established a class of “medium duty passenger vehicles” which include passenger vehicles over 8500 lbs. These vehicles, mostly large SUVs, are treated like light-duty trucks for the purposes of emission standards; (2) heavy duty highway engines (<E T="03">i.e.,</E>those designed primarily to power trucks) greater than 8500 lbs GVWR) which range from the largest pick-up trucks to over the road trucks); and (3) nonroad vehicles (<E T="03">i.e.,</E>those engines designed primarily to power small equipment, construction equipment, locomotives, farm equipment and other non-highway uses).</P>
          <P>The terms “heavy duty” and “light duty” are used differently by EPA and MSHA. The category of an engine for purposes of environmental regulations is not the same as the category of mining equipment in which it is used. The engine categories used by EPA have been established with reference to normal transportation uses. But as explained in section 1 of this Part, MSHA has established a classification system for underground coal mining equipment based on how that equipment is used in mining. This system includes “permissible” equipment (required where explosive methane gas may be present in significant quantities) and two categories of “nonpermissible” equipment known as “heavy duty nonpermissible” and “light duty nonpermissible”. Accordingly, “heavy duty” engines might be used in “light duty” nonpermissible equipment.</P>
          <P>The exact emission standards which a new diesel engine must meet varies with engine category and the date of manufacture. Through a series of regulatory actions, EPA has developed a detailed implementation schedule for each of the three engine categories. The schedule generally forces technology while taking into account certain technological realities.</P>
          <P>Detailed information about each of the three engine categories is provided below; a summary table of particulate matter emission limits is included at the end of the discussion.</P>
          <P>
            <E T="03">EPA Emission Standards for Light-Duty Vehicles and Light Duty Trucks.</E>Although vehicle engines in these categories are not currently approved for use in underground coal mines, it might be sought in the future. Accordingly, some information about the applicable environmental regulations is provided here.<SU>2</SU>
            <FTREF/>
          </P>
          <FTNT>
            <P>
              <SU>2</SU>The discussion focuses on the particulate matter requirements for light duty trucks, although the current pm requirement for all light duty vehicles is the same. The EPA regulations for these categories apply to the unit, rather than just to the engine itself; for heavy-duty highway engines and nonroad engines, the regulations attach to the engines.</P>
          </FTNT>
          <P>Current light-duty vehicles generally comply with the Tier 1 and National LEV emission standards. Particulate-matter emission limits are found in 40 CFR part 86. In 1999, EPA issued new Tier 2 standards that will be applicable to light-duty cars and trucks beginning in 2004. With respect to pm, the new rules phase in tighter emissions limits to parts of production runs for various subcategories of these engines over several years; by 2009, all light duty trucks must limit pm emissions to a maximum of 0.02 g/mi (40 CFR 86.1811-04(c)). Engine manufacturers may, of course, produce complying engines before the various dates required.</P>
          <P>
            <E T="03">EPA Emissions Standards for Heavy-Duty Highway Engines.</E>In 1988, a standard limiting particulate matter emitted from the heavy duty highway diesel engines went into effect, limiting dpm emissions to 0.6 g/bhp-hr. The Clean Air Act Amendments of 1990 and associated regulations provided for phasing in even tighter controls on NO<E T="52">X</E>and particulate matter through 1998. Thus, engines had to meet ever tighter standards for NO<E T="52">X</E>in model years 1990, 1991 and 1998; and tighter standards for PM in 1991 (0.25 g/bhp-hr) and 1994 (0.10 g/bhp-hr). The latter remains the standard for PM from these engines for current production runs (40 CFR 86.094-11(a)(1)(iv)(B)). Since any heavy duty highway engine manufactured since 1994 must meet this standard, there is a supply of engines available today which meet this standard. These engines are used in commercial mining pickup trucks.</P>

          <P>New standards for this category of engines are gradually being put into place. On October 21, 1997, EPA issued a new rule for certain gaseous emissions from heavy duty highway engines that will take effect for engine model years starting in 2004 (62 FR 54693). The rule establishes a combined requirement for NO<E T="52">X</E>and Non-methane Hydrocarbon (NMHC). The combined standard is set at 2.5 g/bhp-hr, which includes a cap of 0.5g/bhp-hr for NMHC. EPA promulgated a rulemaking on December 22, 2000 (65 FR 80776) to adopt the next phase of new standards for these engines. EPA is taking an integrated approach to: (a) Reduce the content of sulfur in diesel fuel; and thereafter, (b) require heavy-duty highway engines to meet tighter emission standards, including standards for PM. The purpose of the diesel fuel component of the rulemaking is to make it technologically feasible for engine manufacturers and emissions control device makers to produce engines in which dpm emissions are limited to desired levels in this and other engine categories. The EPA's rule will reduce pm emissions from new heavy-duty engines to 0.01 g/bhp-hr, a reduction from the current 0.1 g/bhp-hr. MSHA assumes it will be some time before there is a significant supply of engines that can meet this standard, and the fuel supply to make that possible.</P>
          <P>
            <E T="03">EPA Emissions Standards for Nonroad Engines.</E>Nonroad engines are those designed primarily to power small portable equipment such as compressors and generators, large construction equipment such as haul trucks, loaders and graders, locomotives and other miscellaneous equipment with non-highway uses. Engines of this type are used most frequently in the underground coal mines to power equipment.</P>

          <P>Nonroad diesel engines were not subjected to emission controls as early as other diesel engines. The 1990 Clean Air Act Amendments specifically directed EPA to study the contribution of nonroad engines to air pollution, and regulate them if warranted (Section 213 of the Clean Air Act). In 1991, EPA released a study that documented higher than expected emission levels across a broad spectrum of nonroad engines and equipment (EPA Fact Sheet, EPA420-F-96-009, 1996). In response, EPA initiated several regulatory programs. One of these set Tier 1 emission standards for larger land-based nonroad engines (other than for rail use). Limits were established for engine emissions of<PRTPAGE P="5543"/>hydrocarbons, carbon monoxide, NO<E T="52">X</E>, and dpm. The limits were phased in over model years from 1996 to 2000. With respect to particulate matter, the rules required that starting in model year 1996, nonroad engines from 175 to 750 hp meet a limit on pm emissions of 0.4 g/bhp-hr, and that starting in model year 2000, nonroad engines over 750 hp meet the same limit.</P>
          <P>Particulate matter standards for locomotive engines were set subsequently (63 FR 18978, April, 1998). The standards are different for line-haul duty-cycle engine and switch duty-cycle engines. For model years from 2000 to 2004, the standards limit pm emissions to 0.45 g/bhp-hr and 0.54 g/bhp-hr respectively; after model year 2005, the limits drop to 0.20 g/bhp-hr and 0.24 g/bhp-hr respectively.</P>
          <P>In October 1998, EPA established additional standards for nonroad engines (63 FR 56968). Among these are gaseous and particulate matter limits adopted for the first time (Tier 1 limits) for nonroad engines under 50 hp. Tier 2 emissions standards for engines between 50 and 175 hp include pm standards for the first time. Further, they establish Tier II particulate matter limits for all other land-based nonroad engines (other than locomotives which previously had Tier II standards). Some of the non-particulate emissions limits set by the 1998 rule are subject to a technology review in 2001 to ensure that the required levels are feasible; EPA has indicated that in the context of that review, it intends to consider further limits for particulate matter. Because of the phase-in of these Tier II pm standards, and the fact that some manufacturers will produce engines meeting the standard before the requirements go into effect, there are or soon will be some Tier II pm engines in some sizes available, but it is likely to be a few years before a full size range of Tier II pm nonroad engines is available.</P>
          <P>Table II-3 provides a full list of the EPA required particulate matter limitations on nonroad diesel engines for tier 1 and 2. For example, a nonroad engine of 175 hp produced in 2001 must meet a standard of 0.4 g/hp-hr; a similar engine produced in 2003 or thereafter must meet a standard of 0.15 g/hp-hr.</P>
          <GPOTABLE CDEF="s50,12,12,12" COLS="4" OPTS="L2,i1">
            <TTITLE>
              <E T="04">Table II-</E>3<E T="04">.—EPA Nonroad Engine PM Requirements</E>
            </TTITLE>
            <BOXHD>
              <CHED H="1">kW range</CHED>
              <CHED H="1">Tier</CHED>
              <CHED H="1">Year first applicable</CHED>
              <CHED H="1">PM limit<LI>(g/kW-hr)</LI>
              </CHED>
            </BOXHD>
            <ROW>
              <ENT I="01">kW8</ENT>
              <ENT>1</ENT>
              <ENT>2000</ENT>
              <ENT>1.00</ENT>
            </ROW>
            <ROW>
              <ENT I="22"/>
              <ENT>2</ENT>
              <ENT>2005</ENT>
              <ENT>0.80</ENT>
            </ROW>
            <ROW>
              <ENT I="01">8≤kW19</ENT>
              <ENT>1</ENT>
              <ENT>2000</ENT>
              <ENT>0.80</ENT>
            </ROW>
            <ROW>
              <ENT I="01">19≤kW37</ENT>
              <ENT>1</ENT>
              <ENT>1999</ENT>
              <ENT>0.80</ENT>
            </ROW>
            <ROW>
              <ENT I="22"/>
              <ENT>2</ENT>
              <ENT>2004</ENT>
              <ENT>0.60</ENT>
            </ROW>
            <ROW>
              <ENT I="01">37≤kW75</ENT>
              <ENT>1</ENT>
              <ENT>1998</ENT>
              <ENT/>
            </ROW>
            <ROW>
              <ENT I="22"/>
              <ENT>2</ENT>
              <ENT>2004</ENT>
              <ENT>0.40</ENT>
            </ROW>
            <ROW>
              <ENT I="01">75≤kW130</ENT>
              <ENT>1</ENT>
              <ENT>1997</ENT>
              <ENT/>
            </ROW>
            <ROW>
              <ENT I="22"/>
              <ENT>2</ENT>
              <ENT>2003</ENT>
              <ENT>0.30</ENT>
            </ROW>
            <ROW>
              <ENT I="01">130≤kW225</ENT>
              <ENT>1</ENT>
              <ENT>1996</ENT>
              <ENT>0.54</ENT>
            </ROW>
            <ROW>
              <ENT I="22"/>
              <ENT>2</ENT>
              <ENT>2003</ENT>
              <ENT>0.20</ENT>
            </ROW>
            <ROW>
              <ENT I="01">225≤kW450</ENT>
              <ENT>1</ENT>
              <ENT>1996</ENT>
              <ENT>0.54</ENT>
            </ROW>
            <ROW>
              <ENT I="22"/>
              <ENT>2</ENT>
              <ENT>2001</ENT>
              <ENT>0.20</ENT>
            </ROW>
            <ROW>
              <ENT I="01">450≤kW560</ENT>
              <ENT>1</ENT>
              <ENT>1996</ENT>
              <ENT>0.54</ENT>
            </ROW>
            <ROW>
              <ENT I="22"/>
              <ENT>2</ENT>
              <ENT>2002</ENT>
              <ENT>0.20</ENT>
            </ROW>
            <ROW>
              <ENT I="01">kW560</ENT>
              <ENT>1</ENT>
              <ENT>2000</ENT>
              <ENT>0.54</ENT>
            </ROW>
            <ROW>
              <ENT I="22"/>
              <ENT>2</ENT>
              <ENT>2006</ENT>
              <ENT>0.20</ENT>
            </ROW>
          </GPOTABLE>
          <P>
            <E T="03">The Impact of MSHA and EPA Engine Emission Standards on the Underground Coal Mining Fleet.</E>In the mining industry, engines and equipment are often purchased in used condition, and frequently rebuilt. Thus, many of the diesel engines in an underground coal mine's fleet today may only meet older environmental emission standards, or no environmental standards at all. Although the environmental tailpipe requirements on dpm are already bringing about a reduction in the overall contribution of dpm to the general atmosphere, the beneficial effects of the EPA regulations on mining atmospheres will be slower absent incentive or regulatory actions that accelerate the turnover of mining fleets to engines that emit less dpm. Moreover, while the requirement that all underground coal mine engines be “MSHA approved” is leading to a less polluting fleet than would otherwise be the case, there are many approved engines that do emit significant levels of pollution, and in particular dpm. As noted in the discussion of MSHA's approval requirements, the Agency is taking internal actions to ensure that these requirements do not inadvertently slow the introduction of cleaner engine technology.</P>
          <P>It should be noted that in theory, underground mines can still purchase certain types of new engines that do not have to meet EPA standards. For example, the current rules on nonroad diesel engines state that they do not apply to engines intended to be used in underground coal and metal and nonmetal mines (40 CFR 89.1(b)). Moreover, it is not uncommon for engine manufacturers to take a model submitted for EPA testing and adjust the horsepower or other features for use in a mining application. In recent years, however, engine manufacturers have significantly cut back on such adjustments because the mining community is not a major market. Accordingly, MSHA believes that most of the diesel engines that will be available for underground mines in the future will meet the applicable EPA standard. In addition, many of the recently approved engines by MSHA currently meet the tier II nonroad pm standards.</P>
          <P>
            <E T="03">The Question of Nanoparticles.</E>Comments received from several commenters on the proposed rule for diesel particulate matter exposure of underground coal miners raised questions relative to “nanoparticles;” i.e., particles found in the exhaust of diesel engines that are less than 50 nanometers (nm) in diameter.</P>

          <P>One commenter was concerned about recent indications that nanoparticles may pose more of a health risk than the larger particles that are emitted from a diesel engine. This commenter submitted information demonstrating<PRTPAGE P="5544"/>that nanoparticles emitted from the engine could be removed effectively from the exhaust using aftertreatment devices such as ceramic traps.</P>
          <P>Another commenter was concerned that MSHA's proposed rule for underground coal mines is based on removing 95% of the particulate by mass. He believed that this reduction in mass was attributed to those particles greater than 0.1μm but less than 1μm and did not address the recent scientific hypothesis that it may be the very small nanopaticles that are responsible for adverse health effects. Based on the recent scientific information on the potential health effects resulting from exposure to nanoparticles, this commenter did not believe that potential the risk of cancer would be reduced if exposure levels to nanoparticles increased. He indicated that studies suggest that the increase in nanoparticles will exceed 6 times their current levels.</P>
          <P>Current environmental emission standards established by EPA and CARB, and the particulate index calculated by MSHA, focus on the total mass of diesel particulate matter emitted by an engine—for example, the number of grams per some unit of measure (i.e. grams/brake-horsepower). Thus, the technology under development by the engine industry to meet the standards accordingly focuses on reducing the mass of dpm emitted from the engine. There is some evidence, however, that some aspects of this new technology, particularly fuel injection, is resulting in an increase in the number of nanoparticles emitted from the engine.</P>
          <P>Figure II-3, repeated here from section 2 of this Part, illustrates this situation (Majewski, W. Addy, Diesel Progress, June, 1998).</P>
          
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          <P>The formation of particulates starts with particle nucleation followed by subsequent agglomeration of the nuclei particles into an accumulation mode. Thus, as illustrated in Figure II-3, the majority of the mass of dpm is found in the accumulation mode, where the particles are generally between 0.1 and 1 micron in diameter. However, when considering the number of particles emitted from the engine, more than half and sometimes almost all of the particles (by number) are in the nuclei mode.</P>

