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  <VOL>76</VOL>
  <NO>105</NO>
  <DATE>Wednesday, June 1, 2011</DATE>
  <UNITNAME>Contents</UNITNAME>
  <CNTNTS>
    <AGCY>
      <EAR>Agricultural Marketing</EAR>
      <PRTPAGE P="iii"/>
      <HD>Agricultural Marketing Service</HD>
      <CAT>
        <HD>PROPOSED RULES</HD>
        <DOCENT>
          <DOC>National Organic Program, Sunset Review (2013),</DOC>
          <PGS>31495-31499</PGS>
          <FRDOCBP D="4" T="01JNP1.sgm">2011-13496</FRDOCBP>
        </DOCENT>
      </CAT>
      <CAT>
        <HD>NOTICES</HD>
        <DOCENT>
          <DOC>2011 Farmers Market Promotion Program; Funds Availability,</DOC>
          <PGS>31571-31573</PGS>
          <FRDOCBP D="2" T="01JNN1.sgm">2011-13483</FRDOCBP>
        </DOCENT>
        <DOCENT>
          <DOC>Cotton Research and Promotion Program; Review,</DOC>
          <PGS>31573-31574</PGS>
          <FRDOCBP D="1" T="01JNN1.sgm">2011-13500</FRDOCBP>
        </DOCENT>
        <DOCENT>
          <DOC>Peanut Standards Board; Request for Nominations,</DOC>
          <PGS>31574-31575</PGS>
          <FRDOCBP D="1" T="01JNN1.sgm">2011-13499</FRDOCBP>
        </DOCENT>
        <DOCENT>
          <DOC>Standards for Grades of Frozen Onions,</DOC>
          <PGS>31575-31576</PGS>
          <FRDOCBP D="1" T="01JNN1.sgm">2011-13501</FRDOCBP>
        </DOCENT>
      </CAT>
    </AGCY>
    <AGCY>
      <EAR>Agriculture</EAR>
      <HD>Agriculture Department</HD>
      <SEE>
        <HD SOURCE="HED">See</HD>
        <P>Agricultural Marketing Service</P>
      </SEE>
      <SEE>
        <HD SOURCE="HED">See</HD>
        <P>Animal and Plant Health Inspection Service</P>
      </SEE>
      <SEE>
        <HD SOURCE="HED">See</HD>
        <P>Forest Service</P>
      </SEE>
      <SEE>
        <HD SOURCE="HED">See</HD>
        <P>Grain Inspection, Packers and Stockyards Administration</P>
      </SEE>
      <CAT>
        <HD>NOTICES</HD>
        <DOCENT>
          <DOC>Agency Information Collection Activities; Proposals, Submissions, and Approvals,</DOC>
          <PGS>31571</PGS>
          <FRDOCBP D="0" T="01JNN1.sgm">2011-13506</FRDOCBP>
        </DOCENT>
      </CAT>
    </AGCY>
    <AGCY>
      <EAR>Air Force</EAR>
      <HD>Air Force Department</HD>
      <CAT>
        <HD>NOTICES</HD>
        <SJ>Environmental Impact Statements; Availability, etc.:</SJ>
        <SJDENT>
          <SJDOC>Barry M. Goldwater Range East Range Enhancements,</SJDOC>
          <PGS>31598</PGS>
          <FRDOCBP D="0" T="01JNN1.sgm">2011-13459</FRDOCBP>
        </SJDENT>
      </CAT>
    </AGCY>
    <AGCY>
      <EAR>Animal</EAR>
      <HD>Animal and Plant Health Inspection Service</HD>
      <CAT>
        <HD>PROPOSED RULES</HD>
        <DOCENT>
          <DOC>Lists of Regions Classified with Respect to Certain Animal Diseases and States Approved to Receive Certain Imported Horses,</DOC>
          <PGS>31499-31507</PGS>
          <FRDOCBP D="8" T="01JNP1.sgm">2011-13504</FRDOCBP>
        </DOCENT>
      </CAT>
      <CAT>
        <HD>NOTICES</HD>
        <SJ>Agency Information Collection Activities; Proposals, Submissions, and Approvals:</SJ>
        <SJDENT>
          <SJDOC>Importation of Clementines from Spain,</SJDOC>
          <PGS>31576-31577</PGS>
          <FRDOCBP D="1" T="01JNN1.sgm">2011-13502</FRDOCBP>
        </SJDENT>
        <SJ>Pest Risk Analyses for Importation; Availability</SJ>
        <SJDENT>
          <SJDOC>Fresh Apricot, Sweet Cherry, and Plumcot Fruit from South Africa,</SJDOC>
          <PGS>31577-31578</PGS>
          <FRDOCBP D="1" T="01JNN1.sgm">2011-13503</FRDOCBP>
        </SJDENT>
      </CAT>
    </AGCY>
    <AGCY>
      <EAR>Antitrust Division</EAR>
      <HD>Antitrust Division</HD>
      <CAT>
        <HD>NOTICES</HD>
        <SJ>National Cooperative Research and Production Act of 1993:</SJ>
        <SJDENT>
          <SJDOC>Global Climate and Energy Project,</SJDOC>
          <PGS>31638</PGS>
          <FRDOCBP D="0" T="01JNN1.sgm">2011-13306</FRDOCBP>
        </SJDENT>
      </CAT>
    </AGCY>
    <AGCY>
      <EAR>Centers Disease</EAR>
      <HD>Centers for Disease Control and Prevention</HD>
      <CAT>
        <HD>NOTICES</HD>
        <DOCENT>
          <DOC>NIOSH Fire Fighter Fatality Investigation and Prevention Program,</DOC>
          <PGS>31613</PGS>
          <FRDOCBP D="0" T="01JNN1.sgm">2011-13533</FRDOCBP>
        </DOCENT>
      </CAT>
    </AGCY>
    <AGCY>
      <EAR>Centers Medicare</EAR>
      <HD>Centers for Medicare &amp; Medicaid Services</HD>
      <CAT>
        <HD>PROPOSED RULES</HD>
        <SJ>Medicare Program:</SJ>
        <SJDENT>
          <SJDOC>Proposed Changes to Electronic Prescribing Incentive Program,</SJDOC>
          <PGS>31547-31556</PGS>
          <FRDOCBP D="9" T="01JNP1.sgm">2011-13463</FRDOCBP>
        </SJDENT>
      </CAT>
      <CAT>
        <HD>NOTICES</HD>
        <DOCENT>
          <DOC>Agency Information Collection Activities; Proposals, Submissions, and Approvals,</DOC>
          <PGS>31613-31614</PGS>
          <FRDOCBP D="1" T="01JNN1.sgm">2011-13458</FRDOCBP>
        </DOCENT>
      </CAT>
    </AGCY>
    <AGCY>
      <EAR>Children</EAR>
      <HD>Children and Families Administration</HD>
      <CAT>
        <HD>NOTICES</HD>
        <SJ>Agency Information Collection Activities; Proposals, Submissions, and Approvals:</SJ>
        <SJDENT>
          <SJDOC>State Developmental Disabilities Council 5-Year State Plan,</SJDOC>
          <PGS>31614-31615</PGS>
          <FRDOCBP D="1" T="01JNN1.sgm">2011-13416</FRDOCBP>
        </SJDENT>
      </CAT>
    </AGCY>
    <AGCY>
      <EAR>Commerce</EAR>
      <HD>Commerce Department</HD>
      <SEE>
        <HD SOURCE="HED">See</HD>
        <P>Economic Development Administration</P>
      </SEE>
      <SEE>
        <HD SOURCE="HED">See</HD>
        <P>Foreign-Trade Zones Board</P>
      </SEE>
      <SEE>
        <HD SOURCE="HED">See</HD>
        <P>Industry and Security Bureau</P>
      </SEE>
      <SEE>
        <HD SOURCE="HED">See</HD>
        <P>International Trade Administration</P>
      </SEE>
      <SEE>
        <HD SOURCE="HED">See</HD>
        <P>National Oceanic and Atmospheric Administration</P>
      </SEE>
      <CAT>
        <HD>NOTICES</HD>
        <DOCENT>
          <DOC>Agency Information Collection Activities; Proposals, Submissions, and Approvals,</DOC>
          <PGS>31581-31582</PGS>
          <FRDOCBP D="1" T="01JNN1.sgm">2011-13410</FRDOCBP>
          <FRDOCBP D="0" T="01JNN1.sgm">2011-13492</FRDOCBP>
        </DOCENT>
      </CAT>
    </AGCY>
    <AGCY>
      <EAR>Commodity Futures</EAR>
      <HD>Commodity Futures Trading Commission</HD>
      <CAT>
        <HD>PROPOSED RULES</HD>
        <DOCENT>
          <DOC>Public Roundtable on Protection of Cleared Swaps Customer Collateral,</DOC>
          <PGS>31518</PGS>
          <FRDOCBP D="0" T="01JNP1.sgm">2011-13585</FRDOCBP>
        </DOCENT>
      </CAT>
    </AGCY>
    <AGCY>
      <EAR>Defense Department</EAR>
      <HD>Defense Department</HD>
      <SEE>
        <HD SOURCE="HED">See</HD>
        <P>Air Force Department</P>
      </SEE>
    </AGCY>
    <AGCY>
      <EAR>Drug</EAR>
      <HD>Drug Enforcement Administration</HD>
      <CAT>
        <HD>NOTICES</HD>
        <DOCENT>
          <DOC>Manufacturers of Controlled Substances; Applications,</DOC>
          <PGS>31638-31639</PGS>
          <FRDOCBP D="1" T="01JNN1.sgm">2011-13487</FRDOCBP>
        </DOCENT>
      </CAT>
    </AGCY>
    <AGCY>
      <EAR>Economic Development</EAR>
      <HD>Economic Development Administration</HD>
      <CAT>
        <HD>NOTICES</HD>
        <SJ>Meetings:</SJ>
        <SJDENT>
          <SJDOC>National Advisory Council on Innovation and Entrepreneurship,</SJDOC>
          <PGS>31582-31583</PGS>
          <FRDOCBP D="1" T="01JNN1.sgm">2011-13411</FRDOCBP>
        </SJDENT>
      </CAT>
    </AGCY>
    <AGCY>
      <EAR>Employee Benefits</EAR>
      <HD>Employee Benefits Security Administration</HD>
      <CAT>
        <HD>PROPOSED RULES</HD>
        <DOCENT>
          <DOC>Requirements for Fee Disclosure to Plan Fiduciaries and Participants - Applicability Dates,</DOC>
          <PGS>31544-31545</PGS>
          <FRDOCBP D="1" T="01JNP1.sgm">2011-13516</FRDOCBP>
        </DOCENT>
      </CAT>
    </AGCY>
    <AGCY>
      <EAR>Energy Department</EAR>
      <HD>Energy Department</HD>
      <SEE>
        <HD SOURCE="HED">See</HD>
        <P>Federal Energy Regulatory Commission</P>
      </SEE>
      <CAT>
        <HD>RULES</HD>
        <SJ>Energy Conservation Program for Certain Consumer Appliances:</SJ>
        <SJDENT>
          <SJDOC>Test Procedures for Battery Chargers and External Power Supplies,</SJDOC>
          <PGS>31750-31783</PGS>
          <FRDOCBP D="33" T="01JNR2.sgm">2011-12595</FRDOCBP>
        </SJDENT>
      </CAT>
      <CAT>
        <HD>NOTICES</HD>
        <DOCENT>
          <DOC>Agency Information Collection Activities; Proposals, Submissions, and Approvals,</DOC>
          <PGS>31598</PGS>
          <FRDOCBP D="0" T="01JNN1.sgm">2011-13508</FRDOCBP>
        </DOCENT>
        <SJ>Meetings:</SJ>
        <SJDENT>
          <SJDOC>Environmental Management Site-Specific Advisory Board, Paducah, KY,</SJDOC>
          <PGS>31599</PGS>
          <FRDOCBP D="0" T="01JNN1.sgm">2011-13509</FRDOCBP>
        </SJDENT>
      </CAT>
    </AGCY>
    <AGCY>
      <EAR>Environmental Protection</EAR>
      <HD>Environmental Protection Agency</HD>
      <CAT>
        <HD>RULES</HD>
        <SJ>Exemptions from Requirements of Tolerances:</SJ>
        <SJDENT>
          <SJDOC>Ethylene Glycol,</SJDOC>
          <PGS>31471-31479</PGS>
          <FRDOCBP D="8" T="01JNR1.sgm">2011-13577</FRDOCBP>
        </SJDENT>
        <SJ>Pesticide Tolerances:</SJ>
        <SJDENT>
          <SJDOC>Bromoxynil,</SJDOC>
          <PGS>31485-31491</PGS>
          <FRDOCBP D="6" T="01JNR1.sgm">2011-13565</FRDOCBP>
        </SJDENT>
        <SJDENT>
          <SJDOC>Pyraflufen-ethyl,</SJDOC>
          <PGS>31479-31485</PGS>
          <FRDOCBP D="6" T="01JNR1.sgm">2011-13587</FRDOCBP>
        </SJDENT>
      </CAT>
      <CAT>
        <PRTPAGE P="iv"/>
        <HD>NOTICES</HD>
        <DOCENT>
          <DOC>Agency Information Collection Activities; Proposals, Submissions, and Approvals,</DOC>
          <PGS>31604-31605</PGS>
          <FRDOCBP D="1" T="01JNN1.sgm">2011-13405</FRDOCBP>
        </DOCENT>
        <SJ>Agency Information Collection Activities; Proposals, Submissions, and Approvals:</SJ>
        <SJDENT>
          <SJDOC>Palos Verdes Shelf Seafood Consumption Survey,</SJDOC>
          <PGS>31605-31606</PGS>
          <FRDOCBP D="1" T="01JNN1.sgm">2011-13578</FRDOCBP>
        </SJDENT>
        <DOCENT>
          <DOC>Cryolite Registration Review Docket,</DOC>
          <PGS>31606</PGS>
          <FRDOCBP D="0" T="01JNN1.sgm">2011-13584</FRDOCBP>
        </DOCENT>
        <DOCENT>
          <DOC>Product Cancellation Order for Certain Pesticide Registrations,</DOC>
          <PGS>31606-31611</PGS>
          <FRDOCBP D="5" T="01JNN1.sgm">2011-13579</FRDOCBP>
        </DOCENT>
        <SJ>Waste Isolation Pilot Plant Compliance with Applicable Federal Environmental Laws:</SJ>
        <SJDENT>
          <SJDOC>Biennial Determination for Period 2008 to 2010,</SJDOC>
          <PGS>31611</PGS>
          <FRDOCBP D="0" T="01JNN1.sgm">2011-13570</FRDOCBP>
        </SJDENT>
      </CAT>
    </AGCY>
    <AGCY>
      <EAR>Equal</EAR>
      <HD>Equal Employment Opportunity Commission</HD>
      <CAT>
        <HD>NOTICES</HD>
        <DOCENT>
          <DOC>Meetings; Sunshine Act,</DOC>
          <PGS>31611-31612</PGS>
          <FRDOCBP D="1" T="01JNN1.sgm">2011-13717</FRDOCBP>
        </DOCENT>
      </CAT>
    </AGCY>
    <AGCY>
      <EAR>Federal Aviation</EAR>
      <HD>Federal Aviation Administration</HD>
      <CAT>
        <HD>RULES</HD>
        <SJ>Airworthiness Directives:</SJ>
        <SJDENT>
          <SJDOC>BAE SYSTEMS (OPERATIONS) LIMITED Model BAe 146 and Avro 146-RJ Airplanes,</SJDOC>
          <PGS>31459-31462</PGS>
          <FRDOCBP D="3" T="01JNR1.sgm">2011-12585</FRDOCBP>
        </SJDENT>
        <SJDENT>
          <SJDOC>Boeing Co. Model DC-10-10, DC-10-10F, DC-10-15, DC-10-30, DC-10-30F, etc. Airplanes,</SJDOC>
          <PGS>31462-31464</PGS>
          <FRDOCBP D="2" T="01JNR1.sgm">2011-12592</FRDOCBP>
        </SJDENT>
        <SJDENT>
          <SJDOC>Diamond Aircraft Industries GmbH Model DA 42 Airplanes,</SJDOC>
          <PGS>31457-31459</PGS>
          <FRDOCBP D="2" T="01JNR1.sgm">2011-12898</FRDOCBP>
        </SJDENT>
        <SJDENT>
          <SJDOC>Various Aircraft Equipped with Rotax Aircraft Engines 912 A Series Engine,</SJDOC>
          <PGS>31465-31467</PGS>
          <FRDOCBP D="2" T="01JNR1.sgm">2011-13336</FRDOCBP>
        </SJDENT>
        <SJ>Special Conditions:</SJ>
        <SJDENT>
          <SJDOC>Boeing Model 747-8 Airplanes; Stairway Between Main Deck and Upper Deck,</SJDOC>
          <PGS>31451-31453</PGS>
          <FRDOCBP D="2" T="01JNR1.sgm">2011-13433</FRDOCBP>
        </SJDENT>
        <SJDENT>
          <SJDOC>Gulfstream Model GVI Airplane; Automatic Speed Protection for Design Dive Speed,</SJDOC>
          <PGS>31454-31456</PGS>
          <FRDOCBP D="2" T="01JNR1.sgm">2011-13434</FRDOCBP>
        </SJDENT>
        <SJDENT>
          <SJDOC>Gulfstream Model GVI Airplane; Electronic Flight Control System; Control Surface Position Awareness,</SJDOC>
          <PGS>31456-31457</PGS>
          <FRDOCBP D="1" T="01JNR1.sgm">2011-13436</FRDOCBP>
        </SJDENT>
        <SJDENT>
          <SJDOC>Gulfstream Model GVI Airplane; Single-Occupant Side-Facing Seats,</SJDOC>
          <PGS>31453-31454</PGS>
          <FRDOCBP D="1" T="01JNR1.sgm">2011-13435</FRDOCBP>
        </SJDENT>
      </CAT>
      <CAT>
        <HD>PROPOSED RULES</HD>
        <SJ>Airworthiness Directives:</SJ>
        <SJDENT>
          <SJDOC>Saab AB, Saab Aerosystems Model SAAB 2000 Airplanes,</SJDOC>
          <PGS>31508-31510</PGS>
          <FRDOCBP D="2" T="01JNP1.sgm">2011-13505</FRDOCBP>
        </SJDENT>
        <SJ>Proposed Amendments of Class E Airspace:</SJ>
        <SJDENT>
          <SJDOC>Rutherfordton, NC,</SJDOC>
          <PGS>31510-31511</PGS>
          <FRDOCBP D="1" T="01JNP1.sgm">2011-13561</FRDOCBP>
        </SJDENT>
      </CAT>
      <CAT>
        <HD>NOTICES</HD>
        <SJ>Agency Information Collection Activities; Proposals, Submissions, and Approvals:</SJ>
        <SJDENT>
          <SJDOC>Certificated Training Centers - Simulator Rule,</SJDOC>
          <PGS>31673-31674</PGS>
          <FRDOCBP D="1" T="01JNN1.sgm">2011-13568</FRDOCBP>
        </SJDENT>
        <SJDENT>
          <SJDOC>Reduction of Fuel Tank Flammability on Transport Category Airplanes,</SJDOC>
          <PGS>31674-31675</PGS>
          <FRDOCBP D="1" T="01JNN1.sgm">2011-13571</FRDOCBP>
        </SJDENT>
        <SJDENT>
          <SJDOC>SWIFT Customer Satisfaction Survey,</SJDOC>
          <PGS>31674</PGS>
          <FRDOCBP D="0" T="01JNN1.sgm">2011-13583</FRDOCBP>
        </SJDENT>
      </CAT>
    </AGCY>
    <AGCY>
      <EAR>Federal Emergency</EAR>
      <HD>Federal Emergency Management Agency</HD>
      <CAT>
        <HD>NOTICES</HD>
        <SJ>Major Disaster Declarations:</SJ>
        <SJDENT>
          <SJDOC>Connecticut; Amendment No. 1,</SJDOC>
          <PGS>31623</PGS>
          <FRDOCBP D="0" T="01JNN1.sgm">2011-13518</FRDOCBP>
        </SJDENT>
        <SJDENT>
          <SJDOC>Kentucky; Amendment No. 5,</SJDOC>
          <PGS>31622</PGS>
          <FRDOCBP D="0" T="01JNN1.sgm">2011-13512</FRDOCBP>
        </SJDENT>
        <SJDENT>
          <SJDOC>Missouri; Amendment No. 2,</SJDOC>
          <PGS>31622</PGS>
          <FRDOCBP D="0" T="01JNN1.sgm">2011-13513</FRDOCBP>
        </SJDENT>
        <SJDENT>
          <SJDOC>Oklahoma; Amendment No. 2,</SJDOC>
          <PGS>31622</PGS>
          <FRDOCBP D="0" T="01JNN1.sgm">2011-13515</FRDOCBP>
        </SJDENT>
      </CAT>
    </AGCY>
    <AGCY>
      <EAR>Federal Energy</EAR>
      <HD>Federal Energy Regulatory Commission</HD>
      <CAT>
        <HD>NOTICES</HD>
        <SJ>Applications:</SJ>
        <SJDENT>
          <SJDOC>Southern Star Central Gas Pipeline, Inc.,</SJDOC>
          <PGS>31599-31600</PGS>
          <FRDOCBP D="1" T="01JNN1.sgm">2011-13474</FRDOCBP>
        </SJDENT>
        <DOCENT>
          <DOC>Combined Filings,</DOC>
          <FRDOCBP D="0" T="01JNN1.sgm">2011-13461</FRDOCBP>
          <PGS>31600-31603</PGS>
          <FRDOCBP D="1" T="01JNN1.sgm">2011-13462</FRDOCBP>
          <FRDOCBP D="2" T="01JNN1.sgm">2011-13465</FRDOCBP>
          <FRDOCBP D="0" T="01JNN1.sgm">2011-13466</FRDOCBP>
        </DOCENT>
        <SJ>Initial Market-Based Rate Filing Includes Request for Blanket Section 204 Authorization:</SJ>
        <SJDENT>
          <SJDOC>KES Kingsburg, L.P.,</SJDOC>
          <PGS>31603-31604</PGS>
          <FRDOCBP D="1" T="01JNN1.sgm">2011-13467</FRDOCBP>
        </SJDENT>
        <SJDENT>
          <SJDOC>Lyonsdale Biomass LLC,</SJDOC>
          <PGS>31604</PGS>
          <FRDOCBP D="0" T="01JNN1.sgm">2011-13464</FRDOCBP>
        </SJDENT>
      </CAT>
    </AGCY>
    <AGCY>
      <EAR>Federal Highway</EAR>
      <HD>Federal Highway Administration</HD>
      <CAT>
        <HD>NOTICES</HD>
        <DOCENT>
          <DOC>Agency Information Collection Activities; Proposals, Submissions, and Approvals,</DOC>
          <PGS>31675-31676</PGS>
          <FRDOCBP D="1" T="01JNN1.sgm">2011-13412</FRDOCBP>
        </DOCENT>
        <SJ>Environmental Impact Statements; Availability, etc.:</SJ>
        <SJDENT>
          <SJDOC>National Summary of Rescinded Notices of Intent,</SJDOC>
          <PGS>31676-31677</PGS>
          <FRDOCBP D="1" T="01JNN1.sgm">2011-13541</FRDOCBP>
        </SJDENT>
        <DOCENT>
          <DOC>Final Federal Agency Actions on Proposed Highway in California,</DOC>
          <PGS>31677-31678</PGS>
          <FRDOCBP D="1" T="01JNN1.sgm">2011-13545</FRDOCBP>
        </DOCENT>
      </CAT>
    </AGCY>
    <AGCY>
      <EAR>Federal Reserve</EAR>
      <HD>Federal Reserve System</HD>
      <CAT>
        <HD>RULES</HD>
        <SJ>Equal Credit Opportunity:</SJ>
        <SJDENT>
          <SJDOC>Technical Amendment,</SJDOC>
          <PGS>31451</PGS>
          <FRDOCBP D="0" T="01JNR1.sgm">2011-13430</FRDOCBP>
        </SJDENT>
      </CAT>
      <CAT>
        <HD>NOTICES</HD>
        <SJ>Changes in Bank Control:</SJ>
        <SJDENT>
          <SJDOC>Acquisitions of Shares of a Bank or Bank Holding Company,</SJDOC>
          <PGS>31612</PGS>
          <FRDOCBP D="0" T="01JNN1.sgm">2011-13393</FRDOCBP>
        </SJDENT>
        <SJDENT>
          <SJDOC>Formations of, Acquisitions by, and Mergers of Bank Holding Companies; Correction,</SJDOC>
          <PGS>31612</PGS>
          <FRDOCBP D="0" T="01JNN1.sgm">2011-13392</FRDOCBP>
        </SJDENT>
      </CAT>
    </AGCY>
    <AGCY>
      <EAR>Federal Trade</EAR>
      <HD>Federal Trade Commission</HD>
      <CAT>
        <HD>RULES</HD>
        <SJ>Guide Concerning Fuel Economy Advertising for New Automobiles:</SJ>
        <SJDENT>
          <SJDOC>Postponement of Amendment,</SJDOC>
          <PGS>31467-31468</PGS>
          <FRDOCBP D="1" T="01JNR1.sgm">2011-13519</FRDOCBP>
        </SJDENT>
      </CAT>
      <CAT>
        <HD>PROPOSED RULES</HD>
        <DOCENT>
          <DOC>Labeling Requirements for Alternative Fuels and Alternative Fueled Vehicles,</DOC>
          <PGS>31513-31517</PGS>
          <FRDOCBP D="4" T="01JNP1.sgm">2011-13520</FRDOCBP>
        </DOCENT>
      </CAT>
    </AGCY>
    <AGCY>
      <EAR>Fish</EAR>
      <HD>Fish and Wildlife Service</HD>
      <CAT>
        <HD>PROPOSED RULES</HD>
        <SJ>Endangered and Threatened Wildlife and Plants:</SJ>
        <SJDENT>
          <SJDOC>Revised Critical Habitat for the Riverside Fairy Shrimp,</SJDOC>
          <PGS>31686-31747</PGS>
          <FRDOCBP D="61" T="01JNP2.sgm">2011-12947</FRDOCBP>
        </SJDENT>
      </CAT>
      <CAT>
        <HD>NOTICES</HD>
        <SJ>Meetings:</SJ>
        <SJDENT>
          <SJDOC>North American Wetlands Conservation Council,</SJDOC>
          <PGS>31626</PGS>
          <FRDOCBP D="0" T="01JNN1.sgm">2011-13551</FRDOCBP>
        </SJDENT>
      </CAT>
    </AGCY>
    <AGCY>
      <EAR>Food and Drug</EAR>
      <HD>Food and Drug Administration</HD>
      <CAT>
        <HD>RULES</HD>
        <SJ>Division of Freedom of Information:</SJ>
        <SJDENT>
          <SJDOC>Change of Office Name, Address, Telephone Number, and Fax Number; Technical Amendments,</SJDOC>
          <PGS>31468-31470</PGS>
          <FRDOCBP D="2" T="01JNR1.sgm">2011-13488</FRDOCBP>
        </SJDENT>
      </CAT>
      <CAT>
        <HD>NOTICES</HD>
        <SJ>Draft Guidance for Industry and Staff; Availability:</SJ>
        <SJDENT>
          <SJDOC>Commercially Distributed In Vitro Diagnostic Products Labeled for Research or Investigational Use Only,</SJDOC>
          <PGS>31615-31616</PGS>
          <FRDOCBP D="1" T="01JNN1.sgm">2011-13390</FRDOCBP>
        </SJDENT>
      </CAT>
    </AGCY>
    <AGCY>
      <EAR>Foreign Assets</EAR>
      <HD>Foreign Assets Control Office</HD>
      <CAT>
        <HD>RULES</HD>
        <DOCENT>
          <DOC>Taliban (Afghanistan) Sanctions Regulations,</DOC>
          <PGS>31470-31471</PGS>
          <FRDOCBP D="1" T="01JNR1.sgm">2011-13581</FRDOCBP>
        </DOCENT>
      </CAT>
    </AGCY>
    <AGCY>
      <EAR>Foreign Trade</EAR>
      <HD>Foreign-Trade Zones Board</HD>
      <CAT>
        <HD>NOTICES</HD>
        <SJ>Reorganizations and Expansions under Alternative Site Framework:</SJ>
        <SJDENT>
          <SJDOC>Foreign-Trade Zone 203; Moses Lake, WA,</SJDOC>
          <PGS>31583</PGS>
          <FRDOCBP D="0" T="01JNN1.sgm">2011-13572</FRDOCBP>
        </SJDENT>
        <SJ>Reorganizations under Alternative Site Framework:</SJ>
        <SJDENT>
          <SJDOC>Foreign-Trade Zone 152, Burns Harbor, IN,</SJDOC>
          <PGS>31583</PGS>
          <FRDOCBP D="0" T="01JNN1.sgm">2011-13573</FRDOCBP>
        </SJDENT>
        <SJDENT>
          <SJDOC>Foreign-Trade Zone 86, Tacoma, WA,</SJDOC>
          <PGS>31584</PGS>
          <FRDOCBP D="0" T="01JNN1.sgm">2011-13569</FRDOCBP>
        </SJDENT>
      </CAT>
    </AGCY>
    <AGCY>
      <EAR>Forest</EAR>
      <PRTPAGE P="v"/>
      <HD>Forest Service</HD>
      <CAT>
        <HD>NOTICES</HD>
        <SJ>Meetings:</SJ>
        <SJDENT>
          <SJDOC>Gallatin County Resource Advisory Committee,</SJDOC>
          <PGS>31579</PGS>
          <FRDOCBP D="0" T="01JNN1.sgm">2011-13632</FRDOCBP>
        </SJDENT>
        <SJDENT>
          <SJDOC>Siskiou Resource Advisory Committee,</SJDOC>
          <PGS>31578-31579</PGS>
          <FRDOCBP D="1" T="01JNN1.sgm">2011-13543</FRDOCBP>
        </SJDENT>
      </CAT>
    </AGCY>
    <AGCY>
      <EAR>General Services</EAR>
      <HD>General Services Administration</HD>
      <CAT>
        <HD>PROPOSED RULES</HD>
        <SJ>Federal Management Regulations:</SJ>
        <SJDENT>
          <SJDOC>Motor Vehicle Management,</SJDOC>
          <PGS>31545-31546</PGS>
          <FRDOCBP D="1" T="01JNP1.sgm">2011-13215</FRDOCBP>
        </SJDENT>
      </CAT>
    </AGCY>
    <AGCY>
      <EAR>Grain Inspection</EAR>
      <HD>Grain Inspection, Packers and Stockyards Administration</HD>
      <CAT>
        <HD>NOTICES</HD>
        <SJ>Designations:</SJ>
        <SJDENT>
          <SJDOC>State of Georgia and State of Montana Areas,</SJDOC>
          <PGS>31579-31580</PGS>
          <FRDOCBP D="1" T="01JNN1.sgm">2011-13453</FRDOCBP>
        </SJDENT>
        <SJ>Opportunities for Designations:</SJ>
        <SJDENT>
          <SJDOC>State of Alabama; Saginaw, TX; Essex, IL; Springfield, IL; Savage, MN; and State of Washington Areas,</SJDOC>
          <PGS>31580-31581</PGS>
          <FRDOCBP D="1" T="01JNN1.sgm">2011-13452</FRDOCBP>
        </SJDENT>
      </CAT>
    </AGCY>
    <AGCY>
      <EAR>Health and Human</EAR>
      <HD>Health and Human Services Department</HD>
      <SEE>
        <HD SOURCE="HED">See</HD>
        <P>Centers for Disease Control and Prevention</P>
      </SEE>
      <SEE>
        <HD SOURCE="HED">See</HD>
        <P>Centers for Medicare &amp; Medicaid Services</P>
      </SEE>
      <SEE>
        <HD SOURCE="HED">See</HD>
        <P>Children and Families Administration</P>
      </SEE>
      <SEE>
        <HD SOURCE="HED">See</HD>
        <P>Food and Drug Administration</P>
      </SEE>
      <SEE>
        <HD SOURCE="HED">See</HD>
        <P>National Institutes of Health</P>
      </SEE>
      <CAT>
        <HD>PROPOSED RULES</HD>
        <SJ>Designation of Medically Underserved Populations and Health Professional Shortage Areas:</SJ>
        <SJDENT>
          <SJDOC>Negotiated Rulemaking Committee Meeting,</SJDOC>
          <PGS>31546-31547</PGS>
          <FRDOCBP D="1" T="01JNP1.sgm">2011-13480</FRDOCBP>
        </SJDENT>
      </CAT>
      <CAT>
        <HD>NOTICES</HD>
        <DOCENT>
          <DOC>Agency Information Collection Activities; Proposals, Submissions, and Approvals,</DOC>
          <PGS>31612-31613</PGS>
          <FRDOCBP D="1" T="01JNN1.sgm">2011-13439</FRDOCBP>
        </DOCENT>
      </CAT>
    </AGCY>
    <AGCY>
      <EAR>Homeland</EAR>
      <HD>Homeland Security Department</HD>
      <SEE>
        <HD SOURCE="HED">See</HD>
        <P>Federal Emergency Management Agency</P>
      </SEE>
    </AGCY>
    <AGCY>
      <EAR>Housing</EAR>
      <HD>Housing and Urban Development Department</HD>
      <CAT>
        <HD>NOTICES</HD>
        <SJ>Agency Information Collection Activities; Proposals, Submissions, and Approvals:</SJ>
        <SJDENT>
          <SJDOC>Fellowship Placement Pilot Program,</SJDOC>
          <PGS>31623</PGS>
          <FRDOCBP D="0" T="01JNN1.sgm">2011-13593</FRDOCBP>
        </SJDENT>
        <SJDENT>
          <SJDOC>Ginnie Mae Mortgage-Backed Securities Guide 5500.3, Revision 1 (Forms and Electronic Data Submissions),</SJDOC>
          <PGS>31624-31625</PGS>
          <FRDOCBP D="1" T="01JNN1.sgm">2011-13595</FRDOCBP>
        </SJDENT>
      </CAT>
    </AGCY>
    <AGCY>
      <EAR>Industry</EAR>
      <HD>Industry and Security Bureau</HD>
      <CAT>
        <HD>NOTICES</HD>
        <SJ>Meetings:</SJ>
        <SJDENT>
          <SJDOC>President's Export Council Subcommittee on Export Administration; Correction,</SJDOC>
          <PGS>31584</PGS>
          <FRDOCBP D="0" T="01JNN1.sgm">2011-13582</FRDOCBP>
        </SJDENT>
      </CAT>
    </AGCY>
    <AGCY>
      <EAR>Interior</EAR>
      <HD>Interior Department</HD>
      <SEE>
        <HD SOURCE="HED">See</HD>
        <P>Fish and Wildlife Service</P>
      </SEE>
      <SEE>
        <HD SOURCE="HED">See</HD>
        <P>Land Management Bureau</P>
      </SEE>
    </AGCY>
    <AGCY>
      <EAR>Internal Revenue</EAR>
      <HD>Internal Revenue Service</HD>
      <CAT>
        <HD>PROPOSED RULES</HD>
        <DOCENT>
          <DOC>Controlled Groups; Deferral of Losses,</DOC>
          <PGS>31543</PGS>
          <FRDOCBP D="0" T="01JNP1.sgm">2011-13407</FRDOCBP>
        </DOCENT>
        <SJ>Disclosure of Returns and Return Information to Designee of Taxpayer:</SJ>
        <SJDENT>
          <SJDOC>Hearing Cancellation,</SJDOC>
          <PGS>31543-31544</PGS>
          <FRDOCBP D="1" T="01JNP1.sgm">2011-13408</FRDOCBP>
        </SJDENT>
      </CAT>
    </AGCY>
    <AGCY>
      <EAR>International Trade Adm</EAR>
      <HD>International Trade Administration</HD>
      <CAT>
        <HD>NOTICES</HD>
        <SJ>Antidumping Duty Administrative Reviews; Extensions of Preliminary Results:</SJ>
        <SJDENT>
          <SJDOC>Certain New Pneumatic Off-the-Road Tires from People's Republic of China,</SJDOC>
          <PGS>31584-31585</PGS>
          <FRDOCBP D="1" T="01JNN1.sgm">2011-13560</FRDOCBP>
        </SJDENT>
        <SJ>Antidumping Duty Administrative Reviews; Rescissions:</SJ>
        <SJDENT>
          <SJDOC>Forged Stainless Steel Flanges from India,</SJDOC>
          <PGS>31585</PGS>
          <FRDOCBP D="0" T="01JNN1.sgm">2011-13566</FRDOCBP>
        </SJDENT>
        <SJ>Antidumping or Countervailing Duty Orders, Findings, or Suspended Investigations:</SJ>
        <SJDENT>
          <SJDOC>Advance Notification of Sunset Reviews,</SJDOC>
          <PGS>31587-31588</PGS>
          <FRDOCBP D="1" T="01JNN1.sgm">2011-13558</FRDOCBP>
        </SJDENT>
        <SJDENT>
          <SJDOC>Opportunity to Request Administrative Review,</SJDOC>
          <PGS>31586-31587</PGS>
          <FRDOCBP D="1" T="01JNN1.sgm">2011-13553</FRDOCBP>
        </SJDENT>
        <SJ>Countervailing Duty Administrative Reviews; Rescissions:</SJ>
        <SJDENT>
          <SJDOC>Stainless Steel Plate in Coils from Belgium,</SJDOC>
          <PGS>31588</PGS>
          <FRDOCBP D="0" T="01JNN1.sgm">2011-13574</FRDOCBP>
        </SJDENT>
        <DOCENT>
          <DOC>Initiations of Five-Year (Sunset) Reviews,</DOC>
          <PGS>31588-31590</PGS>
          <FRDOCBP D="2" T="01JNN1.sgm">2011-13556</FRDOCBP>
        </DOCENT>
      </CAT>
    </AGCY>
    <AGCY>
      <EAR>International Trade Com</EAR>
      <HD>International Trade Commission</HD>
      <CAT>
        <HD>NOTICES</HD>
        <SJ>Antidumping Duty Orders; Institutions of Five-Year Reviews:</SJ>
        <SJDENT>
          <SJDOC>Helical Spring Lock Washers from China and Taiwan,</SJDOC>
          <PGS>31629-31631</PGS>
          <FRDOCBP D="2" T="01JNN1.sgm">2011-13445</FRDOCBP>
        </SJDENT>
        <SJDENT>
          <SJDOC>Pure Magnesium from China,</SJDOC>
          <PGS>31635-31638</PGS>
          <FRDOCBP D="3" T="01JNN1.sgm">2011-13448</FRDOCBP>
        </SJDENT>
        <SJDENT>
          <SJDOC>Tin- and Chromium-Coated Steel Sheet from Japan,</SJDOC>
          <PGS>31633-31635</PGS>
          <FRDOCBP D="2" T="01JNN1.sgm">2011-13446</FRDOCBP>
        </SJDENT>
        <SJ>Antidumping Duty Orders; Schedulings of Expedited Five-year Reviews:</SJ>
        <SJDENT>
          <SJDOC>Heavy Forged Hand Tools from China,</SJDOC>
          <PGS>31631-31632</PGS>
          <FRDOCBP D="1" T="01JNN1.sgm">2011-13450</FRDOCBP>
        </SJDENT>
        <DOCENT>
          <DOC>Complaints; Solicitation of Comments Relating to Public Interest,</DOC>
          <PGS>31632-31633</PGS>
          <FRDOCBP D="1" T="01JNN1.sgm">2011-13451</FRDOCBP>
        </DOCENT>
      </CAT>
    </AGCY>
    <AGCY>
      <EAR>Justice Department</EAR>
      <HD>Justice Department</HD>
      <SEE>
        <HD SOURCE="HED">See</HD>
        <P>Antitrust Division</P>
      </SEE>
      <SEE>
        <HD SOURCE="HED">See</HD>
        <P>Drug Enforcement Administration</P>
      </SEE>
      <SEE>
        <HD SOURCE="HED">See</HD>
        <P>Prisons Bureau</P>
      </SEE>
    </AGCY>
    <AGCY>
      <EAR>Labor Department</EAR>
      <HD>Labor Department</HD>
      <SEE>
        <HD SOURCE="HED">See</HD>
        <P>Employee Benefits Security Administration</P>
      </SEE>
      <CAT>
        <HD>NOTICES</HD>
        <SJ>Agency Information Collection Activities; Proposals, Submissions, and Approvals:</SJ>
        <SJDENT>
          <SJDOC>Enhanced Transitional Jobs Demonstration,</SJDOC>
          <PGS>31639-31641</PGS>
          <FRDOCBP D="2" T="01JNN1.sgm">2011-13454</FRDOCBP>
        </SJDENT>
        <SJ>Meetings:</SJ>
        <SJDENT>
          <SJDOC>Labor Advisory Committee for Trade Negotiations and Trade Policy,</SJDOC>
          <PGS>31641</PGS>
          <FRDOCBP D="0" T="01JNN1.sgm">2011-13490</FRDOCBP>
        </SJDENT>
      </CAT>
    </AGCY>
    <AGCY>
      <EAR>Land</EAR>
      <HD>Land Management Bureau</HD>
      <CAT>
        <HD>NOTICES</HD>
        <DOCENT>
          <DOC>Coal Exploration License Application WYW180006; Invitation to Participate,</DOC>
          <PGS>31626</PGS>
          <FRDOCBP D="0" T="01JNN1.sgm">2011-13471</FRDOCBP>
        </DOCENT>
        <SJ>Meetings:</SJ>
        <SJDENT>
          <SJDOC>Arizona Recreation Resource Advisory Council Workgroup,</SJDOC>
          <PGS>31626-31627</PGS>
          <FRDOCBP D="1" T="01JNN1.sgm">2011-13538</FRDOCBP>
        </SJDENT>
        <SJ>Realty Action:</SJ>
        <SJDENT>
          <SJDOC>Competitive Sale of Public Lands in Lake County, CA,</SJDOC>
          <PGS>31627-31629</PGS>
          <FRDOCBP D="2" T="01JNN1.sgm">2011-13299</FRDOCBP>
        </SJDENT>
      </CAT>
    </AGCY>
    <AGCY>
      <EAR>NASA</EAR>
      <HD>National Aeronautics and Space Administration</HD>
      <CAT>
        <HD>NOTICES</HD>
        <SJ>Meetings:</SJ>
        <SJDENT>
          <SJDOC>NASA Advisory Council; Science Committee; Planetary Science Subcommittee,</SJDOC>
          <PGS>31641</PGS>
          <FRDOCBP D="0" T="01JNN1.sgm">2011-13548</FRDOCBP>
        </SJDENT>
      </CAT>
    </AGCY>
    <AGCY>
      <EAR>National Archives</EAR>
      <HD>National Archives and Records Administration</HD>
      <CAT>
        <HD>NOTICES</HD>
        <DOCENT>
          <DOC>Agency Information Collection Activities; Proposals, Submissions, and Approvals,</DOC>
          <PGS>31641-31642</PGS>
          <FRDOCBP D="1" T="01JNN1.sgm">2011-13557</FRDOCBP>
        </DOCENT>
      </CAT>
    </AGCY>
    <AGCY>
      <EAR>National Institute</EAR>
      <PRTPAGE P="vi"/>
      <HD>National Institutes of Health</HD>
      <CAT>
        <HD>NOTICES</HD>
        <DOCENT>
          <DOC>Government-Owned Inventions; Availability for Licensing,</DOC>
          <PGS>31616-31617</PGS>
          <FRDOCBP D="1" T="01JNN1.sgm">2011-13521</FRDOCBP>
        </DOCENT>
        <SJ>Meetings:</SJ>
        <SJDENT>
          <SJDOC>Center for Scientific Review,</SJDOC>
          <PGS>31619-31620</PGS>
          <FRDOCBP D="1" T="01JNN1.sgm">2011-13534</FRDOCBP>
        </SJDENT>
        <SJDENT>
          <SJDOC>Center for Scientific Review; Cancellation,</SJDOC>
          <PGS>31619</PGS>
          <FRDOCBP D="0" T="01JNN1.sgm">2011-13535</FRDOCBP>
        </SJDENT>
        <SJDENT>
          <SJDOC>National Cancer Institute,</SJDOC>
          <PGS>31619</PGS>
          <FRDOCBP D="0" T="01JNN1.sgm">2011-13539</FRDOCBP>
        </SJDENT>
        <SJDENT>
          <SJDOC>National Cancer Institute; Amendment,</SJDOC>
          <PGS>31619</PGS>
          <FRDOCBP D="0" T="01JNN1.sgm">2011-13537</FRDOCBP>
          <FRDOCBP D="0" T="01JNN1.sgm">2011-13540</FRDOCBP>
        </SJDENT>
        <SJDENT>
          <SJDOC>National Center on Minority Health and Health Disparities,</SJDOC>
          <PGS>31618-31619</PGS>
          <FRDOCBP D="1" T="01JNN1.sgm">2011-13542</FRDOCBP>
        </SJDENT>
        <SJDENT>
          <SJDOC>National Heart, Lung, and Blood Institute,</SJDOC>
          <PGS>31617</PGS>
          <FRDOCBP D="0" T="01JNN1.sgm">2011-13523</FRDOCBP>
        </SJDENT>
        <SJDENT>
          <SJDOC>National Institute of Allergy and Infectious Diseases,</SJDOC>
          <PGS>31618</PGS>
          <FRDOCBP D="0" T="01JNN1.sgm">2011-13544</FRDOCBP>
        </SJDENT>
        <SJDENT>
          <SJDOC>National Institute of Diabetes and Digestive and Kidney Diseases,</SJDOC>
          <PGS>31618</PGS>
          <FRDOCBP D="0" T="01JNN1.sgm">2011-13546</FRDOCBP>
        </SJDENT>
        <SJDENT>
          <SJDOC>National Institute of Environmental Health Sciences,</SJDOC>
          <PGS>31620</PGS>
          <FRDOCBP D="0" T="01JNN1.sgm">2011-13529</FRDOCBP>
        </SJDENT>
        <SJDENT>
          <SJDOC>National Institute of Nursing Research,</SJDOC>
          <PGS>31621-31622</PGS>
          <FRDOCBP D="1" T="01JNN1.sgm">2011-13522</FRDOCBP>
          <FRDOCBP D="0" T="01JNN1.sgm">2011-13527</FRDOCBP>
        </SJDENT>
        <SJDENT>
          <SJDOC>National Library of Medicine,</SJDOC>
          <PGS>31621</PGS>
          <FRDOCBP D="0" T="01JNN1.sgm">2011-13524</FRDOCBP>
          <FRDOCBP D="0" T="01JNN1.sgm">2011-13525</FRDOCBP>
        </SJDENT>
      </CAT>
    </AGCY>
    <AGCY>
      <EAR>National Oceanic</EAR>
      <HD>National Oceanic and Atmospheric Administration</HD>
      <CAT>
        <HD>RULES</HD>
        <SJ>Fisheries of Northeastern United States:</SJ>
        <SJDENT>
          <SJDOC>Atlantic Sea Scallop Fishery; Closure of Nantucket Lightship Access Area,</SJDOC>
          <PGS>31491-31494</PGS>
          <FRDOCBP D="3" T="01JNR1.sgm">2011-13526</FRDOCBP>
        </SJDENT>
      </CAT>
      <CAT>
        <HD>PROPOSED RULES</HD>
        <SJ>Endangered and Threatened Wildlife and Plants:</SJ>
        <SJDENT>
          <SJDOC>Endangered Species Act Listing Determination for Atlantic Bluefin Tuna,</SJDOC>
          <PGS>31556-31570</PGS>
          <FRDOCBP D="14" T="01JNP1.sgm">2011-13627</FRDOCBP>
        </SJDENT>
      </CAT>
      <CAT>
        <HD>NOTICES</HD>
        <SJ>Endangered and Threatened Species:</SJ>
        <SJDENT>
          <SJDOC>Take of Anadromous Fish; Research Permit Applications,</SJDOC>
          <PGS>31590-31592</PGS>
          <FRDOCBP D="2" T="01JNN1.sgm">2011-13550</FRDOCBP>
        </SJDENT>
        <SJ>Endangered and Threatened Wildlife:</SJ>
        <SJDENT>
          <SJDOC>90-Day Finding on Petition to List Goliath Grouper as Threatened or Endangered,</SJDOC>
          <PGS>31592-31597</PGS>
          <FRDOCBP D="5" T="01JNN1.sgm">2011-13549</FRDOCBP>
        </SJDENT>
        <SJ>Permits:</SJ>
        <SJDENT>
          <SJDOC>Endangered Species; File No. 15614,</SJDOC>
          <PGS>31597-31598</PGS>
          <FRDOCBP D="1" T="01JNN1.sgm">2011-13547</FRDOCBP>
        </SJDENT>
      </CAT>
    </AGCY>
    <AGCY>
      <EAR>National Science</EAR>
      <HD>National Science Foundation</HD>
      <CAT>
        <HD>NOTICES</HD>
        <SJ>Meetings:</SJ>
        <SJDENT>
          <SJDOC>Committee on Equal Opportunities in Science and Engineering,</SJDOC>
          <PGS>31642</PGS>
          <FRDOCBP D="0" T="01JNN1.sgm">2011-13399</FRDOCBP>
        </SJDENT>
      </CAT>
    </AGCY>
    <AGCY>
      <EAR>Nuclear Regulatory</EAR>
      <HD>Nuclear Regulatory Commission</HD>
      <CAT>
        <HD>PROPOSED RULES</HD>
        <SJ>Domestic Licensing of Source Material:</SJ>
        <SJDENT>
          <SJDOC>Amendments/Integrated Safety Analysis; Correction,</SJDOC>
          <PGS>31507-31508</PGS>
          <FRDOCBP D="1" T="01JNP1.sgm">2011-13403</FRDOCBP>
        </SJDENT>
      </CAT>
      <CAT>
        <HD>NOTICES</HD>
        <DOCENT>
          <DOC>Meetings; Sunshine Act,</DOC>
          <PGS>31643</PGS>
          <FRDOCBP D="0" T="01JNN1.sgm">2011-13655</FRDOCBP>
        </DOCENT>
      </CAT>
    </AGCY>
    <AGCY>
      <EAR>Peace</EAR>
      <HD>Peace Corps</HD>
      <CAT>
        <HD>NOTICES</HD>
        <DOCENT>
          <DOC>Agency Information Collection Activities; Proposals, Submissions, and Approvals,</DOC>
          <PGS>31643-31644</PGS>
          <FRDOCBP D="1" T="01JNN1.sgm">2011-13351</FRDOCBP>
        </DOCENT>
      </CAT>
    </AGCY>
    <AGCY>
      <EAR>Personnel</EAR>
      <HD>Personnel Management Office</HD>
      <CAT>
        <HD>NOTICES</HD>
        <DOCENT>
          <DOC>Excepted Service,</DOC>
          <PGS>31644-31645</PGS>
          <FRDOCBP D="1" T="01JNN1.sgm">2011-13460</FRDOCBP>
        </DOCENT>
        <SJ>Meetings:</SJ>
        <SJDENT>
          <SJDOC>Hispanic Council on Federal Employment,</SJDOC>
          <PGS>31645</PGS>
          <FRDOCBP D="0" T="01JNN1.sgm">2011-13469</FRDOCBP>
        </SJDENT>
      </CAT>
    </AGCY>
    <AGCY>
      <EAR>Postal Regulatory</EAR>
      <HD>Postal Regulatory Commission</HD>
      <CAT>
        <HD>NOTICES</HD>
        <DOCENT>
          <DOC>Post Office Closings,</DOC>
          <PGS>31645-31646</PGS>
          <FRDOCBP D="1" T="01JNN1.sgm">2011-13477</FRDOCBP>
        </DOCENT>
      </CAT>
    </AGCY>
    <AGCY>
      <EAR>Prisons</EAR>
      <HD>Prisons Bureau</HD>
      <CAT>
        <HD>NOTICES</HD>
        <SJ>Environmental Assessments; Availability, etc.:</SJ>
        <SJDENT>
          <SJDOC>Contract to House Federal, Low-security, Criminal Aliens in Contractor-owned/Contractor-operated Correctional Facility,</SJDOC>
          <PGS>31639</PGS>
          <FRDOCBP D="0" T="01JNN1.sgm">2011-13486</FRDOCBP>
        </SJDENT>
      </CAT>
    </AGCY>
    <AGCY>
      <EAR>Securities</EAR>
      <HD>Securities and Exchange Commission</HD>
      <CAT>
        <HD>PROPOSED RULES</HD>
        <DOCENT>
          <DOC>Disqualification of Felons and Other Bad Actors from Rule 506 Offerings,</DOC>
          <PGS>31518-31543</PGS>
          <FRDOCBP D="25" T="01JNP1.sgm">2011-13370</FRDOCBP>
        </DOCENT>
      </CAT>
      <CAT>
        <HD>NOTICES</HD>
        <SJ>Filing of National Market System Plan to Address Extraordinary Market Volatility:</SJ>
        <SJDENT>
          <SJDOC>BATS Exchange, Inc., BATS Y-Exchange, Inc., Chicago Board Options Exchange, Inc. et al.,</SJDOC>
          <PGS>31647-31659</PGS>
          <FRDOCBP D="12" T="01JNN1.sgm">2011-13472</FRDOCBP>
        </SJDENT>
        <SJ>Self-Regulatory Organizations; Proposed Rule Changes:</SJ>
        <SJDENT>
          <SJDOC>BATS Exchange, Inc.,</SJDOC>
          <PGS>31660-31666</PGS>
          <FRDOCBP D="6" T="01JNN1.sgm">2011-13422</FRDOCBP>
        </SJDENT>
        <SJDENT>
          <SJDOC>New York Stock Exchange LLC,</SJDOC>
          <PGS>31659-31660</PGS>
          <FRDOCBP D="1" T="01JNN1.sgm">2011-13418</FRDOCBP>
        </SJDENT>
        <SJDENT>
          <SJDOC>NYSE Amex LLC,</SJDOC>
          <PGS>31667-31668</PGS>
          <FRDOCBP D="1" T="01JNN1.sgm">2011-13419</FRDOCBP>
        </SJDENT>
        <SJDENT>
          <SJDOC>NYSE Arca, Inc.,</SJDOC>
          <PGS>31668-31670</PGS>
          <FRDOCBP D="2" T="01JNN1.sgm">2011-13420</FRDOCBP>
        </SJDENT>
      </CAT>
    </AGCY>
    <AGCY>
      <EAR>Small Business</EAR>
      <HD>Small Business Administration</HD>
      <CAT>
        <HD>NOTICES</HD>
        <SJ>Major Disaster Declarations:</SJ>
        <SJDENT>
          <SJDOC>Kentucky,</SJDOC>
          <PGS>31671</PGS>
          <FRDOCBP D="0" T="01JNN1.sgm">2011-13491</FRDOCBP>
        </SJDENT>
        <SJDENT>
          <SJDOC>Kentucky; Amendment 1,</SJDOC>
          <PGS>31671</PGS>
          <FRDOCBP D="0" T="01JNN1.sgm">2011-13494</FRDOCBP>
        </SJDENT>
        <SJDENT>
          <SJDOC>Oklahoma,</SJDOC>
          <PGS>31670-31671</PGS>
          <FRDOCBP D="1" T="01JNN1.sgm">2011-13309</FRDOCBP>
        </SJDENT>
      </CAT>
    </AGCY>
    <AGCY>
      <EAR>Social</EAR>
      <HD>Social Security Administration</HD>
      <CAT>
        <HD>NOTICES</HD>
        <DOCENT>
          <DOC>Agency Information Collection Activities; Proposals, Submissions, and Approvals,</DOC>
          <PGS>31671-31673</PGS>
          <FRDOCBP D="2" T="01JNN1.sgm">2011-13409</FRDOCBP>
        </DOCENT>
      </CAT>
    </AGCY>
    <AGCY>
      <EAR>State Department</EAR>
      <HD>State Department</HD>
      <CAT>
        <HD>NOTICES</HD>
        <DOCENT>
          <DOC>Waiver of Restriction on Assistance to Arab Republic of Egypt,</DOC>
          <PGS>31673</PGS>
          <FRDOCBP D="0" T="01JNN1.sgm">2011-13536</FRDOCBP>
        </DOCENT>
      </CAT>
    </AGCY>
    <AGCY>
      <EAR>Surface Transportation</EAR>
      <HD>Surface Transportation Board</HD>
      <CAT>
        <HD>NOTICES</HD>
        <SJ>Acquisition and Operation Exemptions:</SJ>
        <SJDENT>
          <SJDOC>Saratoga and North Creek Railway, LLC and Delaware and Hudson Railway Co., Inc.,</SJDOC>
          <PGS>31678</PGS>
          <FRDOCBP D="0" T="01JNN1.sgm">2011-13493</FRDOCBP>
        </SJDENT>
        <SJ>Continuance in Control Exemptions:</SJ>
        <SJDENT>
          <SJDOC>San Luis and Rio Grande Railroad and Saratoga and North Creek Railway, LLC,</SJDOC>
          <PGS>31678-31679</PGS>
          <FRDOCBP D="1" T="01JNN1.sgm">2011-13479</FRDOCBP>
        </SJDENT>
        <SJ>Operation Exemptions:</SJ>
        <SJDENT>
          <SJDOC>Saratoga and North Creek Railway, LLC, Warren County, N.Y.,</SJDOC>
          <PGS>31679-31680</PGS>
          <FRDOCBP D="1" T="01JNN1.sgm">2011-13484</FRDOCBP>
        </SJDENT>
      </CAT>
    </AGCY>
    <AGCY>
      <EAR>Thrift Supervision</EAR>
      <HD>Thrift Supervision Office</HD>
      <CAT>
        <HD>NOTICES</HD>
        <DOCENT>
          <DOC>Agency Information Collection Activities; Proposals, Submissions, and Approvals,</DOC>
          <PGS>31680-31681</PGS>
          <FRDOCBP D="1" T="01JNN1.sgm">2011-13398</FRDOCBP>
        </DOCENT>
      </CAT>
    </AGCY>
    <AGCY>
      <EAR>Transportation Department</EAR>
      <HD>Transportation Department</HD>
      <SEE>
        <HD SOURCE="HED">See</HD>
        <P>Federal Aviation Administration</P>
      </SEE>
      <SEE>
        <HD SOURCE="HED">See</HD>
        <P>Federal Highway Administration</P>
      </SEE>
      <SEE>
        <HD SOURCE="HED">See</HD>
        <P>Surface Transportation Board</P>
      </SEE>
      <CAT>
        <HD>PROPOSED RULES</HD>
        <SJ>Aviation Data Modernizations:</SJ>
        <SJDENT>
          <SJDOC>Withdrawal,</SJDOC>
          <PGS>31511-31513</PGS>
          <FRDOCBP D="2" T="01JNP1.sgm">2011-13554</FRDOCBP>
        </SJDENT>
      </CAT>
      <CAT>
        <HD>NOTICES</HD>
        <SJ>Meetings:</SJ>
        <SJDENT>
          <SJDOC>Intelligent Transportation Systems Program Advisory Committee,</SJDOC>
          <PGS>31673</PGS>
          <FRDOCBP D="0" T="01JNN1.sgm">2011-13552</FRDOCBP>
        </SJDENT>
      </CAT>
    </AGCY>
    <AGCY>
      <EAR>Treasury</EAR>
      <PRTPAGE P="vii"/>
      <HD>Treasury Department</HD>
      <SEE>
        <HD SOURCE="HED">See</HD>
        <P>Foreign Assets Control Office</P>
      </SEE>
      <SEE>
        <HD SOURCE="HED">See</HD>
        <P>Internal Revenue Service</P>
      </SEE>
      <SEE>
        <HD SOURCE="HED">See</HD>
        <P>Thrift Supervision Office</P>
      </SEE>
      <CAT>
        <HD>NOTICES</HD>
        <SJ>Meetings:</SJ>
        <SJDENT>
          <SJDOC>President's Council on Jobs and Competitiveness,</SJDOC>
          <PGS>31680</PGS>
          <FRDOCBP D="0" T="01JNN1.sgm">2011-13528</FRDOCBP>
        </SJDENT>
      </CAT>
    </AGCY>
    <AGCY>
      <EAR>Veteran Affairs</EAR>
      <HD>Veterans Affairs Department</HD>
      <CAT>
        <HD>NOTICES</HD>
        <SJ>Agency Information Collection Activities; Proposals, Submissions, and Approvals:</SJ>
        <SJDENT>
          <SJDOC>Designation of Certifying Official(s),</SJDOC>
          <PGS>31683-31684</PGS>
          <FRDOCBP D="1" T="01JNN1.sgm">2011-13426</FRDOCBP>
        </SJDENT>
        <SJDENT>
          <SJDOC>Medical Expense Report,</SJDOC>
          <PGS>31684</PGS>
          <FRDOCBP D="0" T="01JNN1.sgm">2011-13427</FRDOCBP>
        </SJDENT>
        <SJDENT>
          <SJDOC>NCA PreNeed Burial Evaluation,</SJDOC>
          <PGS>31683</PGS>
          <FRDOCBP D="0" T="01JNN1.sgm">2011-13429</FRDOCBP>
        </SJDENT>
        <SJDENT>
          <SJDOC>Request for Information to Make Direct Payment to Child Reaching Majority,</SJDOC>
          <PGS>31681-31682</PGS>
          <FRDOCBP D="1" T="01JNN1.sgm">2011-13423</FRDOCBP>
        </SJDENT>
        <SJDENT>
          <SJDOC>Restored Entitlement Program for Survivors,</SJDOC>
          <PGS>31682</PGS>
          <FRDOCBP D="0" T="01JNN1.sgm">2011-13424</FRDOCBP>
        </SJDENT>
        <SJDENT>
          <SJDOC>Supporting Statement Regarding Marriage,</SJDOC>
          <PGS>31683</PGS>
          <FRDOCBP D="0" T="01JNN1.sgm">2011-13428</FRDOCBP>
        </SJDENT>
        <SJDENT>
          <SJDOC>Time Record (Work-Study Program),</SJDOC>
          <PGS>31682</PGS>
          <FRDOCBP D="0" T="01JNN1.sgm">2011-13425</FRDOCBP>
        </SJDENT>
      </CAT>
    </AGCY>
    <PTS>
      <HD SOURCE="HED">Separate Parts In This Issue</HD>
      <HD>Part II</HD>
      <DOCENT>
        <DOC>Interior Department, Fish and Wildlife Service,</DOC>
        <PGS>31686-31747</PGS>
        <FRDOCBP D="61" T="01JNP2.sgm">2011-12947</FRDOCBP>
      </DOCENT>
      <HD>Part III</HD>
      <DOCENT>
        <DOC>Energy Department,</DOC>
        <PGS>31750-31783</PGS>
        <FRDOCBP D="33" T="01JNR2.sgm">2011-12595</FRDOCBP>
      </DOCENT>
    </PTS>
    <AIDS>
      <HD SOURCE="HED">Reader Aids</HD>
      <P>Consult the Reader Aids section at the end of this page for phone numbers, online resources, finding aids, reminders, and notice of recently enacted public laws.</P>
      <P/>
      <P>To subscribe to the Federal Register Table of Contents LISTSERV electronic mailing list, go to http://listserv.access.gpo.gov and select Online mailing list archives, FEDREGTOC-L, Join or leave the list (or change settings); then follow the instructions.</P>
    </AIDS>
  </CNTNTS>
  <VOL>76</VOL>
  <NO>105</NO>
  <DATE>Wednesday, June 1, 2011</DATE>
  <UNITNAME>Rules and Regulations</UNITNAME>
  <RULES>
    <RULE>
      <PREAMB>
        <PRTPAGE P="31451"/>
        <AGENCY TYPE="F">FEDERAL RESERVE SYSTEM</AGENCY>
        <CFR>12 CFR Part 202</CFR>
        <DEPDOC>[Regulation B; Docket No. R-1420]</DEPDOC>
        <SUBJECT>Equal Credit Opportunity</SUBJECT>
        <AGY>
          <HD SOURCE="HED">AGENCY:</HD>
          <P>Board of Governors of the Federal Reserve System.</P>
        </AGY>
        <ACT>
          <HD SOURCE="HED">ACTION:</HD>
          <P>Final rule; technical amendment.</P>
        </ACT>
        <SUM>
          <HD SOURCE="HED">SUMMARY:</HD>
          <P>The Board is publishing amendments to Regulation B (Equal Credit Opportunity Act) to update the address where questions should be directed concerning creditors for which the Federal Deposit Insurance Corporation administers compliance with the regulation.</P>
        </SUM>
        <DATES>
          <HD SOURCE="HED">DATES:</HD>
          <P>
            <E T="03">Effective Date:</E>July 1, 2011. Compliance is optional until May 31, 2012.</P>
        </DATES>
        <FURINF>
          <HD SOURCE="HED">FOR FURTHER INFORMATION CONTACT:</HD>
          <P>Jamie Z. Goodson or Priscilla Walton-Fein, Attorneys, Division of Consumer and Community Affairs, Board of Governors of the Federal Reserve System, at (202) 452-3667. For the users of Telecommunications Device for the Deaf (“TDD”) only, contact (202) 263-4869.</P>
        </FURINF>
      </PREAMB>
      <SUPLINF>
        <HD SOURCE="HED">SUPPLEMENTARY INFORMATION:</HD>

