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  <VOL>72</VOL>
  <NO>4</NO>
  <DATE>Monday, January 7, 2008</DATE>
  <UNITNAME>Contents</UNITNAME>
  <CNTNTS>
    <AGCY>
      <EAR>Agriculture</EAR>
      <HD>Agriculture Department</HD>
      <SEE>
        <HD SOURCE="HED">See</HD>
        <P>Animal and Plant Health Inspection Service</P>
      </SEE>
      <SEE>
        <HD SOURCE="HED">See</HD>
        <P>Forest Service</P>
      </SEE>
    </AGCY>
    <AGCY>
      <EAR>Animal</EAR>
      <HD>Animal and Plant Health Inspection Service</HD>
      <CAT>
        <HD>RULES</HD>
        <DOCENT>
          <DOC>Addition of Armenia to the List of Regions Where African Swine Fever Exists,<FRDOC>E7-25661</FRDOC>
          </DOC>
        </DOCENT>
      </CAT>
      <CAT>
        <HD>NOTICES</HD>
        <DOCENT>
          <DOC>Environmental Impact Statement; Regulated Status of Alfalfa Genetically Engineered for Tolerance to the Herbicide Glyphosate,<FRDOC>E7-25662</FRDOC>
          </DOC>
        </DOCENT>
        <SJ>Meetings:</SJ>
        <SJDENT>
          <SJDOC>National Poultry Improvement Plan General Conference Committee,<FRDOC>E8-13</FRDOC>
          </SJDOC>
        </SJDENT>
      </CAT>
    </AGCY>
    <AGCY>
      <EAR>Army</EAR>
      <HD>Army Department</HD>
      <CAT>
        <HD>NOTICES</HD>
        <SJ>Environmental statements; record of decision:</SJ>
        <SJDENT>
          <SJDOC>Army growth and force structure realignment,<FRDOC>07-6222</FRDOC>
          </SJDOC>
        </SJDENT>
      </CAT>
    </AGCY>
    <AGCY>
      <EAR>Coast Guard</EAR>
      <HD>Coast Guard</HD>
      <CAT>
        <HD>PROPOSED RULES</HD>
        <SJ>Security Zone:</SJ>
        <SJDENT>
          <SJDOC>Waters Surrounding U.S. Forces Vessel SBX-1, HI,<FRDOC>E8-19</FRDOC>
          </SJDOC>
        </SJDENT>
      </CAT>
    </AGCY>
    <AGCY>
      <EAR>Commerce</EAR>
      <HD>Commerce Department</HD>
      <SEE>
        <HD SOURCE="HED">See</HD>
        <P>International Trade Administration</P>
      </SEE>
    </AGCY>
    <AGCY>
      <EAR>Commodity</EAR>
      <HD>Commodity Futures Trading Commission</HD>
      <CAT>
        <HD>NOTICES</HD>
        <DOCENT>
          <DOC>Exemption Extension Granted Pursuant to Commodity Exchange Act for Certain Over-the-Counter Swaps;  Eligibility of  Certain Floor Brokers and Traders,<FRDOC>E8-11</FRDOC>
          </DOC>
        </DOCENT>
      </CAT>
    </AGCY>
    <AGCY>
      <EAR>Defense</EAR>
      <HD>Defense Department</HD>
      <SEE>
        <HD SOURCE="HED">See</HD>
        <P>Army Department</P>
      </SEE>
      <SEE>
        <HD SOURCE="HED">See</HD>
        <P>Navy Department</P>
      </SEE>
    </AGCY>
    <AGCY>
      <EAR>Drug</EAR>
      <HD>Drug Enforcement Administration</HD>
      <CAT>
        <HD>NOTICES</HD>
        <DOCENT>
          <DOC>Agency Information Collection Activities; Proposals, Submissions, and Approvals,<FRDOC>E7-25596</FRDOC>
          </DOC>
        </DOCENT>
      </CAT>
    </AGCY>
    <AGCY>
      <EAR>Energy</EAR>
      <HD>Energy Department</HD>
      <SEE>
        <HD SOURCE="HED">See</HD>
        <P>Energy Efficiency and Renewable Energy Office</P>
      </SEE>
      <SEE>
        <HD SOURCE="HED">See</HD>
        <P>Federal Energy Regulatory Commission</P>
      </SEE>
      <CAT>
        <HD>NOTICES</HD>
        <SJ>Energy Conservation Program for Commercial Equipment:</SJ>
        <SJDENT>
          <SJDOC>Petition for Waiver From Daikin AC (Americas), etc.,<FRDOC>E8-12</FRDOC>
          </SJDOC>
        </SJDENT>
        <SJ>Meetings:</SJ>
        <SJDENT>
          <SJDOC>Environmental Management Site-Specific Advisory Board, Hanford,<FRDOC>E8-14</FRDOC>
          </SJDOC>
        </SJDENT>
      </CAT>
    </AGCY>
    <AGCY>
      <EAR>Energy</EAR>
      <HD>Energy Efficiency and Renewable Energy Office</HD>
      <CAT>
        <HD>NOTICES</HD>
        <DOCENT>
          <DOC>Energy Conservation Program for Certain Industrial Equipment:  Publication of the Petition for Waiver From Daikin AC, Inc. and Granting of the Application f,<FRDOC>E7-25650</FRDOC>
          </DOC>
        </DOCENT>
      </CAT>
    </AGCY>
    <AGCY>
      <EAR>EPA</EAR>
      <HD>Environmental Protection Agency</HD>
      <CAT>
        <HD>RULES</HD>
        <DOCENT>
          <DOC>Michigan:  Final Authorization of State Hazardous Waste Management Program Revision,<FRDOC>E8-16</FRDOC>
          </DOC>
        </DOCENT>
      </CAT>
      <CAT>
        <HD>PROPOSED RULES</HD>
        <SJ>Approval and Promulgation of Air Quality Implementation Plans:</SJ>
        <SJDENT>
          <SJDOC>Pennyslvania; Redesignation of the Allentown-Bethlehem-Easton 8-hour Ozone Nonattainment Area to Attainment and Approval of the Maintenance Plan, etc.,<FRDOC>E8-27</FRDOC>
          </SJDOC>
        </SJDENT>
        <SJ>Approval and Promulgation of Implementation Plans and Designation of Areas for Air Quality Planning Purposes:</SJ>
        <SJDENT>
          <SJDOC>Nevada; Wintertime Oxygenated Gasoline Rule; Vehicle Inspection and Maintenance Program, etc.,<FRDOC>E7-25636</FRDOC>
          </SJDOC>
        </SJDENT>
      </CAT>
      <CAT>
        <HD>NOTICES</HD>
        <SJ>Meetings:</SJ>
        <SJDENT>
          <SJDOC>Adaptation for Climate-Sensitive Ecosystems and Resources Advisory Committee,<FRDOC>E8-17</FRDOC>
          </SJDOC>
        </SJDENT>
        <SJDENT>
          <SJDOC>Human Impacts of Climate Change Advisory Committee,<FRDOC>E8-22</FRDOC>
          </SJDOC>
        </SJDENT>
      </CAT>
    </AGCY>
    <AGCY>
      <EAR>FAA</EAR>
      <HD>Federal Aviation Administration</HD>
      <CAT>
        <HD>RULES</HD>
        <SJ>Airworthiness directives:</SJ>
        <SJDENT>
          <SJDOC>BAE Systems (Operations) Limited Model BAE 146 and Avro 146-RJ Airplanes,<FRDOC>E7-25479</FRDOC>
          </SJDOC>
        </SJDENT>
        <SJDENT>
          <SJDOC>Boeing Model 747-100, 747-100B, 747-100B SUD, 747-200B, 747-200C, 747-200F, 747-300, 747-400, 747-400D, 747-400F, 747SR, and 747SP Series Airplanes,<FRDOC>E7-25614,</FRDOC>
            <FRDOC>E7-25616</FRDOC>
          </SJDOC>
        </SJDENT>
        <SJDENT>
          <SJDOC>Boeing Model 747 Airplanes,<FRDOC>E7-25500</FRDOC>
          </SJDOC>
        </SJDENT>
        <SJDENT>
          <SJDOC>Rolls-Royce Deutschland Ltd  Co KG Tay 611-8, Tay 611-8C, Tay 620-15, Tay 650-15, and Tay 651-54 Turbofan Engines,<FRDOC>E7-25497</FRDOC>
          </SJDOC>
        </SJDENT>
      </CAT>
      <CAT>
        <HD>NOTICES</HD>
        <SJ>Airport Noise Compatibility Program:</SJ>
        <SUBSJ>Noise Exposure Maps—</SUBSJ>
        <SSJDENT>
          <SUBSJDOC>Ocala International Airport, FL,<FRDOC>08-5</FRDOC>
          </SUBSJDOC>
        </SSJDENT>
        <SSJDENT>
          <SUBSJDOC>Orlando Executive Airport, FL,<FRDOC>08-4</FRDOC>
          </SUBSJDOC>
        </SSJDENT>
      </CAT>
    </AGCY>
    <AGCY>
      <EAR>FCC</EAR>
      <HD>Federal Communications Commission</HD>
      <CAT>
        <HD>RULES</HD>
        <DOCENT>
          <DOC>Exclusive Service Contracts for Provision of Video Services in Multiple Dwelling Units and Other Real Estate Developments,<FRDOC>E7-25349</FRDOC>
          </DOC>
        </DOCENT>
      </CAT>
      <CAT>
        <HD>PROPOSED RULES</HD>
        <DOCENT>
          <DOC>Exclusive Service Contracts for Provision of Video Services in Multiple Dwelling Units and Other Real Estate Developments,<FRDOC>E7-25214</FRDOC>
          </DOC>
        </DOCENT>
      </CAT>
    </AGCY>
    <AGCY>
      <EAR>Federal Energy</EAR>
      <HD>Federal Energy Regulatory Commission</HD>
      <CAT>
        <HD>PROPOSED RULES</HD>
        <DOCENT>
          <DOC>Pipeline Posting Requirements under Section 23 of the Natural Gas Act,<FRDOC>E7-25435</FRDOC>
          </DOC>
        </DOCENT>
      </CAT>
      <CAT>
        <HD>NOTICES</HD>
        <DOCENT>
          <DOC>Combined Notice of Filings  No. 1,<FRDOC>E8-21</FRDOC>
          </DOC>
        </DOCENT>
      </CAT>
    </AGCY>
    <AGCY>
      <EAR>Federal Highway</EAR>
      <HD>Federal Highway Administration</HD>
      <CAT>
        <HD>NOTICES</HD>
        <SJ>Environmental Statements; Notice of Intent:</SJ>
        <SJDENT>
          <SJDOC>Saint Louis County, MN,<FRDOC>07-6303</FRDOC>
          </SJDOC>
        </SJDENT>
        <SJDENT>
          <SJDOC>Stearns County, MN,<FRDOC>07-6302</FRDOC>
          </SJDOC>
        </SJDENT>
      </CAT>
    </AGCY>
    <AGCY>
      <EAR>Federal Motor</EAR>
      <HD>Federal Motor Carrier Safety Administration</HD>
      <CAT>
        <HD>NOTICES</HD>
        <DOCENT>
          <DOC>Meetings; Sunshine Act,<FRDOC>08-19</FRDOC>
          </DOC>
        </DOCENT>
      </CAT>
    </AGCY>
    <AGCY>
      <EAR>Federal Procurement</EAR>
      <HD>Federal Procurement Policy Office</HD>
      <CAT>
        <HD>NOTICES</HD>
        <SJ>Reports and guidance documents; availability, etc.:</SJ>
        <SJDENT>

          <SJDOC>Green products and services acquisition; policy letter, 73904-73909 [<E T="04">Editorial Note:</E>This document was inadvertently placed under the Personnel Management Office in the<E T="04">Federal Register</E>Table of Contents of December 28, 2007.]</SJDOC>
        </SJDENT>
      </CAT>
    </AGCY>
    <AGCY>
      <EAR>Fish</EAR>
      <HD>Fish and Wildlife Service</HD>
      <CAT>
        <HD>NOTICES</HD>
        <DOCENT>
          <DOC>Notice of availability of the Final Comprehensive Conservation Plan for Catahoula National Wildlife Refuge in LaSalle and Catahoula Parishes, Louisiana,<FRDOC>E8-4</FRDOC>
          </DOC>
        </DOCENT>
        <DOCENT>
          <DOC>Vieques National Wildlife Refuge, Vieques, PR; Notice of Availability; Record of Decision,<FRDOC>E8-5</FRDOC>
          </DOC>
        </DOCENT>
      </CAT>
    </AGCY>
    <AGCY>
      <EAR>Food</EAR>
      <HD>Food and Drug Administration</HD>
      <CAT>
        <HD>NOTICES</HD>
        <SJ>Meetings:</SJ>
        <SJDENT>
          <SJDOC>Public Input Ensuring the Safety of Pet Food,<FRDOC>E7-25599</FRDOC>
          </SJDOC>
        </SJDENT>
      </CAT>
    </AGCY>
    <AGCY>
      <EAR>Foreign</EAR>
      <HD>Foreign Assets Control Office</HD>
      <CAT>
        <HD>NOTICES</HD>
        <DOCENT>
          <DOC>Unblocking of Specially Designated Narcotics Traffickers Pursuant to Executive Order 12978,<FRDOC>E7-25591</FRDOC>
          </DOC>
        </DOCENT>
      </CAT>
    </AGCY>
    <AGCY>
      <EAR>Forest</EAR>
      <HD>Forest Service</HD>
      <CAT>
        <HD>PROPOSED RULES</HD>
        <DOCENT>
          <DOC>Special Areas; Roadless Area Conservation; Applicability to the National Forests in Idaho,<FRDOC>07-6305</FRDOC>
          </DOC>
        </DOCENT>
      </CAT>
      <CAT>
        <HD>NOTICES</HD>
        <DOCENT>
          <DOC>Plumas National Forest; California; Moonlight Fire Recovery and Restoration Project,<FRDOC>07-6301</FRDOC>
          </DOC>
        </DOCENT>
      </CAT>
    </AGCY>
    <AGCY>
      <EAR>GSA</EAR>
      <HD>General Services Administration</HD>
      <CAT>
        <HD>NOTICES</HD>
        <DOCENT>
          <DOC>Use of Segwaysreg; and Similar Devices by Individuals with a Mobility Impairment in GSA-Controlled Federal Facilities,<FRDOC>E7-25592</FRDOC>
          </DOC>
        </DOCENT>
      </CAT>
    </AGCY>
    <AGCY>
      <EAR>Health</EAR>
      <HD>Health and Human Services Department</HD>
      <SEE>
        <HD SOURCE="HED">See</HD>
        <P>Food and Drug Administration</P>
      </SEE>
      <SEE>
        <HD SOURCE="HED">See</HD>
        <P>National Institutes of Health</P>
      </SEE>
      <CAT>
        <HD>NOTICES</HD>
        <DOCENT>
          <DOC>Agency Information Collection Activities; Proposals, Submissions, and Approvals,<FRDOC>E7-25431</FRDOC>
          </DOC>
        </DOCENT>
      </CAT>
    </AGCY>
    <AGCY>
      <EAR>Homeland</EAR>
      <HD>Homeland Security Department</HD>
      <SEE>
        <HD SOURCE="HED">See</HD>
        <P>Coast Guard</P>
      </SEE>
    </AGCY>
    <AGCY>
      <EAR>Housing</EAR>
      <HD>Housing and Urban Development Department</HD>
      <CAT>
        <HD>NOTICES</HD>
        <DOCENT>
          <DOC>Agency Information Collection Activities; Proposals, Submissions, and Approvals,<FRDOC>E7-25663</FRDOC>
          </DOC>
        </DOCENT>
      </CAT>
    </AGCY>
    <AGCY>
      <EAR>Indian</EAR>
      <HD>Indian Affairs Bureau</HD>
      <CAT>
        <HD>NOTICES</HD>
        <DOCENT>
          <DOC>Indian Gaming,<FRDOC>E7-25628</FRDOC>
          </DOC>
        </DOCENT>
      </CAT>
    </AGCY>
    <AGCY>
      <EAR>Interior</EAR>
      <HD>Interior Department</HD>
      <SEE>
        <HD SOURCE="HED">See</HD>
        <P>Fish and Wildlife Service</P>
      </SEE>
      <SEE>
        <HD SOURCE="HED">See</HD>
        <P>Indian Affairs Bureau</P>
      </SEE>
    </AGCY>
    <AGCY>
      <EAR>IRS</EAR>
      <HD>Internal Revenue Service</HD>
      <CAT>
        <HD>RULES</HD>
        <DOCENT>
          <DOC>Guidance Necessary to Facilitate Electronic Tax Administration—Updating of Section 7216 Regulations,<FRDOC>08-1</FRDOC>
          </DOC>
        </DOCENT>
      </CAT>
      <CAT>
        <HD>PROPOSED RULES</HD>
        <DOCENT>
          <DOC>Guidance Necessary to Facilitate Electronic Tax Administration—Updating of Section 7216 Regulations,<FRDOC>08-2</FRDOC>
          </DOC>
        </DOCENT>
        <DOCENT>
          <DOC>S Corporation Guidance Under AJCA of 2004 and GOZA of 2005; Hearing Cancellation,<FRDOC>E8-24</FRDOC>
          </DOC>
        </DOCENT>
      </CAT>
    </AGCY>
    <AGCY>
      <EAR>International</EAR>
      <HD>International Trade Administration</HD>
      <CAT>
        <HD>NOTICES</HD>
        <SJ>Antidumping:</SJ>
        <SUBSJ>Stainless Steel Butt-Weld Pipe Fittings From—</SUBSJ>
        <SSJDENT>
          <SUBSJDOC>Taiwan,<FRDOC>E7-25644</FRDOC>
          </SUBSJDOC>
        </SSJDENT>
        <SJ>Brake Rotors from the People's Republic of China:</SJ>
        <SJDENT>
          <SJDOC>Extension of Time Limit for the Preliminary Results of the 2006; 2007 Administrative and New Shipper Reviews,<FRDOC>E7-25645</FRDOC>
          </SJDOC>
        </SJDENT>
        <SJ>Extension of Time Limit for Final Results of Administrative Review:</SJ>
        <SJDENT>
          <SJDOC>Oil Country Tubular Goods, Other Than Drill Pipe from Korea,<FRDOC>E7-25646</FRDOC>
          </SJDOC>
        </SJDENT>
      </CAT>
    </AGCY>
    <AGCY>
      <EAR>International</EAR>
      <HD>International Trade Commission</HD>
      <CAT>
        <HD>NOTICES</HD>
        <DOCENT>
          <DOC>Uncovered Innerspring Units From China, South Africa, and Vietnam,<FRDOC>E8-7</FRDOC>
          </DOC>
        </DOCENT>
      </CAT>
    </AGCY>
    <AGCY>
      <EAR>Justice</EAR>
      <HD>Justice Department</HD>
      <SEE>
        <HD SOURCE="HED">See</HD>
        <P>Drug Enforcement Administration</P>
      </SEE>
      <CAT>
        <HD>NOTICES</HD>
        <DOCENT>
          <DOC>Agency Information Collection Activities; Proposals, Submissions, and Approvals,<FRDOC>E7-25594</FRDOC>
          </DOC>
        </DOCENT>
        <DOCENT>
          <DOC>Consent Decree Under the Clean Air Act,<FRDOC>07-6295</FRDOC>
          </DOC>
        </DOCENT>
        <DOCENT>
          <DOC>Proposed Consent Decree Under the Clean Air Act,<FRDOC>07-6296</FRDOC>
          </DOC>
        </DOCENT>
      </CAT>
    </AGCY>
    <AGCY>
      <EAR>Management</EAR>
      <HD>Management and Budget Office</HD>
      <SEE>
        <HD SOURCE="HED">See</HD>
        <P>Federal Procurement Policy Office</P>
      </SEE>
    </AGCY>
    <AGCY>
      <EAR>NIH</EAR>
      <HD>National Institutes of Health</HD>
      <CAT>
        <HD>NOTICES</HD>
        <SJ>Meetings:</SJ>
        <SJDENT>
          <SJDOC>National Institute of Child Health and Human Development,<FRDOC>07-6292</FRDOC>
          </SJDOC>
        </SJDENT>
        <SJDENT>
          <SJDOC>National Institute of Mental Health,<FRDOC>07-6293</FRDOC>
          </SJDOC>
        </SJDENT>
        <DOCENT>
          <DOC>National Institute on Drug Abuse Draft Strategic Plan,<FRDOC>E7-25521</FRDOC>
          </DOC>
        </DOCENT>
      </CAT>
    </AGCY>
    <AGCY>
      <EAR>National Transportation</EAR>
      <HD>National Transportation Safety Board</HD>
      <CAT>
        <HD>NOTICES</HD>
        <SJ>Meetings:</SJ>
        <SJDENT>
          <SJDOC>Marine Accident Report—Heeling Accident on M/V Crown Princess, Atlantic Ocean Off Port Canaveral, Florida, July 18, 2006,<FRDOC>07-6294</FRDOC>
          </SJDOC>
        </SJDENT>
      </CAT>
    </AGCY>
    <AGCY>
      <EAR>Navy</EAR>
      <HD>Navy Department</HD>
      <CAT>
        <HD>NOTICES</HD>
        <SJ>Meetings:</SJ>
        <SJDENT>
          <SJDOC>Chief of Naval Operations Executive Panel,<FRDOC>E8-25</FRDOC>
          </SJDOC>
        </SJDENT>
      </CAT>
    </AGCY>
    <AGCY>
      <EAR>Nuclear</EAR>
      <HD>Nuclear Regulatory Commission</HD>
      <CAT>
        <HD>NOTICES</HD>
        <DOCENT>
          <DOC>Imposition of Civil Penalty on Contractors and Subcontractors Who Discriminate Against Employees for Engaging in Protected Activities,<FRDOC>E7-25629</FRDOC>
          </DOC>
        </DOCENT>
      </CAT>
    </AGCY>
    <AGCY>
      <EAR>Pipeline</EAR>
      <HD>Pipeline and Hazardous Materials Safety Administration</HD>
      <CAT>
        <HD>RULES</HD>
        <SJ>Hazardous Materials:</SJ>
        <SJDENT>
          <SJDOC>Revisions to the List of Hazardous Substances and Reportable Quantities,<FRDOC>07-6297</FRDOC>
          </SJDOC>
        </SJDENT>
      </CAT>
    </AGCY>
    <AGCY>
      <EAR>Postal</EAR>
      <HD>Postal Regulatory Commission</HD>
      <CAT>
        <HD>NOTICES</HD>
        <DOCENT>
          <DOC>FY  2007 Annual Compliance Report; comment request,<FRDOC>E7-25656</FRDOC>
          </DOC>
        </DOCENT>
        <SJ>Meetings:</SJ>
        <SJDENT>
          <SJDOC>Cost model used for periodicals in the Cost and Revenue Analysis Report FY 2007; technical conference,<FRDOC>E8-36</FRDOC>
          </SJDOC>
        </SJDENT>
      </CAT>
    </AGCY>
    <AGCY>
      <EAR>Postal</EAR>
      <HD>Postal Service</HD>
      <CAT>
        <HD>PROPOSED RULES</HD>
        <DOCENT>
          <DOC>Implementation of Intelligent Mail Barcodes,<FRDOC>E7-25635</FRDOC>
          </DOC>
        </DOCENT>
      </CAT>
    </AGCY>
    <AGCY>
      <EAR>SEC</EAR>
      <HD>Securities and Exchange Commission</HD>
      <CAT>
        <HD>NOTICES</HD>
        <DOCENT>
          <DOC>Agency Information Collection Activities; Proposals, Submissions, and Approvals,<FRDOC>E8-2,</FRDOC>
            <FRDOC>E8-3</FRDOC>
          </DOC>
        </DOCENT>
        <DOCENT>
          <DOC>Meetings; Sunshine Act,<FRDOC>E8-43</FRDOC>
          </DOC>
        </DOCENT>
        <SJ>Self-Regulatory Organizations; Proposed Rule Changes:</SJ>
        <SJDENT>
          <SJDOC>American Stock Exchange, LLC,<FRDOC>E7-25598</FRDOC>
          </SJDOC>
        </SJDENT>
        <SJDENT>
          <SJDOC>Chicago Board Options Exchange, Inc.,<FRDOC>E7-25651</FRDOC>
          </SJDOC>
        </SJDENT>
        <SJDENT>
          <SJDOC>Depository Trust Co.,<FRDOC>E7-25655</FRDOC>
          </SJDOC>
        </SJDENT>
        <SJDENT>
          <SJDOC>International Securities Exchange, LLC,<FRDOC>E7-25652</FRDOC>
          </SJDOC>
        </SJDENT>
        <SJDENT>
          <SJDOC>New York Stock Exchange LLC,<FRDOC>E7-25597,</FRDOC>
            <FRDOC>E7-25600,</FRDOC>
            <FRDOC>E7-25654</FRDOC>
          </SJDOC>
        </SJDENT>
        <SJDENT>
          <SJDOC>Philadelphia Stock Exchange, Inc.,<FRDOC>E7-25653,</FRDOC>
            <FRDOC>E8-9</FRDOC>
          </SJDOC>
        </SJDENT>
      </CAT>
    </AGCY>
    <AGCY>
      <EAR>Social</EAR>
      <HD>Social Security Administration</HD>
      <CAT>
        <HD>NOTICES</HD>
        <DOCENT>
          <DOC>Agency Information Collection Activities; Proposals, Submissions, and Approvals,<FRDOC>E8-10</FRDOC>
          </DOC>
        </DOCENT>
      </CAT>
    </AGCY>
    <AGCY>
      <EAR>State</EAR>
      <HD>State Department</HD>
      <CAT>
        <HD>NOTICES</HD>
        <DOCENT>
          <DOC>Culturally Significant Objects Imported for Exhibition Determinations:,<FRDOC>E8-20</FRDOC>
          </DOC>
        </DOCENT>
        <SJ>Between India and Portugal Around 1600</SJ>
        <SJDENT>
          <SJDOC>Assorted Objects of Greek and Roman Art,<FRDOC>E8-18</FRDOC>
          </SJDOC>
        </SJDENT>
      </CAT>
    </AGCY>
    <AGCY>
      <EAR>Surface</EAR>
      <HD>Surface Transportation Board</HD>
      <CAT>
        <HD>NOTICES</HD>
        <DOCENT>
          <DOC>Colorado Springs  Eastern Railroad Company-Abandonment Exemption-in El Paso County, CO,<FRDOC>E8-8</FRDOC>
          </DOC>
        </DOCENT>
        <DOCENT>
          <DOC>Mid-Michigan Railroad, Inc.?Abandonment Exemption?in Kent and Ionia Counties, MI,<FRDOC>E8-40</FRDOC>
          </DOC>
        </DOCENT>
      </CAT>
    </AGCY>
    <AGCY>
      <EAR>Transportation</EAR>
      <HD>Transportation Department</HD>
      <SEE>
        <HD SOURCE="HED">See</HD>
        <P>Federal Aviation Administration</P>
      </SEE>
      <SEE>
        <HD SOURCE="HED">See</HD>
        <P>Federal Highway Administration</P>
      </SEE>
      <SEE>
        <HD SOURCE="HED">See</HD>
        <P>Federal Motor Carrier Safety Administration</P>
      </SEE>
      <SEE>
        <HD SOURCE="HED">See</HD>
        <P>Pipeline and Hazardous Materials Safety Administration</P>
      </SEE>
      <SEE>
        <HD SOURCE="HED">See</HD>
        <P>Surface Transportation Board</P>
      </SEE>
    </AGCY>
    <AGCY>
      <EAR>Treasury</EAR>
      <HD>Treasury Department</HD>
      <SEE>
        <HD SOURCE="HED">See</HD>
        <P>Foreign Assets Control Office</P>
      </SEE>
      <SEE>
        <HD SOURCE="HED">See</HD>
        <P>Internal Revenue Service</P>
      </SEE>
      <CAT>
        <HD>NOTICES</HD>
        <DOCENT>
          <DOC>Agency information collection activities; proposals, submissions, and approvals,<FRDOC>E7-25649</FRDOC>
          </DOC>
        </DOCENT>
      </CAT>
    </AGCY>
    <AGCY>
      <EAR>Veterans</EAR>
      <HD>Veterans Affairs Department</HD>
      <CAT>
        <HD>RULES</HD>
        <DOCENT>
          <DOC>Dependents’ Education Assistance,<FRDOC>E7-25657</FRDOC>
          </DOC>
        </DOCENT>
        <SJ>Education:</SJ>
        <SJDENT>
          <SJDOC>Approval of Accredited Courses for VA Education Benefits,<FRDOC>E7-25658</FRDOC>
          </SJDOC>
        </SJDENT>
      </CAT>
      <CAT>
        <HD>NOTICES</HD>
        <DOCENT>
          <DOC>Agency Information Collection Activities; Proposals, Submissions, and Approvals,<FRDOC>E7-25659,</FRDOC>
            <FRDOC>E7-25660</FRDOC>
          </DOC>
        </DOCENT>
      </CAT>
    </AGCY>
    <P Q="02"/>
    <AIDS>
      <HD SOURCE="HED">Reader Aids</HD>
      <P>Consult the Reader Aids section at the end of this issue for phone numbers, online resources, finding aids, reminders, and notice of recently enacted public laws.</P>
      <P Q="02"/>
      <P>To subscribe to the Federal Register Table of Contents LISTSERV electronic mailing list, go to http://listserv.access.gpo.gov and select Online mailing list archives, FEDREGTOC-L, Join or leave the list (or change settings); then follow the instructions.</P>
    </AIDS>
  </CNTNTS>
  <VOL>73</VOL>
  <NO>4</NO>
  <DATE>Monday, January 7, 2008</DATE>
  <UNITNAME>Rules and Regulations</UNITNAME>
  <RULES>
    <RULE>
      <PREAMB>
        <PRTPAGE P="1043"/>
        <AGENCY TYPE="F">DEPARTMENT OF AGRICULTURE</AGENCY>
        <SUBAGY>Animal and Plant Health Inspection Service</SUBAGY>
        <CFR>9 CFR Part 94</CFR>
        <DEPDOC>[Docket No. APHIS-2007-0142]</DEPDOC>
        <SUBJECT>Addition of Armenia to the List of Regions Where African Swine Fever Exists</SUBJECT>
        <AGY>
          <HD SOURCE="HED">AGENCY:</HD>
          <P>Animal and Plant Health Inspection Service, USDA.</P>
        </AGY>
        <ACT>
          <HD SOURCE="HED">ACTION:</HD>
          <P>Interim rule and request for comments.</P>
        </ACT>
        <SUM>
          <HD SOURCE="HED">SUMMARY:</HD>
          <P>We are amending the regulations concerning the importation of animals and animal products by adding Armenia to the list of regions where African swine fever exists. We are taking this action because outbreaks of African swine fever have been confirmed in various locations in the northern portion of Armenia. This action will restrict the importation of pork and pork products into the United States from Armenia and is necessary to prevent the introduction of African swine fever into the United States.</P>
        </SUM>
        <DATES>
          <HD SOURCE="HED">DATES:</HD>
          <P>This interim rule is effective January 7, 2008. However, we are imposing this restriction retroactively to August 29, 2007, which is the date that the presence of ASF in Armenia was confirmed. We will consider all comments that we receive on or before March 7, 2008.</P>
        </DATES>
        <ADD>
          <HD SOURCE="HED">ADDRESSES:</HD>
          <P>You may submit comments by either of the following methods:</P>
          <P>•<E T="03">Federal eRulemaking Portal:</E>Go to<E T="03">http://www.regulations.gov/fdmspublic/component/main?main=DocketDetaild=APHIS-2007-0142</E>to submit or view comments and to view supporting and related materials available electronically.</P>
          <P>•<E T="03">Postal Mail/Commercial Delivery:</E>Please send two copies of your comment to Docket No. APHIS-2007-0142, Regulatory Analysis and Development, PPD, APHIS, Station 3A-03.8, 4700 River Road Unit 118, Riverdale, MD 20737-1238. Please state that your comment refers to Docket No. APHIS-2007-0142.</P>
          <P>
            <E T="03">Reading Room:</E>You may read any comments that we receive on this docket in our reading room. The reading room is located in room 1141 of the USDA South Building, 14th Street and Independence Avenue, SW., Washington, DC. Normal reading room hours are 8 a.m. to 4:30 p.m., Monday through Friday, except holidays. To be sure someone is there to help you, please call (202) 690-2817 before coming.</P>
          <P>
            <E T="03">Other Information:</E>Additional information about APHIS and its programs is available on the Internet at<E T="03">http://www.aphis.usda.gov</E>.</P>
        </ADD>
        <FURINF>
          <HD SOURCE="HED">FOR FURTHER INFORMATION CONTACT:</HD>
          <P>Mr. Javier Vargas, Animal Scientist, Regionalization Evaluation Services Staff, National Center for Import and Export, VS, APHIS, 4700 River Road Unit 38, Riverdale, MD 20737-1231; (301) 734-0756.</P>
        </FURINF>
      </PREAMB>
      <SUPLINF>
        <HD SOURCE="HED">SUPPLEMENTARY INFORMATION:</HD>
        <HD SOURCE="HD1">Background</HD>
        <P>The regulations in 9 CFR part 94 (referred to below as the regulations) govern the importation of specified animals and animal products to prevent the introduction into the United States of various animal diseases, including rinderpest, foot-and-mouth disease, bovine spongiform encephalopathy, swine vesicular disease, classical swine fever, and African swine fever (ASF). These are dangerous and destructive diseases of ruminants and swine.</P>
        <P>Section 94.8 of the regulations lists regions of the world where ASF exists or is reasonably believed to exist and imposes restrictions on the importation of pork and pork products into the United States from those regions.</P>
        <P>On August 29, 2007, Armenia reported to the World Organization for Animal Health six outbreaks of ASF in various areas in the northern part of the country. The source of the outbreaks is unknown. Therefore, in order to prevent the introduction of ASF into the United States, we are amending the regulations by adding Armenia to the list of regions in § 94.8 where ASF exists or is reasonably believed to exist. As a result of this action, the importation into the United States of pork and pork products from Armenia will be restricted. We are imposing this restriction retroactively to August 29, 2007, which is the date that the presence of ASF in Armenia was confirmed.</P>
        <HD SOURCE="HD1">Emergency Action</HD>

        <P>This rulemaking is necessary on an emergency basis to prevent the introduction of ASF into the United States. Under these circumstances, the Administrator has determined that prior notice and opportunity for public comment are contrary to the public interest and that there is good cause under 5 U.S.C. 553 for making this rule effective less than 30 days after publication in the<E T="04">Federal Register</E>.</P>

        <P>We will consider comments we receive during the comment period for this interim rule (see<E T="02">DATES</E>above). After the comment period closes, we will publish another document in the<E T="04">Federal Register</E>. The document will include a discussion of any comments we receive and any amendments we are making to the rule.</P>
        <HD SOURCE="HD1">Executive Order 12866 and Regulatory Flexibility Act</HD>
        <P>This interim rule has been reviewed under Executive Order 12866. For this action, the Office of Management and Budget has waived its review under Executive Order 12866.</P>
        <P>This interim rule amends the regulations by adding Armenia to the list of regions in which ASF exists. This action is necessary on an emergency basis to prevent the introduction of ASF into the United States.</P>
        <P>The rule will restrict the importation of pork and pork products from Armenia. While the United States imported approximately $2.1 million of agricultural products from Armenia between 2002 and 2006, these were largely horticultural products, wine and wine products, and fruit and vegetable products. Pork and pork products are not currently imported from Armenia into the United States. Therefore, it is unlikely that this interim rule will have any substantial effects on trade, or on large or small businesses.</P>

        <P>Under these circumstances, the Administrator of the Animal and Plant Health Inspection Service has determined that this action will not have a significant economic impact on a substantial number of small entities.<PRTPAGE P="1044"/>
        </P>
        <HD SOURCE="HD1">Executive Order 12988</HD>
        <P>This rule has been reviewed under Executive Order 12988, Civil Justice Reform. This rule: (1) Preempts all State and local laws and regulations that are inconsistent with this rule; (2) has retroactive effect to August 29, 2007; and (3) does not require administrative proceedings before parties may file suit in court challenging this rule.</P>
        <HD SOURCE="HD1">Paperwork Reduction Act</HD>

        <P>This interim rule contains no information collection or recordkeeping requirements under the Paperwork Reduction Act of 1995 (44 U.S.C. 3501,<E T="03">et seq.</E>).</P>
        <LSTSUB>
          <HD SOURCE="HED">List of Subjects in 9 CFR Part 94</HD>
          <P>Animal diseases, Imports, Livestock, Meat and meat products, Milk, Poultry and poultry products, Reporting and recordkeeping requirements.</P>
        </LSTSUB>
        <AMDPAR>Accordingly, we are amending 9 CFR part 94 as follows:</AMDPAR>
        <PART>
          <HD SOURCE="HED">PART 94—RINDERPEST, FOOT-AND-MOUTH DISEASE, FOWL PEST (FOWL PLAGUE), EXOTIC NEWCASTLE DISEASE, AFRICAN SWINE FEVER, CLASSICAL SWINE FEVER, AND BOVINE SPONGIFORM ENCEPHALOPATHY: PROHIBITED AND RESTRICTED IMPORTATIONS</HD>
        </PART>
        <AMDPAR>1. The authority citation for part 94 continues to read as follows:</AMDPAR>
        <AUTH>
          <HD SOURCE="HED">Authority:</HD>
          <P>7 U.S.C. 450, 7701-7772, 7781-7786, and 8301-8317; 21 U.S.C. 136 and 136a; 31 U.S.C. 9701; 7 CFR 2.22, 2.80, and 371.4.</P>
        </AUTH>
        <SECTION>
          <SECTNO>§ 94.8</SECTNO>
          <SUBJECT>[Amended]</SUBJECT>
        </SECTION>
        <AMDPAR>2. In § 94.8, the introductory text is amended by adding the word “Armenia,” after the word “Africa,”.</AMDPAR>
        <SIG>
          <DATED>Done in Washington, DC, this 27th day of December 2007.</DATED>
          <NAME>Kevin Shea,</NAME>
          <TITLE>Acting Administrator, Animal and Plant Health Inspection Service.</TITLE>
        </SIG>
      </SUPLINF>
      <FRDOC>[FR Doc. E7-25661 Filed 1-4-08; 8:45 am]</FRDOC>
      <BILCOD>BILLING CODE 3410-34-P</BILCOD>
    </RULE>
    <RULE>
      <PREAMB>
        <AGENCY TYPE="N">DEPARTMENT OF TRANSPORTATION</AGENCY>
        <SUBAGY>Federal Aviation Administration</SUBAGY>
        <CFR>14 CFR Part 39</CFR>
        <DEPDOC>[Docket No. FAA-2007-0044; Directorate Identifier 2007-NM-126-AD; Amendment 39-15320; AD 2007-26-18]</DEPDOC>
        <RIN>RIN 2120-AA64</RIN>
        <SUBJECT>Airworthiness Directives; BAE Systems (Operations) Limited Model BAe 146 and Avro 146-RJ Airplanes</SUBJECT>
        <AGY>
          <HD SOURCE="HED">AGENCY:</HD>
          <P>Federal Aviation Administration (FAA), Department of Transportation (DOT).</P>
        </AGY>
        <ACT>
          <HD SOURCE="HED">ACTION:</HD>
          <P>Final rule.</P>
        </ACT>
        <SUM>
          <HD SOURCE="HED">SUMMARY:</HD>
          <P>We are adopting a new airworthiness directive (AD) for the products listed above. This AD results from mandatory continuing airworthiness information (MCAI) originated by an aviation authority of another country to identify and correct an unsafe condition on an aviation product. The MCAI describes the unsafe condition as: “An accumulator cylinder had material defects and suffered an in-flight burst failure causing damage to the aircraft structure.” We are issuing this AD to require actions to correct the unsafe condition on these products.</P>
        </SUM>
        <EFFDATE>
          <HD SOURCE="HED">DATES:</HD>
          <P>This AD becomes effective February 11, 2008.</P>
          <P>The Director of the Federal Register approved the incorporation by reference of certain publications listed in this AD as of February 11, 2008.</P>
        </EFFDATE>
        <ADD>
          <HD SOURCE="HED">ADDRESSES:</HD>
          <P>You may examine the AD docket on the Internet at<E T="03">http://www.regulations.gov</E>or in person at the U.S. Department of Transportation, Docket Operations, M-30, West Building Ground Floor, Room W12-140, 1200 New Jersey Avenue, SE., Washington, DC.</P>
        </ADD>
        <FURINF>
          <HD SOURCE="HED">FOR FURTHER INFORMATION CONTACT:</HD>
          <P>Todd Thompson, Aerospace Engineer, International Branch, ANM-116, FAA, Transport Airplane Directorate, 1601 Lind Avenue, SW., Renton, Washington 98057-3356; telephone (425) 227-1175; fax (425) 227-1149.</P>
        </FURINF>
      </PREAMB>
      <SUPLINF>
        <HD SOURCE="HED">SUPPLEMENTARY INFORMATION:</HD>
        <P/>
        <HD SOURCE="HD1">Discussion</HD>

        <P>We issued a notice of proposed rulemaking (NPRM) to amend 14 CFR part 39 to include an AD that would apply to the specified products. That NPRM was published in the<E T="04">Federal Register</E>on October 17, 2007 (72 FR 58774). That NPRM proposed to correct an unsafe condition for the specified products. The MCAI states:</P>
        
        <EXTRACT>
          <P>An accumulator cylinder had material defects and suffered an in-flight burst failure causing damage to the aircraft structure. This resulted in the issue of EASA Emergency AD 2006-0061-E [we issued AD 2006-23-12 to address that EASA AD] that required the identification and check of cylinders from known suspect batches. Further investigations and checks by the accumulator manufacturer have concluded that all cylinders from a particular supplier may not have been correctly inspected at manufacture. To prevent the risk of further failures, this Airworthiness Directive (AD) requires all accumulators with cylinders from this supplier to be identified and inspected prior to re-installation.</P>
        </EXTRACT>
        
        <FP>The corrective action includes replacing any accumulator found to have a defect. You may obtain further information by examining the MCAI in the AD docket.</FP>
        <HD SOURCE="HD1">Comments</HD>
        <P>We gave the public the opportunity to participate in developing this AD. We received no comments on the NPRM or on the determination of the cost to the public.</P>
        <HD SOURCE="HD1">Conclusion</HD>
        <P>We reviewed the available data and determined that air safety and the public interest require adopting the AD as proposed.</P>
        <HD SOURCE="HD1">Differences Between This AD and the MCAI or Service Information</HD>
        <P>We have reviewed the MCAI and related service information and, in general, agree with their substance. But we might have found it necessary to use different words from those in the MCAI to ensure the AD is clear for U.S. operators and is enforceable. In making these changes, we do not intend to differ substantively from the information provided in the MCAI and related service information.</P>
        <P>We might also have required different actions in this AD from those in the MCAI in order to follow our FAA policies. Any such differences are highlighted in a NOTE within the AD.</P>
        <HD SOURCE="HD1">Costs of Compliance</HD>
        <P>We estimate that this AD will affect about 1 product of U.S. registry. We also estimate that it will take about 4 work-hours per product to comply with the basic requirements of this AD. The average labor rate is $80 per work-hour. Based on these figures, we estimate the cost of this AD to the U.S. operators to be $320, or $320 per product.</P>
        <HD SOURCE="HD1">Authority for This Rulemaking</HD>

        <P>Title 49 of the United States Code specifies the FAA's authority to issue rules on aviation safety. Subtitle I, section 106, describes the authority of<PRTPAGE P="1045"/>the FAA Administrator. “Subtitle VII: Aviation Programs,” describes in more detail the scope of the Agency's authority.</P>
        <P>We are issuing this rulemaking under the authority described in “Subtitle VII, Part A, Subpart III, Section 44701: General requirements.” Under that section, Congress charges the FAA with promoting safe flight of civil aircraft in air commerce by prescribing regulations for practices, methods, and procedures the Administrator finds necessary for safety in air commerce. This regulation is within the scope of that authority because it addresses an unsafe condition that is likely to exist or develop on products identified in this rulemaking action.</P>
        <HD SOURCE="HD1">Regulatory Findings</HD>
        <P>We determined that this AD will not have federalism implications under Executive Order 13132. This AD will not have a substantial direct effect on the States, on the relationship between the national government and the States, or on the distribution of power and responsibilities among the various levels of government.</P>
        <P>For the reasons discussed above, I certify this AD:</P>
        <P>1. Is not a “significant regulatory action” under Executive Order 12866;</P>
        <P>2. Is not a “significant rule” under the DOT Regulatory Policies and Procedures (44 FR 11034, February 26, 1979); and</P>
        <P>3. Will not have a significant economic impact, positive or negative, on a substantial number of small entities under the criteria of the Regulatory Flexibility Act.</P>
        <P>We prepared a regulatory evaluation of the estimated costs to comply with this AD and placed it in the AD docket.</P>
        <HD SOURCE="HD1">Examining the AD Docket</HD>
        <P>You may examine the AD docket on the Internet at<E T="03">http://www.regulations.gov</E>; or in person at the Docket Operations office between 9 a.m. and 5 p.m., Monday through Friday, except Federal holidays. The AD docket contains the NPRM, the regulatory evaluation, any comments received, and other information. The street address for the Docket Operations office (telephone (800) 647-5527) is in the<E T="02">ADDRESSES</E>section. Comments will be available in the AD docket shortly after receipt.</P>
        <LSTSUB>
          <HD SOURCE="HED">List of Subjects in 14 CFR Part 39</HD>
          <P>Air transportation, Aircraft, Aviation safety, Incorporation by reference, Safety.</P>
        </LSTSUB>
        <REGTEXT PART="39" TITLE="14">
          <HD SOURCE="HD1">Adoption of the Amendment</HD>
          <AMDPAR>Accordingly, under the authority delegated to me by the Administrator, the FAA amends 14 CFR part 39 as follows:</AMDPAR>
          <PART>
            <HD SOURCE="HED">PART 39—AIRWORTHINESS DIRECTIVES</HD>
          </PART>
          <AMDPAR>1. The authority citation for part 39 continues to read as follows:</AMDPAR>
          <AUTH>
            <HD SOURCE="HED">Authority:</HD>
            <P>49 U.S.C. 106(g), 40113, 44701.</P>
          </AUTH>
          <SECTION>
            <SECTNO>§ 39.13</SECTNO>
            <SUBJECT>[Amended]</SUBJECT>
          </SECTION>
          <AMDPAR>2. The FAA amends § 39.13 by adding the following new AD:</AMDPAR>
          
          <EXTRACT>
            <FP SOURCE="FP-2">
              <E T="04">2007-26-18BAE Systems (Operations) Limited (Formerly British Aerospace Regional Aircraft):</E>Amendment 39-15320. Docket No. FAA-2007-0044; Directorate Identifier 2007-NM-126-AD.</FP>
            <HD SOURCE="HD1">Effective Date</HD>
            <P>(a) This airworthiness directive (AD) becomes effective February 11, 2008.</P>
            <HD SOURCE="HD1">Affected ADs</HD>
            <P>(b) None.</P>
            <HD SOURCE="HD1">Applicability</HD>
            <P>(c) This AD applies to BAE Systems (Operations) Limited Model BAe 146-100A, -200A, and -300A series airplanes; and Model Avro 146-RJ70A, 146-RJ85A, and 146-RJ100A airplanes; certificated in any category, all models, all serial numbers.</P>
            <HD SOURCE="HD1">Subject</HD>
            <P>(d) Air Transport Association (ATA) of America Code 29: Hydraulic power.</P>
            <HD SOURCE="HD1">Reason</HD>
            <P>(e) The mandatory continuing airworthiness information (MCAI) states:</P>
            <P>An accumulator cylinder had material defects and suffered an in-flight burst failure causing damage to the aircraft structure. This resulted in the issue of EASA Emergency AD 2006-0061-E [we issued AD 2006-23-12 to address that EASA AD] that required the identification and check of cylinders from known suspect batches. Further investigations and checks by the accumulator manufacturer have concluded that all cylinders from a particular supplier may not have been correctly inspected at manufacture. To prevent the risk of further failures, this Airworthiness Directive (AD) requires all accumulators with cylinders from this supplier to be identified and inspected prior to re-installation.</P>
            
            <FP>The corrective action includes replacing any accumulator found to have a defect.</FP>
            <HD SOURCE="HD1">Actions and Compliance</HD>
            <P>(f) Unless already done, do the following actions.</P>
            <P>(1) Within 30 months after the effective date of this AD, identify the installed accumulator in accordance with paragraph 2.C. of BAE Systems (Operations) Limited Inspection Service Bulletin ISB.29-047, dated October 3, 2006, which makes reference to APPH Service Bulletin AIR91666-29-03, dated July 2006.</P>
            <P>(2) When an accumulator is identified as being affected by this AD, before further flight after accomplishing the actions required in paragraph (f)(1) of this AD, remove the accumulator in accordance with paragraph 2.D. of BAE Systems (Operations) Limited Inspection Service Bulletin ISB.29-047, dated October 3, 2006, and do a magnetic particle inspection of the cylinder for any defects in accordance with the Accomplishment Instructions of APPH Service Bulletin AIR91666-29-03, dated July 2006.</P>
            <P>(3) If any defect is found during the inspection required in paragraph (f)(2) of this AD, before next flight, replace the accumulator with a serviceable unit in accordance with the Accomplishment Instructions of APPH Service Bulletin AIR91666-29-03, dated July 2006.</P>
            <P>(4) After the effective date of this AD, no person may install a spare accumulator identified by APPH Service Bulletin AIR91666-29-03, dated July 2006, as a replacement part, unless it has been inspected in accordance with APPH Service Bulletin AIR91666-29-02, dated March 2006; or APPH Service Bulletin AIR91666-29-03, dated July 2006 (see second Note in paragraph 1.D.(1) of BAE Systems (Operations) Limited Inspection Service Bulletin ISB.29-047, dated October 3, 2006, for further explanation).</P>
            <HD SOURCE="HD1">FAA AD Differences</HD>
            <NOTE>
              <HD SOURCE="HED">Note:</HD>
              <P>This AD differs from the MCAI and/or service information as follows:</P>
              <P>(1) Where the MCAI specifies to identify the installed accumulator within 6 weeks after the effective date of the AD, we have determined that the identification may be done within 30 months after the effective date of this AD to coincide with the compliance time for the magnetic particle inspection. In making this determination, we considered the maximum interval of time allowable for all affected airplanes to continue to operate without compromising safety, fleet usage, and the availability of replacement parts.</P>
            </NOTE>
            <HD SOURCE="HD1">Other FAA AD Provisions</HD>
            <P>(g) The following provisions also apply to this AD:</P>
            <P>(1)<E T="03">Alternative Methods of Compliance (AMOCs):</E>The Manager, ANM-116, International Branch, Transport Airplane Directorate, FAA, has the authority to approve AMOCs for this AD, if requested using the procedures found in 14 CFR 39.19. Send information to ATTN: Todd Thompson, Aerospace Engineer, International Branch, ANM-116, FAA, Transport Airplane Directorate, 1601 Lind Avenue, SW., Renton, Washington 98057-3356; telephone (425) 227-1175; fax (425) 227-1149. Before using any approved AMOC on any airplane to which the AMOC applies, notify your appropriate principal inspector (PI) in the FAA Flight Standards District Office (FSDO), or lacking a PI, your local FSDO.</P>
            <P>(2)<E T="03">Airworthy Product:</E>For any requirement in this AD to obtain corrective actions from a manufacturer or other source, use these actions if they are FAA-approved. Corrective actions are considered FAA-approved if they are approved by the State of Design Authority (or their delegated agent). You are required to assure the product is airworthy before it is returned to service.<PRTPAGE P="1046"/>
            </P>
            <P>(3)<E T="03">Reporting Requirements:</E>For any reporting requirement in this AD, under the provisions of the Paperwork Reduction Act, the Office of Management and Budget (OMB) has approved the information collection requirements and has assigned OMB Control Number 2120-0056.</P>
            <HD SOURCE="HD1">Related Information</HD>
            <P>(h) Refer to MCAI European Aviation Safety Agency Airworthiness Directive 2007-0076, dated March 21, 2007, and the service information listed in Table 1 of this AD for related information.</P>
            <GPOTABLE CDEF="s90,r60" COLS="2" OPTS="L2,i1">
              <TTITLE>Table 1.—Service Information</TTITLE>
              <BOXHD>
                <CHED H="1">Service Bulletin</CHED>
                <CHED H="1">Date</CHED>
              </BOXHD>
              <ROW>
                <ENT I="01">APPH Service Bulletin AIR91666-29-02</ENT>
                <ENT>March 2006.</ENT>
              </ROW>
              <ROW>
                <ENT I="01">APPH Service Bulletin AIR91666-29-03</ENT>
                <ENT>July 2006.</ENT>
              </ROW>
              <ROW>
                <ENT I="01">BAE Systems (Operations) Limited Inspection Service Bulletin ISB.29-047</ENT>
                <ENT>October 3, 2006.</ENT>
              </ROW>
            </GPOTABLE>
            <HD SOURCE="HD1">Material Incorporated by Reference</HD>
            <P>(i) You must use the service information specified in Table 2 of this AD to do the actions required by this AD, unless the AD specifies otherwise.</P>
            <P>(1) The Director of the Federal Register approved the incorporation by reference of this service information under 5 U.S.C. 552(a) and 1 CFR part 51.</P>
            <P>(2) For service information identified in this AD, contact British Aerospace Regional Aircraft American Support 13850 Mclearen Road, Herndon, Virginia 20171; and APPH Ltd., Engineering Division, Unit 1, Pembroke Court, Chancellor Road, Manor Park, Runcorn, Cheshire, WA7 1TG, England, United Kingdom.</P>

            <P>(3) You may review copies at the FAA, Transport Airplane Directorate, 1601 Lind Avenue, SW., Renton, Washington; or at the National Archives and Records Administration (NARA). For information on the availability of this material at NARA, call (202) 741-6030, or go to:<E T="03">http://www.archives.gov/federal-register/cfr/ibr-locations.html.</E>
            </P>
            <GPOTABLE CDEF="s90,r60" COLS="2" OPTS="L2,i1">
              <TTITLE>Table 2.—Material Incorporated by Reference</TTITLE>
              <BOXHD>
                <CHED H="1">Service Bulletin</CHED>
                <CHED H="1">Date</CHED>
              </BOXHD>
              <ROW>
                <ENT I="01">APPH Service Bulletin AIR91666-29-03</ENT>
                <ENT>July 2006.</ENT>
              </ROW>
              <ROW>
                <ENT I="01">BAE Systems (Operations) Limited Inspection Service Bulletin ISB.29-047</ENT>
                <ENT>October 3, 2006.</ENT>
              </ROW>
            </GPOTABLE>
          </EXTRACT>
        </REGTEXT>
        <SIG>
          <DATED>Issued in Renton, Washington, on December 20, 2007.</DATED>
          <NAME>Ali Bahrami,</NAME>
          <TITLE>Manager, Transport Airplane Directorate, Aircraft Certification Service.</TITLE>
        </SIG>
      </SUPLINF>
      <FRDOC>[FR Doc. E7-25479 Filed 1-4-08; 8:45 am]</FRDOC>
      <BILCOD>BILLING CODE 4910-13-P</BILCOD>
    </RULE>
    <RULE>
      <PREAMB>
        <AGENCY TYPE="S">DEPARTMENT OF TRANSPORTATION</AGENCY>
        <SUBAGY>Federal Aviation Administration</SUBAGY>
        <CFR>14 CFR Part 39</CFR>
        <DEPDOC>[Docket No. FAA-2007-28989; Directorate Identifier 2007-NM-070-AD; Amendment 39-15319; AD 2007-26-17]</DEPDOC>
        <RIN>RIN 2120-AA64</RIN>
        <SUBJECT>Airworthiness Directives; Boeing Model 747 Airplanes</SUBJECT>
        <AGY>
          <HD SOURCE="HED">AGENCY:</HD>
          <P>Federal Aviation Administration (FAA), Department of Transportation (DOT).</P>
        </AGY>
        <ACT>
          <HD SOURCE="HED">ACTION:</HD>
          <P>Final rule.</P>
        </ACT>
        <SUM>
          <HD SOURCE="HED">SUMMARY:</HD>
          <P>The FAA is superseding an existing airworthiness directive (AD), which applies to certain Boeing Model 747-200B, 747-200C, 747-200F, 747-300, 747-400, and 747SP series airplanes. That AD currently requires doing a detailed inspection of the left and right longeron extension fittings, and corrective action if necessary. This new AD adds airplanes to the applicability of the existing AD. This AD results from reports that accidental drilling damage to the longeron extension fittings was found on airplanes not subject to the existing AD. We are issuing this AD to detect and correct accidental drilling damage of the longeron extension fittings, which could lead to cracking of the longeron extension fittings and result in rapid decompression of the airplane.</P>
        </SUM>
        <EFFDATE>
          <HD SOURCE="HED">DATES:</HD>
          <P>This AD becomes effective February 11, 2008.</P>
          <P>The Director of the Federal Register approved the incorporation by reference of a certain publication listed in the AD as of February 11, 2008.</P>
          <P>On June 16, 2006 (71 FR 27592, May 12, 2006), the Director of the Federal Register approved the incorporation by reference of Boeing Alert Service Bulletin 747-53A2515, dated October 20, 2005.</P>
        </EFFDATE>
        <ADD>
          <HD SOURCE="HED">ADDRESSES:</HD>
          <P>For service information identified in this AD, contact Boeing Commercial Airplanes, P.O. Box 3707, Seattle, Washington 98124-2207.</P>
        </ADD>
        <HD SOURCE="HD1">Examining the AD Docket</HD>
        <P>You may examine the AD docket on the Internet at<E T="03">http://www.regulations.gov;</E>or in person at the Docket Management Facility between 9 a.m. and 5 p.m., Monday through Friday, except Federal holidays. The AD docket contains this AD, the regulatory evaluation, any comments received, and other information. The address for the Docket Office (telephone 800-647-5527) is the Document Management Facility, U.S. Department of Transportation, Docket Operations, M-30, West Building Ground Floor, Room W12-140, 1200 New Jersey Avenue, SE., Washington, DC 20590.</P>
        <FURINF>
          <HD SOURCE="HED">FOR FURTHER INFORMATION CONTACT:</HD>
          <P>Ivan Li, Aerospace Engineer, Airframe Branch, ANM-120S, FAA, Seattle Aircraft Certification Office, 1601 Lind Avenue, SW., Renton, Washington 98057-3356; telephone (425) 917-6437; fax (425) 917-6590.</P>
        </FURINF>
      </PREAMB>
      <SUPLINF>
        <HD SOURCE="HED">SUPPLEMENTARY INFORMATION:</HD>
        <P/>
        <HD SOURCE="HD1">Discussion</HD>

        <P>The FAA issued a notice of proposed rulemaking (NPRM) to amend 14 CFR part 39 to include an AD that supersedes AD 2006-10-04, amendment 39-14588 (71 FR 27592, May 12, 2006). The existing AD applies to certain Boeing Model 747-200B, 747-200C, 747-200F, 747-300, 747-400, and 747SP series airplanes. That NPRM was published in the<E T="04">Federal Register</E>on August 16, 2007 (72 FR 45973). That NPRM proposed to continue to require doing a detailed inspection of the left and right longeron extension fittings, and corrective action if necessary. That NPRM also proposed to add airplanes to the applicability of the existing AD.</P>
        <HD SOURCE="HD1">Comments</HD>
        <P>We gave the public the opportunity to participate in developing this AD. We considered the single comment received. Boeing supports the NPRM.</P>
        <HD SOURCE="HD1">Clarification of Service Bulletins</HD>
        <P>Where paragraphs (h) and (i) of the NPRM referred to “the alert service bulletin” and “the service bulletin,” we have specified the number, revision level and date of those service bulletins for clarity.</P>
        <HD SOURCE="HD1">Conclusion</HD>
        <P>We reviewed the relevant data, considered the comment received, and determined that air safety and the public interest require adopting the AD with the changes described previously. We also determined that these changes will not increase the economic burden on any operator or increase the scope of the AD.</P>
        <HD SOURCE="HD1">Interim Action</HD>
        <P>We consider this AD interim action. If final action is later identified, we might consider further rulemaking then.</P>
        <HD SOURCE="HD1">Costs of Compliance</HD>

        <P>There are about 876 airplanes of the affected design in the worldwide fleet. This AD affects about 156 airplanes of U.S. registry.<PRTPAGE P="1047"/>
        </P>
        <P>The actions specified by this AD were previously required by AD 2006-10-04, which was applicable to approximately 25 airplanes of U.S. registry. The actions required by that AD take about 1 work hour per airplane. We estimated the cost of the current requirements of that AD on U.S. operators to be $2,000, or $80 per airplane. Some operators of the 25 airplanes subject to AD 2006-10-04 may have already initiated the required actions. This AD adds no new costs associated with those airplanes.</P>
        <P>This AD is applicable to approximately 131 additional airplanes of U.S. registry. New actions required by this AD take about 1 work hour per airplane. Based on the current labor rate of $80 per work hour, we estimate the new costs imposed by this AD on U.S. operators to be $10,480, or $80 per airplane. This figure is based on assumptions that no operator of these additional airplanes has yet done any of the requirements of this AD, and that no operator would do those actions in the future if this AD were not adopted.</P>
        <HD SOURCE="HD1">Authority for This Rulemaking</HD>
        <P>Title 49 of the United States Code specifies the FAA's authority to issue rules on aviation safety. Subtitle I, Section 106, describes the authority of the FAA Administrator. Subtitle VII, Aviation Programs, describes in more detail the scope of the Agency's authority.</P>
        <P>We are issuing this rulemaking under the authority described in Subtitle VII, Part A, Subpart III, Section 44701, “General requirements.” Under that section, Congress charges the FAA with promoting safe flight of civil aircraft in air commerce by prescribing regulations for practices, methods, and procedures the Administrator finds necessary for safety in air commerce. This regulation is within the scope of that authority because it addresses an unsafe condition that is likely to exist or develop on products identified in this rulemaking action.</P>
        <HD SOURCE="HD1">Regulatory Findings</HD>
        <P>We have determined that this AD will not have federalism implications under Executive Order 13132. This AD will not have a substantial direct effect on the States, on the relationship between the national government and the States, or on the distribution of power and responsibilities among the various levels of government.</P>
        <P>For the reasons discussed above, I certify that this AD:</P>
        <P>(1) Is not a “significant regulatory action” under Executive Order 12866;</P>
        <P>(2) Is not a “significant rule” under DOT Regulatory Policies and Procedures (44 FR 11034, February 26, 1979); and</P>
        <P>(3) Will not have a significant economic impact, positive or negative, on a substantial number of small entities under the criteria of the Regulatory Flexibility Act.</P>

        <P>We prepared a regulatory evaluation of the estimated costs to comply with this AD and placed it in the AD docket. See the<E T="02">ADDRESSES</E>section for a location to examine the regulatory evaluation.</P>
        <LSTSUB>
          <HD SOURCE="HED">List of Subjects in 14 CFR Part 39</HD>
          <P>Air transportation, Aircraft, Aviation safety, Incorporation by reference, Safety.</P>
        </LSTSUB>
        <REGTEXT PART="39" TITLE="14">
          <HD SOURCE="HD1">Adoption of the Amendment</HD>
          <AMDPAR>Accordingly, under the authority delegated to me by the Administrator, the FAA amends 14 CFR part 39 as follows:</AMDPAR>
          <PART>
            <HD SOURCE="HED">PART 39—AIRWORTHINESS DIRECTIVES</HD>
          </PART>
          <AMDPAR>1. The authority citation for part 39 continues to read as follows:</AMDPAR>
          <AUTH>
            <HD SOURCE="HED">Authority:</HD>
            <P>49 U.S.C. 106(g), 40113, 44701.</P>
          </AUTH>
          <SECTION>
            <SECTNO>§ 39.13</SECTNO>
            <SUBJECT>[Amended]</SUBJECT>
          </SECTION>
          <AMDPAR>2. The Federal Aviation Administration (FAA) amends § 39.13 by removing amendment 39-14588 (71 FR 27592, May 12, 2006) and by adding the following new airworthiness directive (AD):</AMDPAR>
          
          <EXTRACT>
            <FP SOURCE="FP-2">
              <E T="04">2007-26-17Boeing:</E>Amendment 39-15319. Docket No. FAA-2007-28989; Directorate Identifier 2007-NM-070-AD.</FP>
            <HD SOURCE="HD1">Effective Date</HD>
            <P>(a) This AD becomes effective February 11, 2008.</P>
            <HD SOURCE="HD1">Affected ADs</HD>
            <P>(b) This AD supersedes AD 2006-10-04.</P>
            <HD SOURCE="HD1">Applicability</HD>
            <P>(c) This AD applies to Boeing Model 747-100, 747-100B, 747-100B SUD, 747-200B, 747-200C, 747-200F, 747-300, 747-400, 747-400D, 747-400F, 747SR, and 747SP series airplanes, certificated in any category; as identified in Boeing Alert Service Bulletin 747-53A2515, Revision 1, dated March 1, 2007.</P>
            <HD SOURCE="HD1">Unsafe Condition</HD>
            <P>(d) This AD results from reports that accidental drilling damage to the longeron extension fittings was found on airplanes not subject to the existing AD. We are issuing this AD to detect and correct accidental drilling damage of the longeron extension fittings, which could lead to cracking of the longeron extension fittings and result in rapid decompression of the airplane.</P>
            <HD SOURCE="HD1">Compliance</HD>
            <P>(e) You are responsible for having the actions required by this AD performed within the compliance times specified, unless the actions have already been done.</P>
            <HD SOURCE="HD1">Restatement of Certain Requirements of AD 2006-10-04</HD>
            <HD SOURCE="HD2">Detailed Inspection</HD>
            <P>(f) For Group 1 airplanes identified in Boeing Alert Service Bulletin 747-53A2515, Revision 1, dated March 1, 2007: At the applicable compliance time specified in paragraph (f)(1) or (f)(2) of this AD, do a detailed inspection of the left and right longeron extension fittings for damage, and, before further flight, do the corrective action if applicable, by accomplishing all the applicable actions specified in the Accomplishment Instructions of Boeing Alert Service Bulletin 747-53A2515, dated October 20, 2005; or Revision 1, dated March 1, 2007.</P>
            <NOTE>
              <HD SOURCE="HED">Note 1:</HD>
              <P>Boeing Alert Service Bulletin 747-53A2515, dated October 20, 2005; and Revision 1, dated March 1, 2007; refer to Boeing Alert Service Bulletin 747-53A2390, Revision 1, dated July 6, 2000, as an additional source of service information for replacing a damaged longeron fitting with a new longeron extension fitting.</P>
            </NOTE>
            <P>(1) For airplanes that have accomplished the inspection of the splice area for cracking as specified in Boeing Alert Service Bulletin 747-53A2390, dated July 31, 1997; or Revision 1, dated July 6, 2000: Inspect in accordance with paragraph (f) of this AD before the airplane has accumulated 10,000 total flight cycles, or within 1,000 flight cycles after June 16, 2006 (the effective date of AD 2006-10-04), whichever is later.</P>
            <P>(2) For airplanes that have not accomplished the inspection of the splice area for cracking as specified in Boeing Alert Service Bulletin 747-53A2390, dated July 31, 1997; or Revision 1, dated July 6, 2000: Inspect in accordance with paragraph (f) of this AD before the airplane has accumulated 10,000 total flight cycles, or within 250 flight cycles after June 16, 2006, whichever is later.</P>
            <HD SOURCE="HD1">New Requirements of This AD</HD>
            <HD SOURCE="HD2">Detailed Inspection of Additional Airplanes</HD>
            <P>(g) For Group 2 and Group 3 airplanes identified in Boeing Alert Service Bulletin 747-53A2515, Revision 1, dated March 1, 2007: Except as provided by paragraphs (h) and (i) of this AD, at the applicable time specified in paragraph 1.E of Boeing Alert Service Bulletin 747-53A2515, Revision 1, dated March 1, 2007, do a detailed inspection of the left and right longeron extension fittings for damage and, before further flight, do the corrective action, as applicable; by accomplishing all the applicable actions specified in the Accomplishment Instructions of the alert service bulletin.</P>
            <HD SOURCE="HD2">Compliance Times</HD>

            <P>(h) Where the Boeing Alert Service Bulletin 747-53A2515, dated October 20, 2005; or Revision 1, dated March 1, 2007; specify compliance times relative to the release date of the alert service bulletin, this AD requires compliance at compliance times relative to the effective date of this AD.<PRTPAGE P="1048"/>
            </P>
            <HD SOURCE="HD2">Repair of Certain Conditions</HD>
            <P>(i) If any damage is found during any inspection required by this AD and Boeing Alert Service Bulletin 747-53A2515, Revision 1, dated March 1, 2007, specifies to contact Boeing for appropriate action: Before further flight, repair the damage using a method approved in accordance with the procedures specified in paragraph (k) of this AD.</P>
            <HD SOURCE="HD2">Credit for Actions Done Using Previous Service Information</HD>
            <P>(j) Actions done before the effective date of this AD in accordance with Boeing Alert Service Bulletin 747-53A2515, dated October 20, 2005, are considered acceptable for compliance with the corresponding actions of this AD.</P>
            <HD SOURCE="HD2">Alternative Methods of Compliance (AMOCs)</HD>
            <P>(k)(1) The Manager, Seattle Aircraft Certification Office (ACO), FAA, has the authority to approve AMOCs for this AD, if requested in accordance with the procedures found in 14 CFR 39.19.</P>
            <P>(2) AMOCs approved previously in accordance with AD 2006-10-04, are approved as AMOCs for the corresponding provisions of this AD.</P>
            <P>(3) To request a different method of compliance or a different compliance time for this AD, follow the procedures in 14 CFR 39.19. Before using any approved AMOC on any airplane to which the AMOC applies, notify your appropriate principal inspector (PI) in the FAA Flight Standards District Office (FSDO), or lacking a PI, your local FSDO.</P>
            <P>(4) An AMOC that provides an acceptable level of safety may be used for any repair required by this AD, if it is approved by an Authorized Representative for the Boeing Commercial Airplanes Delegation Option Authorization Organization who has been authorized by the Manager, Seattle ACO, to make those findings. For a repair method to be approved, the repair must meet the certification basis of the airplane, and the approval must specifically refer to this AD.</P>
            <HD SOURCE="HD2">Material Incorporated by Reference</HD>
            <P>(l) You must use Boeing Alert Service Bulletin 747-53A2515, dated October 20, 2005; or Boeing Alert Service Bulletin 747-53A2515, Revision 1, dated March 1, 2007; as applicable, to perform the actions that are required by this AD, unless the AD specifies otherwise.</P>
            <P>(1) The Director of the Federal Register approved the incorporation by reference of Boeing Alert Service Bulletin 747-53A2515, Revision 1, dated March 1, 2007, in accordance with 5 U.S.C. 552(a) and 1 CFR part 51.</P>
            <P>(2) On June 16, 2006 (71 FR 27592, May 12, 2006), the Director of the Federal Register approved the incorporation by reference of Boeing Alert Service Bulletin 747-53A2515, dated October 20, 2005.</P>

            <P>(3) Contact Boeing Commercial Airplanes, P.O. Box 3707, Seattle, Washington 98124-2207, for a copy of this service information. You may review copies at the FAA, Transport Airplane Directorate, 1601 Lind Avenue, SW., Renton, Washington; or at the National Archives and Records Administration (NARA). For information on the availability of this material at NARA, call 202-741-6030, or go to:<E T="03">http://www.archives.gov/federal-register/cfr/ibr-locations.html.</E>
            </P>
          </EXTRACT>
        </REGTEXT>
        <SIG>
          <DATED>Issued in Renton, Washington, on December 20, 2007.</DATED>
          <NAME>Ali Bahrami,</NAME>
          <TITLE>Manager, Transport Airplane Directorate, Aircraft Certification Service.</TITLE>
        </SIG>
      </SUPLINF>
      <FRDOC>[FR Doc. E7-25500 Filed 1-4-08; 8:45 am]</FRDOC>
      <BILCOD>BILLING CODE 4910-13-P</BILCOD>
    </RULE>
    <RULE>
      <PREAMB>
        <AGENCY TYPE="S">DEPARTMENT OF TRANSPORTATION</AGENCY>
        <SUBAGY>Federal Aviation Administration</SUBAGY>
        <CFR>14 CFR Part 39</CFR>
        <DEPDOC>[Docket No. FAA-2007-27811; Directorate Identifier 2004-NE-11-AD; Amendment 39-15321; AD 2007-26-19]</DEPDOC>
        <RIN>RIN 2120-AA64</RIN>
        <SUBJECT>Airworthiness Directives; Rolls-Royce Deutschland Ltd  Co KG Tay 611-8, Tay 611-8C, Tay 620-15, Tay 650-15, and Tay 651-54 Turbofan Engines</SUBJECT>
        <AGY>
          <HD SOURCE="HED">AGENCY:</HD>
          <P>Federal Aviation Administration (FAA), Department of Transportation (DOT).</P>
        </AGY>
        <ACT>
          <HD SOURCE="HED">ACTION:</HD>
          <P>Final rule.</P>
        </ACT>
        <SUM>
          <HD SOURCE="HED">SUMMARY:</HD>
          <P>The FAA is superseding an existing airworthiness directive (AD) for Rolls-Royce Deutschland Ltd  Co KG (RRD) Tay 611-8, Tay 620-15, Tay 650-15, and Tay 651-54 turbofan engines. That AD currently requires initial and repetitive visual inspections of all ice-impact panels and fillers in the low pressure (LP) compressor case for certain conditions and replacing, as necessary, any or all panels. This AD requires the same actions, provides terminating action to those repetitive actions, and adds the Tay 611-8C turbofan engine to the applicability. This AD results from RRD introducing new LP compressor case ice-impact panels with additional retention features to these Tay turbofan engines. We are issuing this AD to prevent release of ice-impact panels due to improper bonding that can result in loss of thrust in both engines.</P>
        </SUM>
        <EFFDATE>
          <HD SOURCE="HED">DATES:</HD>
          <P>This AD becomes effective February 11, 2008. The Director of the Federal Register previously approved the incorporation by reference of certain publications listed in the regulations as of January 21, 2005 (70 FR 1172, January 6, 2005). The Director of the Federal Register approved the incorporation by reference of certain publications listed in the regulations as of February 11, 2008.</P>
        </EFFDATE>
        <ADD>
          <HD SOURCE="HED">ADDRESSES:</HD>
          <P>You can get the service information identified in this AD from Rolls-Royce Deutschland Ltd  Co KG, Eschenweg 11, D-15827 Dahlewitz, Germany; telephone 49 (0) 33-7086-1768; fax 49 (0) 33-7086-3356.</P>
          <P>The Docket Operations office is located at Docket Management Facility, U.S. Department of Transportation, 1200 New Jersey Avenue, SE., West Building, Ground Floor, Room W12-140, Washington, DC 20590-0001.</P>
        </ADD>
        <FURINF>
          <HD SOURCE="HED">FOR FURTHER INFORMATION CONTACT:</HD>

          <P>Jason Yang, Aerospace Engineer, Engine Certification Office, FAA, Engine and Propeller Directorate, 12 New England Executive Park, Burlington, MA 01803; e-mail:<E T="03">Jason.yang@faa.gov</E>; telephone (781) 238-7747; fax (781) 238-7199.</P>
        </FURINF>
      </PREAMB>
      <SUPLINF>
        <HD SOURCE="HED">SUPPLEMENTARY INFORMATION:</HD>

        <P>The FAA proposed to amend 14 CFR part 39 by superseding AD 2004-26-10, Amendment 39-13922 (70 FR 1172, January 6, 2005), with a proposed AD. The proposed AD applies to RRD Tay 611-8, Tay 620-15, Tay 650-15, and Tay 651-54 turbofan engines. We published the proposed AD in the<E T="04">Federal Register</E>on July 6, 2007 (72 FR 36916). That action proposed to require initial and repetitive visual inspections of all ice-impact panels and fillers in the LP compressor case for certain conditions and replacing, as necessary, any or all panels. That action also proposed to provide terminating action to those repetitive actions, and to add the Tay 611-8C turbofan engine to the applicability.</P>
        <HD SOURCE="HD1">Examining the AD Docket</HD>
        <P>You may examine the AD docket on the Internet at<E T="03">http://www.regulations.gov</E>; or in person at the Docket Operations office between 9 a.m. and 5 p.m., Monday through Friday, except Federal holidays. The AD docket contains this AD, the regulatory evaluation, any comments received, and other information. The street address for the Docket Operations office (telephone (800) 647-5527) is provided in the<E T="02">ADDRESSES</E>section. Comments will be available in the AD docket shortly after receipt.</P>
        <HD SOURCE="HD1">Comments</HD>
        <P>We provided the public the opportunity to participate in the development of this AD. We have considered the comments received.</P>
        <HD SOURCE="HD1">Request for Compliance Time Extension</HD>

        <P>Two commenters, Rolls-Royce North America Inc. and Gulfstream, request that we extend the Tay 611-8 and 611-8C engine compliance time four more years, from December 31, 2011, to<PRTPAGE P="1049"/>December 31, 2015, to address new engines having the 6-ice-impact panel configuration. The commenters state that so far, 12 engines have incorporated the ice-impact panel retention features, and those engines displayed strong bonding of the ice-impact panels before the panels were removed. The commenters are concerned with potential shop capacity problems, and extra cost if a special in-service repair is necessary.</P>
        <P>We do not agree. We coordinated with Rolls-Royce Deutschland Ltd  Co KG in reviewing the request. Rolls-Royce Deutschland Ltd  Co KG re-states that the rework of the LP compressor case and installation of new LP compressor case ice-impact panels with additional retention features must be done before December 31, 2011 in accordance with Alert Service Bulletin No. TAY-72-A1650, dated November 2, 2005.</P>
        <HD SOURCE="HD1">Reference Errors in the Proposed AD</HD>
        <P>Rolls-Royce Deutschland Ltd  Co KG requests that we correct some reference errors appearing in the proposed AD, as follows:</P>
        <P>• In paragraphs (f)(2) and (f)(3), change “RRD SB No. TAY-72-1638, Revision 2, dated September 21, 2004”, to “RRD SB No. TAY-72-1638, Revision 3, dated February 25, 2005.”</P>
        <P>• In paragraphs (h)(2) and (i)(2), change “RRD SB No. TAY-72-1638, Revision 2, dated September 21, 2004”, to “RRD SB No. TAY-72-1639, Revision 2, dated September 21, 2004.”</P>
        <P>• In paragraph (h)(3), change “every 1,000 CSLI” to “every 1,000 operating hours.”</P>
        <P>• In paragraph (i)(1), change “every 3,000 CSLI” to “every 3,000 operating hours.”</P>
        
        <FP>We agree and made these corrections to the AD.</FP>
        <HD SOURCE="HD1">Corrections Not Carried Forward</HD>
        <P>Rolls-Royce Deutschland Ltd  Co KG also requests that we review the proposed AD for missing corrections that were made to AD 2004-26-10, but not carried forward.</P>
        <P>We agree. The corrections were inadvertently left out of the proposed AD. We have made those corrections to this AD, which throughout the compliance section changed “paragraph 3.E.” to “paragraphs 3.C. through 3.E.”</P>
        <HD SOURCE="HD1">Conclusion</HD>
        <P>We have carefully reviewed the available data, including the comments received, and determined that air safety and the public interest require adopting the AD with the changes described previously. We have determined that these changes will neither increase the economic burden on any operator nor increase the scope of the AD.</P>
        <HD SOURCE="HD1">Costs of Compliance</HD>
        <P>We estimate that this AD will affect about 1,085 engines installed on airplanes of U.S. registry. We also estimate that it will take about 2.5 work-hours per engine to perform an inspection, and about 12 work-hours to perform a repair. The average labor rate is $80 per work-hour. Required terminating action parts will cost about $7,500 per engine. Based on these figures, for the AD, we estimate:</P>
        <P>• The cost of one inspection to the U.S. fleet to be $217,000.</P>
        <P>• The cost of a repair to the U.S fleet to be $1,041,600.</P>
        <P>• The cost of parts to the U.S. fleet for terminating action to be $8,137,500.</P>
        <HD SOURCE="HD1">Authority for This Rulemaking</HD>
        <P>Title 49 of the United States Code specifies the FAA's authority to issue rules on aviation safety. Subtitle I, Section 106, describes the authority of the FAA Administrator. Subtitle VII, Aviation Programs, describes in more detail the scope of the Agency's authority.</P>
        <P>We are issuing this rulemaking under the authority described in Subtitle VII, Part A, Subpart III, Section 44701, “General requirements.” Under that section, Congress charges the FAA with promoting safe flight of civil aircraft in air commerce by prescribing regulations for practices, methods, and procedures the Administrator finds necessary for safety in air commerce. This regulation is within the scope of that authority because it addresses an unsafe condition that is likely to exist or develop on products identified in this rulemaking action.</P>
        <HD SOURCE="HD1">Regulatory Findings</HD>
        <P>We have determined that this AD will not have federalism implications under Executive Order 13132. This AD will not have a substantial direct effect on the States, on the relationship between the national government and the States, or on the distribution of power and responsibilities among the various levels of government.</P>
        <P>For the reasons discussed above, I certify that this AD:</P>
        <P>(1) Is not a “significant regulatory action” under Executive Order 12866;</P>
        <P>(2) Is not a “significant rule” under DOT Regulatory Policies and Procedures (44 FR 11034, February 26, 1979); and</P>
        <P>(3) Will not have a significant economic impact, positive or negative, on a substantial number of small entities under the criteria of the Regulatory Flexibility Act.</P>

        <P>We prepared a summary of the costs to comply with this AD and placed it in the AD docket. You may get a copy of this summary at the address listed under<E T="02">ADDRESSES</E>.</P>
        <LSTSUB>
          <HD SOURCE="HED">List of Subjects in 14 CFR Part 39</HD>
          <P>Air transportation, Aircraft, Aviation safety, Incorporation by reference, Safety.</P>
        </LSTSUB>
        <REGTEXT PART="39" TITLE="14">
          <HD SOURCE="HD1">Adoption of the Amendment</HD>
          <AMDPAR>Accordingly, under the authority delegated to me by the Administrator, the Federal Aviation Administration amends 14 CFR part 39 as follows:</AMDPAR>
          <PART>
            <HD SOURCE="HED">PART 39—AIRWORTHINESS DIRECTIVES</HD>
          </PART>
          <AMDPAR>1. The authority citation for part 39 continues to read as follows:</AMDPAR>
          <AUTH>
            <HD SOURCE="HED">Authority:</HD>
            <P>49 U.S.C. 106(g), 40113, 44701.</P>
          </AUTH>
          <SECTION>
            <SECTNO>§ 39.13</SECTNO>
            <SUBJECT>[Amended]</SUBJECT>
          </SECTION>
          <AMDPAR>2. The FAA amends § 39.13 by removing Amendment 39-13922 (70 FR 1172, January 6, 2005), and by adding a new airworthiness directive, Amendment 39-15321, to read as follows:</AMDPAR>
          
          <EXTRACT>
            <FP SOURCE="FP-2">
              <E T="04">2007-26-19Rolls-Royce Deutschland Ltd  Co KG (Formerly Rolls-Royce plc):</E>Amendment 39-15321. Docket No. FAA-2007-27811; Directorate Identifier 2004-NE-11-AD.</FP>
            <HD SOURCE="HD1">Effective Date</HD>
            <P>(a) This airworthiness directive (AD) becomes effective February 11, 2008.</P>
            <HD SOURCE="HD1">Affected ADs</HD>
            <P>(b) This AD supersedes AD 2004-26-10, Amendment 39-13922.</P>
            <HD SOURCE="HD1">Applicability</HD>
            <P>(c) This AD applies to:</P>
            <P>(1) Rolls-Royce Deutschland Ltd  Co KG (RRD) Tay 611-8, Tay 620-15, Tay 650-15, and Tay 651-54 turbofan engines that have one or more ice-impact panels installed in the low pressure (LP) compressor case that conform to the (RRD) Service Bulletin (SB) No. TAY-72-1326 standard.</P>
            <P>(2) RRD Tay 611-8C turbofan engines with serial numbers (SN) below SN 85078.</P>
            <P>(3) The turbofan engines listed in paragraph (c) of this AD are installed on, but not limited to, Fokker F.28 Mk.0070 and Mk.0100 series airplanes, Gulfstream Aerospace G-IV and G-IV-X series airplanes, and Boeing Company 727-100 series airplanes modified in accordance with Supplemental Type Certificate SA8472SW (727-QF).</P>
            <HD SOURCE="HD1">Unsafe Condition</HD>

            <P>(d) This AD results from RRD introducing new LP compressor case ice-impact panels with additional retention features, to these Tay turbofan engines. We are issuing this AD to prevent release of ice-impact panels due to improper bonding that can result in loss of thrust in both engines.<PRTPAGE P="1050"/>
            </P>
            <HD SOURCE="HD1">Compliance</HD>
            <P>(e) You are responsible for having the actions required by this AD performed within the compliance times specified unless the actions have already been done.</P>
            <HD SOURCE="HD1">Inspecting Ice-Impact Panels in Tay 620-15, Tay 650-15, and Tay 651-54 Engines</HD>
            <P>(f) For airplanes that have any Tay 620-15, Tay 650-15, or Tay 651-54 engines with ice-impact panels incorporated by the RR SB No. TAY-72-1326 standard, and not all panels were repaired using polysulfide bonding material by RR repair scheme TV5451R, HRS3491, HRS3615, HRS3648, or HRS3649, do the following:</P>
            <P>(1) Before further flight, rework all six ice-impact panels using repair scheme HRS3648 or HRS3649 on at least one of the affected engines.</P>
            <P>(2) Before further flight, inspect the ice-impact panels and the surrounding fillers on the engine not reworked. Use paragraphs 3.C. through 3.E. of the Accomplishment Instructions of RRD SB No. TAY-72-1638, Revision 2, dated September 21, 2004, or SB No. TAY-72-1638, Revision 3, dated February 25, 2005, and the inspection disposition criteria in Table 1 of this AD.</P>
            <GPOTABLE CDEF="s100,r100" COLS="2" OPTS="L2,i1">
              <TTITLE>Table 1.—Inspection Disposition Criteria</TTITLE>
              <BOXHD>
                <CHED H="1">If:</CHED>
                <CHED H="1">Then:</CHED>
              </BOXHD>
              <ROW>
                <ENT I="01">(i) Any movement or rocking motion of LP compressor ice-impact panel, or any movement of the front edge of ice-impact panel</ENT>
                <ENT>Before further flight, replace all panels using repair scheme HRS3648 or HRS3649.</ENT>
              </ROW>
              <ROW>
                <ENT I="01">(ii) Reappearing signs of moisture on the ice-impact panel or the surrounding filler</ENT>
                <ENT>Before further flight, replace all panels using repair scheme HRS3648 or HRS3649.</ENT>
              </ROW>
              <ROW>
                <ENT I="01">(iii) Any dents or impact damage on the ice-impact panel that is greater than 3.1 square inch in total</ENT>
                <ENT>Before further flight, replace the damaged panel using repair scheme HRS3648 or HRS3649.</ENT>
              </ROW>
              <ROW>
                <ENT I="01">(iv) Any dents or impact damage on the ice-impact panel that is between 1.55 square inch and 3.1 square inch in total</ENT>
                <ENT>Within 5 flight cycles or 5 flight hours, whichever occurs first, replace the damaged panel using repair scheme HRS3648 or HRS3649.</ENT>
              </ROW>
              <ROW>
                <ENT I="01">(v) Any dents or impact damage on the ice-impact panel that is less than 1.55 square inch in total</ENT>
                <ENT>Within 50 flight cycles or 50 flight hours, whichever occurs first, replace the damaged panel using repair scheme HRS3648 or HRS3649.</ENT>
              </ROW>
              <ROW>
                <ENT I="01">(vi) Any crack appears on the ice-impact panel and there is visible distortion of the airwashed surface</ENT>
                <ENT>Within 50 flight cycles or 50 flight hours, whichever occurs first, replace the damaged panel using repair scheme HRS3648 or HRS3649.</ENT>
              </ROW>
              <ROW>
                <ENT I="01">(vii) Any crack appears on the ice-impact panel and there is no visible distortion of the airwashed surface</ENT>
                <ENT>Within 150 flight cycles or 150 flight hours, whichever occurs first, replace the damaged panel using repair scheme HRS3648 or HRS3649.</ENT>
              </ROW>
              <ROW>
                <ENT I="01">(viii) Delamination or peeling of the compound layers of the airwashed surface and the penetrated area is greater than 3.1 square inch in total</ENT>
                <ENT>Before further flight, replace the damaged panel using repair scheme HRS3648 or HRS3649.</ENT>
              </ROW>
              <ROW>
                <ENT I="01">(ix) Delamination or peeling of the compound layers of the airwashed surface and the penetrated area is between 1.55 square inch and 3.1 square inch in total</ENT>
                <ENT>Within 5 flight cycles or 5 flight hours, whichever occurs first, replace the damaged panel using repair scheme HRS3648 or HRS3649.</ENT>
              </ROW>
              <ROW>
                <ENT I="01">(x) Delamination or peeling of the compound layers of the airwashed surface and the penetrated area is less than 1.55 square inch in total</ENT>
                <ENT>Within 50 flight cycles or 50 flight hours, whichever occurs first, replace the damaged panel using repair scheme HRS3648 or HRS3649.</ENT>
              </ROW>
              <ROW>
                <ENT I="01">(xi) Delamination or peeling of the compound layers but the airwashed surface is not penetrated</ENT>
                <ENT>Within 150 flight cycles or 150 flight hours, whichever occurs first, repair the damaged panel using repair scheme HRS3630.</ENT>
              </ROW>
              <ROW>
                <ENT I="01">(xii) Missing filler surrounding the LP compressor case</ENT>
                <ENT>Before further flight, repair the damaged filler using repair scheme HRS3630.</ENT>
              </ROW>
              <ROW>
                <ENT I="01">(xiii) Damage to the filler surrounding the LP compressor case such as chipped, cracked, or missing material</ENT>
                <ENT>Within 25 flight cycles or 25 flight hours, whichever occurs first, repair damaged filler using repair scheme HRS 3630.</ENT>
              </ROW>
            </GPOTABLE>
            <P>(3) Re-inspect all ice-impact panels within every 500 cycles-since-last-inspection (CSLI) or two months since-last-inspection, whichever occurs first. Use paragraphs 3.C. through 3.E. of the Accomplishment Instructions of RRD SB No. TAY-72-1638, Revision 2, dated September 21, 2004, or SB No. TAY-72-1638, Revision 3, dated February 25, 2005, and the inspection disposition criteria in Table 1 of this AD.</P>
            <HD SOURCE="HD1">Repetitive Inspections for Tay 620-15, Tay 650-15, and Tay 651-54 Engines With All Ice-Impact Panels Repaired by Polysulfide Bonding Material</HD>
            <P>(g) For Tay 620-15, Tay 650-15, and Tay 651-54 engines with ice-impact panels incorporated by the RRD SB No. TAY-72-1326 standard, and all panels were repaired using polysulfide bonding material by RR repair scheme TV5451R, HRS3491, HRS3615, HRS3648 or HRS3649, do the following:</P>
            <P>(1) Re-inspect within every 1,500 CSLI, for the condition of the ice-impact panels and the surrounding fillers.</P>
            <P>(2) Use paragraphs 3.C. through 3.E. of the Accomplishment Instructions of RRD SB No. TAY-72-1638, Revision 2, dated September 21, 2004 or SB No. TAY-72-1638, Revision 3, dated February 25, 2005, and the inspection disposition criteria in Table 1 of this AD.</P>
            <HD SOURCE="HD1">Inspecting Ice-Impact Panels in Tay 611-8 Engines</HD>
            <P>(h) For airplanes that have any Tay 611-8 engines with ice-impact panels incorporated by the RR SB No. TAY-72-1326 standard, and RR repair scheme HRS3491 or HRS3615 was done with two pack epoxy (Omat 8/52) on one or more of the six ice-impact panels, do the following:</P>
            <P>(1) Before further flight, rework all six ice-impact panels using repair scheme HRS3648 or HRS3649 on at least one of the affected engines.</P>
            <P>(2) Before further flight, inspect the ice-impact panels and the surrounding fillers on the engine not reworked. Use paragraphs 3.C. through 3.E. of the Accomplishment Instructions of RRD SB No. TAY-72-1639, Revision 2, dated September 21, 2004 and the inspection disposition criteria in Table 1 of this AD.</P>
            <P>(3) Re-inspect the ice-impact panels within every 1,000 operating hours or six months since-last-inspection, whichever occurs first. Use paragraphs 3.C. through 3.E. of the Accomplishment Instructions of RRD SB No. TAY-72-1639, Revision 2, dated September 21, 2004, and the inspection disposition criteria in Table 1 of this AD.</P>
            <HD SOURCE="HD1">Repetitive Inspections for Tay 611-8 Engines With All Ice-Impact Panels Repaired by Polysulfide Bonding Material or Introduced Since New Production</HD>
            <P>(i) For Tay 611-8 engines with ice-impact panels incorporated by the RRD SB No. TAY-72-1326 standard and all panels were repaired using polysulfide bonding material by RR repair scheme TV5451R, HRS3491, HRS3615, HRS3648 or HRS3649, or panels were introduced since new production, do the following:</P>
            <P>(1) Re-inspect within every 3,000 hours-since-last-inspection, for the condition of the ice-impact panels and the surrounding fillers.</P>

            <P>(2) Use paragraphs 3.C. through 3.E. of the Accomplishment Instructions of RRD SB No. TAY-72-1639, Revision 2, dated September 21, 2004, and the inspection disposition criteria in Table 1 of this AD.<PRTPAGE P="1051"/>
            </P>
            <HD SOURCE="HD1">Installing Tay 620-15, Tay 650-15, or Tay 651-54 Engines That Are Not Inspected</HD>
            <P>(j) After the effective date of this AD, do not install any Tay 620-15, Tay 650-15, or Tay 651-54 engines with ice-impact panels if:</P>
            <P>(1) Those ice-impact panels incorporate the RR SB No. TAY-72-1326 standard; and</P>
            <P>(2) Ice-impact panels were repaired using RR repair scheme TV5451R, HRS3491, or HRS3615 and bonding material other than polysulfide; unless</P>
            <P>(3) The panels and the surrounding fillers are inspected for condition using 3.B. through 3.D.(3) (in-service) or 3.K.(1) through 3.(M)(3) (at overhaul or shop visit) of the Accomplishment Instructions of RRD SB No. TAY-72-1638, Revision 2, dated September 21, 2004, or SB No. TAY-72-1638, Revision 3, dated February 25, 2005.</P>
            <P>(k) Perform repetitive inspections as specified in paragraph (g) of this AD.</P>
            <HD SOURCE="HD1">Installing Tay 611-8 Engines That Are Not Inspected</HD>
            <P>(l) After the effective date of this AD, do not install any Tay 611-8 engine with ice-impact panels if:</P>
            <P>(1) Those ice-impact panels incorporate the RR SB No. TAY-72-1326 standard; and</P>
            <P>(2) Ice-impact panels were repaired using RR repair scheme TV5451R, HRS3491, or HRS3615 and bonding material other than polysulfide, unless</P>
            <P>(3) The panels and the surrounding fillers are inspected for condition using 3.B. through 3.D.(2) (in-service) or 3.K.(1) through 3.M.(3) (at overhaul or shop visit) of the Accomplishment Instructions of RRD SB No. TAY-72-1639, Revision 2, dated September 21, 2004.</P>
            <P>(m) Perform repetitive inspections as specified in paragraph (i) of this AD.</P>
            <HD SOURCE="HD1">Mandatory Terminating Action</HD>
            <P>(n) No later than December 31, 2011, as mandatory terminating action to the repetitive visual inspections or rework required by paragraphs (f), (g), (h), (i), (j), (k), (l), and (m) of this AD, do the following:</P>
            <P>(1) Rework the LP compressor case and install new LP compressor case ice-impact panels with additional retention features, at the next shop visit requiring the removal of any module, except when the work scope requires only the removal of the high speed gearbox module.</P>
            <P>(2) For Tay 620-15, Tay 650-15, and Tay 651-54 turbofan engines, do the rework and installation using the Accomplishment Instructions of RRD Alert SB No. TAY-72-A1643, Revision 1, dated November 2, 2005.</P>
            <P>(3) For Tay 611-8 turbofan engines, do the rework and installation using the Accomplishment Instructions of RRD Alert SB No. TAY-72-A1650, dated November 2, 2005.</P>
            <HD SOURCE="HD1">Tay 611-8C Turbofan Engines</HD>
            <P>(o) For Tay 611-8C turbofan engines, no later than December 31, 2011, do the following:</P>
            <P>(1) Rework the LP compressor case and install new LP compressor case ice-impact panels with additional retention features, at the next shop visit after the effective date of this AD, requiring the removal of any module, except when the work scope requires only the removal of the high speed gearbox module.</P>
            <P>(2) Do the rework and installation using the Accomplishment Instructions of RRD Alert SB No. TAY-72-A1650, dated November 2, 2005.</P>
            <HD SOURCE="HD1">Alternative Methods of Compliance</HD>
            <P>(p) The Manager, Engine Certification Office, has the authority to approve alternative methods of compliance for this AD if requested using the procedures found in 14 CFR 39.19.</P>
            <HD SOURCE="HD1">Related Information</HD>
            <P>(q) German AD D2004-313R5, dated November 15, 2005, also addresses the subject of this AD.</P>

            <P>(r) Contact Jason Yang, Aerospace Engineer, Engine Certification Office, FAA, Engine and Propeller Directorate, 12 New England Executive Park, Burlington, MA 01803; e-mail:<E T="03">Jason.yang@faa.gov</E>; telephone (781) 238-7747; fax (781) 238-7199, for more information about this AD.</P>
            <HD SOURCE="HD1">Material Incorporated by Reference</HD>

            <P>(s) You must use the service information specified in Table 2 of this AD to perform the inspections and rework required by this AD. Except for Service Bulletin No. TAY-72-1638, Revision 3, Alert Service Bulletin No. TAY-72-A1643, Revision 1, and Alert Service Bulletin No. TAY-72-A1650, the Director of the Federal Register previously approved the incorporation by reference of the Rolls-Royce Deutschland Ltd  Co KG service information listed in Table 2 of this AD as of January 21, 2005 (70 FR 1172, January 6, 2005). The Director of the Federal Register approved the incorporation by reference of Service Bulletin No. TAY-72-1638, Revision 3, dated February 25, 2005, Alert Service Bulletin No. TAY-72-A1643, Revision 1, dated November 2, 2005, and Alert Service Bulletin No. TAY-72-A1650, dated November 2, 2005, in accordance with 5 U.S.C. 552(a) and 1 CFR part 51. Contact Rolls-Royce Deutschland Ltd  Co KG, Eschenweg 11, D-15827 Dahlewitz, Germany; telephone 49 (0) 33-7086-1768; fax 49 (0) 33-7086-3356 for a copy of this service information. You may review copies at the FAA, New England Region, 12 New England Executive Park, Burlington, MA; or at the National Archives and Records Administration (NARA). For information on the availability of this material at NARA, call 202-741-6030, or go to:<E T="03">http://www.archives.gov/federal-register/cfr/ibr-locations.html.</E>
            </P>
          </EXTRACT>
          <GPOTABLE CDEF="s100,r25,r25,xs80" COLS="4" OPTS="L2,i1">
            <TTITLE>Table 2.—Incorporation by Reference</TTITLE>
            <BOXHD>
              <CHED H="1">Service information No.</CHED>
              <CHED H="1">Page</CHED>
              <CHED H="1">Revision</CHED>
              <CHED H="1">Date</CHED>
            </BOXHD>
            <ROW>
              <ENT I="01">SB No. TAY-72-1638</ENT>
              <ENT>ALL</ENT>
              <ENT>2</ENT>
              <ENT>September 21, 2004.</ENT>
            </ROW>
            <ROW>
              <ENT I="12">Total Pages: 35</ENT>
            </ROW>
            <ROW>
              <ENT I="01">SB No. TAY-72-1638</ENT>
              <ENT>ALL</ENT>
              <ENT>3</ENT>
              <ENT>February 25, 2005.</ENT>
            </ROW>
            <ROW>
              <ENT I="12">Total Pages: 35</ENT>
            </ROW>
            <ROW>
              <ENT I="01">SB No. TAY-72-1639</ENT>
              <ENT>ALL</ENT>
              <ENT>2</ENT>
              <ENT>September 21, 2004.</ENT>
            </ROW>
            <ROW>
              <ENT I="12">Total Pages: 28</ENT>
            </ROW>
            <ROW>
              <ENT I="01">Alert SB No. TAY-72-A1643</ENT>
              <ENT>ALL</ENT>
              <ENT>1</ENT>
              <ENT>November 2, 2005.</ENT>
            </ROW>
            <ROW>
              <ENT I="12">Total Pages: 13</ENT>
            </ROW>
            <ROW>
              <ENT I="01">Alert SB No. TAY-72-A1643 Appendix 1</ENT>
              <ENT>ALL</ENT>
              <ENT>1</ENT>
              <ENT>November 2, 2005.</ENT>
            </ROW>
            <ROW>
              <ENT I="12">Total Pages: 43</ENT>
            </ROW>
            <ROW>
              <ENT I="01">Alert SB No. TAY-72-A1650</ENT>
              <ENT>ALL</ENT>
              <ENT>Original</ENT>
              <ENT>November 2, 2005.</ENT>
            </ROW>
            <ROW>
              <ENT I="12">Total Pages: 11</ENT>
            </ROW>
            <ROW>
              <ENT I="01">Alert SB No. TAY-72-A1650 Appendix 1</ENT>
              <ENT>ALL</ENT>
              <ENT>Original</ENT>
              <ENT>November 2, 2005.</ENT>
            </ROW>
            <ROW>
              <ENT I="12">Total Pages: 45</ENT>
            </ROW>
            <ROW>
              <ENT I="01">Repair Scheme No. HRS3648 Front Sheet</ENT>
              <ENT>ALL</ENT>
              <ENT>2</ENT>
              <ENT>January 28, 2004.</ENT>
            </ROW>
            <ROW>
              <ENT I="12">Total Pages: 1</ENT>
            </ROW>
            <ROW>
              <ENT I="01">Repair Scheme No. HRS3648 History Sheet</ENT>
              <ENT>ALL</ENT>
              <ENT>2</ENT>
              <ENT>January 28, 2004.</ENT>
            </ROW>
            <ROW>
              <ENT I="12">Total Pages: 3</ENT>
            </ROW>
            <ROW>
              <ENT I="01">Repair Scheme No. HRS3648</ENT>
              <ENT>ALL</ENT>
              <ENT>2</ENT>
              <ENT>January 27, 2004.</ENT>
            </ROW>
            <ROW>
              <ENT I="12">Total Pages: 30</ENT>
            </ROW>
            <ROW>
              <ENT I="01">Repair Scheme No. HRS3649 Front Sheet</ENT>
              <ENT>ALL</ENT>
              <ENT>2</ENT>
              <ENT>September 1, 2004.</ENT>
            </ROW>
            <ROW>
              <ENT I="12">Total Pages: 1</ENT>
            </ROW>
            <ROW>
              <ENT I="01">Repair Scheme No. HRS3649 History Sheet</ENT>
              <ENT>ALL</ENT>
              <ENT>2</ENT>
              <ENT>September 7, 2004.</ENT>
            </ROW>
            <ROW>
              <PRTPAGE P="1052"/>
              <ENT I="12">Total Pages: 3</ENT>
            </ROW>
            <ROW>
              <ENT I="01">Repair Scheme No. HRS3649</ENT>
              <ENT>ALL</ENT>
              <ENT>2</ENT>
              <ENT>June 17, 2004.</ENT>
            </ROW>
            <ROW>
              <ENT I="12">Total Pages: 24</ENT>
            </ROW>
          </GPOTABLE>
        </REGTEXT>
        <SIG>
          <DATED>Issued in Burlington, Massachusetts, on December 21, 2007.</DATED>
          <NAME>Peter A. White,</NAME>
          <TITLE>Assistant Manager, Engine and Propeller Directorate, Aircraft Certification Service.</TITLE>
        </SIG>
      </SUPLINF>
      <FRDOC>[FR Doc. E7-25497 Filed 1-4-08; 8:45 am]</FRDOC>
      <BILCOD>BILLING CODE 4910-13-P</BILCOD>
    </RULE>
    <RULE>
      <PREAMB>
        <AGENCY TYPE="S">DEPARTMENT OF TRANSPORTATION</AGENCY>
        <SUBAGY>Federal Aviation Administration</SUBAGY>
        <CFR>14 CFR Part 39</CFR>
        <DEPDOC>[Docket No. FAA-2008-0411; Directorate Identifier 2007-NM-291-AD; Amendment 39-15326; AD 2004-07-22 R1]</DEPDOC>
        <RIN>RIN 2120-AA64</RIN>
        <SUBJECT>Airworthiness Directives; Boeing Model 747-100, 747-100B, 747-100B SUD, 747-200B, 747-200C, 747-200F, 747-300, 747-400, 747-400D, 747-400F, 747SR, and 747SP Series Airplanes</SUBJECT>
        <AGY>
          <HD SOURCE="HED">AGENCY:</HD>
          <P>Federal Aviation Administration (FAA), Department of Transportation (DOT).</P>
        </AGY>
        <ACT>
          <HD SOURCE="HED">ACTION:</HD>
          <P>Final rule; request for comments.</P>
        </ACT>
        <SUM>
          <HD SOURCE="HED">SUMMARY:</HD>
          <P>The FAA is revising an existing airworthiness directive (AD) that applies to all Boeing Model 747 series airplanes. That AD currently requires that the FAA-approved maintenance inspection program be revised to include inspections that will give no less than the required damage tolerance rating for each structural significant item, and repair of cracked structure. We issued that AD to ensure the continued structural integrity of the entire fleet of Model 747 series airplanes. This new AD clarifies the applicability of the existing AD by specifying which Boeing Model 747 airplanes are affected by this AD because we have determined that certain new variants that have not yet been certified will not be subject to the requirements of this AD. This AD results from a report of incidents involving fatigue cracking in transport category airplanes that are approaching or have exceeded their design service objective. We are issuing this AD to ensure the continued structural integrity of all Boeing Model 747-100, 747-100B, 747-100B SUD, 747-200B, 747-200C, 747-200F, 747-300, 747-400, 747-400D, 747-400F, 747SR, and 747SP series airplanes.</P>
        </SUM>
        <EFFDATE>
          <HD SOURCE="HED">DATES:</HD>
          <P>Effective January 22, 2008.</P>
          <P>The incorporation by reference of Boeing Document D6-35022, “Supplemental Structural Inspection Document (SSID) for Model 747 Airplanes,” Revision G, dated December 2000, was approved previously by the Director of the Federal Register as of May 12, 2004 (69 FR 18250, April 7, 2004).</P>
          <P>The incorporation by reference of Boeing Document No. D6-35022, Volumes 1 and 2, “Supplemental Structural Inspection Document (SSID) for Model 747 Airplanes,” Revision E, dated June 17, 1993, was approved previously by the Director of the Federal Register as of September 12, 1994 (59 FR 41233, August 11, 1994).</P>
          <P>The incorporation by reference of Boeing Document No. D6-35655, “Supplemental Structural Inspection Document for 747-100SR,” dated April 2, 1986, was approved previously by the Director of the Federal Register as of August 10, 1994 (59 FR 37933, July 26, 1994).</P>
          <P>We must receive comments on this AD by March 7, 2008.</P>
        </EFFDATE>
        <ADD>
          <HD SOURCE="HED">ADDRESSES:</HD>
          <P>You may send comments by any of the following methods:</P>
          <P>•<E T="03">Federal eRulemaking Portal:</E>Go to<E T="03">http://www.regulations.gov</E>. Follow the instructions for submitting comments.</P>
          <P>•<E T="03">Fax:</E>202-493-2251.</P>
          <P>•<E T="03">Mail:</E>U.S. Department of Transportation, Docket Operations, M-30, West Building Ground Floor, Room W12-140, 1200 New Jersey Avenue, SE., Washington, DC 20590.</P>
          <P>•<E T="03">Hand Delivery:</E>U.S. Department of Transportation, Docket Operations, M-30, West Building Ground Floor, Room W12-140, 1200 New Jersey Avenue, SE., Washington, DC 20590, between 9 a.m. and 5 p.m., Monday through Friday, except Federal holidays.</P>
          <P>For service information identified in this AD, contact Boeing Commercial Airplanes, P.O. Box 3707, Seattle, Washington 98124-2207.</P>
        </ADD>
        <HD SOURCE="HD1">Examining the AD Docket</HD>
        <P>You may examine the AD docket on the Internet at<E T="03">http://www.regulations.gov</E>; or in person at the Docket Management Facility between 9 a.m. and 5 p.m., Monday through Friday, except Federal holidays. The AD docket contains this AD, the regulatory evaluation, any comments received, and other information. The street address for the Docket Office (telephone 800-647-5527) is in the<E T="02">ADDRESSES</E>section. Comments will be available in the AD docket shortly after receipt.</P>
        <FURINF>
          <HD SOURCE="HED">FOR FURTHER INFORMATION CONTACT:</HD>
          <P>Ivan Li, Aerospace Engineer, Airframe Branch, ANM-120S, FAA, Seattle Aircraft Certification Office, 1601 Lind Avenue, SW., Renton, Washington 98057-3356; telephone (425) 917-6437; fax (425) 917-6590.</P>
        </FURINF>
      </PREAMB>
      <SUPLINF>
        <HD SOURCE="HED">SUPPLEMENTARY INFORMATION:</HD>
        <HD SOURCE="HD1">Discussion</HD>

        <P>On March 24, 2004, we issued AD 2004-07-22, amendment 39-13566 (69 FR 18250, April 7, 2004). A correction of that AD was published in the<E T="04">Federal Register</E>on May 3, 2004 (69 FR 24063). AD 2004-07-22 applies to all Boeing Model 747 series airplanes. That AD requires that the FAA-approved maintenance inspection program be revised to include inspections that will give no less than the required damage tolerance rating for each structural significant item, and repair of cracked structure. That AD resulted from a report of incidents involving fatigue cracking in transport category airplanes that are approaching or have exceeded their design service objective. We issued that AD to ensure the continued structural integrity of the entire fleet of Model 747 series airplanes.</P>
        <HD SOURCE="HD1">Actions Since Existing AD Was Issued</HD>
        <P>Since we issued AD 2004-07-22, Boeing has announced the production of additional Model 747 variants. Although they have not yet been certified, the new variants (Model 747-8 and -8F series airplanes) have a certification basis that will alleviate the safety issues addressed by AD 2004-07-22. All of the supplemental structural inspections required by AD 2004-07-22 will be included in the Airworthiness Limitations Section of the Boeing 747-8/8F Maintenance Planning Data Document.</P>

        <P>Because AD 2004-07-22 currently applies to “all Boeing Model 747 series airplanes,” these additional Model 747<PRTPAGE P="1053"/>variants will be required to do the actions mandated by that AD, once they are certified. Therefore, we must clarify the applicability to specify only the airplanes that are affected by this AD.</P>
        <HD SOURCE="HD1">FAA's Determination and Requirements of This AD</HD>
        <P>The unsafe condition described previously is likely to exist or develop on other airplanes of the same type design. For this reason, we are issuing this AD to revise AD 2004-07-22. This new AD retains the requirements of the existing AD. This AD also clarifies the applicability of the existing AD.</P>
        <HD SOURCE="HD1">Change to Existing AD</HD>
        <P>Since we issued AD 2004-07-22, the AD format has been revised, and certain paragraphs have been rearranged. As a result, the corresponding paragraph identifiers have changed in this AD, as listed in the following table:</P>
        <GPOTABLE CDEF="s75,r80" COLS="2" OPTS="L2,i1">
          <TTITLE>Revised Paragraph Identifiers</TTITLE>
          <BOXHD>
            <CHED H="1">Requirement in AD 2004-07-22</CHED>
            <CHED H="1">Corresponding<LI>requirement in AD 2004-07-22 R1</LI>
            </CHED>
          </BOXHD>
          <ROW>
            <ENT I="01">Paragraph (a)</ENT>
            <ENT>Paragraph (f).</ENT>
          </ROW>
          <ROW>
            <ENT I="01">Paragraph (b)</ENT>
            <ENT>Paragraph (g).</ENT>
          </ROW>
          <ROW>
            <ENT I="01">Paragraph (c)</ENT>
            <ENT>Paragraph (h).</ENT>
          </ROW>
          <ROW>
            <ENT I="01">Paragraph (d)</ENT>
            <ENT>Paragraph (i).</ENT>
          </ROW>
          <ROW>
            <ENT I="01">(This paragraph was mis-lettered as (a) in the<E T="02">Federal Register</E>.)</ENT>
          </ROW>
          <ROW>
            <ENT I="01">Paragraph (e)</ENT>
            <ENT>Paragraph (j).</ENT>
          </ROW>
          <ROW>
            <ENT I="01">Paragraph (f)</ENT>
            <ENT>Paragraph (k).</ENT>
          </ROW>
        </GPOTABLE>
        <P>We have also removed Note 1 of AD 2004-07-22 from this AD. The information in that note is now included in the Federal Aviation Regulations (14 CFR part 39) and it is not necessary to include it in this AD. We have re-numbered the notes in AD 2004-07-22 R1 accordingly.</P>
        <HD SOURCE="HD1">Costs of Compliance</HD>
        <P>We estimate that this AD affects about 165 airplanes of U.S. registry. The requirements of this AD add no additional economic burden. The current costs for this AD are repeated for the convenience of affected operators, as follows:</P>
        <P>We estimate that the actions required by AD 2004-07-22 and retained in this AD take up to 6,825 work-hours per product. The average labor rate is $80 per work hour. Based on these figures, we estimate the cost of this AD to U.S. operators to be up to $90,090,000 or up to $546,000 per product.</P>
        <P>The number of work hours, as indicated above, is presented as if the accomplishment of the actions required by AD 2004-07-22 and retained in this AD are to be conducted as “stand alone” actions. However, in actual practice, these actions for the most part will be accomplished coincidentally or in combination with normally scheduled airplane inspections and other maintenance program tasks. Therefore, the actual number of necessary additional work hours will be minimal in many instances. Additionally, any costs associated with special airplane scheduling will be minimal.</P>
        <HD SOURCE="HD1">FAA's Determination of the Effective Date</HD>

        <P>No airplane variant that we had previously excluded from the applicability of this AD is currently on the U.S. Register. Therefore, providing notice and opportunity for public comment is unnecessary before this AD is issued, and this AD may be made effective in less than 30 days after it is published in the<E T="04">Federal Register</E>.</P>
        <HD SOURCE="HD1">Comments Invited</HD>

        <P>This AD is a final rule that involves requirements affecting flight safety, and we did not provide you with notice and an opportunity to provide your comments before it becomes effective. However, we invite you to send any written data, views, or arguments about this AD. Send your comments to an address listed under the<E T="02">ADDRESSES</E>section. Include “Docket No. FAA-2008-0411; Directorate Identifier 2007-NM-291-AD” at the beginning of your comments. We specifically invite comments on the overall regulatory, economic, environmental, and energy aspects of this AD. We will consider all comments received by the closing date and may amend this AD because of those comments.</P>
        <P>We will post all comments we receive, without change, to<E T="03">http://www.regulations.gov</E>, including any personal information you provide. We will also post a report summarizing each substantive verbal contact we receive about this AD.</P>
        <HD SOURCE="HD1">Authority for This Rulemaking</HD>
        <P>Title 49 of the United States Code specifies the FAA's authority to issue rules on aviation safety. Subtitle I, Section 106, describes the authority of the FAA Administrator. Subtitle VII, Aviation Programs, describes in more detail the scope of the Agency's authority.</P>
        <P>We are issuing this rulemaking under the authority described in Subtitle VII, Part A, Subpart III, Section 44701, “General requirements.” Under that section, Congress charges the FAA with promoting safe flight of civil aircraft in air commerce by prescribing regulations for practices, methods, and procedures the Administrator finds necessary for safety in air commerce. This regulation is within the scope of that authority because it addresses an unsafe condition that is likely to exist or develop on products identified in this rulemaking action.</P>
        <HD SOURCE="HD1">Regulatory Findings</HD>
        <P>We have determined that this AD will not have federalism implications under Executive Order 13132. This AD will not have a substantial direct effect on the States, on the relationship between the national government and the States, or on the distribution of power and responsibilities among the various levels of government.</P>
        <P>For the reasons discussed above, I certify that the regulation:</P>
        <P>1. Is not a “significant regulatory action” under Executive Order 12866;</P>
        <P>2. Is not a “significant rule” under the DOT Regulatory Policies and Procedures (44 FR 11034, February 26, 1979); and</P>
        <P>3. Will not have a significant economic impact, positive or negative, on a substantial number of small entities under the criteria of the Regulatory Flexibility Act.</P>

        <P>We prepared a regulatory evaluation of the estimated costs to comply with this AD and placed it in the AD docket. See the<E T="02">ADDRESSES</E>section for a location to examine the regulatory evaluation.</P>
        <LSTSUB>
          <HD SOURCE="HED">List of Subjects in 14 CFR Part 39</HD>
          <P>Air transportation, Aircraft, Aviation safety, Incorporation by reference, Safety.</P>
        </LSTSUB>
        <REGTEXT PART="39" TITLE="14">
          <HD SOURCE="HD1">Adoption of the Amendment</HD>
          <AMDPAR>Accordingly, under the authority delegated to me by the Administrator, the FAA amends 14 CFR part 39 as follows:</AMDPAR>
          <PART>
            <HD SOURCE="HED">PART 39—AIRWORTHINESS DIRECTIVES</HD>
          </PART>
          <AMDPAR>1. The authority citation for part 39 continues to read as follows:</AMDPAR>
          <AUTH>
            <HD SOURCE="HED">Authority:</HD>
            <P>49 U.S.C. 106(g), 40113, 44701.</P>
          </AUTH>
        </REGTEXT>
        <REGTEXT PART="39" TITLE="14">
          <SECTION>
            <SECTNO>§ 39.13</SECTNO>
            <SUBJECT>[Amended]</SUBJECT>
          </SECTION>
          <AMDPAR>2. The Federal Aviation Administration (FAA) amends § 39.13 by removing amendment 39-13566 (69 FR 18250, April 7, 2004), corrected at 69 FR 24063, May 3, 2004, and adding the following new airworthiness directive (AD):</AMDPAR>
          
          <EXTRACT>
            <FP SOURCE="FP-2">
              <E T="04">2004-07-22 R1Boeing:</E>Amendment 39-15326. Docket No. FAA-2008-0411; Directorate Identifier 2007-NM-291-AD.</FP>
            <HD SOURCE="HD1">Effective Date</HD>
            <P>(a) This AD becomes effective January 22, 2008.<PRTPAGE P="1054"/>
            </P>
            <HD SOURCE="HD1">Affected ADs</HD>
            <P>(b) This AD revises AD 2004-07-22.</P>
            <HD SOURCE="HD1">Applicability</HD>
            <P>(c) This AD applies to all Boeing Model 747-100, 747-100B, 747-100B SUD, 747-200B, 747-200C, 747-200F, 747-300, 747-400, 747-400D, 747-400F, 747SR, and 747SP series airplanes, certificated in any category.</P>
            <HD SOURCE="HD1">Unsafe Condition</HD>
            <P>(d) This AD results from a report of incidents involving fatigue cracking in transport category airplanes that are approaching or have exceeded their design service objective. We are issuing this AD to ensure the continued structural integrity of all Boeing Model 747-100, 747-100B, 747-100B SUD, 747-200B, 747-200C, 747-200F, 747-300, 747-400, 747-400D, 747-400F, 747SR, and 747SP series airplanes.</P>
            <HD SOURCE="HD1">Compliance</HD>
            <P>(e) You are responsible for having the actions required by this AD performed within the compliance times specified, unless the actions have already been done.</P>
            <NOTE>
              <HD SOURCE="HED">Note 1:</HD>
              <P>Where there are differences between this AD and the supplemental structural inspection document (SSID) specified in this AD, the AD prevails.</P>
            </NOTE>
            <HD SOURCE="HD1">Requirements of AD 2004-07-22</HD>
            <HD SOURCE="HD2">Inspection Program</HD>
            <P>(f) For Model 747-100SR series airplanes having line numbers 346, 351, 420, 426, 427, and 601: Within 1 year after August 10, 1994 (the effective date of AD 94-15-12, amendment 39-8983, which was superseded by AD 2004-07-22), incorporate a revision into the FAA-approved maintenance inspection program that provides no less than the required damage tolerance rating (DTR) for each structural significant item (SSI) listed in Boeing Document No. D6-35655, “Supplemental Structural Inspection Document (SSID) for 747-100SR,” dated April 2, 1986. The revision to the maintenance program must include and be implemented per the procedures specified in Sections 5.0 and 6.0 of the SSID D6-35655. Revision to the maintenance program shall be per the SSID D6-35655, dated April 2, 1986, until Revision G of the SSID D6-35022 is incorporated into the FAA-approved maintenance or inspection program per the requirements of paragraph (h) of this AD.</P>
            <NOTE>
              <HD SOURCE="HED">Note 2:</HD>
              <P>For the purposes of this AD, an SSI is defined as a principal structural element (PSE). A PSE is a structural element that contributes significantly to the carrying of flight, ground, or pressurization loads, and whose integrity is essential in maintaining the overall structural integrity of the airplane.</P>
            </NOTE>
            <P>(g) For airplanes listed in Boeing Document No. D6-35022, Volumes 1 and 2, “Supplemental Structural Inspection Document (SSID) for Model 747 Airplanes,” Revision E, dated June 17, 1993; and manufacturer's line numbers 42, 174, 221, 231, 234, 239, 242, and 254: Within 12 months after September 12, 1994 (the effective date of AD 94-15-18, amendment 39-8989, which was superseded by AD 2004-07-22), incorporate a revision into the FAA-approved maintenance inspection program that provides no less than the required DTR for each SSI listed in Boeing Document No. D6-35022, Volumes 1 and 2, “Supplemental Structural Inspection Document (SSID) for Model 747 Airplanes,” Revision E, dated June 17, 1993. Revision F, dated May 1996, is acceptable for compliance with this paragraph. (The required DTR value for each SSI is listed in the document.) The revision to the maintenance program shall include Sections 5.0 and 6.0 of the SSID D6-35022 and shall be implemented per the procedures contained in those sections. Revision to the maintenance program shall be per Revision E or F of SSID D6-35022, until Revision G of the SSID D6-35022 is incorporated into the FAA-approved maintenance or inspection program per the requirements of paragraph (h) of this AD.</P>