          <P>A number of studies have demonstrated that the size of the particles emitted from the newer low emission diesel engines, has shifted toward the generation of nuclei mode particles. One study (cited by Majewski) compared a 1991 engine to its 1988 counterpart. The total PM mass in the newer engine was reduced by about 80%; but the new engine generated thousands of times more particles than the older engine (3000 times as much at 75 percent load and about 14,000 times as much at 25 percent load). One hypothesis offered for this phenomenon is that the cleaner engines produce less soot particles on which particulates can condense and accumulate, and hence they remain in nuclei mode. The accumulation particles act as a “sponge” for the condensation and/or adsorption of volatile materials. In the absence of that sponge, gas species which are to become liquid or solid will nucleate to form large numbers of small particles (see diesel.net technology guide). Mayer, while pointing out that nanoparticle production was a problem with older engines as well, concurs that the technology used to clean up pollution in newer engines is not having any positive impact on nanoparticle production. While there is scientific evidence that the newer engines, designed to reduce the mass of pollutants emitted from the diesel engine, emit more particles in the nuclei mode, quantifying the magnitude of these particles has been difficult. This is because as dpm is released into the<PRTPAGE P="5545"/>atmosphere the diesel particulate undergoes very complex changes. In addition, current sampling procedures produce artificial particulates, which otherwise would not exist under atmospheric conditions. Experimental work conducted at West Virginia University (Bukarski) indicate that nanoparticles are not generated during the combustion process, but rather during other physical and chemical processes which the exhaust undergoes in aftertreatment systems.</P>
          <P>While current medical research findings indicate that small particulates, particularly those below 2μm in diameter, may be more harmful to human health than the larger ones, much more medical research and diesel emission studies are needed to fully characterize diesel nanoparticles emissions and their influence on human health. If nanoparticles are found to have an adverse health impact by virtue of size or number, it could require significant adjustments in environmental engine emission regulation and technology. It could also have implications for the type of controls utilized, with some asserting that aftertreatment filters are the only effective way to limit the emission of nanoparticles and others asserting that aftertreatment filters can increase the number of nanoparticles.</P>
          <P>As discussed in Part III, the available evidence on the risks for dpm exposure do not currently include enough data to draw conclusions about the risks of exposure to significant numbers of very small particles. Research on nanoparticles and their health effects is currently a topic of investigation. As there have been few measurements of the number of particles emitted (as opposed to mass), it will be very difficult for epidemiologists to extrapolate information in this regard.</P>
          <P>Based on the comments received and a review of the literature currently available on the nanoparticle issue, MSHA believes that promulgation of the final rules for underground coal and metal and nonmetal mines is necessary to protect miners. The nanoparticle issues discussed above will not be answered for some time because of the extensive research required to address the questions raised. MSHA's rules will require the application of exhaust aftertreatment devices on nearly all of the most polluting engines. The application of these measures will reduce the number of nanoparticles as well as the mass of the larger particles to which a miner will be exposed—miners wanted aftertreatment on all machines for this purpose.</P>
          <HD SOURCE="HD2">(6) Other Methods for Controlling DPM in Underground Coal Mines</HD>
          <P>As discussed in the last section, the introduction of new engines underground will play a significant role in reducing the concentration of dpm in underground coal mines. There are, however, other approaches to reducing dpm concentrations in underground coal mines. Among these are: use of aftertreatment devices to eliminate particulates emitted by an engine; altering fuel composition to minimize engine particulate emission; use of maintenance practices and diagnostic systems to ensure that fuel, engine and aftertreatment technologies work as intended to minimize emissions; enhancing ventilation to reduce particulate concentrations in a work area; enclosing workers in cabs or other filtered areas to protect them from exposure; and use of work and fleet practices that reduce miner exposures to emissions.</P>
          <P>As noted in section 9 of this Part, information about these approaches was solicited from the mining community in a series of workshops in 1995, and highlights were published by MSHA as an appendix to the proposed rule on dpm “Practical Ways to Control Exposure to Diesel Exhaust in Mining—a Toolbox.” During the hearings and in written comments on this rulemaking, these control methods were discussed.</P>
          <P>This section provides updated information on two methods for controlling dpm emissions: aftertreatment devices and diesel fuel content. There was considerable comment on aftertreatment devices because MSHA's proposed rule would have required that certain equipment be equipped with high-efficiency particulate filters; the efficiency of such devices remains an important issue in determining the technological and economic feasibility of the final rule. Moreover, some commenters strongly favored the use of oxidation catalytic converters, a type of aftertreatment device used to reduce gaseous emission but which can also lessen dpm levels. Accordingly, information about them is reviewed here. With respect to diesel fuel composition, a recent rulemaking initiative by EPA, and actions taken by other countries in this regard, are discussed here because of their implications for the mining community.</P>
          <P>
            <E T="03">Emissions aftertreatment devices.</E>One of the most discussed approaches to controlling dpm emissions involves the use of devices placed on the end of the tailpipe to physically trap diesel particulate emissions and thus limit their discharge into the mine atmosphere. These aftertreatment devices are often referred to as “particle traps” or “soot traps,” but the term filter is also used. The two primary categories of particulate traps are those composed of ceramic materials (and thus capable of handling uncooled exhaust), and those composed of paper materials (which require the exhaust to first be cooled). Typically, the latter are designed for conventional permissible equipment which have water scrubbers installed which cool the exhaust. However, another alternative that is now used in coal mines is “dry system technology” which cools the diesel exhaust with a heat exchanger and then uses a paper filter. In addition, “oxidation catalytic converters,” devices used to limit the emission of diesel gases, and “water scrubbers,” devices used to cool the emission of diesel gases, are discussed here as well, because they also can have effect on limiting particle emission.</P>
          <P>
            <E T="03">Water Scrubbers.</E>Water scrubbers are devices added to the exhaust system of diesel equipment. Water scrubbers are essentially metal boxes containing water through which the diesel exhaust gas passes. The exhaust gas is cooled, generally to below 170 degrees F. A small fraction of the unburned hydrocarbons is condensed and remains in the water with some of the dpm. Tests conducted by the former Bureau of Mines and others indicate that no more than 20 to 30 percent of the dpm is removed. However, MSHA has no definitive evidence on the amount of dpm reduction that can be achieved with a particular water scrubber. The water scrubber does not remove the carbon monoxide, the oxides of nitrogen, or other gaseous emission that remains a gas at room temperature, so their effectiveness as aftertreatment devices is limited.</P>
          <P>The water scrubber serves as an effective spark and flame arrester and as a means to cool the exhaust gas. Consequently, it is used in most of the permissible diesel equipment in mining as part of the safety components needed to gain MSHA approval.</P>

          <P>The water scrubber has several operating characteristics which keep it from being a candidate for an aftertreatment device on nonpermissible equipment. The space required on the vehicle to store sufficient water for an 8 hour shift is not available on some equipment. Furthermore, the exhaust contains a great deal of water vapor which condenses under some mining conditions creating a fog which can adversely effect visibility. Also, operation of the equipment on slopes can cause the water level in the scrubber<PRTPAGE P="5546"/>to change resulting in water blowing out the exhaust pipe. Control devices can be placed within the scrubber to maintain the appropriate water level. Because these devices are in contact with the water through which the exhaust gas has passed, they need frequent maintenance to insure that they are operating properly and have not been corroded by the acidic water created by the exhaust gas. The water scrubber must be flushed frequently to remove the acidic water and the dpm and other exhaust residue which forms a sludge that adversely effects the operation of the unit. These problems, coupled with the relatively low dpm removal efficiency, have prevented widespread use of water scrubbers as a primary dpm control device on nonpermissible equipment.</P>
          <P>
            <E T="03">Oxidation Catalytic Converters (OCCs).</E>Oxidation catalytic converters (OCCs) were among the first devices added to diesel engines in mines to reduce the concentration of harmful gaseous emissions discharged into the mine environment. OCCs began to be used in underground mines in the 1960's to control carbon monoxide, hydrocarbons and odor (Haney, Saseen, Waytulonis, 1997). Their use has been widespread. It has been estimated that more than 10,000 OCCs have been put into the mining industry over the last several years (McKinnon, dpm Workshop, Beckley, WV, 1995).</P>
          <P>Several of the harmful emissions in diesel exhaust are produced as a result of incomplete combustion of the diesel fuel in the combustion chamber of the engine. These include carbon monoxide and unburned hydrocarbons including harmful aldehydes. Catalytic converters, when operating properly, remove significant percentages of the carbon monoxide and unburned hydrocarbons. Higher operating temperatures, achieved by hotter exhaust gas, improve the conversion efficiency.</P>
          <P>Oxidation catalytic converters operate, in effect, by continuing the combustion process outside the combustion chamber. This is accomplished by utilizing the oxygen in the exhaust gas to oxidize the contaminants. A very small amount of material with catalytic properties, usually platinum or a combination of the noble metals, is deposited on the surfaces of the catalytic converter over which the exhaust gas passes. This catalyst allows the chemical oxidation reaction to occur at a lower temperature than would normally be required.</P>
          <P>For the catalytic converter to work effectively, the exhaust gas temperature must be above 370 degrees Fahrenheit for carbon monoxide and 500 degrees Fahrenheit for hydrocarbons. Most converters are installed as close to the exhaust manifold as possible to minimize the heat loss from the exhaust gas through the walls of the exhaust pipe. Insulating the segment of the exhaust pipe between the exhaust manifold and the catalytic converter extends the portion of the vehicle duty cycle in which the converter works effectively.</P>
          <P>The earliest catalytic converters for mining use consisted of alumina pellets coated with the catalytic material and enclosed in a container. The exhaust gas flowed through the pellet bed where the exhaust gas came into contact with the catalyst. Designs have evolved, and now the most common design is a metallic substrate, formed to resemble a honeycomb, housed in a metal shell. The catalyst is deposited on the surfaces of the honeycomb. The exhaust gas flows through the honeycomb and comes into contact with the catalyst.</P>

          <P>Soon after catalytic converters were introduced, it became apparent that there was a problem due to the sulfur found in diesel fuels in use at that time. Most diesel fuels in the United States contained anywhere from 0.25 to 0.50 percent sulfur or more on a mass basis. In the combustion chamber, this sulfur was converted to SO<E T="52">2</E>, SO<E T="52">3</E>, or SO<E T="52">4</E>in various concentrations, depending on the engine operating conditions. In general, most of the sulfur was converted to gaseous SO<E T="52">2</E>. When exhaust containing the gaseous sulfur dioxide passed through the catalytic converter, a large proportion of it was converted to solid sulphates which are in fact, diesel particulate. Sulfates can “poison” the catalyst, severely reducing its life.</P>

          <P>Recently, as described elsewhere in this preamble, the EPA required that diesel fuel used for over the road trucks contain no more than 500 ppm (0.05 percent) sulfur. This action made low sulfur fuel available throughout the United States. MSHA, in its recently promulgated regulations for the use of diesel powered equipment in underground coal mines required that this low sulfur fuel be used. When the low sulfur fuel is burned in an engine and passed through a converter with a moderately active catalyst, only small amounts of SO<E T="52">2</E>and additional sulfate based particulate are created. However, when a very active catalyst is used, to lower the operating temperature of the converter or to enhance the CO removal efficiency, even the low sulfur fuel has sufficient sulfur present to create an SO<E T="52">2</E>and sulfate based particulate problem. Consequently, as discussed later in this section, the EPA has notified the public of its intentions to promulgate regulations that would limit the sulfur content of future diesel fuel to 15 ppm (0.0015 percent) for on-highway use in 2006.</P>

          <P>The particulate removal capabilities of some OCCs are significant in gravimetric terms. In 1995, the EPA implemented standards requiring older buses in urban areas to reduce the dpm emissions from rebuilt bus engines (40 CFR 85.1403). Aftertreatment manufacturers developed catalytic converter systems capable of reducing dpm by 20%. Such systems are available for larger diesel engines common in the underground metal and nonmetal sector. However, as has been pointed out by Mayer, the portion of particulate mass that seems to be impacted by OCCs is the soluble component, and this is a smaller percentage of particulate mass in utility vehicle engines than in automotive engines. Moreover, some measurements indicate that more than 40% of NO is converted to more toxic NO<E T="52">2</E>, and that particulate mass actually increases using an OCC at full load due to the formation of sulfates. In summation, Mayer concluded that the OCCs do not reduce the combustion particulates, produce sulfate particulates, or have unfavorable gaseous phase reactions increasing toxicity, and that the positive effects are irrelevant for construction site diesel engines. He concludes that the negative effects outweigh the benefits (Mayer).</P>
          <P>The Phase 1 interim data report of the Diesel Emission Control-Sulfur Effects (DECSE) Program (a joint government-industry program established to explore lower sulfur content that is discussed in more detail later in this section) similarly indicates that testing of OCCs under certain operating conditions can increase dpm emissions due to an increase in the sulfate fraction. (DECSE Program Summary, Dec. 1999) Another commenter also notes that oxidation catalytic activity can increase sulfates under certain operating temperatures, and that oxidation is a part of aftertreatment systems approaches like the DST® and some ceramic traps. But this commenter asserts that the sulfate production occurs at an operating mode that is seldom seen in real operation.</P>

          <P>Other commenters during the rulemaking strongly supported the use of OCCs to reduce particulate and other diesel emissions. They argue that the OCCs result in significant reductions in dpm and in dpm generating gases. One commenter noted that with a clean engine, an OCC might well reduce particulates enough to meet any requirements established by MSHA.<PRTPAGE P="5547"/>
          </P>
          <P>However, another commenter noted that OCCs and ceramic traps can fail when used at higher altitude mines due to the lower oxygen content in the exhaust system. Another commenter asserted that OCCs are not effective at low temperature, although they are improving. Accordingly, this commenter indicated that OCCs have an impact only on light duty equipment when the equipment is working, not when it is idling, and are virtually useless on permissible equipment because of the low exhaust temperatures achieved through cooling. Despite a specific request from MSHA at the rulemaking hearings, no data were provided by OCC advocates to demonstrate that they can perform well at the lower temperatures normally found in light duty equipment.</P>
          <P>Hot gas particulate traps. Throughout this preamble, MSHA is referring to the particulate traps (filters) that can be used in the undiluted hot exhaust stream from the diesel engine as hot gas filter. Hot gas filter refers to the current commercially available particulate filters such as ceramic cell, woven fiber filter, sintered metal filter, etc.</P>
          <P>Following publication of EPA rules in 1985 limiting diesel particulate emissions from heavy duty diesel engines, development of aftertreatment devices capable of more significant reductions in particulate levels began to be developed for Comerica applications.</P>
          <P>The wall flow type ceramic honeycomb diesel particulate filter system was initially the most promising approach (SAE, SP-735, 1988). This consisted of a ceramic substrate encased in a shock-and vibration-absorbing material covered with a protective metal shell. The ceramic substrate is arranged in the shape of a honeycomb with the openings parallel to the centerline. The ends of the openings of the honeycomb cells are plugged alternately. When the exhaust gas flows through the particulate trap, it is forced by the plugged end to flow through the ceramic wall to the adjacent passage and then out into the mine atmosphere. The ceramic material is engineered with pores in the ceramic material sufficiently large to allow the gas to pass through without placing excessive back pressure on the engine, but small enough to trap the particulate on the wall of the ceramic material. Consequently, these units are called wall flow traps.</P>
          <P>Work with ceramic filters in the last few years has led to the development of the ceramic fiber wound filter cartridge (SAE, SP-1073, 1995). The ceramic fiber has been reported by the manufacturer to have dpm reduction efficiencies up to 80 percent. This system has been used on vehicles to comply with German requirements that exhaust from all diesel engines used in confined areas be filtered. Other manufacturers have made the wall flow type ceramic honeycomb dpm filter system commercially available to meet the German standard. One commenter noted that a total exhaust, wall-flow, ceramic filter developed in Canada in collaboration with a US firm has been successfully demonstrated underground with a reduction of between 60% and 90% of particulate matter.</P>
          <P>The development of these devices has proceeded in response to international and national efforts to regulate dpm emissions. However, due to the extensive work performed by the engine manufacturers on new technological designs of the diesel engine's combustion system, and the use of low sulfur fuel, particulate traps were found to be unnecessary for compliance with the EPA standards of the time for vehicle engines.</P>
          <P>These devices proved to be quite effective in removing particulate, achieving particulate removal efficiencies of greater than 90 percent.</P>
          <P>It was quickly recognized that this technology, while not immediately required for most vehicles, might be useful in mining applications. The former Bureau of Mines investigated the use of catalyzed diesel particulate filters in underground mines in the United States (BOM, RI-9478, 1993). The study demonstrated that filters could work, but that there were problems associated with their use on individual unit installations, and the Bureau made recommendations for installation of ceramic filters on mining vehicles.</P>
          <P>Canadian mines also began to experiment with ceramic traps in the 1980's with similar results (BOM, IC 9324, 1992). Work in Canada today continues under the auspices of the Diesel Emission Evaluation Program (DEEP), established by the Canadian Centre for Mineral and Energy Technology in 1996 (DEEP Plenary Proceedings, November 1996). The goals of DEEP are to: (1) evaluate aerosol sampling and analytical methods for dpm; and (2) evaluate the in-mine performance and costs of various diesel exhaust control strategies.</P>
          <P>Reservations regarding their usefulness and practicality remain. One commenter stated at one of the MSHA workshops in 1995, “while ceramic filters give good results early in their life cycle, they have a relatively short life, are very expensive and unreliable.” Another commenter reported unsuccessful experiments with ceramic filters in 1991 due to their inability to regenerate at low temperatures, lack of reliability, high cost of purchase and installation, and short life. Another reported that ceramics would not work at higher altitudes because of lower oxygen content in the exhaust system. Another commenter pointed out that elevated operating temperatures in certain engine modes can result in sulfates adding as much as 50% to total particulate mass, and asserted that ceramic traps alone were unable to offset this effect on their own.</P>
          <P>In response to the proposed rule, MSHA received information and claims about the current efficiency of such technologies. One commenter, representing those who manufacture emissions controls, and referring to technologies other than low temperature paper filters—such as higher temperature disposable paper filters, ceramic monolith diesel particulate filters, wound ceramic fiber filters, and metal fiber filters—asserted that there were technologies which could achieve in excess of 95% filtration efficiency under “many operating conditions.” Another commenter submitted copies of information provided to that commenter by individual manufacturers of emission control systems, many of which made similar claims. Another commenter, however, questioned manufacturer claims, asserting big differences had been observed between such claims an independent 8-mode tests.</P>
          <P>It appears that two groups in particular have been doing some research comparing the efficiency of recent ceramic models: the University of West Virginia, as part of that State's efforts to develop rules on the use of diesel-powered equipment underground; and VERT (Verminderung der Emissionen von Realmaschinen in Tunnelbau), a consortium of several European agencies conducting research in connection with major planned tunneling projects in Austria, Switzerland and Germany to protect occupational health and subsequent legislation in each of the three countries restricting diesel emissions in tunneling (in both cases, background on the regulatory efforts of the jurisdictions involved is discussed in section 8 of this part).</P>