        <P>The Equal Credit Opportunity Act (ECOA), 15 U.S.C. 1691-1691f, makes it unlawful for a creditor to discriminate against an applicant in any aspect of a credit transaction on the basis of the applicant's national origin, marital status, religion, sex, color, race, age (provided the applicant has the capacity to contract), receipt of public assistance benefits, or the good faith exercise of a right under the Consumer Credit Protection Act, 15 U.S.C. 1601<E T="03">et seq.</E>The ECOA is implemented by the Board's Regulation B.</P>
        <P>In addition to the general prohibition against discrimination, Regulation B contains specific rules concerning the taking and evaluation of credit applications, including procedures and notices for credit denials and other adverse actions. Under section 202.9 of Regulation B, notification given to an applicant when adverse action is taken must contain the name and address of the federal agency that administers compliance with respect to the creditor. Appendix A of Regulation B contains the names and addresses of the enforcement agencies where questions concerning a particular creditor shall be directed. This amendment updates the address for the Federal Deposit Insurance Corporation. Creditors for which the Federal Deposit Insurance Corporation administers compliance with Regulation B must include this new address on their adverse action notices starting May 31, 2012.</P>
        <HD SOURCE="HD1">12 CFR Chapter II</HD>
        <LSTSUB>
          <HD SOURCE="HED">List of Subjects in 12 CFR Part 202</HD>
          <P>Aged, Banks, Banking, Civil rights, Consumer protections, Credit, Discrimination, Federal Reserve System, Marital status discrimination, Penalties, Religious discrimination, Sex discrimination.</P>
        </LSTSUB>
        <HD SOURCE="HD1">Authority and Issuance</HD>
        <P>For the reasons set forth in the preamble, the Board amends 12 CFR part 202 to read as set forth below:</P>
        <REGTEXT PART="202" TITLE="12">
          <PART>
            <HD SOURCE="HED">PART 202—EQUAL CREDIT OPPORTUNITY ACT (REGULATION B)</HD>
          </PART>
          <AMDPAR>1. The authority citation for part 202 continues to read as follows:</AMDPAR>
          <AUTH>
            <HD SOURCE="HED">Authority:</HD>
            <P>Section 15 U.S.C. 1691-1691f.</P>
          </AUTH>
        </REGTEXT>
        
        <REGTEXT PART="202" TITLE="12">
          <AMDPAR>2. Appendix A is amended by removing the fourth paragraph and adding a new paragraph in its place to read as follows:</AMDPAR>
          <APPENDIX>
            <HD SOURCE="HED">Appendix A to Part 202—Federal Enforcement Agencies</HD>
            <STARS/>
            <P>
              <E T="03">Nonmember Insured Banks and Insured State Branches of Foreign Banks:</E>FDIC Consumer Response Center, 1100 Walnut Street, Box #11, Kansas City, MO 64106.</P>
            <STARS/>
          </APPENDIX>
        </REGTEXT>
        <SIG>
          <DATED>By order of the Board of Governors of the Federal Reserve System, acting through the Secretary of the Board under delegated authority, May 25, 2011.</DATED>
          <NAME>Jennifer J. Johnson,</NAME>
          <TITLE>Secretary of the Board.</TITLE>
        </SIG>
      </SUPLINF>
      <FRDOC>[FR Doc. 2011-13430 Filed 5-31-11; 8:45 am]</FRDOC>
      <BILCOD>BILLING CODE 6210-01-P</BILCOD>
    </RULE>
    <RULE>
      <PREAMB>
        <AGENCY TYPE="N">DEPARTMENT OF TRANSPORTATION</AGENCY>
        <SUBAGY>Federal Aviation Administration</SUBAGY>
        <CFR>14 CFR Part 25</CFR>
        <DEPDOC>[Docket No. NM450; Special Conditions No. 25-430-SC]</DEPDOC>
        <SUBJECT>Special Conditions: Boeing Model 747-8 Airplanes; Stairway Between the Main Deck and Upper Deck</SUBJECT>
        <AGY>
          <HD SOURCE="HED">AGENCY:</HD>
          <P>Federal Aviation Administration (FAA), DOT.</P>
        </AGY>
        <ACT>
          <HD SOURCE="HED">ACTION:</HD>
          <P>Final special conditions.</P>
        </ACT>
        <SUM>
          <HD SOURCE="HED">SUMMARY:</HD>
          <P>These special conditions are issued for Boeing Model 747-8 airplanes. This airplane will have novel or unusual design features when compared to the state of technology envisioned in the airworthiness standards for transport category airplanes. These design features include a stairway between the main deck and upper deck. These special conditions contain the additional safety standards that the Administrator considers necessary to establish a level of safety equivalent to that established by the existing airworthiness standards. Additional special conditions will be issued for other novel or unusual design features of Boeing 747-8 airplanes.</P>
        </SUM>
        <DATES>
          <HD SOURCE="HED">DATES:</HD>
          <P>
            <E T="03">Effective Date:</E>July 1, 2011</P>
        </DATES>
        <FURINF>
          <HD SOURCE="HED">FOR FURTHER INFORMATION CONTACT:</HD>
          <P>Jayson Claar, FAA, Airframe and Cabin Safety Branch, ANM-115, Transport Airplane Directorate, Aircraft Certification Service, 1601 Lind Avenue, SW., Renton, Washington 98057-3356; telephone (425) 227-2194; facsimile (425) 227-1232.</P>
        </FURINF>
      </PREAMB>
      <SUPLINF>
        <HD SOURCE="HED">SUPPLEMENTARY INFORMATION:</HD>
        <P/>
        <HD SOURCE="HD1">Background</HD>

        <P>On November 4, 2005, The Boeing Company, PO Box 3707, Seattle, WA, 98124, applied for an amendment to Type Certificate Number A20WE to include the new Model 747-8 series passenger airplane. The Model 747-8 is a derivative of the 747-400. The Model 747-8 is a four-engine jet transport<PRTPAGE P="31452"/>airplane that will have a maximum takeoff weight of 975,000 pounds, new General Electric GEnx -2B67 engines, and the capacity to carry 605 passengers.</P>
        <HD SOURCE="HD1">Type Certification Basis</HD>
        <P>Under the provisions of Title 14, Code of Federal Regulations (14 CFR) 21.101, Boeing must show that the Model 747-8 (hereafter referred as 747-8) meets the applicable provisions of part 25, Amendments 25-1 through 25-120, plus Amendment 25-127 for § 25.795(a), except for earlier amendments as agreed upon by the FAA. These regulations will be incorporated into Type Certificate No. A20WE after type certification approval of the 747-8.</P>
        <P>In addition, the certification basis includes other regulations, special conditions, and exemptions that are not relevant to these special conditions. Type Certificate No. A20WE will be updated to include a complete description of the certification basis for these airplanes.</P>
        <P>If the Administrator finds that the applicable airworthiness regulations (i.e., 14 CFR part 25) do not contain adequate or appropriate safety standards for the 747-8 because of a novel or unusual design feature, special conditions are prescribed under the provisions of § 21.16.</P>
        <P>Special conditions are initially applicable to the model for which they are issued. Should the type certificate for that model be amended later to include any other model or series that incorporates the same or similar novel or unusual design feature, or should any other model or series already included on the same type certificate be modified to incorporate the same or similar novel or unusual design feature, the special conditions would also apply to the other model or series under § 21.101.</P>
        <P>In addition to the applicable airworthiness regulations and special conditions, the 747-8 must comply with the fuel vent and exhaust emission requirements of 14 CFR part 34 and the noise certification requirements of 14 CFR part 36.</P>
        <P>Special conditions, as defined in § 11.19, are issued under § 11.38, and become part of the type certification basis under § 21.101.</P>
        <HD SOURCE="HD1">Novel or Unusual Design Features</HD>
        <P>The Boeing Model 747-8 will incorporate the following novel or unusual design features: The 747-8 design offers seating capacity on two separate decks, the main deck with a maximum passenger capacity of 495 and the upper deck with a maximum passenger capacity of 110. Occupants can move between decks via a staircase located near door 2 on the main deck of the airplane in the forward part of the cabin. With large seating capacities on the main deck and upper deck of the 747-8, the stairway must be designed to support evacuation between decks of the airplane in an in-flight emergency.</P>
        <HD SOURCE="HD1">Discussion</HD>
        <P>The regulations governing the certification of the 747-8 do not adequately address the certification requirements for a two-deck passenger airplane. The Airbus A380-800 and all of the earlier Boeing 747 passenger airplane models were certified with seating capacity on two separate decks. When the seating capacity of the upper deck of the Boeing 747 exceeded 24 passengers, the FAA issued Special Condition No. 25-61-NW-1 for a maximum seat capacity of 32 passengers on the upper deck for take-off and landing. A second set of special conditions, Special Condition No. 25-71-NW-3, was issued to include airplanes up to a maximum seating capacity of 45 passengers on the upper deck for take-off and landing. The second set of special conditions was modified to address airplanes with a maximum seating capacity of 110 passengers on the upper deck for take-off and landing. Special Conditions No. 25-326-SC for the Airbus A380-800 allowed a seating capacity on two separate decks: the main deck with a maximum passenger capacity of 542 and the upper deck with a maximum passenger capacity of 308. Although these previously issued special conditions for the A380-800 provided a starting point for developing the 747-8 special conditions, the 747-8 special conditions are specific to the unique aspects of this airplane's design.</P>
        <P>The regulations do not adequately address a passenger airplane with separate decks for passenger occupancy, thus the FAA considers this to be a novel design. Therefore, the FAA has determined that special conditions, in addition to the requirements of §§ 25.803 and 25.811 through 25.813, are required to address the proposed design.</P>
        <HD SOURCE="HD1">Discussion of Comments</HD>

        <P>Notice of proposed special conditions No. 25-11-08-SC for Boeing Model 747-8 airplanes was published in the<E T="04">Federal Register</E>on March 18, 2011 (76 FR 14819). No comments were received and the special conditions are adopted as proposed.</P>
        <HD SOURCE="HD1">Applicability</HD>
        <P>As discussed above, these special conditions are applicable to Boeing Model 747-8 airplanes. Should Boeing apply at a later date for a change to the type certificate to include another model incorporating the same novel or unusual design features, these special conditions would apply to that model as well.</P>
        <HD SOURCE="HD1">Conclusion</HD>
        <P>This action affects only certain novel or unusual design features of Boeing Model 747-8 airplanes. It is not a rule of general applicability.</P>
        <LSTSUB>
          <HD SOURCE="HED">List of Subjects in 14 CFR Part 25</HD>
          <P>Aircraft, Aviation safety, Reporting and recordkeeping requirements.</P>
        </LSTSUB>
        
        <P>The authority citation for these special conditions is as follows:</P>
        <AUTH>
          <HD SOURCE="HED">Authority:</HD>
          <P>49 U.S.C. 106(g), 40113, 44701, 44702, 44704.</P>
        </AUTH>
        <HD SOURCE="HD1">The Special Conditions</HD>
        <P>Accordingly, pursuant to the authority delegated to me by the Administrator, the following special conditions are issued as part of the type certification basis for Boeing Model 747-8 airplanes.</P>
        <P>1. The stairway must have essentially straight route segments with a landing at each significant change in segment direction.</P>
        <P>2. The stairway must have essentially rectangular treads.</P>
        <P>3. With the airplane in level attitude and in each attitude resulting from the collapse of one or more legs of the landing gear, the stairway must have entrance, exit, and gradient characteristics that allow the upper deck passengers, with assistance from a crewmember, to merge with passengers on the main deck during an emergency evacuation and exit the airplane through a main deck exit. This must be shown by demonstration, tests, analysis, or any combination thereof.</P>
        <P>4. The stairway must accommodate the carriage of an incapacitated occupant from the upper deck to the main deck. The crewmember procedures for such carriage must be established and included in the airplane flight manual.</P>
        <P>5. The stairway must be located to provide occupants an adequate descent rate under probable emergency conditions, including a condition in which an occupant falls or is incapacitated while on the stairway.</P>

        <P>6. The stairway must be designed and located to minimize damage to its structure during an emergency landing or ditching.<PRTPAGE P="31453"/>
        </P>
        <P>7. General illumination must be provided so, when measured along the center lines of each tread and landing, the illumination is not less than 0.05 foot-candle. This is in lieu of compliance with § 25.812(c), at Amendment 25-116.</P>
        <P>8. Means must be provided to assist passengers in locating the stairway in dense smoke conditions as part of compliance with § 25.811(c), at Amendment 25-88.</P>
        <P>9. An emergency exit sign meeting § 25.812(b)(1)(i), at Amendment 25-116, must be provided in the upper deck near the stairway visible to passengers approaching along the main aisle as required by § 25.811(d)(1), at Amendment 25-88.</P>
        <P>10. Floor proximity lighting required by § 25.812(e), at Amendment 25-120, must be provided along the stairs.</P>
        <P>11. When passengers occupy the upper deck, at least one flight attendant must also be present during taxi, take-off, and landing.</P>
        <P>12. The stairway must have a handrail on at least one side to allow occupants to steady themselves during foreseeable conditions, including but not limited to, gear collapse on the ground and moderate turbulence in flight. The handrail(s) must be constructed so there is no obstruction on them that will cause the user to release his/her grip or hinder the continuous movement of the hands along the handrail. Handrail(s) must be terminated in a manner that will not interfere with occupants walking by or create a hazard (such as catching clothing). Boeing must demonstrate that the design can accommodate the stature of a fifth percentile female and a ninety-fifth percentile male.</P>
        <P>13. The public address system must be intelligible in the stairway during all flight phases.</P>
        <P>14. “No smoking” and “return to seat” signs must be installed and visible in the stairway both going up and down and at the stairway entrances.</P>
        <SIG>
          <DATED>Issued in Renton, Washington, on May 25, 2011.</DATED>
          <NAME>Ali Bahrami,</NAME>
          <TITLE>Manager, Transport Airplane Directorate, Aircraft Certification Service.</TITLE>
        </SIG>
      </SUPLINF>
      <FRDOC>[FR Doc. 2011-13433 Filed 5-31-11; 8:45 am]</FRDOC>
      <BILCOD>BILLING CODE 4910-13-P</BILCOD>
    </RULE>
    <RULE>
      <PREAMB>
        <AGENCY TYPE="S">DEPARTMENT OF TRANSPORTATION</AGENCY>
        <SUBAGY>Federal Aviation Administration</SUBAGY>
        <CFR>14 CFR Part 25</CFR>
        <DEPDOC>[Docket No. NM439; Special Conditions No. 25-428-SC]</DEPDOC>
        <SUBJECT>Special Conditions: Gulfstream Model GVI Airplane; Single-Occupant Side-Facing Seats</SUBJECT>
        <AGY>
          <HD SOURCE="HED">AGENCY:</HD>
          <P>Federal Aviation Administration (FAA), DOT.</P>
        </AGY>
        <ACT>
          <HD SOURCE="HED">ACTION:</HD>
          <P>Final special conditions.</P>
        </ACT>
        <SUM>
          <HD SOURCE="HED">SUMMARY:</HD>
          <P>These special conditions are issued for the Gulfstream GVI airplane. This airplane will have a novel or unusual design feature(s) associated with single-occupant side-facing seats. The applicable airworthiness regulations do not contain adequate or appropriate safety standards for this design feature. These special conditions contain the additional safety standards that the Administrator considers necessary to establish a level of safety equivalent to that established by the existing airworthiness standards.</P>
        </SUM>
        <DATES>
          <HD SOURCE="HED">DATES:</HD>
          <P>
            <E T="03">Effective Date:</E>July 1, 2011.</P>
        </DATES>
        <FURINF>
          <HD SOURCE="HED">FOR FURTHER INFORMATION CONTACT:</HD>
          <P>Daniel Jacquet, FAA, Airframe/Cabin Safety Branch, ANM-115, Transport Standards Staff, Transport Airplane Directorate, Aircraft Certification Service, 1601 Lind Avenue, SW., Renton, Washington, 98057-3356; telephone (425) 227-2676; facsimile (425) 227-1320.</P>
        </FURINF>
      </PREAMB>
      <SUPLINF>
        <HD SOURCE="HED">SUPPLEMENTARY INFORMATION:</HD>
        <HD SOURCE="HD1">Background</HD>
        <P>On March 29, 2005, Gulfstream Aerospace Corporation (hereafter referred to as “Gulfstream”) applied for an FAA type certificate for its new Gulfstream Model GVI passenger airplane. Gulfstream later applied for, and was granted, an extension of time for the type certificate, which changed the effective application date to September 28, 2006. The Gulfstream Model GVI airplane will be an all-new, two-engine jet transport airplane. The maximum takeoff weight will be 99,600 pounds, with a maximum passenger count of 19 passengers.</P>
        <HD SOURCE="HD1">Type Certification Basis</HD>
        <P>Under provisions of Title 14, Code of Federal Regulations (14 CFR) 21.17, Gulfstream must show that the Gulfstream Model GVI airplane (hereafter referred to as “the GVI”) meets the applicable provisions of 14 CFR part 25, as amended by Amendments 25-1 through 25-119, 25-122, and 25-124. If the Administrator finds that the applicable airworthiness regulations (i.e., 14 CFR part 25) do not contain adequate or appropriate safety standards for the GVI because of a novel or unusual design feature, special conditions are prescribed under the provisions of § 21.16.</P>
        <P>Special conditions are initially applicable to the model for which they are issued. Should the type certificate for that model be amended later to include any other model that incorporates the same novel or unusual design features, the special conditions would also apply to the other model under provisions of § 21.101.</P>
        <P>In addition to complying with the applicable airworthiness regulations and special conditions, the GVI must comply with the fuel vent and exhaust emission requirements of 14 CFR part 34 and the noise certification requirements of 14 CFR part 36. The FAA must also issue a finding of regulatory adequacy pursuant to section 611 of Public Law 92-574, the “Noise Control Act of 1972.”</P>
        <P>The FAA issues special conditions, as defined in 14 CFR 11.19, in accordance with § 11.38, and they become part of the type certification basis under § 21.17(a)(2).</P>
        <HD SOURCE="HD1">Novel or Unusual Design Features</HD>
        <P>The Gulfstream model GVI airplane will incorporate the following novel or unusual design feature: A single-occupant side-facing seat intended to be occupied during takeoff and landing.</P>
        <HD SOURCE="HD1">Discussion</HD>
        <P>Section 25.785(b), requires that “each seat* * *  at each station designated as occupiable during takeoff and landing must be designed so that a person making proper use of these facilities will not suffer serious injury in an emergency landing as a result of the inertia forces specified in §§ 25.561 and 25.562.” Additionally, § 25.562 requires dynamic testing of all seats occupied during takeoff and landing. The relative forces and injury mechanisms affecting the occupants of side-facing seats during an emergency landing are different from those of standard forward or aft facing seats. Therefore, the FAA has determined that, in addition to the requirements of part 21 and part 25, these special conditions are needed to address this seat installation.</P>
        <HD SOURCE="HD1">Discussion of Comments</HD>

        <P>Notice of proposed special conditions No. 25-10-04-SC for Gulfstream GVI airplanes was published in the<E T="04">Federal Register</E>on January 4, 2011 (76 FR 291). No comments were received and these<PRTPAGE P="31454"/>special conditions are adopted as proposed.</P>
        <HD SOURCE="HD1">Applicability</HD>
        <P>As discussed above, these special conditions are applicable to the Gulfstream model GVI airplane. Should Gulfstream apply at a later date for a change to the type certificate to include another model incorporating the same novel or unusual design features, these special conditions would apply to that model as well.</P>
        <HD SOURCE="HD1">Conclusion</HD>
        <P>This action affects only certain novel or unusual design features of the GVI. It is not a rule of general applicability.</P>
        <LSTSUB>
          <HD SOURCE="HED">List of Subjects in 14 CFR Part 25</HD>
          <P>Aircraft, Aviation safety, Reporting and recordkeeping requirements.</P>
        </LSTSUB>
        
        <P>The authority citation for these special conditions is as follows:</P>
        <AUTH>
          <HD SOURCE="HED">Authority:</HD>
          <P>49 U.S.C. 106(g), 40113, 44701, 44702, 44704.</P>
        </AUTH>
        <HD SOURCE="HD1">The Special Conditions</HD>
        <P>Accordingly, pursuant to the authority delegated to me by the Administrator, the following special conditions are issued as part of the type certification basis for Gulfstream GVI airplanes.</P>
        <P>In addition to the airworthiness standards in §§ 25.562 and 25.785, the following special conditions provide injury criteria and installation/testing guidelines that represent the minimum acceptable airworthiness standard for single-occupant side-facing seats:</P>
        <HD SOURCE="HD2">A. The Injury Criteria</HD>
        <P>
          <E T="03">1.</E>
          <E T="03">Existing Criteria:</E>All injury protection criteria of § 25.562(c)(1) through (c)(6) apply to the occupant of a side-facing seat. Head injury criterion (HIC) assessments are only required for head contact with the seat and/or adjacent structures.</P>
        <P>
          <E T="03">2.</E>
          <E T="03">Body-to-Wall/Furnishing Contact:</E>The seat must be installed aft of a structure such as an interior wall or furnishing that will support the pelvis, upper arm, chest, and head of an occupant seated next to the structure. A conservative representation of the structure and its stiffness must be included in the tests. It is recommended, but not required, that the contact surface of this structure be covered with at least two inches of energy absorbing protective padding (foam or equivalent), such as Ensolite.</P>
        <P>
          <E T="03">3.</E>
          <E T="03">Thoracic Trauma:</E>Thoracic trauma index (TTI) injury criterion must be substantiated by dynamic test or by rational analysis based on previous test(s) of a similar seat installation. Testing must be conducted with a side impact dummy (SID), as defined by Title 49, Code of Federal Regulations (49 CFR) part 572, subpart F, or its equivalent. TTI must be less than 85, as defined in 49 CFR part 572, subpart F. SID TTI data must be processed as defined in Federal Motor Vehicle Safety Standard (FMVSS) part 571.214, section S6.13.5.</P>
        <P>
          <E T="03">4.</E>
          <E T="03">Pelvis:</E>Pelvic lateral acceleration must be shown by dynamic test or by rational analysis based on previous test(s) of a similar seat installation not to exceed 130g. Pelvic acceleration data must be processed as defined in FMVSS part 571.214, section S6.13.5.</P>
        <P>5.<E T="03">Shoulder Strap Loads:</E>Where upper torso straps (shoulder straps) are used for occupants, tension loads in individual straps must not exceed 1,750 pounds. If dual straps are used for restraining the upper torso, the total strap tension loads must not exceed 2,000 pounds.</P>
        <HD SOURCE="HD2">B. General Test Guidelines</HD>
        <P>1. One longitudinal test with the SID or its equivalent, undeformed floor, no yaw, with all lateral structural supports (armrests/walls).</P>
        <P>Pass/fail injury assessments: TTI and pelvic acceleration.</P>
        <P>2. One longitudinal test with the Hybrid II anthropomorphic test dummy (ATD), deformed floor, yaw at 10 degrees, with all lateral structural support (armrests/walls).</P>
        <P>Pass/fail injury assessments: HIC; and upper torso restrain load, restraint system retention and pelvic acceleration.</P>
        <P>3. Vertical (14g) test with modified Hybrid II ATDs using existing pass/fail criteria.</P>
        <SIG>
          <DATED>Issued in Renton, Washington, on May 20, 2011.</DATED>
          <NAME>Ali Bahrami,</NAME>
          <TITLE>Manager, Transport Airplane Directorate,Aircraft Certification Service.</TITLE>
        </SIG>
      </SUPLINF>
      <FRDOC>[FR Doc. 2011-13435 Filed 5-31-11; 8:45 am]</FRDOC>
      <BILCOD>BILLING CODE 4910-13-P</BILCOD>
    </RULE>
    <RULE>
      <PREAMB>
        <AGENCY TYPE="S">DEPARTMENT OF TRANSPORTATION</AGENCY>
        <SUBAGY>Federal Aviation Administration</SUBAGY>
        <CFR>14 CFR Part 25</CFR>
        <DEPDOC>[Docket No. NM445; Special Conditions No. 25-429-SC]</DEPDOC>
        <SUBJECT>Special Conditions: Gulfstream Model GVI Airplane; Automatic Speed Protection for Design Dive Speed</SUBJECT>
        <AGY>
          <HD SOURCE="HED">AGENCY:</HD>
          <P>Federal Aviation Administration (FAA), DOT.</P>
        </AGY>
        <ACT>
          <HD SOURCE="HED">ACTION:</HD>
          <P>Final special conditions.</P>
        </ACT>
        <SUM>
          <HD SOURCE="HED">SUMMARY:</HD>
          <P>These special conditions are issued for the Gulfstream GVI airplane. This airplane will have novel or unusual design features when compared to the state of technology envisioned in the airworthiness standards for transport category airplanes. These design features include a high speed protection system. These special conditions contain the additional safety standards that the Administrator considers necessary to establish a level of safety equivalent to that established by the existing airworthiness standards.</P>
        </SUM>
        <DATES>
          <HD SOURCE="HED">DATES:</HD>
          <P>
            <E T="03">Effective Date:</E>July 1, 2011.</P>
        </DATES>
        <FURINF>
          <HD SOURCE="HED">FOR FURTHER INFORMATION CONTACT:</HD>

          <P>Carl Niedermeyer, FAA, Airframe/Cabin Safety Branch, ANM-115, Transport Standards Staff, Transport Airplane Directorate, Aircraft Certification Service, 1601 Lind Avenue, SW., Renton, Washington 98057-3356; telephone (425) 227-2279; electronic mail<E T="03">Carl.Niedermeyer@faa.gov.</E>
          </P>
        </FURINF>
      </PREAMB>
      <SUPLINF>
        <HD SOURCE="HED">SUPPLEMENTARY INFORMATION:</HD>
        <P/>
        <HD SOURCE="HD1">Background</HD>
        <P>On March 29, 2005, Gulfstream Aerospace Corporation (hereafter referred to as “Gulfstream”) applied for an FAA type certificate for its new Gulfstream Model GVI passenger airplane. Gulfstream later applied for, and was granted, an extension of time for the type certificate, which changed the effective application date to September 28, 2006. The Gulfstream Model GVI airplane will be an all-new, two-engine jet transport airplane. The maximum takeoff weight will be 99,600 pounds, with a maximum passenger count of 19 passengers.</P>
        <HD SOURCE="HD1">Type Certification Basis</HD>
        <P>Under provisions of Title 14, Code of Federal Regulations (14 CFR) 21.17, Gulfstream must show that the Gulfstream Model GVI airplane (hereafter referred to as “the GVI”) meets the applicable provisions of 14 CFR part 25, as amended by Amendments 25-1 through 25-119, 25-122, and 25-124. If the Administrator finds that the applicable airworthiness regulations (i.e., 14 CFR part 25) do not contain adequate or appropriate safety standards for the GVI because of a novel or unusual design feature, special conditions are prescribed under the provisions of § 21.16.</P>

        <P>Special conditions are initially applicable to the model for which they are issued. Should the type certificate for that model be amended later to include any other model that incorporates the same novel or unusual design features, the special conditions<PRTPAGE P="31455"/>would also apply to the other model under provisions of § 21.101.</P>
        <P>In addition to complying with the applicable airworthiness regulations and special conditions, the GVI must comply with the fuel vent and exhaust emission requirements of 14 CFR part 34 and the noise certification requirements of 14 CFR part 36. The FAA must also issue a finding of regulatory adequacy pursuant to section 611 of Public Law 92-574, the “Noise Control Act of 1972.”</P>
        <P>The FAA issues special conditions, as defined in 14 CFR 11.19, in accordance with § 11.38, and they become part of the type certification basis under § 21.17(a)(2).</P>
        <HD SOURCE="HD1">Novel or Unusual Design Features</HD>

        <P>The Gulfstream Model GVI airplane is equipped with a high speed protection system that limits nose down pilot authority at speeds above V<E T="52">C</E>/M<E T="52">C</E>, and prevents the airplane from actually performing the maneuver required under § 25.335(b)(1). The applicable airworthiness regulations do not contain adequate or appropriate safety standards for this design feature. These special conditions are identical or nearly identical to those previously required for type certification of other airplane models.</P>
        <HD SOURCE="HD1">Discussion</HD>
        <P>Gulfstream proposes to reduce the speed margin between V<E T="52">C</E>and V<E T="52">D</E>required by § 25.335(b), based on the incorporation of a high speed protection system in the GVI flight control laws. The GVI is equipped with a high speed protection system that limits nose down pilot authority at speeds above V<E T="52">C</E>/M<E T="52">C</E>and prevents the airplane from actually performing the maneuver required under § 25.335(b)(1).</P>
        <P>Section 25.335(b)(1) is an analytical envelope condition which was originally adopted in Part 4b of the Civil Air Regulations to provide an acceptable speed margin between design cruise speed and design dive speed. Freedom from flutter and the airframe design loads are affected by the design dive speed. While the initial condition for the upset specified in the rule is 1g level flight, protection is afforded for other inadvertent overspeed conditions as well. Section 25.335(b)(1) is intended as a conservative enveloping condition for all potential overspeed conditions, including non-symmetric ones.</P>
        <P>To establish that all potential overspeed conditions are enveloped, the applicant would demonstrate that the dive speed will not be exceeded during pilot-induced or gust-induced upsets in non-symmetric attitudes.</P>
        <P>In addition, the high speed protection system in the GVI must have a high level of reliability.</P>
        <HD SOURCE="HD1">Discussion of Comments</HD>

        <P>Notice of proposed special conditions No. 25-11-04-SC for Gulfstream GVI airplanes was published in the<E T="04">Federal Register</E>on February 16, 2011 (76 FR 8917). One supportive comment was received.</P>
        <P>On March 29, 2011, Advisory Circular (AC) 25-7B,<E T="03">Flight Test Guide for Certification of Transport Category Airplanes,</E>was issued. This revision supersedes the reference to AC 25-7A, Change 1, in special condition 2 of the proposed special conditions. Therefore, the reference to AC 25-7A, Change 1, section 32, paragraphs c.(3)(i) and (iii) has been updated to AC 25-7B, section 32, paragraph c.3(a) and (c), and the title of the AC has been included. Except for the updated AC reference in special condition 2, these special conditions are adopted as proposed.</P>
        <HD SOURCE="HD1">Applicability</HD>
        <P>As discussed above, these special conditions are applicable to the Gulfstream Model GVI airplane. Should Gulfstream apply at a later date for a change to the type certificate to include another model incorporating the same novel or unusual design features, these special conditions would apply to that model as well.</P>
        <HD SOURCE="HD1">Conclusion</HD>
        <P>This action affects only certain novel or unusual design features of the GVI. It is not a rule of general applicability.</P>
        <LSTSUB>
          <HD SOURCE="HED">List of Subjects in 14 CFR Part 25</HD>
          <P>Aircraft, Aviation safety, Reporting and recordkeeping requirements.</P>
        </LSTSUB>
        
        <P>The authority citation for these special conditions is as follows:</P>
        <AUTH>
          <HD SOURCE="HED">Authority:</HD>
          <P>49 U.S.C. 106(g), 40113, 44701, 44702, 44704.</P>
        </AUTH>
        <HD SOURCE="HD1">The Special Conditions</HD>
        <P>Accordingly, pursuant to the authority delegated to me by the Administrator, the following special conditions are issued as part of the type certification basis for Gulfstream GVI airplanes.</P>

        <P>1. In lieu of compliance with § 25.335(b)(1), if the flight control system includes functions that act automatically to initiate recovery before the end of the 20 second period specified in § 25.335(b)(1), V<E T="52">D</E>/M<E T="52">D</E>must be determined from the greater of the speeds resulting from conditions (a) and (b) below. The speed increase occurring in these maneuvers may be calculated if reliable or conservative aerodynamic data are used.</P>
        <P>(a) From an initial condition of stabilized flight at V<E T="52">C</E>/M<E T="52">C</E>, the airplane is upset so as to take up a new flight path 7.5 degrees below the initial path. Control application, up to full authority, is made to try to maintain this new flight path. Twenty seconds after initiating the upset, manual recovery is made at a load factor of 1.5 g (0.5 acceleration increment), or a greater load factor that is automatically applied by the system with the pilot's pitch control neutral. Power, as specified in § 25.175(b)(1)(iv), is assumed until recovery is initiated, at which time power reduction and the use of pilot controlled drag devices may be used.</P>
        <P>(b) From a speed below V<E T="52">C</E>/M<E T="52">C</E>, with power to maintain stabilized level flight at this speed, the airplane is upset so as to accelerate through V<E T="52">C</E>/M<E T="52">C</E>at a flight path 15 degrees below the initial path (or at the steepest nose down attitude that the system will permit with full control authority if less than 15 degrees). The pilot's controls may be in the neutral position after reaching V<E T="52">C</E>/M<E T="52">C</E>and before recovery is initiated. Recovery may be initiated three seconds after operation of high speed warning system by application of a load factor of 1.5g (0.5 acceleration increment), or such greater load factor that is automatically applied by the system with the pilot's pitch control neutral. Power may be reduced simultaneously. All other means of decelerating the airplane, the use of which are authorized up to the highest speed reached in the maneuver, may be used. The interval between successive pilot actions must not be less than one second.</P>

        <P>2. The applicant must also demonstrate that the speed margin, established as above, will not be exceeded in inadvertent or gust induced upsets resulting in initiation of the dive from non-symmetric attitudes, unless the airplane is protected by the flight control laws from getting into non-symmetric upset conditions. The upset maneuvers described in AC 25-7B,<E T="03">Flight Test Guide for Certification of Transport Category Airplanes,</E>section 32, paragraphs c.3(a) and (c) may be used to comply with this requirement.</P>

        <P>3. Any failure of the high speed protection system that would affect the speed margin determined by paragraphs 1. and 2. must be improbable (occur at a rate less than 10<E T="51">−</E>
          <SU>5</SU>per flight hour).</P>