            <P>(h) For all Model 747-100, 747-100B, 747-100B SUD, 747-200B, 747-200C, 747-200F, 747-300, 747-400, 747-400D, 747-400F, 747SR, and 747SP series airplanes: Prior to reaching either of the thresholds specified in paragraph (i)(1)(i) or (i)(2)(i) of this AD, or within 12 months after May 12, 2004 (the effective date of AD 2004-07-22), whichever occurs later, incorporate a revision into the FAA-approved maintenance or inspection program that provides no less than the required DTR for each SSI listed in Boeing Document No. D6-35022, “Supplemental Structural Inspection Document,” Revision G, dated December 2000 (hereinafter referred to as “Revision G”). (The required DTR value for each SSI is listed in Revision G.) The revision to the maintenance or inspection program shall include and shall be implemented per the procedures in Section 5.0, “DTR System Application” and Section 6.0, “SSI Discrepancy Reporting” of Revision G, excluding paragraphs 5.1.2; 5.1.6, item 5; 5.1.8; 5.2; 5.2.1; 5.2.2; 5.2.3; and 5.2.4 of Revision G. Under the provisions of the Paperwork Reduction Act of 1980 (44 U.S.C. 3501,<E T="03">et seq.</E>), the Office of Management and Budget (OMB) has approved the information collection requirements (Section 6.0, “SSI Discrepancy Reporting”) contained in this AD and has assigned OMB Control Number 2120-0056. Upon incorporation of Revision G required by this paragraph, the revision required by either paragraph (f) or (g) of this AD, as applicable, may be removed.</P>
            <NOTE>
              <HD SOURCE="HED">Note 3:</HD>
              <P>Operators should note that, although paragraph 5.2 is referenced in paragraph 5.1.11 of Revision G, paragraph 5.2 is excluded as a method of compliance with the requirements of this AD.</P>
            </NOTE>
            <HD SOURCE="HD2">Initial Inspection</HD>
            <P>(i) For all Model 747-100, 747-100B, 747-100B SUD, 747-200B, 747-200C, 747-200F, 747-300, 747-400, 747-400D, 747-400F, 747SR, and 747SP series airplanes: Perform an inspection to detect cracks of all structure identified in Revision G of SSID D6-35022 at the time specified in paragraph (i)(1), (i)(2), or (i)(3) of this AD, as applicable.</P>
            <P>(1) For wing structure: At the times specified in paragraph (i)(1)(i) or (i)(1)(ii) of this AD, whichever occurs later.</P>
            <P>(i) Prior to the accumulation of 20,000 total flight cycles or 100,000 total flight hours, whichever comes first. Or,</P>
            <P>(ii) Within 1,000 flight cycles measured from 12 months after May 12, 2004.</P>
            <P>(2) For all other structure: At the times specified in paragraph (i)(2)(i) or (i)(2)(ii) of this AD, whichever occurs later.</P>
            <P>(i) Prior to the accumulation of 20,000 total flight cycles, or</P>
            <P>(ii) Within 1,000 flight cycles measured from 12 months after May 12, 2004.</P>
            <P>(3) For any portion of an SSI that has been replaced with new structure: At the later of the times specified in paragraph (i)(3)(i) or (i)(3)(ii) of this AD.</P>
            <P>(i) At the times specified in either paragraph (i)(1) or (i)(2) of this AD, as applicable, or</P>
            <P>(ii) Within 10,000 flight cycles after the replacement of the part with a new part.</P>
            <NOTE>
              <HD SOURCE="HED">Note 4:</HD>
              <P>Notwithstanding the provisions of paragraphs 5.1.2, 5.1.6, item 5, 5.2, 5.2.1, 5.2.2, 5.2.3, and 5.2.4 of the General Instructions of Revision G, which would permit operators to perform fleet and rotational sampling inspections to perform inspections on less than whole airplane fleet sizes and to perform inspections on substitute airplanes, this AD requires that all airplanes that exceed the threshold be inspected per Revision G. Although paragraph 5.1.8 of Revision G allows provisions for touch-and-go training flights, fleet averaging, and 10% escalations of flight cycles to achieve the required DTR, this AD does not allow for those provisions.</P>
            </NOTE>
            <NOTE>
              <HD SOURCE="HED">Note 5:</HD>
              <P>Once the initial inspection has been performed, operators are required to perform repetitive inspections at the intervals specified in Revision G in order to remain in compliance with their maintenance or inspection programs, as revised per paragraph (h) of this AD.</P>
            </NOTE>
            <HD SOURCE="HD2">Repair</HD>
            <P>(j) Cracked structure found during any inspection required by this AD shall be repaired, prior to further flight, in accordance with an FAA-approved method.</P>
            <HD SOURCE="HD2">Inspection Program for Transferred Airplanes</HD>
            <P>(k) Before any airplane that is subject to this AD and that has exceeded the applicable compliance times specified in paragraph (i) of this AD can be added to an air carrier's operations specifications, a program for the accomplishment of the inspections required by this AD must be established per paragraph (k)(1) or (k)(2) of this AD, as applicable.</P>
            <P>(1) For airplanes that have been inspected per this AD, the inspection of each SSI must be accomplished by the new operator per the previous operator's schedule and inspection method, or the new operator's schedule and inspection method, at whichever time would result in the earlier accomplishment for that SSI inspection. The compliance time for accomplishment of this inspection must be measured from the last inspection accomplished by the previous operator. After each inspection has been performed once, each subsequent inspection must be performed per the new operator's schedule and inspection method.</P>

            <P>(2) For airplanes that have not been inspected per this AD, the inspection of each SSI required by this AD must be accomplished either prior to adding the<PRTPAGE P="1055"/>airplane to the air carrier's operations specification, or per a schedule and an inspection method approved by the Manager, Seattle Aircraft Certification Office (ACO). After each inspection has been performed once, each subsequent inspection must be performed per the new operator's schedule.</P>
            <HD SOURCE="HD2">Alternative Methods of Compliance (AMOCs)</HD>
            <P>(l)(1) The Manager, Seattle Aircraft Certification Office (ACO), FAA, ATTN: Ivan Li, Aerospace Engineer, Airframe Branch, ANM-120S, FAA, Seattle Aircraft Certification Office, 1601 Lind Avenue, SW., Renton, Washington 98057-3356; telephone (425) 917-6437; fax (425) 917-6590; has the authority to approve AMOCs for this AD, if requested using the procedures found in 14 CFR 39.19.</P>
            <P>(2) To request a different method of compliance or a different compliance time for this AD, follow the procedures in 14 CFR 39.19. Before using any approved AMOC on any airplane to which the AMOC applies, notify your appropriate principal inspector (PI) in the FAA Flight Standards District Office (FSDO), or lacking a PI, your local FSDO.</P>
            <P>(3) An AMOC that provides an acceptable level of safety may be used for any repair required by this AD, if it is approved by an Authorized Representative for the Boeing Commercial Airplanes Delegation Option Authorization Organization who has been authorized by the Manager, Seattle ACO, to make those findings. For a repair method to be approved the repair must meet the certification basis of the airplane and the approval must specifically refer to this AD.</P>
            <P>(4) AMOCs approved previously in accordance with AD 94-15-12, are approved as alternative methods of compliance for the requirements of paragraphs (f) and (j) of this AD.</P>
            <P>(5) AMOCs approved previously in accordance with AD 94-15-18, are approved as alternative methods of compliance for the requirements of paragraphs (g) and (j) of this AD.</P>
            <P>(6) AMOCs approved previously in accordance with AD 2004-07-22, are approved as AMOCs for the corresponding provisions of this AD.</P>
            <HD SOURCE="HD2">Material Incorporated by Reference</HD>
            <P>(m) You must use Boeing Document No. D6-35655, “Supplemental Structural Inspection Document for 747-100SR,” dated April 2, 1986; Boeing Document No. D6-35022, Volumes 1 and 2, “Supplemental Structural Inspection Document (SSID) for Model 747 Airplanes,” Revision E, dated June 17, 1993; and Boeing Document No. D6-35022, “Supplemental Structural Inspection Document (SSID) for Model 747 Airplanes,” Revision G, dated December 2000; as applicable; to perform the actions that are required by this AD, unless the AD specifies otherwise.</P>
            <P>(1) The incorporation by reference of Boeing Document D6-35022, “Supplemental Structural Inspection Document (SSID) for Model 747 Airplanes,” Revision G, dated December 2000, was approved previously by the Director of the Federal Register as of May 12, 2004 (69 FR 18250, April 7, 2004).</P>
            <P>(2) The incorporation by reference of Boeing Document No. D6-35022, Volumes 1 and 2, “Supplemental Structural Inspection Document (SSID) for Model 747 Airplanes,” Revision E, dated June 17, 1993, was approved previously by the Director of the Federal Register as of September 12, 1994 (59 FR 41233, August 11, 1994).</P>
            <P>(3) The incorporation by reference of Boeing Document No. D6-35655, “Supplemental Structural Inspection Document for 747-100SR,” dated April 2, 1986, was approved previously by the Director of the Federal Register as of August 10, 1994 (59 FR 37933, July 26, 1994).</P>

            <P>(4) Contact Boeing Commercial Airplanes, P.O. Box 3707, Seattle, Washington 98124-2207, for a copy of this service information. You may review copies at the FAA, Transport Airplane Directorate, 1601 Lind Avenue, SW., Renton, Washington 98057-3356; or at the National Archives and Records Administration (NARA). For information on the availability of this material at NARA, call 202-741-6030, or go to:<E T="03">http://www.archives.gov/federal-register/cfr/ibr-locations.html.</E>
            </P>
          </EXTRACT>
        </REGTEXT>
        <SIG>
          <DATED>Issued in Renton, Washington, on December 26, 2007.</DATED>
          <NAME>Ali Bahrami,</NAME>
          <TITLE>Manager, Transport Airplane Directorate, Aircraft Certification Service.</TITLE>
        </SIG>
      </SUPLINF>
      <FRDOC>[FR Doc. E7-25614 Filed 1-4-08; 8:45 am]</FRDOC>
      <BILCOD>BILLING CODE 4910-13-P</BILCOD>
    </RULE>
    <RULE>
      <PREAMB>
        <AGENCY TYPE="S">DEPARTMENT OF TRANSPORTATION</AGENCY>
        <SUBAGY>Federal Aviation Administration</SUBAGY>
        <CFR>14 CFR Part 39</CFR>
        <DEPDOC>[Docket No. FAA-2008-0412; Directorate Identifier 2007-NM-290-AD; Amendment 39-15327; AD 90-25-05 R1]</DEPDOC>
        <RIN>RIN 2120-AA64</RIN>
        <SUBJECT>Airworthiness Directives; Boeing Model 747-100, 747-100B, 747-100B SUD, 747-200B, 747-200C, 747-200F, 747-300, 747-400, 747-400D, 747-400F, 747SR, and 747SP Series Airplanes</SUBJECT>
        <AGY>
          <HD SOURCE="HED">AGENCY:</HD>
          <P>Federal Aviation Administration (FAA), Department of Transportation (DOT).</P>
        </AGY>
        <ACT>
          <HD SOURCE="HED">ACTION:</HD>
          <P>Final rule; request for comments.</P>
        </ACT>
        <SUM>
          <HD SOURCE="HED">SUMMARY:</HD>
          <P>The FAA is revising an existing airworthiness directive (AD) that applies to all Boeing Model 747 series airplanes. That AD currently requires the implementation of a corrosion prevention and control program. We issued that AD to prevent degradation of the structural capabilities of the affected airplanes. This new AD clarifies the applicability of the existing AD by specifying which Boeing Model 747 airplanes are affected by this AD because we have determined that certain new variants that have not yet been certified will not be subject to the requirements of this AD. This AD results from reports of incidents involving corrosion and cracking in transport category airplanes, which have jeopardized the airworthiness of the affected airplanes. We are issuing this AD to prevent degradation of the structural capabilities of all Boeing Model 747-100, 747-100B, 747-100B SUD, 747-200B, 747-200C, 747-200F, 747-300, 747-400, 747-400D, 747-400F, 747SR, and 747SP series airplanes.</P>
        </SUM>
        <EFFDATE>
          <HD SOURCE="HED">DATES:</HD>
          <P>Effective January 22, 2008.</P>
          <P>On December 31, 1990 (55 FR 49268, November 27, 1990), the Director of the Federal Register approved the incorporation by reference of Boeing Document Number D6-36022, “Aging Airplane Corrosion Prevention and Control Program, Model 747,” Revision A, dated July 28, 1989.</P>
          <P>We must receive comments on this AD by March 7, 2008.</P>
        </EFFDATE>
        <ADD>
          <HD SOURCE="HED">ADDRESSES:</HD>
          <P>You may send comments by any of the following methods:</P>
          <P>•<E T="03">Federal eRulemaking Portal:</E>Go to<E T="03">http://www.regulations.gov.</E>Follow the instructions for submitting comments.</P>
          <P>•<E T="03">Fax:</E>202-493-2251.</P>
          <P>•<E T="03">Mail:</E>U.S. Department of Transportation, Docket Operations, M-30, West Building, Ground Floor, Room W12-140, 1200 New Jersey Avenue, SE., Washington, DC 20590.</P>
          <P>•<E T="03">Hand Delivery:</E>U.S. Department of Transportation, Docket Operations, M-30, West Building, Ground Floor, Room W12-140, 1200 New Jersey Avenue, SE., Washington, DC 20590, between 9 a.m. and 5 p.m., Monday through Friday, except Federal holidays.</P>
          <P>For service information identified in this AD, contact Boeing Commercial Airplanes, P.O. Box 3707, Seattle, Washington 98124-2207.</P>
        </ADD>
        <HD SOURCE="HD1">Examining the AD Docket</HD>
        <P>You may examine the AD docket on the Internet at<E T="03">http://www.regulations.gov;</E>or in person at the Docket Management Facility between 9 a.m. and 5 p.m., Monday through Friday, except Federal holidays. The AD docket contains this AD, the regulatory evaluation, any comments received, and other information. The street address for the Docket Office (telephone 800-647-5527) is in the<E T="02">ADDRESSES</E>section. Comments will be available in the AD docket shortly after receipt.</P>
        <FURINF>
          <HD SOURCE="HED">FOR FURTHER INFORMATION CONTACT:</HD>

          <P>Ivan Li, Aerospace Engineer, Airframe Branch, ANM-120S, FAA, Seattle Aircraft Certification Office, 1601 Lind<PRTPAGE P="1056"/>Avenue, SW., Renton, Washington 98057-3356; telephone (425) 917-6437; fax (425) 917-6590.</P>
        </FURINF>
      </PREAMB>
      <SUPLINF>
        <HD SOURCE="HED">SUPPLEMENTARY INFORMATION:</HD>
        <P/>
        <HD SOURCE="HD1">Discussion</HD>
        <P>On November 5, 1990, we issued AD 90-25-05, amendment 39-6790 (55 FR 49268, November 27, 1990). AD 90-25-05 applies to all Boeing Model 747 series airplanes. That AD requires the implementation of a corrosion prevention and control program. That AD resulted from reports of incidents involving corrosion and cracking in transport category airplanes, which have jeopardized the airworthiness of the affected airplanes. We issued that AD to prevent degradation of the structural capabilities of the affected airplanes.</P>
        <HD SOURCE="HD1">Actions Since Existing AD Was Issued</HD>
        <P>Since we issued AD 90-25-05, Boeing has announced the production of additional Model 747 variants. Although they have not yet been certified, the new variants (Model 747-8 and -8F series airplanes) have a certification basis that will alleviate the safety issues addressed by AD 90-25-05. All of the inspections required by AD 90-25-05 will be included in the Boeing Model 747-8/8F Maintenance Review Board Report (MRBR) Document and the corresponding Boeing Model 747-8/8F Maintenance Planning Data (MPD) Document.</P>
        <P>Because AD 90-25-05 currently applies to “all Boeing Model 747 series airplanes,” these additional Model 747 variants will be required to do the actions mandated by that AD, once they are certified. Therefore, we must clarify the applicability to specify only the airplanes that are affected by this AD.</P>
        <HD SOURCE="HD1">FAA's Determination and Requirements of This AD</HD>
        <P>The unsafe condition described previously is likely to exist or develop on other airplanes of the same type design. For this reason, we are issuing this AD to revise AD 90-25-05. This new AD retains the requirements of the existing AD. This AD also clarifies the applicability of the existing AD.</P>
        <HD SOURCE="HD1">Change to Existing AD</HD>
        <P>Since we issued AD 90-25-05, the AD format has been revised, and certain paragraphs have been rearranged. As a result, the corresponding paragraph identifiers have changed in this AD, as listed in the following table:</P>
        <GPOTABLE CDEF="s50,r50" COLS="2" OPTS="L2,i1">
          <TTITLE>Revised Paragraph Identifiers</TTITLE>
          <BOXHD>
            <CHED H="1">Requirement in<LI>AD 90-25-05</LI>
            </CHED>
            <CHED H="1">Corresponding<LI>requirement in</LI>
              <LI>AD 90-25-05 R1</LI>
            </CHED>
          </BOXHD>
          <ROW>
            <ENT I="01">paragraph A</ENT>
            <ENT>paragraph (f).</ENT>
          </ROW>
          <ROW>
            <ENT I="01">paragraph B.1</ENT>
            <ENT>paragraph (g).</ENT>
          </ROW>
          <ROW>
            <ENT I="01">paragraph B.2</ENT>
            <ENT>paragraph (h).</ENT>
          </ROW>
          <ROW>
            <ENT I="01">paragraph B.3</ENT>
            <ENT>paragraph (i).</ENT>
          </ROW>
          <ROW>
            <ENT I="01">paragraph C</ENT>
            <ENT>paragraph (j).</ENT>
          </ROW>
          <ROW>
            <ENT I="01">paragraph D</ENT>
            <ENT>paragraph (k).</ENT>
          </ROW>
          <ROW>
            <ENT I="01">paragraph E</ENT>
            <ENT>paragraph (l).</ENT>
          </ROW>
          <ROW>
            <ENT I="01">paragraph F</ENT>
            <ENT>paragraph (m).</ENT>
          </ROW>
          <ROW>
            <ENT I="01">paragraph G</ENT>
            <ENT>paragraph (n).</ENT>
          </ROW>
        </GPOTABLE>
        <P>We have also changed this AD to include numbers on each of the notes in the AD.</P>
        <HD SOURCE="HD1">Costs of Compliance</HD>
        <P>We estimate that this AD affects about 165 airplanes of U.S. registry. The requirements of this AD add no additional economic burden. The current costs for this AD are repeated for the convenience of affected operators, as follows:</P>
        <P>We estimate that the actions required by AD 90-25-05 and retained in this AD take about 4,720 work-hours per product. The average labor rate is $80 per work-hour. Based on these figures, we estimate the cost of this AD to U.S. operators to be $62,304,000 or $377,600 per product.</P>
        <P>The number of work hours, as indicated above, is presented as if the accomplishment of the actions required by AD 90-25-05 and retained in this AD are to be conducted as “stand alone” actions. However, in actual practice, these actions for the most part will be accomplished coincidentally or in combination with normally scheduled airplane inspections and other maintenance program tasks. Therefore, the actual number of necessary additional work hours will be minimal in many instances. Additionally, any costs associated with special airplane scheduling will be minimal.</P>
        <HD SOURCE="HD1">FAA's Determination of the Effective Date</HD>

        <P>No airplane variant that we had previously excluded from the applicability of this AD is currently on the U.S. Register. Therefore, providing notice and opportunity for public comment is unnecessary before this AD is issued, and this AD may be made effective in less than 30 days after it is published in the<E T="04">Federal Register</E>.</P>
        <HD SOURCE="HD1">Comments Invited</HD>

        <P>This AD is a final rule that involves requirements affecting flight safety, and we did not provide you with notice and an opportunity to provide your comments before it becomes effective. However, we invite you to send any written data, views, or arguments about this AD. Send your comments to an address listed under the<E T="02">ADDRESSES</E>section. Include “Docket No. FAA-2008-0412; Directorate Identifier 2007-NM-290-AD” at the beginning of your comments. We specifically invite comments on the overall regulatory, economic, environmental, and energy aspects of this AD. We will consider all comments received by the closing date and may amend this AD because of those comments.</P>
        <P>We will post all comments we receive, without change, to<E T="03">http://www.regulations.gov,</E>including any personal information you provide. We will also post a report summarizing each substantive verbal contact we receive about this AD.</P>
        <HD SOURCE="HD1">Authority for This Rulemaking</HD>
        <P>Title 49 of the United States Code specifies the FAA's authority to issue rules on aviation safety. Subtitle I, Section 106, describes the authority of the FAA Administrator. Subtitle VII, Aviation Programs, describes in more detail the scope of the Agency's authority.</P>
        <P>We are issuing this rulemaking under the authority described in Subtitle VII, Part A, Subpart III, Section 44701, “General requirements.” Under that section, Congress charges the FAA with promoting safe flight of civil aircraft in air commerce by prescribing regulations for practices, methods, and procedures the Administrator finds necessary for safety in air commerce. This regulation is within the scope of that authority because it addresses an unsafe condition that is likely to exist or develop on products identified in this rulemaking action.</P>
        <HD SOURCE="HD1">Regulatory Findings</HD>
        <P>We have determined that this AD will not have federalism implications under Executive Order 13132. This AD will not have a substantial direct effect on the States, on the relationship between the national government and the States, or on the distribution of power and responsibilities among the various levels of government.</P>
        <P>For the reasons discussed above, I certify that the regulation:</P>
        <P>1. Is not a “significant regulatory action” under Executive Order 12866;</P>
        <P>2. Is not a “significant rule” under the DOT Regulatory Policies and Procedures (44 FR 11034, February 26, 1979); and</P>

        <P>3. Will not have a significant economic impact, positive or negative, on a substantial number of small entities<PRTPAGE P="1057"/>under the criteria of the Regulatory Flexibility Act.</P>

        <P>We prepared a regulatory evaluation of the estimated costs to comply with this AD and placed it in the AD docket. See the<E T="02">ADDRESSES</E>section for a location to examine the regulatory evaluation.</P>
        <LSTSUB>
          <HD SOURCE="HED">List of Subjects in 14 CFR Part 39</HD>
          <P>Air transportation, Aircraft, Aviation safety, Incorporation by reference, Safety.</P>
        </LSTSUB>
        <REGTEXT PART="39" TITLE="14">
          <HD SOURCE="HD1">Adoption of the Amendment</HD>
          <AMDPAR>Accordingly, under the authority delegated to me by the Administrator, the FAA amends 14 CFR part 39 as follows:</AMDPAR>
          <PART>
            <HD SOURCE="HED">PART 39—AIRWORTHINESS DIRECTIVES</HD>
          </PART>
          <AMDPAR>1. The authority citation for part 39 continues to read as follows:</AMDPAR>
          <AUTH>
            <HD SOURCE="HED">Authority:</HD>
            <P>49 U.S.C. 106(g), 40113, 44701.</P>
          </AUTH>
          <SECTION>
            <SECTNO>§ 39.13</SECTNO>
            <SUBJECT>[Amended]</SUBJECT>
          </SECTION>
          <AMDPAR>2. The Federal Aviation Administration (FAA) amends § 39.13 by removing amendment 39-6790 (55 FR 49268, November 27, 1990), and adding the following new airworthiness directive (AD):</AMDPAR>
          
          <EXTRACT>
            <FP SOURCE="FP-2">
              <E T="04">90-25-05 R1Boeing:</E>Amendment 39-15327. Docket No. FAA-2008-0412; Directorate Identifier 2007-NM-290-AD.</FP>
            <HD SOURCE="HD1">Effective Date</HD>
            <P>(a) This AD becomes effective January 22, 2008.</P>
            <HD SOURCE="HD1">Affected ADs</HD>
            <P>(b) This AD revises AD 90-25-05.</P>
            <HD SOURCE="HD1">Applicability</HD>
            <P>(c) This AD applies to all Boeing Model 747-100, 747-100B, 747-100B SUD, 747-200B, 747-200C, 747-200F, 747-300, 747-400, 747-400D, 747-400F, 747SR, and 747SP series airplanes, certificated in any category.</P>
            <HD SOURCE="HD1">Unsafe Condition</HD>
            <P>(d) This AD results from reports of incidents involving corrosion and cracking in transport category airplanes, which have jeopardized the airworthiness of the affected airplanes. We are issuing this AD to prevent degradation of the structural capabilities of all Boeing Model 747-100, 747-100B, 747-100B SUD, 747-200B, 747-200C, 747-200F, 747-300, 747-400, 747-400D, 747-400F, 747SR, and 747SP series airplanes.</P>
            <HD SOURCE="HD1">Compliance</HD>
            <P>(e) You are responsible for having the actions required by this AD performed within the compliance times specified, unless the actions have already been done.</P>
            <NOTE>
              <HD SOURCE="HED">Note 1:</HD>
              <P>This AD references Boeing Document Number D6-36022, “Aging Airplane Corrosion Prevention and Control Program, Model 747,” Revision A, dated July 28, 1989, for inspection procedures, compliance times, and reporting requirements. In addition, this AD specifies inspection and reporting requirements beyond those included in the Document. Where there are differences between the AD and the Document, the AD prevails.</P>
            </NOTE>
            <HD SOURCE="HD1">Requirements of AD 90-25-05</HD>
            <HD SOURCE="HD2">Maintenance Program Revision</HD>
            <P>(f) Within one year after December 31, 1990 (the effective date of AD 90-25-05), revise the FAA-approved maintenance program to include the corrosion control program specified in Boeing Document Number D6-36022, “Aging Airplane Corrosion Prevention and Control Program, Model 747,” Revision A, dated July 28, 1989, (hereinafter referred to as “the Document”).</P>
            <NOTE>
              <HD SOURCE="HED">Note 2:</HD>
              <P>All structure found corroded or cracked as a result of an inspection conducted in accordance with paragraph (f) of this AD must be addressed in accordance with FAR Part 43.</P>
            </NOTE>
            <NOTE>
              <HD SOURCE="HED">Note 3:</HD>
              <P>Where non-destructive inspection (NDI) methods are employed, in accordance with Section 4.1 of the Document, the standards and procedures used must be acceptable to the Administrator in accordance with FAR 43.13.</P>
            </NOTE>
            <NOTE>
              <HD SOURCE="HED">Note 4:</HD>
              <P>Procedures identified in the Document as “optional” are not required to be accomplished by this AD.</P>
            </NOTE>
            <HD SOURCE="HD2">Actions if Corrosion is Found</HD>
            <P>(g) If, as a result of any inspection conducted in accordance with the program required by paragraph (f) of this AD, Level 3 corrosion is determined to exist in any area, accomplish paragraph (g)(1) or (g)(2) of this AD within 7 days after such determination.</P>
            <P>(1) Submit a report of any findings of Level 3 corrosion to the Manager of the Seattle Aircraft Certification Office (ACO), FAA, and inspect the affected area on all Boeing Model 747-100, 747-100B, 747-100B SUD, 747-200B, 747-200C, 747-200F, 747-300, 747-400, 747-400D, 747-400F, 747SR, and 747SP series airplanes in the operator's fleet.</P>
            <P>(2) Submit for approval to the Manager of the Seattle ACO the proposal or data in paragraph (g)(2)(i) or (g)(2)(ii) of this AD.</P>
            <P>(i) Proposed adjustments to the schedule for performing the tasks in that area on remaining airplanes in the operator's fleet, which are adequate to ensure that any other Level 3 corrosion is detected in a timely manner, along with substantiating data for those adjustments.</P>
            <P>(ii) Data substantiating that the Level 3 corrosion found is an isolated occurrence and that no such adjustments are necessary.</P>
            <NOTE>
              <HD SOURCE="HED">Note 5:</HD>
              <P>Notwithstanding the provision of Section 1.1. of the Document that would permit corrosion that otherwise meets the definition of Level 3 corrosion (i.e., which is determined to be a potentially urgent airworthiness concern requiring expeditious action) to be treated as Level 1 if the operator finds that it “can be attributed to an event not typical of the operator's usage of other airplanes in the same fleet,” paragraph (g)(2) of this AD requires that data substantiating any such finding be submitted to the FAA for approval.</P>
            </NOTE>
            <NOTE>
              <HD SOURCE="HED">Note 6:</HD>
              <P>As used throughout this AD, where documents are to be submitted to the Manager of the Seattle ACO, the document should be submitted directly to the Manager, Seattle ACO, and a copy sent to the cognizant FAA Principal Inspector (PI). The PI will then forward comments or concurrence to the Seattle ACO. The Seattle ACO will not respond to the operator without the PI's comments or concurrence.</P>
            </NOTE>
            <P>(h) The FAA may impose adjustments other than those proposed, upon a finding that such adjustments are necessary to ensure that any other Level 3 corrosion is detected in a timely manner.</P>
            <P>(i) Prior to the compliance time specified for the first task required in the adjusted schedule approved under paragraph (g) or (h) of this AD, revise the FAA-approved maintenance program to include those adjustments.</P>
            <NOTE>
              <HD SOURCE="HED">Note 7:</HD>
              <P>The reporting requirements of paragraphs (g) and (k) of this AD do not relieve operators from reporting corrosion as required by FAR Section 121.703.</P>
            </NOTE>
            <HD SOURCE="HD2">Acceptable Extension to Repeat Inspection Interval</HD>
            <P>(j) To accommodate unanticipated scheduling requirements, it is acceptable for a repeat inspection interval to be increased by up to 10% but not to exceed 6 months. The cognizant FAA Principal Inspector (PI) must be informed, in writing, of any extension.</P>
            <NOTE>
              <HD SOURCE="HED">Note 8:</HD>
              <P>Except as provided paragraph (j) of this AD, notwithstanding Section 3.1., paragraph 4, of the Document, all extensions to any compliance time must be approved by the Manager of the Seattle ACO.</P>
            </NOTE>
            <HD SOURCE="HD2">Report of Levels 2 and 3 Corrosion</HD>
            <P>(k) Report forms for Level 2 corrosion and a follow-up report for Level 3 corrosion must be submitted at least quarterly in accordance with Section 5.0 of the Document.</P>
            <HD SOURCE="HD2">Approval for Increasing Existing Corrosion Inspection/Task Intervals</HD>
            <P>(l) If the repeat inspection or task intervals of an operator's existing corrosion inspection program are shorter than the corresponding intervals in Section 4.3 of the Document, they may not be increased without specific approval of the Manager of the Seattle ACO.</P>
            <HD SOURCE="HD2">Addition of an Airplane to Operations Specifications</HD>
            <P>(m) Before any airplane that is subject to this AD can be added to an air carrier's operations specifications, a program for the accomplishment of tasks required by this AD must be established in accordance with paragraphs (m)(1) and (m)(2) of this AD.</P>

            <P>(1) For airplanes that have previously been operated under an FAA-approved maintenance program, the initial task on each area to be accomplished by the new operator must be accomplished in accordance with the previous operator's schedule or with the new operator's schedule, whichever would result in the earlier accomplishment date for that task. After each task has been performed once, each subsequent task must be performed in accordance with the new operator's schedule.<PRTPAGE P="1058"/>
            </P>
            <P>(2) For airplanes that have not previously been operated under an FAA-approved maintenance program, each initial task required by this AD must be accomplished either prior to the airplane's being added to the air carrier's operations specifications, or in accordance with a schedule approved by the Manager, Seattle ACO.</P>
            <HD SOURCE="HD2">Actions for Corrosion That Exceeds Level 1</HD>
            <P>(n) If corrosion is found to exceed Level 1 on any inspection after the initial inspection, the corrosion control program for the affected area must be reviewed and means implemented to reduce corrosion to Level 1 or better.</P>
            <P>(1) Within 60 days after such a finding, if corrective action is necessary to reduce future findings of corrosion to Level 1 or better, such proposed corrective action must be submitted for approval to the Manager, Seattle ACO.</P>
            <P>(2) Within 30 days after the corrective action is approved, revise the FAA-approved maintenance program to include the approved corrective action.</P>
            <HD SOURCE="HD1">Alternative Methods of Compliance (AMOCs)</HD>
            <P>(o)(1) The Manager, Seattle Aircraft Certification Office (ACO), FAA, ATTN: Ivan Li, Aerospace Engineer, Airframe Branch, ANM-120S, FAA, Seattle Aircraft Certification Office, 1601 Lind Avenue, SW., Renton, Washington 98057-3356; telephone (425) 917-6437; fax (425) 917-6590; has the authority to approve AMOCs for this AD, if requested using the procedures found in 14 CFR 39.19.</P>
            <P>(2) To request a different method of compliance or a different compliance time for this AD, follow the procedures in 14 CFR 39.19. Before using any approved AMOC on any airplane to which the AMOC applies, notify your appropriate principal inspector (PI) in the FAA Flight Standards District Office (FSDO), or lacking a PI, your local FSDO.</P>
            <P>(3) An AMOC that provides an acceptable level of safety may be used for any repair required by this AD, if it is approved by an Authorized Representative for the Boeing Commercial Airplanes Delegation Option Authorization Organization who has been authorized by the Manager, Seattle ACO, to make those findings. For a repair method to be approved, the repair must meet the certification basis of the airplane and the approval must specifically refer to this AD.</P>
            <P>(4) AMOCs approved previously in accordance with AD 90-25-05, are approved as AMOCs for the corresponding provisions of this AD.</P>
            <HD SOURCE="HD1">Material Incorporated by Reference</HD>
            <P>(p) You must use Boeing Document Number D6-36022, “Aging Airplane Corrosion Prevention and Control Program, Model 747,” Revision A, dated July 28, 1989, to perform the actions that are required by this AD, unless the AD specifies otherwise.</P>
            <P>(1) The incorporation by reference of Boeing Document Number D6-36022, “Aging Airplane Corrosion Prevention and Control Program, Model 747,” Revision A, dated July 28, 1989, was approved previously by the Director of the Federal Register as of December 31, 1990 (55 FR 49268, November 27, 1990).</P>

            <P>(2) Contact Boeing Commercial Airplanes, P.O. Box 3707, Seattle, Washington 98124-2207, for a copy of this service information. You may review copies at the FAA, Transport Airplane Directorate, 1601 Lind Avenue, SW., Renton, Washington 98057-3356; or at the National Archives and Records Administration (NARA). For information on the availability of this material at NARA, call 202-741-6030, or go to:<E T="03">http://www.archives.gov/federal-register/cfr/ibr-locations.html</E>.</P>
          </EXTRACT>
        </REGTEXT>
        <SIG>
          <DATED>Issued in Renton, Washington, on December 26, 2007.</DATED>
          <NAME>Ali Bahrami,</NAME>
          <TITLE>Manager, Transport Airplane Directorate, Aircraft Certification Service.</TITLE>
        </SIG>
      </SUPLINF>
      <FRDOC>[FR Doc. E7-25616 Filed 1-4-08; 8:45 am]</FRDOC>
      <BILCOD>BILLING CODE 4910-13-P</BILCOD>
    </RULE>
    <RULE>
      <PREAMB>
        <AGENCY TYPE="N">DEPARTMENT OF THE TREASURY</AGENCY>
        <SUBAGY>Internal Revenue Service</SUBAGY>
        <CFR>26 CFR Part 301</CFR>
        <DEPDOC>[TD 9375]</DEPDOC>
        <RIN>RIN-1545-BA96</RIN>
        <SUBJECT>Guidance Necessary To Facilitate Electronic Tax Administration—Updating of Section 7216 Regulations</SUBJECT>
        <AGY>
          <HD SOURCE="HED">AGENCY:</HD>
          <P>Internal Revenue Service (IRS), Treasury.</P>
        </AGY>
        <ACT>
          <HD SOURCE="HED">ACTION:</HD>
          <P>Final regulations.</P>
        </ACT>
        <SUM>
          <HD SOURCE="HED">SUMMARY:</HD>
          <P>This document contains regulations to update the rules regarding the disclosure and use of tax return information by tax return preparers. Among other things, the regulations finalize rules for taxpayers to consent to the disclosure or use of their tax return information by tax return preparers.</P>
        </SUM>
        <DATES>
          <HD SOURCE="HED">DATES:</HD>
          <P>
            <E T="03">Effective Date:</E>These regulations are effective January 7, 2008.</P>
          <P>
            <E T="03">Applicability Date:</E>The regulations apply to disclosures or uses of tax return information occurring on or after January 1, 2009.</P>
        </DATES>
      </PREAMB>
      <SUPLINF>
        <HD SOURCE="HED">SUPPLEMENTARY INFORMATION:</HD>
        <HD SOURCE="HD1">Background</HD>
        <P>This document contains amendments to the Regulations on Procedure and Administration (26 CFR Part 301) under section 7216 of the Internal Revenue Code. These regulations strengthen taxpayers' ability to control their tax return information by requiring that tax return preparers give taxpayers specific information, including who will receive the tax return information and the particular items of tax return information that will be disclosed or used, to allow taxpayers to make knowing, informed, and voluntary decisions over the disclosure or use of their tax information by their tax return preparer.</P>
        <P>Section 7216 imposes criminal penalties on tax return preparers who knowingly or recklessly make unauthorized disclosures or uses of information furnished to them in connection with the preparation of an income tax return. In addition, tax return preparers are subject to civil penalties under section 6713 for disclosure or use of this information unless an exception under the rules of section 7216(b) applies to the disclosure or use.</P>
        <P>Section 7216 was enacted by section 316 of the Revenue Act of 1971, Public Law 92-178 (85 Stat. 529). In 1988, Congress modified the section by limiting the criminal sanction to knowing or reckless, unauthorized disclosures. Public Law 100-647 (102 Stat. 3749). At the same time, Congress enacted the civil penalty that is now found in section 6713. Public Law 100-647, § 6242(a) (102 Stat. 3759). In 1989, Congress further modified section 7216, directing the Treasury Department to issue regulations permitting disclosures of tax return information for quality or peer reviews. Public Law 101-239, § 7739(a) (103 Stat. 3759).</P>
        <P>The Treasury Department and the IRS proposed regulations under section 7216 on December 20, 1972 (37 FR 28070). Final regulations were issued on March 29, 1974 (39 FR 11537). These regulations are divided into three parts: § 301.7216-1 for general provisions and definitions; § 301.7216-2 for disclosures and uses that do not require formal taxpayer consent; and § 301.7216-3 for disclosures and uses that require formal taxpayer consent. Since the regulations were adopted in 1974, the Treasury Department and the IRS have amended § 301.7216-2 on occasion, but §§ 301.7216-1 and 301.7216-3 have remained unchanged.</P>

        <P>A notice of proposed rulemaking (REG-137243-02) was published in the<E T="04">Federal Register</E>(70 FR 72954) on December 8, 2005. Concurrently with publication of the proposed regulations, the IRS published Notice 2005-93, 2005-52 I.R.B. 1204 (December 07, 2005), setting forth a proposed revenue procedure that would provide guidance to tax return preparers regarding the format and content of consents to disclose and consents to use tax return information under § 301.7216-3.</P>

        <P>Written comments were received in response to the notice of proposed rulemaking. A public hearing was held on April 4, 2006. Commentators appeared at the public hearing and<PRTPAGE P="1059"/>commented on the notice of proposed rulemaking.</P>
        <P>All comments were considered and are available for public inspection upon request. This preamble summarizes most of the comments received by the IRS and Treasury Department. After consideration of the written comments and the comments provided at the public hearing, the proposed regulations under section 7216 are adopted as revised by this Treasury decision.</P>
        <P>Concurrently with publication of these regulations, the IRS is publishing a revenue procedure and an advanced notice of proposed rulemaking. The revenue procedure provides guidance on the format and content of consents to disclose or use tax return information under § 301.7216-3 for taxpayers filing a return in the Form 1040 series, e.g., Form 1040, Form 1040NR, Form 1040A, or Form 1040EZ. The revenue procedure also provides specific guidance for electronic signatures when a taxpayer filing a return in the Form 1040 series executes an electronic consent to the disclosure or use of the taxpayer's tax return information.</P>
        <P>The advanced notice of proposed rulemaking requests comments regarding a proposed rule under § 301.7216-3 that a tax return preparer may not obtain a consent to disclose or use tax return information for the purpose of the tax return preparer soliciting, or the taxpayer obtaining, a refund anticipation loan (RAL) or certain other products.</P>
        <HD SOURCE="HD1">Summary of Comments</HD>
        <HD SOURCE="HD2">1. Preamble</HD>
        <P>Some commentators recommended that the final regulations specify the existing revenue rulings, notices, and other guidance under section 7216 that continue to have effect under the final regulations. While the final regulations do not identify all guidance that has continuing effect, the section of this Treasury decision entitled “Effect on Other Documents” specifies guidance that Treasury and the IRS have determined as contrary to the regulations.</P>
        <P>One commentator requested that the preamble of the regulations clarify whether a tax return preparer may offer for sale an insurance policy that will reimburse the taxpayer additional tax the taxpayer is required to pay under certain circumstances involving errors by the tax return preparer. Section 7216 and the regulations thereunder govern only a tax return preparer's disclosure or use of tax return information. To the extent that a tax return preparer offers a product, such as insurance, where the offer is based on the disclosure of tax return information to a third-party, or where use of such tax return information serves as the basis for making the offer, section 7216 and the regulations thereunder only govern whether use or disclosure of the tax return information requires taxpayer consent.</P>
        <HD SOURCE="HD2">2. Section 301.7216-1Penalty for Disclosure or Use of Tax Return Information</HD>
        <HD SOURCE="HD3">A. Statutory Provisions</HD>
        <P>Some commentators recommended that Treasury and the IRS seek legislative changes to section 7216. More specifically, these commentators recommended that the amount of the section 7216 criminal penalty be increased, that the amount of the section 6713 civil penalty be increased, and that the Code be amended to provide a private right of action against tax return preparers. Another commentator recommended amending section 7216 to provide a means to abate the penalty in cases where reasonable cause and good faith is established. This commentator also recommended that Treasury and the IRS not attempt to regulate the disclosure or use of tax return information in the context of a criminal statute, section 7216, but that only civil penalties should apply.</P>
        <P>Requests for statutory changes to sections 7216 and 6713 are outside of the scope of these regulations. Section 7216 expressly provides for Treasury to promulgate regulations to exempt certain disclosures or uses of information from the statute's criminal sanction. Although Treasury and the IRS do not have the regulatory authority to provide for a reasonable cause exception under section 7216, the criminal penalty provided for by that statute is premised on a finding of knowing or reckless conduct.</P>
        <HD SOURCE="HD3">B. Tax Return Preparer</HD>
        <P>One commentator requested expanding the definition of tax return preparer to include clerical staff involved in preparation of a tax return. Because the definition of tax return preparer in the regulations already encompasses clerical staff involved in the preparation of a return, no change is needed to address this comment.</P>
        <P>While approving of the generally broad scope of the term “tax return preparer,” one commentator expressed concern that the term did not cover employees of tax return preparers who do not personally assist in the preparation of tax returns or the provision of auxiliary services. That commentator recommended that section 7216 should nonetheless apply to any employee. This comment was not adopted. The statute applies only to persons “engaged in the business of preparing, or providing services in connection with the preparation of, returns.” The regulations, however, do not permit disclosure by one employee of a tax return preparer to another employee of the tax return preparer on the basis of employment status alone. See Treas. Reg. § 301.7216-2(c).</P>
        <P>Based on recent amendments to section 7701(a)(36) of the Code (which post-amendment applies more generally to tax return preparers other than income tax returns), the final regulations were revised to omit the language in the proposed regulations pertaining to the lack of uniformity of the definition of tax return preparer provided in section 7701(a)(36) and the definition of tax return preparer for purposes of section 7216.</P>
        <HD SOURCE="HD3">C. Tax Return Information</HD>
        <P>Some commentators expressed concern that the definition of tax return information encompasses an overly broad amount of information. One commentator recommended that a taxpayer's name, address, telephone number, e-mail address, and identification number should not be treated as tax return information. Another commentator recommended that a taxpayer's name, address, and other contact information should be available for a tax return preparer to use to provide the taxpayer with any information that the tax return preparer believes may be of interest to the taxpayer. These recommendations regarding tax return information were not adopted because information revealing the identity of, or how to contact, a person is information central to one's privacy and deserving of treatment as tax return information when submitted for, or in connection with, the preparation of a tax return. Section 301.7216-2(n), however, permits tax return preparers to make limited use of taxpayer's contact information to offer tax information or additional tax return preparation services to previous customers.</P>

        <P>One commentator recommended eliminating language from the regulations providing that information maintained in a form that is associated with the tax return preparation becomes tax return information regardless of how the information was initially obtained. The commentator questioned whether non-tax return information could become tax return information as a result of the manner in which it is<PRTPAGE P="1060"/>stored and maintained by the tax return preparer. Treasury and the IRS agree that section 7216 protects only information furnished to a tax return preparer for, or in connection with, the preparation of a return and that information does not become tax return information merely by the method in which the information is stored. The language in the proposed regulations that is the subject of the comment was included to recognize that the protections of section 7216 may extend to information furnished by persons other than the taxpayer, including information furnished by one person within a firm to a tax return preparer employed by the same firm. In that situation, the information in the hands of the tax return preparer would be tax return information even if the person furnishing the information had obtained it other than in connection with the preparation of a tax return. Because this rule is evident from other provisions of the regulations, and the language commented upon may create confusion, the language has been removed from these regulations.</P>
        <P>One commentator expressed concern that the proposed regulations improperly expand upon section 7216 by defining “tax return information” to include information derived or generated from tax return information. The commentator commented that section 7216 protects only information furnished to tax return preparers, and data that a tax return preparer derives from that information should not be considered data furnished to the tax return preparer. The commentator, therefore, recommended removing this language from the regulations.</P>
        <P>The commentator's recommendation was not adopted. Information that a tax return preparer would typically derive from other information furnished in connection with the preparation of a return could include information on the taxpayer's entitlement to deductions, credits, losses or gains, the amounts thereof, and the amount of tax due. It would frustrate the purpose of the statute not to protect this information when a taxpayer has furnished the tax return preparer the means to derive it.</P>
        <P>Similarly, the same commentator stated that the proposed regulations improperly expand upon the statute by defining “tax return information” to include “information received by the tax return preparer from the IRS in connection with the processing of such return.” The commentator recommended eliminating this language from the regulations. This recommendation was not adopted. The statute protects information furnished to a tax return preparer for, or in connection with, preparation of a return and does not require that the taxpayer have furnished the information.</P>
        <P>Some commentators approved of the proposed regulations' definition of tax return information, but expressed concern that Example 1 in § 301.7216-1(b)(3)(ii) suggests that information supplied to register tax preparation software is not tax return information unless the tax return preparer states during the registration process that it will provide updates to registrants. These commentators, therefore, recommended deleting that fact from the example. This recommendation was adopted to explicitly provide that all information furnished to register tax return preparation software is tax return information.</P>
        <P>Some commentators expressed concern that if information furnished to register tax return preparation software was treated as tax return information, then tax return preparers would be required to obtain consent from taxpayers prior to updating the tax return preparation software. To address this concern, section 301.7216-2(c) of the regulations has been revised.</P>
        <HD SOURCE="HD3">D. Disclosure and Use</HD>
        <P>One commentator stated that the definition of “use” is overly broad. The commentator proposed that the “use” of tax return information should not include tax return preparers informing taxpayers of the availability of products and services that tax return preparers offer that could benefit taxpayers. As an example, the commentator stated that informing a taxpayer about the availability of a refund anticipation loan based on the taxpayer's tax return information should not be a “use” of tax return information. This recommendation was not adopted. The regulations require consents for tax return preparers to use tax return information so that taxpayers themselves determine whether they want additional information regarding products and services that might benefit them. The potential uses of tax return information should be clearly described by tax return preparers and the potential uses must be consented to by taxpayers before such uses occur.</P>
        <P>Two commentators recommended that tax return preparers should be responsible for subsequent disclosures or uses of tax return information by third parties to whom tax return preparers made an authorized disclosure of tax return information. This recommendation was not adopted because section 7216 does not apply to third parties who are not tax return preparers.</P>
        <HD SOURCE="HD3">E. Providing Auxiliary Services</HD>
        <P>Section 301.7216-1(b)(2)(iii) of the proposed regulations provides that a person is engaged in the business of providing auxiliary services in connection with the preparation of tax returns as described in paragraph (b)(2)(i)(B) of that section if, in the course of the person's business, the person holds himself out to tax return preparers or to taxpayers as a person who performs auxiliary services, whether or not providing the auxiliary services is the person's sole business activity and whether or not the person charges a fee for the auxiliary services. One commentator recommended broadening the definition of auxiliary services to include analysis of data for purposes of monitoring the tax return preparer's business for fraud prevention and provision of data storage services. These services as well as similar services are typical of the types of auxiliary services that can be provided to tax return preparers as contemplated by § 301.7216-1(b)(2)(iii) and are already covered by the broad definition of auxiliary services in the regulations. The same commentator also recommended broadening the definition of auxiliary services to include the analysis of customer activity to improve services and assistance in connection with preparation for taxpayer audits. These services are already addressed in other parts of the regulations. See §§ 301.7216-2(o) and 301.7216-2(k).</P>
        <HD SOURCE="HD3">F. Exclusions Under § 301.7216-1(b)(2)(v)</HD>
        <P>One commentator recommended that the express exclusion under § 301.7216-1(b)(2)(v) of the proposed regulations of certain persons from the definition of tax return preparer should be extended to include persons who provide “a broad range of financial products and services * * * to customers of tax return preparers, including savings, transaction, and retirement accounts.” The commentator's recommendation was not adopted as the regulations do not provide an exhaustive list of the persons identified as excluded from the definition of tax return preparer. To the extent the service providers suggested to be excluded by the commentator provide services only incidentally related to the preparation of the return, these persons would be excluded under the regulation.</P>
        <HD SOURCE="HD3">G. Hyperlinks</HD>

        <P>One commentator recommended that the regulations should not treat as a<PRTPAGE P="1061"/>disclosure by a tax return preparer the situation where a taxpayer is transferred from the tax return preparer's website to a different website and the taxpayer separately enters information on the different website. This recommendation was not adopted because the regulations already do not treat this fact pattern as a disclosure by the tax return preparer.</P>
        <HD SOURCE="HD2">3. Section 301.7216-2Permissible Disclosures or Uses Without Consent of the Taxpayer</HD>
        <HD SOURCE="HD3">A. Disclosures to the IRS</HD>

        <P>Section 301.7216-2(b) of the proposed regulations provides that tax return preparers may disclose to the IRS any tax return information the IRS requests to assist in the administration of electronic filing programs. One commentator requested limiting this rule to “specific necessary purposes, such as compliance by electronic return originators.” This recommendation was not adopted. Return information in the hands of the IRS is already protected from unauthorized disclosure.<E T="03">See, e.g.</E>, section 6103.</P>
        <P>Other commentators expressed concern regarding whether § 301.7216-2(b) permitted disclosures of tax return information to the IRS in general. Because the purpose of these regulations is to protect taxpayers from the unauthorized uses and disclosures by tax return preparers, and because tax return information in the hands of the IRS is already protected from unauthorized disclosure, § 301.7216-2(b) has been modified to clarify that return preparers may disclose any tax return information to the IRS for any purpose.</P>
        <HD SOURCE="HD3">B. Use By Tax Return Preparer for Purposes of Updating Software</HD>
        <P>Section 301.7216-2(c)(1) of the final regulations has been revised to provide that if a tax return preparer provides software to a taxpayer that is used in connection with the preparation or filing of a tax return, the tax return preparer may use the taxpayer's tax return information to update the taxpayer's software for the purpose of addressing changes in IRS forms, e-file specifications and administrative, regulatory and legislative guidance or to test and ensure the software's technical capabilities without obtaining the taxpayer's consent under § 301.7216-3.</P>
        <HD SOURCE="HD3">C. Disclosure to a Tax Return Preparer Within the Same Firm Located Outside of the United States</HD>
        <P>Section 301.7216-2(c) of the proposed regulations generally provides that an officer, employee, or member of a tax return preparer in the United States may disclose tax return information to another officer, employee, or member of the same tax return preparer located within the United States. Section 301.7216-2(c)(1) of the proposed regulations provides that the taxpayer must give consent under § 301.7216-3 prior to any disclosure of tax return information by an officer, employee, or member of a tax return preparer in the United States to an officer, employee, or member of the same tax return preparer located outside of the United States or any territory or possession of the United States. One commentator expressed concern that this rule was too strict with respect to multinational companies and employees on assignment outside of the United States. This commentator stated that such taxpayers anticipate that their tax return information will be disclosed outside of the United States. This commentator recommended that consent under § 301.7216-3 should not be required with respect to disclosures when the taxpayer is a multinational company or an individual taxpayer employed or on assignment outside of the United States and that an engagement letter explaining potential circumstances involving disclosures overseas ought to be permitted in these situations.</P>

        <P>This recommendation was not adopted. As explained in the preamble to the proposed regulations, the Treasury Department and IRS believe that a separate explanation is required under these circumstances in order to advise taxpayers that their tax return information is being disclosed to tax return preparers located outside the United States. The final regulations, however, address the commentator's request for additional flexibility with respect to the form and manner of the consent for taxpayers other than individuals. For tax return preparers providing tax return preparation services to taxpayers who do not file an income tax return in the Form 1040 series,<E T="03">e.g.</E>, Form 1040, Form 1040NR, Form 1040A, or Form 1040EZ, a consent to disclose tax return information outside the United States may be in any format, including an engagement letter to a client, as long as the consent provides sufficient information to enable the taxpayer to provide informed consent. For tax return preparers providing tax return preparation services to taxpayers who file an income tax return in the Form 1040 series, the regulations provide that the Secretary may issue guidance, by publication in the Internal Revenue Bulletin, prescribing the form and manner of the consent to disclose tax return information, including disclosure of return information outside the United States. This rule is consistent with the general rule adopted by these final regulations with respect to a tax return preparer's request for consent to disclose tax return information.<E T="03">See</E>section 301.7216-3(a)(3).</P>
        <P>Additionally, one commentator recommended that, rather than provide limitations on the disclosure of tax return information by a tax return preparer within the United States to another tax return preparer of the same firm who is located outside of the United States, the regulations should instead permit such disclosures without consent if the tax return preparer of the same firm outside of the United States consents to adhere to the rules of section 7216. This recommendation was not adopted because it does not inform taxpayers that their tax return information will be disclosed outside of the United States or allow taxpayers to control the decision whether their information is disclosed overseas.</P>
        <HD SOURCE="HD3">D. Disclosures to Other Tax Return Preparers</HD>
        <P>Section 301.7216-2(d) of the proposed regulations provides that disclosures between tax return preparers are authorized when the disclosures (i) assist in the preparation of a return; (ii) the services provided by the recipient of the disclosure are not substantive determinations or advice affecting a taxpayer's reported tax liability; and (iii) the disclosure is to a tax return preparer located in the United States. Two commentators expressed concern that the phrase “substantive determinations or advice” is a vague standard and recommended the use of examples in the regulations that adequately define the phrase. The final regulations clarify the meaning of substantive determinations and provide an example to illustrate the operation of this rule.</P>

        <P>One commentator recommended adopting the professional ethics rules of the American Institute of Certified Public Accountants (AICPA) on outsourcing in lieu of § 301.7216-2(d) of the proposed regulations. Rule 102 of the AICPA Code of Professional Conduct requires that, prior to sharing confidential client information (such as a tax return) with a third-party service provider, an AICPA member must inform the client, preferably in writing, that the member may use a third-party service provider when providing professional services to the client. Unlike the rules in the regulations, the AICPA Code of Professional Conduct does not require that the client consent<PRTPAGE P="1062"/>to the disclosure of tax return information when substantive determinations or advice are sought from third parties. Under the AICPA rules, AICPA members who use third-party service providers remain responsible for the work done by the service providers and they must contract with the third-party service provider for the service provider to monitor the confidentiality of the client's information to the third-party Service provider. The commentator's recommendation that the regulations adopt only the protections of the AICPA ethics rules was not adopted. The Treasury Department and the IRS are concerned that taxpayers and tax return information would not be adequately protected if a tax return preparer could disclose tax return information to any third-party service provider without taxpayer consent to that disclosure.</P>
        <P>One commentator recommended modifying § 301.7216-2(d) of the proposed regulations to allow disclosures between franchisors and franchisees in the tax return preparation business according to the terms of their franchise agreement. The commentator's recommendation was not adopted because the existence of a written franchise agreement should not affect the confidentiality of a taxpayer's tax return information.</P>
        <P>One commentator critiqued § 301.7216-2(d) because it will limit the benefits tax return preparation firms may enjoy from using foreign outsourcing. Foreign outsourcing is not prohibited by the final regulations, which permit the disclosure of tax return information outside of the United States if the taxpayer consents to such disclosure. One commentator recommended that tax return preparers should be allowed to disclose tax return information to third-party service providers subject to the requirements of the privacy provisions of Title V of the Gramm-Leach-Bliley Act, Public Law 106-102 (113 Stat. 1338) (GLBA). Specifically, the commentator proposed that the regulations should permit tax return preparers to: (1) Execute a written contract with a service provider limiting the service provider's disclosure or use of tax return information; (2) select and retain service providers that are capable of safeguarding tax return information; and (3) implement contractual provisions requiring service providers to develop and maintain appropriate information safeguards. This recommendation was not adopted. While the requirements of section 7216 and these regulations do not override any requirements or restrictions of the GLBA, the sensitivity of tax return information justifies affording tax return information stronger protections than other information subject to the GLBA.</P>
        <HD SOURCE="HD3">E. Disclosure Pursuant to an Order of a Court, or an Administrative Order, Demand, Request, Summons or Subpoena Which is Issued in the Performance of its Duties by a Federal or State Agency, the United States Congress, a Professional Association Ethics Committee or Board, or the Public Company Accounting Oversight Board</HD>
        <P>One commentator recommended that the title of proposed § 301.7216-2(f) be revised to add the word “request” following the word “demand,” to align the subsection's title with the regulation's language in § 301.7216-2(f)(5). This recommendation was adopted in the final regulation.</P>
        <P>One commentator recommended replacing the phrase “professional ethics board” in proposed § 301.7216-2(f) with the phrase “certain professional association ethics committees or boards.” The commentator noted that this change would avoid confusion as to whether the reference to professional ethics boards means governmental entities that control licensing for CPAs or whether the phrase would include professional associations that have boards or committees that discipline their members, such as the AICPA or state and local bar associations. This recommendation was adopted, in part, by changing the phrase “professional ethics board” to “professional association ethics committee or board.” Section 301.7216-2(f)(4)(ii) separately addresses disclosures to government entities charged with licensing, registration, or regulation of tax return preparers.</P>
        <P>One commentator recommended permitting disclosure of tax return information without taxpayer consent pursuant to disclosures required by Federal or State laws and administrative rules, but did not identify any specific rule or law that required a disclosure in circumstances contrary to either the preexisting regulations or the proposed regulations. Preexisting regulations already permitted disclosures pursuant to an order of a court or a Federal or State agency. These final regulations permit disclosures pursuant to an order of a court or an administrative order, demand, summons or subpoena that is issued in the performance of its duties by a Federal or State agency, the United States Congress, a professional association ethics committee or board, or the Public Company Accounting Oversight Board. The protections offered by limiting disclosures to responses to specific governmental or quasi-governmental requests provide appropriate protection for taxpayer privacy.</P>
        <P>One commentator expressed concern about proposed § 301.7216-2(f)(5) and the safeguarding of tax return information received by a professional association board or committee conducting an ethics investigation. The commentator recommended revising § 301.7216-2(f)(5) to expressly prohibit professional associations from publishing as part of any resulting professional disciplinary determination the tax return information of a taxpayer furnished to them during an ethics investigation of a preparer unless the taxpayer provides consent. This recommendation was not adopted because section 7216 does not provide for penalties against third parties who receive tax return information in this context.</P>
        <P>One commentator recommended rewording proposed § 301.7216-2(f)(6) to provide the following: “A written request from the Public Company Accounting Oversight Board (PCAOB) in connection with an inspection under section 104 of the Sarbanes-Oxley Act of 2002, 15 U.S.C. 7214, or an investigation under section 105 of such Act, 15 U.S. 7215, for use in accordance with such Act.” The commentator noted that this wording describes more clearly the situations in which disclosures to the PCAOB are permitted, and to permit registered firms and their associated persons to comply with their disclosure obligations under the Act. This recommendation was adopted.</P>

        <P>One commentator expressed concern that permitting the disclosure of tax return information pursuant to a subpoena issued by the United States Congress is inconsistent with the rules regarding disclosures by the IRS to Congress under section 6103(f). The commentator stated that the regulations may provide a method to avoid the specific disclosure rules of section 6103(f), which are designed to protect taxpayers and prevent Congressional abuse of returns or return information. Another commentator recommended eliminating the term “demand” in § 301.7216-2(f)(4)(i) because the commentator believes the term is too broad and could permit any Federal agency to simply ask for tax return information even if the agency does not have authority to issue “formal legal orders” compelling the disclosure. These recommendations were not adopted. Both Congress and Federal agencies are presumed to act in accordance with the law and there are<PRTPAGE P="1063"/>other limitations on their abilities to seek tax return information.</P>
        <HD SOURCE="HD3">F. Disclosure for Use in Securing Legal Advice, Treasury Investigations, or Court Proceedings</HD>
        <P>Final section 301.7216-2(g) has been revised to confirm that a tax return preparer may disclose tax return information to an attorney for purposes of the preparer securing legal advice.</P>
        <HD SOURCE="HD3">G. Tax Return Preparers Working for the Same Firm</HD>
        <P>Section 301.7216-2(h)(1)(ii) provides that a tax return preparer's law or accounting firm does not include any related or affiliated firms. Some commentators expressed concern that this rule reduces the application of the § 301.7216-2 exceptions for tax return preparers that are structured as separate legal entities, but are closely related. One commentator recommended that the regulations be revised to provide that the “same firm” standard be determined in a manner similar to the rules for qualified employee plans for a single employer. This recommendation was not adopted. Taxpayers should have a clear understanding with whom they are dealing. Adopting this recommendation would require that a taxpayer understand complex rules about which separate legal entities are part of the “same firm” as their tax return preparer to be able to understand who might receive their tax return information. Additionally, a tax return preparer has the ability to obtain consent from a taxpayer to disclose tax return information to a related or affiliated firm.</P>
        <HD SOURCE="HD3">H. Disclosure or Use of Tax Return Information in Preparation for Audit</HD>
        <P>One commentator recommended that a tax return preparer should be permitted to disclose tax return information to another tax return preparer so that the second tax return preparer can provide assistance in connection with the audit of a return under the law of any State or political subdivision thereof, the District of Columbia, or any territory or possession of the United States. This comment was not adopted because § 301.7216-2(k) already permits such disclosures.</P>
        <HD SOURCE="HD3">I. Payment for Tax Preparation Services</HD>
        <P>Section 301.7216-2(l) provides that a tax return preparer may disclose and use, without the taxpayer's written consent, tax return information that the taxpayer provides to the tax return preparer to pay for tax preparation services to the extent necessary to process the payment. One commentator recommended applying this rule to the collection of payments. This recommendation was adopted. The exception under § 301.7216-2(l) for the collection of payments is subject to the same limitations as the rule for processing payments. Only tax return information that the taxpayer provided to the tax return preparer to pay for tax return preparation services may be used to collect payment. This limitation precludes tax return preparers from using any other tax return information to collect on delinquent payments.</P>
        <HD SOURCE="HD3">J. Lists for Solicitation of Tax Return Business</HD>
        <P>Section 301.7216-2(n) of the proposed regulations provides that a tax return preparer may compile and maintain a separate list containing solely the names, addresses, e-mail addresses, and phone numbers of taxpayers whose tax returns the tax return preparer has prepared or processed. The proposed regulations also state that this list may be used by the compiler solely to contact the taxpayers on the list for the purpose of offering tax information or additional tax return preparation services. One commentator recommended adding that no mention of services or products other than those related to tax preparation services may be made. Treasury and the IRS agree that the prohibition on using the list to solicit business other than tax return preparation services could be strengthened, and have modified § 301.7216-2(n) to address the commentator's concern.</P>
        <HD SOURCE="HD3">K. Producing Statistical Information in Connection With Tax Return Preparation Business</HD>
        <P>Section 301.7216-2(o) of the proposed regulations permits a tax return preparer to use tax return information to prepare anonymous statistical compilations for limited purposes related to management or support of the tax return preparer's business. Two commentators recommended that the disclosure or use of tax return information in statistical compilations should be limited to “internal management” because “support” might be read to allow a tax return preparer to target specific customers with advertising. This recommendation was not adopted because § 301.7216-2(o) specifically prohibits the disclosure or use of statistical compilations in connection with, or in support of, businesses other than tax return preparation, and use of lists to solicit additional tax return preparation business is specifically governed, and limited, by § 301.7216-2(n).</P>
        <P>One commentator recommended that statistical compilations of tax return information that do not identify taxpayers should not be considered “tax return information” for purposes of section 7216. The commentator stated that if statistical information is treated as “tax return information,” such a rule could prevent tax return preparers (especially tax return preparers that are publicly traded) from reporting essential data to financial regulators or to market participants to provide an accurate picture of the tax return preparer's performance and financial condition. In response to the concern raised by the commentator, the final regulation was modified to provide that the compiler of the statistical compilation may not disclose the compilation, or any part thereof, to any other person unless the disclosure of the statistical compilation is made in order to comply with financial accounting or regulatory reporting requirements or occurs in conjunction with the sale or other disposition of the compiler's tax return preparation business.</P>
        <P>One commentator recommended that tax return preparers located within the same firm should be permitted, without obtaining consent, to use tax return information for “the management, support or maintenance of the tax return preparer's business.” This recommendation was not adopted. Because the regulations already permit a tax return preparer to use tax return information to prepare statistical compilations for limited purposes related to management or support of the tax return preparer's business, it is unclear how the commentator's recommendation would further aid in the management or support of a tax return preparer's business.</P>
        <P>One commentator recommended that the regulations require that “taxpayer identifying” data, such as names and social security numbers, be redacted from statistical information. This recommendation was not adopted. The regulations already require that statistical compilations must be “anonymous.”</P>
        <HD SOURCE="HD3">L. Quality or Peer Reviews</HD>

        <P>Section 301.7216-2(p) of the proposed regulations provides that a quality or peer review may be conducted only by attorneys, certified public accountants, enrolled agents, and enrolled actuaries who are eligible to practice before the Internal Revenue Service. Some commentators recommended that this subsection of the proposed regulations should be revised to permit other professionals to participate in quality or peer reviews.<PRTPAGE P="1064"/>This recommendation was not adopted. The restriction helps to prevent unauthorized disclosures of tax return information by limiting participation in such reviews to those persons subject to Circular 230, 31 CFR Part 10.</P>
        <HD SOURCE="HD3">M. Extraction of Tax Return Information Within Software Only for the Purposes of Reducing Repetitive Data Entry</HD>
        <P>One commentator recommended that the use of computer software designed to assist with the preparation of an income tax return should be allowed without consent to “extract” certain tax return information once entered, such as the taxpayer's name and address, and reprint such information in required fields on the same return in order to eliminate repetitive data entry. This comment was not adopted because the regulations do not prohibit such a use of tax return information where the information is being used for the permitted purpose of preparing the taxpayer's tax return.</P>
        <HD SOURCE="HD2">4. Proposed § 301.7216-3: Disclosures and Uses Authorized by Taxpayer Consent</HD>
        <HD SOURCE="HD3">A. Consent To Disclose Tax Return Information</HD>
        <P>Some commentators expressed concern that the proposed regulations authorize the IRS to make available for sale to third parties its internal records and data containing tax return information. This concern reflects a fundamental misunderstanding of the proposed regulations. The proposed regulations do not address any disclosure of tax return information by the IRS; the proposed regulations address only the disclosure and use of tax return information by tax return preparers. Separate laws, including section 6103, strictly protect the confidentiality of returns and return information in the hands of IRS employees and others.</P>
        <P>Some commentators expressed concern that the proposed regulations would loosen the current rules regarding a tax return preparer's ability to disclose a client's tax return information. This concern is based on a misunderstanding of the purpose and content of the proposed and preexisting regulations. Section 301.7216-3(a)(1) of the proposed regulations provides that, unless section 7216 or § 301.7216-2 authorizes the disclosure of tax return information, a tax return preparer may not disclose a taxpayer's tax return information prior to obtaining consent from the taxpayer. Since 1974, section 301.7216-3(a)(2) has provided that, “[i]f a tax return preparer has obtained from a taxpayer a consent * * *, he may disclose the tax return information of such taxpayer to such third persons as the taxpayer may direct.” Thus, the proposed regulations contained the same substantive rule that has been in place for over 30 years. Throughout the long-standing existence of former § 301.7216-3(a)(2), there has been no objection to the provision that allowed taxpayers to provide informed consent to tax return preparers disclosing tax return information to third parties.</P>
        <P>Nonetheless, commentators criticized the proposed rule, stating that it could allow tax return preparers to induce clients into providing unknowing or inadvertent consents to sell or otherwise disclose tax return information. Furthermore, they argue that disclosure to third parties could result in identity theft. Thus, one solution these commentators recommend is to prohibit taxpayers from ever consenting to the disclosure of their tax return information.</P>
        <P>The Treasury Department and IRS did not adopt the commentators' recommendation. Rather, the final regulations retain the general rule that has been in place for more than 30 years recognizing that taxpayers should have control over their own tax return information and that taxpayers should, with appropriate limits and safeguards, be able to direct tax return preparers to disclose tax return information as taxpayers see fit. This rule parallels the statutory rule in section 6103(c) that allows taxpayers to consent to the IRS disclosing returns or return information to third parties of the taxpayer's choosing.</P>
        <P>In addition, this rule is consistent with the privacy protection regime in the Health Insurance Portability and Accountability Act (HIPAA), Public Law 104-191 (110 Stat. 1936). HIPAA permits health care providers and health plans to disclose information about health status, provision of health care, or payment to a third-party if they have obtained authorization from the individual patient.</P>
        <P>While identity theft is a significant concern, Treasury and the IRS do not believe a generalized concern regarding the potential for criminal activity by third parties should preclude taxpayers from being able to direct the disclosure of tax return information to third parties for legitimate reasons of the taxpayer's own choosing, particularly in the absence of any evidence that disclosure of tax return information by tax return preparers has been a source of identity theft problems.</P>
        <P>While the idea of a complete prohibition on consent to disclosure was rejected, Treasury and the IRS did revise § 301.7216-3(b)(5), based on several factors. These factors include: (1) The fact that it is not necessary for tax return preparers to disclose certain taxpayer identifying information to other tax return preparers who are assisting them in preparing a return; (2) the important role a social security number (SSN) plays in the tax administration process, and the heightened potential for misuse when an SSN is readily associated with confidential information, such as tax return information; and (3) the heightened concern about the theft of an individual's confidential information resulting from disclosures outside the United States. Section 301.7216-3(b)(4) now provides that a tax return preparer located within the United States, including any territory or possession of the United States, may not obtain consent to disclose a taxpayer's SSN to a tax return preparer located outside of the United States or any territory or possession of the United States. Thus, if a tax return preparer located within the United States obtains consent from a taxpayer to disclose tax return information to another tax return preparer located outside of the United States, as provided under §§ 301.7216-2(c) and 301.7216-2(d), the tax return preparer located in the United States may not disclose the taxpayer's SSN, and the tax return preparer must redact or otherwise mask the taxpayer's SSN before the tax return information is disclosed outside of the United States. If a tax return preparer located within the United States initially receives or obtains a taxpayer's SSN from another tax return preparer located outside of the United States, however, the tax return preparer within the United States may, without consent, retransmit the taxpayer's SSN to the tax return preparer located outside the United States that initially provided the SSN to the tax return preparer located within the United States. Where a taxpayer-client requests that a tax return preparer within the United States transfer the return preparation engagement to a tax return preparer located outside the United States, the preparer must still redact or otherwise mask the taxpayer's SSN before the information is disclosed and, in this situation, it will be incumbent upon the taxpayer to provide the SSN directly to the tax return preparer located abroad.</P>

        <P>Some commentators recommended that the regulations provide taxpayers with the ability to informally initiate a request for the disclosure of tax return information from their tax return<PRTPAGE P="1065"/>preparers without formally following the consent rules of § 301.7216-3. This recommendation was not adopted. As a practical matter, it would be difficult to distinguish when a taxpayer informally initiates a request for the disclosure of tax return information and when tax return preparers merely claim that a taxpayer initiated the request for disclosure. Additionally, tax return preparers are always free to provide taxpayers their own returns and taxpayers may disclose tax return information to others directly.</P>
        <P>Other commentators recommended that the regulations should prohibit disclosure to third-party solicitors and not allow taxpayers to consent to disclosures for the purpose of receiving solicitations because the risks to the taxpayer of providing consent inadvertently are too great in comparison to the benefit of receiving solicitations from third parties. This recommendation was not adopted because it denies taxpayers the ability to control and direct the disclosure of their own tax return information. If taxpayers do not wish to receive offers or solicitations from third parties, they can simply refuse to provide the consent needed for third parties to receive their tax return information. If a tax return preparer obtains written consent under circumstances that make the consent unknowing or uninformed, the consent would be invalid under the requirements of the regulations.</P>
        <HD SOURCE="HD3">B. Consent To Use of Tax Return Information</HD>
        <P>Section 301.7216-3 of the preexisting regulations provides that a consent to use tax return information does not apply for purposes of facilitating the solicitation of the taxpayer's use of any services or facilities furnished by a person other than the tax return preparer, unless the other person and the tax return preparer are members of the same affiliated group of corporations within the meaning of section 1504. The proposed regulations removed this “affiliated group” limitation because the affiliated group concept has little application in the context of modern return preparation businesses. The proposed regulations also reflected a determination by the IRS and Treasury Department that a taxpayer's ability to consent to a preparer's use of tax return information to solicit additional business should not be limited by arbitrary factors largely beyond the taxpayer's knowledge or control, such as the size, diversity, or organizational structure of the tax return preparer. Some commentators expressed concern that removal of the “affiliated group” limitation would make it easier for tax return preparers to disclose tax return information to third parties for marketing purposes. This comment reflects a misunderstanding of the nature of a consent governing a tax return preparer's use of tax return information. Use consents are limited to what a tax return preparer can do with tax return information in the tax return preparer's own hands; use consents cannot be used in connection with disclosures to third parties. Thus, identity theft or other abuses by third parties could not arise from taxpayers providing use consents to tax return preparers.</P>
        <P>Further, prohibiting the commercial use of tax return information outright would result in no longer allowing legitimate uses of tax return information that have evolved over time as standard commercial practices. For example, tax return preparers could not use tax return information to advise taxpayers of strategies that may positively affect the taxpayers' finances such as individual retirement accounts or qualified tuition programs, or of the taxpayers' eligibility to participate in government benefit programs, such as food stamps.</P>
        <HD SOURCE="HD3">C. Prohibit Tax Return Preparers From Disclosing Tax Return Information for Any Reason Unrelated to the Preparation of a Tax Return</HD>
        <P>Many commentators recommended prohibiting tax return preparers from disclosing tax return information for any purpose unrelated to the preparation of tax returns. This recommendation was not adopted because there are many legitimate purposes for the disclosure of tax return information identified in § 301.7216-2, such as the disclosure of tax return information for the reporting of a crime or for an ethics investigation. Similarly, there are legitimate purposes, other than tax return preparation, when a taxpayer would choose to consent to the tax return preparer's disclosure of tax return information.</P>
        <P>As an alternative, some commentators recommended that the regulations prohibit or greatly restrict the use or disclosure of tax return information for marketing purposes. They specifically recommended banning tax return preparers from disclosing tax return information in association with taxpayers seeking refund anticipation loans (RALs) and similar products. Treasury and the IRS did not adopt this recommendation because it was not contained in the proposed regulations and could have a significant impact on existing business practices. Concurrently with the publication of these final regulations, however, Treasury and the IRS are requesting comments on a proposed rule that, if ultimately adopted as final, would prohibit tax return preparers from using or disclosing tax return information for the purpose of soliciting, or the taxpayer obtaining, a RAL or certain other products.</P>
        <P>Commentators also recommended that disclosure of tax return information by tax return preparers should be conditioned upon the existence of an agreement by third parties receiving the information that the tax return information will not be used for any purpose other than the purpose for which the information was provided. This recommendation was not adopted because policing agreements by third parties are outside the scope of section 7216. Section 7216 governs only the actions of tax return preparers.</P>
        <HD SOURCE="HD3">D. Obtaining Consent Through Engagement Letters</HD>

        <P>Some commentators recommended that when the regulations require consent to disclose or use tax return information, tax return preparers should be permitted to obtain such consent from “large taxpayers,” such as large corporations, through an engagement letter. These commentators observed that it is ordinary business practice for tax return preparers and large taxpayers to negotiate and set the terms of the provision of services, including the preparation of income tax returns, in an engagement letter. This recommendation was adopted. Treasury and the IRS agree that requiring multiple, separate consents would impose a significant burden and could frustrate these taxpayers' ability to comply with tax laws and other regulatory and reporting requirements. Section 301.7216-3(a)(3) has been modified to provide a set of requirements regarding the format and content of consents to disclose and use tax return information with respect to taxpayers filing income tax returns in the Form 1040 series,<E T="03">e.g.</E>, Form 1040, Form 1040NR, Form 1040A, or Form 1040EZ, and a separate set of requirements regarding the format and content of consents to disclose and use tax return information with respect to taxpayers filing all other tax returns. Under § 301.7216-3(a)(3)(iii), for tax return preparers providing tax return preparation services to taxpayers who do not file an income tax return in the Form 1040 series, a consent to use or a consent to disclose may be in any format, including an engagement letter to a client, as long as the consent<PRTPAGE P="1066"/>complies with the requirements of § 301.7216-3(a)(3)(i).</P>
        <HD SOURCE="HD3">E. Conditioning Services on Consent</HD>
        <P>Section 301.7216-3(a)(1) provides that a consent to use or disclose tax return information must be knowing and voluntary. Section 301.7216-3(a)(1) has been modified to clarify that to condition the provision of services on the taxpayer's consent will make the consent involuntary and invalid unless § 301.7216-3(a)(2) applies.</P>
        <P>Section 301.7216-3(a)(2) provides that a tax return preparer may condition its provision of preparation services upon a taxpayer's consenting to disclosure of the taxpayer's tax return information to another tax return preparer for the purpose of performing services that assist in the preparation of, or provide auxiliary services in connection with the preparation of, the tax return of the taxpayer. One commentator requested a clarification regarding whether a tax return preparer with offices within and outside of the United States is permitted to condition its provision of tax preparation services to a taxpayer outside of the United States on the taxpayer consenting to disclosure. The final regulations permit a tax return preparer with offices within and outside of the United States to condition its provision of tax preparation services to a taxpayer on the taxpayer's consenting to disclosure to a return preparer located outside the United States. An example was added to the final regulations to clarify this rule.</P>
        <P>Other commentators recommended that the regulations should prohibit tax return preparers from conditioning the provision of any services upon consent. This recommendation was adopted by inserting the word “any” before “services” in § 301.7216-3(a)(1), to which § 301.7216-3(a)(2) provides the only exception.</P>
        <HD SOURCE="HD3">F. Requests To Consent After Completed Tax Return Provided to Taxpayer</HD>
        <P>Proposed section 301.7216-3(b)(2) provides that a tax return preparer may not request a taxpayer's consent to disclose or use tax return information after the tax return preparer provides a completed tax return to the taxpayer for signature. Commentators suggested that there may be legitimate circumstances where a request to consent is necessary in light of taxpayer preferences and is part of client service provided by the preparer. Specifically, the commentators gave the example of a taxpayer requesting that his or her tax return preparer disclose the past three years of the taxpayer's tax returns to his or her attorney for purposes of preparing the client's estate plan. Under the proposed regulation, a request for consent to disclose would be untimely in this situation, even though the taxpayer requests the disclosure as part of the client service provided by the tax return preparer. As indicated by the provisions regarding solicitation of other business that were included in the previous final regulations, the Treasury Department and IRS believe that taxpayers should not be the subject of repetitive solicitation requests for business made by tax return preparers after the tax preparation engagement has ended. Consistent with previous final regulations, the final regulation in section 301.7216-3(b)(2) has been modified to state that a tax return preparer may not request a taxpayer's consent to disclose or use tax return information for purposes of solicitation of business unrelated to tax return preparation after the tax return preparer provides a completed tax return to the taxpayer for signature. Under the final regulations, the preparer would not be precluded from requesting consent to disclose the past three years of the taxpayer's tax returns to his or her attorney for purposes of preparing the client's estate plan according to the example provided by commentators.</P>
        <HD SOURCE="HD3">G. Prohibition on Multiple Requests for Consent</HD>
        <P>Proposed section 301.7216-3(b)(3) provides that if a taxpayer declines to provide consent to a disclosure or use of tax return information, a tax return preparer cannot make another request for consent. Some commentators recommended that the regulations permit a tax return preparer to clarify the purpose and extent of the consent if necessary after the taxpayer declines to provide consent, and that such a clarification should not be treated as a second request by the tax return preparer to obtain a consent. Another commentator stated that tax return preparers should be permitted to request consent whenever they wish so long as the consent properly describes the nature of, and reasons for, potential disclosures or uses. The commentators' recommendations were based upon the recognition that there may be legitimate reasons for the preparer to more thoroughly explain the request for consent and how the consent relates to the tax preparation engagement. However, Treasury and the IRS are concerned that lack of restrictions regarding multiple requests for consent regarding the same or similar request may cause undue pressure to consent where there are repetitious requests. In light of these concerns, section 301.7216-3(b)(3) has been modified to provide that, for purposes unrelated to a tax preparation engagement, if a taxpayer declines a request for consent to the disclosure or use of tax return information, the tax return preparer may not solicit from the taxpayer another consent for a purpose substantially similar to that of the rejected request. Under this rule, there is no prohibition regarding the taxpayer independently asking the tax return preparer about a disclosure or use of the taxpayer's same tax return information after a declined consent request.</P>
        <HD SOURCE="HD3">H. Multiple Disclosures or Multiple Uses Within a Single Consent Form</HD>
        <P>Section 301.7216-3(c)(1) of the proposed regulations provides that a taxpayer may consent to multiple disclosures within the same written document, or multiple uses within the same written document. One commentator recommended permitting taxpayers to consent to multiple disclosures and multiple uses with the same form. Another commentator recommended prohibiting a taxpayer from consenting to multiple disclosures within the same written document, or multiple uses within the same written document, in order to avoid potential taxpayer confusion. These recommendations were not adopted.</P>
        <P>The proposed rule was intended to emphasize that disclosure and use are two distinct concepts, and a taxpayer may consider consenting to one and not the other. The comments to the proposed regulations demonstrated that there is potential for confusion regarding the distinction between disclosure and use. Treasury and the IRS believe it is appropriate to require separate consents in situations where there is a probability that the taxpayer could become confused over the distinction between use and disclosure. Section 301-7216-3(c)(1) of the final regulations provides that for taxpayers who are filers of returns in the Form 1040 series, the proposed rule is retained. The rule requiring separate consents is limited to individuals because use or disclosure of that tax return information involves situations where confusion is most likely to occur.</P>
        <HD SOURCE="HD3">I. Disclosure of All Information Contained Within a Return</HD>

        <P>Section 301.7216-3(c)(2) of the proposed regulations provides that a consent authorizing the disclosure of all information contained within a return must set forth an explanation of the reason why a consent authorizing a more limited disclosure of tax return information is unsatisfactory for the<PRTPAGE P="1067"/>purpose of the consent. Some commentators characterized this requirement as burdensome in certain situations and recommended eliminating this requirement. Commentators reasoned that a third party service provider, such as the taxpayer's attorney, may request a copy of the return and the requirement to provide an explanation would interject the preparer between the requirements imposed by the third party service provider and the taxpayer. In light of these concerns, section 301.7216-3(c)(2) of the final regulations modifies this provision to provide that where a consent authorizes the disclosure of a copy of the taxpayer's tax return or all information contained within a return, the consent must provide that the taxpayer has the ability to request a more limited disclosure of tax return information as the taxpayer may direct.</P>
        <P>Some commentators concerned with marketing of tax return information recommended that disclosure of the entire tax return should not be permitted under any circumstances. The commentators' rationale was that disclosure of the entire return is never necessary for marketing purposes. This recommendation was not adopted because, in general, taxpayers should have control over their own tax return information and they should be able to direct tax return preparers to disclose tax return information as the taxpayers see fit.</P>
        <HD SOURCE="HD3">J. Duration of Consent</HD>
        <P>Section 301.7216-3(b)(5) of the proposed regulations provides that no consent to the disclosure or use of tax return information may be effective for a period longer than one year from the date the taxpayer signed the consent. Some commentators expressed concern that the duration of consent may need to be effective for a period greater than one year. One commentator observed that when preparing expatriate tax returns, there may be circumstances when the due date for a foreign tax return or other related document is more than one year after the taxpayer signs the consent. Some commentators recommended that taxpayers should be permitted to establish the duration of consent, and the one-year period should apply only if the taxpayer fails to specify a different duration of consent. This recommendation was adopted in the final regulations.</P>
        <HD SOURCE="HD3">K. Consents Read Aloud</HD>
        <P>Some commentators recommended that § 301.7216-3 require that consents be read aloud by audio output. This recommendation was not adopted. This recommendation would impose a burdensome rule that is outside the norm of standard practices for obtaining consent.</P>
        <HD SOURCE="HD2">5. General Comments</HD>
        <P>Several commentators recommended rejecting all of the provisions of the proposed regulations under section 7216. The recommendations to reject the proposed regulations were not adopted. The proposed regulations were finalized to provide updates relating to uses and disclosures of tax return information in the electronic return preparation context and create an environment that allows taxpayers to make informed decisions regarding the disclosure or use of their tax return information.</P>
        <HD SOURCE="HD1">Effect on Other Documents</HD>
        <P>The following publication is obsolete on or after January 1, 2009: Rev. Rul. 79-114, 1979-1 C.B. 441 (1979).</P>
        <HD SOURCE="HD1">Special Analyses</HD>
        <P>It has been determined that this Treasury decision is not a significant regulatory action as defined in Executive Order 12866. Therefore, a regulatory assessment is not required. It also has been determined that section 553(b) of the Administrative Procedure Act (5 U.S.C. chapter 5) does not apply to these regulations, and, because these regulations do not impose a collection of information on small entities, the Regulatory Flexibility Act (5 U.S.C. chapter 6) does not apply. Pursuant to section 7805(f), the notice of proposed rulemaking preceding these regulations was submitted to the Chief Counsel for Advocacy of the Small Business Administration for comment on its impact on small business.</P>
        <HD SOURCE="HD1">Drafting Information</HD>
        <P>The principal author of these regulations is Dillon Taylor, formerly of the Office of the Associate Chief Counsel (Procedure and Administration). For further information regarding these regulations contact Lawrence Mack of the Office of the Associate Chief Counsel (Procedure and Administration) at 202-622-4940 (not a toll-free call).</P>
        <LSTSUB>
          <HD SOURCE="HED">List of Subjects in 26 CFR Part 301</HD>
          <P>Employment taxes, Estate taxes, Excise taxes, Gift taxes, Income taxes, Penalties, Reporting and recordkeeping requirements.</P>
        </LSTSUB>
        <REGTEXT PART="301" TITLE="26">
          <HD SOURCE="HD1">Amendment to the Regulations</HD>
          <AMDPAR>Accordingly, 26 CFR part 301 is amended as follows:</AMDPAR>
          <PART>
            <HD SOURCE="HED">PART 301—PROCEDURE AND ADMINISTRATION</HD>
          </PART>
          <AMDPAR>
            <E T="04">Paragraph 1.</E>The authority citation for part 301 continues to read, in part, as follows:</AMDPAR>
          <AUTH>
            <HD SOURCE="HED">Authority:</HD>
            <P>26 U.S.C. 7805 * * *</P>
          </AUTH>
        </REGTEXT>
        
        <REGTEXT PART="301" TITLE="26">
          <AMDPAR>
            <E T="04">Par. 2.</E>Section 301.7216-0 is added to read as follows:</AMDPAR>
          <SECTION>
            <SECTNO>§ 301.7216-0</SECTNO>
            <SUBJECT>Table of contents.</SUBJECT>
            <P>This section lists captions contained in §§ 301.7216-1 through 301.7216-3.</P>
            <EXTRACT>
              
              <FP>
                <E T="03">§ 301.7216-1 Penalty for disclosure or use of tax return information.</E>
              </FP>
              
              <P>(a) In general.</P>
              <P>(b) Definitions.</P>
              <P>(c) Gramm-Leach-Bliley Act.</P>
              <P>(d) Effective date.</P>
              
              <FP>
                <E T="03">§ 301.7216-2Permissible disclosures or uses without consent of the taxpayer.</E>
              </FP>
              
              <P>(a) Disclosure pursuant to other provisions of the Internal Revenue Code.</P>
              <P>(b) Disclosures to the IRS.</P>
              <P>(c) Disclosures or uses for preparation of a taxpayer's return.</P>
              <P>(d) Disclosures to other tax return preparers.</P>
              <P>(e) Disclosure or use of information in the case of related taxpayers.</P>
              <P>(f) Disclosure pursuant to an order of a court, or an administrative order, demand, request, summons or subpoena which is issued in the performance of its duties by a Federal or State agency, the United States Congress, a professional association ethics committee or board, or the Public Company Accounting Oversight Board.</P>
              <P>(g) Disclosure for use in securing legal advice, Treasury investigations or court proceedings.</P>
              <P>(h) Certain disclosures by attorneys and accountants.</P>
              <P>(i) Corporate fiduciaries.</P>
              <P>(j) Disclosure to taxpayer's fiduciary.</P>
              <P>(k) Disclosure or use of information in preparation or audit of State or local tax returns or assisting a taxpayer with foreign country tax obligations.</P>
              <P>(l) Payment for tax preparation services.</P>
              <P>(m) Retention of records.</P>
              <P>(n) Lists for solicitation of tax return business.</P>
              <P>(o) Producing statistical information in connection with tax return preparation business.</P>
              <P>(p) Disclosure or use of information for quality or peer reviews.</P>
              <P>(q) Disclosure to report the commission of a crime.</P>
              <P>(r) Disclosure of tax return information due to a tax return preparer's incapacity or death.</P>
              <P>(s) Effective date.</P>
              
              <FP>
                <E T="03">§ 301.7216-3Disclosure or use permitted only with the taxpayer's consent.</E>
              </FP>
              
              <P>(a) In general.</P>
              <P>(b) Timing requirements and limitations.</P>
              <P>(c) Special rules.</P>
              <P>(d) Effective date.</P>
            </EXTRACT>
            
          </SECTION>
        </REGTEXT>
        <REGTEXT PART="301" TITLE="26">
          <AMDPAR>
            <E T="04">Par. 3.</E>Section 301.7216-1 is revised to read as follows:</AMDPAR>
          <SECTION>
            <PRTPAGE P="1068"/>
            <SECTNO>§ 301.7216-1</SECTNO>
            <SUBJECT>Penalty for disclosure or use of tax return information.</SUBJECT>
            <P>(a)<E T="03">In general.</E>Section 7216(a) prescribes a criminal penalty for tax return preparers who knowingly or recklessly disclose or use tax return information for a purpose other than preparing a tax return. A violation of section 7216 is a misdemeanor, with a maximum penalty of up to one year imprisonment or a fine of not more than $1,000, or both, together with the costs of prosecution. Section 7216(b) establishes exceptions to the general rule in section 7216(a) prohibiting disclosure and use. Section 7216(b) also authorizes the Secretary to promulgate regulations prescribing additional permitted disclosures and uses. Section 6713(a) prescribes a related civil penalty for disclosures and uses that constitute a violation of section 7216. The penalty for violating section 6713 is $250 for each prohibited disclosure or use, not to exceed a total of $10,000 for a calendar year. Section 6713(b) provides that the exceptions in section 7216(b) also apply to section 6713. Under section 7216(b), the provisions of section 7216(a) will not apply to any disclosure or use permitted under regulations prescribed by the Secretary.</P>
            <P>(b)<E T="03">Definitions.</E>For purposes of section 7216 and §§ 301.7216-1 through 301.7216-3:</P>
            <P>(1)<E T="03">Tax return.</E>The term<E T="03">tax return</E>means any return (or amended return) of income tax imposed by chapter 1 of the Internal Revenue Code.</P>
            <P>(2)<E T="03">Tax return preparer—</E>(i)<E T="03">In general.</E>The term<E T="03">tax return preparer</E>means:</P>
            <P>(A) Any person who is engaged in the business of preparing or assisting in preparing tax returns;</P>
            <P>(B) Any person who is engaged in the business of providing auxiliary services in connection with the preparation of tax returns, including a person who develops software that is used to prepare or file a tax return and any Authorized IRS e-file Provider;</P>
            <P>(C) Any person who is otherwise compensated for preparing, or assisting in preparing, a tax return for any other person; or</P>
            <P>(D) Any individual who, as part of their duties of employment with any person described in paragraph (b)(2)(i)(A), (B), or (C) of this section performs services that assist in the preparation of, or assist in providing auxiliary services in connection with the preparation of, a tax return.</P>
            <P>(ii)<E T="03">Business of preparing returns.</E>A person is engaged in the business of preparing tax returns as described in paragraph (b)(2)(i)(A) of this section if, in the course of the person's business, the person holds himself out to tax return preparers or taxpayers as a person who prepares tax returns or assists in preparing tax returns, whether or not tax return preparation is the person's sole business activity and whether or not the person charges a fee for tax return preparation services.</P>
            <P>(iii)<E T="03">Providing auxiliary services.</E>A person is engaged in the business of providing auxiliary services in connection with the preparation of tax returns as described in paragraph (b)(2)(i)(B) of this section if, in the course of the person's business, the person holds himself out to tax return preparers or to taxpayers as a person who performs auxiliary services, whether or not providing the auxiliary services is the person's sole business activity and whether or not the person charges a fee for the auxiliary services. Likewise, a person is engaged in the business of providing auxiliary services if, in the course of the person's business, the person receives a taxpayer's tax return information from another tax return preparer pursuant to the provisions of § 301.7216-2(d)(2).</P>
            <P>(iv)<E T="03">Otherwise compensated.</E>A tax return preparer described in paragraph (b)(2)(i)(C) of this section includes any person who—</P>
            <P>(A) Is compensated for preparing a tax return for another person, but not in the course of a business; or</P>
            <P>(B) Is compensated for helping, on a casual basis, a relative, friend, or other acquaintance to prepare their tax return.</P>
            <P>(v)<E T="03">Exclusions.</E>A person is not a tax return preparer merely because he leases office space to a tax return preparer, furnishes credit to a taxpayer whose tax return is prepared by a tax return preparer, furnishes information to a tax return preparer at the taxpayer's request, furnishes access (free or otherwise) to a separate person's tax return preparation Web site through a hyperlink on his own Web site, or otherwise performs some service that only incidentally relates to the preparation of tax returns.</P>
            <P>(vi)<E T="03">Examples.</E>The application of § 301.7216-1(b)(2) may be illustrated by the following examples:</P>
            
            <EXTRACT>
              <P>
                <E T="03">Example 1.</E>Bank B is a tax return preparer within the meaning of paragraph (b)(2)(i)(A) of this section, and an Authorized IRS e-file Provider. B employs one individual, Q, to solicit the necessary tax return information for the preparation of a tax return; another individual, R, to prepare the return on the basis of the information that is furnished; a secretary, S, who types the information on the returns into a computer; and an administrative assistant, T, who uses a computer to file electronic versions of the tax returns. Under these circumstances, only R is a tax return preparer for purposes of section 7701(a)(36), but all four employees are tax return preparers for purposes of section 7216, as provided in paragraph (b) of this section.</P>
              <P>
                <E T="03">Example 2.</E>Tax return preparer P contracts with department store D to rent space in D's store. D advertises that taxpayers who use P's services may charge the cost of having their tax return prepared to their charge account with D. Under these circumstances, D is not a tax return preparer because it provides space, credit, and services only incidentally related to the preparation of tax returns.</P>
            </EXTRACT>
            
            <P>(3)<E T="03">Tax return information</E>—(i)<E T="03">In general.</E>The term<E T="03">tax return information</E>means any information, including, but not limited to, a taxpayer's name, address, or identifying number, which is furnished in any form or manner for, or in connection with, the preparation of a tax return of the taxpayer. This information includes information that the taxpayer furnishes to a tax return preparer and information furnished to the tax return preparer by a third party. Tax return information also includes information the tax return preparer derives or generates from tax return information in connection with the preparation of a taxpayer's return.</P>
            <P>(A) Tax return information can be provided directly by the taxpayer or by another person. Likewise, tax return information includes information received by the tax return preparer from the IRS in connection with the processing of such return, including an acknowledgment of acceptance or notice of rejection of an electronically filed return.</P>
            <P>(B) Tax return information includes statistical compilations of tax return information, even in a form that cannot be associated with, or otherwise identify, directly or indirectly, a particular taxpayer. See § 301.7216-2(o) for limited use of tax return information to make statistical compilations without taxpayer consent and to use the statistical compilations for limited purposes.</P>
            <P>(C) Tax return information does not include information identical to any tax return information that has been furnished to a tax return preparer if the identical information was obtained otherwise than in connection with the preparation of a tax return.</P>
            <P>(D) Information is considered “in connection with tax return preparation,” and therefore tax return information, if the taxpayer would not have furnished the information to the tax return preparer but for the intention to engage, or the engagement of, the tax return preparer to prepare the tax return.</P>
            <P>(ii)<E T="03">Examples.</E>The application of this paragraph (b)(3) may be illustrated by the following examples:</P>
            
            <EXTRACT>
              <PRTPAGE P="1069"/>
              <P>
                <E T="03">Example 1.</E>Taxpayer A purchases computer software designed to assist with the preparation and filing of her income tax return. When A loads the software onto her computer, it prompts her to register her purchase of the software. In this situation, the software provider is a tax return preparer under paragraph (b)(2)(i)(B) of this section and the information that A provides to register her purchase is tax return information because she is providing it in connection with the preparation of a tax return.</P>
              <P>
                <E T="03">Example 2.</E>Corporation A is a brokerage firm that maintains a Web site through which its clients may access their accounts, trade stocks, and generally conduct a variety of financial activities. Through its Web site, A offers its clients free access to its own tax preparation software. Taxpayer B is a client of A and has furnished A his name, address, and other information when registering for use of A's Web site to use A's brokerage services. In addition, A has a record of B's brokerage account activity, including sales of stock, dividends paid, and IRA contributions made. B uses A's tax preparation software to prepare his tax return. The software populates some fields on B's return on the basis of information A already maintains in its databases. A is a tax return preparer within the meaning of paragraph (b)(2)(i)(B) of this section because it has prepared and provided software for use in preparing tax returns. The information in A's databases that the software accesses to populate B's return,<E T="03">i.e.</E>, the registration information and brokerage account activity, is not tax return information because A did not receive that information in connection with the preparation of a tax return. Once A uses the information to populate the return, however, the information associated with the return becomes tax return information. If A retains the information in a form in which A can identify that the information was used in connection with the preparation of a return, the information in that form is tax return information. If, however, A retains the information in a database in which A cannot identify whether the information was used in connection with the preparation of a return, then that information is not tax return information.</P>
            </EXTRACT>
            
            <P>(4)<E T="03">Use</E>—(i)<E T="03">In general.</E>Use of tax return information includes any circumstance in which a tax return preparer refers to, or relies upon, tax return information as the basis to take or permit an action.</P>
            <P>(ii)<E T="03">Example.</E>The application of this paragraph (b)(4) may be illustrated by the following example:</P>
            
            <EXTRACT>
              <P>
                <E T="03">Example.</E>Preparer G is a tax return preparer as defined by paragraph (b)(2)(i)(A) of this section. If G determines, upon preparing a return, that the taxpayer is eligible to make a contribution to an individual retirement account (IRA), G will ask whether the taxpayer desires to make a contribution to an IRA. G does not ask about IRAs in cases in which the taxpayer is not eligible to make a contribution. G is using tax return information when it asks whether a taxpayer is interested in making a contribution to an IRA because G is basing the inquiry upon knowledge gained from information that the taxpayer furnished in connection with the preparation of the taxpayer's return.</P>
            </EXTRACT>
            
            <P>(5)<E T="03">Disclosure.</E>The term<E T="03">disclosure</E>means the act of making tax return information known to any person in any manner whatever. To the extent that a taxpayer's use of a hyperlink results in the transmission of tax return information, this transmission of tax return information is a disclosure by the tax return preparer subject to penalty under section 7216 if not authorized by regulation.</P>
            <P>(6)<E T="03">Hyperlink.</E>For purposes of section 7216, a hyperlink is a device used to transfer an individual using tax preparation software from a tax return preparer's Web page to a Web page operated by another person without the individual having to separately enter the Web address of the destination page.</P>
            <P>(7)<E T="03">Request for consent.</E>A request for consent includes any effort by a tax return preparer to obtain the taxpayer's consent to use or disclose the taxpayer's tax return information. The act of supplying a taxpayer with a paper or electronic form that meets the requirements of a revenue procedure published pursuant to § 301.7216-3(a) is a request for a consent. When a tax return preparer requests a taxpayer's consent, any associated efforts of the tax return preparer, including, but not limited to, verbal or written explanations of the form, are part of the request for consent.</P>
            <P>(c)<E T="03">Gramm-Leach-Bliley Act.</E>Any applicable requirements of the Gramm-Leach-Bliley Act, Public Law 106-102 (113 Stat. 1338), do not supersede, alter, or affect the requirements of section 7216 and §§ 301.7216-1 through 301.7216-3. Similarly, the requirements of section 7216 and §§ 301.7216-1 through 301.7216-3 do not override any requirements or restrictions of the Gramm-Leach-Bliley Act, which are in addition to the requirements or restrictions of section 7216 and §§ 301.7216-1 through 301.7216-3.</P>
            <P>(d)<E T="03">Effective/applicability date.</E>This section applies to disclosures or uses of tax return information occurring on or after January 1, 2009.</P>
          </SECTION>
        </REGTEXT>
        <REGTEXT PART="301" TITLE="26">
          <AMDPAR>
            <E T="04">Par. 4.</E>Section 301.7216-2 is revised to read as follows:</AMDPAR>
          <SECTION>
            <SECTNO>§ 301.7216-2</SECTNO>
            <SUBJECT>Permissible disclosures or uses without consent of the taxpayer.</SUBJECT>
            <P>(a)<E T="03">Disclosure pursuant to other provisions of the Internal Revenue Code.</E>The provisions of section 7216(a) and § 301.7216-1 shall not apply to any disclosure of tax return information if the disclosure is made pursuant to any other provision of the Internal Revenue Code or the regulations thereunder.</P>
            <P>(b)<E T="03">Disclosures to the IRS.</E>The provisions of section 7216(a) and § 301.7216-1 shall not apply to any disclosure of tax return information to an officer or employee of the IRS.</P>
            <P>(c)<E T="03">Disclosures or uses for preparation of a taxpayer's return</E>—(1)<E T="03">Updating Taxpayers' Tax Return Preparation Software.</E>If a tax return preparer provides software to a taxpayer that is used in connection with the preparation or filing of a tax return, the tax return preparer may use the taxpayer's tax return information to update the taxpayer's software for the purpose of addressing changes in IRS forms, e-file specifications and administrative, regulatory and legislative guidance or to test and ensure the software's technical capabilities without the taxpayer's consent under § 301.7216-3.</P>
            <P>(2)<E T="03">Tax return preparers located within the same firm in the United States.</E>If a taxpayer furnishes tax return information to a tax return preparer located within the United States, including any territory or possession of the United States, an officer, employee, or member of a tax return preparer may use the tax return information, or disclose the tax return information to another officer, employee, or member of the same tax return preparer, for the purpose of performing services that assist in the preparation of, or assist in providing auxiliary services in connection with the preparation of, the taxpayer's tax return. If an officer, employee, or member to whom the tax return information is to be disclosed is located outside of the United States or any territory or possession of the United States, the taxpayer's consent under § 301.7216-3 prior to any disclosure is required.</P>
            <P>(3)<E T="03">Furnishing tax return information to tax return preparers located outside the United States.</E>If a taxpayer initially furnishes tax return information to a tax return preparer located outside of the United States or any territory or possession of the United States, an officer, employee, or member of a tax return preparer may use tax return information, or disclose any tax return information to another officer, employee, or member of the same tax return preparer, for the purpose of performing services that assist in the preparation of, or assist in providing auxiliary services in connection with the preparation of, the tax return of a taxpayer by or for whom the information was furnished without the taxpayer's consent under § 301.7216-3.<PRTPAGE P="1070"/>
            </P>
            <P>(4)<E T="03">Examples.</E>The following examples illustrate this paragraph (c):</P>
            
            <EXTRACT>
              <P>
                <E T="03">Example 1.</E>Preparer P provides tax return preparation software to Taxpayer T for T to use in the preparation of its 2009 income tax return. For the 2009 tax year, and using T's tax return information furnished while registering for the software, P would like to update the tax return preparation software that T is using to account for last minute changes made to the tax laws for the 2009 tax year. P is not required to obtain T's consent to update the tax return preparation software. P may perform a software update regardless of whether the software update will affect T's particular return preparation activities.</P>
              <P>
                <E T="03">Example 2.</E>T is a client of Firm, which is a tax return preparer. E, an employee at Firm's State A office, receives tax return information from T for use in preparing T's income tax return. E discloses the tax return information to P, an employee in Firm's State B office; P uses the tax return information to process T's income tax return. Firm is not required to receive T's consent under § 301.7216-3 prior to E's disclosure of T's tax return information to P because the tax return information is disclosed to an employee employed by the same tax return preparer located within the United States.</P>
              <P>
                <E T="03">Example 3.</E>Same facts as<E T="03">Example 2</E>except T's tax return information is disclosed to FE who is located in Firm's Country F office. FE uses the tax return information to process T's income tax return. After processing, FE returns the processed tax return information to E in Firm's State A office. Because FE is outside of the United States, Firm is required to obtain T's consent under § 301.7216-3 prior to E's disclosure of T's tax return information to FE.</P>
              <P>
                <E T="03">Example 4.</E>T, Firm's client, is temporarily located in Country F. She initially furnishes her tax return information to employee FE in Firm's Country F office for the purpose of having Firm prepare her U.S. income tax return. FE makes the substantive determinations concerning T's tax liability and forwards T's tax return information to FP, an employee in Firm's Country P office, for the purpose of processing T's tax return information. FP processes the return information and forwards it to Partner at Firm's State A office in the United States for review and delivery to T. Because T initially furnished the tax return information to a tax return preparer outside of the United States, T's prior consent for disclosure or use under § 301.7216-3 was not required. An officer, employee, or member of Firm in the United States may use T's tax return information or disclose the tax return information to another officer, employee, or member of Firm without T's prior consent under § 301.7216-3 as long as any disclosure or use of T's tax return information is within the United States. Firm is required to receive T's consent under § 301.7216-3 prior to any subsequent disclosure of T's tax return information to a tax return preparer located outside of the United States.</P>
            </EXTRACT>
            
            <P>(d)<E T="03">Disclosures to other tax return preparers</E>—(1)<E T="03">Preparer-to-preparer disclosures.</E>Except as limited in paragraph (d)(2) of this section, an officer, employee, or member of a tax return preparer may disclose tax return information of a taxpayer to another tax return preparer (other than an officer, employee, or member of the same tax return preparer) located in the United States (including any territory or possession of the United States) for the purpose of preparing or assisting in preparing a tax return, or obtaining or providing auxiliary services in connection with the preparation of any tax return, so long as the services provided are not substantive determinations or advice affecting the tax liability reported by taxpayers. A substantive determination involves an analysis, interpretation, or application of the law. The authorized disclosures permitted under this paragraph (d)(1) include one tax return preparer disclosing tax return information to another tax return preparer for the purpose of having the second tax return preparer transfer that information to, and compute the tax liability on, a tax return of the taxpayer by means of electronic, mechanical, or other form of tax return processing service. The authorized disclosures permitted under this paragraph (d)(1) also include disclosures by a tax return preparer to an Authorized IRS<E T="03">e-file</E>Provider for the purpose of electronically filing the return with the IRS. Authorized disclosures also include disclosures by a tax return preparer to a second tax return preparer for the purpose of making information concerning the return available to the taxpayer. This would include, for example, whether the return has been accepted or rejected by the IRS, or the status of the taxpayer's refund. Except as provided in paragraph (c) of this section, a tax return preparer may not disclose tax return information to another tax return preparer for the purpose of the second tax return preparer providing substantive determinations without first receiving the taxpayer's consent in accordance with the rules under § 301.7216-3.</P>
            <P>(2)<E T="03">Disclosures to contractors.</E>A tax return preparer may disclose tax return information to a person under contract with the tax return preparer in connection with the programming, maintenance, repair, testing, or procurement of equipment or software used for purposes of tax return preparation only to the extent necessary for the person to provide the contracted services, and only if the tax return preparer ensures that all individuals who are to receive disclosures of tax return information receive a written notice that informs them of the applicability of sections 6713 and 7216 to them and describes the requirements and penalties of sections 6713 and 7216. Contractors receiving tax return information pursuant to this section are tax return preparers under section 7216 because they are performing auxiliary services in connection with tax return preparation. See § 301.7216-1(b)(2)(i)(B) and (D).</P>
            <P>(3)<E T="03">Examples.</E>The following examples illustrate this paragraph (d):</P>
            
            <EXTRACT>
              <P>
                <E T="03">Example 1.</E>E, an employee at Firm's State A office, receives tax return information from T for Firm's use in preparing T's income tax return. E makes substantive determinations and forwards the tax return information to P, an employee at Processor; Processor is located in State B. P places the tax return information on the income tax return and furnishes the finished product to E. E is not required to receive T's prior consent under § 301.7216-3 before disclosing T's tax return information to P because Processor's services are not substantive determinations and the tax return information remained in the United States at Processor's State B office during the entire course of the tax return preparation process.</P>
              <P>
                <E T="03">Example 2.</E>Firm, a tax return preparer, offers income tax return preparation services. Firm's contract with its software provider, Contractor, requires Firm to periodically randomly select certain taxpayers' tax return information solely for the purpose of testing the reliability of the software sold to Firm. Under its agreement with Contractor, Firm discloses tax return information to Contractor's employee, C, who services Firm's contract without providing Contractor or C with a written notice that describes the requirements of and penalties under sections 7216 and 6713. C uses the tax return information solely for quality assurance purposes. Firm's disclosure of tax return information to C was an impermissible disclosure because Firm failed to ensure that C received a written notice that describes the requirements and penalties of sections 7216 and 6713.</P>
              <P>
                <E T="03">Example 3.</E>E, an employee of Firm in State A in the United States, receives tax return information from T for use in preparing T's income tax return. After E enters T's tax return information into Firm's computer, that information is stored on a computer server that is physically located in State A. Firm contracts with Contractor, located in Country F, to prepare its clients' tax returns. FE, an employee of Contractor, uses a computer in Country F and inputs a password to view T's income tax information stored on the computer server in State A to prepare T's tax return. A computer program permits FE to view T's tax return information, but prohibits FE from downloading or printing out T's tax return information from the computer server. Because Firm is disclosing T's tax return information outside of the United States, Firm is required to obtain T's consent under § 301.7216-3 prior to the disclosure to FE. As provided in § 301.7216-3(b)(5), however, Firm may not obtain consent to disclose T's social security number (SSN) to a tax return<PRTPAGE P="1071"/>preparer located outside of the United States or any territory or possession of the United States.</P>
              <P>
                <E T="03">Example 4.</E>A, an employee at Firm A, receives tax return information from T for Firm's use in preparing T's income tax return. A forwards the tax return information to B, an employee at another firm, Firm B, to obtain advice on the issue of whether T may claim a deduction for a certain business expense. A is required to receive T's prior consent under § 301.7216-3 before disclosing T's tax return information to B because B's services involve a substantive determination affecting the tax liability that T will report.</P>
            </EXTRACT>
            
            <P>(e)<E T="03">Disclosure or use of information in the case of related taxpayers.</E>(1) In preparing a tax return of a second taxpayer, a tax return preparer may use, and may disclose to the second taxpayer in the form in which it appears on the return, any tax return information that the tax return preparer obtained from a first taxpayer if—</P>
            <P>(i) The second taxpayer is related to the first taxpayer within the meaning of paragraph (e)(2) of this section;</P>
            <P>(ii) The first taxpayer's tax interest in the information is not adverse to the second taxpayer's tax interest in the information; and</P>
            <P>(iii) The first taxpayer has not expressly prohibited the disclosure or use.</P>
            <P>(2) For purposes of paragraph (e)(1)(i) of this section, a taxpayer is related to another taxpayer if they have any one of the following relationships: Husband and wife, child and parent, grandchild and grandparent, partner and partnership, trust or estate and beneficiary, trust or estate and fiduciary, corporation and shareholder, or members of a controlled group of corporations as defined in section 1563.</P>
            <P>(3) See § 301.7216-3 for disclosure or use of tax return information of the taxpayer in preparing the tax return of a second taxpayer when the requirements of this paragraph are not satisfied.</P>
            <P>(f) D<E T="03">isclosure pursuant to an order of a court, or an administrative order, demand, request, summons or subpoena which is issued in the performance of its duties by a Federal or State agency, the United States Congress, a professional association ethics committee or board, or the Public Company Accounting Oversight Board.</E>The provisions of section 7216(a) and § 301.7216-1 will not apply to any disclosure of tax return information if the disclosure is made pursuant to any one of the following documents:</P>
            <P>(1) The order of any court of record, Federal, State, or local.</P>
            <P>(2) A subpoena issued by a grand jury, Federal or State.</P>
            <P>(3) A subpoena issued by the United States Congress.</P>
            <P>(4) An administrative order, demand, summons or subpoena that is issued in the performance of its duties by—</P>
            <P>(i) Any Federal agency as defined in 5 U.S.C. 551(1) and 5 U.S.C. 552(f), or</P>
            <P>(ii) A State agency, body, or commission charged under the laws of the State or a political subdivision of the State with the licensing, registration, or regulation of tax return preparers.</P>
            <P>(5) A written request from a professional association ethics committee or board investigating the ethical conduct of the tax return preparer.</P>
            <P>(6) A written request from the Public Company Accounting Oversight Board in connection with an inspection under section 104 of the Sarbanes-Oxley Act of 2002, 15 U.S.C. 7214, or an investigation under section 105 of such Act, 15 U.S.C. 7215, for use in accordance with such Act.</P>
            <P>(g)<E T="03">Disclosure for use in securing legal advice, Treasury investigations or court proceedings.</E>A tax return preparer may disclose tax return information—</P>
            <P>(1) To an attorney for purposes of securing legal advice;</P>
            <P>(2) To an employee of the Treasury Department for use in connection with any investigation of the tax return preparer (including investigations relating to the tax return preparer in its capacity as a practitioner) conducted by the IRS or the Treasury Department; or</P>
            <P>(3) To any officer of a court for use in connection with proceedings involving the tax return preparer (including proceedings involving the tax return preparer in its capacity as a practitioner), or the return preparer's client, before the court or before any grand jury that may be convened by the court.</P>
            <P>(h)<E T="03">Certain disclosures by attorneys and accountants.</E>The provisions of section 7216(a) and § 301.7216-1 shall not apply to any disclosure of tax return information permitted by this paragraph (h).</P>
            <P>(1)(i) A tax return preparer who is lawfully engaged in the practice of law or accountancy and prepares a tax return for a taxpayer may use the taxpayer's tax return information, or disclose the information to another officer, employee or member of the tax return preparer's law or accounting firm, consistent with applicable legal and ethical responsibilities, who may use the tax return information for the purpose of providing other legal or accounting services to the taxpayer. As an example, a lawyer who prepares a tax return for a taxpayer may use the tax return information of the taxpayer for, or in connection with, rendering legal services, including estate planning or administration, or preparation of trial briefs or trust instruments, for the taxpayer or the estate of the taxpayer. In addition, the lawyer who prepared the tax return may disclose the tax return information to another officer, employee or member of the same firm for the purpose of providing other legal services to the taxpayer. As another example, an accountant who prepares a tax return for a taxpayer may use the tax return information, or disclose it to another officer, employee or member of the firm, for use in connection with the preparation of books and records, working papers, or accounting statements or reports for the taxpayer. In the normal course of rendering the legal or accounting services to the taxpayer, the attorney or accountant may make the tax return information available to third parties, including stockholders, management, suppliers, or lenders, consistent with the applicable legal and ethical responsibilities, unless the taxpayer directs otherwise. For rules regarding disclosures outside of the United States, see § 301.7216-2(c) and (d).</P>
            <P>(ii) A tax return preparer's law or accounting firm does not include any related or affiliated firms. For example, if law firm A is affiliated with law firm B, officers, employees and members of law firm A must receive a taxpayer's consent under § 301.7216-3 before disclosing the taxpayer's tax return information to an officer, employee or member of law firm B.</P>

            <P>(2) A tax return preparer who is lawfully engaged in the practice of law or accountancy and prepares a tax return for a taxpayer may, consistent with the applicable legal and ethical responsibilities, take the tax return information into account, and may act upon it, in the course of performing legal or accounting services for a client other than the taxpayer, or disclose the information to another officer, employee or member of the tax return preparer's law or accounting firm to enable that other officer, employee or member to take the information into account, and act upon it, in the course of performing legal or accounting services for a client other than the taxpayer. This is permissible when the information is, or may be, relevant to the subject matter of the legal or accounting services for the other client, and consideration of the information by those performing the services is necessary for the proper performance of the services. In no event, however, may the tax return information be disclosed to a person who is not an officer, employee or member of the law<PRTPAGE P="1072"/>or accounting firm, unless the disclosure is exempt from the application of section 7216(a) and § 301.7216-1 by reason of another provision of §§ 301.7216-2 or 301.7216-3.</P>
            <P>(3)<E T="03">Examples.</E>The application of this paragraph may be illustrated by the following examples:</P>
            
            <EXTRACT>
              <P>
                <E T="03">Example 1.</E>A, a member of an accounting firm, renders an opinion on a financial statement of M Corporation that is part of a registration statement filed with the Securities and Exchange Commission. After the registration statement is filed, but before its effective date, B, a member of the same accounting firm, prepares an income tax return for N Corporation. In the course of preparing N's income tax return, B discovers that N does business with M and concludes that the information given by N should be considered by A to determine whether the financial statement opined on by A contains an untrue statement of material fact or omits a material fact required to keep the statement from being misleading. B discloses to A the tax return information of N for this purpose. A determines that there is an omission of material fact and that an amended statement should be filed. A so advises M and the Securities and Exchange Commission. A explains that the omission was revealed as a result of confidential information that came to A's attention after the statement was filed, but A does not disclose the identity of the taxpayer or the tax return information itself. Section 7216(a) and § 301.7216-1 do not apply to B's disclosure of N's tax return information to A and A's use of the information in advising M and the Securities and Exchange Commission of the necessity for filing an amended statement. Section 7216(a) and § 301.7216-1 would apply to a disclosure of N's tax return information to M or to the Securities and Exchange Commission unless the disclosure is exempt from the application of section 7216(a) and § 301.7216-1 by reason of another provision of either this section or § 301.7216-3.</P>
              <P>
                <E T="03">Example 2.</E>A, a member of an accounting firm, is conducting an audit of M Corporation, and B, a member of the same accounting firm, prepares an income tax return for D, an officer of M. In the course of preparing the return, B obtains information from D indicating that D, pursuant to an arrangement with a supplier doing business with M, has been receiving from the supplier a percentage of the amounts that the supplier invoices to M. B discloses this information to A who, acting upon it, searches in the course of the audit for indications of a kickback scheme. As a result, A discovers information from audit sources that independently indicate the existence of a kickback scheme. Without revealing the tax return information A has received from B, A brings to the attention of officers of M the audit information indicating the existence of the kickback scheme. Section 7216(a) and § 301.7216-1 do not apply to B's disclosure of D's tax return information to A, A's use of D's information in the course of the audit, and A's disclosure to M of the audit information indicating the existence of the kickback scheme. Section 7216(a) and § 301.7216-1 would apply to a disclosure to M, or to any other person not an employee or member of the accounting firm, of D's tax return information furnished to B.</P>
              