          <P>The legislature of the State of West Virginia enacted the West Virginia Diesel Act, which created the West Virginia Diesel Commission and set forth an administrative vehicle to allow and regulate the use of diesel equipment in underground coal mines in that state. West Virginia University was appropriated funds to test diesel exhaust controls, as well as an array of<PRTPAGE P="5548"/>diesel particulate filters. The University was asked to provide technical support and data necessary for the Commission to make decisions on standards for emission controls.</P>
          <P>The University provided data on four different engines and an assortment of configurations of available control devices, both hot gas filters and the DST® system (a system which, first cools the exhaust, then runs it through a paper filter). The range of collection efficiencies reported for the ceramic filters and oxidation catalysts combined fell between 65% and 78%. The highest collection efficiency obtained using the ISO 8 mode test cycle (test cycle described in rule) was 81% on the DST® system. The University reported problems with this system that would account for the lower than expected efficiency for a paper filter type system. A commenter who spoke for the Commission at MSHA's public hearing expressed serious reservations of the 95% collection efficiency of MSHA's proposed rule and believed it was not achievable with technology based on the University's current work. The WV Commission also provided MSHA a detailed proposal for setting a laboratory diesel particulate standard of 0.5 milligram per cubic meter. As discussed in part IV, this is similar to the Pennsylvania standard, but without a strict filter efficiency value, and as further discussed in part IV, MSHA's approach in this final rule is similar.</P>
          <P>VERT's studies of particulate traps are detailed in two articles published in 1999 which have been widely disseminated to the diesel community here through www.DieselNet.com (Mayer et al., March 1999, and Mayer, April 1999). The March article focuses on the efficiency of the traps; the April article compares the efficiency of other approaches (OCCs, fuel reformulation, engine modifications to reduce ultra-fine particulates) with that of the traps. Here we focus only on the information about particulate traps.</P>
          <P>The authors of the March article report that 29 particulate trap systems were tested using various ceramic, metal and fiber filter media and several regeneration systems. The authors of the March article summarize their conclusions as follows:</P>
          
          <EXTRACT>
            <P>The results of the 4-year investigations of construction site engines on test rigs and in the field are clear: particulate trap technology is the only acceptable choice among all available measures. Traps proved to be an extremely efficient method to curtail the finest particles. Several systems demonstrated a filtration rate of more than 99% for ultra-fine particulates. Specific development may further improve the filtration rate.</P>
            <P>A two-year field test, with subsequent trap inspection, confirmed the results pertaining to filtration characteristics of ultra-fine particles. No curtailment of the ultra-fine particles is obtained with any of the following: reformulated fuel, new lubricants, oxidation catalytic converters, and optimization of the engine combustion.</P>
            <P>Particulate traps represent the best available technology (BAT). Traps must therefore be employed to curtail the particulate emissions that the law demands are minimized. This technology was implemented in occupational health programs in Germany, Switzerland and Austria.</P>
          </EXTRACT>
          
          <P>On the bench tests, it appears that the traps reduce the overall particulate matter by between 70 and 80%, with better results for solid ultrafine particulates; under hot gas conditions, it appears the non-solid components of particulate matter cannot be dependably retained by these traps. Consistent with this finding, it was found that polycyclic aromatic hydrocarbons (PAHs) decreased proportionately to the gravimetric decrease of carbon mass. The tests also explored the impact of additives on trap efficiency, and the impact of back pressure.</P>
          <P>The field tests confirmed that the traps were easy to mount and retained their reliability over time, although regeneration using an external power source was required when low exhaust temperatures failed to do this automatically. Electronic monitoring of back pressure was recommended. In general, the tests confirmed that a whole series of trap systems have a high filtration rate and stable long time properties and are capable of performing under difficult construction site conditions. Again, the field tests indicated a very high reduction (97-99%) by particulate count, but a lower rate of reduction in terms of mass.</P>
          <P>Subsequently, VERT has evaluated additional commerically available filter systems. A list of recently evaluated hot gas filters are shown in Table II-4. The filtration efficiency, expressed on a gravimetric basis is shown in the column headed “PMAG—without additive”. The filtration efficiencies determined by VERT for these 6 filter systems range from 80.7% to 94.5%. The average efficiency of these filters is 87%. MSHA will be updating the list of VERT's evaluated systems as they become available.</P>
          
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          <P>Some commenters asserted that the VERT work was for relatively small engines and not for large engines,<E T="03">i.e.</E>600-700 hp, and hence could not be relied upon to demonstrate the availability of filters of such high efficiencies for the larger equipment used in some underground mines. MSHA believes this comment is misplaced. The efficiency of a filter is attributable to the design of the filter and not the size of the engine. VERT is documenting filter efficiencies of commercially available filters. It is customary in the industry, however, for the filter manufacturer to size the filter to fit the size of the engine. The mine operator must work with the filter manufacturer to verify that the filter needed will work for the intended machine. MSHA believes that this is no different for other types of options installed on machines for underground mining use.</P>
          <P>More information about the results of the VERT tests on specific filters, and how MSHA intends to use this information to aid the mining industry in complying with the requirements of the standards for heavy duty equipment, generators and compressors, are discussed in Part IV of this preamble.</P>
          <P>The accumulated dpm must be removed from particulate traps periodically. This is usually done by burning off the accumulated particulate in a controlled manner, called regeneration. If the diesel equipment on which the trap is installed has a duty cycle which creates an exhaust gas temperature greater than about 650 degrees Fahrenheit for more than 25 percent of the operating time, the unit will be self cleaning. That is, the hot exhaust gas will burn off the particulate as it accumulates. Unfortunately, only hard working equipment, such as load, haul, dump and haulage equipment usually satisfies the exhaust gas temperature and duration requirements to self regenerate.</P>
          <P>Techniques are available to lower the temperature needed to initiate the regeneration. One technique under development is to use a fuel additive. A comparatively small amount of a chemical is added to the diesel fuel and burns along with the fuel in the combustion chamber. The additive is reported to lower the required regeneration temperature significantly. The additive combustion products are retained as a residue in the particulate trap. The trap must be removed from the equipment periodically to flush the residue. Another technique used to lower the regeneration temperature is to apply a catalyst to the surfaces of the trap material. The action of the catalyst is similar to that of the fuel additive. The catalyst also lowers the concentration of some gaseous emissions in the same manner as the oxidation catalytic converter described earlier.</P>
          <P>A very active catalyst applied to the particulate trap surfaces and a very active catalyst in a catalytic converter installed upstream of the trap can create a situation in which the trap performs less efficiently than expected. Burning low sulfur diesel fuel, containing less than 500 ppm sulfur, will result in the creation of significant quantities of sulfates in the exhaust gas. These sulfates will still be in the gaseous state when they reach the ceramic trap and will pass through the trap. These sulfates will condense later forming diesel particulate. Special care must be taken in the selection of the catalyst formulation to ensure that sulfate formation is avoided. This problem does not occur in systems designed with a catalytic converter upstream of a water scrubber. The gaseous phase sulfates will condense when contacting the water in the scrubber and will not be discharged into the mine atmosphere. Thus far, no permissible diesel packages have been approved which incorporate a catalytic converter upstream of the water scrubber. One research project conducted by the former Bureau of Mines which attempted this arrangement was unsuccessful. In attempting to maintain a surface temperature less than the 300 degrees Fahrenheit (required for permissibility purposes) the exhaust gas was be cooled to the point that the catalytic converter did not reach the necessary operating temperature. It would appear that a means to isolate the catalytic converter from the exhaust gas water jacket is necessary for the arrangement to function as intended.</P>
          <P>If the machine on which the particulate trap is installed does not work hard enough to regenerate the trap with the hot exhaust gas and the option to use a fuel additive or catalyzed trap is not appropriate, the trap can still be regenerated while installed on the machine. Systems are available whereby air is heated by an externally applied heat source and caused to flow through the particle trap when the engine is stopped. The heat can be supplied by an electrical resistance element installed in front of the trap. The heat can also be supplied by a burner installed into the exhaust pipe in front of the trap. The burner is fueled by an auxiliary fuel line. The fuel is ignited creating large quantities of hot gas. With both systems, an air line is also connected to the exhaust pipe to create a flow of hot gases through the particulate trap. Both systems utilize operator panels to control the regeneration process.</P>
          <P>Equipment owners may choose to remove the particle trap from the machine to perform the regeneration. Particle traps are available with quick release devices. The trap is then placed on a specially designed device that creates a controlled flow of heated air that is passed through the filter burning off the accumulated particulate.</P>
          <P>The selection of the most appropriate means to regenerate the trap is dependent on the equipment type, the equipment duty cycle, and the equipment utilization practices at the mine.</P>
          <P>A program under the Canadian DEEP project is field testing dpm filter systems in a New Brunswick Mine. Investigators are testing four filter systems on trucks and scoops. The initial feedback from Canada is very favorable concerning the performance of filters. Operators are very positive and are requesting the vehicles equipped with the filters because of the noticeable improvement in air quality and an absence of smoke even under transient load conditions. One system undergoing testing utilizes an electrical heating element installed in the filter system to provide the heated air for regeneration of the filter. This heating element requires connection of the filter to an external electrical source at the end of the shift. Initial tests have been successful.</P>

          <P>VERT has also published information on the extent of dpm filter usage in Europe as evidence that the filter technology has attained wide spread acceptance. MSHA believes this information is relevant to coal and metal/nonmetal mining because the tunneling equipment on which these filters are installed is similar to metal/nonmetal equipment and can be applied to heavy duty equipment in coal mining operations. VERT stated that over 4,500 filter systems have been deployed in England, Scandinavia, and Germany. Deutz Corporation has deployed 400 systems (Deutz's design) with full flow burners for regeneration of filters installed on engines between 50-600kw. The Oberland-Mangold company has approximately 1,000 systems in the field. They have accumulated an average of 8,400 operating hours in forklift trucks, 10,600 operating hours in construction site engines, and 19,200 operating hours in stationary equipment. The Unikat company has introduced in Switzerland over 250 traps since 1989 and 3,000 worldwide with some operating more than 20,000 hours. In German industry,<PRTPAGE P="5551"/>approximately 1,500 traps in forklifts are installed annually.</P>
          <P>
            <E T="03">Paper filters.</E>In 1990, the former Bureau of Mines conducted a project to develop a means to reduce the amount of dpm emitted from permissible diesel powered equipment using technologies that were available commercially and that could be applied to existing equipment. The project was conducted with the cooperation of an equipment manufacturer, a mine operator, and MSHA. In light of the fact that all permissible diesel powered equipment, at that time, utilized water scrubbers to meet the MSHA approval requirements, the physical characteristics of the exhaust from that type of equipment were the basis for the selection of candidate technologies. The technology selected for development was the pleated media filter or paper filter as it came to be called. The filter selected was an intake air cleaner normally used for over the road trucks. That filter was acceptable for use with permissible diesel equipment because the temperature of the exhaust gas from the water scrubber was less than 170 degrees F, well below the ignition point of the filter material. Recognizing that under some operating modes, water would be discharged along with the exhaust, a water trap was installed in the exhaust stream before it passed through the filter. After MSHA conducted a thorough permissibility evaluation of the modified system, this filter was installed on a permissible diesel coal haulage vehicle and a series of in-mine trials were conducted. It was determined, by in mine ambient gravimetric sampling, that the particulate filter reduced dpm emissions by 95 percent compared with the same machine without the filter. The test results showed that the filters would last between one and two shifts, depending on how hard the equipment worked. (BOM, IC 9324).</P>
          <P>Following the successful completion of the former Bureau of Mines mine trial, several equipment manufacturers applied for and received MSHA approval to offer the paper filter kits as options on a number of permissible diesel machines. These filter kits were installed on other machines at the mine where the original tests were conducted, and later, on machines at other mines.</P>
          <P>Despite the initial reports on the high efficiency of paper filters, during the hearings and in the comments on this rulemaking a number of commenters questioned whether, in practice, paper filters could achieve efficiencies on the order of 95% when used on existing permissible equipment. In order to determine whether it could verify those concerns, MSHA contracted with the Southwest Research Institute to verify the ability of such a paper filter to reduce the dpm generated by a typical engine used in permissible equipment. The results of this verification investigation are reviewed in Part IV of this preamble. They confirmed that commercially available paper filters are capable of achieving very high efficiencies.</P>
          <P>Another commenter noted that the volatile fraction of particulate is not trapped by hot gas filters, but rather passes through the filter in gaseous form. The volatile fraction consists of, among other components, gaseous forms of sulfur compounds, lube oil and the high boiling point fraction of unburned fuel. These components condense in the mine atmosphere as diesel particulate. The commenter asserted that the process of volatilization is reduced in the water cooled exhaust, but it is present nevertheless.</P>
          <P>MSHA recognizes that the volatile fraction of dpm passes through hot gas filters. This volatile fraction later condenses in the mine atmosphere and is collected on particulate samplers. This is not the case with hot gas filters that utilize a catalytic converter. The volatile fraction is oxidized in the catalytic converter and the gases produced do not condense as particulate. Paper filters are typically used with water scrubbers or heat exchangers, both of which condense the volatile fraction into dpm before the exhaust gas reaches the paper filter. This allows the paper filter to trap the condensed volatile fraction.</P>
          <P>
            <E T="03">Dry systems technology.</E>The recently developed means of achieving permissibility with diesel powered equipment in the United States is the dry exhaust conditioning system or dry system. This system combines several of the concepts described above as well as new, innovative approaches. The system also solves some of the problems encountered with older technologies.</P>
          <P>The dry system in its most basic form consists of a heat exchanger to cool the exhaust gas, a mechanical flame arrestor to prevent the discharge of any flame from within the engine into the mine atmosphere, and a spark arrestor to prevent sparks from being discharged. The surfaces of these components and the piping connecting them are maintained below the 300 degrees F required by MSHA approval requirements. A filter, of the type normally used as an intake air filter element, is installed in the exhaust system as the spark arrestor. In terms of controlling dpm emissions, the most significant feature of the system is the use of this air filter element as a particulate filter. The filter media has an allowable operating temperature rating greater than the 300 degree F exhaust gas temperature allowed by MSHA approval regulations. These filters are reported to last up to sixteen hours, depending on how hard the machine operates.</P>
          <P>The dry system can operate on any grade without the problems encountered by water scrubbers. Furthermore, there is no problem with fog created by operation of the water scrubber. Dry systems have been installed and are operating successfully on diesel haulage equipment, longwall component carriers, longwall component extraction equipment, and in nonpermissible form, on locomotives. However, as pointed out by commenters, requiring the use of a dry system on all mining equipment would be expensive, cumbersome, and in many cases would require considerable engineering measures that might render them infeasible.</P>
          <P>Although the dry systems were originally designed for permissible equipment applications, they can also be used directly on outby equipment (whose emissions are not already cooled), or to replace water scrubbers used to cool most permissible equipment with a system that includes additional aftertreatment.</P>
          <P>Two manufacturers have received approval for diesel power packages that are configured as described above; Paas Technologies, (under various corporate designations including Minecraft and a registered trade name, Dry Systems Technology, or DST ®) and Jeffrey Mining Equipment Company (currently Long-Airdox-Jeffrey).</P>
          <P>The design of the dry system manufactured by DST ® includes a catalytic converter. However, with respect to the basic Paas Technologies system, without a catalytic converter, the initial reported laboratory reductions in dpm were dramatic: up to 98%.</P>