        <P>4. Failures of the system must be annunciated to the pilots, and flight manual instructions must be provided to reduce the maximum operating speeds, V<E T="52">MO</E>/M<E T="52">MO</E>. The operating speed<PRTPAGE P="31456"/>must be reduced to a value that maintains a speed margin between V<E T="52">MO</E>/M<E T="52">MO</E>and V<E T="52">D</E>/M<E T="52">D</E>that is consistent with showing compliance with § 25.335(b) without the benefit of the high speed protection system.</P>
        <P>5. Master minimum equipment list (MMEL) relief for the high speed protection system may be considered by the FAA Flight Operations Evaluation Board (FOEB) provided that the flight manual instructions indicate reduced maximum operating speeds as described in paragraph 4., and that no additional hazards are introduced with the high speed protection system inoperative. In addition, the cockpit display of the reduced operating speeds, as well as the overspeed warning for exceeding those speeds, must be equivalent to that of the normal airplane with the high speed protection system operative.</P>
        <SIG>
          <DATED>Issued in Renton, Washington, on May 24, 2011.</DATED>
          <NAME>Ali Bahrami,</NAME>
          <TITLE>Manager, Transport Airplane Directorate, Aircraft Certification Service.</TITLE>
        </SIG>
      </SUPLINF>
      <FRDOC>[FR Doc. 2011-13434 Filed 5-31-11; 8:45 am]</FRDOC>
      <BILCOD>BILLING CODE 4910-13-P</BILCOD>
    </RULE>
    <RULE>
      <PREAMB>
        <AGENCY TYPE="S">DEPARTMENT OF TRANSPORTATION</AGENCY>
        <SUBAGY>Federal Aviation Administration</SUBAGY>
        <CFR>14 CFR Part 25</CFR>
        <DEPDOC>[Docket No. NM446; Special Conditions No. 25-427-SC]</DEPDOC>
        <SUBJECT>Special Conditions: Gulfstream Model GVI Airplane; Electronic Flight Control System: Control Surface Position Awareness</SUBJECT>
        <AGY>
          <HD SOURCE="HED">AGENCY:</HD>
          <P>Federal Aviation Administration (FAA), DOT.</P>
        </AGY>
        <ACT>
          <HD SOURCE="HED">ACTION:</HD>
          <P>Final special conditions.</P>
        </ACT>
        <SUM>
          <HD SOURCE="HED">SUMMARY:</HD>
          <P>These special conditions are issued for the Gulfstream GVI airplane. This airplane will have novel or unusual design features when compared to the state of technology envisioned in the airworthiness standards for transport category airplanes. These design features include an electronic flight control system. The applicable airworthiness regulations do not contain adequate or appropriate safety standards for these design features. These special conditions contain the additional safety standards that the Administrator considers necessary to establish a level of safety equivalent to that established by the existing airworthiness standards.</P>
        </SUM>
        <DATES>
          <HD SOURCE="HED">DATES:</HD>
          <P>
            <E T="03">Effective Date:</E>July 1, 2011.</P>
        </DATES>
        <FURINF>
          <HD SOURCE="HED">FOR FURTHER INFORMATION CONTACT:</HD>
          <P>Joe Jacobsen, FAA, Airplane and Flightcrew Interface Branch, ANM-111, Transport Standards Staff, Transport Airplane Directorate, Aircraft Certification Service, 1601 Lind Avenue, SW., Renton, Washington, 98057-3356; telephone (425) 227-2011; facsimile (425) 227-1320.</P>
        </FURINF>
      </PREAMB>
      <SUPLINF>
        <HD SOURCE="HED">SUPPLEMENTARY INFORMATION:</HD>
        <P/>
        <HD SOURCE="HD1">Background</HD>
        <P>On March 29, 2005, Gulfstream Aerospace Corporation (hereafter referred to as “Gulfstream”) applied for an FAA type certificate for its new Gulfstream Model GVI passenger airplane. Gulfstream later applied for, and was granted, an extension of time for the type certificate, which changed the effective application date to September 28, 2006. The Gulfstream Model GVI airplane will be an all-new, two-engine jet transport airplane with an executive cabin interior. The maximum takeoff weight will be 99,600 pounds, with a maximum passenger count of 19 passengers.</P>
        <HD SOURCE="HD1">Type Certification Basis</HD>
        <P>Under provisions of Title 14, Code of Federal Regulations (14 CFR) 21.17, Gulfstream must show that the Gulfstream Model GVI airplane (hereafter referred to as “the GVI”) meets the applicable provisions of 14 CFR part 25, as amended by Amendments 25-1 through 25-119,  25-122, and 25-124. If the Administrator finds that the applicable airworthiness regulations (i.e., 14 CFR part 25) do not contain adequate or appropriate safety standards for the GVI because of a novel or unusual design feature, special conditions are prescribed under the provisions of § 21.16.</P>
        <P>In addition to complying with the applicable airworthiness regulations and special conditions, the GVI must comply with the fuel vent and exhaust emission requirements of 14 CFR part 34 and the noise certification requirements of 14 CFR part 36. The FAA must also issue a finding of regulatory adequacy pursuant to section 611 of Public Law 92-574, the “Noise Control Act of 1972.”</P>
        <P>The FAA issues special conditions, as defined in 14 CFR 11.19, in accordance with § 11.38, and they become part of the type certification basis under § 21.17(a)(2).</P>
        <P>Special conditions are initially applicable to the model for which they are issued. Should the type certificate for that model be amended later to include any other model that incorporates the same novel or unusual design features, the special conditions would also apply to the other model under provisions of § 21.101.</P>
        <HD SOURCE="HD1">Novel or Unusual Design Features</HD>
        <P>The Gulfstream Model GVI airplane has an electronic flight control system and no direct coupling from the cockpit controller to the control surface, so the pilot may not be aware of the actual surface position utilized to fulfill the requested command. Some unusual flight conditions, such as those arising from atmospheric conditions, aircraft malfunctions, or engine failures, may result in full or near-full control surface deflection. Unless the flightcrew is made aware of excessive deflection or impending control surface limiting, piloted or auto-flight system control of the airplane might be inadvertently continued to a point that could cause a loss of aircraft control or other unsafe stability or performance characteristic. Because electronic flight control system technology has outpaced existing regulations, a special condition is proposed to ensure control surface position awareness by the flightcrew.</P>
        <HD SOURCE="HD1">Discussion</HD>
        <P>This special condition requires that suitable flight control position annunciation be provided to the flightcrew when a flight condition exists in which near-full surface authority (not crew-commanded) is being utilized. The suitability of such an annunciation must take into account that some pilot-demanded maneuvers, such as a rapid roll, are necessarily associated with intended full performance, and which may saturate the control surface. Simple alerting systems which would annunciate either intended or unexpected control-limiting situations must be properly balanced between providing necessary crew awareness and avoiding undesirable nuisance warnings.</P>
        <P>This special condition establishes a level of safety equivalent to that provided by a conventional flight control system and that contemplated in existing regulations.</P>
        <HD SOURCE="HD1">Discussion of Comments</HD>

        <P>Notice of proposed special conditions No. 25-11-05-SC for Gulfstream GVI airplanes was published in the<E T="04">Federal Register</E>on February 17, 2011 (76 FR 9265). One supportive comment was received and these special conditions are adopted as proposed.</P>
        <HD SOURCE="HD1">Applicability</HD>

        <P>As discussed above, this special condition is applicable to the Gulfstream Model GVI airplane. Should Gulfstream apply at a later date for a change to the type certificate to include another model incorporating the same novel or unusual design features, this<PRTPAGE P="31457"/>special condition would apply to that model as well.</P>
        <HD SOURCE="HD1">Conclusion</HD>
        <P>This action affects only certain novel or unusual design features of the GVI. It is not a rule of general applicability.</P>
        <LSTSUB>
          <HD SOURCE="HED">List of Subjects in 14 CFR Part 25</HD>
          <P>Aircraft, Aviation safety, Reporting and recordkeeping requirements.</P>
        </LSTSUB>
        
        <P>The authority citation for these special conditions is as follows:</P>
        <AUTH>
          <HD SOURCE="HED">Authority:</HD>
          <P>49 U.S.C. 106(g), 40113, 44701, 44702, 44704.</P>
        </AUTH>
        <HD SOURCE="HD1">The Special Condition</HD>
        <P>Accordingly, pursuant to the authority delegated to me by the Administrator, the following special condition is issued as part of the type certification basis for the Gulfstream GVI airplanes.</P>
        <P>In addition to compliance with §§ 25.143, 25.671, 25.672, and 25.1322, the following special condition applies:</P>
        <P>When a flight condition exists where, without being commanded by the flightcrew, control surfaces are coming so close to their limits that return to the normal flight envelope and/or continuation of safe flight requires a specific flightcrew member action, a suitable flight control position annunciation must be provided to the flightcrew, unless other existing indications are found adequate or sufficient to prompt that action.</P>
        <NOTE>
          <HD SOURCE="HED">Note:</HD>
          <P>The term “suitable” also indicates an appropriate balance between necessary operation and nuisance factors.</P>
        </NOTE>
        <SIG>
          <DATED>Issued in Renton, Washington, on May 20, 2011.</DATED>
          <NAME>Ali Bahrami,</NAME>
          <TITLE>Manager, Transport Airplane Directorate, Aircraft Certification Service.</TITLE>
        </SIG>
      </SUPLINF>
      <FRDOC>[FR Doc. 2011-13436 Filed 5-31-11; 8:45 am]</FRDOC>
      <BILCOD>BILLING CODE 4910-13-P</BILCOD>
    </RULE>
    <RULE>
      <PREAMB>
        <AGENCY TYPE="S">DEPARTMENT OF TRANSPORTATION</AGENCY>
        <SUBAGY>Federal Aviation Administration</SUBAGY>
        <CFR>14 CFR Part 39</CFR>
        <DEPDOC>[Docket No. FAA-2011-0231; Directorate Identifier 2011-CE-003-AD; Amendment  39-16706; AD 2011-11-07]</DEPDOC>
        <RIN>RIN 2120-AA64</RIN>
        <SUBJECT>Airworthiness Directives; Diamond Aircraft Industries GmbH Model DA 42 Airplanes</SUBJECT>
        <AGY>
          <HD SOURCE="HED">AGENCY:</HD>
          <P>Federal Aviation Administration (FAA), Department of Transportation (DOT).</P>
        </AGY>
        <ACT>
          <HD SOURCE="HED">ACTION:</HD>
          <P>Final rule.</P>
        </ACT>
        <SUM>
          <HD SOURCE="HED">SUMMARY:</HD>
          <P>We are adopting a new airworthiness directive (AD) for the products listed above. This AD results from mandatory continuing airworthiness information (MCAI) issued by an aviation authority of another country to identify and correct an unsafe condition on an aviation product. The MCAI describes the unsafe condition as:</P>
          
          <EXTRACT>
            <P>Cracks have been reportedly found on DA 42 Main Landing Gear (MLG) Damper-to-Trailing Arm joints during standard maintenance. Depending on environmental-, operating- and runway conditions, the affected MLG joint, Part Number (P/N) D60-3217-23-5x (4 different lengths are available), which is made of aluminum, is susceptible to cracking.</P>
            <P>This condition, if not detected and corrected, may lead to failure of the joint and subsequent damage or malfunction of the MLG, possibly resulting in damage to the aeroplane during landing and injury to occupants.</P>
          </EXTRACT>
          
        </SUM>
        <FP>We are issuing this AD to require actions to correct the unsafe condition on these products.</FP>
        <EFFDATE>
          <HD SOURCE="HED">DATES:</HD>
          <P>This AD becomes effective July 6, 2011.</P>
          <P>On July 6, 2011, the Director of the Federal Register approved the incorporation by reference of certain publications listed in this AD.</P>
        </EFFDATE>
        <ADD>
          <HD SOURCE="HED">ADDRESSES:</HD>
          <P>You may examine the AD docket on the Internet at<E T="03">http://www.regulations.gov</E>or in person at Document Management Facility, U.S. Department of Transportation, Docket Operations, M-30, West Building Ground Floor, Room W12-140, 1200 New Jersey Avenue, SE., Washington, DC 20590.</P>

          <P>For service information identified in this AD, contact Diamond Aircraft Industries GmbH, N.A. Otto-Straße 5, A-2700 Wiener Neustadt, Austria, telephone: +43 2622 26700; fax: +43 2622 26780; e-mail:<E T="03">office@diamond-air.at;</E>Internet:<E T="03">http://www.diamond-air.at.</E>You may review copies of the referenced service information at the FAA, Small Airplane Directorate, 901 Locust, Kansas City, Missouri 64106. For information on the availability of this material at the FAA, call (816) 329-4148.</P>
        </ADD>
        <FURINF>
          <HD SOURCE="HED">FOR FURTHER INFORMATION CONTACT:</HD>
          <P>Mike Kiesov, Aerospace Engineer, FAA, Small Airplane Directorate, 901 Locust, Room 301, Kansas City, Missouri 64106; telephone: (816) 329-4144; fax: (816) 329-4090.</P>
        </FURINF>
      </PREAMB>
      <SUPLINF>
        <HD SOURCE="HED">SUPPLEMENTARY INFORMATION:</HD>
        <HD SOURCE="HD1">Discussion</HD>

        <P>We issued a notice of proposed rulemaking (NPRM) to amend 14 CFR part 39 to include an AD that would apply to the specified products. That NPRM was published in the<E T="04">Federal Register</E>on March 16, 2011 (76 FR 14346). That NPRM proposed to correct an unsafe condition for the specified products. The MCAI states:</P>
        
        <EXTRACT>
          <P>Cracks have been reportedly found on DA 42 Main Landing Gear (MLG) Damper-to-Trailing Arm joints during standard maintenance. Depending on environmental-, operating- and runway conditions, the affected MLG joint, Part Number (P/N) D60-3217-23-5x (4 different lengths are available), which is made of aluminum, is susceptible to cracking.</P>
          <P>This condition, if not detected and corrected, may lead to failure of the joint and subsequent damage or malfunction of the MLG, possibly resulting in damage to the aeroplane during landing and injury to occupants.</P>
          <P>To address this unsafe condition, EASA issued AD 2010-0155 to require repetitive inspections of the MLG joint and, depending on findings, replacement with a serviceable part. Since that AD was issued, DAI developed an improved design MLG joint, P/N D64-3217-23-0x (also 4 different lengths available), which is made of steel and less susceptible to cracking.</P>
          <P>For the reasons described above, this new AD retains the requirements of EASA AD 2010-0155R1, which is superseded, and adds the terminating action requirement to modify the aeroplane by installing the improved steel part. This new AD also prohibits re-installation of the aluminum part.</P>
        </EXTRACT>
        <HD SOURCE="HD1">Comments</HD>
        <P>We gave the public the opportunity to participate in developing this AD. We received no comments on the NPRM or on the determination of the cost to the public.</P>
        <HD SOURCE="HD1">Conclusion</HD>
        <P>We reviewed the available data and determined that air safety and the public interest require adopting the AD as proposed.</P>
        <HD SOURCE="HD1">Differences Between This AD and the MCAI or Service Information</HD>
        <P>We have reviewed the MCAI and related service information and, in general, agree with their substance. But we might have found it necessary to use different words from those in the MCAI to ensure the AD is clear for U.S. operators and is enforceable. In making these changes, we do not intend to differ substantively from the information provided in the MCAI and related service information.</P>

        <P>We might also have required different actions in this AD from those in the MCAI in order to follow FAA policies.<PRTPAGE P="31458"/>Any such differences are highlighted in a note within the AD.</P>
        <HD SOURCE="HD1">Costs of Compliance</HD>
        <P>We estimate that this AD will affect 162 products of U.S. registry. We also estimate that it would take about 1 work-hour per product to comply with the basic requirements of this AD. The average labor rate is $85 per work-hour. Required parts would cost about $729 per product.</P>
        <P>Based on these figures, we estimate the cost of this AD on U.S. operators to be $131,868, or $814 per product.</P>
        <HD SOURCE="HD1">Authority for This Rulemaking</HD>
        <P>Title 49 of the United States Code specifies the FAA's authority to issue rules on aviation safety. Subtitle I, section 106, describes the authority of the FAA Administrator. “Subtitle VII: Aviation Programs,” describes in more detail the scope of the Agency's authority.</P>
        <P>We are issuing this rulemaking under the authority described in “Subtitle VII, Part A, Subpart III, Section 44701: General requirements.” Under that section, Congress charges the FAA with promoting safe flight of civil aircraft in air commerce by prescribing regulations for practices, methods, and procedures the Administrator finds necessary for safety in air commerce. This regulation is within the scope of that authority because it addresses an unsafe condition that is likely to exist or develop on products identified in this rulemaking action.</P>
        <HD SOURCE="HD1">Regulatory Findings</HD>
        <P>We determined that this AD will not have federalism implications under Executive Order 13132. This AD will not have a substantial direct effect on the States, on the relationship between the national government and the States, or on the distribution of power and responsibilities among the various levels of government.</P>
        <P>For the reasons discussed above, I certify this AD:</P>
        <P>(1) Is not a “significant regulatory action” under Executive Order 12866;</P>
        <P>(2) Is not a “significant rule” under DOT Regulatory Policies and Procedures (44 FR 11034, February 26, 1979); and</P>
        <P>(3) Will not have a significant economic impact, positive or negative, on a substantial number of small entities under the criteria of the Regulatory Flexibility Act.</P>
        <P>We prepared a regulatory evaluation of the estimated costs to comply with this AD and placed it in the AD Docket.</P>
        <HD SOURCE="HD1">Examining the AD Docket</HD>
        <P>You may examine the AD docket on the Internet at<E T="03">http://www.regulations.gov;</E>or in person at the Docket Management Facility between 9 a.m. and 5 p.m., Monday through Friday, except Federal holidays. The AD docket contains the NPRM, the regulatory evaluation, any comments received, and other information. The street address for the Docket Office (telephone (800) 647-5527) is in the<E T="02">ADDRESSES</E>section. Comments will be available in the AD docket shortly after receipt.</P>
        <LSTSUB>
          <HD SOURCE="HED">List of Subjects in 14 CFR Part 39</HD>
          <P>Air transportation, Aircraft, Aviation safety, Incorporation by reference, Safety.</P>
        </LSTSUB>
        <HD SOURCE="HD1">Adoption of the Amendment</HD>
        <P>Accordingly, under the authority delegated to me by the Administrator, the FAA amends 14 CFR part 39 as follows:</P>
        <REGTEXT PART="39" TITLE="14">
          <PART>
            <HD SOURCE="HED">PART 39—AIRWORTHINESS DIRECTIVES</HD>
          </PART>
          <AMDPAR>1. The authority citation for part 39 continues to read as follows:</AMDPAR>
          <AUTH>
            <HD SOURCE="HED">Authority:</HD>
            <P>49 U.S.C. 106(g), 40113, 44701.</P>
          </AUTH>
        </REGTEXT>
        <REGTEXT PART="39" TITLE="14">
          <SECTION>
            <SECTNO>§ 39.13</SECTNO>
            <SUBJECT>[Amended]</SUBJECT>
          </SECTION>
          <AMDPAR>2. The FAA amends § 39.13 by adding the following new AD:</AMDPAR>
          
          <EXTRACT>
            <FP SOURCE="FP-2">
              <E T="04">2011-11-07Diamond Aircraft Industries GmbH:</E>Amendment 39-16706; Docket No. FAA-2011-0231; Directorate Identifier 2011-CE-003-AD.</FP>
            <HD SOURCE="HD1">Effective Date</HD>
            <P>(a) This airworthiness directive (AD) becomes effective July 6, 2011.</P>
            <HD SOURCE="HD1">Affected ADs</HD>
            <P>(b) None.</P>
            <HD SOURCE="HD1">Applicability</HD>
            <P>(c) This AD applies to Diamond Aircraft Industries GmbH Model DA 42 airplanes, all serial numbers, certificated in any category.</P>
            <HD SOURCE="HD1">Subject</HD>
            <P>(d) Air Transport Association of America (ATA) Code 32: Landing Gear.</P>
            <HD SOURCE="HD1">Reason</HD>
            <P>(e) The mandatory continuing airworthiness information (MCAI) states:</P>
            <P>Cracks have been reportedly found on DA 42 Main Landing Gear (MLG) Damper-to-Trailing Arm joints during standard maintenance. Depending on environmental-, operating- and runway conditions, the affected MLG joint, Part Number (P/N) D60-3217-23-5x (4 different lengths are available), which is made of aluminum, is susceptible to cracking.</P>
            <P>This condition, if not detected and corrected, may lead to failure of the joint and subsequent damage or malfunction of the MLG, possibly resulting in damage to the aeroplane during landing and injury to occupants.</P>
            <P>To address this unsafe condition, EASA issued AD 2010-0155 to require repetitive inspections of the MLG joint and, depending on findings, replacement with a serviceable part. Since that AD was issued, DAI developed an improved design MLG joint, P/N D64-3217-23-0x (also 4 different lengths available), which is made of steel and less susceptible to cracking.</P>
            <P>For the reasons described above, this new AD retains the requirements of EASA AD 2010-0155R1, which is superseded, and adds the terminating action requirement to modify the aeroplane by installing the improved steel part. This new AD also prohibits re-installation of the aluminum part.</P>
            <HD SOURCE="HD1">Actions and Compliance</HD>
            <P>(f) Unless already done, do the following actions following Diamond Aircraft Industries GmbH Mandatory Service Bulletin No. MSB 42-088/2, dated February 3, 2011; and Work Instruction WI-MSB 42-088, dated February 3, 2011:</P>
            <P>(1)<E T="03">For airplanes installed with main landing gear (MLG) joint P/N D60-3217-23-5x:</E>Within 100 hours time-in-service (TIS) after the effective date of this AD, replace each MLG joint P/N D60-3217-23-5x with a MLG joint P/N D64-3217-23-0x.</P>
            <P>(2)<E T="03">For all airplanes:</E>As of the effective date of this AD, do not install MLG joint P/N D60-3217-23-5x.</P>
            <HD SOURCE="HD1">FAA AD Differences</HD>
            <NOTE>
              <HD SOURCE="HED">Note:</HD>
              <P>This AD differs from the MCAI and/or service information as follows: EASA originally established an initial and repetitive inspection of the MLG joint part. We are not establishing an initial or repetitive inspection, and instead we are just requiring a mandatory one-time replacement of the part within 100 hours TIS after the effective date of this AD.</P>
            </NOTE>
            <HD SOURCE="HD1">Other FAA AD Provisions</HD>
            <P>(g) The following provisions also apply to this AD:</P>
            <P>(1) Alternative Methods of Compliance (AMOCs): The Manager, Standards Office, FAA, has the authority to approve AMOCs for this AD, if requested using the procedures found in 14 CFR 39.19. Send information to ATTN: Mike Kiesov, Aerospace Engineer, FAA, Small Airplane Directorate, 901 Locust, Room 301, Kansas City, Missouri 64106; telephone: (816) 329-4144; fax: (816) 329-4090. Before using any approved AMOC on any airplane to which the AMOC applies, notify your appropriate principal inspector (PI) in the FAA Flight Standards District Office (FSDO), or lacking a PI, your local FSDO.</P>
            <P>(2) Airworthy Product: For any requirement in this AD to obtain corrective actions from a manufacturer or other source, use these actions if they are FAA-approved. Corrective actions are considered FAA-approved if they are approved by the State of Design Authority (or their delegated agent). You are required to assure the product is airworthy before it is returned to service.</P>

            <P>(3) Reporting Requirements: For any reporting requirement in this AD, a federal agency may not conduct or sponsor, and a person is not required to respond to, nor<PRTPAGE P="31459"/>shall a person be subject to a penalty for failure to comply with a collection of information subject to the requirements of the Paperwork Reduction Act unless that collection of information displays a current valid OMB Control Number. The OMB Control Number for this information collection is 2120-0056. Public reporting for this collection of information is estimated to be approximately 5 minutes per response, including the time for reviewing instructions, completing and reviewing the collection of information. All responses to this collection of information are mandatory. Comments concerning the accuracy of this burden and suggestions for reducing the burden should be directed to the FAA at: 800 Independence Ave., SW., Washington, DC 20591, Attn: Information Collection Clearance Officer, AES-200.</P>
            <HD SOURCE="HD1">Related Information</HD>

            <P>(h) Refer to MCAI EASA AD No.: 2011-0020, dated February 7, 2011; Diamond Aircraft Industries GmbH Mandatory Service Bulletin No. MSB 42-088/2, dated February 3, 2011; and Work Instruction WI-MSB 42-088, dated February 3, 2011, for related information. For service information related to this AD, contact Diamond Aircraft Industries GmbH, N.A. Otto-Straße 5, A-2700 Wiener Neustadt, Austria, telephone: +43 2622 26700; fax: +43 2622 26780; e-mail:<E T="03">office@diamond-air.at;</E>Internet:<E T="03">http://www.diamond-air.at.</E>You may review copies of the referenced service informationat the FAA, Small Airplane Directorate, 901 Locust, Kansas City, Missouri 64106. For information on the availability of this material at the FAA, call 816-329-4148.</P>
            <HD SOURCE="HD1">Material Incorporated by Reference</HD>
            <P>(i) You must use Diamond Aircraft Industries GmbH Mandatory Service Bulletin No. MSB 42-088/2, dated February 3, 2011; and Work Instruction WI-MSB 42-088, dated February 3, 2011, to do the actions required by this AD, unless the AD specifies otherwise.</P>
            <P>(1) The Director of the Federal Register approved the incorporation by reference of this service information under 5 U.S.C. 552(a) and 1 CFR part 51.</P>

            <P>(2) For service information identified in this AD, contact Diamond Aircraft Industries GmbH, N.A. Otto-Straße 5, A-2700 Wiener Neustadt, Austria, telephone: +43 2622 26700; fax: +43 2622 26780; e-mail:<E T="03">office@diamond-air.at;</E>Internet:<E T="03">http://www.diamond-air.at.</E>
            </P>
            <P>(3) You may review copies of the referenced service information at the FAA, Small Airplane Directorate, 901 Locust, Kansas City, Missouri 64106. For information on the availability of this material at the FAA, call (816) 329-4148.</P>

            <P>(4) You may also review copies of the service information incorporated by reference for this AD at the National Archives and Records Administration (NARA). For information on the availability of this material at NARA, call (202) 741-6030, or go to:<E T="03">http://www.archives.gov/federal_register/code_of_federal_regulations/ibr_locations.html.</E>
            </P>
          </EXTRACT>
        </REGTEXT>
        <SIG>
          <DATED>Issued in Kansas City, Missouri, on May 18, 2011.</DATED>
          <NAME>Earl Lawrence,</NAME>
          <TITLE>Manager, Small Airplane Directorate,Aircraft Certification Service.</TITLE>
        </SIG>
      </SUPLINF>
      <FRDOC>[FR Doc. 2011-12898 Filed 5-31-11; 8:45 am]</FRDOC>
      <BILCOD>BILLING CODE 4910-13-P</BILCOD>
    </RULE>
    <RULE>
      <PREAMB>
        <AGENCY TYPE="S">DEPARTMENT OF TRANSPORTATION</AGENCY>
        <SUBAGY>Federal Aviation Administration</SUBAGY>
        <CFR>14 CFR Part 39</CFR>
        <DEPDOC>[Docket No. FAA-2010-0673; Directorate Identifier 2009-NM-208-AD; Amendment 39-16705; AD 2011-11-06]</DEPDOC>
        <RIN>RIN 2120-AA64</RIN>
        <SUBJECT>Airworthiness Directives; BAE SYSTEMS (OPERATIONS) LIMITED Model BAe 146 and Avro 146-RJ Airplanes</SUBJECT>
        <AGY>
          <HD SOURCE="HED">AGENCY:</HD>
          <P>Federal Aviation Administration (FAA), Department of Transportation (DOT).</P>
        </AGY>
        <ACT>
          <HD SOURCE="HED">ACTION:</HD>
          <P>Final rule.</P>
        </ACT>
        <SUM>
          <HD SOURCE="HED">SUMMARY:</HD>
          <P>We are superseding an existing airworthiness directive (AD) that applies to the products listed above. This AD results from mandatory continuing airworthiness information (MCAI) originated by an aviation authority of another country to identify and correct an unsafe condition on an aviation product. The MCAI describes the unsafe condition as:</P>
          
          <EXTRACT>
            <P>In June 2000, prompted by a crack found at the top of the Nose Landing Gear (NLG) oleo, BAE Systems Operations) Ltd (BAE Systems) issued Inspection Service Bulletin (ISB) ISB.32-158. * * *</P>
            <P>Later, as part of an accident investigation, the examination of a fractured NLG main fitting showed that M-D (Messier-Dowty) SB.146-32-150 was not accomplished * * *. BAE Systems determined that more NLG units could be similarly affected. * * *</P>
            <P>Subsequently, investigation and analysis by M-D identified the need for a reduction of the inspection threshold andthe repetitive inspection interval for the affected NLGunits * * *.</P>
            <STARS/>
            <P>* * * [I]nvestigation by M-D showed that if any undetected crack was present at the time of the embodiment of M-D SB 146-32-150, Part B or Part C, it could continue to grow while the NLG is in service and could lead to the failure ofthe main fitting and possible collapse of the NLG. * * * [B]AE Systems have received additional reports of cracked NLG main fittings. One operator reported a crack in a premodification main fitting. * * *</P>
            <STARS/>
            <P>Undetected cracks could lead to failure of the NLG Main Fitting and collapse of the NLG.</P>
            <STARS/>
          </EXTRACT>
          <P>The unsafe condition is cracking of the NLG, which could adversely affect the airplane's safe landing. We are issuing this AD to require actions to correct the unsafe condition on these products.</P>
        </SUM>
        <DATES>
          <HD SOURCE="HED">DATES:</HD>
          <P>This AD becomes effective July 6, 2011.</P>
          <P>The Director of the Federal Register approved the incorporation by reference of a certain publication listed in this AD as of July 6, 2011.</P>
        </DATES>
        <ADD>
          <HD SOURCE="HED">ADDRESSES:</HD>
          <P>You may examine the AD docket on the Internet at<E T="03">http://www.regulations.gov</E>or in person at the U.S. Department of Transportation, Docket Operations, M-30, West Building Ground Floor, Room W12-140, 1200 New Jersey Avenue, SE., Washington, DC.</P>
        </ADD>
        <FURINF>
          <HD SOURCE="HED">FOR FURTHER INFORMATION CONTACT:</HD>
          <P>Todd Thompson, Aerospace Engineer, International Branch, ANM-116, Transport Airplane Directorate, FAA, 1601Lind Avenue, SW., Renton, Washington 98057-3356; telephone (425) 227-1175; fax (425) 227-1149.</P>
        </FURINF>
      </PREAMB>
      <SUPLINF>
        <HD SOURCE="HED">SUPPLEMENTARY INFORMATION:</HD>
        <HD SOURCE="HD1">Discussion</HD>

        <P>We issued a notice of proposed rulemaking (NPRM) to amend 14 CFR part 39 to include an AD that would apply to the specified products. That NPRM was published in the<E T="04">Federal Register</E>on February 7, 2011 (76 FR 6575), and proposed to supersede AD 2002-03-10, Amendment 39-12651 (67 FR 6855, February 14, 2002). That NPRM proposed to correct an unsafe condition for the specified products. The MCAI states:</P>
        
        <EXTRACT>
          <P>In June 2000, prompted by a crack found at the top of the Nose Landing Gear (NLG) oleo, BAE Systems (Operations) Ltd (BAE Systems) issued Inspection Service Bulletin (ISB) ISB.32-158. This ISB was classified mandatory by the United Kingdom Civil Aviation Authority under AD number 002-06-2000, requiring repetitive Non-Destructive Testing (NDT) crack inspections on the upper end of the NLG oleo. The AD also provided an optional terminating action for the repetitive inspections, by embodiment of Messier-Dowty (M-D) Service Bulletin (SB) SB.146-32-150.</P>

          <P>Later, as part of an accident investigation, the examination of a fractured NLG main fitting showed that M-D SB.146-32-150 was not accomplished, although the records indicated that it had been. BAE Systems determined that more NLG units could be similarly affected. These NLG units were overhauled at Messier Services in Sterling, Virginia, in the United States. To address this situation, [European Aviation Safety Agency]<PRTPAGE P="31460"/>EASA issued Emergency AD 2009-0043-E to require repetitive NDT inspections of each affected NLG unit and, if cracks are found, replacement with a serviceable unit, in accordance with the instructions of BAE Systems Alert ISB.A32-180 and M-D SB.146-32-149.</P>
          <P>Subsequently, investigation and analysis by M-D identified the need for a reduction of the inspection threshold and the repetitive inspection interval for the affected NLG units and replaced M-D SB 146-32-149 with M-D SB.146-32-174. Consequently, BAE Systems SB 32-158 was withdrawn and superseded by BAE Systems Alert ISB.A32-180 Revision 1, which was mandated by EASA Emergency AD 2009-0197-E.</P>
          <P>As further information became available, BAE Systems saw a need to clarify the compliance instructions in the ISB and issued Revision 2 of Alert Service Bulletin ISB.A32-180. The layout of Revision 2 was no longer compatible with the instructions of EASA Emergency AD2009-0197-E, so EASA issued AD 2010-0001-E which superseded EASA AD 2009-0197-E and which reduced the threshold and interval of the repetitive NDT inspections and required repetitive NDT inspections of each affected NLG unit and, if cracks were found, the replacement of the NLG with a serviceable unit.</P>
          <P>The optional closing action of EASA AD 2010-0001-E is embodiment of M-D SB 146-32-150 (polishing and shot peening of the NLG main fitting) or confirmation that it has already been accomplished, as applicable. Further investigation by M-D showed that if any undetected crack was present at the time of the embodiment of M-D SB 146-32-150, Part B or Part C, it could continue to grow while the NLG is in service and could lead to the failure of the main fitting and possible collapse of the NLG. For this reason, EASA issued AD 2010-0072 (and its revision 1) which required the introduction of repetitive NDT inspections (defined in BAE Systems ISB 32-181) on NLG main fittings following embodiment of M-D SB 146-32-150. Despite the aforementioned measures, BAE Systems have received additional reports of cracked NLG main fittings. One operator reported a crack in a pre-modification main fitting. Shot peening was not present, as this was a pre-modification gear, but the surface finish was better than that required for a post-modification fitting. This implies that the surface finish achieved by the modification may not be effective in preventing cracking. In addition, a positive inspection return from BAE Systems ISB 32-181 also questions whether the combination of improved surface finish and shot peening are effective, as a crack may have initiated from a surface which is compliant with the modification standard.</P>
          <P>It has been concluded that the polishing and the shot peening of the NLG main fitting embodied through M-D SB 146-32-150 are potentially ineffective in preventing cracks and that all NLG main fittings should be subject to the same 300 Flight Cycles (FC) repetitive inspection to ensure pre-critical crack detection.</P>
          <P>Undetected cracks could lead to failure of the NLG Main Fitting and collapse of the NLG.</P>
          <P>With that view, BAE Systems issued ISB.32-182 to implement this repetitive 300 FC inspection on all NLG main fittings regardless of their modification standard. ISB.32-182 supersedes existing ISBs A32-180 and 32-181, initially with no closing action.</P>
          <P>For the reasons described above, this AD supersedes EASA Emergency AD 2010-0001-E and EASA AD 2010-0072 Revision 1 and requires repetitive NDT inspections of all NLG main fittings and, if cracks are found, replacement of the NLG with a serviceable unit.</P>
          <P>This AD is revised to require corrective actions on the NLG main fittings and not on the whole NLGs. NLGs and NLG main fittings may have accumulated different flight cycle amounts.</P>
        </EXTRACT>
        
        <P>The unsafe condition is cracking of the NLG, which could adversely affect the airplane's safe landing. You may obtain further information by examining the MCAI in the AD docket.</P>
        <HD SOURCE="HD1">Comments</HD>
        <P>We gave the public the opportunity to participate in developing this AD. We received no comments on the NPRM or on the determination of the cost to the public.</P>
        <HD SOURCE="HD1">Conclusion</HD>
        <P>We reviewed the available data and determined that air safety and the public interest require adopting the AD as proposed.</P>
        <HD SOURCE="HD1">Differences Between This AD and the MCAI or Service Information</HD>
        <P>We have reviewed the MCAI and related service information and, in general, agree with their substance. But we might have found it necessary to use different words from those in the MCAI to ensure the AD is clear for U.S. operators and is enforceable. In making these changes, we do not intend to differ substantively from the information provided in the MCAI and related service information.</P>
        <P>We might also have required different actions in this AD from those in the MCAI in order to follow our FAA policies. Any such differences are highlighted in a Note within the AD.</P>
        <HD SOURCE="HD1">Costs of Compliance</HD>
        <P>We estimate that this AD will affect 1 product of U.S. registry.</P>
        <P>There are no retained actions in this final rule that are required byAD 2002-03-10.</P>
        <P>We estimate that it will take about 1 work-hour per product to comply with the new basic requirements of this AD. The average labor rate is $85 per work-hour. Based on these figures, we estimate the cost of this AD to the U.S. operators to be $85.</P>
        <P>We have received no definitive data that would enable us to provide a cost estimate for the on-condition actions specified in this AD.</P>
        <HD SOURCE="HD1">Authority for This Rulemaking</HD>
        <P>Title 49 of the United States Code specifies the FAA's authority to issue rules on aviation safety. Subtitle I, section 106, describes the authority of the FAA Administrator. “Subtitle VII: Aviation Programs,” describes in more detail the scope of the Agency's authority.</P>
        <P>We are issuing this rulemaking under the authority described in “Subtitle VII, Part A, Subpart III, Section 44701: General requirements.” Under that section, Congress charges the FAA with promoting safe flight of civil aircraft in air commerce by prescribing regulations for practices, methods, and procedures the Administrator finds necessary for safety in air commerce. This regulation is within the scope of that authority because it addresses an unsafe condition that is likely to exist or develop on products identified in this rulemaking action.</P>
        <HD SOURCE="HD1">Regulatory Findings</HD>
        <P>We determined that this AD will not have federalism implications under Executive Order 13132. This AD will not have a substantial direct effect on the States, on the relationship between the national government and the States, or on the distribution of power and responsibilities among the various levels of government.</P>
        <P>For the reasons discussed above, I certify this AD:</P>
        <P>1. Is not a ”significant regulatory action” under Executive Order 12866;</P>
        <P>2. Is not a ”significant rule” under the DOT Regulatory Policies and Procedures (44 FR 11034, February 26, 1979); and</P>
        <P>3. Will not have a significant economic impact, positive or negative, on a substantial number of small entities under the criteria of the Regulatory Flexibility Act.</P>
        <P>We prepared a regulatory evaluation of the estimated costs to comply with this AD and placed it in the AD docket.</P>
        <HD SOURCE="HD1">Examining the AD Docket</HD>
        <P>You may examine the AD docket on the Internet at<E T="03">http://www.regulations.gov;</E>or in person at the Docket Operations office between 9 a.m. and 5 p.m., Monday through Friday, except Federal holidays. The AD docket contains the NPRM, the regulatory evaluation, any comments received, and other information. The street address for the Docket Operations office (telephone (800) 647-5527) is in the<E T="02">ADDRESSES</E>
          <PRTPAGE P="31461"/>section. Comments will be available in the AD docket shortly after receipt.</P>
        <LSTSUB>
          <HD SOURCE="HED">List of Subjects in 14 CFR Part 39</HD>
          <P>Air transportation, Aircraft, Aviation safety, Incorporation by reference, Safety.</P>
        </LSTSUB>
        <HD SOURCE="HD1">Adoption of the Amendment</HD>
        <P>Accordingly, under the authority delegated to me by the Administrator, the FAA amends 14 CFR part 39 as follows:</P>
        <REGTEXT PART="39" TITLE="14">
          <PART>
            <HD SOURCE="HED">PART 39—AIRWORTHINESS DIRECTIVES</HD>
          </PART>
          <AMDPAR>1. The authority citation for part 39 continues to read as follows:</AMDPAR>
          <AUTH>
            <HD SOURCE="HED">Authority:</HD>
            <P>49 U.S.C. 106(g), 40113, 44701.</P>
          </AUTH>
        </REGTEXT>
        <REGTEXT PART="39" TITLE="14">
          <SECTION>
            <SECTNO>§ 39.13</SECTNO>
            <SUBJECT>[Amended]</SUBJECT>
          </SECTION>
          <AMDPAR>2. The FAA amends § 39.13 by removing Amendment 39-12651 (67 FR 6855, February 14, 2002) and adding the following new AD:</AMDPAR>
          
          <EXTRACT>
            <FP SOURCE="FP-2">
              <E T="04">2011-11-06BAE Systems (Operations) Limited:</E>Amendment 39-16705. Docket No. FAA-2010-0673; Directorate Identifier 2009-NM-208-AD.</FP>
            <HD SOURCE="HD1">Effective Date</HD>
            <P>(a) This airworthiness directive (AD) becomes effective July 6, 2011.</P>
            <HD SOURCE="HD1">Affected ADs</HD>
            <P>(b) This AD supersedes AD 2002-03-10, Amendment 39-12651.</P>
            <HD SOURCE="HD1">Applicability</HD>
            <P>(c) This AD applies to BAE Systems (OPERATIONS) LIMITED Model BAe 146-100A, -200A, and -300A airplanes and Model Avro 146-RJ70A, 146-RJ85A, and 146-RJ100A airplanes; certificated in any category; all serial numbers.</P>
            <HD SOURCE="HD1">Subject</HD>
            <P>(d) Air Transport Association (ATA) of America Code 32: Landing Gear.</P>
            <HD SOURCE="HD1">Reason</HD>
            <P>(e) The mandatory continuing airworthiness information (MCAI) states:</P>
            <P>In June 2000, prompted by a crack found at the top of the Nose Landing Gear (NLG) oleo, BAE Systems (Operations) Ltd (BAE Systems) issued Inspection Service Bulletin (ISB) ISB.32-158. * * *</P>
            <P>Later, as part of an accident investigation, the examination of a fractured NLG main fitting showed that M-D (Messier-Dowty) SB.146-32-150 was not accomplished * * *. BAE Systems determined that more NLG units could be similarly affected. * * *</P>
            <P>Subsequently, investigation and analysis by M-D identified the need for a reduction of the inspection threshold and the repetitive inspection interval for the affected NLG units * * *.</P>
            <STARS/>
            <P>* * * [I]nvestigation by M-D showed that if any undetected crack was present at the time of the embodiment of M-D SB 146-32-150, Part B or Part C, it could continue to grow while the NLG is in service and could lead to the failure of the main fitting and possible collapse of the NLG. * * * [B]AE Systems have received additional reports of cracked NLG main fittings. One operator reported a crack in a premodification main fitting. * * *</P>
            <STARS/>
            <P>Undetected cracks could lead to failure of the NLG Main Fitting and collapse of the NLG.</P>
            <STARS/>
            <FP>The unsafe condition is cracking of the NLG, which could adversely affect the airplane's safe landing.</FP>
            <HD SOURCE="HD1">Compliance</HD>
            <P>(f) You are responsible for having the actions required by this AD performed within the compliance times specified, unless the actions have already been done.</P>
            <HD SOURCE="HD1">Inspection</HD>
            <P>(g) Before the accumulation of 5,000 total flight cycles on the NLG main fitting, or within 300 flight cycles after the effective date of this AD, whichever occurs later, do an ultrasonic inspection on the upper part of the NLG main fitting for any crack, in accordance with the Accomplishment Instructions of Messier-Dowty Service Bulletin 146-32-174, Revision 2, dated August 16, 2010, including Appendix A, Revision 1, dated September 2, 2009. Thereafter, repeat the inspection at intervals not to exceed 300 flight cycles.</P>
            <P>(h) An inspection that has been done in accordance with the Accomplishment Instructions of Messier-Dowty Service Bulletin 146-32-174, Revision 1, dated September 2, 2009; or in accordance with the Accomplishment Instructions of Messier-Dowty Service Bulletin 146-32-175, Revision 2, dated March 5, 2010; before the effective date of this AD but not more than 300 flight cycles before the effective date of this AD, is considered acceptable for compliance with the initial inspection required by paragraph (g) of this AD.</P>
            <HD SOURCE="HD1">Replacement</HD>
            <P>(i) If any crack is found from the inspections required by paragraph (g) of this AD, before further flight, replace the NLG main fitting with a serviceable NLG main fitting, using a method approved by the Manager, International Branch, ANM-116, Transport Airplane Directorate, FAA; or the European Aviation Safety Agency (EASA) (or its delegated agent).</P>
            <NOTE>
              <HD SOURCE="HED">Note 1:</HD>
              <P>Guidance on replacing the NLG main fitting with a serviceable NLG main fitting can be found in Subsection 32-20-11 of BAE SYSTEMS (OPERATIONS) LIMITED BAe 146 Series/Avro 146-RJ Series Aircraft Maintenance Manual, AMM 146.153, Revision 101, dated July 15, 2010.</P>
            </NOTE>
            <P>(j) Replacing the NLG main fitting with a serviceable NLG main fitting is not a terminating action for the repetitive inspections required by paragraph (g) of this AD.</P>
            <HD SOURCE="HD1">Parts Installation</HD>
            <P>(k) As of the effective date of this AD, no person may install an affected NLG main fitting on any airplane, unless that NLG main fitting has been inspected in accordance with paragraph (g) of this AD and no cracking is found.</P>
            <HD SOURCE="HD1">FAA AD Differences</HD>
            <NOTE>
              <HD SOURCE="HED">Note 2:</HD>
              <P>This AD differs from the MCAI and/or service information as follows: No differences.</P>
            </NOTE>
            <HD SOURCE="HD1">Other FAA AD Provisions</HD>
            <P>(l) The following provisions also apply to this AD:</P>
            <P>(1) Alternative Methods of Compliance (AMOCs): The Manager, International Branch, ANM-116, Transport Airplane Directorate, FAA, has the authority to approve AMOCs for this AD, if requested using the procedures found in 14 CFR 39.19. Send information to ATTN: Todd Thompson, Aerospace Engineer, International Branch, ANM-116, Transport Airplane Directorate, FAA, 1601 Lind Avenue, SW., Renton, Washington 98057-3356; telephone (425) 227-1175; fax (425) 227-1149. Before using any approved AMOC, notify your appropriate principal inspector, or lacking a principal inspector, the manager of the local flight standards district office/certificate holding district office. The AMOC approval letter must specifically reference this AD.</P>
            <P>(2) Airworthy Product: For any requirement in this AD to obtain corrective actions from a manufacturer or other source, use these actions if they are FAA-approved. Corrective actions are considered FAA-approved if they are approved by the State of Design Authority (or their delegated agent). You are required to assure the product is airworthy before it is returned to service.</P>
            <HD SOURCE="HD1">Related Information</HD>
            <P>(m) Refer to MCAI EASA Airworthiness Directive 2010-0202R1, datedOctober 14, 2010; and Messier-Dowty Service Bulletin 146-32-174, Revision 2, dated August 16, 2010, including Appendix A, Revision 1, dated September 2, 2009; for related information.</P>
            <HD SOURCE="HD1">Material Incorporated by Reference</HD>
            <P>(n) You must use Messier-Dowty Service Bulletin 146-32-174, Revision 2, dated August 16, 2010, including Appendix A, Revision 1, dated September 2, 2009; to do the actions required by this AD, unless the AD specifies otherwise. (Page 6 of this document does not contain a revision level or date.)</P>
            <P>(1) The Director of the Federal Register approved the incorporation by reference of this service information under 5 U.S.C. 552(a) and 1 CFR part 51.</P>

            <P>(2) For Messier-Dowty service information identified in this AD, contact Messier Services Americas, Customer Support Center, 45360 Severn Way, Sterling, Virginia 20166-8910; telephone 703-450-8233; fax 703-404-1621; Internet<E T="03">https://techpubs.services.messier-dowty.com.</E>
            </P>

            <P>(3) For BAE SYSTEMS (OPERATIONS) LIMITED service information identified in this AD, contact BAE SYSTEMS<PRTPAGE P="31462"/>(OPERATIONS) LIMITED, Customer Information Department, Prestwick International Airport, Ayrshire, KA9 2RW, Scotland, United Kingdom; telephone +44 1292 675207; fax +44 1292 675704; e-mail<E T="03">RApublications@baesystems.com;</E>Internet<E T="03">http://www.baesystems.com/Businesses/RegionalAircraft/index.htm.</E>
            </P>
            <P>(4) You may review copies of the service information at the FAA, Transport Airplane Directorate, 1601 Lind Avenue, SW., Renton, Washington. For information on the availability of this material at the FAA, call 425-227-1221.</P>

            <P>(5) You may also review copies of the service information that is incorporated by reference at the National Archives and Records Administration (NARA). For information on the availability of this material at NARA, call 202-741-6030, or go to:<E T="03">http://www.archives.gov/federal_register/code_of_federal_regulations/ibr_locations.html.</E>
            </P>
          </EXTRACT>
        </REGTEXT>
        <SIG>
          <DATED>Issued in Renton, Washington, on May 13, 2011.</DATED>
          <NAME>Ali Bahrami,</NAME>
          <TITLE>Manager,Transport Airplane Directorate, Aircraft Certification Service.</TITLE>
        </SIG>
      </SUPLINF>
      <FRDOC>[FR Doc. 2011-12585 Filed 5-31-11; 8:45 am]</FRDOC>
      <BILCOD>BILLING CODE 4910-13-P</BILCOD>
    </RULE>
    <RULE>
      <PREAMB>
        <AGENCY TYPE="S">DEPARTMENT OF TRANSPORTATION</AGENCY>
        <SUBAGY>Federal Aviation Administration</SUBAGY>
        <CFR>14 CFR Part 39</CFR>
        <DEPDOC>[Docket No. FAA-2010-1044; Directorate Identifier 2010-NM-033-AD; Amendment 39-16704; AD 2011-11-05]</DEPDOC>
        <RIN>RIN 2120-AA64</RIN>
        <SUBJECT>Airworthiness Directives; The Boeing Company Model DC-10-10, DC-10-10F, DC-10-15, DC-10-30, DC-10-30F (KC-10A and KDC-10), DC-10-40, DC-10-40F; Model MD-10-10F, MD-10-30F, MD-11, and MD-11F Airplanes</SUBJECT>
        <AGY>
          <HD SOURCE="HED">AGENCY:</HD>
          <P>Federal Aviation Administration (FAA), DOT.</P>
        </AGY>
        <ACT>
          <HD SOURCE="HED">ACTION:</HD>
          <P>Final rule.</P>
        </ACT>
        <SUM>
          <HD SOURCE="HED">SUMMARY:</HD>
          <P>We are superseding an existing airworthiness directive (AD) for the products listed above. That AD currently requires an inspection to determine if a certain fuel pump housing electrical connector is installed. The existing AD also requires a revision to the FAA-approved airplane flight manual (AFM) to advise the flightcrew of the appropriate procedures for disabling certain fuel pump electrical circuits following failure of a fuel pump housing electrical connector if applicable. The existing AD also requires the deactivation of certain fuel tanks or fuel pumps and the installation of placards if applicable. The existing AD allows the optional replacement of the fuel pump housing electrical connectors with new, improved parts, which would terminate the AFM revisions, deactivation of certain fuel tanks and fuel pumps, and placard installation. This new AD instead requires replacing the fuel pump housing electrical connector assembly with a new part and doing repetitive inspections for continuity, resistance, and insulation resistance, and doing corrective actions if necessary. This AD was prompted by reports of failures of a certain fuel pump housing electrical connector. We are issuing this AD to detect and correct insulation resistance degradation and arcing in the potted backside of the electrical connector assembly of the fuel boost/transfer pump housing, which could compromise its performance and cause an ignition source in the fuel tank, resulting in a fuel tank explosion and consequent loss of the airplane.</P>
        </SUM>
        <DATES>
          <HD SOURCE="HED">DATES:</HD>
          <P>This AD is effective July 6, 2011.</P>
          <P>The Director of the Federal Register approved the incorporation by reference of certain publications listed in the AD as of July 6, 2011.</P>
        </DATES>
        <ADD>
          <HD SOURCE="HED">ADDRESSES:</HD>

          <P>For service information identified in this AD, contact Boeing Commercial Airplanes, Attention: Data &amp; Services Management, 3855 Lakewood Boulevard, MC D800-0019, Long Beach, California 90846-0001; telephone 206-544-5000, extension 2; fax 206-766-5683; e-mail<E T="03">dse.boecom@boeing.com;</E>Internet<E T="03">https://www.myboeingfleet.com.</E>You may review copies of the referenced service information at the FAA, Transport Airplane Directorate, 1601 Lind Avenue, SW., Renton, Washington. For information on the availability of this material at the FAA, call 425-227-1221.</P>
        </ADD>
        <HD SOURCE="HD1">Examining the AD Docket</HD>
        <P>You may examine the AD docket on the Internet at<E T="03">http://www.regulations.gov;</E>or in person at the Docket Management Facility between 9 a.m. and 5 p.m., Monday through Friday, except Federal holidays. The AD docket contains this AD, the regulatory evaluation, any comments received, and other information. The address for the Docket Office (phone: 800-647-5527) is Document Management Facility, U.S. Department of Transportation, Docket Operations, M-30, West Building Ground Floor, Room W12-140, 1200 New Jersey Avenue, SE., Washington, DC 20590.</P>
        <FURINF>
          <HD SOURCE="HED">FOR FURTHER INFORMATION CONTACT:</HD>