            </EXTRACT>
            <P>(i)<E T="03">Corporate fiduciaries.</E>A trust company, trust department of a bank, or other corporate fiduciary that prepares a tax return for a taxpayer for whom it renders fiduciary, investment, or other custodial or management services may, unless the taxpayer directs otherwise—</P>
            <P>(1) Disclose or use the taxpayer's tax return information in the ordinary course of rendering such services to or for the taxpayer; or</P>
            <P>(2) Make the information available to the taxpayer's attorney, accountant, or investment advisor.</P>
            <P>(j)<E T="03">Disclosure to taxpayer's fiduciary.</E>If, after furnishing tax return information to a tax return preparer, the taxpayer dies or becomes incompetent, insolvent, or bankrupt, or the taxpayer's assets are placed in conservatorship or receivership, the tax return preparer may disclose the information to the duly appointed fiduciary of the taxpayer or his estate, or to the duly authorized agent of the fiduciary.</P>
            <P>(k)<E T="03">Disclosure or use of information in preparation or audit of State or local tax returns or assisting a taxpayer with foreign country tax obligations.</E>The provisions of paragraphs (c) and (d) of this section shall apply to the disclosure by any tax return preparer of any tax return information in the preparation of, or in connection with the preparation of, any tax return of the taxpayer under the law of any State or political subdivision thereof, of the District of Columbia, of any territory or possession of the United States, or of a country other than the United States. The provisions of section 7216(a) and § 301.7216-1 shall not apply to the use by any tax return preparer of any tax return information in the preparation of, or in connection with the preparation of, any tax return of the taxpayer under the law of any State or political subdivision thereof, of the District of Columbia, of any territory or possession of the United States, or of a country other than the United States. The provisions of section 7216(a) and § 301.7216-1 shall not apply to the disclosure or use by any tax return preparer of any tax return information in the audit of, or in connection with the audit of, any tax return of the taxpayer under the law of any State or political subdivision thereof, the District of Columbia, or any territory or possession of the United States.</P>
            <P>(l)<E T="03">Payment for tax preparation services.</E>A tax return preparer may use and disclose, without the taxpayer's written consent, tax return information that the taxpayer provides to the tax return preparer to pay for tax preparation services to the extent necessary to process or collect the payment. For example, if the taxpayer gives the tax return preparer a credit card to pay for tax preparation services, the tax return preparer may disclose the taxpayer's name, credit card number, credit card expiration date, and amount due for tax preparation services to the credit card company, as necessary, to process the payment. Any tax return information that the taxpayer did not give the tax return preparer for the purpose of making payment for tax preparation services may not be used or disclosed by the tax return preparer without the taxpayer's prior written consent, unless otherwise permitted under another provision of this section.</P>
            <P>(m)<E T="03">Retention of records.</E>A tax return preparer may retain tax return information of a taxpayer, including copies of tax returns, in paper or electronic format, prepared on the basis of the tax return information, and may use the information in connection with the preparation of other tax returns of the taxpayer or in connection with an examination by the Internal Revenue Service of any tax return or subsequent tax litigation relating to the tax return. The provisions of paragraph (n) of this section regarding the transfer of a taxpayer list also apply to the transfer of any records and related papers to which this paragraph applies.</P>
            <P>(n)<E T="03">Lists for solicitation of tax return business.</E>A tax return preparer may compile and maintain a separate list containing solely the names, addresses, e-mail addresses, and phone numbers of taxpayers whose tax returns the tax return preparer has prepared or processed. This list may be used by the compiler solely to contact the taxpayers on the list for the purpose of offering tax information or additional tax return preparation services to such taxpayers. The compiler of the list may not transfer the taxpayer list, or any part thereof, to any other person unless the transfer takes place in conjunction with the sale or other disposition of the compiler's tax return preparation business. A person who acquires a taxpayer list, or a part thereof, in conjunction with a sale or other disposition of a tax return preparation business is subject to the provisions of this paragraph with respect to the list. The term<E T="03">list,</E>as used in this paragraph (n), includes any record or system whereby the names and addresses of taxpayers are retained. The provisions of this paragraph (n) also apply to the transfer of any records and<PRTPAGE P="1073"/>related papers to which this paragraph (n) applies.</P>
            <P>(o)<E T="03">Producing statistical information in connection with tax return preparation business.</E>A tax return preparer may use, for the limited purpose specified in this paragraph (o), tax return information to produce a statistical compilation of data described in § 301.7216-1(b)(3)(i)(B). The purpose and use of the statistical compilation must relate directly to the internal management or support of the tax return preparer's tax return preparation business. The tax return preparer may not disclose or use the tax return information in connection with, or in support of, businesses other than tax return preparation. The compiler of the statistical compilation may not disclose the compilation, or any part thereof, to any other person unless disclosure of the statistical compilation is made in order to comply with financial accounting or regulatory reporting requirements or occurs in conjunction with the sale or other disposition of the compiler's tax return preparation business. A person who acquires a compilation, or a part thereof, in conjunction with a sale or other disposition of a tax return preparation business is subject to the provisions of this paragraph (o) with respect to the compilation as if the acquiring person had compiled it.</P>
            <P>(p)<E T="03">Disclosure or use of information for quality or peer reviews.</E>The provisions of section 7216(a) and § 301.7216-1 shall not apply to any disclosure for the purpose of a quality or peer review to the extent necessary to accomplish the review. A quality or peer review is a review that is undertaken to evaluate, monitor, and improve the quality and accuracy of a tax return preparer's tax preparation, accounting, or auditing services. A quality or peer review may be conducted only by attorneys, certified public accountants, enrolled agents, and enrolled actuaries who are eligible to practice before the Internal Revenue Service. See Department of the Treasury Circular 230, 31 CFR part 10. Tax return information may also be disclosed to persons who provide administrative or support services to an individual who is conducting a quality or peer review under this paragraph (p), but only to the extent necessary for the reviewer to conduct the review. Tax return information gathered in conducting a review may be used only for purposes of a review. No tax return information identifying a taxpayer may be disclosed in any evaluative reports or recommendations that may be accessible to any person other than the reviewer or the tax return preparer being reviewed. The tax return preparer being reviewed will maintain a record of the review including the information reviewed and the identity of the persons conducting the review. After completion of the review, no documents containing information that may identify any taxpayer by name or identification number may be retained by a reviewer or by the reviewer's administrative or support personnel. Any person (including administrative and support personnel) receiving tax return information in connection with a quality or peer review is a tax return preparer for purposes of sections 7216(a) and 6713(a).</P>
            <P>(q)<E T="03">Disclosure to report the commission of a crime.</E>The provisions of section 7216(a) and § 301.7216-1 shall not apply to the disclosure of any tax return information to the proper Federal, State, or local official in order, and to the extent necessary, to inform the official of activities that may constitute, or may have constituted, a violation of any criminal law or to assist the official in investigating or prosecuting a violation of criminal law. A disclosure made in the bona fide but mistaken belief that the activities constituted a violation of criminal law is not subject to section 7216(a) and § 301.7216-1.</P>
            <P>(r)<E T="03">Disclosure of tax return information due to a tax return preparer's incapacity or death.</E>In the event of incapacity or death of a tax return preparer, disclosure of tax return information may be made for the purpose of assisting the tax return preparer or his legal representative (or the representative of a deceased tax return preparer's estate) in operating the business. Any person receiving tax return information under the provisions of this paragraph (r) is a tax return preparer for purposes of sections 7216(a) and 6713(a).</P>
            <P>(s)<E T="03">Effective/applicability date</E>. This section applies to disclosures or uses of tax return information occurring on or after January 1, 2009.</P>
          </SECTION>
        </REGTEXT>
        
        <REGTEXT PART="301" TITLE="26">
          <AMDPAR>
            <E T="04">Par. 5.</E>Section 301.7216-3 is revised to read as follows:</AMDPAR>
          <SECTION>
            <SECTNO>§ 301.7216-3</SECTNO>
            <SUBJECT>Disclosure or use permitted only with the taxpayer's consent.</SUBJECT>
            <P>(a)<E T="03">In general</E>—(1)<E T="03">Taxpayer consent.</E>Unless section 7216 or § 301.7216-2 specifically authorizes the disclosure or use of tax return information, a tax return preparer may not disclose or use a taxpayer's tax return information prior to obtaining a written consent from the taxpayer, as described in this section. A tax return preparer may disclose or use tax return information as the taxpayer directs as long as the preparer obtains a written consent from the taxpayer as provided in this section. The consent must be knowing and voluntary. Except as provided in paragraph (a)(2) of this section, conditioning the provision of any services on the taxpayer's furnishing consent will make the consent involuntary, and the consent will not satisfy the requirements of this section.</P>
            <P>(2)<E T="03">Taxpayer consent to a tax return preparer furnishing tax return information to another tax return preparer.</E>(i) A tax return preparer may condition its provision of preparation services upon a taxpayer's consenting to disclosure of the taxpayer's tax return information to another tax return preparer for the purpose of performing services that assist in the preparation of, or provide auxiliary services in connection with the preparation of, the tax return of the taxpayer.</P>
            <P>(ii)<E T="03">Example.</E>The application of this paragraph (a)(2) may be illustrated by the following example:</P>
            
            <EXAMPLE>
              <HD SOURCE="HED">Example.</HD>
              <P>Preparer P, who is located within the United States, is retained by Company C to provide tax return preparation services for employees of Company C. An employee of Company C, Employee E, works for C outside of the United States. To provide tax return preparation services for E, P requires the assistance of and needs to disclose E's tax return information to a tax return preparer who works for P's affiliate located in the country where E works. P may condition its provision of tax return preparation services upon E consenting to the disclosure of E's tax return information to the tax return preparer in the country where E works.</P>
            </EXAMPLE>
            
            <P>(3)<E T="03">The form and contents of taxpayer consents</E>—(i)<E T="03">In general.</E>All consents to disclose or use tax return information must satisfy the following requirements—</P>
            <P>(A) A taxpayer's consent to a tax return preparer's disclosure or use of tax return information must include the name of the tax return preparer and the name of the taxpayer.</P>

            <P>(B) If a taxpayer consents to a disclosure of tax return information, the consent must identify the intended purpose of the disclosure. Except as provided in § 301.7216-3(a)(3)(iii), if a taxpayer consents to a disclosure of tax return information, the consent must also identify the specific recipient (or recipients) of the tax return information. If the taxpayer consents to use of tax return information, the consent must describe the particular use authorized. For example, if the tax return preparer intends to use tax return information to generate solicitations for products or services other than tax return<PRTPAGE P="1074"/>preparation, the consent must identify each specific type of product or service for which the tax return preparer may solicit use of the tax return information. Examples of products or services that must be identified include, but are not limited to, balance due loans, mortgage loans, mutual funds, individual retirement accounts, and life insurance.</P>
            <P>(C) The consent must specify the tax return information to be disclosed or used by the return preparer.</P>
            <P>(D) If a tax return preparer to whom the tax return information is to be disclosed is located outside of the United States, the taxpayer's consent under § 301.7216-3 prior to any disclosure is required. See § 301.7216-2(c) and (d).</P>
            <P>(E) A consent to disclose or use tax return information must be signed and dated by the taxpayer.</P>
            <P>(ii)<E T="03">The form and contents of taxpayer consents with respect to taxpayers filing a return in the Form 1040 series—guidance describing additional requirements for taxpayer consents with respect to Form 1040 series filers.</E>The Secretary may issue guidance, by publication in the Internal Revenue Bulletin (see § 601.601(d)(2)(ii)(b) of this chapter), describing additional requirements for tax return preparers regarding the format and content of consents to disclose and use tax return information with respect to taxpayers filing a return in the Form 1040 series,<E T="03">e.g.</E>, Form 1040, Form 1040NR, Form 1040A, or Form 1040EZ.</P>
            <P>(iii)<E T="03">The form and contents of taxpayer consents with respect to all other taxpayers.</E>A consent to disclose or use tax return information with respect to a taxpayer not filing a return in the Form 1040 series may be in any format, including an engagement letter to a client, as long as the consent complies with the requirements of § 301.7216-3(a)(3)(i). Additionally, the requirements of § 301.7216-3(c)(1) are inapplicable to consents to disclose or use tax return information with respect to taxpayers not filing a return in the Form 1040 series. Solely for purposes of a consent issued under § 301.7216-3(a)(3)(iii), in lieu of identifying specific recipients of an intended disclosure under § 301.7216-3(a)(3)(i)(B), a consent may allow disclosure to a descriptive class of entities engaged by a taxpayer or the taxpayer's affiliate for purposes of services in connection with the preparation of tax returns, audited financial statements, or other financial statements or financial information as required by a government authority, municipality or regulatory body.</P>
            <P>(iv)<E T="03">Examples.</E>The application of § 301.7216-3(a)(3)(iii) may be illustrated by the following examples:</P>
            
            <EXAMPLE>
              <HD SOURCE="HED">Example 1.</HD>
              <P>Consistent with applicable legal and ethical responsibilities, Preparer Z sends its client, a corporation, Taxpayer C, an engagement letter. Part of the engagement letter requests the consent of Taxpayer C for the purpose of disclosing tax return information to an investment banking firm to assist the investment banking firm in securing long term financing for Taxpayer C. The engagement letter includes language and information that meets the requirements of § 301.7216-3(a)(3)(i), including: (I) Preparer Z's name, Taxpayer C's name, and a signature and date line for Taxpayer C; and (II) a statement that “Taxpayer C authorizes Preparer Z to disclose the portions of Taxpayer C's 2009 tax return information to the firm retained by Taxpayer C necessary for the purposes of assisting Taxpayer C secure long term financing.” The engagement letter satisfies the requirements of § 301.7216-3(a)(3) for the disclosure of the information provided therein for the specific purpose stated.</P>
            </EXAMPLE>
            <EXAMPLE>
              <HD SOURCE="HED">Example 2.</HD>
              <P>Consistent with applicable legal and ethical responsibilities, Preparer N sends its client, a corporation, Taxpayer D, an engagement letter. Part of the engagement letter requests the consent of Taxpayer D for the purpose of disclosing tax return information to Preparer N's affiliated firms located outside of the United States for the purposes of preparation of Taxpayer D's 2009 tax return”. The engagement letter includes language and information that meets the requirements of § 301.7216-3(a)(3)(i), including: (I) Preparer N's name, Taxpayer D's name, and a signature and date line for Taxpayer D; (II) a statement that “Taxpayer D authorizes Preparer N to disclose Taxpayer D's 2009 tax return information to Preparer N's affiliates located outside of the United States for the purposes of assisting Preparer N prepare Taxpayer D's 2009 tax return”; and (III) a statement that, in providing consent, Taxpayer D acknowledges that its tax return information for 2009 will be disclosed to tax return preparers located abroad. The engagement letter satisfies the requirements of § 301.7216-3(a)(3) for the disclosure of the information provided therein for the specific purpose stated.</P>
            </EXAMPLE>
            
            <P>(b)<E T="03">Timing requirements and limitations</E>—(1)<E T="03">No retroactive consent.</E>A taxpayer must provide written consent before a tax return preparer discloses or uses the taxpayer's tax return information.</P>
            <P>(2)<E T="03">Time limitations on requesting consent in solicitation context.</E>A tax return preparer may not request a taxpayer's consent to disclose or use tax return information for purposes of solicitation of business unrelated to tax return preparation after the tax return preparer provides a completed tax return to the taxpayer for signature.</P>
            <P>(3)<E T="03">No requests for consent after an unsuccessful request.</E>With regard to tax return information for each income tax return that a tax return preparer prepares, if a taxpayer declines a request for consent to the disclosure or use of tax return information for purposes of solicitation of business unrelated to tax return preparation, the tax return preparer may not solicit from the taxpayer another consent for a purpose substantially similar to that of the rejected request.</P>
            <P>(4)<E T="03">No consent to the disclosure of a taxpayer's social security number to a return preparer outside of the United States.</E>A tax return preparer located within the United States, including any territory or possession of the United States, may not obtain consent to disclose the taxpayer's social security number (SSN) to a tax return preparer located outside of the United States or any territory or possession of the United States. Thus, if a tax return preparer located within the United States (including any territory or possession of the United States) obtains consent from a taxpayer to disclose tax return information to another tax return preparer located outside of the United States, as provided under §§ 301.7216-2(c) and 301.7216-2(d), the tax return preparer located in the United States may not disclose the taxpayer's SSN, and the tax return preparer must redact or otherwise mask the taxpayer's SSN before the tax return information is disclosed outside of the United States. If a tax return preparer located within the United States initially receives or obtains a taxpayer's SSN from another tax return preparer located outside of the United States, however, the tax return preparer within the United States may, without consent, retransmit the taxpayer's SSN to the tax return preparer located outside the United States that initially provided the SSN to the tax return preparer located within the United States.</P>
            <P>(5)<E T="03">Duration of consent.</E>A consent document may specify the duration of the taxpayer's consent to the disclosure or use of tax return information. If a consent agreed to by the taxpayer does not specify the duration of the consent, the consent to the disclosure or use of tax return information will be effective for a period of one year from the date the taxpayer signed the consent.</P>
            <P>(c)<E T="03">Special rules</E>—(1)<E T="03">Multiple disclosures within a single consent form or multiple uses within a single consent form.</E>A taxpayer may consent to multiple uses within the same written document, or multiple disclosures within the same written document. A single written document, however, cannot authorize both uses and disclosures; rather one written document must authorize the uses and<PRTPAGE P="1075"/>another separate written document must authorize the disclosures. Furthermore, a consent that authorizes multiple disclosures or multiple uses must specifically and separately identify each disclosure or use. See § 301.7216-3(a)(3)(iii) for an exception to this rule for certain taxpayers.</P>
            <P>(2)<E T="03">Disclosure of entire return.</E>A consent may authorize the disclosure of all information contained within a return. A consent authorizing the disclosure of an entire return must provide that the taxpayer has the ability to request a more limited disclosure of tax return information as the taxpayer may direct.</P>
            <P>(3)<E T="03">Copy of consent must be provided to taxpayer.</E>The tax return preparer must provide a copy of the executed consent to the taxpayer at the time of execution. The requirements of this paragraph (c)(3) may also be satisfied by giving the taxpayer the opportunity, at the time of executing the consent, to print the completed consent or save it in electronic form.</P>
            <P>(d)<E T="03">Effective/applicability date.</E>This section applies to disclosures or uses of tax return information occurring on or after January 1, 2009.</P>
          </SECTION>
        </REGTEXT>
        <SIG>
          <NAME>Linda E. Stiff,</NAME>
          <TITLE>Deputy Commissioner for Services and Enforcement.</TITLE>
          <DATED>Approved: December 21, 2007.</DATED>
          <NAME>Eric Solomon,</NAME>
          <TITLE>Assistant Secretary of the Treasury (Tax Policy).</TITLE>
        </SIG>
      </SUPLINF>
      <FRDOC>[FR Doc. 08-1 Filed 1-3-08; 8:58 am]</FRDOC>
      <BILCOD>BILLING CODE 4830-01-P</BILCOD>
    </RULE>
    <RULE>
      <PREAMB>
        <AGENCY TYPE="N">DEPARTMENT OF VETERANS AFFAIRS</AGENCY>
        <CFR>38 CFR Part 3</CFR>
        <RIN>RIN 2900-AM72</RIN>
        <SUBJECT>Dependents' Educational Assistance</SUBJECT>
        <AGY>
          <HD SOURCE="HED">AGENCY:</HD>
          <P>Department of Veterans Affairs.</P>
        </AGY>
        <ACT>
          <HD SOURCE="HED">ACTION:</HD>
          <P>Final rule.</P>
        </ACT>
        <SUM>
          <HD SOURCE="HED">SUMMARY:</HD>
          <P>This document amends the Department of Veterans Affairs (VA) regulation regarding dependents' educational assistance. A recent statutory change provides eligibility for dependents' educational assistance for dependents of servicepersons who meet certain criteria. This final rule is necessary to incorporate statutory amendments into VA regulations.</P>
        </SUM>
        <EFFDATE>
          <HD SOURCE="HED">DATES:</HD>
          <P>
            <E T="03">Effective Date:</E>This final rule is effective January 7, 2008.</P>
          <P>
            <E T="03">Applicability Date:</E>In accordance with statutory provisions, the amendment in this final rule will be applied retroactively. The amendment to 38 CFR 3.807 is applicable for a course of education pursued after December 22, 2006.</P>
        </EFFDATE>
        <FURINF>
          <HD SOURCE="HED">FOR FURTHER INFORMATION CONTACT:</HD>
          <P>Maya Ferrandino, Regulations Staff (211D), Compensation and Pension Service, Veterans Benefits Administration, Department of Veterans Affairs, 810 Vermont Avenue, NW., Washington, DC 20420, (202) 273-7210. (This is not a toll-free number.)</P>
        </FURINF>
      </PREAMB>
      <SUPLINF>
        <HD SOURCE="HED">SUPPLEMENTARY INFORMATION:</HD>
        <P>Section 301 of the Veterans Benefits, Health Care, and Information Technology Act of 2006, Public Law 109-461, amended the basic eligibility criteria for dependents' educational assistance (DEA) in 38 U.S.C. 3501(a). Under prior law, spouses and children of servicemembers missing in action, captured in the line of duty by a hostile force, or forcibly detained or interned in the line of duty by a foreign government or power had eligibility for DEA. The amendments expand eligibility, for pursuit of a course of education that occurs after December 22, 2006, to include spouses and children of servicemembers receiving treatment for permanent and total disability incurred in the line of duty and likely to result in discharge or release from service.</P>
        <P>VA's DEA regulations, specifically 38 CFR 3.807(a)(5), restate the statutory basic eligibility criteria for spouses and children of servicemembers. Accordingly, we are amending that provision, consistent with the amendments to section 3501(a), to clarify that spouses and children of certain permanently and totally disabled servicemembers are eligible for DEA for pursuit of a course of education that occurs after December 22, 2006.</P>
        <HD SOURCE="HD1">Administrative Procedures Act</HD>
        <P>Substantive changes made by this final rule merely reflect statutory requirements. Accordingly, there is a basis for dispensing with prior notice and comment and a delayed effective date under the provisions of 5 U.S.C. 553. Use of those procedures would be impracticable, unnecessary, and contrary to the public interest.</P>
        <HD SOURCE="HD1">Paperwork Reduction Act</HD>
        <P>This document contains no provisions constituting a new collection of information under the Paperwork Reduction Act of 1995 (44 U.S.C. 3501-3521).</P>
        <P>The Office of Management and Budget (OMB) assigns a control number for each collection of information it approves. VA may not conduct or sponsor, and a person is not required to respond to, a collection of information unless it displays a currently valid OMB control number.</P>
        <P>In § 3.807 (concerning certification of basic eligibility for dependents' educational assistance), the final rule amends provisions concerning information collection requirements that are currently approved by OMB under the following control numbers: 2900-0049 (VA Form 21-674, Request for Approval of School Attendance), 2900-0098 (VA Form 22-5490, Application for Survivors' and Dependents' Educational Assistance), 2900-0099 (VA Form 22-5495, Request for Change of Program or Place of Training Survivors' and Dependents' Educational Assistance).</P>
        <HD SOURCE="HD1">Regulatory Flexibility Act</HD>
        <P>The initial and final regulatory flexibility analysis requirements of sections 603 and 604 of the Regulatory Flexibility Act, 5 U.S.C. 601-612, are not applicable to this rule because a notice of proposed rulemaking is not required for this rule. Even so, the Secretary of Veterans Affairs hereby certifies that this final rule will not have a significant economic impact on a substantial number of small entities as they are defined in the Regulatory Flexibility Act. This final rule would not affect any small entities. Only individual VA beneficiaries would be directly affected. Therefore, pursuant to 5 U.S.C. 605(b), this final rule is also exempt from the regulatory flexibility analysis requirements of sections 603 and 604.</P>
        <HD SOURCE="HD1">Executive Order 12866</HD>

        <P>Executive Order 12866 directs agencies to assess all costs and benefits of available regulatory alternatives and, when regulation is necessary, to select regulatory approaches that maximize net benefits (including potential economic, environmental, public health and safety, and other advantages; distributive impacts; and equity). The Executive Order classifies a “significant regulatory action,” requiring review by OMB unless OMB waives such review, as any regulatory action that is likely to result in a rule that may: (1) Have an annual effect on the economy of $100 million or more or adversely affect in a material way the economy, a sector of the economy, productivity, competition, jobs, the environment, public health or safety, or State, local, or tribal governments or communities; (2) create a serious inconsistency or otherwise interfere with an action taken or planned by another agency; (3) materially alter the budgetary impact of entitlements, grants, user fees, or loan<PRTPAGE P="1076"/>programs or the rights and obligations of recipients thereof; or (4) raise novel legal or policy issues arising out of legal mandates, the President's priorities, or the principles set forth in the Executive Order.</P>
        <P>The economic, interagency, budgetary, legal, and policy implications of this final rule have been examined and it has been determined not to be a significant regulatory action under Executive Order 12866.</P>
        <HD SOURCE="HD1">Unfunded Mandates</HD>
        <P>The Unfunded Mandates Reform Act of 1995, codified at 2 U.S.C. 1532, requires agencies to prepare an assessment of anticipated costs and benefits before issuing any rule that may result in the expenditure by State, local, and tribal governments, in the aggregate, or by the private sector, of $100 million or more (adjusted annually for inflation) in any year. This final rule would have no such effect on State, local, and tribal governments, or on the private sector.</P>
        <HD SOURCE="HD1">Catalog of Federal Domestic Assistance Numbers and Titles</HD>
        <P>The Catalog of Federal Domestic Assistance program number and title for this rule is 64.117, Survivors and Dependents Educational Assistance.</P>
        <LSTSUB>
          <HD SOURCE="HED">List of Subjects in 38 CFR Part 3</HD>
          <P>Administrative practice and procedure, Claims, Disability benefits, Health care, Pensions, Radioactive materials, Veterans, Vietnam.</P>
        </LSTSUB>
        <SIG>
          <DATED>Approved: November 16, 2007.</DATED>
          <NAME>Gordon H. Mansfield,</NAME>
          <TITLE>Acting Secretary of Veterans Affairs.</TITLE>
        </SIG>
        <REGTEXT PART="3" TITLE="38">
          <AMDPAR>For the reasons stated in the preamble, the Department of Veterans Affairs amends 38 CFR part 3 as set forth below:</AMDPAR>
          <PART>
            <HD SOURCE="HED">PART 3—ADJUDICATION</HD>
            <SUBPART>
              <HD SOURCE="HED">Subpart A—Pension, Compensation, and Dependency and Indemnity Compensation</HD>
            </SUBPART>
          </PART>
          <AMDPAR>1. The authority citation for part 3, subpart A continues to read as follows:</AMDPAR>
          <AUTH>
            <HD SOURCE="HED">Authority:</HD>
            <P>38 U.S.C. 501(a), unless otherwise noted.</P>
          </AUTH>
        </REGTEXT>
        <REGTEXT PART="3" TITLE="38">
          <AMDPAR>2. Revise § 3.807(a)(5) to read as follows:</AMDPAR>
          <SECTION>
            <SECTNO>§ 3.807</SECTNO>
            <SUBJECT>Dependents' educational assistance; certification.</SUBJECT>
            <STARS/>
            <P>(a) * * *</P>
            <P>(5) Is on active duty as a member of the Armed Forces and</P>
            <P>(i) Now is, and, for a period of more than 90 days, has been listed by the Secretary concerned as missing in action, captured in line of duty by a hostile force, or forcibly detained or interned in line of duty by a foreign Government or power; or</P>
            <P>(ii) Has been determined by VA to have a total disability permanent in nature incurred or aggravated in the line of duty during active military, naval, or air service; is hospitalized or receiving outpatient medical care, services, or treatment for such disability; is likely to be discharged or released from such service for such disability; and the pursuit of a course of education by such individual's spouse or child for which benefits under 38 U.S.C. chapter 35 are sought occurred after December 22, 2006.</P>
            <STARS/>
          </SECTION>
        </REGTEXT>8</SUPLINF>
      <FRDOC>[FR Doc. E7-25657 Filed 1-4-08; 8:45 am]</FRDOC>
      <BILCOD>BILLING CODE 8320-01-P</BILCOD>
    </RULE>
    <RULE>
      <PREAMB>
        <AGENCY TYPE="S">DEPARTMENT OF VETERANS AFFAIRS</AGENCY>
        <CFR>38 CFR Part 21</CFR>
        <RIN>RIN 2900-AM80</RIN>
        <SUBJECT>Education: Approval of Accredited Courses for VA Education Benefits</SUBJECT>
        <AGY>
          <HD SOURCE="HED">AGENCY:</HD>
          <P>Department of Veterans Affairs.</P>
        </AGY>
        <ACT>
          <HD SOURCE="HED">ACTION:</HD>
          <P>Final rule.</P>
        </ACT>
        <SUM>
          <HD SOURCE="HED">SUMMARY:</HD>
          <P>This document amends regulations governing aspects of educational assistance programs administered by the Department of Veterans Affairs (VA) to remove a requirement that had mirrored a former statutory requirement. This final rule reflects a statutory amendment that removed the statutory requirement that educational institutions offering accredited courses must notify VA and the student using VA education benefits of the amount of credit granted for the student's prior education and training.</P>
        </SUM>
        <EFFDATE>
          <HD SOURCE="HED">DATES:</HD>
          <P>
            <E T="03">Effective Date:</E>This final rule is effective January 7, 2008.</P>
        </EFFDATE>
        <FURINF>
          <HD SOURCE="HED">FOR FURTHER INFORMATION CONTACT:</HD>
          <P>Devon E. Seibert, Management and Program Analyst, Education Service, Veterans Benefits Administration, Department of Veterans Affairs (225C), 810 Vermont Avenue, NW., Washington, DC 20420, (202) 461-9837. (This is not a toll-free telephone number.)</P>
        </FURINF>
      </PREAMB>
      <SUPLINF>
        <HD SOURCE="HED">SUPPLEMENTARY INFORMATION:</HD>
        <P>This document amends VA regulations set forth in 38 CFR part 21 concerning approval criteria for payment under education programs administered by VA for accredited courses of education. Specifically, it removes a requirement from 38 CFR 21.4253(d)(3) that had mirrored a statutory requirement. On October 9, 1996, section 103(c) of the Veterans' Benefits Improvements Act of 1996 (Pub. L. 104-275) removed the requirement in 38 U.S.C. 3675(b) that had required institutions offering accredited courses to notify VA and the student using VA education benefits of the amount of credit granted for a student's prior education and training.</P>
        <P>A similar statutory requirement, in 38 U.S.C. 3676(c)(4), imposing the same reporting requirement for institutions offering non-accredited courses, was not removed by Pub. L. 104-275 and still remains in effect. When Pub. L. 104-275 was enacted, VA had no administratively efficient way to distinguish between the enrollment certifications submitted by institutions offering accredited courses and non-accredited courses. Consequently, retaining in VA regulations the same reporting requirement for educational institutions offering accredited or non-accredited courses assisted VA in being able to monitor compliance by institutions offering non-accredited courses.</P>
        <P>However, distinguishing between accredited and non-accredited course enrollments is now administratively feasible for VA. Because we now have the means to make this distinction, we are amending § 21.4253(d)(3) to remove the notification requirements for institutions offering accredited courses.</P>
        <HD SOURCE="HD1">Administrative Procedure Act</HD>
        <P>This document is being published without regard to the notice-and-comment and delayed-effective-date provisions of 5 U.S.C. 553(b) and (d) since it merely changes an interpretive rule to reflect a statutory amendment, by removing language that had mirrored the former statutory requirement.</P>
        <HD SOURCE="HD1">Paperwork Reduction Act of 1995</HD>
        <P>This final rule contains no provisions constituting a new collection of information under the Paperwork Reduction Act of 1995 (44 U.S.C. 3501-3521).</P>
        <HD SOURCE="HD1">Unfunded Mandates</HD>

        <P>The Unfunded Mandates Reform Act of 1995 requires, at 2 U.S.C. 1532, that agencies prepare an assessment of anticipated costs and benefits before issuing any rule that may result in an expenditure by State, local, and tribal governments, in the aggregate, or by the private sector, of $100 million or more (adjusted annually for inflation) in any given year. This final rule will have no such effect on State, local, and tribal governments, or on the private sector.<PRTPAGE P="1077"/>
        </P>
        <HD SOURCE="HD1">Executive Order 12866</HD>
        <P>Executive Order 12866 directs agencies to assess all costs and benefits of available regulatory alternatives and, when regulation is necessary, to select regulatory approaches that maximize net benefits (including potential economic, environmental, public health and safety, and other advantages; distributive impacts; and equity). The Executive Order classifies a “significant regulatory action,” requiring review by OMB unless OMB waives such review, as any regulatory action that is likely to result in a rule that may: (1) Have an annual effect on the economy of $100 million or more or adversely affect in a material way the economy, a sector of the economy, productivity, competition, jobs, the environment, public health or safety, or State, local, or tribal governments or communities; (2) create a serious inconsistency or otherwise interfere with an action taken or planned by another agency; (3) materially alter the budgetary impact of entitlements, grants, user fees, or loan programs or the rights and obligations of recipients thereof; or (4) raise novel legal or policy issues arising out of legal mandates, the President's priorities, or the principles set forth in the Executive Order.</P>
        <P>The economic, interagency, budgetary, legal, and policy implications of this final rule have been examined and it has been determined that it is not a significant regulatory action under the Executive Order because this rule merely reflects a statutory amendment by removing the regulatory requirement that had mirrored the language of the former statutory requirement.</P>
        <HD SOURCE="HD1">Regulatory Flexibility Act</HD>
        <P>The initial and final regulatory flexibility analysis requirements of sections 603 and 604 of the Regulatory Flexibility Act, 5 U.S.C. 601-612, are not applicable to this rule because a notice of proposed rulemaking is not required for this rule. Even so, the Secretary of Veterans Affairs hereby certifies that this final rule will not have a significant economic impact on a substantial number of small entities as they are defined in the Regulatory Flexibility Act. Any impact on the educational institutions affected by the rule that may be small entities would be minor for at least the reason that the rule merely removes from the regulations a requirement for reporting information that would still be required to be maintained by such educational institutions. Under 38 U.S.C. 3675(b), educational institutions offering accredited courses are still required to maintain written records of credit for prior education given to students using VA education benefits, with the training period shortened proportionately. This final rule is therefore also exempt pursuant to 5 U.S.C. 605(b) from the regulatory flexibility analysis requirements of sections 603 and 604.</P>
        <HD SOURCE="HD1">Catalog of Federal Domestic Assistance</HD>
        <P>The Catalog of Federal Domestic Assistance numbers and titles for the programs affected by this rule are 64.120, Post-Vietnam Era Veterans' Educational Assistance; 64.124, All-Volunteer Force Educational Assistance; and 64.117, Survivors and Dependents Educational Assistance.</P>
        <LSTSUB>
          <HD SOURCE="HED">List of Subjects in 38 CFR Part 21</HD>
          <P>Administrative practice and procedure, Armed forces, Civil rights, Claims, Colleges and universities, Conflict of interests, Education, Employment, Grant programs—education, Grant programs—veterans, Health care, Loan programs—education, Loan programs—veterans, Manpower training programs, Reporting and recordkeeping requirements, Schools, Travel and transportation expenses, Veterans, Vocational education, Vocational rehabilitation.</P>
        </LSTSUB>
        <SIG>
          <DATED>Approved: November 16, 2007.</DATED>
          <NAME>Gordon H. Mansfield,</NAME>
          <TITLE>Acting Secretary of Veterans Affairs.</TITLE>
        </SIG>
        <REGTEXT PART="21" TITLE="38">
          <AMDPAR>For the reasons set out in the preamble, the Department of Veterans Affairs amends 38 CFR part 21 (subpart D) as follows:</AMDPAR>
          <PART>
            <HD SOURCE="HED">PART 21—[AMENDED]</HD>
            <SUBPART>
              <HD SOURCE="HED">Subpart D—Administration of Educational Assistance Programs</HD>
            </SUBPART>
          </PART>
          <AMDPAR>1. The authority citation for part 21, subpart D continues to read as follows:</AMDPAR>
          <AUTH>
            <HD SOURCE="HED">Authority:</HD>
            <P>10 U.S.C. 2141 note, ch. 1606; 38 U.S.C. 501(a), chs. 30, 32, 34, 35, 36, and as noted in specific sections.</P>
          </AUTH>
        </REGTEXT>
        <REGTEXT PART="21" TITLE="38">
          <SECTION>
            <SECTNO>§ 21.4253</SECTNO>
            <SUBJECT>[Amended]</SUBJECT>
          </SECTION>
          <AMDPAR>2. Amend § 21.4253(d)(3) by removing “, and the person and the Department of Veterans Affairs so notified”.</AMDPAR>
        </REGTEXT>
        
      </SUPLINF>
      <FRDOC>[FR Doc. E7-25658 Filed 1-4-08; 8:45 am]</FRDOC>
      <BILCOD>BILLING CODE 8320-01-P</BILCOD>
    </RULE>
    <RULE>
      <PREAMB>
        <AGENCY TYPE="N">ENVIRONMENTAL PROTECTION AGENCY</AGENCY>
        <CFR>40 CFR Part 271</CFR>
        <DEPDOC>[Docket No. EPA-R05-RCRA-2007-0722; FRL-8514-1]</DEPDOC>
        <SUBJECT>Michigan: Final Authorization of State Hazardous Waste Management Program Revision</SUBJECT>
        <AGY>
          <HD SOURCE="HED">AGENCY:</HD>
          <P>Environmental Protection Agency (EPA).</P>
        </AGY>
        <ACT>
          <HD SOURCE="HED">ACTION:</HD>
          <P>Final rule.</P>
        </ACT>
        <SUM>
          <HD SOURCE="HED">SUMMARY:</HD>
          <P>EPA is granting Michigan final authorization of the changes to its hazardous waste program under the Resource Conservation and Recovery Act (RCRA). EPA published a proposed rule on October 9, 2007 at 72 FR 57258 and provided for public comment. The public comment period ended on November 8, 2007. We received no comments. No further opportunity for comment will be provided. EPA has determined that these changes satisfy all requirements needed to qualify for final authorization and is authorizing the State's changes through this final action.</P>
        </SUM>
        <EFFDATE>
          <HD SOURCE="HED">DATES:</HD>
          <P>The final authorization will be effective on January 7, 2008.</P>
        </EFFDATE>
        <ADD>
          <HD SOURCE="HED">ADDRESSES:</HD>

          <P>EPA has established a docket for this action under Docket Identification No. EPA-R05-RCRA-2007-0722. All documents in the docket are listed in the<E T="03">http://www.regulations.gov</E>Web site index. Although listed in the index, some of the information is not publicly available, e.g., CBI or other information whose disclosure is restricted by statute. Certain other material, such as copyrighted material, will be publicly available only in hard copy. Publicly available docket materials are available either electronically in<E T="03">http://www.regulations.gov</E>or in hard copy. You may view and copy Michigan's application from 9 a.m. to 4 p.m. at the following addresses: Michigan Department of Environmental Quality, Waste and Hazardous Materials Division, Constitution Hall—Atrium North, 525 West Allegan Street, Lansing, Michigan (mailing address P.O. Box 30241, Lansing, Michigan 48909), contact Ronda Blayer, (517) 353-9548; and at EPA Region 5, contact Judy Greenberg at the following address.</P>
        </ADD>
        <FURINF>
          <HD SOURCE="HED">FOR FURTHER INFORMATION CONTACT:</HD>

          <P>Judy Greenberg, Michigan Regulatory Specialist, Land and Chemicals Division (LR-8J), EPA Region 5, 77 West Jackson Boulevard, Chicago, Illinois 60604, (312) 886-4179, e-mail:<E T="03">Greenberg.Judith@epa.gov.</E>
          </P>
        </FURINF>
      </PREAMB>
      <SUPLINF>
        <HD SOURCE="HED">SUPPLEMENTARY INFORMATION:<PRTPAGE P="1078"/>
        </HD>
        <HD SOURCE="HD1">A. Why are revisions to State programs necessary?</HD>
        <P>States which have received final authorization from EPA under RCRA section 3006(b), 42 U.S.C. 6926(b), must maintain a hazardous waste program that is equivalent to, consistent with, and no less stringent than the Federal program. As the Federal program changes, States must change their programs and ask EPA to authorize the changes. Changes to State programs may be necessary when Federal or State statutory or regulatory authority is modified or when certain other changes occur. Most commonly, States must change their programs because of changes to EPA's regulations in 40 Code of Federal Regulations (CFR) parts 124, 260 through 266, 268, 270, 273 and 279.</P>
        <HD SOURCE="HD1">B. What decisions have we made in this rule?</HD>
        <P>We conclude that Michigan's application to revise its authorized program meets all of the statutory and regulatory requirements established by RCRA. Therefore, we are granting Michigan final authorization to operate its hazardous waste program with the changes described in the authorization application. Michigan has responsibility for permitting Treatment, Storage, and Disposal Facilities (TSDFs) within its borders (except in Indian Country) and for carrying out the aspects of the RCRA program described in its revised program application, subject to the limitations of the Hazardous and Solid Waste Amendments of 1984 (HSWA). New Federal requirements and prohibitions imposed by Federal regulations that EPA promulgates under the authority of HSWA take effect in authorized States before they are authorized for the requirements. Thus, EPA will implement those requirements and prohibitions in Michigan, including issuing permits, until the State is granted authorization to do so.</P>
        <HD SOURCE="HD1">C. What is the effect of today's authorization decision?</HD>
        <P>The effect of this decision is that a facility in Michigan subject to RCRA will have to comply with the authorized State requirements instead of the equivalent Federal requirements in order to comply with RCRA. Michigan has enforcement responsibilities under its State hazardous waste program for violations of such program, but EPA retains its authority under RCRA sections 3007, 3008, 3013, and 7003, which include, among others, authority to:</P>
        <P>1. Do inspections, and require monitoring, tests, analyses or reports;</P>
        <P>2. Enforce RCRA requirements and suspend or revoke permits; and</P>
        <P>3. Take enforcement actions regardless of whether the State has taken its own actions.</P>
        <P>This action does not impose additional requirements on the regulated community because the regulations for which Michigan is being authorized by today's action are already effective and are not changed by today's action.</P>
        <HD SOURCE="HD1">D. Proposed Rule</HD>
        <P>On October 9, 2007 (72 FR 57258), EPA published a proposed rule. In that rule we proposed granting authorization of changes to Michigan's hazardous waste program and opened our decision to public comment. The Agency received no comments on this proposal. EPA has found Michigan's RCRA program to be satisfactory.</P>
        <HD SOURCE="HD1">E. What has Michigan previously been authorized for?</HD>
        <P>Michigan initially received final authorization on October 16, 1986, effective October 30, 1986 (51 FR 36804), to implement the RCRA hazardous waste management program. We granted authorization for changes to Michigan's program on November 24, 1989, effective January 23, 1990 (54 FR 48608); on April 23, 1991, effective June 24, 1991 (56 FR 18517); on October 1, 1993, effective November 30, 1993 (58 FR 51244); on January 13, 1995, effective January 13, 1995 (60 FR 3095); on February 8, 1996, effective April 8, 1996 (61 FR 4742); on November 14, 1997, effective November 14, 1997 (62 FR 61175); on March 2, 1999, effective June 1, 1999 (64 FR 10111); on July 31, 2002, effective July 31, 2002 (67 FR 49617); and on March 9, 2006, effective March 9, 2006 (71 FR 12141).</P>
        <HD SOURCE="HD1">F. What Changes are we authorizing with today's action?</HD>
        <P>On May 21, 2007, Michigan submitted a complete program revision application, seeking authorization of its changes in accordance with 40 CFR 271.21. We have determined that Michigan's hazardous waste program revision satisfies all of the requirements necessary to qualify for final authorization. Therefore, we are granting Michigan final authorization for the following program changes:</P>
        <GPOTABLE CDEF="s100,10,xs80,r100" COLS="4" OPTS="L2,tp0,i1">
          <TTITLE/>
          <BOXHD>
            <CHED H="1">Description of Federal requirement</CHED>
            <CHED H="1">Revision checklist<SU>1</SU>
            </CHED>
            <CHED H="1">
              <E T="02">Federal Register</E>
              <LI>date and page</LI>
            </CHED>
            <CHED H="1">Analogous State authority</CHED>
          </BOXHD>
          <ROW>
            <ENT I="01">Mineral Processing Secondary Materials Exclusion</ENT>
            <ENT>167D</ENT>
            <ENT>May 26, 1998, 63 FR 28556</ENT>
            <ENT>Michigan Administrative Code, R 299.9202(1)(b)(iii) and R 299.9204(1)(v), effective December 16, 2004.</ENT>
          </ROW>
          <ROW>
            <ENT I="01">NESHAP: Surface Coating of Automobiles and Light-Duty Trucks</ENT>
            <ENT>205</ENT>
            <ENT>April 26, 2004, 69 FR 22601</ENT>
            <ENT>Michigan Combined Laws, 324.11105a(1) and (2), effective December 29, 2006.<SU>2</SU>
            </ENT>
          </ROW>
          <TNOTE>

            <SU>1</SU>Revision Checklists generally reflect changes made the Federal regulations pursuant to a particular<E T="02">Federal Register</E>notice and EPA publishes these checklists as aids to states to use for the development of their authorization application.<E T="03">See</E>EPA's RCRA State Authorization Web Page at<E T="03">http://www.epa.gov/epaoswer/hazwaste/state/.</E>
          </TNOTE>
          <TNOTE>
            <SU>2</SU>The legislation we are authorizing contains a “sunset provision” by which the substantive requirements of the State legislation will lapse after a period of three years unless the legislature explicitly reauthorizes it. It is EPA's position that once program revisions are authorized, the substantive requirements of the legislation will remain federally enforceable and our authorization of the revised program will persist, until the State requests and receives authorization of superseding program revisions, despite any lapse in the legal effect or enforceability of statutory authority on the State level.</TNOTE>
        </GPOTABLE>
        <HD SOURCE="HD1">G. Where are the revised state rules different from the Federal rules?</HD>
        <P>These program revisions do not contain any State requirements that are considered to be more stringent or broader in scope than the analogous Federal requirements.</P>
        <HD SOURCE="HD1">H. Who handles permits after the authorization takes effect?</HD>

        <P>Michigan will issue permits for all the provisions for which it is authorized and will administer the permits it issues. EPA will continue to administer any RCRA hazardous waste permits or portions of permits which we issued prior to the effective date of this authorization until they expire or are terminated. EPA will not issue any more new permits or new portions of permits for the provisions listed in the Table above after the effective date of this authorization. EPA will continue to implement and issue permits for HSWA<PRTPAGE P="1079"/>requirements for which Michigan is not yet authorized.</P>
        <HD SOURCE="HD1">I. How does today's action affect Indian Country (18 U.S.C. 1151) in Michigan?</HD>
        <P>Michigan is not authorized to carry out its hazardous waste program in Indian country within the State, as defined in 18 U.S.C. 1151. This includes:</P>
        <P>1. All lands within the exterior boundaries of Indian reservations within the State of Michigan;</P>
        <P>2. Any land held in trust by the U.S. for an Indian tribe; and</P>
        <P>3. Any other land, whether on or off an Indian reservation that qualifies as Indian country.</P>

        <P>EPA will continue to implement and administer the RCRA program in Indian country. It is EPA's long-standing position that the term “Indian lands” used in past Michigan hazardous waste approvals is synonymous with the term “Indian country.”<E T="03">Washington Dep't of Ecology</E>v.<E T="03">U.S. EPA,</E>752 F.2d 1465, 1467, n.1 (9th Cir. 1985).<E T="03">See</E>40 CFR 144.3 and 258.2.</P>
        <HD SOURCE="HD1">J. What is codification and is EPA codifying Michigan's hazardous waste program as authorized in this rule?</HD>
        <P>Codification is the process of placing the State's statutes and regulations that comprise the State's authorized hazardous waste program into the Code of Federal Regulations. We do this by referencing the authorized State rules in 40 CFR part 272. Michigan's rules, up to and including those revised October 19, 1991, have previously been codified through incorporation-by-reference effective April 24, 1989 (54 FR 7421, February 21, 1989); as amended effective March 31, 1992 (57 FR 3724, January 31, 1992). We reserve the amendment of 40 CFR part 272, subpart X, for the codification of Michigan's program changes until a later date.</P>
        <HD SOURCE="HD1">K. Statutory and Executive Order Reviews</HD>
        <P>This rule only authorizes hazardous waste requirements pursuant to RCRA 3006 and imposes no requirements other than those imposed by State law (see Supplementary Information, Section A. Why are Revisions to State Programs Necessary?). Therefore this rule complies with applicable executive orders and statutory provisions as follows:</P>
        <HD SOURCE="HD2">1. Executive Order 18266: Regulatory Planning Review</HD>
        <P>The Office of Management and Budget has exempted this rule from its review under Executive Order 12866 (58 FR 51735, October 4, 1993).</P>
        <HD SOURCE="HD2">2. Paperwork Reduction Act</HD>
        <P>This rule does not impose an information collection burden under the provisions of the Paperwork Reduction Act of 1995 (44 U.S.C. 3501 et seq.).</P>
        <HD SOURCE="HD2">3. Regulatory Flexibility Act</HD>
        <P>After considering the economic impacts of today's rule on small entities under the Regulatory Flexibility Act (5 U.S.C. 601 et seq.), I certify that this rule will not have a significant economic impact on a substantial number of small entities.</P>
        <HD SOURCE="HD2">4. Unfunded Mandates Reform Act</HD>
        <P>Because this rule approves pre-existing requirements under State law and does not impose any additional enforceable duty beyond that required by State law, it does not contain any unfunded mandate or significantly or uniquely affect small governments, as described in the Unfunded Mandates Reform Act of 1995 (Pub. L. 104-4).</P>
        <HD SOURCE="HD2">5. Executive Order 13132: Federalism</HD>
        <P>Executive Order 13132 (64 FR 43255, August 10, 1999) does not apply to this rule because it will not have federalism implications (i.e., substantial direct effects on the States, on the relationship between the national government and the States, or on the distribution of power and responsibilities among the various levels of government).</P>
        <HD SOURCE="HD2">6. Executive Order 13175: Consultation and Coordination With Indian Tribal Governments</HD>
        <P>Executive Order 13175 (65 FR 67249, November 9, 2000) does not apply to this rule because it will not have tribal implications (i.e., substantial direct effects on one or more Indian tribes, on the relationship between the Federal Government and Indian tribes, or on the distribution of power and responsibilities between the Federal Government and Indian tribes.)</P>
        <HD SOURCE="HD2">7. Executive Order 13045: Protection of Children From Environmental Health and Safety Risks</HD>
        <P>This rule is not subject to Executive Order 13045 (62 FR 19885, April 23, 1997), because it is not economically significant as defined in Executive Order 12866 and because the EPA does not have reason to believe the environmental health or safety risks addressed by this action present a disproportionate risk to children.</P>
        <HD SOURCE="HD2">8. Executive Order 13211: Actions That Significantly Affect Energy Supply, Distribution, or Use</HD>
        <P>This rule is not subject to Executive Order 13211 (66 FR 28355, May 22, 2001), because it is not a significant regulatory action as defined in Executive Order 12866.</P>
        <HD SOURCE="HD2">9. National Technology Transfer Advancement Act</HD>
        <P>EPA approves State programs as long as they meet criteria required by RCRA, so it would be inconsistent with applicable law for EPA, in its review of a State program, to require the use of any particular voluntary consensus standard in place of another standard that meets requirements of RCRA. Thus, the requirements of section 12(d) of the National Technology Transfer and Advancement Act of 1995 (15 U.S.C. 272 note) do not apply to this rule.</P>
        <HD SOURCE="HD2">10. Executive Order 12988</HD>
        <P>As required by section 3 of Executive Order 12988 (61 FR 4729, February 7, 1996), in issuing this rule, EPA has taken the necessary steps to eliminate drafting errors and ambiguity, minimize potential litigation, and provide a clear legal standard for affected conduct.</P>
        <HD SOURCE="HD2">11. Executive Order 12630: Evaluation of Risk and Avoidance of Unanticipated Takings</HD>
        <P>EPA has complied with Executive Order 12630 (53 FR 8859, March 18, 1988) by examining the takings implications of the rule in accordance with the Attorney General's Supplemental Guidelines for the Evaluation of Risk and Avoidance of Unanticipated Takings issued under the executive order.</P>
        <HD SOURCE="HD2">12. Executive Order 12898: Federal Actions to Address Environmental Justice in Minority Populations and Low Income Populations</HD>
        <P>Because this rule authorizes pre-existing State rules and imposes no additional requirements beyond those imposed by State law and there are no anticipated significant adverse human health or environmental effects, the rule is not subject to Executive Order 12898 (59 FR 7629, February 16, 1994).</P>
        <HD SOURCE="HD2">13. Congressional Review Act</HD>

        <P>EPA will submit a report containing this rule and other information required by the Congressional Review Act (5 U.S.C. 801 et seq.) to the U.S. Senate, the U.S. House of Representatives, and the Comptroller General of the United States prior to publication in the<E T="04">Federal Register</E>. A major rule cannot take effect until 60 days after it is published in the<E T="04">Federal Register</E>. This action is not a “major rule” as defined by 5 U.S.C. 804(2).</P>
        <LSTSUB>
          <PRTPAGE P="1080"/>
          <HD SOURCE="HED">List of Subjects in 40 CFR Part 271</HD>
          <P>Environmental protection, Administrative practice and procedure, Confidential business information, Hazardous materials transportation, Hazardous waste, Indians—lands, Intergovernmental relations, Penalties, Reporting and recordkeeping requirements.</P>
        </LSTSUB>
        <AUTH>
          <HD SOURCE="HED">Authority:</HD>
          <P>This action is issued under the authority of sections 2002(a), 3006 and 7004(b) of the Solid Waste Disposal Act as amended 42 U.S.C. 6912(a), 6926, 6974(b).</P>
        </AUTH>
        <SIG>
          <DATED>Dated: December 21, 2007.</DATED>
          <NAME>Bharat Mathur,</NAME>
          <TITLE>Acting Regional Administrator, Region 5.</TITLE>
        </SIG>
      </SUPLINF>
      <FRDOC>[FR Doc. E8-16 Filed 1-4-08; 8:45 am]</FRDOC>
      <BILCOD>BILLING CODE 6560-50-P</BILCOD>
    </RULE>
    <RULE>
      <PREAMB>
        <AGENCY TYPE="N">FEDERAL COMMUNICATIONS COMMISSION</AGENCY>
        <CFR>47 CFR Part 76</CFR>
        <DEPDOC>[MB Docket No. 07-51; FCC 07-189]</DEPDOC>
        <SUBJECT>Exclusive Service Contracts for Provision of Video Services in Multiple Dwelling Units and Other Real Estate Developments</SUBJECT>
        <AGY>
          <HD SOURCE="HED">AGENCY:</HD>
          <P>Federal Communications Commission.</P>
        </AGY>
        <ACT>
          <HD SOURCE="HED">ACTION:</HD>
          <P>Final rule.</P>
        </ACT>
        <SUM>
          <HD SOURCE="HED">SUMMARY:</HD>
          <P>The Commission's action concerns “Multiple Dwelling Units” such as apartment or condominium buildings and centrally managed residential real estate developments (collectively, “MDUs”); cable operators that provide video service in MDUs; and agreements that grant them the exclusive right to provide video programming service in an MDU. The Commission finds that such agreements, in granting exclusivity, harm competition, the provision of programming to MDU residents, and broadband deployment. Thus, the Commission prohibits the enforcement of existing exclusivity clauses and the execution of new ones by cable operators (and a few others). This prohibition will materially advance the Communications Act's goals of enhancing competition, consumer choice in video service and programming, and broadband deployment.</P>
        </SUM>
        <EFFDATE>
          <HD SOURCE="HED">DATES:</HD>
          <P>Effective March 7, 2008.</P>
        </EFFDATE>
        <ADD>
          <HD SOURCE="HED">ADDRESSES:</HD>
          <P>Federal Communications Commission, 445 12th Street, SW., Washington, DC 20554.</P>
        </ADD>
        <FURINF>
          <HD SOURCE="HED">FOR FURTHER INFORMATION CONTACT:</HD>
          <P>For additional information on this proceeding, please contact John W. Berresford, (202) 418-1886, or Holly Saurer, (202) 418-7283, both of the Policy Division, Media Bureau.</P>
        </FURINF>
      </PREAMB>
      <SUPLINF>
        <HD SOURCE="HED">SUPPLEMENTARY INFORMATION:</HD>

        <P>This is a summary of the Federal Communications Commission's Report and Order in MB Docket No. 07-51, FCC 07-189, adopted October 31, 2007, and released November 13, 2007. The full text of this document is available for public inspection and copying during regular business hours in the FCC Reference Center, Federal Communications Commission, 445 12th Street, SW., CY-A257, Washington, DC 20554. These documents will also be available via ECFS (<E T="03">http://www.fcc.gov/cgb/ecfs/</E>). (Documents will be available electronically in ASCII, Word 97, and/or Adobe Acrobat.) The complete text may be purchased from the Commission's copy contractor, 445 12th Street, SW., Room CY-B402, Washington, DC 20554. To request this document in accessible formats (computer diskettes, large print, audio recording, and Braille), send an e-mail to<E T="03">fcc504@fcc.gov</E>or call the Commission's Consumer and Governmental Affairs Bureau at (202) 418-0530 (voice), (202) 418-0432 (TTY).</P>
        <HD SOURCE="HD1">Summary of the Report and Order</HD>
        <P>1. The Notice of Proposed Rulemaking (“<E T="03">Notice</E>”) in this proceeding solicited comment on the need to regulate contracts containing clauses granting one multichannel video programming distributor (an “MVPD”) exclusive access for the provision of video services (“exclusivity clauses”) to multiple dwelling units (“MDUs”) and other real estate developments.<E T="03">Exclusive Service Contracts for Provision of Video Services in Multiple Dwelling Units  Other Real Estate Developments,</E>Notice of Proposed Rulemaking, 22 FCC Rcd 5935 (2007). Approximately 30 percent of Americans live in MDUs, and their numbers are growing. In this<E T="03">Report and Order,</E>we find that contractual agreements granting such exclusivity to cable operators harm competition and broadband deployment and that any benefits to consumers are outweighed by the harms of such clauses. Accordingly, we conclude that such clauses are proscribed by section 628 of the Communications Act of 1934, as amended. That section prohibits unfair methods of competition that have the purpose or effect of hindering significantly or preventing MVPDs from providing “satellite cable” and/or “satellite broadcast” programming to subscribers and consumers. Thus, in this Order we prohibit the enforcement of existing exclusivity clauses and the execution of new ones by cable operators and others subject to the relevant statutory provisions. This prohibition will materially advance the Act's goals of enhancing competition and broadband deployment.</P>

        <P>2. The record in this proceeding does not contain much information regarding the use of exclusivity clauses by providers of Direct Broadcast Satellite (“DBS”) or other MVPDs that are not cable operators subject to section 628 of the Act. In the interests of developing a fuller record, and in the interests of regulatory parity, we also issue a<E T="03">Further Notice of Proposed Rulemaking</E>(“<E T="03">Further Notice</E>”) concerning MVPDs not subject to section 628. In this<E T="03">Further Notice,</E>we also seek comment on whether the Commission should prohibit exclusive marketing and bulk billing arrangements.</P>
        <HD SOURCE="HD1">I. Background</HD>
        <P>3. This section reviews the history of this proceeding and makes several important findings of fact. Among these findings are that a large and growing number of Americans live in MDUs and that a significant number of those MDUs are subject to exclusivity clauses. The beneficiaries of most of those clauses are incumbent cable operators. Although Commission rules ensure that many residents of MDUs and other real estate developments may receive satellite-based video service, exclusivity clauses protect cable operators from competition in MDUs from new entrants into the MVPD business, chiefly incumbent local exchange carriers (“LECs”) and other wire-based MVPDs that bring satellite cable and satellite broadcast programming to their subscribers. We also find that the entry of incumbent LECs into the MVPD business has led incumbent cable operators to increase their use of exclusivity clauses in order to bar or deter the new entrants.</P>

        <P>4. These practices are reached primarily by our authority under section 628. That section, in brief, makes it unlawful for cable operators to engage in certain unfair acts and methods of competition. Specifically, section 628(b) prohibits cable operators from engaging in unfair practices that have the purpose or effect of hindering significantly or preventing their competitors from providing satellite cable programming or satellite broadcast programming to subscribers or consumers. Such video programming is made for broadcast or cable systems and is delivered by satellite to MVPDs, who in turn deliver it to their subscribers. Section 628<PRTPAGE P="1081"/>concerns two kinds of programming in particular. One is “satellite cable programming,” which is video programming (not including satellite broadcast programming) that is transmitted by satellite to cable operators for retransmission to cable subscribers. See 47 U.S.C. 548(i)(1), 605(d)(1). The other is “satellite broadcast programming,” which is broadcast video programming that is retransmitted by satellite by an entity other than the broadcaster or an entity under the broadcaster's control.<E T="03">See</E>47 U.S.C. 548(i)(3). This programming comprises the substantial majority of programming carried by MVPDs. In section III below, we conclude that clauses that grant cable operators exclusive access to MDUs and other real estate developments fall within the scope of section 628(b), because those clauses effectively prohibit new entrants into the MVPD market from providing satellite-delivered programming to consumers who live in MDUs and other real estate developments.</P>

        <P>5. The Commission last considered issues concerning exclusivity clauses in its 2003 Inside Wiring Order. At that time, the Commission decided that exclusivity clauses had both pro-competitive and anti-competitive effects, and that the record before the Commission made it unclear what their net effect was. The Commission therefore decided to take no action regarding exclusivity clauses at that time, but it did not close the door to action if new circumstances arose in which such clauses had new anti-competitive effects. The<E T="03">Notice</E>of March 2007 re-opened the issue and prompted the submission of much new evidence. The<E T="03">Notice</E>raised several questions concerning exclusivity clauses. These included the Commission's legal authority to regulate such clauses; the prevalence of such clauses; the possible increase in their number and scope at the instigation of incumbent cable operators with the impending entry of LECs into the MVPD marketplace; the benefits and harms to competition and consumers of exclusivity clauses; and the extent of any prohibition of such clauses, and other remedial action, that we should impose.</P>
        <P>6. The<E T="03">Notice</E>attracted filings from large and small cable operators and LECs, other providers of MVPD services (including so-called private cable operators or “PCOs”), builders and managers of MDUs and other dwellings, elected officials, two state government entities and many local governments, academic institutions, consumer groups, labor unions, and subscribers to MVPD and other services. (PCOs are also known as Satellite Master Antenna Television providers or “SMATVs.” They are video distribution facilities that use closed transmission paths without using any public right-of-way. PCOs acquire video programming and distribute it via terrestrial wiring in urban and suburban MDUs and commercial multiple tenant units such as hotels and office buildings. They are small compared to major incumbent cable operators and incumbent LECs.)</P>
        <P>7. For purposes of this<E T="03">Report and Order,</E>we define the term “MDU” to include the kinds of dwellings that we have defined as being MDUs in past decisions implementing the Act. That is, MDUs include apartment, cooperative, and condominium buildings. For purposes of this<E T="03">Report and Order,</E>we adopt this definition but expand it to include other centrally managed real estate developments. Thus, the term MDUs, for purposes of this<E T="03">Report and Order,</E>also includes gated communities, mobile home parks, garden apartments, and other centrally managed residential real estate developments. All of these are collections of private individual households with residents remaining for lengthy, indefinite periods of time, each in a dwelling space that is distinctly separate but shares some common spaces requiring central management. For purposes of this proceeding, MDUs do not include time share units, academic campuses and dormitories, military bases, hotels, rooming houses, jails, prisons, halfway houses, hospitals, nursing and other assisted living places, and other group quarters characterized by institutional living, high transience and, in some cases, a high need for security. These latter institutions do not have most of the key defining attributes of MDUs that we have just described, including voluntary long-term residency and significant control by the resident over uses of the private dwelling space. These attributes give the resident a strong interest in making his or her own choice of a MVPD provider and thus warrant regulatory action to preserve the resident's ability to do so.</P>
        <P>8. The record in this proceeding indicates that approximately 30 percent of Americans live in MDUs and that this percentage is growing. The percentage of minorities living in MDUs is larger than that of the general population. The majority of incumbent MVPDs serving MDUs pursuant to exclusivity clauses are incumbent providers of cable television service to the surrounding local community. A few of the incumbent MVPDs that have executed contracts with exclusivity clauses are PCOs or small providers of fiber-based communications services. Some incumbent LECs have requested exclusivity clauses from MDUs. There is no evidence in the record that providers of DBS service use exclusivity clauses.</P>
        <P>9. Exclusivity clauses that run in favor of cable operators typically are a complete bar to entry into MDUs by fiber-deploying LECs such as Verizon, ATT, and Qwest, as well as PCOs. These competitors in the MVPD marketplace receive much of their programming, both cable and broadcast, via satellite for retransmission directly to their subscribers. Although exclusivity clauses do not prevent MDU residents from installing receiving dishes and receiving DBS service where the Commission's “Over the Air Reception Devices” rules apply, they bar new wire-based competitors from MDUs.</P>

        <P>10. The record herein reveals that exclusivity clauses are widespread in agreements between MVPDs and MDU owners, and that the overwhelming majority of them grant exclusive access to incumbent cable operators. Exclusivity clauses between MVPDs and MDU owners have the clear effect of barring new entry into MDUs by wire-based MVPDs. The evidence before us shows that this effect occurs on a large scale. Verizon provided examples of exclusivity clauses, most of them in favor of incumbent cable operators, that provoked requests to cease and desist the marketing of its FiOS cable service. Verizon has “repeatedly encountered exclusive access arrangements which have prevented it from providing cable services to significant numbers of residents.” Early in its offering of FiOS, Verizon encountered exclusivity clauses running in favor of incumbent cable operators, which barred it from serving more than 3,000 residential units in the Dallas, Texas, area and many other places, all totaling “tens of thousands of units in five separate states.” Other examples of exclusion, again mostly involving incumbent cable operators, are in the record from would-be MVPDs, a local government, and a MDU owner who agreed to exclusivity clauses in the past and now is prohibited from offering its residents new and improved communications services. ATT states that “efforts to lock-up MDUs have occurred in California, Texas, and virtually every market where ATT has begun to enter the video service market”—efforts that are “plainly intended to block competition and * * * not designed to address aesthetics or congestion in a MDU's common areas.” The exclusivity clauses that ATT has recently encountered typically last between five and 15 years, often with automatic renewal, or are<PRTPAGE P="1082"/>perpetual. Hargray CATV Inc., an affiliate of the incumbent LEC in Hilton Head, South Carolina, began to provide cable service there as a new entrant. It was forced to stop serving or marketing to 20,000 of the 25,000 homes in the community, however, due to exclusivity clauses entered into by real estate developers and the incumbent cable operator (originally Adelphia, whose systems later were acquired by Time Warner), decades ago in some cases.</P>
        <P>11. Consumer groups are also concerned about exclusive agreements. As noted by several consumer groups, a disproportionately large number of communities of color live within MDUs. Consumer groups are concerned that these residents are unable to enjoy the benefits of competition in the video marketplace, and ask that the Commission act to ensure that all consumers can reap the benefits of competition.</P>

        <P>12. The record indicates that the evidence before us understates the frequency of exclusivity clauses because many MDU owners are unwilling or legally unable to make public the contracts containing them. Also, many exclusivity clauses date from the time when cable operators had a<E T="03">de facto</E>or<E T="03">de jure</E>monopoly on wire-based MVPD service. In those market conditions, a MDU owner might have thought that agreeing to exclusivity was not giving the cable operator anything of significance. Some commenters state that a MDU owner can bargain for good service, low prices, and other concessions in exchange for exclusives. But the owner had no such bargaining power when the first cable operator was “the only game in town.”</P>

        <P>13. More recent developments were not part of the record the Commission compiled in the proceeding that culminated in the<E T="03">2003 Inside Wiring Order.</E>Significantly, LECs and other wire-based providers have begun entering the video service business on a large scale. In this environment, exclusivity clauses executed by incumbent cable operators are causing an important loss of potential competition within MDUs and thereby depriving MDU residents of recognized benefits generated by competition in the form of price and service options. Exclusivity clauses may also be deterring new entry into the MVPD market in many areas because they put a significant number of new customers off limits to new entrants.</P>
        <P>14. Moreover, ATT, Lafayette Utilities in Louisiana, United States Telecom Association, and Verizon report that, with the imminent entry of LECs into the multichannel video marketplace, incumbent cable operators have increased the use of exclusivity clauses in their agreements with MDU owners. As one commenter noted, “[i]ncumbent providers commonly engage in a flurry of activity to lock up MDUs and other real estate developments in exclusive arrangements as soon as it becomes clear that a new entrant will be coming to town.” Sometimes these clauses are inserted in fine print, in “legalese,” and without adequate notice to the MDU owner.</P>

        <P>15. In sum, the record demonstrates that exclusivity clauses bar entry into MDUs by new providers of multichannel video service. It also shows that, in reaction to the recent competitive challenge posed by LEC entry into the video marketplace, incumbent providers (chiefly incumbent cable operators) are increasingly using exclusivity clauses in new agreements with MDU owners to bar the entry of their new rivals and potential rivals. These developments constitute a substantial change to the record the Commission compiled in the period leading up to the<E T="03">2003 Inside Wiring Order.</E>
        </P>
        <HD SOURCE="HD1">II. Discussion</HD>
        <HD SOURCE="HD2">A. Harms and Benefits of Exclusivity Clauses</HD>

        <P>16. In this section, we first describe the harms and benefits of exclusivity clauses. We conclude that the harms significantly outweigh the benefits in ways they did not at the time of the Commission's 2003<E T="03">Inside Wiring Order.</E>Specifically, they bar new entry and competition for both MVPD services and the so-called “triple play” of voice, video, and broadband Internet access services. They also discourage the deployment of broadband facilities to American consumers. This, in turn, has the effect of significantly hindering or preventing new MVPDs from providing to MDU residents video programming services that are within the scope of section 628(b). Section 628(b) of the Act makes it unlawful for cable operators and their vertically integrated programmers to engage in certain practices that hinder or prevent MVPDs from providing “satellite cable programming” or “satellite broadcast programming” to subscribers. “Satellite cable programming” is video programming (not including satellite broadcast programming) that is transmitted by satellite to cable operators for retransmission to cable subscribers. “Satellite broadcast programming” is broadcast video programming that is retransmitted by satellite by an entity other than the broadcaster or an entity under the broadcaster's control. We therefore conclude that cable operators' use of exclusivity clauses in contracts for the provision of video services to MDUs constitutes an unfair method of competition or an unfair act or practice proscribed by section 628(b).</P>
        <P>17.<E T="03">Harms Caused by Exclusivity Clauses.</E>By far the greatest harm that exclusivity clauses cause residents of MDUs is that they deny those residents another choice of MVPD service and thus deny them the benefits of increased competition. Congress and the Commission have repeatedly found, and few parties dispute here, that entry by LECs and other providers of wire-based video service into various segments of the multichannel video marketplace will produce major benefits for consumers. A significant increase in multichannel competition usually results in lower prices, more channels, and a greater diversity of information and entertainment from more sources. Notably, our most recent Cable Price Survey Reports show that the presence of a second wire-based MVPD competitor clearly holds prices down more effectively than is the case where DBS is the only alternative. The fact that an incumbent cable operator may face competitive pressures on its pricing in a franchise area surrounding or adjacent to a MDU does not mean that the residents of a MDU served by the same cable operator will reap the benefits of such competition, including the option to choose among competitive providers, some of which may provide a reduced-priced bundled package. This is particularly true when incumbent cable operators and MDU owners sign contracts before a competitive provider enters the market, a practice that the record in this proceeding indicates is quite common. Within the MDU, the incumbent, protected by its exclusivity clause from any competition it may face outside the MDU's boundaries, would have no incentive to hold down its prices within the MDU. The MDU's residents would also be denied the benefits of taking service from the new entrant, with potentially lower rates and better features than the incumbent's.</P>

        <P>18. In addition, a new provider of MVPD services such as a LEC is likely to bring into a MDU some satellite-delivered cable programming that the incumbent beneficiary of the exclusivity clause does not. Absent the new entrant, the MDU's residents who favor that programming will be denied the programming of their choice. This denial will fall disproportionately on minorities and low-income families<PRTPAGE P="1083"/>(and on programmers specializing in programming oriented to those groups), and all residents will be denied increased competition in programming among MVPD providers. We agree with Consumers Union that we should ensure that the “no segment of the population is denied the benefits of video competition.”</P>
        <P>19. LEC entry is also likely to result in increased deployment of fiber to American homes at lower cost per residence, and a new competitor offering the “triple play” bundle of video, voice, and Internet access service. An exclusivity clause in a MDU's agreement with a MVPD denies all these benefits to the MDU's residents. Even if exclusivity clauses do not completely bar new entrants from the MVPD market everywhere, they foreclose new entrants from many millions of households, a significant part of the national marketplace. Such clauses could therefore deter new entrants from attempting to enter the market in many areas. More important, exclusivity clauses deny consumers in a part of the market the benefits that could flow to them, and exclusivity clauses confer few, if any, benefits on those consumers. These harms to consumers are greater than they were several years ago, when new entry by LECs had not begun on a large scale, the recent increase in fiber construction had not yet materialized, and the popularity of the triple play was unproven.</P>
        <P>20. The effect of exclusivity clauses on broadband deployment and “triple play” services merits further discussion. We have stated that broadband deployment and entry into the MVPD business are “inextricably linked.” One basis for this observation is the recent emergence of LECs, cable operators, and some other providers offering consumers a “triple play” of voice, MVPD, and broadband Internet access services. The offering of, and competition in, the triple play brings to consumers not just advanced telecommunications capability, but also a simplicity and efficiency that is proving to be highly attractive in the marketplace.</P>
        <P>21. In a MDU where an incumbent has the exclusive right to provide MVPD service, no other provider can offer residents the triple play today on its own facilities. Any new entrant that could offer all three parts of the triple play but for the existence of an exclusivity clause, which limits its offerings to voice and broadband Internet access, would find entry less attractive. The new entrant might not enter at all. Or, if the new entrant enters despite that handicap and provides MDU residents with only voice and Internet access services, leaving MVPD service to the beneficiary of an exclusivity clause, the new entrant's wire is inefficiently underutilized. Thus, exclusivity clauses reduce competition in the provision of triple play services and result in inefficient use of communications facilities.</P>
        <P>22. Exclusivity clauses can cause other harms to MDU residents. A MDU owner may grant exclusivity to one MVPD based on the available choice of service providers at a given time, and in doing so bar entry into the MDU by a more desirable but later-arriving MVPD. Or, the person who grants exclusivity to one MVPD may be the developer or builder of a MDU, who may grant exclusivity against the long-term interests of the residents and soon thereafter relinquish control of the MDU. In addition, exclusivity clauses can insulate the incumbent MVPD from any need to improve its service; Manatee County, Florida, aptly describes incumbent beneficiaries of exclusivity clauses as “sitting on these ‘fiefdoms.' ”</P>
        <P>23. Finally, the record indicates that exclusivity clauses are not always in the best interest of MDUs owners, either. Technologically advanced buildings are important for attracting and retaining residents, and a lack of competition for providing new communications services can negatively affect a residential development. A MDU owner may not see a benefit in an exclusivity clause that bars entry by new providers that were not in the market when the clause was written.</P>
        <P>24.<E T="03">Benefits of Exclusivity Clauses.</E>When the Commission last considered issues concerning exclusivity clauses in its<E T="03">2003 Inside Wiring Order</E>, it determined that exclusivity clauses had some pro-competitive effects. In some cases, exclusivity clauses, or at least those of a limited duration, may help a MVPD to obtain financing to wire an entire building for cable and other services and to recover its investment over the term of exclusivity. Similarly, some commenters claim that exclusivity clauses are especially necessary to attract investment in marginally attractive MDUs.</P>
        <P>25. Some commenters argue in support of the use of exclusivity clauses that, with the decline of LECs' and cable operators' traditional duty to serve all homes in an area, an exclusivity clause may be necessary to attract a MVPD into a new real estate development. Other commenters state that a MDU owner, needing to attract buyers or tenants, may be counted on to represent them and will agree to an exclusivity clause only if it is in their interests. The rational owner, these commenters claim, will give exclusive access to the one of several bidding MVPDs that offers the best mix of low price, quality service, promised improvements and in some cases, specialized program offerings. An exclusivity clause, in this view, substitutes competition for the MDU for competition for individual residents, and the resulting benefits may be passed on to the residents. In the same vein, some commenters deny that exclusivity clauses allow MVPDs to become complacent and provide inferior service; these entities believe that the high turnover in MDUs requires building owners to maintain and constantly improve their service so that the building or development will attract new residents who will become its subscribers.</P>
        <P>26.<E T="03">Conclusion.</E>We conclude that exclusivity clauses cause significant harm to competition and consumers that the record did not reflect at the time of our 2003<E T="03">Inside Wiring Order</E>. We further find that although exclusivity clauses may in certain cases be beneficial, at least in the short term, to consumers, the harms of exclusivity clauses outweigh their benefits. The evidence described in the preceding paragraphs demonstrates that exclusivity clauses, especially when used in current market conditions by incumbent cable operators, are a barrier to new entry into the multichannel video marketplace and the provision of triple play offerings. Such exclusivity clauses inhibit competition in these markets and slow the deployment of broadband facilities. In doing so, exclusivity clauses deny MDU residents the benefits of increased competition, including lower prices and the availability of more channels with more diverse content, as well as access to alternative providers of broadband facilities and the triple play of communications services their facilities support. It is also noteworthy that there is no evidence in the record that MDU residents pay higher rates for MVPD services in states whose laws prohibit or limit exclusivity. These harms to consumers are traceable to the incumbent cable operators' practice, increased recently, of using exclusivity clauses, sometimes in fine print and without adequate notice to MDU owners, to forestall competition, particularly when new competitors are about to enter the market. We do not wish to deny MDU residents these benefits based on incumbents' alleged need to be shielded from additional competition, or to subject them to<PRTPAGE P="1084"/>something resembling the exclusive franchises of an earlier era.</P>
        <P>27. Moreover, we find that cable operators' use of exclusivity clauses in contracts for the provision of video services to MDUs constitutes an unfair method of competition or an unfair act or practice proscribed by section 628(b). Section 628 is designed to increase “competition and diversity” in the multichannel video marketplace, increase the availability of satellite cable and satellite broadcast programming to persons in “areas not currently able to receive such programming,” and “spur the development of communications technologies.” That provision specifically prohibits cable operators from engaging in unfair methods of competition or unfair acts or practices that have the purpose or effect of hindering significantly or preventing any MVPD from providing satellite cable programming or satellite broadcast programming to consumers. We have found above that a significant percentage of consumers live in MDUs. We also found that, with the increasing entry of wire-based competitors, such as LECs, into the MVPD marketplace, incumbent cable operators have increased their use of exclusivity clauses with MDU owners, particularly when new competitors are on the verge of entering a particular market. The record shows that these exclusivity clauses have the purpose or effect of preventing other MVPDs from providing the kind of programming covered by section 628—satellite cable and/or broadcast programming—to certain consumers; indeed, that is the intended and inevitable effect of exclusivity clauses. Exclusivity clauses prevent new entrant MVPDs from competing with entrenched incumbent providers on the basis of service offerings, including programming, and on price. Foreclosing competition in the MDU market in this way is unfair because it deprives consumers residing in MDUs of the opportunity to choose a MVPD provider. Cable operators' execution of exclusivity clauses, which foreclose the competitive provision of MVPD service, the triple play, broadband deployment, and satellite-delivered programming to MDUs, thus constitutes an unfair method of competition in violation of section 628(b).</P>
        <P>28. We reject arguments that exclusivity clauses mostly work to the benefit of MDU owners and residents. First, as explained above, the person signing an exclusivity clause for a MDU may be a builder or manager whose interests do not coincide with those of the MDU's residents, especially after a few years. Second, the cable operator may have induced the MDU owner to accept an exclusivity clause before any wire-based competitor was on the horizon, in which case there was no “competition for the MDU” at the time and no prospect of it in the future. Third, the exclusivity clause may be in “legalese” and in fine print and the MDU owner may be unaware of it. Fourth, the fact that a new entrant wants to serve the MDU undercuts any claim that only one wire-based provider can serve the building profitably—if new entry would be unprofitable, it is unlikely that the new entrant would want to enter. Fifth, there is no evidence in the record, other than generalities and anecdotes, that incumbent MVPD providers couple exclusivity clauses with significant new investments that they do not make elsewhere, such as in states whose laws prohibit exclusivity. Sixth, SureWest states that the triple play, which offers a provider revenue from three services, reduces any need for exclusivity that it may have had in the past, when MVPD revenue was the only way it could recover its investment. Finally, other agreements between incumbent MVPDs and MDU owners, perhaps providing for marketing exclusivity or bulk discounts, can provide benefits similar to those alleged for exclusivity clauses without causing the latter clauses' entry-foreclosing harms to consumers. Therefore, although “competition for the MDU” may have some theoretical advantages in some cases over competition for individual consumers, it may not describe reality in many cases. Even if it does, in general we find that the best results for consumers come from preserving their ability to play an active role in making an individual choice rather than allowing cable operators using exclusivity clauses to foreclose individual choice. In addition, as noted above, exclusivity clauses tend to insulate the incumbent from any need to improve its service. Thus, we conclude that exclusivity clauses generally do not benefit MDU residents.</P>
        <P>29. The record contains claims that exclusivity clauses may lead to lower prices. Although we cannot rule out the possibility that those claims may be true in some cases, such assertions are outweighed by the numerous studies showing that a second wire-based MVPD lowers prices. We also reject arguments that “exclusivity is not really a problem” because many MDUs are not subject to exclusivity clauses and such clauses expire. A practice that harms a significant number of households in this country warrants remedial action even if it does not harm everyone.</P>
        <HD SOURCE="HD2">B. Prohibition of Exclusivity Clauses</HD>
        <P>30. For the reasons set forth above, we prohibit cable operators and other entities that are subject to section 628 from enforcing existing exclusivity clauses and executing contracts containing new ones. These other entities are LECs and open video systems and are discussed in section III below.</P>
        <P>31. Specifically, 60 days after publication of this<E T="03">Report and Order</E>in the<E T="04">Federal Register</E>, no cable operator or multichannel video programming distributor subject to section 628 of the Act shall enforce or execute any provision in a contract that grants it the exclusive right to provide any video programming service (alone or in combination with other services) to a MDU. Any such exclusivity clause shall be null and void.</P>

        <P>32. We fashion the prohibition pursuant to section 628 for several reasons. First, that provision is a basis of our statutory authority to regulate exclusivity clauses. Second, incumbent cable operators, which are subject to section 628, are the beneficiaries of the vast majority of exclusivity clauses. As described above, incumbent cable operators are primarily responsible for the recent increase in newly executed exclusivity clauses. Also, the evidence in the record indicates that incumbent cable operators are using them to impede the entry of new competitors into the MVPD market in many areas. Incumbent cable operators are still by far the dominant force in the MVPD business, with a market share most recently measured at 67 percent and the ability to impose steadily rising prices. Our prohibition is limited to those MVPDs covered by section 628(b). It does not reach PCOs or DBS providers because we do not have an adequate record on which to decide whether such a prohibition is warranted for non-cable operators. Nevertheless, we are adopting a<E T="03">Further Notice of Proposed Rulemaking</E>in order to develop such a record and, based on it, evaluate whether action is called for.</P>
        <P>33. We put no time limit on the prohibition we adopt in the instant order and we do not exempt from it any kind of MDU or any geographic location. We do, however, limit our prohibition to those residential real estate developments that we define as MDUs as discussed above.</P>

        <P>34. The rule we adopt in this proceeding is consistent with the longstanding Congressional prohibition of exclusive franchises for cable service and the statement in our most recent<E T="03">Inside Wiring Order</E>that “[n]ew entrants<PRTPAGE P="1085"/>to the video services and telephony markets should not be foreclosed from competing for consumers in multi-unit buildings.”</P>
        <P>35. The rule we adopt in this proceeding prohibits both the enforcement of existing exclusivity clauses and the execution of new ones. Both have the same competition- and broadband-deterring effect that harms consumers. A rule that left exclusivity clauses in effect would allow the vast majority of the harms caused by such clauses to continue for years, and we believe that it is strongly in the public interest to prohibit such clauses from being enforced. Those harms would continue indefinitely in the cases of exclusivity clauses that last perpetually or contemplate automatic renewal upon the renewal of the incumbent cable operator's franchise.</P>

        <P>36. Our prohibition of the enforcement of existing exclusivity clauses does not disturb legitimate expectations of investors in MDUs and the video service providers affected by this Order. The lawfulness of exclusivity clauses has been under our active scrutiny for a decade, making the parties to them aware that such clauses may be prohibited. Although we have not prohibited enforcement of them until now, we had previously recognized the reasons for doing so but had lacked an adequate record on which to base such a decision. We have prohibited the enforcement of exclusivity clauses for satellite-delivered programming before. For example, the Commission prohibits, with respect to distribution to persons in areas served by cable operators and other MVPDs covered by section 628(b), exclusivity clauses for satellite cable programming and satellite broadcast programming between a cable operator and a vendor of such programming in which a cable operator has an attributable interest, unless the Commission determines that such contracts are in the public interest. Also, in the context of commercial telecommunications services, the Commission has prohibited the execution of exclusive access arrangements in multiple tenant environments and has sought comment on whether to prohibit the enforcement of existing exclusive access provisions. We recognize that the Commission has yet to address the issue raised in the<E T="03">Competitive Networks Further Notice of Proposed Rulemaking</E>regarding the enforceability of exclusivity clauses for telecommunications services in residential MDUs. In light of the competitive parity implications, we will resolve that issue within the next two months. Some states have given some or all MVPD providers rights of access to MDUs.</P>
        <P>37. Moreover, incumbent cable operators will still be able to use their equipment in MDUs to provide service to residents who wish to continue to subscribe to their services. Finally, we note that the rule we adopt today does not require that any new entrant be given access to any MDU. A MDU owner still retains the rights it has under relevant state law to deny a particular provider the right to provide service to its property. We merely prohibit the enforcement of existing exclusivity clauses and the execution of new ones by cable operators. While this Order prohibits the enforcement of existing exclusivity clauses, it does not, on its own terms, purport to affect other provisions in contracts containing exclusivity clauses.</P>
        <P>38. We reject proposals that we should exempt contracts with exclusivity clauses from this prohibition on a case-by-case basis or that we should allow exclusivity clauses for small cable operators, cable operators in rural areas, MVPDs that are found to lack “market power,” MVPDs other than incumbent cable operators, “planned communities,” and new real estate developments. We are reluctant to deny any large class of MDU residents the benefits of increased competition or to allow any cable operator to engage in future harmful conduct. Finally, we wish to avoid the burden that would be imposed by numerous individual adjudications about whether market power or some other undesirable condition exists in an individual MDU or community, or whether a particular entity in an allegedly unique situation is exempted from the prohibition. In addition, as discussed in section III below, restrictions adopted pursuant to section 628(b) apply automatically to certain categories of MVPDs pursuant to sections 602(7), 628(j), and 653(c)(1)(A).</P>
        <P>39. Some commenters have suggested that we allow exclusivity clauses for a period of years or that we put a time limit on our prohibition of them, such as a specific term of years, the end of the current franchise of the incumbent cable operator, until “effective competition” is found to exist in an area, or until some other measure of competition is shown. We decline these suggestions. We are reluctant to grant any communications companies an artificial period of immunity from pro-competitive regulation during which the recovery of their investment is guaranteed; companies in communications markets regularly invest billions of dollars without any such guarantees. Chiefly, we wish to avoid the burden of individualized adjudications and measurements because we believe that they would burden us and the industry, and we believe that the limited benefits that such clauses confer are outweighed by their deleterious long-term effects on the provision of competitive services to consumers.</P>
        <HD SOURCE="HD1">III. Legal Authority</HD>

        <P>40. Several sources afford the Commission ample authority to prohibit exclusivity clauses in contracts between cable operators and owners of MDUs. First, consistent with our tentative conclusion in the<E T="03">Notice</E>, we conclude that we have authority under section 628(b) of the Act to adopt rules prohibiting cable operators from enforcing or executing contracts that give them the exclusive right to provide video programming services (alone or in combination with other services) to MDUs. Moreover, we conclude that pursuant to the Act the same prohibition will apply to common carriers or their affiliates that provide video programming directly to subscribers under section 628(j) of the Act and to operators of open video systems under section 653(c)(1). Finally, we conclude that, even in the absence of this explicit statutory authority, we have ancillary authority to prohibit incumbent cable operators from entering into contracts that are for the provision of video services to MDUs and that contain exclusivity clauses.</P>
        <P>41. Turning first to cable operators, the plain language of the statute provides a solid legal foundation for the rule adopted today. Section 628(b) broadly states that:</P>
        
        <EXTRACT>
          <P>“[i]t shall be unlawful for a cable operator * * * to engage in unfair methods of competition or unfair or deceptive acts or practices, the purpose or effect of which is to hinder significantly or to prevent any multichannel video programming distributor from providing satellite cable programming or satellite broadcast programming to subscribers or consumers.”</P>
        </EXTRACT>
        
        <P>42. Section 628(c)(1), in turn, directs the Commission, “in order to promote the public interest, convenience, and necessity by increasing competition and diversity in the multichannel video programming market and the continuing development of communications technologies,” to promulgate rules specifying the conduct prohibited by section 628(b).</P>

        <P>43. The plain language of section 628(b) encompasses the conduct at issue here. First, although we have never specifically defined what constitutes an “unfair method of competition” or<PRTPAGE P="1086"/>“unfair * * * act or practice” beyond that conduct specifically proscribed in section 628(c)(2), we have recognized that there is additional conduct that could be proscribed under section 628(b). As discussed above, the use of an exclusivity clause by a cable operator to “lock up” a MDU owner is an unfair method of competition or unfair act or practice because it can be used to impede the entry of competitors into the market and foreclose competition based on the quality and price of competing service offerings. Moreover, as we have shown above, such a contract clearly has the effect of preventing a MVPD from providing satellite programming to consumers. Indeed, by its very nature, such an exclusivity clause prevents other MVPDs from providing service to the consumers who live in the MDU.</P>
        <P>44. We reject Advance/Newhouse Communications's suggestion that this interpretation of section 628(b) suffers a logical flaw—why would Congress only focus on “satellite” programming if it sought to vest the Commission with the authority to “curb unfair practices in the cable industry generally.” First, we are not finding that section 628(b) vests the Commission with some unlimited authority to limit unfair practices in the cable industry. Rather, we are finding that the language of section 628(b) prohibits unfair methods of competition with the purpose or effect of hindering significantly or preventing MVPDs from providing satellite cable and broadcast programming to consumers. Moreover, we acknowledge that section 628 was primarily, but not exclusively, concerned about the vertical integration of cable operators and satellite programming vendors, and thus section 628 significantly focuses on those relationships. In addition, we note that our decision to prohibit exclusivity clauses for the provision of video services to MDU owners is consistent with the focus on satellite programming because most programming is delivered via satellite. Thus, we have explicit authority under section 628(b) to prohibit cable operators from entering into exclusivity clauses with MDU owners.</P>
        <P>45. We note that the New Jersey Division of Rate Counsel raises a number of issues, including the argument that the Commission's regulation of exclusivity clauses for MDUs violates the Tenth Amendment of the U.S. Constitution, that hinge on its view that the Commission lacks any authority to adopt the prohibition on exclusivity clauses described herein. We need not address these tangential issues because, as explained herein, we find that we have specific statutory authority to adopt the prohibition.</P>

        <P>46. Contrary to commenters' suggestions, the Commission's authority under section 628(b) is not restricted to unfair methods of competition or unfair or deceptive practices that deny MVPDs access to programming. Section 628(b) is not so narrowly drawn. Anticompetitive practices can hinder or prevent MVPDs from providing programming to consumers either by blocking their access to programming or by blocking their access to consumers, and there is nothing in section 628(b) that suggests that the Commission's authority is limited to the former. Although NCTA argues that the language “from providing satellite cable programming or satellite broadcast programming to subscribers or consumers” indicates that section 628(b) was “squarely directed at practices that unfairly denied MVPDs access to<E T="03">programming</E>,” the better reading is the one based on the clear and complete terms of the provision: any practices that unfairly deny MVPDs the ability to provide such programming to consumers are prohibited. Had Congress wanted section 628(b) to proscribe only practices denying MVPDs access to programming, it could easily have done so by focusing that provision explicitly on conduct that impairs MVPDs' access to programming. Congress knew how to draft narrowly drawn provisions of that kind as evidenced by another subsection, section 628(c)(2), which proscribes specific conduct hindering MVPDs' access to programming. Thus, we believe that our interpretation of section 628(b) gives meaning to the broad, plain language of the statutory provision.</P>
        <P>47. We recognize, as commenters point out, that much of section 628's legislative history focuses on MVPDs' access to programming. However, the legislative history indicates that a primary concern underlying section 628 was fostering competition among cable operators and enhancing consumer choice. For example, the Conference Report on section 628 reflects a concern that is broader than MVPDs' access to programming:</P>
        
        <EXTRACT>

          <P>“[T]he conferees expect the Commission to address and resolve the problems of unreasonable cable industry practices,<E T="03">including</E>restricting the availability of programming and charging discriminatory prices to non-cable technologies. The conferees intend that the Commission shall encourage arrangements which promote the development of new technologies providing facilities based competition to cable and extending programming to areas not served by cable.”</P>
        </EXTRACT>
        
        <P>48. Our adoption of a rule prohibiting exclusivity clauses addresses the Congressional concerns underlying section 628(b). The rule will prohibit the continuation and proliferation of an anticompetitive cable practice that has erected a barrier to the provision of competitive video services. It also will promote the development of new technologies that will provide facilities-based competition to existing cable operators, and thus serves the purposes set forth in section 628(a) (as well as other provisions of law, such as section 706 of the Telecommunications Act of 1996). As Verizon points out, fiber optic services and interactive video are new facilities-based technologies that competitors seek to deploy. Exclusivity clauses prevent competitive MVPDs from providing satellite cable and broadcast programming to consumers by means of such new technologies. SureWest similarly argues that, because the deployment of broadband networks and the provision of video service are intrinsically linked, exclusivity clauses that prevent it from providing video services compromise its ability to deploy other advanced telecommunications services, by inhibiting its ability to market a package of services that consumers demand and reducing the revenues it needs to support investment in new and innovative services.</P>

        <P>49. More broadly, prohibiting exclusivity clauses for the provision of video services will further the purposes of the 1992 Cable Act and the 1934 Act. As several commenters point out, the 1992 Cable Act sought to promote competition and consumer choice in cable communications. In addition, the purpose of the Communications Act of 1934, as amended, is “to make available, so far as possible, to all the people of the United States * * * a rapid, efficient, Nation-wide and world-wide wire and radio communication service with adequate facilities at reasonable charges.” Moreover, section 706 of the Telecommunications Act of 1996 directs the Commission to “encourage the deployment on a reasonable and timely basis of advanced telecommunications capability to all Americans * * * ”. Removing barriers to allow access to a broad segment of consumers in the multichannel video programming distribution market by prohibiting exclusivity clauses for the provision of video services will further these statutory purposes. As Verizon notes, once a MDU owner is “locked” into an exclusivity clause, “residents are prevented from choosing alternative services that they might prefer—on the<PRTPAGE P="1087"/>basis of price, quality, and innovative and technologically advanced service offerings.” Thus, contrary to some commenters' arguments, our interpretation of section 628(b) to prohibit exclusivity clauses for the provision of video services is not only consistent with the plain language of that statutory provision and confirmed by that provision's legislative history, but also furthers the broader purposes of the Act. We also find that Congress's failure<E T="03">in 1984</E>to include a provision that would have mandated access to MDUs for cable service has no bearing on our interpretation of the subsequent legislation that became the 1992 Cable Act, particularly since there is no evidence that Congress's failure to act in 1984 is at all related to the action it did take in adopting section 628(b) in 1992.</P>

        <P>50. We disagree with those commenters who argue that the regulatory requirements outlined in section 628(c) circumscribe the Commission's authority to prohibit exclusivity clauses for the provision of video services. For example, Real Access Alliance (“RAA”) states that the specific provisions of sections 628(c)(2)(A), (B), (C), and (D) establish the full scope of the Commission's authority under section 628. However, nothing in these provisions indicates that they were intended to establish the outer limits of the Commission's authority under section 628(b). In fact, the very title of section 628(c)(2), “Minimum Contents of Regulations,” strongly suggests that the rules the Commission was required to implement had to cover the conduct described in sections 628(c)(2) at the<E T="03">least</E>, but that the Commission's authority under section 628(b) was broader. The term “minimum” indicates that more could be covered since it is defined as “the least quantity assignable, admissible, or possible.” (Webster's<E T="03">New Collegiate Dictionary</E>(1977).) This interpretation is confirmed by section 628(c)(1), which grants the Commission wide latitude to “specify particular conduct that is prohibited by [section 628(b)].” Other commenters' suggestions along the same lines are unconvincing for the same reasons.</P>

        <P>51. As pointed out by several commenters, the Commission's implementation of this provision to date has focused on ensuring MVPD access to the programming they need to provide a viable and competitive multichannel alternative to consumers,<E T="03">i.e.</E>, on the regulations adopted pursuant to section 628(c)(2). In the decision initially implementing section 628, the Commission described the provision as “intended to increase competition and diversity in the multichannel video programming market, as well as to foster the development of competition to traditional cable systems, by prescribing regulations that govern the access by competing multichannel systems to cable programming services.” Nevertheless, the Commission stated:</P>
        
        <EXTRACT>
          <P>“Neither the record of this proceeding nor the legislative history offer much insight into the types of practices that might constitute a violation of the statute with respect to the unspecified “unfair practices” prohibited by section 628(b) beyond those more specifically referenced in section 628(c). The objectives of the provision, however, are clearly to provide a mechanism for addressing those types of conduct, primarily associated with horizontal and vertical concentration within the cable and satellite cable programming field, that inhibit the development of multichannel video distribution competition. * * * [A]lthough the types of conduct more specifically referenced in the statute * * * appear to be the primary areas of congressional concern, section 628(b) is a clear repository of Commission jurisdiction to adopt additional rules or to take additional actions to accomplish the statutory objectives should additional types of conduct emerge as barriers to competition and obstacles to the broader distribution of satellite cable and broadcast video programming.”</P>
        </EXTRACT>
        
        <FP>Viewing the implementation history as a whole, the Commission's early focus on program access is not surprising. It was shaped both by the specific provisions of section 628(c)(2)—since these regulations were statutorily required and thus appeared to be of the most pressing concern to Congress—and the policy goal in the 1992 Cable Act of “'rely[ing] on the marketplace, to the maximum extent feasible' in promoting the availability of programming to the public.” But the Commission's prior attention to these requirements in no way precludes its exercise of clear statutory authority to regulate unfair practices, beyond program access, which have the purpose or effect of hindering significantly or preventing the provision of certain programming to subscribers or consumers. The Commission has imposed no such artificial limitation on the scope of its authority, and section 628(b) does not require it.</FP>
        <P>52. The Commission has authority to delineate by rule conduct prohibited under section 628(b) in order to promote the public interest through increased competition and diversity in the MVPD market and continued development of communications technologies. We have explained how a rule prohibiting exclusivity clauses for the provision of video services promotes the public interest here because it will likely increase competition in the MVPD market and promote continued development of communications technologies. Thus, we find that we may by rule prohibit cable operators from executing exclusivity clauses for the provision of video services to MDUs.</P>
        <P>53. This prohibition necessarily also applies to common carriers and open video systems. Although section 628(b) extends only to cable operators, section 628(j) explicitly states that “[a]ny provision that applies to a cable operator under this section shall apply to a common carrier or its affiliate that provides video programming by any means directly to subscribers.” In addition, section 653(c)(1)(A) provides that “[a]ny provision that applies to a cable operator under (A) section[ ] * * * 628 * * * of this title shall apply * * * to any operator of an open video system.” Thus, pursuant to sections 628(j) and 653(c)(1)(A), our prohibition on exclusivity clauses for the provision of video services applies to both any common carrier or its affiliate and also to OVS operators to the extent that these entities provide video programming to subscribers or consumers.</P>
        <P>54. Although we believe that we have specific statutory authority to adopt this prohibition, as described above, we note that our ancillary authority, under titles I and III of the 1934 Act, also provides a sufficient basis to prohibit cable operators from enforcing or executing exclusivity clauses for the provision of video service to MDUs. Courts have long recognized that, even in the absence of explicit statutory authority, the Commission has authority to promulgate regulations to effectuate the goals and provisions of the Act if the regulations are “reasonably ancillary to the effective performance of the Commission's various responsibilities” under the Act. The Supreme Court has established a two-part ancillary jurisdiction test: (1) The regulation must cover interstate or foreign communication by wire or radio; and (2) the regulation must be reasonably ancillary to the Commission's statutory responsibilities. The prohibition we adopt here applies to “interstate and foreign communication by wire or radio,” advances the purposes of both the 1992 Cable Act and section 706 of the 1996 Telecommunications Act, and serves the public interest.</P>

        <P>55. Title I confers on the Commission regulatory jurisdiction over all interstate radio and wire communication. The multichannel video services provided by cable operators are interstate in nature and are covered by the Act's definitions of “radio communications” and “wire communication.” In addition, these services fall within the definition<PRTPAGE P="1088"/>of “cable service.” Thus, cable services are within the scope of our subject matter jurisdiction granted in Title I.</P>
        <P>56. In addition, we find that applying the prohibition against exclusivity clauses for the provision of video services to cable operators is reasonably ancillary to our statutory responsibilities under the Act. As we have explained, prohibiting exclusivity clauses for the provision of video services to MDUs will prohibit an anticompetitive cable practice that has erected a barrier to the provision of competitive video services. It also will promote the development of new technologies that will provide facilities-based competition to existing cable operators, and thus serves the purposes set forth in section 628(a). In addition, for the same reasons explained above, applying this prohibition to cable operators will ensure the furtherance of the broad goals of the 1992 Cable Act and the 1934 Act generally.</P>

        <P>57. Because several commenters raise concerns about the treatment of exclusivity clauses in existing MDU contracts, we take particular care to observe that the law affords us wide authority to prohibit the enforcement of such clauses where, as here, the public interest so requires. Indeed, as the Commission has previously stated, “Congress intended that rules promulgated pursuant to implement section 628 should be applied prospectively to existing contracts, except as specifically provided for in section 628(h).” In addition, the Fifth Amendment's Takings Clause presents no obstacle to prohibiting the enforcement of existing exclusivity clauses. To begin with, such a step obviously does not involve the permanent condemnation of physical property and thus does not constitute a<E T="03">per se</E>taking.</P>
        <P>58. Nor does the proposed rule represent a regulatory taking. The Supreme Court has outlined the framework for evaluating regulatory takings claims as follows: “In all of these cases, we have eschewed the development of any set formula for identifying a `taking' forbidden by the Fifth Amendment, and have relied instead on ad hoc, factual inquiries into the circumstances of each particular case. To aid in this determination, however, we have identified three factors which have particular significance: (1) The economic impact of the regulation on the claimant; (2) the extent to which the regulation has interfered with distinct investment-backed expectations; and (3) the character of the governmental action.” None of these factors counsels in favor of finding a regulatory taking here.</P>

        <P>59. First, prohibiting the enforcement of exclusivity clauses will have minimal adverse economic impact on affected MVPDs. Nothing in the rule precludes MVPDs from utilizing the wires they own to provide services to MDUs or requires them to jettison capitalized investments. Neither does it prohibit the enforcement of other types of agreements between MDUs or MVPDs, such as exclusive marketing agreements. The rule merely prohibits clauses that serve as a bar to other MVPDs that seek to provide services to a MDU. The record in this proceeding demonstrates that in some cases, exclusivity clauses in existing MDU contracts impose adverse<E T="03">and</E>absolute impacts upon would-be competitors who are otherwise ready and able to provide customers the benefits of increased competition.</P>
        <P>60. Second, the rule does not improperly interfere with investment-backed expectations. As previously stated, exclusivity clauses in MDU contracts have been under active scrutiny for over a decade, and the Commission has prohibited the enforcement of such clauses in similar contexts. States have also taken action to prohibit such clauses. Moreover, to the extent that MVPDs have used exclusivity clauses to “lock up” MDUs in anticipation of competitive entry or to obstruct competition, as described above, any underlying investment-backed expectations are not sufficiently longstanding or pro-competitive in nature to warrant immunity from regulation.</P>

        <P>61. Finally, with respect to the character of governmental action, the rule's prohibition of the enforcement of exclusivity clauses in existing MDU contracts substantially advances the legitimate governmental interest in protecting consumers of programming from “unfair methods of competition or unfair acts or practices”—an interest Congress explicitly has recognized and protected by statute,<E T="03">see</E>47 U.S.C. 628(b), and commanded the Commission to vindicate by adopting appropriate regulations,<E T="03">see id.</E>section 628(c)(1). The rule we adopt today is based upon the Commission's detailed analysis of the harms and benefits of exclusive MDU contracts, discussed above in section II, and is carefully calibrated to promote this interest. In short, the rule at issue here does not invoke Justice Holmes' observation that “if regulation goes too far it will be recognized as a taking.”</P>
        <P>62. Because the prohibition that we adopt today applies only to cable operators, common carriers or their affiliates that provide video programming directly to subscribers, and operators of open video systems, and does not require MDU owners to provide access to all MVPDs, we do not address comments raising concerns about the Commission's authority to mandate such access. However, we reject arguments suggesting that the Commission has no authority to regulate such entities' contractual conduct because of the tangential effect of such regulation on MDU owners. As explained above, sections 628(b), 628(j), and our ancillary jurisdiction provide ample bases for regulating these specific MVPDs. Moreover, sections 4(i), 201(b), and 303(r) supply the Commission with strong authority to enforce the full scope of the Cable Act prohibition at issue.</P>
        <HD SOURCE="HD1">IV. Further Notice of Proposed Rulemaking</HD>
        <P>63. The<E T="03">Report and Order</E>found that further inquiry and analysis was needed before the Commission would decide how, if at all, to regulate building exclusivity clauses that give exclusivity to DBS service providers and PCOs. The Commission also refrained, in the<E T="03">Report and Order,</E>from regulating exclusive marketing arrangements (which allow one MVPD into a MDU or real estate development but constrain the ability of competitive MVPDs to market their services directly to MDU residents) and bulk billing arrangements (which may be exclusive but do not prohibit MDU residents from selecting a competitive MVPD provider). The Commission commenced a further rulemaking to inquire into these as-yet unresolved matters, and states that it would conclude this rulemaking and release an order within six months of publication of this<E T="03">Order.</E>
        </P>
        <HD SOURCE="HD1">V. Procedural Matters</HD>
        <HD SOURCE="HD2">A. Regulatory Flexibility Analysis</HD>

        <P>64. Pursuant to the Regulatory Flexibility Act of 1980, as amended, the Commission has prepared a Final Regulatory Flexibility Analysis (“FRFA”) of the possible significant economic impact on small entities of the policies and rules addressed in this document. The FRFA is set forth in Appendix B to the<E T="03">Report and Order.</E>
        </P>
        <HD SOURCE="HD2">B. Paperwork Reduction Act Analysis</HD>
        <P>65. The<E T="03">Report and Order</E>does not contain new or modified information collection requirements subject to the paperwork Reduction Act of 1995 (PRA), Public Law 104-13. In addition, therefore, it does not contain any new or modified “information collection<PRTPAGE P="1089"/>burdens for small business concerns with fewer than 25 employees,” pursuant to the Small Business Paperwork Relief Act of 2002, Public Law 107-198,<E T="03">see</E>44 U.S.C. 3506(c)(4).</P>
        <HD SOURCE="HD2">C. Congressional Review Act</HD>
        <P>66. The Commission has sent a copy of the<E T="03">Report and Order,</E>including the FRFA, in a report to be sent to Congress and the Government Accountability Office pursuant to the Congressional Review Act. In addition, the Commission has sent a copy of the<E T="03">Report and Order,</E>including the FRFA, to the Chief Counsel for Advocacy of the Small Business Administration.</P>
        <HD SOURCE="HD2">D. Additional Information</HD>
        <P>67. For additional information on this proceeding, please contact John W. Berresford, (202) 418-1886, or Holly Saurer, (202) 418-7283, both of the Policy Division, Media Bureau.</P>
        <HD SOURCE="HD1">VI. Ordering Clauses</HD>
        <P>68. Accordingly,<E T="03">it is ordered</E>that, pursuant to the authority contained in sections 1, 2(a), 4(i) 157 nt., 303(r), 335, 601(6), 628(b,c), and 653(c)(1) of the Communications Act of 1934, as amended; 47 U.S.C. 151, 152(a), 154(i), 157 nt., 303(r), 335, 521(6), 548(b,c), and 573(c)(1), this<E T="03">Report and Order is adopted.</E>
        </P>
        <P>69.<E T="03">It is further ordered</E>that, pursuant to the authority contained in sections 1, 2(a), 4(i) 157 nt., 303(r), 335, 601(6), 628(b,c), and 653(c)(1) of the Communications Act of 1934, as amended, 47 U.S.C. 151, 152(a), 154(i), 157 nt., 303(r), 335, 521(6), 548(b,c), and 573(c)(1), 47 CFR part 76.2000 of the Commission's rules<E T="03">is amended,</E>as set forth below. It is our intention in adopting these rule changes that, if any provision of the rules is held invalid by any court of competent jurisdiction, the remaining provisions shall remain in effect to the fullest extent permitted by law.</P>
        <P>70.<E T="03">It is further ordered</E>that the following documents shall be made part of the record in this proceeding: (a) Letter from Leora Hochstein, Executive Director, Federal Regulatory, Verizon, to Marlene H. Dortch, Commission Secretary, MB Docket No. 05-311 (Aug. 9, 2006); (b) Letter from Ms. Hochstein to Ms. Dortch, MB Docket No. 05-311 (July 6, 2006); (c) Comments of SureWest Communications in MM Docket No. 06-189; (d) Comments of Manatee County, Florida, in MB Docket No. 05-311; and (e) the Comments of Cablevision and Comcast in MB Docket No. 07-29.</P>
        <P>71.<E T="03">It is further ordered</E>that the rule contained herein<E T="03">shall become effective</E>60 days after publication of this<E T="03">report and order</E>in the<E T="04">Federal Register</E>.</P>
        <LSTSUB>
          <HD SOURCE="HED">List of Subjects in 47 CFR Part 76</HD>
          <P>Cable television.</P>
        </LSTSUB>.<SIG>
          <FP>Federal Communications Commission.</FP>
          <NAME>Marlene H. Dortch,</NAME>
          <TITLE>Secretary.</TITLE>
        </SIG>
        <REGTEXT PART="76" TITLE="47">
          <HD SOURCE="HD1">Final Rules</HD>
          <AMDPAR>For the reasons discussed in the preamble, the Federal Communications Commission amends 47 CFR part 76 as follows:</AMDPAR>
          <PART>
            <HD SOURCE="HED">PART 76—MULTICHANNEL VIDEO AND CABLE TELEVISION SERVICE</HD>
          </PART>
          <AMDPAR>1. The authority citation for part 76 continues to read as follows:</AMDPAR>
          <AUTH>
            <HD SOURCE="HED">Authority:</HD>
            <P>47 U.S.C. 151, 152, 153, 154, 301, 302, 302a, 303, 303a, 307, 308, 309, 312, 315, 317, 325, 339, 340, 341, 503, 521, 522, 531, 532, 534, 535, 536, 537, 543, 544, 544a, 545, 548, 549, 552, 554, 556, 558, 560, 561, 571, 572, 573.</P>
          </AUTH>
        </REGTEXT>
        
        <REGTEXT PART="76" TITLE="47">
          <AMDPAR>2. Add subpart X to part 76 to read as follows:</AMDPAR>
          <SUBPART>
            <HD SOURCE="HED">Subpart X—Access to MDUs</HD>
            <SECTION>
              <SECTNO>§ 76.2000</SECTNO>
              <SUBJECT>Exclusive access to multiple dwelling units generally.</SUBJECT>
              <P>(a)<E T="03">Prohibition.</E>No cable operator or other provider of MVPD service subject to 47 U.S.C. 548 shall enforce or execute any provision in a contract that grants to it the exclusive right to provide any video programming service (alone or in combination with other services) to a MDU. All such exclusivity clauses are null and void.</P>
              <P>(b)<E T="03">Definition.</E>For purposes of this rule, MDU shall include a multiple dwelling unit building (such as an apartment building, condominium building or cooperative) and any other centrally managed residential real estate development (such as a gated community, mobile home park, or garden apartment); provided however, that MDU shall not include time share units, academic campuses and dormitories, military bases, hotels, rooming houses, prisons, jails, halfway houses, hospitals, nursing homes or other assisted living facilities.</P>
            </SECTION>
          </SUBPART>
        </REGTEXT>
        
      </SUPLINF>
      <FRDOC>[FR Doc. E7-25349 Filed 1-4-08; 8:45 am]</FRDOC>
      <BILCOD>BILLING CODE 6712-01-P</BILCOD>
    </RULE>
    <RULE>
      <PREAMB>
        <AGENCY TYPE="N">DEPARTMENT OF TRANSPORTATION</AGENCY>
        <SUBAGY>Pipeline and Hazardous Materials Safety Administration</SUBAGY>
        <CFR>49 CFR Part 172</CFR>
        <DEPDOC>[Docket No. PHMSA-2006-28711 (HM-145N)]</DEPDOC>
        <RIN>RIN 2137-AE24</RIN>
        <SUBJECT>Hazardous Materials: Revisions to the List of Hazardous Substances and Reportable Quantities</SUBJECT>
        <AGY>
          <HD SOURCE="HED">AGENCY:</HD>
          <P>Pipeline and Hazardous Materials Safety Administration (PHMSA), DOT.</P>
        </AGY>
        <ACT>
          <HD SOURCE="HED">ACTION:</HD>
          <P>Final rule.</P>
        </ACT>
        <SUM>
          <HD SOURCE="HED">SUMMARY:</HD>

          <P>PHMSA amends the Hazardous Materials Regulations (HMR) by revising the list of hazardous substances and reportable quantities (RQs) and by correcting editorial errors to the list of hazardous substances and RQs. Superfund (<E T="03">i.e.</E>, CERCLA) requires PHMSA to list and regulate all hazardous substances designated by the Environmental Protection Agency (EPA). This final rule enables shippers and carriers to identify the affected hazardous substances, comply with all applicable regulatory requirements, and make the required notifications if the release of a hazardous substance occurs.</P>
        </SUM>
        <EFFDATE>
          <HD SOURCE="HED">DATES:</HD>
          <P>
            <E T="03">Effective Date:</E>March 31, 2008.</P>
          <P>
            <E T="03">Voluntary Compliance Date:</E>PHMSA is authorizing voluntary compliance beginning February 29, 2008.</P>
        </EFFDATE>
        <FURINF>
          <HD SOURCE="HED">FOR FURTHER INFORMATION CONTACT:</HD>
          <P>Dirk Der Kinderen (202) 366-8553, Office of Hazardous Materials Standards, PHMSA, 1200 New Jersey Avenue, SE., East Building, Washington, DC 20590-0001. Questions about hazardous substance designations or reportable quantities should be directed to EPA at the Superfund, EPCRA, RMP and Oil Information hotline at (800) 424-9346 or, in Washington, DC, local area (703) 412-9810.</P>
        </FURINF>
      </PREAMB>
      <SUPLINF>
        <HD SOURCE="HED">SUPPLEMENTARY INFORMATION:</HD>
        <P/>
        <HD SOURCE="HD1">I. Background</HD>

        <P>Section 306(a) of the Comprehensive Environmental Response, Compensation and Liability Act of 1980 (CERCLA; 42 U.S.C. 9601-9675), as amended by section 202 of the Superfund Amendments and Reauthorization Act of 1986 (SARA; 42 U.S.C 11011<E T="03">et seq.</E>), requires the Secretary of Transportation to regulate hazardous substances listed or designated under Section 101(14) of CERCLA, 42 U.S.C. 9601(14), as hazardous materials under the Federal hazardous materials transportation law (49 U.S.C. 5101-5128). PHMSA carries<PRTPAGE P="1090"/>out the rulemaking responsibilities of the Secretary of Transportation under the Federal hazardous materials transportation law, 49 CFR 1.53(b). This final rule is necessary to comply with 42 U.S.C. 9656(a), as amended by Section 202 of SARA.</P>
        <P>In carrying out the statutory mandate, PHMSA has no discretion to determine what is or is not a hazardous substance or the appropriate reportable quantity (RQ) for materials designated as hazardous substances. This authority is vested in EPA. In accordance with CERCLA requirements, EPA must issue final rules amending the list of CERCLA hazardous substances, including adjusting RQs, before PHMSA can amend the list of hazardous substances in the HMR. PHMSA periodically revises the list of hazardous substances and RQs in the HMR (49 CFR Parts 171-180) as adjustments are made by EPA.</P>
        <P>This final rule revises the “List of Hazardous Substances and Reportable Quantities” that appears in Table 1 of Appendix A to § 172.101 to be consistent with EPA's List of Hazardous Substances and Reportable Quantities in 40 CFR 302.4 (Table 302.4). The changes made in this final rule are based on several EPA final rules that added, corrected, or deleted (removed) entries to Table 302.4. In addition, this final rule revises the “List of Hazardous Substances and Reportable Quantities” to correct typographical errors or insert inadvertent omissions from previous PHMSA rulemakings that revised the list based on previous EPA rule changes.</P>
        <P>This final rule will enable shippers and carriers to identify CERCLA hazardous substances, comply with all applicable HMR and EPA requirements, and make required notifications if a release of a hazardous substance occurs. In addition to the reporting requirements of the HMR found in §§ 171.15 and 171.16, a release of a hazardous substance is subject to EPA notification requirements under 40 CFR 302.6 and may be subject to the reporting requirements of the U.S. Coast Guard under 33 CFR 153.203.</P>
        <HD SOURCE="HD1">II. Recent Revisions to EPA Table 302.4</HD>
        <P>This final rule revises the “List of Hazardous Substances and Reportable Quantities” that appears in Table 1 of Appendix A to § 172.101 to be consistent with revisions made in recent EPA rules that followed our last reprint of Table 1. The EPA changes to Table 302.4 are discussed as follows. (See the tables below for a listing of hazardous substances added and deleted by the EPA rules discussed below.)</P>

        <P>On July 9, 2002, EPA issued a direct final rule (67 FR 45314) correcting errors and removing obsolete or redundant language in its Table 302.4. The majority of the errors were either typographical or the result of inadvertent omissions. Specifically, errors included unintentional discrepancies between an individual hazardous substance name appearing in Table 302.4 and the same name as it appears in other statutes (<E T="03">i.e.</E>, Resource Conservation and Recovery Act (RCRA) section 3001, Clean Water Act (CWA) sections 307 and 311, and Clean Air Act (CAA) section 112) and their implementing regulations. EPA made corrections to the names of a number of hazardous substances to make them consistent with names that appear in these other regulatory lists. Many of these corrections are simple and involve, for example, the deletion of an unnecessary hyphen or the addition of parentheses. EPA added synonyms for six hazardous substances to Table 302.4 to be consistent with a February 9, 1995 final rule (60 FR 7824) that added a number of synonyms to RCRA regulations for those same substances. The hazardous substances and the respective synonyms that were added are “Carbaryl; (1-Napthalenol, methylcarbamate)”, “Carbofuran; (7-Benzofuranol, 2,3-dihydro-2,2-dimethyl-, methylcarbamate)”, “Mercaptodimethur; (Phenol, (3,5-dimethyl-4-(methylthio)-, methylcarbamate)”, “Mexacarbate; (Phenol, 4-(dimethylamino)-3,5-dimethyl-, methylcarbamate (ester))”, “Propoxur (Baygon); (Phenol, 2-(1-methylethoxy)-, methylcarbamate)”, and “Triethylamine; (Ethanamine, N,N-diethyl-).” EPA also added the entries “Bis(chloromethyl) ether” and “Bromomethane” as synonyms to be consistent with substances listed in section 112 of the CAA. Additionally, EPA removed a number of hazardous substances from Table 302.4 in the interest of avoiding duplicative entries and deleted a number of synonyms of hazardous substances because the synonyms are not listed in RCRA, CWA, CAA, or their implementing regulations. Please refer to the July 9, 2002<E T="04">Federal Register</E>noted above for a complete explanation of the additions and deletions. This rule revises the entries in Table 1 of Appendix A to § 172.101 of the HMR for consistency with the revisions in EPA's July 9, 2002 final rule. However, we are retaining the entry for “Methyl chloroformate” and adding the footnote “@” because “Methyl chloroformate” is also listed as a proper shipping name in the Hazardous Materials Table (HMT). The footnote “@” signifies that the entry is added by PHMSA because it is a synonym for a listed hazardous substance and appears in the HMT as a proper shipping name.</P>
        <P>On February 24, 2005, EPA issued a final rule (70 FR 9138) that added an entry for the K181 waste code (nonwastewaters from the production of dyes and/or pigments) to Table 302.4 and assigned the waste a statutory one-pound RQ. This rule adds K181 to the “List of Hazardous Substances and Reportable Quantities.”</P>
        <P>On August 16, 2006, EPA issued a final rule (71 FR 47106) that adjusted the RQs for 34 hazardous substances from their statutory one-pound RQs. Specifically, the rule adjusted RQs for 28 individual carbamates, five carbamate-related waste codes (K156, K157, K158, K159, and K161), and the K178 waste code (inorganic manufacturing process waste). With the exception of K156, K157, K158, and K178, these materials have not been previously listed in the HMR as hazardous substances. This rule adds the 30 previously unlisted hazardous substances to the HMR and adjusts the RQs for consistency with EPA Table 302.4.</P>