          <P>During the hearings, however, there were many questions about the applicability of the early results to MSHA's proposed requirement that emissions of certain equipment be reduced 95% by mass. It was indicated by a commenter that the original Paas Technology dry system tests with a paper filter were performed at West Virginia University used high sulfur fuel which is currently prohibited in underground coal mines. The commenter stated that the University tested different fuels containing varying sulfur contents and the results indicated a fluctuation in overall dpm emission results. The commenter stated the<PRTPAGE P="5552"/>difference in dpm collection efficiency by the filter was on the order of 12 to 15%. Another commenter stated the difference in dpm reduction using a 0.37 percent fuel sulfur and a 0.04 percent fuel sulfur was about 22 percent. This commenter further stated that other published papers from Europe report the same dpm reductions with varying fuel sulfur levels, approximately 15 to 20 percent reduction.</P>
          <P>As was stated ealier, Paas Technologies has further developed its system by the adding a catalytic converter in the exhaust before the particulate paper filter. Paas Technologies have developed a technique whereby the catalytic converter is mounted so that the exhaust gas temperature remains high enough for the converter to operate effectively while complying with the MSHA surface temperature requirement. In addition to removing most of the carbon monoxide, the catalytic converter removes most of the unburned hydrocarbons before they are cooled and condensed. This feature extends the operating life of the filter. Any sulfate formed in the catalytic converter or in the engine combustion process condenses to a solid form as the exhaust gas passes through the heat exchanger and is collected in the particulate filter.</P>
          <P>Paas Technologies submitted a detailed set of test results on a 94hp MWM D-916-6 test engine equipped with a Model M38 DST ® Management System, which included the catalytic converter, for the rulemaking record. These tests were conducted by Southwest Research Institute using an 8-mode test, with ASTM No. 2-D diesel fuel. Both the test cycle and test fuel (low sulfur) conformed with the test procedure detailed in the proposed rule and in this final rule. In idle mode, the dpm emissions were reduced about 90%; in mode 5, the dpm emissions were down 99%; on average of the 8 modes, the dpm emissions were reduced by 97%.</P>
          <P>The Jeffrey system, which does not utilize a catalytic converter, was the subject of the MSHA verification initiative, noted in part IV. The verification was conducted in such a way as to test filter efficiency separately from whole system, with the low sulfur fuel required for coal mine use and without a catalytic converter. The verification confirmed that the paper filter has a dpm removal efficiency greater than 95 percent.</P>
          <P>This data submitted to the rulemaking record demonstrates that paper filters used on dry systems can achieve a filtration efficiency that allows equipment to meet the 2.5 gm/hr standard with low sulfur diesel fuel both with and without a catalytic converter in the system.</P>
          <P>
            <E T="03">Reformulated fuels.</E>It has long been known that sulfur content can have a big effect on dpm emissions. In the diesel equipment rule, MSHA requires that fuel used in underground coal mines have less than 0.05% (500 ppm) sulfur. EPA regulations requiring that such low-sulfur fuel (less than 500 ppm) be used in highway engines, in order to limit air pollution, have in practice ensured that this is the type of diesel fuel available to mine operators, and they currently use this type of fuel for all engines.</P>
          <P>EPA has proposed a rule which would require further reductions in the sulfur content of highway diesel fuel. Such an action was taken for gasoline fuel on December 21, 1999.</P>
          <P>On May 13, 1999 (64 FR 26142) EPA published an Advance Notice of Proposed Rulemaking (ANPRM) relative to changes for diesel fuel. In explaining why it was initiating this action, EPA noted that diesel engines “contribute greatly” to a number of serious air pollution problems, and that diesel emissions account for a large portion of the country's particulate matter and nitrogen oxides-a key precursor to ozone. EPA noted that while these emissions come mostly from heavy-duty truck and nonroad engines, they expected the contribution to dpm emissions from light-duty equipment to grow due to manufacturers' plans to greatly increase the sale of light duty trucks. These vehicles are now subject to Tier 2 emission standards, whether powered by gasoline or diesel fuel. Such standards may be difficult to meet without advanced catalyst technologies that in turn are likely to require sulfur reductions in the fuel.</P>
          <P>Moreover, planned Tier 3 standards for nonroad vehicles would require similar action (64 FR 26143). (For more information on the EPA planned engine standards, see section 5 of this Part). The EPA noted that the European Union has adopted new specifications for diesel fuel that would limit it to 50 ppm by 2005, (an interim limit of 350 ppm by this year), that the entire diesel fuel supply in the United Kingdom should soon be at 50 ppm, and that Japan and other nations were working toward the same goal (64 FR 26148).</P>
          <P>In the ANPRM, EPA specifically noted that while continuously regenerating ceramic filters have shown considerable promise for limiting dpm emissions even at fairly low exhaust temperatures, the systems were fairly intolerant of fuel sulfur. Accordingly, the agency hopes to gather information on whether or not low sulfur fuel was needed for effective PM control (64 FR 26150). EPA's proposed rule was published in May 2000 and EPA issued final regulations addressing emissions standards (December 2000) for new model year 2007 heavy-duty diesel engines and the low-sulfur fuel rule. The regulations require ultra-low sulfur fuel be phased in during 2006-2009.</P>
          <P>A joint government-industry partnership is also investigating the relationship between varying levels of sulfur content and emissions reduction performance on various control technologies, including particulate filters and oxidation catalytic convertors. This program is supported by the Department of Energy's Office of Heavy Vehicles Technologies, two national laboratories, the Engine Manufacturers Association, and the Manufacturers of Emission Controls Association. It is known as the Diesel Emission Control-Sulfur Effects (DECSE) Program; more information is available from its web site, http://www.ott.doe.gov/decse.</P>
          <P>MSHA expects that once such cleaner fuel is required for transportation use, it will in practice become the fuel used in mining as well—directly reducing engine particulate emissions, increasing the efficiency of aftertreatment devices, and eventually through the introduction of new generation of cleaner equipment. Mayer states that reducing sulfur content, decreasing aromatic components and increasing the Cetane index of diesel fuel can generally result in a 5% to 15% reduction in total particulate emissions.</P>

          <P>Several commenters in this rulemaking suggested other fuel formulations which could have a beneficial effect on dpm emissions. One commenter encouraged the use of FRF, Fire Resistant Fuel, which has various safety features as well as lower NO<E T="52">X</E>and PM, and noted it is under study for use by the military.</P>

          <P>Another commenter noted the development of a catalytic ignition system that permits the engines to operate on alternative fuels which greatly reduce harmful emissions. For example, using a water-methanol mix, the commenter noted dramatic reductions in harmful emissions of NO<E T="52">X</E>, CO and HC over a gasoline, spark ignition engine. This commenter also noted that the ignition system could operate on a diesel engine, but provided no information about emissions reductions by its use.</P>

          <P>Meyer reports the results of a test by VERT of a special synthetic fuel containing neither sulfur nor bound nitrogen nor aromatics, with a very high<PRTPAGE P="5553"/>Cetane index. The fuel performed very well, but produced only abut 10% fewer particulates than low sulfur diesel fuel, nor did it show any improvement in diminishing nonparticulate emissions.</P>
          <P>
            <E T="03">Cabs.</E>Even though cabs are not the type of control device that is attached to the exhaust of the diesel engine to reduce emissions, cabs can protect miners from environmental exposures to dpm. Both cabs and control booths are discussed in the context of reducing miners exposures to dpm.</P>
          <P>A cab is an enclosure around the operator installed on a piece of mobile equipment. It can provide the same type of protection as a booth at a crusher station as found in some surface operations. While cabs are not available for all mining equipment, they are available for much of the larger equipment that also has application in the construction industry.</P>
          <P>To be effective, a cab should be tightly sealed with windows and doors closed. Rubber seals around doors and windows should be in good condition. Door and window latches must operate properly. In addition to being well sealed, the cab should have an air filtration and pressurizing system. Air intake should be located away from engine exhaust. The airflow should provide one air change per minute for the cab and should pressurize the cab to 0.20 inches of water. While these are not absolute requirements, they do provide a guideline of how a cab should be designed. If a cab does not have an air filtration and pressurizing system, the diesel particulate concentration inside the cab will be similar to the diesel particulate concentration outside the cab.</P>
          <P>MSHA has evaluated the efficiency of cab filters for diesel particulate reduction. Several different types of filter media have been tested in underground mines. These include standard filter paper and high efficiency filter paper. Filter papers can reduce diesel particulate exposures by 60 percent to 90 percent. When changing filter media, it is necessary to make sure that the airflow into the cab is not reduced and that the airflow through an air conditioning system is not reduced.</P>
          <P>Although the installation of a cab does not relieve the mine operator from the responsibility of complying with the equipment dpm limits, cabs provide assistance in complying with noise and respirable dust regulations. Cabs protect the equipment operator protection from dpm, respirable dust and noise exposures.</P>
          <HD SOURCE="HD2">(7) Existing Standards for Underground Coal Mines That Assist in Limiting Miner Exposure to Diesel Emissions</HD>
          <P>MSHA already has in place various requirements that indirectly help to control miner exposure to diesel emissions in underground mines—including exposure to diesel particulate. The first such requirements were developed in the 1940's; the most recent went into full effect only in November, 1999. It is important to understand these requirements because they form the base upon which this new rule is overlaid.</P>
          <P>
            <E T="03">Early developments.</E>In 1944, part 31 established procedures for limiting the gaseous emissions from diesel powered equipment and establishing the recommended dilution air quantity for mine locomotives that use diesel fuel. In 1949, part 32 established procedures for testing of mobile diesel-powered equipment for non-coal mines. In 1961, part 36 was added to provide requirements for the use of diesel equipment in gassy noncoal mines, in which engines must be temperature controlled to prevent explosive hazards. These rules were drafted in response to research conducted by the former Bureau of Mines.</P>
          <P>Continued research by the former Bureau of Mines in the 1950s and 1960s led to refinements of its ventilation recommendations, particularly when multiple engines are in use. An airflow of 100 to 250 cfm/bhp for engines that have a properly adjusted fuel to air ratio was recommended (Holtz, 1960). An additive ventilation requirement was recommended for operation of multiple diesel units, which could be relaxed based on the mine operating procedures. This approach was subsequently refined to become a 100-75-50 percent guideline (MSHA Policy Memorandum 81-19MM, 1981). Under this guideline, when multiple pieces of diesel equipment are operated, the required airflow on a split of air would be the sum of: (a) 100 percent of the approval plate quantity for the vehicle with the highest approval plate air quantity requirement; (b) 75 percent of the approval plate air quantity requirement of the vehicle with the next highest approval plate air quantity requirement; and (c) 50 percent of the approval plate airflow for each additional piece of diesel equipment.</P>
          <P>
            <E T="03">Limitations on Diesel Gasses.</E>MSHA has limits on some of the gasses produced in diesel exhaust. These are listed in Table II-5, for both coal mines and metal/nonmetal mines, together with information about the recommendations in this regard of other organizations. As indicated in the table, MSHA requires mine operators to comply with gas specific threshold limit values (TLV®s) recommended by the American Conference of Governmental Industrial Hygienists (ACGIH) in 1972 (for coal mines) and in 1973 (for metal and nonmetal mines).</P>
          
          <BILCOD>BILLING CODE 4510-43-P</BILCOD>
          
          <GPH DEEP="364" SPAN="3">
            <PRTPAGE P="5554"/>
            <GID>ER19JA01.009</GID>
          </GPH>
          
          <BILCOD>BILLING CODE 4510-43-C</BILCOD>
          <P>To change an MSHA exposure limit, regulatory action is required because the rule does not provide for their automatic updating. In 1989, MSHA proposed changing some of these gas limits in the context of a proposed rule on air quality standards (54 FR 35760). Following opportunity for comment and hearings, a portion of that proposed air quality rule (concerning control of drill dust and blasting) was promulgated. As a result of a recent legal action, MSHA's efforts to revise the specific limits for those gases emitted by diesel engines have been placed under the continued supervision of a federal court of appeals. This action is discussed in more detail in section 9 of this Part.</P>
          <P>
            <E T="03">Diesel Equipment Rule for Underground Coal Mines.</E>On October 25, 1996, MSHA promulgated standards for the “Approval, Exhaust Gas Monitoring, and Safety Requirements for the Use of Diesel-Powered Equipment in Underground Coal Mines” (61 FR 55412). The history of this “diesel equipment rule” (sometimes referred to here as the “diesel safety rule” to help distinguish it from this rulemaking which is oriented toward health) is set forth as part of the history of this rulemaking (see section 9 of this part).</P>
          <P>The diesel equipment rule focuses on the safe use of diesels in underground coal mines. Integrated requirements are established for the safe storage, handling, and transport of diesel fuel underground, training of mine personnel, minimum ventilating air quantities for diesel powered equipment, monitoring of gaseous diesel exhaust emissions, maintenance requirements, incorporation of fire suppression systems, and design features for nonpermissible machines.</P>
          <P>Certain requirements were included in the diesel equipment rule that are directly related to reducing diesel emissions. For example, the diesel equipment rule requires that the emissions of permissible and heavy duty equipment be tested weekly. The tests are conducted using instrumentation and the tests are conducted with the engines operated at a loaded condition which is representative of actual operation. The results are monitored and recorded. Higher than normal emissions readings indicate that the engines and equipment are not being maintained in approved condition. Although some of these requirements help reduce dpm emissions, they were not included in the rule for that specific purpose.</P>
          <P>
            <E T="03">Lower-emission engines.</E>The diesel equipment rule requires that virtually all diesel-powered engines used in underground coal mines be approved by MSHA; see 30 CFR part 7, (approval requirements), part 36 (permissible machines defined), and part 75 (use of such equipment in underground coal mines). The approval requirements, among other things, require clean-burning engines in diesel-powered equipment (61 FR 55417). In promulgating the final rule, MSHA recognized that clean-burning engines are “critically important” to reducing toxic gasses to levels that can be controlled through ventilation. To achieve the objective of clean-burning engines, the rule sets performance standards which must be met by virtually all diesel-powered equipment in underground coal mines.<PRTPAGE P="5555"/>
          </P>
          <P>As noted in section 5 of this part, the technical requirements for approved diesel engines focus on limiting the amount of various gases that an engine can emit, including undiluted exhaust limits for carbon monoxide and oxides of nitrogen (61 FR 55419). The limits for these gasses are derived from existing 30 CFR part 36.</P>
          <P>The diesel equipment rule also provides that the particulate matter emitted by approved engines be determined during the testing required to gain approval. The particulate index (or PI), calculated under the provisions of 30 CFR 7.89, indicates what air quantity is necessary to dilute the diesel particulate in the engine exhaust to 1 milligram of diesel particulate matter per cubic meter of air. The purpose of the PI requirement is discussed in more detail in section 5 of this part.</P>
          <P>
            <E T="03">Gas Monitoring.</E>The diesel equipment rule also addresses the monitoring and control of gaseous diesel exhaust emissions (30 CFR part 70; 61 FR 55413). In this regard, the rule requires that mine operators take samples of carbon monoxide and nitrogen dioxide as part of existing onshift workplace examinations (61 FR 55413, 55430-55431). Samples exceeding an action level of 50 percent of the threshold limits set forth in 30 CFR 75.322 trigger corrective action by the mine operator (30 CFR part 70, 61 FR 55413).</P>
          <P>
            <E T="03">Engine Maintenance.</E>The diesel equipment rule requires that diesel-powered equipment be maintained in safe and approved condition (30 CFR 75.1914; 61 FR 55414). As explained in the preamble, maintenance requirements were included because of MSHA's recognition that inadequate equipment maintenance can, among other things, result in increased levels of harmful gaseous and particulate components from diesel exhaust (61 FR 55413-55414).</P>
          <P>The rule also requires the weekly examination of diesel-powered equipment (30 CFR 75.1914(g)). To determine if more extensive maintenance is required, the rule further requires a weekly check of the gaseous CO emission levels on permissible and heavy duty outby machines. The CO check requires that the engine be operated at a repeatable loaded condition and the CO measured. The carbon monoxide concentration in the exhaust provides a good indication of engine condition. If the CO measurement increases to a higher concentration than what was normally measured during the past weekly checks, then a maintenance person would know that a problem has developed that requires further investigation.</P>
          <P>In addition, operators are required to establish programs to ensure that those performing maintenance on diesel equipment are qualified (61 FR 55414).</P>
          <P>
            <E T="03">Fuel.</E>The diesel equipment rule also requires that underground coal mine operators use diesel fuel with a sulfur content of 0.05% (500 ppm) or less (30 CFR 75.1910(a); 61 FR 55413). Some types of exhaust aftertreatment technology designed to lower hazardous diesel emissions work more effectively when the sulfur content of the fuel is low. More effective aftertreatment devices will result in reduced hydrocarbons, carbon monoxide, and particulate levels. Low sulfur fuel also greatly reduces the sulfate production from the catalytic converters currently in use in underground coal mines thereby decreasing exhaust particulate. To further reduce miners' exposure to diesel exhaust, the final rule prohibits operators from unnecessarily idling diesel-powered equipment (30 CFR 75.1916(d).</P>
          <P>
            <E T="03">Ventilation.</E>The diesel equipment rule requires that as part of the approval process, ventilating air quantities necessary to maintain the gaseous emissions of diesel engines within existing required ambient limits be set. The ventilating air quantities are required to appear on the engine's approval plate. The rule also requires generally that mine operators maintain the approval plate quantity minimum airflow in areas of underground coal mines where diesel-powered equipment is operated. The engine's approval plate air quantity is also used to determine the minimum air quantity in areas where multiple units of diesel powered equipment are being operated. The minimum ventilating air quantity where multiple units of diesel powered equipment are operated on working sections and in areas where mechanized mining equipment is being installed or removed, must be the sum of 100 percent of the approval plate quantities of all of the equipment. As stated in the preamble of the diesel equipment rule, MSHA believes that effective mine ventilation is a key component in the control of miners' exposure to gasses and particulate emissions generated by diesel equipment.</P>
          <P>
            <E T="03">Impact of the diesel equipment rule on dpm.</E>The diesel equipment rule is helping the mining community use diesel-powered equipment more safely in underground coal mines. Moreover, the diesel equipment rule has many features which reduce the emission and concentration of harmful diesel emissions in underground coal mines—including the particulate component of these emissions.</P>
          <P>During the public hearings on the equipment rule, miners complained about the high concentrations of diesel emissions at the section loading point and in the areas of the mine where longwall equipment is being installed or removed. Accordingly, MSHA established, in that rule, provisions which would address miners' concerns.</P>