          <P>Philip Kush, Aerospace Engineer, Propulsion Branch, ANM-140L, FAA, Los Angeles Aircraft Certification Office, 3960 Paramount Boulevard, Lakewood, California 90712-4137; phone: 562-627-5263; fax: 562-627-5210.; e-mail:<E T="03">philip.kush@faa.gov.</E>
          </P>
        </FURINF>
      </PREAMB>
      <SUPLINF>
        <HD SOURCE="HED">SUPPLEMENTARY INFORMATION:</HD>
        <HD SOURCE="HD1">Discussion</HD>

        <P>We issued a notice of proposed rulemaking (NPRM) to amend 14 CFR part 39 to supersede airworthiness directive (AD) 2007-15-05, amendment 39-15134 (72 FR 40216, July 24, 2007). That AD applies to the specified products. The NPRM published in the<E T="04">Federal Register</E>on November 5, 2010 (75 FR 68246). That NPRM proposed to require replacing the fuel pump housing electrical assembly with a new part and doing repetitive inspections for continuity, resistance, and insulation resistance, and doing corrective actions, if necessary.</P>
        <HD SOURCE="HD1">Comments</HD>
        <P>We gave the public the opportunity to participate in developing this AD. The following presents the comments received on the proposal and the FAA's response to each comment.</P>
        <HD SOURCE="HD1">Request for Addition of Part Number</HD>
        <P>FedEx requested that we add, in the header above the Summary and paragraphs (c), (e), and (f) of the proposed AD, the part number of the fuel pump housing electrical connector assembly requiring replacement. FedEx stated that the change will clarify the AD and avoid unnecessary work and cost to the operators.</P>

        <P>We partially agree with the commenter. We disagree with adding the part number of the fuel pump housing electrical connector assembly requiring replacement to the header information, paragraph (c), and paragraph (f) of this AD because the affected part could be rotated onto any of the airplanes listed in the applicability. However, we agree that clarification of paragraph (h) of this AD (referred to as paragraph (g) in the NPRM) is needed. In order to comply with this AD, for all airplanes in the applicability it must be determined if the fuel pump housing electrical connector assembly having part number (P/N) 60-84355-1 is installed. We have added paragraph (g) to specify the inspection to determine the part number. We have also added a reference of P/N 60-84355-1 to paragraph (h) of this AD for clarification. In addition, we have added a reference of P/N 60-84355-1 to paragraph (e) of this AD for clarification.<PRTPAGE P="31463"/>
        </P>
        <HD SOURCE="HD1">Clarification of Paragraph (i) of This AD</HD>
        <P>We have revised paragraph (i) of this AD by replacing the phrase, “replacing the fuel pump electrical connector assembly as required by paragraph (g) of this AD” with the phrase, “installing the fuel pump housing electrical connector assembly having P/N 60-84351, in accordance with Boeing Alert Service Bulletin DC10-28A261 or Boeing Alert Service Bulletin MD11-28A143,” to clarify that P/N 60-84351 must be repetitively inspected after installation.</P>
        <HD SOURCE="HD1">Conclusion</HD>
        <P>We reviewed the relevant data, considered the comment received, and determined that air safety and the public interest require adopting the AD with the change described previously—and minor editorial changes. We have determined that these minor changes:</P>
        <P>• Are consistent with the intent that was proposed in the NPRM for correcting the unsafe condition; and</P>
        <P>• Do not add any additional burden upon the public than was already proposed in the NPRM.</P>
        <P>We also determined that these changes will not increase the economic burden on any operator or increase the scope of the AD.</P>
        <HD SOURCE="HD1">Costs of Compliance</HD>
        <P>We estimate that this AD affects 281 airplanes of U.S. registry.</P>
        <P>We estimate the following costs to comply with this AD:</P>
        <GPOTABLE CDEF="s50,r50,12,r50,r50,12,r50" COLS="7" OPTS="L2,i1">
          <TTITLE>Estimated Costs</TTITLE>
          <BOXHD>
            <CHED H="1">Action</CHED>
            <CHED H="1">Work hours</CHED>
            <CHED H="1">Average labor rate per hour</CHED>
            <CHED H="1">Parts</CHED>
            <CHED H="1">Cost per airplane</CHED>
            <CHED H="1">Number of U.S.-registered airplanes</CHED>
            <CHED H="1">Fleet cost</CHED>
          </BOXHD>
          <ROW>
            <ENT I="01">Inspection</ENT>
            <ENT>Between 20 and 36 per inspection cycle</ENT>
            <ENT>$85</ENT>
            <ENT>$0</ENT>
            <ENT>Between $1,700 and $3,060 per inspection cycle</ENT>
            <ENT>281</ENT>
            <ENT>Between $477,700 and $859,860 per inspection cycle.</ENT>
          </ROW>
          <ROW>
            <ENT I="01">Replacement</ENT>
            <ENT>Up to 44</ENT>
            <ENT>85</ENT>
            <ENT>Up to $4,478</ENT>
            <ENT>Up to $8,218</ENT>
            <ENT>281</ENT>
            <ENT>Up to $2,309,258.</ENT>
          </ROW>
        </GPOTABLE>
        <HD SOURCE="HD1">Authority for This Rulemaking</HD>
        <P>Title 49 of the United States Code specifies the FAA's authority to issue rules on aviation safety. Subtitle I, section 106, describes the authority of the FAA Administrator. Subtitle VII, Aviation Programs, describes in more detail the scope of the Agency's authority.</P>
        <P>We are issuing this rulemaking under the authority described in subtitle VII, part A, subpart III, section 44701, “General requirements.” Under that section, Congress charges the FAA with promoting safe flight of civil aircraft in air commerce by prescribing regulations for practices, methods, and procedures the Administrator finds necessary for safety in air commerce. This regulation is within the scope of that authority because it addresses an unsafe condition that is likely to exist or develop on products identified in this rulemaking action.</P>
        <HD SOURCE="HD1">Regulatory Findings</HD>
        <P>We have determined that this AD will not have federalism implications under Executive Order 13132. This AD will not have a substantial direct effect on the States, on the relationship between the national government and the States, or on the distribution of power and responsibilities among the various levels of government.</P>
        <P>For the reasons discussed above, I certify that this AD:</P>
        <P>(1) Is not a “significant regulatory action” under Executive Order 12866,</P>
        <P>(2) Is not a “significant rule” under DOT Regulatory Policies and Procedures (44 FR 11034, February 26, 1979),</P>
        <P>(3) Will not affect intrastate aviation in Alaska, and</P>
        <P>(4) Will not have a significant economic impact, positive or negative, on a substantial number of small entities under the criteria of the Regulatory Flexibility Act.</P>
        <LSTSUB>
          <HD SOURCE="HED">List of Subjects in 14 CFR Part 39</HD>
          <P>Air transportation, Aircraft, Aviation safety, Incorporation by reference, Safety.</P>
        </LSTSUB>
        <HD SOURCE="HD1">Adoption of the Amendment</HD>
        <P>Accordingly, under the authority delegated to me by the Administrator, the FAA amends 14 CFR part 39 as follows:</P>
        <REGTEXT PART="39" TITLE="14">
          <PART>
            <HD SOURCE="HED">PART 39—AIRWORTHINESS DIRECTIVES</HD>
          </PART>
          <AMDPAR>1. The authority citation for part 39 continues to read as follows:</AMDPAR>
          <AUTH>
            <HD SOURCE="HED">Authority:</HD>
            <P>49 U.S.C. 106(g), 40113, 44701.</P>
          </AUTH>
        </REGTEXT>
        <REGTEXT PART="39" TITLE="14">
          <SECTION>
            <SECTNO>§ 39.13</SECTNO>
            <SUBJECT>[Amended]</SUBJECT>
          </SECTION>
          <AMDPAR>2. The FAA amends § 39.13 by removing airworthiness directive (AD) 2007-15-05, Amendment 39-15134 (72 FR 40216, July 24, 2007), and adding the following new AD:</AMDPAR>
          
          <EXTRACT>
            <FP SOURCE="FP-2">
              <E T="04">2011-11-05The Boeing Company:</E>Amendment 39-16704; Docket No. FAA-2010-1044; Directorate Identifier 2010-NM-033-AD.</FP>
            <HD SOURCE="HD1">Effective Date</HD>
            <P>(a) This airworthiness directive (AD) is effective July 6, 2011.</P>
            <HD SOURCE="HD1">Affected ADs</HD>
            <P>(b) This AD supersedes AD 2007-15-05, Amendment 39-15134.</P>
            <HD SOURCE="HD1">Applicability</HD>
            <P>(c) This AD applies to all The Boeing Company Model DC-10-10, DC-10-10F, DC-10-15, DC-10-30, DC-10-30F (KC-10A and KDC-10), DC-10-40, DC-10-40F, MD-10-10F, MD-10-30F, MD-11, and MD-11F airplanes, certificated in any category.</P>
            <HD SOURCE="HD1">Subject</HD>
            <P>(d) Air Transport Association (ATA) of America Code 28: Fuel.</P>
            <HD SOURCE="HD1">Unsafe Condition</HD>
            <P>(e) This AD results from reports of failures of the fuel pump housing electrical connector having P/N 60-84355-1. The Federal Aviation Administration is issuing this AD to detect and correct insulation resistance degradation and arcing in the potted backside of the electrical connector assembly of the fuel boost/transfer pump housing, which could compromise its performance and cause an ignition source in the fuel tank, resulting in a fuel tank explosion and consequent loss of the airplane.</P>
            <HD SOURCE="HD1">Compliance</HD>
            <P>(f) You are responsible for having the actions required by this AD performed within the compliance times specified, unless the actions have already been done.</P>
            <HD SOURCE="HD1">Inspection and Change</HD>
            <P>(g) For all airplanes: Within 10 months after the effective date of this AD, do an inspection of the fuel pump housing electrical connector to determine if part number (P/N) 60-84355-1 is installed. A review of airplane maintenance records is acceptable in lieu of this inspection if the part number of the fuel pump housing electrical connector can be conclusively determined from that review.</P>

            <P>(h) If, during the inspection required by paragraph (g) of this AD, any airplane is determined to have fuel pump housing electrical connector assembly having P/N 60-84355-1: Within 10 months after the effective<PRTPAGE P="31464"/>date of this AD, do the actions in paragraph (h)(1) or (h)(2) of this AD, in accordance with the Accomplishment Instructions of Boeing Alert Service Bulletin DC10-28A261, dated December 1, 2009; or Boeing Alert Service Bulletin MD11-28A143, dated December 2, 2009; as applicable.</P>
            <P>(1) Replace the fuel pump housing electrical connector assembly having P/N 60-84355-1 with new P/N 60-84351; or</P>
            <P>(2) Do the actions required by paragraphs (h)(2)(i) and (h)(2)(ii) of this AD.</P>
            <P>(i) Using a digital multi-meter, do a continuity, resistance, and insulation resistance inspection from the terminal strip through the fuel boost/transfer pump; and all applicable corrective actions specified in Boeing Alert Service Bulletin DC10-28A261, dated December 1, 2009; or Boeing Alert Service Bulletin MD11-28A143, dated December 2, 2009; as applicable. Do all applicable corrective actions before further flight.</P>
            <P>(ii) Within 12 months after accomplishing the inspection required by paragraph (h)(2)(i) of this AD: Replace the fuel pump housing electrical connector assembly having P/N 60-84355-1 with a new fuel pump housing electrical connector assembly having P/N 60-84351.</P>
            <P>(i) Before further flight after installing the new fuel pump housing electrical connector assembly, insert the applicable interim operating procedure regarding abnormal operations for failure of the fuel pump housing electrical connector into the Procedures section of the applicable Boeing airplane flight manual, in accordance with the applicable service information identified in Table 1 of this AD.</P>
            <GPOTABLE CDEF="s100,xs80,xs125" COLS="3" OPTS="L2,i1">
              <TTITLE>Table 1—Service Information</TTITLE>
              <BOXHD>
                <CHED H="1" O="L">Bulletin—</CHED>
                <CHED H="1" O="L">Date—</CHED>
                <CHED H="1" O="L">To the—</CHED>
              </BOXHD>
              <ROW>
                <ENT I="01">Boeing DC-10 Operations Bulletin 2-001B</ENT>
                <ENT>January 25, 2010</ENT>
                <ENT>Boeing DC-10 Flight Crew Operating Manual.</ENT>
              </ROW>
              <ROW>
                <ENT I="01">Boeing MD-10 Flight Crew Operations Manual Advisory Bulletin 2-01B</ENT>
                <ENT>January 25, 2010</ENT>
                <ENT>Boeing MD-10 Flight Crew Operations Manual.</ENT>
              </ROW>
              <ROW>
                <ENT I="01">Boeing MD-11 Flight Crew Operations Manual Advisory Bulletin 2-05C</ENT>
                <ENT>January 25, 2010</ENT>
                <ENT>Boeing MD-11 Flight Crew Operations Manual.</ENT>
              </ROW>
            </GPOTABLE>
            <HD SOURCE="HD1">Repetitive Inspections for P/N 60-84351</HD>
            <P>(j) Within 18 months after installing the fuel pump housing electrical connector assembly having P/N 60-84351, in accordance with Boeing Alert Service Bulletin DC10-28A261 or Boeing Alert Service Bulletin MD11-28A143: Do a continuity, resistance, and insulation resistance inspection from the terminal strip through the fuel boost/transfer pump, in accordance with the Accomplishment Instructions of Boeing Alert Service Bulletin DC10-28A261, dated December 1, 2009; or Boeing Alert Service Bulletin MD11-28A143, dated December 2, 2009; as applicable. Do all applicable corrective actions before further flight in accordance with the Accomplishment Instructions of Boeing Alert Service Bulletin DC10-28A261, dated December 1, 2009; or Boeing Alert Service Bulletin MD11-28A143, dated December 2, 2009; as applicable. Repeat the inspections thereafter at intervals not to exceed 18 months.</P>
            <HD SOURCE="HD1">Alternative Methods of Compliance (AMOCs)</HD>

            <P>(k)(1) The Manager, Los Angeles Aircraft Certification Office (ACO), FAA, has the authority to approve AMOCs for this AD, if requested using the procedures found in 14 CFR 39.19. In accordance with 14 CFR 39.19, send your request to your principal inspector or local Flight Standards District Office, as appropriate. If sending information directly to the ACO, send it to ATTN: Philip Kush, Aerospace Engineer, Propulsion Branch, ANM-140L, FAA, Los Angeles Aircraft Certification Office, 3960 Paramount Boulevard, Lakewood, California 90712-4137; phone: 562-627-5263; fax: 562-627-5210; e-mail:<E T="03">philip.kush@faa.gov.</E>
            </P>
            <P>(2) Before using any approved AMOC, notify your appropriate principal inspector, or lacking a principal inspector, the manager of the local flight standards district office/certificate holding district office.</P>
            <HD SOURCE="HD1">Material Incorporated by Reference</HD>
            <P>(l) You must use the service information contained in table 2 of this AD, as applicable, to do the actions required by this AD, unless the AD specifies otherwise.</P>
            <GPOTABLE CDEF="s100,xs80" COLS="2" OPTS="L2,i1">
              <TTITLE>Table 2—All Material Incorporated by Reference</TTITLE>
              <BOXHD>
                <CHED H="1">Document</CHED>
                <CHED H="1">Date</CHED>
              </BOXHD>
              <ROW>
                <ENT I="01">Boeing Alert Service Bulletin DC10-28A261</ENT>
                <ENT>December 1, 2009.</ENT>
              </ROW>
              <ROW>
                <ENT I="01">Boeing Alert Service Bulletin MD11-28A143</ENT>
                <ENT>December 2, 2009.</ENT>
              </ROW>
              <ROW>
                <ENT I="01">Boeing DC-10 Operations Bulletin 2-001B to the Boeing DC-10 Flight Crew Operating Manual</ENT>
                <ENT>January 25, 2010.</ENT>
              </ROW>
              <ROW>
                <ENT I="01">Boeing MD-10 Flight Crew Operations Manual Advisory Bulletin 2-01B to the Boeing MD-10 Flight Crew Operations Manual</ENT>
                <ENT>January 25, 2010.</ENT>
              </ROW>
              <ROW>
                <ENT I="01">Boeing MD-11 Flight Crew Operations Manual Advisory Bulletin 2-05C to the Boeing MD-11 Flight Crew Operations Manual</ENT>
                <ENT>January 25, 2010.</ENT>
              </ROW>
            </GPOTABLE>
            <FP>(The document number of Boeing DC-10 Operations Bulletin 2-001B is specified only on the first page of the document.)</FP>
            <P>(1) The Director of the Federal Register approved the incorporation by reference of the service information contained in table 2 of this AD under 5 U.S.C. 552(a) and 1 CFR part 51.</P>

            <P>(2) For service information identified in this AD, contact Boeing Commercial Airplanes, Attention: Data &amp; Services Management, 3855 Lakewood Boulevard, MC D800-0019, Long Beach, California 90846-0001; telephone: 206-544-5000, extension 2; fax: 206-766-5683; e-mail:<E T="03">dse.boecom@boeing.com;</E>Internet<E T="03">https://www.myboeingfleet.com.</E>
            </P>
            <P>(3) You may review copies of the referenced service information at the FAA, Transport Airplane Directorate, 1601 Lind Avenue, SW., Renton, Washington. For information on the availability of this material at the FAA, call 425-227-1221.</P>

            <P>(4) You may also review copies of the service information that is incorporated by reference at the National Archives and Records Administration (NARA). For information on the availability of this material at an NARA facility, call 202-741-6030, or go to<E T="03">http://www.archives.gov/federal_register/code_of_federal_regulations/ibr_locations.html.</E>
            </P>
          </EXTRACT>
        </REGTEXT>
        <SIG>
          <DATED>Issued in Renton, Washington, on May 12, 2011.</DATED>
          <NAME>Jeffrey E. Duven,</NAME>
          <TITLE>Acting Manager, Transport Airplane Directorate, Aircraft Certification Service.</TITLE>
        </SIG>
      </SUPLINF>
      <FRDOC>[FR Doc. 2011-12592 Filed 5-31-11; 8:45 am]</FRDOC>
      <BILCOD>BILLING CODE 4910-13-P</BILCOD>
    </RULE>
    <RULE>
      <PREAMB>
        <PRTPAGE P="31465"/>
        <AGENCY TYPE="S">DEPARTMENT OF TRANSPORTATION</AGENCY>
        <SUBAGY>Federal Aviation Administration</SUBAGY>
        <CFR>14 CFR Part 39</CFR>
        <DEPDOC>[Docket No. FAA-2011-0504; Directorate Identifier 2011-CE-014-AD; Amendment 39-16702; AD 2011-11-03]</DEPDOC>
        <RIN>RIN 2120-AA64</RIN>
        <SUBJECT>Airworthiness Directives; Various Aircraft Equipped With Rotax Aircraft Engines 912 A Series Engine</SUBJECT>
        <AGY>
          <HD SOURCE="HED">AGENCY:</HD>
          <P>Federal Aviation Administration (FAA), DOT.</P>
        </AGY>
        <ACT>
          <HD SOURCE="HED">ACTION:</HD>
          <P>Final rule; request for comments.</P>
        </ACT>
        <SUM>
          <HD SOURCE="HED">SUMMARY:</HD>
          <P>We are adopting a new airworthiness directive (AD) for the products listed above. This AD results from mandatory continuing airworthiness information (MCAI) issued by the aviation authority of another country to identify and correct an unsafe condition on an aviation product. The MCAI describes the unsafe condition as:</P>
          
          <EXTRACT>
            <P>During a production process review, a deviation in hardening of certain Part Number (P/N) 944072 washers has been detected, which exceeds the hardness of the design specification.</P>
            <P>The affected washers are part of the magneto ring flywheel hub installation and have been installed on a limited number of engines. No defective washers have been shipped as spare parts.</P>
            <P>This condition, if not corrected, could lead to cracks in the washer, loosening of the magneto flywheel hub and consequent ignition failure, possibly resulting in damage to the engine, in-flight engine shutdown and forced landing, damage to the aeroplane and injury to occupants.</P>
          </EXTRACT>
          
        </SUM>
        <FP>This AD requires actions that are intended to address the unsafe condition described in the MCAI.</FP>
        <DATES>
          <HD SOURCE="HED">DATES:</HD>
          <P>This AD becomes effective June 16, 2011.</P>
          <P>On June 16, 2011, the Director of the Federal Register approved the incorporation by reference of certain publications listed in this AD.</P>
          <P>We must receive comments on this AD by July 18, 2011.</P>
        </DATES>
        <ADD>
          <HD SOURCE="HED">ADDRESSES:</HD>
          <P>You may send comments by any of the following methods:</P>
          <P>•<E T="03">Federal eRulemaking Portal:</E>Go to<E T="03">http://www.regulations.gov.</E>Follow the instructions for submitting comments.</P>
          <P>•<E T="03">Fax:</E>(202) 493-2251.</P>
          <P>•<E T="03">Mail:</E>U.S. Department of Transportation, Docket Operations, M-30, West Building Ground Floor, Room W12-140, 1200 New Jersey Avenue, SE., Washington, DC 20590.</P>
          <P>•<E T="03">Hand Delivery:</E>U.S. Department of Transportation, Docket Operations, M-30, West Building Ground Floor, Room W12-140, 1200 New Jersey Avenue, SE., Washington, DC 20590, between 9 a.m. and 5 p.m., Monday through Friday, except Federal holidays.</P>

          <P>For service information identified in this AD, contact BRP-Rotax GmbH &amp; Co. KG, Welser Strasse 32, A-4623 Gunskirchen, Austria; phone: +43 7246 601 0; fax: +43 7246 601 9130; Internet:<E T="03">http://www.rotax-aircraft-engines.com.</E>You may review copies of the referenced service information at the FAA, Small Airplane Directorate, 901 Locust, Kansas City, Missouri 64106. For information on the availability of this material at the FAA, call (816) 329-4148.</P>
        </ADD>
        <HD SOURCE="HD1">Examining the AD Docket</HD>
        <P>You may examine the AD docket on the Internet at<E T="03">http://www.regulations.gov;</E>or in person at the Docket Management Facility between 9 a.m. and 5 p.m., Monday through Friday, except Federal holidays. The AD docket contains this AD, the regulatory evaluation, any comments received, and other information. The street address for the Docket Office (telephone (800) 647-5527) is in the<E T="02">ADDRESSES</E>section. Comments will be available in the AD docket shortly after receipt.</P>
        <FURINF>
          <HD SOURCE="HED">FOR FURTHER INFORMATION CONTACT:</HD>

          <P>Sarjapur Nagarajan, Aerospace Engineer, FAA, Small Airplane Directorate, 901 Locust, Room 301, Kansas City, Missouri 64106; telephone: (816) 329-4145; fax: (816) 329-4090; e-mail:<E T="03">sarjapur.nagarajan@faa.gov.</E>
          </P>
        </FURINF>
      </PREAMB>
      <SUPLINF>
        <HD SOURCE="HED">SUPPLEMENTARY INFORMATION:</HD>
        <HD SOURCE="HD1">Discussion</HD>
        <P>The European Aviation Safety Agency (EASA), which is the Technical Agent for the Member States of the European Community, has issued AD No. 2011-0067-E, dated April 15, 2011 (referred to after this as “the MCAI”), to correct an unsafe condition for the specified products. The MCAI states:</P>
        
        <EXTRACT>
          <P>During a production process review, a deviation in hardening of certain Part Number (P/N) 944072 washers has been detected, which exceeds the hardness of the design specification.</P>
          <P>The affected washers are part of the magneto ring flywheel hub installation and have been installed on a limited number of engines. No defective washers have been shipped as spare parts.</P>
          <P>This condition, if not corrected, could lead to cracks in the washer, loosening of the magneto flywheel hub and consequent ignition failure, possibly resulting in damage to the engine, in-flight engine shutdown and forced landing, damage to the aeroplane and injury to occupants.</P>
          <P>For the reasons described above, this AD requires, for the affected engines, the replacement of the P/N 944072 washer and associated gasket ring P/N 950141 with serviceable parts, having the same P/N.</P>
          <P>This AD also prohibits installation of an affected engine on an aeroplane, unless the washer on that engine has been replaced as required by this AD.</P>
        </EXTRACT>
        
        <FP>You may obtain further information by examining the MCAI in the AD docket.</FP>
        <HD SOURCE="HD1">Relevant Service Information</HD>
        <P>Rotax Aircraft Engines has issued Mandatory Service Bulletin SB-912-058 and SB-914-041 (same document), dated April 15, 2011. The actions described in this service information are intended to correct the unsafe condition identified in the MCAI.</P>
        <HD SOURCE="HD1">FAA's Determination and Requirements of the AD</HD>
        <P>This product has been approved by the aviation authority of another country, and is approved for operation in the United States. Pursuant to our bilateral agreement with this State of Design Authority, they have notified us of the unsafe condition described in the MCAI and service information referenced above. We are issuing this AD because we evaluated all information provided by the State of Design Authority and determined the unsafe condition exists and is likely to exist or develop on other products of the same type design.</P>
        <HD SOURCE="HD1">Differences Between This AD and the MCAI or Service Information</HD>
        <P>We have reviewed the MCAI and related service information and, in general, agree with their substance. But we might have found it necessary to use different words from those in the MCAI to ensure the AD is clear for U.S. operators and is enforceable. In making these changes, we do not intend to differ substantively from the information provided in the MCAI and related service information.</P>
        <P>We might have also required different actions in this AD from those in the MCAI in order to follow FAA policies. Any such differences are described in a separate paragraph of the AD. These requirements take precedence over those copied from the MCAI.</P>
        <HD SOURCE="HD1">FAA's Determination of the Effective Date</HD>

        <P>An unsafe condition exists that requires the immediate adoption of this AD. The FAA has found that the risk to the flying public justifies waiving notice and comment prior to adoption of this rule because cracks in the washer of the magneto ring flywheel hub could cause loosening of the magneto flywheel hub. This failure could result in ignition<PRTPAGE P="31466"/>failure and/or damage to the engine, causing in-flight engine shutdown leading to a forced landing. A forced landing could result in damage to the airplane and injury to the occupants. Therefore, we determined that notice and opportunity for public comment before issuing this AD are impracticable and that good cause exists for making this amendment effective in fewer than 30 days.</P>
        <HD SOURCE="HD1">Comments Invited</HD>

        <P>This AD is a final rule that involves requirements affecting flight safety, and we did not precede it by notice and opportunity for public comment. We invite you to send any written relevant data, views, or arguments about this AD. Send your comments to an address listed under the<E T="02">ADDRESSES</E>section. Include “Docket No. FAA-2011-0504; Directorate Identifier 2011-CE-014-AD” at the beginning of your comments. We specifically invite comments on the overall regulatory, economic, environmental, and energy aspects of this AD. We will consider all comments received by the closing date and may amend this AD because of those comments.</P>
        <P>We will post all comments we receive, without change, to<E T="03">http://www.regulations.gov,</E>including any personal information you provide. We will also post a report summarizing each substantive verbal contact we receive about this AD.</P>
        <HD SOURCE="HD1">Costs of Compliance</HD>
        <P>We estimate that this AD will affect 475 products of U.S. registry. We also estimate that it would take about 24 work-hours per product to comply with the basic requirements of this AD. The average labor rate is $85 per work-hour. Required parts would cost about $20 per product.</P>
        <P>Based on these figures, we estimate the cost of the AD on U.S. operators to be $978,500, or $2,060 per product.</P>
        <P>According to the manufacturer, some of the costs of this AD may be covered under warranty, thereby reducing the cost impact on affected individuals. We do not control warranty coverage for affected individuals. As a result, we have included all costs in our cost estimate.</P>
        <HD SOURCE="HD1">Authority for This Rulemaking</HD>
        <P>Title 49 of the United States Code specifies the FAA's authority to issue rules on aviation safety. Subtitle I, section 106, describes the authority of the FAA Administrator. “Subtitle VII: Aviation Programs,” describes in more detail the scope of the Agency's authority.</P>
        <P>We are issuing this rulemaking under the authority described in “Subtitle VII, Part A, Subpart III, Section 44701: General requirements.” Under that section, Congress charges the FAA with promoting safe flight of civil aircraft in air commerce by prescribing regulations for practices, methods, and procedures the Administrator finds necessary for safety in air commerce. This regulation is within the scope of that authority because it addresses an unsafe condition that is likely to exist or develop on products identified in this rulemaking action.</P>
        <HD SOURCE="HD1">Regulatory Findings</HD>
        <P>We determined that this AD will not have federalism implications under Executive Order 13132. This AD will not have a substantial direct effect on the States, on the relationship between the national government and the States, or on the distribution of power and responsibilities among the various levels of government.</P>
        <P>For the reasons discussed above, I certify that this AD:</P>
        <P>(1) Is not a “significant regulatory action” under Executive Order 12866;</P>
        <P>(2) Is not a “significant rule” under DOT Regulatory Policies and Procedures (44 FR 11034, February 26, 1979); and</P>
        <P>(3) Will not have a significant economic impact, positive or negative, on a substantial number of small entities under the criteria of the Regulatory Flexibility Act.</P>
        <P>We prepared a regulatory evaluation of the estimated costs to comply with this AD and placed it in the AD docket.</P>
        <LSTSUB>
          <HD SOURCE="HED">List of Subjects in 14 CFR Part 39</HD>
          <P>Air transportation, Aircraft, Aviation safety, Incorporation by reference, Safety.</P>
        </LSTSUB>
        <HD SOURCE="HD1">Adoption of the Amendment</HD>
        <P>Accordingly, under the authority delegated to me by the Administrator, the FAA amends 14 CFR part 39 as follows:</P>
        <REGTEXT PART="39" TITLE="14">
          <PART>
            <HD SOURCE="HED">PART 39—AIRWORTHINESS DIRECTIVES</HD>
          </PART>
          <AMDPAR>1. The authority citation for part 39 continues to read as follows:</AMDPAR>
          <AUTH>
            <HD SOURCE="HED">Authority:</HD>
            <P>49 U.S.C. 106(g), 40113, 44701.</P>
          </AUTH>
        </REGTEXT>
        <REGTEXT PART="39" TITLE="14">
          <SECTION>
            <SECTNO>§ 39.13</SECTNO>
            <SUBJECT>[Amended]</SUBJECT>
          </SECTION>
          <AMDPAR>2. The FAA amends § 39.13 by adding the following new AD:</AMDPAR>
          
          <EXTRACT>
            <FP SOURCE="FP-2">
              <E T="04">2011-11-03Various Aircraft:</E>Amendment 39-16702; Docket No. FAA-2011-0504; Directorate Identifier 2011-CE-014-AD.</FP>
            <HD SOURCE="HD1">Effective Date</HD>
            <P>(a) This airworthiness directive (AD) becomes effective June 16, 2011.</P>
            <HD SOURCE="HD1">Affected ADs</HD>
            <P>(b) None.</P>
            <HD SOURCE="HD1">Applicability</HD>
            <P>(c) This AD applies to all serial numbers of the following aircraft, equipped with a Rotax Aircraft Engines 912 A series engine, serial number 4,410.888 through 4,410.899, installed and certificated in any category:</P>
            <GPOTABLE CDEF="s100,r100,xs70" COLS="3" OPTS="L2,tp0,i1">
              <TTITLE/>
              <BOXHD>
                <CHED H="1">Type certificate holder</CHED>
                <CHED H="1">Aircraft model</CHED>
                <CHED H="1">Engine model</CHED>
              </BOXHD>
              <ROW>
                <ENT I="01">Aeromot-IndustriaMecanico Metalurgica ltda</ENT>
                <ENT>AMT-200 and AMT-300</ENT>
                <ENT>912 A2</ENT>
              </ROW>
              <ROW>
                <ENT I="01">Diamond Aircraft Industries GmbH</ENT>
                <ENT>H-36 “DIMONA” and HK 36 R “SUPER DIMONA”</ENT>
                <ENT>912 A</ENT>
              </ROW>
              <ROW>
                <ENT I="01">Diamond Aircraft Industries Inc.</ENT>
                <ENT>DA20-A1</ENT>
                <ENT>912 A3</ENT>
              </ROW>
              <ROW>
                <ENT I="01">HOAC-Austria</ENT>
                <ENT>DV 20 KATANA</ENT>
                <ENT>912 A3</ENT>
              </ROW>
              <ROW>
                <ENT I="01">Iniziative Industriali Italiane S.p.A</ENT>
                <ENT>Sky Arrow 650 TC, Sky Arrow 650 TCN, and Sky Arrow 650TCNS</ENT>
                <ENT>912 A2 or 912 A3</ENT>
              </ROW>
              <ROW>
                <ENT I="01">SCHEIBE-Flugzeugbau GmbH</ENT>
                <ENT>SF 25C</ENT>
                <ENT>912 A2</ENT>
              </ROW>
            </GPOTABLE>
            <HD SOURCE="HD1">Subject</HD>
            <P>(d) Air Transport Association of America (ATA) Code 74: Ignition.</P>
            <HD SOURCE="HD1">Reason</HD>
            <P>(e) The mandatory continuing airworthiness information (MCAI) states:</P>
            <P>During a production process review, a deviation in hardening of certain Part Number (P/N) 944072 washers has been detected, which exceeds the hardness of the design specification.</P>
            <P>The affected washers are part of the magneto ring flywheel hub installation and have been installed on a limited number of engines. No defective washers have been shipped as spare parts.</P>

            <P>This condition, if not corrected, could lead to cracks in the washer, loosening of the magneto flywheel hub and consequent ignition failure, possibly resulting in damage<PRTPAGE P="31467"/>to the engine, in-flight engine shutdown and forced landing, damage to the aeroplane and injury to occupants.</P>
            <P>For the reasons described above, this AD requires, for the affected engines, the replacement of the P/N 944072 washer and associated gasket ring P/N 950141 with serviceable parts, having the same P/N.</P>
            <P>This AD also prohibits installation of an affected engine on an aeroplane, unless the washer on that engine has been replaced as required by this AD.</P>
            <HD SOURCE="HD1">Actions and Compliance</HD>
            <P>(f) Unless already done, do the following actions.</P>
            <P>(1) Within the next 10 hours time-in-service (TIS) after June 16, 2011 (the effective date of this AD) or within 4 months after June 16, 2011 (the effective date of this AD), whichever occurs first, replace washer, part number (P/N) 944072, and associated gasket ring, P/N 950141, on the magneto ring flywheel hub with FAA-approved serviceable parts with the same P/Ns. Do the replacements following the Accomplishment Instructions in Rotax Aircraft Engines Mandatory Service Bulletin  SB-912-058 and SB-914-041 (same document), dated April 15, 2011.</P>
            <P>(2) As of June 16, 2011 (the effective date of this AD), do not install a Rotax Aircraft Engines 912 A series engine listed in paragraph (c) of this AD unless the washer, P/N 944072, and the gasket ring, P/N 950141, have been replaced as required in paragraph (f)(1) of this AD.</P>
            <HD SOURCE="HD1">FAA AD Differences</HD>
            <NOTE>
              <HD SOURCE="HED">Note:</HD>
              <P>This AD differs from the MCAI and/or service information as follows: EASA AD 2011-0067-E, dated April 15, 2011, requires returning the removed P/N 944072 to Rotax Aircraft Engines. We are not requiring this because FAA regulation, specifically 14 CFR 43.10, already requires disposition of unairworthy parts.</P>
            </NOTE>
            <HD SOURCE="HD1">Other FAA AD Provisions</HD>
            <P>(g) The following provisions also apply to this AD:</P>
            <P>(1) Alternative Methods of Compliance (AMOCs): The Manager, Standards Office, FAA, has the authority to approve AMOCs for this AD, if requested using the procedures found in 14 CFR 39.19. Send information to ATTN: Sarjapur Nagarajan, Aerospace Engineer, FAA, Small Airplane Directorate, 901 Locust, Room 301, Kansas City, Missouri 64106; telephone: (816) 329-4145; fax: (816) 329-4090. Before using any approved AMOC on any airplane to which the AMOC applies, notify your appropriate principal inspector (PI) in the FAA Flight Standards District Office (FSDO), or lacking a PI, your local FSDO.</P>
            <P>(2) Airworthy Product: For any requirement in this AD to obtain corrective actions from a manufacturer or other source, use these actions if they are FAA-approved. Corrective actions are considered FAA-approved if they are approved by the State of Design Authority (or their delegated agent). You are required to assure the product is airworthy before it is returned to service.</P>
            <P>(3) Reporting Requirements: For any reporting requirement in this AD, a federal agency may not conduct or sponsor, and a person is not required to respond to, nor shall a person be subject to a penalty for failure to comply with a collection of information subject to the requirements of the Paperwork Reduction Act unless that collection of information displays a current valid OMB Control Number. The OMB Control Number for this information collection is 2120-0056. Public reporting for this collection of information is estimated to be approximately 5 minutes per response, including the time for reviewing instructions, completing and reviewing the collection of information. All responses to this collection of information are mandatory. Comments concerning the accuracy of this burden and suggestions for reducing the burden should be directed to the FAA at: 800 Independence Ave., SW., Washington, DC 20591, Attn: Information Collection Clearance Officer, AES-200.</P>
            <HD SOURCE="HD1">Related Information</HD>
            <P>(h) Refer to MCAI European Aviation Safety Agency (EASA) AD No.  2011-0067-E, dated April 15, 2011, and Rotax Aircraft Engines Mandatory Service Bulletin SB-912-058 and SB-914-041 (same document), dated April 15, 2011, for related information.</P>
            <HD SOURCE="HD1">Material Incorporated by Reference</HD>
            <P>(i) You must use Rotax Aircraft Engines Mandatory Service Bulletin  SB-912-058 SB-914-041, dated April 15, 2011, to do the actions required by this AD, unless the AD specifies otherwise.</P>
            <P>(1) The Director of the Federal Register approved the incorporation by reference of this service information under 5 U.S.C. 552(a) and 1 CFR part 51.</P>

            <P>(2) For service information identified in this AD, contact BRP-Rotax GmbH &amp; Co. KG, Welser Strasse 32, A-4623 Gunskirchen, Austria; phone: +43 7246 601 0; fax: +43 7246 601 9130; Internet:<E T="03">http://www.rotax-aircraft-engines.com.</E>
            </P>
            <P>(3) You may review copies of the referenced service information at the FAA, Small Airplane Directorate, 901 Locust, Kansas City, Missouri 64106. For information on the availability of this material at the FAA, call (816) 329-4148.</P>

            <P>(4) You may also review copies of the service information incorporated by reference for this AD at the National Archives and Records Administration (NARA). For information on the availability of this material at NARA, call (202) 741-6030, or go to:<E T="03">http://www.archives.gov/federal_register/code_of_federal_regulations/ibr_locations.html.</E>
            </P>
          </EXTRACT>
        </REGTEXT>
        <SIG>
          <DATED>Issued in Kansas City, Missouri, on May 10, 2011.</DATED>
          <NAME>Earl Lawrence,</NAME>
          <TITLE>Manager, Small Airplane Directorate,Aircraft Certification Service.</TITLE>
        </SIG>
      </SUPLINF>
      <FRDOC>[FR Doc. 2011-13336 Filed 5-31-11; 8:45 am]</FRDOC>
      <BILCOD>BILLING CODE 4910-13-P</BILCOD>
    </RULE>
    <RULE>
      <PREAMB>
        <AGENCY TYPE="N">FEDERAL TRADE COMMISSION</AGENCY>
        <CFR>16 CFR Part 259</CFR>
        <SUBJECT>Guide Concerning Fuel Economy Advertising for New Automobiles</SUBJECT>
        <AGY>
          <HD SOURCE="HED">AGENCY:</HD>
          <P>Federal Trade Commission.</P>
        </AGY>
        <ACT>
          <HD SOURCE="HED">ACTION:</HD>
          <P>Postponement of amendment of guide.</P>
        </ACT>
        <SUM>
          <HD SOURCE="HED">SUMMARY:</HD>
          <P>The Federal Trade Commission (“FTC” or “Commission”) gives notice that it is postponing any amendments to its Guide Concerning Fuel Economy Advertising for New Automobiles (“Fuel Economy Guide” or “Guide”) pending completion of ongoing review by the Environmental Protection Agency (“EPA”) and the National Highway Traffic Safety Administration (“NHTSA”) of current fuel economy labeling requirements and the Commission's accelerated regulatory review of its own Labeling Requirements for Alternative Fuels and Alternative Fueled Vehicles Rule (“Alternative Fuels Rule”).</P>
        </SUM>
        <DATES>
          <HD SOURCE="HED">DATES:</HD>
          <P>This action is effective as of June 1, 2011.</P>
        </DATES>
        <ADD>
          <HD SOURCE="HED">ADDRESSES:</HD>

          <P>Requests for copies of this notice should be sent to the Consumer Response Center, Room 113, Federal Trade Commission, 600 Pennsylvania Ave., NW., Washington, DC 20580. The notice is also available on the Internet at the Commission's Web site,<E T="03">http://www.ftc.gov.</E>
          </P>
        </ADD>
        <FURINF>
          <HD SOURCE="HED">FOR FURTHER INFORMATION CONTACT:</HD>
          <P>Hampton Newsome at (202) 326-2889, Attorney, Division of Enforcement, Bureau of Consumer Protection, Federal Trade Commission, Washington, DC 20580.</P>
        </FURINF>
      </PREAMB>
      <SUPLINF>
        <HD SOURCE="HED">SUPPLEMENTARY INFORMATION:</HD>
        <P>The Commission adopted the Fuel Economy Guide<SU>1</SU>
          <FTREF/>in 1975 to prevent deceptive fuel economy advertising for new automobiles and to facilitate the use of fuel economy information in such advertising. The Guide helps advertisers of new automobiles avoid making unfair or deceptive claims.<SU>2</SU>

          <FTREF/>To accomplish this goal, the Fuel Economy Guide advises marketers to disclose established fuel economy estimates (e.g.,<PRTPAGE P="31468"/>miles per gallon or “mpg”) as determined by the mandatory EPA testing protocols. If advertisers make fuel economy claims based on non-EPA tests, the Guide directs them to disclose EPA-derived fuel economy information with substantially more prominence than other estimates<SU>3</SU>
          <FTREF/>and provide details about the non-EPA tests such as the source of the test, driving conditions, and vehicle configurations.</P>
        <FTNT>
          <P>
            <SU>1</SU>16 CFR part 259.</P>
        </FTNT>
        <FTNT>
          <P>
            <SU>2</SU>The Commission issues industry guides, such as the Fuel Economy Guide, to help marketers avoid making advertising claims that are unfair or deceptive under Section 5 of the FTC Act, 15 U.S.C. 45. Guides such as these are administrative interpretations of the law. Therefore, they do not have the force and effect of law and are not independently enforceable. The Commission, however, can take action under the FTC Act if a marketer makes a fuel economy claim inconsistent with the Guide. In any such enforcement action, the Commission must prove that the challenged act or practice is unfair or deceptive.</P>
        </FTNT>
        <FTNT>
          <P>
            <SU>3</SU>For audio advertisements, EPA fuel economy estimates must be given equal prominence as non-EPA estimates. 16 CFR 259.2(c)(1).</P>
        </FTNT>
        <P>On April 28, 2009,<SU>4</SU>
          <FTREF/>the Commission published a Notice of Proposed Rulemaking (“NPRM”) soliciting comments on proposed amendments to the Guide. The Commission's proposed revisions to the Guide included: (1) updating the Guide's definitions and guidance to reflect the new “combined” fuel economy estimates established by the EPA's fuel economy labeling requirements; and (2) extending advertising guidance to alternative fueled vehicles based on the Commission's Alternative Fuels Rule.<SU>5</SU>
          <FTREF/>The Commission received eight comments from sources including the automobile manufacturing industry, local government, and consumers groups.<SU>6</SU>
          <FTREF/>Generally, the comments supported retaining the Guide and recognized its benefits. Several, however, noted inconsistencies between calculations and standards found in the FTC's Alternative Fuels Rule and those established by the EPA's fuel economy labeling requirements.<SU>7</SU>
          <FTREF/>
        </P>
        <FTNT>
          <P>
            <SU>4</SU>74 FR 19148.</P>
        </FTNT>
        <FTNT>
          <P>
            <SU>5</SU>16 CFR Part 309.</P>
        </FTNT>
        <FTNT>
          <P>
            <SU>6</SU>Comments are available at:<E T="03">http://www.ftc.gov/os/comments/fueleconadguidepropamend/index.shtm.</E>
          </P>
        </FTNT>
        <FTNT>
          <P>
            <SU>7</SU>40 CFR Part 600, subpart D.</P>
        </FTNT>
        <P>On September 28, 2009, during the course of the Commission's regulatory review for the Guide, EPA and NHTSA announced their “Proposed Rulemaking To Establish Light-Duty Vehicle Greenhouse Gas Emission Standards and Corporate Average Fuel Economy Standards.”<SU>8</SU>
          <FTREF/>In that Federal Register Notice, the EPA and the NHTSA announced the creation of a “National Program * * *  to reduce greenhouse gas emission and to improve fuel economy.”<SU>9</SU>
          <FTREF/>To fulfill the statutory requirements of the Energy Independence and Security Act<SU>10</SU>
          <FTREF/>and to conform with the goals of the National Program, the agencies are developing labels that “reflect fuel economy and greenhouse gas and other emissions * * * [and also include] a rating system that would make it easy for consumers to compare the fuel economy and greenhouse gas and other emissions of automobiles at the point of purchase.”<SU>11</SU>
          <FTREF/>In addition, the agencies proposed creating their own label for alternative fueled vehicles, and solicited comment on proposed label formats in September 2010.<SU>12</SU>
          <FTREF/>
        </P>
        <FTNT>
          <P>
            <SU>8</SU>74 FR 49454 (Sep. 28, 2009).</P>
        </FTNT>
        <FTNT>
          <P>
            <SU>9</SU>
            <E T="03">Id.</E>
          </P>
        </FTNT>
        <FTNT>
          <P>
            <SU>10</SU>Public Law 110-140.</P>
        </FTNT>
        <FTNT>
          <P>
            <SU>11</SU>74 FR at 49739.</P>
        </FTNT>
        <FTNT>
          <P>
            <SU>12</SU>75 FR 58078 (Sept. 23, 2010).</P>
        </FTNT>
        <P>The EPA's proposed rulemaking impacts both the Commission's Alternative Fuels Rule and its Fuel Economy Guide. That rulemaking will increase the coverage of EPA's new fuel economy labels to include alternative fueled vehicles, many of which would also have additional labeling requirements under the existing Alternative Fuels Rule. Therefore, in a separate notice published today, the Commission is accelerating its review of the Alternative Fuels Rule to reduce the potential for conflicting or redundant labeling requirements. The result of the Commission's review also may affect the guidance that the Commission would issue to new vehicle advertisers in the FTC's Fuel Economy Guide. Therefore, the Commission has determined that it would be premature to publish amended guidance concerning fuel economy advertising until the EPA and the NHTSA conclude their regulatory reviews and the Commission completes its Regulatory Review of the Alternative Fuels Rule. The Commission continues to believe that guidance in this area would be beneficial but recognizes the value in issuing consistent government guidance.</P>
        <SIG>
          <P>By direction of the Commission.</P>
          <NAME>Donald S. Clark,</NAME>
          <TITLE>Secretary.</TITLE>
        </SIG>
      </SUPLINF>
      <FRDOC>[FR Doc. 2011-13519 Filed 5-31-11; 8:45 am]</FRDOC>
      <BILCOD>BILLING CODE 6750-01-P</BILCOD>
    </RULE>
    <RULE>
      <PREAMB>
        <AGENCY TYPE="N">DEPARTMENT OF HEALTH AND HUMAN SERVICES</AGENCY>
        <SUBAGY>Food and Drug Administration</SUBAGY>
        <CFR>21 CFR Parts 5, 10, 14, 19, 20, 21, 314, 350, 516, and 814</CFR>
        <DEPDOC>[Docket No. FDA-2011-N-0318]</DEPDOC>
        <SUBJECT>Division of Freedom of Information; Change of Office Name, Address, Telephone Number, and Fax Number; Technical Amendments</SUBJECT>
        <AGY>
          <HD SOURCE="HED">AGENCY:</HD>
          <P>Food and Drug Administration, HHS.</P>
        </AGY>
        <ACT>
          <HD SOURCE="HED">ACTION:</HD>
          <P>Final rule; technical amendments.</P>
        </ACT>
        <SUM>
          <HD SOURCE="HED">SUMMARY:</HD>
          <P>The Food and Drug Administration (FDA) is amending the Agency's regulations to reflect changes to the Division of Freedom of Information's office name, address, telephone number, and fax number and the Division of Freedom of Information Public Reading room's fax and room number. This action is editorial in nature and is intended to improve the accuracy of the Agency's regulations.</P>
        </SUM>
        <EFFDATE>
          <HD SOURCE="HED">DATES:</HD>
          <P>This rule is effective June 1, 2011.</P>
        </EFFDATE>
        <FURINF>
          <HD SOURCE="HED">FOR FURTHER INFORMATION CONTACT:</HD>
          <P>Fred Sadler, Division of Freedom of Information (ELEM-1029), Food and Drug Administration, 12420 Parklawn Dr., Element Bldg., Rockville, MD 20857, 301-796-8975.</P>
        </FURINF>
      </PREAMB>
      <SUPLINF>
        <HD SOURCE="HED">SUPPLEMENTARY INFORMATION:</HD>
        <P>FDA is making technical amendments in the Agency's regulations under 21 CFR parts 5, 10, 14, 19, 20, 21, 314, 350, 516, and 814 as a result of a recent office move. The former address, telephone number, and fax number was: rm. 6-30, Parklawn Bldg., 5600 Fishers Lane, Rockville, MD 20857, telephone: 301-827-6567, FAX: 301-443-1726. The new address is: Division of Freedom of Information (ELEM-1029), 12420 Parklawn Dr., Element Bldg., Rockville, MD 20857, telephone: 301-796-3900, FAX: 301-796-9267. The Division of Freedom of Information Public Reading Room number is 1050.</P>
        <P>Publication of this document constitutes final action of these changes under the Administrative Procedures Act (5 U.S.C. 553). FDA has determined that notice and public comment are unnecessary because these amendments are merely correcting nonsubstantive errors.</P>
        <LSTSUB>
          <HD SOURCE="HED">List of Subjects</HD>
          <CFR>21 CFR Part 5</CFR>
          <P>Authority delegations (Government agencies), Imports, Organization and functions (Government agencies).</P>
          <CFR>21 CFR Part 10</CFR>
          <P>Administrative practice and procedure, News media.</P>
          <CFR>21 CFR Part 14</CFR>
          <P>Administrative practice and procedure, Advisory committees, Color additives, Drugs, Radiation protection.</P>
          <CFR>21 CFR Part 19</CFR>
          <P>Conflict of interests.</P>
          <CFR>21 CFR Part 20</CFR>