        <P>The following tables identify hazardous substances added or deleted in this final rule as well as a<E T="04">Federal Register</E>reference to the EPA rule each revision is based upon:</P>
        <P>A. Hazardous Substances Added to Table 1 of Appendix A to § 172.101</P>
        <GPOTABLE CDEF="s100,14,14" COLS="3" OPTS="L2,tp0,i1">
          <TTITLE/>
          <BOXHD>
            <CHED H="1">Hazardous substance</CHED>
            <CHED H="1">Reportable quantity (RQ) pounds<LI>(kilograms)</LI>
            </CHED>
            <CHED H="1">EPA final rule</CHED>
          </BOXHD>
          <ROW>
            <ENT I="01">A2213</ENT>
            <ENT>5000 (2270)</ENT>
            <ENT>71 FR 47106</ENT>
          </ROW>
          <ROW>
            <ENT I="01">Aldicarb sulfone</ENT>
            <ENT>100 (45.4)</ENT>
            <ENT>71 FR 47106</ENT>
          </ROW>
          <ROW>
            <ENT I="01">Barban</ENT>
            <ENT>10 (4.54)</ENT>
            <ENT>71 FR 47106</ENT>
          </ROW>
          <ROW>
            <ENT I="01">Bendiocarb</ENT>
            <ENT>100 (45.4)</ENT>
            <ENT>71 FR 47106</ENT>
          </ROW>
          <ROW>
            <ENT I="01">Bendiocarb phenol</ENT>
            <ENT>1000 (454)</ENT>
            <ENT>71 FR 47106</ENT>
          </ROW>
          <ROW>
            <ENT I="01">Benomyl</ENT>
            <ENT>10 (4.54)</ENT>
            <ENT>71 FR 47106</ENT>
          </ROW>
          <ROW>
            <PRTPAGE P="1091"/>
            <ENT I="01">1,3-Benzodioxol-4-ol, 2,2-dimethyl-</ENT>
            <ENT>1000 (454)</ENT>
            <ENT>71 FR 47106</ENT>
          </ROW>
          <ROW>
            <ENT I="01">1,3-Benzodioxol-4-ol, 2,2-dimethyl-, methyl carbamate</ENT>
            <ENT>100 (45.4)</ENT>
            <ENT>71 FR 47106</ENT>
          </ROW>
          <ROW>
            <ENT I="01">7-Benzofuranol, 2,3-dihydro-2,2-dimethyl-</ENT>
            <ENT>10 (4.54)</ENT>
            <ENT>71 FR 47106</ENT>
          </ROW>
          <ROW>
            <ENT I="01">7-Benzofuranol, 2,3-dihydro-2,2-dimethyl-, methylcarbamate</ENT>
            <ENT>10 (4.54)</ENT>
            <ENT>67 FR 45314</ENT>
          </ROW>
          <ROW>
            <ENT I="01">Benzoic acid, 2-hydroxy-, compd. with (3aS-cis)-1,2,3,3a,8,8a-hexahydro-1,3a,8-trimethylpyrrolo [2,3-b]indol-5-yl methylcarbamate ester (1:1)</ENT>
            <ENT>100 (45.4)</ENT>
            <ENT>71 FR 47106</ENT>
          </ROW>
          <ROW>
            <ENT I="01">Bis(chloromethyl) ether</ENT>
            <ENT>10 (4.54)</ENT>
            <ENT>67 FR 45314</ENT>
          </ROW>
          <ROW>
            <ENT I="01">Bromomethane</ENT>
            <ENT>1000 (454)</ENT>
            <ENT>67 FR 45314</ENT>
          </ROW>
          <ROW>
            <ENT I="01">Carbamic acid, 1H-benzimidazol-2-yl, methyl ester</ENT>
            <ENT>10 (4.54)</ENT>
            <ENT>71 FR 47106</ENT>
          </ROW>
          <ROW>
            <ENT I="01">Carbamic acid, [1-[(butylamino)carbonyl]-1H-benzimidazol-2-yl]-, methyl ester</ENT>
            <ENT>10 (4.54)</ENT>
            <ENT>71 FR 47106</ENT>
          </ROW>
          <ROW>
            <ENT I="01">Carbamic acid, (3-chlorophenyl)-, 4-chloro-2-butynyl ester</ENT>
            <ENT>10 (4.54)</ENT>
            <ENT>71 FR 47106</ENT>
          </ROW>
          <ROW>
            <ENT I="01">Carbamic acid, [(dibutylamino)thio]methyl-, 2,3-dihydro-2,2-dimethyl-7-benzofuranyl ester</ENT>
            <ENT>1000 (454)</ENT>
            <ENT>71 FR 47106</ENT>
          </ROW>
          <ROW>
            <ENT I="01">Carbamic acid, dimethyl-,1-[(dimethyl-amino)carbonyl]-5-methyl-1H-pyrazol-3-yl ester</ENT>
            <ENT>1 (0.454)</ENT>
            <ENT>71 FR 47106</ENT>
          </ROW>
          <ROW>
            <ENT I="01">Carbamic acid, dimethyl-, 3-methyl-1-(1-methylethyl)-1H-pyrazol-5-yl ester</ENT>
            <ENT>100 (45.4)</ENT>
            <ENT>71 FR 47106</ENT>
          </ROW>
          <ROW>
            <ENT I="01">Carbamic acid, methyl-, 3-methylphenyl ester</ENT>
            <ENT>1000 (454)</ENT>
            <ENT>71 FR 47106</ENT>
          </ROW>
          <ROW>
            <ENT I="01">Carbamic acid, [1,2-phenylenebis(iminocarbonothioyl)] bis-, dimethyl ester</ENT>
            <ENT>10 (4.54)</ENT>
            <ENT>71 FR 47106</ENT>
          </ROW>
          <ROW>
            <ENT I="01">Carbamic acid, phenyl-, 1-methylethyl ester</ENT>
            <ENT>1000 (454)</ENT>
            <ENT>71 FR 47106</ENT>
          </ROW>
          <ROW>
            <ENT I="01">Carbamothioic acid, bis(1-methylethyl)-, S-(2,3,3-trichloro-2-propenyl) ester</ENT>
            <ENT>100 (45.4)</ENT>
            <ENT>71 FR 47106</ENT>
          </ROW>
          <ROW>
            <ENT I="01">Carbamothioic acid, dipropyl-, S-(phenylmethyl) ester</ENT>
            <ENT>5000 (2270)</ENT>
            <ENT>71 FR 47106</ENT>
          </ROW>
          <ROW>
            <ENT I="01">Carbendazim</ENT>
            <ENT>10 (4.54)</ENT>
            <ENT>71 FR 47106</ENT>
          </ROW>
          <ROW>
            <ENT I="01">Carbofuran phenol</ENT>
            <ENT>10 (4.54)</ENT>
            <ENT>71 FR 47106</ENT>
          </ROW>
          <ROW>
            <ENT I="01">Carbosulfan</ENT>
            <ENT>1000 (454)</ENT>
            <ENT>71 FR 47106</ENT>
          </ROW>
          <ROW>
            <ENT I="01">Cresol (cresylic acid)</ENT>
            <ENT>100 (45.4)</ENT>
            <ENT>67 FR 45314</ENT>
          </ROW>
          <ROW>
            <ENT I="01">m-Cumenyl methylcarbamate</ENT>
            <ENT>10 (4.54)</ENT>
            <ENT>71 FR 47106</ENT>
          </ROW>
          <ROW>
            <ENT I="01">Diethylene glycol, dicarbamate</ENT>
            <ENT>5000 (2270)</ENT>
            <ENT>71 FR 47106</ENT>
          </ROW>
          <ROW>
            <ENT I="01">Dimetilan</ENT>
            <ENT>1 (0.454)</ENT>
            <ENT>71 FR 47106</ENT>
          </ROW>
          <ROW>
            <ENT I="01">1,3-Dithiolane-2-carboxaldehyde, 2,4-dimethyl-, O-[(methylamino)carbonyl] oxime</ENT>
            <ENT>100 (45.4)</ENT>
            <ENT>71 FR 47106</ENT>
          </ROW>
          <ROW>
            <ENT I="01">Ethanamine, N,N-diethyl-</ENT>
            <ENT>5000 (2270)</ENT>
            <ENT>67 FR 45314</ENT>
          </ROW>
          <ROW>
            <ENT I="01">Ethanimidothioic acid, 2-(dimethylamino)-N-hydroxy-2-oxo-, methyl ester</ENT>
            <ENT>5000 (2270)</ENT>
            <ENT>71 FR 47106</ENT>
          </ROW>
          <ROW>
            <ENT I="01">Ethanimidothioic acid, 2-(dimethylamino)-N-[[(methylamino)carbonyl]oxy]-2-oxo-, methyl ester</ENT>
            <ENT>100 (45.4)</ENT>
            <ENT>71 FR 47106</ENT>
          </ROW>
          <ROW>
            <ENT I="01">Ethanimidothioic acid, N,N′[thiobis[(methylimino) carbonyloxy]]bis-, dimethyl ester</ENT>
            <ENT>100 (45.4)</ENT>
            <ENT>71 FR 47106</ENT>
          </ROW>
          <ROW>
            <ENT I="01">Ethanol, 2,2′-oxybis-, dicarbamate</ENT>
            <ENT>5000 (2270)</ENT>
            <ENT>71 FR 47106</ENT>
          </ROW>
          <ROW>
            <ENT I="01">Formetanate hydrochloride</ENT>
            <ENT>100 (45.4)</ENT>
            <ENT>71 FR 47106</ENT>
          </ROW>
          <ROW>
            <ENT I="01">Formparanate</ENT>
            <ENT>100 (45.4)</ENT>
            <ENT>71 FR 47106</ENT>
          </ROW>
          <ROW>
            <ENT I="01">Isolan</ENT>
            <ENT>100 (45.4)</ENT>
            <ENT>71 FR 47106</ENT>
          </ROW>
          <ROW>
            <ENT I="01">3-Isopropylphenyl N-methylcarbamate</ENT>
            <ENT>10 (4.54)</ENT>
            <ENT>71 FR 47106</ENT>
          </ROW>
          <ROW>
            <ENT I="01">Manganese, bis(dimethylcarbamodithioato-S,S′)-</ENT>
            <ENT>10 (4.54)</ENT>
            <ENT>71 FR 47106</ENT>
          </ROW>
          <ROW>
            <ENT I="01">Manganese dimethyldithiocarbamate</ENT>
            <ENT>10 (4.54)</ENT>
            <ENT>71 FR 47106</ENT>
          </ROW>
          <ROW>
            <ENT I="01">Methanimidamide, N,N-dimethyl-N′-[3-[[(methylamino) carbonyl]oxy]phenyl]-, monohydrochloride</ENT>
            <ENT>100 (45.4)</ENT>
            <ENT>71 FR 47106</ENT>
          </ROW>
          <ROW>
            <ENT I="01">Methanimidamide, N,N-dimethyl-N′-[2-methyl-4-[[(methylamino)carbonyl]oxy]phenyl]-</ENT>
            <ENT>100 (45.4)</ENT>
            <ENT>71 FR 47106</ENT>
          </ROW>
          <ROW>
            <ENT I="01">Metolcarb</ENT>
            <ENT>1000 (454)</ENT>
            <ENT>71 FR 47106</ENT>
          </ROW>
          <ROW>
            <ENT I="01">1-Naphthalenol, methylcarbamate</ENT>
            <ENT>100 (45.4)</ENT>
            <ENT>67 FR 45314</ENT>
          </ROW>
          <ROW>
            <ENT I="01">Oxamyl</ENT>
            <ENT>100 (45.4)</ENT>
            <ENT>71 FR 47106</ENT>
          </ROW>
          <ROW>
            <ENT I="01">Phenol, 4-(dimethylamino)-3,5-dimethyl-, methylcarbamate (ester)</ENT>
            <ENT>1000 (454)</ENT>
            <ENT>67 FR 45314</ENT>
          </ROW>
          <ROW>
            <ENT I="01">Phenol, (3,5-dimethyl)-4-(methylthio)-, methylcarbamate</ENT>
            <ENT>10 (4.54)</ENT>
            <ENT>67 FR 45314</ENT>
          </ROW>
          <ROW>
            <ENT I="01">Phenol, 2-(1-methylethoxy)-, methylcarbamate</ENT>
            <ENT>100 (45.4)</ENT>
            <ENT>67 FR 45314</ENT>
          </ROW>
          <ROW>
            <ENT I="01">Phenol, 3-(1-methylethyl)-, methyl carbamate</ENT>
            <ENT>10 (4.54)</ENT>
            <ENT>71 FR 47106</ENT>
          </ROW>
          <ROW>
            <ENT I="01">Phenol, 3-methyl-5-(1-methylethyl)-, methyl carbamate</ENT>
            <ENT>1000 (454)</ENT>
            <ENT>71 FR 47106</ENT>
          </ROW>
          <ROW>
            <ENT I="01">Physostigmine</ENT>
            <ENT>100 (45.4)</ENT>
            <ENT>71 FR 47106</ENT>
          </ROW>
          <ROW>
            <ENT I="01">Physostigmine salicylate</ENT>
            <ENT>100 (45.4)</ENT>
            <ENT>71 FR 47106</ENT>
          </ROW>
          <ROW>
            <ENT I="01">Promecarb</ENT>
            <ENT>1000 (454)</ENT>
            <ENT>71 FR 47106</ENT>
          </ROW>
          <ROW>
            <ENT I="01">Propanal, 2-methyl-2-(methyl-sulfonyl)-, O-[(methylamino)carbonyl] oxime</ENT>
            <ENT>100 (45.4)</ENT>
            <ENT>71 FR 47106</ENT>
          </ROW>
          <ROW>
            <ENT I="01">Propham</ENT>
            <ENT>1000 (454)</ENT>
            <ENT>71 FR 47106</ENT>
          </ROW>
          <ROW>
            <ENT I="01">Prosulfocarb</ENT>
            <ENT>5000 (2270)</ENT>
            <ENT>71 FR 47106</ENT>
          </ROW>
          <ROW>
            <ENT I="01">Pyrrolo[2,3-b] indol-5-ol, 1,2,3,3a,8,8a-hexahydro-1,3a,8-trimethyl-, methylcarbamate (ester), (3aS-cis)-</ENT>
            <ENT>100 (45.4)</ENT>
            <ENT>71 FR 47106</ENT>
          </ROW>
          <ROW>
            <ENT I="01">Thiodicarb</ENT>
            <ENT>100 (45.4)</ENT>
            <ENT>71 FR 47106</ENT>
          </ROW>
          <ROW>
            <ENT I="01">Thiophanate-methyl</ENT>
            <ENT>10 (4.54)</ENT>
            <ENT>71 FR 47106</ENT>
          </ROW>
          <ROW>
            <ENT I="01">Tirpate</ENT>
            <ENT>100 (45.4)</ENT>
            <ENT>71 FR 47106</ENT>
          </ROW>
          <ROW>
            <ENT I="01">Triallate</ENT>
            <ENT>100 (45.4)</ENT>
            <ENT>71 FR 47106</ENT>
          </ROW>
          <ROW>
            <ENT I="01">Zinc, bis(dimethylcarbamodithioato-S,S′)-</ENT>
            <ENT>10 (4.54)</ENT>
            <ENT>71 FR 47106</ENT>
          </ROW>
          <ROW>
            <ENT I="01">Ziram</ENT>
            <ENT>10 (4.54)</ENT>
            <ENT>71 FR 47106</ENT>
          </ROW>
          <ROW>
            <ENT I="01">K159</ENT>
            <ENT>10 (4.54)</ENT>
            <ENT>71 FR 47106</ENT>
          </ROW>
          <ROW>
            <ENT I="01">K161</ENT>
            <ENT>1 (0.454)</ENT>
            <ENT>71 FR 47106</ENT>
          </ROW>
          <ROW>
            <ENT I="01">K181</ENT>
            <ENT>1 (0.454)</ENT>
            <ENT>70 FR 9138</ENT>
          </ROW>
        </GPOTABLE>

        <HD SOURCE="HD2">B. Hazardous Substances Deleted From Table 1 of Appendix A to § 172.101<PRTPAGE P="1092"/>
        </HD>
        <GPOTABLE CDEF="s100,14,14" COLS="3" OPTS="L2,tp0,i1">
          <TTITLE/>
          <BOXHD>
            <CHED H="1">Hazardous substance</CHED>
            <CHED H="1">Reportable quantity (RQ) pounds<LI>(kilograms)</LI>
            </CHED>
            <CHED H="1">EPA final rule</CHED>
          </BOXHD>
          <ROW>
            <ENT I="01">Arsenic acid</ENT>
            <ENT>1 (0.454)</ENT>
            <ENT>67 FR 45314</ENT>
          </ROW>
          <ROW>
            <ENT I="03">Benzene, m-dimethyl</ENT>
            <ENT/>
            <ENT>67 FR 45314</ENT>
          </ROW>
          <ROW>
            <ENT I="03">Benzene, o-dimethyl</ENT>
            <ENT/>
            <ENT>67 FR 45314</ENT>
          </ROW>
          <ROW>
            <ENT I="03">Benzene, p-dimethy</ENT>
            <ENT/>
            <ENT>67 FR 45314</ENT>
          </ROW>
          <ROW>
            <ENT I="01">Benzene, hydroxy-</ENT>
            <ENT>1000 (454)</ENT>
            <ENT>67 FR 45314</ENT>
          </ROW>
          <ROW>
            <ENT I="01">Benzo[j,k]fluorine</ENT>
            <ENT>100 (45.4)</ENT>
            <ENT>67 FR 45314</ENT>
          </ROW>
          <ROW>
            <ENT I="01">1,2-Benzphenanthrene</ENT>
            <ENT>100 (45.4)</ENT>
            <ENT>67 FR 45314</ENT>
          </ROW>
          <ROW>
            <ENT I="01">Calcium cyanide</ENT>
            <ENT>10 (4.54)</ENT>
            <ENT>67 FR 45314</ENT>
          </ROW>
          <ROW>
            <ENT I="01">Camphene, octachloro-</ENT>
            <ENT>1 (0.454)</ENT>
            <ENT>67 FR 45314</ENT>
          </ROW>
          <ROW>
            <ENT I="01">4-Chloro-m-cresol</ENT>
            <ENT>5000 (2270)</ENT>
            <ENT>67 FR 45314</ENT>
          </ROW>
          <ROW>
            <ENT I="01">Copper cyanide</ENT>
            <ENT>10 (4.54)</ENT>
            <ENT>67 FR 45314</ENT>
          </ROW>
          <ROW>
            <ENT I="03">m-Cresylic acid</ENT>
            <ENT/>
            <ENT>67 FR 45314</ENT>
          </ROW>
          <ROW>
            <ENT I="03">o-Cresylic acid</ENT>
            <ENT/>
            <ENT>67 FR 45314</ENT>
          </ROW>
          <ROW>
            <ENT I="03">p-Cresylic acid</ENT>
            <ENT/>
            <ENT>67 FR 45314</ENT>
          </ROW>
          <ROW>
            <ENT I="01">Cyanogen bromide</ENT>
            <ENT>1000 (454)</ENT>
            <ENT>67 FR 45314</ENT>
          </ROW>
          <ROW>
            <ENT I="01">Cyanogen chloride</ENT>
            <ENT>10 (4.54)</ENT>
            <ENT>67 FR 45314</ENT>
          </ROW>
          <ROW>
            <ENT I="01">1,4-Diethylenedioxide</ENT>
            <ENT>100 (45.4)</ENT>
            <ENT>67 FR 45314</ENT>
          </ROW>
          <ROW>
            <ENT I="01">Hexachlorocyclohexane (gamma isomer)</ENT>
            <ENT>1 (0.454)</ENT>
            <ENT>67 FR 45314</ENT>
          </ROW>
          <ROW>
            <ENT I="01">Hydrogen sulfide</ENT>
            <ENT>100 (45.4)</ENT>
            <ENT>67 FR 45314</ENT>
          </ROW>
          <ROW>
            <ENT I="01">Muscimol</ENT>
            <ENT>1000 (454)</ENT>
            <ENT>67 FR 45314</ENT>
          </ROW>
          <ROW>
            <ENT I="01">Nickel carbonyl</ENT>
            <ENT>10 (4.54)</ENT>
            <ENT>67 FR 45314</ENT>
          </ROW>
          <ROW>
            <ENT I="01">Nickel cyanide</ENT>
            <ENT>10 (4.54)</ENT>
            <ENT>67 FR 45314</ENT>
          </ROW>
          <ROW>
            <ENT I="01">1,10-(1,2-Phenylene) pyrene</ENT>
            <ENT>100 (45.4)</ENT>
            <ENT>67 FR 45314</ENT>
          </ROW>
          <ROW>
            <ENT I="01">Potassium cyanide</ENT>
            <ENT>10 (4.54)</ENT>
            <ENT>67 FR 45314</ENT>
          </ROW>
          <ROW>
            <ENT I="01">Selenium sulfide</ENT>
            <ENT>10 (4.54)</ENT>
            <ENT>67 FR 45314</ENT>
          </ROW>
          <ROW>
            <ENT I="01">Silver cyanide</ENT>
            <ENT>1 (0.454)</ENT>
            <ENT>67 FR 45314</ENT>
          </ROW>
          <ROW>
            <ENT I="01">Sodium cyanide</ENT>
            <ENT>10 (4.54)</ENT>
            <ENT>67 FR 45314</ENT>
          </ROW>
          <ROW>
            <ENT I="01">Tetrachloroethene</ENT>
            <ENT>100 (45.4)</ENT>
            <ENT>67 FR 45314</ENT>
          </ROW>
          <ROW>
            <ENT I="01">Thallium (I) chloride</ENT>
            <ENT>100 (45.4)</ENT>
            <ENT>67 FR 45314</ENT>
          </ROW>
          <ROW>
            <ENT I="01">Trichloroethene</ENT>
            <ENT>100 (45.4)</ENT>
            <ENT>67 FR 45314</ENT>
          </ROW>
          <ROW>
            <ENT I="03">2,4,5-Trichlorophenol</ENT>
            <ENT/>
            <ENT>67 FR 45314</ENT>
          </ROW>
          <ROW>
            <ENT I="03">2,4,6-Trichlorophenol</ENT>
            <ENT/>
            <ENT>67 FR 45314</ENT>
          </ROW>
          <ROW>
            <ENT I="01">Zinc cyanide</ENT>
            <ENT>10 (4.54)</ENT>
            <ENT>67 FR 45314</ENT>
          </ROW>
          <ROW>
            <ENT I="01">Zinc phosphide</ENT>
            <ENT>100 (45.4)</ENT>
            <ENT>67 FR 45314</ENT>
          </ROW>
        </GPOTABLE>
        <HD SOURCE="HD1">III. PHMSA Revisions Based on Previous EPA Rule Revisions to Table 302.4</HD>
        <P>This final rule also makes corrections to the “List of Hazardous Substances and Reportable Quantities” appearing in Table 1 of Appendix A to § 172.101 to be consistent with revisions made in past EPA final rules that pre-date the rules discussed in section II. The corrections to the “List of Hazardous Substances and Reportable Quantities” are explained as follows:</P>
        <P>(1) “Acetic acid, (2,4,5-trichlorophenoxy)-” and “Carbamodithioic acid, 1,2-ethanediylbis-, salts  esters” were added to EPA Table 302.4 as new names for previously listed hazardous substances by a December 27, 1989 EPA final rule (54 FR 53057) but were inadvertently not added into the HMR. This rule adds “Acetic acid, (2,4,5-trichlorophenoxy)-” and “Carbamodithioic acid, 1,2-ethanediylbis-, salts  esters” to the HMR.</P>
        <P>(2) “Diamine” and “1,2,3,4,10-10-Hexachloro-1,4,4a,5,8,8a-hexahydro-1,4:5,8-endo,exo-dimethanonaphthalene” were no longer listed in Table 302.4 as synonyms for hazardous substances by an August 14, 1989 EPA final rule (54 FR 33425) but inadvertently remained in the HMR. This rule deletes “Diamine” and “1,2,3,4,10-10-Hexachloro-1,4,4a,5,8,8a-hexahydro-1,4:5,8-endo,exo-dimethanonaphthalene” from the HMR.</P>
        <P>(3) “3,4-Benzacridine”, “Carbamide, thio-”, “Carbamimidoselenoic acid”, “Carbon bisulfide“, “Ethanoyl chloride”, “Ethylenebisdithiocarbamic acid“, “Methanoic acid”, and “Methylene oxide” were deleted from Table 302.4 as synonyms by a December 27, 1989 EPA final rule (54 FR 53057) but inadvertently remained in the HMR. This rule deletes the synonyms from the HMR.</P>
        <P>(4) “Methiocarb” was added to Table 302.4 as a synonym by a February 9, 1995 EPA final rule (60 FR 7824) but was inadvertently not added into the HMR. This rule adds “Methiocarb” to the HMR.</P>
        <P>(5) “Aroclors”, “Chlorinated Camphene”, “DEHP”, “Dibromoethane”, “Hexone”, “Iodomethane”, “Lindane (all isomers)”, “PCBs”, “PCNB”, “Quinone”, “Quintobenzene”, “TCDD”, “2,4-Toluene diamine”, “2,4-Toluene diisocyanate”, and “Urethane” were added to Table 302.4 as synonyms by a June 12, 1995 EPA final rule (60 FR 30926) but were inadvertently not added into the HMR. This rule adds the synonyms to the HMR.</P>
        <P>(6) “beta-Propiolactone” was added as a new entry to Table 302.4 by a June 12, 1995 EPA final rule (60 FR 30926) but was inadvertently not added into the HMR. This rule adds “beta-Propiolactone” to the HMR.</P>

        <P>(7) The entry for “1,4-Diethylenedioxide” was corrected by adding “1,4-Diethyleneoxide” as a synonym to Table 302.4 by July 12, 1995<E T="04">Federal Register</E>corrections (60 FR 35991) but “1,4-Diethyleneoxide” was inadvertently not added into the HMR. This rule adds “1,4-Diethyleneoxide” to the HMR.</P>
        <HD SOURCE="HD1">IV. PHMSA Changes to Table 1 of Appendix A to § 172.101</HD>

        <P>This final rule makes several non-substantive changes to the “List of Hazardous Substances and Reportable Quantities” that appears in Table 1 of Appendix A to § 172.101 of the HMR. Most of the changes correct typographical errors (i.e., incorrect RQs) and insert inadvertent omissions from<PRTPAGE P="1093"/>printings of previous PHMSA rulemakings and the CFR. The changes include the removal of descriptive language for waste codes found in Table 1 as well as the removal of the entry “Tetrachloroethane @” because it does not also appear in the HMT as a proper shipping name. The waste code descriptions are readily available in EPA's List of Hazardous Substances and Reportable Quantities in 40 CFR 302.4. In the interest of relieving the burden of tracking EPA revisions to waste code descriptions for consistency purposes, limiting the potential for errors in the text when printing the descriptions, and space savings, we believe the waste code descriptions do not need to be duplicated in the HMR.</P>
        <P>Several hazardous substances in Table 1 are listed with an incorrect RQ and are being corrected by this final rule. The changes are discussed as follows:</P>
        <P>(1) The RQ for “[1,1′-Biphenyl]-4,4′-diamine, 3,3′-dimethoxy-” (and its synonym “3,3′-Dimethoxybenzidine”) was incorrectly changed from 1 to 10 pounds rather than to 100 pounds in the August 21, 1989 PHMSA final rule (HM-145G; 54 FR 34666). This rule corrects the RQ for “[1,1′-Biphenyl]-4,4′-diamine,3,3′-dimethoxy-” and its synonym to 100 pounds.</P>
        <P>(2) The RQ for “Diethylamine” was incorrectly changed to 1000 in the November 7, 1990 PHMSA final rule (HM-145I; 55 FR 46794). This rule corrects the RQ for “Diethylamine” to 100 pounds.</P>
        <P>(3) The F004 waste code is based on two solvents: “Cresols/Cresylic Acid” and “Nitrobenzene.” The August 2, 1995 PHMSA final rule (HM-145K; 60 FR 39608) inadvertently revised the RQ for “Nitrobenzene” from 1000 to 100 pounds rather than for “Cresols/Cresylic Acid.” This final rule corrects the RQ for “Cresols/Cresylic Acid” from 1000 to 100 pounds and the RQ for “Nitrobenzene” to 1000 pounds.</P>
        <P>(4) The RQs for “Acetic acid, thallium(1+) salt” and “1-Acetyl-2-thiourea” were incorrectly printed starting with the 1996 edition of the CFR. This rule corrects the RQs to 100 and 1000 pounds, respectively.</P>
        <P>(5) The RQ for “Methyl chloromethyl ether @” was inadvertently not revised to 10 pounds in the March 5, 2002 PHMSA final rule (HM-145M; 67 FR 9926). The RQs for synonyms “Chloromethyl methyl ether” and “Methane, chloromethoxy-” were revised without revising the RQ for “Methyl chloromethyl ether @.” This rule corrects the RQ for “Methyl chloromethyl ether @” to 10 pounds.</P>
        <P>Several hazardous substances were inadvertently omitted from Table 1. The omissions as well as other corrections to Table 1 are explained as follows:</P>
        <P>(1) “1-Chloro-2,3-epoxypropane”, “Dimethyl aminoazobenzene”, “2,6-Dinitrophenol”, “2-Methyl aziridine”, and “m-Nitrophenol” were inadvertently omitted from the HMR through reprintings of the list in previous PHMSA rulemakings. This rule returns these entries to the HMR.</P>
        <P>(2) The entry for “DDE” (and its RQ of 5000 pounds) was inadvertently omitted from the HMR starting with the 2000 edition of the CFR. This rule returns “DDE” and its RQ of 5000 pounds to the HMR. In addition, to provide clarification that there should be two listings of “DDE” with different RQs, CAS numbers are being added to the respective “DDE” entries. Also, the footnote “#” is added to the end of Table 1 of Appendix A to § 172.101 to provide a reference to the EPA rationale for having two entries with different RQs for the hazardous substance “DDE.”</P>
        <P>(3) “1-Naphthalenamine” and “2-Naphthalenamine” were inadvertently omitted from the HMR by including their respective synonyms, “1-Naphthylamine” and “2-Naphthylamine”, instead. This rule adds “1-Naphthalenamine” and “2-Naphthalenamine” to the HMR and deletes “1-Naphthylamine” and “2-Naphthylamine” from the HMR.</P>
        <P>Because this rulemaking makes numerous changes to the “List of Hazardous Substances and Reportable Quantities” found in Table 1 of Appendix A to § 172.101, we are reprinting it in its entirety.</P>
        <HD SOURCE="HD1">V. Regulatory Analyses and Notices</HD>
        <HD SOURCE="HD2">A. Executive Order 12866 and DOT Regulatory Policies and Procedures</HD>
        <P>This final rule is not considered a significant regulatory action under section 3(f) of Executive Order 12866 and, therefore, was not reviewed by the Office of Management and Budget. The rule is not considered significant under the Regulatory Policies and Procedures of the Department of Transportation (44 FR 11034). The economic impact associated with this final rule should be minimal for shippers and carriers for several reasons: (1) This rule does not impose new requirements on shippers or carriers of hazardous substances, but merely lists and makes corrections to hazardous substances already subject to regulation by EPA; (2) to the extent that new hazardous substances are added to the HMR requiring compliance with regulations pertaining to transport of the hazardous substances, most of the new entries already meet an existing hazard class definition and are currently subject to the HMR. For example, carbamates are widely used as ingredients in pesticides. Shippers and carriers would incur some increased costs from additional hazard communication requirements (e.g., “RQ” on shipping papers and marking of packages) but minimal compared to costs of compliance with regulations for a hazardous substance that previously had not been regulated and; (3) additional hazardous substances added into the HMR in this final rule were inadvertent omissions or are synonyms of hazardous substances already subject to the requirements.</P>
        <P>In consideration of the changes to the RQs for several hazardous substances in this rule, we reviewed the “Economic Impact Analysis (EIA) of Proposed Reportable Quantity Adjustments for Carbamates Added as RCRA Hazardous Wastes and CERCLA Hazardous Substances, Volume VII,” dated December 2002 prepared by the Environmental Protection Agency (EPA) in support of its related final rule. A copy of that document is available for review in the EPA docket (EPA-HQ-SFUND-2002-0010-0052).</P>
        <P>According to the EPA EIA, upward RQ adjustments for hazardous substances reduce the required telephone notification of releases and reduce government and industry time spent on recordkeeping. The effects of these actions taken together can be categorized as “cost savings.” Conversely, downward RQ adjustments would produce increases in these same actions and therefore result in additional costs. Likewise, from an HMR compliance cost perspective, upward RQ adjustments are expected to reduce costs by reducing the number of shipments subject to the hazard communication requirements for RQs or subject to the HMR in general (by being a hazardous material based solely on being defined as a hazardous substance) while downward RQ adjustments are expected to increase costs. The majority of the RQ adjustments (based on EPA adjustments) in this rule are upwards adjustments leading to an overall cost savings.</P>

        <P>This final rule will also enhance transportation safety and environmental protection because shippers, carriers, and emergency response personnel will be able to identify specific hazardous substances and take appropriate actions to comply with the applicable packaging and hazard communication requirements and to respond to transportation incidents involving hazardous substances.<PRTPAGE P="1094"/>
        </P>
        <HD SOURCE="HD2">B. Executive Order 13132</HD>
        <P>This final rule has been analyzed in accordance with the principles and criteria contained in Executive Order 13132 (“Federalism”). This final rule preempts State, local and Indian tribe requirements but does not adopt any regulation that has substantial direct effects on the States, the relationship between the national government and the States, or the distribution of power and responsibilities among the various levels of government. Therefore, the consultation and funding requirements of Executive Order 13132 do not apply.</P>
        <P>The Federal hazardous material transportation law, 49 U.S.C. 5101-5128, contains an express preemption provision (49 U.S.C. 5125(b)) that preempts State, local, and Indian tribe requirements on certain covered subjects. Covered subjects are:</P>
        <P>(1) The designation, description, and classification of hazardous material;</P>
        <P>(2) The packing, repacking, handling, labeling, marking, and placarding of hazardous material;</P>
        <P>(3) The preparation, execution, and use of shipping documents related to hazardous materials and requirements related to the number, contents, and placement of those documents;</P>
        <P>(4) The written notification, recording, and reporting of the unintentional release in transportation of hazardous material; or</P>
        <P>(5) The design, manufacture, fabrication, inspection, marking, maintenance, reconditioning, repair, or testing of a packaging or container represented, marked, certified, or sold as qualified for use in transporting hazardous material.</P>

        <P>This final rule addresses covered subject items (1), (2), and (3) above and would preempt State, local, and Indian tribe requirements not meeting the “substantively the same” standard. This rule is required by statute. Federal hazardous materials transportation law provides at Sec. 5125(b)(2) that, if PHMSA issues a regulation concerning any of the covered subjects, PHMSA must determine and publish in the<E T="04">Federal Register</E>the effective date of Federal preemption. The effective date may not be earlier than the 90th day following the date of issuance of the final rule and not later than two years after the date of issuance. The effective date of Federal preemption for these requirements is April 7, 2008.</P>
        <HD SOURCE="HD2">C. Executive Order 13175</HD>
        <P>This final rule has been analyzed in accordance with the principles and criteria contained in Executive Order 13175 (“Consultation and Coordination with Indian Tribal Governments”). Because this final rule does not have tribal implications, does not impose substantial direct compliance costs, and is required by statute, the funding and consultation requirements of Executive Order 13175 do not apply.</P>
        <HD SOURCE="HD2">D. Regulatory Flexibility Act</HD>
        <P>The Regulatory Flexibility Act (5 U.S.C. 601<E T="03">et seq.</E>) requires an agency to review regulations to assess their impact on small entities unless the agency determines that a rule is not expected to have a significant impact on a substantial number of small entities. The Regulatory Flexibility Act applies only to final rules that are preceded by notices of proposed rulemaking (NPRM). Because this rule was not preceded by an NPRM, no assessment is required. EPA addressed the Regulatory Flexibility Act when it made the hazardous substances designation reflected in this rule.</P>
        <HD SOURCE="HD2">E. Paperwork Reduction Act</HD>
        <P>This final rule does not impose any new information collection burden.</P>
        <HD SOURCE="HD2">F. Regulation Identifier Number (RIN)</HD>
        <P>A regulation identifier number (RIN) is assigned to each regulatory action listed in the Unified Agenda of Federal Regulations. The Regulatory Information Service Center publishes the Unified Agenda in April and October of each year. The RIN contained in the heading of this document can be used to cross-reference this action with the Unified Agenda.</P>
        <HD SOURCE="HD2">G. Unfunded Mandates Reform Act</HD>
        <P>This final rule imposes no mandates and, thus, does not impose unfunded mandates under the Unfunded Mandates Reform Act of 1995. It does not result in costs of $120.7 million or more to either State, local or tribal governments, in the aggregate, or to the private sector, and is the least burdensome alternative that achieves the objective of the rule.</P>
        <HD SOURCE="HD2">H. Environmental Assessment</HD>
        <P>The National Environmental Policy Act of 1969 (NEPA), as amended (42 U.S.C. 4321-4347) requires Federal agencies to consider the consequences of major Federal actions and prepare a detailed statement on actions significantly affecting the quality of the human environment.</P>
        <P>Releases of hazardous substances (e.g., carbamates) have the potential to cause damage to the human environment. Releases can occur during any stage of transportation (i.e., loading, transport, unloading, etc.). When a release occurs, it may result in increased risk to public health and the environment such as increased human exposure to carcinogens or adverse impacts to vegetation and wildlife surrounding the location of the release.</P>
        <P>Revisions made to the “List of Hazardous Substances and Reportable Quantities” found in Table 1 of Appendix A to § 172.101 in this final rule enhance environmental protection. Listing of hazardous substances in the HMR and the correct RQs promotes better identification of these materials, leading to greater compliance with the reporting requirements and effective emergency response to incidents involving these materials, thereby lessening the potential for damage to the human environment. Further, the adjustment of an RQ should not have any significant influence on the number of releases that occur for that substance. EPA considers inherent substance-specific risks as part of its RQ adjustment methodology. It is assumed that releases of hazardous substances below an (adjusted) RQ, under most release circumstances, would not pose a sufficient risk to the human environment to warrant a government response. We conclude there are no significant environmental impacts associated with this final rule.</P>
        <LSTSUB>
          <HD SOURCE="HED">List of Subjects in 49 CFR Part 172</HD>
          <P>Education, Hazardous materials transportation, Hazardous waste, Hazardous substances, Labeling, Markings, Packaging and containers, Reporting and recordkeeping requirements.</P>
        </LSTSUB>
        <REGTEXT PART="172" TITLE="49">
          <P>In consideration of the foregoing, Title 49, part 172 of the Code of Federal Regulations, is amended as follows:</P>
          <PART>
            <HD SOURCE="HED">PART 172—HAZARDOUS MATERIALS TABLE, SPECIAL PROVISIONS, HAZARDOUS MATERIALS COMMUNICATIONS, EMERGENCY RESPONSE INFORMATION, AND TRAINING REQUIREMENTS</HD>
          </PART>
          <AMDPAR>1. The authority citation for part 172 continues to read as follows:</AMDPAR>
          <AUTH>
            <HD SOURCE="HED">Authority:</HD>
            <P>49 U.S.C. 5101-5128, 44701; 49 CFR 1.53.</P>
          </AUTH>
        </REGTEXT>
        
        <REGTEXT PART="172" TITLE="49">
          <AMDPAR>2. In Appendix A to § 172.101, Table 1 is revised to read as follows:</AMDPAR>
          