          <P>The equipment rule required that the approval plate ventilation quantity be provided at the section loading point. The loading point is also identified as a location where regular air quality samples are required to be taken. Corrective action is required if the samples of CO and NO<E T="52">2</E>exceeded more than one half the allowable concentration limit of these gases.</P>
          <P>Longwall equipment installations and removals are handled in a similar manner. The diesel emissions from all of the equipment in the area of the mine where the longwall move is being made are required to be considered in establishing the amount of ventilation air to be provided. A specific location where that quantity is to be measured is established. Additionally, the same air quality sampling program required for section loading points is required for areas of the mine where the longwall move is to take place.</P>
          <P>Permissible haulage vehicles contribute the largest quantities of emissions at the section loading point. Longwall moves are typically carried out by permissible and heavy duty equipment such as shield carriers, mules, and locomotives which produce large quantities of diesel emissions. Emissions from these vehicles are reduced by the use of approved engines, low sulfur fuel, the loaded repeatable engine condition testing, regular maintenance by trained personnel and the ventilation and sampling provisions of the diesel equipment rule.</P>
          <P>Because the effective dates for provisions of the diesel equipment regulations are staggered, the full impact of the new rules was not known at the time the dpm hearings were held. MSHA expects that the concentrations of diesel emissions at the section loading point and during longwall moves will be reduced as these provisions are fully implemented.</P>

          <P>In developing the diesel equipment rule, however, MSHA did not explicitly consider the risks to miners of a working lifetime of dpm exposure at very high levels, nor the actions that could be taken to specifically reduce dpm exposure levels in underground coal mines. It was understood that the agency would be taking a separate look<PRTPAGE P="5556"/>at the health risks of dpm exposure. (61 FR 55420).</P>
          <HD SOURCE="HD2">(8) Information on How Certain States Are Restricting Occupational Exposure to DPM</HD>
          <P>As noted earlier in this part, the Federal government has long been involved in efforts to restrict diesel particulate emissions into the environment—both through ambient air quality standards, and through restrictions on diesel engine emissions. While MSHA's actions to limit the concentration of dpm in underground mines are the first effort by the Federal government to deal with the special risks faced by workers exposed to diesel exhaust on the job, several states have already taken actions in this regard with respect to underground coal mines.</P>
          <P>This section reviews some of these actions, as they were the subject of considerable discussion and comment during this rulemaking.</P>
          <P>
            <E T="03">Pennsylvania.</E>As indicated in section 1, Pennsylvania essentially had a ban on the use of diesel-powered equipment in underground coal mines for many years. As noted by one commenter, diesel engines were permitted provided the request was approved by the Secretary of the Department of Environmental Protection but no request was ever approved.</P>
          <P>In 1995, one company in the State submitted a plan for approval and started negotiations with its local union representatives. This led to statewide discussions and the adoption of a new law in the State that permits the use of diesel-powered equipment in deep coal mines under certain circumstances specified in the law (Act 182). As further noted by this commenter, the drafters of the law completed their work before the issuance of MSHA's new regulation on the safe use of diesel-powered equipment in underground coal mines. The Pennsylvania law, unlike MSHA's diesel equipment rule, specifically addresses diesel particulate. The State did not set a limit on the exposure of miners to dpm, nor did it establish a limit on the concentration of dpm in deep coal mines. Rather, it approached the issue by imposing controls that will limit dpm emissions at the source.</P>

          <P>First, all diesel engines used in underground deep coal mines in Pennsylvania must be MSHA-approved engines with an “exhaust emissions control and conditioning system” that meets certain tests. (Article II-A, Section 203-A, Exhaust Emission Controls). Among these are dpm emissions from each engine no greater than “an average concentration of 0.12 mg/m<E T="51">3</E>diluted by fifty percent of the MSHA approval plate ventilation for that diesel engine.” In addition, any exhaust emissions control and conditioning system must include a “Diesel Particulate Matter (DPM) filter capable of an average of ninety-five percent or greater reduction of dpm emissions.” It also requires the use of an oxidation catalytic converter. Thus, the Pennsylvania statute requires the use of low-emitting engines, and then the use of aftertreatment devices that significantly reduce the particulates emitted from these engines.</P>

          <P>The Pennsylvania law also has a number of other requirements for the safe use of diesel-powered equipment in the particularly hazardous environments of underground coal mines. Many of these parallel the requirements in MSHA's diesel equipment rule. Like MSHA's requirements, they too can result in reducing miner exposure to diesel particulate—<E T="03">e.g.,</E>regular maintenance of diesel engines by qualified personnel and equipment operator examinations. The requirements in the Pennsylvania law take into account the need to maintain the aftertreatment devices required to control diesel particulate.</P>

          <P>While both mine operators and labor supported this approach, it remains controversial. During the hearings on this rulemaking, one commenter indicated that at the time the standards were established, it would have taken a 95% filter to reduce dpm from certain equipment to the 0.12 mg/m<E T="51">3</E>emissions standard because 0.25 sulfur fuel was being utilized. This test reported by the commenter was completed prior to MSHA promulgating the diesel equipment rule that required the use of .05% sulfur fuel. Another commenter pointed out that as operators in the state began considering the use of newer, less polluting engines, achieving an efficiency of 95% reduction of the emissions from any such engines would become even more difficult. There was some disagreement among the commenters as to whether existing technology would permit operators to meet the 0.12 mg/m<E T="51">3</E>emission standard in many situations.</P>
          <P>One commenter described the difficulty in efforts to get a small outby unit approved under the current Pennsylvania law. Accordingly, the industry has indicated that it would seek additional changes in the Pennsylvania diesel law. Commenters representing miners indicated that they were also involved in these discussions.</P>
          <P>
            <E T="03">West Virginia.</E>Until 1997, West Virginia law banned the use of diesel-powered equipment in underground coal mines. In that year, the State created the joint labor-management West Virginia Diesel Equipment Commission (Commission) and charged it with developing regulations to permit and govern diesel engine use in underground coal mines. As explained by several commenters, the Commission, in collaboration with West Virginia University (WVU), developed a protocol for testing diesel engine exhaust controls, and the legislature appropriated more than $150,000 for WVU to test diesel exhaust controls and an array of diesel particulate filters.</P>
          <P>There were a number of comments received by MSHA on the test protocols and results. These are discussed in appropriate parts in this preamble. One commenter noted that various manufacturers of products have been very interested in how their products compare to those of other manufacturers tested by the WVU. Another asserted that mine operators had been slowing the scheduling of tests by WVA.</P>

          <P>Pursuant to the West Virginia law establishing the Commission, the Commission was given only a limited time to determine the applicable rules for the use of diesel engines underground, or the matter was required to be referred to an arbitrator for resolution. One commenter during the hearings noted that the Commission had not been able to reach resolution and that indeed arbitration was the next step. Other commenters described the proposal of the industry members of the Commission—0.5mg/m<E T="51">3</E>for all equipment, as configured, before approval is granted. In this regard, the industry members of the West Virginia Commission said:</P>
          
          <EXTRACT>
            <P>“We urge you to accelerate the finalization of * * * these proposed rules. We believe that will aid our cause, as well as the other states that currently don't use diesel.” (Id.)</P>
          </EXTRACT>
          
          <P>
            <E T="03">Virginia.</E>According to one commenter, diesel engine use in underground mining was legalized in Virginia in the mid-1980s. It was originally used on some heavy production equipment, but the haze it created was so thick it led to a drop in production. Thereafter, most diesel equipment has been used outby (805 pieces). The current state regulations consist of requiring that MSHA approved engines be used, and that the “most up-to-date, approved, available diesel engine exhaust aftertreatment package” be utilized. There are no distinctions between types of equipment. The commenter noted that more hearings were planned soon. Under a directive from the governor of Virginia, the state is reviewing its<PRTPAGE P="5557"/>regulations and making recommendations for revisions to sections of its law on diesels.</P>
          <P>
            <E T="03">Ohio.</E>The record of this rulemaking contains little specific information on the restrictions on the underground use of diesel-powered equipment in Ohio. MSHA understands, however, that in practice it is not used. According to a communication with the Division of Mines and Reclamation of the Ohio Division of Natural Resources, this outcome stems from a law enacted on October 29, 1995, now codified as section 1567.35 of Ohio Revised Code Title 15, which imposes strict safety restrictions on the use of various fuels underground.</P>
          <HD SOURCE="HD2">(9)<E T="03">History of this Rulemaking</E>
          </HD>
          <P>As discussed throughout this part, the Federal government has worked closely with the mining community to ascertain whether and how diesel-powered equipment might be used safety and healthfully in this industry. As the evidence began to grow that exposure to diesel exhaust might be harmful to miners, particularly in underground mines, formal agency actions were initiated to investigate this possibility and to determine what, if any, actions might be appropriate. These actions, including a number of non-regulatory initiatives taken by MSHA, are summarized here in chronological sequence.</P>
          <P>
            <E T="03">Activities Prior to Proposed Rulemaking on DPM.</E>In 1984, the National Institute for Occupational Safety and Health (NIOSH) established a standing Mine Health Research Advisory Committee to advise it on matters involving or related to mine health research. In turn, that standing body established the Mine Health Research Advisory Committee Diesel Subgroup to determine if:</P>
          
          
          <EXTRACT>
            <FP>* * * there is a scientific basis for developing a recommendation on the use of diesel equipment in underground mining operations and defining the limits of current knowledge, and recommending areas of research for NIOSH, if any, taking into account other investigators' ongoing and planned research. (49 FR 37174).</FP>
            
          </EXTRACT>
          <P>In 1985, MSHA established an Interagency Task Group with NIOSH and the former Bureau of Mines (BOM) to assess the health and safety implications of the use of diesel-powered equipment in underground coal mines.</P>
          <P>In April 1986, in part as a result of the recommendation of the Task Group, MSHA began drafting proposed regulations on the approval and use of diesel-powered equipment in underground coal mines. Also in 1986, the Mine Health Research Advisory Committee Diesel Subgroup (which, as noted above, was created by a standing NIOSH committee) summarized the evidence available at that time as follows:</P>
          <EXTRACT>
            
            <FP>It is our opinion that although there are some data suggesting a small excess risk of adverse health effects associated with exposure to diesel exhaust, these data are not compelling enough to exclude diesels from underground mines. In cases where diesel equipment is used in mines, controls should be employed to minimize exposure to diesel exhaust.</FP>
          </EXTRACT>
          
          <P>On October 6, 1987, pursuant to section 102(c) of the Mine Act, 30 U.S.C. 812(c), which authorizes MSHA to appoint such advisory committees as it deems appropriate, the agency appointed an advisory committee “to provide advice on the complex issues concerning the use of diesel-powered equipment in underground coal mines.” (52 FR 37381). MSHA appointed nine members to this committee, officially known as The Mine Safety and Health Administration Advisory Committee on Standards and Regulations for Diesel-Powered Equipment in Underground Coal Mines (hereafter the MSHA Diesel Advisory Committee). As required by section 101(a)(1) of the Mine Act, MSHA provided the MSHA Diesel Advisory Committee with draft regulations on the approval and use of diesel-powered equipment in underground coal mines. The draft regulations did not include standards setting specific limitations on diesel particulate, nor had MSHA at that time determined that such standards would be promulgated.</P>
          <P>In July 1988, the MSHA Diesel Advisory Committee completed its work with the issuance of a report entitled “Report of the Mine Safety and Health Administration Advisory Committee on Standards and Regulations for Diesel-Powered Equipment in Underground Coal Mines.” It also recommended that MSHA promulgate standards governing the approval and use of diesel-powered equipment in underground coal mines. The MSHA Diesel Advisory Committee recommended that MSHA promulgate standards limiting underground coal miners' exposure to diesel exhaust.</P>

          <P>With respect to diesel particulate, the MSHA Diesel Advisory Committee recommended that MSHA “set in motion a mechanism whereby a diesel particulate standard can be set.” (MSHA, 1988). In this regard, the MSHA Diesel Advisory Committee determined that because of inadequacies in the data on the health effects of diesel particulate matter and inadequacies in the technology for monitoring the amount of diesel particulate matter at that time, it could not recommend that MSHA promulgate a standard specifically limiting the level of diesel particulate matter in underground coal mines (<E T="03">Id.</E>64-65). Instead, the MSHA Diesel Advisory Committee recommended that MSHA ask NIOSH and the former Bureau of Mines to prioritize research in the development of sampling methods and devices for diesel particulate.</P>

          <P>The MSHA Diesel Advisory Committee also recommended that MSHA request a study on the chronic and acute effects of diesel emissions (<E T="03">Id.</E>). In addition, the MSHA Diesel Advisory Committee recommended that the control of diesel particulate “be accomplished through a combination of measures including fuel requirements, equipment design, and in-mine controls such as the ventilation system and equipment maintenance in conjunction with undiluted exhaust measurements.” The MSHA Diesel Advisory Committee further recommended that particulate emissions “be evaluated in the equipment approval process and a particulate emission index reported.” (<E T="03">Id.</E>at 9).</P>

          <P>In addition, the MSHA Diesel Advisory Committee recommended that “the total respirable particulate, including diesel particulate, should not exceed the existing two milligrams per cubic meter respirable dust standard.” (<E T="03">Id.</E>at 9.) It should be noted that section 202(b)(2) of the Mine Act requires that coal mine operators maintain the average concentration of respirable dust at their mines at or below two milligrams per cubic meter which effectively prohibits diesel particulate matter in excess of two milligrams per cubic meter (30 U.S.C. 842(b)(2)).</P>
          <P>As noted, the MSHA Diesel Advisory Committee issued its report in 1988. During that year, NIOSH issued a Current Intelligence Bulletin recommending that whole diesel exhaust be regarded as a potential carcinogen and controlled to the lowest feasible exposure level (NIOSH, 1988). In its bulletin, NIOSH concluded that although the excess risk of cancer in diesel exhaust exposed workers had not been quantitatively estimated, it is logical to assume that reductions in exposure to diesel exhaust in the workplace would reduce the excess risk. NIOSH stated that “[g]iven what we currently know, there is an urgent need for efforts to be made to reduce occupational exposures to DEP [dpm] in mines.”</P>

          <P>Consistent with the MSHA Diesel Advisory Committee's research recommendations, MSHA, in September 1988, formally requested NIOSH to<PRTPAGE P="5558"/>perform a risk assessment for exposure to diesel particulate. (57 FR 500). MSHA also requested assistance from NIOSH and the former BOM in developing sampling and analytical methodologies for assessing exposure to diesel particulate in mining operations. (<E T="03">Id.</E>). In part, as a result of the MSHA Diesel Advisory Committee's recommendation, MSHA also participated in studies on diesel particulate sampling methodologies and determination of underground occupational exposure to diesel particulate.</P>

          <P>On October 4, 1989, MSHA published a Notice of Proposed Rulemaking on approval requirements, exposure monitoring, and safety requirements for the use of diesel-powered equipment in underground coal mines. (54 FR 40950). The proposed rule, among other things, addressed, and in fact followed, the MSHA Diesel Advisory Committee's recommendation that MSHA promulgate regulations requiring the approval of diesel engines (54 FR 40951), limiting gaseous pollutants from diesel equipment, (<E T="03">Id.</E>), establishing ventilation requirements based on approval plate dilution air quantities (54 FR 40990), requiring equipment maintenance (54 FR 40958), requiring that trained personnel work on diesel-powered equipment, (54 FR 40995), establishing fuel requirements, (<E T="03">Id.</E>), establishing gaseous contaminant monitoring (54 FR 40989), and requiring that a particulate index indicating the quantity of air needed to dilute particulate emissions from diesel engines be established. (54 FR 40953).</P>
          <P>On January 6, 1992, MSHA published an Advance Notice of Proposed Rulemaking (ANPRM) indicating it was in the early stages of developing a rule specifically addressing miners exposure to diesel particulate (57 FR 500). In the ANPRM, MSHA, among other things, sought comment on specific reports on diesel particulate prepared by NIOSH and the former BOM. MSHA also sought comment on reports on diesel particulate which were prepared by or in conjunction with MSHA (57 FR 501). The ANPRM also sought comments on the health effects, technological and economic feasibility, and provisions which should be considered for inclusion in a diesel particulate rule (57 FR 501). The notice also identified five specific areas where the agency was particularly interested in comments, and about which it asked a number of detailed questions: (1) Exposure limits, including the basis thereof; (2) the validity of the NIOSH risk assessment model and the validity of various types of studies; (3) information about non-cancer risks, non-lung routes of entry, and the confounding effects of tobacco smoking; (4) the availability, accuracy and proper use of sampling and monitoring methods for diesel particulate; and (5) the technological and economic feasibility of various types of controls, including ventilation, diesel fuel, engine design, aftertreatment devices, and maintenance by mechanics with specialized training. The notice also solicited specific information from the mining community on “the need for a medical surveillance or screening program and on the use of respiratory equipment.” (57 FR 500). The comment period on the ANPRM closed on July 10, 1992.</P>
          <P>While MSHA was completing a “comprehensive analysis of the comments and any other information received” in response to the ANPRM (57 FR 501), it took also several actions to encourage the mining community to begin to deal with the problems identified.</P>
          <P>In 1995, MSHA sponsored three workshops “to bring together in a forum format the U.S. organizations who have a stake in limiting the exposure of miners to diesel particulate (including) mine operators, labor unions, trade organizations, engine manufacturers, fuel producers, exhaust aftertreatment manufacturers, and academia.” (McAteer, 1995). The sessions provided an overview of the literature and of diesel particulate exposures in the mining industry, state-of-the-art technologies available for reducing diesel particulate levels, presentations on engineering technologies toward that end, and identification of possible strategies whereby miners' exposure to diesel particulate matter can be limited both practically and effectively.</P>
          <P>The first workshop was held in Beckley, West Virginia on September 12 and 13, and the other two were held on October 6, and October 12 and 13, 1995, in Mt Vernon, Illinois and Salt Lake City, Utah, respectively. A transcript was made. During a speech early the next year, the Deputy Assistant Secretary for MSHA characterized what took place at these workshops:</P>
          <EXTRACT>
            