          <P>Confidential business information, Courts, Freedom of Information, Government employees.<PRTPAGE P="31469"/>
          </P>
          <CFR>21 CFR Part 21</CFR>
          <P>Privacy.</P>
          <CFR>21 CFR Part 314</CFR>
          <P>Administrative practice and procedure, Confidential business information, Drugs, Reporting and recordkeeping requirements.</P>
          <CFR>21 CFR Part 350</CFR>
          <P>Labeling, Over-the-counter drugs.</P>
          <CFR>21 CFR Part 516</CFR>
          <P>Administrative practice and procedure, Animal drugs, Confidential business information, Reporting and recordkeeping requirements.</P>
          <CFR>21 CFR Part 814</CFR>
          <P>Administrative practice and procedure, Confidential business information, Medical devices, Medical research, Reporting and recordkeeping requirements.</P>
        </LSTSUB>
        
        <P>Therefore, under the Federal Food, Drug, and Cosmetic Act and under authority delegated to the Commissioner of Food and Drugs, 21 CFR parts 5, 10, 14, 19, 20, 21, 314, 350, 516, and 814 are amended as follows:</P>
        <REGTEXT PART="5" TITLE="21">
          <PART>
            <HD SOURCE="HED">PART 5—ORGANIZATION</HD>
          </PART>
          <AMDPAR>1. The authority citation for 21 CFR part 5 continues to read as follows:</AMDPAR>
          <AUTH>
            <HD SOURCE="HED">Authority:</HD>
            <P>5 U.S.C. 552; 21 U.S.C. 301-397.</P>
          </AUTH>
        </REGTEXT>
        <REGTEXT PART="5" TITLE="21">
          <AMDPAR>2. Revise § 5.1110(b) to read as follows:</AMDPAR>
          <SECTION>
            <SECTNO>§ 5.1110</SECTNO>
            <SUBJECT>FDA public information offices.</SUBJECT>
            <STARS/>
            <P>(b)<E T="03">Division of Freedom of Information.</E>The Division of Freedom of Information Public Reading Room is located in rm. 1050, 12420 Parklawn Dr., Element Bldg., Rockville, MD 20857; Telephone: 301-796-3900.</P>
            <STARS/>
          </SECTION>
        </REGTEXT>
        <REGTEXT PART="10" TITLE="21">
          <PART>
            <HD SOURCE="HED">PART 10—ADMINISTRATIVE PRACTICES AND PROCEDURES</HD>
          </PART>
          <AMDPAR>3. The authority citation for 21 CFR part 10 continues to read as follows:</AMDPAR>
          <AUTH>
            <HD SOURCE="HED">Authority:</HD>
            <P>5 U.S.C. 551-558, 701-706; 15 U.S.C. 1451-1461; 21 U.S.C. 141-149, 321-397, 467f, 679, 821, 1034; 28 U.S.C. 2112; 42 U.S.C. 201, 262, 263b, 264.</P>
          </AUTH>
        </REGTEXT>
        <REGTEXT PART="10" TITLE="21">
          <SECTION>
            <SECTNO>§ 10.85</SECTNO>
            <SUBJECT>[Amended]</SUBJECT>
          </SECTION>
          <AMDPAR>4. In § 10.85(d)(4), remove “Freedom of Information Staff (HFI-35)” and in its place add “Division of Freedom of Information (ELEM-1029)”.</AMDPAR>
        </REGTEXT>
        <REGTEXT PART="10" TITLE="21">
          <SECTION>
            <SECTNO>§ 10.90</SECTNO>
            <SUBJECT>[Amended]</SUBJECT>
          </SECTION>
          <AMDPAR>5. In § 10.90(d), remove “Freedom of Information Staff (HFI-35),” and in its place add “Division of Freedom of Information (ELEM-1029)”.</AMDPAR>
        </REGTEXT>
        <REGTEXT PART="10" TITLE="21">
          <SECTION>
            <SECTNO>§ 10.95</SECTNO>
            <SUBJECT>[Amended]</SUBJECT>
          </SECTION>
          <AMDPAR>6. In § 10.95, remove “Freedom of Information Staff” and “Freedom of Information Staff (HFI-35)” everywhere they appear and in their places add “Division of Freedom of Information (ELEM-1029)”.</AMDPAR>
        </REGTEXT>
        <REGTEXT PART="14" TITLE="21">
          <PART>
            <HD SOURCE="HED">PART 14—PUBLIC HEARING BEFORE A PUBLIC ADVISORY COMMITTEE</HD>
          </PART>
          <AMDPAR>7. The authority citation for 21 CFR part 14 continues to read as follows:</AMDPAR>
          <AUTH>
            <HD SOURCE="HED">Authority:</HD>
            <P>5 U.S.C. App. 2; 15 U.S.C. 1451-1461, 21 U.S.C. 41-50, 141-149, 321-394, 467f, 679, 821, 1034; 28 U.S.C. 2112; 42 U.S.C. 201, 262, 263b, 264; Pub. L. 107-109; Pub. L. 108-155.</P>
          </AUTH>
        </REGTEXT>
        <REGTEXT PART="14" TITLE="21">
          <SECTION>
            <SECTNO>§ 14.65</SECTNO>
            <SUBJECT>[Amended]</SUBJECT>
          </SECTION>
          <AMDPAR>8. In § 14.65(c), remove “Freedom of Information Staff (HFI-35)” and in its place add “Division of Freedom of Information (ELEM-1029)”.</AMDPAR>
        </REGTEXT>
        <REGTEXT PART="19" TITLE="21">
          <PART>
            <HD SOURCE="HED">PART 19—STANDARDS OF CONDUCT AND CONFLICTS OF INTEREST</HD>
          </PART>
          <AMDPAR>9. The authority citation for 21 CFR part 19 continues to read as follows:</AMDPAR>
          <AUTH>
            <HD SOURCE="HED">Authority:</HD>
            <P>21 U.S.C. 371.</P>
          </AUTH>
        </REGTEXT>
        <REGTEXT PART="19" TITLE="21">
          <SECTION>
            <SECTNO>§ 19.10</SECTNO>
            <SUBJECT>[Amended]</SUBJECT>
          </SECTION>
          <AMDPAR>10. In § 19.10(d) introductory text, remove “Freedom of Information Staff” and in its place add “Division of Freedom of Information”.</AMDPAR>
        </REGTEXT>
        <REGTEXT PART="20" TITLE="21">
          <PART>
            <HD SOURCE="HED">PART 20—PUBLIC INFORMATION</HD>
          </PART>
          <AMDPAR>11. The authority citation for 21 CFR part 20 continues to read as follows:</AMDPAR>
          <AUTH>
            <HD SOURCE="HED">Authority:</HD>
            <P>5 U.S.C. 552; 18 U.S.C. 1905; 19 U.S.C. 2531-2582; 21 U.S.C. 321-393, 1401-1403; 42 U.S.C. 241, 242, 242a, 242l, 242n, 243, 262, 263, 263b-263n, 264, 265, 300u-300u-5, 300aa-1.</P>
          </AUTH>
        </REGTEXT>
        <REGTEXT PART="20" TITLE="21">
          <AMDPAR>12. Revise § 20.3(b) to read as follows:</AMDPAR>
          <SECTION>
            <SECTNO>§ 20.3</SECTNO>
            <SUBJECT>Certification and authentication of Food and Drug Administration records.</SUBJECT>
            <STARS/>
            <P>(b) A request for certified copies of records or for authentication of records shall be sent in writing to the Division of Freedom of Information (ELEM-1029), Food and Drug Administration, 12420 Parklawn Dr., Element Bldg., Rockville, MD 20857.</P>
          </SECTION>
        </REGTEXT>
        <REGTEXT PART="20" TITLE="21">
          <AMDPAR>13. Revise § 20.26(b), to read as follows:</AMDPAR>
          <SECTION>
            <SECTNO>§ 20.26</SECTNO>
            <SUBJECT>Indexes of certain records.</SUBJECT>
            <STARS/>

            <P>(b) Each such index will be made available through the Internet at<E T="03">http://www.fda.gov.</E>A printed copy of each index is available by writing to the Division of Freedom of Information (ELEM-1029), Food and Drug Administration, 12420 Parklawn Dr., Element Bldg., Rockville, MD 20857, or by visiting the Division of Freedom of Information Public Reading Room, located in rm. 1050, at the same address.</P>
          </SECTION>
        </REGTEXT>
        <REGTEXT PART="20" TITLE="21">
          <AMDPAR>14. Revise § 20.30 to read as follows:</AMDPAR>
          <SECTION>
            <SECTNO>§ 20.30</SECTNO>
            <SUBJECT>Food and Drug Administration Division of Freedom of Information.</SUBJECT>
            <P>(a) The office responsible for Agency compliance with the Freedom of Information Act and this part is the Division of Freedom of Information (ELEM-1029), Food and Drug Administration, 12420 Parklawn Dr., Element Bldg., Rockville, MD 20857.</P>
            <P>(b) All requests for Agency records shall be sent in writing to this office.</P>
          </SECTION>
        </REGTEXT>
        <REGTEXT PART="20" TITLE="21">
          <AMDPAR>15. In § 20.40, revise paragraph (a); and in paragraph (c), remove “Freedom of Information Staff” and in its place add “Division of Freedom of Information” to read as follows:</AMDPAR>
          <SECTION>
            <SECTNO>§ 20.40</SECTNO>
            <SUBJECT>Filing a request for records.</SUBJECT>
            <P>(a) All requests for Food and Drug Administration records shall be made in writing by mailing or delivering the request to the Division of Freedom of Information (ELEM-1029), Food and Drug Administration, 12420 Parklawn Dr., Element Bldg., Rockville, MD 20857; or by faxing it to 301-796-9267. All requests must contain the postal address and telephone number of the requester and the name of the person responsible for payment of any fees that may be charged.</P>
            <STARS/>
          </SECTION>
        </REGTEXT>
        <REGTEXT PART="20" TITLE="21">
          <SECTION>
            <SECTNO>§ 20.41</SECTNO>
            <SUBJECT>[Amended]</SUBJECT>
          </SECTION>
          <AMDPAR>16. In § 20.41 paragraph (a), paragraph (b) introductory text, and paragraph (c), remove “Freedom of Information Staff” and in its place add “Division of Freedom of Information”.</AMDPAR>
        </REGTEXT>
        <REGTEXT PART="20" TITLE="21">
          <SECTION>
            <SECTNO>§ 20.44</SECTNO>
            <SUBJECT>[Amended]</SUBJECT>
          </SECTION>
          <AMDPAR>17. In § 20.44(e), remove “Freedom of Information Staff” and in its place add “Division of Freedom of Information”.</AMDPAR>
        </REGTEXT>
        <REGTEXT PART="20" TITLE="21">
          <AMDPAR>18. In § 20.107(a), revise the second sentence to read as follows:</AMDPAR>
          <SECTION>
            <SECTNO>§ 20.107</SECTNO>
            <SUBJECT>Food and Drug Administration manuals.</SUBJECT>

            <P>(a) * * * An index of all such manuals is available by writing to the Division of Freedom of Information (ELEM-1029), Food and Drug Administration, 12420 Parklawn Dr., Element Bldg., Rockville, MD 20857; or by visiting the Division of Freedom of Information Public Reading Room,<PRTPAGE P="31470"/>located in rm. 1050, at the same address. * * *</P>
            <STARS/>
          </SECTION>
        </REGTEXT>
        <REGTEXT PART="20" TITLE="21">
          <AMDPAR>19. In § 20.108, remove “Freedom of Information Public Room” everywhere it appears and in its place add “Division of Freedom of Information Public Reading Room”.</AMDPAR>
        </REGTEXT>
        <REGTEXT PART="20" TITLE="21">
          <AMDPAR>20. In § 20.120, revise paragraph (a); paragraph (b) introductory text; and paragraph (b)(4) to read as follows:</AMDPAR>
          <SECTION>
            <SECTNO>§ 20.120</SECTNO>
            <SUBJECT>Records available in Food and Drug Administration Public Reading Rooms.</SUBJECT>
            <P>(a) The Food and Drug Administration operates two public reading rooms. The Division of Freedom of Information Public Reading Room is located in rm. 1050, 12420 Parklawn Dr., Element Bldg., Rockville, MD 20857; the telephone number is 301-796-3900. The Division of Dockets Management Public Reading Room is located in rm. 1061, 5630 Fishers Lane, Rockville, MD 20852; the telephone number is 301-827-6860. Both public reading rooms are open from 9 a.m. to 4 p.m., Monday through Friday, excluding legal public holidays.</P>
            <P>(b) The following records are available at the Division of Freedom of Information Public Reading Room:</P>
            <STARS/>
            <P>(4) Indexes of records maintained in the Division of Freedom of Information Public Reading Room; and</P>
            <STARS/>
          </SECTION>
        </REGTEXT>
        <REGTEXT PART="21" TITLE="21">
          <PART>
            <HD SOURCE="HED">PART 21—PROTECTION OF PRIVACY</HD>
          </PART>
          <AMDPAR>21. The authority citation for 21 CFR part 21 continues to read as follows:</AMDPAR>
          <AUTH>
            <HD SOURCE="HED">Authority:</HD>
            <P>21 U.S.C. 371; 5 U.S.C. 552, 552a.</P>
          </AUTH>
        </REGTEXT>
        <REGTEXT PART="21" TITLE="21">
          <SECTION>
            <SECTNO>§ 21.32</SECTNO>
            <SUBJECT>[Amended]</SUBJECT>
          </SECTION>
          <AMDPAR>22. In 21.32(b)(2), remove “(HFI-30)” and in its place add “(ELEM-1029)”.</AMDPAR>
        </REGTEXT>
        <REGTEXT PART="21" TITLE="21">
          <SECTION>
            <SECTNO>§ 21.40</SECTNO>
            <SUBJECT>[Amended]</SUBJECT>
          </SECTION>
          <AMDPAR>23. In § 21.40(b), remove “(HFI-30), Food and Drug Administration, 5600 Fishers Lane,” and in its place add “(ELEM-1029), Food and Drug Administration, 12420 Parklawn Dr., Element Bldg.,”.</AMDPAR>
        </REGTEXT>
        <REGTEXT PART="21" TITLE="21">
          <SECTION>
            <SECTNO>§ 21.41</SECTNO>
            <SUBJECT>[Amended]</SUBJECT>
          </SECTION>
          <AMDPAR>24. In § 21.41, remove “Freedom of Information Staff” everywhere it appears and in its place add “Division of Freedom of Information (ELEM-1029)”; and remove “(HFI-30)” everywhere it appears.</AMDPAR>
        </REGTEXT>
        <REGTEXT PART="21" TITLE="21">
          <SECTION>
            <SECTNO>§ 21.43</SECTNO>
            <SUBJECT>[Amended]</SUBJECT>
          </SECTION>
          <AMDPAR>25. In § 21.43(a)(2), remove “Freedom of Information Staff public room” and in its place add “Division of Freedom of Information Public Reading Room”.</AMDPAR>
        </REGTEXT>
        <REGTEXT PART="314" TITLE="21">
          <PART>
            <HD SOURCE="HED">PART 314—APPLICATIONS FOR FDA APPROVAL TO MARKET A NEW DRUG</HD>
          </PART>
          <AMDPAR>26. The authority citation for 21 CFR part 314 continues to read as follows:</AMDPAR>
          <AUTH>
            <HD SOURCE="HED">Authority:</HD>
            <P>21 U.S.C. 321, 331, 351, 352, 353, 355, 356, 356a, 356b, 356c, 371, 374, 379e.</P>
          </AUTH>
          
        </REGTEXT>
        <REGTEXT PART="314" TITLE="21">
          <AMDPAR>27. In § 314.53(e), revise the last two sentences to read as follows:</AMDPAR>
          <SECTION>
            <SECTNO>§ 314.53</SECTNO>
            <SUBJECT>Submission of patent information.</SUBJECT>
            <STARS/>
            <P>(e) * * * Patent information received by the Agency between monthly publication of supplements to the list will be placed on public display in FDA's Division of Freedom of Information. A request for copies of the file shall be sent in writing to the Division of Freedom of Information (ELEM-1029), Food and Drug Administration, 12420 Parklawn Dr., Element Bldg., Rockville, MD 20857.</P>
            <STARS/>
          </SECTION>
        </REGTEXT>
        <REGTEXT PART="350" TITLE="21">
          <PART>
            <HD SOURCE="HED">PART 350—ANTIPERSPIRANT DRUG PRODUCTS FOR OVER-THE-COUNTER HUMAN USE</HD>
          </PART>
          <AMDPAR>28. The authority citation for 21 CFR part 350 continues to read as follows:</AMDPAR>
          <AUTH>
            <HD SOURCE="HED">Authority:</HD>
            <P>21 U.S.C. 321, 351, 352, 353, 355, 360, 371.</P>
          </AUTH>
        </REGTEXT>
        <REGTEXT PART="350" TITLE="21">
          <SECTION>
            <SECTNO>§ 350.60</SECTNO>
            <SUBJECT>[Amended]</SUBJECT>
          </SECTION>
          <AMDPAR>29. In § 350.60, in the last sentence, remove “FOI Staff (HFI-35), 5600 Fishers Lane, rm. 12A-16,” and in its place add “Division of Freedom of Information (ELEM-1029), Food and Drug Administration, 12420 Parklawn Dr., Element Bldg.,”.</AMDPAR>
        </REGTEXT>
        <REGTEXT PART="516" TITLE="21">
          <PART>
            <HD SOURCE="HED">PART 516—NEW ANIMAL DRUGS FOR MINOR USE AND MINOR SPECIES</HD>
          </PART>
          <AMDPAR>30. The authority citation for part 516 continues to read as follows:</AMDPAR>
          <AUTH>
            <HD SOURCE="HED">Authority:</HD>
            <P>21 U.S.C. 360ccc-1, 360ccc-2, 371.</P>
          </AUTH>
        </REGTEXT>
        <REGTEXT PART="516" TITLE="21">
          <SECTION>
            <SECTNO>§ 516.157</SECTNO>
            <SUBJECT>[Amended]</SUBJECT>
          </SECTION>
          <AMDPAR>31. In § 516.157(a), remove “Freedom of Information Staff or by visiting the FDA Freedom of Information Public Reading Room” and in its place add “Division of Freedom of Information or by visiting FDA's Division of Freedom of Information Public Reading Room”.</AMDPAR>
        </REGTEXT>
        <REGTEXT PART="814" TITLE="21">
          <PART>
            <HD SOURCE="HED">PART 814—PREMARKET APPROVAL OF MEDICAL DEVICES</HD>
          </PART>
          <AMDPAR>32. The authority citation for 21 CFR part 814 continues to read as follows:</AMDPAR>
          <AUTH>
            <HD SOURCE="HED">Authority:</HD>
            <P>21 U.S.C. 351, 352, 353, 360, 360c-360j, 371, 372, 373, 374, 375, 379, 379e, 381.</P>
          </AUTH>
          <SECTION>
            <SECTNO>§ 814.45</SECTNO>
            <SUBJECT>[Amended]</SUBJECT>
          </SECTION>
          <AMDPAR>33. In § 814.45(d)(2), remove “Freedom of Information Staff (HFI-35), Food and Drug Administration, 5600 Fishers Lane,” and in its place add “Division of Freedom of Information (ELEM-1029), Food and Drug Administration, 12420 Parklawn Dr., Element Bldg.,”.</AMDPAR>
        </REGTEXT>
        <SIG>
          <DATED>Dated: May 18, 2011.</DATED>
          <NAME>Leslie Kux,</NAME>
          <TITLE>Acting Assistant Commissioner for Policy.</TITLE>
        </SIG>
      </SUPLINF>
      <FRDOC>[FR Doc. 2011-13488 Filed 5-31-11; 8:45 am]</FRDOC>
      <BILCOD>BILLING CODE 4160-01-P</BILCOD>
    </RULE>
    <RULE>
      <PREAMB>
        <AGENCY TYPE="N">DEPARTMENT OF THE TREASURY</AGENCY>
        <SUBAGY>Office of Foreign Assets Control</SUBAGY>
        <CFR>31 CFR Part 545</CFR>
        <SUBJECT>Taliban (Afghanistan) Sanctions Regulations</SUBJECT>
        <AGY>
          <HD SOURCE="HED">AGENCY:</HD>
          <P>Office of Foreign Assets Control, Treasury</P>
        </AGY>
        <ACT>
          <HD SOURCE="HED">ACTION:</HD>
          <P>Final rule.</P>
        </ACT>
        <SUM>
          <HD SOURCE="HED">SUMMARY:</HD>
          <P>The Department of the Treasury's Office of Foreign Assets Control (“OFAC”) is removing from the Code of Federal Regulations the Taliban (Afghanistan) Sanctions Regulations, 31 CFR part 545, as a result of the termination of the national emergency and revocation of the Executive order on which part 545 was based. Sanctions against the Taliban pursuant to Executive Order 13224 and the Global Terrorism Sanctions Regulations, 31 CFR part 594, remain in place.</P>
        </SUM>
        <DATES>
          <HD SOURCE="HED">DATES:</HD>
          <P>
            <E T="03">Effective Date:</E>June 1, 2011.</P>
        </DATES>
        <FURINF>
          <HD SOURCE="HED">FOR FURTHER INFORMATION CONTACT:</HD>
          <P>Assistant Director for Sanctions Compliance &amp; Evaluation, tel.: 202/622-2490, Assistant Director for Licensing, tel.: 202/622-2480, Assistant Director for Policy, tel.: 202/622-4855, Office of Foreign Assets Control, or Chief Counsel (Foreign Assets Control), tel.: 202/622-2410, Office of the General Counsel, Department of the Treasury (not toll free numbers).</P>
        </FURINF>
      </PREAMB>
      <SUPLINF>
        <HD SOURCE="HED">SUPPLEMENTARY INFORMATION:</HD>
        <HD SOURCE="HD1">Electronic and Facsimile Availability</HD>

        <P>This document and additional information concerning OFAC are available from OFAC's Web site (<E T="03">http://www.treasury.gov/ofac).</E>Certain general information pertaining to OFAC's sanctions programs also is available via facsimile through a 24-<PRTPAGE P="31471"/>hour fax-on-demand service, tel.: 202/622-0077.</P>
        <HD SOURCE="HD1">Background</HD>

        <P>On July 4, 1999, the President issued Executive Order 13129 (64 FR 36759, July 7, 1999), invoking the authority of,<E T="03">inter alia,</E>the International Emergency Economic Powers Act (50 U.S.C. 1701<E T="03">et seq.</E>) (“IEEPA”) and the National Emergencies Act (50 U.S.C. 1601<E T="03">et seq.</E>) (the “NEA”). In Executive Order 13129, the President determined that the actions and policies of the Taliban in Afghanistan, in allowing territory under its control in Afghanistan to be used as a safe haven and base of operations for Usama bin Ladin and Al-Qaida, constituted an unusual and extraordinary threat to the national security and foreign policy of the United States and declared a national emergency to deal with that threat. In response to this national emergency, the President, in Executive Order 13129, ordered the blocking of all property and interests in property of the Taliban and of persons determined to be owned or controlled by, or to act for or on behalf of, the Taliban, or to provide financial, material, or technological support for, or services in support of, any of the foregoing. In addition, Executive Order 13129 imposed a trade embargo against the Taliban, any persons designated pursuant to the order, and the territory of Afghanistan controlled by the Taliban. On January 11, 2001, the Department of the Treasury's Office of Foreign Assets Control (“OFAC”) issued the Taliban (Afghanistan) Sanctions Regulations, 31 CFR part 545, to implement Executive Order 13219 (66 FR 2726, January 11, 2001).</P>

        <P>On September 23, 2001, the President issued Executive Order 13224 (66 FR 49079, September 25, 2001), invoking the authority of,<E T="03">inter alia,</E>IEEPA, the NEA, and section 5 of the United Nations Participation Act of 1945, as amended (22 U.S.C. 287c). In Executive Order 13224, the President determined that grave acts of terrorism and threats of terrorism committed by foreign terrorists, including the terrorist attacks in New York, Pennsylvania, and the Pentagon committed on September 11, 2001, and the continuing and immediate threat of further attacks on United States nationals or the United States constitute an unusual and extraordinary threat to the national security, foreign policy, and economy of the United States and declared a national emergency to deal with that threat. Executive Order 13224 blocks the property and interests in property of foreign persons listed in the Annex to the order or determined to have committed or to pose a significant risk of committing acts of terrorism that threaten U.S. nationals or the United States, as well as of,<E T="03">inter alia,</E>persons determined to be owned or controlled by, to act for or on behalf of, or to provide financial, material, or technological support for, or financial or other services to or in support of, such acts of terrorism or those persons listed in the Annex or determined to be subject to the order. On June 6, 2003, OFAC issued the Global Terrorism Sanctions Regulations, 31 CFR part 594 (68 FR 34196, June 6, 2003) (the “GTSR”), to carry out the purposes of Executive Order 13224.</P>
        <P>On July 2, 2002, the President issued Executive Order 13268 (67 FR 44751, July 3, 2002), determining that the situation that gave rise to the declaration of a national emergency in Executive Order 13129 of July 4, 1999, with respect to the Taliban was significantly altered. As a result, the President terminated the national emergency declared in Executive Order 13129 with respect to the actions and policies of the Taliban in Afghanistan and revoked that order. In addition, Executive Order 13268 amended the Annex to Executive Order 13224 of September 23, 2001, by adding the Taliban and one individual who had previously been listed in the Annex to Executive Order 13129, Mohammed Omar, the leader of the Taliban. As a result, transactions involving the Taliban remain subject to the GTSR.</P>
        <P>Accordingly, OFAC is removing the Taliban (Afghanistan) Sanctions Regulations, 31 CFR part 545, from 31 CFR chapter V. Pursuant to section 202 of the NEA and section 4 of Executive Order 13268, removal of this part does not affect ongoing enforcement proceedings or prevent the initiation of enforcement proceedings based on an act committed prior to the date of Executive Order 13268 where the relevant statute of limitations has not run.</P>
        <HD SOURCE="HD1">Public Participation</HD>
        <P>Because the Taliban (Afghanistan) Sanctions Regulations involve a foreign affairs function, the provisions of Executive Order 12866 of September 30, 1993, as amended, and the Administrative Procedure Act (5 U.S.C. 553), requiring notice of proposed rulemaking, opportunity for public participation, and delay in effective date are inapplicable. Because no notice of proposed rulemaking is required for this rule, the Regulatory Flexibility Act (5 U.S.C. 601-612) does not apply.</P>
        <LSTSUB>
          <HD SOURCE="HED">List of Subjects in 31 CFR Part 545</HD>
          <P>Administrative practice and procedure, Afghanistan, Banks, Banking, Blocking of assets, Foreign investments in the United States, Foreign trade, Penalties, Reporting and recordkeeping requirements, Taliban, Travel restrictions.</P>
        </LSTSUB>
        
        <P>For the reasons set forth in the preamble, and under the authority of 50 U.S.C. 1701-1706 and Executive Order 13268, 31 CFR chapter V is amended by removing part 545.</P>
        <SIG>
          <DATED>Dated: May 25, 2011.</DATED>
          <NAME>Adam J. Szubin,</NAME>
          <TITLE>Director, Office of Foreign Assets Control.</TITLE>
        </SIG>
      </SUPLINF>
      <FRDOC>[FR Doc. 2011-13581 Filed 5-31-11; 8:45 am]</FRDOC>
      <BILCOD>BILLING CODE 4810-AL-P</BILCOD>
    </RULE>
    <RULE>
      <PREAMB>
        <AGENCY TYPE="N">ENVIRONMENTAL PROTECTION AGENCY</AGENCY>
        <CFR>40 CFR Part 180</CFR>
        <DEPDOC>[EPA-HQ-OPP-2011-0361; FRL-8870-7]</DEPDOC>
        <SUBJECT>Ethylene Glycol; Exemption From the Requirement of a Tolerance</SUBJECT>
        <AGY>
          <HD SOURCE="HED">AGENCY:</HD>
          <P>Environmental Protection Agency (EPA).</P>
        </AGY>
        <ACT>
          <HD SOURCE="HED">ACTION:</HD>
          <P>Final rule.</P>
        </ACT>
        <SUM>
          <HD SOURCE="HED">SUMMARY:</HD>

          <P>This regulation establishes an exemption from the requirement of a tolerance for residues of ethylene glycol (CAS Reg. No. 107-21-1) when used as a pesticide inert ingredient as a solvent, stabilizer and/or antifreeze within pesticide formulations/products without limitation. Huntsman,<E T="03">et. al,</E>submitted a petition to EPA under the Federal Food, Drug, and Cosmetic Act (FFDCA), requesting an establishment of an exemption from the requirement of a tolerance. This regulation eliminates the need to establish a maximum permissible level for residues of ethylene glycol. Also, this regulation establishes an exemption from the requirement of a tolerance for residues of ethylene glycol (CAS Reg. No. 107-21-1) when used as an inert ingredient as an encapsulating agent for pesticides being applied post-harvest as residual, and crack and crevice sprays in and around food and nonfood areas of residential and nonresidential structures, including food handling establishments, with no limit. The Sumitomo Chemical Company submitted a petition to EPA under FFDCA, requesting an establishment of an exemption from the requirement of a tolerance. This regulation eliminates the need to establish a maximum permissible level for residues of ethylene glycol.</P>
        </SUM>
        <DATES>
          <PRTPAGE P="31472"/>
          <HD SOURCE="HED">DATES:</HD>

          <P>This regulation is effective June 1, 2011. Objections and requests for hearings must be received on or before August 1, 2011, and must be filed in accordance with the instructions provided in 40 CFR part 178 (see also Unit I.C. of the<E T="02">SUPPLEMENTARY INFORMATION</E>).</P>
        </DATES>
        <ADD>
          <HD SOURCE="HED">ADDRESSES:</HD>

          <P>EPA has established a docket for these actions under docket identification (ID) number EPA-HQ-OPP-2011-0361. All documents in the docket are listed in the docket index available at<E T="03">http://www.regulations.gov.</E>Although listed in the index, some information is not publicly available, e.g., Confidential Business Information (CBI) or other information whose disclosure is restricted by statute. Certain other material, such as copyrighted material, is not placed on the Internet and will be publicly available only in hard copy form. Publicly available docket materials are available in the electronic docket at<E T="03">http://www.regulations.gov,</E>or, if only available in hard copy, at the OPP Regulatory Public Docket in Rm. S-4400, One Potomac Yard (South Bldg.), 2777 S. Crystal Dr., Arlington, VA. The Docket Facility is open from 8:30 a.m. to 4 p.m., Monday through Friday, excluding legal holidays. The Docket Facility telephone number is (703) 305-5805.</P>
        </ADD>
        <FURINF>
          <HD SOURCE="HED">FOR FURTHER INFORMATION CONTACT:</HD>

          <P>Lisa Austin, Registration Division (7505P), Office of Pesticide Programs, Environmental Protection Agency, 1200 Pennsylvania Ave., NW., Washington, DC 20460-0001; telephone number: (703) 305-7894; e-mail address:<E T="03">austin.lisa@epa.gov.</E>
          </P>
        </FURINF>
      </PREAMB>
      <SUPLINF>
        <HD SOURCE="HED">SUPPLEMENTARY INFORMATION:</HD>
        <HD SOURCE="HD1">I. General Information</HD>
        <HD SOURCE="HD2">A. Does this action apply to me?</HD>
        <P>You may be potentially affected by this action if you are an agricultural producer, food manufacturer, or pesticide manufacturer. Potentially affected entities may include, but are not limited to:</P>
        <P>• Crop production (NAICS code 111).</P>
        <P>• Animal production (NAICS code 112).</P>
        <P>• Food manufacturing (NAICS code 311).</P>
        <P>• Pesticide manufacturing (NAICS code 32532).</P>

        <P>This listing is not intended to be exhaustive, but rather provides a guide for readers regarding entities likely to be affected by this action. Other types of entities not listed in this unit could also be affected. The North American Industrial Classification System (NAICS) codes have been provided to assist you and others in determining whether this action might apply to certain entities. If you have any questions regarding the applicability of this action to a particular entity, consult the person listed under<E T="02">FOR FURTHER INFORMATION CONTACT</E>.</P>
        <HD SOURCE="HD2">B. How can I get electronic access to other related information?</HD>

        <P>You may access a frequently updated electronic version of 40 CFR part 180 through the Government Printing Office's e-CFR site at<E T="03">http://www.gpoaccess.gov/ecfr.</E>
        </P>
        <HD SOURCE="HD2">C. How can I file an objection or hearing request?</HD>
        <P>Under FFDCA section 408(g), 21 U.S.C. 346a, any person may file an objection to any aspect of this regulation and may also request a hearing on those objections. You must file your objection or request a hearing on this regulation in accordance with the instructions provided in 40 CFR part 178. To ensure proper receipt by EPA, you must identify docket ID number EPA-HQ-OPP-2011-0361 in the subject line on the first page of your submission. All objections and requests for a hearing must be in writing, and must be received by the Hearing Clerk on or before August 1, 2011. Addresses for mail and hand delivery of objections and hearing requests are provided in 40 CFR 178.25(b).</P>
        <P>In addition to filing an objection or hearing request with the Hearing Clerk as described in 40 CFR part 178, please submit a copy of the filing that does not contain any CBI for inclusion in the public docket. Information not marked confidential pursuant to 40 CFR part 2 may be disclosed publicly by EPA without prior notice. Submit a copy of your non-CBI objection or hearing request, identified by docket ID number EPA-HQ-OPP-2011-0361, by one of the following methods:</P>
        <P>•<E T="03">Federal eRulemaking Portal: http://www.regulations.gov.</E>Follow the on-line instructions for submitting comments.</P>
        <P>•<E T="03">Mail:</E>Office of Pesticide Programs (OPP) Regulatory Public Docket (7502P), Environmental Protection Agency, 1200 Pennsylvania Ave., NW. Washington, DC 20460-0001.</P>
        <P>•<E T="03">Delivery:</E>OPP Regulatory Public Docket (7502P), Environmental Protection Agency, Rm. S-4400, One Potomac Yard (South Bldg.), 2777 S. Crystal Dr., Arlington, VA. Deliveries are only accepted during the Docket Facility's normal hours of operation (8:30 a.m. to 4 p.m., Monday through Friday, excluding legal holidays). Special arrangements should be made for deliveries of boxed information. The Docket Facility telephone number is (703) 305-5805.</P>
        <HD SOURCE="HD1">II. Petition for Exemption</HD>
        <P>EPA received two petitions requesting that 40 CFR 180.910 and 40 CFR 180.920 be amended by establishing an exemption from the requirement of a tolerance for residues of ethylene glycol.</P>
        <P>In the<E T="04">Federal Register</E>of July 9, 2008 (73 FR 39291) (FRL-8371-2), EPA issued a notice pursuant to section 408 of FFDCA, 21 U.S.C. 346a, announcing the filing of a pesticide petition (PP 8E7355) by Huntsman, 10003 Woodloch Forest Drive, The Woodlands, TX 77380; Dow AgroSciences L.L.C., 9330 Zionsville Road, Indianapolis, Indiana 46268; Nufarm Americas Inc., 150 Harvester Drive Suite 220, Burr Ridge, Illinois 60527; BASF, 26 Davis Drive, Research Triangle Park, NC 27709; Stepan Company, 22 W. Frontage Road, Northfield, IL 60093; Loveland Products Inc., PO Box 1286, Greeley, CO 80632; and Rhodia Inc., CN 1500, Cranbury, New Jersey 08512. The petition requested that 40 CFR 180.920 be amended by establishing an exemption from the requirement of a tolerance for residues of ethylene glycol (CAS Reg. No. 107-21-1) when used as an inert ingredient solvent, stabilizer and/or antifreeze without limitation in pesticide formulations applied to pre-harvest crops. That notice referenced a summary of the petition prepared by Huntsman, Dow AgroSciences L.L.C., Nufarm Americas Inc., BASF, Stepan Company, Loveland Products Inc., and Rhodia Inc., which is available in the docket,<E T="03">http://www.regulations.gov.</E>The Agency received one comment in response to the notice of filing.</P>
        <P>Also, in the<E T="04">Federal Register</E>of August 4, 2004 (69 FR 47149) (FRL-7367-7), EPA issued a notice pursuant to section 408 of FFDCA, 21 U.S.C. 346a, announcing the filing of a pesticide petition (PP 4E6828) by the Sumitomo Chemical Company, Ltd., 5-33 Kitahama, 4-chrome, chuo-ku, Osaka 541-8550 Japan. The petition requested that 40 CFR 180.910 be amended by establishing an exemption from the requirement of a tolerance for residues of ethylene glycol (CAS Reg. No. 107-21-1) when used as an inert ingredient in encapsulating agents for pesticides being applied post-harvest as residual, and crack and crevice sprays in and around food and nonfood areas of residential and nonresidential structures, including food handling establishments, with no limit. That notice referenced a summary of the petition prepared by the Sumitomo Chemical Company, which is available<PRTPAGE P="31473"/>in the docket,<E T="03">http://www.regulations.gov.</E>The Agency received one comment in response to the notice of filing.</P>
        <HD SOURCE="HD1">III. Inert Ingredient Definition</HD>
        <P>Inert ingredients are all ingredients that are not active ingredients as defined in 40 CFR 153.125 and include, but are not limited to, the following types of ingredients (except when they have a pesticidal efficacy of their own): Solvents such as alcohols and hydrocarbons; surfactants such as polyoxyethylene polymers and fatty acids; carriers such as clay and diatomaceous earth; thickeners such as carrageenan and modified cellulose; wetting, spreading, and dispersing agents; propellants in aerosol dispensers; microencapsulating agents; and emulsifiers. The term “inert” is not intended to imply nontoxicity; the ingredient may or may not be chemically active. Generally, EPA has exempted inert ingredients from the requirement of a tolerance based on the low toxicity of the individual inert ingredients.</P>
        <HD SOURCE="HD1">IV. Aggregate Risk Assessment and Determination of Safety</HD>
        <P>Section 408(c)(2)(A)(i) of FFDCA allows EPA to establish an exemption from the requirement for a tolerance (the legal limit for a pesticide chemical residue in or on a food) only if EPA determines that the tolerance is “safe.” Section 408(b)(2)(A)(ii) of FFDCA defines “safe” to mean that “there is a reasonable certainty that no harm will result from aggregate exposure to the pesticide chemical residue, including all anticipated dietary exposures and all other exposures for which there is reliable information.” This includes exposure through drinking water and in residential settings, but does not include occupational exposure. Section 408(b)(2)(C) of FFDCA requires EPA to give special consideration to exposure of infants and children to the pesticide chemical residue in establishing a tolerance and to “ensure that there is a reasonable certainty that no harm will result to infants and children from aggregate exposure to the pesticide chemical residue* * *.”</P>
        <P>EPA establishes exemptions from the requirement of a tolerance only in those cases where it can be clearly demonstrated that the risks from aggregate exposure to pesticide chemical residues under reasonably foreseeable circumstances will pose no appreciable risks to human health. In order to determine the risks from aggregate exposure to pesticide inert ingredients, the Agency considers the toxicity of the inert in conjunction with possible exposure to residues of the inert ingredient through food, drinking water, and through other exposures that occur as a result of pesticide use in residential settings. If EPA is able to determine that a finite tolerance is not necessary to ensure that there is a reasonable certainty that no harm will result from aggregate exposure to the inert ingredient, an exemption from the requirement of a tolerance may be established.</P>
        <P>Consistent with section 408(c)(2)(A) of FFDCA, and the factors specified in FFDCA section 408(c)(2)(B), EPA has reviewed the available scientific data and other relevant information in support of this action. EPA has sufficient data to assess the hazards of and to make a determination on aggregate exposure for ethylene glycol including exposure resulting from the exemption established by this action. EPA's assessment of exposures and risks associated with ethylene glycol follows.</P>
        <HD SOURCE="HD2">A. Toxicological Profile</HD>
        <P>EPA has evaluated the available toxicity data and considered their validity, completeness, and reliability as well as the relationship of the results of the studies to human risk. EPA has also considered available information concerning the variability of the sensitivities of major identifiable subgroups of consumers, including infants and children. Specific information on the studies received and the nature of the adverse effects caused by ethylene glycol as well as the no-observed-adverse-effect-level (NOAEL) and the lowest-observed-adverse-effect-level (LOAEL) from the toxicity studies are discussed in this unit.</P>

        <P>Acute oral toxicity in rodents, as expressed as a lethal dose (LD)<E T="52">50</E>, ranges from 1,500 milligram/kilogram (mg/kg) to 8,800 mg/kg. In the guinea pig, the acute oral toxicity is about 6,600 mg/kg and in the rabbit, 5,000 mg/kg. In the dog, the acute oral LD<E T="52">50</E>is greater than 8,000 mg/kg. It is minimally irritating to the eyes and skin of rabbits. Acute inhalation and dermal toxicity data were not identified. However, given the vapor pressure of undiluted ethylene glycol (0.092 millimeter (mm) mercury (Hg) @ 25 °C) acute inhalation concerns are not expected. According to the National Institute of Occupational Safety and Health (NIOSH) (1999), a “harmful contamination of the air will be reached rather slowly on evaporation of this substance at 20 °C.”</P>

        <P>In subchronic and chronic testing, rats were more sensitive to the effects of ethylene glycol treatment than mice at comparable dose levels. Among rats, males appeared to be more sensitive than females. In subchronic toxicity testing in rats and mice, the kidney was adversely affected in all studies considered. Effects common to all studies include increased kidney weights, formation of lesions, and formation of oxalate crystals. In the rat, NOAELs range from 71 to 4,000 mg/kg/day and in the mouse the NOAELs range from 1,000 to 3,230 mg/kg/day. In chronic testing in rats, kidney effects similar to those seen in subchronic testing were observed. In addition, effects to the liver were seen (<E T="03">i.e.,</E>decreased liver weight; fatty changes). The lowest NOAEL (71 mg/kg/day) in the toxicity database occurred in a subchronic toxicity study in rats. The LOAEL in this study was 180 mg/kg/day based on kidney effects. In chronic studies, the lowest NOAEL of 150 mg/kg/day was observed in rats, the most sensitive species.</P>
        <P>Developmental toxicity testing was conducted in rats, mice, and rabbits. Overall, fetal toxicity was exhibited as increased fetal deaths, skeletal and external malformations, and reduced body weight. Maternal toxicity was manifested as decreased body weight gain, kidney effects (lesions, increased organ weight), and liver effects (decreased organ weight). The relative sensitivities of these species in terms of developmental toxicity during organogenesis are: Mice are the most sensitive and rabbits are the least sensitive. For maternal toxicity per se the sensitivity is: Rats are the most sensitive and rabbits are the least sensitive.</P>

        <P>In rabbits, statistically-significant fetal developmental toxicity was not observed; however, maternal toxicity was seen at 2,000 mg/kg/day; it was manifested as renal toxicity (lesions, oxalate formation). In rats, fetal toxicity was seen at doses ranging from 1,000 mg/kg/day to 2,500 mg/kg/day. It manifested as decreased viability (2,250 mg/kg/day); decreased body weight gain and decreased pup weight (1,000 to 2,500 mg/kg/day); and skeletal effects and malformations (1,000 to 2,500 mg/kg/day). The skeletal effects and malformations included: Poorly ossified and unossified vertebral centra; decrease in total ossification; hydrocephaly; and pup malformation. Maternal toxicity in rats was manifested as: Decreased body weight gain (1,250 to 2,500 mg/kg/day); decreased liver weight (5,000 mg/kg/day); and kidney effects such as lesions and increased weight (1,250 to 2,500 mg/kg/day). In mice, fetal toxicity was seen at doses ranging from 500 to 1,500 mg/kg/day. As with rats it manifested as decreased<PRTPAGE P="31474"/>fetal body weight and/or weight gain (750 to 1,500 mg/kg/day) and skeletal effects (500 to 1,500 mg/kg/day) which included: Pup malformations, fused ribs and arches, poor ossification in thoracic and lumbar centra, and increased occurrence of an extra 14th rib. The lowest developmental NOAEL in mice was 150 mg/kg/day. Maternal toxicity was demonstrated as decreased weight gain (1,500 mg/kg/day) and decreased liver weight (1,500 mg/kg/day).</P>
        <P>The reproductive toxicity of ethylene glycol was studied in rats and mice. In rats, no reproductive toxicity was noted. In mice, reproductive toxicity was seen at doses ranging from 897 to 2,826 mg/kg/day. It manifested as: Decreased numbers of live implants and increased number of dead implants; sperm effects (abnormal sperm, decreased motility, decreased sperm count); testicular lesions; and decreased testes weight.</P>

        <P>Ethylene glycol is not known to be mutagenic. In a standard battery of<E T="03">in vitro</E>genotoxicity assays conducted by the National Toxicology Program; Health and Human Services (NTP; HHS 1993), all results were negative. Ethylene glycol is not considered to be carcinogenic. In carcinogenicity testing conducted by the NTP in rats and mice, no evidence of carcinogenic potential was noted. Therefore, based on the lack of mutagenicity and lack of carcinogenicity in rodents, ethylene glycol is not expected to pose a carcinogenic risk in humans.</P>
        <P>Metabolism studies demonstrated that ethylene glycol was rapidly absorbed, metabolized and excreted. It is primarily metabolized via the liver and kidneys. Ethylene glycol and metabolites (glycolic acid and oxalic acid) are primarily excreted in the urine within 12-18 hours after administration.</P>

        <P>Specific information on the studies received and the nature of the adverse effects caused by the ethylene glycol, as well as, the NOAEL and the LOAEL from the toxicity studies can be found at<E T="03">http://www.regulations.gov</E>in the document “800009, Ethylene Glycol; Human Health Risk Assessment and Ecological Effects Assessment to Support Proposed Exemption from the Requirement of a Tolerance When Used as Inert Ingredients in Pesticide Formulations,” pp. 7-24 in EPA-HQ-OPP-2008-0474 and EPA-HQ-OPP-2004-0207.</P>
        <HD SOURCE="HD2">B. Toxicological Points of Departure/Levels of Concern</HD>

        <P>Once a pesticide's toxicological profile is determined, EPA identifies toxicological points of departure (POD) and levels of concern (LOC) to use in evaluating the risk posed by human exposure to the pesticide. For hazards that have a threshold below which there is no appreciable risk, the toxicological POD is used as the basis for derivation of reference values for risk assessment. PODs are developed based on a careful analysis of the doses in each toxicological study to determine the dose at which the NOAEL and the LOAEL are identified. Uncertainty/safety factors are used in conjunction with the POD to calculate a safe exposure level—generally referred to as a population-adjusted dose (PAD)(acute = a and chronic = c) or a reference dose (RfD)—and a safe margin of exposure (MOE). For non-threshold risks, the Agency assumes that any amount of exposure will lead to some degree of risk. Thus, the Agency estimates risk in terms of the probability of an occurrence of the adverse effect expected in a lifetime. For more information on the general principles EPA uses in risk characterization and a complete description of the risk assessment process, see<E T="03">http://www.epa.gov/pesticides/factsheets/riskassess.htm.</E>
        </P>
        <P>A summary of the toxicological endpoints for ethylene glycol used for human risk assessment is shown in the Table of this unit.</P>
        <P>No acute endpoint of concern for general population was identified in the available data base. However, the endpoint of concern for females 13 plus age was identified in a developmental toxicity study in mice with a NOAEL of 150 mg/kg/day and LOAEL of 500 mg/kg/day based on an increased incidence of total malformations and bilateral extra rib14.</P>
        <P>The endpoint selected for the cRfD was based on a chronic toxicity study in rats. The NOAEL in this study was 150 mg/kg/day based on kidney lesions and mortality observed at 300 mg/kg/day. Although 71 mg/kg/day is the lowest NOAEL in the database identified in a subchronic study in rats, the confidence in this subchronic study is low because subchronic and chronic studies support the NOAEL of 150 mg/kg/day and above. The NOAEL 150 mg/kg/day selected for the cRfD is protective of any developmental effects. Therefore, the Agency selected the point of departure of 150 mg/kg/day to establish the cRfD.</P>
        <P>The EPA Integrated Risk Information System (IRIS) established a oral cRfD based on the NOAEL of 200 mg/kg/day and uncertainty factor 100. The currently chosen endpoint and the dose used for this risk assessment provide the most conservative assessment.</P>
        <GPOTABLE CDEF="s75,r100,r100,r150" COLS="4" OPTS="L2,i1">
          <TTITLE>Table—Summary of Toxicological Doses and Endpoints for Ethylene Glycol for Use in Human Risk Assessment</TTITLE>
          <BOXHD>
            <CHED H="1">Exposure/scenario</CHED>
            <CHED H="1">Point of departure and<LI>uncertainty/safety factors</LI>
            </CHED>
            <CHED H="1">RfD, PAD, LOC for risk<LI>assessment</LI>
            </CHED>
            <CHED H="1">Study and toxicological effects</CHED>
          </BOXHD>
          <ROW>
            <ENT I="01">Acute dietary (Females 13-50 years of age)</ENT>
            <ENT>NOAEL = 150 mg/kg/day<LI O="xl">UF<E T="52">A</E>= 10x</LI>
              <LI O="xl">UF<E T="52">H</E>= 10x</LI>
              <LI O="xl">FQPA SF = 1x</LI>
            </ENT>
            <ENT>Acute RfD = 1.5 mg/kg/day<LI O="xl">aPAD = 1.5 mg/kg/day</LI>
            </ENT>
            <ENT>Developmental toxicity study—mice.<LI>LOAEL = 500 mg/kg bw/day, based on increased incidence of total malformations and bilateral extra rib 14.</LI>
            </ENT>
          </ROW>
          <ROW>
            <ENT I="01">Chronic dietary (All populations)</ENT>
            <ENT>NOAEL = 150 mg/kg/day<LI O="xl">UF<E T="52">A</E>= 10x</LI>
              <LI O="xl">UF<E T="52">H</E>= 10x</LI>
              <LI O="xl">FQPA SF = 1x</LI>
            </ENT>
            <ENT>Chronic RfD = 1.5 mg/kg/day<LI O="xl">cPAD = 1.5 mg/kg/day</LI>
            </ENT>
            <ENT>Chronic toxicity study.<LI>LOAEL = 300 mg/kg/day based on kidney lesions and death in males.</LI>
            </ENT>
          </ROW>
          <ROW>
            <ENT I="01">Incidental oral short-term (1 to 30 days)</ENT>
            <ENT>NOAEL = 150 mg/kg/day<LI O="xl">UF<E T="52">A</E>= 10x</LI>
              <LI O="xl">UF<E T="52">H</E>= 10x</LI>
              <LI O="xl">FQPA SF = 1x</LI>
            </ENT>
            <ENT>LOC for MOE = 100</ENT>
            <ENT>Chronic toxicity study.<LI>LOAEL = 300 mg/kg/day based on kidney lesions and death in males.</LI>
            </ENT>
          </ROW>
          <ROW>
            <ENT I="01">Incidental oral intermediate-term (1 to 6 months)</ENT>
            <ENT>NOAEL = 150 mg/kg/day<LI O="xl">UF<E T="52">A</E>= 10x</LI>
              <LI O="xl">UF<E T="52">H</E>= 10x</LI>
              <LI O="xl">FQPA SF = 1x</LI>
            </ENT>
            <ENT>LOC for MOE = 100</ENT>
            <ENT>Chronic toxicity study.<LI>LOAEL = 300 mg/kg/day based on kidney lesions and death in males.</LI>
            </ENT>
          </ROW>
          <ROW>
            <PRTPAGE P="31475"/>
            <ENT I="01">Dermal short-term (1 to 30 days)</ENT>
            <ENT>NOAEL = 150 mg/kg/day (dermal absorption rate = 25%<LI O="xl">UF<E T="52">A</E>= 10x</LI>
              <LI O="xl">UF<E T="52">H</E>= 10x</LI>
              <LI O="xl">FQPA SF = 1x</LI>
            </ENT>
            <ENT>LOC for MOE = 100</ENT>
            <ENT>Chronic toxicity study.<LI>LOAEL = 300 mg/kg/day based on kidney lesions and death in males.</LI>
            </ENT>
          </ROW>
          <ROW>
            <ENT I="01">Dermal intermediate-term (1 to 6 months)</ENT>