          <EXTRACT>
            <HD SOURCE="HD1">Appendix A to § 172.101—List of Hazardous Substances and Reportable Quantities</HD>
            <STARS/>
          </EXTRACT>
          <PRTPAGE P="1095"/>
          <GPOTABLE CDEF="s100,14" COLS="2" OPTS="L2,i1">
            <TTITLE>Table 1 to Appendix A.—Hazardous Substances Other Than Radionuclides</TTITLE>
            <BOXHD>
              <CHED H="1">Hazardous substance</CHED>
              <CHED H="1">Reportable<LI>quantity (RQ)</LI>
                <LI>pounds</LI>
                <LI>(kilograms)</LI>
              </CHED>
            </BOXHD>
            <ROW>
              <ENT I="01">A2213</ENT>
              <ENT>5000 (2270)</ENT>
            </ROW>
            <ROW>
              <ENT I="01">Acenaphthene</ENT>
              <ENT>100 (45.4)</ENT>
            </ROW>
            <ROW>
              <ENT I="01">Acenaphthylene</ENT>
              <ENT>5000 (2270)</ENT>
            </ROW>
            <ROW>
              <ENT I="01">Acetaldehyde</ENT>
              <ENT>1000 (454)</ENT>
            </ROW>
            <ROW>
              <ENT I="01">Acetaldehyde, chloro-</ENT>
              <ENT>1000 (454)</ENT>
            </ROW>
            <ROW>
              <ENT I="01">Acetaldehyde, trichloro-</ENT>
              <ENT>5000 (2270)</ENT>
            </ROW>
            <ROW>
              <ENT I="01">Acetamide</ENT>
              <ENT>100 (45.4)</ENT>
            </ROW>
            <ROW>
              <ENT I="01">Acetamide, N-(aminothioxomethyl)-</ENT>
              <ENT>1000 (454)</ENT>
            </ROW>
            <ROW>
              <ENT I="01">Acetamide, N-(4-ethoxyphenyl)-</ENT>
              <ENT>100 (45.4)</ENT>
            </ROW>
            <ROW>
              <ENT I="01">Acetamide, N-9H-fluoren-2-yl-</ENT>
              <ENT>1 (0.454)</ENT>
            </ROW>
            <ROW>
              <ENT I="01">Acetamide, 2-fluoro-</ENT>
              <ENT>100 (45.4)</ENT>
            </ROW>
            <ROW>
              <ENT I="01">Acetic acid</ENT>
              <ENT>5000 (2270)</ENT>
            </ROW>
            <ROW>
              <ENT I="01">Acetic acid, (2,4-dichlorophenoxy)-, salts  esters</ENT>
              <ENT>100 (45.4)</ENT>
            </ROW>
            <ROW>
              <ENT I="01">Acetic acid, ethyl ester</ENT>
              <ENT>5000 (2270)</ENT>
            </ROW>
            <ROW>
              <ENT I="01">Acetic acid, fluoro-, sodium salt</ENT>
              <ENT>10 (4.54)</ENT>
            </ROW>
            <ROW>
              <ENT I="01">Acetic acid, lead(2+) salt</ENT>
              <ENT>10 (4.54)</ENT>
            </ROW>
            <ROW>
              <ENT I="01">Acetic acid, thallium(1+) salt</ENT>
              <ENT>100 (45.4)</ENT>
            </ROW>
            <ROW>
              <ENT I="01">Acetic acid, (2,4,5-trichlorophenoxy)-</ENT>
              <ENT>1000 (454)</ENT>
            </ROW>
            <ROW>
              <ENT I="01">Acetic anhydride</ENT>
              <ENT>5000 (2270)</ENT>
            </ROW>
            <ROW>
              <ENT I="01">Acetone</ENT>
              <ENT>5000 (2270)</ENT>
            </ROW>
            <ROW>
              <ENT I="01">Acetone cyanohydrin</ENT>
              <ENT>10 (4.54)</ENT>
            </ROW>
            <ROW>
              <ENT I="01">Acetonitrile</ENT>
              <ENT>5000 (2270)</ENT>
            </ROW>
            <ROW>
              <ENT I="01">Acetophenone</ENT>
              <ENT>5000 (2270)</ENT>
            </ROW>
            <ROW>
              <ENT I="01">2-Acetylaminofluorene</ENT>
              <ENT>1 (0.454)</ENT>
            </ROW>
            <ROW>
              <ENT I="01">Acetyl bromide</ENT>
              <ENT>5000 (2270)</ENT>
            </ROW>
            <ROW>
              <ENT I="01">Acetyl chloride</ENT>
              <ENT>5000 (2270)</ENT>
            </ROW>
            <ROW>
              <ENT I="01">1-Acetyl-2-thiourea</ENT>
              <ENT>1000 (454)</ENT>
            </ROW>
            <ROW>
              <ENT I="01">Acrolein</ENT>
              <ENT>1 (0.454)</ENT>
            </ROW>
            <ROW>
              <ENT I="01">Acrylamide</ENT>
              <ENT>5000 (2270)</ENT>
            </ROW>
            <ROW>
              <ENT I="01">Acrylic acid</ENT>
              <ENT>5000 (2270)</ENT>
            </ROW>
            <ROW>
              <ENT I="01">Acrylonitrile</ENT>
              <ENT>100 (45.4)</ENT>
            </ROW>
            <ROW>
              <ENT I="01">Adipic acid</ENT>
              <ENT>5000 (2270)</ENT>
            </ROW>
            <ROW>
              <ENT I="01">Aldicarb</ENT>
              <ENT>1 (0.454)</ENT>
            </ROW>
            <ROW>
              <ENT I="01">Aldicarb sulfone</ENT>
              <ENT>100 (45.4)</ENT>
            </ROW>
            <ROW>
              <ENT I="01">Aldrin</ENT>
              <ENT>1 (0.454)</ENT>
            </ROW>
            <ROW>
              <ENT I="01">Allyl alcohol</ENT>
              <ENT>100 (45.4)</ENT>
            </ROW>
            <ROW>
              <ENT I="01">Allyl chloride</ENT>
              <ENT>1000 (454)</ENT>
            </ROW>
            <ROW>
              <ENT I="01">Aluminum phosphide</ENT>
              <ENT>100 (45.4)</ENT>
            </ROW>
            <ROW>
              <ENT I="01">Aluminum sulfate</ENT>
              <ENT>5000 (2270)</ENT>
            </ROW>
            <ROW>
              <ENT I="01">4-Aminobiphenyl</ENT>
              <ENT>1 (0.454)</ENT>
            </ROW>
            <ROW>
              <ENT I="01">5-(Aminomethyl)-3-isoxazolol</ENT>
              <ENT>1000 (454)</ENT>
            </ROW>
            <ROW>
              <ENT I="01">4-Aminopyridine</ENT>
              <ENT>1000 (454)</ENT>
            </ROW>
            <ROW>
              <ENT I="01">Amitrole</ENT>
              <ENT>10 (4.54)</ENT>
            </ROW>
            <ROW>
              <ENT I="01">Ammonia</ENT>
              <ENT>100 (45.4)</ENT>
            </ROW>
            <ROW>
              <ENT I="01">Ammonium acetate</ENT>
              <ENT>5000 (2270)</ENT>
            </ROW>
            <ROW>
              <ENT I="01">Ammonium benzoate</ENT>
              <ENT>5000 (2270)</ENT>
            </ROW>
            <ROW>
              <ENT I="01">Ammonium bicarbonate</ENT>
              <ENT>5000 (2270)</ENT>
            </ROW>
            <ROW>
              <ENT I="01">Ammonium bichromate</ENT>
              <ENT>10 (4.54)</ENT>
            </ROW>
            <ROW>
              <ENT I="01">Ammonium bifluoride</ENT>
              <ENT>100 (45.4)</ENT>
            </ROW>
            <ROW>
              <ENT I="01">Ammonium bisulfite</ENT>
              <ENT>5000 (2270)</ENT>
            </ROW>
            <ROW>
              <ENT I="01">Ammonium carbamate</ENT>
              <ENT>5000 (2270)</ENT>
            </ROW>
            <ROW>
              <ENT I="01">Ammonium carbonate</ENT>
              <ENT>5000 (2270)</ENT>
            </ROW>
            <ROW>
              <ENT I="01">Ammonium chloride</ENT>
              <ENT>5000 (2270)</ENT>
            </ROW>
            <ROW>
              <ENT I="01">Ammonium chromate</ENT>
              <ENT>10 (4.54)</ENT>
            </ROW>
            <ROW>
              <ENT I="01">Ammonium citrate, dibasic</ENT>
              <ENT>5000 (2270)</ENT>
            </ROW>
            <ROW>
              <ENT I="01">Ammonium dichromate<E T="51">@</E>
              </ENT>
              <ENT>10 (4.54)</ENT>
            </ROW>
            <ROW>
              <ENT I="01">Ammonium fluoborate</ENT>
              <ENT>5000 (2270)</ENT>
            </ROW>
            <ROW>
              <ENT I="01">Ammonium fluoride</ENT>
              <ENT>100 (45.4)</ENT>
            </ROW>
            <ROW>
              <ENT I="01">Ammonium hydroxide</ENT>
              <ENT>1000 (454)</ENT>
            </ROW>
            <ROW>
              <ENT I="01">Ammonium oxalate</ENT>
              <ENT>5000 (2270)</ENT>
            </ROW>
            <ROW>
              <ENT I="01">Ammonium picrate</ENT>
              <ENT>10 (4.54)</ENT>
            </ROW>
            <ROW>
              <ENT I="01">Ammonium silicofluoride</ENT>
              <ENT>1000 (454)</ENT>
            </ROW>
            <ROW>
              <ENT I="01">Ammonium sulfamate</ENT>
              <ENT>5000 (2270)</ENT>
            </ROW>
            <ROW>
              <ENT I="01">Ammonium sulfide</ENT>
              <ENT>100 (45.4)</ENT>
            </ROW>
            <ROW>
              <ENT I="01">Ammonium sulfite</ENT>
              <ENT>5000 (2270)</ENT>
            </ROW>
            <ROW>
              <ENT I="01">Ammonium tartrate</ENT>
              <ENT>5000 (2270)</ENT>
            </ROW>
            <ROW>
              <ENT I="01">Ammonium thiocyanate</ENT>
              <ENT>5000 (2270)</ENT>
            </ROW>
            <ROW>
              <ENT I="01">Ammonium vanadate</ENT>
              <ENT>1000 (454)</ENT>
            </ROW>
            <ROW>
              <ENT I="01">Amyl acetate</ENT>
              <ENT>5000 (2270)</ENT>
            </ROW>
            <ROW>
              <PRTPAGE P="1096"/>
              <ENT I="03">iso-Amyl acetate</ENT>
              <ENT/>
            </ROW>
            <ROW>
              <ENT I="03">sec-Amyl acetate</ENT>
              <ENT/>
            </ROW>
            <ROW>
              <ENT I="03">tert-Amyl acetate</ENT>
              <ENT/>
            </ROW>
            <ROW>
              <ENT I="01">Aniline</ENT>
              <ENT>5000 (2270)</ENT>
            </ROW>
            <ROW>
              <ENT I="01">o-Anisidine</ENT>
              <ENT>100 (45.4)</ENT>
            </ROW>
            <ROW>
              <ENT I="01">Anthracene</ENT>
              <ENT>5000 (2270)</ENT>
            </ROW>
            <ROW>
              <ENT I="01">Antimony<E T="8141">¢</E>
              </ENT>
              <ENT>5000 (2270)</ENT>
            </ROW>
            <ROW>
              <ENT I="01">Antimony pentachloride</ENT>
              <ENT>1000 (454)</ENT>
            </ROW>
            <ROW>
              <ENT I="01">Antimony potassium tartrate</ENT>
              <ENT>100 (45.4)</ENT>
            </ROW>
            <ROW>
              <ENT I="01">Antimony tribromide</ENT>
              <ENT>1000 (454)</ENT>
            </ROW>
            <ROW>
              <ENT I="01">Antimony trichloride</ENT>
              <ENT>1000 (454)</ENT>
            </ROW>
            <ROW>
              <ENT I="01">Antimony trifluoride</ENT>
              <ENT>1000 (454)</ENT>
            </ROW>
            <ROW>
              <ENT I="01">Antimony trioxide</ENT>
              <ENT>1000 (454)</ENT>
            </ROW>
            <ROW>
              <ENT I="01">Argentate(1-), bis(cyano-C)-, potassium</ENT>
              <ENT>1 (0.454)</ENT>
            </ROW>
            <ROW>
              <ENT I="01">Aroclor 1016</ENT>
              <ENT>1 (0.454)</ENT>
            </ROW>
            <ROW>
              <ENT I="01">Aroclor 1221</ENT>
              <ENT>1 (0.454)</ENT>
            </ROW>
            <ROW>
              <ENT I="01">Aroclor 1232</ENT>
              <ENT>1 (0.454)</ENT>
            </ROW>
            <ROW>
              <ENT I="01">Aroclor 1242</ENT>
              <ENT>1 (0.454)</ENT>
            </ROW>
            <ROW>
              <ENT I="01">Aroclor 1248</ENT>
              <ENT>1 (0.454)</ENT>
            </ROW>
            <ROW>
              <ENT I="01">Aroclor 1254</ENT>
              <ENT>1 (0.454)</ENT>
            </ROW>
            <ROW>
              <ENT I="01">Aroclor 1260</ENT>
              <ENT>1 (0.454)</ENT>
            </ROW>
            <ROW>
              <ENT I="01">Aroclors</ENT>
              <ENT>1 (0.454)</ENT>
            </ROW>
            <ROW>
              <ENT I="01">Arsenic<E T="8141">¢</E>
              </ENT>
              <ENT>1 (0.454)</ENT>
            </ROW>
            <ROW>
              <ENT I="01">Arsenic acid H<E T="52">3</E>AsO<E T="52">4</E>
              </ENT>
              <ENT>1 (0.454)</ENT>
            </ROW>
            <ROW>
              <ENT I="01">Arsenic disulfide</ENT>
              <ENT>1 (0.454)</ENT>
            </ROW>
            <ROW>
              <ENT I="01">Arsenic oxide As<E T="52">2</E>O<E T="52">3</E>
              </ENT>
              <ENT>1 (0.454)</ENT>
            </ROW>
            <ROW>
              <ENT I="01">Arsenic oxide As<E T="52">2</E>O<E T="52">5</E>
              </ENT>
              <ENT>1 (0.454)</ENT>
            </ROW>
            <ROW>
              <ENT I="01">Arsenic pentoxide</ENT>
              <ENT>1 (0.454)</ENT>
            </ROW>
            <ROW>
              <ENT I="01">Arsenic trichloride</ENT>
              <ENT>1 (0.454)</ENT>
            </ROW>
            <ROW>
              <ENT I="01">Arsenic trioxide</ENT>
              <ENT>1 (0.454)</ENT>
            </ROW>
            <ROW>
              <ENT I="01">Arsenic trisulfide</ENT>
              <ENT>1 (0.454)</ENT>
            </ROW>
            <ROW>
              <ENT I="01">Arsine, diethyl-</ENT>
              <ENT>1 (0.454)</ENT>
            </ROW>
            <ROW>
              <ENT I="01">Arsinic acid, dimethyl-</ENT>
              <ENT>1 (0.454)</ENT>
            </ROW>
            <ROW>
              <ENT I="01">Arsonous dichloride, phenyl-</ENT>
              <ENT>1 (0.454)</ENT>
            </ROW>
            <ROW>
              <ENT I="01">Asbestos<E T="8141">¢¢</E>
              </ENT>
              <ENT>1 (0.454)</ENT>
            </ROW>
            <ROW>
              <ENT I="01">Auramine</ENT>
              <ENT>100 (45.4)</ENT>
            </ROW>
            <ROW>
              <ENT I="01">Azaserine</ENT>
              <ENT>1 (0.454)</ENT>
            </ROW>
            <ROW>
              <ENT I="01">Aziridine</ENT>
              <ENT>1 (0.454)</ENT>
            </ROW>
            <ROW>
              <ENT I="01">Aziridine, 2-methyl-</ENT>
              <ENT>1 (0.454)</ENT>
            </ROW>
            <ROW>
              <ENT I="01">Azirino[2′,3′:3,4]pyrrolo[1,2-a]indole-4,7-dione, 6-amino-8-[[(aminocarbonyl)oxy]methyl]-1,1a,2,8,8a,8b-hexahydro-8a-methoxy-5-methyl-, [1aS-(1aalpha,8beta,8aalpha, 8balpha)]-</ENT>
              <ENT>10 (4.54)</ENT>
            </ROW>
            <ROW>
              <ENT I="01">Barban</ENT>
              <ENT>10 (4.54)</ENT>
            </ROW>
            <ROW>
              <ENT I="01">Barium cyanide</ENT>
              <ENT>10 (4.54)</ENT>
            </ROW>
            <ROW>
              <ENT I="01">Bendiocarb</ENT>
              <ENT>100 (45.4)</ENT>
            </ROW>
            <ROW>
              <ENT I="01">Bendiocarb phenol</ENT>
              <ENT>1000 (454)</ENT>
            </ROW>
            <ROW>
              <ENT I="01">Benomyl</ENT>
              <ENT>10 (4.54)</ENT>
            </ROW>
            <ROW>
              <ENT I="01">Benz[j]aceanthrylene, 1,2-dihydro-3-methyl-</ENT>
              <ENT>10 (4.54)</ENT>
            </ROW>
            <ROW>
              <ENT I="01">Benz[c]acridine</ENT>
              <ENT>100 (45.4)</ENT>
            </ROW>
            <ROW>
              <ENT I="01">Benzal chloride</ENT>
              <ENT>5000 (2270)</ENT>
            </ROW>
            <ROW>
              <ENT I="01">Benzamide, 3,5-dichloro-N-(1,1-dimethyl-2-propynyl)-</ENT>
              <ENT>5000 (2270)</ENT>
            </ROW>
            <ROW>
              <ENT I="01">Benz[a]anthracene</ENT>
              <ENT>10 (4.54)</ENT>
            </ROW>
            <ROW>
              <ENT I="01">1,2-Benzanthracene</ENT>
              <ENT>10 (4.54)</ENT>
            </ROW>
            <ROW>
              <ENT I="01">Benz[a]anthracene, 7,12-dimethyl-</ENT>
              <ENT>1 (0.454)</ENT>
            </ROW>
            <ROW>
              <ENT I="01">Benzenamine</ENT>
              <ENT>5000 (2270)</ENT>
            </ROW>
            <ROW>
              <ENT I="01">Benzenamine, 4,4′-carbonimidoylbis (N,N dimethyl-</ENT>
              <ENT>100 (45.4)</ENT>
            </ROW>
            <ROW>
              <ENT I="01">Benzenamine, 4-chloro-</ENT>
              <ENT>1000 (454)</ENT>
            </ROW>
            <ROW>
              <ENT I="01">Benzenamine, 4-chloro-2-methyl-, hydrochloride</ENT>
              <ENT>100 (45.4)</ENT>
            </ROW>
            <ROW>
              <ENT I="01">Benzenamine, N,N-dimethyl-4-(phenylazo)-</ENT>
              <ENT>10 (4.54)</ENT>
            </ROW>
            <ROW>
              <ENT I="01">Benzenamine, 2-methyl-</ENT>
              <ENT>100 (45.4)</ENT>
            </ROW>
            <ROW>
              <ENT I="01">Benzenamine, 4-methyl-</ENT>
              <ENT>100 (45.4)</ENT>
            </ROW>
            <ROW>
              <ENT I="01">Benzenamine, 4,4′-methylenebis[2-chloro-</ENT>
              <ENT>10 (4.54)</ENT>
            </ROW>
            <ROW>
              <ENT I="01">Benzenamine, 2-methyl-, hydrochloride</ENT>
              <ENT>100 (45.4)</ENT>
            </ROW>
            <ROW>
              <ENT I="01">Benzenamine, 2-methyl-5-nitro-</ENT>
              <ENT>100 (45.4)</ENT>
            </ROW>
            <ROW>
              <ENT I="01">Benzenamine, 4-nitro-</ENT>
              <ENT>5000 (2270)</ENT>
            </ROW>
            <ROW>
              <ENT I="01">Benzene</ENT>
              <ENT>10 (4.54)</ENT>
            </ROW>
            <ROW>
              <ENT I="01">Benzeneacetic acid, 4-chloro-α-(4-chlorophenyl)-α-hydroxy-, ethyl ester</ENT>
              <ENT>10 (4.54)</ENT>
            </ROW>
            <ROW>
              <ENT I="01">Benzene, 1-bromo-4-phenoxy-</ENT>
              <ENT>100 (45.4)</ENT>
            </ROW>
            <ROW>
              <ENT I="01">Benzenebutanoic acid, 4-[bis(2-chloroethyl)amino]-</ENT>
              <ENT>10 (4.54)</ENT>
            </ROW>
            <ROW>
              <ENT I="01">Benzene, chloro-</ENT>
              <ENT>100 (45.4)</ENT>
            </ROW>
            <ROW>
              <PRTPAGE P="1097"/>
              <ENT I="01">Benzene, (chloromethyl)-</ENT>
              <ENT>100 (45.4)</ENT>
            </ROW>
            <ROW>
              <ENT I="01">Benzenediamine, ar-methyl-</ENT>
              <ENT>10 (4.54)</ENT>
            </ROW>
            <ROW>
              <ENT I="01">1,2-Benzenedicarboxylic acid, bis(2-ethylhexyl) ester</ENT>
              <ENT>100 (45.4)</ENT>
            </ROW>
            <ROW>
              <ENT I="01">1,2-Benzenedicarboxylic acid, dibutyl ester</ENT>
              <ENT>10 (4.54)</ENT>
            </ROW>
            <ROW>
              <ENT I="01">1,2-Benzenedicarboxylic acid, diethyl ester</ENT>
              <ENT>1000 (454)</ENT>
            </ROW>
            <ROW>
              <ENT I="01">1,2-Benzenedicarboxylic acid, dimethyl ester</ENT>
              <ENT>5000 (2270)</ENT>
            </ROW>
            <ROW>
              <ENT I="01">1,2-Benzenedicarboxylic acid, dioctyl ester</ENT>
              <ENT>5000 (2270)</ENT>
            </ROW>
            <ROW>
              <ENT I="01">Benzene, 1,2-dichloro-</ENT>
              <ENT>100 (45.4)</ENT>
            </ROW>
            <ROW>
              <ENT I="01">Benzene, 1,3-dichloro-</ENT>
              <ENT>100 (45.4)</ENT>
            </ROW>
            <ROW>
              <ENT I="01">Benzene, 1,4-dichloro-</ENT>
              <ENT>100 (45.4)</ENT>
            </ROW>
            <ROW>
              <ENT I="01">Benzene, 1,1′-(2,2-dichloroethylidene) bis[4-chloro-</ENT>
              <ENT>1 (0.454)</ENT>
            </ROW>
            <ROW>
              <ENT I="01">Benzene, (dichloromethyl)-</ENT>
              <ENT>5000 (2270)</ENT>
            </ROW>
            <ROW>
              <ENT I="01">Benzene, 1,3-diisocyanatomethyl-</ENT>
              <ENT>100 (45.4)</ENT>
            </ROW>
            <ROW>
              <ENT I="01">Benzene, dimethyl-</ENT>
              <ENT>100 (45.4)</ENT>
            </ROW>
            <ROW>
              <ENT I="01">1,3-Benzenediol</ENT>
              <ENT>5000 (2270)</ENT>
            </ROW>
            <ROW>
              <ENT I="01">1,2-Benzenediol,4-[1-hydroxy-2-(methylamino) ethyl]-</ENT>
              <ENT>1000 (454)</ENT>
            </ROW>
            <ROW>
              <ENT I="01">Benzeneethanamine, alpha,alpha-dimethyl-</ENT>
              <ENT>5000 (2270)</ENT>
            </ROW>
            <ROW>
              <ENT I="01">Benzene, hexachloro-</ENT>
              <ENT>10 (4.54)</ENT>
            </ROW>
            <ROW>
              <ENT I="01">Benzene, hexahydro-</ENT>
              <ENT>1000 (454)</ENT>
            </ROW>
            <ROW>
              <ENT I="01">Benzene, methyl-</ENT>
              <ENT>1000 (454)</ENT>
            </ROW>
            <ROW>
              <ENT I="01">Benzene, 1-methyl-2,4-dinitro-</ENT>
              <ENT>10 (4.54)</ENT>
            </ROW>
            <ROW>
              <ENT I="01">Benzene, 2-methyl-1,3-dinitro-</ENT>
              <ENT>100 (45.4)</ENT>
            </ROW>
            <ROW>
              <ENT I="01">Benzene, (1-methylethyl)-</ENT>
              <ENT>5000 (2270)</ENT>
            </ROW>
            <ROW>
              <ENT I="01">Benzene, nitro-</ENT>
              <ENT>1000 (454)</ENT>
            </ROW>
            <ROW>
              <ENT I="01">Benzene, pentachloro-</ENT>
              <ENT>10 (4.54)</ENT>
            </ROW>
            <ROW>
              <ENT I="01">Benzene, pentachloronitro-</ENT>
              <ENT>100 (45.4)</ENT>
            </ROW>
            <ROW>
              <ENT I="01">Benzenesulfonic acid chloride</ENT>
              <ENT>100 (45.4)</ENT>
            </ROW>
            <ROW>
              <ENT I="01">Benzenesulfonyl chloride</ENT>
              <ENT>100 (45.4)</ENT>
            </ROW>
            <ROW>
              <ENT I="01">Benzene,1,2,4,5-tetrachloro-</ENT>
              <ENT>5000 (2270)</ENT>
            </ROW>
            <ROW>
              <ENT I="01">Benzenethiol</ENT>
              <ENT>100 (45.4)</ENT>
            </ROW>
            <ROW>
              <ENT I="01">Benzene,1,1′-(2,2,2-trichloroethylidene) bis[4-chloro-</ENT>
              <ENT>1 (0.454)</ENT>
            </ROW>
            <ROW>
              <ENT I="01">Benzene,1,1′-(2,2,2-trichloroethylidene) bis[4-methoxy-</ENT>
              <ENT>1 (0.454)</ENT>
            </ROW>
            <ROW>
              <ENT I="01">Benzene, (trichloromethyl)-</ENT>
              <ENT>10 (4.54)</ENT>
            </ROW>
            <ROW>
              <ENT I="01">Benzene, 1,3,5-trinitro-</ENT>
              <ENT>10 (4.54)</ENT>
            </ROW>
            <ROW>
              <ENT I="01">Benzidine</ENT>
              <ENT>1 (0.454)</ENT>
            </ROW>
            <ROW>
              <ENT I="01">1,2-Benzisothiazol-3(2H)-one, 1,1-dioxide,  salts</ENT>
              <ENT>100 (45.4)</ENT>
            </ROW>
            <ROW>
              <ENT I="01">Benzo[a]anthracene</ENT>
              <ENT>10 (4.54)</ENT>
            </ROW>
            <ROW>
              <ENT I="01">1,3-Benzodioxole, 5-(1-propenyl)-1</ENT>
              <ENT>100 (45.4)</ENT>
            </ROW>
            <ROW>
              <ENT I="01">1,3-Benzodioxole, 5-(2-propenyl)-</ENT>
              <ENT>100 (45.4)</ENT>
            </ROW>
            <ROW>
              <ENT I="01">1,3-Benzodioxole, 5-propyl-</ENT>
              <ENT>10 (4.54)</ENT>
            </ROW>
            <ROW>
              <ENT I="01">1,3-Benzodioxol-4-ol, 2,2-dimethyl-</ENT>
              <ENT>1000 (454)</ENT>
            </ROW>
            <ROW>
              <ENT I="01">1,3-Benzodioxol-4-ol, 2,2-dimethyl-, methyl carbamate</ENT>
              <ENT>100 (45.4)</ENT>
            </ROW>
            <ROW>
              <ENT I="01">Benzo[b]fluoranthene</ENT>
              <ENT>1 (0.454)</ENT>
            </ROW>
            <ROW>
              <ENT I="01">Benzo(k)fluoranthene</ENT>
              <ENT>5000 (2270)</ENT>
            </ROW>
            <ROW>
              <ENT I="01">7-Benzofuranol, 2,3-dihydro-2,2-dimethyl-</ENT>
              <ENT>10 (4.54)</ENT>
            </ROW>
            <ROW>
              <ENT I="01">7-Benzofuranol, 2,3-dihydro-2,2-dimethyl-, methylcarbamate</ENT>
              <ENT>10 (4.54)</ENT>
            </ROW>
            <ROW>
              <ENT I="01">Benzoic acid</ENT>
              <ENT>5000 (2270)</ENT>
            </ROW>
            <ROW>
              <ENT I="01">Benzoic acid, 2-hydroxy-, compd. with (3aS-cis)-1,2,3,3a,8,8a-hexahydro-1,3a,8-trimethylpyrrolo [2,3-b]indol-5-yl methylcarbamate ester (1:1)</ENT>
              <ENT>100 (45.4)</ENT>
            </ROW>
            <ROW>
              <ENT I="01">Benzonitrile</ENT>
              <ENT>5000 (2270)</ENT>
            </ROW>
            <ROW>
              <ENT I="01">Benzo[rst]pentaphene</ENT>
              <ENT>10 (4.54)</ENT>
            </ROW>
            <ROW>
              <ENT I="01">Benzo[ghi]perylene</ENT>
              <ENT>5000 (2270)</ENT>
            </ROW>
            <ROW>
              <ENT I="01">2H-1-Benzopyran-2-one, 4-hydroxy-3-(3-oxo-1-phenylbutyl)-,  salts</ENT>
              <ENT>100 (45.4)</ENT>
            </ROW>
            <ROW>
              <ENT I="01">Benzo[a]pyrene</ENT>
              <ENT>1 (0.454)</ENT>
            </ROW>
            <ROW>
              <ENT I="01">3,4-Benzopyrene</ENT>
              <ENT>1 (0.454)</ENT>
            </ROW>
            <ROW>
              <ENT I="01">p-Benzoquinone</ENT>
              <ENT>10 (4.54)</ENT>
            </ROW>
            <ROW>
              <ENT I="01">Benzotrichloride</ENT>
              <ENT>10 (4.54)</ENT>
            </ROW>
            <ROW>
              <ENT I="01">Benzoyl chloride</ENT>
              <ENT>1000 (454)</ENT>
            </ROW>
            <ROW>
              <ENT I="01">Benzyl chloride</ENT>
              <ENT>100 (45.4)</ENT>
            </ROW>
            <ROW>
              <ENT I="01">Beryllium<E T="8141">¢</E>
              </ENT>
              <ENT>10 (4.54)</ENT>
            </ROW>
            <ROW>
              <ENT I="01">Beryllium chloride</ENT>
              <ENT>1 (0.454)</ENT>
            </ROW>
            <ROW>
              <ENT I="01">Beryllium fluoride</ENT>
              <ENT>1 (0.454)</ENT>
            </ROW>
            <ROW>
              <ENT I="01">Beryllium nitrate</ENT>
              <ENT>1 (0.454)</ENT>
            </ROW>
            <ROW>
              <ENT I="01">Beryllium powder<E T="8141">¢</E>
              </ENT>
              <ENT>10 (4.54)</ENT>
            </ROW>
            <ROW>
              <ENT I="01">alpha-BHC</ENT>
              <ENT>10 (4.54)</ENT>
            </ROW>
            <ROW>
              <ENT I="01">beta-BHC</ENT>
              <ENT>1 (0.454)</ENT>
            </ROW>
            <ROW>
              <ENT I="01">delta-BHC</ENT>
              <ENT>1 (0.454)</ENT>
            </ROW>
            <ROW>
              <ENT I="01">gamma-BHC</ENT>
              <ENT>1 (0.454)</ENT>
            </ROW>
            <ROW>
              <ENT I="01">2,2′-Bioxirane</ENT>
              <ENT>10 (4.54)</ENT>
            </ROW>
            <ROW>
              <PRTPAGE P="1098"/>
              <ENT I="01">Biphenyl</ENT>
              <ENT>100 (45.4)</ENT>
            </ROW>
            <ROW>
              <ENT I="01">[1,1′-Biphenyl]-4,4′-diamine</ENT>
              <ENT>1 (0.454)</ENT>
            </ROW>
            <ROW>
              <ENT I="01">[1,1′-Biphenyl]-4,4′-diamine,3,3′-dichloro-</ENT>
              <ENT>1 (0.454)</ENT>
            </ROW>
            <ROW>
              <ENT I="01">[1,1′-Biphenyl]-4,4′-diamine,3,3′-dimethoxy-</ENT>
              <ENT>100 (45.4)</ENT>
            </ROW>
            <ROW>
              <ENT I="01">[1,1′-Biphenyl]-4,4′-diamine,3,3′-dimethyl-</ENT>
              <ENT>10 (4.54)</ENT>
            </ROW>
            <ROW>
              <ENT I="01">Bis(2-chloroethoxy) methane</ENT>
              <ENT>1000 (454)</ENT>
            </ROW>
            <ROW>
              <ENT I="01">Bis(2-chloroethyl) ether</ENT>
              <ENT>10 (4.54)</ENT>
            </ROW>
            <ROW>
              <ENT I="01">Bis(chloromethyl) ether</ENT>
              <ENT>10 (4.54)</ENT>
            </ROW>
            <ROW>
              <ENT I="01">Bis(2-ethylhexyl) phthalate</ENT>
              <ENT>100 (45.4)</ENT>
            </ROW>
            <ROW>
              <ENT I="01">Bromoacetone</ENT>
              <ENT>1000 (454)</ENT>
            </ROW>
            <ROW>
              <ENT I="01">Bromoform</ENT>
              <ENT>100 (45.4)</ENT>
            </ROW>
            <ROW>
              <ENT I="01">Bromomethane</ENT>
              <ENT>1000 (454)</ENT>
            </ROW>
            <ROW>
              <ENT I="01">4-Bromophenyl phenyl ether</ENT>
              <ENT>100 (45.4)</ENT>
            </ROW>
            <ROW>
              <ENT I="01">Brucine</ENT>
              <ENT>100 (45.4)</ENT>
            </ROW>
            <ROW>
              <ENT I="01">1,3-Butadiene</ENT>
              <ENT>10 (4.54)</ENT>
            </ROW>
            <ROW>
              <ENT I="01">1,3-Butadiene, 1,1,2,3,4,4-hexachloro-</ENT>
              <ENT>1 (0.454)</ENT>
            </ROW>
            <ROW>
              <ENT I="01">1-Butanamine, N-butyl-N-nitroso-</ENT>
              <ENT>10 (4.54)</ENT>
            </ROW>
            <ROW>
              <ENT I="01">1-Butanol</ENT>
              <ENT>5000 (2270)</ENT>
            </ROW>
            <ROW>
              <ENT I="01">2-Butanone</ENT>
              <ENT>5000 (2270)</ENT>
            </ROW>
            <ROW>
              <ENT I="01">2-Butanone, 3,3-dimethyl-1(methylthio)-, O [(methylamino) carbonyl] oxime</ENT>
              <ENT>100 (45.4)</ENT>
            </ROW>
            <ROW>
              <ENT I="01">2-Butanone peroxide</ENT>
              <ENT>10 (4.54)</ENT>
            </ROW>
            <ROW>
              <ENT I="01">2-Butenal</ENT>
              <ENT>100 (45.4)</ENT>
            </ROW>
            <ROW>
              <ENT I="01">2-Butene, 1,4-dichloro-</ENT>
              <ENT>1 (0.454)</ENT>
            </ROW>
            <ROW>
              <ENT I="01">2-Butenoic acid, 2-methyl-, 7-[[2,3-dihydroxy-2-(1-methoxyethyl)-3-methyl-1-oxobutoxy] methyl]-2,3,5,7a-tetrahydro-1H-pyrrolizin-1-yl ester, [1S-[1alpha(Z), 7(2S*,3R*),7aalpha]]-</ENT>
              <ENT>10 (4.54)</ENT>
            </ROW>
            <ROW>
              <ENT I="01">Butyl acetate</ENT>
              <ENT>5000 (2270)</ENT>
            </ROW>
            <ROW>
              <ENT I="03">iso-Butyl acetate</ENT>
              <ENT/>
            </ROW>
            <ROW>
              <ENT I="03">sec-Butyl acetate</ENT>
              <ENT/>
            </ROW>
            <ROW>
              <ENT I="03">tert-Butyl acetate</ENT>
              <ENT/>
            </ROW>
            <ROW>
              <ENT I="01">n-Butyl alcohol</ENT>
              <ENT>5000 (2270)</ENT>
            </ROW>
            <ROW>
              <ENT I="01">Butylamine</ENT>
              <ENT>1000 (454)</ENT>
            </ROW>
            <ROW>
              <ENT I="03">iso-Butylamine</ENT>
              <ENT/>
            </ROW>
            <ROW>
              <ENT I="03">sec-Butylamine</ENT>
              <ENT/>
            </ROW>
            <ROW>
              <ENT I="03">tert-Butylamine</ENT>
              <ENT/>
            </ROW>
            <ROW>
              <ENT I="01">Butyl benzyl phthalate</ENT>
              <ENT>100 (45.4)</ENT>
            </ROW>
            <ROW>
              <ENT I="01">n-Butyl phthalate</ENT>
              <ENT>10 (4.54)</ENT>
            </ROW>
            <ROW>
              <ENT I="01">Butyric acid</ENT>
              <ENT>5000 (2270)</ENT>
            </ROW>
            <ROW>
              <ENT I="03">iso-Butyric acid</ENT>
              <ENT/>
            </ROW>
            <ROW>
              <ENT I="01">Cacodylic acid</ENT>
              <ENT>1 (0.454)</ENT>
            </ROW>
            <ROW>
              <ENT I="01">Cadmium<E T="8141">¢</E>
              </ENT>
              <ENT>10 (4.54)</ENT>
            </ROW>
            <ROW>
              <ENT I="01">Cadmium acetate</ENT>
              <ENT>10 (4.54)</ENT>
            </ROW>
            <ROW>
              <ENT I="01">Cadmium bromide</ENT>
              <ENT>10 (4.54)</ENT>
            </ROW>
            <ROW>
              <ENT I="01">Cadmium chloride</ENT>
              <ENT>10 (4.54)</ENT>
            </ROW>
            <ROW>
              <ENT I="01">Calcium arsenate</ENT>
              <ENT>1 (0.454)</ENT>
            </ROW>
            <ROW>
              <ENT I="01">Calcium arsenite</ENT>
              <ENT>1 (0.454)</ENT>
            </ROW>
            <ROW>
              <ENT I="01">Calcium carbide</ENT>
              <ENT>10 (4.54)</ENT>
            </ROW>
            <ROW>
              <ENT I="01">Calcium chromate</ENT>
              <ENT>10 (4.54)</ENT>
            </ROW>
            <ROW>
              <ENT I="01">Calcium cyanamide</ENT>
              <ENT>1000 (454)</ENT>
            </ROW>
            <ROW>
              <ENT I="01">Calcium cyanide Ca(CN)<E T="52">2</E>
              </ENT>
              <ENT>10 (4.54)</ENT>
            </ROW>
            <ROW>
              <ENT I="01">Calcium dodecylbenzenesulfonate</ENT>
              <ENT>1000 (454)</ENT>
            </ROW>
            <ROW>
              <ENT I="01">Calcium hypochlorite</ENT>
              <ENT>10 (4.54)</ENT>
            </ROW>
            <ROW>
              <ENT I="01">Captan</ENT>
              <ENT>10 (4.54)</ENT>
            </ROW>
            <ROW>
              <ENT I="01">Carbamic acid, 1H-benzimidazol-2-yl, methyl ester</ENT>
              <ENT>10 (4.54)</ENT>
            </ROW>
            <ROW>
              <ENT I="01">Carbamic acid, [1-[(butylamino)carbonyl]-1H-benzimidazol-2-yl]-, methyl ester</ENT>
              <ENT>10 (4.54)</ENT>
            </ROW>
            <ROW>
              <ENT I="01">Carbamic acid, (3-chlorophenyl)-, 4-chloro-2-butynyl ester</ENT>
              <ENT>10 (4.54)</ENT>
            </ROW>
            <ROW>
              <ENT I="01">Carbamic acid, [(dibutylamino)-thio]methyl-, 2,3-dihydro-2,2-dimethyl-7-benzofuranyl ester</ENT>
              <ENT>1000 (454)</ENT>
            </ROW>
            <ROW>
              <ENT I="01">Carbamic acid, dimethyl-,1-[(dimethyl-amino)carbonyl]-5-methyl-1H-pyrazol-3-yl ester</ENT>
              <ENT>1 (0.454)</ENT>
            </ROW>
            <ROW>
              <ENT I="01">Carbamic acid, dimethyl-, 3-methyl-1-(1-methylethyl)-1H-pyrazol-5-yl ester</ENT>
              <ENT>100 (45.4)</ENT>
            </ROW>
            <ROW>
              <ENT I="01">Carbamic acid, ethyl ester</ENT>
              <ENT>100 (45.4)</ENT>
            </ROW>
            <ROW>
              <ENT I="01">Carbamic acid, methyl-, 3-methylphenyl ester</ENT>
              <ENT>1000 (454)</ENT>
            </ROW>
            <ROW>
              <ENT I="01">Carbamic acid, methylnitroso-, ethyl ester</ENT>
              <ENT>1 (0.454)</ENT>
            </ROW>
            <ROW>
              <ENT I="01">Carbamic acid, [1,2-phenylenebis(iminocarbonothioyl)] bis-, dimethyl ester</ENT>
              <ENT>10 (4.54)</ENT>
            </ROW>
            <ROW>
              <ENT I="01">Carbamic acid, phenyl-, 1-methylethyl ester</ENT>
              <ENT>1000 (454)</ENT>
            </ROW>
            <ROW>
              <ENT I="01">Carbamic chloride, dimethyl-</ENT>
              <ENT>1 (0.454)</ENT>
            </ROW>
            <ROW>
              <ENT I="01">Carbamodithioic acid, 1,2-ethanediylbis-, salts  esters</ENT>
              <ENT>5000 (2270)</ENT>
            </ROW>
            <ROW>
              <ENT I="01">Carbamothioic acid, bis(1-methylethyl)-, S-(2,3-dichloro-2-propenyl) ester</ENT>
              <ENT>100 (45.4)</ENT>
            </ROW>
            <ROW>
              <ENT I="01">Carbamothioic acid, bis(1-methylethyl)-, S-(2,3,3-trichloro-2-propenyl) ester</ENT>
              <ENT>100 (45.4)</ENT>
            </ROW>
            <ROW>
              <ENT I="01">Carbamothioic acid, dipropyl-, S-(phenylmethyl) ester</ENT>
              <ENT>5000 (2270)</ENT>
            </ROW>
            <ROW>
              <ENT I="01">Carbaryl</ENT>
              <ENT>100 (45.4)</ENT>
            </ROW>
            <ROW>
              <PRTPAGE P="1099"/>
              <ENT I="01">Carbendazim</ENT>
              <ENT>10 (4.54)</ENT>
            </ROW>
            <ROW>
              <ENT I="01">Carbofuran</ENT>
              <ENT>10 (4.54)</ENT>
            </ROW>
            <ROW>
              <ENT I="01">Carbofuran phenol</ENT>
              <ENT>10 (4.54)</ENT>
            </ROW>
            <ROW>
              <ENT I="01">Carbon disulfide</ENT>
              <ENT>100 (45.4)</ENT>
            </ROW>
            <ROW>
              <ENT I="01">Carbonic acid, dithallium(1+) salt</ENT>
              <ENT>100 (45.4)</ENT>
            </ROW>
            <ROW>
              <ENT I="01">Carbonic dichloride</ENT>
              <ENT>10 (4.54)</ENT>
            </ROW>
            <ROW>
              <ENT I="01">Carbonic difluoride</ENT>
              <ENT>1000 (454)</ENT>
            </ROW>
            <ROW>
              <ENT I="01">Carbonochloridic acid, methyl ester</ENT>
              <ENT>1000 (454)</ENT>
            </ROW>
            <ROW>
              <ENT I="01">Carbon oxyfluoride</ENT>
              <ENT>1000 (454)</ENT>
            </ROW>
            <ROW>
              <ENT I="01">Carbon tetrachloride</ENT>
              <ENT>10 (4.54)</ENT>
            </ROW>
            <ROW>
              <ENT I="01">Carbonyl sulfide</ENT>
              <ENT>100 (45.4)</ENT>
            </ROW>
            <ROW>
              <ENT I="01">Carbosulfan</ENT>
              <ENT>1000 (454)</ENT>
            </ROW>
            <ROW>
              <ENT I="01">Catechol</ENT>
              <ENT>100 (45.4)</ENT>
            </ROW>
            <ROW>
              <ENT I="01">Chloral</ENT>
              <ENT>5000 (2270)</ENT>
            </ROW>
            <ROW>
              <ENT I="01">Chloramben</ENT>
              <ENT>100 (45.4)</ENT>
            </ROW>
            <ROW>
              <ENT I="01">Chlorambucil</ENT>
              <ENT>10 (4.54)</ENT>
            </ROW>
            <ROW>
              <ENT I="01">Chlordane</ENT>
              <ENT>1 (0.454)</ENT>
            </ROW>
            <ROW>
              <ENT I="01">Chlordane, alpha  gamma isomers</ENT>
              <ENT>1 (0.454)</ENT>
            </ROW>
            <ROW>
              <ENT I="01">CHLORDANE (TECHNICAL MIXTURE AND METABOLITES)</ENT>
              <ENT>1 (0.454)</ENT>
            </ROW>
            <ROW>
              <ENT I="01">Chlorinated camphene</ENT>
              <ENT>1 (0.454)</ENT>
            </ROW>
            <ROW>
              <ENT I="01">Chlorine</ENT>
              <ENT>10 (4.54)</ENT>
            </ROW>
            <ROW>
              <ENT I="01">Chlornaphazine</ENT>
              <ENT>100 (45.4)</ENT>
            </ROW>
            <ROW>
              <ENT I="01">Chloroacetaldehyde</ENT>
              <ENT>1000 (454)</ENT>
            </ROW>
            <ROW>
              <ENT I="01">Chloroacetic acid</ENT>
              <ENT>100 (45.4)</ENT>
            </ROW>
            <ROW>
              <ENT I="01">2-Chloroacetophenone</ENT>
              <ENT>100 (45.4)</ENT>
            </ROW>
            <ROW>
              <ENT I="01">p-Chloroaniline</ENT>
              <ENT>1000 (454)</ENT>
            </ROW>
            <ROW>
              <ENT I="01">Chlorobenzene</ENT>
              <ENT>100 (45.4)</ENT>
            </ROW>
            <ROW>
              <ENT I="01">Chlorobenzilate</ENT>
              <ENT>10 (4.54)</ENT>
            </ROW>
            <ROW>
              <ENT I="01">p-Chloro-m-cresol</ENT>
              <ENT>5000 (2270)</ENT>
            </ROW>
            <ROW>
              <ENT I="01">Chlorodibromomethane</ENT>
              <ENT>100 (45.4)</ENT>
            </ROW>
            <ROW>
              <ENT I="01">1-Chloro-2,3-epoxypropane</ENT>
              <ENT>100 (45.4)</ENT>
            </ROW>
            <ROW>
              <ENT I="01">Chloroethane</ENT>
              <ENT>100 (45.4)</ENT>
            </ROW>
            <ROW>
              <ENT I="01">2-Chloroethyl vinyl ether</ENT>
              <ENT>1000 (454)</ENT>
            </ROW>
            <ROW>
              <ENT I="01">Chloroform</ENT>
              <ENT>10 (4.54)</ENT>
            </ROW>
            <ROW>
              <ENT I="01">Chloromethane</ENT>
              <ENT>100 (45.4)</ENT>
            </ROW>
            <ROW>
              <ENT I="01">Chloromethyl methyl ether</ENT>
              <ENT>10 (4.54)</ENT>
            </ROW>
            <ROW>
              <ENT I="01">beta-Chloronaphthalene</ENT>
              <ENT>5000 (2270)</ENT>
            </ROW>
            <ROW>
              <ENT I="01">2-Chloronaphthalene</ENT>
              <ENT>5000 (2270)</ENT>
            </ROW>
            <ROW>
              <ENT I="01">2-Chlorophenol</ENT>
              <ENT>100 (45.4)</ENT>
            </ROW>
            <ROW>
              <ENT I="01">o-Chlorophenol</ENT>
              <ENT>100 (45.4)</ENT>
            </ROW>
            <ROW>
              <ENT I="01">4-Chlorophenyl phenyl ether</ENT>
              <ENT>5000 (2270)</ENT>
            </ROW>
            <ROW>
              <ENT I="01">1-(o-Chlorophenyl)thiourea</ENT>
              <ENT>100 (45.4)</ENT>
            </ROW>
            <ROW>
              <ENT I="01">Chloroprene</ENT>
              <ENT>100 (45.4)</ENT>
            </ROW>
            <ROW>
              <ENT I="01">3-Chloropropionitrile</ENT>
              <ENT>1000 (454)</ENT>
            </ROW>
            <ROW>
              <ENT I="01">Chlorosulfonic acid</ENT>
              <ENT>1000 (454)</ENT>
            </ROW>
            <ROW>
              <ENT I="01">4-Chloro-o-toluidine, hydrochloride</ENT>
              <ENT>100 (45.4)</ENT>
            </ROW>
            <ROW>
              <ENT I="01">Chlorpyrifos</ENT>
              <ENT>1 (0.454)</ENT>
            </ROW>
            <ROW>
              <ENT I="01">Chromic acetate</ENT>
              <ENT>1000 (454)</ENT>
            </ROW>
            <ROW>
              <ENT I="01">Chromic acid</ENT>
              <ENT>10 (4.54)</ENT>
            </ROW>
            <ROW>
              <ENT I="01">Chromic acid H<E T="52">2</E>CrO<E T="52">4</E>, calcium salt</ENT>
              <ENT>10 (4.54)</ENT>
            </ROW>
            <ROW>
              <ENT I="01">Chromic sulfate</ENT>
              <ENT>1000 (454)</ENT>
            </ROW>
            <ROW>
              <ENT I="01">Chromium<E T="8141">¢</E>
              </ENT>
              <ENT>5000 (2270)</ENT>
            </ROW>
            <ROW>
              <ENT I="01">Chromous chloride</ENT>
              <ENT>1000 (454)</ENT>
            </ROW>
            <ROW>
              <ENT I="01">Chrysene</ENT>
              <ENT>100 (45.4)</ENT>
            </ROW>
            <ROW>
              <ENT I="01">Cobaltous bromide</ENT>
              <ENT>1000 (454)</ENT>
            </ROW>
            <ROW>
              <ENT I="01">Cobaltous formate</ENT>
              <ENT>1000 (454)</ENT>
            </ROW>
            <ROW>
              <ENT I="01">Cobaltous sulfamate</ENT>
              <ENT>1000 (454)</ENT>
            </ROW>
            <ROW>
              <ENT I="01">Coke Oven Emissions</ENT>
              <ENT>1 (0.454)</ENT>
            </ROW>
            <ROW>
              <ENT I="01">Copper<E T="8141">¢</E>
              </ENT>
              <ENT>5000 (2270)</ENT>
            </ROW>
            <ROW>
              <ENT I="01">Copper chloride<E T="51">@</E>
              </ENT>
              <ENT>10 (4.54)</ENT>
            </ROW>
            <ROW>
              <ENT I="01">Copper cyanide Cu(CN)</ENT>
              <ENT>10 (4.54)</ENT>
            </ROW>
            <ROW>
              <ENT I="01">Coumaphos</ENT>
              <ENT>10 (4.54)</ENT>
            </ROW>
            <ROW>
              <ENT I="01">Creosote</ENT>
              <ENT>1 (0.454)</ENT>
            </ROW>
            <ROW>
              <ENT I="01">Cresol (cresylic acid)</ENT>
              <ENT>100 (45.4)</ENT>
            </ROW>
            <ROW>
              <ENT I="01">m-Cresol</ENT>
              <ENT>100 (45.4)</ENT>
            </ROW>
            <ROW>
              <ENT I="01">o-Cresol</ENT>
              <ENT>100 (45.4)</ENT>
            </ROW>
            <ROW>
              <ENT I="01">p-Cresol</ENT>
              <ENT>100 (45.4)</ENT>
            </ROW>
            <ROW>
              <ENT I="01">Cresols (isomers and mixture)</ENT>
              <ENT>100 (45.4)</ENT>
            </ROW>
            <ROW>
              <ENT I="01">Cresylic acid (isomers and mixture)</ENT>
              <ENT>100 (45.4)</ENT>
            </ROW>
            <ROW>
              <PRTPAGE P="1100"/>
              <ENT I="01">Crotonaldehyde</ENT>
              <ENT>100 (45.4)</ENT>
            </ROW>
            <ROW>
              <ENT I="01">Cumene</ENT>
              <ENT>5000 (2270)</ENT>
            </ROW>
            <ROW>
              <ENT I="01">m-Cumenyl methylcarbamate</ENT>
              <ENT>10 (4.54)</ENT>
            </ROW>
            <ROW>
              <ENT I="01">Cupric acetate</ENT>
              <ENT>100 (45.4)</ENT>
            </ROW>
            <ROW>
              <ENT I="01">Cupric acetoarsenite</ENT>
              <ENT>1 (0.454)</ENT>
            </ROW>
            <ROW>
              <ENT I="01">Cupric chloride</ENT>
              <ENT>10 (4.54)</ENT>
            </ROW>
            <ROW>
              <ENT I="01">Cupric nitrate</ENT>
              <ENT>100 (45.4)</ENT>
            </ROW>
            <ROW>
              <ENT I="01">Cupric oxalate</ENT>
              <ENT>100 (45.4)</ENT>
            </ROW>
            <ROW>
              <ENT I="01">Cupric sulfate</ENT>
              <ENT>10 (4.54)</ENT>
            </ROW>
            <ROW>
              <ENT I="01">Cupric sulfate, ammoniated</ENT>
              <ENT>100 (45.4)</ENT>
            </ROW>
            <ROW>
              <ENT I="01">Cupric tartrate</ENT>
              <ENT>100 (45.4)</ENT>
            </ROW>
            <ROW>
              <ENT I="01">Cyanides (soluble salts and complexes) not otherwise specified</ENT>
              <ENT>10 (4.54)</ENT>
            </ROW>
            <ROW>
              <ENT I="01">Cyanogen</ENT>
              <ENT>100 (45.4)</ENT>
            </ROW>
            <ROW>
              <ENT I="01">Cyanogen bromide (CN)Br</ENT>
              <ENT>1000 (454)</ENT>
            </ROW>
            <ROW>
              <ENT I="01">Cyanogen chloride (CN)Cl</ENT>
              <ENT>10 (4.54)</ENT>
            </ROW>
            <ROW>
              <ENT I="01">2,5-Cyclohexadiene-1,4-dione</ENT>
              <ENT>10 (4.54)</ENT>
            </ROW>
            <ROW>
              <ENT I="01">Cyclohexane</ENT>
              <ENT>1000 (454)</ENT>
            </ROW>
            <ROW>
              <ENT I="01">Cyclohexane, 1,2,3,4,5,6-hexachloro-, (1α, 2α, 3β-, 4α, 5α, 6β)</ENT>
              <ENT>1 (0.454)</ENT>
            </ROW>
            <ROW>
              <ENT I="01">Cyclohexanone</ENT>
              <ENT>5000 (2270)</ENT>
            </ROW>
            <ROW>
              <ENT I="01">2-Cyclohexyl-4,6-dinitrophenol</ENT>
              <ENT>100 (45.4)</ENT>
            </ROW>
            <ROW>
              <ENT I="01">1,3-Cyclopentadiene, 1,2,3,4,5,5-hexachloro-</ENT>
              <ENT>10 (4.54)</ENT>
            </ROW>
            <ROW>
              <ENT I="01">Cyclophosphamide</ENT>
              <ENT>10 (4.54)</ENT>
            </ROW>
            <ROW>
              <ENT I="01">2,4-D Acid</ENT>
              <ENT>100 (45.4)</ENT>
            </ROW>
            <ROW>
              <ENT I="01">2,4-D Ester</ENT>
              <ENT>100 (45.4)</ENT>
            </ROW>
            <ROW>
              <ENT I="01">2,4-D, salts and esters</ENT>
              <ENT>100 (45.4)</ENT>
            </ROW>
            <ROW>
              <ENT I="01">Daunomycin</ENT>
              <ENT>10 (4.54)</ENT>
            </ROW>
            <ROW>
              <ENT I="01">DDD</ENT>
              <ENT>1 (0.454)</ENT>
            </ROW>
            <ROW>
              <ENT I="01">4,4′-DDD</ENT>
              <ENT>1 (0.454)</ENT>
            </ROW>
            <ROW>
              <ENT I="01">DDE (72-55-9)<E T="51">#</E>
              </ENT>
              <ENT>1 (0.454)</ENT>
            </ROW>
            <ROW>
              <ENT I="01">DDE (3547-04-4)<E T="51">#</E>
              </ENT>
              <ENT>5000 (2270)</ENT>
            </ROW>
            <ROW>
              <ENT I="01">4,4′-DDE</ENT>
              <ENT>1 (0.454)</ENT>
            </ROW>
            <ROW>
              <ENT I="01">DDT</ENT>
              <ENT>1 (0.454)</ENT>
            </ROW>
            <ROW>
              <ENT I="01">4,4′-DDT</ENT>
              <ENT>1 (0.454)</ENT>
            </ROW>
            <ROW>
              <ENT I="01">DEHP</ENT>
              <ENT>100 (45.4)</ENT>
            </ROW>
            <ROW>
              <ENT I="01">Diallate</ENT>
              <ENT>100 (45.4)</ENT>
            </ROW>
            <ROW>
              <ENT I="01">Diazinon</ENT>
              <ENT>1 (0.454)</ENT>
            </ROW>
            <ROW>
              <ENT I="01">Diazomethane</ENT>
              <ENT>100 (45.4)</ENT>
            </ROW>
            <ROW>
              <ENT I="01">Dibenz[a,h]anthracene</ENT>
              <ENT>1 (0.454)</ENT>
            </ROW>
            <ROW>
              <ENT I="01">1,2:5,6-Dibenzanthracene</ENT>
              <ENT>1 (0.454)</ENT>
            </ROW>
            <ROW>
              <ENT I="01">Dibenzo[a,h]anthracene</ENT>
              <ENT>1 (0.454)</ENT>
            </ROW>
            <ROW>
              <ENT I="01">Dibenzofuran</ENT>
              <ENT>100 (45.4)</ENT>
            </ROW>
            <ROW>
              <ENT I="01">Dibenzo[a,i]pyrene</ENT>
              <ENT>10 (4.54)</ENT>
            </ROW>
            <ROW>
              <ENT I="01">1,2-Dibromo-3-chloropropane</ENT>
              <ENT>1 (0.454)</ENT>
            </ROW>
            <ROW>
              <ENT I="01">Dibromoethane</ENT>
              <ENT>1 (0.454)</ENT>
            </ROW>
            <ROW>
              <ENT I="01">Dibutyl phthalate</ENT>
              <ENT>10 (4.54)</ENT>
            </ROW>
            <ROW>
              <ENT I="01">Di-n-butyl phthalate</ENT>
              <ENT>10 (4.54)</ENT>
            </ROW>
            <ROW>
              <ENT I="01">Dicamba</ENT>
              <ENT>1000 (454)</ENT>
            </ROW>
            <ROW>
              <ENT I="01">Dichlobenil</ENT>
              <ENT>100 (45.4)</ENT>
            </ROW>
            <ROW>
              <ENT I="01">Dichlone</ENT>
              <ENT>1 (0.454)</ENT>
            </ROW>
            <ROW>
              <ENT I="01">Dichlorobenzene</ENT>
              <ENT>100 (45.4)</ENT>
            </ROW>
            <ROW>
              <ENT I="01">1,2-Dichlorobenzene</ENT>
              <ENT>100 (45.4)</ENT>
            </ROW>
            <ROW>
              <ENT I="01">1,3-Dichlorobenzene</ENT>
              <ENT>100 (45.4)</ENT>
            </ROW>
            <ROW>
              <ENT I="01">1,4-Dichlorobenzene</ENT>
              <ENT>100 (45.4)</ENT>
            </ROW>
            <ROW>
              <ENT I="01">m-Dichlorobenzene</ENT>
              <ENT>100 (45.4)</ENT>
            </ROW>
            <ROW>
              <ENT I="01">o-Dichlorobenzene</ENT>
              <ENT>100 (45.4)</ENT>
            </ROW>
            <ROW>
              <ENT I="01">p-Dichlorobenzene</ENT>
              <ENT>100 (45.4)</ENT>
            </ROW>
            <ROW>
              <ENT I="01">3,3′-Dichlorobenzidine</ENT>
              <ENT>1 (0.454)</ENT>
            </ROW>
            <ROW>
              <ENT I="01">Dichlorobromomethane</ENT>
              <ENT>5000 (2270)</ENT>
            </ROW>
            <ROW>
              <ENT I="01">1,4-Dichloro-2-butene</ENT>
              <ENT>1 (0.454)</ENT>
            </ROW>
            <ROW>
              <ENT I="01">Dichlorodifluoromethane</ENT>
              <ENT>5000 (2270)</ENT>
            </ROW>
            <ROW>
              <ENT I="01">1,1-Dichloroethane</ENT>
              <ENT>1000 (454)</ENT>
            </ROW>
            <ROW>
              <ENT I="01">1,2-Dichloroethane</ENT>
              <ENT>100 (45.4)</ENT>
            </ROW>
            <ROW>
              <ENT I="01">1,1-Dichloroethylene</ENT>
              <ENT>100 (45.4)</ENT>
            </ROW>
            <ROW>
              <ENT I="01">1,2-Dichloroethylene</ENT>
              <ENT>1000 (454)</ENT>
            </ROW>
            <ROW>
              <ENT I="01">Dichloroethyl ether</ENT>
              <ENT>10 (4.54)</ENT>
            </ROW>
            <ROW>
              <ENT I="01">Dichloroisopropyl ether</ENT>
              <ENT>1000 (454)</ENT>
            </ROW>
            <ROW>
              <ENT I="01">Dichloromethane</ENT>
              <ENT>1000 (454)</ENT>
            </ROW>
            <ROW>
              <ENT I="01">Dichloromethoxyethane</ENT>
              <ENT>1000 (454)</ENT>
            </ROW>
            <ROW>
              <ENT I="01">Dichloromethyl ether</ENT>
              <ENT>10 (4.54)</ENT>
            </ROW>
            <ROW>
              <PRTPAGE P="1101"/>
              <ENT I="01">2,4-Dichlorophenol</ENT>
              <ENT>100 (45.4)</ENT>
            </ROW>
            <ROW>
              <ENT I="01">2,6-Dichlorophenol</ENT>
              <ENT>100 (45.4)</ENT>
            </ROW>
            <ROW>
              <ENT I="01">Dichlorophenylarsine</ENT>
              <ENT>1 (0.454)</ENT>
            </ROW>
            <ROW>
              <ENT I="01">Dichloropropane</ENT>
              <ENT>1000 (454)</ENT>
            </ROW>
            <ROW>
              <ENT I="03">1,1-Dichloropropane</ENT>
              <ENT/>
            </ROW>
            <ROW>
              <ENT I="03">1,3-Dichloropropane</ENT>
              <ENT/>
            </ROW>
            <ROW>
              <ENT I="01">1,2-Dichloropropane</ENT>
              <ENT>1000 (454)</ENT>
            </ROW>
            <ROW>
              <ENT I="01">Dichloropropane-Dichloropropene (mixture)</ENT>
              <ENT>100 (45.4)</ENT>
            </ROW>
            <ROW>
              <ENT I="01">Dichloropropene</ENT>
              <ENT>100 (45.4)</ENT>
            </ROW>
            <ROW>
              <ENT I="03">2,3-Dichloropropene</ENT>
              <ENT/>
            </ROW>
            <ROW>
              <ENT I="01">1,3-Dichloropropene</ENT>
              <ENT>100 (45.4)</ENT>
            </ROW>
            <ROW>
              <ENT I="01">2,2-Dichloropropionic acid</ENT>
              <ENT>5000 (2270)</ENT>
            </ROW>
            <ROW>
              <ENT I="01">Dichlorvos</ENT>
              <ENT>10 (4.54)</ENT>
            </ROW>
            <ROW>
              <ENT I="01">Dicofol</ENT>
              <ENT>10 (4.54)</ENT>
            </ROW>
            <ROW>
              <ENT I="01">Dieldrin</ENT>
              <ENT>1 (0.454)</ENT>
            </ROW>
            <ROW>
              <ENT I="01">1,2:3,4-Diepoxybutane</ENT>
              <ENT>10 (4.54)</ENT>
            </ROW>
            <ROW>
              <ENT I="01">Diethanolamine</ENT>
              <ENT>100 (45.4)</ENT>
            </ROW>
            <ROW>
              <ENT I="01">Diethylamine</ENT>
              <ENT>100 (45.4)</ENT>
            </ROW>
            <ROW>
              <ENT I="01">N,N-Diethylaniline</ENT>
              <ENT>1000 (454)</ENT>
            </ROW>
            <ROW>
              <ENT I="01">Diethylarsine</ENT>
              <ENT>1 (0.454)</ENT>
            </ROW>
            <ROW>
              <ENT I="01">Diethylene glycol, dicarbamate</ENT>
              <ENT>5000 (2270)</ENT>
            </ROW>
            <ROW>
              <ENT I="01">1,4-Diethyleneoxide</ENT>
              <ENT>100 (45.4)</ENT>
            </ROW>
            <ROW>
              <ENT I="01">Diethylhexyl phthalate</ENT>
              <ENT>100 (45.4)</ENT>
            </ROW>
            <ROW>
              <ENT I="01">N,N′-Diethylhydrazine</ENT>
              <ENT>10 (4.54)</ENT>
            </ROW>
            <ROW>
              <ENT I="01">O,O-Diethyl S-methyl dithiophosphate</ENT>
              <ENT>5000 (2270)</ENT>
            </ROW>
            <ROW>
              <ENT I="01">Diethyl-p-nitrophenyl phosphate</ENT>
              <ENT>100 (45.4)</ENT>
            </ROW>
            <ROW>
              <ENT I="01">Diethyl phthalate</ENT>
              <ENT>1000 (454)</ENT>
            </ROW>
            <ROW>
              <ENT I="01">O,O-Diethyl O-pyrazinyl phosphorothioate</ENT>
              <ENT>100 (45.4)</ENT>
            </ROW>
            <ROW>
              <ENT I="01">Diethylstilbestrol</ENT>
              <ENT>1 (0.454)</ENT>
            </ROW>
            <ROW>
              <ENT I="01">Diethyl sulfate</ENT>
              <ENT>10 (4.54)</ENT>
            </ROW>
            <ROW>
              <ENT I="01">Dihydrosafrole</ENT>
              <ENT>10 (4.54)</ENT>
            </ROW>
            <ROW>
              <ENT I="01">Diisopropylfluorophosphate (DFP)</ENT>
              <ENT>100 (45.4)</ENT>
            </ROW>
            <ROW>
              <ENT I="01">1,4:5,8-Dimethanonaphthalene, 1,2,3,4,10,10-hexachloro-1,4,4a,5,8,8a-hexahydro-, (1alpha, 4alpha, 4abeta, 5alpha, 8alpha, 8abeta)-</ENT>
              <ENT>1 (0.454)</ENT>
            </ROW>
            <ROW>
              <ENT I="01">1,4:5,8-Dimethanonaphthalene, 1,2,3,4,10,10-hexachloro-1,4,4a,5,8,8a-hexahydro-, (1alpha, 4alpha, 4abeta, 5beta, 8beta, 8abeta)-1 (0.454)</ENT>
            </ROW>
            <ROW>
              <ENT I="01">2,7:3,6-Dimethanonaphth[2,3-b]oxirene,3,4,5,6,9,9-hexachloro-1a,2,2a,3,6,6a,7,7a-octahydro-, (1aalpha, 2beta, 2aalpha, 3beta, 6beta,  6aalpha, 7beta, 7aalpha)-</ENT>
              <ENT>1 (0.454)</ENT>
            </ROW>
            <ROW>
              <ENT I="01">2,7:3,6-Dimethanonaphth[2, 3-b]oxirene,3,4,5,6,9,9-hexachloro-1a,2,2a,3,6,6a,7,7a-octahydro-, (1aalpha, 2beta, 2abeta, 3alpha, 6alpha, 6abeta, 7beta, 7aalpha)-,  metabolites</ENT>
              <ENT>1 (0.454)</ENT>
            </ROW>
            <ROW>
              <ENT I="01">Dimethoate</ENT>
              <ENT>10 (4.54)</ENT>
            </ROW>
            <ROW>
              <ENT I="01">3,3′-Dimethoxybenzidine</ENT>
              <ENT>100 (45.4)</ENT>
            </ROW>
            <ROW>
              <ENT I="01">Dimethylamine</ENT>
              <ENT>1000 (454)</ENT>
            </ROW>
            <ROW>
              <ENT I="01">Dimethyl aminoazobenzene</ENT>
              <ENT>10 (4.54)</ENT>
            </ROW>
            <ROW>
              <ENT I="01">p-Dimethylaminoazobenzene</ENT>
              <ENT>10 (4.54)</ENT>
            </ROW>
            <ROW>
              <ENT I="01">N,N-Dimethylaniline</ENT>
              <ENT>100 (45.4)</ENT>
            </ROW>
            <ROW>
              <ENT I="01">7,12-Dimethylbenz[a]anthracene</ENT>
              <ENT>1 (0.454)</ENT>
            </ROW>
            <ROW>
              <ENT I="01">3,3′-Dimethylbenzidine</ENT>
              <ENT>10 (4.54)</ENT>
            </ROW>
            <ROW>
              <ENT I="01">alpha,alpha-Dimethylbenzylhydroperoxide</ENT>
              <ENT>10 (4.54)</ENT>
            </ROW>
            <ROW>
              <ENT I="01">Dimethylcarbamoyl chloride</ENT>
              <ENT>1 (0.454)</ENT>
            </ROW>
            <ROW>
              <ENT I="01">Dimethylformamide</ENT>
              <ENT>100 (45.4)</ENT>
            </ROW>
            <ROW>
              <ENT I="01">1,1-Dimethylhydrazine</ENT>
              <ENT>10 (4.54)</ENT>
            </ROW>
            <ROW>
              <ENT I="01">1,2-Dimethylhydrazine</ENT>
              <ENT>1 (0.454)</ENT>
            </ROW>
            <ROW>
              <ENT I="01">Dimethylhydrazine, unsymmetrical<E T="51">@</E>
              </ENT>
              <ENT>10 (4.54)</ENT>
            </ROW>
            <ROW>
              <ENT I="01">alpha,alpha-Dimethylphenethylamine</ENT>
              <ENT>5000 (2270)</ENT>
            </ROW>
            <ROW>
              <ENT I="01">2,4-Dimethylphenol</ENT>
              <ENT>100 (45.4)</ENT>
            </ROW>
            <ROW>
              <ENT I="01">Dimethyl phthalate</ENT>
              <ENT>5000 (2270)</ENT>
            </ROW>
            <ROW>
              <ENT I="01">Dimethyl sulfate</ENT>
              <ENT>100 (45.4)</ENT>
            </ROW>
            <ROW>
              <ENT I="01">Dimetilan</ENT>
              <ENT>1 (0.454)</ENT>
            </ROW>
            <ROW>
              <ENT I="01">Dinitrobenzene (mixed)</ENT>
              <ENT>100 (45.4)</ENT>
            </ROW>
            <ROW>
              <ENT I="03">m-Dinitrobenzene</ENT>
              <ENT/>
            </ROW>
            <ROW>
              <ENT I="03">o-Dinitrobenzene</ENT>
              <ENT/>
            </ROW>
            <ROW>
              <ENT I="03">p-Dinitrobenzene</ENT>
              <ENT/>
            </ROW>
            <ROW>
              <ENT I="01">4,6-Dinitro-o-cresol, and salts</ENT>
              <ENT>10 (4.54)</ENT>
            </ROW>
            <ROW>
              <ENT I="01">Dinitrogen tetroxide<E T="51">@</E>
              </ENT>
              <ENT>10 (4.54)</ENT>
            </ROW>
            <ROW>
              <ENT I="01">Dinitrophenol</ENT>
              <ENT>10 (4.54)</ENT>
            </ROW>
            <ROW>
              <ENT I="03">2,5-Dinitrophenol</ENT>
              <ENT/>
            </ROW>
            <ROW>
              <ENT I="03">2,6-Dinitrophenol</ENT>
              <ENT/>
            </ROW>
            <ROW>
              <ENT I="01">2,4-Dinitrophenol</ENT>
              <ENT>10 (4.54)</ENT>
            </ROW>
            <ROW>
              <PRTPAGE P="1102"/>
              <ENT I="01">Dinitrotoluene</ENT>
              <ENT>10 (4.54)</ENT>
            </ROW>
            <ROW>
              <ENT I="03">3,4-Dinitrotoluene</ENT>
              <ENT/>
            </ROW>
            <ROW>
              <ENT I="01">2,4-Dinitrotoluene</ENT>
              <ENT>10 (4.54)</ENT>
            </ROW>
            <ROW>
              <ENT I="01">2,6-Dinitrotoluene</ENT>
              <ENT>100 (45.4)</ENT>
            </ROW>
            <ROW>
              <ENT I="01">Dinoseb</ENT>
              <ENT>1000 (454)</ENT>
            </ROW>
            <ROW>
              <ENT I="01">Di-n-octyl phthalate</ENT>
              <ENT>5000 (2270)</ENT>
            </ROW>
            <ROW>
              <ENT I="01">1,4-Dioxane</ENT>
              <ENT>100 (45.4)</ENT>
            </ROW>
            <ROW>
              <ENT I="01">1,2-Diphenylhydrazine</ENT>
              <ENT>10 (4.54)</ENT>
            </ROW>
            <ROW>
              <ENT I="01">Diphosphoramide, octamethyl-</ENT>
              <ENT>100 (45.4)</ENT>
            </ROW>
            <ROW>
              <ENT I="01">Diphosphoric acid, tetraethyl ester</ENT>
              <ENT>10 (4.54)</ENT>
            </ROW>
            <ROW>
              <ENT I="01">Dipropylamine</ENT>
              <ENT>5000 (2270)</ENT>
            </ROW>
            <ROW>
              <ENT I="01">Di-n-propylnitrosamine</ENT>
              <ENT>10 (4.54)</ENT>
            </ROW>
            <ROW>
              <ENT I="01">Diquat</ENT>
              <ENT>1000 (454)</ENT>
            </ROW>
            <ROW>
              <ENT I="01">Disulfoton</ENT>
              <ENT>1 (0.454)</ENT>
            </ROW>
            <ROW>
              <ENT I="01">Dithiobiuret</ENT>
              <ENT>100 (45.4)</ENT>
            </ROW>
            <ROW>
              <ENT I="01">1,3-Dithiolane-2-carboxaldehyde, 2,4-dimethyl-, O-[(methylamino)-carbonyl]oxime</ENT>
              <ENT>100 (45.4)</ENT>
            </ROW>
            <ROW>
              <ENT I="01">Diuron</ENT>
              <ENT>100 (45.4)</ENT>
            </ROW>
            <ROW>
              <ENT I="01">Dodecylbenzenesulfonic acid</ENT>
              <ENT>1000 (454)</ENT>
            </ROW>
            <ROW>
              <ENT I="01">Endosulfan</ENT>
              <ENT>1 (0.454)</ENT>
            </ROW>
            <ROW>
              <ENT I="01">alpha-Endosulfan</ENT>
              <ENT>1 (0.454)</ENT>
            </ROW>
            <ROW>
              <ENT I="01">beta-Endosulfan</ENT>
              <ENT>1 (0.454)</ENT>
            </ROW>
            <ROW>
              <ENT I="01">Endosulfan sulfate</ENT>
              <ENT>1 (0.454)</ENT>
            </ROW>
            <ROW>
              <ENT I="01">Endothall</ENT>
              <ENT>1000 (454)</ENT>
            </ROW>
            <ROW>
              <ENT I="01">Endrin</ENT>
              <ENT>1 (0.454)</ENT>
            </ROW>
            <ROW>
              <ENT I="01">Endrin aldehyde</ENT>
              <ENT>1 (0.454)</ENT>
            </ROW>
            <ROW>
              <ENT I="01">Endrin,  metabolites</ENT>
              <ENT>1 (0.454)</ENT>
            </ROW>
            <ROW>
              <ENT I="01">Epichlorohydrin</ENT>
              <ENT>100 (45.4)</ENT>
            </ROW>
            <ROW>
              <ENT I="01">Epinephrine</ENT>
              <ENT>1000 (454)</ENT>
            </ROW>
            <ROW>
              <ENT I="01">1,2-Epoxybutane</ENT>
              <ENT>100 (45.4)</ENT>
            </ROW>
            <ROW>
              <ENT I="01">Ethanal</ENT>
              <ENT>1000 (454)</ENT>
            </ROW>
            <ROW>
              <ENT I="01">Ethanamine, N,N-diethyl-</ENT>
              <ENT>5000 (2270)</ENT>
            </ROW>
            <ROW>
              <ENT I="01">Ethanamine, N-ethyl-N-nitroso-</ENT>
              <ENT>1 (0.454)</ENT>
            </ROW>
            <ROW>
              <ENT I="01">1,2-Ethanediamine, N,N-dimethyl-N′-2-pyridinyl-N′-(2-thienylmethyl)-</ENT>
              <ENT>5000 (2270)</ENT>
            </ROW>
            <ROW>
              <ENT I="01">Ethane, 1,2-dibromo-</ENT>
              <ENT>1 (0.454)</ENT>
            </ROW>
            <ROW>
              <ENT I="01">Ethane, 1,1-dichloro-</ENT>
              <ENT>1000 (454)</ENT>
            </ROW>
            <ROW>
              <ENT I="01">Ethane, 1,2-dichloro-</ENT>
              <ENT>100 (45.4)</ENT>
            </ROW>
            <ROW>
              <ENT I="01">Ethanedinitrile</ENT>
              <ENT>100 (45.4)</ENT>
            </ROW>
            <ROW>
              <ENT I="01">Ethane, hexachloro-</ENT>
              <ENT>100 (45.4)</ENT>
            </ROW>
            <ROW>
              <ENT I="01">Ethane, 1,1′-[methylenebis(oxy)]bis[2-chloro-</ENT>
              <ENT>1000 (454)</ENT>
            </ROW>
            <ROW>
              <ENT I="01">Ethane, 1,1′-oxybis-</ENT>
              <ENT>100 (45.4)</ENT>
            </ROW>
            <ROW>
              <ENT I="01">Ethane, 1,1′-oxybis[2-chloro-</ENT>
              <ENT>10 (4.54)</ENT>
            </ROW>
            <ROW>
              <ENT I="01">Ethane, pentachloro-</ENT>
              <ENT>10 (4.54)</ENT>
            </ROW>
            <ROW>
              <ENT I="01">Ethane, 1,1,1,2-tetrachloro-</ENT>
              <ENT>100 (45.4)</ENT>
            </ROW>
            <ROW>
              <ENT I="01">Ethane, 1,1,2,2-tetrachloro-</ENT>
              <ENT>100 (45.4)</ENT>
            </ROW>
            <ROW>
              <ENT I="01">Ethanethioamide</ENT>
              <ENT>10 (4.54)</ENT>
            </ROW>
            <ROW>
              <ENT I="01">Ethane, 1,1,1-trichloro-</ENT>
              <ENT>1000 (454)</ENT>
            </ROW>
            <ROW>
              <ENT I="01">Ethane, 1,1,2-trichloro-</ENT>
              <ENT>100 (45.4)</ENT>
            </ROW>
            <ROW>
              <ENT I="01">Ethanimidothioic acid, 2-(dimethylamino)-N-hydroxy-2-oxo-, methyl ester</ENT>
              <ENT>5000 (2270)</ENT>
            </ROW>
            <ROW>
              <ENT I="01">Ethanimidothioic acid, 2-(dimethylamino)-N-[[(methylamino) carbonyl]oxy]-2-oxo-, methyl ester</ENT>
              <ENT>100 (45.4)</ENT>
            </ROW>
            <ROW>
              <ENT I="01">Ethanimidothioic acid, N-[[(methylamino) carbonyl]oxy]-, methyl ester</ENT>
              <ENT>100 (45.4)</ENT>
            </ROW>
            <ROW>
              <ENT I="01">Ethanimidothioic acid, N,N′[thiobis[(methylimino)carbonyloxy]] bis-, dimethyl ester</ENT>
              <ENT>100 (45.4)</ENT>
            </ROW>
            <ROW>
              <ENT I="01">Ethanol, 2-ethoxy-</ENT>
              <ENT>1000 (454)</ENT>
            </ROW>
            <ROW>
              <ENT I="01">Ethanol, 2,2′-(nitrosoimino)bis-</ENT>
              <ENT>1 (0.454)</ENT>
            </ROW>
            <ROW>
              <ENT I="01">Ethanol, 2,2′-oxybis-, dicarbamate</ENT>
              <ENT>5000 (2270)</ENT>
            </ROW>
            <ROW>
              <ENT I="01">Ethanone, 1-phenyl-</ENT>
              <ENT>5000 (2270)</ENT>
            </ROW>
            <ROW>
              <ENT I="01">Ethene, chloro-</ENT>
              <ENT>1 (0.454)</ENT>
            </ROW>
            <ROW>
              <ENT I="01">Ethene, (2-chloroethoxy)-</ENT>
              <ENT>1000 (454)</ENT>
            </ROW>
            <ROW>
              <ENT I="01">Ethene, 1,1-dichloro-</ENT>
              <ENT>100 (45.4)</ENT>
            </ROW>
            <ROW>
              <ENT I="01">Ethene, 1,2-dichloro-(E)</ENT>
              <ENT>1000 (454)</ENT>
            </ROW>
            <ROW>
              <ENT I="01">Ethene, tetrachloro-</ENT>
              <ENT>100 (45.4)</ENT>
            </ROW>
            <ROW>
              <ENT I="01">Ethene, trichloro-</ENT>
              <ENT>100 (45.4)</ENT>
            </ROW>
            <ROW>
              <ENT I="01">Ethion</ENT>
              <ENT>10 (4.54)</ENT>
            </ROW>
            <ROW>
              <ENT I="01">Ethyl acetate</ENT>
              <ENT>5000 (2270)</ENT>
            </ROW>
            <ROW>
              <ENT I="01">Ethyl acrylate</ENT>
              <ENT>1000 (454)</ENT>
            </ROW>
            <ROW>
              <ENT I="01">Ethylbenzene</ENT>
              <ENT>1000 (454)</ENT>
            </ROW>
            <ROW>
              <ENT I="01">Ethyl carbamate</ENT>
              <ENT>100 (45.4)</ENT>
            </ROW>
            <ROW>
              <ENT I="01">Ethyl chloride</ENT>
              <ENT>100 (45.4)</ENT>
            </ROW>
            <ROW>
              <ENT I="01">Ethyl cyanide</ENT>
              <ENT>10 (4.54)</ENT>
            </ROW>
            <ROW>
              <ENT I="01">Ethylenebisdithiocarbamic acid, salts  esters</ENT>
              <ENT>5000 (2270)</ENT>
            </ROW>
            <ROW>
              <PRTPAGE P="1103"/>
              <ENT I="01">Ethylenediamine</ENT>
              <ENT>5000 (2270)</ENT>
            </ROW>
            <ROW>
              <ENT I="01">Ethylenediamine-tetraacetic acid (EDTA)</ENT>
              <ENT>5000 (2270)</ENT>
            </ROW>
            <ROW>
              <ENT I="01">Ethylene dibromide</ENT>
              <ENT>1 (0.454)</ENT>
            </ROW>
            <ROW>
              <ENT I="01">Ethylene dichloride</ENT>
              <ENT>100 (45.4)</ENT>
            </ROW>
            <ROW>
              <ENT I="01">Ethylene glycol</ENT>
              <ENT>5000 (2270)</ENT>
            </ROW>
            <ROW>
              <ENT I="01">Ethylene glycol monoethyl ether</ENT>
              <ENT>1000 (454)</ENT>
            </ROW>
            <ROW>
              <ENT I="01">Ethylene oxide</ENT>
              <ENT>10 (4.54)</ENT>
            </ROW>
            <ROW>
              <ENT I="01">Ethylenethiourea</ENT>
              <ENT>10 (4.54)</ENT>
            </ROW>
            <ROW>
              <ENT I="01">Ethylenimine</ENT>
              <ENT>1 (0.454)</ENT>
            </ROW>
            <ROW>
              <ENT I="01">Ethyl ether</ENT>
              <ENT>100 (45.4)</ENT>
            </ROW>
            <ROW>
              <ENT I="01">Ethylidene dichloride</ENT>
              <ENT>1000 (454)</ENT>
            </ROW>
            <ROW>
              <ENT I="01">Ethyl methacrylate</ENT>
              <ENT>1000 (454)</ENT>
            </ROW>
            <ROW>
              <ENT I="01">Ethyl methanesulfonate</ENT>
              <ENT>1 (0.454)</ENT>
            </ROW>
            <ROW>
              <ENT I="01">Ethyl methyl ketone<E T="51">@</E>
              </ENT>
              <ENT>5000 (2270)</ENT>
            </ROW>
            <ROW>
              <ENT I="01">Famphur</ENT>
              <ENT>1000 (454)</ENT>
            </ROW>
            <ROW>
              <ENT I="01">Ferric ammonium citrate</ENT>
              <ENT>1000 (454)</ENT>
            </ROW>
            <ROW>
              <ENT I="01">Ferric ammonium oxalate</ENT>
              <ENT>1000 (454)</ENT>
            </ROW>
            <ROW>
              <ENT I="01">Ferric chloride</ENT>
              <ENT>1000 (454)</ENT>
            </ROW>
            <ROW>
              <ENT I="01">Ferric fluoride</ENT>
              <ENT>100 (45.4)</ENT>
            </ROW>
            <ROW>
              <ENT I="01">Ferric nitrate</ENT>
              <ENT>1000 (454)</ENT>
            </ROW>
            <ROW>
              <ENT I="01">Ferric sulfate</ENT>
              <ENT>1000 (454)</ENT>
            </ROW>
            <ROW>
              <ENT I="01">Ferrous ammonium sulfate</ENT>
              <ENT>1000 (454)</ENT>
            </ROW>
            <ROW>
              <ENT I="01">Ferrous chloride</ENT>
              <ENT>100 (45.4)</ENT>
            </ROW>
            <ROW>
              <ENT I="01">Ferrous sulfate</ENT>
              <ENT>1000 (454)</ENT>
            </ROW>
            <ROW>
              <ENT I="01">Fluoranthene</ENT>
              <ENT>100 (45.4)</ENT>
            </ROW>
            <ROW>
              <ENT I="01">Fluorene</ENT>
              <ENT>5000 (2270)</ENT>
            </ROW>
            <ROW>
              <ENT I="01">Fluorine</ENT>
              <ENT>10 (4.54)</ENT>
            </ROW>
            <ROW>
              <ENT I="01">Fluoroacetamide</ENT>
              <ENT>100 (45.4)</ENT>
            </ROW>
            <ROW>
              <ENT I="01">Fluoroacetic acid, sodium salt</ENT>
              <ENT>10 (4.54)</ENT>
            </ROW>
            <ROW>
              <ENT I="01">Formaldehyde</ENT>
              <ENT>100 (45.4)</ENT>
            </ROW>
            <ROW>
              <ENT I="01">Formetanate hydrochloride</ENT>
              <ENT>100 (45.4)</ENT>
            </ROW>
            <ROW>
              <ENT I="01">Formic acid</ENT>
              <ENT>5000 (2270)</ENT>
            </ROW>
            <ROW>
              <ENT I="01">Formparanate</ENT>
              <ENT>100 (45.4)</ENT>
            </ROW>
            <ROW>
              <ENT I="01">Fulminic acid, mercury(2+)salt</ENT>
              <ENT>10 (4.54)</ENT>
            </ROW>
            <ROW>
              <ENT I="01">Fumaric acid</ENT>
              <ENT>5000 (2270)</ENT>
            </ROW>
            <ROW>
              <ENT I="01">Furan</ENT>
              <ENT>100 (45.4)</ENT>
            </ROW>
            <ROW>
              <ENT I="01">2-Furancarboxyaldehyde</ENT>
              <ENT>5000 (2270)</ENT>
            </ROW>
            <ROW>
              <ENT I="01">2,5-Furandione</ENT>
              <ENT>5000 (2270)</ENT>
            </ROW>
            <ROW>
              <ENT I="01">Furan, tetrahydro-</ENT>
              <ENT>1000 (454)</ENT>
            </ROW>
            <ROW>
              <ENT I="01">Furfural</ENT>
              <ENT>5000 (2270)</ENT>
            </ROW>
            <ROW>
              <ENT I="01">Furfuran</ENT>
              <ENT>100 (45.4)</ENT>
            </ROW>
            <ROW>
              <ENT I="01">Glucopyranose, 2-deoxy-2-(3-methyl-3-nitrosoureido)-, D-</ENT>
              <ENT>1 (0.454)</ENT>
            </ROW>
            <ROW>
              <ENT I="01">D-Glucose, 2-deoxy-2-[[(methylnitrosoamino)-carbonyl]amino]-</ENT>
              <ENT>1 (0.454)</ENT>
            </ROW>
            <ROW>
              <ENT I="01">Glycidylaldehyde</ENT>
              <ENT>10 (4.54)</ENT>
            </ROW>
            <ROW>
              <ENT I="01">Guanidine, N-methyl-N′-nitro-N-nitroso-</ENT>
              <ENT>10 (4.54)</ENT>
            </ROW>
            <ROW>
              <ENT I="01">Guthion</ENT>
              <ENT>1 (0.454)</ENT>
            </ROW>
            <ROW>
              <ENT I="01">Heptachlor</ENT>
              <ENT>1 (0.454)</ENT>
            </ROW>
            <ROW>
              <ENT I="01">Heptachlor epoxide</ENT>
              <ENT>1 (0.454)</ENT>
            </ROW>
            <ROW>
              <ENT I="01">Hexachlorobenzene</ENT>
              <ENT>10 (4.54)</ENT>
            </ROW>
            <ROW>
              <ENT I="01">Hexachlorobutadiene</ENT>
              <ENT>1 (0.454)</ENT>
            </ROW>
            <ROW>
              <ENT I="01">Hexachlorocyclopentadiene</ENT>
              <ENT>10 (4.54)</ENT>
            </ROW>
            <ROW>
              <ENT I="01">Hexachloroethane</ENT>
              <ENT>100 (45.4)</ENT>
            </ROW>
            <ROW>
              <ENT I="01">Hexachlorophene</ENT>
              <ENT>100 (45.4)</ENT>
            </ROW>
            <ROW>
              <ENT I="01">Hexachloropropene</ENT>
              <ENT>1000 (454)</ENT>
            </ROW>
            <ROW>
              <ENT I="01">Hexaethyl tetraphosphate</ENT>
              <ENT>100 (45.4)</ENT>
            </ROW>
            <ROW>
              <ENT I="01">Hexamethylene-1,6-diisocyanate</ENT>
              <ENT>100 (45.4)</ENT>
            </ROW>
            <ROW>
              <ENT I="01">Hexamethylphosphoramide</ENT>
              <ENT>1 (0.454)</ENT>
            </ROW>
            <ROW>
              <ENT I="01">Hexane</ENT>
              <ENT>5000 (2270)</ENT>
            </ROW>
            <ROW>
              <ENT I="01">Hexone</ENT>
              <ENT>5000 (2270)</ENT>
            </ROW>
            <ROW>
              <ENT I="01">Hydrazine</ENT>
              <ENT>1 (0.454)</ENT>
            </ROW>
            <ROW>
              <ENT I="01">Hydrazinecarbothioamide</ENT>
              <ENT>100 (45.4)</ENT>
            </ROW>
            <ROW>
              <ENT I="01">Hydrazine, 1,2-diethyl-</ENT>
              <ENT>10 (4.54)</ENT>
            </ROW>
            <ROW>
              <ENT I="01">Hydrazine, 1,1-dimethyl-</ENT>
              <ENT>10 (4.54)</ENT>
            </ROW>
            <ROW>
              <ENT I="01">Hydrazine, 1,2-dimethyl-</ENT>
              <ENT>1 (0.454)</ENT>
            </ROW>
            <ROW>
              <ENT I="01">Hydrazine, 1,2-diphenyl-</ENT>
              <ENT>10 (4.54)</ENT>
            </ROW>
            <ROW>
              <ENT I="01">Hydrazine, methyl-</ENT>
              <ENT>10 (4.54)</ENT>
            </ROW>
            <ROW>
              <ENT I="01">Hydrochloric acid</ENT>
              <ENT>5000 (2270)</ENT>
            </ROW>
            <ROW>
              <ENT I="01">Hydrocyanic acid</ENT>
              <ENT>10 (4.54)</ENT>
            </ROW>
            <ROW>
              <ENT I="01">Hydrofluoric acid</ENT>
              <ENT>100 (45.4)</ENT>
            </ROW>
            <ROW>
              <PRTPAGE P="1104"/>
              <ENT I="01">Hydrogen chloride</ENT>
              <ENT>5000 (2270)</ENT>
            </ROW>
            <ROW>
              <ENT I="01">Hydrogen cyanide</ENT>
              <ENT>10 (4.54)</ENT>
            </ROW>
            <ROW>
              <ENT I="01">Hydrogen fluoride</ENT>
              <ENT>100 (45.4)</ENT>
            </ROW>
            <ROW>
              <ENT I="01">Hydrogen phosphide</ENT>
              <ENT>100 (45.4)</ENT>
            </ROW>
            <ROW>
              <ENT I="01">Hydrogen sulfide H2S</ENT>
              <ENT>100 (45.4)</ENT>
            </ROW>
            <ROW>
              <ENT I="01">Hydroperoxide, 1-methyl-1-phenylethyl-</ENT>
              <ENT>10 (4.54)</ENT>
            </ROW>
            <ROW>
              <ENT I="01">Hydroquinone</ENT>
              <ENT>100 (45.4)</ENT>
            </ROW>
            <ROW>
              <ENT I="01">2-Imidazolidinethione</ENT>
              <ENT>10 (4.54)</ENT>
            </ROW>
            <ROW>
              <ENT I="01">Indeno(1,2,3-cd)pyrene</ENT>
              <ENT>100 (45.4)</ENT>
            </ROW>
            <ROW>
              <ENT I="01">Iodomethane</ENT>
              <ENT>100 (45.4)</ENT>
            </ROW>
            <ROW>
              <ENT I="01">1,3-Isobenzofurandione</ENT>
              <ENT>5000 (2270)</ENT>
            </ROW>
            <ROW>
              <ENT I="01">Isobutyl alcohol</ENT>
              <ENT>5000 (2270)</ENT>
            </ROW>
            <ROW>
              <ENT I="01">Isodrin</ENT>
              <ENT>1 (0.454)</ENT>
            </ROW>
            <ROW>
              <ENT I="01">Isolan</ENT>
              <ENT>100 (45.4)</ENT>
            </ROW>
            <ROW>
              <ENT I="01">Isophorone</ENT>
              <ENT>5000 (2270)</ENT>
            </ROW>
            <ROW>
              <ENT I="01">Isoprene</ENT>
              <ENT>100 (45.4)</ENT>
            </ROW>
            <ROW>
              <ENT I="01">Isopropanolamine dodecylbenzenesulfonate</ENT>
              <ENT>1000 (454)</ENT>
            </ROW>
            <ROW>
              <ENT I="01">3-Isopropylphenyl N-methylcarbamate</ENT>
              <ENT>10 (4.54)</ENT>
            </ROW>
            <ROW>
              <ENT I="01">Isosafrole</ENT>
              <ENT>100 (45.4)</ENT>
            </ROW>
            <ROW>
              <ENT I="01">3(2H)-Isoxazolone, 5-(aminomethyl)-</ENT>
              <ENT>1000 (454)</ENT>
            </ROW>
            <ROW>
              <ENT I="01">Kepone</ENT>
              <ENT>1 (0.454)</ENT>
            </ROW>
            <ROW>
              <ENT I="01">Lasiocarpine</ENT>
              <ENT>10 (4.54)</ENT>
            </ROW>
            <ROW>
              <ENT I="01">Lead<E T="8141">¢</E>
              </ENT>
              <ENT>10 (4.54)</ENT>
            </ROW>
            <ROW>
              <ENT I="01">Lead acetate</ENT>
              <ENT>10 (4.54)</ENT>
            </ROW>
            <ROW>
              <ENT I="01">Lead arsenate</ENT>
              <ENT>1 (0.454)</ENT>
            </ROW>
            <ROW>
              <ENT I="01">Lead, bis(acetato-O)tetrahydroxytri-</ENT>
              <ENT>10 (4.54)</ENT>
            </ROW>
            <ROW>
              <ENT I="01">Lead chloride</ENT>
              <ENT>10 (4.54)</ENT>
            </ROW>
            <ROW>
              <ENT I="01">Lead fluoborate</ENT>
              <ENT>10 (4.54)</ENT>
            </ROW>
            <ROW>
              <ENT I="01">Lead fluoride</ENT>
              <ENT>10 (4.54)</ENT>
            </ROW>
            <ROW>
              <ENT I="01">Lead iodide</ENT>
              <ENT>10 (4.54)</ENT>
            </ROW>
            <ROW>
              <ENT I="01">Lead nitrate</ENT>
              <ENT>10 (4.54)</ENT>
            </ROW>
            <ROW>
              <ENT I="01">Lead phosphate</ENT>
              <ENT>10 (4.54)</ENT>
            </ROW>
            <ROW>
              <ENT I="01">Lead stearate</ENT>
              <ENT>10 (4.54)</ENT>
            </ROW>
            <ROW>
              <ENT I="01">Lead subacetate</ENT>
              <ENT>10 (4.54)</ENT>
            </ROW>
            <ROW>
              <ENT I="01">Lead sulfate</ENT>
              <ENT>10 (4.54)</ENT>
            </ROW>
            <ROW>
              <ENT I="01">Lead sulfide</ENT>
              <ENT>10 (4.54)</ENT>
            </ROW>
            <ROW>
              <ENT I="01">Lead thiocyanate</ENT>
              <ENT>10 (4.54)</ENT>
            </ROW>
            <ROW>
              <ENT I="01">Lindane</ENT>
              <ENT>1 (0.454)</ENT>
            </ROW>
            <ROW>
              <ENT I="01">Lindane (all isomers)</ENT>
              <ENT>1 (0.454)</ENT>
            </ROW>
            <ROW>
              <ENT I="01">Lithium chromate</ENT>
              <ENT>10 (4.54)</ENT>
            </ROW>
            <ROW>
              <ENT I="01">Malathion</ENT>
              <ENT>100 (45.4)</ENT>
            </ROW>
            <ROW>
              <ENT I="01">Maleic acid</ENT>
              <ENT>5000 (2270)</ENT>
            </ROW>
            <ROW>
              <ENT I="01">Maleic anhydride</ENT>
              <ENT>5000 (2270)</ENT>
            </ROW>
            <ROW>
              <ENT I="01">Maleic hydrazide</ENT>
              <ENT>5000 (2270)</ENT>
            </ROW>
            <ROW>
              <ENT I="01">Malononitrile</ENT>
              <ENT>1000 (454)</ENT>
            </ROW>
            <ROW>
              <ENT I="01">Manganese, bis(dimethylcarbamodithioato-S,S′)-</ENT>
              <ENT>10 (4.54)</ENT>
            </ROW>
            <ROW>
              <ENT I="01">Manganese dimethyldithiocarbamate</ENT>
              <ENT>10 (4.54)</ENT>
            </ROW>
            <ROW>
              <ENT I="01">MDI</ENT>
              <ENT>5000 (2270)</ENT>
            </ROW>
            <ROW>
              <ENT I="01">MEK</ENT>
              <ENT>5000 (2270)</ENT>
            </ROW>
            <ROW>
              <ENT I="01">Melphalan</ENT>
              <ENT>1 (0.454)</ENT>
            </ROW>
            <ROW>
              <ENT I="01">Mercaptodimethur</ENT>
              <ENT>10 (4.54)</ENT>
            </ROW>
            <ROW>
              <ENT I="01">Mercuric cyanide</ENT>
              <ENT>1 (0.454)</ENT>
            </ROW>
            <ROW>
              <ENT I="01">Mercuric nitrate</ENT>
              <ENT>10 (4.54)</ENT>
            </ROW>
            <ROW>
              <ENT I="01">Mercuric sulfate</ENT>
              <ENT>10 (4.54)</ENT>
            </ROW>
            <ROW>
              <ENT I="01">Mercuric thiocyanate</ENT>
              <ENT>10 (4.54)</ENT>
            </ROW>
            <ROW>
              <ENT I="01">Mercurous nitrate</ENT>
              <ENT>10 (4.54)</ENT>
            </ROW>
            <ROW>
              <ENT I="01">Mercury</ENT>
              <ENT>1 (0.454)</ENT>
            </ROW>
            <ROW>
              <ENT I="01">Mercury, (acetato-O)phenyl-</ENT>
              <ENT>100 (45.4)</ENT>
            </ROW>
            <ROW>
              <ENT I="01">Mercury fulminate</ENT>
              <ENT>10 (4.54)</ENT>
            </ROW>
            <ROW>
              <ENT I="01">Methacrylonitrile</ENT>
              <ENT>1000 (454)</ENT>
            </ROW>
            <ROW>
              <ENT I="01">Methanamine, N-methyl-</ENT>
              <ENT>1000 (454)</ENT>
            </ROW>
            <ROW>
              <ENT I="01">Methanamine, N-methyl-N-nitroso-</ENT>
              <ENT>10 (4.54)</ENT>
            </ROW>
            <ROW>
              <ENT I="01">Methane, bromo-</ENT>
              <ENT>1000 (454)</ENT>
            </ROW>
            <ROW>
              <ENT I="01">Methane, chloro-</ENT>
              <ENT>100 (45.4)</ENT>
            </ROW>
            <ROW>
              <ENT I="01">Methane, chloromethoxy-</ENT>
              <ENT>10 (4.54)</ENT>
            </ROW>
            <ROW>
              <ENT I="01">Methane, dibromo-</ENT>
              <ENT>1000 (454)</ENT>
            </ROW>
            <ROW>
              <ENT I="01">Methane, dichloro-</ENT>
              <ENT>1000 (454)</ENT>
            </ROW>
            <ROW>
              <ENT I="01">Methane, dichlorodifluoro-</ENT>
              <ENT>5000 (2270)</ENT>
            </ROW>
            <ROW>
              <ENT I="01">Methane, iodo-</ENT>
              <ENT>100 (45.4)</ENT>
            </ROW>
            <ROW>
              <PRTPAGE P="1105"/>
              <ENT I="01">Methane, isocyanato-</ENT>
              <ENT>10 (4.54)</ENT>
            </ROW>
            <ROW>
              <ENT I="01">Methane, oxybis(chloro-</ENT>
              <ENT>10 (4.54)</ENT>
            </ROW>
            <ROW>
              <ENT I="01">Methanesulfenyl chloride, trichloro-</ENT>
              <ENT>100 (45.4)</ENT>
            </ROW>
            <ROW>
              <ENT I="01">Methanesulfonic acid, ethyl ester</ENT>
              <ENT>1 (0.454)</ENT>
            </ROW>
            <ROW>
              <ENT I="01">Methane, tetrachloro-</ENT>
              <ENT>10 (4.54)</ENT>
            </ROW>
            <ROW>
              <ENT I="01">Methane, tetranitro-</ENT>
              <ENT>10 (4.54)</ENT>
            </ROW>
            <ROW>
              <ENT I="01">Methanethiol</ENT>
              <ENT>100 (45.4)</ENT>
            </ROW>
            <ROW>
              <ENT I="01">Methane, tribromo-</ENT>
              <ENT>100 (45.4)</ENT>
            </ROW>
            <ROW>
              <ENT I="01">Methane, trichloro-</ENT>
              <ENT>10 (4.54)</ENT>
            </ROW>
            <ROW>
              <ENT I="01">Methane, trichlorofluoro-</ENT>
              <ENT>5000 (2270)</ENT>
            </ROW>
            <ROW>
              <ENT I="01">Methanimidamide, N,N-dimethyl-N′-[3-[[(methylamino) carbonyl] oxy]<LI>phenyl]-, monohydrochloride</LI>
              </ENT>
              <ENT>100 (45.4)</ENT>
            </ROW>
            <ROW>
              <ENT I="01">Methanimidamide, N,N-dimethyl-N′-[2-methyl-4-[[(methylamino)carbonyl] oxy]phenyl]-</ENT>
              <ENT>100 (45.4)</ENT>
            </ROW>
            <ROW>
              <ENT I="01">6,9-Methano-2,4,3-benzodioxathiepin,6,7,8,9,10,10-hexachloro-1,5,5a,6,9,9a-hexahydro-, 3-oxide</ENT>
              <ENT>1 (0.454)</ENT>
            </ROW>
            <ROW>
              <ENT I="01">4,7-Methano-1H-indene, 1,4,5,6,7,8,8-heptachloro-3a,4,7,7a-tetrahydro-</ENT>
              <ENT>1 (0.454)</ENT>
            </ROW>
            <ROW>
              <ENT I="01">4,7-Methano-1H-indene, 1,2,4,5,6,7,8,8-octachloro-2,3,3a,4,7,7a-hexahydro-</ENT>
              <ENT>1 (0.454)</ENT>
            </ROW>
            <ROW>
              <ENT I="01">Methanol</ENT>
              <ENT>5000 (2270)</ENT>
            </ROW>
            <ROW>
              <ENT I="01">Methapyrilene</ENT>
              <ENT>5000 (2270)</ENT>
            </ROW>
            <ROW>
              <ENT I="01">1,3,4-Metheno-2H-cyclobuta[cd]pentalen-2-one, 1,1a,3,3a,4,5,5,5a,5b,6-decachlorooctahydro-</ENT>
              <ENT>1 (0.454)</ENT>
            </ROW>
            <ROW>
              <ENT I="01">Methiocarb</ENT>
              <ENT>10 (4.54)</ENT>
            </ROW>
            <ROW>
              <ENT I="01">Methomyl</ENT>
              <ENT>100 (45.4)</ENT>
            </ROW>
            <ROW>
              <ENT I="01">Methoxychlor</ENT>
              <ENT>1 (0.454)</ENT>
            </ROW>
            <ROW>
              <ENT I="01">Methyl alcohol</ENT>
              <ENT>5000 (2270)</ENT>
            </ROW>
            <ROW>
              <ENT I="01">Methylamine<E T="51">@</E>
              </ENT>
              <ENT>100 (45.4)</ENT>
            </ROW>
            <ROW>
              <ENT I="01">2-Methyl aziridine</ENT>
              <ENT>1 (0.454)</ENT>
            </ROW>
            <ROW>
              <ENT I="01">Methyl bromide</ENT>
              <ENT>1000 (454)</ENT>
            </ROW>
            <ROW>
              <ENT I="01">1-Methylbutadiene</ENT>
              <ENT>100 (45.4)</ENT>
            </ROW>
            <ROW>
              <ENT I="01">Methyl chloride</ENT>
              <ENT>100 (45.4)</ENT>
            </ROW>
            <ROW>
              <ENT I="01">Methyl chlorocarbonate</ENT>
              <ENT>1000 (454)</ENT>
            </ROW>
            <ROW>
              <ENT I="01">Methyl chloroform</ENT>
              <ENT>1000 (454)</ENT>
            </ROW>
            <ROW>
              <ENT I="01">Methyl chloroformate<E T="51">@</E>
              </ENT>
              <ENT>1000 (454)</ENT>
            </ROW>
            <ROW>
              <ENT I="01">Methyl chloromethyl ether<E T="51">@</E>
              </ENT>
              <ENT>10 (4.54)</ENT>
            </ROW>
            <ROW>
              <ENT I="01">3-Methylcholanthrene</ENT>
              <ENT>10 (4.54)</ENT>
            </ROW>
            <ROW>
              <ENT I="01">4,4′-Methylenebis(2-chloroaniline)</ENT>
              <ENT>10 (4.54)</ENT>
            </ROW>
            <ROW>
              <ENT I="01">Methylene bromide</ENT>
              <ENT>1000 (454)</ENT>
            </ROW>
            <ROW>
              <ENT I="01">Methylene chloride</ENT>
              <ENT>1000 (454)</ENT>
            </ROW>
            <ROW>
              <ENT I="01">4,4′-Methylenedianiline</ENT>
              <ENT>10 (4.54)</ENT>
            </ROW>
            <ROW>
              <ENT I="01">Methylene diphenyl diisocyanate</ENT>
              <ENT>5000 (2270)</ENT>
            </ROW>
            <ROW>
              <ENT I="01">Methyl ethyl ketone</ENT>
              <ENT>5000 (2270)</ENT>
            </ROW>
            <ROW>
              <ENT I="01">Methyl ethyl ketone peroxide</ENT>
              <ENT>10 (4.54)</ENT>
            </ROW>
            <ROW>
              <ENT I="01">Methyl hydrazine</ENT>
              <ENT>10 (4.54)</ENT>
            </ROW>
            <ROW>
              <ENT I="01">Methyl iodide</ENT>
              <ENT>100 (45.4)</ENT>
            </ROW>
            <ROW>
              <ENT I="01">Methyl isobutyl ketone</ENT>
              <ENT>5000 (2270)</ENT>
            </ROW>
            <ROW>
              <ENT I="01">Methyl isocyanate</ENT>
              <ENT>10 (4.54)</ENT>
            </ROW>
            <ROW>
              <ENT I="01">2-Methyllactonitrile</ENT>
              <ENT>10 (4.54)</ENT>
            </ROW>
            <ROW>
              <ENT I="01">Methyl mercaptan</ENT>
              <ENT>100 (45.4)</ENT>
            </ROW>
            <ROW>
              <ENT I="01">Methyl methacrylate</ENT>
              <ENT>1000 (454)</ENT>
            </ROW>
            <ROW>
              <ENT I="01">Methyl parathion</ENT>
              <ENT>100 (45.4)</ENT>
            </ROW>
            <ROW>
              <ENT I="01">4-Methyl-2-pentanone</ENT>
              <ENT>5000 (2270)</ENT>
            </ROW>
            <ROW>
              <ENT I="01">Methyl tert-butyl ether</ENT>
              <ENT>1000 (454)</ENT>
            </ROW>
            <ROW>
              <ENT I="01">Methylthiouracil</ENT>
              <ENT>10 (4.54)</ENT>
            </ROW>
            <ROW>
              <ENT I="01">Metolcarb</ENT>
              <ENT>1000 (454)</ENT>
            </ROW>
            <ROW>
              <ENT I="01">Mevinphos</ENT>
              <ENT>10 (4.54)</ENT>
            </ROW>
            <ROW>
              <ENT I="01">Mexacarbate</ENT>
              <ENT>1000 (454)</ENT>
            </ROW>
            <ROW>
              <ENT I="01">Mitomycin C</ENT>
              <ENT>10 (4.54)</ENT>
            </ROW>
            <ROW>
              <ENT I="01">MNNG</ENT>
              <ENT>10 (4.54)</ENT>
            </ROW>
            <ROW>
              <ENT I="01">Monoethylamine</ENT>
              <ENT>100 (45.4)</ENT>
            </ROW>
            <ROW>
              <ENT I="01">Monomethylamine</ENT>
              <ENT>100 (45.4)</ENT>
            </ROW>
            <ROW>
              <ENT I="01">Naled</ENT>
              <ENT>10 (4.54)</ENT>
            </ROW>
            <ROW>
              <ENT I="01">5,12-Naphthacenedione, 8-acetyl-10-[(3-amino-2,3,6-trideoxy-alpha-L-lyxo-hexopyranosyl)oxy]-7,8,9,10-tetrahydro-6,8,11-trihydroxy-1-methoxy-, (8S-cis)-</ENT>
              <ENT>10 (4.54)</ENT>
            </ROW>
            <ROW>
              <ENT I="01">1-Naphthalenamine</ENT>
              <ENT>100 (45.4)</ENT>
            </ROW>
            <ROW>
              <ENT I="01">2-Naphthalenamine</ENT>
              <ENT>10 (4.54)</ENT>
            </ROW>
            <ROW>
              <ENT I="01">Naphthalenamine, N,N′-bis(2-chloroethyl)-</ENT>
              <ENT>100 (45.4)</ENT>
            </ROW>
            <ROW>
              <ENT I="01">Naphthalene</ENT>
              <ENT>100 (45.4)</ENT>
            </ROW>
            <ROW>
              <ENT I="01">Naphthalene, 2-chloro-</ENT>
              <ENT>5000 (2270)</ENT>
            </ROW>
            <ROW>
              <ENT I="01">1,4-Naphthalenedione</ENT>
              <ENT>5000 (2270)</ENT>
            </ROW>
            <ROW>
              <ENT I="01">2,7-Naphthalenedisulfonic acid, 3,3′-[(3,3′-dimethyl-(1,1′-biphenyl)-4,4′-diyl)-bis(azo)]bis(5-amino-4-hydroxy)-tetrasodium salt</ENT>
              <ENT>10 (4.54)</ENT>
            </ROW>
            <ROW>
              <ENT I="01">1-Naphthalenol, methylcarbamate</ENT>
              <ENT>100 (45.4)</ENT>
            </ROW>
            <ROW>
              <PRTPAGE P="1106"/>
              <ENT I="01">Naphthenic acid</ENT>
              <ENT>100 (45.4)</ENT>
            </ROW>
            <ROW>
              <ENT I="01">1,4-Naphthoquinone</ENT>
              <ENT>5000 (2270)</ENT>
            </ROW>
            <ROW>
              <ENT I="01">alpha-Naphthylamine</ENT>
              <ENT>100 (45.4)</ENT>
            </ROW>
            <ROW>
              <ENT I="01">beta-Naphthylamine</ENT>
              <ENT>10 (4.54)</ENT>
            </ROW>
            <ROW>
              <ENT I="01">alpha-Naphthylthiourea</ENT>
              <ENT>100 (45.4)</ENT>
            </ROW>
            <ROW>
              <ENT I="01">Nickel<E T="8141">¢</E>
              </ENT>
              <ENT>100 (45.4)</ENT>
            </ROW>
            <ROW>
              <ENT I="01">Nickel ammonium sulfate</ENT>
              <ENT>100 (45.4)</ENT>
            </ROW>
            <ROW>
              <ENT I="01">Nickel carbonyl Ni(CO)4, (T-4)-</ENT>
              <ENT>10 (4.54)</ENT>
            </ROW>
            <ROW>
              <ENT I="01">Nickel chloride</ENT>
              <ENT>100 (45.4)</ENT>
            </ROW>
            <ROW>
              <ENT I="01">Nickel cyanide Ni(CN)<E T="52">2</E>
              </ENT>
              <ENT>10 (4.54)</ENT>
            </ROW>
            <ROW>
              <ENT I="01">Nickel hydroxide</ENT>
              <ENT>10 (4.54)</ENT>
            </ROW>
            <ROW>
              <ENT I="01">Nickel nitrate</ENT>
              <ENT>100 (45.4)</ENT>
            </ROW>
            <ROW>
              <ENT I="01">Nickel sulfate</ENT>
              <ENT>100 (45.4)</ENT>
            </ROW>
            <ROW>
              <ENT I="01">Nicotine,  salts</ENT>
              <ENT>100 (45.4)</ENT>
            </ROW>
            <ROW>
              <ENT I="01">Nitric acid</ENT>
              <ENT>1000 (454)</ENT>
            </ROW>
            <ROW>
              <ENT I="01">Nitric acid, thallium (1+) salt</ENT>
              <ENT>100 (45.4)</ENT>
            </ROW>
            <ROW>
              <ENT I="01">Nitric oxide</ENT>
              <ENT>10 (4.54)</ENT>
            </ROW>
            <ROW>
              <ENT I="01">p-Nitroaniline</ENT>
              <ENT>5000 (2270)</ENT>
            </ROW>
            <ROW>
              <ENT I="01">Nitrobenzene</ENT>
              <ENT>1000 (454)</ENT>
            </ROW>
            <ROW>
              <ENT I="01">4-Nitrobiphenyl</ENT>
              <ENT>10 (4.54)</ENT>
            </ROW>
            <ROW>
              <ENT I="01">Nitrogen dioxide</ENT>
              <ENT>10 (4.54)</ENT>
            </ROW>
            <ROW>
              <ENT I="01">Nitrogen oxide NO</ENT>
              <ENT>10 (4.54)</ENT>
            </ROW>
            <ROW>
              <ENT I="01">Nitrogen oxide NO<E T="52">2</E>
              </ENT>
              <ENT>10 (4.54)</ENT>
            </ROW>
            <ROW>
              <ENT I="01">Nitroglycerine</ENT>
              <ENT>10 (4.54)</ENT>
            </ROW>
            <ROW>
              <ENT I="01">Nitrophenol (mixed)</ENT>
              <ENT>100 (45.4)</ENT>
            </ROW>
            <ROW>
              <ENT I="03">m-Nitrophenol</ENT>
              <ENT/>
            </ROW>
            <ROW>
              <ENT I="01">o-Nitrophenol</ENT>
              <ENT>100 (45.4)</ENT>
            </ROW>
            <ROW>
              <ENT I="01">p-Nitrophenol</ENT>
              <ENT>100 (45.4)</ENT>
            </ROW>
            <ROW>
              <ENT I="01">2-Nitrophenol</ENT>
              <ENT>100 (45.4)</ENT>
            </ROW>
            <ROW>
              <ENT I="01">4-Nitrophenol</ENT>
              <ENT>100 (45.4)</ENT>
            </ROW>
            <ROW>
              <ENT I="01">2-Nitropropane</ENT>
              <ENT>10 (4.54)</ENT>
            </ROW>
            <ROW>
              <ENT I="01">N-Nitrosodi-n-butylamine</ENT>
              <ENT>10 (4.54)</ENT>
            </ROW>
            <ROW>
              <ENT I="01">N-Nitrosodiethanolamine</ENT>
              <ENT>1 (0.454)</ENT>
            </ROW>
            <ROW>
              <ENT I="01">N-Nitrosodiethylamine</ENT>
              <ENT>1 (0.454)</ENT>
            </ROW>
            <ROW>
              <ENT I="01">N-Nitrosodimethylamine</ENT>
              <ENT>10 (4.54)</ENT>
            </ROW>
            <ROW>
              <ENT I="01">N-Nitrosodiphenylamine</ENT>
              <ENT>100 (45.4)</ENT>
            </ROW>
            <ROW>
              <ENT I="01">N-Nitroso-N-ethylurea</ENT>
              <ENT>1 (0.454)</ENT>
            </ROW>
            <ROW>
              <ENT I="01">N-Nitroso-N-methylurea</ENT>
              <ENT>1 (0.454)</ENT>
            </ROW>
            <ROW>
              <ENT I="01">N-Nitroso-N-methylurethane</ENT>
              <ENT>1 (0.454)</ENT>
            </ROW>
            <ROW>
              <ENT I="01">N-Nitrosomethylvinylamine</ENT>
              <ENT>10 (4.54)</ENT>
            </ROW>
            <ROW>
              <ENT I="01">N-Nitrosomorpholine</ENT>
              <ENT>1 (0.454)</ENT>
            </ROW>
            <ROW>
              <ENT I="01">N-Nitrosopiperidine</ENT>
              <ENT>10 (4.54)</ENT>
            </ROW>
            <ROW>
              <ENT I="01">N-Nitrosopyrrolidine</ENT>
              <ENT>1 (0.454)</ENT>
            </ROW>
            <ROW>
              <ENT I="01">Nitrotoluene</ENT>
              <ENT>1000 (454)</ENT>
            </ROW>
            <ROW>
              <ENT I="03">m-Nitrotoluene</ENT>
              <ENT/>
            </ROW>
            <ROW>
              <ENT I="03">o-Nitrotoluene</ENT>
              <ENT/>
            </ROW>
            <ROW>
              <ENT I="03">p-Nitrotoluene</ENT>
              <ENT/>
            </ROW>
            <ROW>
              <ENT I="01">5-Nitro-o-toluidine</ENT>
              <ENT>100 (45.4)</ENT>
            </ROW>
            <ROW>
              <ENT I="01">Octamethylpyrophosphoramide</ENT>
              <ENT>100 (45.4)</ENT>
            </ROW>
            <ROW>
              <ENT I="01">Osmium oxide OsO<E T="52">4</E>, (T-4)-</ENT>
              <ENT>1000 (454)</ENT>
            </ROW>
            <ROW>
              <ENT I="01">Osmium tetroxide</ENT>
              <ENT>1000 (454)</ENT>
            </ROW>
            <ROW>
              <ENT I="01">7-Oxabicyclo[2.2.1]heptane-2,3-dicarboxylic acid</ENT>
              <ENT>1000 (454)</ENT>
            </ROW>
            <ROW>
              <ENT I="01">Oxamyl</ENT>
              <ENT>100 (45.4)</ENT>
            </ROW>
            <ROW>
              <ENT I="01">1,2-Oxathiolane, 2,2-dioxide</ENT>
              <ENT>10 (4.54)</ENT>
            </ROW>
            <ROW>
              <ENT I="01">2H-1,3,2-Oxazaphosphorin-2-amine, N,N-bis(2-chloroethyl) tetrahydro-, 2-oxide</ENT>
              <ENT>10 (4.54)</ENT>
            </ROW>
            <ROW>
              <ENT I="01">Oxirane</ENT>
              <ENT>10 (4.54)</ENT>
            </ROW>
            <ROW>
              <ENT I="01">Oxiranecarboxyaldehyde</ENT>
              <ENT>10 (4.54)</ENT>
            </ROW>
            <ROW>
              <ENT I="01">Oxirane, (chloromethyl)-</ENT>
              <ENT>100 (45.4)</ENT>
            </ROW>
            <ROW>
              <ENT I="01">Paraformaldehyde</ENT>
              <ENT>1000 (454)</ENT>
            </ROW>
            <ROW>
              <ENT I="01">Paraldehyde</ENT>
              <ENT>1000 (454)</ENT>
            </ROW>
            <ROW>
              <ENT I="01">Parathion</ENT>
              <ENT>10 (4.54)</ENT>
            </ROW>
            <ROW>
              <ENT I="01">PCBs</ENT>
              <ENT>1 (0.454)</ENT>
            </ROW>
            <ROW>
              <ENT I="01">PCNB</ENT>
              <ENT>100 (45.4)</ENT>
            </ROW>
            <ROW>
              <ENT I="01">Pentachlorobenzene</ENT>
              <ENT>10 (4.54)</ENT>
            </ROW>
            <ROW>
              <ENT I="01">Pentachloroethane</ENT>
              <ENT>10 (4.54)</ENT>
            </ROW>
            <ROW>
              <ENT I="01">Pentachloronitrobenzene</ENT>
              <ENT>100 (45.4)</ENT>
            </ROW>
            <ROW>
              <ENT I="01">Pentachlorophenol</ENT>
              <ENT>10 (4.54)</ENT>
            </ROW>
            <ROW>
              <ENT I="01">1,3-Pentadiene</ENT>
              <ENT>100 (45.4)</ENT>
            </ROW>
            <ROW>
              <ENT I="01">Perchloroethylene</ENT>
              <ENT>100 (45.4)</ENT>
            </ROW>
            <ROW>
              <PRTPAGE P="1107"/>
              <ENT I="01">Perchloromethyl mercaptan<E T="51">@</E>
              </ENT>
              <ENT>100 (45.4)</ENT>
            </ROW>
            <ROW>
              <ENT I="01">Phenacetin</ENT>
              <ENT>100 (45.4)</ENT>
            </ROW>
            <ROW>
              <ENT I="01">Phenanthrene</ENT>
              <ENT>5000 (2270)</ENT>
            </ROW>
            <ROW>
              <ENT I="01">Phenol</ENT>
              <ENT>1000 (454)</ENT>
            </ROW>
            <ROW>
              <ENT I="01">Phenol, 2-chloro-</ENT>
              <ENT>100 (45.4)</ENT>
            </ROW>
            <ROW>
              <ENT I="01">Phenol, 4-chloro-3-methyl-</ENT>
              <ENT>5000 (2270)</ENT>
            </ROW>
            <ROW>
              <ENT I="01">Phenol, 2-cyclohexyl-4,6-dinitro-</ENT>
              <ENT>100 (45.4)</ENT>
            </ROW>
            <ROW>
              <ENT I="01">Phenol, 2,4-dichloro-</ENT>
              <ENT>100 (45.4)</ENT>
            </ROW>
            <ROW>
              <ENT I="01">Phenol, 2,6-dichloro-</ENT>
              <ENT>100 (45.4)</ENT>
            </ROW>
            <ROW>
              <ENT I="01">Phenol, 4,4′-(1,2-diethyl-1,2-ethenediyl)bis-, (E)</ENT>
              <ENT>1 (0.454)</ENT>
            </ROW>
            <ROW>
              <ENT I="01">Phenol, 2,4-dimethyl-</ENT>
              <ENT>100 (45.4)</ENT>
            </ROW>
            <ROW>
              <ENT I="01">Phenol, 4-(dimethylamino)-3,5-dimethyl-, methylcarbamate (ester)</ENT>
              <ENT>1000 (454)</ENT>
            </ROW>
            <ROW>
              <ENT I="01">Phenol, (3,5-dimethyl-4-(methylthio)-, methylcarbamate</ENT>
              <ENT>10 (4.54)</ENT>
            </ROW>
            <ROW>
              <ENT I="01">Phenol, 2,4-dinitro-</ENT>
              <ENT>10 (4.54)</ENT>
            </ROW>
            <ROW>
              <ENT I="01">Phenol, methyl-</ENT>
              <ENT>100 (45.4)</ENT>
            </ROW>
            <ROW>
              <ENT I="01">Phenol, 2-methyl-4,6-dinitro-,  salts</ENT>
              <ENT>10 (4.54)</ENT>
            </ROW>
            <ROW>
              <ENT I="01">Phenol, 2,2′-methylenebis[3,4,6-trichloro-</ENT>
              <ENT>100 (45.4)</ENT>
            </ROW>
            <ROW>
              <ENT I="01">Phenol, 2-(1-methylethoxy)-, methylcarbamate</ENT>
              <ENT>100 (45.4)</ENT>
            </ROW>
            <ROW>
              <ENT I="01">Phenol, 3-(1-methylethyl)-, methyl carbamate</ENT>
              <ENT>10 (4.54)</ENT>
            </ROW>
            <ROW>
              <ENT I="01">Phenol, 3-methyl-5-(1-methylethyl)-, methyl carbamate</ENT>
              <ENT>1000 (454)</ENT>
            </ROW>
            <ROW>
              <ENT I="01">Phenol, 2-(1-methylpropyl)-4,6-dinitro-</ENT>
              <ENT>1000 (454)</ENT>
            </ROW>
            <ROW>
              <ENT I="01">Phenol, 4-nitro-</ENT>
              <ENT>100 (45.4)</ENT>
            </ROW>
            <ROW>
              <ENT I="01">Phenol, pentachloro-</ENT>
              <ENT>10 (4.54)</ENT>
            </ROW>
            <ROW>
              <ENT I="01">Phenol, 2,3,4,6-tetrachloro-</ENT>
              <ENT>10 (4.54)</ENT>
            </ROW>
            <ROW>
              <ENT I="01">Phenol, 2,4,5-trichloro-</ENT>
              <ENT>10 (4.54)</ENT>
            </ROW>
            <ROW>
              <ENT I="01">Phenol, 2,4,6-trichloro-</ENT>
              <ENT>10 (4.54)</ENT>
            </ROW>
            <ROW>
              <ENT I="01">Phenol, 2,4,6-trinitro-, ammonium salt</ENT>
              <ENT>10 (4.54)</ENT>
            </ROW>
            <ROW>
              <ENT I="01">L-Phenylalanine, 4-[bis(2-chloroethyl)amino]-</ENT>
              <ENT>1 (0.454)</ENT>
            </ROW>
            <ROW>
              <ENT I="01">p-Phenylenediamine</ENT>
              <ENT>5000 (2270)</ENT>
            </ROW>
            <ROW>
              <ENT I="01">Phenyl mercaptan<E T="51">@</E>
              </ENT>
              <ENT>100 (45.4)</ENT>
            </ROW>
            <ROW>
              <ENT I="01">Phenylmercury acetate</ENT>
              <ENT>100 (45.4)</ENT>
            </ROW>
            <ROW>
              <ENT I="01">Phenylthiourea</ENT>
              <ENT>100 (45.4)</ENT>
            </ROW>
            <ROW>
              <ENT I="01">Phorate</ENT>
              <ENT>10 (4.54)</ENT>
            </ROW>
            <ROW>
              <ENT I="01">Phosgene</ENT>
              <ENT>10 (4.54)</ENT>
            </ROW>
            <ROW>
              <ENT I="01">Phosphine</ENT>
              <ENT>100 (45.4)</ENT>
            </ROW>
            <ROW>
              <ENT I="01">Phosphoric acid</ENT>
              <ENT>5000 (2270)</ENT>
            </ROW>
            <ROW>
              <ENT I="01">Phosphoric acid, diethyl 4-nitrophenyl ester</ENT>
              <ENT>100 (45.4)</ENT>
            </ROW>
            <ROW>
              <ENT I="01">Phosphoric acid, lead(2+) salt (2:3)</ENT>
              <ENT>10 (4.54)</ENT>
            </ROW>
            <ROW>
              <ENT I="01">Phosphorodithioic acid, O,O-diethyl S-[2-(ethylthio)ethyl] ester</ENT>
              <ENT>1 (0.454)</ENT>
            </ROW>
            <ROW>
              <ENT I="01">Phosphorodithioic acid, O,O-diethyl S-[(ethylthio)methyl] ester</ENT>
              <ENT>10 (4.54)</ENT>
            </ROW>
            <ROW>
              <ENT I="01">Phosphorodithioic acid, O,O-diethyl S-methyl ester</ENT>
              <ENT>5000 (2270)</ENT>
            </ROW>
            <ROW>
              <ENT I="01">Phosphorodithioic acid, O,O-dimethyl S-[2-(methylamino)-2-oxoethyl] ester</ENT>
              <ENT>10 (4.54)</ENT>
            </ROW>
            <ROW>
              <ENT I="01">Phosphorofluoridic acid, bis(1-methylethyl) ester</ENT>
              <ENT>100 (45.4)</ENT>
            </ROW>
            <ROW>
              <ENT I="01">Phosphorothioic acid, O,O-diethyl O-(4-nitrophenyl) ester</ENT>
              <ENT>10 (4.54)</ENT>
            </ROW>
            <ROW>
              <ENT I="01">Phosphorothioic acid, O,O-diethyl O-pyrazinyl ester</ENT>
              <ENT>100 (45.4)</ENT>
            </ROW>
            <ROW>
              <ENT I="01">Phosphorothioic acid, O-[4-[(dimethylamino) sulfonyl]phenyl] O,O-dimethyl ester</ENT>
              <ENT>1000 (454)</ENT>
            </ROW>
            <ROW>
              <ENT I="01">Phosphorothioic acid, O,O-dimethyl O-(4-nitrophenyl) ester</ENT>
              <ENT>100 (45.4)</ENT>
            </ROW>
            <ROW>
              <ENT I="01">Phosphorus</ENT>
              <ENT>1 (0.454)</ENT>
            </ROW>
            <ROW>
              <ENT I="01">Phosphorus oxychloride</ENT>
              <ENT>1000 (454)</ENT>
            </ROW>
            <ROW>
              <ENT I="01">Phosphorus pentasulfide</ENT>
              <ENT>100 (45.4)</ENT>
            </ROW>
            <ROW>
              <ENT I="01">Phosphorus sulfide</ENT>
              <ENT>100 (45.4)</ENT>
            </ROW>
            <ROW>
              <ENT I="01">Phosphorus trichloride</ENT>
              <ENT>1000 (454)</ENT>
            </ROW>
            <ROW>
              <ENT I="01">Phthalic anhydride</ENT>
              <ENT>5000 (2270)</ENT>
            </ROW>
            <ROW>
              <ENT I="01">Physostigmine</ENT>
              <ENT>100 (45.4)</ENT>
            </ROW>
            <ROW>
              <ENT I="01">Physostigmine salicylate</ENT>
              <ENT>100 (45.4)</ENT>
            </ROW>
            <ROW>
              <ENT I="01">2-Picoline</ENT>
              <ENT>5000 (2270)</ENT>
            </ROW>
            <ROW>
              <ENT I="01">Piperidine, 1-nitroso-</ENT>
              <ENT>10 (4.54)</ENT>
            </ROW>
            <ROW>
              <ENT I="01">Plumbane, tetraethyl-</ENT>
              <ENT>10 (4.54)</ENT>
            </ROW>
            <ROW>
              <ENT I="01">POLYCHLORINATED BIPHENYLS</ENT>
              <ENT>1 (0.454)</ENT>
            </ROW>
            <ROW>
              <ENT I="01">Potassium arsenate</ENT>
              <ENT>1 (0.454)</ENT>
            </ROW>
            <ROW>
              <ENT I="01">Potassium arsenite</ENT>
              <ENT>1 (0.454)</ENT>
            </ROW>
            <ROW>
              <ENT I="01">Potassium bichromate</ENT>
              <ENT>10 (4.54)</ENT>
            </ROW>
            <ROW>
              <ENT I="01">Potassium chromate</ENT>
              <ENT>10 (4.54)</ENT>
            </ROW>
            <ROW>
              <ENT I="01">Potassium cyanide K(CN)</ENT>
              <ENT>10 (4.54)</ENT>
            </ROW>
            <ROW>
              <ENT I="01">Potassium hydroxide</ENT>
              <ENT>1000 (454)</ENT>
            </ROW>
            <ROW>
              <ENT I="01">Potassium permanganate</ENT>
              <ENT>100 (45.4)</ENT>
            </ROW>
            <ROW>
              <ENT I="01">Potassium silver cyanide</ENT>
              <ENT>1 (0.454)</ENT>
            </ROW>
            <ROW>
              <ENT I="01">Promecarb</ENT>
              <ENT>1000 (454)</ENT>
            </ROW>
            <ROW>
              <ENT I="01">Pronamide</ENT>
              <ENT>5000 (2270)</ENT>
            </ROW>
            <ROW>
              <PRTPAGE P="1108"/>
              <ENT I="01">Propanal, 2-methyl-2-(methyl-sulfonyl)-, O-[(methylamino)carbonyl] oxime</ENT>
              <ENT>100 (45.4)</ENT>
            </ROW>
            <ROW>
              <ENT I="01">Propanal, 2-methyl-2-(methylthio)-, O-[(methylamino)carbonyl] oxime</ENT>
              <ENT>1 (0.454)</ENT>
            </ROW>
            <ROW>
              <ENT I="01">1-Propanamine</ENT>
              <ENT>5000 (2270)</ENT>
            </ROW>
            <ROW>
              <ENT I="01">1-Propanamine, N-propyl-</ENT>
              <ENT>5000 (2270)</ENT>
            </ROW>
            <ROW>
              <ENT I="01">1-Propanamine, N-nitroso-N-propyl-</ENT>
              <ENT>10 (4.54)</ENT>
            </ROW>
            <ROW>
              <ENT I="01">Propane, 1,2-dibromo-3-chloro-</ENT>
              <ENT>1 (0.454)</ENT>
            </ROW>
            <ROW>
              <ENT I="01">Propane, 1,2-dichloro-</ENT>
              <ENT>1000 (454)</ENT>
            </ROW>
            <ROW>
              <ENT I="01">Propanedinitrile</ENT>
              <ENT>1000 (454)</ENT>
            </ROW>
            <ROW>
              <ENT I="01">Propanenitrile</ENT>
              <ENT>10 (4.54)</ENT>
            </ROW>
            <ROW>
              <ENT I="01">Propanenitrile, 3-chloro-</ENT>
              <ENT>1000 (454)</ENT>
            </ROW>
            <ROW>
              <ENT I="01">Propanenitrile, 2-hydroxy-2-methyl-</ENT>
              <ENT>10 (4.54)</ENT>
            </ROW>
            <ROW>
              <ENT I="01">Propane, 2-nitro-</ENT>
              <ENT>10 (4.54)</ENT>
            </ROW>
            <ROW>
              <ENT I="01">Propane, 2,2′-oxybis[2-chloro-</ENT>
              <ENT>1000 (454)</ENT>
            </ROW>
            <ROW>
              <ENT I="01">1,3-Propane sultone</ENT>
              <ENT>10 (4.54)</ENT>
            </ROW>
            <ROW>
              <ENT I="01">1,2,3-Propanetriol, trinitrate</ENT>
              <ENT>10 (4.54)</ENT>
            </ROW>
            <ROW>
              <ENT I="01">Propanoic acid, 2-(2,4,5-trichlorophenoxy)-</ENT>
              <ENT>100 (45.4)</ENT>
            </ROW>
            <ROW>
              <ENT I="01">1-Propanol, 2,3-dibromo-, phosphate (3:1)</ENT>
              <ENT>10 (4.54)</ENT>
            </ROW>
            <ROW>
              <ENT I="01">1-Propanol, 2-methyl-</ENT>
              <ENT>5000 (2270)</ENT>
            </ROW>
            <ROW>
              <ENT I="01">2-Propanone</ENT>
              <ENT>5000 (2270)</ENT>
            </ROW>
            <ROW>
              <ENT I="01">2-Propanone, 1-bromo-</ENT>
              <ENT>1000 (454)</ENT>
            </ROW>
            <ROW>
              <ENT I="01">Propargite</ENT>
              <ENT>10 (4.54)</ENT>
            </ROW>
            <ROW>
              <ENT I="01">Propargyl alcohol</ENT>
              <ENT>1000 (454)</ENT>
            </ROW>
            <ROW>
              <ENT I="01">2-Propenal</ENT>
              <ENT>1 (0.454)</ENT>
            </ROW>
            <ROW>
              <ENT I="01">2-Propenamide</ENT>
              <ENT>5000 (2270)</ENT>
            </ROW>
            <ROW>
              <ENT I="01">1-Propene, 1,3-dichloro-</ENT>
              <ENT>100 (45.4)</ENT>
            </ROW>
            <ROW>
              <ENT I="01">1-Propene, 1,1,2,3,3,3-hexachloro-</ENT>
              <ENT>1000 (454)</ENT>
            </ROW>
            <ROW>
              <ENT I="01">2-Propenenitrile</ENT>
              <ENT>100 (45.4)</ENT>
            </ROW>
            <ROW>
              <ENT I="01">2-Propenenitrile, 2-methyl-</ENT>
              <ENT>1000 (454)</ENT>
            </ROW>
            <ROW>
              <ENT I="01">2-Propenoic acid</ENT>
              <ENT>5000 (2270)</ENT>
            </ROW>
            <ROW>
              <ENT I="01">2-Propenoic acid, ethyl ester</ENT>
              <ENT>1000 (454)</ENT>
            </ROW>
            <ROW>
              <ENT I="01">2-Propenoic acid, 2-methyl-, ethyl ester</ENT>
              <ENT>1000 (454)</ENT>
            </ROW>
            <ROW>
              <ENT I="01">2-Propenoic acid, 2-methyl-, methyl ester</ENT>
              <ENT>1000 (454)</ENT>
            </ROW>
            <ROW>
              <ENT I="01">2-Propen-1-ol</ENT>
              <ENT>100 (45.4)</ENT>
            </ROW>
            <ROW>
              <ENT I="01">Propham</ENT>
              <ENT>1000 (454)</ENT>
            </ROW>
            <ROW>
              <ENT I="01">beta-Propiolactone</ENT>
              <ENT>10 (4.54)</ENT>
            </ROW>
            <ROW>
              <ENT I="01">Propionaldehyde</ENT>
              <ENT>1000 (454)</ENT>
            </ROW>
            <ROW>
              <ENT I="01">Propionic acid</ENT>
              <ENT>5000 (2270)</ENT>
            </ROW>
            <ROW>
              <ENT I="01">Propionic anhydride</ENT>
              <ENT>5000 (2270)</ENT>
            </ROW>
            <ROW>
              <ENT I="01">Propoxur (Baygon)</ENT>
              <ENT>100 (45.4)</ENT>
            </ROW>
            <ROW>
              <ENT I="01">n-Propylamine</ENT>
              <ENT>5000 (2270)</ENT>
            </ROW>
            <ROW>
              <ENT I="01">Propylene dichloride</ENT>
              <ENT>1000 (454)</ENT>
            </ROW>
            <ROW>
              <ENT I="01">Propylene oxide</ENT>
              <ENT>100 (45.4)</ENT>
            </ROW>
            <ROW>
              <ENT I="01">1,2-Propylenimine</ENT>
              <ENT>1 (0.454)</ENT>
            </ROW>
            <ROW>
              <ENT I="01">2-Propyn-1-ol</ENT>
              <ENT>1000 (454)</ENT>
            </ROW>
            <ROW>
              <ENT I="01">Prosulfocarb</ENT>
              <ENT>5000 (2270)</ENT>
            </ROW>
            <ROW>
              <ENT I="01">Pyrene</ENT>
              <ENT>5000 (2270)</ENT>
            </ROW>
            <ROW>
              <ENT I="01">Pyrethrins</ENT>
              <ENT>1 (0.454)</ENT>
            </ROW>
            <ROW>
              <ENT I="01">3,6-Pyridazinedione, 1,2-dihydro-</ENT>
              <ENT>5000 (2270)</ENT>
            </ROW>
            <ROW>
              <ENT I="01">4-Pyridinamine</ENT>
              <ENT>1000 (454)</ENT>
            </ROW>
            <ROW>
              <ENT I="01">Pyridine</ENT>
              <ENT>1000 (454)</ENT>
            </ROW>
            <ROW>
              <ENT I="01">Pyridine, 2-methyl-</ENT>
              <ENT>5000 (2270)</ENT>
            </ROW>
            <ROW>
              <ENT I="01">Pyridine, 3-(1-methyl-2-pyrrolidinyl)-, (S)-,  salts</ENT>
              <ENT>100 (45.4)</ENT>
            </ROW>
            <ROW>
              <ENT I="01">2,4-(1H,3H)-Pyrimidinedione, 5-[bis(2-chloroethyl)amino]-</ENT>
              <ENT>10 (4.54)</ENT>
            </ROW>
            <ROW>
              <ENT I="01">4(1H)-Pyrimidinone, 2,3-dihydro-6-methyl-2-thioxo-</ENT>
              <ENT>10 (4.54)</ENT>
            </ROW>
            <ROW>
              <ENT I="01">Pyrrolidine, 1-nitroso-</ENT>
              <ENT>1 (0.454)</ENT>
            </ROW>
            <ROW>
              <ENT I="01">Pyrrolo[2,3-b] indol-5-ol,1,2,3,3a,8,8a-hexahydro-1,3a,8-trimethyl-, methylcarbamate (ester), (3aS-cis)-</ENT>
              <ENT>100 (45.4)</ENT>
            </ROW>
            <ROW>
              <ENT I="01">Quinoline</ENT>
              <ENT>5000 (2270)</ENT>
            </ROW>
            <ROW>
              <ENT I="01">Quinone</ENT>
              <ENT>10 (4.54)</ENT>
            </ROW>
            <ROW>
              <ENT I="01">Quintobenzene</ENT>
              <ENT>100 (45.4)</ENT>
            </ROW>
            <ROW>
              <ENT I="01">RADIONUCLIDES</ENT>
              <ENT>See Table 2</ENT>
            </ROW>
            <ROW>
              <ENT I="01">Reserpine</ENT>
              <ENT>5000 (2270)</ENT>
            </ROW>
            <ROW>
              <ENT I="01">Resorcinol</ENT>
              <ENT>5000 (2270)</ENT>
            </ROW>
            <ROW>
              <ENT I="01">Saccharin  salts</ENT>
              <ENT>100 (45.4)</ENT>
            </ROW>
            <ROW>
              <ENT I="01">Safrole</ENT>
              <ENT>100 (45.4)</ENT>
            </ROW>
            <ROW>
              <ENT I="01">Selenious acid</ENT>
              <ENT>10 (4.54)</ENT>
            </ROW>
            <ROW>
              <ENT I="01">Selenious acid, dithallium (1+) salt</ENT>
              <ENT>1000 (454)</ENT>
            </ROW>
            <ROW>
              <ENT I="01">Selenium<E T="8141">¢</E>
              </ENT>
              <ENT>100 (45.4)</ENT>
            </ROW>
            <ROW>
              <ENT I="01">Selenium dioxide</ENT>
              <ENT>10 (4.54)</ENT>
            </ROW>
            <ROW>
              <ENT I="01">Selenium oxide</ENT>
              <ENT>10 (4.54)</ENT>
            </ROW>
            <ROW>
              <PRTPAGE P="1109"/>
              <ENT I="01">Selenium sulfide SeS2</ENT>
              <ENT>10 (4.54)</ENT>
            </ROW>
            <ROW>
              <ENT I="01">Selenourea</ENT>
              <ENT>1000 (454)</ENT>
            </ROW>
            <ROW>
              <ENT I="01">L-Serine, diazoacetate (ester)</ENT>
              <ENT>1 (0.454)</ENT>
            </ROW>
            <ROW>
              <ENT I="01">Silver<E T="8141">¢</E>
              </ENT>
              <ENT>1000 (454)</ENT>
            </ROW>
            <ROW>
              <ENT I="01">Silver cyanide Ag(CN)</ENT>
              <ENT>1 (0.454)</ENT>
            </ROW>
            <ROW>
              <ENT I="01">Silver nitrate</ENT>
              <ENT>1 (0.454)</ENT>
            </ROW>
            <ROW>
              <ENT I="01">Silvex (2,4,5-TP)</ENT>
              <ENT>100 (45.4)</ENT>
            </ROW>
            <ROW>
              <ENT I="01">Sodium</ENT>
              <ENT>10 (4.54)</ENT>
            </ROW>
            <ROW>
              <ENT I="01">Sodium arsenate</ENT>
              <ENT>1 (0.454)</ENT>
            </ROW>
            <ROW>
              <ENT I="01">Sodium arsenite</ENT>
              <ENT>1 (0.454)</ENT>
            </ROW>
            <ROW>
              <ENT I="01">Sodium azide</ENT>
              <ENT>1000 (454)</ENT>
            </ROW>
            <ROW>
              <ENT I="01">Sodium bichromate</ENT>
              <ENT>10 (4.54)</ENT>
            </ROW>
            <ROW>
              <ENT I="01">Sodium bifluoride</ENT>
              <ENT>100 (45.4)</ENT>
            </ROW>
            <ROW>
              <ENT I="01">Sodium bisulfite</ENT>
              <ENT>5000 (2270)</ENT>
            </ROW>
            <ROW>
              <ENT I="01">Sodium chromate</ENT>
              <ENT>10 (4.54)</ENT>
            </ROW>
            <ROW>
              <ENT I="01">Sodium cyanide Na(CN)</ENT>
              <ENT>10 (4.54)</ENT>
            </ROW>
            <ROW>
              <ENT I="01">Sodium dodecylbenzenesulfonate</ENT>
              <ENT>1000 (454)</ENT>
            </ROW>
            <ROW>
              <ENT I="01">Sodium fluoride</ENT>
              <ENT>1000 (454)</ENT>
            </ROW>
            <ROW>
              <ENT I="01">Sodium hydrosulfide</ENT>
              <ENT>5000 (2270)</ENT>
            </ROW>
            <ROW>
              <ENT I="01">Sodium hydroxide</ENT>
              <ENT>1000 (454)</ENT>
            </ROW>
            <ROW>
              <ENT I="01">Sodium hypochlorite</ENT>
              <ENT>100 (45.4)</ENT>
            </ROW>
            <ROW>
              <ENT I="01">Sodium methylate</ENT>
              <ENT>1000 (454)</ENT>
            </ROW>
            <ROW>
              <ENT I="01">Sodium nitrite</ENT>
              <ENT>100 (45.4)</ENT>
            </ROW>
            <ROW>
              <ENT I="01">Sodium phosphate, dibasic</ENT>
              <ENT>5000 (2270)</ENT>
            </ROW>
            <ROW>
              <ENT I="01">Sodium phosphate, tribasic</ENT>
              <ENT>5000 (2270)</ENT>
            </ROW>
            <ROW>
              <ENT I="01">Sodium selenite</ENT>
              <ENT>100 (45.4)</ENT>
            </ROW>
            <ROW>
              <ENT I="01">Streptozotocin</ENT>
              <ENT>1 (0.454)</ENT>
            </ROW>
            <ROW>
              <ENT I="01">Strontium chromate</ENT>
              <ENT>10 (4.54)</ENT>
            </ROW>
            <ROW>
              <ENT I="01">Strychnidin-10-one,  salts</ENT>
              <ENT>10 (4.54)</ENT>
            </ROW>
            <ROW>
              <ENT I="01">Strychnidin-10-one, 2,3-dimethoxy-</ENT>
              <ENT>100 (45.4)</ENT>
            </ROW>
            <ROW>
              <ENT I="01">Strychnine,  salts</ENT>
              <ENT>10 (4.54)</ENT>
            </ROW>
            <ROW>
              <ENT I="01">Styrene</ENT>
              <ENT>1000 (454)</ENT>
            </ROW>
            <ROW>
              <ENT I="01">Styrene oxide</ENT>
              <ENT>100 (45.4)</ENT>
            </ROW>
            <ROW>
              <ENT I="01">Sulfur chlorides<E T="51">@</E>
              </ENT>
              <ENT>1000 (454)</ENT>
            </ROW>
            <ROW>
              <ENT I="01">Sulfuric acid</ENT>
              <ENT>1000 (454)</ENT>
            </ROW>
            <ROW>
              <ENT I="01">Sulfuric acid, dimethyl ester</ENT>
              <ENT>100 (45.4)</ENT>
            </ROW>
            <ROW>
              <ENT I="01">Sulfuric acid, dithallium (1+) salt</ENT>
              <ENT>100 (45.4)</ENT>
            </ROW>
            <ROW>
              <ENT I="01">Sulfur monochloride</ENT>
              <ENT>1000 (454)</ENT>
            </ROW>
            <ROW>
              <ENT I="01">Sulfur phosphide</ENT>
              <ENT>100 (45.4)</ENT>
            </ROW>
            <ROW>
              <ENT I="01">2,4,5-T</ENT>
              <ENT>1000 (454)</ENT>
            </ROW>
            <ROW>
              <ENT I="01">2,4,5-T acid</ENT>
              <ENT>1000 (454)</ENT>
            </ROW>
            <ROW>
              <ENT I="01">2,4,5-T amines</ENT>
              <ENT>5000 (2270)</ENT>
            </ROW>
            <ROW>
              <ENT I="01">2,4,5-T esters</ENT>
              <ENT>1000 (454)</ENT>
            </ROW>
            <ROW>
              <ENT I="01">2,4,5-T salts</ENT>
              <ENT>1000 (454)</ENT>
            </ROW>
            <ROW>
              <ENT I="01">TCDD</ENT>
              <ENT>1 (0.454)</ENT>
            </ROW>
            <ROW>
              <ENT I="01">TDE</ENT>
              <ENT>1 (0.454)</ENT>
            </ROW>
            <ROW>
              <ENT I="01">1,2,4,5-Tetrachlorobenzene</ENT>
              <ENT>5000 (2270)</ENT>
            </ROW>
            <ROW>
              <ENT I="01">2,3,7,8-Tetrachlorodibenzo-p-dioxin</ENT>
              <ENT>1 (0.454)</ENT>
            </ROW>
            <ROW>
              <ENT I="01">1,1,1,2-Tetrachloroethane</ENT>
              <ENT>100 (45.4)</ENT>
            </ROW>
            <ROW>
              <ENT I="01">1,1,2,2-Tetrachloroethane</ENT>
              <ENT>100 (45.4)</ENT>
            </ROW>
            <ROW>
              <ENT I="01">Tetrachloroethylene</ENT>
              <ENT>100 (45.4)</ENT>
            </ROW>
            <ROW>
              <ENT I="01">2,3,4,6-Tetrachlorophenol</ENT>
              <ENT>10 (4.54)</ENT>
            </ROW>
            <ROW>
              <ENT I="01">Tetraethyl pyrophosphate</ENT>
              <ENT>10 (4.54)</ENT>
            </ROW>
            <ROW>
              <ENT I="01">Tetraethyl lead</ENT>
              <ENT>10 (4.54)</ENT>
            </ROW>
            <ROW>
              <ENT I="01">Tetraethyldithiopyrophosphate</ENT>
              <ENT>100 (45.4)</ENT>
            </ROW>
            <ROW>
              <ENT I="01">Tetrahydrofuran</ENT>
              <ENT>1000 (454)</ENT>
            </ROW>
            <ROW>
              <ENT I="01">Tetranitromethane</ENT>
              <ENT>10 (4.54)</ENT>
            </ROW>
            <ROW>
              <ENT I="01">Tetraphosphoric acid, hexaethyl ester</ENT>
              <ENT>100 (45.4)</ENT>
            </ROW>
            <ROW>
              <ENT I="01">Thallic oxide</ENT>
              <ENT>100 (45.4)</ENT>
            </ROW>
            <ROW>
              <ENT I="01">Thallium<E T="8141">¢</E>
              </ENT>
              <ENT>1000 (454)</ENT>
            </ROW>
            <ROW>
              <ENT I="01">Thallium (I) acetate</ENT>
              <ENT>100 (45.4)</ENT>
            </ROW>
            <ROW>
              <ENT I="01">Thallium (I) carbonate</ENT>
              <ENT>100 (45.4)</ENT>
            </ROW>
            <ROW>
              <ENT I="01">Thallium chloride TlCl</ENT>
              <ENT>100 (45.4)</ENT>
            </ROW>
            <ROW>
              <ENT I="01">Thallium (I) nitrate</ENT>
              <ENT>100 (45.4)</ENT>
            </ROW>
            <ROW>
              <ENT I="01">Thallium oxide Tl<E T="52">2</E>O<E T="52">3</E>
              </ENT>
              <ENT>100 (45.4)</ENT>
            </ROW>
            <ROW>
              <ENT I="01">Thallium (I) selenite</ENT>
              <ENT>1000 (454)</ENT>
            </ROW>
            <ROW>
              <ENT I="01">Thallium (I) sulfate</ENT>
              <ENT>100 (45.4)</ENT>
            </ROW>
            <ROW>
              <ENT I="01">Thioacetamide</ENT>
              <ENT>10 (4.54)</ENT>
            </ROW>
            <ROW>
              <ENT I="01">Thiodicarb</ENT>
              <ENT>100 (45.4)</ENT>
            </ROW>
            <ROW>
              <PRTPAGE P="1110"/>
              <ENT I="01">Thiodiphosphoric acid, tetraethyl ester</ENT>
              <ENT>100 (45.4)</ENT>
            </ROW>
            <ROW>
              <ENT I="01">Thiofanox</ENT>
              <ENT>100 (45.4)</ENT>
            </ROW>
            <ROW>
              <ENT I="01">Thioimidodicarbonic diamide [(H<E T="52">2</E>N)C(S)]<E T="52">2</E>NH</ENT>
              <ENT>100 (45.4)</ENT>
            </ROW>
            <ROW>
              <ENT I="01">Thiomethanol</ENT>
              <ENT>100 (45.4)</ENT>
            </ROW>
            <ROW>
              <ENT I="01">Thioperoxydicarbonic diamide [(H<E T="52">2</E>N)C(S)]<E T="52">2</E>S<E T="52">2</E>, tetramethyl-</ENT>
              <ENT>10 (4.54)</ENT>
            </ROW>
            <ROW>
              <ENT I="01">Thiophanate-methyl</ENT>
              <ENT>10 (4.54)</ENT>
            </ROW>
            <ROW>
              <ENT I="01">Thiophenol</ENT>
              <ENT>100 (45.4)</ENT>
            </ROW>
            <ROW>
              <ENT I="01">Thiosemicarbazide</ENT>
              <ENT>100 (45.4)</ENT>
            </ROW>
            <ROW>
              <ENT I="01">Thiourea</ENT>
              <ENT>10 (4.54)</ENT>
            </ROW>
            <ROW>
              <ENT I="01">Thiourea, (2-chlorophenyl)-</ENT>
              <ENT>100 (45.4)</ENT>
            </ROW>
            <ROW>
              <ENT I="01">Thiourea, 1-naphthalenyl-</ENT>
              <ENT>100 (45.4)</ENT>
            </ROW>
            <ROW>
              <ENT I="01">Thiourea, phenyl-</ENT>
              <ENT>100 (45.4)</ENT>
            </ROW>
            <ROW>
              <ENT I="01">Thiram</ENT>
              <ENT>10 (4.54)</ENT>
            </ROW>
            <ROW>
              <ENT I="01">Tirpate</ENT>
              <ENT>100 (45.4)</ENT>
            </ROW>
            <ROW>
              <ENT I="01">Titanium tetrachloride</ENT>
              <ENT>1000 (454)</ENT>
            </ROW>
            <ROW>
              <ENT I="01">Toluene</ENT>
              <ENT>1000 (454)</ENT>
            </ROW>
            <ROW>
              <ENT I="01">Toluenediamine</ENT>
              <ENT>10 (4.54)</ENT>
            </ROW>
            <ROW>
              <ENT I="01">2,4-Toluene diamine</ENT>
              <ENT>10 (4.54)</ENT>
            </ROW>
            <ROW>
              <ENT I="01">Toluene diisocyanate</ENT>
              <ENT>100 (45.4)</ENT>
            </ROW>
            <ROW>
              <ENT I="01">2,4-Toluene diisocyanate</ENT>
              <ENT>100 (45.4)</ENT>
            </ROW>
            <ROW>
              <ENT I="01">o-Toluidine</ENT>
              <ENT>100 (45.4)</ENT>
            </ROW>
            <ROW>
              <ENT I="01">p-Toluidine</ENT>
              <ENT>100 (45.4)</ENT>
            </ROW>
            <ROW>
              <ENT I="01">o-Toluidine hydrochloride</ENT>
              <ENT>100 (45.4)</ENT>
            </ROW>
            <ROW>
              <ENT I="01">Toxaphene</ENT>
              <ENT>1 (0.454)</ENT>
            </ROW>
            <ROW>
              <ENT I="01">2,4,5-TP acid</ENT>
              <ENT>100 (45.4)</ENT>
            </ROW>
            <ROW>
              <ENT I="01">2,4,5-TP esters</ENT>
              <ENT>100 (45.4)</ENT>
            </ROW>
            <ROW>
              <ENT I="01">Triallate</ENT>
              <ENT>100 (45.4)</ENT>
            </ROW>
            <ROW>
              <ENT I="01">1H-1,2,4-Triazol-3-amine</ENT>
              <ENT>10 (4.54)</ENT>
            </ROW>
            <ROW>
              <ENT I="01">Trichlorfon</ENT>
              <ENT>100 (45.4)</ENT>
            </ROW>
            <ROW>
              <ENT I="01">1,2,4-Trichlorobenzene</ENT>
              <ENT>100 (45.4)</ENT>
            </ROW>
            <ROW>
              <ENT I="01">1,1,1-Trichloroethane</ENT>
              <ENT>1000 (454)</ENT>
            </ROW>
            <ROW>
              <ENT I="01">1,1,2-Trichloroethane</ENT>
              <ENT>100 (45.4)</ENT>
            </ROW>
            <ROW>
              <ENT I="01">Trichloroethylene</ENT>
              <ENT>100 (45.4)</ENT>
            </ROW>
            <ROW>
              <ENT I="01">Trichloromethanesulfenyl chloride</ENT>
              <ENT>100 (45.4)</ENT>
            </ROW>
            <ROW>
              <ENT I="01">Trichloromonofluoromethane</ENT>
              <ENT>5000 (2270)</ENT>
            </ROW>
            <ROW>
              <ENT I="01">Trichlorophenol</ENT>
              <ENT>10 (4.54)</ENT>
            </ROW>
            <ROW>
              <ENT I="03">2,3,4-Trichlorophenol</ENT>
              <ENT/>
            </ROW>
            <ROW>
              <ENT I="03">2,3,5-Trichlorophenol</ENT>
              <ENT/>
            </ROW>
            <ROW>
              <ENT I="03">2,3,6-Trichlorophenol</ENT>
              <ENT/>
            </ROW>
            <ROW>
              <ENT I="03">3,4,5-Trichlorophenol</ENT>
              <ENT/>
            </ROW>
            <ROW>
              <ENT I="01">2,4,5-Trichlorophenol</ENT>
              <ENT>10 (4.54)</ENT>
            </ROW>
            <ROW>
              <ENT I="01">2,4,6-Trichlorophenol</ENT>
              <ENT>10 (4.54)</ENT>
            </ROW>
            <ROW>
              <ENT I="01">Triethanolamine dodecylbenzenesulfonate</ENT>
              <ENT>1000 (454)</ENT>
            </ROW>
            <ROW>
              <ENT I="01">Triethylamine</ENT>
              <ENT>5000 (2270)</ENT>
            </ROW>
            <ROW>
              <ENT I="01">Trifluralin</ENT>
              <ENT>10 (4.54)</ENT>
            </ROW>
            <ROW>
              <ENT I="01">Trimethylamine</ENT>
              <ENT>100 (45.4)</ENT>
            </ROW>
            <ROW>
              <ENT I="01">2,2,4-Trimethylpentane</ENT>
              <ENT>1000 (454)</ENT>
            </ROW>
            <ROW>
              <ENT I="01">1,3,5-Trinitrobenzene</ENT>
              <ENT>10 (4.54)</ENT>
            </ROW>
            <ROW>
              <ENT I="01">1,3,5-Trioxane, 2,4,6-trimethyl-</ENT>
              <ENT>1000 (454)</ENT>
            </ROW>
            <ROW>
              <ENT I="01">Tris(2,3-dibromopropyl) phosphate</ENT>
              <ENT>10 (4.54)</ENT>
            </ROW>
            <ROW>
              <ENT I="01">Trypan blue</ENT>
              <ENT>10 (4.54)</ENT>
            </ROW>
            <ROW>
              <ENT I="01">D002 Unlisted Hazardous Wastes Characteristic of Corrosivity</ENT>
              <ENT>100 (45.4)</ENT>
            </ROW>
            <ROW>
              <ENT I="01">D001 Unlisted Hazardous Wastes Characteristic of Ignitability</ENT>
              <ENT>100 (45.4)</ENT>
            </ROW>
            <ROW>
              <ENT I="01">D003 Unlisted Hazardous Wastes Characteristic of Reactivity</ENT>
              <ENT>100 (45.4)</ENT>
            </ROW>
            <ROW>
              <ENT I="01" O="xl">D004-D043 Unlisted Hazardous Wastes Characteristic of Toxicity:</ENT>
            </ROW>
            <ROW>
              <ENT I="03">Arsenic (D004)</ENT>
              <ENT>1 (0.454)</ENT>
            </ROW>
            <ROW>
              <ENT I="03">Barium (D005)</ENT>
              <ENT>1000 (454)</ENT>
            </ROW>
            <ROW>
              <ENT I="03">Benzene (D018)</ENT>
              <ENT>10 (4.54)</ENT>
            </ROW>
            <ROW>
              <ENT I="03">Cadmium (D006)</ENT>
              <ENT>10 (4.54)</ENT>
            </ROW>
            <ROW>
              <ENT I="03">Carbon tetrachloride (D019)</ENT>
              <ENT>10 (4.54)</ENT>
            </ROW>
            <ROW>
              <ENT I="03">Chlordane (D020)</ENT>
              <ENT>1 (0.454)</ENT>
            </ROW>
            <ROW>
              <ENT I="03">Chlorobenzene (D021)</ENT>
              <ENT>100 (45.4)</ENT>
            </ROW>
            <ROW>
              <ENT I="03">Chloroform (D022)</ENT>
              <ENT>10 (4.54)</ENT>
            </ROW>
            <ROW>
              <ENT I="03">Chromium (D007)</ENT>
              <ENT>10 (4.54)</ENT>
            </ROW>
            <ROW>
              <ENT I="03">o-Cresol (D023)</ENT>
              <ENT>100 (45.4)</ENT>
            </ROW>
            <ROW>
              <ENT I="03">m-Cresol (D024)</ENT>
              <ENT>100 (45.4)</ENT>
            </ROW>
            <ROW>
              <ENT I="03">p-Cresol (D025)</ENT>
              <ENT>100 (45.4)</ENT>
            </ROW>
            <ROW>
              <ENT I="03">Cresol (D026)</ENT>
              <ENT>100 (45.4)</ENT>
            </ROW>
            <ROW>
              <ENT I="03">2,4-D (D016)</ENT>
              <ENT>100 (45.4)</ENT>
            </ROW>
            <ROW>
              <PRTPAGE P="1111"/>
              <ENT I="03">1,4-Dichlorobenzene (D027)</ENT>
              <ENT>100 (45.4)</ENT>
            </ROW>
            <ROW>
              <ENT I="03">1,2-Dichloroethane (D028)</ENT>
              <ENT>100 (45.4)</ENT>
            </ROW>
            <ROW>
              <ENT I="03">1,1-Dichloroethylene (D029)</ENT>
              <ENT>100 (45.4)</ENT>
            </ROW>
            <ROW>
              <ENT I="03">2,4-Dinitrotoluene (D030)</ENT>
              <ENT>10 (4.54)</ENT>
            </ROW>
            <ROW>
              <ENT I="03">Endrin (D012)</ENT>
              <ENT>1 (0.454)</ENT>
            </ROW>
            <ROW>
              <ENT I="03">Heptachlor (and epoxide) (D031)</ENT>
              <ENT>1 (0.454)</ENT>
            </ROW>
            <ROW>
              <ENT I="03">Hexachlorobenzene (D032)</ENT>
              <ENT>10 (4.54)</ENT>
            </ROW>
            <ROW>
              <ENT I="03">Hexachlorobutadiene (D033)</ENT>
              <ENT>1 (0.454)</ENT>
            </ROW>
            <ROW>
              <ENT I="03">Hexachloroethane (D034)</ENT>
              <ENT>100 (45.4)</ENT>
            </ROW>
            <ROW>
              <ENT I="03">Lead (D008)</ENT>
              <ENT>10 (4.54)</ENT>
            </ROW>
            <ROW>
              <ENT I="03">Lindane (D013)</ENT>
              <ENT>1 (0.454)</ENT>
            </ROW>
            <ROW>
              <ENT I="03">Mercury (D009)</ENT>
              <ENT>1 (0.454)</ENT>
            </ROW>
            <ROW>
              <ENT I="03">Methoxychlor (D014)</ENT>
              <ENT>1 (0.454)</ENT>
            </ROW>
            <ROW>
              <ENT I="03">Methyl ethyl ketone (D035)</ENT>
              <ENT>5000 (2270)</ENT>
            </ROW>
            <ROW>
              <ENT I="03">Nitrobenzene (D036)</ENT>
              <ENT>1000 (454)</ENT>
            </ROW>
            <ROW>
              <ENT I="03">Pentachlorophenol (D037)</ENT>
              <ENT>10 (4.54)</ENT>
            </ROW>
            <ROW>
              <ENT I="03">Pyridine (D038)</ENT>
              <ENT>1000 (454)</ENT>
            </ROW>
            <ROW>
              <ENT I="03">Selenium (D010)</ENT>
              <ENT>10 (4.54)</ENT>
            </ROW>
            <ROW>
              <ENT I="03">Silver (D011)</ENT>
              <ENT>1 (0.454)</ENT>
            </ROW>
            <ROW>
              <ENT I="03">Tetrachloroethylene (D039)</ENT>
              <ENT>100 (45.4)</ENT>
            </ROW>
            <ROW>
              <ENT I="03">Toxaphene (D015)</ENT>
              <ENT>1 (0.454)</ENT>
            </ROW>
            <ROW>
              <ENT I="03">Trichloroethylene (D040)</ENT>
              <ENT>100 (45.4)</ENT>
            </ROW>
            <ROW>
              <ENT I="03">2,4,5-Trichlorophenol (D041)</ENT>
              <ENT>10 (4.54)</ENT>
            </ROW>
            <ROW>
              <ENT I="03">2,4,6-Trichlorophenol (D042)</ENT>
              <ENT>10 (4.54)</ENT>
            </ROW>
            <ROW>
              <ENT I="03">2,4,5-TP (D017)</ENT>
              <ENT>100 (45.4)</ENT>
            </ROW>
            <ROW>
              <ENT I="03">Vinyl chloride (D043)</ENT>
              <ENT>1 (0.454)</ENT>
            </ROW>
            <ROW>
              <ENT I="01">Uracil mustard</ENT>
              <ENT>10 (4.54)</ENT>
            </ROW>
            <ROW>
              <ENT I="01">Uranyl acetate</ENT>
              <ENT>100 (45.4)</ENT>
            </ROW>
            <ROW>
              <ENT I="01">Uranyl nitrate</ENT>
              <ENT>100 (45.4)</ENT>
            </ROW>
            <ROW>
              <ENT I="01">Urea, N-ethyl-N-nitroso-</ENT>
              <ENT>1 (0.454)</ENT>
            </ROW>
            <ROW>
              <ENT I="01">Urea, N-methyl-N-nitroso-</ENT>
              <ENT>1 (0.454)</ENT>
            </ROW>
            <ROW>
              <ENT I="01">Urethane</ENT>
              <ENT>100 (45.4)</ENT>
            </ROW>
            <ROW>
              <ENT I="01">Vanadic acid, ammonium salt</ENT>
              <ENT>1000 (454)</ENT>
            </ROW>
            <ROW>
              <ENT I="01">Vanadium oxide V<E T="52">2</E>O<E T="52">5</E>
              </ENT>
              <ENT>1000 (454)</ENT>
            </ROW>
            <ROW>
              <ENT I="01">Vanadium pentoxide</ENT>
              <ENT>1000 (454)</ENT>
            </ROW>
            <ROW>
              <ENT I="01">Vanadyl sulfate</ENT>
              <ENT>1000 (454)</ENT>
            </ROW>
            <ROW>
              <ENT I="01">Vinyl acetate</ENT>
              <ENT>5000 (2270)</ENT>
            </ROW>
            <ROW>
              <ENT I="01">Vinyl acetate monomer</ENT>
              <ENT>5000 (2270)</ENT>
            </ROW>
            <ROW>
              <ENT I="01">Vinylamine, N-methyl-N-nitroso-</ENT>
              <ENT>10 (4.54)</ENT>
            </ROW>
            <ROW>
              <ENT I="01">Vinyl bromide</ENT>
              <ENT>100 (45.4)</ENT>
            </ROW>
            <ROW>
              <ENT I="01">Vinyl chloride</ENT>
              <ENT>1 (0.454)</ENT>
            </ROW>
            <ROW>
              <ENT I="01">Vinylidene chloride</ENT>
              <ENT>100 (45.4)</ENT>
            </ROW>
            <ROW>
              <ENT I="01">Warfarin,  salts</ENT>
              <ENT>100 (45.4)</ENT>
            </ROW>
            <ROW>
              <ENT I="01">Xylene</ENT>
              <ENT>100 (45.4)</ENT>
            </ROW>
            <ROW>
              <ENT I="01">m-Xylene</ENT>
              <ENT>1000 (454)</ENT>
            </ROW>
            <ROW>
              <ENT I="01">o-Xylene</ENT>
              <ENT>1000 (454)</ENT>
            </ROW>
            <ROW>
              <ENT I="01">p-Xylene</ENT>
              <ENT>100 (45.4)</ENT>
            </ROW>
            <ROW>
              <ENT I="01">Xylene (mixed)</ENT>
              <ENT>100 (45.4)</ENT>
            </ROW>
            <ROW>
              <ENT I="01">Xylenes (isomers and mixture)</ENT>
              <ENT>100 (45.4)</ENT>
            </ROW>
            <ROW>
              <ENT I="01">Xylenol</ENT>
              <ENT>1000 (454)</ENT>
            </ROW>
            <ROW>
              <ENT I="01" O="xl">Yohimban-16-carboxylic acid,11,17-dimethoxy-18-[(3,4,5-trimethoxybenzoyl)<LI>oxy]-, methyl ester (3beta,16beta,17alpha,18beta, 20alpha)</LI>
              </ENT>
              <ENT>5000 (2270)</ENT>
            </ROW>
            <ROW>
              <ENT I="01">Zinc<E T="8141">¢</E>
              </ENT>
              <ENT>1000 (454)</ENT>
            </ROW>
            <ROW>
              <ENT I="01">Zinc acetate</ENT>
              <ENT>1000 (454)</ENT>
            </ROW>
            <ROW>
              <ENT I="01">Zinc ammonium chloride</ENT>
              <ENT>1000 (454)</ENT>
            </ROW>
            <ROW>
              <ENT I="01">Zinc, bis(dimethylcarbamodithioato-S,S′)-</ENT>
              <ENT>10 (4.54)</ENT>
            </ROW>
            <ROW>
              <ENT I="01">Zinc borate</ENT>
              <ENT>1000 (454)</ENT>
            </ROW>
            <ROW>
              <ENT I="01">Zinc bromide</ENT>
              <ENT>1000 (454)</ENT>
            </ROW>
            <ROW>
              <ENT I="01">Zinc carbonate</ENT>
              <ENT>1000 (454)</ENT>
            </ROW>
            <ROW>
              <ENT I="01">Zinc chloride</ENT>
              <ENT>1000 (454)</ENT>
            </ROW>
            <ROW>
              <ENT I="01">Zinc cyanide Zn(CN)<E T="52">2</E>
              </ENT>
              <ENT>10 (4.54)</ENT>
            </ROW>
            <ROW>
              <ENT I="01">Zinc fluoride</ENT>
              <ENT>1000 (454)</ENT>
            </ROW>
            <ROW>
              <ENT I="01">Zinc formate</ENT>
              <ENT>1000 (454)</ENT>
            </ROW>
            <ROW>
              <ENT I="01">Zinc hydrosulfite</ENT>
              <ENT>1000 (454)</ENT>
            </ROW>
            <ROW>
              <ENT I="01">Zinc nitrate</ENT>
              <ENT>1000 (454)</ENT>
            </ROW>
            <ROW>
              <ENT I="01">Zinc phenolsulfonate</ENT>
              <ENT>5000 (2270)</ENT>
            </ROW>
            <ROW>
              <ENT I="01">Zinc phosphide Zn<E T="52">3</E>P<E T="52">2</E>
              </ENT>
              <ENT>100 (45.4)</ENT>
            </ROW>
            <ROW>
              <ENT I="01">Zinc silicofluoride</ENT>
              <ENT>5000 (2270)</ENT>
            </ROW>
            <ROW>
              <ENT I="01">Zinc sulfate</ENT>
              <ENT>1000 (454)</ENT>
            </ROW>
            <ROW>
              <PRTPAGE P="1112"/>
              <ENT I="01">Ziram</ENT>
              <ENT>10 (4.54)</ENT>
            </ROW>
            <ROW>
              <ENT I="01">Zirconium nitrate</ENT>
              <ENT>5000 (2270)</ENT>
            </ROW>
            <ROW>
              <ENT I="01">Zirconium potassium fluoride</ENT>
              <ENT>1000 (454)</ENT>
            </ROW>
            <ROW>
              <ENT I="01">Zirconium sulfate</ENT>
              <ENT>5000 (2270)</ENT>
            </ROW>
            <ROW>
              <ENT I="01">Zirconium tetrachloride</ENT>
              <ENT>5000 (2270)</ENT>
            </ROW>
            <ROW>
              <ENT I="01">F001</ENT>
              <ENT>10 (4.54)</ENT>
            </ROW>
            <ROW>
              <ENT I="03">(a) Tetrachloroethylene</ENT>
              <ENT>100 (45.4)</ENT>
            </ROW>
            <ROW>
              <ENT I="03">(b) Trichloroethylene</ENT>
              <ENT>100 (45.4)</ENT>
            </ROW>
            <ROW>
              <ENT I="03">(c) Methylene chloride</ENT>
              <ENT>1000 (454)</ENT>
            </ROW>
            <ROW>
              <ENT I="03">(d) 1,1,1-Trichloroethane</ENT>
              <ENT>1000 (454)</ENT>
            </ROW>
            <ROW>
              <ENT I="03">(e) Carbon tetrachloride</ENT>
              <ENT>10 (4.54)</ENT>
            </ROW>
            <ROW>
              <ENT I="03">(f) Chlorinated fluorocarbons</ENT>
              <ENT>5000 (2270)</ENT>
            </ROW>
            <ROW>
              <ENT I="01">F002</ENT>
              <ENT>10 (4.54)</ENT>
            </ROW>
            <ROW>
              <ENT I="03">(a) Tetrachloroethylene</ENT>
              <ENT>100 (45.4)</ENT>
            </ROW>
            <ROW>
              <ENT I="03">(b) Methylene chloride</ENT>
              <ENT>1000 (454)</ENT>
            </ROW>
            <ROW>
              <ENT I="03">(c) Trichloroethylene</ENT>
              <ENT>100 (45.4)</ENT>
            </ROW>
            <ROW>
              <ENT I="03">(d) 1,1,1-Trichloroethane</ENT>
              <ENT>1000 (454)</ENT>
            </ROW>
            <ROW>
              <ENT I="03">(e) Chlorobenzene</ENT>
              <ENT>100 (45.4)</ENT>
            </ROW>
            <ROW>
              <ENT I="03">(f) 1,1,2-Trichloro-1,2,2-trifluoroethane</ENT>
              <ENT>5000 (2270)</ENT>
            </ROW>
            <ROW>
              <ENT I="03">(g) o-Dichlorobenzene</ENT>
              <ENT>100 (45.4)</ENT>
            </ROW>
            <ROW>
              <ENT I="03">(h) Trichlorofluoromethane</ENT>
              <ENT>5000 (2270)</ENT>
            </ROW>
            <ROW>
              <ENT I="03">(i) 1,1,2-Trichloroethane</ENT>
              <ENT>100 (45.4)</ENT>
            </ROW>
            <ROW>
              <ENT I="01">F003</ENT>
              <ENT>100 (45.4)</ENT>
            </ROW>
            <ROW>
              <ENT I="03">(a) Xylene</ENT>
              <ENT>1000 (454)</ENT>
            </ROW>
            <ROW>
              <ENT I="03">(b) Acetone</ENT>
              <ENT>5000 (2270)</ENT>
            </ROW>
            <ROW>
              <ENT I="03">(c) Ethyl acetate</ENT>
              <ENT>5000 (2270)</ENT>
            </ROW>
            <ROW>
              <ENT I="03">(d) Ethylbenzene</ENT>
              <ENT>1000 (454)</ENT>
            </ROW>
            <ROW>
              <ENT I="03">(e) Ethyl ether</ENT>
              <ENT>100 (45.4)</ENT>
            </ROW>
            <ROW>
              <ENT I="03">(f) Methyl isobutyl ketone</ENT>
              <ENT>5000 (2270)</ENT>
            </ROW>
            <ROW>
              <ENT I="03">(g) n-Butyl alcohol</ENT>
              <ENT>5000 (2270)</ENT>
            </ROW>
            <ROW>
              <ENT I="03">(h) Cyclohexanone</ENT>
              <ENT>5000 (2270)</ENT>
            </ROW>
            <ROW>
              <ENT I="03">(i) Methanol</ENT>
              <ENT>5000 (2270)</ENT>
            </ROW>
            <ROW>
              <ENT I="01">F004</ENT>
              <ENT>100 (45.4)</ENT>
            </ROW>
            <ROW>
              <ENT I="03">(a) Cresols/Cresylic acid</ENT>
              <ENT>100 (45.4)</ENT>
            </ROW>
            <ROW>
              <ENT I="03">(b) Nitrobenzene</ENT>
              <ENT>1000 (454)</ENT>
            </ROW>
            <ROW>
              <ENT I="01">F005</ENT>
              <ENT>100 (45.4)</ENT>
            </ROW>
            <ROW>
              <ENT I="03">(a) Toluene</ENT>
              <ENT>1000 (454)</ENT>
            </ROW>
            <ROW>
              <ENT I="03">(b) Methyl ethyl ketone</ENT>
              <ENT>5000 (2270)</ENT>
            </ROW>
            <ROW>
              <ENT I="03">(c) Carbon disulfide</ENT>
              <ENT>100 (45.4)</ENT>
            </ROW>
            <ROW>
              <ENT I="03">(d) Isobutanol</ENT>
              <ENT>5000 (2270)</ENT>
            </ROW>
            <ROW>
              <ENT I="03">(e) Pyridine</ENT>
              <ENT>1000 (454)</ENT>
            </ROW>
            <ROW>
              <ENT I="01">F006</ENT>
              <ENT>10 (4.54)</ENT>
            </ROW>
            <ROW>
              <ENT I="01">F007</ENT>
              <ENT>10 (4.54)</ENT>
            </ROW>
            <ROW>
              <ENT I="01">F008</ENT>
              <ENT>10 (4.54)</ENT>
            </ROW>
            <ROW>
              <ENT I="01">F009</ENT>
              <ENT>10 (4.54)</ENT>
            </ROW>
            <ROW>
              <ENT I="01">F010</ENT>
              <ENT>10 (4.54)</ENT>
            </ROW>
            <ROW>
              <ENT I="01">F011</ENT>
              <ENT>10 (4.54)</ENT>
            </ROW>
            <ROW>
              <ENT I="01">F012</ENT>
              <ENT>10 (4.54)</ENT>
            </ROW>
            <ROW>
              <ENT I="01">F019</ENT>
              <ENT>10 (4.54)</ENT>
            </ROW>
            <ROW>
              <ENT I="01">F020</ENT>
              <ENT>1 (0.454)</ENT>
            </ROW>
            <ROW>
              <ENT I="01">F021</ENT>
              <ENT>1 (0.454)</ENT>
            </ROW>
            <ROW>
              <ENT I="01">F022</ENT>
              <ENT>1 (0.454)</ENT>
            </ROW>
            <ROW>
              <ENT I="01">F023</ENT>
              <ENT>1 (0.454)</ENT>
            </ROW>
            <ROW>
              <ENT I="01">F024</ENT>
              <ENT>1 (0.454)</ENT>
            </ROW>
            <ROW>
              <ENT I="01">F025</ENT>
              <ENT>1 (0.454)</ENT>
            </ROW>
            <ROW>
              <ENT I="01">F026</ENT>
              <ENT>1 (0.454)</ENT>
            </ROW>
            <ROW>
              <ENT I="01">F027</ENT>
              <ENT>1 (0.454)</ENT>
            </ROW>
            <ROW>
              <ENT I="01">F028</ENT>
              <ENT>1 (0.454)</ENT>
            </ROW>
            <ROW>
              <ENT I="01">F032</ENT>
              <ENT>1 (0.454)</ENT>
            </ROW>
            <ROW>
              <ENT I="01">F034</ENT>
              <ENT>1 (0.454)</ENT>
            </ROW>
            <ROW>
              <ENT I="01">F035</ENT>
              <ENT>1 (0.454)</ENT>
            </ROW>
            <ROW>
              <ENT I="01">F037</ENT>
              <ENT>1 (0.454)</ENT>
            </ROW>
            <ROW>
              <ENT I="01">F038</ENT>
              <ENT>1 (0.454)</ENT>
            </ROW>
            <ROW>
              <ENT I="01">F039</ENT>
              <ENT>1 (0.454)</ENT>
            </ROW>
            <ROW>
              <ENT I="01">K001</ENT>
              <ENT>1 (0.454)</ENT>
            </ROW>
            <ROW>
              <ENT I="01">K002</ENT>
              <ENT>10 (4.54)</ENT>
            </ROW>
            <ROW>
              <ENT I="01">K003</ENT>
              <ENT>10 (4.54)</ENT>
            </ROW>
            <ROW>
              <ENT I="01">K004</ENT>
              <ENT>10 (4.54)</ENT>
            </ROW>
            <ROW>
              <ENT I="01">K005</ENT>
              <ENT>10 (4.54)</ENT>
            </ROW>
            <ROW>
              <PRTPAGE P="1113"/>
              <ENT I="01">K006</ENT>
              <ENT>10 (4.54)</ENT>
            </ROW>
            <ROW>
              <ENT I="01">K007</ENT>
              <ENT>10 (4.54)</ENT>
            </ROW>
            <ROW>
              <ENT I="01">K008</ENT>
              <ENT>10 (4.54)</ENT>
            </ROW>
            <ROW>
              <ENT I="01">K009</ENT>
              <ENT>10 (4.54)</ENT>
            </ROW>
            <ROW>
              <ENT I="01">K010</ENT>
              <ENT>10 (4.54)</ENT>
            </ROW>
            <ROW>
              <ENT I="01">K011</ENT>
              <ENT>10 (4.54)</ENT>
            </ROW>
            <ROW>
              <ENT I="01">K013</ENT>
              <ENT>10 (4.54)</ENT>
            </ROW>
            <ROW>
              <ENT I="01">K014</ENT>
              <ENT>5000 (2270)</ENT>
            </ROW>
            <ROW>
              <ENT I="01">K015</ENT>
              <ENT>10 (4.54)</ENT>
            </ROW>
            <ROW>
              <ENT I="01">K016</ENT>
              <ENT>1 (0.454)</ENT>
            </ROW>
            <ROW>
              <ENT I="01">K017</ENT>
              <ENT>10 (4.54)</ENT>
            </ROW>
            <ROW>
              <ENT I="01">K018</ENT>
              <ENT>1 (0.454)</ENT>
            </ROW>
            <ROW>
              <ENT I="01">K019</ENT>
              <ENT>1 (0.454)</ENT>
            </ROW>
            <ROW>
              <ENT I="01">K020</ENT>
              <ENT>1 (0.454)</ENT>
            </ROW>
            <ROW>
              <ENT I="01">K021</ENT>
              <ENT>10 (4.54)</ENT>
            </ROW>
            <ROW>
              <ENT I="01">K022</ENT>
              <ENT>1 (0.454)</ENT>
            </ROW>
            <ROW>
              <ENT I="01">K023</ENT>
              <ENT>5000 (2270)</ENT>
            </ROW>
            <ROW>
              <ENT I="01">K024</ENT>
              <ENT>5000 (2270)</ENT>
            </ROW>
            <ROW>
              <ENT I="01">K025</ENT>
              <ENT>10 (4.54)</ENT>
            </ROW>
            <ROW>
              <ENT I="01">K026</ENT>
              <ENT>1000 (454)</ENT>
            </ROW>
            <ROW>
              <ENT I="01">K027</ENT>
              <ENT>10 (4.54)</ENT>
            </ROW>
            <ROW>
              <ENT I="01">K028</ENT>
              <ENT>1 (0.454)</ENT>
            </ROW>
            <ROW>
              <ENT I="01">K029</ENT>
              <ENT>1 (0.454)</ENT>
            </ROW>
            <ROW>
              <ENT I="01">K030</ENT>
              <ENT>1 (0.454)</ENT>
            </ROW>
            <ROW>
              <ENT I="01">K031</ENT>
              <ENT>1 (0.454)</ENT>
            </ROW>
            <ROW>
              <ENT I="01">K032</ENT>
              <ENT>10 (4.54)</ENT>
            </ROW>
            <ROW>
              <ENT I="01">K033</ENT>
              <ENT>10 (4.54)</ENT>
            </ROW>
            <ROW>
              <ENT I="01">K034</ENT>
              <ENT>10 (4.54)</ENT>
            </ROW>
            <ROW>
              <ENT I="01">K035</ENT>
              <ENT>1 (0.454)</ENT>
            </ROW>
            <ROW>
              <ENT I="01">K036</ENT>
              <ENT>1 (0.454)</ENT>
            </ROW>
            <ROW>
              <ENT I="01">K037</ENT>
              <ENT>1 (0.454)</ENT>
            </ROW>
            <ROW>
              <ENT I="01">K038</ENT>
              <ENT>10 (4.54)</ENT>
            </ROW>
            <ROW>
              <ENT I="01">K039</ENT>
              <ENT>10 (4.54)</ENT>
            </ROW>
            <ROW>
              <ENT I="01">K040</ENT>
              <ENT>10 (4.54)</ENT>
            </ROW>
            <ROW>
              <ENT I="01">K041</ENT>
              <ENT>1 (0.454)</ENT>
            </ROW>
            <ROW>
              <ENT I="01">K042</ENT>
              <ENT>10 (4.54)</ENT>
            </ROW>
            <ROW>
              <ENT I="01">K043</ENT>
              <ENT>10 (4.54)</ENT>
            </ROW>
            <ROW>
              <ENT I="01">K044</ENT>
              <ENT>10 (4.54)</ENT>
            </ROW>
            <ROW>
              <ENT I="01">K045</ENT>
              <ENT>10 (4.54)</ENT>
            </ROW>
            <ROW>
              <ENT I="01">K046</ENT>
              <ENT>10 (4.54)</ENT>
            </ROW>
            <ROW>
              <ENT I="01">K047</ENT>
              <ENT>10 (4.54)</ENT>
            </ROW>
            <ROW>
              <ENT I="01">K048</ENT>
              <ENT>10 (4.54)</ENT>
            </ROW>
            <ROW>
              <ENT I="01">K049</ENT>
              <ENT>10 (4.54)</ENT>
            </ROW>
            <ROW>
              <ENT I="01">K050</ENT>
              <ENT>10 (4.54)</ENT>
            </ROW>
            <ROW>
              <ENT I="01">K051</ENT>
              <ENT>10 (4.54)</ENT>
            </ROW>
            <ROW>
              <ENT I="01">K052</ENT>
              <ENT>10 (4.54)</ENT>
            </ROW>
            <ROW>
              <ENT I="01">K060</ENT>
              <ENT>1 (0.454)</ENT>
            </ROW>
            <ROW>
              <ENT I="01">K061</ENT>
              <ENT>10 (4.54)</ENT>
            </ROW>
            <ROW>
              <ENT I="01">K062</ENT>
              <ENT>10 (4.54)</ENT>
            </ROW>
            <ROW>
              <ENT I="01">K064</ENT>
              <ENT>10 (4.54)</ENT>
            </ROW>
            <ROW>
              <ENT I="01">K065</ENT>
              <ENT>10 (4.54)</ENT>
            </ROW>
            <ROW>
              <ENT I="01">K066</ENT>
              <ENT>10 (4.54)</ENT>
            </ROW>
            <ROW>
              <ENT I="01">K069</ENT>
              <ENT>10 (4.54)</ENT>
            </ROW>
            <ROW>
              <ENT I="01">K071</ENT>
              <ENT>1 (0.454)</ENT>
            </ROW>
            <ROW>
              <ENT I="01">K073</ENT>
              <ENT>10 (4.54)</ENT>
            </ROW>
            <ROW>
              <ENT I="01">K083</ENT>
              <ENT>100 (45.4)</ENT>
            </ROW>
            <ROW>
              <ENT I="01">K084</ENT>
              <ENT>1 (0.454)</ENT>
            </ROW>
            <ROW>
              <ENT I="01">K085</ENT>
              <ENT>10 (4.54)</ENT>
            </ROW>
            <ROW>
              <ENT I="01">K086</ENT>
              <ENT>10 (4.54)</ENT>
            </ROW>
            <ROW>
              <ENT I="01">K087</ENT>
              <ENT>100 (45.4)</ENT>
            </ROW>
            <ROW>
              <ENT I="01">K088</ENT>
              <ENT>10 (4.54)</ENT>
            </ROW>
            <ROW>
              <ENT I="01">K090</ENT>
              <ENT>10 (4.54)</ENT>
            </ROW>
            <ROW>
              <ENT I="01">K091</ENT>
              <ENT>10 (4.54)</ENT>
            </ROW>
            <ROW>
              <ENT I="01">K093</ENT>
              <ENT>5000 (2270)</ENT>
            </ROW>
            <ROW>
              <ENT I="01">K094</ENT>
              <ENT>5000 (2270)</ENT>
            </ROW>
            <ROW>
              <ENT I="01">K095</ENT>
              <ENT>100 (45.4)</ENT>
            </ROW>
            <ROW>
              <ENT I="01">K096</ENT>
              <ENT>100 (45.4)</ENT>
            </ROW>
            <ROW>
              <ENT I="01">K097</ENT>
              <ENT>1 (0.454)</ENT>
            </ROW>
            <ROW>
              <ENT I="01">K098</ENT>
              <ENT>1 (0.454)</ENT>
            </ROW>
            <ROW>
              <PRTPAGE P="1114"/>
              <ENT I="01">K099</ENT>
              <ENT>10 (4.54)</ENT>
            </ROW>
            <ROW>
              <ENT I="01">K100</ENT>
              <ENT>10 (4.54)</ENT>
            </ROW>
            <ROW>
              <ENT I="01">K101</ENT>
              <ENT>1 (0.454)</ENT>
            </ROW>
            <ROW>
              <ENT I="01">K102</ENT>
              <ENT>1 (0.454)</ENT>
            </ROW>
            <ROW>
              <ENT I="01">K103</ENT>
              <ENT>100 (45.4)</ENT>
            </ROW>
            <ROW>
              <ENT I="01">K104</ENT>
              <ENT>10 (4.54)</ENT>
            </ROW>
            <ROW>
              <ENT I="01">K105</ENT>
              <ENT>10 (4.54)</ENT>
            </ROW>
            <ROW>
              <ENT I="01">K106</ENT>
              <ENT>1 (0.454)</ENT>
            </ROW>
            <ROW>
              <ENT I="01">K107</ENT>
              <ENT>10 (4.54)</ENT>
            </ROW>
            <ROW>
              <ENT I="01">K108</ENT>
              <ENT>10 (4.54)</ENT>
            </ROW>
            <ROW>
              <ENT I="01">K109</ENT>
              <ENT>10 (4.54)</ENT>
            </ROW>
            <ROW>
              <ENT I="01">K110</ENT>
              <ENT>10 (4.54)</ENT>
            </ROW>
            <ROW>
              <ENT I="01">K111</ENT>
              <ENT>10 (4.54)</ENT>
            </ROW>
            <ROW>
              <ENT I="01">K112</ENT>
              <ENT>10 (4.54)</ENT>
            </ROW>
            <ROW>
              <ENT I="01">K113</ENT>
              <ENT>10 (4.54)</ENT>
            </ROW>
            <ROW>
              <ENT I="01">K114</ENT>
              <ENT>10 (4.54)</ENT>
            </ROW>
            <ROW>
              <ENT I="01">K115</ENT>
              <ENT>10 (4.54)</ENT>
            </ROW>
            <ROW>
              <ENT I="01">K116</ENT>
              <ENT>10 (4.54)</ENT>
            </ROW>
            <ROW>
              <ENT I="01">K117</ENT>
              <ENT>1 (0.454)</ENT>
            </ROW>
            <ROW>
              <ENT I="01">K118</ENT>
              <ENT>1 (0.454)</ENT>
            </ROW>
            <ROW>
              <ENT I="01">K123</ENT>
              <ENT>10 (4.54)</ENT>
            </ROW>
            <ROW>
              <ENT I="01">K124</ENT>
              <ENT>10 (4.54)</ENT>
            </ROW>
            <ROW>
              <ENT I="01">K125</ENT>
              <ENT>10 (4.54)</ENT>
            </ROW>
            <ROW>
              <ENT I="01">K126</ENT>
              <ENT>10 (4.54)</ENT>
            </ROW>
            <ROW>
              <ENT I="01">K131</ENT>
              <ENT>100 (45.4)</ENT>
            </ROW>
            <ROW>
              <ENT I="01">K132</ENT>
              <ENT>1000 (454)</ENT>
            </ROW>
            <ROW>
              <ENT I="01">K136</ENT>
              <ENT>1 (0.454)</ENT>
            </ROW>
            <ROW>
              <ENT I="01">K141</ENT>
              <ENT>1 (0.454)</ENT>
            </ROW>
            <ROW>
              <ENT I="01">K142</ENT>
              <ENT>1 (0.454)</ENT>
            </ROW>
            <ROW>
              <ENT I="01">K143</ENT>
              <ENT>1 (0.454)</ENT>
            </ROW>
            <ROW>
              <ENT I="01">K144</ENT>
              <ENT>1 (0.454)</ENT>
            </ROW>
            <ROW>
              <ENT I="01">K145</ENT>
              <ENT>1 (0.454)</ENT>
            </ROW>
            <ROW>
              <ENT I="01">K147</ENT>
              <ENT>1 (0.454)</ENT>
            </ROW>
            <ROW>
              <ENT I="01">K148</ENT>
              <ENT>1 (0.454)</ENT>
            </ROW>
            <ROW>
              <ENT I="01">K149</ENT>
              <ENT>10 (4.54)</ENT>
            </ROW>
            <ROW>
              <ENT I="01">K150</ENT>
              <ENT>10 (4.54)</ENT>
            </ROW>
            <ROW>
              <ENT I="01">K151</ENT>
              <ENT>10 (4.54)</ENT>
            </ROW>
            <ROW>
              <ENT I="01">K156</ENT>
              <ENT>10 (4.54)</ENT>
            </ROW>
            <ROW>
              <ENT I="01">K157</ENT>
              <ENT>10 (4.54)</ENT>
            </ROW>
            <ROW>
              <ENT I="01">K158</ENT>
              <ENT>10 (4.54)</ENT>
            </ROW>
            <ROW>
              <ENT I="01">K159</ENT>
              <ENT>10 (4.54)</ENT>
            </ROW>
            <ROW>
              <ENT I="01">K161</ENT>
              <ENT>1 (0.454)</ENT>
            </ROW>
            <ROW>
              <ENT I="01">K169</ENT>
              <ENT>10 (4.54)</ENT>
            </ROW>
            <ROW>
              <ENT I="01">K170</ENT>
              <ENT>1 (0.454)</ENT>
            </ROW>
            <ROW>
              <ENT I="01">K171</ENT>
              <ENT>1 (0.454)</ENT>
            </ROW>
            <ROW>
              <ENT I="01">K172</ENT>
              <ENT>1 (0.454)</ENT>
            </ROW>
            <ROW>
              <ENT I="01">K174</ENT>
              <ENT>1 (0.454)</ENT>
            </ROW>
            <ROW>
              <ENT I="01">K175</ENT>
              <ENT>1 (0.454)</ENT>
            </ROW>
            <ROW>
              <ENT I="01">K176</ENT>
              <ENT>1 (0.454)</ENT>
            </ROW>
            <ROW>
              <ENT I="01">K177</ENT>
              <ENT>5000 (2270)</ENT>
            </ROW>
            <ROW>
              <ENT I="01">K178</ENT>
              <ENT>1000 (454)</ENT>
            </ROW>
            <ROW>
              <ENT I="01">K181</ENT>
              <ENT>1 (0.454)</ENT>
            </ROW>
            <TNOTE>
              <E T="8141">¢</E>The RQ for these hazardous substances is limited to those pieces of the metal having a diameter smaller than 100 micrometers (0.004 inches).</TNOTE>
            <TNOTE>
              <E T="8141">¢¢</E>The RQ for asbestos is limited to friable forms only.</TNOTE>
            <TNOTE>
              <E T="51">@</E>Indicates that the name was added by PHMSA because (1) the name is a synonym for a specific hazardous substance and (2) the name appears in the Hazardous Materials Table as a proper shipping name.</TNOTE>
            <TNOTE>
              <E T="51">#</E>To provide consistency with EPA regulations, two entries with different CAS numbers are provided. Refer to the EPA Table 302.4—List of Hazardous Substances and Reportable Quantities for an explanation of the two entries.</TNOTE>
          </GPOTABLE>
          <PRTPAGE P="1115"/>
          <STARS/>
        </REGTEXT>
        <SIG>
          <DATED>Issued in Washington, DC on December 27, 2007 under authority delegated in 49 CFR part 1.</DATED>
          <NAME>Stacey L. Gerard,</NAME>
          <TITLE>Acting Deputy Administrator, Pipeline and Hazardous Materials Safety Administration.</TITLE>
        </SIG>
      </SUPLINF>
      <FRDOC>[FR Doc. 07-6297 Filed 1-4-08; 8:45 am]</FRDOC>
      <BILCOD>BILLING CODE 4910-60-P</BILCOD>
    </RULE>
  </RULES>
  <VOL>73</VOL>
  <NO>4</NO>
  <DATE>Monday, January 7, 2008</DATE>
  <UNITNAME>Proposed Rules</UNITNAME>
  <PRORULES>
    <PRORULE>
      <PREAMB>
        <PRTPAGE P="1116"/>
        <AGENCY TYPE="F">DEPARTMENT OF ENERGY</AGENCY>
        <SUBAGY>Federal Energy Regulatory Commission</SUBAGY>
        <CFR>18 CFR Part 284</CFR>
        <DEPDOC>[Docket No. RM08-2-000]</DEPDOC>
        <SUBJECT>Pipeline Posting Requirements Under Section 23 of the Natural Gas Act</SUBJECT>
        <DATE>December 21, 2007.</DATE>
        <AGY>
          <HD SOURCE="HED">AGENCY:</HD>
          <P>Federal Energy Regulatory Commission.</P>
        </AGY>
        <ACT>
          <HD SOURCE="HED">ACTION:</HD>
          <P>Notice of proposed rulemaking.</P>
        </ACT>
        <SUM>
          <HD SOURCE="HED">SUMMARY:</HD>
          <P>In this Notice of Proposed Rulemaking, the Commission proposes to require both interstate and certain major non-interstate pipelines to post capacity, daily scheduled flow information and daily actual flow information. This proposal incorporates one contained in an earlier Notice of Proposed Rulemaking to require the posting of capacity and daily actual flow information by some intrastate pipelines, with some changes. Under this proposal, interstate pipelines would be required to post daily actual flow information in addition to their currently required posting of capacity and daily scheduling information. Non-interstate pipelines would be required to post daily scheduled flow information in addition to the earlier Notice of Proposed Rulemaking proposal to require posting capacity and daily actual flow information. The posting proposal would facilitate price transparency in markets for the sale or transportation of physical natural gas in interstate commerce to implement section 23 of the Natural Gas Act.</P>
        </SUM>
        <DATES>
          <HD SOURCE="HED">DATES:</HD>
          <P>Comments are due February 21, 2008. Reply comments are due March 24, 2008.</P>
        </DATES>
        <ADD>
          <HD SOURCE="HED">ADDRESSES:</HD>
          <P>You may submit comments, identified by docket number by any of the following methods:</P>
          <P>•<E T="03">Agency Web Site: http://ferc.gov</E>Follow the instructions for submitting comments via the eFiling link found in the Comment Procedures section of the preamble. Documents created electronically using word processing software should be filed in native applications or print-to-PDF format and not in a scanned format.</P>
          <P>•<E T="03">Mail/Hand Delivery:</E>Commenters unable to file comments electronically must mail or hand deliver an original and 14 copies of their comments to: Federal Energy Regulatory Commission, Secretary of the Commission, 888 First Street, NE., Washington, DC 20426. Please refer to the Comment Procedures section of the preamble for additional information on how to file paper comments.</P>
        </ADD>
        <FURINF>
          <HD SOURCE="HED">FOR FURTHER INFORMATION CONTACT:</HD>

          <P SOURCE="NPAR">Stephen J. Harvey (Technical), Office of Enforcement, Federal Energy Regulatory Commission,888 First Street NE., Washington, DC 20426, (202) 502-6372,<E T="03">Stephen.Harvey@ferc.gov.</E>
          </P>

          <P>Charles Whitmore (Technical), Office of Enforcement, Federal Energy Regulatory Commission,888 First Street NE., Washington, DC 20426, (202) 502-6256,<E T="03">Charles.Whitmore@ferc.gov.</E>
          </P>