            <P>The biggest debate at the workshops was whether or not diesel exhaust causes lung cancer and whether MSHA should move to regulate exposures. Despite this debate, what emerged at the workshops was a general recognition and agreement that a health problem seems to exist with the current high levels of diesel exhaust exposure in the mines. One could observe that while all the debate about the studies and the level of risk was going on, something else interesting was happening at the workshops: one by one miners, mining companies, and manufacturers began describing efforts already underway to reduce exposures. Many are actively trying to solve what they clearly recognize is a problem. Some mine operators had switched to low sulfur fuel that reduces particulate levels. Some had increased mine ventilation. One company had tried a soy-based fuel and found it lowered particulate levels. Several were instituting better maintenance techniques for equipment. Another had hired extra diesel mechanics. Several companies had purchased electronically controlled, cleaner, engines. Another was testing a prototype of a new filter system. Yet another was using disposable diesel exhaust filters. These were not all flawless attempts, nor were they all inexpensive. But one presenter after another described examples of serious efforts currently underway to reduce diesel emissions. (Hricko, 1996).</P>
          </EXTRACT>
          
          <P>In March of 1997, MSHA issued, in draft form, a publication entitled “Practical Ways to Control Exposure to Diesel Exhaust in Mining—a Toolbox”. The draft publication was disseminated by MSHA to all underground mines known to use diesel equipment and posted on MSHA's Web site.</P>
          <P>As explained in the publication, the Toolbox was designed to disseminate to the mining community information gained through the workshops about methods being used to reduce miner exposures to dpm. MSHA's Toolbox provided specific information about nine types of controls that can reduce dpm exposures: low emission engines; fuels; aftertreatment devices; ventilation; enclosed cabs; engine maintenance; work practices and training; fleet management; and respiratory protective equipment. Some of these approaches reduce emissions from diesel engines; others focus on reducing miner exposure to whatever emissions are present. Quotations from workshop participants were used to illustrate when and how such controls might be helpful.</P>
          <P>As it clearly stated in its introductory section entitled “How to Use This Publication,” the Toolbox was not designed as a guide to existing or pending regulations. As MSHA noted in that regard:</P>
          <EXTRACT>
            
            <P>While the (regulatory) requirements that will ultimately be implemented, and the schedule of implementation, are of course uncertain at this time, MSHA encourages the mining community not to wait to protect miners' health. MSHA is confident that whatever the final requirements may be, the mining community will find this Toolbox information of significant value.</P>
          </EXTRACT>
          

          <P>On October 25, 1996, MSHA published a final rule addressing approval, exhaust monitoring, and safety requirements for the use of diesel-powered equipment in underground coal mines (61 FR 55412). The final rule addresses, and in large part is consistent<PRTPAGE P="5559"/>with, the specific recommendations made by the MSHA Diesel Advisory Committee for limiting underground coal miners' exposure to diesel exhaust. As noted in section 7 of this part, the diesel safety rule was implemented in steps concluding in late 1999. Aspects of this diesel safety rule had a significant impact on this rulemaking.</P>
          <P>In the Fall of 1997, following comment, MSHA's Toolbox was finalized and disseminated to the mining community. At the same time, MSHA made available to the mining community a software modeling tool developed by the Agency to facilitate dpm control. This model enables an operator to evaluate the effect which various alternative combinations of controls would have on the dpm concentration in a particular mine—before making the investment. MSHA refers to this model as “the Estimator”. The Estimator is in the form of a template that can be used on standard computer spreadsheet programs. As information about a new combination of controls is entered, the results are promptly displayed.</P>
          <P>
            <E T="03">Proposed Rulemaking on Dpm.</E>On April 9, 1998, MSHA published a proposed rule to “reduce the risks to underground coal miners of serious health hazards that are associated with exposure to high concentrations of diesel particulate matter” (63 FR 17492).</P>
          <P>MSHA went to some lengths to ensure the mining community would be able to review and comment on the proposed rule. The agency made copies of the proposal available for review by the mining community at each district and field office location, at the National Mine Safety and Health Academy, and at each technical support center. MSHA also provided the opportunity for comments to be accepted from the mining community at each of those locations, as well as through mail, e-mail and fax to the national office. MSHA also distributed the proposal to all underground mines, to mining associations and other interested parties. A copy was also posted on MSHA's website.</P>
          <P>In order to further facilitate participation by the mining community, MSHA developed as an introduction to its preamble explaining the proposed rule a “plain language” questions and answers section.</P>

          <P>The notice of proposed rulemaking reviewed and discussed the comments received in response to the ANPRM, including information on such control approaches as fuel type, fuel additives, and maintenance practices (63 FR 17512-17514). For the convenience of the mining community, a copy of MSHA's Toolbox was also reprinted as an Appendix at the end of the notice of proposed rulemaking (63 FR 17580<E T="03">et seq</E>.). A complete description of the Estimator, and several examples, were also presented in the preamble of the proposed dpm rule (63 FR 17565<E T="03">et seq</E>.).</P>
          <P>The proposed dpm rule was fairly simple. In addition to miner training, the proposed rule would have required aftertreatment filters on all permissible equipment and, subsequently, on all heavy duty nonpermissible equipment.</P>
          <FP>Throughout the preamble, MSHA discussed a number of other approaches that might have merit in limiting the concentration of dpm in underground coal mines. MSHA made it very clear to the mining community that the rule being proposed represented only one of the approaches which might ultimately be required by the final rule and on which comment was being solicited by the proposed rulemaking notice.</FP>
          <P>For example, the agency noted the following:</P>
          
          <EXTRACT>
            <P>“MSHA recognizes that a specification standard does not allow for the use of future alternative technologies that might provide the same or enhanced protection at the same or lower cost. MSHA welcomes comment as to whether and how the proposed rule can be modified to enhance its flexibility in this regard * * *. (There are) two alternative specification standards which would provide somewhat more flexibility for coal mine operators. Alternative 1 would treat the filter and engine as a package that has to meet a particular emission standard. Instead of requiring that all engines be equipped with a high-efficiency filter, this approach would provide some credit for the use of lower-polluting engines. Alternative 2 would also provide credit for mine ventilation beyond that required.” (63 FR 17498)</P>
          </EXTRACT>
          
          <FP>These alternatives were further discussed in a separate Question and Answer (#12). The agency was also clear it would welcome comment on “whether there are some types of light-duty equipment whose dpm emissions should, and could feasibly, be controlled”, and “whether it would be feasible for this sector to implement a requirement that any new light-duty equipment added to a mine's fleet be filtered” Question and Answer (#6) (63 FR 17556).</FP>

          <P>MSHA also discussed and welcomed comment on a number of other alternatives:<E T="03">e.g.,</E>restricting the exposure of underground coal mines to all fine particulates regardless of source (63 FR 17495); and the use of administrative controls (<E T="03">e.g.,</E>rotation of personnel) and personal protective equipment (<E T="03">e.g.,</E>respirators) to reduce the dpm exposure of miners. The Agency also sought comments on its risk assessment, presented in full in the preamble to the proposed rule (Part III). As noted therein, this was the first risk assessment ever performed by the agency to be peer reviewed. Such a review is not required under the agency's statute, but MSHA took the time to obtain such a review in this instance due to significant disagreement within the mining community about the health risks of exposure to dpm (63 FR 17521).</P>
          <P>MSHA also asked for comment on its economic assumptions in the preamble. Two of the Questions and Answers (#5 and #7) were specifically devoted to cost impacts, including those on small mines. MSHA also specifically requested all members of the mining community to consider using the Estimator in developing comments on the proposed rulemaking (63 FR 17565).</P>

          <P>On July 14, 1998, in accordance with the National Environmental Protection Act, MSHA published a notice in the<E T="04">Federal Register</E>seeking comment on its preliminary determination that the proposed rule would not have a significant environmental impact (63 FR 37796).</P>
          <P>The initial comment period was scheduled to last for 120 days until August 7, 1998. In response to requests from the public, on August 5, 1998, MSHA extended the initial comment period on the proposed rule (and the comment period on its preliminary determination of no significant environmental impact) for an additional 60 days, until October 9, 1998 (63 FR 41755). That notice also announced MSHA's intent to hold public hearings on the proposal.</P>
          <P>On October 19, 1998, MSHA announced in the<E T="04">Federal Register</E>locations of four public hearings on the proposed rule. The agency further announced that the close of the post-hearing comment period and rulemaking record would be on February 16, 1999 (63 FR 55811).</P>
          <P>In November 1998, MSHA held hearings in Salt Lake City, Utah and Beckley, West Virginia. In December 1998, hearings were held in Mt. Vernon, Illinois, and Birmingham, Alabama.</P>

          <P>These hearings were well attended. Testimony was presented by individual miners, representatives of miners, individual coal companies, mining industry associations, representatives of engine and equipment manufacturers and one individual manufacturer. Members of the mining community participating had an extensive opportunity to hear and respond to alternative views; some participated in several hearings. They also had an opportunity to engage in direct dialogue<PRTPAGE P="5560"/>with members of MSHA's rulemaking committee-responding to questions and asking questions on their own. There was extensive comment not only about the provisions of the proposed rule itself, but also about the need for diesel powered equipment in this sector, the risks associated with its use, the need for regulation in this sector, alternative approaches (including but not limited to those on which MSHA specifically sought comment), and the technological and economic feasibility of various alternatives.</P>
          <P>During the hearings, MSHA made a number of requests that information provided at the hearing be supplemented by submission of cited sources, additional data, and in particular for data to support assertions made about various control technologies. MSHA again solicited information concerning the agency's cost assumptions, for the results of studies using MSHA's Estimator model, and also asked for any data on a number of other points. For example, the agency requested further information on the size distribution of particles from cleaner engines, on the viability of a fine particulate standard in lieu of a dpm standard, for a list of any studies concerning the risks of dpm or lack thereof, and data on equipment upgrades.</P>

          <P>On February 12, 1999, (64 FR 7144) MSHA published a notice in the<E T="04">Federal Register</E>announcing: (1) The availability of three additional studies discussed in the preamble of the proposed rule but not available at the time of publication; and (2) the extension of the post-hearing comment period and close of record for 60 additional days, until April 30, 1999.</P>
          <P>On April 27, 1999, in response to requests from the public, MSHA extended the post-hearing comment period and close of record for 90 additional days, until July 26, 1999 (64 FR 22592).</P>
          <P>On July 8, 1999, MSHA published a notice in the<E T="04">Federal Register</E>correcting technical errors in the preamble discussion on the Diesel Emission Control Estimator formula in the Appendix to Part V of the proposed rulemaking notice, and correcting Figure V-5 of the preamble. Comments on these changes were solicited by July 26, 1999, the close of the rulemaking record (64 FR 36826). The Estimator model was subsequently published in the literature.</P>
          <P>The rulemaking record closed on July 26, 1999, fifteen months after the date the proposed rule was published for public notice. The comments, like the hearings, reflected extensive participation in this effort by the full range of interests in the mining community and covered a full range of ideas and alternatives.</P>
          <P>On June 30, 2000, the rulemaking record was reopened for 30 days in order to obtain public comment on certain additional documents which the agency determined should be placed in the rulemaking record. Those documents were MSHA's paper filter verification studies and the recent information from VERT on the performance of hot gas filters mentioned in section 6 of this Part. In addition, the notice provided an opportunity for comment on additional documents being placed in the rulemaking record for a related rulemaking for underground metal and nonmetal mines, and an opportunity to comment on some additional documents on risk being placed in both records. In this regard, the notice reassured the mining community that any comments filed on risk in either rulemaking proceeding would be placed in both records, since the two rulemakings utilize the same risk assessment.</P>
          <P>
            <E T="03">Other Related Activity.</E>On September 3, 1999, the United States Court of Appeals for the District of Columbia Circuit issued its decision on writ of mandamus sought by the United Mine Workers to compel MSHA to issue final regulations controlling gaseous emissions in the exhaust of diesel engines used in underground coal mines. (190 F.3d 545.) The UMWA argued that such action should have been completed some years before as part of MSHA's air quality rulemaking to update emissions limits on hundreds of exposure limits. The Court found that the Agency was in violation of the statute's requirement that the Secretary must either promulgate final regulations, or explain her decision not to promulgate them, within ninety days of the certification of the record of a hearing if one is held or the close of the public comment period if a hearing is not held 30 U.S.C. 811(a)(4). However, the Court declined to immediately issue the mandamus order sought in this case because, among other factors: (a) The UMWA agreed that the diesel equipment rules alone may have the desired effect of reducing exposure to these gases; (b) the UMWA further agreed that the control of diesel particulate matter and respirable mine dust rank as higher rulemaking priorities for MSHA; and (c) MSHA submitted a tentative schedule for such rulemaking that the court found to be reasonable. However, the court retained jurisdiction of the case to ensure MSHA would move forward on this matter, and ordered several reports by the agency on its progress on December 31, 1999, June 30, 2000, December 31, 2000, and December 31, 2001.</P>
          <HD SOURCE="HD1">III. Risk Assessment</HD>
          <EXTRACT>
            <HD SOURCE="HD3">Introduction</HD>
            <FP SOURCE="FP-2">1. Exposures of U.S. Miners</FP>
            <FP SOURCE="FP1-2">a. Underground Coal Mines</FP>
            <FP SOURCE="FP1-2">b. Underground Metal and Nonmetal Mines</FP>
            <FP SOURCE="FP1-2">c. Surface Mines</FP>
            <FP SOURCE="FP1-2">d. Miner Exposures Compared to Exposures of Other Groups</FP>
            <FP SOURCE="FP-2">2. Health Effects Associated with Dpm Exposures</FP>
            <FP SOURCE="FP1-2">a. Relevancy Considerations</FP>
            <FP SOURCE="FP1-2">i. Animal Studies</FP>
            <FP SOURCE="FP1-2">ii. Reversible Health Effects</FP>
            <FP SOURCE="FP1-2">iii. Health Effects Associated with PM<E T="52">2.5</E>in Ambient Air</FP>
            <FP SOURCE="FP1-2">b. Acute Health Effects</FP>
            <FP SOURCE="FP1-2">i. Symptoms Reported by Exposed Miners</FP>
            <FP SOURCE="FP1-2">ii. Studies Based on Exposures to Diesel Emissions</FP>
            <FP SOURCE="FP1-2">iii. Studies Based on Exposures to Particulate Matter in Ambient Air</FP>
            <FP SOURCE="FP1-2">c. Chronic Health Effects</FP>
            <FP SOURCE="FP1-2">i. Studies Based on Exposures to Diesel Emissions</FP>
            <FP SOURCE="FP1-2">(1) Chronic Effects other than Cancer</FP>
            <FP SOURCE="FP1-2">(2) Cancer</FP>
            <FP SOURCE="FP1-2">(a) Lung Cancer</FP>
            <FP SOURCE="FP1-2">(i) Evaluation Criteria</FP>
            <FP SOURCE="FP1-2">(ii) Studies Involving Miners</FP>
            <FP SOURCE="FP1-2">(iii) Best Available Epidemiologic Evidence</FP>
            <FP SOURCE="FP1-2">(iv) Counter-Evidence</FP>
            <FP SOURCE="FP1-2">(v) Summation</FP>
            <FP SOURCE="FP1-2">(b) Bladder Cancer</FP>
            <FP SOURCE="FP1-2">ii. Studies Based on Exposures to PM<E T="52">2.5</E>in Ambient Air</FP>
            <FP SOURCE="FP1-2">d. Mechanisms of Toxicity</FP>
            <FP SOURCE="FP1-2">i. Agent of Toxicity</FP>
            <FP SOURCE="FP1-2">ii. Deposition, Clearance, and Retention</FP>
            <FP SOURCE="FP1-2">iii. Effects other than Cancer</FP>
            <FP SOURCE="FP1-2">iv. Lung Cancer</FP>
            <FP SOURCE="FP1-2">(1) Genotoxicity Studies</FP>
            <FP SOURCE="FP1-2">(2) Animal Inhalation Studies</FP>
            <FP SOURCE="FP-2">3. Characterization of Risk</FP>
            <FP SOURCE="FP1-2">a. Material Impairments to Miners' Health or Functional Capacity</FP>
            <FP SOURCE="FP1-2">i. Sensory Irritations and Respiratory Symptoms (including allergenic responses)</FP>
            <FP SOURCE="FP1-2">ii. Premature Death from Cardiovascular, Cardiopulmonary, or Respiratory Causes</FP>
            <FP SOURCE="FP1-2">iii. Lung Cancer</FP>
            <FP SOURCE="FP1-2">(1) Summary of Collective Epidemiologic Evidence</FP>
            <FP SOURCE="FP1-2">(a) Consistency of Epidemiologic Results</FP>
            <FP SOURCE="FP1-2">(b) Best Available Epidemiologic Evidence</FP>
            <FP SOURCE="FP1-2">(c) Studies with Quantitative or Semiquantitative Exposure Assessments</FP>
            <FP SOURCE="FP1-2">(d) Studies Involving Miners</FP>
            <FP SOURCE="FP1-2">(2) Meta-Analyses</FP>
            <FP SOURCE="FP1-2">(3) Potential Systematic Biases</FP>
            <FP SOURCE="FP1-2">(4) Causality</FP>
            <FP SOURCE="FP1-2">(5) Other Interpretations of the Evidence</FP>
            <FP SOURCE="FP1-2">b. Significance of the Risk of Material Impairment to Miners</FP>
            <FP SOURCE="FP1-2">i. Meaning of Significant Risk</FP>
            <FP SOURCE="FP1-2">(1) Legal Requirements</FP>
            <FP SOURCE="FP1-2">(2) Standards and Guidelines for Risk Assessment</FP>