            <ENT>NOAEL = 150 mg/kg/day (dermal absorption rate = 25% when appropriate)<LI O="xl">UF<E T="52">A</E>= 10x</LI>
              <LI O="xl">UF<E T="52">H</E>= 10x</LI>
              <LI O="xl">FQPA SF = 1x</LI>
            </ENT>
            <ENT>LOC for MOE = 100</ENT>
            <ENT>Chronic toxicity study.<LI>LOAEL = 300 mg/kg/day based on kidney lesions and death in males.</LI>
            </ENT>
          </ROW>
          <ROW>
            <ENT I="01">Inhalation short-term (1 to 30 days)</ENT>

            <ENT>NOAEL = 150 mg/kg/day (inhalation absorption rate = 100%)<LI O="xl">UF<E T="52">A</E>= 10x</LI>
              <LI O="xl">UF<E T="52">H</E>= 10x</LI>
              <LI O="xl">FQPA SF = 1x</LI>
            </ENT>
            <ENT>LOC for MOE = 100</ENT>
            <ENT>Chronic toxicity study.<LI>LOAEL = 300 mg/kg/day based on kidney lesions and death in males.</LI>
            </ENT>
          </ROW>
          <ROW RUL="n,s">
            <ENT I="01">Inhalation (1 to 6 months)</ENT>

            <ENT>NOAEL = 150 mg/kg/day (inhalation absorption rate = 100%)<LI O="xl">UF<E T="52">A</E>= 10x</LI>
              <LI O="xl">UF<E T="52">H</E>= 10x</LI>
              <LI O="xl">FQPA SF = 1x</LI>
            </ENT>
            <ENT>LOC for MOE = 100</ENT>
            <ENT>Chronic toxicity study.<LI>LOAEL = 300 mg/kg/day based on kidney lesions and death in males.</LI>
            </ENT>
          </ROW>
          <ROW>
            <ENT I="01">Cancer (Oral, dermal, inhalation)</ENT>
            <ENT A="02">Not expected to be carcinogenic based on the lack of mutagenicity and lack of carcinogenicity in rodents.</ENT>
          </ROW>
          <TNOTE>UF<E T="52">A</E>= extrapolation from animal to human (interspecies). UF<E T="52">H</E>= potential variation in sensitivity among members of the human population (intraspecies). UF<E T="52">L</E>= use of a LOAEL to extrapolate a NOAEL. UF<E T="52">S</E>= use of a short-term study for long-term risk assessment. UF<E T="52">DB</E>= to account for the absence of data or other data deficiency. FQPA SF = Food Quality Protection Act Safety Factor.</TNOTE>
        </GPOTABLE>
        <HD SOURCE="HD2">C. Exposure Assessment</HD>
        <P>1.<E T="03">Dietary exposure from food and feed uses.</E>In evaluating dietary exposure to ethylene glycol, EPA considered exposure under the proposed exemption from the requirement of a tolerance. EPA assessed dietary exposures from ethylene glycol in food as follows:</P>
        <P>i.<E T="03">Acute and chronic exposure.</E>In conducting the acute and chronic dietary exposure assessments, EPA used food consumption information from the United States Department of Agriculture (USDA) 1994-1996 and 1998 Nationwide Continuing Surveys of Food Intake by Individuals (CSFII). As to residue levels in food, no residue data were submitted for the ethylene glycol. In the absence of specific residue data, EPA has developed an approach which uses surrogate information to derive upper bound exposure estimates for the subject inert ingredient. Upper bound exposure estimates are based on the highest tolerance for a given commodity from a list of high-use insecticides, herbicides, and fungicides. A complete description of the general approach taken to assess inert ingredient risks in the absence of residue data is contained in the memorandum entitled “Alkyl Amines Polyalkoxylates (Cluster 4): Acute and Chronic Aggregate (Food and Drinking Water) Dietary Exposure and Risk Assessments for the Inerts.” (D361707, S. Piper, 2/25/09) and can be found at<E T="03">http://www.regulations.gov</E>in docket ID number EPA-HQ-OPP-2008-0738.</P>
        <P>In the dietary exposure assessment, the Agency assumed that the residue level of the inert ingredient would be no higher than the highest tolerance for a given commodity. Implicit in this assumption is that there would be similar rates of degradation (if any) between the active and inert ingredient and that the concentration of inert ingredient in the scenarios leading to these highest of tolerances would be no higher than the concentration of the active ingredient.</P>
        <P>The Agency believes the assumptions used to estimate dietary exposures lead to an extremely conservative assessment of dietary risk due to a series of compounded conservatisms. First, assuming that the level of residue for an inert ingredient is equal to the level of residue for the active ingredient will overstate exposure. The concentration of active ingredient in agricultural products is generally at least 50 percent of the product and often can be much higher. Further, pesticide products rarely have a single inert ingredient; rather there is generally a combination of different inert ingredients used which additionally reduces the concentration of any single inert ingredient in the pesticide product in relation to that of the active ingredient.</P>

        <P>Second, the conservatism of this methodology is compounded by EPA's decision to assume that, for each commodity, the active ingredient which will serve as a guide to the potential level of inert ingredient residues is the active ingredient with the highest tolerance level. This assumption overstates residue values because it would be highly unlikely, given the high number of inert ingredients, that a single inert ingredient or class of ingredients would be present at the level of the active ingredient in the highest tolerance for every commodity. Finally, a third compounding conservatism is EPA's assumption that all foods contain the inert ingredient at the highest tolerance level. In other words, EPA assumed 100 percent of all foods are treated with the inert ingredient at the rate and manner necessary to produce the highest residue legally possible for an active ingredient. In summary, EPA chose a very conservative method for estimating what level of inert residue could be on food, then used this methodology to choose the highest possible residue that<PRTPAGE P="31476"/>could be found on food and assumed that all food contained this residue. No consideration was given to potential degradation between harvest and consumption even though monitoring data shows that tolerance level residues are typically one to two orders of magnitude higher than actual residues in food when distributed in commerce.</P>
        <P>Accordingly, although sufficient information to quantify actual residue levels in food is not available, the compounding of these conservative assumptions will lead to a significant exaggeration of actual exposures. EPA does not believe that this approach underestimates exposure in the absence of residue data.</P>
        <P>ii.<E T="03">Cancer.</E>Ethylene glycol is not expected to be carcinogenic since it was negative for carcinogenicity in mice and rats in the available published studies and there was a negative response for mutagenicity. Since the Agency has not identified any concerns for carcinogenicity relating to ethylene glycol, a dietary exposure assessment to evaluate cancer risk was not performed.</P>
        <P>iii.<E T="03">Anticipated residue and percent crop treated (PCT) information.</E>EPA did not use anticipated residue and/or PCT information in the dietary assessment for ethylene glycol. Tolerance level residues and/or 100 PCT were assumed for all food commodities.</P>
        <P>2.<E T="03">Dietary exposure from drinking water.</E>For the purpose of the screening level dietary risk assessment to support this request for an exemption from the requirement of a tolerance for ethylene glycol, a conservative drinking water concentration value of 100 parts per billion (ppb) based on screening level modeling was used to assess the contribution to drinking water for the chronic dietary risk assessments for parent compound. These values were directly entered into the dietary exposure model.</P>
        <P>3.<E T="03">From non-dietary exposure.</E>The term “residential exposure” is used in this document to refer to non-occupational, non-dietary exposure (e.g., textiles (clothing and diapers), carpets, swimming pools, and hard surface disinfection on walls, floors, tables).</P>
        <P>Ethylene glycol may be used in inert ingredients in products that are registered for specific uses that may result in residential exposure. A screening level residential exposure and risk assessment was completed for products containing ethylene glycol as inert ingredients. The ethylene glycol inerts may be present in consumer personal (care) products and cosmetics (at concentrations up to 1%) (http://hpd.nlm.nih.gov/index.htm). The Agency conducted exposure assessments based on end-use product application methods and labeled application rates. The Agency conducted an assessment to represent worst-case residential exposure by assessing ethylene glycol in pesticide formulations used in crack and crevice applications. The Agency conducted an assessment to represent worst-case residential exposure by assessing post application exposures and risks from ethylene glycol in pesticide formulations.</P>
        <P>4.<E T="03">Cumulative effects from substances with a common mechanism of toxicity.</E>Section 408(b)(2)(D)(v) of FFDCA requires that, when considering whether to establish, modify, or revoke a tolerance, the Agency consider “available information” concerning the cumulative effects of a particular pesticide's residues and “other substances that have a common mechanism of toxicity.”</P>

        <P>EPA has not found ethylene glycol to share a common mechanism of toxicity with any other substances, and ethylene glycol does not appear to produce a toxic metabolite produced by other substances. For the purposes of this tolerance action, therefore, EPA has assumed that ethylene glycol does not have a common mechanism of toxicity with other substances. For information regarding EPA's efforts to determine which chemicals have a common mechanism of toxicity and to evaluate the cumulative effects of such chemicals, see EPA's Web site at<E T="03">http://www.epa.gov/pesticides/cumulative.</E>
        </P>
        <HD SOURCE="HD2">D. Safety Factor for Infants and Children</HD>
        <P>1.<E T="03">In general.</E>Section 408(b)(2)(C) of FFDCA provides that EPA shall apply an additional tenfold (10X) margin of safety for infants and children in the case of threshold effects to account for prenatal and postnatal toxicity and the completeness of the database on toxicity and exposure unless EPA determines based on reliable data that a different margin of safety will be safe for infants and children. This additional margin of safety is commonly referred to as the FQPA SF. In applying this provision, EPA either retains the default value of 10X, or uses a different additional safety factor when reliable data available to EPA support the choice of a different factor.</P>
        <P>2.<E T="03">Prenatal and postnatal sensitivity.</E>In the case of the ethylene glycol, some of the available studies suggest increased susceptibility to the offspring of rodents following pre-natal and post-natal exposure. However, the effects (described in this unit) occurred at doses that were &gt; 500 mg/kg/day. The established cRfD of 1.5 mg/kg/day will be protective of these effects. Therefore, the concern for increased fetal susceptibility is low and there are no residual concerns.</P>
        <P>3.<E T="03">Conclusion.</E>EPA has determined that reliable data show the safety of infants and children would be adequately protected if the FQPA SF were reduced to 1X. That decision is based on the following findings:</P>
        <P>i. The toxicity database for ethylene glycol is adequate. The following acceptable studies are available:</P>
        <P>Developmental toxicity studies in rodents (6);</P>
        <P>Multi-generation reproduction studies in rodents (4);</P>
        <P>Subchronic toxicity studies in multiple species;</P>
        <P>Inhalation and dermal toxicity studies;</P>
        <P>Chronic/carcinogenicity studies in rodents (5).</P>
        <P>ii. Signs of neurotoxicity (when observed) occurred at high doses and at doses above that which produced kidney toxicity. The established cRfD of 1.5 mg/kg/day (NOAEL = 150 mg/kg/day) is protective of kidney toxicity and is therefore protective of neurotoxic effects. Also, the International Programme on Chemical Safety Concise International Chemical Assessment Document 45 Ethylene Glycol: Human Health Aspects (IPCS CICAD 2002) concluded that “data are limited, results of identified toxicity studies conducted (via oral, inhalation, or dermal routes) in rodents, rabbits, and monkeys do not indicate that neurological effects are critical end-points for ethylene glycol.” IPCS (2002) also states that generally neurotoxicity effects occur at a dose higher than the dose producing kidney toxicity. Since the current cRfD is protective of kidney toxicity, the concern for neurotoxicity is low to none. Therefore, EPA concluded that the developmental neurotoxicity is not required.</P>

        <P>iii. Evidence of potential immunotoxicity was observed in a subchronic toxicity study in rats. Decreased relative thymus weights were observed at 4,000 mg/kg/day. Again, this effect occurred at a high dose and at a dose above that which produced kidney toxicity. The established cRfD of 1.5 mg/kg/day (NOAEL = 150 mg/kg/day) is protective of kidney toxicity and is approximately 2,600 times lower than the dose where decreased relative thymus weights were observed. Therefore, the cRfD will be protective of this immunotoxicity effects. The IPCS CICAD for ethylene glycol finds that although “data are limited, results of<PRTPAGE P="31477"/>identified toxicity studies conducted (via oral, inhalation, or dermal routes) in rodents, rabbits, and monkeys do not indicate that immunological effects are critical end-points for ethylene glycol.” (IPCS 2002).</P>
        <P>iv. Evidence of increased susceptibility was not observed in the developmental toxicity study in the rabbit. However, evidence of increased susceptibility was observed following prenatal exposure to ethylene glycol in mice. An increased incidence of total malformations and bilateral extra rib 14 were observed at 500 mg/kg/day. These effects occurred in the absence of maternal toxicity. In a developmental study in rats, there was evidence of qualitative fetal susceptibility. Maternal (tubular dilation and regeneration in the kidneys, increased gestational period, and decreased relative kidney weights) and developmental (decreased pup weight, increased cumulative mortality/litter, increased incidence of hydrocephaly, decreased relative kidney weights, decreased absolute brain weights, and increased incidences of hydrocephaly; defects in ribs, sternebrae, and vertebrae) were observed at the same dose (1,250 mg/kg/day). There was no evidence of increased fetal susceptibility in another developmental study in rats, maternal (pre-implantation loss) and developmental (poorly ossified and unossified vertebral centra) effects were observed at the same dose (1,000 mg/kg/day). However, there was a well established NOAEL in these two developmental toxicity studies in rats protecting fetuses. In addition, these fetal effects were generally seen at relatively high doses. In a reproduction study in mice, increased fetal susceptibility was observed but again it occurred above the limit dose. Developmental toxicity manifested as decrease number of live pups/litter, and mean live pup weight was observed in the absence of maternal toxicity at 1,640 mg/kg/day.</P>
        <P>In another reproduction study in mice, maternal (kidney lesions and oxalate crystals) and developmental toxicity (decrease in pup weight adjusted for litter size) were observed at 897 mg/kg/day.</P>
        <P>However, the concern for this increased susceptibility was low based on the following rationale:</P>
        <P>
          <E T="03">a.</E>There is a well established NOAEL in these studies protecting fetuses/offspring from the aforementioned effects;</P>
        <P>
          <E T="03">b.</E>Although increased susceptibility was observed, this occurred at doses close to the limit dose of 1,000 mg/kg/day;</P>
        <P>
          <E T="03">c.</E>The effects seen in the developmental study were not reproduced in the reproduction studies; and</P>
        <P>
          <E T="03">d.</E>The established chronic reference dose of 1.5 mg/kg/day will be protective of these effects. Therefore, based on the weight of evidence the concern for increased fetal susceptibility is low.</P>
        <P>v. There are no residual uncertainties identified in the exposure databases. The dietary food exposure assessments were performed using very conservative assumptions. EPA made conservative (protective) assumptions in the ground water and surface water modeling used to assess exposure to ethylene glycol in drinking water. EPA used similarly conservative assumptions to assess post-application exposure of children as well as incidental oral exposure of toddlers. These assessments will not underestimate the exposure and risks posed by ethylene glycol.</P>
        <HD SOURCE="HD2">E. Aggregate Risks and Determination of Safety</HD>
        <P>EPA determines whether acute and chronic dietary pesticide exposures are safe by comparing aggregate exposure estimates to the aPAD and cPAD. For linear cancer risks, EPA calculates the lifetime probability of acquiring cancer given the estimated aggregate exposure. Short-, intermediate-, and chronic-term risks are evaluated by comparing the estimated aggregate food, water, and residential exposure to the appropriate PODs to ensure that an adequate MOE exists.</P>
        <P>1.<E T="03">Acute risk.</E>An acute aggregate risk assessment takes into account acute exposure estimates from dietary consumption of food and drinking water. Using the exposure assumptions described in this unit for acute exposure, EPA has concluded that acute exposure to ethylene glycol from food and water will utilize 26.5% of the aPAD for females 13-49, the only population group identified as potentially facing an acute risk from exposure to ethylene glycol.</P>
        <P>2.<E T="03">Chronic risk.</E>Using the exposure assumptions described in this unit for chronic exposure, EPA has concluded that chronic exposure to ethylene glycol from food and water will utilize 12.8% of the cPAD for the general population and 41.6% of the cPAD for children 1-2 yrs old, the population group receiving the greatest exposure.</P>
        <P>3.<E T="03">Short-term risk.</E>Short-term aggregate exposure takes into account short-term residential exposure plus chronic exposure to food and water (considered to be a background exposure level).</P>
        <P>Ethylene glycol is currently used as an inert ingredient in pesticide products that are registered for uses that could result in short-term residential exposure, and the Agency has determined that it is appropriate to aggregate chronic exposure through food and water with short-term residential exposures to ethylene glycol.</P>
        <P>Using the exposure assumptions described in this unit for short-term exposures, EPA has concluded the combined short-term food, water, and residential exposures result in aggregate MOEs of 200 for both adult males and females, respectively. Adult residential exposure combines high end dermal and inhalation handler exposure from homeowner mixer/loader/applicators using a trigger sprayer with a high end post application dermal exposure from contact with treated lawns. EPA has concluded that the combined short-term aggregated food, water, and residential exposures result in an aggregate MOE of 170 for children. Children's residential exposure includes total exposures associated with contact with treated surfaces (dermal and hand-to-mouth exposures). Because EPA's LOC for ethylene glycol is a MOE of 100 or below, these MOEs are not of concern.</P>
        <P>4.<E T="03">Intermediate-term risk.</E>Intermediate-term aggregate exposure takes into account intermediate-term residential exposure plus chronic exposure to food and water (considered to be a background exposure level).</P>
        <P>Ethylene glycol is currently used as an inert ingredient in pesticide products that are registered for uses that could result in intermediate-term residential exposure, and the Agency has determined that it is appropriate to aggregate chronic exposure through food and water with intermediate-term residential exposures to ethylene glycol.</P>

        <P>Using the exposure assumptions described in this unit for intermediate-term exposures, EPA has concluded that the combined intermediate-term food, water, and residential exposures result in aggregate MOEs of 580 for both adult males and females, respectively. Adult residential exposure combines high end dermal and inhalation handler exposure from homeowner mixer/loader/applicators using a trigger sprayer with a high end post application dermal exposure from contact with treated lawns. EPA has concluded that the combined short-term aggregated food, water, and residential exposures result in an aggregate MOE of 200 for children. Children's residential exposure includes total exposures associated with contact with treated surfaces (dermal and hand-to-mouth exposures). Because EPA's LOC for ethylene glycol is a MOE of 100<PRTPAGE P="31478"/>or below, these MOEs are not of concern.</P>
        <P>5.<E T="03">Aggregate cancer risk for U.S. population.</E>The Agency has not identified any concerns for carcinogenicity relating to ethylene glycol.</P>
        <P>6.<E T="03">Determination of safety.</E>Based on these risk assessments, EPA concludes that there is a reasonable certainty that no harm will result to the general population, or to infants and children, from aggregate exposure to ethylene glycol residues.</P>
        <HD SOURCE="HD1">V. Other Considerations</HD>
        <HD SOURCE="HD2">A. Analytical Enforcement Methodology</HD>
        <P>An analytical method is not required for enforcement purposes since the Agency is establishing an exemption from the requirement of a tolerance without any numerical limitation.</P>
        <HD SOURCE="HD2">B. International Residue Limits</HD>
        <P>In making its tolerance decisions, EPA seeks to harmonize U.S. tolerances with international standards whenever possible, consistent with U.S. food safety standards and agricultural practices. EPA considers the international maximum residue limits (MRLs) established by the Codex Alimentarius Commission (Codex), as required by FFDCA section 408(b)(4). The Codex Alimentarius is a joint U.N. Food and Agriculture Organization/World Health Organization food standards program, and it is recognized as an international food safety standards-setting organization in trade agreements to which the United States is a party. EPA may establish a tolerance that is different from a Codex MRL; however, FFDCA section 408(b)(4) requires that EPA explain the reasons for departing from the Codex level.</P>
        <P>The Codex has not established a MRL for ethylene glycol.</P>
        <HD SOURCE="HD2">C. Response to Comments</HD>
        <P>The two comments were received from private citizens who opposed the authorization to sell any pesticide that leaves a residue on food. The Agency understands the commentors' concerns and recognizes that some individuals believe that no residue of pesticides should be allowed. However, under the existing legal framework provided by section 408 of FFDCA, EPA is authorized to establish pesticide tolerances or exemptions where persons seeking such tolerances or exemptions have demonstrated that the pesticide meets the safety standard imposed by the statute.</P>
        <HD SOURCE="HD1">VI. Conclusions</HD>
        <P>Therefore, an exemption from the requirement of a tolerance is established under 40 CFR 180.910 for ethylene glycol (107-21-1) when used as an inert ingredient (in encapsulating agents for pesticides being applied post-harvest as residual, and crack and crevice sprays in and around food and nonfood areas of residential and nonresidential structures, including food handling establishments) and 40 CFR 180.920 for ethylene glycol when used as an (inert ingredient as a solvent, stabilizer and/or antifreeze within pesticide formulations/products without limitation) applied to pre-harvest crops.</P>
        <HD SOURCE="HD1">VII. Statutory and Executive Order Reviews</HD>

        <P>This final rule establishes a tolerance under section 408(d) of FFDCA in response to a petition submitted to the Agency. The Office of Management and Budget (OMB) has exempted these types of actions from review under Executive Order 12866, entitled<E T="03">Regulatory Planning and Review</E>(58 FR 51735, October 4, 1993). Because this final rule has been exempted from review under Executive Order 12866, this final rule is not subject to Executive Order 13211, entitled<E T="03">Actions Concerning Regulations That Significantly Affect Energy Supply, Distribution, or Use</E>(66 FR 28355, May 22, 2001) or Executive Order 13045, entitled<E T="03">Protection of Children from Environmental Health Risks and Safety Risks</E>(62 FR 19885, April 23, 1997). This final rule does not contain any information collections subject to OMB approval under the Paperwork Reduction Act (PRA), 44 U.S.C. 3501<E T="03">et seq.,</E>nor does it require any special considerations under Executive Order 12898, entitled<E T="03">Federal Actions to Address Environmental Justice in Minority Populations and Low-Income Populations</E>(59 FR 7629, February 16, 1994).</P>

        <P>Since tolerances and exemptions that are established on the basis of a petition under section 408(d) of FFDCA, such as the tolerance in this final rule, do not require the issuance of a proposed rule, the requirements of the Regulatory Flexibility Act (RFA) (5 U.S.C. 601<E T="03">et seq.</E>) do not apply.</P>

        <P>This final rule directly regulates growers, food processors, food handlers, and food retailers, not States or tribes, nor does this action alter the relationships or distribution of power and responsibilities established by Congress in the preemption provisions of section 408(n)(4) of FFDCA. As such, the Agency has determined that this action will not have a substantial direct effect on States or tribal governments, on the relationship between the national government and the States or tribal governments, or on the distribution of power and responsibilities among the various levels of government or between the Federal Government and Indian tribes. Thus, the Agency has determined that Executive Order 13132, entitled<E T="03">Federalism</E>(64 FR 43255, August 10, 1999) and Executive Order 13175, entitled<E T="03">Consultation and Coordination with Indian Tribal Governments</E>(65 FR 67249, November 9, 2000) do not apply to this final rule. In addition, this final rule does not impose any enforceable duty or contain any unfunded mandate as described under Title II of the Unfunded Mandates Reform Act of 1995 (UMRA) (Pub. L. 104-4).</P>
        <P>This action does not involve any technical standards that would require Agency consideration of voluntary consensus standards pursuant to section 12(d) of the National Technology Transfer and Advancement Act of 1995 (NTTAA), Public Law 104-113, section 12(d) (15 U.S.C. 272 note).</P>
        <HD SOURCE="HD1">VIII. Congressional Review Act</HD>
        <P>The Congressional Review Act, 5 U.S.C. 801<E T="03">et seq.,</E>generally provides that before a rule may take effect, the agency promulgating the rule must submit a rule report to each House of the Congress and to the Comptroller General of the United States. EPA will submit a report containing this rule and other required information to the U.S. Senate, the U.S. House of Representatives, and the Comptroller General of the United States prior to publication of this final rule in the<E T="04">Federal Register</E>. This final rule is not a “major rule” as defined by 5 U.S.C. 804(2).</P>
        <LSTSUB>
          <HD SOURCE="HED">List of Subjects in 40 CFR Part 180</HD>
          <P>Environmental protection, Administrative practice and procedure, Agricultural commodities, Pesticides and pests, Reporting and recordkeeping requirements.</P>
        </LSTSUB>
        <SIG>
          <DATED>Dated: May 18, 2011.</DATED>
          <NAME>Lois Rossi,</NAME>
          <TITLE>Director, Registration Division, Office of Pesticide Programs.</TITLE>
        </SIG>
        
        <P>Therefore, 40 CFR chapter I is amended as follows:</P>
        <REGTEXT PART="180" TITLE="40">
          <PART>
            <HD SOURCE="HED">PART 180—[AMENDED]</HD>
          </PART>
          <AMDPAR>1. The authority citation for part 180 continues to read as follows:</AMDPAR>
          <AUTH>
            <HD SOURCE="HED">Authority:</HD>
            <P>21 U.S.C. 321(q), 346a and 371.</P>
          </AUTH>
        </REGTEXT>
        
        <REGTEXT PART="180" TITLE="40">
          <AMDPAR>2. In § 180.910, the table is amended by adding alphabetically the following inert ingredient to read as follows:</AMDPAR>
          <SECTION>
            <PRTPAGE P="31479"/>
            <SECTNO>§ 180.910</SECTNO>
            <SUBJECT>Inert ingredients used pre- and post-harvest; exemptions from the requirement of a tolerance.</SUBJECT>
            <STARS/>
            <GPOTABLE CDEF="s150,r80,r200" COLS="3" OPTS="L1,tp0,i1">
              <TTITLE/>
              <BOXHD>
                <CHED H="1">Inert ingredients</CHED>
                <CHED H="1">Limits</CHED>
                <CHED H="1">Uses</CHED>
              </BOXHD>
              <ROW>
                <ENT I="22"/>
              </ROW>
              <ROW>
                <ENT I="28">*******</ENT>
              </ROW>
              <ROW>
                <ENT I="01">Ethylene glycol (CAS Reg. No. 107-21-1)</ENT>
                <ENT>Without limitation</ENT>
                <ENT>Encapsulating agent for pesticides being applied post-harvest as residual, and crack and crevice sprays in and around food and nonfood areas of residential and nonresidential structures, including food handling establishments.</ENT>
              </ROW>
              <ROW>
                <ENT I="22"/>
              </ROW>
              <ROW>
                <ENT I="28">*******</ENT>
              </ROW>
            </GPOTABLE>
          </SECTION>
          <AMDPAR>3. In § 180.920, the table is amended by adding alphabetically the following inert ingredient to read as follows:</AMDPAR>
          <SECTION>
            <SECTNO>§ 180.920</SECTNO>
            <SUBJECT>Inert ingredients used pre-harvest; exemptions from the requirement of a tolerance.</SUBJECT>
            <STARS/>
            <GPOTABLE CDEF="s160,r80,r200" COLS="3" OPTS="L1,tp0,i1">
              <TTITLE/>
              <BOXHD>
                <CHED H="1">Inert ingredients</CHED>
                <CHED H="1">Limits</CHED>
                <CHED H="1">Uses</CHED>
              </BOXHD>
              <ROW>
                <ENT I="22"/>
              </ROW>
              <ROW>
                <ENT I="28">*******</ENT>
              </ROW>
              <ROW>
                <ENT I="01">Ethylene glycol (CAS Reg. No. 107-21-1)</ENT>
                <ENT>Without limitation</ENT>
                <ENT>Pesticide inert ingredient as a solvent, stabilizer and/or antifreeze.</ENT>
              </ROW>
              <ROW>
                <ENT I="22"/>
              </ROW>
              <ROW>
                <ENT I="28">*******</ENT>
              </ROW>
            </GPOTABLE>
          </SECTION>
        </REGTEXT>
      </SUPLINF>
      <FRDOC>[FR Doc. 2011-13577 Filed 5-31-11; 8:45 am]</FRDOC>
      <BILCOD>BILLING CODE 6560-50-P</BILCOD>
    </RULE>
    <RULE>
      <PREAMB>
        <AGENCY TYPE="S">ENVIRONMENTAL PROTECTION AGENCY</AGENCY>
        <CFR>40 CFR Part 180</CFR>
        <DEPDOC>[EPA-HQ-OPP-2010-0426; FRL-8873-5]</DEPDOC>
        <SUBJECT>Pyraflufen-ethyl; Pesticide Tolerances</SUBJECT>
        <AGY>
          <HD SOURCE="HED">AGENCY:</HD>
          <P>Environmental Protection Agency (EPA).</P>
        </AGY>
        <ACT>
          <HD SOURCE="HED">ACTION:</HD>
          <P>Final rule.</P>
        </ACT>
        <SUM>
          <HD SOURCE="HED">SUMMARY:</HD>
          <P>This regulation establishes tolerances for residues of pyraflufen-ethyl in or on multiple commodities which are identified and discussed later in this document. Nichino America, Inc., requested these tolerances under the Federal Food, Drug, and Cosmetic Act (FFDCA).</P>
        </SUM>
        <DATES>
          <HD SOURCE="HED">DATES:</HD>

          <P>This regulation is effective June 1, 2011. Objections and requests for hearings must be received on or before August 1, 2011, and must be filed in accordance with the instructions provided in 40 CFR part 178 (see also Unit I.C. of the<E T="02">SUPPLEMENTARY INFORMATION</E>).</P>
        </DATES>
        <ADD>
          <HD SOURCE="HED">ADDRESSES:</HD>

          <P>EPA has established a docket for this action under docket identification (ID) number EPA-HQ-OPP-2010-0426. All documents in the docket are listed in the docket index available at<E T="03">http://www.regulations.gov.</E>Although listed in the index, some information is not publicly available, e.g., Confidential Business Information (CBI) or other information whose disclosure is restricted by statute. Certain other material, such as copyrighted material, is not placed on the Internet and will be publicly available only in hard copy form. Publicly available docket materials are available in the electronic docket at<E T="03">http://www.regulations.gov,</E>or, if only available in hard copy, at the OPP Regulatory Public Docket in Rm. S-4400, One Potomac Yard (South Bldg.), 2777 S. Crystal Dr., Arlington, VA. The Docket Facility is open from 8:30 a.m. to 4 p.m., Monday through Friday, excluding legal holidays. The Docket Facility telephone number is (703) 305-5805.</P>
        </ADD>
        <FURINF>
          <HD SOURCE="HED">FOR FURTHER INFORMATION CONTACT:</HD>

          <P>Kathryn V. Montague, Registration Division (7505P), Office of Pesticide Programs, Environmental Protection Agency, 1200 Pennsylvania Ave., NW., Washington, DC 20460-0001; telephone number: (703) 305-1243; e-mail address:<E T="03">montague.kathryn@epa.gov.</E>
          </P>
        </FURINF>
      </PREAMB>
      <SUPLINF>
        <HD SOURCE="HED">SUPPLEMENTARY INFORMATION:</HD>
        <HD SOURCE="HD1">I. General Information</HD>
        <HD SOURCE="HD2">A. Does this action apply to me?</HD>
        <P>You may be potentially affected by this action if you are an agricultural producer, food manufacturer, or pesticide manufacturer. Potentially affected entities may include, but are not limited to those engaged in the following activities:</P>
        <P>• Crop production (NAICS code 111).</P>
        <P>• Animal production (NAICS code 112).</P>
        <P>• Food manufacturing (NAICS code 311).</P>
        <P>• Pesticide manufacturing (NAICS code 32532).</P>

        <P>This listing is not intended to be exhaustive, but rather to provide a guide for readers regarding entities likely to be affected by this action. Other types of entities not listed in this unit could also be affected. The North American Industrial Classification System (NAICS) codes have been provided to assist you and others in determining whether this action might apply to certain entities. If you have any questions regarding the applicability of this action to a particular entity, consult the person listed under<E T="02">FOR FURTHER INFORMATION CONTACT</E>.</P>
        <HD SOURCE="HD2">B. How can I get electronic access to other related information?</HD>

        <P>You may access a frequently updated electronic version of EPA's tolerance regulations at 40 CFR part 180 through the Government Printing Office's e-CFR site at<E T="03">http://www.gpoaccess.gov/ecfr.</E>
        </P>
        <HD SOURCE="HD2">C. How can I file an objection or hearing request?</HD>

        <P>Under FFDCA section 408(g), 21 U.S.C. 346a, any person may file an<PRTPAGE P="31480"/>objection to any aspect of this regulation and may also request a hearing on those objections. You must file your objection or request a hearing on this regulation in accordance with the instructions provided in 40 CFR part 178. To ensure proper receipt by EPA, you must identify docket ID number EPA-HQ-OPP-2010-0426 in the subject line on the first page of your submission. All objections and requests for a hearing must be in writing, and must be received by the Hearing Clerk on or before August 1, 2011<E T="03">.</E>Addresses for mail and hand delivery of objections and hearing requests are provided in 40 CFR 178.25(b).</P>
        <P>In addition to filing an objection or hearing request with the Hearing Clerk as described in 40 CFR part 178, please submit a copy of the filing that does not contain any CBI for inclusion in the public docket. Information not marked confidential pursuant to 40 CFR part 2 may be disclosed publicly by EPA without prior notice. Submit a copy of your non-CBI objection or hearing request, identified by docket ID number EPA-HQ-OPP-2010-0426, by one of the following methods:</P>
        <P>•<E T="03">Federal eRulemaking Portal: http://www.regulations.gov.</E>Follow the on-line instructions for submitting comments.</P>
        <P>•<E T="03">Mail:</E>Office of Pesticide Programs (OPP) Regulatory Public Docket (7502P), Environmental Protection Agency, 1200 Pennsylvania Ave., NW., Washington, DC 20460-0001.</P>
        <P>•<E T="03">Delivery:</E>OPP Regulatory Public Docket (7502P), Environmental Protection Agency, Rm. S-4400, One Potomac Yard (South Bldg.), 2777 S. Crystal Dr., Arlington, VA. Deliveries are only accepted during the Docket Facility's normal hours of operation (8:30 a.m. to 4 p.m., Monday through Friday, excluding legal holidays). Special arrangements should be made for deliveries of boxed information. The Docket Facility telephone number is (703) 305-5805.</P>
        <HD SOURCE="HD1">II. Summary of Petitioned-For Tolerance</HD>
        <P>In the<E T="04">Federal Register</E>of June 23, 2010 (75 FR 35801) (FRL-8831-3), EPA issued a notice pursuant to section 408(d)(3) of FFDCA, 21 U.S.C. 346a(d)(3), announcing the filing of a pesticide petition (PP 0F7718) by Nichino America, Inc., 4550 New Linden Hill Road, Suite 501, Wilmington, DE 19808. The petition requested that 40 CFR 180.585 be amended by establishing tolerances for residues of the herbicide, pyraflufen-ethyl, ethyl 2-chloro-5-(4-chloro-5-difluoromethoxy-1-methyl-1<E T="03">H</E>-pyrazol-3-yl)-4-fluorophenoxyacetate and its acid metabolite,<E T="03">E</E>-1, 2-chloro-5-(4-chloro-5-difluoromethoxy-1-methyl-1<E T="03">H</E>-pyrazol-3-yl)-4-fluorophenoxyacetic acid, expressed in terms of the parent, in or on almond hulls at 0.02 parts per million (ppm); nuts, tree, group 14 at 0.01 ppm; pistachio at 0.01 ppm; fruit, pome, group 11 at 0.01 ppm; fruit, stone, group 12 at 0.01 ppm; pomegranates at 0.01 ppm; olives at 0.01 ppm; grapes at 0.01 ppm, and hops at 0.05 ppm. The notice referenced a summary of the petition prepared by Nichino America, Inc., the registrant, which is available in the docket,<E T="03">http://www.regulations.gov.</E>There were no comments received in response to the notice of filing.</P>
        <P>Based upon review of the data supporting the petition, EPA is not establishing, at this time, the requested hop tolerance due to the lack of field trial information for the hop study. EPA is updating the proposed crop commodities terminology. The reason for the changes is explained in Unit IV.D.</P>
        <HD SOURCE="HD1">III. Aggregate Risk Assessment and Determination of Safety</HD>
        <P>Section 408(b)(2)(A)(i) of FFDCA allows EPA to establish a tolerance (the legal limit for a pesticide chemical residue in or on a food) only if EPA determines that the tolerance is “safe.” Section 408(b)(2)(A)(ii) of FFDCA defines “safe” to mean that “there is a reasonable certainty that no harm will result from aggregate exposure to the pesticide chemical residue, including all anticipated dietary exposures and all other exposures for which there is reliable information.” This includes exposure through drinking water and in residential settings, but does not include occupational exposure. Section 408(b)(2)(C) of FFDCA requires EPA to give special consideration to exposure of infants and children to the pesticide chemical residue in establishing a tolerance and to “ensure that there is a reasonable certainty that no harm will result to infants and children from aggregate exposure to the pesticide chemical residue * * *”</P>
        <P>Consistent with section 408(b)(2)(D) of FFDCA, and the factors specified in section 408(b)(2)(D) of FFDCA, EPA has reviewed the available scientific data and other relevant information in support of this action. EPA has sufficient data to assess the hazards of and to make a determination on aggregate exposure for pyraflufen-ethyl including exposure resulting from the tolerances established by this action. EPA's assessment of exposures and risks associated with pyraflufen-ethyl follows:</P>
        <HD SOURCE="HD2">A. Toxicological Profile</HD>
        <P>EPA has evaluated the available toxicity data and considered its validity, completeness, and reliability as well as the relationship of the results of the studies to human risk. EPA has also considered available information concerning the variability of the sensitivities of major identifiable subgroups of consumers, including infants and children.</P>
        <P>Pyraflufen-ethyl has low to moderate toxicity from acute exposure and it is not a dermal sensitizer. The liver, kidney, and possibly the hematopoietic system are the target organs for pyraflufen-ethyl in the rat and/or the mouse. There is no evidence of increased sensitivity to the young in developmental and reproductive studies with pyraflufen-ethyl. Pyraflufen-ethyl was not shown to be mutagenic in a battery of tests. Pyraflufen-ethyl was classified as “Likely to be Carcinogenic to Humans” based on male mouse hepatocellular adenomas, carcinomas and/or hepatoblastomas (combined) observed in the mouse carcinogenicity study. The method of quantification was linear cancer slope factor (Q*).</P>

        <P>Specific information on the studies received and the nature of the adverse effects caused by pyraflufen-ethyl as well as the no-observed-adverse-effect-level (NOAEL) and the lowest-observed-adverse-effect-level (LOAEL) from the toxicity studies can be found at<E T="03">http://www.regulations.gov</E>in the document “Pyraflufen-ethyl: Human Health Risk Assessment for a Section 3 Registration of New Food Uses on Tree Nuts (Crop Group 14), Pistachios, Pome Fruit (Crop Group 11-10), And Stone Fruits (Crop Group 12), Hops, Grapes, Olives And Pomegranates,” at page 17 in docket ID number EPA-HQ-OPP-2010-0426.</P>
        <HD SOURCE="HD2">B. Toxicological Points of Departure/Levels of Concern</HD>

        <P>Once a pesticide's toxicological profile is determined, EPA identifies toxicological points of departure (POD) and levels of concern to use in evaluating the risk posed by human exposure to the pesticides. For hazards that have a threshold below which there is no appreciable risk, the toxicological POD is used as the basis for derivation of reference values for risk assessment. PODs are developed based on a careful analysis of the doses in each toxicological study to determine the dose at which no adverse effects are observed (the NOAEL) and the lowest dose at which adverse effects of concern are identified (the LOAEL). Uncertainty/safety factors are used in conjunction with the POD to calculate a safe<PRTPAGE P="31481"/>exposure level—generally referred to as a population-adjusted dose (PAD) or a reference dose (RfD)—and a safe margin of exposure (MOE). For non-threshold risks, the Agency assumes that any amount of exposure will lead to some degree of risk. Thus, the Agency estimates risk in terms of the probability of an occurrence of the adverse effect expected in a lifetime. For more information on the general principles EPA uses in risk characterization and a complete description of the risk assessment process, see<E T="03">http://www.epa.gov/pesticides/factsheets/riskassess.htm.</E>
        </P>
        <P>A summary of the toxicological endpoints for Pyraflufen-ethyl used for human risk assessment is shown in the following Table.</P>
        <GPOTABLE CDEF="s125,r80,r80,r125" COLS="4" OPTS="L2,i1">
          <TTITLE>Table—Summary of Toxicological Doses and Endpoints for Pyraflufen-Ethyl for Use in Human Health Risk Assessments</TTITLE>
          <BOXHD>
            <CHED H="1">Exposure/scenario</CHED>
            <CHED H="1">Point of departure and<LI>uncertainty/safety factors</LI>
            </CHED>
            <CHED H="1">RfD, PAD, LOC for risk assessment</CHED>
            <CHED H="1">Study and toxicological effects</CHED>
          </BOXHD>
          <ROW>
            <ENT I="01">Acute dietary (General population including infants and children)</ENT>
            <ENT>None</ENT>
            <ENT>None</ENT>
            <ENT>An endpoint attributable to a single dose was not identified from the available data.</ENT>
          </ROW>
          <ROW>
            <ENT I="01">Chronic dietary (All populations)</ENT>
            <ENT>NOAEL = 20 mg/kg/day<LI O="xl">UF<E T="52">A</E>= 10x</LI>
              <LI O="xl">UF<E T="52">H</E>= 10x</LI>
              <LI O="xl">FQPA SF = 1x</LI>
            </ENT>
            <ENT>Chronic RfD = 0.20 mg/kg/day<LI O="xl">cPAD = 0.2 mg/kg/day</LI>
            </ENT>
            <ENT>Mouse Carcinogenicity LOAEL = 98 mg/kg/day based on liver toxicity.</ENT>
          </ROW>
          <ROW>
            <ENT I="01">Incidental oral short-term (1 to 30 days)</ENT>
            <ENT>NOAEL = 20 mg/kg/day<LI O="xl">UF<E T="52">A</E>= 10x</LI>
              <LI O="xl">UF<E T="52">H</E>= 10x</LI>
              <LI O="xl">FQPA SF = 1x</LI>
            </ENT>
            <ENT>LOC for MOE = 100</ENT>
            <ENT>Developmental Toxicity-Rabbit LOAEL = 60 mg/kg/day based on decreases in body weight and food consumption, GI observations, and abortions.</ENT>
          </ROW>
          <ROW>
            <ENT I="01">Incidental oral intermediate-term (1 to 6 months)</ENT>
            <ENT>NOAEL = 20 mg/kg/day<LI O="xl">UF<E T="52">A</E>= 10x</LI>
              <LI O="xl">UF<E T="52">H</E>= 10x</LI>
              <LI O="xl">FQPA SF = 1x</LI>
            </ENT>
            <ENT>LOC for MOE = 100</ENT>
            <ENT>Mouse Carcinogenicity LOAEL = 98 mg/kg/day based on liver toxicity at interim sacrifice.</ENT>
          </ROW>
          <ROW>
            <ENT I="01">Dermal (All Durations)</ENT>
            <ENT>None</ENT>
            <ENT>None</ENT>
            <ENT>In a 28-day dermal toxicity study in rats, no dermal or systemic toxicity was seen at the Limit Dose (1,000 mg/kg/day).</ENT>
          </ROW>
          <ROW RUL="n,s">
            <ENT I="01">Inhalation (All Durations)</ENT>
            <ENT>Maternal NOAEL= 20 mg/kg/day<LI O="xl">UF<E T="52">A</E>= 10x</LI>
              <LI O="xl">UF<E T="52">H</E>= 10x</LI>
              <LI O="xl">FQPA SF = 1x</LI>
            </ENT>
            <ENT>LOC for MOE (residential) = 100</ENT>
            <ENT>Developmental Toxicity-Rabbit LOAEL = 60 mg/kg/day based on decreases in body weight and food consumption, GI observations, and abortions.</ENT>
          </ROW>
          <ROW>
            <ENT I="01">Cancer (Oral, dermal, inhalation)</ENT>
            <ENT A="L02">Classification: “Likely to be Carcinogenic to Humans” by the oral route. Q<E T="52">1</E>* = 3.32 x 10<E T="51">−2</E>(mg/kg/day)<E T="51">−1</E>
            </ENT>
          </ROW>
          <TNOTE>GI = gastrointestinal. UF<E T="52">A</E>= extrapolation from animal to human (interspecies). UF<E T="52">H</E>= potential variation in sensitivity among members of the human population (intraspecies). FQPA SF = Food Quality Protection Act Safety Factor. PAD = population adjusted dose (a = acute, c = chronic). RfD = reference dose. LOC = level of concern. Mg/Kg/Day = milligram/kilogram/day.</TNOTE>
        </GPOTABLE>
        <HD SOURCE="HD2">C. Exposure Assessment</HD>
        <P>1.<E T="03">Dietary exposure from food and feed uses.</E>In evaluating dietary exposure to pyraflufen-ethyl, EPA considered exposure under the petitioned-for tolerances as well as all existing pyraflufen-ethyl tolerances in 40 CFR 180.585. EPA assessed dietary exposures from pyraflufen-ethyl in food as follows:</P>
        <P>i.<E T="03">Acute exposure.</E>Quantitative acute dietary exposure and risk assessments are performed for a food-use pesticide, if a toxicological study has indicated the possibility of an effect of concern occurring as a result of a 1-day or single exposure.</P>
        <P>No such effects were identified in the toxicological studies for pyraflufen-ethyl; therefore, a quantitative acute dietary exposure assessment is unnecessary.</P>
        <P>ii.<E T="03">Chronic exposure.</E>In conducting the chronic dietary exposure assessment EPA used the following assumptions: 100 percent crop treated (PCT) and tolerance-level residues for pyraflufen-ethyl on all treated crops except corn, cottonseed, potato, soybean, wheat, pome fruit, stone fruit, pomegranate, olive, grape, tree nuts and pistachio for which one half of the combined Levels of Quantification (LOQs) for the parent and the metabolite were used since all field trial residue levels were less than the LOQ.</P>
        <P>iii.<E T="03">Cancer.</E>EPA determines whether quantitative cancer exposure and risk assessments are appropriate for a food-use pesticide based on the weight of the evidence from cancer studies and other relevant data. If quantitative cancer risk assessment is appropriate, cancer risk may be quantified using a linear or nonlinear approach. If sufficient information on the carcinogenic mode of action is available, a threshold or non-linear approach is used and a cancer RfD is calculated based on an earlier noncancer key event. If carcinogenic mode of action data are not available, or if the mode of action data determines a mutagenic mode of action, a default linear cancer slope factor approach is utilized. Based on the data summarized in Unit III.A., EPA has concluded that pyraflufen-ethyl should be classified as “Likely to be Carcinogenic to Humans” and a linear approach has been used to quantify cancer risk.</P>
        <P>In conducting the cancer dietary exposure assessment EPA used the same food consumption data from the U.S. Department of Agriculture (USDA) and assumptions for residue levels in food as the chronic exposure in Unit III. C. 1. ii., above.</P>
        <P>2.<E T="03">Dietary exposure from drinking water.</E>The Agency used screening level water exposure models in the dietary exposure analysis and risk assessment for pyraflufen-ethyl in drinking water. These simulation models take into account data on the physical, chemical, and fate/transport characteristics of pyraflufen-ethyl. Further information<PRTPAGE P="31482"/>regarding EPA drinking water models used in pesticide exposure assessment can be found at<E T="03">http://www.epa.gov/oppefed1/models/water/index.htm.</E>
        </P>
        <P>Based on the First Index Reservoir Screening Tool (FIRST), Pesticide Root Zone Model/Exposure Analysis Modeling System (PRZM/EXAMS) and Screening Concentration in Ground Water (SCI-GROW) models, the estimated drinking water concentrations (EDWCs) of pyraflufen-ethyl for acute exposures are estimated to be 1,247 parts per trillion (ppt) for surface water and 1.8 ppt for ground water and for chronic exposures for non-cancer and cancer assessments, the EDWCs are estimated to be 281 ppt for surface water and 1.8 ppt for ground water.</P>
        <P>Modeled estimates of drinking water concentrations were directly entered into the dietary exposure model. For chronic and cancer dietary risk assessment, the water concentration of value 281 ppt was used to assess the contribution to drinking water.</P>
        <P>3.<E T="03">From non-dietary exposure.</E>The term “residential exposure” is used in this document to refer to non-occupational, non-dietary exposure (<E T="03">e.g.,</E>for lawn and garden pest control, indoor pest control, termiticides, and flea and tick control on pets).</P>
        <P>Pyraflufen-ethyl is currently registered on the following residential sites that could result in residential exposures: Airports, nurseries, ornamental turf, golf courses, roadsides, railroads, non-crop land, and uncultivated agricultural areas. The risk assessment was conducted using the following residential exposure assumptions: Adults and children may be exposed to residues of pyraflufen-ethyl through short term post application contact with treated residential/recreational areas and residential handlers mixing, loading and applying liquid pyraflufen-ethyl in these areas.</P>

        <P>Further information regarding EPA standard assumptions and generic inputs for residential exposures may be found at<E T="03">http://www.epa.gov/pesticides/trac/science/trac6a05.pdf.</E>
        </P>
        <P>4.<E T="03">Cumulative effects from substances with a common mechanism of toxicity.</E>Section 408(b)(2)(D)(v) of FFDCA requires that, when considering whether to establish, modify, or revoke a tolerance, the Agency consider “available information” concerning the cumulative effects of a particular pesticide's residues and “other substances that have a common mechanism of toxicity.”</P>