          <P>Eric Ciccoretti (Legal), Office of Enforcement, Federal Energy Regulatory Commission, 888 First Street NE., Washington, DC 20426, (202) 502-8493,<E T="03">Eric.Ciccoretti@ferc.gov.</E>
          </P>
        </FURINF>
      </PREAMB>
      <SUPLINF>
        <HD SOURCE="HED">SUPPLEMENTARY INFORMATION:</HD>
        <HD SOURCE="HD1">I. Introduction and Summary of Proposal</HD>
        <P>1. On April 19, 2007, the Commission issued a Notice of Proposed Rulemaking (Initial NOPR) to implement section 23 of the Natural Gas Act, which was added to the act by the Energy Policy Act of 2005 (EPAct 2005).<SU>1</SU>
          <FTREF/>In the Initial NOPR, the Commission proposed an annual reporting requirement for certain natural gas sellers and buyers and a daily posting requirement for intrastate pipelines.<SU>2</SU>
          <FTREF/>The Commission also asked in the Initial NOPR whether posting requirements for interstate pipeline should be changed.<SU>3</SU>
          <FTREF/>
        </P>
        <FTNT>
          <P>
            <SU>1</SU>
            <E T="03">Transparency Provisions of Section 23 of the Natural Gas Act</E>, 72 FR 20791 (Apr. 26, 2007), FERC Stats. and Regs. ¶ 32,614 (2007). Congress enacted section 23 of the Natural Gas Act as part of the Energy Policy Act of 2005. Energy Policy Act of 2005, Pub. L. No. 109-58, 119 Stat. 594 (2005).</P>
        </FTNT>
        <FTNT>
          <P>
            <SU>2</SU>Initial NOPR at P 1-2.</P>
        </FTNT>
        <FTNT>
          <P>
            <SU>3</SU>Initial NOPR at P 43.</P>
        </FTNT>
        <P>2. Concurrently, the Commission is issuing a Final Rule with respect to the annual reporting requirement. With respect to the pipeline posting proposal, based on Staff experience as well as the comments received, the Commission has determined to issue the instant notice of proposed rulemaking (NOPR) to develop the record more fully with respect to the posting proposal. The Initial NOPR may not have given sufficient notice to interstate pipelines of changes that seem necessary to implement adequately section 23 of the Natural Gas Act. In addition, the Commission believes that more information regarding the technical implementation of daily posting of actual flow information by interstate pipelines is required in order to consider the costs and benefits of such a regulatory change. For those purposes, the Commission incorporates by reference the Initial NOPR and all comments filed in response to the Initial NOPR in Docket No. RM07-10-000 with respect to the pipeline posting proposal.</P>
        <P>3. The Commission intends the instant proposal to make available the information needed to track daily flows of natural gas adequately throughout the United States. Specifically, the Commission proposes to require both interstate pipelines and major non-interstate pipelines<SU>4</SU>
          <FTREF/>to post daily information regarding their capacity, scheduled flow volumes, and actual flow volumes at major points and mainline segments. The proposal would result in both interstate and non-interstate pipelines posting the same types of information.</P>
        <FTNT>
          <P>
            <SU>4</SU>In the Initial NOPR, the Commission used the term “intrastate pipeline;” herein, the Commission uses the term “non-interstate pipeline”—a point explained further below.</P>
        </FTNT>
        <P>4. For interstate pipelines, this proposal would add to the existing posting requirements in § 284.13(d) a requirement to post daily actual flow volume.<SU>5</SU>
          <FTREF/>To bring the requirements for major non-interstate pipelines into alignment with the existing and proposed posting requirements for interstate pipelines, this proposal adds to the proposal in the Initial NOPR a requirement that major non-interstate pipelines post daily scheduled flow volumes.<SU>6</SU>
          <FTREF/>For the purposes of this NOPR, a “major non-interstate pipeline” is defined as one that is not a “natural gas company” under section 1 of the Natural Gas Act<SU>7</SU>
          <FTREF/>and that flows greater<PRTPAGE P="1117"/>than 10 million (10,000,000) MMBtus of natural gas per year, with two exceptions.<SU>8</SU>
          <FTREF/>The first exception is non-interstate pipelines that fall entirely upstream of a processing plant.<SU>9</SU>
          <FTREF/>The second exception is non-interstate pipelines that deliver more than ninety-five percent (95%) of the natural gas volumes they flow directly to end-users.<SU>10</SU>
          <FTREF/>
        </P>
        <FTNT>
          <P>
            <SU>5</SU>Proposed 18 CFR 284.13(d).</P>
        </FTNT>
        <FTNT>
          <P>
            <SU>6</SU>Proposed 18 CFR 284.14(a).</P>
        </FTNT>
        <FTNT>
          <P>
            <SU>7</SU>15 U.S.C. 717.</P>
        </FTNT>
        <FTNT>
          <P>
            <SU>8</SU>Proposed 18 CFR 284.1.</P>
        </FTNT>
        <FTNT>
          <P>
            <SU>9</SU>Proposed 18 CFR 284.14(b)(1).</P>
        </FTNT>
        <FTNT>
          <P>
            <SU>10</SU>Proposed 18 CFR 284.14(b)(2).</P>
        </FTNT>
        <P>5. With these proposed additions of flow information from major non-interstate pipelines to the information already available from interstate pipelines, market observers, such as the Commission, state commissions and market participants, could develop a better understanding of the supply and demand conditions that directly affect the U.S. wholesale natural gas markets. Market participants would have a better basis for evaluating the prices at which they transact. Consequently, this proposal to increase information from non-interstate pipelines and from interstate pipelines would directly “facilitate price transparency for the sale * * * of physical natural gas in interstate commerce” as authorized in the natural gas transparency provisions.<SU>11</SU>
          <FTREF/>
        </P>
        <FTNT>
          <P>
            <SU>11</SU>Section 23(a)(1) of the Natural Gas Act, 15 U.S.C. 717t-2(a)(1) (2000  Supp. V 2005).</P>
        </FTNT>
        <P>6. The Commission's proposal would apply to major non-interstate pipelines even though section 1 of the Natural Gas Act<SU>12</SU>
          <FTREF/>excludes them from the Commission's ratemaking authority under sections 4 and 5 of the Natural Gas Act<SU>13</SU>
          <FTREF/>and the Commission's certificate authority under section 7 of the Natural Gas Act.<SU>14</SU>
          <FTREF/>As discussed below, Congress placed market participants, which include non-interstate pipelines, within the Commission's transparency authority under section 23 of the Natural Gas Act to ensure “the dissemination, on a timely basis, of information about the availability and prices of natural gas sold at wholesale and in interstate commerce.”<SU>15</SU>
          <FTREF/>Aware that the pre-EPAct 2005 limits on the Commission's authority would have left gaps in the transparency of the wholesale, physical natural gas markets, Congress did not restrict the Commission's transparency authority to those same limits in enacting section 23 of the Natural Gas Act. As we stated in the Initial NOPR: “While distinctions between intrastate and interstate natural gas markets may be meaningful from a legal perspective, they are not meaningful from the perspective of market price formation.”<SU>16</SU>
          <FTREF/>Congress was aware of the legal distinctions between natural gas markets in enacting EPAct 2005 and, in choosing to use the term “any market participant” indicated that these distinctions should not apply to the Commission's transparency authority. At the same time, by not amending section 1 of the Natural Gas Act, Congress retained the legal distinctions between intrastate and interstate pipelines for the purposes of delineating the entities subject to the Commission's authority over ratemaking in sections 4 and 5 and over certification of construction and sales of new facilities and transportation services in section 7 of the act.</P>
        <FTNT>
          <P>
            <SU>12</SU>15 U.S.C. 717.</P>
        </FTNT>
        <FTNT>
          <P>
            <SU>13</SU>15 U.S.C. 717c; 15 U.S.C. 717d.</P>
        </FTNT>
        <FTNT>
          <P>
            <SU>14</SU>15 U.S.C. 717f.</P>
        </FTNT>
        <FTNT>
          <P>
            <SU>15</SU>Section 23(a)(2) of the Natural Gas Act, 15 U.S.C. 717t-2(a)(2) (2000  Supp. V 2005).</P>
        </FTNT>
        <FTNT>
          <P>
            <SU>16</SU>Initial NOPR at P 20.</P>
        </FTNT>
        <P>7. The Commission issues this NOPR in order to solicit further comment on requiring actual flow information from both interstate and non-interstate pipelines and to consider whether the posting requirements for both interstate and non-interstate pipelines should be similar. In the Initial NOPR, the Commission did not propose to require the posting of actual flow information by interstate pipelines, but it did seek comment on such posting.<SU>17</SU>
          <FTREF/>Further comment in response to the instant NOPR will allow the Commission to give more consideration to requiring actual flow information on interstate pipelines, in particular the technical issues associated with quick posting of that information. In addition, the Commission seeks further comment regarding how the posting requirements should apply to storage facilities and regarding its daily pipeline posting proposal for major non-interstate pipelines.</P>
        <FTNT>
          <P>
            <SU>17</SU>Initial NOPR at P 43.</P>
        </FTNT>
        <P>8. To address implementation issues associated with the posting proposal, such as obtaining and posting actual flow information and obtaining and posting information from storage facilities, the Commission directs Staff to conduct a technical conference before comments on this NOPR are due.</P>
        <HD SOURCE="HD1">II. The Commission's Transparency Authority Over Non-Interstate Pipelines Under Section 23 of the Natural Gas Act</HD>
        <P>9. At the outset, the Commission addresses the jurisdictional issues raised by its proposal in the Initial NOPR. In the Initial NOPR, the Commission explained how section 23 of the Natural Gas Act authorizes the Commission to require an intrastate pipeline to post information regarding its transportation of natural gas, even though section 1 of the Natural Gas Act excludes such companies from the Commission's authority to regulate transportation of natural gas under sections 4, 5, and 7 of the Natural Gas Act.<SU>18</SU>
          <FTREF/>
        </P>
        <FTNT>
          <P>
            <SU>18</SU>Initial NOPR at P 11-18, 21-24,  37.</P>
        </FTNT>
        <HD SOURCE="HD2">A. Comments</HD>
        <HD SOURCE="HD3">1. Comments: Section 23 of the Natural Gas Act</HD>
        <P>10. The Texas Pipeline Association (TPA)<SU>19</SU>
          <FTREF/>argued that, contrary to the Commission's explanation, the plain language of section 23 of the Natural Gas Act shows that the term “market participant” is limited to those entities that participate in wholesale interstate natural gas markets and does not include intrastate pipelines.<SU>20</SU>
          <FTREF/>TPA concluded that the plain language of section 23 of the Natural Gas Act does not support the Commission's assertion of authority to collect information from intrastate pipelines because they do not participate in markets for the sale or transportation of natural gas in interstate commerce.<SU>21</SU>
          <FTREF/>
        </P>
        <FTNT>
          <P>
            <SU>19</SU>Eight entities expressed support for the Texas Pipeline Association's comments: Atmos Energy Corporation, Copano Energy, L.L.C., Crosstex Energy Services, LP, DCP Midstream, LLC, Enbridge Energy Co., Inc., Gas Processors Association, Kinder Morgan Texas Intrastate Pipeline Group, Targa Resources, Inc.</P>
        </FTNT>
        <FTNT>
          <P>
            <SU>20</SU>Comments of TPA at 16-17.</P>
        </FTNT>
        <FTNT>
          <P>
            <SU>21</SU>
            <E T="03">Id.</E>
          </P>
        </FTNT>
        <P>11. Enterprise Products Partners L.P. (Enterprise) also asserted that an entity must be participating in the interstate market to be a “market participant” under section 23 of the Natural Gas Act. Enterprise reasoned that an entity subject to the Commission's authority under section 23 but not to its authority under other sections of the Natural Gas Act is an entity that “participat[es] in the interstate market (whether by buying, selling, shipping or trading physical natural gas) but not already subject to [Natural Gas Act] jurisdiction as natural gas companies.”<SU>22</SU>
          <FTREF/>According to Enterprise, the Commission's proposal to impose posting requirements on intrastate pipelines bears no relation to Congress's intention to restrict the Commission's jurisdiction to entities participating in the interstate market.<SU>23</SU>
          <FTREF/>
        </P>
        <FTNT>
          <P>
            <SU>22</SU>Comments of Enterprise at 13.</P>
        </FTNT>
        <FTNT>
          <P>
            <SU>23</SU>
            <E T="03">Id.</E>
          </P>
        </FTNT>

        <P>12. Similarly, the Railroad Commission of Texas argued that the term “market participant” does not indicate that Congress contemplated the expansion of Commission authority to<PRTPAGE P="1118"/>include intrastate pipelines as asserted by the Commission.<SU>24</SU>
          <FTREF/>The Railroad Commission of Texas explained that there is no reference at all in the relevant statutory provisions or legislative history of EPAct 2005 to intrastate pipelines, the intrastate natural gas market or intrastate gas flows and no express indication that the Commission's authority was being extended in any manner over “intrastate” market participants.<SU>25</SU>
          <FTREF/>
        </P>
        <FTNT>
          <P>

            <SU>24</SU>Comments of Railroad Commission of Texas at 6-7;<E T="03">see also</E>Comments of Atmos Pipeline-Texas at 6-7.</P>
        </FTNT>
        <FTNT>
          <P>
            <SU>25</SU>Comments of Railroad Commission of Texas at 7.</P>
        </FTNT>

        <P>13. One commenter, Enterprise, contended that the Commission does not have the authority to require posting of information by intrastate pipelines because Congress limited the information that may be collected from market participants to “information<E T="03">about</E>natural gas sold at wholesale and in interstate commerce.”<SU>26</SU>
          <FTREF/>Enterprise interpreted Congress's use of the word “about” as limiting language and asserted that Congress deliberately chose the word “about” as opposed to “affect” or “at least impacts” in order to stress that the Commission does not have the authority to compel reporting for any activity that might have some impact on the interstate wholesale natural gas markets.<SU>27</SU>
          <FTREF/>
        </P>
        <FTNT>
          <P>
            <SU>26</SU>Comments of Enterprise Products Partners, L.P. at 11 (emphasis in original).</P>
        </FTNT>
        <FTNT>
          <P>
            <SU>27</SU>
            <E T="03">Id.</E>at 11-12.</P>
        </FTNT>
        <HD SOURCE="HD3">2. Comments: Section 1(b) of the Natural Gas Act</HD>
        <P>14. TPA argued that section 1(b) of the Natural Gas Act precludes the Commission from prescribing rules under its section 23 authority that apply to intrastate transportation or sale of natural gas.<SU>28</SU>
          <FTREF/>TPA asserted that Congress has consistently respected the distinction between interstate and intrastate pipelines which first appeared in section 1(b) of the Natural Gas Act and was recognized by Congress in amendments to the Natural Gas Act and in the Natural Gas Policy Act of 1978.<SU>29</SU>
          <FTREF/>TPA referred to numerous appellate court decisions that recognized this distinction in reviewing the Commission's jurisdiction.<SU>30</SU>
          <FTREF/>
        </P>
        <FTNT>
          <P>
            <SU>28</SU>Comments of TPA at 7;<E T="03">see also</E>Comments of Louisiana Office of Conservation at 5.</P>
        </FTNT>
        <FTNT>
          <P>
            <SU>29</SU>Comments of TPA at 9.</P>
        </FTNT>
        <FTNT>
          <P>
            <SU>30</SU>
            <E T="03">Id.</E>at 11 (citations omitted).</P>
        </FTNT>
        <P>15. Several commenters argued that if Congress intended the transparency provisions to cover intrastate pipelines, it would have amended section 1 of the Natural Gas Act.<SU>31</SU>
          <FTREF/>TPA argued that if Congress intended to expand the Commission's authority over intrastate transportation of natural gas, it would have amended section 1(b) to include new posting obligations for intrastate pipelines for all daily flows and capacity at major points.<SU>32</SU>
          <FTREF/>TPA explained that, in EPAct 2005, Congress amended section 1(b) of the Natural Gas Act to include application to the importation or exportation of natural gas in foreign commerce and to persons engaged in such importation or exportation.<SU>33</SU>
          <FTREF/>TPA contended that without a similar amendment to section 1(b) to provide for the posting of information Congress cannot “cross the jurisdictional line” by imposing a posting requirement on intrastate pipelines.<SU>34</SU>
          <FTREF/>
        </P>
        <FTNT>
          <P>
            <SU>31</SU>Comments of TPA at 10-11; Comments of Enterprise at 15; Comments of Louisiana Office of Conservation at 5; Comments of Railroad Commission of Texas at 6-7.</P>
        </FTNT>
        <FTNT>
          <P>
            <SU>32</SU>Comments of TPA at 10-11.</P>
        </FTNT>
        <FTNT>
          <P>
            <SU>33</SU>
            <E T="03">Id.</E>(citing EPAct 2005 section 311 (amending section 1(b) of the Natural Gas Act)).</P>
        </FTNT>
        <FTNT>
          <P>
            <SU>34</SU>Comments of TPA at 11.</P>
        </FTNT>
        <HD SOURCE="HD3">3. Comments: Section 1(c) of the Natural Gas Act</HD>
        <P>16. Several commenters, such as the Railroad Commission of Texas, asserted that the Commission's proposal to require intrastate pipelines to post information impermissibly intrudes on states' regulation of natural gas transportation.<SU>35</SU>
          <FTREF/>Cranberry Pipeline Corporation argued that the Commission cannot have jurisdiction over intrastate transactions when those transactions are already subject to the jurisdiction of the state regulatory commission.<SU>36</SU>
          <FTREF/>Similarly, DCP argued that the Commission ignored section 1(c) of the Natural Gas Act which exempts intrastate transportation because it is viewed as a matter of local concern subject to regulation by the states.<SU>37</SU>
          <FTREF/>
        </P>
        <FTNT>
          <P>

            <SU>35</SU>Comments of Railroad Commission of Texas at 8-9;<E T="03">see also</E>Reply Comments of the RRC of Texas at 8; Reply Comments of the Texas Pipeline Association at 12.</P>
        </FTNT>
        <FTNT>
          <P>
            <SU>36</SU>Comments of Cranberry Pipeline Corporation at 8 (internal citations omitted).</P>
        </FTNT>
        <FTNT>
          <P>
            <SU>37</SU>Comments of DCP Midstream, LLC at 7 (internal citations omitted).</P>
        </FTNT>
        <HD SOURCE="HD3">4. Comments: Other</HD>
        <P>17. TPA argued that there is no indication in the legislative history of section 23 that Congress intended to modify the Commission's jurisdiction to include intrastate transportation.<SU>38</SU>
          <FTREF/>Atmos Energy Corporation (Atmos) and the Railroad Commission of Texas similarly stated that there is no reference at all in the relevant statutory provisions or legislative history of EPAct 2005 to intrastate pipelines, the intrastate natural gas market or intrastate gas flows and certainly no express indication that the FERC's authority was being extended in any manner over “intrastate” market participants.<SU>39</SU>
          <FTREF/>
        </P>
        <FTNT>
          <P>
            <SU>38</SU>Comments of TPA at 21.</P>
        </FTNT>
        <FTNT>
          <P>
            <SU>39</SU>Comments of Atmos at 12 (internal citations omitted); Comments of the Railroad Commission of Texas at 6-7 (internal citations omitted).</P>
        </FTNT>
        <P>18. DCP Midstream, LLC argued that intrastate pipelines should not be held to the same reporting burden as interstate pipelines because intrastate pipelines have not submitted to the jurisdiction of the Commission. The burdens that an interstate pipeline assumes, DCP contended, accompany a certificate of public convenience and necessity and should not be imposed on an intrastate pipeline. DCP asserted that the Commission's policy historically has been that only gas pipelines that affirmatively accepted a jurisdictional certificate to provide transportation in interstate commerce would be subject to Commission regulation, such as daily scheduled volume or pipeline capacity reporting.<SU>40</SU>
          <FTREF/>
        </P>
        <FTNT>
          <P>
            <SU>40</SU>Comments of DCP Midstream, LLC at 9-10.</P>
        </FTNT>
        <P>19. Atmos argued that the Commission's interpretation of Natural Gas Act section 23 is inconsistent with the Commission's prior analysis of its own jurisdiction in Order No. 670<SU>41</SU>
          <FTREF/>and Order No. 636.<SU>42</SU>
          <FTREF/>Atmos pointed to Order No. 670, in which the Commission interpreted the phrase “any entity” from section 4A of the Natural Gas Act to encompass any person or form of organization, regardless of its legal status, function or activities, and further concluded that this language did not specifically exclude entities engaged in non-jurisdictional activities.<SU>43</SU>
          <FTREF/>Atmos also described the Commission interpreting the phrase “in connection with” from section 4A so as to conclude that not every common-law fraud that touches a jurisdictional transaction would constitute market manipulation.<SU>44</SU>

          <FTREF/>According to Atmos, in Order No. 670, the Commission further determined, that had Congress intended to expand the Commission's jurisdiction<PRTPAGE P="1119"/>so significantly as to give it anti-manipulation authority over non-jurisdictional transactions such as first sales of natural gas, sales of imported natural gas, sales of imported liquefied natural gas, or sales and transportation by entities exempt from Commission regulation under Natural Gas Act section 1(b), then it would have done so explicitly.<SU>45</SU>
          <FTREF/>
        </P>
        <FTNT>
          <P>
            <SU>41</SU>
            <E T="03">Prohibition of Energy Market Manipulation,</E>Order No. 670, 71 FR 4244 (Jan. 26, 2006), FERC Stats.  Regs. ¶ 31,202 (2006) (Order No. 670).</P>
        </FTNT>
        <FTNT>
          <P>
            <SU>42</SU>
            <E T="03">Pipeline Service Obligations and Revisions to Regulations Governing Self-Implementing Transportation; and Regulation of Natural Gas Pipelines After Partial Wellhead Decontrol,</E>Order No. 636, 57 FR 13267 (Apr. 16, 1992), FERC Stats.  Regs. ¶ 30,939 (1992),<E T="03">order on reh'g,</E>Order No. 636-A, 57 FR 36128 (Aug. 12, 1992), FERC Stats.  Regs. ¶ 30,950 (1992),<E T="03">order on reh'g,</E>Order No. 636-B, 61 FERC ¶ 61,272 (1992),<E T="03">order on reh'g,</E>62 FERC ¶ 61,007 (1993),<E T="03">aff'd in part and remanded in part sub nom, United Distribution Cos.</E>v.<E T="03">FERC,</E>88 F.3d 1105 (D.C. Cir. 1996),<E T="03">order on remand,</E>Order No. 636-C, 78 FERC ¶ 61,186 (1997) (Order No. 636).</P>
        </FTNT>
        <FTNT>
          <P>
            <SU>43</SU>Comments of Atmos at 9.</P>
        </FTNT>
        <FTNT>
          <P>
            <SU>44</SU>
            <E T="03">Id.</E>at 9-10.</P>
        </FTNT>
        <FTNT>
          <P>
            <SU>45</SU>
            <E T="03">Id.</E>at 9 (internal citations omitted).</P>
        </FTNT>

        <P>20. As to Order No. 636, Atmos argued that the Commission's assertion of transparency authority over intrastate pipelines is contrary to its holdings in that order, in which the Commission held that a non-interstate pipeline “providing service under section 311 of the [Natural Gas Policy Act of 1978] is not required to meet the service requirements of the Commission's Order No. 636 such as offering firm service, having a capacity release program,<E T="03">posting available capacity electronically,</E>offering flexible receipt and delivery points, or unbundling distinct services.”<SU>46</SU>
          <FTREF/>By contrast, the pipeline posting proposal, asserted Atmos, would not only extend daily posting requirements to section 311 transportation by intrastate pipelines, but also to transportation that is purely intrastate in nature.<SU>47</SU>
          <FTREF/>
        </P>
        <FTNT>
          <P>
            <SU>46</SU>
            <E T="03">Id.</E>at 15 (emphasis in original).</P>
        </FTNT>
        <FTNT>
          <P>
            <SU>47</SU>
            <E T="03">Id.</E>at 12 (internal citations omitted). Atmos stated that it would not object if the Commission limits the posting requirements applicable to intrastate pipelines to section 311 transportation or other activity regulated under the Natural Gas Policy Act of 1978.<E T="03">Id.</E>
          </P>
        </FTNT>
        <P>21. Some commenters, such as the Railroad Commission of Texas, expressed concern that a requirement for intrastate pipelines to post information would lead to further regulation of those intrastate pipelines.<SU>48</SU>
          <FTREF/>
        </P>
        <FTNT>
          <P>
            <SU>48</SU>Comments of the Railroad Commission of Texas at 8-9.</P>
        </FTNT>
        <HD SOURCE="HD2">B. Discussion</HD>
        <P>22. The Commission proposes here to require major non-interstate pipelines to post information regarding capacity, scheduled flow volumes, and actual flow volumes.<SU>49</SU>
          <FTREF/>This proposal would impose posting requirements on major non-interstate pipelines in a limited way. The Commission does not intend to regulate the intrastate operations of those non-interstate pipelines; nor do we intend to regulate the rates or terms and conditions of intrastate service for those non-interstate pipelines. The Commission proposes to require those non-interstate pipelines only to post information.</P>
        <FTNT>
          <P>
            <SU>49</SU>Proposed 18 CFR 284.14(a).</P>
        </FTNT>
        <P>23. In the Initial NOPR, the Commission used the term “intrastate pipeline.” In this proposal, the Commission uses the term “non-interstate pipeline.” The latter term more accurately describes the scope of the proposed rule, which is issued pursuant to section 23 of the Natural Gas Act.<SU>50</SU>
          <FTREF/>This section applies to both interstate and non-interstate pipelines, a point explained further below, and does not use the term “intrastate pipeline.” In this NOPR, the Commission proposes to collect important information about the physical, natural gas market from certain pipelines in the continental United States regardless of whether the pipeline is an intrastate pipeline, a Hinshaw pipeline, or any other type of pipeline that is not an interstate pipeline under the Natural Gas Act. The subjects of the posting requirement proposed herein are set by their participation in the physical, natural gas market not by their legal status under section 1 of the Natural Gas Act.<SU>51</SU>
          <FTREF/>
        </P>
        <FTNT>
          <P>
            <SU>50</SU>15 U.S.C. 717t-2 (2000  Supp. V 2005).</P>
        </FTNT>
        <FTNT>
          <P>
            <SU>51</SU>15 U.S.C. 717.</P>
        </FTNT>
        <P>24. The proposed posting requirements for non-interstate pipelines are consistent with Congress's intent as expressed in section 23 of the Natural Gas Act. There, Congress permitted the Commission to impose on a broad set of market participants requirements for a limited purpose, i.e., to obtain and disseminate “information about the availability and prices of natural gas at wholesale and in interstate commerce.”<SU>52</SU>
          <FTREF/>At the same time, as the Commission explicitly acknowledges, Congress did not expand the Commission's authority to impose on the same set of market participants requirements related to the Commission's traditional regulatory activities, e.g., ratemaking under sections 4 and 5 of the Natural Gas Act and certification of construction and sales and transportation services under section 7 of the Natural Gas Act.</P>
        <FTNT>
          <P>
            <SU>52</SU>Section 23(a)(2) of the Natural Gas Act, 15 U.S.C. 717t-2(a)(2) (2000  Supp. V 2005).</P>
        </FTNT>
        <P>25. Congress placed non-interstate pipelines within the Commission's transparency authority under section 23 of the Natural Gas Act in order to ensure—for the entirety of the wholesale, physical natural gas market—transparency of price and availability, including transparency of market price formation. Aware that the pre-EPAct 2005 limits on the Commission's authority would have left gaps in the transparency of the wholesale, physical natural gas markets, Congress did not restrict the Commission's transparency authority to those same limits in enacting section 23 of the Natural Gas Act. As we stated in the Initial NOPR, “While distinctions between intrastate and interstate markets may be meaningful from a legal perspective, they are not meaningful from the perspective of market price formation.”<SU>53</SU>
          <FTREF/>Congress was aware of the legal distinctions between non-interstate and interstate natural gas markets in enacting EPAct 2005. In choosing to use the term “any market participant” and focusing section 23 on “information about the availability and prices of natural gas at wholesale and in interstate commerce,” Congress indicated that these distinctions should not apply to the Commission's transparency authority. At the same time, by not amending section 1, Congress retained the legal distinctions between intrastate and interstate markets for the purposes of delineating the entities subject to the Commission's authority over ratemaking in sections 4 and 5 and over construction of natural gas facilities in section 7 of the Natural Gas Act.</P>
        <FTNT>
          <P>
            <SU>53</SU>Initial NOPR at P 20.</P>
        </FTNT>
        <HD SOURCE="HD3">1. Discussion: Section 23 of the Natural Gas Act</HD>
        <P>26. The language in section 23 of the Natural Gas Act supports the Commission's authority to require non-interstate pipelines to post information about capacity, scheduled flow volumes and actual flow volumes. In section 23(a)(1), Congress directed the Commission to “facilitate price transparency in markets for the sale or transportation of physical natural gas in interstate commerce * * *.”<SU>54</SU>
          <FTREF/>In section 23(a)(2), Congress authorized the Commission to “provide for the dissemination, on a timely basis, of information about the availability and prices of natural gas sold at wholesale and in interstate commerce * * *.”<SU>55</SU>
          <FTREF/>Congress expressly delegated to the Commission the task of adopting rules to give life to this provision<SU>56</SU>
          <FTREF/>and, in section 23(a)(3), provided that the Commission may “obtain the information” about the availability and prices of natural gas sold at wholesale and in interstate commerce from “any market participant.”<SU>57</SU>
          <FTREF/>
        </P>
        <FTNT>
          <P>
            <SU>54</SU>15 U.S.C. 717t-2(a)(1) (2000  Supp. V 2005).</P>
        </FTNT>
        <FTNT>
          <P>
            <SU>55</SU>15 U.S.C. 717t-2(a)(2) (2000  Supp. V 2005).</P>
        </FTNT>
        <FTNT>
          <P>
            <SU>56</SU>
            <E T="03">Id.</E>
          </P>
        </FTNT>
        <FTNT>
          <P>
            <SU>57</SU>15 U.S.C. 717t-2(a)(3) (2000  Supp. V 2005).</P>
        </FTNT>

        <P>27. Congress could have limited the Commission's transparency authority to obtaining information from any “natural gas company” subject to the Commission's traditional regulatory authority. It did not do so. Instead, in using the broad new term “any market participant,” Congress deliberately<PRTPAGE P="1120"/>expanded the universe subject to the Commission's transparency authority beyond “natural gas compan[ies].”<SU>58</SU>
          <FTREF/>The term “any market participant” is not defined in the Natural Gas Act; however, it is not on its face limited to entities made subject to the Natural Gas Act under section 1.<SU>59</SU>
          <FTREF/>Indeed, the language of section 23 indicates that entities excluded from the Commission's authority under section 1 of the Natural Gas Act would be included in section 23. First, in section 23, Congress did not reference the limitations of section 1 explicitly (discussed further below).</P>
        <FTNT>
          <P>
            <SU>58</SU>Contrary to the assertions of Bridgeline Holdings, L.P. (Bridgeline), Comments of Bridgeline at 6, this grant of transparency authority is not an implied grant.</P>
        </FTNT>
        <FTNT>
          <P>
            <SU>59</SU>Initial NOPR at P 12.</P>
        </FTNT>
        <P>Second, in section 23, Congress did not use the term “natural gas company” from section 2(6), which is defined as “a person engaged in the transportation of natural gas in interstate commerce, or the sale in interstate commerce of such gas for resale.”<SU>60</SU>
          <FTREF/>This limiting term is used in section 1 of the Natural Gas Act to limit the Commission's authority, for instance, under sections 4, 5, and 7 of the Natural Gas Act.<SU>61</SU>
          <FTREF/>These approaches would have been the simplest ways for Congress to have indicated an intent to limit the Commission's transparency authority in the same manner it limited the Commission's comprehensive regulatory authority in other sections of the Natural Gas Act. Thus, commenters' arguments that the Commission has authority to obtain information only from those subject to the Commission's authority under section 1 of the Natural Gas Act are inconsistent with the language of the statute.</P>
        <FTNT>
          <P>
            <SU>60</SU>15 U.S.C. 717a(6).</P>
        </FTNT>
        <FTNT>
          <P>
            <SU>61</SU>15 U.S.C. 717c, 717d  717f.</P>
        </FTNT>
        <P>28. In granting the Commission broad authority to obtain information, the Congress not only used the new term “market participant” but it also specifically referred to “any” market participant, instead of limiting the Commission's authority to obtain information from market participants subject to the Commission's traditional Natural Gas Act jurisdiction. The word “any” gives the term it modifies (in this case, “market participant”) an expansive meaning.<SU>62</SU>
          <FTREF/>
        </P>
        <FTNT>
          <P>
            <SU>62</SU>
            <E T="03">Norfolk S. Rwy. Co.</E>v.<E T="03">Kirby,</E>543 U.S. 14, 31-32 (2004) (the word “any” gives the word it modifies an expansive reading);<E T="03">Department of Housing and Urban Dev.</E>v.<E T="03">Rucker,</E>535 U.S. 125, 130-31 (2002);<E T="03">TRW Inc.</E>v.<E T="03">Andrews,</E>534 U.S. 19, 31 (2001) (one must give effect to each word in a statute so that none is rendered superfluous);<E T="03">United States</E>v.<E T="03">Gonzales,</E>520 U.S. 1, 5 (1997) (“any” is an expansive term, meaning “one or some indiscriminately of whatever kind,”);<E T="03">New York</E>v.<E T="03">EPA,</E>443 F.3d 880, 885-87 (D.C. Cir. 2006) (the word “any” is broadly construed to reflect Congress’ intent that all types of physical changes are subject to the Clean Air Act's New Source Review program).</P>
        </FTNT>
        <P>29. In addition, in section 23(d)(2), Congress created a<E T="03">de minimis</E>exception to the other provisions in section 23. Specifically, Congress instructed the Commission to create a<E T="03">de minimis</E>exception for gatherers and producers, which section 1(b) of the Natural Gas Act explicitly excludes from Commission's traditional regulation. If, as some commenters asserted, Congress did not intend to give the Commission authority over any entity excluded by section 1(b) of the Natural Gas Act, a<E T="03">de minimis</E>exception would have been unnecessary; in other words, section 23(d)(2) would have been surplusage. Congress is not presumed to enact surplus language.<SU>63</SU>

          <FTREF/>To avoid this improper result, the Commission interprets section 23 of the Natural Gas Act to give effect to the<E T="03">de minimis</E>language by interpreting the term “any market participant” to include those entities otherwise excluded from the Commission's Natural Gas Act jurisdiction by section 1(b) of the act.</P>
        <FTNT>
          <P>
            <SU>63</SU>
            <E T="03">City of Roseville</E>v.<E T="03">Norton,</E>348 F.3d 1020, 1028 (D.C. Cir. 2003) (citing<E T="03">Babbitt</E>v.<E T="03">Sweet Home Chapter of Community for a Great Oregon,</E>515 U.S. 687, 698 (1995)).</P>
        </FTNT>
        <P>30. The Commission disagrees that the term “about” in section 23 is a limiting term as asserted by Enterprise. In the Initial NOPR, the Commission described the information proposed to be collected from intrastate pipelines as information “about” interstate, wholesale natural gas markets because the flows on intrastate pipelines affect interstate, wholesale natural gas markets.<SU>64</SU>
          <FTREF/>The Commission used the term “pertains” as a synonym for “about.” Indeed, contrary to Enterprise's reading, we read the term “about” as broader than the terms “affect” or “impacts.” Information may be “about” a subject without “affecting” it; hence, flow information may be “about natural gas sold at wholesale and in interstate commerce” even if it does not “affect” such natural gas (even though it normally does).</P>
        <FTNT>
          <P>
            <SU>64</SU>Initial NOPR at P 15.</P>
        </FTNT>
        <P>31. More specifically, as explained below, the information that would be posted by major non-interstate pipelines is “information about the availability and prices of natural gas sold at wholesale and in interstate commerce.”<SU>65</SU>
          <FTREF/>There is a relationship between capacity and flow information on non-interstate pipelines and the interstate, natural gas market because non-interstate flows affect the supply and demand fundamentals that underlie the market. As explained below, posted flow information from only interstate pipelines cannot provide a complete picture of natural gas flows in the United States—or even of those flows directly relevant to the pricing of natural gas flowing in interstate commerce.<SU>66</SU>
          <FTREF/>To avoid such incompleteness, the Commission sets forth the proposal to require major non-interstate pipelines to post flow information. This proposal would provide a complete picture of natural gas supply and demand fundamentals without the gaps that would appear were the non-interstate pipelines excluded by section 1 of the Natural Gas Act also excluded by section 23 of the Natural Gas Act. In enacting section 23 of the Natural Gas Act, Congress sought to avoid any such gaps in the transparency of the physical natural gas markets by avoiding the legal distinctions set forth in section 1 of the Natural Gas Act.</P>
        <FTNT>
          <P>
            <SU>65</SU>Section 23(a)(2) of the Natural Gas Act, 15 U.S.C. 717t-2(a)(2) (2000  Supp. V 2005).</P>
        </FTNT>
        <FTNT>
          <P>
            <SU>66</SU>
            <E T="03">See</E>below at P 50-59.</P>
        </FTNT>
        <HD SOURCE="HD3">2. Discussion: Section 1(b) of the Natural Gas Act</HD>
        <P>32. The Commission disagrees with commenters who argued that section 1(b) of the Natural Gas Act precludes the Commission from imposing the daily posting requirement on intrastate pipelines. Section 1(b) of the Natural Gas Act provides that the “provisions of this chapter * * * shall apply to the transportation of natural gas in interstate commerce, to the sale in interstate commerce of natural gas for resale * * *” and that such provisions “shall not apply to any other transportation or sale of natural gas.”<SU>67</SU>
          <FTREF/>These arguments ignore the fact that, in section 23, Congress provided the Commission a new and broad grant of authority that goes beyond prior Commission jurisdiction over natural gas companies to facilitate transparency in the wholesale natural gas markets.</P>
        <FTNT>
          <P>
            <SU>67</SU>Section 1(b) of the Natural Gas Act, 15 U.S.C. 717(b).</P>
        </FTNT>
        <P>33. In stating that the Commission may obtain information from “any market participant,”<SU>68</SU>

          <FTREF/>Congress contemplated that the transparency provisions would differ from other provisions of the Natural Gas Act as to the entities covered by the Commission's authority. Commenters' reliance on section 1 of the Natural Gas Act, therefore, improperly ignores the intent of Congress to subject a different set of entities to the Commission's<PRTPAGE P="1121"/>transparency authority as evidenced by Congress's use of the term “any market participant.” In light of this intent, commenters’ reliance on case law setting forth the limits on the Commission's authority under section 1 of the Natural Gas Act is misplaced.</P>
        <FTNT>
          <P>
            <SU>68</SU>Section 23(a)(3) of the Natural Gas Act, 15 U.S.C. 717t-2(a)(3) (2000  Supp. V 2005).</P>
        </FTNT>
        <P>34. The Commission does not find persuasive the argument that Congress could have expressed its intent to subject intrastate pipelines to the Commission's transparency authority only by amending section 1 of the Natural Gas Act. First, altering the exceptions in section 1, as commenters suggested, is not the only way to alter the statute to give the Commission transparency authority. Indeed, it would have been more cumbersome for the Congress to take that approach. Instead of that approach, the Commission interprets the addition of section 23 as providing the Commission transparency authority over non-interstate pipelines. This latter interpretation is the more reasonable interpretation of section 23 and reflects Congress's intent to subject non-interstate pipelines to only the Commission's transparency authority. Second, it could be stated equally that if Congress intended to exclude intrastate (or non-interstate) pipelines from the Commission's authority under section 23 of the Natural Gas Act, it would have used the term “natural gas company” in section 23, instead of the term “any market participant.”</P>
        <P>35. Commenters’ arguments that section 23 should be interpreted consistent with pre-EPAct 2005 case law are likewise misplaced. Those cases apply the jurisdictional limits set forth in section 1 of the Natural Gas Act. These arguments run afoul of the principle of statutory construction that “Congress is presumed to be aware of an administrative or judicial interpretation of a statute.”<SU>69</SU>
          <FTREF/>Thus, Congress was presumably aware that prior to the enactment of section 23, the Natural Gas Act, as explained by TPA, “limit[ed] the gathering of intrastate data to gathering it from companies falling under the Commission's jurisdiction.”<SU>70</SU>
          <FTREF/>In using the term “any market participant,” Congress signaled its intent to expand the Commission's transparency authority beyond the universe of natural gas companies to which it would otherwise be limited.<SU>71</SU>
          <FTREF/>
        </P>
        <FTNT>
          <P>
            <SU>69</SU>
            <E T="03">Lorillard v. Pons,</E>434 U.S. 575, 580 (1978) (internal citations omitted);<E T="03">accord</E>2A Norman J. Singer, Sutherland Statutory Construction sec. 45.12 (5th ed. 1992) (“legislative language will be interpreted on the assumption that the legislature was aware of * * * judicial decisions”).</P>
        </FTNT>
        <FTNT>
          <P>

            <SU>70</SU>Comments of Texas Pipeline Association at 13 (citing<E T="03">Union Oil</E>v.<E T="03">FPC,</E>542 F.2d 1036, 1039 (9th Cir. 1976)).</P>
        </FTNT>
        <FTNT>
          <P>

            <SU>71</SU>TPA observed that courts have held that the Commission cannot exceed its statutory authority. Reply Comments of TPA at 16-17 (citing<E T="03">Transmission Agency of Northern California</E>v.<E T="03">FERC,</E>495 F.3d 663 (D.C. Cir. 2007) and<E T="03">United Distribution Cos.</E>v.<E T="03">FERC,</E>88 F.3d 1105 (D.C. Cir. 1996)). This is an unremarkable and unassailable conclusion, but one that provides no guidance where the issue is not whether the Commission may exceed its statutory authority but what is the extent of the Commission's transparency authority.</P>
        </FTNT>
        <HD SOURCE="HD3">3. Discussion: Section 1(c) of the Natural Gas Act</HD>
        <P>36. Several commenters, including a state commission, contended that the pipeline posting proposal as applied to intrastate pipelines would improperly interfere with states' regulation of intrastate pipelines as set forth in section 1(c) of the Natural Gas Act, commonly known as the Hinshaw amendment. Section 1(c) of the Natural Gas Act reads:</P>
        
        <EXTRACT>
          <P>The provisions of this chapter shall not apply to any person engaged in or legally authorized to engage in the transportation in interstate commerce or the sale in interstate commerce for resale, of natural gas received by such person from another person within or at the boundary of a State if all the natural gas so received is ultimately consumed within such State, or to any facilities used by such person for such transportation or sale, provided that the rates and service of such person and facilities be subject to regulation by a State commission.<SU>72</SU>
            <FTREF/>
          </P>
        </EXTRACT>
        <FTNT>
          <P>
            <SU>72</SU>15 U.S.C. 717(c).</P>
        </FTNT>
        
        <P>The Commission's proposal does not impermissibly interfere with states' regulation of Hinshaw pipelines. Under the Commission's proposal, states will continue to regulate the rates and services of those companies. As stated, section 23 of the Natural Gas Act does not authorize the Commission to undertake such comprehensive regulation and the Commission does not propose to do so. The Commission would require only that non-interstate pipelines, including Hinshaw pipelines, post information regarding their flows. Section 1(c) of the Natural Gas Act, in light of the later enacted EPAct 2005, does not preclude such a posting requirement.</P>
        <HD SOURCE="HD3">4. Discussion: Other</HD>
        <P>37. The Commission disagrees with DCP's argument that the burden of a posting requirement is related to the Commission's grant of a certificate of convenience and necessity under section 7 of the Natural Gas Act. DCP's argument ignores the mandate Congress set forth in the transparency provisions for the Commission to facilitate transparency. Nothing in section 23 indicates or even implies that the Commission's transparency authority depends on whether a market participant has a certificate of public convenience and necessity. Indeed, the use of the modifier “any,” as discussed above, demonstrates that Congress had no intention to limit the Commission authority to disseminate adequate information about the natural gas market.</P>
        <P>38. Contrary to commenters' assertions, the Commission's interpretation of section 23 is consistent with the Commission's interpretation of section 4A of the Natural Gas Act, which Congress also enacted in EPAct 2005. In Order No. 670, the Commission stated that Congress chose the undefined term “any entity” in section 4A as a broader term than the existing defined term of “natural gas company.”<SU>73</SU>
          <FTREF/>Similarly, in interpreting section 23, Congress chose the undefined term “any market participant” in section 23 as a broader term than the existing defined term “natural gas company.” Also, in Order No. 670, to determine the transactions subject to the Commission's market manipulation authority, the Commission interpreted the section 4A phrase “in connection with” broadly.<SU>74</SU>
          <FTREF/>To delineate what type of information the Commission could obtain and disseminate, in section 23 of the Natural Gas Act, Congress used the term “about,” which is a concept similarly as broad as the concept described by the phrase “in connection with.”</P>
        <FTNT>
          <P>
            <SU>73</SU>Order No. 670 at P 18.</P>
        </FTNT>
        <FTNT>
          <P>
            <SU>74</SU>Section 4A of the Natural Gas Act reads:</P>

          <P>It shall be unlawful for any entity, directly or indirectly, to use or employ,<E T="03">in connection with</E>the purchase or sale of natural gas or the purchase or sale of transportation services subject to the jurisdiction of the Commission, any manipulative or deceptive device or contrivance * * * in contravention of [Commission] rules and regulations.</P>
          <P>15 U.S.C. 717t-2c-1 (2000  Supp. V 2005). In Order No. 670, the Commission observed that the Supreme Court interpreted the phrase “in connection with” broadly in interpreting section 10(b) of the Securities Exchange Act. As noted in that order, section 4A “closely track[s] the prohibited conduct language in section 10(b) of the Securities Exchange Act of 1934, Securities Exchange Act of 1934, 15 U.S.C. 78j(b), and specifically dictate[s] that the terms ‘manipulative or deceptive device or contrivance' ” are to be used “as those terms are used in section 10(b) of the Securities Exchange Act of 1934.” Order No. 670 at P 6.</P>
        </FTNT>
        <P>39. The Commission's interpretation of section 23 is also consistent with its holdings in Order No. 636.<SU>75</SU>

          <FTREF/>As described in subsequent orders, the Commission has not “requir[ed] intrastate pipelines to introduce all the<PRTPAGE P="1122"/>features of open-access service that we have required of interstate pipelines” because requiring intrastate pipelines to do so “could make it unduly burdensome to participate in interstate markets, contrary to the intent of the [Natural Gas Policy Act of 1978].”<SU>76</SU>
          <FTREF/>Here, the Commission proposes to impose only a posting burden on non-interstate pipelines that is equivalent to the posting requirements of interstate pipelines. In other respects, the burden on non-interstate pipelines remains far less than that on interstate pipelines in keeping with the Natural Gas Policy Act of 1978. While in the past, the Commission exempted intrastate pipelines from open-access requirements, such as electronic bulletin boards,<SU>77</SU>
          <FTREF/>any change in that exemption would be justified in order to further the Commission's transparency goals as set forth in section 23 of the Natural Gas Act.</P>
        <FTNT>
          <P>
            <SU>75</SU>
            <E T="03">See, e.g.</E>, Order No. 636, FERC Stats.  Regs. ¶ 30,939, at 30,406 (permitting, but not requiring intrastate pipelines, to offer open-access, contract storage).</P>
        </FTNT>
        <FTNT>
          <P>
            <SU>76</SU>
            <E T="03">EPGT Texas Pipeline, L.P.,</E>99 FERC ¶ 61,295, at 62,252 (2002).</P>
        </FTNT>
        <FTNT>
          <P>
            <SU>77</SU>Order No. 636-B, 61 FERC ¶ 61,272, at 61,992, n.26.</P>
        </FTNT>
        <P>40. Finally, the Commission recognizes commenters' concern that the Commission's proposal could appear to lead to further regulation. As explained above, however, the Commission's transparency authority over non-interstate pipelines is limited to obtaining and disseminating information. The Commission has no interest in comprehensive regulation of non-interstate pipelines. The Commission reiterates, section 1 of the Natural Gas Act continues to exclude non-interstate pipelines from such comprehensive regulation.<SU>78</SU>
          <FTREF/>
        </P>
        <FTNT>
          <P>
            <SU>78</SU>15 U.S.C. 717.</P>
        </FTNT>
        <HD SOURCE="HD1"/>
        <HD SOURCE="HD1">III. Interstate Pipeline Posting Requirements</HD>
        <P>41. In the Initial NOPR, the Commission sought comment on whether it should revise its posting requirements applicable to interstate pipelines to require posting actual flow information.<SU>79</SU>
          <FTREF/>The Commission raised the question because we proposed to require intrastate pipelines to post actual flow information, a requirement beyond that applied to interstate pipelines under § 284.13(d)(1) of the Commission's regulations, and because posting of actual flow information could provide useful information regarding actual capacity use, for instance, by giving insight into the use of no-notice service.<SU>80</SU>
          <FTREF/>In this regard, Commission Staff observed that its ability to monitor flows in the interstate pipeline system is limited in certain locations, by the lack of actual flow information. In the case of “no-notice” service,<SU>81</SU>
          <FTREF/>specifically, interstate pipeline schedules do not reflect actual flows. Consequently, information about interstate flows in areas using no-notice service is less useful. In its comments on the Initial NOPR, the Natural Gas Supply Association (NGSA) observed that, “[o]n heating season peak days or days with wide intra-day weather swings, no-notice volumes can be significant; therefore, scheduled flow volumes are not a proxy for physical flow and, thus, do not necessarily provide an accurate picture of underlying market fundamentals.”<SU>82</SU>
          <FTREF/>Similarly, Commission Staff observed that the gap between scheduled and actual flows occurs most commonly in the northern tier of the country, particularly where a pipeline serves a local distribution company with significant space heating demand. In such circumstances, market observers find it more difficult to ascribe price behavior to physical changes in flows.</P>
        <FTNT>
          <P>
            <SU>79</SU>Initial NOPR at P 43.</P>
        </FTNT>
        <FTNT>
          <P>
            <SU>80</SU>Initial NOPR at P 43.</P>
        </FTNT>
        <FTNT>
          <P>
            <SU>81</SU>
            <E T="03">See</E>18 CFR 284.7(a)(4).</P>
        </FTNT>
        <FTNT>
          <P>
            <SU>82</SU>NGSA Comments at 10.</P>
        </FTNT>
        <P>42. Public posting of information reflecting no-notice service could also prevent other forms of misconduct with direct effects on natural gas in interstate commerce. Commission investigations of interstate and intrastate pipeline activity resulted in two settlements in which the settling party admitted it sought to obtain and exploit non-public storage inventory information to gain a competitive advantage in wholesale gas markets.<SU>83</SU>
          <FTREF/>Though this proposal would make public flow information, not storage information, the importance of the non-public information is analogous. These admissions indicate that the lack of public flow information provides the opportunity for parties to engage in manipulative or unduly discriminatory behavior. By making major non-interstate pipeline flow information public, such transparency could discourage market participants from engaging in such manipulative or unduly discriminatory activity.</P>
        <FTNT>
          <P>
            <SU>83</SU>
            <E T="03">Dominion Resources, Inc.,</E>108 FERC ¶ 61,110 (2004) (Dominion Resources, DTI and DEC admit that DTI violated section 161.3(f) of the Commission's regulations, former 18 CFR 161.3(f) (2003));<E T="03">The Williams Companies, Inc.,</E>111 FERC ¶ 61,392 (2005) (Transco admits that it violated section 161.3(f) of the Commission's regulations, former 18 CFR 161.3(f) (2002)).</P>
        </FTNT>
        <P>43. In this NOPR, the Commission proposes to require interstate pipelines to post actual flow information in addition to the capacity and scheduled flow information that interstate pipelines are currently required to post. Accordingly, the Commission proposes adding to § 284.13(d) this requirement: “An interstate pipeline must also provide in the same manner [as other information is provided] access to information on actual flowing volumes at receipt points, on the mainline, at delivery points, and in storage fields.”<SU>84</SU>
          <FTREF/>
        </P>
        <FTNT>
          <P>
            <SU>84</SU>Proposed 18 CFR 284.13(d).</P>
        </FTNT>
        <P>44. In response to the Initial NOPR, several commenters supported requiring interstate pipelines to post actual flow volumes.<SU>85</SU>
          <FTREF/>The NGSA asserted that posting of actual flow data “could lead to even more accurate and near real-time indication of underlying market supply and demand fundamentals”<SU>86</SU>
          <FTREF/>The National Association of Royalty Owners (NARO) contended that requiring interstate pipelines to post actual flow volumes would allow an “apples to apples” comparison with the postings of intrastate pipelines.<SU>87</SU>
          <FTREF/>
        </P>
        <FTNT>
          <P>
            <SU>85</SU>
            <E T="03">See, e.g.</E>, NGSA at 10; and Apache Corp. at 8-9.</P>
        </FTNT>
        <FTNT>
          <P>
            <SU>86</SU>NGSA Comments at 10.</P>
        </FTNT>
        <FTNT>
          <P>
            <SU>87</SU>NARO Comments at 4.</P>
        </FTNT>
        <P>45. The Interstate Natural Gas Association of America (INGAA) opposed any proposal for interstate pipelines to post actual flows. INGAA contended that: (1) Scheduled flows are adequate for market participants to estimate demand and supply conditions in order to price market transactions; (2) actual flows include operational data that is not relevant and may be counterproductive, such as flows reflecting maintenance activities, storage injection and withdrawal schedules, line pack management, balancing at interconnects, and blending to meet quality specifications not related to commercial flows and (3) the no-notice activity that would be captured by posting actual flows does not reflect trading activity, but rather reflects storage withdrawals.<SU>88</SU>
          <FTREF/>Williston Basin Interstate Pipeline Company (Williston) indicated that scheduled flow volumes were adequate and actual volumes not necessary.<SU>89</SU>
          <FTREF/>
        </P>
        <FTNT>
          <P>
            <SU>88</SU>INGAA Comments at 3-4.</P>
        </FTNT>
        <FTNT>
          <P>
            <SU>89</SU>Williston Reply Comments at 4.</P>
        </FTNT>

        <P>46. In order to effectively balance the benefits of the additional flow information with the costs of such a requirement, the Commission seeks further information regarding both the benefits of the additional information available if actual flow volumes were posted by interstate pipelines, and the costs imposed on interstate pipelines to develop and post that information. In providing comments on this proposal, the Commission encourages<PRTPAGE P="1123"/>commenters to support their comments by providing specific examples.</P>
        <P>47. Regarding benefits, is information lost by not providing actual flows? What is the extent of any such lost information? How extensive is the use of no-notice service? Is information regarding operational flows, such as flows reflecting maintenance activities, storage injection and withdrawal schedules, line pack management, balancing at interconnects, and blending to meet quality specifications, useful to understand supply and demand fundamentals? Does the no-notice activity that would be captured by posting actual flows reflect trading activity or does it reflect storage withdrawals? Can trading activity and storage withdrawals be considered as separate activities? How?</P>
        <P>48. Regarding costs, how is actual flow information collected today for operational, balancing, billing or other purposes? What process changes, if any, would be required for interstate pipelines to post actual flow information? How much time after flow would be required before such information would be available for posting? Would posting actual volumes reveal any information that might be harmful to any competitive interests? How could it be harmful?</P>
        <HD SOURCE="HD1">IV. Postings by Non-Interstate Pipelines</HD>
        <P>49. In the Initial NOPR, the Commission proposed to require certain intrastate pipelines to post daily information regarding the capacity and actual flows at major receipt and delivery points and mainline segments. In the instant NOPR, the Commission proposes to require non-interstate pipelines to post scheduled flow information in addition to capacity and actual flow information.<SU>90</SU>
          <FTREF/>Only a “major non-interstate pipeline” would be required to post information. For the purposes of this NOPR, a “major non-interstate pipeline” is defined as one that is not a “natural gas company” under section 1 of the Natural Gas Act and that flows greater than 10 billion cubic feet of natural gas per year, with two exceptions.<SU>91</SU>
          <FTREF/>The first exception is non-interstate pipelines that fall entirely upstream of a processing plant.<SU>92</SU>
          <FTREF/>The second exception is non-interstate pipelines that deliver more than ninety-five percent (95%) of the natural gas volumes they flow directly to end-users.<SU>93</SU>
          <FTREF/>
        </P>
        <FTNT>
          <P>
            <SU>90</SU>Proposed 18 CFR 284.14(a).</P>
        </FTNT>
        <FTNT>
          <P>
            <SU>91</SU>Proposed 18 CFR 284.1.</P>
        </FTNT>
        <FTNT>
          <P>
            <SU>92</SU>Proposed 18 CFR 284.14(b)(1).</P>
        </FTNT>
        <FTNT>
          <P>
            <SU>93</SU>Proposed 18 CFR 284.14(b)(2).</P>
        </FTNT>
        <HD SOURCE="HD2">A. Rationale</HD>
        <P>50. Through the information that would be obtained from the daily posting requirement on major non-interstate pipelines, the Commission, market participants, and the public could obtain a picture of daily supply and demand conditions that directly affect U.S. wholesale natural gas markets—a picture that is currently incomplete without information from major non-interstate pipelines.<SU>94</SU>
          <FTREF/>Consequently, this proposal to increase information from certain major non-interstate pipelines would directly “facilitate price transparency for the sale * * * of physical natural gas in interstate commerce” as authorized in the natural gas transparency provisions.<SU>95</SU>
          <FTREF/>
        </P>
        <FTNT>
          <P>
            <SU>94</SU>In this section, the Commission reiterates its discussion from the Initial NOPR.</P>
        </FTNT>
        <FTNT>
          <P>
            <SU>95</SU>Section 23(a)(1) of the Natural Gas Act, 15 U.S.C. 717t-2(a)(1) (2000  Supp. V 2005).</P>
        </FTNT>
        <P>51. The posted information from major non-interstate pipelines would qualify as, in the words of the transparency provisions, “information about the availability and prices of natural gas sold at wholesale and in interstate commerce.”<SU>96</SU>
          <FTREF/>Notwithstanding their status under section 1 of the Natural Gas Act, most major non-interstate pipelines today transport or buy and sell wholesale natural gas that eventually enters or at least impacts the interstate natural gas market. Further, supply and demand in non-interstate markets have a direct effect on prices of gas destined for interstate markets because both intrastate and interstate consumers draw on the same sources of supply. This is the case because of the statutory, regulatory and market changes that have taken place in the last three decades.</P>
        <FTNT>
          <P>
            <SU>96</SU>Section 23(a)(2) of the Natural Gas Act, 15 U.S.C.A. 717t-2(a)(2) (2000  Supp. V 2005).</P>
        </FTNT>
        <P>52. In the Natural Gas Policy Act of 1978, Congress allowed an intrastate pipeline to transport natural gas in interstate commerce on behalf of any interstate pipeline or local distribution company served by an interstate pipeline, without losing its intrastate status.<SU>97</SU>
          <FTREF/>Congress likewise permitted an intrastate pipeline to sell natural gas to any interstate pipeline or any local distribution company served by any interstate pipeline, without losing its intrastate status.<SU>98</SU>
          <FTREF/>In addition, at the same time that the Commission issued Order No. 636 in 1992, it promulgated a new subpart of Part 284 (revised several times in the past 15 years) that provides blanket authority to any person who is not an interstate pipeline (including intrastate pipelines) to make sales for resale of natural gas in interstate commerce.<SU>99</SU>
          <FTREF/>This authorization is a limited jurisdiction sales certificate, which means that the holder does not become subject to the panoply of Natural Gas Act regulation by exercising its rights under the certificate.<SU>100</SU>
          <FTREF/>
        </P>
        <FTNT>
          <P>
            <SU>97</SU>
            <E T="03">See</E>section 311(a)(2) of the Natural Gas Policy Act of 1978, 15 U.S.C. 3371(a)(2);<E T="03">see also</E>18 CFR part 284, subpart C (Certain Transportation by Intrastate Pipelines).</P>
        </FTNT>
        <FTNT>
          <P>
            <SU>98</SU>
            <E T="03">See</E>section 311(b) of the Natural Gas Policy Act of 1978, 15 U.S.C. 3371(b);<E T="03">see also</E>18 CFR part 284, subpart D (Certain Sales by Intrastate Pipelines).</P>
        </FTNT>
        <FTNT>
          <P>
            <SU>99</SU>Order No. 636 FERC Stats.  Regs. ¶ 30,939, at 30,391.</P>
        </FTNT>
        <FTNT>
          <P>
            <SU>100</SU>
            <E T="03">See</E>18 CFR part 284, subpart L (Certain Sales for Resale by Non-interstate Pipelines).</P>
        </FTNT>
        <P>53. The market understandably reacted to these statutory and regulatory changes since 1978. As relevant here, natural gas sold at or destined to be sold at wholesale in the interstate market is frequently exchanged or the transactions consummated at market hubs where interstate and non-interstate pipelines interconnect (e.g., Waha, Katy, Houston Ship Channel, and Carthage in Texas and at Henry Hub in Louisiana). Prices formed at these hubs are, in effect, prices for wholesale transactions in interstate commerce, even if a portion of the gas priced at each market hub is consumed intrastate. In addition, transfer of natural gas can take place directly between parties who ship gas on both interstate and non-interstate pipelines at any pipeline interconnection.</P>
        <P>54. Currently, through the availability of information regarding daily scheduled flows of natural gas through interstate pipelines, market participants have an increased, daily understanding of natural gas markets, including regional conditions and the pipeline capacity available to resolve different geographic supply/demand balances. This is due in part to Order No. 637, where the Commission required posting of capacity and scheduled volume information on interstate pipelines with the direct intention of allowing shippers to monitor capacity availability.<SU>101</SU>
          <FTREF/>Accordingly, interstate pipelines must<PRTPAGE P="1124"/>post available capacity information, specifically:</P>
        
        <EXTRACT>
          <P>The availability of capacity at receipt points, on the mainline, at delivery points, and in storage fields, whether the capacity is available directly from the pipeline or through capacity release, the total design capacity of each point or segment on the system; the amount scheduled at each point or segment whenever capacity is scheduled, and all planned and actual service outages or reductions in service capacity.<SU>102</SU>
            <FTREF/>
          </P>
        </EXTRACT>
        <FTNT>
          <P>
            <SU>101</SU>
            <E T="03">Regulation of Short-Term Natural Gas Transportation Services, and Regulation of Interstate Natural Gas Transportation Services</E>, Order No. 637, 65 FR 10156, at 10204-10205, (Feb. 25, 2000), FERC Stats.  Regs. ¶ 31,091, at 31,320-31,321 (2000);<E T="03">order on reh'g</E>, Order No. 637-A, 65 FR 35706 (June 5, 2000), FERC Stats.  Regs. ¶ 31,099 (2000);<E T="03">order on reh'g</E>, Order No. 637-B, 65 FR 47284 (Aug. 2, 2000),<E T="03">affirmed in relevant part, Interstate Natural Gas Ass'n of America</E>v.<E T="03">FERC</E>, 285 F.3d 18 (D.C. Cir. 2002),<E T="03">order on remand</E>, 101 FERC ¶ 61,127 (2002),<E T="03">order on reh'g</E>, 106 FERC ¶ 61,088 (2004),<E T="03">aff'd sub nom., American Gas Ass'n</E>v.<E T="03">FERC</E>, 428 F.3d 255 (D.C. Cir. 2005) (Order No. 637).</P>
        </FTNT>
        <FTNT>
          <P>
            <SU>102</SU>18 CFR 284.13(d).</P>
        </FTNT>
        
        <FP>In Order No. 637, the Commission anticipated that such postings would provide useful information regarding supply and demand fundamentals: The changes to the Commission's reporting requirements will enhance the reliability of information about capacity availability and price that shippers need to make informed decisions in a competitive market as well as improve shippers' and the Commission's ability to monitor marketplace behavior to detect, and remedy anticompetitive behavior.<SU>103</SU>
          <FTREF/>
        </FP>
        <FTNT>
          <P>
            <SU>103</SU>Order No. 637, 65 FR at 10169.</P>
        </FTNT>
        <P>55. Today, interested market participants as well as commercial vendors retrieve this information from the Web sites of interstate pipelines to obtain schedule information that is then used to estimate a variety of supply and demand conditions including geographic and industrial sector consumption, storage injections and withdrawals and regional production in almost real-time.<SU>104</SU>
          <FTREF/>Market participants have come to rely on this information to help price transactions. Commission Staff has also come to rely on this information to perform its oversight and enforcement functions. In fact, market observers believe that posting of this information contributes to market transparency by revealing the underlying volumetric (or availability) drivers behind price movements.<SU>105</SU>
          <FTREF/>
        </P>
        <FTNT>
          <P>
            <SU>104</SU>
            <E T="03">See,</E>
            <E T="03">e.g.</E>, Comments of Bentek Energy, LLC., Docket No. AD06-11-000 (filed Oct. 10, 2006).</P>
        </FTNT>
        <FTNT>
          <P>
            <SU>105</SU>
            <E T="03">See,</E>
            <E T="03">e.g.</E>, Comments of Platt's, at 11-13, Docket No. AD06-11-000 (information regarding the supply and demand of natural gas explains prices and such information is available from interstate pipelines, but not intrastate pipelines).</P>
        </FTNT>
        <P>56. Notwithstanding the contribution of posted interstate schedule information to the transparency of price and availability of natural gas, this information cannot provide a complete picture of natural gas flows in the United States—or even those flows directly relevant to the pricing of natural gas flowing in interstate commerce. Several major U.S. natural gas pricing points sit at the confluence of multiple interstate and non-interstate pipelines. A recent study by the U.S. Department of Energy's Energy Information Administration (EIA) identified twenty-eight national market centers or pricing hubs, of which thirteen are served by a combination of interstate and non-interstate pipelines.<SU>106</SU>
          <FTREF/>The table below shows the capacity of interstate and non-interstate pipelines connected to each of these thirteen hubs.</P>
        <FTNT>
          <P>

            <SU>106</SU>Department Of Energy, Energy Information Administration,<E T="03">Natural Gas Market Centers And Hubs: A 2003 Update,</E>Oct. 2003,<E T="03">http://www.eia.doe.gov/pub/ oil_gas/natural_gas/feature_articles/2003/market_hubs/mkthubs03.pdf</E>
          </P>
        </FTNT>
        <GPOTABLE CDEF="s75,6,10,10" COLS="4" OPTS="L2,i1">
          <TTITLE>Table 1.—Inter- and Intrastate Pipeline Delivery Capacity at Selected U.S. Natural Gas Pricing Points</TTITLE>
          <BOXHD>
            <CHED H="1">Hub name</CHED>
            <CHED H="1">State</CHED>
            <CHED H="1">Receipt and delivery<LI>capacity</LI>
            </CHED>
            <CHED H="2">Interstate pipelines<LI>(MMcfd)</LI>
            </CHED>
            <CHED H="2">Non-interstate<LI>pipelines</LI>
              <LI>(MMcfd)</LI>
            </CHED>
          </BOXHD>
          <ROW>
            <ENT I="01">Carthage</ENT>
            <ENT>TX</ENT>
            <ENT>1,120</ENT>
            <ENT>1,355</ENT>
          </ROW>
          <ROW>
            <ENT I="01">Henry Hub</ENT>
            <ENT>LA</ENT>
            <ENT>2,770</ENT>
            <ENT>1,215</ENT>
          </ROW>
          <ROW>
            <ENT I="01">Katy—Enstor</ENT>
            <ENT>TX</ENT>
            <ENT>1,370</ENT>
            <ENT>3,815</ENT>
          </ROW>
          <ROW>
            <ENT I="01">Katy—DEFS</ENT>
            <ENT>TX</ENT>
            <ENT>260</ENT>
            <ENT>2,360</ENT>
          </ROW>
          <ROW>
            <ENT I="01">Mid Continent</ENT>
            <ENT>KS</ENT>
            <ENT>1,112</ENT>
            <ENT>627</ENT>
          </ROW>
          <ROW>
            <ENT I="01">Moss Bluff</ENT>
            <ENT>TX</ENT>
            <ENT>1,050</ENT>
            <ENT>1,800</ENT>
          </ROW>
          <ROW>
            <ENT I="01">Nautilus</ENT>
            <ENT>LA</ENT>
            <ENT>1,200</ENT>
            <ENT>1,350</ENT>
          </ROW>
          <ROW>
            <ENT I="01">Perryville</ENT>
            <ENT>LA</ENT>
            <ENT>3,652</ENT>
            <ENT>350</ENT>
          </ROW>
          <ROW>
            <ENT I="01">Aqua Dulce</ENT>
            <ENT>TX</ENT>
            <ENT>855</ENT>
            <ENT>835</ENT>
          </ROW>
          <ROW>
            <ENT I="01">Waha—Lone Star</ENT>
            <ENT>TX</ENT>
            <ENT>810</ENT>
            <ENT>1,140</ENT>
          </ROW>
          <ROW>
            <ENT I="01">Waha—Encina</ENT>
            <ENT>TX</ENT>
            <ENT>525</ENT>
            <ENT>800</ENT>
          </ROW>
          <ROW>
            <ENT I="01">Waha—El Paso</ENT>
            <ENT>TX</ENT>
            <ENT>1,165</ENT>
            <ENT>1,660</ENT>
          </ROW>
          <ROW>
            <ENT I="01">Waha—DEFS</ENT>
            <ENT>TX</ENT>
            <ENT>300</ENT>
            <ENT>1,850</ENT>
          </ROW>
          <TNOTE>Source: Unpublished Energy Information Administration update to March 2005 of information presented in Natural Gas Market Centers and Hubs: A 2003 Update, October 2003.</TNOTE>
        </GPOTABLE>
        <P>57. Many of these pricing points are closely connected to other regions of the United States, influencing prices across the country. The figure below shows the location and flow patterns of natural gas moving between interstate and non-interstate markets through several of these pricing points.</P>
        <GPH DEEP="368" SPAN="3">
          <PRTPAGE P="1125"/>
          <GID>EP07JA08.000</GID>
        </GPH>
        <P>58. One pricing point directly connected to both interstate and non-interstate pipelines is Henry Hub, Louisiana, the location for delivery of natural gas under the New York Mercantile Exchange's (NYMEX) futures contract. Monthly settlement of NYMEX's Henry Hub natural gas future contract has become important in determining a variety of monthly index prices used to set natural gas prices in a variety of transactions, some in interstate commerce, particularly along the East Coast and Gulf Coast of the United States. The nature of this influence is detailed in Commission Staff's 2006 State of the Markets Report.<SU>107</SU>
          <FTREF/>
        </P>
        <FTNT>
          <P>
            <SU>107</SU>Federal Energy Regulatory Commission,<E T="03">2006 State of the Markets Report</E>at 48-50 (Jan. 2007),<E T="03">http://www.ferc.gov/market-oversight/market-oversight.asp</E>(follow link to the State of the Markets Full Report).</P>
        </FTNT>
        <P>59. Further, purchasers of natural gas in interstate commerce draw on the same sources of supply as users and buyers of natural gas in intrastate commerce. For example, much of the recent Barnett Shale development in the Fort Worth basin flows into intrastate systems before moving into interstate markets. In total, slightly more than forty percent of total on-shore production in Texas is connected to interstate pipelines, less than sixty percent in Louisiana and less than eighty percent in Oklahoma.<SU>108</SU>
          <FTREF/>Though daily volume flowing from non-interstate into interstate pipelines can be estimated, the supply dynamics that make these volumes available cannot.</P>
        <FTNT>
          <P>

            <SU>108</SU>Bentek Energy, LLC analysis of supply scheduled into interstate pipelines compared with EIA data from its table Natural Gas Gross Withdrawals and Production for Texas and Oklahoma available at<E T="03">http://tonto.eia.doe.gov/dnav/ng/ng_prod_sum_dcu_NUS_m.htm.</E>
          </P>
        </FTNT>
        <P>60. The daily posting of flow information by major non-interstate pipelines would provide several benefits to the functioning of natural gas markets in ways that would protect the integrity of physical, interstate natural gas markets, protect fair competition in those markets and consequently serve the public interest by better protecting consumers. First, by providing a more complete picture of supply and demand fundamentals, these postings would improve market participants' ability to assess supply and demand and to price physical natural gas transactions. Second, during periods when the U.S. natural gas delivery system is disturbed, for instance due to hurricane damage to facilities in the Gulf of Mexico, these postings would provide market participants a clearer view of the effects on infrastructure, the industry, and the economy as a whole. Finallly, these postings would allow the Commission and other market observers to identify and remedy potentially manipulative activity. we discuss each of these points in turn.</P>
        <P>61. First, the proposed daily capacity and volume postings by major non-interstate pipelines would improve market participants' ability to assess supply and demand and price physical natural gas transactions by providing a more complete picture of supply and demand fundamentals.<SU>109</SU>
          <FTREF/>As discussed<PRTPAGE P="1126"/>above and noted in comments filed in these proceedings, interstate pipeline information does not provide a complete picture of the supply and demand fundamentals that apply to interstate commerce because much of the natural gas in the U.S. is moved through the non-interstate pipeline system.<SU>110</SU>
          <FTREF/>
        </P>
        <FTNT>
          <P>
            <SU>109</SU>
            <E T="03">See, e.g.,</E>Comments of Platt's at 11, Docket No. AD06-11-000 (filed Nov. 1, 2006) (explaining that, to understand prices, ``the marketplace must look to * * * information on [the] availability of and demand for natural gas * * *'').</P>
        </FTNT>
        <FTNT>
          <P>
            <SU>110</SU>
            <E T="03">See</E>Comments of Platt's at 13, Docket No. AD06-11-000 (filed Nov. 1, 2006) (stating that much of the fundaamental supply and demand data is missing from natural gas markets and advocating for reporting by intrastate pipelines).</P>
        </FTNT>
        <P>62. Second, the proposed daily non-interstate pipeline capacity and volume postings would provide market participants—and the Commission in its market oversight efforts—a clearer view of the effects on infrastructure, the industry, and the economy as a whole during periods when the U.S. natural gas delivery system is disturbed. For example, after landfall of hurricanes Katrina and Rita in late 2005, even the most interested of governmental and commercial market observers were not able to obtain complete information regarding the output by potentially-damaged production facilities.<SU>111</SU>
          <FTREF/>By monitoring receipt and delivery points for production facilities on interstate pipelines, market observers were able to obtain only a limited sense of production facility output.<SU>112</SU>
          <FTREF/>Similarly, market participants, state commissions and other market observers were unable to assess effects on natural gas consumption in the Gulf Coast, including consumption by the petrochemical industry, for some period. The significance and duration of these effects on this industry—vulnerable to energy price and availability disruptions—remain unclear. This proposal would allow interested governmental and private parties to gain a much better picture of disruptions in natural gas flows in the case of future hurricanes in the Gulf region.<SU>113</SU>
          <FTREF/>
        </P>
        <FTNT>
          <P>
            <SU>111</SU>
            <E T="03">See</E>,<E T="03">e.g.</E>, Comments of Public Service Commission of New York (NYPSC) at 2; Comments of Bentek Energy LLC at 15-16  21-22; Comments of APGA at 3-4; Comments of NARO at 2; Transcript of the Oct. 13, 2006 Technical Conference (Tr.), at 25,<E T="03">Transparency Provisions of the Energy Policy Act of 2005</E>, Docket No. AD06-11-000 (Comments of Sheila Rappazzo, Chief of Policy Section of the Office of Gas and Water of the New York State Department of Public Service).</P>
        </FTNT>
        <FTNT>
          <P>
            <SU>112</SU>Tr. 25 (Comments of Sheila Rappazzo) (describing how after the 2005 hurricanes data availability differed widely).</P>
        </FTNT>
        <FTNT>
          <P>

            <SU>113</SU>Along these lines, this proposal is consistent with a recent Commission final rule and a proposed survey by EIA. On August 23, 2006, the Commission revised its reporting regulations to require jurisdictional natural gas companies to report damage to facilities due to a natural disaster or terrorist activity that results in a reduction in pipeline throughput or storage deliverability.<E T="03">Revision of Regulations to Require Reporting of Damage to Natural Gas Pipeline Facilities</E>, Order No. 682, 71 FR 51098 (Aug. 29, 2006), FERC Stats. and Regs. ¶ 31,227 (2006),<E T="03">order on reh'g</E>, 118 FERC ¶ 61,118 (2007). On January 30, 2007, EIA proposed to survey natural gas processing plants “to monitor their operational status and assess operations of processing plants during a period when natural gas supplies are disrupted.”<E T="03">Agency Information Collection Activities</E>, 72 FR 4248 (Jan. 30, 2007). The purpose of the survey would be to “inform the public, industry, and the government about the status of supply and delivery activities in the area affected by the disruption.”<E T="03">Id.</E>
          </P>
        </FTNT>
        <P>63. Third, the proposed daily non-interstate pipeline capacity and volume postings would allow the Commission and other market observers to identify and remedy potentially manipulative activity more actively by tracking price movement in the context of natural gas flows.<SU>114</SU>
          <FTREF/>In particular, information regarding availability on non-interstate pipelines could be used to track manipulative or unduly discriminatory behavior intended to cause harm to consumers by distorting market prices in interstate commerce. For example, Commission Staff overseeing markets routinely check for unused interstate pipeline capacity between geographically distinct markets with substantially different prices as a sign that flows may be managed to manipulate prices. Given the importance of non-interstate pipeline connections to thirteen major pricing hubs, including Henry Hub, as discussed above, the lack of flow information on non-interstate pipelines hinders the Commission's market oversight and enforcement efforts.</P>
        <FTNT>
          <P>
            <SU>114</SU>
            <E T="03">See</E>Comments of NGSA at 8-10.</P>
        </FTNT>
        <P>64. This benefit comports with EPAct 2005, in which Congress directed the Commission to facilitate price transparency in physical, interstate natural gas markets “with due regard for the public interest, the integrity of those markets, fair competition, and the protection of consumers.”<SU>115</SU>
          <FTREF/>By this language, Congress intended that the improvement of Commission market oversight activities is a legitimate justification for proposing rules under the natural gas transparency provisions. Monitoring and preventing manipulative or unduly discriminatory activity would meet the Commission's responsibility for ensuring the integrity of the physical interstate natural gas markets. The proposal to make non-interstate pipeline information available to the public would assist the Commission in fulfilling that responsibility.</P>
        <FTNT>
          <P>
            <SU>115</SU>Section 23(a)(1) of the Natural Gas Act, 15 U.S.C. 717t-2(a)(1) (2000  Supp. V 2005).</P>
        </FTNT>
        <HD SOURCE="HD2">B. Revisions to the Proposal Set Forth in the Initial NOPR</HD>
        <P>65. The Commission has developed a more particular definition of the types of non-interstate pipelines that would be required to post. The Commission is not interested in burdening smaller non-interstate pipelines like gathering systems, or individual consumers to post daily information regarding capacity, scheduled flow volumes, and actual flow volumes at major points and mainline segments. Consequently, the Commission has altered its proposal from the initial NOPR that used the term “intrastate pipeline” to the current proposal which defines “major non-interstate pipeline” to capture directly U.S. wholesale natural gas transportation systems of significant size and contribution to overall wholesale gas flows across the United States. The Commission seeks comment on this proposal. In providing comments, again, the Commission encourages commenters to support their comments by providing specific examples.</P>
        <P>66. The Commission also proposes to limit the daily posting requirement by limiting the definition of “major non-interstate pipeline” based on whether the non-interstate pipeline flows more than 10 million MMBtus of natural gas per year. The intention is to focus on non-interstate pipelines of significant size and that consequently make a significant contribution to wholesale U.S. natural gas flows. Too low a limit would pick up non-interstate pipelines too small to contribute to wholesale market flows of natural gas. Too high a limit would lose information about flows that affect wholesale pricing, either directly by losing information at major hubs, or less directly by missing important components of wholesale demand or supply not attached to interstate pipelines. By way of contrast, Platts reports that total reporting for its next-month indices at all geographical locations across the country over the past 12 months (November 2006 through October 2007) totaled only a little more than 8 billion cubic feet last year.<SU>116</SU>

          <FTREF/>Thus, by rough comparison, movements of that size on a pipeline could easily affect wholesale prices in any particular location. According to EIA statistics from its 2005 Form 176 filings by companies that do business (at least in part) as intrastate pipelines, the 10 million MMBtu threshold would<PRTPAGE P="1127"/>capture 102 pipelines.<SU>117</SU>
          <FTREF/>The number of these non-interstate pipelines qualifying as major non-interstate pipelines required to post information would be further reduced by the other criteria, such as excluding non-interstate pipelines that fall entirely upstream of processing plants and those that deliver more than ninety-five percent (95%) of the natural gas volumes they flow directly to end-users.</P>
        <FTNT>
          <P>

            <SU>116</SU>As reported on the natural gas.org informational Web site, maintained by the Natural Gas Supply Association,<E T="03">http://www.naturalgas.org/business/marketactivity.asp</E>(as of November 29, 2007).</P>
        </FTNT>
        <FTNT>
          <P>
            <SU>117</SU>
            <E T="03">See</E>Comments of Bentek Energy, LLC, Attachment A, Docket Nos. RM07-10-000 and AD06-11-000 (filed Aug. 21, 2006).</P>
        </FTNT>
        <P>67. The Commission seeks comment on these criteria. For the volume criterion, are average flows of 10 billion cubic feet of natural gas per year too low a threshold for non-interstate pipelines to require posting at major points and mainline segments? Too high?</P>
        <P>68. The Commission would exempt from the daily posting requirement two types of non-interstate pipelines that meet the volume criterion. First, a major non-interstate pipeline that lies entirely upstream of a processing plant would be exempt.<SU>118</SU>
          <FTREF/>The Commission seeks comment on its proposed exemption of a non-interstate pipeline that lies entirely upstream of processing plants. If these non-interstate pipelines were excluded from the pipeline posting requirement, would significant information useful for determining price and availability of natural gas likely be lost?</P>
        <FTNT>
          <P>
            <SU>118</SU>Proposed 18 CFR 284.214(b)(1).</P>
        </FTNT>
        <P>69. Second, the Commission proposes to exempt any major non-interstate pipeline that makes greater than ninety-five percent (95%) of its deliveries directly to end-users. The Commission seeks comment on this exemption.<SU>119</SU>
          <FTREF/>If these non-interstate pipelines were excluded from the pipeline posting requirement, would significant information useful for determining price and availability of natural gas likely be lost? Overall, are there any other categories of major non-interstate pipelines that should be exempt from the daily posting requirements?</P>
        <FTNT>
          <P>
            <SU>119</SU>Proposed 18 CFR 284.214(b)(2).</P>
        </FTNT>
        <P>70. The comments on the Initial NOPR inform the Commission's revised proposal to limit posting to major non-interstate pipelines. In its comments on the Initial NOPR, affiliates Agave Energy Corp. and Yates Petroleum Corp. (Agave-Yates) urged the Commission to limit the requirement for daily posting of flow data to those intrastate pipelines with receipt or delivery points connected to the 13 major market hubs served by both interstate and intrastate pipelines.<SU>120</SU>
          <FTREF/>Bentek Energy LLC (Bentek) proposed determining on a case by case basis which intrastate pipelines should post.<SU>121</SU>
          <FTREF/>As for this approach, Bentek observed that it “would solve the issue of small regional pipelines being too small to meet a threshold applied nationally, but would require considerable analysis by the Commission to implement [including] ongoing analysis as pricing points change periodically.”<SU>122</SU>
          <FTREF/>The Commission seeks further comment on which non-interstate pipelines should be subject to the daily posting proposal.</P>
        <FTNT>
          <P>
            <SU>120</SU>Comments of Agave-Yates at 9-10; Reply Comments of Agave-Yates at 1-2.</P>
        </FTNT>
        <FTNT>
          <P>
            <SU>121</SU>Reply Comments of Bentek Energy LLC at 6.</P>
        </FTNT>
        <FTNT>
          <P>
            <SU>122</SU>Reply Comments of Bentek Energy LLC at 6.</P>
        </FTNT>
        <P>71. The Commission seeks comment on whether this proposal would meet the three purposes discussed above. Specifically, would the proposal: (1) Provide a more complete picture of supply and demand fundamentals and improve market participants' ability to assess supply and demand and to price physical natural gas transactions; (2) provide, during periods when the U.S. natural gas delivery system is disturbed, for instance due to hurricane damage to facilities in the Gulf of Mexico, a clearer view of the effects on infrastructure, the industry, and the economy as a whole; and (3) allow the Commission and other market observers to identify and remedy potentially manipulative activity?<SU>123</SU>
          <FTREF/>Alternatively, would these three purposes be met if the Commission limited the pipeline posting proposal to those non-interstate pipelines with receipt or delivery points connected to the 13 major market hubs served by both interstate and intrastate pipelines?</P>
        <FTNT>
          <P>
            <SU>123</SU>
            <E T="03">See, supra</E>, at P 61-64.</P>
        </FTNT>
        <P>72. In the Initial NOPR, the Commission sought comment on how to define “major” receipt and delivery points and mainline segments on intrastate pipelines for the purpose of any posting requirement. Developing an operational definition of “major” receipt and delivery points and mainline segments on major non-interstate pipelines is crucial to making the proposal work effectively and reasonably. The Commission stated that it “does not wish to include extremely small points connected to one or a few customers, which it would consider burdensome and possibly even anti-competitive in certain cases.”<SU>124</SU>
          <FTREF/>
        </P>
        <FTNT>
          <P>
            <SU>124</SU>Initial NOPR at P 39.</P>
        </FTNT>
        <P>73. Commenters provided suggestions for which receipt and delivery points on non-interstate pipelines should be subject to the posting requirement. The NARO commented that it would like to see as many points posted as possible explaining that more than ninety percent of flows in Texas occur in pipelines that move more than 5,000 MMBtu/day.<SU>125</SU>
          <FTREF/>The Texas Alliance of Energy Producers (Texas Alliance) said that the definition of “major points” should capture flows at locations used to establish market prices (i.e., index points), with the definition crafted to capture enough points to reduce the opportunity for market manipulation.<SU>126</SU>
          <FTREF/>The Petroleum Association of Wyoming (PAW) said the definition of “major points” should be limited to those on interstate pipelines.<SU>127</SU>
          <FTREF/>Copano Energy LLC, in its reply comments, said that (at most) the posting requirement should apply to major market hubs and centers identified by the Energy Information Administration and other current market hubs or centers for which a daily price is published by a nationally recognized industry publication.<SU>128</SU>
          <FTREF/>Crosstex Energy Services stated that the Commission should, at most, require the posting of available capacity and scheduled flow volumes (not actual flow information) at receipt and delivery points (not segments) at the 13 major interstate/intrastate pricing hubs identified in the NOPR as directly affecting interstate pricing.<SU>129</SU>
          <FTREF/>The Kinder Morgan Texas Intrastate Pipeline Group (Kinder Morgan) stated that posting of scheduled quantities at major hub points where index prices are published would be less burdensome than the NOPR proposal.<SU>130</SU>
          <FTREF/>
        </P>
        <FTNT>
          <P>
            <SU>125</SU>NARO Comments at 2-3.</P>
        </FTNT>
        <FTNT>
          <P>
            <SU>126</SU>Texas Alliance Comments at 12.</P>
        </FTNT>
        <FTNT>
          <P>
            <SU>127</SU>PAW Comments at 2.</P>
        </FTNT>
        <FTNT>
          <P>
            <SU>128</SU>Copano Reply Comments at 3.</P>
        </FTNT>
        <FTNT>
          <P>
            <SU>129</SU>Crosstex Reply Comments at 8.</P>
        </FTNT>
        <FTNT>
          <P>
            <SU>130</SU>Kinder Morgan Reply Comments at 12.</P>
        </FTNT>

        <P>74. Comments on the Initial NOPR on how to define “major” receipt and delivery points and mainline segments, in many cases, focused less on developing effective operational definitions than they did on jurisdictional and burden issues. The goal of the pipeline posting proposal is to allow the development of a more complete and more immediate picture of wholesale natural gas flows across the United States, regardless of the traditional regulatory authority under which a particular pipeline operates, at a reasonable cost. To accomplish this task, the Commission needs to develop a stronger record about the possible measurement points on major non-interstate pipelines that could contribute valuable information at a reasonable trade-off with costs of implementation. Consequently, the Commission seeks further comment on which points should be posted by major non-interstate pipelines. In order to effectively balance the benefits of a<PRTPAGE P="1128"/>better understanding of national natural gas flows based on more detailed flow information against the costs of the equipment and systems necessary to deliver that information, the Commission seeks comment regarding how to determine the points at which it should require posting of flow information. Again, the Commission encourages commenters to support their assertions with specific examples.</P>
        <P>75. In particular, related to Kinder Morgan's comments, could sufficient information be developed with posting only of flows in and out of major pipeline hubs? In that case, how should those hubs be determined? Should they be limited only to those hubs for which index prices are produced? By looking only at flows into and out of major pipeline hubs for which index prices are produced, would market participants lose information important to the assessment of national supply and demand balances lost? What other criteria could be used to make the determination of points to be posted? Is a volumetric limit sufficient? If a line sees flows in both directions during the day, is a net directional flow for the day valuable, or confusing?</P>
        <HD SOURCE="HD1">V. Storage Information and Non-Public Postings</HD>
        <P>76. Prompted by comments of storage providers in response to the Initial NOPR, the Commission seeks comment on how its posting proposal herein would affect storage providers. By way of background, in its comments, Enstor Operating Company (Enstor), an independent gas storage service provider with market-based rates, said it should not be required to post information regarding scheduled flows because gas storage information is readily available.<SU>131</SU>
          <FTREF/>If required to post information, the Commission should provide for non-public reporting and analysis of flow data and disseminate such information to the public only in aggregated form.<SU>132</SU>
          <FTREF/>Enstor stated that if its flow information were public, it would lose negotiating strength in the marketplace because its customers with multiple service options would know storage capacity available at its facility, even though it would have no knowledge of such customers' needs and limited knowledge about capacity levels at competing, regulated storage facilities.<SU>133</SU>
          <FTREF/>Enstor cautioned that release of flow data from individual storage facilities would lead to the practice of reading other market participants' movements and buying or selling in front of anticipated future movements to take advantage of resulting price swings, which would raise prices.<SU>134</SU>
          <FTREF/>Without non-public treatment of its flow data, Enstor contended that its margins would be squeezed and it would make less money.<SU>135</SU>
          <FTREF/>Enstor added that aggregated information disseminated by the Commission would be more useful to end-users than disaggregated data.<SU>136</SU>
          <FTREF/>
        </P>
        <FTNT>
          <P>
            <SU>131</SU>Comments of Enstor at 4.</P>
        </FTNT>
        <FTNT>
          <P>
            <SU>132</SU>Comments of Enstor at 9.</P>
        </FTNT>
        <FTNT>
          <P>
            <SU>133</SU>Comments of Enstor at 8; Reply Comments of Enstor at 5.</P>
        </FTNT>
        <FTNT>
          <P>
            <SU>134</SU>Reply Comments of Enstor at 6.</P>
        </FTNT>
        <FTNT>
          <P>
            <SU>135</SU>Reply Comments of Enstor at 8.</P>
        </FTNT>
        <FTNT>
          <P>
            <SU>136</SU>Reply Comments of Enstor at 10.</P>
        </FTNT>
        <P>77. In order to assess the concerns expressed by Enstor (notably the only storage provider to raise this concern), the Commission seeks comments on the following questions. Regarding flows of gas in the United States, does existing gas storage information provide the same value of the information that would be collected in the Commission's proposal? Interested commenters should compare the benefits of requiring storage providers to post flow information publicly with the benefits and costs of providing information to the public only in aggregated form. Those who address this issue should address whether non-public reporting to the Commission would support the goals of the natural gas transparency provisions to “facilitate price transparency for the sale * * * of physical natural gas in interstate commerce”?<SU>137</SU>
          <FTREF/>Further, commenters addressing the application of the pipeline posting proposal to storage facility should answer the following questions: Can individual storage facilities lose negotiating strength when its customers know the supply of available storage capacity? Would release of flow data from individual storage facilities lead to increased prices? How many storage facilities would likely face this situation if required to post flow information? Would fewer storage facilities face this situation if the pipeline posting proposal were modified to reduce the number of points to be posted, for example, by limiting posting to lines running into or out of major pipeline hubs?</P>
        <FTNT>
          <P>
            <SU>137</SU>Section 23(a)(1) of the Natural Gas Act, 15 U.S.C. 717t-2(a)(1) (2000  Supp. V 2005).</P>
        </FTNT>
        <HD SOURCE="HD1">VI. Information Collection Statement</HD>
        <P>78. The Office of Management and Budget (OMB) regulations require it to approve certain reporting and recordkeeping (information collection) requirements imposed by an agency.<SU>138</SU>
          <FTREF/>In this NOPR, the Commission makes two proposals that would require the posting or collection of information, one for interstate and one for major non-interstate pipelines.<SU>139</SU>
          <FTREF/>The Commission is submitting notification of these proposed information collection requirements to OMB for its review and approval under section 3507(d) of the Paperwork Reduction Act of 1995.<SU>140</SU>
          <FTREF/>
        </P>
        <FTNT>
          <P>
            <SU>138</SU>5 CFR 1320.11.</P>
        </FTNT>
        <FTNT>
          <P>
            <SU>139</SU>The OMB regulations cover both the collection of information and the posting of information. 5 CFR 1320.3(c). Thus, the proposal to post information would create an information collection burden.</P>
        </FTNT>
        <FTNT>
          <P>
            <SU>140</SU>44 U.S.C. 3507(d).</P>
        </FTNT>
        <P>79. One proposal, to require interstate pipelines to post actual flow information, would impose an additional information collection burden on interstate pipelines. The other proposal, to require major non-interstate pipelines to post actual flow information, would impose an additional information collection burden on major non-interstate pipelines. Interstate and major non-interstate pipelines already collect flow information for major receipt and delivery points. Certain non-interstate pipelines have asserted in the Initial NOPR that costs would be quite high if additional equipment was needed to meet quick posting deadlines. However, given that this information is used in their business within fairly quick periods, the Commission still believes that the burden that would be imposed by this proposed requirement is largely for the collection and posting of this information in the required format.<SU>141</SU>
          <FTREF/>
        </P>
        <FTNT>
          <P>
            <SU>141</SU>
            <E T="03">See</E>5 CFR 1320.3(b)(2) (“The time, effort, and financial resources necessary to comply with a collection of information that would be incurred by persons in the normal course of their activities (<E T="03">e.g.</E>, in compiling and maintaining business records) will be excluded from the “burden” if the agency demonstrates that the reporting, recordkeeping, or disclosure activities needed to comply are usual and customary.”)</P>
        </FTNT>
        <P>80. OMB regulations require OMB to approve certain information collection requirements imposed by agency rule. The Commission is submitting notification of this proposed rule to OMB.</P>
        <P>
          <E T="03">Public Reporting Burden:</E>
        </P>

        <P>The start-up and annual burden estimates for complying with this proposed rule are as follows:<PRTPAGE P="1129"/>
        </P>
        <GPOTABLE CDEF="s50,12,12,12,12,12" COLS="6" OPTS="L2,tp0,i1">
          <TTITLE/>
          <BOXHD>
            <CHED H="1">Data collection</CHED>
            <CHED H="1">Number of respondents<E T="51">142</E>
            </CHED>
            <CHED H="1">Number of daily postings per respondent</CHED>
            <CHED H="1">Estimated annual burden hours per respondent</CHED>
            <CHED H="1">Total annual hours for all respondents</CHED>
            <CHED H="1">Estimated start-up burden per respondent<LI>(hours)</LI>
            </CHED>
          </BOXHD>
          <ROW>
            <ENT I="21">Part 284 FERC-551</ENT>
          </ROW>
          <ROW>
            <ENT I="01">Major Non-Interstate Pipeline Postings</ENT>
            <ENT>102</ENT>
            <ENT>365</ENT>
            <ENT>365</ENT>
            <ENT>37,230</ENT>
            <ENT>2,080</ENT>
          </ROW>
          <ROW RUL="n,s">
            <ENT I="01">Additional Interstate Pipeline Postings</ENT>
            <ENT>109</ENT>
            <ENT>365</ENT>
            <ENT>365</ENT>
            <ENT>39,785</ENT>
            <ENT>520</ENT>
          </ROW>
          <ROW>
            <ENT I="03">Total</ENT>
            <ENT>211</ENT>
            <ENT/>
            <ENT/>
            <ENT>77,015</ENT>
            <ENT/>
          </ROW>
        </GPOTABLE>
        <P>The<FTREF/>total annual hours for collection (including recordkeeping) for all respondents is estimated to be 77,015 hours.</P>
        <FTNT>
          <P>

            <SU>142</SU>The Commission estimated the number of respondents for major non-interstate pipelines from EIA information.<E T="03">See</E>Department of Energy, Energy Information Administration,<E T="03">U.S. Intrastate Natural Gas Pipeline Systems,</E>
            <E T="03">http://www.eia.doe.gov/pub/oil_gas/natural_gas/analysis_publications/ngpipeline/PIPEintra.xls</E>. The Commission estimated the number of respondents that would be interstate pipelines also from EIA information. See Department of Energy, Energy Information Administration, Thirty Largest U.S. Interstate Natural Gas Pipeline Systems, 2005,<E T="03">http://www.eia.doe.gov/pub/oil_gas/natural_gas/analysis_publications/ngpipeline/MajorInterstatesTable.html</E>(Listing thirty largest interstate pipelines and referencing seventy-nine other interstate pipelines).</P>
        </FTNT>
        <P>
          <E T="03">Information Posting Costs:</E>The average annualized cost for each respondent is projected to be the following (savings in parenthesis):</P>
        <GPOTABLE CDEF="s50,12,12,12" COLS="4" OPTS="L2,tp0,i1">
          <TTITLE/>
          <BOXHD>
            <CHED H="1"/>
            <CHED H="1">Annualized capital/startup costs<LI>(10 year</LI>
              <LI>amortization)</LI>
            </CHED>
            <CHED H="1">Annual costs</CHED>
            <CHED H="1">Annualized costs total</CHED>
          </BOXHD>
          <ROW>
            <ENT I="21">FERC-551</ENT>
          </ROW>
          <ROW>
            <ENT I="01">Major Non-Interstate Pipeline Postings</ENT>
            <ENT>$20,800</ENT>
            <ENT>$36,500</ENT>
            <ENT>$57,300</ENT>
          </ROW>
          <ROW>
            <ENT I="01">Additional Interstate Pipeline Postings</ENT>
            <ENT>5,200</ENT>
            <ENT>36,500</ENT>
            <ENT>41,700</ENT>
          </ROW>
        </GPOTABLE>
        <P>
          <E T="03">Title:</E>FERC-551.</P>
        <P>
          <E T="03">Action:</E>Proposed Information Posting and Information Filing.</P>
        <P>
          <E T="03">OMB Control No:</E>1902-0243.</P>
        <P>
          <E T="03">Respondents:</E>Business or other for profit.</P>
        <P>
          <E T="03">Frequency of Responses:</E>Daily posting requirements and annual filing requirements.</P>
        <P>
          <E T="03">Necessity of the Information:</E>The daily posting of additional flow information by interstate and major non-interstate pipelines is necessary to provide information regarding the price and availability of natural gas to market participants, state commissions, the FERC and the public. The posting would contribute to market transparency by aiding the understanding of the volumetric/availability drivers behind price movements; it would provide a better picture of disruptions in natural gas flows in the case of disturbances to the pipeline system; and it would allow the monitoring of potentially manipulative or unduly discriminatory activity.</P>
        <P>
          <E T="03">Internal Review:</E>The Commission has reviewed the requirements pertaining to natural gas pipelines and determined they are necessary to provide price and availability information regarding the sale of natural gas in interstate markets.</P>
        <P>81. These requirements conform to the Commission's plan for efficient information collection, communication, and management within the natural gas industry. The Commission has assured itself, by means of internal review, that there is specific, objective support for the burden estimates associated with the information posting requirements. The Commission seeks comment on these estimates.</P>

        <P>82. Interested persons may obtain information on the reporting requirements by contacting: Federal Energy Regulatory Commission, 888 First Street, NE., Washington, DC 20426, [Attention: Michael Miller, Office of the Chief Information Officer], phone: (202) 502-8415, fax: (202) 208-2425, e-mail:<E T="03">Michael.Miller@ferc.gov.</E>Comments on the requirements of the proposed rule also may be sent to the Office of Information and Regulatory Affairs, Office of Management and Budget, Washington, DC 20503, [Attention: Desk Officer for the Federal Energy Regulatory Commission].</P>

        <P>83. Comments on the requirements of the proposed rule may also be sent to the Office of Information and Regulatory Affairs, Office of Management and Budget, Washington, DC 20503 [Attention: Desk Officer for the Federal Energy Regulatory Commission] (202)395-4650 or<E T="03">oira_submission@omb.eop.gov</E>.</P>
        <HD SOURCE="HD1">VII. Environmental Analysis</HD>
        <P>84. The Commission is required to prepare an Environmental Assessment or an Environmental Impact Statement for any action that may have a significant adverse effect on the human environment.<SU>143</SU>
          <FTREF/>The actions taken here fall within categorical exclusions in the Commission's regulations for information gathering, analysis, and dissemination, and for sales, exchange, and transportation of natural gas that require no construction of facilities.<SU>144</SU>
          <FTREF/>Therefore, an environmental assessment is unnecessary and has not been prepared in this rulemaking.</P>
        <FTNT>
          <P>
            <SU>143</SU>Order No. 486,<E T="03">Regulations Implementing the National Environmental Policy Act,</E>52 FR 47897 (Dec. 17, 1987), FERC Stats.  Regs., Regulations Preambles 1986-1990 ¶ 30,783 (1987).</P>
        </FTNT>
        <FTNT>
          <P>
            <SU>144</SU>18 CFR 380.4(a)(5) and (a)(27).</P>
        </FTNT>
        <HD SOURCE="HD1">VIII. Regulatory Flexibility Act</HD>
        <P>85. The Regulatory Flexibility Act of 1980 (RFA)<SU>145</SU>

          <FTREF/>generally requires a description and analysis of final rules that will have significant economic impact on a substantial number of small entities. The RFA requires consideration of regulatory alternatives that accomplish the stated objectives of a proposed rule and that minimize any significant economic impact on such entities. The RFA does not, however,<PRTPAGE P="1130"/>mandate any particular outcome in a rulemaking. At a minimum, agencies are to consider the following alternatives: establishment of different compliance or reporting requirements for small entities or timetables that take into account the resources available to small entities; clarification, consolidation, or simplification of compliance and reporting requirements for small entities; use of performance rather than design standards; and exemption for certain or all small entities from coverage of the rule, in whole or in part. The proposal to require daily postings by interstate and non-interstate pipelines will not impact small entities. Natural gas pipelines are classified under NAICS code, 486210, Pipeline Transportation of Natural Gas.<SU>146</SU>
          <FTREF/>A natural gas pipeline is considered a small entity for the purposes of the Regulatory Flexibility Act if its average annual receipts are less than $6.5 million.<SU>147</SU>
          <FTREF/>The Commission does not believe that any pipeline that would be required to post under the proposal in this NOPR has receipts less than $6.5 million. Thus, the daily posting proposal will not impact small entities.</P>
        <FTNT>
          <P>
            <SU>145</SU>5 U.S.C. 601-612.</P>
        </FTNT>
        <FTNT>
          <P>

            <SU>146</SU>This industry comprises establishments primarily engaged in the pipeline transportation of natural gas from processing plants to local distribution systems. 2002 North American Industry Classification System (NAICS) Definitions,<E T="03">http://www.census.gov/epcd/naics02/def/ND486210.HTM.</E>
          </P>
        </FTNT>
        <FTNT>
          <P>
            <SU>147</SU>
            <E T="03">See</E>U.S. Small Business Administration,<E T="03">Table of Small Business Size Standards, http://www.sba.gov/idc/groups/public/documents/sba_homepage/serv_sstd_tablepdf.pdf</E>(effective July 31, 2006).</P>
        </FTNT>
        <HD SOURCE="HD1">IX. Comment Procedures</HD>
        <P>86. The Commission incorporates by reference the comments filed in Docket No. RM07-10-000 into the instant docket and will consider them in this proceeding. In addition, the Commission invites interested persons to submit comments on the matters and issues proposed in this notice to be adopted, including any related matters or alternative proposals that commenters may wish to discuss. Comments are due February 21, 2008. Reply comments are due March 24, 2008. Comments must refer to Docket No. RM08-2-000, and must include the commenter's name, the organization they represent, if applicable, and their address in their comments. Comments may be filed either in electronic or paper format.</P>

        <P>87. Comments may be filed electronically via the eFiling link on the Commission's Web site at<E T="03">http://www.ferc.gov.</E>The Commission accepts most standard word processing formats. Documents created electronically using word processing software should be filed in native applications or print-to-PDF format and not in a scanned format. Commenters filing electronically do not need to make a paper filing. Commenters that are not able to file comments electronically must send an original and 14 copies of their comments to: Federal Energy Regulatory Commission, Secretary of the Commission, 888 First Street, NE., Washington, DC 20426.</P>
        <P>88. All comments will be placed in the Commission's public files and may be viewed, printed, or downloaded remotely as described in the Document Availability section below. Commenters on this proposal are not required to serve copies of their comments on other commenters.</P>
        <HD SOURCE="HD1">X. Document Availability</HD>

        <P>89. In addition to publishing the full text of this document in the<E T="04">Federal Register</E>, the Commission provides all interested persons an opportunity to view and/or print the contents of this document via the Internet through FERC's Home Page (<E T="03">http://www.ferc.gov</E>) and in FERC's Public Reference Room during normal business hours (8:30 a.m. to 5 p.m. Eastern time) at 888 First Street, NE., Room 2A, Washington, DC 20426.</P>
        <P>90. From FERC's Home Page on the Internet, this information is available on eLibrary. The full text of this document is available on eLibrary in PDF and Microsoft Word format for viewing, printing, and/or downloading. To access this document in eLibrary, type the docket number excluding the last three digits of this document in the docket number field.</P>

        <P>91. User assistance is available for eLibrary and the FERC's Web site during normal business hours from FERC Online Support at 202-502-6652 (toll free at 1-866-208-3676) or e-mail at<E T="03">ferconlinesupport@ferc.gov,</E>or the Public Reference Room at (202) 502-8371, TTY (202) 502-8659. E-mail the Public Reference Room at<E T="03">public.referenceroom@ferc.gov.</E>
        </P>
        <LSTSUB>
          <HD SOURCE="HED">List of Subjects in 18 CFR Part 284</HD>
          <P>Continental Shelf, Incorporation by reference, Natural gas, Reporting and recordkeeping requirements.</P>
        </LSTSUB>
        <SIG>
          <P>By direction of the Commission.</P>
          <NAME>Nathaniel J. Davis, Sr.,</NAME>
          <TITLE>Deputy Secretary.</TITLE>
        </SIG>
        <P>For the reasons discussed in the preamble, the Federal Energy Regulatory Commission proposes to amend 18 CFR chapter I as follows:</P>
        <PART>
          <HD SOURCE="HED">PART 284—CERTAIN SALES AND TRANSPORTATION OF NATURAL GAS UNDER THE NATURAL GAS POLICY ACT OF 1978 AND RELATED AUTHORITIES</HD>
          <P>1. The authority citation for part 284 continues to read as follows:</P>
          <AUTH>
            <HD SOURCE="HED">Authority:</HD>
            <P>15 U.S.C. 717-717w, 3301-3432; 42 U.S.C. 7101-7352; 43 U.S.C. 1331-1356.</P>
          </AUTH>
          
          <P>2. In § 284.1, paragraph (d) is added to read as follows:</P>
          <SECTION>
            <SECTNO>§ 284.1</SECTNO>
            <SUBJECT>Definitions.</SUBJECT>
            <STARS/>
            <P>(d)<E T="03">Major non-interstate pipeline</E>means a pipeline that fits the following criteria:</P>
            <P>(1) It is not a “natural gas company” under section 1 of the Natural Gas Act; and</P>
            <P>(2) It flows annually more than 10 million (10,000,000) MMBtus of natural gas measured in average receipts or in deliveries for the past 3 years.</P>
            <P>3. In § 284.13, the heading of paragraph (d) is revised and two sentences are added to the end of paragraph (d)(1) to read as follows:</P>
          </SECTION>
          <SECTION>
            <SECTNO>§ 284.13</SECTNO>
            <SUBJECT>Reporting requirements for interstate pipelines.</SUBJECT>
            <STARS/>
            <P>(d)<E T="03">Capacity and flow information.</E>(1) * * * An interstate pipeline must also provide in the same manner access to information on actual flowing volumes at receipt points, on the mainline, at delivery points, and in storage fields. This information must be posted within 24 hours from the close of the gas day on which gas flows, i.e., on or before 9:00 a.m. central clock time for flows occurring on the gas day that ended 24 hours before.</P>
            <STARS/>
            <P>4. Section 284.14 is added to read as follows:</P>
          </SECTION>
          <SECTION>
            <SECTNO>§ 284.14</SECTNO>
            <SUBJECT>Flow information of major non-interstate pipelines.</SUBJECT>
            <P>(a)<E T="03">Daily posting requirement.</E>A major non-interstate pipeline must provide on a daily basis on an Internet Web site and in downloadable file formats, in conformity with § 284.12 of this chapter, equal and timely access to information relevant to the capacity of major points and mainline segments and the amount scheduled at each such major point or mainline<E T="03">segment</E>whenever capacity is scheduled. A major non-interstate pipeline must also provide in the same manner access to information on actual flowing volumes at major points and mainline segments. This information must be posted within 24 hours from the close of the gas day on which gas<PRTPAGE P="1131"/>flows, i.e., on or before 9:00 a.m. central clock time for flows occurring on the gas day that ended 24 hours before.</P>
            <P>(b)<E T="03">Exemptions to daily posting requirement.</E>The following categories of major non-interstate pipelines are exempt from the reporting requirement of paragraph (a) of this section:</P>
            <P>(1) Those that fall entirely upstream of a processing plant; and</P>
            <P>(2) Those that deliver more than ninety-five percent (95%) of the natural gas volumes they flow directly to end-users.</P>
            <P>(3) To determine eligibility for the exemption in paragraph (b)(2) of this section, a major non-interstate pipeline must measure volumes by average deliveries over the preceding three calendar years.</P>
            
          </SECTION>
        </PART>
      </SUPLINF>
      <FRDOC>[FR Doc. E7-25435 Filed 1-4-08; 8:45 am]</FRDOC>
      <BILCOD>BILLING CODE 6717-01-P</BILCOD>
    </PRORULE>
    <PRORULE>
      <PREAMB>
        <AGENCY TYPE="N">DEPARTMENT OF THE TREASURY</AGENCY>
        <SUBAGY>Internal Revenue Service</SUBAGY>
        <CFR>26 CFR Part 1</CFR>
        <DEPDOC>[REG-143326-05]</DEPDOC>
        <RIN>RIN 1545-BE95</RIN>
        <SUBJECT>S Corporation Guidance Under AJCA of 2004 and GOZA of 2005; Hearing Cancellation</SUBJECT>
        <AGY>
          <HD SOURCE="HED">AGENCY:</HD>
          <P>Internal Revenue Service (IRS), Treasury.</P>
        </AGY>
        <ACT>
          <HD SOURCE="HED">ACTION:</HD>
          <P>Cancellation of notice of public hearing on proposed rulemaking.</P>
        </ACT>
        <SUM>
          <HD SOURCE="HED">SUMMARY:</HD>
          <P>This document cancels a public hearing on proposed regulations that provide guidance regarding certain changes made to the rules governing S corporations under the American Jobs Creation Act of 2004 and the Gulf Opportunity Zone Act of 2005.</P>
        </SUM>
        <EFFDATE>
          <HD SOURCE="HED">DATES:</HD>
          <P>The public hearing, originally scheduled for January 16, 2008, at 10 a.m. is cancelled.</P>
        </EFFDATE>
        <FURINF>
          <HD SOURCE="HED">FOR FURTHER INFORMATION CONTACT:</HD>
          <P>Kelly Banks of the Publications and Regulations Branch, Legal Processing Division, Associate Chief Counsel (Procedure and Administration) at (202) 622-0392 (not a toll-free number).</P>
        </FURINF>
      </PREAMB>
      <SUPLINF>
        <HD SOURCE="HED">SUPPLEMENTARY INFORMATION:</HD>

        <P>A notice of proposed rulemaking and notice of public hearing that appeared in the<E T="04">Federal Register</E>on Friday, September 28, 2007 (72 FR 55132), announced that a public hearing was scheduled for January 16, 2008, at 10 a.m. in the IRS Auditorium, Internal Revenue Building, 1111 Constitution Avenue, NW., Washington, DC. The subject of the public hearing is under section 361 of the Internal Revenue Code.</P>
        <P>The public comments and outlines of oral testimony were due on December 27, 2007. The notice of proposed rulemaking and notice of public hearing instructed those interested in testifying at the public hearing to submit an outline of the topics to be addressed. As of Wednesday, January 2, 2008, no one has requested to speak. Therefore, the public hearing scheduled for January 16, 2008, is cancelled.</P>
        <SIG>
          <NAME>Cynthia E. Grigsby,</NAME>
          <TITLE>Senior Federal Register Liaison Officer, Publications and Regulations Branch, Legal Processing Division, Associate Chief Counsel (Procedure and Administration).</TITLE>
        </SIG>
      </SUPLINF>
      <FRDOC>[FR Doc. E8-24 Filed 1-4-08; 8:45 am]</FRDOC>
      <BILCOD>BILLING CODE 4830-01-P</BILCOD>
    </PRORULE>
    <PRORULE>
      <PREAMB>
        <AGENCY TYPE="S">DEPARTMENT OF THE TREASURY</AGENCY>
        <SUBAGY>Internal Revenue Service</SUBAGY>
        <CFR>26 CFR Part 301</CFR>
        <DEPDOC>[REG-136596-07]</DEPDOC>
        <RIN>RIN 1545-BH12</RIN>
        <SUBJECT>Guidance Regarding Marketing of Refund Anticipation Loans (RALs) and Certain Other Products in Connection With the Preparation of a Tax Return</SUBJECT>
        <AGY>
          <HD SOURCE="HED">AGENCY:</HD>
          <P>Internal Revenue Service (IRS), Treasury.</P>
        </AGY>
        <ACT>
          <HD SOURCE="HED">ACTION:</HD>
          <P>Advance notice of proposed rulemaking (ANPRM).</P>
        </ACT>
        <SUM>
          <HD SOURCE="HED">SUMMARY:</HD>

          <P>This document describes rules that the Treasury Department and the IRS are considering proposing, in a notice of proposed rulemaking, regarding the disclosure and use of tax return information by tax return preparers. The rules would apply to the marketing of refund anticipation loans (RALs) and certain other products in connection with the preparation of a tax return and, as an exception to the general principle that taxpayers should have control over their tax return information that is reflected in final regulations published in T.D. 9375, which is published elsewhere in this issue of the<E T="04">Federal Register</E>, provide that a tax return preparer may not obtain a taxpayer's consent to disclose or use tax return information for the purpose of soliciting taxpayers to purchase such products. This document invites comments from the public regarding these contemplated rules. All materials submitted will be available for public inspection and copying.</P>
        </SUM>
        <EFFDATE>
          <HD SOURCE="HED">DATES:</HD>
          <P>Written or electronic comments must be received by April 7, 2008.</P>
        </EFFDATE>
        <ADD>
          <HD SOURCE="HED">ADDRESSES:</HD>

          <P>Send submissions to: CC:PA:LPD:PR (REG-136596-07), Room 5203, Internal Revenue Service, PO Box 7604, Ben Franklin Station, Washington, DC 20044. Submissions may be hand-delivered Monday through Friday between the hours of 8 a.m. and 4 p.m. to CC:PA:LPD:PR (REG-136596-07), Courier's Desk, Internal Revenue Service, 1111 Constitution Avenue, NW., Washington, DC, or sent electronically via the Federal eRulemaking Portal at<E T="03">http://www.regulations.gov</E>(IRS REG-136596-07).</P>
        </ADD>
        <FURINF>
          <HD SOURCE="HED">FOR FURTHER INFORMATION CONTACT:</HD>
          <P>Concerning submissions of comments, Kelly Banks at (202) 622-7180; concerning the proposals, Lawrence Mack at (202) 622-4940 (not toll-free numbers).</P>
        </FURINF>
      </PREAMB>
      <SUPLINF>
        <HD SOURCE="HED">SUPPLEMENTARY INFORMATION:</HD>
        <HD SOURCE="HD1">Background</HD>
        <P>This document describes rules that the Treasury Department and the IRS are considering proposing in a notice of proposed rulemaking regarding the marketing of refund anticipation loans (RALs) and certain other products identified below in connection with the preparation of a tax return.</P>
        <P>The proposed rules would amend the Regulations on Procedure and Administration (26 CFR part 301) under section 7216 of the Internal Revenue Code. Section 7216 was enacted by section 316 of the Revenue Act of 1971, Public Law 92-178 (85 Stat. 529, 1971), and has been amended several times since 1971. Section 7216 imposes criminal penalties on tax return preparers who knowingly or recklessly make unauthorized disclosures or uses of information furnished to them in connection with the preparation of an income tax return. In addition, tax return preparers are subject to civil penalties under section 6713 for disclosure or use of this information unless an exception under the rules of section 7216(b) applies to the disclosure or use.</P>

        <P>A notice of proposed rulemaking (REG-137243-02) was published in the<E T="04">Federal Register</E>(70 FR 72954) on December 8, 2005. Concurrent with publication of the proposed regulations, the IRS published Notice 2005-93, 2005-52 I.R.B. 1204 (December 7, 2005), setting forth a proposed revenue procedure that would provide guidance to tax return preparers regarding the format and content of consents to use and consents to disclose tax return information under § 301.7216-3.</P>

        <P>Among other recommendations received in response to the notice of<PRTPAGE P="1132"/>proposed rulemaking published on December 8, 2005, a number of commentators recommended that the regulations prohibit or substantially restrict the disclosure or use of tax return information for marketing purposes. As described in the preamble of the final regulations published in T.D. 9375, which is published elsewhere in this issue of the<E T="04">Federal Register</E>, these commentators specifically recommended banning tax return preparers from disclosing or using tax return information for the purpose of soliciting refund anticipation loans (RALs) and similar products. The Treasury Department and the IRS did not adopt this recommendation in the final regulations that are being published concurrently with this ANPRM because of the significant policy issues that need to be considered and because they had not previously proposed a rule regarding the use or disclosure of tax return information for purposes of marketing of RALs and similar products.</P>
        <P>This ANPRM addresses two major areas of concern that have been raised and describes rules that the Treasury Department and the IRS are considering proposing regarding the marketing of RALs and certain other products identified below in connection with the preparation of a tax return. It also solicits comments on specific issues as described herein.</P>
        <HD SOURCE="HD1">Concerns Raised by RALs and Certain Other Products</HD>
        <HD SOURCE="HD2">Financial Incentive To Inflate Refunds</HD>
        <P>The Treasury Department and the IRS are concerned that RALs and certain other products may provide tax preparers with a financial incentive to take improper tax return positions in order to inappropriately inflate refund claims. In general, RAL amounts are capped by the amount of the refund claimed on a tax return. Therefore, a preparer who inappropriately inflates the amount of a refund is able, directly or indirectly through arrangement with a RAL provider, to collect a higher fee. Additionally, a significant number of RALs are made to taxpayers who claim the earned income tax credit (EITC). The Treasury Department and the IRS are concerned that the financial benefits of selling a RAL to a taxpayer can create an incentive for the preparer to not fully comply with due diligence requirements designed to ensure the accuracy of EITC claims. See section 6695(g).</P>
        <P>Even when a flat fee is charged for RALs, it may be possible that a financial incentive to inappropriately inflate the amount of a refund exists. As an example, some merchants who offer tax preparation services may encourage customers to obtain RALs and spend the funds on the merchant's products or services. To the extent that the preparer prepares a return that claims an inappropriately large refund, the taxpayer is enabled to purchase more of the merchant's products or services.</P>
        <P>The Treasury Department and the IRS are concerned that overall tax compliance suffers when tax advisors or tax preparers benefit directly from maximizing a refund in preparing a tax return. Treasury Department Circular 230 restricts the ability of tax practitioners to charge contingent fees in certain circumstances when there are tax administration concerns. See 31 CFR 10.27. The Treasury Department and the IRS are considering whether similar restrictions should be placed on use or disclosure of tax return information by preparers who receive a financial benefit from the sale of an ancillary product, such as a RAL, rather than directly from the determination of a taxpayer's tax liability.</P>
        <P>There are two other products that potentially raise similar concerns—refund anticipation checks (RACs) and audit insurance. A RAC is a post-refund product that allows taxpayers to pay for return preparation services out of their refunds. As with a RAL, a taxpayer will only qualify to purchase a RAC if a refund is claimed on the return. Audit insurance is a type of insurance that covers professional fees and other expenses incurred in responding to or defending against an audit by the IRS. Taxpayers who purchase audit insurance may be encouraged to take aggressive tax reporting positions if they believe the insurance will provide protection against the risk of an adjustment. The Treasury Department and the IRS generally believe that arrangements that create financial incentives for taxpayers or tax preparers to exploit the audit selection process undermine tax compliance.</P>
        <HD SOURCE="HD2">Potential for Inappropriate Use by Tax Preparers</HD>