            <FP SOURCE="FP1-2">ii. Significance of Risk for Underground Miners Exposed to DPM<PRTPAGE P="5561"/>
            </FP>
            <FP SOURCE="FP1-2">(1) Sensory Irritations and Respiratory Symptoms (including allergenic responses)</FP>
            <FP SOURCE="FP1-2">(2) Premature Death from Cardiovascular, Cardiopulmonary, or Respiratory Causes</FP>
            <FP SOURCE="FP1-2">(3) Lung Cancer</FP>
            <FP SOURCE="FP1-2">(a) Risk Assessment Based on Studies Involving Miners</FP>
            <FP SOURCE="FP1-2">(b) Risk Assessment Based on Miners' Cumulative Exposure</FP>
            <FP SOURCE="FP1-2">(i) Exposure-Response Relationships from Studies Outside Mining</FP>
            <FP SOURCE="FP1-2">(ii) Exposure-Response Relationships from Studies on Miners</FP>
            <FP SOURCE="FP1-2">(iii) Excess Risk at Specific DPM Exposure Levels</FP>
            <FP SOURCE="FP1-2">c. The Rule's Expected Impact on Risk</FP>
            <FP SOURCE="FP-2">4. Conclusions</FP>
          </EXTRACT>
          <HD SOURCE="HD1">Introduction</HD>
          <P>MSHA has reviewed the scientific literature to evaluate the potential health effects of occupational dpm exposures at levels encountered in the mining industry. This part of the preamble presents MSHA's review of the currently available information and MSHA's assessment of health risks associated with those exposures. All material submitted during the public comment periods was considered before MSHA drew its final conclusions.</P>
          <P>The risk assessment begins in Section III.1, with a discussion of dpm exposure levels observed by MSHA in the mining industry. This is followed by a review, in Section III.2, of information available to MSHA on health effects that have been studied in association with dpm exposure. Finally, in Section III.3 entitled “Characterization of Risk,” the Agency considers three questions that must be addressed for rulemaking under the Mine Act and relates the available information about risks of dpm exposure at current levels to the regulatory requirements.</P>
          <P>A risk assessment must be technical enough to present the evidence and describe the main controversies surrounding it. At the same time, an overly technical presentation could cause stakeholders to lose sight of the main points. MSHA is guided by the first principle the National Research Council established for risk characterization, that the approach be:</P>
          
          <EXTRACT>
            <FP>[a] decision driven activity, directed toward informing choices and solving problems * * * Oversimplifying the science or skewing the results through selectivity can lead to the inappropriate use of scientific information in risk management decisions, but providing full information, if it does not address key concerns of the intended audience, can undermine that audience's trust in the risk analysis.</FP>
          </EXTRACT>
          
          <P>Although the final rule covers only one sector, this portion of the preamble was intended to enable MSHA and other interested parties to assess risks throughout the coal and M/NM mining industries. Accordingly, the risk assessment includes information pertaining to all sectors of the mining industry. All public comments on the exposures of miners and the health effects of dpm exposure—whether submitted specifically for the coal rulemaking or for the metal/nonmetal rulemaking—were incorporated into the record for each rulemaking and have been considered for this assessment.</P>
          <P>MSHA had an earlier version of this risk assessment independently peer reviewed. The risk assessment as proposed incorporated revisions made in accordance with the reviewers' recommendations, and the final version presented here contains clarifications and other responses to public comments. With regard to the risk assessment as published in the proposed preamble, the reviewers stated that:</P>
          
          <EXTRACT>
            <FP>* * * principles for identifying evidence and characterizing risk are thoughtfully set out. The scope of the document is carefully described, addressing potential concerns about the scope of coverage. Reference citations are adequate and up to date. The document is written in a balanced fashion, addressing uncertainties and asking for additional information and comments as appropriate. (Samet and Burke, Nov. 1997).</FP>
          </EXTRACT>
          
          <P>Some commenters generally agreed with this opinion. Dr. James Weeks, representing the UMWA, found the proposed risk assessment to be “balanced, thorough, and systematic.” Dr. Paul Schulte, representing NIOSH, stated that “MSHA has prepared a thorough review of the health effects associated with exposure to high concentrations of dpm, and NIOSH concurs with the published [proposed] characterization of risks associated with these exposures.” Dr. Michael Silverstein, representing the Washington State Dept. of Labor and Industries, found MSHA's “regulatory logic * * * thoroughly persuasive.” He commented that “the best available scientific evidence shows that diesel particulate exposure is associated with serious material impairment of health * * * the evidence * * * is particularly strong and certainly provides a sufficient basis for regulatory action.”</P>
          <P>Many commenters, however, vigorously criticized various aspects of the proposed assessment and some of the scientific studies on which it was based. MSHA's final assessment, published here, was modified to respond to all of these criticisms. Also, in response to commenters' suggestions, this assessment incorporates some research studies and literature reviews not covered or inadequately discussed in the previous version.</P>
          <P>Some commenters expressed the opinion that the proposed risk assessment should have been peer-reviewed by a group representing government, labor, industry, and independent scientists. Since the rulemaking process included a pre-hearing comment period, eight public hearings (four for coal and four for M/NM), and two post-hearing comment periods, these constituencies had ample opportunity to review and comment upon MSHA's proposed risk assessment. The length of the comment period for the Coal Dpm proposal was 15 months. The length of the comment period for the Metal/Nonmetal Dpm proposal was nine months.</P>
          <HD SOURCE="HD2">1. Exposures of U.S. Miners</HD>
          <P>Information about U.S. miner exposures comes from published studies and from additional mine investigations conducted by MSHA since 1993.<SU>3</SU>
            <FTREF/>Previously published studies of exposures to dpm among U.S. miners are: Watts (1989, 1992), Cantrell (1992, 1993), Haney (1992), and Tomb and Haney (1995). MSHA has also conducted investigations subsequent to the period covered in Tomb and Haney (1995), and the previously unpublished data through mid-1998 are included here. Both the published and unpublished studies were placed in the record with the proposal, giving MSHA's stakeholders the opportunity to analyze and comment on all of the exposure data considered.</P>
          <FTNT>
            <P>

              <SU>3</SU>MSHA has only limited information about miner exposures in other countries. Based on 223 personal and area samples, average exposures at 21 Canadian noncoal mines were reported to range from 170 to 1300 μg/m<E T="51">3</E>(respirable combustible dust), with maximum measurements ranging from 1020 to 3100 μg/m<E T="51">3</E>(Gangel and Dainty, 1993). Among 622 full shift measurements collected since 1989 in German underground noncoal mines, 91 (15%) exceeded 400 μg/m<E T="51">3</E>(total carbon) (Dahmann et al., 1996). As explained elsewhere in this preamble, 400 μg/m<E T="51">3</E>(total carbon) corresponds to approximately 500 μg/m<E T="51">3</E>dpm.</P>
          </FTNT>

          <P>MSHA's field studies involved measuring dpm concentrations at a total of 50 mines: 27 underground metal and nonmetal (M/NM) mines, 12 underground coal mines, and 11 surface mining operations (both coal and -M/NM). At all surface mines and all underground coal mines, dpm measurements were made using the size-selective method, based on gravimetric determination of the amount of submicrometer dust collected with an impactor. With few exceptions, dpm measurements at underground M/NM mines were made using the Respirable Combustible Dust (RCD) method (with<PRTPAGE P="5562"/>no impactor). At two of the underground M/NM mines, measurements were made using the total carbon (TC) method, and at one, RCD measurements were made in one year and TC measurements in another. Measurements at the two remaining underground M/NM mines were made using the size-selective method, as in coal and surface mines.<SU>4</SU>
            <FTREF/>Weighing errors inherent in the gravimetric analysis required for both size-selective and RCD methods become statistically insignificant at the relatively high dpm concentrations observed.</P>
          <FTNT>
            <P>
              <SU>4</SU>The various methods of measuring dpm are explained in section 3 of Part II of the preamble to the proposed rule. This explanation, along with additional information on these methods, is also provided in section 3 of Part II of the preamble to the final M/NM rule.</P>
          </FTNT>
          <P>According to MSHA's experience, the dpm samples reflect exposures typical of mines known to use diesel equipment for face haulage in the U.S. However, they do not constitute a random sample of mines, and care was taken in the proposed risk assessment not to characterize results as necessarily representing conditions in all mines. Several commenters objected to MSHA's use of these exposure measurements in making comparisons to exposures reported in other industries and, for M/NM, in estimating the proposed rule's impact. These objections are addressed in Sections III.1.d and III.3.b.ii(3)(c) below. Comments related to the measurement methods used in underground coal and M/NM mines are addressed, respectively, in Sections III.1.b and III.1.c.</P>
          <P>Each underground study typically included personal dpm exposure measurements for approximately five production workers. Also, area samples were collected in return airways of underground mines to determine diesel particulate emission rates.<SU>5</SU>
            <FTREF/>Operational information such as the amount and type of equipment, airflow rates, fuel, and maintenance was also recorded. Mines were selected to obtain a wide range of diesel equipment usage and mining methods. Mines with greater than 175 horsepower and less than 175 horsepower production equipment were sampled. Single and multiple level mines were sampled. Mine level heights ranged from eight to one-hundred feet. In general, MSHA's studies focused on face production areas of mines, where the highest concentrations of dpm could be expected; but, since some miners do not spend their time in face areas, samples were collected in other areas as well, to get a more complete picture of miner exposure. Because of potential interferences from tobacco smoke in underground M/NM mines, samples were not collected on or near smokers.</P>
          <FTNT>
            <P>
              <SU>5</SU>Since area samples in return airways do not necessarily represent locations where miners normally work or travel, they were excluded from the present analysis. A number of area samples were included, however, as described in Sections III.1.b and III.1.c. The included area samples were all taken in production areas and haulageways.</P>
          </FTNT>

          <P>Table III-1 summarizes key results from MSHA's studies. The higher concentrations in underground mines were typically found in the haulageways and face areas where numerous pieces of equipment were operating, or where airflow was low relative to the amount of equipment operating. In production areas and haulageways of underground mines where diesel powered equipment was used, the mean dpm concentration observed was 644 μg/m<E T="51">3</E>for coal and 808 μg/m<E T="51">3</E>for M/NM. In travelways of underground mines where diesel powered equipment was used, the mean dpm concentration (based on 112 area samples not included in Table III-1) was 517 μg/m<E T="51">3</E>for M/NM and 103 μg/m<E T="51">3</E>for coal. In surface mines, the higher concentrations were generally associated with truck drivers and front-end loader operators. The mean dpm concentration observed was less than 200 μg/m<E T="51">3</E>at all eleven of the surface mines in which measurements were made. More information about the dpm concentrations observed in each sector is presented in the material that follows.</P>
          <GPOTABLE CDEF="s50,15,15,15,15,15" COLS="6" OPTS="L2,i1">
            <TTITLE>Table III-1.—Full-Shift Diesel Particulate Matter Concentrations Observed in Production Areas and Haulageways of 50 Dieselized U.S. Mines</TTITLE>
            <BOXHD>
              <CHED H="1">Mine type</CHED>
              <CHED H="1">Number of mines</CHED>
              <CHED H="1">Number of samples</CHED>
              <CHED H="1">Mean exposure<LI>(μg/m<SU>3</SU>)</LI>
              </CHED>
              <CHED H="1">Standard error of mean<LI>(μg/m<SU>3</SU>)</LI>
              </CHED>
              <CHED H="1">Exposure range<LI>(μg/m<SU>3</SU>)</LI>
              </CHED>
            </BOXHD>
            <ROW>
              <ENT I="01">Surface</ENT>
              <ENT>11</ENT>
              <ENT>45</ENT>
              <ENT>88</ENT>
              <ENT>11</ENT>
              <ENT>9-380</ENT>
            </ROW>
            <ROW>
              <ENT I="01">Underground Coal<E T="51">a</E>
              </ENT>
              <ENT>12</ENT>
              <ENT>226</ENT>
              <ENT>644</ENT>
              <ENT>41</ENT>
              <ENT>0-3.650</ENT>
            </ROW>
            <ROW>
              <ENT I="01">Underground Metal and Nonmetal</ENT>
              <ENT>27</ENT>
              <ENT>355</ENT>
              <ENT>808</ENT>
              <ENT>39</ENT>
              <ENT>10-5.570</ENT>
            </ROW>
            <TNOTE>
              <E T="02">Note:</E>Intake and return area samples are excluded.</TNOTE>
          </GPOTABLE>
          <HD SOURCE="HD2">a. Underground Coal Mines</HD>
          <P>Approximately 145 out of the 910 existing underground coal mines currently utilize diesel powered equipment. Of these 145 mines, 32 mines currently use diesel equipment for face coal haulage. The remaining mines use diesel equipment for transportation, materials handling and other support operations. MSHA focused its efforts in measuring dpm concentrations in coal mines on mines that use diesel powered equipment for face coal haulage. Twelve mines using diesel-powered face haulage were sampled. Mines with diesel powered face haulage were selected because the face is an area with a high concentration of vehicles operating at a heavy duty cycle at the furthest end of the mine's ventilation system.</P>
          <P>Diesel particulate levels in underground mines depend on: (1) The amount, size, and workload of diesel equipment; (2) the rate of ventilation; and, (3) the effectiveness of whatever diesel particulate control technology may be in place. In the dieselized mines studied by MSHA, the sections used either two or three diesel coal haulage vehicles. In eastern mines, the haulage vehicles were equipped with a nominal 100 horsepower engine. In western mines, the haulage vehicles were equipped with a nominal 150 horsepower engine. Ventilation rates ranged from the approval plate requirement, based on the 100-75-50 percent rule (Holtz, 1960), to ten times the approval plate requirement. In most cases, the section airflow was approximately twice the approval plate requirement. Other control technology included aftertreatment filters and fuel. Two types of aftertreatment filters were used. These filters included a disposable diesel emission filter (DDEF) and a Wire Mesh Filter (WMF). The DDEF is a commercially available product; the WMF was developed by and only used at one mine. Both low sulfur and high sulfur fuels were used.</P>

          <P>Figure III-1 displays the range of exposure measurements obtained by MSHA in the field studies it conducted in underground coal mines. A study<PRTPAGE P="5563"/>normally consisted of collecting samples on the continuous miner operator and coal haulage vehicle operators for two to three shifts, along with area samples in the haulageways. A total of 142 personal samples and 84 area samples were collected, excluding any area samples taken in intake or return airways.</P>
          
          <BILCOD>BILLING CODE 4510-43-P</BILCOD>
          <GPH DEEP="439" SPAN="3">
            <GID>ER19JA01.010</GID>
          </GPH>
          
          <BILCOD>BILLING CODE 4510-43-C</BILCOD>
          <P>As stated in the proposed risk assessment, no statistically significant difference was observed in mean dpm concentration between the personal and area samples.<SU>6</SU>

            <FTREF/>A total of 19 individual measurements exceeded 1500 μg/m<E T="51">3</E>, still excluding intake and return area samples. Although the three highest of these were from area samples, nine of the 19 measurements exceeding 1500 μg/m<E T="51">3</E>were from personal samples.</P>
          <FTNT>
            <P>

              <SU>6</SU>One commenter (IMC Global) noted that MSHA had provided no data verifying this statement. For the 142 personal samples, the mean dpm concentration measurement was 608 μg/m<E T="51">3</E>, with a standard error of 42.5 μg/m<E T="51">3</E>. For the 84 area samples, the mean was 705 μg/m<E T="51">3</E>, with a standard error of 82.1 μg/m<E T="51">3</E>. The significance level (p-value) of a t-test comparing these means is 0.29 using a separate-variance test or 0.25 using a pooled-variance test. Therefore, a difference in population means cannot be inferred at any confidence level greater than 75%. Here, and in other sections of this risk assessment, MSHA has employed standard statistical methods described in textbooks on elementary statistical inference.</P>
          </FTNT>