        <P>EPA has not found pyraflufen-ethyl to share a common mechanism of toxicity with any other substances, and pyraflufen-ethyl does not appear to produce a toxic metabolite produced by other substances. For the purposes of this tolerance action, therefore, EPA has assumed that pyraflufen-ethyl does not have a common mechanism of toxicity with other substances. For information regarding EPA's efforts to determine which chemicals have a common mechanism of toxicity and to evaluate the cumulative effects of such chemicals, see EPA's Web site at<E T="03">http://www.epa.gov/pesticides/cumulative.</E>
        </P>
        <HD SOURCE="HD2">D. Safety Factor for Infants and Children</HD>
        <P>1.<E T="03">In general.</E>Section 408(b)(2)(C) of FFDCA provides that EPA shall apply an additional tenfold (10X) margin of safety for infants and children in the case of threshold effects to account for prenatal and postnatal toxicity and the completeness of the database on toxicity and exposure unless EPA determines based on reliable data that a different margin of safety will be safe for infants and children. This additional margin of safety is commonly referred to as the FQPA Safety Factor (SF). In applying this provision, EPA either retains the default value of 10X, or uses a different additional safety factor when reliable data available to EPA support the choice of a different factor.</P>
        <P>2.<E T="03">Prenatal and postnatal sensitivity.</E>There is no evidence of increased susceptibility of rat or rabbit fetuses following<E T="03">in utero</E>exposure in the developmental studies with pyraflufen-ethyl. There is no evidence of increased susceptibility of young rats in the reproduction study with pyraflufen-ethyl. EPA concluded there are no residual uncertainties for prenatal and/or postnatal exposure.</P>
        <P>3.<E T="03">Conclusion.</E>EPA has determined that reliable data show the safety of infants and children would be adequately protected if the FQPA SF were reduced to 1X. That decision is based on the following findings:</P>
        <P>i. The toxicity database for pyraflufen-ethyl is complete except for a 28-day inhalation study, acute and subchronic neurotoxicity studies and immunotoxicity study which are now included under 40 CFR 158.500 as part of the toxicology data requirements for registration of a pesticide (food and non-food uses).</P>
        <P>In the absence of a route specific inhalation toxicity study, a point of departure (POD) for inhalation exposure risk assessment has been extrapolated from an oral study. EPA does not believe the aggregate risk assessment is under-protective of adult handlers. Residential handler MOEs based on the extrapolated endpoint are quite high (greater than 35 million), and the contribution of residential exposure to aggregate risk is small. Therefore, even if an inhalation study were to provide a lower POD than the oral study, it's not expected to have a significant impact on aggregate risk.</P>
        <P>ii. Pyraflufen-ethyl primarily impacts the parameters of food consumption, decreased body weight, and histopathological changes in the liver. There is no evidence that pyraflufen-ethyl causes neurotoxic effects in any of the available toxicity studies. Evidence of immunotoxic potential is limited to an adverse effect on the spleen reported in one study at a dose level (1,489 mg/kg/day) which is above the limit dose, and also caused death. EPA does not believe that conducting immunotoxicity and acute/subchronic neurotoxicity testing will result in a NOAEL less than 20 mg/kg/day, which is presently used as the POD for chronic risk assessment.</P>

        <P>iii. There is no evidence that pyraflufen-ethyl results in increased susceptibility in<E T="03">in utero</E>rats or rabbits in the prenatal developmental studies or in young rats in the 2-generation reproduction study.</P>
        <P>iv. There are no residual uncertainties identified in the exposure databases. The dietary food exposure assessments were performed based on 100% of the crop treated and a conservative estimate of residues in food. EPA made conservative (protective) assumptions in the ground and surface water modeling used to assess exposure to pyraflufen-ethyl in drinking water. EPA used similarly conservative assumptions to assess postapplication exposure of children as well as incidental oral exposure of toddlers. These assessments will not underestimate the exposure and risks posed by pyraflufen-ethyl.</P>
        <HD SOURCE="HD2">E. Aggregate Risks and Determination of Safety</HD>
        <P>EPA determines whether acute and chronic dietary pesticide exposures are safe by comparing aggregate exposure estimates to the acute PAD (aPAD) and chronic PAD (cPAD). For linear cancer risks, EPA calculates the lifetime probability of acquiring cancer given the estimated aggregate exposure. Short-, intermediate-, and chronic-term risks are evaluated by comparing the estimated aggregate food, water, and residential exposure to the appropriate PODs to ensure that an adequate MOE exists.</P>
        <P>1.<E T="03">Acute risk.</E>An acute aggregate risk assessment takes into account acute exposure estimates from dietary consumption of food and drinking water. No adverse effect resulting from a single oral exposure was identified<PRTPAGE P="31483"/>and no acute dietary endpoint was selected. Therefore, pyraflufen-ethyl is not expected to pose an acute risk.</P>
        <P>2.<E T="03">Chronic risk.</E>Using the exposure assumptions described in this unit for chronic exposure, EPA has concluded that chronic exposure to pyraflufen-ethyl from food and water will utilize less than 1% of the cPAD for all population groups. Based on the explanation in Unit III.C.3., regarding residential use patterns, chronic residential exposure to residues of pyraflufen-ethyl is not expected.</P>
        <P>3.<E T="03">Short-term risk.</E>Short-term aggregate exposure takes into account short-term residential exposure plus chronic exposure to food and water (considered to be a background exposure level). Pyraflufen-ethyl is currently registered for uses that could result in short-term residential exposure, and the Agency has determined that it is appropriate to aggregate chronic exposure through food and water with short-term residential exposures to pyraflufen-ethyl.</P>
        <P>A short-term aggregate risk assessment was performed for residential handler exposure, children's incidental post-application oral exposure (from residential treatment) and dietary exposure to food and water (considered to be a background exposure level). The anticipated exposure level for children ages 1-2 years old (the highest exposed population) is below EPA's level of concern, with a MOE greater than 60,000.</P>
        <P>4.<E T="03">Intermediate-term risk.</E>Intermediate-term aggregate exposure takes into account intermediate-term residential exposure plus chronic exposure to food and water (considered to be a background exposure level).</P>
        <P>Pyraflufen-ethyl is not registered for any use patterns that would result in intermediate-term residential exposure. No residential handler exposure is expected and post application inhalation exposure is expected to be negligible. Post application exposure to infants and children over the intermediate term duration (1-6 months) is not likely based on the use pattern. Therefore, the intermediate-term aggregate risk is the sum of the risk from exposure to pyraflufen-ethyl through food and water, which has already been addressed, and will not be greater than the chronic aggregate risk.</P>
        <P>5.<E T="03">Aggregate cancer risk for U.S. population.</E>The aggregate cancer risk assessment for the general population takes into account exposure estimates from dietary consumption of pyraflufen-ethyl from food and drinking water sources. Average food plus water source dietary exposure was used. Estimated cancer risk for the U.S. population includes infants and children. The aggregate cancer risk estimate for pyraflufen-ethyl is 2.8 × 10<E T="51">−6</E>. This risk estimate is based, in part, on the conservative assumption that 100% of all crops for which pyraflufen-ethyl is registered or proposed for registration are treated. Additional refinement using PCT estimates would result in a lower estimate of cancer risk.</P>

        <P>EPA generally considers cancer risks in the range of one in one million (1 × 10<E T="51">−6</E>) or less to be negligible. The precision which can be assumed for cancer risk estimates is best described by rounding to the nearest integral order of magnitude on the log scale; for example, risks falling between 3 × 10<E T="51">−7</E>and 3 × 10<E T="51">−6</E>are expressed as risks in the range of 10<E T="51">−6</E>. Considering the precision with which cancer hazard can be estimated, the conservativeness of low-dose linear extrapolation, and the rounding procedure described above, cancer risk should generally not be assumed to exceed the benchmark level of concern of the range of 10<E T="51">−6</E>until the calculated risk exceeds approximately 3 × 10<E T="51">−6</E>. This is particularly the case where some conservatism is maintained in the exposure assessment. Although the pyraflufen-ethyl exposure risk assessment is somewhat refined, it retains significant conservatism due, among other things, to the assumption that 100 percent of registered crops are treated. Accordingly, EPA has concluded the cancer risk for all existing pyraflufen-ethyl uses and the uses associated with the tolerances established in this action fall within the range of 1 × 10<E T="51">−6</E>and are thus negligible.</P>
        <P>6.<E T="03">Determination of safety.</E>Based on these risk assessments, EPA concludes that there is a reasonable certainty that no harm will result to the general population, or to infants and children from aggregate exposure to pyraflufen-ethyl residues.</P>
        <HD SOURCE="HD1">IV. Other Considerations</HD>
        <HD SOURCE="HD2">A. Analytical Enforcement Methodology</HD>

        <P>Adequate enforcement methodology (Gas Chromatography with Mass Spectrometry (GC/MS)) is available to enforce the tolerance expression. The method may be requested from: Chief, Analytical Chemistry Branch, Environmental Science Center, 701 Mapes Rd., Ft. Meade, MD 20755-5350; telephone number: (410) 305-2905; e-mail address:<E T="03">residuemethods@epa.gov.</E>
        </P>
        <HD SOURCE="HD2">B. International Residue Limits</HD>
        <P>In making its tolerance decisions, EPA seeks to harmonize U.S. tolerances with international standards whenever possible, consistent with U.S. food safety standards and agricultural practices. EPA considers the international maximum residue limits (MRLs) established by the Codex Alimentarius Commission (Codex), as required by FFDCA section 408(b)(4). The Codex Alimentarius is a joint U.N. Food and Agriculture Organization/World Health Organization food standards program, and it is recognized as an international food safety standards-setting organization in trade agreements to which the United States is a party. EPA may establish a tolerance that is different from a Codex MRL; however, FFDCA section 408(b)(4) requires that EPA explain the reasons for departing from the Codex level.</P>
        <P>The Codex has not established a MRL for pyraflufen-ethyl. Canada has not established MRLs for the proposed use sites for pyraflufen-ethyl.</P>
        <HD SOURCE="HD2">C. Revisions to Petitioned-for Tolerances</HD>
        <P>In the<E T="04">Federal Register</E>of December 8, 2010 (75 FR 76284) (FRL-8853-8), EPA issued a final rule that revised the crop grouping regulations. As part of this action, EPA expanded and revised the existing pome fruit group 11. Changes to crop group 11 included adding azarole; medlar; Asian pear; Chinese quince; Japanese quince; and tejocote; creating subgroups; revising the representative commodities; and naming the new crop group, Pome Fruit Group 11-10. Therefore, consistent with this rule, EPA is establishing tolerances for pyraflufen-ethyl residues on Pome Fruit Group 11-10 instead of the requested Pome Fruit Group 11 and is correcting the crops proposed in the Notice of Filing to the crop commodities specified in 40 CFR 180.41: grape; nut, tree, group 14; olive and pomegranate.</P>
        <HD SOURCE="HD1">V. Conclusion</HD>
        <P>Therefore, previously established tolerances are amended and new tolerances are established for residues of pyraflufen-ethyl, including its metabolites and degradates, as set forth in the regulatory text.</P>
        <HD SOURCE="HD1">VI. Statutory and Executive Order Reviews</HD>

        <P>This final rule establishes tolerances under section 408(d) of FFDCA in response to a petition submitted to the Agency. The Office of Management and Budget (OMB) has exempted these types of actions from review under Executive Order 12866, entitled<E T="03">Regulatory Planning and Review</E>(58 FR 51735,<PRTPAGE P="31484"/>October 4, 1993). Because this final rule has been exempted from review under Executive Order 12866, this final rule is not subject to Executive Order 13211, entitled<E T="03">Actions Concerning Regulations That Significantly Affect Energy Supply, Distribution, or Use</E>(66 FR 28355, May 22, 2001) or Executive Order 13045, entitled<E T="03">Protection of Children from Environmental Health Risks and Safety Risks</E>(62 FR 19885, April 23, 1997). This final rule does not contain any information collections subject to OMB approval under the Paperwork Reduction Act, 44 U.S.C. 3501<E T="03">et seq.,</E>nor does it require any special considerations under Executive Order 12898, entitled<E T="03">Federal Actions to Address Environmental Justice in Minority Populations and Low-Income Populations</E>(59 FR 7629, February 16, 1994).</P>

        <P>Since tolerances and exemptions that are established on the basis of a petition under section 408(d) of FFDCA, such as the tolerance in this final rule, do not require the issuance of a proposed rule, the requirements of the Regulatory Flexibility Act (RFA) (5 U.S.C. 601<E T="03">et seq.</E>) do not apply.</P>

        <P>This final rule directly regulates growers, food processors, food handlers, and food retailers, not States or tribes, nor does this action alter the relationships or distribution of power and responsibilities established by Congress in the preemption provisions of section 408(n)(4) of FFDCA. As such, the Agency has determined that this action will not have a substantial direct effect on States or tribal governments, on the relationship between the national government and the States or tribal governments, or on the distribution of power and responsibilities among the various levels of government or between the Federal Government and Indian tribes. Thus, the Agency has determined that Executive Order 13132, entitled<E T="03">Federalism</E>(64 FR 43255, August 10, 1999) and Executive Order 13175, entitled<E T="03">Consultation and Coordination with Indian Tribal Governments</E>(65 FR 67249, November 9, 2000) do not apply to this final rule. In addition, this final rule does not impose any enforceable duty or contain any unfunded mandate as described under Title II of the Unfunded Mandates Reform Act of 1995 (Pub. L. 104-4).</P>
        <P>This action does not involve any technical standards that would require Agency consideration of voluntary consensus standards pursuant to section 12(d) of the National Technology Transfer and Advancement Act of 1995, Public Law 104-113, section 12(d) (15 U.S.C. 272 note).</P>
        <HD SOURCE="HD1">VII. Congressional Review Act</HD>
        <P>The Congressional Review Act, 5 U.S.C. 801<E T="03">et seq.,</E>generally provides that before a rule may take effect, the agency promulgating the rule must submit a rule report to each House of the Congress and to the Comptroller General of the United States. EPA will submit a report containing this rule and other required information to the U.S. Senate, the U.S. House of Representatives, and the Comptroller General of the United States prior to publication of this final rule in the<E T="04">Federal Register</E>. This final rule is not a “major rule” as defined by 5 U.S.C. 804(2).</P>
        <LSTSUB>
          <HD SOURCE="HED">List of Subjects in 40 CFR Part 180</HD>
          <P>Environmental protection, Administrative practice and procedure, Agricultural commodities, Pesticides and pests, Reporting and recordkeeping requirements.</P>
        </LSTSUB>
        <SIG>
          <DATED>Dated: May 18, 2011.</DATED>
          <NAME>Lois Rossi,</NAME>
          <TITLE>Director, Registration Division, Office of Pesticide Programs.</TITLE>
        </SIG>
        <P>Therefore, 40 CFR chapter I is amended as follows:</P>
        <REGTEXT PART="180" TITLE="40">
          <PART>
            <HD SOURCE="HED">PART 180—[AMENDED]</HD>
          </PART>
          <AMDPAR>1. The authority citation for part 180 continues to read as follows:</AMDPAR>
          <AUTH>
            <HD SOURCE="HED">Authority:</HD>
            <P>21 U.S.C. 321(q), 346a and 371.</P>
          </AUTH>
        </REGTEXT>
        
        <REGTEXT PART="180" TITLE="40">
          <AMDPAR>2. Section 180.585 is amended by revising the introductory text of paragraph (a) and by alphabetically adding commodities to the table in paragraph (a) to read as follows:</AMDPAR>
          <SECTION>
            <SECTNO>§ 180.585</SECTNO>
            <SUBJECT>Pyraflufen-ethyl; tolerances for residues.</SUBJECT>
            <P>(a)<E T="03">General.</E>Tolerances are established for residues of the herbicide, pyraflufen-ethyl, including its metabolites and degradates, in the commodities in the table below. Compliance with the tolerance levels specified below is to be determined by measuring pyraflufen-ethyl, ethyl 2-chloro-5-(4-chloro-5-difluoromethoxy-1-methyl-1<E T="03">H</E>-pyrazol-3-yl)-4-fluorophenoxyacetate, and its acid metabolite,<E T="03">E</E>-1, 2-[2-chloro-5-(4-chloro-5-(difluoromethoxy)-1-methyl-1<E T="03">H</E>-pyrazol-3-yl)-4-fluorophenoxy]acetic acid, in or on the commodity:</P>
            <GPOTABLE CDEF="s125,14,xs64" COLS="3" OPTS="L1,tp0,i1">
              <TTITLE/>
              <BOXHD>
                <CHED H="1">Commodity</CHED>
                <CHED H="1">Parts per million</CHED>
                <CHED H="1">Expiration/<LI>revocation date</LI>
                </CHED>
              </BOXHD>
              <ROW>
                <ENT I="01">Almond, hulls</ENT>
                <ENT>0.02</ENT>
                <ENT>None.</ENT>
              </ROW>
              <ROW>
                <ENT I="22"/>
              </ROW>
              <ROW>
                <ENT I="28">*******</ENT>
              </ROW>
              <ROW>
                <ENT I="01">Fruit, pome, group 11-10</ENT>
                <ENT>0.01</ENT>
                <ENT>None.</ENT>
              </ROW>
              <ROW>
                <ENT I="01">Fruit, stone, group 12</ENT>
                <ENT>0.01</ENT>
                <ENT>None.</ENT>
              </ROW>
              <ROW>
                <ENT I="01">Grape</ENT>
                <ENT>0.01</ENT>
                <ENT>None.</ENT>
              </ROW>
              <ROW>
                <ENT I="22"/>
              </ROW>
              <ROW>
                <ENT I="28">*******</ENT>
              </ROW>
              <ROW>
                <ENT I="01">Nut, tree, group 14</ENT>
                <ENT>0.01</ENT>
                <ENT>None.</ENT>
              </ROW>
              <ROW>
                <ENT I="01">Olive</ENT>
                <ENT>0.01</ENT>
                <ENT>None.</ENT>
              </ROW>
              <ROW>
                <ENT I="01">Pistachio</ENT>
                <ENT>0.01</ENT>
                <ENT>None.</ENT>
              </ROW>
              <ROW>
                <ENT I="01">Pomegranate</ENT>
                <ENT>0.01</ENT>
                <ENT>None.</ENT>
              </ROW>
              <ROW>
                <ENT I="22"/>
              </ROW>
              <ROW>
                <ENT I="28">*******</ENT>
              </ROW>
            </GPOTABLE>
            <PRTPAGE P="31485"/>
            <STARS/>
          </SECTION>
        </REGTEXT>
      </SUPLINF>
      <FRDOC>[FR Doc. 2011-13587 Filed 5-31-11; 8:45 am]</FRDOC>
      <BILCOD>BILLING CODE 6560-50-P</BILCOD>
    </RULE>
    <RULE>
      <PREAMB>
        <AGENCY TYPE="S">ENVIRONMENTAL PROTECTION AGENCY</AGENCY>
        <CFR>40 CFR Part 180</CFR>
        <DEPDOC>[EPA-HQ-OPP-2010-0268; FRL-8873-9]</DEPDOC>
        <SUBJECT>Bromoxynil; Pesticide Tolerances</SUBJECT>
        <AGY>
          <HD SOURCE="HED">AGENCY:</HD>
          <P>Environmental Protection Agency (EPA).</P>
        </AGY>
        <ACT>
          <HD SOURCE="HED">ACTION:</HD>
          <P>Final rule.</P>
        </ACT>
        <SUM>
          <HD SOURCE="HED">SUMMARY:</HD>
          <P>This regulation revises established tolerances for residues of bromoxynil in or on multiple commodities which are identified and discussed later in this document. Bayer CropScience LLC requested these tolerances under the Federal Food, Drug, and Cosmetic Act (FFDCA).</P>
        </SUM>
        <DATES>
          <HD SOURCE="HED">DATES:</HD>

          <P>This regulation is effective June 1, 2011. Objections and requests for hearings must be received on or before August 1, 2011, and must be filed in accordance with the instructions provided in 40 CFR part 178 (see also Unit I.C. of the<E T="02">SUPPLEMENTARY INFORMATION</E>).</P>
        </DATES>
        <ADD>
          <HD SOURCE="HED">ADDRESSES:</HD>

          <P>EPA has established a docket for this action under docket identification (ID) number EPA-HQ-OPP-2010-0268. All documents in the docket are listed in the docket index available at<E T="03">http://www.regulations.gov.</E>Although listed in the index, some information is not publicly available, e.g., Confidential Business Information (CBI) or other information whose disclosure is restricted by statute. Certain other material, such as copyrighted material, is not placed on the Internet and will be publicly available only in hard copy form. Publicly available docket materials are available in the electronic docket at<E T="03">http://www.regulations.gov,</E>or, if only available in hard copy, at the OPP Regulatory Public Docket in Rm. S-4400, One Potomac Yard (South Bldg.), 2777 S. Crystal Dr., Arlington, VA. The Docket Facility is open from 8:30 a.m. to 4 p.m., Monday through Friday, excluding legal holidays. The Docket Facility telephone number is (703) 305-5805.</P>
        </ADD>
        <FURINF>
          <HD SOURCE="HED">FOR FURTHER INFORMATION CONTACT:</HD>

          <P>Susan Stanton, Registration Division (7505P), Office of Pesticide Programs, Environmental Protection Agency, 1200 Pennsylvania Ave., NW., Washington, DC 20460-0001; telephone number: (703) 305-5218; e-mail address:<E T="03">stanton.susan@epa.gov.</E>
          </P>
        </FURINF>
      </PREAMB>
      <SUPLINF>
        <HD SOURCE="HED">SUPPLEMENTARY INFORMATION:</HD>
        <P/>
        <HD SOURCE="HD1">I. General Information</HD>
        <HD SOURCE="HD2">A. Does this action apply to me?</HD>
        <P>You may be potentially affected by this action if you are an agricultural producer, food manufacturer, or pesticide manufacturer. Potentially affected entities may include, but are not limited to those engaged in the following activities:</P>
        <P>• Crop production (NAICS code 111).</P>
        <P>• Animal production (NAICS code 112).</P>
        <P>• Food manufacturing (NAICS code 311).</P>
        <P>• Pesticide manufacturing (NAICS code 32532).</P>

        <P>This listing is not intended to be exhaustive, but rather to provide a guide for readers regarding entities likely to be affected by this action. Other types of entities not listed in this unit could also be affected. The North American Industrial Classification System (NAICS) codes have been provided to assist you and others in determining whether this action might apply to certain entities. If you have any questions regarding the applicability of this action to a particular entity, consult the person listed under<E T="02">FOR FURTHER INFORMATION CONTACT</E>.</P>
        <HD SOURCE="HD2">B. How can I get electronic access to other related information?</HD>

        <P>You may access a frequently updated electronic version of EPA's tolerance regulations at 40 CFR part 180 through the Government Printing Office's e-CFR site at<E T="03">http://www.gpoaccess.gov/ecfr.</E>To access the harmonized test guidelines referenced in this document electronically, please go to<E T="03">http://www.epa.gov/ocspp</E>and select “Test Methods and Guidelines.”</P>
        <HD SOURCE="HD2">C. How can I file an objection or hearing request?</HD>
        <P>Under FFDCA section 408(g), 21 U.S.C. 346a, any person may file an objection to any aspect of this regulation and may also request a hearing on those objections. You must file your objection or request a hearing on this regulation in accordance with the instructions provided in 40 CFR part 178. To ensure proper receipt by EPA, you must identify docket ID number EPA-HQ-OPP-2010-0268 in the subject line on the first page of your submission. All objections and requests for a hearing must be in writing, and must be received by the Hearing Clerk on or before August 1, 2011. Addresses for mail and hand delivery of objections and hearing requests are provided in 40 CFR 178.25(b).</P>
        <P>In addition to filing an objection or hearing request with the Hearing Clerk as described in 40 CFR part 178, please submit a copy of the filing that does not contain any CBI for inclusion in the public docket. Information not marked confidential pursuant to 40 CFR part 2 may be disclosed publicly by EPA without prior notice. Submit a copy of your non-CBI objection or hearing request, identified by docket ID number EPA-HQ-OPP-2010-0268, by one of the following methods:</P>
        <P>•<E T="03">Federal eRulemaking Portal:</E>
          <E T="03">http://www.regulations.gov.</E>Follow the on-line instructions for submitting comments.</P>
        <P>•<E T="03">Mail:</E>Office of Pesticide Programs (OPP) Regulatory Public Docket (7502P), Environmental Protection Agency, 1200 Pennsylvania Ave., NW., Washington, DC 20460-0001.</P>
        <P>•<E T="03">Delivery:</E>OPP Regulatory Public Docket (7502P), Environmental Protection Agency, Rm. S-4400, One Potomac Yard (South Bldg.), 2777 S. Crystal Dr., Arlington, VA. Deliveries are only accepted during the Docket Facility's normal hours of operation (8:30 a.m. to 4 p.m., Monday through Friday, excluding legal holidays). Special arrangements should be made for deliveries of boxed information. The Docket Facility telephone number is (703) 305-5805.</P>
        <HD SOURCE="HD1">II. Summary of Petitioned-For Tolerance</HD>
        <P>In the<E T="04">Federal Register</E>of June 23, 2010 (75 FR 35801) (FRL-8831-3), EPA issued a notice pursuant to section 408(d)(3) of FFDCA, 21 U.S.C. 346a(d)(3), announcing the filing of a pesticide petition (PP 9F7678) by Bayer CropScience LLC, 2 T. W. Alexander Drive, Research Triangle Park, NC 27709. The petition requested that 40 CFR 180.324 be amended by increasing existing tolerances for residues of the herbicide bromoxynil, 3,5-dibromo-4-hydroxybenzonitrile, in or on sorghum, grain, grain from 0.05 parts per million (ppm) to 0.2 ppm; grass, hay from 3.0 ppm to 5.0 ppm; and grass, forage from 3.0 ppm to 18 ppm. That notice referenced a summary of the petition prepared by Bayer CropScience LLC, the registrant, which is available in the docket,<E T="03">http://www.regulations.gov.</E>There were no comments received in response to the notice of filing.</P>

        <P>Based upon review of the data supporting the petition, EPA has determined that the existing tolerances for aspirated grain fractions, milk, and grain sorghum forage must also be increased as a result of the proposed changes to the use patterns for sorghum and grasses. The reasons for these changes are explained in Unit IV.C.<PRTPAGE P="31486"/>
        </P>
        <HD SOURCE="HD1">III. Aggregate Risk Assessment and Determination of Safety</HD>
        <P>Section 408(b)(2)(A)(i) of FFDCA allows EPA to establish a tolerance (the legal limit for a pesticide chemical residue in or on a food) only if EPA determines that the tolerance is “safe.” Section 408(b)(2)(A)(ii) of FFDCA defines “safe” to mean that “there is a reasonable certainty that no harm will result from aggregate exposure to the pesticide chemical residue, including all anticipated dietary exposures and all other exposures for which there is reliable information.” This includes exposure through drinking water and in residential settings, but does not include occupational exposure. Section 408(b)(2)(C) of FFDCA requires EPA to give special consideration to exposure of infants and children to the pesticide chemical residue in establishing a tolerance and to “ensure that there is a reasonable certainty that no harm will result to infants and children from aggregate exposure to the pesticide chemical residue * * *.”</P>
        <P>Consistent with section 408(b)(2)(D) of FFDCA, and the factors specified in section 408(b)(2)(D) of FFDCA, EPA has reviewed the available scientific data and other relevant information in support of this action. EPA has sufficient data to assess the hazards of and to make a determination on aggregate exposure for bromoxynil including exposure resulting from the tolerances established by this action. EPA's assessment of exposures and risks associated with bromoxynil follows.</P>
        <HD SOURCE="HD2">A. Toxicological Profile</HD>
        <P>EPA has evaluated the available toxicity data and considered its validity, completeness, and reliability as well as the relationship of the results of the studies to human risk. EPA has also considered available information concerning the variability of the sensitivities of major identifiable subgroups of consumers, including infants and children.</P>
        <P>Bromoxynil phenol has moderate acute toxicity via the oral and inhalation routes of exposure and low acute toxicity via the dermal route. Bromoxynil octanoate has moderate acute toxicity via the oral and dermal routes and low acute toxicity via the inhalation route. Due to rapid conversion of the ester forms of the chemical (heptanoate and octanoate) to the phenol, toxicity testing was conducted with both phenol and octanoate material, but the risk assessment is based on exposure to the phenol.</P>
        <P>In the repeated dose studies of the mammalian toxicology database, the liver was the primary target organ of bromoxynil toxicity. Across species, duration and gender, changes in weight, clinical chemistry and pathology indicated treatment-related perturbations in and adverse effects on liver function. Treatment-related effects were also observed on body weight and body weight gain in rats, mice, dogs, and rabbits. Subchronic and chronic studies in dogs showed that bromoxynil elevated body temperature, manifested by increased panting at lower dose levels, and hyperthermia and death as dose levels increased.</P>
        <P>Developmental toxicity was manifested in rats, mice and rabbits via the oral and dermal routes by increased incidence of supernumerary (13th and/or 14th) ribs at dose levels as low as 5 milligrams/kilogram/day (mg/kg/day) in rats. At higher dose levels, malformations such as hydrocephalus, enophthalmia, micropththalmia, fused ribs, scoliosis, misshapen thoracic centrum and incomplete ossification of sternebrae were observed in rabbits. In reproduction studies, delayed development manifested as decreased body weight and body weight gain, and delayed eye opening.</P>

        <P>Bromoxynil is classified as a “possible human carcinogen” based on the presence of hepatocellular tumors in male and female mice. There is no concern for mutagenicity. The method of quantification of cancer risk is linear, using the cancer slope factor (Q*) of 0.103 (mg/kg/day)<E T="51">−1</E>in human equivalents.</P>

        <P>Specific information on the studies received and the nature of the adverse effects caused by bromoxynil as well as the no-observed-adverse-effect-level (NOAEL) and the lowest-observed-adverse-effect-level (LOAEL) from the toxicity studies can be found at<E T="03">http://www.regulations.gov</E>in document “Bromoxynil: Human Health Risk Assessment for Amended Uses on Grass Grown for Seed, Conservation Reserve Program Areas, and Grain Sorghum,” p. 50 in docket ID number EPA-HQ-OPP-2010-0268.</P>
        <HD SOURCE="HD2">B. Toxicological Points of Departure/Levels of Concern</HD>

        <P>Once a pesticide's toxicological profile is determined, EPA identifies toxicological points of departure (POD) and levels of concern (LOC) to use in evaluating the risk posed by human exposure to the pesticide. For hazards that have a threshold below which there is no appreciable risk, the toxicological POD is used as the basis for derivation of reference values for risk assessment. PODs are developed based on a careful analysis of the doses in each toxicological study to determine the dose at which the NOAEL and the lowest dose at which adverse effects of concern are identified (the LOAEL). Uncertainty/safety factors are used in conjunction with the POD to calculate a safe exposure level—generally referred to as a population-adjusted dose (PAD) (a = acute and c = chronic) or a reference dose (RfD)—and a safe margin of exposure (MOE). For non-threshold risks, the Agency assumes that any amount of exposure will lead to some degree of risk. Thus, the Agency estimates risk in terms of the probability of an occurrence of the adverse effect expected in a lifetime. For more information on the general principles EPA uses in risk characterization and a complete description of the risk assessment process, see<E T="03">http://www.epa.gov/pesticides/factsheets/riskassess.htm.</E>
        </P>
        <P>A summary of the toxicological endpoints for bromoxynil used for human risk assessment is shown in the following table.</P>
        <GPOTABLE CDEF="s60,r60,r100,r100" COLS="4" OPTS="L2,i1">
          <TTITLE>Table—Summary of Toxicological Doses and Endpoints for Bromoxynil for Use in Human Health Risk Assessment</TTITLE>
          <BOXHD>
            <CHED H="1">Exposure/scenario</CHED>
            <CHED H="1">Point of departure and<LI>uncertainty/safety factors</LI>
            </CHED>
            <CHED H="1">RfD, PAD, LOC for risk assessment</CHED>
            <CHED H="1">Study and toxicological effects</CHED>
          </BOXHD>
          <ROW>
            <ENT I="01">Acute dietary<LI>(Females 13-50 years of age)</LI>
            </ENT>
            <ENT>NOAEL = 4 mg/kg/day<LI O="xl">UF<E T="52">A</E>= 10x</LI>
              <LI O="xl">UF<E T="52">H</E>= 10x</LI>
              <LI O="xl">FQPA SF = 1x</LI>
            </ENT>
            <ENT>Acute RfD = 0.04 mg/kg/day<LI O="xl">aPAD = 0.04 mg/kg/day</LI>
            </ENT>
            <ENT>Developmental Studies in Rats.<LI>LOAEL = 5 mg/kg/day based on an increase of supernumerary ribs. The NOAEL is derived from a co-critical rat developmental study.</LI>
            </ENT>
          </ROW>
          <ROW>
            <PRTPAGE P="31487"/>
            <ENT I="01">Acute dietary<LI>(General population including infants and children)</LI>
            </ENT>
            <ENT>NOAEL = 8 mg/kg/day<LI O="xl">UF<E T="52">A</E>= 10x</LI>
              <LI O="xl">UF<E T="52">H</E>= 10x</LI>
              <LI O="xl">FQPA SF = 1x</LI>
            </ENT>
            <ENT>Acute RfD = 0.08 mg/kg/day<LI O="xl">aPAD = 0.08 mg/kg/day</LI>
            </ENT>
            <ENT>Subchronic Study in Dogs.<LI>LOAEL = 12 mg/kg/day based on panting. In addition to panting, elevated rectal temperatures occurred at 16 mg/kg and above, and death occurred at 30 mg/kg and above after a single dose on day 1.</LI>
            </ENT>
          </ROW>
          <ROW RUL="n,s">
            <ENT I="01">Chronic dietary<LI>(All populations)</LI>
            </ENT>
            <ENT>NOAEL= 1.5 mg/kg/day<LI O="xl">UF<E T="52">A</E>= 10x</LI>
              <LI O="xl">UF<E T="52">H</E>= 10x</LI>
              <LI O="xl">FQPA SF = 1x</LI>
            </ENT>
            <ENT>Chronic RfD = 0.015 mg/kg/day<LI O="xl">cPAD = 0.015 mg/kg/day</LI>
            </ENT>
            <ENT>Chronic (1 year) Study in dogs.<LI>LOAEL = 7.5 mg/kg/day based on increased incidences of salivation, panting, liquid feces and pale gums; statistically significant decreased body weight gain over entire duration of study, but particularly during first 8 weeks of study; statistically significant decreased erythrocytes (RBC), hemoglobin (Hb) and packed cell volume (PCV); statistically significant increased urea nitrogen; increased absolute liver weights and liver/body weight ratios.</LI>
            </ENT>
          </ROW>
          <ROW>
            <ENT I="01">Cancer (Oral, dermal, inhalation)</ENT>
            <ENT A="02">Bromoxynil phenol has been classified by EPA as a Group C, possible human carcinogen, based on male mouse hepatocellular tumors. The Agency has determined that a linear low dose extrapolation model (Q<E T="52">1</E>*) should be applied to the experimental animal tumor data for quantification of human risk. Q<E T="52">1</E>* = 0.103 (mg/kg/day)<E T="51">−</E>
              <SU>1</SU>
            </ENT>
          </ROW>
          <TNOTE>UF<E T="52">A</E>= extrapolation from animal to human (interspecies). UF<E T="52">H</E>= potential variation in sensitivity among members of the human population (intraspecies). FQPA SF = Food Quality Protection Act Safety Factor. Pad = population adjusted dose (a = acute, c = chronic), LOC = level of concern, RfD = Reference dose.</TNOTE>
        </GPOTABLE>
        <HD SOURCE="HD2">C. Exposure Assessment</HD>
        <P>1.<E T="03">Dietary exposure from food and feed uses.</E>In evaluating dietary exposure to bromoxynil, EPA considered exposure under the petitioned-for tolerances as well as all existing bromoxynil tolerances in 40 CFR 180.324. EPA assessed dietary exposures from bromoxynil in food as follows:</P>
        <P>i.<E T="03">Acute exposure.</E>Quantitative acute dietary exposure and risk assessments are performed for a food-use pesticide, if a toxicological study has indicated the possibility of an effect of concern occurring as a result of a 1-day or single exposure. Such effects were identified for bromoxynil. As shown in the table in this unit, EPA identified different PODs for assessing acute dietary exposure for the general population (including infants and children) and women of childbearing age (13 to 50 years).</P>
        <P>In estimating acute dietary exposure, EPA used food consumption information from the U. S. Department of Agriculture (USDA) 1994-1996 and 1998 Nationwide Continuing Surveys of Food Intake by Individuals (CSFII). As to residues in food, EPA assumed either tolerance level or anticipated residues. Tolerance levels were assumed for cotton, garlic, onion, peppermint, and spearmint. For all grains, average field trial values were used, since grains are considered to be blended commodities. Livestock anticipated residues were estimated using results from the crop field trials in conjunction with animal feeding studies. Additionally, maximum percent crop treated (PCT) estimates were used for all crop commodities. Default processing factors were used to estimate residues in processed commodities.</P>
        <P>ii.<E T="03">Chronic exposure.</E>In conducting the chronic dietary exposure assessment EPA used the food consumption data from the USDA 1994-1996 and 1998 CSFII. As to residue levels in food, EPA used average field trial residues for all commodities except spearmint and peppermint, for which tolerance values were assumed. Livestock anticipated residues were estimated using average percent crop treated data, average field trial residue values, and results from the animal feeding studies. Additionally, average PCT estimates were used for all crop commodities. Default processing factors were used to estimate residues in processed commodities.</P>
        <P>iii.<E T="03">Cancer.</E>EPA determines whether quantitative cancer exposure and risk assessments are appropriate for a food-use pesticide based on the weight-of-the-evidence from cancer studies and other relevant data. If quantitative cancer risk assessment is appropriate, cancer risk may be quantified using a linear or nonlinear approach. If sufficient information on the carcinogenic mode of action is available, a threshold or non-linear approach is used and a cancer RfD is calculated based on an earlier noncancer key event. If carcinogenic mode of action data are not available, or if the mode of action data determines a mutagenic mode of action, a default linear cancer slope factor approach is utilized. Based on the data summarized in Unit III.A., EPA has concluded that bromoxynil should be classified as a “Possible Human Carcinogen,” and a linear approach has been used to quantify cancer risk. Cancer risk was quantified using the same exposure estimates as discussed in Unit III.C.1.ii.—<E T="03">chronic exposure.</E>
        </P>
        <P>iv.<E T="03">Anticipated residue and percent crop treated (PCT) information.</E>Section 408(b)(2)(E) of FFDCA authorizes EPA to use available data and information on the anticipated residue levels of pesticide residues in food and the actual levels of pesticide residues that have been measured in food. If EPA relies on such information, EPA must require pursuant to FFDCA section 408(f)(1) that data be provided 5 years after the tolerance is established, modified, or left in effect, demonstrating that the levels in food are not above the levels anticipated. For the present action, EPA will issue such data call-ins as are required by FFDCA section 408(b)(2)(E) and authorized under FFDCA section 408(f)(1). Data will be required to be submitted no later than 5 years from the date of issuance of these tolerances.<PRTPAGE P="31488"/>
        </P>
        <P>Section 408(b)(2)(F) of FFDCA states that the Agency may use data on the actual percent of food treated for assessing chronic dietary risk only if:</P>
        <P>• Condition a: The data used are reliable and provide a valid basis to show what percentage of the food derived from such crop is likely to contain the pesticide residue.</P>
        <P>• Condition b: The exposure estimate does not underestimate exposure for any significant subpopulation group.</P>
        <P>• Condition c: Data are available on pesticide use and food consumption in a particular area, the exposure estimate does not understate exposure for the population in such area.</P>
        <P>In addition, the Agency must provide for periodic evaluation of any estimates used. To provide for the periodic evaluation of the estimate of PCT as required by FFDCA section 408(b)(2)(F), EPA may require registrants to submit data on PCT.</P>
        <P>The Agency estimated the maximum PCT for existing uses in the acute dietary exposure assessment as follows: Alfalfa 2.5%; barley 35%; corn 5%; cotton 5%; flax 35%; garlic 70%; mint 25%; oats 5%; onion 70%; rye 1%; sorghum 2.5%; and wheat 35%.</P>
        <P>The Agency estimated the average PCT for existing uses in the chronic and cancer dietary exposure assessments as follows: Alfalfa 1%; barley 20%; corn 2.5%; cotton 2.5%; flax 35%; garlic 50%; mint 25%; oats 5%; onion 55%; rye 1%; sorghum 2.5%; and wheat 15%.</P>
        <P>The sorghum PCT values used in the acute and chronic assessments were based on existing uses. Because there is a proposed change in the sorghum use pattern (i.e., shorter pre-harvest interval), there is a potential for a change in the PCT value. However, grain sorghum is a small contributor to the overall livestock dietary burden estimate. If the PCT value for sorghum was assumed to be 100%, the overall impact to dietary exposure and risk assessment would be negligible.</P>
        <P>In most cases, EPA uses available data from U. S. Department of Agriculture/National Agricultural Statistics Service (USDA/NASS), proprietary market surveys, and the National Pesticide Use Database for the chemical/crop combination for the most recent 6-7 years. EPA uses an average PCT for chronic dietary risk analysis. The average PCT figure for each existing use is derived by combining available public and private market survey data for that use, averaging across all observations, and rounding to the nearest 5%, except for those situations in which the average PCT is less than one. In those cases, 1% is used as the average PCT and 2.5% is used as the maximum PCT. EPA uses a maximum PCT for acute dietary risk analysis. The maximum PCT figure is the highest observed maximum value reported within the recent 6 years of available public and private market survey data for the existing use and rounded up to the nearest multiple of 5%.</P>
        <P>The Agency believes that the three conditions discussed in Unit III.C.1.iv. have been met. With respect to Condition a, PCT estimates are derived from Federal and private market survey data, which are reliable and have a valid basis. The Agency is reasonably certain that the percentage of the food treated is not likely to be an underestimation. As to Conditions b and c, regional consumption information and consumption information for significant subpopulations are taken into account through EPA's computer-based model for evaluating the exposure of significant subpopulations including several regional groups. Use of this consumption information in EPA's risk assessment process ensures that EPA's exposure estimate does not understate exposure for any significant subpopulation group and allows the Agency to be reasonably certain that no regional population is exposed to residue levels higher than those estimated by the Agency. Other than the data available through national food consumption surveys, EPA does not have available reliable information on the regional consumption of food to which bromoxynil may be applied in a particular area.</P>
        <P>2.<E T="03">Dietary exposure from drinking water.</E>The Agency used screening level water exposure models in the dietary exposure analysis and risk assessment for bromoxynil in drinking water. These simulation models take into account data on the physical, chemical, and fate/transport characteristics of bromoxynil. Further information regarding EPA drinking water models used in pesticide exposure assessment can be found at<E T="03">http://www.epa.gov/oppefed1/models/water/index.htm.</E>
        </P>
        <P>Based on the FQPA Index Reservoir Screening Tool (FIRST) and Screening Concentration in Ground Water (SCI-GROW) models, the estimated drinking water concentrations (EDWCs) of bromoxynil for acute exposures are estimated to be 11.5 parts per billion (ppb) for surface water and 3.26 parts per trillion (ppt) for ground water. EDWCs for chronic exposures for non-cancer assessments and cancer assessments are estimated to be 0.19 ppb for surface water and 3.26 ppt for ground water.</P>
        <P>Modeled estimates of drinking water concentrations were directly entered into the dietary exposure model. For acute dietary risk assessment, the water concentration value of 11.5 ppb was used to assess the contribution to drinking water. For chronic and cancer dietary risk assessment, the water concentration value of 0.19 ppb was used to assess the contribution to drinking water.</P>
        <P>3.<E T="03">From non-dietary exposure.</E>The term “residential exposure” is used in this document to refer to non-occupational, non-dietary exposure (e.g., for lawn and garden pest control, indoor pest control, termiticides, and flea and tick control on pets). Bromoxynil is not registered for any specific use patterns that would result in residential exposure.</P>
        <P>4.<E T="03">Cumulative effects from substances with a common mechanism of toxicity.</E>Section 408(b)(2)(D)(v) of FFDCA requires that, when considering whether to establish, modify, or revoke a tolerance, the Agency consider “available information” concerning the cumulative effects of a particular pesticide's residues and “other substances that have a common mechanism of toxicity.”</P>

        <P>EPA has not found bromoxynil to share a common mechanism of toxicity with any other substances, and bromoxynil does not appear to produce a toxic metabolite produced by other substances. For the purposes of this tolerance action, therefore, EPA has assumed that bromoxynil does not have a common mechanism of toxicity with other substances. For information regarding EPA's efforts to determine which chemicals have a common mechanism of toxicity and to evaluate the cumulative effects of such chemicals, see EPA's Web site at<E T="03">http://www.epa.gov/pesticides/cumulative.</E>
        </P>
        <HD SOURCE="HD2">D. Safety Factor for Infants and Children</HD>
        <P>1.<E T="03">In general.</E>Section 408(b)(2)(C) of FFDCA provides that EPA shall apply an additional tenfold (10X) margin of safety for infants and children in the case of threshold effects to account for prenatal and postnatal toxicity and the completeness of the database on toxicity and exposure unless EPA determines based on reliable data that a different margin of safety will be safe for infants and children. This additional margin of safety is commonly referred to as the FQPA SF. In applying this provision, EPA either retains the default value of 10X, or uses a different additional safety factor when reliable data available to EPA support the choice of a different factor.<PRTPAGE P="31489"/>
        </P>
        <P>2.<E T="03">Prenatal and postnatal sensitivity.</E>The prenatal and postnatal toxicity database for bromoxynil includes five developmental toxicity studies in rats, two developmental toxicity studies in rabbits, a developmental study in mice, and 2- and 3-generation reproduction toxicity studies in rats. The available data indicate that bromoxynil produces developmental effects (supernumerary ribs) in rats and rabbits at or below the maternal NOAELs in both oral and dermal studies, and that bromoxynil octanoate produces supernumerary ribs at the maternal NOAEL in a dermal study. Supernumerary ribs were observed in rats, mice and rabbits after oral and/or dermal administration. Therefore, there is evidence of quantitative susceptibility in the database. However, clear NOAELs exist for the developmental effects, and basing the point of departure on these effects addresses Agency concerns for quantitative susceptibility.</P>
        <P>In EPA's previous risk assessment for bromoxynil (1998), the FQPA SF was retained at 10X for the acute dietary endpoint for females, 13 to 50 years old, despite the POD being an adverse effect (supernumerary ribs) in the fetus. The primary reason for the retention was an apparent steepness of the dose-response curve (NOAEL = 4 mg/kg/day, LOAEL = 5 mg/kg/day) derived by combining the results of two co-critical studies. However, since the previous risk assessment for bromoxynil was conducted, a more refined data evaluation tool, benchmark dose (BMD) analysis, has become available and EPA has used it in this risk assessment to better characterize the dose-response relationship for supernumerary ribs. The analysis was conducted using the fetal and/or litter data available from the two rat developmental studies, plus a third developmental study which demonstrated similar results at similar dose levels. EPA also re-examined the underlying data for each study. EPA concluded that it was no longer appropriate to combine the rat developmental study with a NOAEL of 4 mg/kg/day with other studies in characterizing the dose-response relationship and that none of the studies indicate a steep dose-response curve. EPA further found that the results of the BMD analysis as to the study used to derive the POD (the rat developmental study with a NOAEL of 4 mg/kg/day) suggest a POD substantially higher than the NOAEL of 4 mg/kg/day, which supports the position that the NOAEL of 4 mg/kg/day is adequately protective of the adverse effect of supernumerary ribs in rat fetuses without an additional safety factor. Accordingly, EPA has determined, after re-examining all three studies, that the data on developmental effects do not raise any residual concerns.</P>
        <P>3.<E T="03">Conclusion.</E>EPA has determined that reliable data show the safety of infants and children would be adequately protected if the FQPA SF were reduced to 1X. That decision is based on the following findings:</P>
        <P>i. The toxicity database for bromoxynil is complete, except for an immunotoxicity study (OPPTS Guideline 870.7800), and acute and subchronic neurotoxicity studies (OPPTS Guideline 870.6200a and 870.6200b), now required under 40 CFR 158.500 for pesticide registration. In the absence of specific immunotoxicity and acute and subchronic neurotoxicity studies, EPA has evaluated the available bromoxynil toxicity database to determine whether an additional database UF is needed to account for potential immunotoxicity or neurotoxicity.</P>
        <P>With the exception of a marginal increase in the severity, but not the incidence, of thymic lymphocyte necrosis at otherwise toxic dose levels in a subchronic rat study, there is no evidence of immunotoxicity in the toxicology database for bromoxynil. Similarly, there is no evidence of neurotoxicity in the database. Consequently, EPA believes the existing data are sufficient for endpoint selection for exposure/risk assessment scenarios and for evaluation of the requirements under FQPA, and an additional database UF is not needed to account for the lack of these studies.</P>