        <P>In responding to the proposed regulations, some commentators expressed concern that tax preparers are inappropriately profiting from marketing RALs and certain other products to relatively unsophisticated taxpayers who do not comprehend the full costs of the products. These commentators noted that RALs are marketed primarily to low-income taxpayers who receive the EITC, that these taxpayers generally have relatively low levels of financial expertise, and that these taxpayers are more likely than other taxpayers to rely on the advice of their preparers. These commentators urged the IRS to amend the proposed regulations to protect these taxpayers from exploitation. The National Taxpayer Advocate also expressed similar concerns. See National Taxpayer Advocate FY 2007 Objectives Report to Congress, vol. II,<E T="03">The Role of the IRS in the Refund Anticipation Loan Industry,</E>at 18 (June 30, 2006).</P>
        <P>As a general rule, the Treasury Department and the IRS believe that taxpayers should have the ability to control the use or disclosure of their tax return information. Taxpayer control, however, must be balanced against the ability of the government to effectively administer the internal revenue laws, which includes guarding against (1) the potential lessening of tax compliance, (2) the potential exploitation of taxpayers described by certain commentators, and (3) the potential existence of inappropriate financial incentives for tax preparers to inflate tax refunds.</P>
        <HD SOURCE="HD1">Explanation of Contemplated Rules</HD>
        <P>Sections 7216 and 6713 provide a broad prohibition against the disclosure and use of tax return information by return preparers. Statutory exceptions are provided for a “disclosure” pursuant to any other provision of the Internal Revenue Code or an order of a court and for a “use” by a preparer to assist the taxpayer in preparing his or her state and local tax returns and declarations of estimated tax. The statutory language also authorizes the Secretary to prescribe regulations permitting additional exceptions. Thus, tax return preparers may use or disclose tax return information beyond the statutory exceptions only if, and to the extent that, Treasury regulations expressly authorize such acts.</P>

        <P>Among other exceptions, the regulations under section 7216 generally provide that preparers may use or disclose tax return information if the taxpayer provides consent. As a general rule, taxpayers should have the ability to control the use or disclosure of their tax return information. To address the tax administration concerns described above, the Treasury Department and the IRS are considering proposing regulations that would create an exception from the general consent framework prescribed by § 301.7216-3 for RALs, RACs, audit insurance, and similar products. This exception would effectively separate the act of return preparation from the act of marketing or purchasing certain financial products by prohibiting the use of information obtained during the tax-preparation<PRTPAGE P="1133"/>process for the non-tax administration purpose of marketing: (i) a RAL or a substantially similar product or service; (ii) a RAC or a substantially similar product or service; or (iii) audit insurance or a substantially similar product or service.</P>
        <HD SOURCE="HD1">Proposed Effective Date</HD>

        <P>The Treasury Department and the IRS anticipate that these new proposed rules would apply for returns filed on or after January 1st of the year following the date of publication in the<E T="04">Federal Register</E>as final or temporary regulations.</P>
        <HD SOURCE="HD1">Request for Comments</HD>
        <P>Before a notice of proposed rulemaking is issued, consideration will be given to any written comments (a signed original and eight (8) copies) or electronic comments that are submitted timely to the IRS. All comments will be available for public inspection and copying.</P>
        <P>Specifically, comments are encouraged on the following questions:</P>
        <P>1. If RALs and certain other products create a direct financial incentive for preparers to inflate tax refunds, are there alternative approaches that would eliminate or reduce this incentive?</P>
        <P>2. If the marketing of RALs and certain other products exploit or have the potential to exploit certain taxpayers, is the approach described in this ANPRM better viewed as protecting taxpayers from exploitation or as restricting taxpayers' ability to control their tax return information? If the latter, is there an alternative approach that would address the concerns described above?</P>
        <P>3. Should RACs be treated the same way as RALs and audit insurance, or do RACs present lesser concerns?</P>
        <P>4. Are there other products that present significant concerns for tax compliance or taxpayer exploitation that should be addressed by regulation?</P>
        <HD SOURCE="HD1">Drafting Information</HD>
        <P>The principal author of this advance notice of proposed rulemaking is Dillon Taylor, formerly of the Office of the Associate Chief Counsel (Procedure and Administration). For further information, contact Lawrence Mack of the Office of Associate Chief Counsel (Procedure and Administration) at 202-622-4940 (not a toll-free call).</P>
        <SIG>
          <NAME>Linda E. Stiff,</NAME>
          <TITLE>Deputy Commissioner for Services and Enforcement.</TITLE>
        </SIG>
      </SUPLINF>
      <FRDOC>[FR Doc. 08-2 Filed 1-3-08; 8:58 am]</FRDOC>
      <BILCOD>BILLING CODE 4830-01-P</BILCOD>
    </PRORULE>
    <PRORULE>
      <PREAMB>
        <AGENCY TYPE="N">DEPARTMENT OF HOMELAND SECURITY</AGENCY>
        <SUBAGY>Coast Guard</SUBAGY>
        <CFR>33 CFR Part 165</CFR>
        <DEPDOC>[Docket No. USCG-2007-0195]</DEPDOC>
        <RIN>RIN 1625-AA87</RIN>
        <SUBJECT>Security Zone; Waters Surrounding U.S. Forces Vessel SBX-1, HI</SUBJECT>
        <AGY>
          <HD SOURCE="HED">AGENCY:</HD>
          <P>Coast Guard, DHS.</P>
        </AGY>
        <ACT>
          <HD SOURCE="HED">ACTION:</HD>
          <P>Notice of proposed rulemaking.</P>
        </ACT>
        <SUM>
          <HD SOURCE="HED">SUMMARY:</HD>
          <P>The Coast Guard proposes to establish a permanent 500-yard moving security zone around the U.S. Forces vessel SBX-1 during transit within the Honolulu Captain of the Port Zone. This zone is necessary to protect the SBX-1 from threats associated with vessels and persons approaching too close during transit. Entry of persons or vessels into this security zone would be prohibited unless authorized by the Captain of the Port (COTP).</P>
        </SUM>
        <EFFDATE>
          <HD SOURCE="HED">DATES:</HD>
          <P>Comments and related material must reach the Coast Guard on or before February 6, 2008.</P>
        </EFFDATE>
        <ADD>
          <HD SOURCE="HED">ADDRESSES:</HD>
          <P>You may submit comments identified by Coast Guard docket number USCG-2007-0195 to the Docket Management Facility at the U.S. Department of Transportation. To avoid duplication, please use only one of the following methods:</P>
          <P>(1)<E T="03">Online:</E>
            <E T="03">http://www.regulations.gov</E>.</P>
          <P>(2)<E T="03">Mail:</E>Docket Management Facility (M-30), U.S. Department of Transportation, West Building Ground Floor, Room W12-140, 1200 New Jersey Avenue, SE., Washington, DC 20590-0001.</P>
          <P>(3)<E T="03">Hand delivery:</E>Room W12-140 on the Ground Floor of the West Building, 1200 New Jersey Avenue, SE., Washington, DC 20590, between 9 a.m. and 5 p.m., Monday through Friday, except Federal holidays. The telephone number is 202-366-9329.</P>
          <P>(4)<E T="03">Fax:</E>202-493-2251.</P>
        </ADD>
        <FURINF>
          <HD SOURCE="HED">FOR FURTHER INFORMATION CONTACT:</HD>
          <P>Lieutenant (Junior Grade) Jasmin Parker, U.S. Coast Guard Sector Honolulu at (808) 842-2600.</P>
        </FURINF>
      </PREAMB>
      <SUPLINF>
        <HD SOURCE="HED">SUPPLEMENTARY INFORMATION:</HD>
        <HD SOURCE="HD1">Public Participation and Request for Comments</HD>

        <P>We encourage you to participate in this rulemaking by submitting comments and related materials. All comments received will be posted, without change, to<E T="03">http://www.regulations.gov</E>and will include any personal information you have provided. We have an agreement with the Department of Transportation (DOT) to use the Docket Management Facility. Please see DOT's “Privacy Act” paragraph below.</P>
        <HD SOURCE="HD2">Submitting Comments</HD>

        <P>If you submit a comment, please include the docket number for this rulemaking (USCG-2007-0195), indicate the specific section of this document to which each comment applies, and give the reason for each comment. We recommend that you include your name and a mailing address, an e-mail address, or a phone number in the body of your document so that we can contact you if we have questions regarding your submission. You may submit your comments and material by electronic means, mail, fax, or delivery to the Docket Management Facility at the address under<E T="02">ADDRESSES</E>, but please submit your comments and material by only one means. If you submit them by mail or delivery, submit them in an unbound format, no larger than 8<FR>1/2</FR>by 11 inches, suitable for copying and electronic filing. If you submit them by mail and would like to know that they reached the Facility, please enclose a stamped, self-addressed postcard or envelope. We will consider all comments and material received during the comment period. We may change this proposed rule in view of them.</P>
        <HD SOURCE="HD2">Viewing Comments and Documents</HD>

        <P>To view comments, as well as documents mentioned in this preamble as being available in the docket, go to<E T="03">http://www.regulations.gov</E>at any time, click on “Search for Dockets,” and enter the docket number for this rulemaking (USCG-2007-0195) in the Docket ID box, and click enter. You may also visit the Docket Management Facility in Room W12-140 on the ground floor of the DOT West Building, 1200 New Jersey Avenue, SE., Washington, DC 20590, between 9 a.m. and 5 p.m., Monday through Friday, except Federal holidays.</P>
        <HD SOURCE="HD1">Privacy Act</HD>

        <P>Anyone can search the electronic form of all comments received into any of our dockets by the name of the individual submitting the comment (or signing the comment, if submitted on behalf of an association, business, labor union, etc.). You may review the Department of Transportation's Privacy Act Statement in the<E T="04">Federal Register</E>published on April 11, 2000 (65 FR 19477), or you may visit<E T="03">http://DocketsInfo.dot.gov</E>.<PRTPAGE P="1134"/>
        </P>
        <HD SOURCE="HD1">Public Meeting</HD>

        <P>We do not now plan to hold a public meeting. But you may submit a request for a meeting by writing to Sector Honolulu at the address under<E T="02">ADDRESSES</E>explaining why one would be beneficial. If we determine that one would aid this rulemaking, we will hold one at a time and place announced by a separate notice in the<E T="04">Federal Register</E>.</P>
        <HD SOURCE="HD1">Background and Purpose</HD>
        <P>The U.S. Forces vessel SBX-1 will enter the Honolulu Captain of the Port Zone and transit to Pearl Harbor, HI for maintenance at least once each year. The SBX-1 is easy to recognize because it contains a large white object shaped like an egg supported by a platform that is larger than a football field. The platform in turn is supported by six pillars similar to those on large oil-drilling platforms.</P>
        <P>The Coast Guard's reaction to such transits thus far has been to await a final voyage plan and then establish a security zone using a temporary final rule applicable to that particular voyage. Such action diminishes the public's opportunity for formal comment and imposes a pressing administrative burden each time the SBX-1 arrives. This permanent SBX-1 security zone proposal affords solicitation of public comments and promotes relief from the emergency rulemakings currently necessary to protect these transits.</P>
        <HD SOURCE="HD1">Discussion of Proposed Rule</HD>
        <P>Our proposed security zone would be established permanently. It would be automatically activated, meaning it would be subject to enforcement, whenever the U.S. Forces vessel SBX-1 is in U.S. navigable waters within the Honolulu Captain of the Port (COTP) Zone (see 33 CFR 3.70-10). The security zone would include all waters extending 500 yards in all directions from the SBX-1, from the surface of the water to the ocean floor.</P>
        <P>The security zone would move with the SBX-1 while it is in transit. The zone would become fixed around the SBX-1 while it is anchored, position-keeping, or moored, and it would remain activated until the SBX-1 either departs U.S. navigable waters within the Honolulu COTP zone or enters the Honolulu Naval Defensive Sea Area established by Executive Order 8987 (6 FR 6675, December 24, 1941).</P>
        <P>The general regulations governing security zones contained in 33 CFR 165.33 would apply. Entry into, transit through, or anchoring within the zone while it is activated and enforced would be prohibited unless authorized by the COTP or a designated representative thereof. Any Coast Guard commissioned, warrant, or petty officer, and any other COTP representative permitted by law, could enforce the zone. The COTP could waive any of the requirements of this rule for any person, vessel, or class of vessel upon finding that application of the security zone is unnecessary or impractical for the purpose of maritime security. Vessels or persons violating this rule would be subject to the penalties set forth in 33 U.S.C. 1232 and 50 U.S.C. 192.</P>
        <HD SOURCE="HD1">Regulatory Evaluation</HD>
        <P>This proposed rule is not a “significant regulatory action” under section 3(f) of Executive Order 12866, Regulatory Planning and Review, and does not require an assessment of potential costs and benefits under section 6(a)(3) of that Order. The Office of Management and Budget has not reviewed it under that Order.</P>
        <P>The Coast Guard expects the economic impact of this proposed rule to be so minimal that a full Regulatory Evaluation under the regulatory policies and procedures of DHS is unnecessary. This expectation is based on the limited duration of the zone, the constricted geographic area affected by it, and its ability to move with the protected vessel.</P>
        <HD SOURCE="HD1">Small Entities</HD>
        <P>Under the Regulatory Flexibility Act (5 U.S.C. 601-612), we have considered whether this proposed rule will have a significant economic impact on a substantial number of small entities. The term “small entities” comprises small businesses, not-for-profit organizations that are independently owned and operated and are not dominant in their fields, and governmental jurisdictions with populations of less than 50,000.</P>
        <P>The Coast Guard certifies under 5 U.S.C. 605(b) that this proposed rule will not have a significant economic impact on a substantial number of small entities. We expect that there will be little or no impact to small entities due to the narrowly tailored scope of this proposed security zone.</P>
        <HD SOURCE="HD1">Assistance for Small Entities</HD>
        <P>Under section 213(a) of the Small Business Regulatory Enforcement Fairness Act of 1996 (Pub. L. 104-121), we offer to assist small entities in understanding this proposed rule so that they could better evaluate its effects on them and participate in the rulemaking process.</P>

        <P>Small businesses may send comments on the actions of Federal employees who enforce, or otherwise determine compliance with, Federal regulations to the Small Business and Agriculture Regulatory Enforcement Ombudsman and the Regional Small Business Regulatory Fairness Boards. The Ombudsman evaluates these actions annually and rates each agency's responsiveness to small business. If you wish to comment on actions by employees of the Coast Guard, call 1-888-REG-FAIR (1-888-734-3247). The Coast Guard will not retaliate against small entities that question or complain about this rule or any<E T="03">policy or action of the Coast Guard.</E>
        </P>
        <HD SOURCE="HD1">Collection of Information</HD>
        <P>This proposed rule calls for no new collection of information under the Paperwork Reduction Act of 1995 (44 U.S.C. 3501-3520).</P>
        <HD SOURCE="HD1">Federalism</HD>
        <P>A rule has implications for federalism under Executive Order 13132, Federalism, if it has a substantial direct effect on State or local governments and either preempts State law or imposes a substantial direct cost of compliance on them. We have analyzed this proposed rule under that Order and have determined that it does not have implications for federalism.</P>
        <HD SOURCE="HD1">Unfunded Mandates Reform Act</HD>
        <P>The Unfunded Mandates Reform Act of 1995 (2 U.S.C. 1531-1538) requires Federal agencies to assess the effects of their discretionary regulatory actions. In particular, the Act addresses actions that may result in the expenditure by a State, local, or tribal government, in the aggregate, or by the private sector of $100,000,000 or more in any one year. Though this proposed rule will not result in such expenditure, we do discuss the effects of the rule elsewhere in this preamble.</P>
        <HD SOURCE="HD1">Taking of Private Property</HD>
        <P>This proposed rule will not affect a taking of private property or otherwise have taking implications under Executive Order 12630, Governmental Actions and Interference with Constitutionally Protected Property Rights.</P>
        <HD SOURCE="HD1">Civil Justice Reform</HD>

        <P>This proposed rule meets applicable standards in sections 3(a) and 3(b)(2) of Executive Order 12988, Civil Justice Reform, to minimize litigation, eliminate ambiguity, and reduce burden.<PRTPAGE P="1135"/>
        </P>
        <HD SOURCE="HD1">Protection of Children</HD>
        <P>We have analyzed this proposed rule under Executive Order 13045, Protection of Children from Environmental Health Risks and Safety Risks. This proposed rule is not an economically significant rule and does not create an environmental risk to health or risk to safety that may disproportionately affect children.</P>
        <HD SOURCE="HD1">Indian Tribal Governments</HD>
        <P>This proposed rule does not have tribal implications under Executive Order 13175, Consultation and Coordination with Indian Tribal Governments, because it does not have a substantial direct effect on one or more Indian tribes, on the relationship between the Federal Government and Indian tribes, or on the distribution of power and responsibilities between the Federal Government and Indian tribes.</P>
        <HD SOURCE="HD1">Energy Effects</HD>
        <P>We have analyzed this proposed rule under Executive Order 13211, Actions Concerning Regulations That Significantly Affect Energy Supply, Distribution, or Use. We have determined that it is not a “significant energy action” under that order because it is not a “significant regulatory action” under Executive Order 12866 and is not likely to have a significant adverse effect on the supply, distribution, or use of energy. The Administrator of the Office of Information and Regulatory Affairs has not designated it as a significant energy action. Therefore, it does not require a Statement of Energy Effects under Executive Order 13211.</P>
        <HD SOURCE="HD1">Technical Standards</HD>
        <P>The National Technology Transfer and Advancement Act (NTTAA) (15 U.S.C. 272 note) directs agencies to use voluntary consensus standards in their regulatory activities unless the agency provides Congress, through the Office of Management and Budget, with an explanation of why using these standards is inconsistent with applicable law or otherwise impractical. Voluntary consensus standards are technical standards (e.g., specifications of materials, performance, design, or operation; test methods; sampling procedures; and related management systems practices) that are developed or adopted by voluntary consensus standards bodies.</P>
        <P>This proposed rule does not use technical standards. Therefore, we did not consider the use of voluntary consensus standards.</P>
        <HD SOURCE="HD1">Environment</HD>

        <P>We have analyzed this proposed rule under Commandant Instruction M16475.lD, which guides the Coast Guard in complying with the National Environmental Policy Act of 1969 (NEPA) (42 U.S.C. 4321-4370f), and have made a preliminary determination that this action is not likely to have a significant effect on the human environment. A preliminary “Environmental Analysis Check List” supporting this preliminary determination is available in the docket where indicated under<E T="02">ADDRESSES</E>. We seek any comments or information that may lead to the discovery of a significant environmental impact from this proposed rule.</P>
        <LSTSUB>
          <HD SOURCE="HED">List of Subjects 33 CFR Part 165</HD>
          <P>Harbors, Marine safety, Navigation (water), Reporting and recordkeeping requirements, Security measures, Waterways.</P>
        </LSTSUB>
        
        <P>For the reasons discussed in the preamble, the Coast Guard proposes to amend 33 CFR part 165 as follows:</P>
        <PART>
          <HD SOURCE="HED">PART 165—REGULATED NAVIGATION AREAS AND LIMITED ACCESS AREAS</HD>
          <P>1. The authority citation for part 165 continues to read as follows:</P>
          <AUTH>
            <HD SOURCE="HED">Authority:</HD>
            <P>33 U.S.C. 1226, 1231; 46 U.S.C. Chapter 701; 50 U.S.C. 191, 195; 33 CFR 1.05-1(g), 6.04-1, 6.04-6, and 160.5; Pub. L. 107-295, 116 Stat. 2064; Department of Homeland Security Delegation No. 0170.1.</P>
          </AUTH>
          
          <P>2. A new § 165.1411 to read as follows:</P>
          <SECTION>
            <SECTNO>§ 165.1411</SECTNO>
            <SUBJECT>Security zone; waters surrounding U.S. Forces vessel SBX-1, HI.</SUBJECT>
            <P>(a)<E T="03">Location</E>. The following area, in U.S. navigable waters within the Honolulu Captain of the Port Zone (see 33 CFR 3.70-10), from the surface of the water to the ocean floor, is a security zone: All waters extending 500 yards in all directions from U.S. Forces vessel SBX-1. The security zone moves with the SBX-1 while it is in transit and becomes fixed when the SBX-1 is anchored, position-keeping, or moored.</P>
            <P>(b)<E T="03">Regulations</E>. The general regulations governing security zones contained in 33 CFR 165.33 apply. Entry into, transit through, or anchoring within, this zone while it is activated, and thus subject to enforcement, is prohibited unless authorized by the Captain of the Port or a designated representative thereof.</P>
            <P>(c)<E T="03">Suspension of Enforcement</E>. The Coast Guard will suspend enforcement of the security zone described in this section whenever the SBX-1 is within the Honolulu Defensive Sea Area (see 6 FR 6675).</P>
            <P>(d)<E T="03">Informational notice</E>. The Captain of the Port of Honolulu will cause notice of the enforcement of the security zone described in this section to be made by broadcast notice to mariners. The SBX-1 is easy to recognize because it contains a large white object shaped like an egg supported by a platform that is larger than a football field. The platform in turn is supported by six pillars similar to those on large oil-drilling platforms.</P>
            <P>(e)<E T="03">Authority to enforce</E>. Any Coast Guard commissioned, warrant, or petty officer, and any other Captain of the Port representative permitted by law, may enforce the security zone described in this section.</P>
            <P>(f)<E T="03">Waiver</E>. The Captain of the Port may waive any of the requirements of this rule for any person, vessel, or class of vessel upon finding that application of the security zone is unnecessary or impractical for the purpose of maritime security.</P>
            <P>(g)<E T="03">Penalties</E>. Vessels or persons violating this rule are subject to the penalties set forth in 33 U.S.C. 1232 and 50 U.S.C. 192.</P>
          </SECTION>
          <SIG>
            <DATED>Dated: December 6, 2007.</DATED>
            <NAME>V.B. Atkins</NAME>
            <TITLE>Captain, U.S. Coast Guard, Captain of the Port, Honolulu.</TITLE>
          </SIG>
        </PART>
      </SUPLINF>
      <FRDOC>[FR Doc. E8-19 Filed 1-4-08; 8:45 am]</FRDOC>
      <BILCOD>BILLING CODE 4910-15-P</BILCOD>
    </PRORULE>
    <PRORULE>
      <PREAMB>
        <AGENCY TYPE="N">DEPARTMENT OF AGRICULTURE</AGENCY>
        <SUBAGY>Forest Service</SUBAGY>
        <CFR>36 CFR Part 294</CFR>
        <RIN>RIN 0596-AC62</RIN>
        <SUBJECT>Special Areas; Roadless Area Conservation; Applicability to the National Forests in Idaho</SUBJECT>
        <AGY>
          <HD SOURCE="HED">AGENCY:</HD>
          <P>Forest Service, USDA.</P>
        </AGY>
        <ACT>
          <HD SOURCE="HED">ACTION:</HD>
          <P>Notice of proposed rulemaking; request for comment.</P>
        </ACT>
        <SUM>
          <HD SOURCE="HED">SUMMARY:</HD>

          <P>The Forest Service, U.S. Department of Agriculture (USDA), is proposing to establish a State-specific rule to provide management direction for conserving and enhancing the roadless characteristics for designated roadless areas in Idaho. The agency is particularly interested in receiving public input regarding the following topics: to what extent should the Forest Service allow building roads for the purpose of conducting limited forest health activities in areas designated as backcountry; are the limitations on sale<PRTPAGE P="1136"/>of common variety minerals and discretionary mineral leasing appropriate; and will the proposed mechanism for administrative corrections and modifications be sufficient to accommodate future adjustments necessary due to changed circumstances or public need?</P>
        </SUM>
        <DATES>
          <HD SOURCE="HED">DATES:</HD>
          <P>Comments must be received in writing by April 7, 2008.</P>
        </DATES>
        <ADD>
          <HD SOURCE="HED">ADDRESSES:</HD>
          <P>Comments may be sent via email to<E T="03">IDcomments@fsroadless.org.</E>Comments also may be submitted via the world wide web/Internet at<E T="03">http://www.regulations.gov.</E>Written comments concerning this notice should be addressed to Roadless Area Conservation-Idaho, P.O. Box 162909, Sacramento, CA 95816-2909, or via facsimile to 916-456-6724.</P>

          <P>All comments, including names and addresses, when provided, are placed in the record and are available for public inspection and copying. The public may inspect comments received at<E T="03">http://roadless.fs.fed.us.</E>
          </P>

          <P>A copy of the draft environmental impact statement (DEIS), the DEIS summary, and other information related to this rulemaking is available at the national roadless Web site (<E T="03">http://www.roadless.fs.fed.us</E>) as well as by calling the number listed below, under the “for further information” heading. Reviewers may request printed copies or compact disks of the DEIS and the summary by writing to the Rocky Mountain Research Station, Publication and Distribution, 240 West Prospect Road, Fort Collins, CO 80526-2098. Fax orders will be accepted at 970-498-1122. Order by e-mail from<E T="03">rschneider@fs.fed.us.</E>When ordering, requesters must specify if they wish to receive the summary or full set of documents and if the material should be provided in print or on disk.</P>
        </ADD>
        <FURINF>
          <HD SOURCE="HED">FOR FURTHER INFORMATION CONTACT:</HD>
          <P>Brad Gilbert, Idaho Roadless Rule Team Leader, at (208) 765-7438. Individuals using telecommunication devices for the deaf (TDD) may call the Federal Information Relay Service (FIRS) at 1-800-877-8339 between 8 a.m. and 8 p.m. Eastern Standard Time, Monday through Friday.</P>
        </FURINF>
      </PREAMB>
      <SUPLINF>
        <HD SOURCE="HED">SUPPLEMENTARY INFORMATION:</HD>
        <HD SOURCE="HD1">Background</HD>
        <P>As a leader in natural resource conservation, the Forest Service provides direction for the management and use of the Nation's forests, rangelands, and aquatic ecosystems. The Forest Service is charged to collaborate cooperatively with states, Tribes, and other interested parties regarding the use and management of the National Forest System (NFS).</P>
        <HD SOURCE="HD2">State of Idaho Petition</HD>
        <P>On June 23, 2005, the State of Idaho (hereafter referred to as State) announced it would submit a petition pursuant to the State Petitions Rule (70 FR 25654), requesting specific regulatory protections and certain management flexibility for the approximately 9.3 million acres of NFS inventoried roadless areas in Idaho. As part of that announcement, the State invited affected county commissioners, Tribes, and members of the public to develop specific recommendations for the NFS inventoried roadless areas in their respective areas. Additionally, over 50 public meetings were held and the public was encouraged to send individual comments directly to the Governor's office for consideration.</P>
        <P>Idaho's petition, under the State Petition Rule, was submitted to the Secretary of Agriculture for consideration on September 20, 2006. Subsequently, Idaho submitted a new petition on October 5, 2006, under section 553(e) of the Administrative Procedure Act and Department regulations at 7 CFR § 1.28. The Department has also received rulemaking petitions from the Nez Perce Tribe and other organizations and individuals requesting reinstatement of the 2001 rule.</P>
        <P>The Roadless Area Conservation National Advisory Committee (RACNAC) (72 FR 13469) reviewed the Idaho petition on November 29 and 30, 2006, in Washington, DC. Governor James Risch, on behalf of the State of Idaho, discussed his views on the scope and intent of the petition during the first day of the meeting. The committee also heard comments from other State and Forest Service officials, and members of the public.</P>
        <P>On December 19, 2006, the committee issued a unanimous consensus-based recommendation that the Secretary direct the Forest Service, with the State as a cooperating agency, to proceed with rulemaking.</P>
        <P>On December 22, 2006, the Secretary accepted the petition based on the advisory committee's review and report, and directed the Forest Service to initiate rulemaking.</P>

        <P>The USDA is committed to conserving and managing inventoried roadless areas. The Department considers the proposed rule the most appropriate solution to address the challenges of inventoried roadless area management on NFS lands in the State of Idaho. Additional information, maps, and other materials concerning the Idaho Roadless Areas, as well as other roadless areas, can be found at<E T="03">http://roadless.fs.fed.us/</E>. Collaborating and cooperating with states and other interested parties regarding the long-term strategy for the conservation and management of inventoried roadless areas allows recognition of both national values and local situations.</P>

        <P>The State of Idaho petition included specific information and recommendations for the management of individual inventoried roadless areas in the State. This site-specific knowledge provided by the State and its citizens aids the USDA and Forest Service in accomplishing their objectives and is reflected in this proposed rulemaking. Additionally, the State of Idaho examined roadless areas sharing boundaries or overlapping with neighboring states and determined the need to coordinate with Montana and Utah to insure consistency of management themes assigned to these inventoried roadless areas. Lastly, the Forest Service and the State anticipate collaborating on implementing this proposed rulemaking. This commitment is reflected in the Governor's Roadless Rule Implementation Commission (Idaho Executive Order 2006-43), which is charged with the responsibility of working with the Forest Service to accomplish collaborative implementation of this proposed rule. The Executive Order can be found on the State of Idaho's roadless Web site<E T="03">http://gov.idaho.gov/roadless_petition.htm.</E>
        </P>
        <HD SOURCE="HD1">National Forest System Land Inventories in Idaho</HD>

        <P>This rulemaking relies on the most recent inventory available for each national forest and grassland in the State to identify the inventoried roadless areas addressed by this rulemaking. Since 2001 the Agency has continued with forest plan revisions within Idaho and have continued to review and update their inventories using new technologies such as geographic information systems (GIS) providing better and more reliable data than was previously available., Therefore, the proposed rule is based on the most recent and reliable information available for land and resource management planning as well as using other assessments and the inventory contained in the 2000 Roadless Rule Final Environmental Impact Statement where that remained the best available information. Using these inventories, the Forest Service has identified 9.3 million acres of inventoried roadless areas that are the subject of this rulemaking.<PRTPAGE P="1137"/>
        </P>
        <HD SOURCE="HD1">Proposed Roadless Area Conservation Rule for Idaho</HD>
        <P>The Department believes this proposed Roadless Area Conservation Rule for Idaho represents a unique opportunity to resolve collaboratively and to provide certainty to the roadless issue in the State. First, the proposed rule enables the Forest Service to account for comments of those most affected or concerned about the contents of state-specific rulemaking. Second, it allows the Agency to consider the unique characteristics of each inventoried roadless area in the State. Third, it balances the integrity and natural beauty of these roadless areas with responsible stewardship.</P>

        <P>During his presentation to the RACNAC, Governor Risch expressed the need for stewardship of Idaho Roadless Areas focusing on limited forest health activities. Clarifying what<E T="03">stewardship</E>means is vital to understanding the petition and subsequent rulemaking. The proposed rule clarifies this by providing discretion for conducting activities that maintain forest health by reducing the significant risk of wildland fire (also known as wildfire) to communities, municipal water supplies, threatened and endangered species, and to protect ecosystem components in the same manner as provided in the Healthy Forests Restoration Act (HFRA). All project activity will be subject to appropriate National Environmental Policy Act (NEPA) compliance procedures and public comment opportunities.</P>
        <P>The Department and the State believe a reduction in significant risk situations before they become imminent threats to local communities and water supplies can be better achieved by providing flexibility beyond the restrictions imposed by the January 12, 2001 Roadless Area Conservation final rule (2001 rule) (66 FR 3244). Implementing these limited, but necessary projects allows the Forest Service to be a good neighbor for adjacent landowners and communities and to help insure continued forest health and protection for life and property.</P>
        <P>The Forest Service, in cooperation with the State, has completed a review of the social, economic, and environmental characteristics and values associated with the inventoried roadless areas in the State. With public input, the Agency has considered the question of how these roadless lands should be managed within the scope of the Agency's authority. Consistent with the 2001 rule's approach, the management direction proposed by these regulations would take precedence over any inconsistent regulatory provision or land and resource management plan. It is also consistent with the Secretary's authority to establish regulations to carry out the statutory requirements for planning and the Forest Service's practice that forest plans must yield to management direction of a higher order. Forest plan management direction that is consistent with these provisions remains intact and effective.</P>
        <HD SOURCE="HD1">Discussion of the Proposed Management Themes</HD>
        <P>The management themes described in Idaho's petition and reflected in Governor Risch's presentation before the RACNAC represent the foundation for this rulemaking, and are imperative to understanding the proposed rule. The proposed rule is structured around five themes: (1) Wild Land Recreation; (2) Special Areas of Historic or Tribal Significance; (3) Primitive; (4) Backcountry/Restoration; and (5) General Forest, Rangeland, and Grassland. These five themes were developed and refined through review of the existing and draft management prescriptions in each of Idaho's national forests.</P>
        <P>Specifically, the proposed themes span a continuum (see Figure 1) that includes at one end, a restrictive approach emphasizing passive management and natural restoration, and on the other end, active management designed to accomplish sustainable forest, rangeland, and grassland management. This continuum accounts for stewardship of each roadless area's unique landscape and the quality of roadless characteristics in that area.</P>
        <GPH DEEP="299" SPAN="3">
          <PRTPAGE P="1138"/>
          <GID>EP07JA08.001</GID>
        </GPH>
        <P>Allocation to a specific theme is not intended to mandate or direct the Forest Service to propose or implement any action; rather, the themes provide an array of permitted and prohibited activities regarding road construction, discretionary mineral activities, and timber cutting. The themes also serve as a reference point for future discussions between the Forest Service, the State, the Tribes, and the public. Themes may also influence other future management choices such as forest plan revisions or use determinations that are beyond the scope of these regulations.</P>
        <P>The State's petition identifies approximately 345,000 acres of roadless areas that are already part of other land classification systems (for example, Research Natural Areas) that are governed by specific agency directives and existing forest plan direction. The petition did not request the Forest Service impose additional or superseding management direction or restrictions for these forest plan special areas. Instead, the State identified a preference that these lands be administered under the laws, regulations, and other management direction unique to the special purpose of the applicable land classification. These lands are included in § 294.28 for the sake of completeness; however, the proposed rule does not recommend management direction for those lands.</P>
        <P>The following describes the current and desired conditions for each management theme. While the ability of the Forest Service to conduct certain activities (road building, activities associated with mineral development, and timber cutting) typically varies from theme-to-theme, other activities (motorized travel, grazing activities, or use of motorized equipment and mechanical transport) are not changed by this proposed rule. While these other activities are not regulated by this proposed rule, such activities would be subject to future planning and decisionmaking processes of the Forest Service. Furthermore, when appropriate, wildland fire and prescribed fire are tools which would be available across all themes. Additionally, like the 2001 rule, timber cutting, sale, or removal in inventoried roadless areas is permitted when incidental to implementation of a management activity not otherwise prohibited by this proposed rule. Examples of these activities include, but are not limited to, trail construction or maintenance; removal of hazard trees adjacent to forest roads for public health and safety reasons; fire line construction for wildland fire suppression or control of prescribed fire; survey and maintenance of property boundaries; other authorized activities such as ski runs and utility corridors; or for road construction and reconstruction where allowed by this proposed rule.</P>
        <HD SOURCE="HD1">Management Theme 1: Wild Land Recreation (WLR)</HD>
        <P>
          <E T="03">Current Condition:</E>WLR areas were generally identified during the forest planning process as recommended for wilderness designation. These areas show little evidence of historic or human use. Natural conditions and processes are predominant. People visiting these areas can find outstanding opportunities for solitude and challenge.</P>
        <P>
          <E T="03">Desired Condition:</E>WLR areas show little evidence of human-caused disturbance and natural conditions and processes are predominant.</P>
        <HD SOURCE="HD1">Management Theme 2: Special Areas of Historic or Tribal Significance (SAHTS)</HD>
        <P>
          <E T="03">Current Condition:</E>SAHTS are relatively undisturbed by human management activities, and natural conditions and processes are predominant. This theme consists of three areas: (1) Pilot Knob (#849), Nez Perce National Forest; (2) Nimiipuu and Lewis and Clark National Historic Trials, which includes portions of Bighorn-Weitas (#306), Eldorado Creek (#312), Hoodoo (#301), North Lochsa Slope (#307), Weir-Post Office (#308), Clearwater National Forest; and (3) Pioneer Area—Mallard-Larkins (#300), Idaho Panhandle National Forest. The<PRTPAGE P="1139"/>Nez Perce Tribe and others expressed the desire to protect these areas specifically based on their historic or Tribal significance. The RACNAC recommended clarifying whether this theme would alter or apply to the management of other “special areas” embedded in roadless areas in individual forest plans (such as, Wilderness Study Areas, Recommended and/or Designated Scenic, Wild, and Recreational Rivers, Research Natural Areas). Those areas will not be subject to this proposed rule and will continue to be managed by individual forest plan direction or specific congressional direction provided by statute.</P>
        <P>
          <E T="03">Desired Condition:</E>SAHTS will continue to be relatively undisturbed by human management activities in order to maintain their unique Tribal or historic characteristics.</P>
        <HD SOURCE="HD1">Management Theme 3: Primitive</HD>
        <P>
          <E T="03">Current Condition:</E>The current condition of areas designated as primitive generally reflects the undeveloped character described for the WLR theme. However, these areas generally fall short of the Forest Service's recommended wilderness suitability criteria.</P>
        <P>
          <E T="03">Desired Condition:</E>Primitive areas are relatively undisturbed by human management activities while allowing for limited forest health activities including preserving biological strongholds for a variety of species and protecting ecological integrity.</P>
        <HD SOURCE="HD1">Management Theme 4: Backcountry/Restoration (Backcountry)</HD>
        <P>
          <E T="03">Current Condition:</E>Areas designated as backcountry generally reflect the undeveloped character found in all roadless areas. However, there may be portions within these areas that have evidence of human use and occupancy or past vegetation manipulation.</P>
        <P>
          <E T="03">Desired Condition:</E>Backcountry areas are managed to retain their undeveloped character, while providing a variety of recreation opportunities and allowing for limited forest health activities including preserving biological strongholds for a variety of species and maintaining or restoring the characteristics of ecosystem composition and structure.</P>
        <HD SOURCE="HD1">Management Theme 5: General Forest, Rangeland, and Grassland (GFRG)</HD>
        <P>
          <E T="03">Current Condition:</E>Areas designated as GFRG include locations that may display relatively more evidence of human use, including roads, facilities, evidence of vegetative manipulation, and mineral exploration/extraction.</P>
        <P>
          <E T="03">Desired Condition:</E>GFRG areas are managed to allow for a variety of goods and services, and conservation of natural resources.</P>
        <HD SOURCE="HD1">Geothermal Energy</HD>
        <P>During the development of the proposed rule, consideration was given to whether the rule is overly restrictive regarding potential exploration and/or development of geothermal energy resources in areas designated as backcountry. While Idaho has high geothermal energy potential, site-specific information on this resource in Idaho Roadless Areas is currently limited (see discussion in DEIS). At this time the Department has chosen not to include a special exemption for geothermal energy resources.</P>
        <P>The Department expects that more information about this energy resource will become available over the next 5 to 10 years. Once additional information becomes available, at that point, if necessary, the State or other parties can seek a change in the rule's restrictions. A site-specific modification to the rule could then be proposed and reviewed under § 294.27(e)(2).</P>
        <HD SOURCE="HD1">Specific Request for Public Comment</HD>
        <P>With regard to road construction, discretionary mineral activities, and timber cutting, Idaho's proposed management continuum can be succinctly summarized as three themes; one theme more restrictive than the 2001 rule, one theme similar to the 2001 rule, and one theme less restrictive than the 2001 rule. The agency is particularly interested in receiving public input regarding the following topics: (1) To what extent should the Forest Service allow building roads for the purpose of conducting limited forest health activities in areas designated as backcountry; (2) are the limitations on sale of common variety minerals and discretionary mineral leasing appropriate; and (3) will the proposed mechanism for administrative corrections and modifications be sufficient to accommodate future adjustments necessary due to changed circumstances or public need? The following illustrates the additions and/or changes from the 2001 rule.</P>
        <HD SOURCE="HD2">Limited Roads for Activities in Backcountry</HD>
        <P>The proposed regulation at § 294.23(b)(1)(i) allows limited road construction in Idaho Roadless Areas designated to be managed pursuant to the backcountry theme when a “road is needed to protect public health and safety in cases of significant risk or imminent threat of flood, wildland fire, or other catastrophic event that, without intervention, would cause the loss of life or property; or to facilitate forest health activities permitted under § 294.25(c)(1).” The phrase “significant risk” is an addition to the imminent threat language contained in the 2001 rule's exceptions and bears further explanation.</P>
        <P>During its presentation to the RACNAC, the State was under the impression that the “imminent threat” exception provides the needed flexibility to allow the Forest Service to build roads for the purpose of conducting what Governor Risch and other State representatives identified as “stewardship activities.” An example of such an activity would be a fuel treatment project to protect a municipal water supply system conducted cooperatively with the Forest Service through the Healthy Forests Restoration Act (HFRA) (Pub. L. 108-148). However, when read in context of the 2001 rule's preamble language, the application of the “imminent threat” regulatory language may not always achieve the State's desire for more progress toward the congressional goals identified in HFRA.</P>

        <P>Referring to the “imminent threat” language, the preamble to the 2001 rule stated that the exception “does not constitute permission to engage in routine forest health activities, such as temporary road construction for thinning to reduce mortality due to insect and disease infestation” (66 FR 3243, 3255). Like the 2001 rule, the Forest Service and State do not intend this change in language to be construed as giving permission to build roads in areas designated as backcountry for the purpose of engaging in<E T="03">routine</E>forest management activities as shown by the use of the words “significant risk.” This addition is intended to provide additional flexibility where site-specific conditions pose a significant risk of wildland fire.</P>

        <P>Although the principal objective for this adjustment is to protect at-risk communities and municipal water supply systems from adverse effects of wildland fire, this provision also contemplates access for (1) areas where wind throw, blowdown, ice storm damage, or the existence or imminent threat of an insect or disease epidemic is significantly threatening ecosystem components or resource values that may contribute to significant risk of wildland fire; or (2) areas where wildland fire poses a threat to, and where the natural fire regimes are important for, threatened and endangered species or their habitat consistent with HFRA.<PRTPAGE P="1140"/>
        </P>
        <P>The proposed rule is programmatic in nature, establishing the types of prohibitions and conditions where future projects may occur under the appropriate theme. As stated by Governor Risch, this proposed rule “does not cut one tree or plow one road.” Further, not every acre experiencing significant risk is expected to receive treatment because of funding limitations and mitigation measures needed for other resource protection. After the rule becomes effective, site-specific proposed projects must still undergo project planning procedures before they can be implemented. This includes compliance with HFRA (if applicable), National Environmental Policy Act (NEPA), National Forest Management Act (NFMA), the Endangered Species Act (ESA), and other environmental laws and regulations. Public involvement under NEPA will be undertaken for these site-specific proposals.</P>

        <P>The Idaho Roadless Rule DEIS discloses the effects of roads and projections of the types and amounts of possible treatments over the next 15 years. Treatments will be designed based on site-specific needs to reduce any significant risks, or to maintain or restore the characteristics of ecosystem composition and structure. Determination of a significant risk would be guided by the interagency<E T="03">Healthy Forests Initiative and Healthy Forests Restoration Act: Interim Field Guide</E>(2004).</P>
        <HD SOURCE="HD2">Mineral Activities</HD>
        <P>The laws governing disposal of Federal minerals on NFS lands are complex. Responsibility for management of these resources is often shared between USDA and the Department of the Interior (DOI). Generally speaking, Federal minerals are divided into three categories with different legal authorities, responsibilities, and controls applying in each instance. The three basic systems are: locatable, saleable, and leasable minerals.</P>
        <P>Locatable minerals are generally metals (like gold and silver) but also include rare earth elements such as uranium and special uncommon varieties of sand, stone, gravel, pumice, pumicite, and cinders. Development of such minerals is subject to the General Mining Law of 1872. Like the 2001 rule, this proposed rule does not seek to impose any limits regarding activities undertaken regarding locatable minerals. In the long term, it is reasonable to assume that future exploration, mining, and mineral processing activities would continue to occur in Idaho Roadless Areas where valuable deposits exist. When necessary, construction or reconstruction of roads for locatable mineral exploration or development is part of the reasonable right of access provided under the General Mining Law. Therefore, this rule does not propose to affect rights of reasonable access to prospect and explore lands open to mineral entry and develop valid claims. All proposals for locatable mineral exploration or development are subject to the planning and design requirements governing locatable minerals in 36 CFR part 228, subpart A and the appropriate level of environmental analysis. The plan of operations would be approved subject to modifications identified in the environmental analysis and would be binding on the operator.</P>
        <P>Saleable minerals, also known as common variety mineral materials, are common varieties of sand, stone, gravel, pumice, pumicite, cinders, and clay. The Secretary of Agriculture is solely responsible for disposal of saleable minerals on NFS lands. The Forest Service has complete discretion to refrain from authorizing the disposal of saleable minerals.</P>
        <P>The proposed rule would prohibit the sale of common variety mineral materials in Idaho Roadless Areas that are designated to be managed pursuant to WLR, SAHTS, or primitive themes. This prohibition would be more restrictive than the 2001 rule for these three themes. However, under the proposed § 294.23(b)(1)(vii), the Forest Service would be allowed to build roads associated with the sale or administrative use of common variety mineral materials in areas designated as backcountry “if the use of these mineral materials is incidental to an activity otherwise allowed under the rule” (§ 294.24(e)).   Road construction and reconstruction associated with the sale or administrative use of common variety mineral materials is allowed in GFRG.</P>
        <P>Leasable minerals include oil, gas, coal, phosphate, potassium, sodium, sulphur, gilsonite, oil shale, geothermal resources, and hardrock minerals. There are two general umbrella authorities governing the leasing of these minerals, except for sulphur, geothermal resources, and hardrock minerals, on NFS lands. One of these umbrella authorities, the Mineral Leasing Act of 1920, applies exclusively, and by its terms applies comprehensively, to NFS lands reserved from the public domain. The other, the Mineral Leasing Act for Acquired Lands, applies exclusively, and by its terms applies comprehensively, to acquired NFS lands. The leasing of geothermal resources is governed by free standing statutory authority which applies to all NFS lands. Collectively, these authorities are known as the mineral leasing laws.</P>
        <P>Despite the many authorities governing mineral leasing on NFS lands, there are basic commonalties among the mineral leasing laws. The most fundamental is that the Secretary of the Interior is statutorily charged with the administration of the mineral leasing laws. Consequently, the Department of the Interior (DOI) issues all mineral leases for NFS lands. The Secretary of the Interior also has complete discretion to refrain from leasing any leasable mineral.</P>
        <P>This is not to say that the Forest Service lacks a role with respect to mineral leasing on NFS lands. DOI is statutorily required to obtain the Forest Service's consent before it issues leases for many leasable minerals. The Forest Service also has the right to regulate operations conducted for certain leasable minerals.</P>
        <P>The proposed rule would not seek to restrict retroactively any existing authorizations. The proposed rule would establish limitations on the future exercise of discretion available to Forest Service line officers. It does not impose restrictions on decisions that Congress has allocated to DOI. Nor does the proposed rule effect or seek a withdrawal of the mineral estate as such matters are subject to a separate statutory process established under the Federal Land Policy Management Act. Instead, the proposed rule would instruct Forest Service line officers when exercising their discretionary authority concerning disposal of different mineral materials.</P>
        <P>The Forest Service and State see an opportunity to clarify and remove confusion regarding expectations for mineral leasing and associated road construction activities across the management themes set out in this proposed rule. This is a refinement of the 2001 rule which permitted the leasing and the surface use or occupancy across all roadless areas, but did not allow new roads to be constructed pursuant to new leases. Using the management spectrum associated with the proposed themes, the Forest Service and the State are seeking a balance between the protection of roadless values and the responsible development of mineral resources.</P>

        <P>If promulgated, in designated WLR, SAHTS, or primitive areas, the Forest Service would not recommend, authorize or consent to road<PRTPAGE P="1141"/>construction or reconstruction or surface use and occupancy associated with mineral leases. This leasing restriction is more restrictive than the 2001 rule.</P>
        <P>In backcountry areas, road construction or reconstruction is prohibited except for the leasing of phosphate materials. Surface use or occupancy without road construction or reconstruction is permissible for all mineral leasing.</P>
        <P>In areas designated as GFRG, leasing approvals, including road construction, reconstruction, surface use and occupancy, and associated road access requests are permissible.</P>
        <P>Where authorized, all road construction or reconstruction associated with mining activities allowed under this management theme must be conducted in a way that minimizes effects on surface resources, prevents unnecessary or unreasonable surface disturbance, and complies with all applicable lease requirements, land and resource management plan direction, regulations, and laws. Roads constructed or reconstructed pursuant to this management theme must be decommissioned when no longer needed or when the lease, contract, or permit expires, whichever is sooner.</P>
        <P>There has been considerable debate among various parties offering competing interpretations of the 2001 rule provisions about whether or not ongoing leasing activities can be geographically expanded beyond current lease boundaries; particularly phosphate leasing in the Caribou-Targhee National Forest. The proposed rule contains text at § 294.24(d) that resolves this question in the affirmative. At the effective date of a final rule, existing operations could expand beyond their current boundaries, including such lands as are necessary for access. The DEIS estimates an additional 12,100 acres above the acres under existing lease will potentially be affected. The DEIS also discusses the importance and value of this phosphate leasing to the local communities, the State, and the Nation.</P>
        <HD SOURCE="HD2">Accommodating Change</HD>
        <P>The Forest Service, State of Idaho, and members of the public have expressed confusion over how boundary or other changes were expected to be made under the 2001 rule. The State of Colorado in its roadless area rulemaking petition similarly identified the need for a process to allow future modifications of the management direction to be established in that rulemaking. Based on Forest Service experience with the 2001 rule, as well as other land and resource management and classification systems, the Agency has included in the proposed rule a system to address future corrections and modifications of the allocations made through this rulemaking. The Forest Service is proposing a system that parallels the National Forest Management Act forest plan amendment process, allowing for technical corrections as well as minor or even significant changes. All changes are noticed to the public and public involvement requirements vary depending on the magnitude of the change being made.</P>
        <P>The proposed rule applies a two tiered approach. Like the 2001 rule, § 294.27(e)(1) expressly provides that technical errors, such as clerical mistakes, errant maps, and so on, can be corrected by the Chief and are effective upon public notice. This provision could also be applied when changes are necessitated by events beyond the scope of this proposed rule, such as Congressional legislation or a conveyance of land by sale, exchange or interchange.</P>

        <P>The second tier of the approach involves a mechanism for modifying boundaries or management direction in other circumstances. The Department believes the proposed rule should allow for changes in management direction due to changed conditions or circumstances. Any modification would be effective only after the Chief provides public notice in the<E T="04">Federal Register</E>. Modifications would be subject to a 30-day notice requirement in all instances; and if the change is determined to be significant by the Chief, notice and comment rulemaking must be undertaken.</P>
        <P>The proposed rule provides factors to assess whether a proposed change is of sufficient magnitude to warrant additional rulemaking or so limited as to not merit such a procedure. This is an admittedly subjective assessment and the expectation is that the Agency will keep foremost in its mind the implications of the change to the roadless character of the area(s). Again, the Forest Service has implemented a similar sliding scale approach for amendment of forest plans for three decades and is confident such a system is workable.</P>
        <P>Examples of when rulemaking would not be expected: (1) Establishment by the Forest Service of a research natural area in a roadless area designated as primitive; (2) changing the designation of a small portion of backcountry adjacent to a large block of GFRG into the GFRG designation; (3) changing the designation of a small portion of backcountry adjacent to a large block of primitive into the primitive designation.</P>
        <P>Examples where rulemaking would be expected: (1) Approving the use of lands designated as primitive to construct and operate an all-season recreation resort complex; (2) geothermal exploration has discovered a significant energy field in an area designated as primitive and the Forest Service proposes that a portion of the roadless area be designated as GFRG to allow development and transmission line corridors; (3) during a forest plan revision the Forest Service recommends two primitive areas for wilderness designation; therefore, the Agency proposes their designations be changed to WLR.</P>
        <P>The Department does not anticipate extensive adjustments will occur under this provision. The provision would provide public confidence that if adjustments need to be considered, the process will be both open to and understood by all interested parties.</P>
        <HD SOURCE="HD1">Conclusion</HD>
        <P>The USDA, Forest Service, and the State of Idaho are committed to conserving and managing Idaho Roadless Areas under the context of the Agency's multiple-use mandate and consider roadless areas an important component of the NFS. The Department, Agency, and State believe that establishing a state-specific rule, based on the petition submitted by the State, allows state-specific consideration of the needs of these areas and is an appropriate solution to address the challenges of managing Idaho Roadless Areas.</P>
        <P>Collaborating with the State on the long-term strategy for the management of Idaho Roadless Areas allows for the recognition of national values and local situations and resolution of unique resource management challenges. Collaboration with others who have a strong interest in the conservation and management of inventoried roadless areas will also help to ensure balanced management decisions that maintain the most important characteristics and values of those areas.</P>

        <P>The proposed rule envisions a sliding scale of designating themes for the management of Idaho Roadless Areas. From most restrictive to least restrictive, the themes are Wild Land Recreation; Special Areas of Historic or Tribal Significance; Primitive; Backcountry/Restoration; and General Forest, Rangeland, and Grassland. Prohibitions with exceptions or permissions with conditions for road construction, discretionary mineral development, and timber cutting are proposed for each theme.<PRTPAGE P="1142"/>
        </P>

        <P>USDA invites written comments on both the proposed rule and the draft environmental impact statement and will consider those comments in developing the final rule and final environmental impact statement. The final rule will be published in the<E T="04">Federal Register</E>.</P>
        <HD SOURCE="HD1">Regulatory Certifications</HD>
        <HD SOURCE="HD2">Regulatory Planning and Review</HD>
        <P>This proposed rule was reviewed under USDA procedures, Executive Order 12866 issued September 30, 1993 (E.O. 12866), as amended by E.O. 13422 on Regulatory Planning and Review, and the major rule provisions of the Small Business Regulatory Enforcement and Fairness Act (5 U.S.C. 800). It has been determined that this proposed rule is not an economically significant rule. This proposed rule will not have an annual effect of $100 million or more on the economy nor adversely affect productivity, competition, jobs, the environment, public health or safety, nor state or local governments. This proposed rule is not expected to interfere with an action taken or planned by another agency nor raise new legal or policy issues. This proposed rule will not alter the budgetary impact of entitlements, grants, user fees, or loan programs or the rights and obligations of recipients of such programs. However, due to the level of interest in inventoried roadless areas management, this proposed rule has been designated as significant and is therefore subject to Office of Management and Budget review under E.O. 13422.</P>
        <P>A regulatory impact analysis has been prepared for this proposed rule. The benefits, costs, and distributional effects of three alternatives referred to as follows: 2001 Roadless Rule (2001 rule), existing forest plans (existing plans), and the Idaho State Petition (proposed rule) are analyzed over a 15-year time period. As of the printing of this proposed rule, the 2001 rule is in operation by court order and represents the legal status quo. In absence of the 2001 rule, management would be governed by existing plans and agency interim direction. As such, for the purpose of regulatory impact analysis, the 2001 rule and existing forest plans are assumed to represent a range of baseline conditions or goods and services provided by national forests and grasslands in the near future in the absence of the proposed rule.</P>
        <P>The proposed rule is programmatic in nature, consisting of direction for road construction, road reconstruction, timber cutting, and discretionary mineral activities, which would be applied to future management activities in Idaho Roadless Areas. The purpose of the proposed rule is to provide State-specific direction for the conservation and management of inventoried roadless areas within the State. The proposed rule integrates local management concerns with the national objectives for protecting roadless area values and characteristics.</P>
        <P>The proposed rule would establish five management themes to clarify direction within Idaho Roadless Areas in contrast to the single management strategy assigned to all Idaho Roadless Areas under the 2001 rule. The five themes are Wild Land Recreation (WLR), Primitive, Special Areas of Heritage and Tribal Significance (SAHTS), Backcountry/Restoration (backcountry), and General Forest, Rangeland, and Grassland (GFRG). Management direction under the 2001 rule is most similar to the backcountry/ restoration theme under the proposed rule. The proposed rule does not prescribe site-specific activities on the ground, nor does it irreversibly commit resources. Direct effects of site-specific activities would be disclosed through NEPA project-level analysis when site-specific decisions are made.</P>
        <P>In general, the proposed rule does not affect the efficiency of individual operations or activities (such as, an individual timber sale) associated with forest resources and/or services, but may instead affect the number or extent of opportunities as a function of activities permitted within Idaho Roadless Areas on NFS lands. Because the proposed rule does not prescribe site-specific activities, it is difficult to quantify the benefits of the alternatives. It should also be emphasized that the types of benefits derived from roadless characteristics and the uses of roadless areas are far ranging and include a number of non-market and non-use benefit categories. Consequently, benefits are not monetized, nor are net present values or benefit cost ratios estimated. Instead, increases and/or losses in benefits are discussed separately for each resource area in a quantitative or qualitative manner. Benefits and costs are organized and discussed in the context of `local resource concerns' and `roadless characteristics' in an effort to remain consistent with overall purpose of the proposed rule, recognizing that benefits associated with local concerns may trigger indirect benefits in roadless characteristics in some cases (such as, forest health). Table 1 summarizes the potential benefits and costs of the proposed rule, the 2001 roadless rule, and existing plan alternatives.</P>
        <P>Distributional effects or economic impacts, in terms of jobs and labor income, are quantified for five economic areas (EAs) for the State using regional impact models (IMPLAN). Economic impacts are evaluated only for changes in activities directly affected by the proposed rule (timber cutting, minerals extraction, and road construction and reconstruction). Distributional effects are also discussed in relation to revenue sharing, small entities, and to the resource dependent communities (counties) most likely to be affected by the proposed rule. Table 2 summarizes distributional effects and economic impacts of the proposed rule and alternatives.</P>

        <P>Details about the environmental effects of the proposed rule can be found in the Roadless Area Conservation; National Forest System Lands in Idaho Draft Environmental Impact Statement (DEIS). Effects on opportunities for small entities under the proposed rule are discussed in the context of Executive Order 13272 regarding proper consideration of small entities and the Small Business Regulatory Enforcement Fairness Act of 1996 (SBREFA), which amended the Regulatory Flexibility Act (5 U.S.C. 601,<E T="03">et seq.</E>).</P>
        <HD SOURCE="HD2">Local Resource Concerns</HD>
        <P>Local resource concerns include ensuring access, protecting communities, property, and resources from risk of wildfire; as well as protecting forests from the adverse effects of wildfire, insects, and disease.</P>

        <P>Approximately 1.4 million acres within Idaho Roadless Areas are estimated to be at risk of 25% or more tree mortality (that is, high risk) over the next 15 years. Of the 1.4 million acres at risk, approximately 26,000 acres are within the GFRG and 939,000 acres in the backcountry theme under the proposed rule. The areas identified within the GFRG theme would have the most potential to be treated given their treatment flexibility. Timber cutting in the backcountry theme would be done on a limited basis and would be done to retain roadless characteristics. Under existing plans, the high-risk acreage assigned to the GRFG theme increases to 190,000 acres while 730,000 acres are assigned to backcountry. Existing plans provide flexible opportunities to treat high-risk acres through timber cutting on lands assigned to both of these themes without constraints associated with roadless characteristic retention. Projected levels of treatment, involving timber cutting, are greatest under<PRTPAGE P="1143"/>existing plans (2,800 acres per year; 42,000 acres over 15 years) followed by the proposed rule (800 acres per year; 12,000 acres over 15 years). Treatments associated with projected harvests over the next 15 years are likely to be effective in reducing the risks from insects and disease in areas treated.</P>
        <P>Timber cutting associated with treatments are estimated to be 0.5 million board feet (MMBF), 14 MMBF, and 4 MMBF per year for the 2001 rule, existing plans, and the proposed rule respectively and account for 0.5%, 11.5%, and 3% of average annual harvests from National Forest land in Idaho. A majority of the volume under the proposed rule is projected to occur within the northern economic area (EA).</P>
        <P>Approximately 1 million acres of Idaho Roadless Areas are within the wildland urban interface (WUI), and about 40% of those acres (450,000) are in high priority fire risk areas as defined by fire regime and condition class. Opportunities to use a full range of treatment methods to address severe wildfire risk, particularly within the WUI, are substantially greater under the proposed rule relative to the 2001 rule. Treatment flexibility expands only slightly under the proposed rule compared to existing plans. Approximately 71% of WUI acreage within Idaho Roadless Areas is assigned to management themes that permit flexible treatment methods that include road construction under the proposed rule, compared to 69% under existing plans. However, fewer overall acres are projected for treatment under the proposed rule due to other constraints (such as, maintenance of roadless characteristics). Projected harvests could treat the equivalent of approximately 5% of high priority areas within the WUI under the proposed rule over a 15-year period. In contrast, approximately 14% of high priority WUI areas could be treated under existing plans. An insignificant amount of high priority WUI acreage would be treated under the 2001 rule.</P>
        <P>Phosphate mining activity on existing leases will be similar across the alternatives over the next 15 years. However, 12,100 acres of unleased known phosphate reserves within Idaho Roadless Areas will be made available for future leasing or lease expansion under the proposed rule that would not be accessible under the 2001 rule. Mining in these areas could generate an estimated 545 million tons of phosphate ore, but development of these areas is expected to occur over an extended period (50+ years). All unleased areas with known phosphate reserves (approximately 13,400 acres; estimated 603 million tons) will be available for leasing over an extended period under existing plans.</P>
        <P>There are negligible opportunities for geothermal development under the 2001 rule. Geothermal opportunities increase under the proposed rule where 233,600 acres of high geothermal potential, on land with feasible slopes, are made available because of GFRG theme assignments. These opportunities increase slightly under existing plans to 249,500 acres. The existing plans provide for greater development opportunities in areas of medium geothermal potential with feasible slopes (457,700 acres) compared to the proposed rule (140,800 acres). There are currently no existing geothermal leases on National Forest land in Idaho.</P>
        <P>The proposed rule is not expected to have a significant impact on other local resource issues or concerns including livestock grazing, saleable minerals, other leasable minerals (oil, gas, and coal), locatable minerals, or energy corridors.</P>
        <HD SOURCE="HD2">Roadless Characteristics</HD>
        <P>Roadless characteristics include high quality soil, water (including drinking water), and air; plant and animal diversity; habitat for sensitive species; reference landscapes and high scenic quality; primitive and semi-primitive recreation; cultural resources; and other locally identified unique characteristics. Shifts in the number of roadless area acres assigned to more permissive management themes can increase the potential for adverse effects to roadless characteristics. However, reasonably foreseeable effects in the next 15 years are likely to be limited by levels of road construction/reconstruction, timber cutting, and leasable minerals activity actually projected to occur during that time.</P>
        <P>Based on the relative acreage assigned to different management themes, the proposed rule creates greater potential for reductions in scenic integrity compared to the 2001 rule but lower potential relative to existing plans. The proposed rule assigns 5.5 million acres to management themes (GFRG, backcountry) that permit activities that could trigger moderate reductions in scenic integrity. Theme assignments under existing plans create potential for triggering similar integrity reductions on 5.9 million acres. Potential reductions would be moderated under the backcountry theme due to more restrictive management requirements relative to GFRG. There is little potential for reductions in scenic integrity under the 2001 rule. Reasonably foreseeable reductions in scenic integrity from timber cutting are limited to those resulting from projected harvest levels. Foreseeable reductions in scenic integrity from high to low levels from long-term development (50+ years) of unleased phosphate reserves are similar for the proposed rule (12,100 acres) and existing plans (13,400 acres) and confined to the Caribou Targhee National Forest. Reductions in scenic integrity associated with development of existing phosphate leases are similar across the three alternatives.</P>
        <P>The proposed rule does not directly affect wilderness designations in the context of the National Wilderness Preservation System, but the changes in activities permitted within Idaho Roadless Areas under the proposed rule have the potential to affect the degree to which Idaho Roadless Areas are considered for future wilderness designation. Reductions in wilderness characteristics are most likely to occur in areas assigned to the GFRG theme (1.262 million acres under existing plans; 609,500 acres under the proposed rule). Activities may not change wilderness characteristics if the effects of prior activities are still evident within GFRG areas. Acreage recommended for wilderness increases from 1,320,900 under existing plans (that is, current wilderness recommendations) to 1,378,600 under the proposed rule, primarily through assignment of areas to the wild land recreation theme. A vast majority of acreage is likely to retain existing wilderness characteristics under the 2001 rule, and no changes occur regarding recommended wilderness under the 2001 rule.</P>
        <P>No measurable differences in dispersed recreation opportunities are expected across alternatives. Losses in dispersed recreation associated with development of existing phosphate leases are equal for all alternatives; development of future leases will affect opportunities but not within 15 years (that is, 50 years). Perceptions of remoteness and solitude may be affected in dispersed recreation areas where timber cutting and road construction occur, but effects are constrained by projected levels of these activities.</P>

        <P>Opportunities for developed recreation are limited under the proposed rule but increase to some extent under existing plans, though reasonably foreseeable development is minimal. Opportunities for maintaining dispersed recreation opportunities are high under the 2001 rule, with little potential for increases in developed recreation opportunities. Concerns about access and designations for motorized versus non-motorized recreation were raised in comments<PRTPAGE P="1144"/>during scoping, however, the proposed rule does not provide direction on where and when off highway vehicle (OHV) use would be permissible and makes clear that travel planning-related actions should be addressed through travel management planning and individual forest plans.</P>
        <P>The potential for adverse effects to plant, wildlife, and aquatic species and habitat is lower under the proposed rule, compared to existing plans due to fewer acres assigned to more permissive themes. However, reasonably foreseeable effects are constrained by projected levels of road construction/reconstruction, timber cutting, and leasable minerals activity over the next 15 years. Acreage assigned to wild land, primitive, and SAHTS themes should have a beneficial effect on sensitive species and habitat. Acreage under these themes contains 289 occurrences of known sensitive plant populations (out of a total of 666) compared to 293 occurrences on similar themes under existing plans. The management prescriptions under the 2001 rule are likely to have beneficial effects on sensitive species, as well as biodiversity.</P>
        <P>Road building associated with timber cutting will have a negligible effect on high hazard soils under all alternatives. Road building is likely to affect high hazard soils in areas associated with existing phosphate leases but effects are equivalent across alternatives. Similar effects associated with future leases are possible but not likely to occur within the next 15 years under the proposed rule and existing plans (future leases are not feasible under the 2001 rule).</P>
        <P>The proposed rule is expected to have negligible adverse effects on other resources associated with roadless characteristics including cultural resources, air, water, climate change, non-timber products, and outfitter and guide opportunities based on reasonably foreseeable activity projections. Any adverse impacts to these resources and services would be addressed through analysis conducted in accordance with NEPA and minimized through compliance with forest plan guidelines.</P>
        <HD SOURCE="HD2">Agency Costs and Revenues</HD>
        <P>Agency costs and revenues are summarized in Table 1. Aggregate timber program costs under the proposed rule are expected to be greater than costs under the 2001 rule and lower than costs under existing plans when considering projected levels of timber cutting. Treatment costs per acre are expected to be lower under the proposed rule and existing plans compared to the 2001 rule due to greater flexibility regarding treatment methods under the GFRG theme. Greater acreage assigned to GFRG under existing plans implies potential for some gains in treatment cost effectiveness relative to the proposed rule. Lower costs imply greater capacity for generating viable sales and positive net revenues for a given project. Net revenues may increase under the proposed rule relative to the 2001 rule, primarily for the Idaho Panhandle NF and the Northern economic area (EA) based on projected levels of timber cutting. However, net revenues may decrease under the proposed rule when compared to revenues generated by projected timber cutting under existing plans for the Idaho Panhandle, Clearwater, and Nez Perce National Forests.</P>
        <P>Projected total miles of new roads (constructed and reconstructed) are 15, 180, and 60 miles over the next 15 years under the 2001 rule, existing plans, and the proposed rule respectively. Today, approximately 1,800 miles of roads (include forest, other public, private, and unauthorized roads) exist on 5% of the land within Idaho Roadless Areas. Agency costs related to roads (e.g., administration, planning, maintenance) are not likely to change significantly under the proposed rule based on projected construction/reconstruction levels, and due to the types of roads constructed (such as, temporary, single-purpose).</P>
        <HD SOURCE="HD2">Distributional Effects</HD>
        <P>The distributional effects of the proposed rule are quantified for reasonably foreseeable levels of timber cutting and road construction projected to occur over the next 15 years (see Table 2). The majority of employment and income impacts are projected to occur in the southeastern EA (due to leasable minerals), the northern EA (due to timber cutting), and to some extent in the central EA. Predicted amounts of phosphate output from Idaho Roadless Areas are not expected to differ across alternatives over the next 15 years, implying that jobs and labor income contributed by phosphate activities are constant across alternatives.</P>
        <P>Phosphate mining on existing leases is estimated to contribute the greatest number of jobs and income, but jobs from this sector will not differ by alternative. Timber cutting is primarily responsible for differences in jobs and income across alternatives. Projected harvest and accompanying road construction under the proposed rule is estimated to contribute an additional 80 jobs and $1.6 million in income per year, relative to conditions under the 2001 rule. These changes are expected to occur in the northern (Idaho Panhandle NF) and southeastern (Caribou/Targhee NF) economic areas. In contrast, annual employment and income are estimated to be lower under the proposed rule compared to existing plans by 221 jobs and $6 million in labor income. These effects are likely to occur within the northern, southeastern, and central (Clearwater NF) economic areas.</P>
        <P>Timber-dependent counties where changes in harvest opportunities and corresponding jobs and income may have the most significant impact on local economies are identified by economic area. Nine counties are identified for the northern EA, while five such counties are located in the central EA, one of which is located in the State of Washington. One additional county is located in the southeastern EA. Little or no potential for adverse impacts to the local economy is predicted for these counties under the proposed rule relative to the 2001 rule, but some potential for adverse impacts exists compared to existing plans.</P>

        <P>Payments to counties are expected to remain the same under all alternatives as long as the Secure Rural Schools and Community Self-Determination Act (SRSA) remains in effect. If SRSA is allowed to lapse, the timber-dependent counties noted above are likely to experience the greatest loss. Mineral-based payments to states are a function of receipts from leasable minerals, including receipts from phosphate operations, but no differences in phosphate production are projected across alternatives.<PRTPAGE P="1145"/>
        </P>
        <GPOTABLE CDEF="s100,r100,r100,r100" COLS="4" OPTS="L2,i1">
          <TTITLE>Table 1.—Summary of Net Benefits of the Proposed Rule and Alternatives</TTITLE>
          <BOXHD>
            <CHED H="1">Category</CHED>
            <CHED H="1">2001 Roadless rule</CHED>
            <CHED H="1">Existing plans</CHED>
            <CHED H="1">Proposed rule</CHED>
          </BOXHD>
          <ROW EXPSTB="03" RUL="s">
            <ENT I="21">
              <E T="02">LOCAL RESOURCE CONCERNS</E>
            </ENT>
          </ROW>
          <ROW EXPSTB="03" RUL="s">
            <ENT I="21">
              <E T="02">Forest Health</E>
            </ENT>
          </ROW>
          <ROW EXPSTB="00">
            <ENT I="01">Insects and Disease</ENT>
            <ENT>Most of the 1.4 million acres currently at risk of 25% mortality or significant growth loss will remain untreated</ENT>
            <ENT O="xl">Opportunities for treatment under GFRG and backcountry themes:<LI>• 190,000 acres of high risk (9) forest assigned to GFRG</LI>
              <LI>• 730,000 acres of high risk forest assigned to backcountry</LI>
            </ENT>
            <ENT>Opportunities for treatment under GFRG and backcountry themes:<LI>• 26,000 acres of high risk (9) forest assigned to GFRG.</LI>
              <LI>• 940,000 acres of high risk forest assigned to backcountry.</LI>
            </ENT>
          </ROW>
          <ROW>
            <ENT I="22"/>
            <ENT O="xl"/>
            <ENT>Projected treatments on 42,000 acres likely to be effective over 15 years</ENT>
            <ENT>Backcountry treatments must be for forest health and/or hazardous fuels reductions, and retain roadless characteristics.</ENT>
          </ROW>
          <ROW>
            <ENT I="22"/>
            <ENT O="xl"/>
            <ENT O="xl"/>
            <ENT>Projected treatments on 12,000 acres likely to be effective over 15 years.</ENT>
          </ROW>
          <ROW>
            <ENT I="01">Noxious Weeds</ENT>
            <ENT>Spreading is unlikely given limited potential for soil disturbance. 28,000 acres of weeds currently found in Idaho Roadless Areas</ENT>
            <ENT>Some potential for spreading based on acreage assigned to GFRG (1.262 million); the limited degree of projected road construction, timber cutting, and mineral activity will minimize the potential for spreading. 8,300 acres of weeds currently found in GFRG</ENT>
            <ENT>Some potential for spreading based on acreage assigned to GFRG (609,500 acres); the limited degree of projected construction, harvest and mineral activity would minimize the potential for spreading. 2,600 acres of noxious weeds currently found in GFRG.</ENT>
          </ROW>
          <ROW RUL="s">
            <ENT I="01">Fuel Management</ENT>
            <ENT>Road construction not permitted in conjunction with treatments on 100% of wildland urban interface (WUI)<LI>Treatments more expensive; insignificant acreage treated relative to acres at risk. Limited capacity to treat high priority condition class 2 and 3 areas</LI>
              <LI>Does not directly permit timber cutting to reduce risk of unwanted wildland fire</LI>
            </ENT>
            <ENT>Road construction permitted in conjunction with treatments on 69% of the WUI<LI>Mechanical treatments without road construction may be permitted on 22% of the WUI</LI>
              <LI>Mechanical treatments not permitted on 9% of the WUI (7)</LI>
              <LI>Projected harvests could treat 14% of high priority areas (i.e., fire regimes I, II, and III, condition class 2 and 3) within WUIs or 1% of high priority areas overall</LI>
              <LI>May permit timber cutting to reduce risk of unwanted wildland fire</LI>
            </ENT>
            <ENT>Road construction permitted in conjunction with treatments on 71% of the wildland urban interface (WUI).<LI>Mechanical treatments, without road construction may be permitted on 19% of the WUI.</LI>
              <LI>Mechanical treatments not permitted on 10% of the WUI (7).</LI>
              <LI>Projected harvests could treat 5% of high priority areas (Fire Regimes I, II and III, Condition Class 2 and 3) within WUIs or less than half a percent of high priority areas overall.</LI>
              <LI>Directly permits timber cutting to reduce risk of unwanted wildland fires in the primitive, backcountry, and GFRG themes.</LI>
            </ENT>
          </ROW>
          <ROW EXPSTB="03" RUL="s">
            <ENT I="21">
              <E T="02">Timber Cutting—Projected</E>
            </ENT>
          </ROW>
          <ROW EXPSTB="00">
            <ENT I="01">Projected timber cutting</ENT>
            <ENT>0.5 MMBF/year<LI>(0.5% of annual average)(1)</LI>
            </ENT>
            <ENT>14 MMBF/year<LI>(11.5% of annual average)(1)</LI>
            </ENT>
            <ENT>4 MMBF/year.<LI>(3% of annual average)(1).</LI>
            </ENT>
          </ROW>
          <ROW RUL="s">
            <ENT I="01">Vegetation and Fuels Treatments</ENT>
            <ENT>100 acres/year<LI>1,500 acres over 15 years</LI>
            </ENT>
            <ENT>2,800 acres/year<LI>42,000 acres over 15 years</LI>
            </ENT>
            <ENT>800 acres/year.<LI>12,000 acres over 15 years.</LI>
            </ENT>
          </ROW>
          <ROW EXPSTB="03" RUL="s">
            <ENT I="21">
              <E T="02">Roads—Projected (miles per year)</E>
            </ENT>
          </ROW>
          <ROW EXPSTB="00">
            <ENT I="01">Permanent—Constructed</ENT>
            <ENT>0.8</ENT>
            <ENT>4.8</ENT>
            <ENT>0.8.</ENT>
          </ROW>
          <ROW>
            <ENT I="01">Temporary—Constructed</ENT>
            <ENT>0.2</ENT>
            <ENT>2.2</ENT>
            <ENT>1.7.</ENT>
          </ROW>
          <ROW>
            <ENT I="01">Reconstructed</ENT>
            <ENT>0</ENT>
            <ENT>5</ENT>
            <ENT>1.5.</ENT>
          </ROW>
          <ROW>
            <ENT I="01">Total New Roads</ENT>
            <ENT>1.0<LI>(15 miles over 15 years)</LI>
            </ENT>
            <ENT>12<LI>(180 miles over 15 years)</LI>
            </ENT>
            <ENT>4.0<LI>(60 miles over 15 years).</LI>
            </ENT>
          </ROW>
          <ROW>
            <ENT I="01">Decommissioned</ENT>
            <ENT>1</ENT>
            <ENT>4</ENT>
            <ENT>3.</ENT>
          </ROW>
          <ROW>
            <ENT I="01">Net Road Miles</ENT>
            <ENT>0</ENT>
            <ENT>8</ENT>
            <ENT>1.</ENT>
          </ROW>
          <ROW RUL="s">
            <ENT I="22"/>
            <ENT O="xl"/>
            <ENT>(120 miles over 15 years)</ENT>
            <ENT>(15 miles over 15 years).</ENT>
          </ROW>
          <ROW EXPSTB="03" RUL="s">
            <PRTPAGE P="1146"/>
            <ENT I="21">
              <E T="02">Leasable Minerals</E>
            </ENT>
          </ROW>
          <ROW EXPSTB="00" RUL="s">
            <ENT I="01">Leasable Resources: Phosphate (existing leases)</ENT>
            <ENT A="L02">Projected output is equal across all alternatives because (i) none of the alternatives prohibit road construction and reconstruction associated with existing leases and (ii) existing leases are expected to meet demand in reasonably foreseeable future. Approximately 2 million tons per year of phosphate ore projected to be mined from approximately 8,100 Idaho Roadless Area acres under existing leases under all alternatives over an extended period of 15 years or more (6).</ENT>
          </ROW>
          <ROW RUL="n,s">
            <ENT I="01">Leasable Resources: Phosphate (future leases)</ENT>
            <ENT>Opportunities to recover phosphate from unleased known phosphate areas within Idaho Roadless Areas are negligible</ENT>
            <ENT>Estimated 603 million tons of phosphate deposits from 13,400 unleased acres available for development. Development projected to occur only over extended period, over 50+ years. Development could reduce Idaho Roadless Areas acreage on Caribou-Targhee by 1.8%</ENT>
            <ENT>Estimated 545 million tons of phosphate deposits from 12,100 unleased acres available for development (road construction prohibited on primitive theme acres). Development projected to occur only over extended period, over 50+ years. Development could reduce Idaho Roadless Areas acreage on Caribou-Targhee by 1.7%.</ENT>
          </ROW>
          <ROW RUL="n,s">
            <ENT I="01">Leasable Resources: Geothermal Development</ENT>
            <ENT A="L02">Trend data not available to speculate about reasonably foreseeable geothermal development across alternatives. Current lease applications could affect approximately 7,000 acres within Idaho Roadless Areas.</ENT>
          </ROW>
          <ROW RUL="s">
            <ENT I="22"/>
            <ENT>Negligible opportunities for development</ENT>
            <ENT>No opportunities on 40% of acreage<LI>Limited opportunities on 46% of acreage</LI>
              <LI>Open or unrestricted opportunities on 14% of acreage (i.e., 1.262 million GFRG acres)</LI>
              <LI>249,500 acres of high geothermal potential located within GFRG acreage with slopes less than 40% (4)</LI>
              <LI>457,700 acres of medium geothermal potential located within GFRG acreage with slopes less than 40% (4)</LI>
            </ENT>
            <ENT>No opportunities on 93% of Idaho Roadless Areas acreage.<LI>Open or unrestricted opportunities on 7% of acreage (i.e., 609,500 GFRG acres).</LI>
              <LI>233,600 acres of high geothermal potential located within GFRG acreage with slopes less than 40% (4).</LI>
              <LI>140,800 acres of medium geothermal potential located within GFRG acreage with slopes less than 40% (4).</LI>
            </ENT>
          </ROW>
          <ROW EXPSTB="03" RUL="s">
            <ENT I="21">
              <E T="02">Other Resource and Service Areas where Relative Impacts are Insignificant or Negligible Across Alternatives</E>
            </ENT>
          </ROW>
          <ROW EXPSTB="00">
            <ENT I="01">Livestock Grazing</ENT>
            <ENT A="L02">Differences in activity, revenue, and operating costs are expected to be minimal across alternatives. Existing processes will regulate management direction related to grazing (allotments and permitted use).</ENT>
          </ROW>
          <ROW>
            <ENT I="01">Saleable minerals (sand, stone, gravel, pumice, etc.)</ENT>
            <ENT A="L02">Differences in production of saleable minerals are projected to be minimal across alternatives due to the relative inefficiencies of providing saleable minerals from Idaho Roadless Areas.</ENT>
          </ROW>
          <ROW>
            <ENT I="01">Leasable Resources: Oil, Gas, and Coal</ENT>
            <ENT A="L02">Differences in activity and revenue associated with oil, gas, and coal development are expected to be minimal based on existing trends and inventories.</ENT>
          </ROW>
          <ROW>
            <ENT I="01">Locatable minerals (gold, silver, lead, etc.)</ENT>
            <ENT A="L02">None of the alternatives affect rights of reasonable access to prospect and explore lands open to mineral entry and develop valid claims under the General Mining Act of 1872.</ENT>
          </ROW>
          <ROW RUL="s">
            <ENT I="01">Special-Uses: Energy Corridors</ENT>
            <ENT A="L02">None of the proposed corridors designated for oil, gas, and/or electricity under Section 368 of the Energy Policy Act are within Idaho Roadless Areas. Opportunities for non-Section 368 corridors within Idaho Roadless Areas are a function of the themes assigned to the areas proposed for corridor development; differences in opportunities across alternatives cannot be discerned.</ENT>
          </ROW>
          <ROW EXPSTB="03" RUL="s">
            <ENT I="21">
              <E T="02">ROADLESS CHARACTERISTICS</E>
            </ENT>
          </ROW>
          <ROW EXPSTB="03" RUL="s">
            <ENT I="21">
              <E T="02">Scenery</E>
            </ENT>
          </ROW>
          <ROW EXPSTB="00">
            <ENT I="01">Scenic Integrity</ENT>
            <ENT A="L02">Potential reductions from high to low quality on 8,100 acres due to existing phosphate leases, across all alternatives.</ENT>
          </ROW>
          <ROW RUL="s">
            <PRTPAGE P="1147"/>
            <ENT I="22"/>
            <ENT>High or very high scenic integrity retained on most Idaho Roadless Areas</ENT>
            <ENT>Potential for lower scenic quality on 5.5 million acres due to permissions in management prescriptions for timber cutting, road construction/reconstruction and discretionary mineral activities, but reasonably foreseeable losses are small given projections of activities in Idaho Roadless Areas (8)<LI>Management prescriptions on remaining 3.8 million acres expected to protect high to very high scenic integrity</LI>
              <LI>Long-term reductions on 13,400 acres are possible from new phosphate leasing within Idaho Roadless Areas (5)</LI>
            </ENT>
            <ENT>Potential for lower scenic quality on 5.9 million acres due to management theme assignments and associated permissions for timber cutting, road construction/reconstruction and discretionary mineral activities, but reasonably foreseeable losses are small given projections of activities in Idaho Roadless Areas (8).<LI>Management prescriptions on remaining 3.4 million acres expected to protect high to very high scenic integrity.</LI>
              <LI>Long-term reductions on 12,100 acres are possible from new phosphate leasing within Idaho Roadless Areas (5).</LI>
            </ENT>
          </ROW>
          <ROW EXPSTB="03" RUL="s">
            <ENT I="21">
              <E T="02">Wilderness</E>
            </ENT>
          </ROW>
          <ROW EXPSTB="00">
            <ENT I="01">Existing Wilderness Areas and Experience</ENT>
            <ENT>1,726,000 acres of roadless areas located adjacent to existing wilderness<LI>Limited to no indirect effect to wilderness from activities in roadless areas</LI>
            </ENT>
            <ENT>158,000 acres of GFRG and 842,000 acres of backcountry located adjacent to existing wilderness<LI>Limited potential for impacts to wilderness experience</LI>
            </ENT>
            <ENT>9,000 acres of GFRG and 954,000 acres of backcountry located adjacent to existing wilderness.<LI>Limited potential for impacts to wilderness experience.</LI>
            </ENT>
          </ROW>
          <ROW>
            <ENT I="01">Recommended Wilderness</ENT>
            <ENT>No change or effect to recommended wilderness in existing plans</ENT>
            <ENT>Existing plans recommend 1,320,900 as wilderness 1,378,600 acres in wild land recreation<LI>• 57,700 acres of additional protection</LI>
              <LI>Some recommended wilderness areas in the Boulder-White Clouds and Winegar roadless areas would be managed as primitive</LI>
              <LI>6,900 acres in Mallard Larkins would be managed as backcountry</LI>
            </ENT>
          </ROW>
          <ROW RUL="s">
            <ENT I="01">Wilderness Characteristics</ENT>
            <ENT>Majority of roadless areas retain their existing character</ENT>
            <ENT>Areas developed could have reduced wilderness character. Activities in GFRG may not change wilderness character if prior activities are still evident</ENT>
            <ENT>Areas developed could have reduced wilderness character. Activities in GFRG may not change wilderness character if prior activities are still evident.</ENT>
          </ROW>
          <ROW EXPSTB="03" RUL="s">
            <ENT I="21">
              <E T="02">Sensitive Species</E>
            </ENT>
          </ROW>
          <ROW EXPSTB="00" RUL="n,s">
            <ENT I="01">Botanical Resources (Biodiversity), Wildlife, and Aquatic Species and Habitat</ENT>
            <ENT A="L02">Reasonably foreseeable effects to all species from activities on acreage associated with existing phosphate leases apply across all alternatives. All projects and development associated with predicted activities would be subject to NEPA and other regulatory requirements related to monitoring and mitigation for sensitive species.</ENT>
          </ROW>
          <ROW RUL="n,s">
            <ENT I="22"/>
            <ENT>Beneficial effects expected</ENT>
            <ENT>Beneficial effects expected in wild land recreation, primitive, or SAHTS; Some potential risk of adverse effects in management prescriptions similar to backcountry and GFRG</ENT>
            <ENT>Beneficial effects expected in wild land recreation, primitive, or SAHTS; Limited potential risk of adverse effects in backcountry; some potential risk in GFRG.</ENT>
          </ROW>
          <ROW RUL="n,s">
            <ENT I="22"/>
            <ENT A="02">Number of Occurrences of Known Sensitive Plant Populations, by Theme</ENT>
          </ROW>
          <ROW>
            <ENT I="01">Wild Land</ENT>
            <ENT>0</ENT>
            <ENT>127</ENT>
            <ENT>141</ENT>
          </ROW>
          <ROW>
            <ENT I="01">Primitive</ENT>
            <ENT>0</ENT>
            <ENT>166</ENT>
            <ENT>147</ENT>
          </ROW>
          <ROW>
            <ENT I="01">SAHTS</ENT>
            <ENT>0</ENT>
            <ENT>0</ENT>
            <ENT>1</ENT>
          </ROW>
          <ROW>
            <ENT I="01">Backcountry</ENT>
            <ENT>1,165</ENT>
            <ENT>523</ENT>
            <ENT>601</ENT>
          </ROW>
          <ROW>
            <ENT I="01">GFRG</ENT>
            <ENT>0</ENT>
            <ENT>84</ENT>
            <ENT>10</ENT>
          </ROW>
          <ROW>
            <ENT I="01">Forest Plan Special Areas</ENT>
            <ENT>0</ENT>
            <ENT>265</ENT>
            <ENT>265</ENT>
          </ROW>
          <ROW EXPSTB="03" RUL="s">
            <PRTPAGE P="1148"/>
            <ENT I="21">
              <E T="02">Recreation</E>
            </ENT>
          </ROW>
          <ROW EXPSTB="00" RUL="n,s">
            <ENT I="01">Recreation (3)</ENT>
            <ENT>Relatively high potential for maintaining existing dispersed recreation opportunities; little potential for increasing developed recreation<LI>No measurable change to dispersed recreation opportunities. Feeling of remoteness or solitude may change if timber cutting or road construction/reconstruction occurs (projected 1,500 acres timber cutting and 15 miles of road construction/reconstruction over 15 years</LI>
              <LI>No road construction/reconstruction permitted to access new developed recreations sites (9.3 million acres)</LI>
            </ENT>
            <ENT>Greatest opportunity for developed and road-based recreation to occur and expand, but magnitude of shift is tempered by limited amount of construction projected to occur<LI>No measurable change to dispersed recreation opportunities, except if unleased phosphate deposits (13,400 acres) are developed. Feeling of remoteness or solitude may change if timber cutting or road construction/reconstruction occurs (projected 42,000 acres timber cutting and 180 miles of road construction/reconstruction over 15 years</LI>
              <LI>Road construction/reconstruction generally permitted to access new developed recreations sites on management prescriptions similar to backcountry and GFRG (5.5 million acres), but there are no foreseeable developments</LI>
            </ENT>
            <ENT>Potentially the greatest level of protection for dispersed recreation, foreseeable threats from construction and development are remote.<LI>No measurable change to dispersed recreation opportunities, except if unleased phosphate deposits (12,100 acres) are developed. Feeling of remoteness or solitude may change if timber cutting or road construction/reconstruction occurs (projected 12,000 acres timber cutting and 60 miles of road construction/reconstruction over 15 years).</LI>
              <LI>Road construction/reconstruction permitted to access new developed recreations sites management in GFRG (.6 million acres), but there are no foreseeable developments.</LI>
            </ENT>
          </ROW>
          <ROW RUL="n,s">
            <ENT I="01">Special Uses</ENT>
            <ENT A="L02">Reasonably foreseeable differences in effects across alternatives are expected to be minimal given projected levels of road construction and timber cutting. Existing permits unaffected.</ENT>
          </ROW>
          <ROW RUL="s">
            <ENT I="01">Hunting and Fishing</ENT>
            <ENT>No effect to opportunities</ENT>
            <ENT>Opportunities could be affected in locations of phosphate leasing and geothermal development. No effect from timber cutting and limited road construction</ENT>
            <ENT>Opportunities could be affected in locations of phosphate leasing and geothermal development. No effect from timber cutting and limited road construction.</ENT>
          </ROW>
          <ROW EXPSTB="03" RUL="s">
            <ENT I="21">
              <E T="02">Other Resource and Service Areas where Relative Impacts are Negligible or Minimal Across Alternatives</E>
            </ENT>
          </ROW>
          <ROW EXPSTB="00">
            <ENT I="01">Cultural Resources</ENT>
            <ENT A="L02">Before management actions taking place on the ground under any alternative or theme, cultural resource inventories and appropriate mitigation are required by law. Differences in risk to cultural resources are not expected to be significant across alternatives due to projected levels of road construction and short-term use and fate of new roads.</ENT>
          </ROW>
          <ROW RUL="n,s">
            <ENT I="22"/>
            <ENT>Low potential for disturbance and vandalism</ENT>
            <ENT>Low to moderate potential for disturbance and vandalism</ENT>
            <ENT>Low potential for disturbance and vandalism.</ENT>
          </ROW>
          <ROW>
            <ENT I="01">Air, Soils, and Water</ENT>
            <ENT A="L02">Projected levels of road construction and timber cutting across alternatives expected to have minimal effect. Levels of prescribed burning will vary to slight extent but subject to strict guidelines for minimizing air impacts. Minimal differences in effects on impaired surface waters (303(d) listed waters) and surface sources of drinking water. Negligible differences in effects on soils from road construction associated with timber cutting. Effects on high hazard soils from road construction associated with phosphate mining are likely, but effects are equivalent across alternatives for existing leases and projected to occur well in the future (50 years) on the Caribou Targhee NF for unleased areas.</ENT>
          </ROW>
          <ROW>
            <ENT I="01">Climate Change</ENT>
            <ENT A="L02">The magnitude and rapidity of climate change is uncertain, particularly at the finer scales such as Idaho Roadless Areas within forests. Variable impacts across alternatives are therefore not quantified.</ENT>
          </ROW>
          <ROW RUL="s">
            <ENT I="01">Non-timber products</ENT>
            <ENT A="02">Current access for the harvest of non-timber products is not expected to change under the proposed rule. Assignment of Idaho Roadless Area acres to themes that restrict road construction may limit access opportunities for some individuals, but construction may also reduce availability of some species. Projected changes in road miles are minimal across alternatives.</ENT>
          </ROW>
          <ROW EXPSTB="03" RUL="s">
            <ENT I="21">
              <E T="02">AGENCY COSTS AND REVENUES</E>
            </ENT>
          </ROW>
          <ROW EXPSTB="00" RUL="s">
            <ENT I="01">Roads</ENT>
            <ENT A="02">Reasonably foreseeable differences in agency costs (planning, design, and maintenance) are expected to be small given low road mile construction projections, as well as the fact that new roads will often be temporary and/or single-purpose.</ENT>
          </ROW>
          <ROW>
            <PRTPAGE P="1149"/>
            <ENT I="01">Timber Program: Vegetation and Fuels Treatments</ENT>
            <ENT>Lowest total acreage projected for treatment, implying low aggregate timber program costs. However, per unit treatment costs are expected to be highest, implying lower probability of viable sales<LI>Potential loss in net revenue for Idaho Panhandle NF relative to the proposed rule (2)</LI>
            </ENT>
            <ENT>Highest total acreage projected for treatment, implying higher aggregate timber program costs. Per unit treatment costs are expected to be lower, implying higher probability for positive net revenue and viable sales<LI>Potential gain in net revenue for Idaho Panhandle, Clearwater, and Nez Perce NFs, relative to the proposed rule (2)</LI>
            </ENT>
            <ENT>Intermediate amount of acreage projected for treatment, implying moderate aggregate timber program costs, relative to the 2001 rule and existing plans. Per unit treatment costs are expected to be lower, implying higher probability for positive net revenue and viable sales.<LI>Potential gain in net revenue for the Idaho Panhandle NF relative to the 2001 rule, and potential loss in net revenue for the Idaho Panhandle, Clearwater, and Nez Perce NFs, relative to existing plans (2).</LI>
            </ENT>
          </ROW>
          <TNOTE>(1) Percentage of average harvest on all National Forest System land within Idaho that occurred between 2002 and 2006. Harvest primarily attributable to stewardship and treatments for forest health and fuels management.</TNOTE>
          <TNOTE>(2) Projections based on average historic net revenue per unit of harvest and projected harvests. It is recognized that an individual sale within any given forest unit may be below or above cost.</TNOTE>
          <TNOTE>(3) The proposed rule does not provide direction on where and when OHV use would be permissible.</TNOTE>
          <TNOTE>(4) Lease approvals subject to NEPA and other regulatory requirements. Acceptable slopes for leasing likely to be 4%.</TNOTE>
          <TNOTE>(5) Upon completion of mining, scenic levels would be upgraded to a level commensurate with reclamation implemented.</TNOTE>
          <TNOTE>(6) 1,100 acres under existing leases are likely to be mined in 15 years in Sage Creek and Meadow Peak Idaho Roadless Areas, with the remaining acres (7,000) expected to be mined over a more extended period.</TNOTE>
          <TNOTE>(7) Includes land in forest plan special use areas.</TNOTE>
          <TNOTE>(8) Reductions from high/very high to moderate scenic integrity.</TNOTE>
          <TNOTE>(9) 25% or more tree mortality can be expected over the next 15 years.</TNOTE>
        </GPOTABLE>
        <GPOTABLE CDEF="s100,r100,r100,r100" COLS="4" OPTS="L2,i1">
          <TTITLE>Table 2.—Summary of Distributional Effects and Economic Impacts of the Proposed Rule and Alternatives</TTITLE>
          <BOXHD>
            <CHED H="1">Category</CHED>
            <CHED H="1">2001 Roadless rule</CHED>
            <CHED H="1">Existing plans</CHED>
            <CHED H="1">Proposed rule</CHED>
          </BOXHD>
          <ROW EXPSTB="03" RUL="s">
            <ENT I="21">
              <E T="02">Timber Cutting</E>
            </ENT>
          </ROW>
          <ROW EXPSTB="00">
            <ENT I="01">Jobs (1)</ENT>
            <ENT>13/yr</ENT>
            <ENT>304/yr</ENT>
            <ENT>91/yr.</ENT>
          </ROW>
          <ROW>
            <ENT I="01">Labor income (1)</ENT>
            <ENT>$343,000/yr</ENT>
            <ENT>$7,651,000/yr</ENT>
            <ENT>$1,935,000/yr.</ENT>
          </ROW>
          <ROW RUL="s">
            <ENT I="01">Location of Jobs: BEA<LI>Economic Areas (EA)</LI>
            </ENT>
            <ENT>Northern EA (Idaho Panhandle NF)</ENT>
            <ENT>Northern (Idaho Panhandle), southeastern (Caribou/Targhee NF), and central (Clearwater and Nez Perce NF) EAs</ENT>
            <ENT>Northern (Idaho Panhandle), and southeastern (Caribou/Targhee NF) EAs.</ENT>
          </ROW>
          <ROW EXPSTB="03" RUL="s">
            <ENT I="21">
              <E T="02">Leasable Minerals Phosphate</E>
            </ENT>
          </ROW>
          <ROW EXPSTB="00" RUL="n,s">
            <ENT I="01">Jobs and labor income (1)</ENT>
            <ENT A="L02">No changes in jobs (582/year) or labor income ($23.5 million/yr) contributed by phosphate extraction on existing leases within Idaho Roadless Areas, because none of the alternatives affect existing leases.</ENT>
          </ROW>
          <ROW RUL="s">
            <ENT I="22"/>
            <ENT>No new leases on Idaho Roadless Area likely to be feasible</ENT>
            <ENT>Jobs and income from new leases on unleased phosphate reserve areas within Idaho Roadless Areas in the southeastern EA are expected to occur over an extended period (50 yrs)</ENT>
            <ENT>Jobs and income from new leases on unleased phosphate reserve areas within Idaho Roadless Areas in the southeastern EA are expected to occur over an extended period (50 yrs).</ENT>
          </ROW>
          <ROW EXPSTB="03" RUL="s">
            <ENT I="21">
              <E T="02">Road Construction and Reconstruction</E>
            </ENT>
          </ROW>
          <ROW EXPSTB="00">
            <ENT I="01">Jobs (1)</ENT>
            <ENT>2/yr</ENT>
            <ENT>12/yr</ENT>
            <ENT>4/yr.</ENT>
          </ROW>
          <ROW>
            <ENT I="01">Labor income (1)</ENT>
            <ENT>$100,000/yr</ENT>
            <ENT>$467,000/yr</ENT>
            <ENT>$150,000/yr.</ENT>
          </ROW>
          <ROW RUL="s">
            <ENT I="01">Location of Jobs: BEA<LI>Economic Areas (EA)</LI>
            </ENT>
            <ENT>Northern and southeastern EAs</ENT>
            <ENT>Northern, southeastern, and central EAs</ENT>
            <ENT>Northern and southeastern EAs.</ENT>
          </ROW>
          <ROW EXPSTB="03" RUL="s">
            <ENT I="21">
              <E T="02">Revenue Sharing and Resource Dependent Communities</E>
            </ENT>
          </ROW>
          <ROW EXPSTB="00" RUL="s">
            <ENT I="01">Timber-Dependent Counties (2)</ENT>
            <ENT A="L02">Northern EA: Boundary, Bonner, Kootenai, Benewah, Latah, Ferry (WA), Pend Oreille (WA), Shoshone, and Stevens (WA).<LI>Central EA: Clearwater, Idaho, Lewis, Nez Perce, and Asotin (WA).</LI>
              <LI>Southeastern EA: Bear Lake.</LI>
            </ENT>
          </ROW>
          <ROW RUL="s">
            <PRTPAGE P="1150"/>
            <ENT I="01">Revenue Sharing</ENT>
            <ENT A="L02">Payments to counties are expected to remain the same under all alternatives as long as the Secure Rural Schools and Community Self-Determination Act remains in effect. If SRSA is allowed to lapse, timber-dependent counties are likely to experience the greatest loss. Mineral-based payments to states are a function of leasable receipts, but no differences in phosphate production are projected across alternatives over the next 15 years.</ENT>
          </ROW>
          <ROW>
            <ENT I="01">Adverse Impacts to Small Entity Opportunities</ENT>
            <ENT>Greatest potential, given restrictions associated with the backcountry theme</ENT>
            <ENT>Least potential, given fewest management theme restrictions</ENT>
            <ENT>Lower potential relative to the 2001 rule, and potential for some isolated impacts (e.g., northern and central EAs) relative to existing plans.</ENT>
          </ROW>
          <TNOTE>(1) Jobs and income contributed annually (2007$). Based on projected levels of timber cutting, road construction, and phosphate mining output per year, conversion of physical output to final demand $) using FEAST (citation), and application of IMPLAN multipliers (Minnesota IMPLAN Group 2003).</TNOTE>
          <TNOTE>Counties where 10% of total labor income is attributable to timber-related sectors. Little or no potential for adverse impacts to the local economy is predicted for these counties under the proposed rule relative to the 2001 rule but some potential for adverse impacts exists compared to existing plans. Changes in jobs and income are not projected for phosphate mining, but counties dependent on phosphate mining include Caribou, Oneida, Power, and Bannock in the southeastern EA.</TNOTE>
        </GPOTABLE>
        <HD SOURCE="HD2">Proper Consideration of Small Entities</HD>
        <P>This proposed rule has also been considered in light of Executive Order 13272 regarding proper consideration of small entities and the Small Business Regulatory Enforcement Fairness Act of 1996 (SBREFA), which amended the Regulatory Flexibility Act (5 U.S.C. 601, et seq.). The Forest Service with the assistance of the State has determined that this action will not have a significant economic impact on a substantial number of small entities as defined by the E.O. 13272 and SBREFA. Therefore, a regulatory flexibility analysis is not required for this proposed rule.</P>
        <P>For many activities and/or program areas, small entity opportunities under the proposed rule are projected to increase, relative to the 2001 rule because of easing of restrictions on selected activities under the backcountry management theme and adoption of the less-restrictive GFRG management theme for a number of Idaho Roadless Areas under the proposed rule. Exceptions include the potential for losses in small entity opportunities associated with timber cutting in the northern and central EAs, relative to existing plans. However, recent harvests from Idaho Roadless Areas, as represented by projected harvests under the 2001 rule, have been equal to or less than the volumes projected under the proposed rule, and small business shares are being met for the most part for forest units in these EAs. It is unlikely that opportunities for small entities associated with phosphate mining will decrease under the proposed rule given the size of corporations currently operating mines in Idaho and flexibility offered by management theme assignments.</P>
        <HD SOURCE="HD2">Controlling Paperwork Burdens on the Public</HD>

        <P>This proposed rule does not call for any additional recordkeeping or reporting requirements or other information collection requirements as defined in 5 CFR part 1320 that are not already required by law or not already approved for use (OMB 0596-0178) and, therefore, imposes no additional paperwork burden on the public. Accordingly, the review provisions of the Paperwork Reduction Act of 1995 (44 U.S.C. 3501,<E T="03">et seq.</E>) and its implementing regulations at 5 CFR part 1320 do not apply.</P>
        <HD SOURCE="HD2">Federalism</HD>
        <P>The Department has considered this proposed rule under the requirements of Executive Order 13132 issued August 4, 1999 (E.O. 13132), Federalism. The Department has made an assessment that the proposed rule conforms with the Federalism principles set out in E.O. 13132; would not impose any compliance costs on the states; and would not have substantial direct effects on the states, on the relationship between the national government and the states, nor on the distribution of power and responsibilities among the various levels of government. Therefore, the Department concludes that this proposed rule does not have Federalism implications. This proposed rule is based on a petition submitted by the State of Idaho under the Administrative Procedure Act at 5 U.S.C. § 553(e) and pursuant to Department of Agriculture regulations at 7 CFR § 1.28. The State's petition was developed with involvement of local governments. The State has been a cooperating agency for the development of this proposed rule. State and local governments are encouraged to comment on this proposed rule, in the course of this rulemaking process.</P>
        <HD SOURCE="HD2">Consultation With Indian Tribal Governments</HD>
        <P>The United States has a unique relationship with Indian Tribes as provided in the Constitution of the United States, treaties, and federal statutes. These relationships extend to the Federal government's management of public lands and the Forest Service strives to assure that its consultation with Native American Tribes is meaningful, in good faith, and entered into on a government-to-government basis.</P>
        <P>On September 23, 2004, President George W. Bush issued Executive Memorandum Government-to-Government Relationship with Tribal Governments recommitting the Federal government to work with federally recognized Native American Tribal governments on a government-to-government basis and strongly supporting and respecting Tribal sovereignty and self-determination.</P>

        <P>Management of roadless areas has been a topic of interest and importance to Tribal governments. During promulgation of the 2001 Roadless Rule, Forest Service line officers in the field were asked to make contact with Tribes to ensure awareness of the initiative and of the rulemaking process. Outreach to Tribes was conducted at the national forest and grassland level, which is how Forest Service government-to-government dialog with Tribes is typically conducted. Tribal representatives remained engaged<PRTPAGE P="1151"/>concerning these issues during the subsequent litigation and rulemaking efforts.</P>
        <P>The State's petition identifies that a vital part of its public process in developing its petition were the recommendations and comments received from Native American Tribes. The Governor's office was keenly aware of the spiritual and cultural significance some of these areas hold for the Tribes. The State solicited input from the Coeur D'Alene, Kootenai, Nez Perce, Shoshone-Bannock, and Shoshone-Paiute Tribes. The State and Forest Service have endeavored to reflect those interests and concerns in the proposed rule. Based on that input, the State and Forest Service developed a special theme to recognize and address certain roadless areas with special areas of historic or Tribal significance, including Pilot Knob, the Nimiipuu, and Lewis and Clark Historic Trails.</P>
        <P>Pursuant to Executive Order 13175 of November 6, 2000, “Consultation and Coordination with Indian Tribal Governments,” the Department has assessed the impact of this proposed rule on Indian Tribal governments and has determined that the proposed rule does not significantly or uniquely affect Indian Tribal government communities. The proposed rule would establish direction governing the management and protection of Idaho Roadless Areas, however, the proposed rule respects prior existing rights, and it addresses discretionary Forest Service management decisions involving road construction, timber harvest, and some mineral activities. The Department has also determined that this proposed rule does not impose substantial direct compliance costs on Indian Tribal governments. This proposed rule does not mandate Tribal participation in roadless management of the planning of activities in Idaho Roadless Areas. Rather, the Forest Service officials are obligated by other agency policies to consult early with Tribal governments and to work cooperatively with them where planning issues affect Tribal interests.</P>
        <HD SOURCE="HD2">No Takings Implications</HD>
        <P>This proposed rule has been analyzed in accordance with the principles and criteria contained in Executive Order 12630 issued March 15, 1988. It has been determined that the proposed rule does not pose the risk of a taking of private property.</P>
        <HD SOURCE="HD2">Civil Justice Reform</HD>
        <P>This proposed rule has been reviewed under Executive Order 12988, Civil Justice Reform. After adoption of this proposed rule, (1) all State and local laws and regulations that conflict with this proposed rule or that would impede full implementation of this proposed rule will be preempted; (2) no retroactive effect would be given to this proposed rule; and (3) this proposed rule would not require the use of administrative proceedings before parties could file suit in court challenging its provisions.</P>
        <HD SOURCE="HD2">Unfunded Mandates</HD>
        <P>Pursuant to Title II of the Unfunded Mandates Reform Act of 1995 (2 U.S.C. 1531-1538), the Department has assessed the effects of this proposed rule on State, local, and Tribal governments and the private sector. This proposed rule does not compel the expenditure of $100 million or more by State, local, or Tribal governments or anyone in the private sector. Therefore, a statement under section 202 of the Act is not required.</P>
        <HD SOURCE="HD2">Energy Effects</HD>
        <P>This proposed rule has been reviewed under Executive Order 13211 of May 18, 2001, Actions Concerning Regulations That Significantly Affect Energy Supply, Distribution, or Use. It has been determined that this proposed rule does not constitute a significant energy action as defined in the Executive order. As explained above and in greater detail in the DEIS, this proposed rule is not expected to significantly affect energy supplies, distribution, or use. The proposed rule does not disturb existing access or mineral rights, restrictions on saleable mineral materials are narrow, and no oil and gas leasing is currently underway or projected for these lands. The proposed rule also provides regulatory mechanism for consideration of requests for modification of restrictions if adjustments are determined to be necessary in the future. Therefore, this action is not a significant energy action and no Statement of Energy Effects is required.</P>
        <LSTSUB>
          <HD SOURCE="HED">List of Subjects in 36 CFR Part 294</HD>
          <P>National Forests, Recreation areas, Navigation (air), State petitions for inventoried roadless area management.</P>
        </LSTSUB>
        
        <P>Therefore, for the reasons set forth in the preamble, the Forest Service proposes to amend part 294 of Title 36 of the Code of Federal Regulations by adding new subpart C to read as follows:</P>
        <PART>
          <HD SOURCE="HED">PART 294—SPECIAL AREAS</HD>
          <SUBPART>
            <HD SOURCE="HED">Subpart C—Idaho Roadless Area Management</HD>
            <SECHD>Sec.</SECHD>
            <SECTNO>294.20</SECTNO>
            <SUBJECT>Purpose.</SUBJECT>
            <SECTNO>294.21</SECTNO>
            <SUBJECT>Definitions.</SUBJECT>
            <SECTNO>294.22</SECTNO>
            <SUBJECT>Idaho Roadless Areas.</SUBJECT>
            <SECTNO>294.23</SECTNO>
            <SUBJECT>Road construction and reconstruction in Idaho Roadless Areas.</SUBJECT>
            <SECTNO>294.24</SECTNO>
            <SUBJECT>Mineral activities in Idaho Roadless Areas.</SUBJECT>
            <SECTNO>294.25</SECTNO>
            <SUBJECT>Timber cutting, sale, or removal in Idaho Roadless Areas.</SUBJECT>
            <SECTNO>294.26</SECTNO>
            <SUBJECT>Other activities in Idaho Roadless Areas.</SUBJECT>
            <SECTNO>294.27</SECTNO>
            <SUBJECT>Scope and applicability.</SUBJECT>
            <SECTNO>294.28</SECTNO>
            <SUBJECT>List of designated Idaho Roadless Areas.</SUBJECT>
          </SUBPART>
          <SUBPART>
            <HD SOURCE="HED">Subpart C—Idaho Roadless Area Management</HD>
            <AUTH>
              <HD SOURCE="HED">Authority:</HD>
              <P>16 U.S.C. 472, 529, 551, 1608, 1613; 23 U.S.C. 201, 205.</P>
            </AUTH>
            <SECTION>
              <SECTNO>§ 294.20</SECTNO>
              <SUBJECT>Purpose.</SUBJECT>
              <P>(a) The purpose of this subpart is to provide, in the context of multiple-use management, lasting protection for designated inventoried roadless areas in the national forests in Idaho. These rules set forth the procedures for management of Idaho Roadless Areas notwithstanding any other regulatory provision set forth in part 294.</P>
              <P>(b) Consistent with the Multiple-Use Sustained-Yield Act of 1960 (16 U.S.C. 528-531), the goal of managing the National Forest System is to sustain in perpetuity the productivity of the land and the multiple uses of its renewable resources. These renewable resources are to be managed so that they are used in the combination that will best meet the needs of the American people.</P>
            </SECTION>
            <SECTION>
              <SECTNO>§ 294.21</SECTNO>
              <SUBJECT>Definitions.</SUBJECT>
              <P>The following terms and definitions apply to this subpart.</P>
              <P>
                <E T="03">At-risk Community:</E>As defined under section 101 of the Healthy Forests Restoration Act the term “at risk-community” means an area:</P>
              <P>(1) That is comprised of:</P>
              <P>(i) An interface community as defined in the notice entitled “Wildland Urban Interface Communities Within the Vicinity of Federal Lands That Are at High Risk From Wildfire” issued by the Secretary of Agriculture and the Secretary of the Interior in accordance with Title IV of the Department of the Interior and Related Agencies Appropriations Act, 2001 (Pub. L. 106-291); or</P>
              <P>(ii) A group of homes and other structures with basic infrastructure and services (such as utilities and collectively maintained transportation routes) within or adjacent to Federal land;</P>

              <P>(2) In which conditions are conducive to a large-scale wildland fire disturbance event; and<PRTPAGE P="1152"/>
              </P>
              <P>(3) For which a significant threat to human life or property exists as a result of a wildland fire disturbance event.</P>
              <P>
                <E T="03">Backcountry/restoration theme:</E>An Idaho Roadless Area classification intended to retain undeveloped character, while providing a variety of recreation opportunities and allowing for limited forest health activities including preserving biological strongholds for a variety of species and maintaining or restoring the characteristics of ecosystem composition and structure.</P>
              <P>
                <E T="03">Forest road:</E>As defined at 36 CFR 212.1, a “forest road” means a road wholly or partly within or adjacent to and serving the National Forest System that the Forest Service determines is necessary for the protection, administration, and utilization of the National Forest System and the use and development of its resources.</P>
              <P>
                <E T="03">General forest, rangeland, and grassland theme:</E>An Idaho Roadless Area classification intended to provide a variety of goods and services as well as a broad range of recreational opportunities and conservation of natural resources.</P>
              <P>
                <E T="03">Idaho roadless areas:</E>Areas designated pursuant to this rule and identified in a set of maps maintained at the national headquarters office of the Forest Service.</P>
              <P>
                <E T="03">Municipal water supply system:</E>As defined under section 101 of the Healthy Forests Restoration Act, the term “municipal water supply system” means the reservoirs, canals, ditches, flumes, laterals, pipes, pipelines, and other surface facilities and systems constructed or installed for the collection, impoundment, storage, transportation, or distribution of drinking water.</P>
              <P>
                <E T="03">Primitive theme:</E>An Idaho Roadless Area classification intended to remain relatively undisturbed by human management activities while allowing for limited forest health activities including preserving biological strongholds for a variety of species and protecting ecological integrity.</P>
              <P>
                <E T="03">Responsible official:</E>The Forest Service line officer with the authority and responsibility to make decisions about protection and management of Idaho Roadless Areas pursuant to this subpart.</P>
              <P>
                <E T="03">Road:</E>As defined at 36 CFR 212.1, a “road” means a motor vehicle route over 50 inches wide, unless identified and managed as a trail.</P>
              <P>
                <E T="03">Road construction and reconstruction:</E>As defined at 36 CFR 212.1, “road construction or reconstruction” means supervising, inspecting, actual building, and incurrence of all costs incidental to the construction or reconstruction of a road.</P>
              <P>
                <E T="03">Road maintenance:</E>The ongoing upkeep of a road necessary to retain or restore the road to the approved road management objective.</P>
              <P>
                <E T="03">Road realignment:</E>Activity that results in a new location of an existing road or portions of an existing road, and treatment of the old roadway.</P>
              <P>
                <E T="03">Roadless characteristics:</E>Resources or features that are often present in and characterize Idaho Roadless Areas, including:</P>
              <P>(1) High quality or undisturbed soil, water, and air;</P>
              <P>(2) Sources of public drinking water;</P>
              <P>(3) Diversity of plant and animal communities;</P>
              <P>(4) Habitat for threatened, endangered, proposed, candidate, and sensitive species, and for those species dependent on large, undisturbed areas of land;</P>
              <P>(5) Primitive, semi-primitive non-motorized, and semi-primitive motorized classes of dispersed recreation;</P>
              <P>(6) Reference landscapes;</P>
              <P>(7) Natural appearing landscapes with high scenic quality;</P>
              <P>(8) Traditional cultural properties and sacred sites; and</P>
              <P>(9) Other locally identified unique characteristics.</P>
              <P>
                <E T="03">Significant risk:</E>A natural resource condition threatening an at-risk community or municipal water supply system.</P>
              <P>
                <E T="03">Special area of historic or tribal significance theme:</E>An Idaho Roadless Area classification intended to be relatively undisturbed by human management activities in order to maintain unique Tribal or historic characteristics.</P>
              <P>
                <E T="03">Substantially altered portion:</E>An area within an Idaho Roadless Area where past road construction, timber cutting, or other uses have materially diminished the area's roadless characteristics.</P>
              <P>
                <E T="03">Temporary road:</E>As defined at 36 CFR 212.1, a “temporary road'' is a road necessary for emergency operations or authorized by contract, permit, lease, or other written authorization that is not a forest road and that is not included in a forest transportation atlas.</P>
              <P>
                <E T="03">Wild land recreation theme:</E>An Idaho Roadless Area classification intended to areas show little evidence of human-caused disturbance, and natural conditions and processes are predominant.</P>
            </SECTION>
            <SECTION>
              <SECTNO>§ 294.22</SECTNO>
              <SUBJECT>Idaho Roadless Areas.</SUBJECT>
              <P>(a)<E T="03">Designations.</E>All National Forest System lands within the State of Idaho listed in § 294.28 are hereby designated as Idaho Roadless Areas.</P>
              <P>(b)<E T="03">Maps.</E>The Chief shall maintain and make available to the public a map of each Idaho Roadless Area, including records regarding any corrections or modifications of such maps pursuant to § 294.27(e).</P>
              <P>(c)<E T="03">Management classifications.</E>Management classifications for Idaho Roadless Areas express a management continuum that includes at one end, a restrictive approach emphasizing passive management and natural restoration approaches, and on the other end, active management designed to accomplish sustainable forest, rangeland, and grassland management. The following management classifications are established:</P>
              <P>(1) Wild Land Recreation,</P>
              <P>(2) Special Areas of Historic or Tribal Significance,</P>
              <P>(3) Primitive,</P>
              <P>(4) Backcountry/Restoration, and</P>
              <P>(5) General Forest, Rangeland, and Grassland</P>
              <P>(d) Activities in Idaho Roadless Areas shall be consistent with the applicable management classification listed for each area under § 294.28.</P>
            </SECTION>
            <SECTION>
              <SECTNO>§ 294.23</SECTNO>
              <SUBJECT>Road construction and reconstruction in Idaho Roadless Areas.</SUBJECT>
              <P>(a)<E T="03">Wild land recreation, special areas of historic or tribal significance, or primitive.</E>Road construction and reconstruction are prohibited in Idaho Roadless Areas listed under § 294.28; however, a road may be constructed or reconstructed in an area listed as wild land recreation, special area of historic or Tribal significance, or primitive when provided by statute, treaty, pursuant to reserved or outstanding rights, or other legal duty of the United States.</P>
              <P>(b)<E T="03">Backcountry/restoration.</E>(1) Road construction and reconstruction are allowed in Idaho Roadless Areas listed under § 294.28 only if the responsible official determines that it meets one or more of the following criteria:</P>
              <P>(i) A road is needed to protect public health and safety in cases of significant risk or imminent threat of flood, wildland fire, or other catastrophic event that, without intervention, would cause the loss of life or property; or to facilitate forest health activities permitted under § 294.25(c)(1);</P>
              <P>(ii) A road is needed to conduct a response action under the Comprehensive Environmental Response, Compensation, and Liability Act (CERCLA) or to conduct a natural resource restoration action under CERCLA, section 311 of the Clean Water Act, or the Oil Pollution Act;</P>