          <P>In six mines, measurements were taken both with and without use of disposable after-treatment filters, so that a total of eighteen studies, carried out in twelve mines, are displayed. Without use of after-treatment filters, average observed dpm concentrations exceeded 500 μg/m<E T="51">3</E>in eight of the twelve mines and exceeded 1000 μg/m<E T="51">3</E>in four.<SU>7</SU>

            <FTREF/>At five of the twelve mines, all dpm measurements were 300 μg/m<E T="51">3</E>or greater in the absence of after-treatment filters.</P>
          <FTNT>
            <P>

              <SU>7</SU>In coal mine E, the average as expressed by the mean exceeded 1000 μg/m<E T="51">3</E>, but the median did not.</P>
          </FTNT>

          <P>The highest dpm concentrations observed at coal mines were collected at Mine “G.” Eight of these samples were collected during employment of WMFs, and eight were collected while filters were not being employed. Without filters, the mean dpm concentration observed at Mine “G” was 2052 μg/m<E T="51">3</E>(median = 2100 μg/m<E T="51">3</E>). With<PRTPAGE P="5564"/>employment of WMFs, the mean dropped to 1241 μg/m<E T="51">3</E>(median = 1235 μg/m<E T="51">3</E>).</P>

          <P>Filters were employed during three of the four studies showing median dpm concentration at or below 200 μg/m<E T="51">3</E>. After adjusting for outby sources of dpm, exposures were found to be reduced by up to 95 percent in mines using the DDEF and by approximately 50 percent in the mine using the WMF.</P>

          <P>The higher dpm concentrations observed at the mine using the WMF (Mine “G*”) are attributable partly to the lower section airflow. The only study without filters showing a median concentration at or below 200 μg/m<E T="51">3</E>was conducted in a mine (Mine “A”) which had section airflow approximately ten times the nameplate requirement. The section airflow at the mine using the WMF was approximately the nameplate requirement.</P>
          <P>Some commenters [<E T="03">e.g.,</E>WV Coal Assoc and Energy West] objected to MSHA's presentation of underground coal mine exposures based on measurements made using the size-selective method (gravimetric determination of the amount of submicrometer dust collected with an impactor). These commenters argued that the data were “ * * * collected with emissions monitoring devices discredited by MSHA itself in the preamble * * *” and that these measurements do not reliably “* * * distinguish it [dpm] from other particles in coal mine dust, at the critical upper end range of submicron particles.”</P>

          <P>MSHA did not “discredit” use of the size-selective method for all purposes. As discussed elsewhere in this preamble, the size-selective method of measuring dpm was designed by the former BOM specifically for use in coal mines, and the size distribution of coal mine dust was taken into account in its development. Despite the recognized interference from a small fraction of coal mine dust particles, MSHA considers gravimetric size-selective measurements to be reasonably accurate in measuring dpm concentrations greater than 200 μg/m<E T="51">3</E>, based on a full-shift sample, when coal mine dust concentrations are not excessive (<E T="03">i.e.,</E>not greater than 2.0 mg/m<E T="51">3</E>). Interference from submicrometer coal mine dust is counter-balanced, to some extent, by the fraction of larger size, uncaptured dpm. Coal mine dust concentrations were not excessive when MSHA collected its size-selective samples. Therefore, even if as much as 10 percent of the coal mine dust were submicrometer, this fraction would not have contributed significantly to the high concentrations observed at the sampled mines.</P>
          <P>At lower concentrations, or shorter sampling times, random variability in the gravimetric determination of weight gain becomes significant, compared to the weight of dust accumulated on the filter. For this reason, MSHA has rejected the use of the gravimetric size-selective method for enforcement purposes.<SU>8</SU>

            <FTREF/>This does not mean, however, that MSHA has “discredited” this method for other purposes, including detection of very high dpm concentrations at coal mines (i.e., greater than 500 μg/m<E T="51">3</E>) and estimation of average dpm concentrations, based on multiple samples, when coal mine dust concentrations are not excessive. On the contrary, MSHA regards the gravimetric size-selective method as a useful tool for detecting and monitoring very high dpm concentrations and for estimating average exposures.</P>
          <FTNT>
            <P>

              <SU>8</SU>MSHA has concluded that random weighing variability would make it impractical to use the size-selective method to enforce compliance with any dpm concentration limit less than about 300 μg/m<E T="51">3</E>. MSHA believes that, at such levels, single-sample noncompliance determinations based on the size-selective method could not be made at a sufficiently high confidence level.</P>
          </FTNT>
          <HD SOURCE="HD2">b. Underground Metal and Nonmetal Mines</HD>
          <P>Currently there are approximately 265 underground M/NM mines in the United States. Nearly all of these mines utilize diesel powered equipment, and 27 of those doing so were sampled by MSHA for dpm.<SU>9</SU>
            <FTREF/>The M/NM studies typically included measurements of dpm exposure for dieselized production equipment operators (such as truck drivers, roof bolters, haulage vehicles) on two to three shifts. A number of area samples were also collected. None of the M/NM mines studied were using diesel particulate afterfilters.</P>
          <FTNT>
            <P>
              <SU>9</SU>The proposal discussed data from 25 underground M/NM mines. Studies at two additional mines, carried out too late to be included in the proposal, were placed into the public record along with the earlier studies. During the proceedings, MSHA provided copies of all of these studies to stakeholders requesting them.</P>
          </FTNT>

          <P>Figure III-2 displays the range of dpm concentrations measured by MSHA in the 27 underground M/NM mines studied. A total of 275 personal samples and 80 area samples were collected, excluding intake and return area samples. Personal exposures observed ranged from less than 100 μg/m<E T="51">3</E>to more than 3500 μg/m<E T="51">3</E>. Exposure measurements based on area samples ranged from less than 100 μg/m<E T="51">3</E>to more than 3000 μg/m<E T="51">3</E>. With the exception of Mine “V”, personal exposures were for face workers. Mine “V” did not use dieselized face equipment.</P>
          
          <BILCOD>BILLING CODE 4510-43-P</BILCOD>
          
          <GPH DEEP="448" SPAN="3">
            <PRTPAGE P="5565"/>
            <GID>ER19JA01.011</GID>
          </GPH>
          
          <BILCOD>BILLING CODE 4510-43-C</BILCOD>
          
          <PRTPAGE P="5566"/>
          <P>As stated in the proposed risk assessment, no statistically significant difference was observed in mean dpm concentration between the personal and area samples.<SU>10</SU>
            <FTREF/>A total of 45 individual measurements exceeded 1500 μg/m<SU>3</SU>, still excluding intake and return area samples. The three highest of these, all exceeding 3500 μg/m<SU>3</SU>, were from personal samples. Of the 45 measurements exceeding 1500 μg/m<SU>3</SU>, 30 were from personal samples and 15 were from area samples.</P>
          <FTNT>
            <P>
              <SU>10</SU>One commenter (IMC Global) noted that MSHA had provided no data verifying this statement. For the 275 personal samples, the mean dpm concentration measurement was 770 μg/m<SU>3</SU>, with a standard error of 42.8 μg/m<SU>3</SU>. For the 80 area samples, the mean was 939 μg/m<SU>3</SU>, with a standard error of 86.6 μg/m<SU>3</SU>. The significance level (p-value) of a t-test comparing these means is 0.08 using a separate-variance test or 0.07 using a pooled-variance test. Therefore, a difference in population means cannot be inferred at a 95% confidence level.</P>
          </FTNT>
          <P>Average observed dpm concentrations exceeded 500 μg/m<SU>3</SU>in 18 of the 27 underground M/NM mines and exceeded 1000 μg/m<SU>3</SU>in 12.<SU>11</SU>
            <FTREF/>At eight of the 27 mines, all dpm measurements exceeded 300 μg/m<SU>3</SU>. The highest dpm concentrations observed at M/NM mines were collected at Mine “E”. Based on 16 samples, the mean dpm concentration observed at Mine “E” was 2008 μg/m<SU>3</SU>(median = 1835 μg/m<SU>3</SU>). Twenty-five percent of the dpm measurements at this mine exceeded 2400 μg/m<SU>3</SU>. All four of these were based on personal samples.</P>
          <FTNT>
            <P>
              <SU>11</SU>At M/NM mines C, I, J, P, and Z the average as expressed by the mean exceeded 1000 μg/m<SU>3</SU>but the median did not. At M/NM mines H and S, the median exceeded 1000 μg/m<SU>3</SU>but the mean did not. At M/NM mine K, the mean exceeded 500 μg/m<SU>3</SU>, but the median did not.</P>
          </FTNT>

          <P>As with underground coal mines, dpm levels in underground M/NM mines are related to the amount and size of equipment, to the ventilation rate, and to the effectiveness of the diesel particulate control technology employed. In the dieselized M/NM mines studied by MSHA, front-end-loaders were used either to load ore onto trucks or to haul and load ore onto belts. Additional pieces of diesel powered support equipment, such as bolters and mantrips, were also used at the mines. The typical piece of production equipment was rated at 150 to 350 horsepower. Ventilation rates in the M/NM mines studied mostly ranged from 100 to 200 cfm per horsepower of equipment. In only a few of the mines inventoried did ventilation exceed 200 cfm/hp. For single-level mines, working areas were ventilated in series (<E T="03">i.e.</E>, the exhaust air from one area became the intake for the next working area). For multi-level mines, each level typically had a separate fresh air supply. One or two working areas could be on a level. Control technology used to reduce diesel particulate emissions in mines inventoried included oxidation catalytic converters and engine maintenance programs. Both low sulfur and high sulfur fuel were used; some mines used aviation grade low sulfur fuel.</P>
          <P>Some commenters argued that, because of the limited number of underground M/NM mines sampled by MSHA, “* * * results of MSHA's admittedly non-random sample cannot be extrapolated to other mines.” [MARG] More specifically, IMC Global claimed that since only 25 [now 27] of about 260 underground M/NM mines were sampled,<SU>12</SU>
            <FTREF/>then “if the * * * measurements are correct, this information shows at best potential exposure problems to diesel particulate in only 10% of the miners working in the metal-nonmetal mining sector and then only for certain unlisted commodities.”<SU>13</SU>
            <FTREF/>IMC Global went on to suggest that MSHA should “perform sufficient additional exposure monitoring * * * to show that the diesel particulate exposures are representative of the entire industry before promulgating regulations that will be applicable to the entire industry.”</P>
          <FTNT>
            <P>
              <SU>12</SU>Three underground M/NM mine surveys, carried out too late to be included in the discussion, were placed into the public record and provided to interested stakeholders. These surveys contained data from two additional underground M/NM mines (“Z” and “aa”) and additional data for a mine (“d”) that had previously been surveyed. The risk assessment has now been updated to include these data, representing a total of 27 underground M/NM mines.</P>
          </FTNT>
          <FTNT>
            <P>
              <SU>13</SU>A breakdown by commodity is given at the end of this subsection.</P>
          </FTNT>
          <P>As mentioned earlier, MSHA acknowledges that the mines for which dpm measurements are available do not comprise a statistically random sample of all underground M/NM mines. MSHA also acknowledges that the results obtained for these mines cannot be extrapolated in a statistically rigorous way to the entire population of underground M/NM mines. According to MSHA's experience, however, the selected mines (and sampling locations within those mines) represent typical diesel equipment use conditions at underground M/NM mines. MSHA believes that results at these mines, as depicted in Figure III-2, in fact fairly reflect the variety of diesel equipment used by the industry, regardless of type of M/NM mine. Based on its extensive experience with underground mines, MSHA believes that this body of data better represents those diverse diesel equipment use conditions, with respect to dpm exposures, than any other body of data currently available.</P>
          <P>MSHA strongly disagrees with IMC Global's contention that, “* * *  this information shows at best potential exposure problems to diesel particulate in only 10% of the miners working in the metal-nonmetal mining sector.” IMC Global apparently drew this conclusion from the fact that MSHA sampled approximately ten percent of all underground M/NM mines. This line of argument, however, depends on an unwarranted and highly unrealistic assumption: Namely, that all of the underground M/NM mines not included in the sampled group of 25 experience essentially no “potential [dpm] exposure problems.” MSHA certainly did not go out and, by chance or design, pick for sampling just exactly those mines experiencing the highest dpm concentrations. IMC Global's argument fails to recognize that the sampled mines could be fairly representative without being randomly chosen.</P>
          <P>MSHA also disagrees with the premise that 27 [or 25 as in the proposal] is an inherently insufficient number of mines to sample for the purpose of identifying an industry-wide dpm exposure problem that would justify regulation. The between-mine standard deviation of the 27 mean concentrations observed within mines was 450 μg/m<SU>3</SU>. Therefore, the standard error of the estimated grand mean, based on the variability observed between mines, was</P>
          <GPH DEEP="15" SPAN="1">
            <GID>ER19JA01.012</GID>
          </GPH>
          <FP>MSHA<FTREF/>considers this degree of uncertainty to be acceptable, given that the overall mean concentration observed exceeded 800 μg/m<SU>3</SU>.</FP>
          <FTNT>
            <P>

              <SU>14</SU>This quantity, 87 μg/m<SU>3</SU>, differs from the standard error of the mean of individual measurements for underground M/NM mines, presented in Table III-1. The tabled value is based on 355 measurements whose standard deviation is 727 μg/m<SU>3</SU>. Therefore, the standard error of the mean of all individual measurements is<E T="52">727</E>/√<E T="52">355</E>= 39 μg/m<SU>3</SU>, as shown in the table. Similarly, the mean of all individual measurements (listed in Table III-1 as 808 μg/m<SU>3</SU>) differs from the grand mean of individual mean concentrations observed within mines, which is 838 μg/m<SU>3</SU>.</P>
          </FTNT>

          <P>Several commenters questioned MSHA's use of the RCD and size-selective methods for measuring dpm exposures at underground M/NM mines. IMC Global indicated that MSHA's RCD measurements might systematically inflate the dpm concentrations presented in this section, because “* * * estimates for the non-diesel particulate component of RCD actually vary between 10% to 50%,<E T="03">averaging 33%</E>.”<PRTPAGE P="5567"/>
          </P>

          <P>MSHA considers the size-selective, gravimetric method capable of providing reasonably accurate measurements when the dpm concentration is greater than 200 μg/m<E T="51">3</E>, interferences are adequately limited, and the measurement is based on a full-shift sample. Relatively few M/NM measurements were made using this method, and none at the mines showing the highest dpm concentrations. No evidence was presented that the size distribution of coal mine dust (for which the impactor was specifically developed) differs from that of other mineral dusts in a way that significantly alters the impactor's performance. Similarly, MSHA considers the RCD method, when properly applied, to be capable of providing reasonably accurate dpm measurements at concentrations greater than 200 μg/m<E T="51">3</E>. As with the size selective method, however, random weighing errors can significantly reduce the precision of even full-shift RCD measurements at lower dpm concentrations. For this reason, in order to maintain a sufficiently high confidence level for its noncompliance determinations, MSHA will not use the RCD method for enforcement purposes. This does not mean, however, that MSHA has “discredited” the RCD measurements for all other purposes, including detection of very high dpm concentrations (i.e., greater than 300 μg/m<E T="51">3</E>) and estimation of average concentrations based on multiple samples. On the contrary, MSHA considers the RCD method to be a useful tool for detecting and monitoring very high dpm concentrations in appropriate environments and for estimating average exposures when those exposures are excessive.</P>
          <P>MSHA did not employ an impactor in its RCD measurements, and it is true that some of these measurements may have been subject to interference from lubrication oil mists. However, MSHA believes that the high estimates sometimes made of the non-dpm component of RCD (cited by IMC Global) do not apply to the RCD measurements depicted in Figure III-2. MSHA has three reasons for believing these RCD measurements consisted almost entirely of dpm:</P>
          <P>(1) MSHA took special care to sample only environments where interferences would not be significant. No samples were taken near pneumatic drills or smoking miners.</P>
          <P>(2) There was no interference from carbonates. The RCD analysis was performed at 500° C, and carbonates are not released below 1000° C. (Gangel and Dainty, 1993)</P>
          <P>(3) Although high sulphur fuel was used in some mines, thereby adding sulfates to the RCD measurement, these sulfates are considered part of the dpm, as explained in section 2 of Part II of this preamble. Sulfates should not be regarded as an interference in RCD measurements of dpm.</P>
          <P>Commenters presented no evidence that there were substantial interferences in MSHA's RCD measurements, and, as stated above, MSHA was careful to avoid them. Therefore, MSHA considers it reasonable, in the context of this risk assessment, to assume that all of the RCD was in fact dpm. Moreover, in the majority of underground M/NM mines sampled, even if the RCD measurements were reduced by<FR>1/3</FR>, the mine's average would still be excessive: it would still exceed the maximum exposure level reported for non-mining occupations presented in Section III.1.d.</P>
          <P>The breakdown, as suggested by IMC Global, of sampled underground M/NM mines by commodity is as follows:</P>
          <GPOTABLE CDE