              <P>(iii) A road is needed pursuant to statute, treaty, reserved or outstanding<PRTPAGE P="1153"/>rights, or other legal duty of the United States;</P>
              <P>(iv) Road realignment is needed to prevent resource damage that arises from the design, location, use, or deterioration of a forest road and cannot be mitigated by road maintenance. Road realignment may occur under this paragraph only if the road is deemed essential for public or private access, natural resource management, or public health and safety;</P>
              <P>(v) Road construction is needed to implement a road safety improvement project on a road determined to be hazardous based on accident experience or accident potential on that road; or</P>
              <P>(vi) The Secretary of Agriculture determines that a Federal aid highway project, authorized pursuant to Title 23 of the United States Code, is in the public interest or is consistent with the purpose for which the land was reserved or acquired and no other reasonable and prudent alternative exists.</P>
              <P>(vii) A road is needed in conjunction with activities permissible under the limited mineral activity exceptions set forth in § 294.24.</P>
              <P>(2) Any road constructed pursuant to paragraph (b)(1) of this section must be a temporary road unless the responsible official determines that a forest road meets a criterion set forth in paragraphs (b)(1)(i) through (vii) of this section and the addition of a forest road will not substantially alter roadless characteristics as defined in this proposed rule.</P>
              <P>(3) Maintenance of forest or temporary roads is permissible in areas listed as backcountry/restoration in § 294.28.</P>
              <P>(c)<E T="03">General forest, rangeland, and grassland.</E>(1) A forest or temporary road may be constructed or reconstructed in Idaho Roadless Areas listed in § 294.28 after the necessary environmental analysis is completed.</P>
              <P>(2) Maintenance of forest and temporary roads is permissible as provided in § 294.28.</P>
            </SECTION>
            <SECTION>
              <SECTNO>§ 294.24</SECTNO>
              <SUBJECT>Mineral activities in Idaho Roadless Areas.</SUBJECT>
              <P>(a) Nothing in this subpart shall be construed as expressly or implicitly restricting mineral leases, contracts, permits, and associated activities (including, but not limited to, access and road construction or reconstruction, surface use, and occupancy) authorized prior to the effective date of the final rule; including any subsequent renewal, reissuance, continuation, extension, or modification, or new legal instruments, for mineral and associated activities on these or adjacent lands. Nothing in this subpart shall affect mining activities conducted pursuant to the General Mining Law of 1872.</P>
              <P>(b) After [final rule effective date], the Forest Service will not authorize sale of common variety mineral materials in Idaho Roadless Areas that are listed to be managed pursuant to wild land recreation, special areas of historic or Tribal significance, or primitive themes.</P>
              <P>(c) After [final rule effective date], the Forest Service will not recommend, authorize, or consent to road construction, road reconstruction, or surface occupancy associated with mineral leases in Idaho Roadless Areas that are listed to be managed pursuant to wild land recreation, special areas of historic or Tribal significance, and primitive themes.</P>
              <P>(d) After [final rule effective date], the Forest Service will not recommend, authorize, or consent to road construction or reconstruction associated with mineral leases in Idaho Roadless Areas that are listed as backcountry/restoration; except such road construction or reconstruction may be authorized in association with phosphates leasing. Surface use or occupancy without road construction or reconstruction is permissible for all mineral leasing.</P>
              <P>(e) After [final rule effective date], the Forest Service may authorize the use or sale of common variety mineral materials, and associated road construction or reconstruction to access these mineral materials, in Idaho Roadless Areas that are listed as backcountry/restoration only if the use of these mineral materials is incidental to an activity otherwise allowed under this proposed rule.</P>
              <P>(f) After [final rule effective date], the Forest Service may recommend, authorize, or consent to activities associated with mineral leases in Idaho Roadless Areas that are designated to be managed pursuant to general forest, rangeland, and grassland theme.</P>
              <P>(g) Road construction or reconstruction associated with mining activities allowed under this subsection must be conducted in a manner that minimizes effects on surface resources, prevents unnecessary or unreasonable surface disturbances, and complies with all applicable lease requirements, land and resource management plans except as provided in § 294.27(b), regulations, and laws. Roads constructed or reconstructed pursuant to this subsection must be decommissioned when no longer needed or upon expiration of the lease, contract, or permit, whichever is sooner.</P>
            </SECTION>
            <SECTION>
              <SECTNO>§ 294.25</SECTNO>
              <SUBJECT>Timber cutting, sale, or removal in Idaho Roadless Areas.</SUBJECT>
              <P>(a)<E T="03">Wild land recreation.</E>The cutting, sale, or removal of timber is prohibited unless the responsible official determines:</P>
              <P>(1) It is for personal or administrative use, as provided for in 36 CFR part 223; or</P>
              <P>(2) It is incidental to the implementation of a management activity not otherwise prohibited by this subpart.</P>
              <P>(b)<E T="03">Special areas of historic or tribal significance, or primitive.</E>The cutting, sale, or removal of timber is prohibited unless existing roads or aerial harvest systems are used and the responsible official determines that:</P>
              <P>(1) The cutting, sale, or removal of timber will maintain or improve one or more of the roadless characteristics as defined in this proposed rule and is needed for one of the following purposes:</P>
              <P>(i) To improve threatened, endangered, proposed, or sensitive species habitat; or</P>
              <P>(ii) To maintain or restore the characteristics of ecosystem composition and structure or to reduce the significant risk of wildland fire effects.</P>
              <P>(2) The cutting, sale, or removal of timber is:</P>
              <P>(i) For personal or administrative use, as provided for in 36 CFR part 223; or</P>
              <P>(ii) Incidental to the implementation of a management activity not otherwise prohibited by this subpart.</P>
              <P>(c)<E T="03">Backcountry/restoration.</E>Timber may be cut, sold, or removed if the responsible official determines that one of the following circumstances exists.</P>
              <P>(1) The cutting, sale, or removal of timber will maintain or improve one or more of the roadless characteristics as defined in this proposed rule and is needed for one of the following purposes:</P>
              <P>(i) To improve threatened, endangered, proposed, or sensitive species habitat; or</P>
              <P>(ii) To maintain or restore the characteristics of ecosystem composition and structure or to reduce the significant risk of wildland fire effects.</P>
              <P>(2) The cutting, sale, or removal of timber is:</P>
              <P>(i) For personal or administrative use, as provided for in 36 CFR part 223;</P>
              <P>(ii) Incidental to the implementation of a management activity not otherwise prohibited by this subpart; or</P>

              <P>(iii) In a substantially altered portion of an Idaho Roadless Area designated as backcountry/restoration, which has been altered due to the construction of<PRTPAGE P="1154"/>a forest road and subsequent timber cutting. Both the road construction and subsequent timber cutting must have occurred prior to the effective date of this rule.</P>
              <P>(d)<E T="03">General forest, rangeland, and grassland.</E>Timber may be cut, sold, or removed upon the discretion of the responsible official consistent with the applicable forest plan except as provided in § 294.27(b) after the required site-specific environmental analysis, including public involvement, is completed.</P>
            </SECTION>
            <SECTION>
              <SECTNO>§ 294.26</SECTNO>
              <SUBJECT>Other Activities in Idaho Roadless Areas.</SUBJECT>
              <P>(a)<E T="03">Motorized travel.</E>Nothing in this subpart shall be construed as expressly or implicitly affecting the current or future management status of existing roads or trails in Idaho Roadless Areas. Decisions concerning the future management and/or status of existing roads or trails in Idaho Roadless Areas under this rule shall be made during the applicable travel management processes.</P>
              <P>(b)<E T="03">Grazing.</E>Nothing in this subpart shall be construed as expressly or implicitly affecting the current management status of existing grazing allotments in Idaho Roadless Areas. Future road construction or reconstruction associated with grazing operations shall conform to this rule.</P>
              <P>(c)<E T="03">Motorized equipment and mechanical transport.</E>Nothing in this subpart shall be construed as expressly or impliedly affecting the current or future management status of the existing use of motorized equipment and mechanical transport in Idaho Roadless Areas. Decisions concerning the future management and/or use of motorized equipment and mechanical transport in Idaho Roadless Areas under this rule shall be made during the applicable forest planning processes.</P>
            </SECTION>
            <SECTION>
              <SECTNO>§ 294.27</SECTNO>
              <SUBJECT>Scope and applicability.</SUBJECT>
              <P>(a) This subpart does not revoke, suspend, or modify any permit, contract, or other legal instrument authorizing the occupancy and use of National Forest System land issued prior to [final rule effective date].</P>
              <P>(b) The provisions set forth in this subpart shall take precedence over any inconsistent regulatory provision (including, to the extent it has any current legal effect, the regulations contained in subpart B of this part) or land and resource management plan. This subpart does not compel the amendment or revision of any land and resource management plan.</P>
              <P>(c) This subpart does not revoke, suspend, or modify any project or activity decision made prior to [final rule effective date].</P>
              <P>(d) This subpart is not subject to reconsideration, revision, or rescission in subsequent project decisions or land and resource management plan amendments or revisions undertaken pursuant to 36 CFR part 219.</P>
              <P>(e) Correction or modification may occur under the following circumstances:</P>
              <P>(1)<E T="03">Administrative corrections.</E>The Chief of the Forest Service may issue administrative corrections to the maps of lands identified in § 294.22(b) at any time. Corrections are effective upon public notice. Administrative corrections include, but are not limited to, adjustments that remedy clerical, typographical, mapping errors, or improvements in mapping technology.</P>
              <P>(2)<E T="03">Modifications.</E>The Chief may add to, remove from, or modify the designations and management classifications listed in § 294.28 based on changed circumstances or public need. If such modification would result in a significant change, public involvement comparable to that required for the promulgation of this rule shall be conducted; that is, notice and comment rulemaking. Factors to be considered in assessing the significance of the modifications include location and size, degree of change, and the purpose of the modification. At least 30 days public notice shall be given prior to any non-significant modification of the classifications of lands listed in § 294.28.</P>
              <P>(f) If any provision of the rules in this subpart or its application to any person or to certain circumstances is held invalid, the remainder of the regulations in this subpart and their application remain in force.</P>
              <GPOTABLE CDEF="s50,r75,5,8,8,8,8,8,8" COLS="09" OPTS="L2,i1">
                <TTITLE>§ 294.28 List of Designated Idaho Roadless Areas.</TTITLE>
                <BOXHD>
                  <CHED H="1">Forest</CHED>
                  <CHED H="1">Idaho roadless area</CHED>
                  <CHED H="1">#</CHED>
                  <CHED H="1">Wild land recreation</CHED>
                  <CHED H="1">Primitive</CHED>
                  <CHED H="1">Backcountry restoration</CHED>
                  <CHED H="1">GFRG</CHED>
                  <CHED H="1">SAHTS</CHED>
                  <CHED H="1">Forest plan special areas</CHED>
                </BOXHD>
                <ROW>
                  <ENT I="01">Boise</ENT>
                  <ENT>Bald Mountain</ENT>
                  <ENT>019</ENT>
                  <ENT/>
                  <ENT/>
                  <ENT>X</ENT>
                  <ENT/>
                  <ENT/>
                  <ENT>X</ENT>
                </ROW>
                <ROW>
                  <ENT I="01">Boise</ENT>
                  <ENT>Bear Wallow</ENT>
                  <ENT>125</ENT>
                  <ENT/>
                  <ENT>X</ENT>
                  <ENT/>
                  <ENT/>
                  <ENT/>
                  <ENT>X</ENT>
                </ROW>
                <ROW>
                  <ENT I="01">Boise</ENT>
                  <ENT>Bernard</ENT>
                  <ENT>029</ENT>
                  <ENT/>
                  <ENT/>
                  <ENT>X</ENT>
                  <ENT/>
                  <ENT/>
                  <ENT>X</ENT>
                </ROW>
                <ROW>
                  <ENT I="01">Boise</ENT>
                  <ENT>Black Lake</ENT>
                  <ENT>036</ENT>
                  <ENT/>
                  <ENT/>
                  <ENT>X</ENT>
                  <ENT/>
                  <ENT/>
                  <ENT>X</ENT>
                </ROW>
                <ROW>
                  <ENT I="01">Boise</ENT>
                  <ENT>Blue Bunch</ENT>
                  <ENT>923</ENT>
                  <ENT/>
                  <ENT/>
                  <ENT>X</ENT>
                  <ENT/>
                  <ENT/>
                  <ENT>X</ENT>
                </ROW>
                <ROW>
                  <ENT I="01">Boise</ENT>
                  <ENT>Breadwinner</ENT>
                  <ENT>006</ENT>
                  <ENT/>
                  <ENT/>
                  <ENT>X</ENT>
                  <ENT/>
                  <ENT/>
                  <ENT>X</ENT>
                </ROW>
                <ROW>
                  <ENT I="01">Boise</ENT>
                  <ENT>Burnt Log</ENT>
                  <ENT>035</ENT>
                  <ENT/>
                  <ENT/>
                  <ENT>X</ENT>
                  <ENT/>
                  <ENT/>
                  <ENT>X</ENT>
                </ROW>
                <ROW>
                  <ENT I="01">Boise</ENT>
                  <ENT>Cathedral Rocks</ENT>
                  <ENT>038</ENT>
                  <ENT/>
                  <ENT>X</ENT>
                  <ENT/>
                  <ENT/>
                  <ENT/>
                  <ENT>X</ENT>
                </ROW>
                <ROW>
                  <ENT I="01">Boise</ENT>
                  <ENT>Caton Lake</ENT>
                  <ENT>912</ENT>
                  <ENT/>
                  <ENT/>
                  <ENT>X</ENT>
                  <ENT>X</ENT>
                  <ENT/>
                  <ENT>X</ENT>
                </ROW>
                <ROW>
                  <ENT I="01">Boise</ENT>
                  <ENT>Cow Creek</ENT>
                  <ENT>028</ENT>
                  <ENT/>
                  <ENT>X</ENT>
                  <ENT/>
                  <ENT/>
                  <ENT/>
                  <ENT/>
                </ROW>
                <ROW>
                  <ENT I="01">Boise</ENT>
                  <ENT>Danskin</ENT>
                  <ENT>002</ENT>
                  <ENT/>
                  <ENT>X</ENT>
                  <ENT/>
                  <ENT/>
                  <ENT/>
                  <ENT>X</ENT>
                </ROW>
                <ROW>
                  <ENT I="01">Boise</ENT>
                  <ENT>Deadwood</ENT>
                  <ENT>020</ENT>
                  <ENT/>
                  <ENT>X</ENT>
                  <ENT>X</ENT>
                  <ENT/>
                  <ENT/>
                  <ENT>X</ENT>
                </ROW>
                <ROW>
                  <ENT I="01">Boise</ENT>
                  <ENT>Elk Creek</ENT>
                  <ENT>022</ENT>
                  <ENT/>
                  <ENT/>
                  <ENT>X</ENT>
                  <ENT/>
                  <ENT/>
                  <ENT>X</ENT>
                </ROW>
                <ROW>
                  <ENT I="01">Boise</ENT>
                  <ENT>Grand Mountain</ENT>
                  <ENT>007</ENT>
                  <ENT/>
                  <ENT/>
                  <ENT>X</ENT>
                  <ENT/>
                  <ENT/>
                  <ENT>X</ENT>
                </ROW>
                <ROW>
                  <ENT I="01">Boise</ENT>
                  <ENT>Grimes Pass</ENT>
                  <ENT>017</ENT>
                  <ENT/>
                  <ENT/>
                  <ENT>X</ENT>
                  <ENT>X</ENT>
                  <ENT/>
                  <ENT>X</ENT>
                </ROW>
                <ROW>
                  <ENT I="01">Boise</ENT>
                  <ENT>Hanson Lakes</ENT>
                  <ENT>915</ENT>
                  <ENT>X</ENT>
                  <ENT>X</ENT>
                  <ENT/>
                  <ENT/>
                  <ENT/>
                  <ENT>X</ENT>
                </ROW>
                <ROW>
                  <ENT I="01">Boise</ENT>
                  <ENT>Hawley Mountain</ENT>
                  <ENT>018</ENT>
                  <ENT/>
                  <ENT>X</ENT>
                  <ENT/>
                  <ENT/>
                  <ENT/>
                  <ENT/>
                </ROW>
                <ROW>
                  <ENT I="01">Boise</ENT>
                  <ENT>Horse Heaven</ENT>
                  <ENT>925</ENT>
                  <ENT/>
                  <ENT/>
                  <ENT>X</ENT>
                  <ENT>X</ENT>
                  <ENT/>
                  <ENT/>
                </ROW>
                <ROW>
                  <ENT I="01">Boise</ENT>
                  <ENT>House Mountain</ENT>
                  <ENT>001</ENT>
                  <ENT/>
                  <ENT>X</ENT>
                  <ENT/>
                  <ENT/>
                  <ENT/>
                  <ENT>X</ENT>
                </ROW>
                <ROW>
                  <ENT I="01">Boise</ENT>
                  <ENT>Lime Creek</ENT>
                  <ENT>937</ENT>
                  <ENT/>
                  <ENT>X</ENT>
                  <ENT/>
                  <ENT/>
                  <ENT/>
                  <ENT/>
                </ROW>
                <ROW>
                  <ENT I="01">Boise</ENT>
                  <ENT>Lost Man Creek</ENT>
                  <ENT>041</ENT>
                  <ENT/>
                  <ENT>X</ENT>
                  <ENT/>
                  <ENT/>
                  <ENT/>
                  <ENT>X</ENT>
                </ROW>
                <ROW>
                  <ENT I="01">Boise</ENT>
                  <ENT>Meadow Creek</ENT>
                  <ENT>913</ENT>
                  <ENT/>
                  <ENT/>
                  <ENT>X</ENT>
                  <ENT>X</ENT>
                  <ENT/>
                  <ENT>X</ENT>
                </ROW>
                <ROW>
                  <ENT I="01">Boise</ENT>
                  <ENT>Mt Heinen</ENT>
                  <ENT>003</ENT>
                  <ENT/>
                  <ENT>X</ENT>
                  <ENT/>
                  <ENT/>
                  <ENT/>
                  <ENT/>
                </ROW>
                <ROW>
                  <ENT I="01">Boise</ENT>
                  <ENT>Nameless Creek</ENT>
                  <ENT>034</ENT>
                  <ENT/>
                  <ENT/>
                  <ENT>X</ENT>
                  <ENT/>
                  <ENT/>
                  <ENT/>
                </ROW>
                <ROW>
                  <ENT I="01">Boise</ENT>
                  <ENT>Needles</ENT>
                  <ENT>911</ENT>
                  <ENT>X</ENT>
                  <ENT>X</ENT>
                  <ENT>X</ENT>
                  <ENT>X</ENT>
                  <ENT/>
                  <ENT>X</ENT>
                </ROW>
                <ROW>
                  <ENT I="01">Boise</ENT>
                  <ENT>Peace Rock</ENT>
                  <ENT>026</ENT>
                  <ENT/>
                  <ENT>X</ENT>
                  <ENT>X</ENT>
                  <ENT/>
                  <ENT/>
                  <ENT>X</ENT>
                </ROW>
                <ROW>
                  <ENT I="01">Boise</ENT>
                  <ENT>Poison Creek</ENT>
                  <ENT>042</ENT>
                  <ENT/>
                  <ENT/>
                  <ENT>X</ENT>
                  <ENT/>
                  <ENT/>
                  <ENT/>
                </ROW>
                <ROW>
                  <PRTPAGE P="1155"/>
                  <ENT I="01">Boise</ENT>
                  <ENT>Poker Meadows</ENT>
                  <ENT>032</ENT>
                  <ENT/>
                  <ENT/>
                  <ENT>X</ENT>
                  <ENT/>
                  <ENT/>
                  <ENT>X</ENT>
                </ROW>
                <ROW>
                  <ENT I="01">Boise</ENT>
                  <ENT>Rainbow</ENT>
                  <ENT>008</ENT>
                  <ENT/>
                  <ENT>X</ENT>
                  <ENT/>
                  <ENT/>
                  <ENT/>
                  <ENT>X</ENT>
                </ROW>
                <ROW>
                  <ENT I="01">Boise</ENT>
                  <ENT>Red Mountain</ENT>
                  <ENT>916</ENT>
                  <ENT>X</ENT>
                  <ENT>X</ENT>
                  <ENT>X</ENT>
                  <ENT>X</ENT>
                  <ENT/>
                  <ENT>X</ENT>
                </ROW>
                <ROW>
                  <ENT I="01">Boise</ENT>
                  <ENT>Reeves Creek</ENT>
                  <ENT>010</ENT>
                  <ENT/>
                  <ENT/>
                  <ENT>X</ENT>
                  <ENT/>
                  <ENT/>
                  <ENT/>
                </ROW>
                <ROW>
                  <ENT I="01">Boise</ENT>
                  <ENT>Sheep Creek</ENT>
                  <ENT>005</ENT>
                  <ENT/>
                  <ENT>X</ENT>
                  <ENT/>
                  <ENT/>
                  <ENT/>
                  <ENT>X</ENT>
                </ROW>
                <ROW>
                  <ENT I="01">Boise</ENT>
                  <ENT>Smoky Mountains</ENT>
                  <ENT>914</ENT>
                  <ENT/>
                  <ENT>X</ENT>
                  <ENT/>
                  <ENT/>
                  <ENT/>
                  <ENT>X</ENT>
                </ROW>
                <ROW>
                  <ENT I="01">Boise</ENT>
                  <ENT>Snowbank</ENT>
                  <ENT>924</ENT>
                  <ENT/>
                  <ENT>X</ENT>
                  <ENT/>
                  <ENT/>
                  <ENT/>
                  <ENT/>
                </ROW>
                <ROW>
                  <ENT I="01">Boise</ENT>
                  <ENT>Steel Mountain</ENT>
                  <ENT>012</ENT>
                  <ENT/>
                  <ENT>X</ENT>
                  <ENT/>
                  <ENT/>
                  <ENT/>
                  <ENT>X</ENT>
                </ROW>
                <ROW>
                  <ENT I="01">Boise</ENT>
                  <ENT>Stony Meadows Ten Mile/Black</ENT>
                  <ENT>027</ENT>
                  <ENT/>
                  <ENT>X</ENT>
                  <ENT>X</ENT>
                  <ENT/>
                  <ENT/>
                  <ENT/>
                </ROW>
                <ROW>
                  <ENT I="01">Boise</ENT>
                  <ENT>Warrior</ENT>
                  <ENT>013</ENT>
                  <ENT>X</ENT>
                  <ENT>X</ENT>
                  <ENT/>
                  <ENT>X</ENT>
                  <ENT/>
                  <ENT>X</ENT>
                </ROW>
                <ROW>
                  <ENT I="01">Boise</ENT>
                  <ENT>Tennessee</ENT>
                  <ENT>033</ENT>
                  <ENT/>
                  <ENT/>
                  <ENT>X</ENT>
                  <ENT/>
                  <ENT/>
                  <ENT>X</ENT>
                </ROW>
                <ROW>
                  <ENT I="01">Boise</ENT>
                  <ENT>Whiskey</ENT>
                  <ENT>031</ENT>
                  <ENT/>
                  <ENT/>
                  <ENT>X</ENT>
                  <ENT/>
                  <ENT/>
                  <ENT/>
                </ROW>
                <ROW>
                  <ENT I="01">Boise</ENT>
                  <ENT>Whiskey Jack</ENT>
                  <ENT>009</ENT>
                  <ENT/>
                  <ENT>X</ENT>
                  <ENT/>
                  <ENT/>
                  <ENT/>
                  <ENT/>
                </ROW>
                <ROW>
                  <ENT I="01">Boise</ENT>
                  <ENT>Whitehawk Mountain</ENT>
                  <ENT>021</ENT>
                  <ENT/>
                  <ENT/>
                  <ENT>X</ENT>
                  <ENT>X</ENT>
                  <ENT/>
                  <ENT/>
                </ROW>
                <ROW>
                  <ENT I="01">Boise</ENT>
                  <ENT>Wilson Peak</ENT>
                  <ENT>040</ENT>
                  <ENT/>
                  <ENT>X</ENT>
                  <ENT/>
                  <ENT/>
                  <ENT/>
                  <ENT/>
                </ROW>
                <ROW>
                  <ENT I="01">Caribou</ENT>
                  <ENT>Bear Creek</ENT>
                  <ENT>615</ENT>
                  <ENT/>
                  <ENT>X</ENT>
                  <ENT>X</ENT>
                  <ENT>X</ENT>
                  <ENT/>
                  <ENT>X</ENT>
                </ROW>
                <ROW>
                  <ENT I="01">Caribou</ENT>
                  <ENT>Bonneville Peak</ENT>
                  <ENT>154</ENT>
                  <ENT/>
                  <ENT/>
                  <ENT>X</ENT>
                  <ENT>X</ENT>
                  <ENT/>
                  <ENT>X</ENT>
                </ROW>
                <ROW>
                  <ENT I="01">Caribou</ENT>
                  <ENT>Caribou City</ENT>
                  <ENT>161</ENT>
                  <ENT>X</ENT>
                  <ENT/>
                  <ENT>X</ENT>
                  <ENT>X</ENT>
                  <ENT/>
                  <ENT>X</ENT>
                </ROW>
                <ROW>
                  <ENT I="01">Caribou</ENT>
                  <ENT>Clarkston Mountain</ENT>
                  <ENT>159</ENT>
                  <ENT/>
                  <ENT/>
                  <ENT>X</ENT>
                  <ENT>X</ENT>
                  <ENT/>
                  <ENT/>
                </ROW>
                <ROW>
                  <ENT I="01">Caribou</ENT>
                  <ENT>Deep Creek</ENT>
                  <ENT>158</ENT>
                  <ENT/>
                  <ENT/>
                  <ENT>X</ENT>
                  <ENT>X</ENT>
                  <ENT/>
                  <ENT>X</ENT>
                </ROW>
                <ROW>
                  <ENT I="01">Caribou</ENT>
                  <ENT>Dry Ridge</ENT>
                  <ENT>164</ENT>
                  <ENT/>
                  <ENT/>
                  <ENT>X</ENT>
                  <ENT>X</ENT>
                  <ENT/>
                  <ENT/>
                </ROW>
                <ROW>
                  <ENT I="01">Caribou</ENT>
                  <ENT>Elkhorn Mountain</ENT>
                  <ENT>156</ENT>
                  <ENT/>
                  <ENT/>
                  <ENT>X</ENT>
                  <ENT>X</ENT>
                  <ENT/>
                  <ENT/>
                </ROW>
                <ROW>
                  <ENT I="01">Caribou</ENT>
                  <ENT>Gannett-Spring Creek</ENT>
                  <ENT>111</ENT>
                  <ENT/>
                  <ENT>X</ENT>
                  <ENT>X</ENT>
                  <ENT>X</ENT>
                  <ENT/>
                  <ENT>X</ENT>
                </ROW>
                <ROW>
                  <ENT I="01">Caribou</ENT>
                  <ENT>Gibson</ENT>
                  <ENT>181</ENT>
                  <ENT/>
                  <ENT/>
                  <ENT>X</ENT>
                  <ENT>X</ENT>
                  <ENT/>
                  <ENT/>
                </ROW>
                <ROW>
                  <ENT I="01">Caribou</ENT>
                  <ENT>Hell Hole</ENT>
                  <ENT>168</ENT>
                  <ENT/>
                  <ENT/>
                  <ENT/>
                  <ENT>X</ENT>
                  <ENT/>
                  <ENT>X</ENT>
                </ROW>
                <ROW>
                  <ENT I="01">Caribou</ENT>
                  <ENT>Huckleberry Basin</ENT>
                  <ENT>165</ENT>
                  <ENT/>
                  <ENT/>
                  <ENT>X</ENT>
                  <ENT>X</ENT>
                  <ENT/>
                  <ENT/>
                </ROW>
                <ROW>
                  <ENT I="01">Caribou</ENT>
                  <ENT>Liberty Creek</ENT>
                  <ENT>175</ENT>
                  <ENT/>
                  <ENT/>
                  <ENT>X</ENT>
                  <ENT>X</ENT>
                  <ENT/>
                  <ENT>X</ENT>
                </ROW>
                <ROW>
                  <ENT I="01">Caribou</ENT>
                  <ENT>Meade Peak</ENT>
                  <ENT>167</ENT>
                  <ENT/>
                  <ENT>X</ENT>
                  <ENT>X</ENT>
                  <ENT>X</ENT>
                  <ENT/>
                  <ENT>X</ENT>
                </ROW>
                <ROW>
                  <ENT I="01">Caribou</ENT>
                  <ENT>Mink Creek</ENT>
                  <ENT>176</ENT>
                  <ENT/>
                  <ENT/>
                  <ENT>X</ENT>
                  <ENT>X</ENT>
                  <ENT/>
                  <ENT>X</ENT>
                </ROW>
                <ROW>
                  <ENT I="01">Caribou</ENT>
                  <ENT>Mount Naomi</ENT>
                  <ENT>758</ENT>
                  <ENT>X</ENT>
                  <ENT/>
                  <ENT>X</ENT>
                  <ENT>X</ENT>
                  <ENT/>
                  <ENT/>
                </ROW>
                <ROW>
                  <ENT I="01">Caribou</ENT>
                  <ENT>North Pebble</ENT>
                  <ENT>155</ENT>
                  <ENT/>
                  <ENT/>
                  <ENT>X</ENT>
                  <ENT>X</ENT>
                  <ENT/>
                  <ENT/>
                </ROW>
                <ROW>
                  <ENT I="01">Caribou</ENT>
                  <ENT>Oxford Mountain</ENT>
                  <ENT>157</ENT>
                  <ENT/>
                  <ENT/>
                  <ENT>X</ENT>
                  <ENT>X</ENT>
                  <ENT/>
                  <ENT>X</ENT>
                </ROW>
                <ROW>
                  <ENT I="01">Caribou</ENT>
                  <ENT>Paris Peak</ENT>
                  <ENT>177</ENT>
                  <ENT/>
                  <ENT/>
                  <ENT>X</ENT>
                  <ENT>X</ENT>
                  <ENT/>
                  <ENT/>
                </ROW>
                <ROW>
                  <ENT I="01">Caribou</ENT>
                  <ENT>Pole Creek</ENT>
                  <ENT>160</ENT>
                  <ENT/>
                  <ENT/>
                  <ENT>X</ENT>
                  <ENT>X</ENT>
                  <ENT/>
                  <ENT/>
                </ROW>
                <ROW>
                  <ENT I="01">Caribou</ENT>
                  <ENT>Red Mountain</ENT>
                  <ENT>170</ENT>
                  <ENT/>
                  <ENT>X</ENT>
                  <ENT>X</ENT>
                  <ENT>X</ENT>
                  <ENT/>
                  <ENT/>
                </ROW>
                <ROW>
                  <ENT I="01">Caribou</ENT>
                  <ENT>Sage Creek</ENT>
                  <ENT>166</ENT>
                  <ENT/>
                  <ENT/>
                  <ENT>X</ENT>
                  <ENT>X</ENT>
                  <ENT/>
                  <ENT/>
                </ROW>
                <ROW>
                  <ENT I="01">Caribou</ENT>
                  <ENT>Schmid Peak</ENT>
                  <ENT>163</ENT>
                  <ENT/>
                  <ENT/>
                  <ENT>X</ENT>
                  <ENT>X</ENT>
                  <ENT/>
                  <ENT/>
                </ROW>
                <ROW>
                  <ENT I="01">Caribou</ENT>
                  <ENT>Scout Mountain</ENT>
                  <ENT>152</ENT>
                  <ENT/>
                  <ENT/>
                  <ENT>X</ENT>
                  <ENT>X</ENT>
                  <ENT/>
                  <ENT>X</ENT>
                </ROW>
                <ROW>
                  <ENT I="01">Caribou</ENT>
                  <ENT>Sherman Peak</ENT>
                  <ENT>172</ENT>
                  <ENT/>
                  <ENT/>
                  <ENT>X</ENT>
                  <ENT>X</ENT>
                  <ENT/>
                  <ENT/>
                </ROW>
                <ROW>
                  <ENT I="01">Caribou</ENT>
                  <ENT>Soda Point</ENT>
                  <ENT>171</ENT>
                  <ENT/>
                  <ENT/>
                  <ENT>X</ENT>
                  <ENT>X</ENT>
                  <ENT/>
                  <ENT>X</ENT>
                </ROW>
                <ROW>
                  <ENT I="01">Caribou</ENT>
                  <ENT>Station Creek</ENT>
                  <ENT>178</ENT>
                  <ENT/>
                  <ENT/>
                  <ENT>X</ENT>
                  <ENT>X</ENT>
                  <ENT/>
                  <ENT/>
                </ROW>
                <ROW>
                  <ENT I="01">Caribou</ENT>
                  <ENT>Stauffer Creek</ENT>
                  <ENT>173</ENT>
                  <ENT/>
                  <ENT/>
                  <ENT>X</ENT>
                  <ENT/>
                  <ENT/>
                  <ENT/>
                </ROW>
                <ROW>
                  <ENT I="01">Caribou</ENT>
                  <ENT>Stump Creek</ENT>
                  <ENT>162</ENT>
                  <ENT/>
                  <ENT>X</ENT>
                  <ENT>X</ENT>
                  <ENT>X</ENT>
                  <ENT/>
                  <ENT>X</ENT>
                </ROW>
                <ROW>
                  <ENT I="01">Caribou</ENT>
                  <ENT>Swan Creek</ENT>
                  <ENT>180</ENT>
                  <ENT/>
                  <ENT/>
                  <ENT>X</ENT>
                  <ENT/>
                  <ENT/>
                  <ENT/>
                </ROW>
                <ROW>
                  <ENT I="01">Caribou</ENT>
                  <ENT>Telephone Draw</ENT>
                  <ENT>169</ENT>
                  <ENT/>
                  <ENT/>
                  <ENT>X</ENT>
                  <ENT>X</ENT>
                  <ENT/>
                  <ENT>X</ENT>
                </ROW>
                <ROW>
                  <ENT I="01">Caribou</ENT>
                  <ENT>Toponce</ENT>
                  <ENT>153</ENT>
                  <ENT/>
                  <ENT>X</ENT>
                  <ENT>X</ENT>
                  <ENT>X</ENT>
                  <ENT/>
                  <ENT/>
                </ROW>
                <ROW>
                  <ENT I="01">Caribou</ENT>
                  <ENT>West Mink</ENT>
                  <ENT>151</ENT>
                  <ENT/>
                  <ENT/>
                  <ENT>X</ENT>
                  <ENT>X</ENT>
                  <ENT/>
                  <ENT>X</ENT>
                </ROW>
                <ROW>
                  <ENT I="01">Caribou</ENT>
                  <ENT>Williams Creek</ENT>
                  <ENT>174</ENT>
                  <ENT/>
                  <ENT/>
                  <ENT>X</ENT>
                  <ENT>X</ENT>
                  <ENT/>
                  <ENT>X</ENT>
                </ROW>
                <ROW>
                  <ENT I="01">Caribou</ENT>
                  <ENT>Worm Creek</ENT>
                  <ENT>170</ENT>
                  <ENT/>
                  <ENT/>
                  <ENT>X</ENT>
                  <ENT>X</ENT>
                  <ENT/>
                  <ENT>X</ENT>
                </ROW>
                <ROW>
                  <ENT I="01">Challis</ENT>
                  <ENT>Blue Bunch Mountain</ENT>
                  <ENT>923</ENT>
                  <ENT/>
                  <ENT/>
                  <ENT>X</ENT>
                  <ENT/>
                  <ENT/>
                  <ENT/>
                </ROW>
                <ROW>
                  <ENT I="01">Challis</ENT>
                  <ENT>Borah Peak</ENT>
                  <ENT>012</ENT>
                  <ENT>X</ENT>
                  <ENT/>
                  <ENT>X</ENT>
                  <ENT/>
                  <ENT/>
                  <ENT/>
                </ROW>
                <ROW>
                  <ENT I="01">Challis</ENT>
                  <ENT>Boulder-White Clouds</ENT>
                  <ENT>920</ENT>
                  <ENT>X</ENT>
                  <ENT/>
                  <ENT>X</ENT>
                  <ENT/>
                  <ENT/>
                  <ENT/>
                </ROW>
                <ROW>
                  <ENT I="01">Challis</ENT>
                  <ENT>Camas Creek</ENT>
                  <ENT>901</ENT>
                  <ENT/>
                  <ENT/>
                  <ENT>X</ENT>
                  <ENT/>
                  <ENT/>
                  <ENT/>
                </ROW>
                <ROW>
                  <ENT I="01">Challis</ENT>
                  <ENT>Challis Creek</ENT>
                  <ENT>004</ENT>
                  <ENT/>
                  <ENT/>
                  <ENT>X</ENT>
                  <ENT/>
                  <ENT/>
                  <ENT/>
                </ROW>
                <ROW>
                  <ENT I="01">Challis</ENT>
                  <ENT>Cold Springs</ENT>
                  <ENT>026</ENT>
                  <ENT/>
                  <ENT/>
                  <ENT>X</ENT>
                  <ENT/>
                  <ENT/>
                  <ENT/>
                </ROW>
                <ROW>
                  <ENT I="01">Challis</ENT>
                  <ENT>Copper Basin</ENT>
                  <ENT>019</ENT>
                  <ENT/>
                  <ENT/>
                  <ENT>X</ENT>
                  <ENT/>
                  <ENT/>
                  <ENT/>
                </ROW>
                <ROW>
                  <ENT I="01">Challis</ENT>
                  <ENT>Diamond Peak</ENT>
                  <ENT>601</ENT>
                  <ENT/>
                  <ENT/>
                  <ENT>X</ENT>
                  <ENT/>
                  <ENT/>
                  <ENT>X</ENT>
                </ROW>
                <ROW>
                  <ENT I="01">Challis</ENT>
                  <ENT>Greylock</ENT>
                  <ENT>007</ENT>
                  <ENT/>
                  <ENT/>
                  <ENT>X</ENT>
                  <ENT/>
                  <ENT/>
                  <ENT/>
                </ROW>
                <ROW>
                  <ENT I="01">Challis</ENT>
                  <ENT>Grouse Peak</ENT>
                  <ENT>010</ENT>
                  <ENT/>
                  <ENT/>
                  <ENT>X</ENT>
                  <ENT/>
                  <ENT/>
                  <ENT/>
                </ROW>
                <ROW>
                  <ENT I="01">Challis</ENT>
                  <ENT>Hanson Lake</ENT>
                  <ENT>915</ENT>
                  <ENT/>
                  <ENT/>
                  <ENT>X</ENT>
                  <ENT/>
                  <ENT/>
                  <ENT/>
                </ROW>
                <ROW>
                  <ENT I="01">Challis</ENT>
                  <ENT>Jumpoff Mountain</ENT>
                  <ENT>014</ENT>
                  <ENT/>
                  <ENT/>
                  <ENT>X</ENT>
                  <ENT/>
                  <ENT/>
                  <ENT/>
                </ROW>
                <ROW>
                  <ENT I="01">Challis</ENT>
                  <ENT>King Mountain</ENT>
                  <ENT>013</ENT>
                  <ENT/>
                  <ENT/>
                  <ENT>X</ENT>
                  <ENT/>
                  <ENT/>
                  <ENT/>
                </ROW>
                <ROW>
                  <ENT I="01">Challis</ENT>
                  <ENT>Lemhi Range</ENT>
                  <ENT>903</ENT>
                  <ENT/>
                  <ENT/>
                  <ENT>X</ENT>
                  <ENT/>
                  <ENT/>
                  <ENT>X</ENT>
                </ROW>
                <ROW>
                  <ENT I="01">Challis</ENT>
                  <ENT>Loon Creek</ENT>
                  <ENT>908</ENT>
                  <ENT/>
                  <ENT/>
                  <ENT>X</ENT>
                  <ENT/>
                  <ENT/>
                  <ENT/>
                </ROW>
                <ROW>
                  <ENT I="01">Challis</ENT>
                  <ENT>Pahsimeroi Mountain</ENT>
                  <ENT>011</ENT>
                  <ENT/>
                  <ENT/>
                  <ENT>X</ENT>
                  <ENT/>
                  <ENT/>
                  <ENT/>
                </ROW>
                <ROW>
                  <ENT I="01">Challis</ENT>
                  <ENT>Pioneer Mountains</ENT>
                  <ENT>921</ENT>
                  <ENT>X</ENT>
                  <ENT/>
                  <ENT>X</ENT>
                  <ENT/>
                  <ENT/>
                  <ENT>X</ENT>
                </ROW>
                <ROW>
                  <ENT I="01">Challis</ENT>
                  <ENT>Prophyry Peak</ENT>
                  <ENT>017</ENT>
                  <ENT/>
                  <ENT/>
                  <ENT>X</ENT>
                  <ENT/>
                  <ENT/>
                  <ENT/>
                </ROW>
                <ROW>
                  <ENT I="01">Challis</ENT>
                  <ENT>Railroad Ridge</ENT>
                  <ENT>922</ENT>
                  <ENT/>
                  <ENT/>
                  <ENT>X</ENT>
                  <ENT/>
                  <ENT/>
                  <ENT/>
                </ROW>
                <ROW>
                  <ENT I="01">Challis</ENT>
                  <ENT>Red Hill</ENT>
                  <ENT>027</ENT>
                  <ENT/>
                  <ENT/>
                  <ENT>X</ENT>
                  <ENT/>
                  <ENT/>
                  <ENT/>
                </ROW>
                <ROW>
                  <ENT I="01">Challis</ENT>
                  <ENT>Red Mountain</ENT>
                  <ENT>916</ENT>
                  <ENT/>
                  <ENT/>
                  <ENT>X</ENT>
                  <ENT/>
                  <ENT/>
                  <ENT/>
                </ROW>
                <ROW>
                  <PRTPAGE P="1156"/>
                  <ENT I="01">Challis</ENT>
                  <ENT>Seafoam</ENT>
                  <ENT>009</ENT>
                  <ENT/>
                  <ENT/>
                  <ENT>X</ENT>
                  <ENT/>
                  <ENT/>
                  <ENT/>
                </ROW>
                <ROW>
                  <ENT I="01">Challis</ENT>
                  <ENT>Spring Basin</ENT>
                  <ENT>006</ENT>
                  <ENT/>
                  <ENT/>
                  <ENT>X</ENT>
                  <ENT/>
                  <ENT/>
                  <ENT/>
                </ROW>
                <ROW>
                  <ENT I="01">Challis</ENT>
                  <ENT>Squaw Creek</ENT>
                  <ENT>005</ENT>
                  <ENT/>
                  <ENT/>
                  <ENT>X</ENT>
                  <ENT/>
                  <ENT/>
                  <ENT/>
                </ROW>
                <ROW>
                  <ENT I="01">Challis</ENT>
                  <ENT>Taylor Mountain</ENT>
                  <ENT>902</ENT>
                  <ENT/>
                  <ENT/>
                  <ENT>X</ENT>
                  <ENT/>
                  <ENT/>
                  <ENT/>
                </ROW>
                <ROW>
                  <ENT I="01">Challis</ENT>
                  <ENT>Warm Creek</ENT>
                  <ENT>024</ENT>
                  <ENT/>
                  <ENT/>
                  <ENT>X</ENT>
                  <ENT/>
                  <ENT/>
                  <ENT/>
                </ROW>
                <ROW>
                  <ENT I="01">Challis</ENT>
                  <ENT>White Knob</ENT>
                  <ENT>025</ENT>
                  <ENT/>
                  <ENT/>
                  <ENT>X</ENT>
                  <ENT/>
                  <ENT/>
                  <ENT/>
                </ROW>
                <ROW>
                  <ENT I="01">Challis</ENT>
                  <ENT>Wood Canyon</ENT>
                  <ENT>028</ENT>
                  <ENT/>
                  <ENT/>
                  <ENT>X</ENT>
                  <ENT/>
                  <ENT/>
                  <ENT/>
                </ROW>
                <ROW>
                  <ENT I="01">Clearwater</ENT>
                  <ENT>Bighorn-Weitas</ENT>
                  <ENT>306</ENT>
                  <ENT/>
                  <ENT/>
                  <ENT>X</ENT>
                  <ENT/>
                  <ENT>X</ENT>
                  <ENT>X</ENT>
                </ROW>
                <ROW>
                  <ENT I="01">Clearwater</ENT>
                  <ENT>Eldorado Creek</ENT>
                  <ENT>312</ENT>
                  <ENT/>
                  <ENT/>
                  <ENT>X</ENT>
                  <ENT/>
                  <ENT>X</ENT>
                  <ENT/>
                </ROW>
                <ROW>
                  <ENT I="01">Clearwater</ENT>
                  <ENT>Hoodoo</ENT>
                  <ENT>301</ENT>
                  <ENT>X</ENT>
                  <ENT/>
                  <ENT/>
                  <ENT/>
                  <ENT>X</ENT>
                  <ENT/>
                </ROW>
                <ROW>
                  <ENT I="01">Clearwater</ENT>
                  <ENT>Lochsa Face</ENT>
                  <ENT>311</ENT>
                  <ENT/>
                  <ENT>X</ENT>
                  <ENT>X</ENT>
                  <ENT/>
                  <ENT/>
                  <ENT>X</ENT>
                </ROW>
                <ROW>
                  <ENT I="01">Clearwater</ENT>
                  <ENT>Lolo Creek (LNF)</ENT>
                  <ENT>805</ENT>
                  <ENT/>
                  <ENT/>
                  <ENT>X</ENT>
                  <ENT/>
                  <ENT/>
                  <ENT/>
                </ROW>
                <ROW>
                  <ENT I="01">Clearwater</ENT>
                  <ENT>Mallard-Larkins</ENT>
                  <ENT>300</ENT>
                  <ENT>X</ENT>
                  <ENT/>
                  <ENT>X</ENT>
                  <ENT/>
                  <ENT/>
                  <ENT/>
                </ROW>
                <ROW>
                  <ENT I="01">Clearwater</ENT>
                  <ENT>Meadow Creek—Upper North Fork</ENT>
                  <ENT>302</ENT>
                  <ENT/>
                  <ENT/>
                  <ENT>X</ENT>
                  <ENT/>
                  <ENT/>
                  <ENT/>
                </ROW>
                <ROW>
                  <ENT I="01">Clearwater</ENT>
                  <ENT>Moose Mountain</ENT>
                  <ENT>305</ENT>
                  <ENT/>
                  <ENT/>
                  <ENT>X</ENT>
                  <ENT/>
                  <ENT/>
                  <ENT/>
                </ROW>
                <ROW>
                  <ENT I="01">Clearwater</ENT>
                  <ENT>North Fork Spruce—White Sand</ENT>
                  <ENT>309</ENT>
                  <ENT>X</ENT>
                  <ENT>X</ENT>
                  <ENT>X</ENT>
                  <ENT/>
                  <ENT/>
                  <ENT/>
                </ROW>
                <ROW>
                  <ENT I="01">Clearwater</ENT>
                  <ENT>North Lochsa Slope</ENT>
                  <ENT>307</ENT>
                  <ENT/>
                  <ENT>X</ENT>
                  <ENT>X</ENT>
                  <ENT/>
                  <ENT>X</ENT>
                  <ENT>X</ENT>
                </ROW>
                <ROW>
                  <ENT I="01">Clearwater</ENT>
                  <ENT>Pot Mountain</ENT>
                  <ENT>304</ENT>
                  <ENT/>
                  <ENT/>
                  <ENT>X</ENT>
                  <ENT/>
                  <ENT/>
                  <ENT>X</ENT>
                </ROW>
                <ROW>
                  <ENT I="01">Clearwater</ENT>
                  <ENT>Rackliff-Gedney</ENT>
                  <ENT>841</ENT>
                  <ENT/>
                  <ENT/>
                  <ENT>X</ENT>
                  <ENT/>
                  <ENT/>
                  <ENT>X</ENT>
                </ROW>
                <ROW>
                  <ENT I="01">Clearwater</ENT>
                  <ENT>Rawhide</ENT>
                  <ENT>313</ENT>
                  <ENT/>
                  <ENT/>
                  <ENT>X</ENT>
                  <ENT/>
                  <ENT/>
                  <ENT/>
                </ROW>
                <ROW>
                  <ENT I="01">Clearwater</ENT>
                  <ENT>Siwash</ENT>
                  <ENT>303</ENT>
                  <ENT/>
                  <ENT/>
                  <ENT>X</ENT>
                  <ENT/>
                  <ENT/>
                  <ENT/>
                </ROW>
                <ROW>
                  <ENT I="01">Clearwater</ENT>
                  <ENT>Sneakfoot Meadows</ENT>
                  <ENT>314</ENT>
                  <ENT>X</ENT>
                  <ENT>X</ENT>
                  <ENT>X</ENT>
                  <ENT/>
                  <ENT/>
                  <ENT>X</ENT>
                </ROW>
                <ROW>
                  <ENT I="01">Clearwater</ENT>
                  <ENT>Weir-Post Office Creek</ENT>
                  <ENT>308</ENT>
                  <ENT/>
                  <ENT/>
                  <ENT>X</ENT>
                  <ENT/>
                  <ENT>X</ENT>
                  <ENT>X</ENT>
                </ROW>
                <ROW>
                  <ENT I="01">Idaho Panhandle</ENT>
                  <ENT>Beetop</ENT>
                  <ENT>130</ENT>
                  <ENT/>
                  <ENT/>
                  <ENT>X</ENT>
                  <ENT/>
                  <ENT/>
                  <ENT/>
                </ROW>
                <ROW>
                  <ENT I="01">Idaho Panhandle</ENT>
                  <ENT>Big Creek</ENT>
                  <ENT>143</ENT>
                  <ENT/>
                  <ENT/>
                  <ENT>X</ENT>
                  <ENT/>
                  <ENT/>
                  <ENT/>
                </ROW>
                <ROW>
                  <ENT I="01">Idaho Panhandle</ENT>
                  <ENT>Blacktail Mountain</ENT>
                  <ENT>122</ENT>
                  <ENT/>
                  <ENT/>
                  <ENT>X</ENT>
                  <ENT/>
                  <ENT/>
                  <ENT>X</ENT>
                </ROW>
                <ROW>
                  <ENT I="01">Idaho Panhandle</ENT>
                  <ENT>Blacktail Mountain</ENT>
                  <ENT>161</ENT>
                  <ENT/>
                  <ENT/>
                  <ENT>X</ENT>
                  <ENT/>
                  <ENT/>
                  <ENT/>
                </ROW>
                <ROW>
                  <ENT I="01">Idaho Panhandle</ENT>
                  <ENT>Buckhorn Ridge</ENT>
                  <ENT>661</ENT>
                  <ENT/>
                  <ENT/>
                  <ENT>X</ENT>
                  <ENT/>
                  <ENT/>
                  <ENT/>
                </ROW>
                <ROW>
                  <ENT I="01">Idaho Panhandle</ENT>
                  <ENT>Continental Mountain</ENT>
                  <ENT>004</ENT>
                  <ENT/>
                  <ENT/>
                  <ENT>X</ENT>
                  <ENT/>
                  <ENT/>
                  <ENT/>
                </ROW>
                <ROW>
                  <ENT I="01">Idaho Panhandle</ENT>
                  <ENT>East Cathedral Peak</ENT>
                  <ENT>131</ENT>
                  <ENT/>
                  <ENT/>
                  <ENT>X</ENT>
                  <ENT>X</ENT>
                  <ENT/>
                  <ENT>X</ENT>
                </ROW>
                <ROW>
                  <ENT I="01">Idaho Panhandle</ENT>
                  <ENT>East Fork Elk</ENT>
                  <ENT>678</ENT>
                  <ENT/>
                  <ENT/>
                  <ENT/>
                  <ENT>X</ENT>
                  <ENT/>
                  <ENT/>
                </ROW>
                <ROW>
                  <ENT I="01">Idaho Panhandle</ENT>
                  <ENT>Gilt Edge-Silver Creek</ENT>
                  <ENT>792</ENT>
                  <ENT/>
                  <ENT/>
                  <ENT>X</ENT>
                  <ENT/>
                  <ENT/>
                  <ENT/>
                </ROW>
                <ROW>
                  <ENT I="01">Idaho Panhandle</ENT>
                  <ENT>Graham Coal</ENT>
                  <ENT>139</ENT>
                  <ENT/>
                  <ENT/>
                  <ENT>X</ENT>
                  <ENT/>
                  <ENT/>
                  <ENT>X</ENT>
                </ROW>
                <ROW>
                  <ENT I="01">Idaho Panhandle</ENT>
                  <ENT>Grandmother Mountain</ENT>
                  <ENT>148</ENT>
                  <ENT>X</ENT>
                  <ENT/>
                  <ENT>X</ENT>
                  <ENT/>
                  <ENT/>
                  <ENT>X</ENT>
                </ROW>
                <ROW>
                  <ENT I="01">Idaho Panhandle</ENT>
                  <ENT>Hammond Creek</ENT>
                  <ENT>145</ENT>
                  <ENT/>
                  <ENT/>
                  <ENT>X</ENT>
                  <ENT/>
                  <ENT/>
                  <ENT/>
                </ROW>
                <ROW>
                  <ENT I="01">Idaho Panhandle</ENT>
                  <ENT>Hellroaring</ENT>
                  <ENT>128</ENT>
                  <ENT/>
                  <ENT/>
                  <ENT/>
                  <ENT>X</ENT>
                  <ENT/>
                  <ENT/>
                </ROW>
                <ROW>
                  <ENT I="01">Idaho Panhandle</ENT>
                  <ENT>Katka Peak</ENT>
                  <ENT>157</ENT>
                  <ENT/>
                  <ENT/>
                  <ENT>X</ENT>
                  <ENT>X</ENT>
                  <ENT/>
                  <ENT/>
                </ROW>
                <ROW>
                  <ENT I="01">Idaho Panhandle</ENT>
                  <ENT>Kootenai Peak</ENT>
                  <ENT>126</ENT>
                  <ENT/>
                  <ENT/>
                  <ENT/>
                  <ENT>X</ENT>
                  <ENT/>
                  <ENT/>
                </ROW>
                <ROW>
                  <ENT I="01">Idaho Panhandle</ENT>
                  <ENT>Little Grass Mountain</ENT>
                  <ENT>121</ENT>
                  <ENT/>
                  <ENT/>
                  <ENT>X</ENT>
                  <ENT/>
                  <ENT/>
                  <ENT/>
                </ROW>
                <ROW>
                  <ENT I="01">Idaho Panhandle</ENT>
                  <ENT>Lost Creek</ENT>
                  <ENT>137</ENT>
                  <ENT/>
                  <ENT/>
                  <ENT>X</ENT>
                  <ENT/>
                  <ENT/>
                  <ENT>X</ENT>
                </ROW>
                <ROW>
                  <ENT I="01">Idaho Panhandle</ENT>
                  <ENT>Magee</ENT>
                  <ENT>132</ENT>
                  <ENT/>
                  <ENT/>
                  <ENT>X</ENT>
                  <ENT>X</ENT>
                  <ENT/>
                  <ENT>X</ENT>
                </ROW>
                <ROW>
                  <ENT I="01">Idaho Panhandle</ENT>
                  <ENT>Mallard-Larkins</ENT>
                  <ENT>300</ENT>
                  <ENT>X</ENT>
                  <ENT/>
                  <ENT>X</ENT>
                  <ENT>X</ENT>
                  <ENT>X</ENT>
                  <ENT>X</ENT>
                </ROW>
                <ROW>
                  <ENT I="01">Idaho Panhandle</ENT>
                  <ENT>Maple Peak</ENT>
                  <ENT>141</ENT>
                  <ENT/>
                  <ENT/>
                  <ENT>X</ENT>
                  <ENT/>
                  <ENT/>
                  <ENT/>
                </ROW>
                <ROW>
                  <ENT I="01">Idaho Panhandle</ENT>
                  <ENT>Meadow Creek-Upper N. Fork</ENT>
                  <ENT>302</ENT>
                  <ENT/>
                  <ENT/>
                  <ENT>X</ENT>
                  <ENT/>
                  <ENT/>
                  <ENT>X</ENT>
                </ROW>
                <ROW>
                  <ENT I="01">Idaho Panhandle</ENT>
                  <ENT>Midget Peak</ENT>
                  <ENT>151</ENT>
                  <ENT/>
                  <ENT/>
                  <ENT>X</ENT>
                  <ENT/>
                  <ENT/>
                  <ENT>X</ENT>
                </ROW>
                <ROW>
                  <ENT I="01">Idaho Panhandle</ENT>
                  <ENT>Mosquito-Fly</ENT>
                  <ENT>150</ENT>
                  <ENT/>
                  <ENT/>
                  <ENT>X</ENT>
                  <ENT/>
                  <ENT/>
                  <ENT>X</ENT>
                </ROW>
                <ROW>
                  <ENT I="01">Idaho Panhandle</ENT>
                  <ENT>Mt. Willard-Lake Estelle</ENT>
                  <ENT>173</ENT>
                  <ENT/>
                  <ENT/>
                  <ENT>X</ENT>
                  <ENT/>
                  <ENT/>
                  <ENT>X</ENT>
                </ROW>
                <ROW>
                  <ENT I="01">Idaho Panhandle</ENT>
                  <ENT>North Fork</ENT>
                  <ENT>147</ENT>
                  <ENT/>
                  <ENT/>
                  <ENT>X</ENT>
                  <ENT/>
                  <ENT/>
                  <ENT>X</ENT>
                </ROW>
                <ROW>
                  <ENT I="01">Idaho Panhandle</ENT>
                  <ENT>Packsaddle</ENT>
                  <ENT>155</ENT>
                  <ENT/>
                  <ENT/>
                  <ENT>X</ENT>
                  <ENT/>
                  <ENT/>
                  <ENT/>
                </ROW>
                <ROW>
                  <ENT I="01">Idaho Panhandle</ENT>
                  <ENT>Pinchot Butte</ENT>
                  <ENT>149</ENT>
                  <ENT/>
                  <ENT/>
                  <ENT>X</ENT>
                  <ENT/>
                  <ENT/>
                  <ENT/>
                </ROW>
                <ROW>
                  <ENT I="01">Idaho Panhandle</ENT>
                  <ENT>Roland Point</ENT>
                  <ENT>146</ENT>
                  <ENT/>
                  <ENT/>
                  <ENT>X</ENT>
                  <ENT/>
                  <ENT/>
                  <ENT/>
                </ROW>
                <ROW>
                  <ENT I="01">Idaho Panhandle</ENT>
                  <ENT>Saddle Mountain</ENT>
                  <ENT>154</ENT>
                  <ENT/>
                  <ENT/>
                  <ENT>X</ENT>
                  <ENT/>
                  <ENT/>
                  <ENT/>
                </ROW>
                <ROW>
                  <ENT I="01">Idaho Panhandle</ENT>
                  <ENT>Salmo-Priest</ENT>
                  <ENT>981</ENT>
                  <ENT>X</ENT>
                  <ENT/>
                  <ENT/>
                  <ENT/>
                  <ENT/>
                  <ENT>X</ENT>
                </ROW>
                <ROW>
                  <ENT I="01">Idaho Panhandle</ENT>
                  <ENT>Schafer Peak</ENT>
                  <ENT>160</ENT>
                  <ENT/>
                  <ENT/>
                  <ENT>X</ENT>
                  <ENT>X</ENT>
                  <ENT/>
                  <ENT/>
                </ROW>
                <ROW>
                  <ENT I="01">Idaho Panhandle</ENT>
                  <ENT>Scotchman Peaks</ENT>
                  <ENT>662</ENT>
                  <ENT>X</ENT>
                  <ENT/>
                  <ENT>X</ENT>
                  <ENT>X</ENT>
                  <ENT/>
                  <ENT>X</ENT>
                </ROW>
                <ROW>
                  <ENT I="01">Idaho Panhandle</ENT>
                  <ENT>Selkirk</ENT>
                  <ENT>125</ENT>
                  <ENT>X</ENT>
                  <ENT>X</ENT>
                  <ENT>X</ENT>
                  <ENT>X</ENT>
                  <ENT/>
                  <ENT>X</ENT>
                </ROW>
                <ROW>
                  <ENT I="01">Idaho Panhandle</ENT>
                  <ENT>Sheep Mountain-State Line</ENT>
                  <ENT>799</ENT>
                  <ENT/>
                  <ENT/>
                  <ENT>X</ENT>
                  <ENT/>
                  <ENT/>
                  <ENT>X</ENT>
                </ROW>
                <ROW>
                  <ENT I="01">Idaho Panhandle</ENT>
                  <ENT>Skitwish Ridge</ENT>
                  <ENT>135</ENT>
                  <ENT/>
                  <ENT/>
                  <ENT>X</ENT>
                  <ENT/>
                  <ENT/>
                  <ENT/>
                </ROW>
                <ROW>
                  <ENT I="01">Idaho Panhandle</ENT>
                  <ENT>Spion Kop</ENT>
                  <ENT>136</ENT>
                  <ENT/>
                  <ENT/>
                  <ENT>X</ENT>
                  <ENT/>
                  <ENT/>
                  <ENT>X</ENT>
                </ROW>
                <ROW>
                  <ENT I="01">Idaho Panhandle</ENT>
                  <ENT>Stevens Peak</ENT>
                  <ENT>142</ENT>
                  <ENT/>
                  <ENT/>
                  <ENT>X</ENT>
                  <ENT/>
                  <ENT/>
                  <ENT/>
                </ROW>
                <ROW>
                  <ENT I="01">Idaho Panhandle</ENT>
                  <ENT>Storm Creek</ENT>
                  <ENT>144</ENT>
                  <ENT/>
                  <ENT/>
                  <ENT>X</ENT>
                  <ENT/>
                  <ENT/>
                  <ENT/>
                </ROW>
                <ROW>
                  <ENT I="01">Idaho Panhandle</ENT>
                  <ENT>Tepee Creek</ENT>
                  <ENT>133</ENT>
                  <ENT/>
                  <ENT/>
                  <ENT>X</ENT>
                  <ENT/>
                  <ENT/>
                  <ENT>X</ENT>
                </ROW>
                <ROW>
                  <ENT I="01">Idaho Panhandle</ENT>
                  <ENT>Trestle Peak</ENT>
                  <ENT>129</ENT>
                  <ENT/>
                  <ENT/>
                  <ENT>X</ENT>
                  <ENT/>
                  <ENT/>
                  <ENT/>
                </ROW>
                <ROW>
                  <ENT I="01">Idaho Panhandle</ENT>
                  <ENT>Trouble Creek</ENT>
                  <ENT>138</ENT>
                  <ENT/>
                  <ENT/>
                  <ENT>X</ENT>
                  <ENT/>
                  <ENT/>
                  <ENT>X</ENT>
                </ROW>
                <ROW>
                  <ENT I="01">Idaho Panhandle</ENT>
                  <ENT>Trout Creek</ENT>
                  <ENT>664</ENT>
                  <ENT/>
                  <ENT/>
                  <ENT>X</ENT>
                  <ENT/>
                  <ENT/>
                  <ENT>X</ENT>
                </ROW>
                <ROW>
                  <ENT I="01">Idaho Panhandle</ENT>
                  <ENT>Upper Priest</ENT>
                  <ENT>123</ENT>
                  <ENT/>
                  <ENT/>
                  <ENT>X</ENT>
                  <ENT>X</ENT>
                  <ENT/>
                  <ENT>X</ENT>
                </ROW>
                <ROW>
                  <ENT I="01">Idaho Panhandle</ENT>
                  <ENT>White Mountain</ENT>
                  <ENT>127</ENT>
                  <ENT/>
                  <ENT/>
                  <ENT>X</ENT>
                  <ENT/>
                  <ENT/>
                  <ENT/>
                </ROW>
                <ROW>
                  <ENT I="01">Idaho Panhandle</ENT>
                  <ENT>Wonderful Peak</ENT>
                  <ENT>152</ENT>
                  <ENT/>
                  <ENT/>
                  <ENT>X</ENT>
                  <ENT/>
                  <ENT/>
                  <ENT/>
                </ROW>
                <ROW>
                  <ENT I="01">Kootenai</ENT>
                  <ENT>Mt. Willard-Lake Estelle</ENT>
                  <ENT>173</ENT>
                  <ENT/>
                  <ENT/>
                  <ENT>X</ENT>
                  <ENT/>
                  <ENT/>
                  <ENT>X</ENT>
                </ROW>
                <ROW>
                  <PRTPAGE P="1157"/>
                  <ENT I="01">Kootenai</ENT>
                  <ENT>Roberts</ENT>
                  <ENT>691</ENT>
                  <ENT/>
                  <ENT/>
                  <ENT>X</ENT>
                  <ENT/>
                  <ENT/>
                  <ENT/>
                </ROW>
                <ROW>
                  <ENT I="01">Kootenai</ENT>
                  <ENT>Scotchman Peaks</ENT>
                  <ENT>662</ENT>
                  <ENT/>
                  <ENT/>
                  <ENT>X</ENT>
                  <ENT>X</ENT>
                  <ENT/>
                  <ENT/>
                </ROW>
                <ROW>
                  <ENT I="01">Kootenai</ENT>
                  <ENT>West Fork Elk</ENT>
                  <ENT>692</ENT>
                  <ENT/>
                  <ENT/>
                  <ENT>X</ENT>
                  <ENT/>
                  <ENT/>
                  <ENT/>
                </ROW>
                <ROW>
                  <ENT I="01">Nez Perce</ENT>
                  <ENT>Clear Creek</ENT>
                  <ENT>844</ENT>
                  <ENT/>
                  <ENT/>
                  <ENT>X</ENT>
                  <ENT/>
                  <ENT/>
                  <ENT/>
                </ROW>
                <ROW>
                  <ENT I="01">Nez Perce</ENT>
                  <ENT>Dixie Summit—Nut Hill</ENT>
                  <ENT>235</ENT>
                  <ENT/>
                  <ENT/>
                  <ENT>X</ENT>
                  <ENT/>
                  <ENT/>
                  <ENT>X</ENT>
                </ROW>
                <ROW>
                  <ENT I="01">Nez Perce</ENT>
                  <ENT>East Meadow Creek</ENT>
                  <ENT>845</ENT>
                  <ENT/>
                  <ENT>X</ENT>
                  <ENT/>
                  <ENT/>
                  <ENT/>
                  <ENT>X</ENT>
                </ROW>
                <ROW>
                  <ENT I="01">Nez Perce</ENT>
                  <ENT>Gospel Hump</ENT>
                  <ENT>921</ENT>
                  <ENT/>
                  <ENT/>
                  <ENT>X</ENT>
                  <ENT/>
                  <ENT/>
                  <ENT/>
                </ROW>
                <ROW>
                  <ENT I="01">Nez Perce</ENT>
                  <ENT>Gospel Hump Adjacent to Wilderness</ENT>
                  <ENT/>
                  <ENT/>
                  <ENT/>
                  <ENT>X</ENT>
                  <ENT/>
                  <ENT/>
                  <ENT/>
                </ROW>
                <ROW>
                  <ENT I="01">Nez Perce</ENT>
                  <ENT>John Day</ENT>
                  <ENT>852</ENT>
                  <ENT/>
                  <ENT/>
                  <ENT>X</ENT>
                  <ENT/>
                  <ENT/>
                  <ENT/>
                </ROW>
                <ROW>
                  <ENT I="01">Nez Perce</ENT>
                  <ENT>Lick Point</ENT>
                  <ENT>227</ENT>
                  <ENT/>
                  <ENT/>
                  <ENT>X</ENT>
                  <ENT/>
                  <ENT/>
                  <ENT/>
                </ROW>
                <ROW>
                  <ENT I="01">Nez Perce</ENT>
                  <ENT>Little Slate Creek</ENT>
                  <ENT>851</ENT>
                  <ENT/>
                  <ENT/>
                  <ENT>X</ENT>
                  <ENT/>
                  <ENT/>
                  <ENT/>
                </ROW>
                <ROW>
                  <ENT I="01">Nez Perce</ENT>
                  <ENT>Little Slate Creek North</ENT>
                  <ENT>856</ENT>
                  <ENT/>
                  <ENT/>
                  <ENT>X</ENT>
                  <ENT/>
                  <ENT/>
                  <ENT>X</ENT>
                </ROW>
                <ROW>
                  <ENT I="01">Nez Perce</ENT>
                  <ENT>Mallard</ENT>
                  <ENT>847</ENT>
                  <ENT/>
                  <ENT/>
                  <ENT>X</ENT>
                  <ENT/>
                  <ENT/>
                  <ENT/>
                </ROW>
                <ROW>
                  <ENT I="01">Nez Perce</ENT>
                  <ENT>North Fork Slate Creek</ENT>
                  <ENT>850</ENT>
                  <ENT/>
                  <ENT/>
                  <ENT>X</ENT>
                  <ENT/>
                  <ENT/>
                  <ENT/>
                </ROW>
                <ROW>
                  <ENT I="01">Nez Perce</ENT>
                  <ENT>O'Hara—Falls Creek</ENT>
                  <ENT>226</ENT>
                  <ENT/>
                  <ENT/>
                  <ENT>X</ENT>
                  <ENT/>
                  <ENT/>
                  <ENT>X</ENT>
                </ROW>
                <ROW>
                  <ENT I="01">Nez Perce</ENT>
                  <ENT>Rackliff—Gedney</ENT>
                  <ENT>841</ENT>
                  <ENT/>
                  <ENT/>
                  <ENT>X</ENT>
                  <ENT/>
                  <ENT/>
                  <ENT>X</ENT>
                </ROW>
                <ROW>
                  <ENT I="01">Nez Perce</ENT>
                  <ENT>Rapid River</ENT>
                  <ENT>922</ENT>
                  <ENT/>
                  <ENT>X</ENT>
                  <ENT/>
                  <ENT/>
                  <ENT/>
                  <ENT>X</ENT>
                </ROW>
                <ROW>
                  <ENT I="01">Nez Perce</ENT>
                  <ENT>Salmon Face</ENT>
                  <ENT>855</ENT>
                  <ENT/>
                  <ENT/>
                  <ENT>X</ENT>
                  <ENT/>
                  <ENT/>
                  <ENT/>
                </ROW>
                <ROW>
                  <ENT I="01">Nez Perce</ENT>
                  <ENT>Selway Bitterroot (new)</ENT>
                  <ENT/>
                  <ENT/>
                  <ENT>X</ENT>
                  <ENT/>
                  <ENT/>
                  <ENT/>
                  <ENT/>
                </ROW>
                <ROW>
                  <ENT I="01">Nez Perce</ENT>
                  <ENT>Silver Creek—Pilot Knob</ENT>
                  <ENT>849</ENT>
                  <ENT/>
                  <ENT/>
                  <ENT/>
                  <ENT/>
                  <ENT>X</ENT>
                  <ENT/>
                </ROW>
                <ROW>
                  <ENT I="01">Nez Perce</ENT>
                  <ENT>West Fork Crooked River (new)</ENT>
                  <ENT/>
                  <ENT/>
                  <ENT/>
                  <ENT>X</ENT>
                  <ENT/>
                  <ENT/>
                  <ENT/>
                </ROW>
                <ROW>
                  <ENT I="01">Nez Perce</ENT>
                  <ENT>West Meadow Creek</ENT>
                  <ENT>845</ENT>
                  <ENT/>
                  <ENT/>
                  <ENT>X</ENT>
                  <ENT/>
                  <ENT/>
                  <ENT>X</ENT>
                </ROW>
                <ROW>
                  <ENT I="01">Payette</ENT>
                  <ENT>Big Creek Fringe</ENT>
                  <ENT>009</ENT>
                  <ENT/>
                  <ENT/>
                  <ENT>X</ENT>
                  <ENT/>
                  <ENT/>
                  <ENT>X</ENT>
                </ROW>
                <ROW>
                  <ENT I="01">Payette</ENT>
                  <ENT>Caton Lake</ENT>
                  <ENT>912</ENT>
                  <ENT/>
                  <ENT/>
                  <ENT>X</ENT>
                  <ENT/>
                  <ENT/>
                  <ENT>X</ENT>
                </ROW>
                <ROW>
                  <ENT I="01">Payette</ENT>
                  <ENT>Chimney Rock</ENT>
                  <ENT>006</ENT>
                  <ENT/>
                  <ENT/>
                  <ENT>X</ENT>
                  <ENT/>
                  <ENT/>
                  <ENT>X</ENT>
                </ROW>
                <ROW>
                  <ENT I="01">Payette</ENT>
                  <ENT>Cottontail Point/Pilot Peak</ENT>
                  <ENT>004</ENT>
                  <ENT/>
                  <ENT>X</ENT>
                  <ENT>X</ENT>
                  <ENT/>
                  <ENT/>
                  <ENT>X</ENT>
                </ROW>
                <ROW>
                  <ENT I="01">Payette</ENT>
                  <ENT>Council Mountain</ENT>
                  <ENT>018</ENT>
                  <ENT/>
                  <ENT>X</ENT>
                  <ENT/>
                  <ENT/>
                  <ENT/>
                  <ENT>X</ENT>
                </ROW>
                <ROW>
                  <ENT I="01">Payette</ENT>
                  <ENT>Crystal Mountain</ENT>
                  <ENT>005</ENT>
                  <ENT/>
                  <ENT/>
                  <ENT>X</ENT>
                  <ENT/>
                  <ENT/>
                  <ENT>X</ENT>
                </ROW>
                <ROW>
                  <ENT I="01">Payette</ENT>
                  <ENT>Cuddy Mountain</ENT>
                  <ENT>016</ENT>
                  <ENT/>
                  <ENT>X</ENT>
                  <ENT/>
                  <ENT>X</ENT>
                  <ENT/>
                  <ENT>X</ENT>
                </ROW>
                <ROW>
                  <ENT I="01">Payette</ENT>
                  <ENT>French Creek Hells Canyon/7 Devils</ENT>
                  <ENT>026</ENT>
                  <ENT/>
                  <ENT>X</ENT>
                  <ENT>X</ENT>
                  <ENT>X</ENT>
                  <ENT/>
                  <ENT>X</ENT>
                </ROW>
                <ROW>
                  <ENT I="01">Payette</ENT>
                  <ENT>Scenic</ENT>
                  <ENT>001</ENT>
                  <ENT/>
                  <ENT>X</ENT>
                  <ENT/>
                  <ENT/>
                  <ENT/>
                  <ENT>X</ENT>
                </ROW>
                <ROW>
                  <ENT I="01">Payette</ENT>
                  <ENT>Horse Heaven</ENT>
                  <ENT>925</ENT>
                  <ENT/>
                  <ENT/>
                  <ENT>X</ENT>
                  <ENT/>
                  <ENT/>
                  <ENT/>
                </ROW>
                <ROW>
                  <ENT I="01">Payette</ENT>
                  <ENT>Indian Creek</ENT>
                  <ENT>019</ENT>
                  <ENT/>
                  <ENT>X</ENT>
                  <ENT/>
                  <ENT/>
                  <ENT/>
                  <ENT/>
                </ROW>
                <ROW>
                  <ENT I="01">Payette</ENT>
                  <ENT>Meadow Creek</ENT>
                  <ENT>913</ENT>
                  <ENT/>
                  <ENT/>
                  <ENT>X</ENT>
                  <ENT/>
                  <ENT/>
                  <ENT/>
                </ROW>
                <ROW>
                  <ENT I="01">Payette</ENT>
                  <ENT>Needles</ENT>
                  <ENT>911</ENT>
                  <ENT>X</ENT>
                  <ENT>X</ENT>
                  <ENT>X</ENT>
                  <ENT/>
                  <ENT/>
                  <ENT/>
                </ROW>
                <ROW>
                  <ENT I="01">Payette</ENT>
                  <ENT>Patrick Butte</ENT>
                  <ENT>002</ENT>
                  <ENT/>
                  <ENT>X</ENT>
                  <ENT>X</ENT>
                  <ENT/>
                  <ENT/>
                  <ENT>X</ENT>
                </ROW>
                <ROW>
                  <ENT I="01">Payette</ENT>
                  <ENT>Placer Creek</ENT>
                  <ENT>008</ENT>
                  <ENT/>
                  <ENT>X</ENT>
                  <ENT>X</ENT>
                  <ENT/>
                  <ENT/>
                  <ENT>X</ENT>
                </ROW>
                <ROW>
                  <ENT I="01">Payette</ENT>
                  <ENT>Poison Creek</ENT>
                  <ENT>042</ENT>
                  <ENT/>
                  <ENT/>
                  <ENT>X</ENT>
                  <ENT/>
                  <ENT/>
                  <ENT/>
                </ROW>
                <ROW>
                  <ENT I="01">Payette</ENT>
                  <ENT>Rapid River</ENT>
                  <ENT>922</ENT>
                  <ENT/>
                  <ENT>X</ENT>
                  <ENT/>
                  <ENT/>
                  <ENT/>
                  <ENT>X</ENT>
                </ROW>
                <ROW>
                  <ENT I="01">Payette</ENT>
                  <ENT>Secesh</ENT>
                  <ENT>010</ENT>
                  <ENT>X</ENT>
                  <ENT>X</ENT>
                  <ENT>X</ENT>
                  <ENT/>
                  <ENT/>
                  <ENT>X</ENT>
                </ROW>
                <ROW>
                  <ENT I="01">Payette</ENT>
                  <ENT>Sheep Gulch</ENT>
                  <ENT>017</ENT>
                  <ENT/>
                  <ENT/>
                  <ENT>X</ENT>
                  <ENT/>
                  <ENT/>
                  <ENT/>
                </ROW>
                <ROW>
                  <ENT I="01">Payette</ENT>
                  <ENT>Smith Creek</ENT>
                  <ENT>007</ENT>
                  <ENT/>
                  <ENT>X</ENT>
                  <ENT/>
                  <ENT/>
                  <ENT/>
                  <ENT/>
                </ROW>
                <ROW>
                  <ENT I="01">Payette</ENT>
                  <ENT>Snowbank</ENT>
                  <ENT>924</ENT>
                  <ENT/>
                  <ENT>X</ENT>
                  <ENT/>
                  <ENT/>
                  <ENT/>
                  <ENT/>
                </ROW>
                <ROW>
                  <ENT I="01">Payette</ENT>
                  <ENT>Sugar Mountain</ENT>
                  <ENT>014</ENT>
                  <ENT/>
                  <ENT/>
                  <ENT>X</ENT>
                  <ENT/>
                  <ENT/>
                  <ENT/>
                </ROW>
                <ROW>
                  <ENT I="01">Salmon</ENT>
                  <ENT>Agency Creek</ENT>
                  <ENT>512</ENT>
                  <ENT/>
                  <ENT/>
                  <ENT>X</ENT>
                  <ENT/>
                  <ENT/>
                  <ENT/>
                </ROW>
                <ROW>
                  <ENT I="01">Salmon</ENT>
                  <ENT>Allan Mountain</ENT>
                  <ENT>946</ENT>
                  <ENT/>
                  <ENT/>
                  <ENT>X</ENT>
                  <ENT/>
                  <ENT/>
                  <ENT>X</ENT>
                </ROW>
                <ROW>
                  <ENT I="01">Salmon</ENT>
                  <ENT>Anderson Mountain</ENT>
                  <ENT>942</ENT>
                  <ENT/>
                  <ENT/>
                  <ENT>X</ENT>
                  <ENT/>
                  <ENT/>
                  <ENT/>
                </ROW>
                <ROW>
                  <ENT I="01">Salmon</ENT>
                  <ENT>Blue Joint Mountain</ENT>
                  <ENT>941</ENT>
                  <ENT/>
                  <ENT>X</ENT>
                  <ENT/>
                  <ENT/>
                  <ENT/>
                  <ENT/>
                </ROW>
                <ROW>
                  <ENT I="01">Salmon</ENT>
                  <ENT>Camas Creek</ENT>
                  <ENT>901</ENT>
                  <ENT/>
                  <ENT/>
                  <ENT>X</ENT>
                  <ENT/>
                  <ENT/>
                  <ENT/>
                </ROW>
                <ROW>
                  <ENT I="01">Salmon</ENT>
                  <ENT>Deep Creek</ENT>
                  <ENT>509</ENT>
                  <ENT/>
                  <ENT/>
                  <ENT>X</ENT>
                  <ENT/>
                  <ENT/>
                  <ENT/>
                </ROW>
                <ROW>
                  <ENT I="01">Salmon</ENT>
                  <ENT>Duck Peak</ENT>
                  <ENT>518</ENT>
                  <ENT/>
                  <ENT/>
                  <ENT>X</ENT>
                  <ENT/>
                  <ENT/>
                  <ENT>X</ENT>
                </ROW>
                <ROW>
                  <ENT I="01">Salmon</ENT>
                  <ENT>Goat Mountain</ENT>
                  <ENT>944</ENT>
                  <ENT/>
                  <ENT/>
                  <ENT>X</ENT>
                  <ENT/>
                  <ENT/>
                  <ENT/>
                </ROW>
                <ROW>
                  <ENT I="01">Salmon</ENT>
                  <ENT>Goldbug Ridge</ENT>
                  <ENT>903</ENT>
                  <ENT/>
                  <ENT/>
                  <ENT>X</ENT>
                  <ENT/>
                  <ENT/>
                  <ENT/>
                </ROW>
                <ROW>
                  <ENT I="01">Salmon</ENT>
                  <ENT>Haystack Mountain</ENT>
                  <ENT>507</ENT>
                  <ENT/>
                  <ENT/>
                  <ENT>X</ENT>
                  <ENT/>
                  <ENT/>
                  <ENT/>
                </ROW>
                <ROW>
                  <ENT I="01">Salmon</ENT>
                  <ENT>Italian Peak</ENT>
                  <ENT>945</ENT>
                  <ENT/>
                  <ENT/>
                  <ENT>X</ENT>
                  <ENT/>
                  <ENT/>
                  <ENT/>
                </ROW>
                <ROW>
                  <ENT I="01">Salmon</ENT>
                  <ENT>Jesse Creek</ENT>
                  <ENT>510</ENT>
                  <ENT/>
                  <ENT/>
                  <ENT>X</ENT>
                  <ENT/>
                  <ENT/>
                  <ENT/>
                </ROW>
                <ROW>
                  <ENT I="01">Salmon</ENT>
                  <ENT>Jureano</ENT>
                  <ENT>506</ENT>
                  <ENT/>
                  <ENT/>
                  <ENT>X</ENT>
                  <ENT/>
                  <ENT/>
                  <ENT/>
                </ROW>
                <ROW>
                  <ENT I="01">Salmon</ENT>
                  <ENT>Lemhi Range</ENT>
                  <ENT>903</ENT>
                  <ENT/>
                  <ENT/>
                  <ENT>X</ENT>
                  <ENT/>
                  <ENT/>
                  <ENT>X</ENT>
                </ROW>
                <ROW>
                  <ENT I="01">Salmon</ENT>
                  <ENT>Little Horse</ENT>
                  <ENT>514</ENT>
                  <ENT/>
                  <ENT/>
                  <ENT>X</ENT>
                  <ENT/>
                  <ENT/>
                  <ENT/>
                </ROW>
                <ROW>
                  <ENT I="01">Salmon</ENT>
                  <ENT>Long Tom</ENT>
                  <ENT>521</ENT>
                  <ENT/>
                  <ENT/>
                  <ENT>X</ENT>
                  <ENT/>
                  <ENT/>
                  <ENT/>
                </ROW>
                <ROW>
                  <ENT I="01">Salmon</ENT>
                  <ENT>McEleny</ENT>
                  <ENT>505</ENT>
                  <ENT/>
                  <ENT/>
                  <ENT>X</ENT>
                  <ENT/>
                  <ENT/>
                  <ENT/>
                </ROW>
                <ROW>
                  <ENT I="01">Salmon</ENT>
                  <ENT>Musgrove</ENT>
                  <ENT>517</ENT>
                  <ENT/>
                  <ENT/>
                  <ENT>X</ENT>
                  <ENT/>
                  <ENT/>
                  <ENT/>
                </ROW>
                <ROW>
                  <ENT I="01">Salmon</ENT>
                  <ENT>Napias</ENT>
                  <ENT>515</ENT>
                  <ENT/>
                  <ENT/>
                  <ENT>X</ENT>
                  <ENT/>
                  <ENT/>
                  <ENT/>
                </ROW>
                <ROW>
                  <ENT I="01">Salmon</ENT>
                  <ENT>Napoleon Ridge</ENT>
                  <ENT>501</ENT>
                  <ENT/>
                  <ENT/>
                  <ENT/>
                  <ENT>X</ENT>
                  <ENT/>
                  <ENT>X</ENT>
                </ROW>
                <ROW>
                  <ENT I="01">Salmon</ENT>
                  <ENT>Oreana</ENT>
                  <ENT>516</ENT>
                  <ENT/>
                  <ENT/>
                  <ENT>X</ENT>
                  <ENT/>
                  <ENT/>
                  <ENT/>
                </ROW>
                <ROW>
                  <ENT I="01">Salmon</ENT>
                  <ENT>Perreau Creek</ENT>
                  <ENT>511</ENT>
                  <ENT/>
                  <ENT/>
                  <ENT/>
                  <ENT>X</ENT>
                  <ENT/>
                  <ENT/>
                </ROW>
                <ROW>
                  <ENT I="01">Salmon</ENT>
                  <ENT>Phelan</ENT>
                  <ENT>508</ENT>
                  <ENT/>
                  <ENT/>
                  <ENT>X</ENT>
                  <ENT/>
                  <ENT/>
                  <ENT/>
                </ROW>
                <ROW>
                  <ENT I="01">Salmon</ENT>
                  <ENT>Sal Mountain</ENT>
                  <ENT>513</ENT>
                  <ENT/>
                  <ENT/>
                  <ENT>X</ENT>
                  <ENT/>
                  <ENT/>
                  <ENT/>
                </ROW>
                <ROW>
                  <PRTPAGE P="1158"/>
                  <ENT I="01">Salmon</ENT>
                  <ENT>Sheepeater</ENT>
                  <ENT>520</ENT>
                  <ENT/>
                  <ENT/>
                  <ENT>X</ENT>
                  <ENT/>
                  <ENT/>
                  <ENT>X</ENT>
                </ROW>
                <ROW>
                  <ENT I="01">Salmon</ENT>
                  <ENT>South Deep Creek</ENT>
                  <ENT>509</ENT>
                  <ENT/>
                  <ENT/>
                  <ENT>X</ENT>
                  <ENT/>
                  <ENT/>
                  <ENT/>
                </ROW>
                <ROW>
                  <ENT I="01">Salmon</ENT>
                  <ENT>South Panther</ENT>
                  <ENT>504</ENT>
                  <ENT/>
                  <ENT/>
                  <ENT>X</ENT>
                  <ENT/>
                  <ENT/>
                  <ENT/>
                </ROW>
                <ROW>
                  <ENT I="01">Salmon</ENT>
                  <ENT>Taylor Mountain</ENT>
                  <ENT>902</ENT>
                  <ENT/>
                  <ENT/>
                  <ENT>X</ENT>
                  <ENT/>
                  <ENT/>
                  <ENT/>
                </ROW>
                <ROW>
                  <ENT I="01">Salmon</ENT>
                  <ENT>West Big Hole</ENT>
                  <ENT>943</ENT>
                  <ENT/>
                  <ENT>X</ENT>
                  <ENT>X</ENT>
                  <ENT/>
                  <ENT/>
                  <ENT>X</ENT>
                </ROW>
                <ROW>
                  <ENT I="01">Salmon</ENT>
                  <ENT>West Panther Creek</ENT>
                  <ENT>504</ENT>
                  <ENT/>
                  <ENT/>
                  <ENT>X</ENT>
                  <ENT/>
                  <ENT/>
                  <ENT/>
                </ROW>
                <ROW>
                  <ENT I="01">Sawtooth</ENT>
                  <ENT>Black Pine</ENT>
                  <ENT>003</ENT>
                  <ENT/>
                  <ENT/>
                  <ENT>X</ENT>
                  <ENT/>
                  <ENT/>
                  <ENT>X</ENT>
                </ROW>
                <ROW>
                  <ENT I="01">Sawtooth</ENT>
                  <ENT>Blackhorse Creek</ENT>
                  <ENT>039</ENT>
                  <ENT/>
                  <ENT>X</ENT>
                  <ENT/>
                  <ENT/>
                  <ENT/>
                  <ENT/>
                </ROW>
                <ROW>
                  <ENT I="01">Sawtooth</ENT>
                  <ENT>Boulder-White Clouds</ENT>
                  <ENT>920</ENT>
                  <ENT>X</ENT>
                  <ENT>X</ENT>
                  <ENT>X</ENT>
                  <ENT>X</ENT>
                  <ENT/>
                  <ENT>X</ENT>
                </ROW>
                <ROW>
                  <ENT I="01">Sawtooth</ENT>
                  <ENT>Buttercup Mountain</ENT>
                  <ENT>038</ENT>
                  <ENT/>
                  <ENT>X</ENT>
                  <ENT>X</ENT>
                  <ENT/>
                  <ENT/>
                  <ENT/>
                </ROW>
                <ROW>
                  <ENT I="01">Sawtooth</ENT>
                  <ENT>Cache Peak</ENT>
                  <ENT>007</ENT>
                  <ENT/>
                  <ENT/>
                  <ENT>X</ENT>
                  <ENT>X</ENT>
                  <ENT/>
                  <ENT/>
                </ROW>
                <ROW>
                  <ENT I="01">Sawtooth</ENT>
                  <ENT>Cottonwood</ENT>
                  <ENT>010</ENT>
                  <ENT/>
                  <ENT/>
                  <ENT>X</ENT>
                  <ENT/>
                  <ENT/>
                  <ENT/>
                </ROW>
                <ROW>
                  <ENT I="01">Sawtooth</ENT>
                  <ENT>Elk Ridge</ENT>
                  <ENT>019</ENT>
                  <ENT/>
                  <ENT>X</ENT>
                  <ENT/>
                  <ENT/>
                  <ENT/>
                  <ENT/>
                </ROW>
                <ROW>
                  <ENT I="01">Sawtooth</ENT>
                  <ENT>Fifth Fork Rock Creek</ENT>
                  <ENT>023</ENT>
                  <ENT/>
                  <ENT>X</ENT>
                  <ENT/>
                  <ENT>X</ENT>
                  <ENT/>
                  <ENT/>
                </ROW>
                <ROW>
                  <ENT I="01">Sawtooth</ENT>
                  <ENT>Hanson Lakes</ENT>
                  <ENT>915</ENT>
                  <ENT>X</ENT>
                  <ENT>X</ENT>
                  <ENT>X</ENT>
                  <ENT/>
                  <ENT/>
                  <ENT>X</ENT>
                </ROW>
                <ROW>
                  <ENT I="01">Sawtooth</ENT>
                  <ENT>Huckleberry</ENT>
                  <ENT>016</ENT>
                  <ENT/>
                  <ENT/>
                  <ENT>X</ENT>
                  <ENT/>
                  <ENT/>
                  <ENT>X</ENT>
                </ROW>
                <ROW>
                  <ENT I="01">Sawtooth</ENT>
                  <ENT>Liberal Mountain</ENT>
                  <ENT>040</ENT>
                  <ENT/>
                  <ENT>X</ENT>
                  <ENT/>
                  <ENT>X</ENT>
                  <ENT/>
                  <ENT/>
                </ROW>
                <ROW>
                  <ENT I="01">Sawtooth</ENT>
                  <ENT>Lime Creek</ENT>
                  <ENT>937</ENT>
                  <ENT/>
                  <ENT>X</ENT>
                  <ENT/>
                  <ENT/>
                  <ENT/>
                  <ENT>X</ENT>
                </ROW>
                <ROW>
                  <ENT I="01">Sawtooth</ENT>
                  <ENT>Lone Cedar</ENT>
                  <ENT>011</ENT>
                  <ENT/>
                  <ENT/>
                  <ENT/>
                  <ENT>X</ENT>
                  <ENT/>
                  <ENT/>
                </ROW>
                <ROW>
                  <ENT I="01">Sawtooth</ENT>
                  <ENT>Loon Creek</ENT>
                  <ENT>908</ENT>
                  <ENT/>
                  <ENT/>
                  <ENT>X</ENT>
                  <ENT/>
                  <ENT/>
                  <ENT/>
                </ROW>
                <ROW>
                  <ENT I="01">Sawtooth</ENT>
                  <ENT>Mahogany Butte</ENT>
                  <ENT>012</ENT>
                  <ENT/>
                  <ENT/>
                  <ENT/>
                  <ENT>X</ENT>
                  <ENT/>
                  <ENT/>
                </ROW>
                <ROW>
                  <ENT I="01">Sawtooth</ENT>
                  <ENT>Mount Harrison</ENT>
                  <ENT>006</ENT>
                  <ENT/>
                  <ENT>X</ENT>
                  <ENT/>
                  <ENT>X</ENT>
                  <ENT/>
                  <ENT>X</ENT>
                </ROW>
                <ROW>
                  <ENT I="01">Sawtooth</ENT>
                  <ENT>Pettit</ENT>
                  <ENT>017</ENT>
                  <ENT/>
                  <ENT/>
                  <ENT>X</ENT>
                  <ENT/>
                  <ENT/>
                  <ENT>X</ENT>
                </ROW>
                <ROW>
                  <ENT I="01">Sawtooth</ENT>
                  <ENT>Pioneer Mountains</ENT>
                  <ENT>921</ENT>
                  <ENT>X</ENT>
                  <ENT>X</ENT>
                  <ENT>X</ENT>
                  <ENT>X</ENT>
                  <ENT/>
                  <ENT>X</ENT>
                </ROW>
                <ROW>
                  <ENT I="01">Sawtooth</ENT>
                  <ENT>Railroad Ridge</ENT>
                  <ENT>922</ENT>
                  <ENT/>
                  <ENT/>
                  <ENT>X</ENT>
                  <ENT/>
                  <ENT/>
                  <ENT>X</ENT>
                </ROW>
                <ROW>
                  <ENT I="01">Sawtooth</ENT>
                  <ENT>Smoky Mountains</ENT>
                  <ENT>914</ENT>
                  <ENT/>
                  <ENT>X</ENT>
                  <ENT>X</ENT>
                  <ENT/>
                  <ENT/>
                  <ENT>X</ENT>
                </ROW>
                <ROW>
                  <ENT I="01">Sawtooth</ENT>
                  <ENT>Sublett</ENT>
                  <ENT>005</ENT>
                  <ENT/>
                  <ENT>X</ENT>
                  <ENT/>
                  <ENT/>
                  <ENT/>
                  <ENT/>
                </ROW>
                <ROW>
                  <ENT I="01">Sawtooth</ENT>
                  <ENT>Third Fork Rock Creek</ENT>
                  <ENT>009</ENT>
                  <ENT/>
                  <ENT>X</ENT>
                  <ENT/>
                  <ENT>X</ENT>
                  <ENT/>
                  <ENT/>
                </ROW>
                <ROW>
                  <ENT I="01">Sawtooth</ENT>
                  <ENT>Thorobred</ENT>
                  <ENT>013</ENT>
                  <ENT/>
                  <ENT/>
                  <ENT>X</ENT>
                  <ENT/>
                  <ENT/>
                  <ENT/>
                </ROW>
                <ROW>
                  <ENT I="01">Targhee</ENT>
                  <ENT>Bald Mountain</ENT>
                  <ENT>614</ENT>
                  <ENT/>
                  <ENT/>
                  <ENT>X</ENT>
                  <ENT>X</ENT>
                  <ENT/>
                  <ENT/>
                </ROW>
                <ROW>
                  <ENT I="01">Targhee</ENT>
                  <ENT>Bear Creek</ENT>
                  <ENT>615</ENT>
                  <ENT/>
                  <ENT/>
                  <ENT>X</ENT>
                  <ENT>X</ENT>
                  <ENT/>
                  <ENT>X</ENT>
                </ROW>
                <ROW>
                  <ENT I="01">Targhee</ENT>
                  <ENT>Caribou City</ENT>
                  <ENT>161</ENT>
                  <ENT/>
                  <ENT/>
                  <ENT>X</ENT>
                  <ENT/>
                  <ENT/>
                  <ENT/>
                </ROW>
                <ROW>
                  <ENT I="01">Targhee</ENT>
                  <ENT>Diamond Peak</ENT>
                  <ENT>601</ENT>
                  <ENT>X</ENT>
                  <ENT>X</ENT>
                  <ENT>X</ENT>
                  <ENT>X</ENT>
                  <ENT/>
                  <ENT>X</ENT>
                </ROW>
                <ROW>
                  <ENT I="01">Targhee</ENT>
                  <ENT>Garfield Mountain</ENT>
                  <ENT>961</ENT>
                  <ENT/>
                  <ENT>X</ENT>
                  <ENT>X</ENT>
                  <ENT>X</ENT>
                  <ENT/>
                  <ENT>X</ENT>
                </ROW>
                <ROW>
                  <ENT I="01">Targhee</ENT>
                  <ENT>Garns Mountain</ENT>
                  <ENT>611</ENT>
                  <ENT/>
                  <ENT/>
                  <ENT>X</ENT>
                  <ENT/>
                  <ENT/>
                  <ENT>X</ENT>
                </ROW>
                <ROW>
                  <ENT I="01">Targhee</ENT>
                  <ENT>Italian Peak</ENT>
                  <ENT>945</ENT>
                  <ENT>X</ENT>
                  <ENT/>
                  <ENT>X</ENT>
                  <ENT>X</ENT>
                  <ENT/>
                  <ENT>X</ENT>
                </ROW>
                <ROW>
                  <ENT I="01">Targhee</ENT>
                  <ENT>Lionhead</ENT>
                  <ENT>963</ENT>
                  <ENT>X</ENT>
                  <ENT/>
                  <ENT>X</ENT>
                  <ENT/>
                  <ENT/>
                  <ENT>X</ENT>
                </ROW>
                <ROW>
                  <ENT I="01">Targhee</ENT>
                  <ENT>Mt. Jefferson</ENT>
                  <ENT>962</ENT>
                  <ENT/>
                  <ENT>X</ENT>
                  <ENT>X</ENT>
                  <ENT/>
                  <ENT/>
                  <ENT>X</ENT>
                </ROW>
                <ROW>
                  <ENT I="01">Targhee</ENT>
                  <ENT>Palisades</ENT>
                  <ENT>613</ENT>
                  <ENT>X</ENT>
                  <ENT/>
                  <ENT>X</ENT>
                  <ENT/>
                  <ENT/>
                  <ENT>X</ENT>
                </ROW>
                <ROW>
                  <ENT I="01">Targhee</ENT>
                  <ENT>Poker Peak</ENT>
                  <ENT>616</ENT>
                  <ENT/>
                  <ENT>X</ENT>
                  <ENT/>
                  <ENT/>
                  <ENT/>
                  <ENT/>
                </ROW>
                <ROW>
                  <ENT I="01">Targhee</ENT>
                  <ENT>Pole Creek</ENT>
                  <ENT>160</ENT>
                  <ENT/>
                  <ENT/>
                  <ENT>X</ENT>
                  <ENT/>
                  <ENT/>
                  <ENT/>
                </ROW>
                <ROW>
                  <ENT I="01">Targhee</ENT>
                  <ENT>Raynolds Pass</ENT>
                  <ENT>603</ENT>
                  <ENT/>
                  <ENT/>
                  <ENT>X</ENT>
                  <ENT/>
                  <ENT/>
                  <ENT/>
                </ROW>
                <ROW>
                  <ENT I="01">Targhee</ENT>
                  <ENT>Two Top</ENT>
                  <ENT>604</ENT>
                  <ENT/>
                  <ENT>X</ENT>
                  <ENT/>
                  <ENT/>
                  <ENT/>
                  <ENT/>
                </ROW>
                <ROW>
                  <ENT I="01">Targhee</ENT>
                  <ENT>West Slope Tetons</ENT>
                  <ENT>610</ENT>
                  <ENT/>
                  <ENT/>
                  <ENT>X</ENT>
                  <ENT/>
                  <ENT/>
                  <ENT>X</ENT>
                </ROW>
                <ROW>
                  <ENT I="01">Targhee</ENT>
                  <ENT>Winegar Hole</ENT>
                  <ENT>347</ENT>
                  <ENT/>
                  <ENT>X</ENT>
                  <ENT/>
                  <ENT/>
                  <ENT/>
                  <ENT>X</ENT>
                </ROW>
                <ROW>
                  <ENT I="01">Wallowa-Whitman</ENT>
                  <ENT>Big Canyon Id</ENT>
                  <ENT>853</ENT>
                  <ENT/>
                  <ENT/>
                  <ENT>X</ENT>
                  <ENT/>
                  <ENT/>
                  <ENT/>
                </ROW>
                <ROW>
                  <ENT I="01">Wallowa-Whitman</ENT>
                  <ENT>Klopton Creek—Corral Creek Id</ENT>
                  <ENT>854</ENT>
                  <ENT/>
                  <ENT/>
                  <ENT>X</ENT>
                  <ENT/>
                  <ENT/>
                  <ENT/>
                </ROW>
              </GPOTABLE>
            </SECTION>
          </SUBPART>
          <SIG>
            <DATED>Dated: December 17, 2007.</DATED>
            <NAME>Abigail R. Kimbell,</NAME>
            <TITLE>Chief, Forest Service.</TITLE>
          </SIG>
        </PART>
      </SUPLINF>
      <FRDOC>[FR Doc. 07-6305 Filed 1-4-08; 8:45 am]</FRDOC>
      <BILCOD>BILLING CODE 3410-11-P</BILCOD>
    </PRORULE>
    <PRORULE>
      <PREAMB>
        <AGENCY TYPE="N">POSTAL SERVICE</AGENCY>
        <SUBAGY>39 CFR Part 111</SUBAGY>
        <SUBJECT>Implementation of Intelligent Mail® Barcodes</SUBJECT>
        <AGY>
          <HD SOURCE="HED">AGENCY:</HD>
          <P>Postal Service.</P>
        </AGY>
        <ACT>
          <HD SOURCE="HED">ACTION:</HD>
          <P>Advance notice of proposed rulemaking.</P>
        </ACT>
        <SUM>
          <HD SOURCE="HED">SUMMARY:</HD>

          <P>In January 2009, mailers will be required to meet one of two options using Intelligent Mail® barcodes to access automation prices for letters and flats. Automation prices will no longer be available for the use of the POSTNET barcode. This<E T="04">Federal Register</E>notice provides advance information to help mailers understand the mail preparation requirements that the Postal Service will propose when using Intelligent Mail® barcodes and offers insight into the additional information that will be available to mailers who comply with these requirements.</P>
        </SUM>
        <DATES>
          <HD SOURCE="HED">DATES:</HD>
          <P>In order to transition to Intelligent Mail® barcodes by January 2009, it is important that we receive comments to this advance notice February 21, 2008.</P>
        </DATES>
        <ADD>
          <HD SOURCE="HED">ADDRESSES:</HD>

          <P>Mail or deliver written comments to the Manager, Mailing Standards, U.S. Postal Service, 475 L'Enfant Plaza, SW., Room 3436, Washington, DC 20260-3436. Written comments may be inspected and photocopied at USPS Headquarters Library, 475 L'Enfant Plaza, SW., 11th Floor N, Washington DC between 9 a.m. and 4 p.m. EST, Monday through Friday. Comments and questions can also be e-mailed to<E T="03">imb@usps.gov.</E>
          </P>
        </ADD>
        <FURINF>
          <HD SOURCE="HED">FOR FURTHER INFORMATION CONTACT:</HD>
          <P>William Chatfield, e-mail:<E T="03">william.a.chatfield@usps.gov</E>phone: 202-268-7278; Karen Zachok, e-mail:<PRTPAGE P="1159"/>
            <E T="03">karen.zachok@usps.gov</E>phone: 202-268-8779; Uni Han-Norton, e-mail:<E T="03">uni.k.han-norton@usps.gov</E>phone: 202-268-8437.</P>
        </FURINF>
      </PREAMB>
      <SUPLINF>
        <HD SOURCE="HED">SUPPLEMENTARY INFORMATION:</HD>
        <P>Given the success of our automation program over the years, the great majority of letters and flats are eligible for automation prices. Therefore, this continuing evolution of our automation program is expected to generate extensive comment. The purpose of this advance notice is to seek such comments so that we can address them as we move forward to the revised requirements for automation prices. A separate rule-making will be issued in the near future to address mail characteristics that impact machinability and delivery efficiency for letters and flats.</P>
        <P>Two options will be proposed for using Intelligent Mail® barcodes to obtain access to automation prices. Under the “Full Service” option, mailers will be required to apply Intelligent Mail® barcodes on their letter and flat mailpieces, trays and sacks, and other containers. Mailers will also be required to submit their postage statements and mailing documentation electronically. For drop-ship mailings and all origin-entered mail verified at a detached mail unit (DMU), mailers will be required to schedule appointments using the Facility Access and Shipment Tracking (FAST) system.</P>
        <P>Under the “Basic” option, mailers will be required to use the Intelligent Mail® barcode on their letter and flat mailpieces in place of the POSTNET barcode. At a minimum, this barcode will include the same delivery point information that is included in the POSTNET barcode today, an assigned Mailer ID, the class of mail, and optional endorsement line (OEL) information if an OEL is printed on the mailpiece. Mailers using pressure sensitive barcoded presort labels will not be required to include this information in the Intelligent Mail® barcode.</P>
        <P>General requirements for the Full Service and Basic options for use of the Intelligent Mail® barcodes will be proposed as follows:</P>
        <HD SOURCE="HD1">Requirements for Full Service Intelligent Mail® Option</HD>
        <HD SOURCE="HD2">Intelligent Mail® Barcodes</HD>
        <P>
          <E T="03">Mailpiece barcode</E>. The 65-bar Intelligent Mail® barcode, which accommodates 31-digits of data, will be required on letter and flat mailpieces. This barcode is used to sort and track letters and flats and will include the delivery point routing code. Unlike the POSTNET barcode that only contains the routing code, the Intelligent Mail® barcode contains additional fields that encode special services, identify the mailer and the class of mail, and uniquely number the mailpiece. The USPS will issue a Mailer ID to each mailer for use in their Intelligent Mail® barcodes. Mailers must include this USPS-assigned Mailer ID in the Intelligent Mail® barcode. In most circumstances, mailers will be expected to use the mail owner's Mailer ID in all Intelligent Mail® barcodes. Mailers will be required to uniquely number each mailpiece in a mailing and the number cannot be reused for a period of 45 days from the date of induction. Alternatives to this requirement, such as using the same number on all mailpieces in a mailing or the same number on all mailpieces in a handling unit (tray, sack or bundle) may allow for the collection of similarly-detailed data, but will require USPS approval.</P>
        <P>
          <E T="03">Tray barcode</E>. An Intelligent Mail® tray barcode will be required on letter trays, flat trays and sacks. Unlike the current 10-digit tray barcode that only contains routing information, the 24-digit Intelligent Mail® tray barcode includes additional fields to identify the mailer and uniquely number each tray or sack. Mailers will be required to uniquely number each tray or sack in a mailing, and the number cannot be reused for a period of 45 days from the date of induction.</P>
        <P>
          <E T="03">Container barcode.</E>An Intelligent Mail® container barcode will be required on all containers used to transport mail such as pallets, all purpose containers (APCs), rolling stock, gaylords, etc. This 21-digit Intelligent Mail® container barcode includes fields to identify the mailer and uniquely number each container. Mailers will be required to uniquely number each container in a mailing, and the number cannot be reused for a period of 45 days from the date of induction.</P>
        <HD SOURCE="HD2">Electronic Documentation and Appointment Scheduling Using FAST (Facility Access and Shipment Tracking)</HD>

        <P>Mailings claiming prices that require minimum volumes must be accompanied by a postage statement and, in most cases, by presort documentation. Mailers typically furnish hard copy postage statements and documentation or supply a computer terminal at their site for USPS acceptance personnel to view their documentation. Several mailers have already transitioned to electronic submission of their postage statements and mailing documentation to the Postal Service's<E T="03">PostalOne!</E>®  System using<E T="03">Mail.dat</E>®, Wizard Web Services, or Postage Statement Wizard. Mailers will be required to use one of these three methods to send their electronic mailing information to the<E T="03">PostalOne!</E>® System if they are meeting the new requirements through the Full Service option. This information-management system translates the customer-generated electronic information into postage statements and supporting documentation, such as qualification and container reports, that are used for business mail verification, acceptance, and induction processes. By submitting documents electronically, mailers will be able to avoid the creation of paper-based forms and use this technology to manage their mailing data.</P>

        <P>In addition to the presort documentation required today, the mailer's electronic documentation will contain information about Intelligent Mail® barcodes applied to mailpieces, trays and sacks and containers. The documentation must include the unique Intelligent Mail® barcode applied to each mailpiece in a mailing, the unique Intelligent Mail® tray barcode applied to each tray or sack, as well as the unique Intelligent Mail® container barcode applied to each container in a mailing. The documentation must also describe how mailpieces are linked to handling units, such as trays and sacks, and how mailpieces and handling units are linked to containers. The documentation must also identify the preparer of the mailing and the mailer for whom the mailing is prepared (<E T="03">i.e.</E>, mail owner, if applicable). Mailers that otherwise meet the Full Service option standards and use Postage Statement Wizard for mailings that do not require documentation to support presort (mailings of fewer than 10,000 pieces with postage affixed to each piece at the correct rate or if all pieces are of identical weight, the pieces are separated by rate) will not be required to submit this additional documentation.</P>

        <P>Mailers will be required to schedule appointments using the FAST (Facility Access and Shipment Tracking) system for drop-ship mailings and for all origin-entered mail verified at a detached mail unit (DMU). Mailers may schedule appointments online using the FAST Web site or they may submit appointment requests through<E T="03">PostalOne!</E>FAST Web Services using the Transaction Messaging<E T="51">TM</E>specifications. This convenient messaging protocol allows customers to automate the appointment scheduling process and receive electronic<PRTPAGE P="1160"/>information about their appointments from the Postal Service.</P>
        <HD SOURCE="HD1">Requirements for Basic Intelligent Mail® Option</HD>
        <HD SOURCE="HD2">Intelligent Mail® Barcode</HD>
        <P>The 31-digit Intelligent Mail® barcode will be required on letter and flat mailpieces. Mailers will be required to include the delivery point routing code in the barcode. The USPS will issue a Mailer ID to each mailer for use in the Intelligent Mail® barcodes. Mailers must include this USPS-assigned Mailer ID in all Intelligent Mail® barcodes. In most circumstances, mailers will be expected to use the mail owner's ID in their Intelligent Mail® barcodes. Under this option, mailers will not be required to uniquely number their mailpieces. Mailers will simply populate the Intelligent Mail® barcode with the Mailer ID, delivery point routing code, the class of mail (service type identifier), and optional endorsement line (OEL) if an OEL is printed on the mailpiece. Mailers using pressure sensitive barcoded presort labels will not be required to include this information in the Intelligent Mail® barcode.</P>
        <HD SOURCE="HD2">Scheduling Using FAST (Facility Access and Shipment Tracking)</HD>

        <P>Mailers will be required to schedule appointments electronically using the FAST system for drop-ship mailings. Mailers may schedule appointments online using the FAST web site or they may submit appointment requests through<E T="03">PostalOne!</E>FAST Web Services using the Transaction Messaging<E T="51">TM</E>specifications.</P>
        <HD SOURCE="HD1">Additional Available Mailing Information With the Full-Service Option</HD>
        <P>Implementation of the Intelligent Mail® barcodes and electronic mailing documentation solutions will offer mailers better visibility into the mailstream. The additional fields in the Intelligent Mail® barcodes expand the ability of mailers to track individual pieces, handling units and containers; receive information about mail preparation and address quality; and determine when a mailing was inducted to the postal system.</P>
        <P>Mailers that comply with the January 2009 requirement through the Full Service option (Intelligent Mail® barcodes, electronic documentation and appointment scheduling) will receive address correction services, if requested, and mail induction (start-the-clock) information at no additional charge. We understand that some mailers will be interested in more granular information such as piece, unit, and container tracking and service performance data at a mailing-specific level. We plan to make such information available at an additional charge, either through an existing service such as Confirm or through a service that we develop later.</P>
        <HD SOURCE="HD1">Descriptions of Intelligent Mail® Barcodes and Electronic Documentation</HD>
        <HD SOURCE="HD2">Types of Intelligent Mail® Barcodes</HD>
        <P>The Intelligent Mail® program includes the following three Postal Service barcodes that enable the tracking of letter and flat pieces, handling units and containers as they move across the Postal Service network:</P>
        <P>• Intelligent Mail® barcode for mailpieces</P>
        <P>• Intelligent Mail® tray barcode for handling units (trays and sacks)</P>
        <P>• Intelligent Mail® container barcode for containers (pallets, APCs, gaylords, etc.)Each of these barcodes is mailer applied and has a common customer identifier called the Mailer ID which can be used to associate the mailpiece, handling unit or container to the appropriate mailer. Each barcode also has a field which is used to support a serial number allowing mailers to uniquely identify their mailpieces, handling units and containers.</P>
        <HD SOURCE="HD2">Intelligent Mail® Barcode for Mailpieces</HD>
        <P>The Intelligent Mail® barcode is a 65-bar USPS barcode used to sort and track letters and flats. It allows the mailer to number each mailpiece so that it can be uniquely identified in the mailing. The Intelligent Mail® barcode contains a USPS-assigned Mailer ID field.</P>

        <P>There are two formats of the Intelligent Mail® barcode. The format a mailer will use depends upon the Mailer ID assigned by the Postal Service (see examples of an Intelligent Mail® barcode with a 6-Digit Mailer ID and with a 9-Digit Mailer ID on Postal Explorer at<E T="03">pe.usps</E>.com—click on<E T="04">Federal Register</E>Notices in the left frame).</P>
        <P>The following fields are embedded in the Intelligent Mail® barcode:</P>
        <P>
          <E T="03">Barcode ID:</E>The barcode identifier is a 2-digit field that is used to specify the presort makeup.</P>
        <P>
          <E T="03">Service Type Identifier:</E>Used to indicate the class of mail and request special services such as tracking or address correction.</P>
        <P>
          <E T="03">Mailer ID:</E>Used to identify mail owners and/or mailing agents. The Mailer ID is assigned by the Postal Service. The Postal Service assigns 6-digit or 9-digit Mailer IDs based upon the mail volume of the mail owner/mailing agent. Mail owners and mailing agents will be expected to use the mail owner's Mailer ID in the Intelligent Mail® barcode in most circumstances. Mailer IDs can be obtained by making a request to the<E T="03">PostalOne!</E>Help Desk at 800-522-9085.</P>
        <P>
          <E T="03">Serial Number:</E>If a 6-digit Mailer ID is assigned, the mailer will have a 9-digit Serial Number to uniquely identify the mailpieces. If a 9-digit Mailer ID is assigned, the mailer will have a 6-digit Serial Number to identify the mailpieces. To comply with the Full Service option standards, the Serial Number field is populated with a unique number for each mailpiece in the mailing. These unique mailpiece IDs must be maintained unique for 45 days from the date of induction.</P>
        <P>To access the automation prices through the Basic option, the minimum information required in the Intelligent Mail® barcode will be the Service Type Identifier (showing class of mail), Mailer ID, delivery point routing code, and OEL information if an OEL is printed on the mailpiece.</P>
        <P>To access the automation prices through the Full Service option, the required information in the Intelligent Mail® barcode will be the Service Type Identifier (showing class of mail), Mailer ID, delivery point routing code, OEL information if an OEL is printed on the mailpiece and a unique serial number.</P>

        <P>To view the final specifications and for detailed information on how to generate the Intelligent Mail® barcode, access the Intelligent Mail® barcode link from<E T="03">http://ribbs.usps.gov/.</E>
        </P>
        <HD SOURCE="HD3">Intelligent Mail® Tray Barcode for Trays and Sacks</HD>

        <P>Today, mailers that prepare their mail in trays and sacks typically use a 10-digit barcode that contains only sorting information on their labels (see example on Postal Explorer at<E T="03">pe.usps.com</E>—click on<E T="04">Federal Register</E>Notices in the left frame). A 24-digit Intelligent Mail® tray barcode will be available for mailers that use barcoded tray or sack labels. The Intelligent Mail® tray barcode not only includes routing information but also includes additional fields to identify the mailer and uniquely identify each tray or sack. Use of the Intelligent Mail® tray barcode allows mailpieces bearing Intelligent Mail® barcodes to be linked to the specific tray or sack in which they are placed. The Intelligent Mail® tray barcode is applied to a label called the 10/24 Digit Intelligent Mail® tray label (see example on Postal Explorer at<E T="03">pe.usps.com</E>—click on<E T="04">Federal Register</E>Notices in the left frame). The 10/24<PRTPAGE P="1161"/>Digit Intelligent Mail® tray label is a transitional label which contains the current 10-digit barcode on it as well as the 24-digit Intelligent Mail® tray barcode. The inclusion of the current 10-digit barcode on the label is a transitional strategy as the Postal Service enhances all processing systems to read the 24-digit barcode. Mailers will need to use the new 10/24 Digit Intelligent Mail® tray label to comply with the full service option standards.</P>

        <P>There are two formats of the Intelligent Mail® tray barcode. The format a mailer will use depends upon the Mailer ID assigned by the Postal Service (see an example of an Intelligent Mail® tray barcode with a 9-Digit Mailer ID, and with a 6-Digit Mailer ID on Postal Explorer at<E T="03">pe.usps.com</E>).</P>
        <P>The following fields are embedded in the Intelligent Mail® barcode:</P>
        <P>
          <E T="03">ZIP Code:</E>Used to identify the destination of the tray or sack.</P>
        <P>
          <E T="03">Content Identifier Number (CIN):</E>Describes the contents of the tray or sack including presort level and class.</P>
        <P>
          <E T="03">Content Label Source (L SCR):</E>Used to designate that the contents of the tray or sack are automation compatible.</P>
        <P>
          <E T="03">Mailer ID:</E>A 6-digit or 9-digit Mailer ID assigned by the Postal Service for use in the Intelligent Mail® barcodes.</P>
        <P>
          <E T="03">Serial Number:</E>A mailer will use this field to uniquely identify individual trays or sacks. If a 6-digit Mailer ID is assigned, the mailer will have an 8-digit Serial Number to uniquely identify the handling units. If a 9-digit Mailer ID is assigned, the mailer will have a 5-digit Serial Number to uniquely identify the handling units. To participate in the Full Service option, the Serial Number field is populated with a unique number for each handling unit (tray or sack) in the mailing. These unique mailpiece IDs must be maintained unique for 45 days from the date of induction.</P>
        <P>
          <E T="03">Label Type:</E>Indicates the length of the Mailer ID field.</P>
        <P>To access the automation prices through the Full Service option, mailers will be required to populate all fields in the Intelligent Mail® tray barcode to include a unique serial number.</P>

        <P>To view the final specifications and for detailed information on how to generate the Intelligent Mail® tray barcode, access the Intelligent Mail® tray label link from<E T="03">http://ribbs.usps.gov/</E>.</P>
        <HD SOURCE="HD3">Intelligent Mail® Container Barcode for Pallets, APCs, Rolling Stock</HD>

        <P>Mailers typically apply a label on containers of mail deposited with the Postal Service. Today, mailers are not required to put a barcode on these labels. The Postal Service has introduced a label format which includes the Intelligent Mail® container barcode (see both examples on Postal Explorer at<E T="03">pe.usps.com</E>—click on<E T="04">Federal Register</E>Notices in the left frame). This barcode includes fields to identify the mailer and uniquely identify the containers. To comply with the Full Service option standards, mailers will need to apply the label to all containers such as pallets, APCs, rolling stock, and gaylords.</P>
        <P>The Postal Service is also exploring other modifications to container labeling to improve the visibility and scanning of the barcodes. The proposed changes would require the use of green identifying strips or borders for enhanced visual identification of the Intelligent Mail® container barcode and the application of three labels (increased from the two labels currently required) with one facing the tail of the truck on all drop shipments and plant load mailings. These changes would provide the flexibility needed to scan the barcodes in processing and enhance the ability to locate the barcodes quickly at varying distances.</P>

        <P>There are two formats of the Intelligent Mail® container barcode. The format a mailer will use depends upon the Mailer ID assigned by the Postal Service (see examples of an Intelligent Mail® container barcode with a 9-Digit Mailer ID and with a 6-Digit Mailer ID on Postal Explorer at<E T="03">pe.usps.com</E>—click on<E T="04">Federal Register</E>Notices in the left frame).</P>
        <P>The following fields are embedded in the Intelligent Mail® barcode:</P>
        <P>
          <E T="03">Application ID (Appl ID):</E>“99” indicates the source of the barcode.</P>
        <P>
          <E T="03">Type Indicator:</E>“M” indicates a mailer generated barcode.</P>
        <P>
          <E T="03">Mailer ID:</E>A 6-digit or 9-digit Mailer ID assigned by the Postal Service for use in the Intelligent Mail barcodes.</P>
        <P>
          <E T="03">Serial Number:</E>A mailer will use this field to uniquely identify individual containers. If a 6-digit Mailer ID is assigned, the mailer will have a 12-digit Serial Number to uniquely identify the containers. If a 9-digit Mailer ID is assigned, the mailer will have a 9-digit Serial Number to uniquely identify the containers. To participate in the Full Service option, the Serial Number field is populated with a unique number for each container in the mailing. These unique mailpiece IDs must be maintained unique for 45 days from the date of induction.</P>
        <P>To access the automation prices through the Full Service option, mailers will be required to populate all fields in the Intelligent Mail® container barcode to include a unique serial number.</P>

        <P>To view the final specifications and for detailed information on how to generate the Intelligent Mail container barcode, access the Intelligent Mail Container barcode link from<E T="03">http://ribbs.usps.gov/</E>.</P>
        <HD SOURCE="HD1">Electronic Documentation</HD>

        <P>To participate in the Full Service option, mailers will be required to submit their postage statements and mailing documentation, when applicable, electronically using one of three methods: Mail.dat®, Wizard Web Services or Postage Statement Wizard. Electronic information is transmitted to the Postal Service's<E T="03">PostalOne!</E>System. The information is used for verification, acceptance, and payment. The<E T="03">PostalOne!</E>System can also use this information to automate payment processes using ACH Debit or Credit payment methods. With the<E T="03">PostalOne!</E>System, mailers have access to their mailing documentation and financial transaction information 24 hours a day, seven days a week.</P>
        <P>
          <E T="03">Mail.dat:</E>Mail.dat file submission is part of the overall<E T="03">PostalOne!</E>application and provides customers with the capability of submitting mailing documents over a secure connection with the Postal Service. Mail.dat uses industry standard electronic file formats developed by IDEAlliance to facilitate communication of mailing information to the Postal Service. Mailing information is sent electronically to the<E T="03">PostalOne!</E>System where it is stored and used to generate documentation to support verification and payment.</P>
        <P>
          <E T="03">Wizard Web Service:</E>The Wizard Web Service is part of the overall<E T="03">PostalOne!</E>application and provides customers with the capability of submitting mailing documents through the internet using a Web service over a secure connection with the Postal Service. The Wizard Web Service uses a Simple Object Access Protocol (SOAP) to submit information in an Extensible Markup Language (XML) format that ensures that the data can be sent and received by applications written in various languages and deployed on various platforms. Mailing information is sent via Wizard Web Service to the<E T="03">PostalOne!</E>system where it is stored and used to generate documentation to support verification and payment.</P>
        <P>
          <E T="03">Postage Statement Wizard:</E>The Postage Statement Wizard is an online tool that allows mailers to enter their postage statement information using a secure<E T="03">PostalOne!</E>account. The Postage Statement Wizard verifies completed information for an online postage statement and automatically populates<PRTPAGE P="1162"/>the Permit Holder section of the postage statement based on the account number provided. It guides the user through the items needed to complete the statement. The Postage Statement Wizard automatically calculates the postage and validates the information entered. Once the postage statement is completed online, the electronic statements will be submitted directly to the acceptance unit.</P>

        <P>For detailed information about electronic mailing information options, access<E T="03">http://www.usps.com/postalone/guides.htm</E>.</P>
        <AUTH>
          <HD SOURCE="HED">Authority:</HD>
          <P>5 U.S.C. 552(a); 39 U.S.C. 101, 401, 403, 404, 414, 416, 3001-3011, 3201-3219, 3403-3406, 3621, 3626, 5001.</P>
        </AUTH>
        <SIG>
          <NAME>Neva R. Watson,</NAME>
          <TITLE>Attorney, Legislative.</TITLE>
        </SIG>
      </SUPLINF>
      <FRDOC>[FR Doc. E7-25635 Filed 1-4-08; 8:45 am]</FRDOC>
      <BILC