        <P>ii. Although there is evidence that bromoxynil results in increased quantitative susceptibility in<E T="03">in utero</E>rats and rabbits in the prenatal developmental studies, EPA did not identify any residual uncertainties after establishing toxicity endpoints and traditional UFs to be used in the risk assessment of bromoxynil.</P>
        <P>iii. There are no residual uncertainties identified in the exposure databases. Although the dietary assessments were refined, they were based on reliable and acceptable field trial and feeding studies and valid estimates of PCT. EPA made conservative (protective) assumptions in the ground water and surface water modeling used to assess exposure to bromoxynil in drinking water. These assessments will not under estimate the exposure and risks posed by bromoxynil.</P>
        <HD SOURCE="HD2">E. Aggregate Risks and Determination of Safety</HD>
        <P>EPA determines whether acute and chronic dietary pesticide exposures are safe by comparing aggregate exposure estimates to the aPAD and cPAD. For linear cancer risks, EPA calculates the lifetime probability of acquiring cancer given the estimated aggregate exposure. Short-, intermediate-, and chronic-term risks are evaluated by comparing the estimated aggregate food, water, and residential exposure to the appropriate PODs to ensure that an adequate MOE exists.</P>
        <P>1.<E T="03">Acute risk.</E>Using the exposure assumptions discussed in this unit for acute exposure, the acute dietary exposure to bromoxynil from food and water will occupy 7.4% of the aPAD for infants less than 1 year old, the population group receiving the greatest exposure. The acute dietary exposure to bromoxynil from food and water will occupy 4.4% of the aPAD for females 13 to 50 years old.</P>
        <P>2.<E T="03">Chronic risk.</E>Using the exposure assumptions described in this unit for chronic exposure, EPA has concluded that chronic exposure to bromoxynil from food and water will utilize &lt;1% of the cPAD for all population groups, including infants and children. There are no residential uses for bromoxynil.</P>
        <P>3.<E T="03">Short- and intermediate-term risk.</E>Short- and intermediate-term aggregate exposure take into account short- or intermediate-term residential exposure plus chronic exposure from food and water (considered to be a background exposure level). Short- and intermediate-term adverse effects were identified; however, bromoxynil is not registered for any use patterns that would result in short- or intermediate-term residential exposure. Short- and intermediate-term risks are assessed based on short- or intermediate-term residential exposure plus chronic dietary exposure. Because there is no short- or intermediate-term residential exposure and chronic dietary exposure has already been assessed under the appropriately protective cPAD (which is at least as protective as the POD used to assess short- and intermediate-term risk), no further assessment of short- or intermediate-term risk is necessary, and EPA relies on the chronic dietary risk assessment for evaluating short- and intermediate-term risk for bromoxynil.</P>
        <P>4.<E T="03">Aggregate cancer risk for U.S. population.</E>Using the exposure assumptions described in this unit for the cancer risk assessment, EPA has concluded that exposure to bromoxynil from food and water will result in a lifetime cancer risk of 1.5 × 10<E T="51">−6</E>for the<PRTPAGE P="31490"/>general U.S. population. EPA generally considers cancer risks in the range of one in one million (1 × 10<E T="51">−6</E>) or less to be negligible. The precision which can be assumed for cancer risk estimates is best described by rounding to the nearest integral order of magnitude on the log scale; for example, risks falling between 3 × 10<E T="51">−7</E>and 3 × 10<E T="51">−6</E>are expressed as risks in the range of 10<E T="51">−6</E>. Considering the precision with which cancer hazard can be estimated, the conservativeness of low-dose linear extrapolation, and the rounding procedure described above, cancer risk should generally not be assumed to exceed the benchmark level of concern of the range of 10<E T="51">−6</E>until the calculated risk exceeds approximately 3 × 10<E T="51">−6</E>. This is particularly the case where some conservatism is maintained in the exposure assessment. Although the bromoxynil exposure risk assessment is refined, it retains some conservatism due, among other things, to the use of field trial data and screening level PCT information to estimate residues in food. Accordingly, EPA has concluded the cancer risk for all existing bromoxynil uses and the uses associated with the tolerances established in this action falls within the range of 1 × 10<E T="51">−6</E>and is thus negligible.</P>
        <P>5.<E T="03">Determination of safety.</E>Based on these risk assessments, EPA concludes that there is a reasonable certainty that no harm will result to the general population, or to infants and children from aggregate exposure to bromoxynil residues.</P>
        <HD SOURCE="HD1">IV. Other Considerations</HD>
        <HD SOURCE="HD2">A. Analytical Enforcement Methodology</HD>

        <P>Adequate enforcement methodology is available to enforce the tolerance expression for residues of bromoxynil in grass and grain sorghum commodities. Method I in the<E T="03">Pesticide Analytical Manual</E>(PAM), Vol. II, is a gas liquid chromatography/microcoulometric detection (GLC/MCD) method that has undergone a successful EPA method validation on wheat grain. Method Ia is the same method except that it uses gas chromatography/electron capture detection (GC/ECD) for determination of methylated bromoxynil.</P>

        <P>Adequate residue analytical methodology is available for tolerance enforcement for bromoxynil in livestock commodities. Method A is a GC/MCD or GC/ECD method for the analysis of bromoxynil residues in livestock tissues and is essentially the same as Method I. Method B is a GC/ECD method that is also similar to Method I, with modifications to the cleanup procedures. The methods may be requested from: Chief, Analytical Chemistry Branch, Environmental Science Center, 701 Mapes Rd., Ft. Meade, MD 20755-5350; telephone number: (410) 305-2905; e-mail address:<E T="03">residuemethods@epa.gov.</E>
        </P>
        <HD SOURCE="HD2">B. International Residue Limits</HD>
        <P>In making its tolerance decisions, EPA seeks to harmonize U.S. tolerances with international standards whenever possible, consistent with U.S. food safety standards and agricultural practices. EPA considers the international maximum residue limits (MRLs) established by the Codex Alimentarius Commission (Codex), as required by FFDCA section 408(b)(4). The Codex Alimentarius is a joint U.N. Food and Agriculture Organization/World Health Organization food standards program, and it is recognized as an international food safety standards-setting organization in trade agreements to which the United States is a party. EPA may establish a tolerance that is different from a Codex MRL; however, FFDCA section 408(b)(4) requires that EPA explain the reasons for departing from the Codex level.</P>
        <P>The Codex has not established a MRL for bromoxynil on the commodities in this rule.</P>
        <HD SOURCE="HD2">C. Revisions to Petitioned-For Tolerances</HD>

        <P>The proposed increases in the tolerance levels for “grass, forage;” “grass, hay;” and “sorghum, grain” were determined to be appropriate for these commodities. However, EPA determined that the existing tolerance for “sorghum, grain, forage” must also be increased from 0.5 ppm to 0.8 ppm, based on analysis of the field trial data using the Agency's tolerance/MRL calculator in accordance with the Agency's<E T="03">Guidance for Setting Pesticide Tolerances Based on Field Trial Data.</E>In addition, because the tolerance on the grain of grain sorghum is being increased from 0.05 ppm to 0.2 ppm, higher residues may occur in aspirated grain fractions; and EPA has determined that the existing tolerance should be increased from 0.3 ppm to 1.2 ppm. Finally, based on calculated livestock dietary burdens in light of the new tolerances and data from a cattle feeding study, EPA has determined that the established tolerance for milk must be increased from 0.1 ppm to 0.4 ppm.</P>
        <P>EPA is also revising the tolerance expression for existing tolerances and the new tolerances to clarify the chemical moieties that are covered by the tolerances and specify how compliance with the tolerances is to be determined. Tolerances for most plant commodities are currently expressed in terms of “bromoxynil (3,5-dibromo-4-hydroxybenzonitrile) resulting from application of its octanoic and/or heptanoic acid ester.” Livestock tolerances and tolerances for cotton commodities are currently expressed in terms of “bromoxynil (3,5-dibromo-4-hydroxybenzonitrile) and its metabolite 3,5-dibromo-4-hydroxybenzoic acid (DBHA) resulting from application of its octanoic and/or heptanoic acid ester.” The tolerance expression for plants, except cotton, is being revised to make clear that the tolerances cover residues of bromoxynil, including its metabolites and degradates, but that compliance with the tolerances is to be determined by measuring only bromoxynil. Similarly, the tolerance expression for livestock commodities and cotton is being revised to clarify that the tolerances cover residues of bromoxynil, including its metabolites and degradates, but that compliance with the tolerance levels will be determined by measuring only bromoxynil and its metabolite DBHA. EPA has determined that it is reasonable to make these changes final without prior proposal and opportunity for comment, because public comment is not necessary, in that the changes have no substantive effect on the tolerances, but rather are merely intended to clarify the existing tolerance expressions.</P>
        <HD SOURCE="HD1">V. Conclusion</HD>
        <P>Therefore, previously established tolerances are amended for residues of bromoxynil, including its metabolites and degradates, as set forth in the regulatory text.</P>
        <HD SOURCE="HD1">VI. Statutory and Executive Order Reviews</HD>

        <P>This final rule establishes tolerances under section 408(d) of FFDCA in response to a petition submitted to the Agency. The Office of Management and Budget (OMB) has exempted these types of actions from review under Executive Order 12866, entitled<E T="03">Regulatory Planning and Review</E>(58 FR 51735, October 4, 1993). Because this final rule has been exempted from review under Executive Order 12866, this final rule is not subject to Executive Order 13211, entitled<E T="03">Actions Concerning Regulations That Significantly Affect Energy Supply, Distribution, or Use</E>(66 FR 28355, May 22, 2001) or Executive Order 13045, entitled<E T="03">Protection of Children from Environmental Health Risks and Safety Risks</E>(62 FR 19885, April 23, 1997). This final rule does not contain any information collections subject to OMB approval under the Paperwork Reduction Act, 44 U.S.C. 3501<E T="03">et seq.,</E>
          <PRTPAGE P="31491"/>nor does it require any special considerations under Executive Order 12898, entitled<E T="03">Federal Actions to Address Environmental Justice in Minority Populations and Low-Income Populations</E>(59 FR 7629, February 16, 1994).</P>

        <P>Since tolerances and exemptions that are established on the basis of a petition under section 408(d) of FFDCA, such as the tolerances in this final rule, do not require the issuance of a proposed rule, the requirements of the Regulatory Flexibility Act (5 U.S.C. 601<E T="03">et seq.</E>) do not apply.</P>

        <P>This final rule directly regulates growers, food processors, food handlers, and food retailers, not States or tribes, nor does this action alter the relationships or distribution of power and responsibilities established by Congress in the preemption provisions of section 408(n)(4) of FFDCA. As such, the Agency has determined that this action will not have a substantial direct effect on States or tribal governments, on the relationship between the national government and the States or tribal governments, or on the distribution of power and responsibilities among the various levels of government or between the Federal Government and Indian tribes. Thus, the Agency has determined that Executive Order 13132, entitled<E T="03">Federalism</E>(64 FR 43255, August 10, 1999) and Executive Order 13175, entitled C<E T="03">onsultation and Coordination with Indian Tribal Governments</E>(65 FR 67249, November 9, 2000) do not apply to this final rule. In addition, this final rule does not impose any enforceable duty or contain any unfunded mandate as described under Title II of the Unfunded Mandates Reform Act of 1995 (Pub. L. 104-4).</P>
        <P>This action does not involve any technical standards that would require Agency consideration of voluntary consensus standards pursuant to section 12(d) of the National Technology Transfer and Advancement Act of 1995, Public Law 104-113, section 12(d) (15 U.S.C. 272 note).</P>
        <HD SOURCE="HD1">VII. Congressional Review Act</HD>
        <P>The Congressional Review Act, 5 U.S.C. 801<E T="03">et seq.,</E>generally provides that before a rule may take effect, the agency promulgating the rule must submit a rule report to each House of the Congress and to the Comptroller General of the United States. EPA will submit a report containing this rule and other required information to the U.S. Senate, the U.S. House of Representatives, and the Comptroller General of the United States prior to publication of this final rule in the<E T="04">Federal Register</E>. This final rule is not a “major rule” as defined by 5 U.S.C. 804(2).</P>
        <LSTSUB>
          <HD SOURCE="HED">List of Subjects in 40 CFR Part 180</HD>
          <P>Environmental protection, Administrative practice and procedure, Agricultural commodities, Pesticides and pests, Reporting and recordkeeping requirements.</P>
        </LSTSUB>
        <SIG>
          <DATED>Dated: May 18, 2011.</DATED>
          <NAME>Lois Rossi,</NAME>
          <TITLE>Director, Registration Division, Office of Pesticide Programs.</TITLE>
          
          <P>Therefore, 40 CFR chapter I is amended as follows:</P>
        </SIG>
        <REGTEXT PART="10" TITLE="40">
          <PART>
            <HD SOURCE="HED">PART 180—[AMENDED]</HD>
          </PART>
          <AMDPAR>1. The authority citation for part 180 continues to read as follows:</AMDPAR>
          <AUTH>
            <HD SOURCE="HED">Authority:</HD>
            <P>21 U.S.C. 321(q), 346a and 371.</P>
          </AUTH>
        </REGTEXT>
        
        <REGTEXT PART="10" TITLE="40">
          <AMDPAR>2. Section 180.324 is amended as follows:</AMDPAR>
          <AMDPAR>i. Revise the introductory text in paragraph (a)(1), and the entries for grain, aspirated fractions; grass, forage; grass, hay; sorghum, grain, forage; and sorghum, grain, grain in the table to paragraph (a)(1).</AMDPAR>
          <AMDPAR>ii. Revise the introductory text in paragraph (a)(2), and the entry for “milk” in the table to paragraph (a)(2).</AMDPAR>
          <P>The revisions read as follows:</P>
          <SECTION>
            <SECTNO>§ 180.324</SECTNO>
            <SUBJECT>Bromoxynil; tolerances for residues.</SUBJECT>
            <P>(a)<E T="03">General.</E>(1) Tolerances are established for residues of the herbicide bromoxynil, including its metabolites and degradates, in or on the commodities in the table below. Compliance with the tolerance levels is to be determined by measuring only bromoxynil, 3,5-dibromo-4-hydroxybenzonitrile, resulting from application of its octanoic and/or heptanoic acid ester, in or on the commodities.</P>
            <GPOTABLE CDEF="s25,8.1" COLS="2" OPTS="L1,tp0,i1">
              <TTITLE/>
              <BOXHD>
                <CHED H="1">Commodity</CHED>
                <CHED H="1">Parts per million</CHED>
              </BOXHD>
              <ROW>
                <ENT I="22"/>
              </ROW>
              <ROW>
                <ENT I="28">*****</ENT>
              </ROW>
              <ROW>
                <ENT I="01">Grain, aspirated fractions</ENT>
                <ENT>1.2</ENT>
              </ROW>
              <ROW>
                <ENT I="01">Grass, forage</ENT>
                <ENT>18</ENT>
              </ROW>
              <ROW>
                <ENT I="01">Grass, hay</ENT>
                <ENT>5.0</ENT>
              </ROW>
              <ROW>
                <ENT I="22"/>
              </ROW>
              <ROW>
                <ENT I="28">*****</ENT>
              </ROW>
              <ROW>
                <ENT I="01">Sorghum, grain, forage</ENT>
                <ENT>0.8</ENT>
              </ROW>
              <ROW>
                <ENT I="01">Sorghum, grain, grain</ENT>
                <ENT>0.2</ENT>
              </ROW>
              <ROW>
                <ENT I="22"/>
              </ROW>
              <ROW>
                <ENT I="28">*****</ENT>
              </ROW>
            </GPOTABLE>
            <P>(2) Tolerances are established for residues of the herbicide bromoxynil, 3,5-dibromo-4-hydroxybenzonitrile, including its metabolites and degradates, in or on the commodities in the table below. Compliance with the tolerance levels is to be determined by measuring only bromoxynil and its metabolite, 3,5-dibromo-4-hydroxybenzoic acid (DBHA), resulting from application of its octanoic and/or heptanoic acid ester, in or on the commodities.</P>
            <GPOTABLE CDEF="s25,10" COLS="2" OPTS="L1,tp0,i1">
              <TTITLE/>
              <BOXHD>
                <CHED H="1">Commodity</CHED>
                <CHED H="1">Parts per million</CHED>
              </BOXHD>
              <ROW>
                <ENT I="22"/>
              </ROW>
              <ROW>
                <ENT I="28">*****</ENT>
              </ROW>
              <ROW>
                <ENT I="01">Milk</ENT>
                <ENT>0.4</ENT>
              </ROW>
              <ROW>
                <ENT I="22"/>
              </ROW>
              <ROW>
                <ENT I="28">*****</ENT>
              </ROW>
            </GPOTABLE>
            <STARS/>
          </SECTION>
        </REGTEXT>
      </SUPLINF>
      <FRDOC>[FR Doc. 2011-13565 Filed 5-31-11; 8:45 am]</FRDOC>
      <BILCOD>BILLING CODE 6560-50-P</BILCOD>
    </RULE>
    <RULE>
      <PREAMB>
        <AGENCY TYPE="N">DEPARTMENT OF COMMERCE</AGENCY>
        <SUBAGY>National Oceanic and Atmospheric Administration</SUBAGY>
        <CFR>50 CFR Part 648</CFR>
        <DEPDOC>[Docket No. 110502274-1275-01]</DEPDOC>
        <RIN>RIN 0648-BB05</RIN>
        <SUBJECT>Fisheries of the Northeastern United States; Atlantic Sea Scallop Fishery; Closure of the Nantucket Lightship Access Area</SUBJECT>
        <AGY>
          <HD SOURCE="HED">AGENCY:</HD>
          <P>National Marine Fisheries Service (NMFS), National Oceanic and Atmospheric Administration (NOAA), Commerce.</P>
        </AGY>
        <ACT>
          <HD SOURCE="HED">ACTION:</HD>
          <P>Temporary rule; emergency action.</P>
        </ACT>
        <SUM>
          <HD SOURCE="HED">SUMMARY:</HD>
          <P>NMFS issues this temporary rule pursuant to its authority to implement emergency measures under the Magnuson-Stevens Fishery Conservation and Management Act (Magnuson-Stevens Act). This emergency rule closes the Nantucket Lightship Access Area (NLS) prior to its scheduled opening on June 15, 2011, and is consistent with Framework Adjustment 22 to the Atlantic Sea Scallop Fishery Management Plan (FMP) (Framework 22), which is currently being proposed and subject to public comments, and which would close the NLS in FY 2011 as well. This closure prevents potentially high levels of scallop and yellowtail flounder (yellowtail) catch that could result from opening the area prior to the approval and implementation of Framework 22, which could be detrimental to the long-term management and health of the scallop fishery.</P>
        </SUM>
        <DATES>
          <PRTPAGE P="31492"/>
          <HD SOURCE="HED">DATES:</HD>
          <P>Effective June 1, 2011, through November 28, 2011. Comments must be received by July 1, 2011.</P>
        </DATES>
        <ADD>
          <HD SOURCE="HED">ADDRESSES:</HD>

          <P>The Environmental Assessment (EA) is available by request from: Patricia Kurkul, Regional Administrator, National Marine Fisheries Service, Northeast Region, 55 Great Republic Drive, Gloucester, MA 01930-2276, or via the Internet at<E T="03">http://www.nero.noaa.gov.</E>You may submit comments, identified by RIN 0648-BB05, by any one of the following methods:</P>
          <P>•<E T="03">Electronic Submissions:</E>Submit all electronic public comments via the Federal e-Rulemaking portal<E T="03">http://www.regulations.gov;</E>
          </P>
          <P>•<E T="03">Fax:</E>(978) 281-9135, Attn: Emily Gilbert;</P>
          <P>• Mail to NMFS, Northeast Regional Office, 55 Great Republic Dr, Gloucester, MA 01930. Mark the outside of the envelope “Comments on Emergency Rule to Close the Nantucket Lightship Access Area.”</P>
          <P>•<E T="03">Instructions:</E>All comments received are a part of the public record and will generally be posted to<E T="03">http://www.regulations.gov</E>without change. All Personal Identifying Information (for example, name, address,<E T="03">etc.</E>) voluntarily submitted by the commenter may be publicly accessible. Do not submit Confidential Business Information or otherwise sensitive or protected information.</P>
          <P>NMFS will accept anonymous comments (enter N/A in the required fields, if you wish to remain anonymous). You may submit attachments to electronic comments in Microsoft Word, Excel, WordPerfect, or Adobe PDF file formats only.</P>
        </ADD>
        <FURINF>
          <HD SOURCE="HED">FOR FURTHER INFORMATION CONTACT:</HD>
          <P>Emily Gilbert, Fishery Policy Analyst, 978-281-9244; fax 978-281-9135.</P>
        </FURINF>
      </PREAMB>
      <SUPLINF>
        <HD SOURCE="HED">SUPPLEMENTARY INFORMATION:</HD>
        <HD SOURCE="HD1">Background</HD>

        <P>The New England Fishery Management Council (Council) adopted Amendment 15 to the Scallop FMP (Amendment 15) and Framework 22 at its September and November 2010 meetings, respectively. Amendment 15 proposes the process for setting annual catch limits (ACLs) and accountability measures (AMs) for the scallop fishery, and sub-ACLs and AMs for the Georges Bank and Southern New England/Mid-Atlantic (SNE/MA) yellowtail stocks. Framework 22 proposes scallop management measures for fishing years (FY) 2011 through 2013 based on the ACL/AM process in Amendment 15, and is thus contingent upon approval and implementation of Amendment 15. Framework 22 would make adjustments to the current scallop access area rotational schedule outlined in the regulations, including the closure of the NLS, which is scheduled to open on June 15, 2011, and allocating trips into three other access areas that were closed in FY 2010 (i.e., Closed Area I, Closed Area II, and Hudson Canyon Access Areas). NMFS published the proposed rules for Amendment 15 and Framework 22 in the<E T="04">Federal Register</E>on April 11 and April 29, 2011, respectively (76 FR 19929 and 76 FR 23940), with the comment period ending on May 26, 2011, for Amendment 15, and May 31, 2011, for Framework 22. Amendment 15 and Framework 22, if approved, are expected to be implemented as soon as possible, but likely after June 15, 2011.</P>
        <P>FY 2011 began on March 1, 2011, and FY 2010 scallop fishery regulations remain in effect until superseded by Amendment 15 and Framework 22, if approved. These two actions were originally intended to be in place on or around March 1, 2011, or at least before the June 15 date when the NLS area was scheduled to be opened. Due to circumstances more fully described below, these actions were delayed and it is not possible to implement before June 15, meaning the NLS area will open, if this emergency action is not taken. If the NLS opens, scallop vessels, which still have trips allocated into NLS under the current regulations, will be able to fish their NLS trips beginning June 15, 2011. Limited access vessels could take up to one trip; limited access general category (LAGC) vessels could take up to 714 trips fleetwide. If all limited access vessels fished their full NLS trip, the fleet could land up to 6 M lb (2,727 mt) of scallops from the area. In addition, potential LAGC effort could increase the total scallop landings from NLS. This amount of landings would jeopardize the fishery's ability to remain below the ACL proposed for the scallop fishery and for yellowtail, in turn potentially triggering the AMs, to the detriment of the scallop fishery as a whole. Moreover, harvest of scallops from NLS in FY 2011 could undermine the rotational area management program for FY 2012 and beyond, thereby jeopardizing the cornerstone of scallop fishery management. While NMFS and the Council anticipated the implementation of Amendment 15 and Framework 22 after June 15, 2011, neither NMFS nor the Council anticipated the level of catch expected during the short period that the NLS would be open if this rule is not implemented.</P>
        <P>Because of complications in developing Amendment 15 and Framework 22, the Council was not able to submit these actions to NMFS in time for them to be promulgated by June 15, 2011. Initially, the Council intended to take final action on Amendment 15 in June 2010. Due to delays in fully vetting the alternatives, the Council did not take final action on Amendment 15 until its September 2010 meeting. The Council took final action on Framework 22 at its November 2010 meeting. Because of various issues with the development of the environmental impact statement (EIS) for Amendment 15, as well as the environmental assessment (EA) for Framework 22, final submission of the EIS and EA for these actions did not occur until January 11, 2011, and March 22, 2011, respectively.</P>

        <P>Because a delay was anticipated, the Council included an individual payback measure in Framework 22, which was designed to discourage fishing in NLS, should that area open prior to the implementation of Framework 22. Specifically, if a vessel lands scallops from NLS in FY 2011, it would have those pounds deducted from an allocated access area trip in FY 2012 to account for the overage. Similar payback measures, also designed to be disincentives, were included in Framework 22 for other access areas and open area days-at-sea (DAS). However, Framework 22 did not fully anticipate or account for the impacts of a delayed implementation of Framework 22 if the majority of the fleet fished this additional effort in FY 2011. Based on similar payback measures enacted in previous FYs, NMFS expected that the majority of vessels would not be willing to suffer the penalty of having scallops caught in FY 2011 deducted from their FY 2012 allocation. However, in the days leading up to the Council meeting on April 28, 2011, the scallop industry reported that many industry members might fish an NLS trip in FY 2011 and accept the consequences in FY 2012 because they view the benefits of high scallop prices this year as outweighing the negative consequences of having a reduced allocation in FY 2012. Based on this rationale, the scallop industry has commented to NMFS and the Council that, if some vessels fish in NLS, it is likely that the majority of other scallop-permitted vessels will follow suit so that they remain competitive with scallop landings of other vessels. As a result, similar to FY 2010, a very high level of unanticipated scallop fishing effort could occur in NLS within the first 2 or 3 weeks it is open, in the absence of this emergency action.<PRTPAGE P="31493"/>
        </P>
        <P>On April 28, 2011, at the request of the Fisheries Survival Fund, an organization that represents a large portion of the scallop industry, and that is an active participant in the development of scallop fishery management measures, the Council passed a motion requesting that NMFS take emergency action to close NLS in FY 2011 to prevent vessels from landing scallops and catching yellowtail in the area. NMFS has reviewed this request and determined that there is good cause to implement this emergency rule to keep the NLS closed after June 15, 2011, as intended by Framework 22.</P>
        <P>NMFS' policy guidelines for the use of emergency rules (62 FR 44421; August 21, 1997) specify the following three criteria that define what an emergency situation is, and justification for final rulemaking: (1) The emergency results from recent, unforeseen events or recently discovered circumstances; (2) the emergency presents serious conservation or management problems in the fishery; and (3) the emergency can be addressed through emergency regulations for which the immediate benefits outweigh the value of advance notice, public comment, and deliberative consideration of the impacts on participants to the same extent as would be expected under the normal rulemaking process. NMFS' policy guidelines further provide that emergency action is justified for certain situations where emergency action would prevent significant direct economic loss, or to preserve a significant economic opportunity that otherwise might be foregone. NMFS has determined that the issue of closing the NLS meets the three criteria for emergency action for the reasons outlined below.</P>
        <P>The emergency results from recent, unforeseen events or recently discovered circumstance. Although the delay in Framework 22's implementation was expected, as explained above, and measures were included at the vessel level to account for the delay, there are potential impacts of NLS opening on June 15 that were not anticipated or accounted for during the Council's development of Framework 22 that NMFS considers to be “recently discovered circumstances.” Because Framework 22 proposes payback measures as individual disincentives, it was not anticipated that many vessels would still take their NLS trips if that area opened. However, because of unexpectedly high scallop prices, the disincentive value of payback measures have been undermined, and the scallop industry believes that the majority of the fleet may be willing to risk the payback measures in order to capitalize on these high prices and stay competitive in the scallop market. The impact of most vessels fishing in the NLS area would result in unanticipated high level of scallop landings from NLS in FY 2011 which likely would have long-term negative impacts on the scallop fleet and management of the scallop fishery, for reasons described in greater detail below.</P>
        <P>The emergency also presents serious conservation and management problems in the fishery. If the limited access scallop fleet exceeded the fleet's proposed sub-ACL as a result of large fishing effort in NLS, the entire fleet, including those that may not choose to fish their NLS trip, could be subject to a DAS deduction in FY 2012. Based on Amendment 15 ACL specifications, Framework 22 set a buffer of about 7.8 M lb (3,538 mt) between the limited access fleet's sub-ACL and allocated catch (as an annual catch target (ACT)), primarily to account for varying open area catch levels and carryover DAS. However, the buffer does not take into account the effects of delayed implementation of specification frameworks. If access into NLS in FY 2011 results in nearly 6 M lb (2,727 mt) of additional landings, there is a strong possibility that the fishery-wide ACL would be exceeded in the first year of managing the fishery under ACL measures. The ACL measures are intended to promote the conservation of the scallop resource, and exceeding them could undermine those efforts, and would be contrary to the Magnuson-Stevens Act.</P>
        <P>Additionally, the scallop fishery's yellowtail sub-ACL in FY 2011, already allocated through Framework 45 to the Northeast Multispecies FMP, does not include trips into NLS, an area with relatively high yellowtail catch rates. The scallop fishery's sub-ACL of yellowtail was based, in part, on projections of what amount of yellowtail scallop vessels would catch in order to harvest the scallop allocations in the areas proposed in Framework 22. Unanticipated high fishing effort in the NLS would likely increase the amount of yellowtail catch in the scallop fishery beyond what is allocated to the scallop fishery, and what was anticipated in the event that Framework 22 was not implemented before June 15, resulting in a seasonal closure of a portion of SNE/MA waters to scallop vessels in FY 2012. The length of the closure depends on the extent of the overage of the yellowtail sub-ACL.</P>
        <P>Finally, the potential impacts on the long-term scallop biomass within, and yield from, NLS if fishing effort occurs during FY 2011 was not anticipated in the development of Framework 22. Based on the status of the resource that was analyzed in developing Framework 22, the current scallop biomass within NLS would benefit from a closure in FY 2011, and from limited fishing effort in FY 2012, and result in higher scallop yield in future fishing years. The 2007 scallop year class, which is now large enough to be vulnerable to commercial fishing gear, is the only substantial recent year class in NLS. The closure of NLS in FY 2011 under Framework 22 was, in part, to protect this year class from harvesting and/or discarding until it grows to a larger size. With the NLS closed in FY 2011, Framework 22 projected sufficient biomass in NLS to provide access into the area in FY 2012 for half of the full-time scallop vessels, and one trip each for all full-time scallop vessels in FY 2013. These projections did not account for significantly high levels of fishing effort in FY 2011 in NLS, and this unanticipated effort could compromise future scallop resource levels and access to this area, resulting in reduced overall yield. Rotational area management is a cornerstone of the Scallop FMP, and jeopardizing its success in future years in turn jeopardizes the overall and long-term success of the management program.</P>
        <P>These potentially serious conservation and management consequences of high fishing effort in the NLS in FY 2011 justify the emergency closure of this area.</P>

        <P>NMFS also finds that this emergency can be addressed through emergency regulations for which the immediate benefits to both the scallop resource and those who depend on it outweigh the value of advance notice, public comment, and deliberative consideration of the impacts on participants to the same extent as would be expected under the normal rulemaking process. Because of the delayed development and submission of Amendment 15 and Framework 22, addressing the NLS closure issue in a timely fashion through Council action is not now possible. Secretarial emergency authority, which does not include the delay of further public comment, is the only means available to avoid the negative consequences to the scallop and yellowtail resources described above. Closing the NLS prior to June 15, 2011, is critical, given the potential for a very high level of scallop fishing effort in NLS that would otherwise occur during the first 2 to 3 weeks it is open. Although this emergency action would be implemented without specific prior public comment, this specific measure<PRTPAGE P="31494"/>was part of Framework 22, and was subject to extensive public comment during the development of that rule. That public comment opportunity may mitigate the impact of waiving prior public notice for this specific emergency rule. Moreover, this measure is subject to public comment in connection with the proposed rule to approve and implement this framework.</P>
        <P>Although taking no action would result in higher vessel short-term revenues in FY 2011, the benefits would be short-lived if Framework 22 is approved, because a vessel that fished its NLS trip would have those landings deducted pound-for-pound from an access area trip in FY 2012. At the fleet level, the high risk that scallop and yellowtail ACLs would be exceeded and that future scallop yield would be negatively impacted for vessels in FY 2012 and beyond indicate that the future costs for the entire fleet, not just vessels that choose to fish in NLS, would likely outweigh the benefits of the short-term revenue gain in FY 2011. Additionally, fishing a resource in an area that could not support that level of harvest in FY 2011 has negative impacts on both the resource and those who depend upon it. This level of fishing in NLS jeopardizes the long-term success of the rotational management program and negatively impacts the scallop resource for future years.</P>
        <HD SOURCE="HD2">Classification</HD>
        <P>The Assistant Administrator for Fisheries, NOAA, has determined that this rule is necessary to respond to an emergency situation and is consistent with the national standards and other provisions of the Magnuson-Stevens Fishery Conservation and Management Act and other applicable laws. The rule may be extended for a period of not more than 186 days as described under section 305(c)(3)(B) of the Magnuson-Stevens Fishery Conservation Management Act.</P>
        <P>The Assistant Administrator for Fisheries, NOAA, finds under section 553(b)(B) of the Administrative Procedure Act (APA) that it would be contrary to the public interest and impracticable to provide prior notice and opportunity for the public to comment on this rule, and therefore good cause exists to waive those requirements. As more fully explained above, the reasons justifying promulgation of this rule on an emergency basis make solicitation of public comment contrary to the public interest.</P>
        <P>This action provides benefits to both the scallop resource and the scallop fishery by not jeopardizing the success of the access area program in future years, not compromising future scallop biomass levels and subsequent scallop yield for short-term gain, and ensuring that the scallop fleet, including those that did not fish in NLS, would not be inequitably subjected to possible FY 2012 AMs. Although the measure being implemented by this action is receiving public comment in connection with Framework 22, the immediate need for this particular measure does not allow for prior public comment. Due to the inherent time constraints associated with the process and the fact that the information on which this action is based (i.e., the much higher interest in fishing in NLS than initially anticipated and the fleetwide impacts that would result) became available very recently, the review process and determination could not have been completed any earlier. Indeed, this emergency action is necessary due to the inadequate time to receive prior public comment on Framework 22, which proposed this measure in the first place.</P>

        <P>If this rulemaking were delayed to allow for notice and comment, vessels would be able to fish in NLS beginning June 15, 2011. If this were to occur, it is likely that limited access vessels would harvest most, if not all, of their scallop allocations in NLS within the first 2 to 3 weeks of its opening. The time necessary to provide for prior notice, opportunity for public comment, and delayed effectiveness for this action could result in the scallop fishery incurring long-term negative impacts on scallop yield. A delay could also potentially trigger DAS deductions and seasonal closures in future FYs, and the scallop resource being harvested more quickly than anticipated, thus potentially resulting in future biomass concerns within an important scallop management access area<E T="03">(i.e.,</E>the same impacts that this action itself is striving to avoid).</P>
        <P>A delay would also be impracticable. The Magnuson-Stevens Act tasks NMFS with conserving fishing resources, and allowing the potential over-harvest of scallops by not enacting this rule would impede NMFS' ability to comply with those provisions of the Act. For these reasons, NMFS finds good cause under section 553(d) of the APA to waive the 30-day delay in effectiveness of this emergency rule. In the interest of receiving public input on this action, the EA analyzing this action will be made available to the public and this temporary final rule solicits public comment.</P>
        <P>The Office of Management and Budget has determined that this rule is not significant according to Executive Order 12866.</P>
        <P>This rule is exempt from the procedures of the Regulatory Flexibility Act to prepare a regulatory flexibility analysis because the rule is issued without opportunity for prior public comment. Nevertheless, Framework 22, which proposes the same measure, if approved, will assess impacts as required by the RFA.</P>
        <LSTSUB>
          <HD SOURCE="HED">List of Subjects in 50 CFR Part 648</HD>
          <P>Fisheries, Fishing, Recordkeeping and reporting requirements.</P>
        </LSTSUB>
        <SIG>
          <DATED>Dated: May 25, 2011.</DATED>
          <NAME>John Oliver,</NAME>
          <TITLE>Deputy Assistant Administrator for Operations, National Marine Fisheries Service.</TITLE>
        </SIG>
        <P>For the reasons set out in the preamble, 50 CFR part 648 is amended as follows:</P>
        <REGTEXT PART="648" TITLE="50">
          <PART>
            <HD SOURCE="HED">PART 648—FISHERIES OF THE NORTHEASTERN UNITED STATES</HD>
          </PART>
          <AMDPAR>1. The authority citation for part 648 continues to read as follows:</AMDPAR>
          <AUTH>
            <HD SOURCE="HED">Authority:</HD>
            <P>16 U.S.C. 1801<E T="03">et seq.</E>
            </P>
          </AUTH>
        </REGTEXT>
        
        <REGTEXT PART="648" TITLE="50">
          <AMDPAR>2. In § 648.58, paragraph (e) is added to read as follows:</AMDPAR>
          <SECTION>
            <SECTNO>§ 648.58</SECTNO>
            <SUBJECT>Rotational Closed Areas.</SUBJECT>
            <STARS/>
            <P>(e)<E T="03">Nantucket Lightship Closed Area.</E>No vessel may fish for scallops in, or possess or land scallops from, the area known as the Nantucket Lightship Closed Area. No vessel may possess scallops in the Nantucket Lightship Closed Area, unless such vessel is only transiting the area as provided in paragraph (c) of this section. The Nantucket Lightship Closed Area is defined by straight lines connecting the following points in the order stated (copies of a chart depicting this area are available from the Regional Administrator upon request):</P>
            <GPOTABLE CDEF="s20,xls48,xls48" COLS="3" OPTS="L2,tp0,i1">
              <TTITLE/>
              <BOXHD>
                <CHED H="1">Point</CHED>
                <CHED H="1">Latitude</CHED>
                <CHED H="1">Longitude</CHED>
              </BOXHD>
              <ROW>
                <ENT I="01">NLSA1</ENT>
                <ENT>40°50′ N</ENT>
                <ENT>69°00′ W</ENT>
              </ROW>
              <ROW>
                <ENT I="01">NLSA2</ENT>
                <ENT>40°30′ N</ENT>
                <ENT>69°00′ W</ENT>
              </ROW>
              <ROW>
                <ENT I="01">NLSA3</ENT>
                <ENT>40°30′ N</ENT>
                <ENT>69°14.5′ W</ENT>
              </ROW>
              <ROW>
                <ENT I="01">NLSA4</ENT>
                <ENT>40°50′ N</ENT>
                <ENT>69°29.5′ W</ENT>
              </ROW>
              <ROW>
                <ENT I="01">NLAA1</ENT>
                <ENT>40°50′ N</ENT>
                <ENT>69°00′ W</ENT>
              </ROW>
            </GPOTABLE>
          </SECTION>
        </REGTEXT>
        <REGTEXT PART="648" TITLE="50">
          <SECTION>
            <SECTNO>§ 648.59</SECTNO>
            <SUBJECT>[Amended]</SUBJECT>
          </SECTION>
          <AMDPAR>3. In § 648.59, paragraph (d) is suspended.</AMDPAR>
          
        </REGTEXT>
      </SUPLINF>
      <FRDOC>[FR Doc. 2011-13526 Filed 5-26-11; 4:15 pm]</FRDOC>
      <BILCOD>BILLING CODE 3510-22-P</BILCOD>
    </RULE>
  </RULES>
  <VOL>76</VOL>
  <NO>105</NO>
  <DATE>Wednesday, June 1, 2011</DATE>
  <UNITNAME>Proposed Rules</UNITNAME>
  <PRORULES>
    <PRORULE>
      <PREAMB>
        <PRTPAGE P="31495"/>
        <AGENCY TYPE="F">DEPARTMENT OF AGRICULTURE</AGENCY>
        <SUBAGY>Agricultural Marketing Service</SUBAGY>
        <CFR>7 CFR Part 205</CFR>
        <DEPDOC>[Doc. No. AMS-NOP-11-0003; NOP-10-13]</DEPDOC>
        <RIN>RIN 0581-AD13</RIN>
        <SUBJECT>National Organic Program, Sunset Review (2013)</SUBJECT>
        <AGY>
          <HD SOURCE="HED">AGENCY:</HD>
          <P>Agricultural Marketing Service, USDA.</P>
        </AGY>
        <ACT>
          <HD SOURCE="HED">ACTION:</HD>
          <P>Advance notice of proposed rulemaking with request for comments.</P>
        </ACT>
        <SUM>
          <HD SOURCE="HED">SUMMARY:</HD>
          <P>The Organic Foods Production Act of 1990 (OFPA) requires sunset (expiration) of the exempted or prohibited use of substances on the National List of Allowed and Prohibited Substances (National List) under the National Organic Program (NOP). The exemptions and prohibitions granted on the National List under the OFPA are required to be reviewed every 5 years by the National Organic Standards Board (NOSB). The Secretary of Agriculture has authority under the OFPA to renew such exemptions and prohibitions. If the substances are not reviewed by the NOSB and renewed by the Secretary within 5 years of their inclusion on the National List, then their authorized use or prohibition expires. As required by the OFPA, the allowed use of 11 synthetic and nonsynthetic substances in organic production and handling will expire on November 3, 2013. A prohibition on one nonsynthetic substance in organic production will expire on November 3, 2013. This advance notice of proposed rulemaking (ANPR) begins the public comment process on whether the identified existing exemptions or prohibition should be continued. This ANPR also establishes that the sunset review and renewal process must be concluded by November 3, 2013. Finally, this ANPR discusses how the NOP will manage the sunset review and renewal process.</P>
        </SUM>
        <DATES>
          <HD SOURCE="HED">DATES:</HD>
          <P>Comments must be submitted on or before August 1, 2011.</P>
        </DATES>
        <ADD>
          <HD SOURCE="HED">ADDRESSES:</HD>
          <P>Interested persons may submit written comments on this ANPR using one of the following methods:</P>
          <P>•<E T="03">Federal eRulemaking Portal: http://www.regulations.gov.</E>Follow the instructions for submitting comments.</P>
          <P>•<E T="03">Mail:</E>Toni Strother, Agricultural Marketing Specialist, National Organic Program, USDA-AMS-NOP, Room 2646-So., Ag Stop 0268, 1400 Independence Ave., SW., Washington, DC 20250-0268.</P>

          <P>Written comments responding to this ANPR should be identified with the docket number AMS-NOP-11-0003; NOP-10-13. For detailed instructions on submitting comments and additional information on the rulemaking process, see the “Guidance on Submitting Your Comments” heading of the<E T="02">SUPPLEMENTARY INFORMATION</E>section of this document. The NOP intends to have all comments concerning this ANPR, including names and addresses when provided, whether submitted by mail or internet, available for viewing on the Federal eRulemaking Portal internet site,<E T="03">http://www.regulations.gov.</E>Comments submitted in response to this ANPR will also be available for viewing in person at USDA-AMS, National Organic Program, Room 2646-South Building, 1400 Independence Ave., SW., Washington, DC, from 9 a.m. to 12 noon and from 1 p.m. to 4 p.m., Monday through Friday (except official Federal holidays). Persons wanting to visit the USDA South Building to view comments received in response to this ANPR are requested to make an appointment in advance by calling (202) 720-3252.</P>
        </ADD>
        <FURINF>
          <HD SOURCE="HED">FOR FURTHER INFORMATION CONTACT:</HD>
          <P>Melissa Bailey, Director, Standards Division, National Organic Program, USDA-AMS-NOP, 1400 Independence Ave., SW., Room 2646-So., Ag Stop 0268, Washington, DC 20250-0268. Telephone: (202) 720-3252.</P>
        </FURINF>
      </PREAMB>
      <SUPLINF>
        <HD SOURCE="HED">SUPPLEMENTARY INFORMATION:</HD>
        <HD SOURCE="HD1">Background</HD>

        <P>The Organic Foods Production Act of 1990 (OFPA), 7 U.S.C. 6501<E T="03">et seq.,</E>authorizes the establishment of the National List. The National List identifies synthetic substances that are exempted (allowed) and nonsynthetic substances that are prohibited in organic crop and livestock production. The National List also identifies nonsynthetic and synthetic substances that are exempted for use in organic handling. The exemptions and prohibitions granted under the OFPA are required to be reviewed every 5 years by the National Organic Standards Board (NOSB). The Secretary of Agriculture has authority under the OFPA to renew such exemptions and prohibitions. If the substances are not reviewed by the NOSB and renewed by the Secretary within 5 years of their inclusion on the National List, their authorized use or prohibition expires under OFPA's sunset provision.</P>
        <P>This ANPR announces the sunset of 11 exempted substances and 1 prohibition added to the National List on November 3, 2003 (68 FR 61987) and November 4, 2003 (68 FR 62215), and previously renewed under the sunset process on November 3, 2008 (73 FR 59479). This ANPR establishes November 3, 2013, as the date by which the sunset review and renewal process must be concluded. The exemptions and prohibitions not renewed by this date will be removed from the National List. This ANPR also begins the public comment process on whether the existing specific exemptions on the National List should be continued. This ANPR discusses how the NOP will manage the sunset review and renewal process.</P>
        <P>Because these substances may be critical to the production and handling of raw and processed organic agricultural products, their expiration could cause disruption of well-established and accepted organic production, handling, and processing systems. Therefore, the NOP is initiating the sunset review and renewal process now, to provide ample opportunity for the public to make their views known and to inform the decisions of the NOSB.</P>
        <HD SOURCE="HD1">Crops Production Substances</HD>

        <P>The NOSB Crops Committee will review the continued exemption (use) of six listings of synthetic substances allowed for use in organic crop production on § 205.601: copper sulfate (2 listings), ozone gas, peracetic acid (2 listings), and EPA List 3 inert ingredients. These six listings are scheduled to sunset (expire) on November 3, 2013. The Crops Committee will also review the continued prohibition of one<PRTPAGE P="31496"/>nonsynthetic substance, calcium chloride, listed on § 205.602, scheduled to sunset on November 3, 2013. Table 1 contains the full listings of crop production substances to be reviewed under the 2013 sunset process.</P>
        <GPOTABLE CDEF="s60,r200,xs68" COLS="3" OPTS="L2,i1">
          <TTITLE>Table 1—Crops Committee Sunset 2013 Substances</TTITLE>
          <BOXHD>
            <CHED H="1">National list section</CHED>
            <CHED H="1">Substance listing</CHED>
            <CHED H="1">Sunset date</CHED>
          </BOXHD>
          <ROW EXPSTB="02" RUL="s">
            <ENT I="21">Synthetic substances allowed for use in organic crop production.</ENT>
          </ROW>
          <ROW EXPSTB="00">
            <ENT I="01">205.601(a)(3)</ENT>
            <ENT>Copper sulfate—for use as an algicide in aquatic rice systems, is limited to one application per field during any 24-month period. Application rates are limited to those which do not increase baseline soil test values for copper over a timeframe agreed upon by the producer and accredited certifying agent</ENT>
            <ENT>November 3, 2013.</ENT>
          </ROW>
          <ROW>
            <ENT I="01">205.601(a)(5)</ENT>
            <ENT>Ozone gas—for use as an irrigation system cleaner only</ENT>
            <ENT>November 3, 2013.</ENT>
          </ROW>
          <ROW>
            <ENT I="01">205.601(a)(6)</ENT>
            <ENT>Peracetic acid—for use in disinfecting equipment, seed, and asexually propagated planting material</ENT>
            <ENT>November 3, 2013.</ENT>
          </ROW>
          <ROW>
            <ENT I="01">205.601(e)(4)</ENT>
            <ENT>Copper sulfate—for use as tadpole shrimp control in aquatic rice production, is limited to one application per field during any 24-month period. Application rates are limited to levels which do not increase baseline soil test values for copper over a timeframe agreed upon by the producer and accredited certifying agent</ENT>
            <ENT>November 3, 2013.</ENT>
          </ROW>
          <ROW>
            <ENT I="01">205.601(i)(8)</ENT>
            <ENT>Peracetic acid—for use to control fire blight bacteria</ENT>
            <ENT>November 3, 2013.</ENT>
          </ROW>
          <ROW RUL="s">
            <ENT I="01">205.601(m)(2)</ENT>
            <ENT>EPA List 3—Inerts of unknown toxicity—for use only in passive pheromone dispensers</ENT>
            <ENT>November 3, 2013.</ENT>
          </ROW>
          <ROW EXPSTB="02" RUL="s">
            <ENT I="21">Nonsynthetic substances prohibited for use in organic crop production.</ENT>
          </ROW>
          <ROW EXPSTB="00" RUL="s">
            <ENT I="01">205.602(c)</ENT>
            <ENT>Calcium chloride, brine process is natural and prohibited for use except as a foliar spray to treat a physiological disorder associated with calcium uptake</ENT>
            <ENT>November 3, 2013.</ENT>
          </ROW>
        </GPOTABLE>
        <HD SOURCE="HD1">Handling Substances</HD>
        <P>The NOSB Handling Committee will review the continued exemption (use) of six nonagricultural (nonorganic), nonsynthetic substances allowed as ingredients in or on processed products labeled as “organic” or “made with organic (specified ingredients or food groups(s)).” The allowed uses of the following six substances listed on § 205.605(a) are scheduled to expire on November 3, 2013: agar-agar, animal enzymes, calcium sulfate, carrageenan, glucono delta-lactone, and tartaric acid.</P>
        <P>The Handling Committee will also review the continued exemption (use) of two nonagricultural (nonorganic), synthetic substances allowed as ingredients in or on processed products labeled as “organic” or “made with organic (specified ingredients or food groups(s)).” The allowed uses of the following two substances listed on § 205.605(b) are scheduled to expire November 3, 2013: cellulose and tartaric acid. Table 2 contains the full listings of handling substances that will be reviewed under the 2013 sunset process.</P>
        <GPOTABLE CDEF="s100,r200,xs68" COLS="3" OPTS="L2,i1">
          <TTITLE>Table 2—Handling Committee Sunset 2013 Substances</TTITLE>
          <BOXHD>
            <CHED H="1">National list section</CHED>
            <CHED H="1">Substance listing</CHED>
            <CHED H="1">Sunset date</CHED>
          </BOXHD>
          <ROW>
            <ENT I="22">Nonsynthetics allowed:</ENT>
          </ROW>
          <ROW>
            <ENT I="03">205.605(a)</ENT>
            <ENT>Agar-agar</ENT>
            <ENT>November 3, 2013.</ENT>
          </ROW>
          <ROW>
            <ENT I="03">205.605(a)</ENT>
            <ENT>Animal enzymes—(Rennet-animals derived; Catalase-bovine liver; Animal lipase; Pancreatin; Pepsin; and Trypsin)</ENT>
            <ENT>November 3, 2013.</ENT>
          </ROW>
          <ROW>
            <ENT I="03">205.605(a)</ENT>
            <ENT>Calcium sulfate—mined</ENT>
            <ENT>November 3, 2013.</ENT>
          </ROW>
          <ROW>
            <ENT I="03">205.605(a)</ENT>
            <ENT>Carrageenan</ENT>
            <ENT>November 3, 2013.</ENT>
          </ROW>
          <ROW>
            <ENT I="03">205.605(a)</ENT>
            <ENT>Glucono delta-lactone—production by the oxidation of D-glucose with bromine water is prohibited</ENT>
            <ENT>November 3, 2013.</ENT>
          </ROW>
          <ROW>
            <ENT I="03">205.605(a)</ENT>
            <ENT>Tartaric acid—made from grape wine</ENT>
            <ENT>November 3, 2013.</ENT>
          </ROW>
          <ROW>
            <ENT I="22">Synthetics allowed:</ENT>
          </ROW>
          <ROW>
            <ENT I="03">205.605(b)</ENT>
            <ENT>Cellulose—for use in regenerative casings, as an anti-caking agent (non-chlorine bleached) and filtering aid</ENT>
            <ENT>November 3, 2013.</ENT>
          </ROW>
          <ROW>
            <ENT I="03">205.605(b)</ENT>
            <ENT>Tartaric acid—made from malic acid</ENT>
            <ENT>November 3, 2013.</ENT>
          </ROW>
        </GPOTABLE>
        <HD SOURCE="HD1">The Sunset Process</HD>

        <P>All substances currently on the National List have been previously evaluated by the NOSB for consistency with OFPA and its implementing regulations. According to § 6517(e) of the OFPA, these substances must be reviewed by the NOSB and renewed by the Secretary for their use or prohibition to continue after 5 years of their addition to the National List which will be November 3, 2013. All substances identified under this notice were previously renewed under the sunset<PRTPAGE P="31497"/>process on November 4, 2008 (73 FR 59479), and must be reviewed again by November 3, 2013.</P>
        <P>This notice requests public comments about the continued use or prohibition of the substances identified. Public comments submitted will be considered in the review and renewal process. The NOP will forward comments received under this notice to the NOSB for review. The NOSB will review the listings of allowed and prohibited substances scheduled to sunset, including the public comments received during this review. The NOSB will review each of the substances listed in this notice and may determine that certain substances warrant a more in-depth review and require additional information or research that considers new scientific data and technological and market advances.</P>
        <P>Following the NOSB's review, the NOSB will make a recommendation to the Secretary about the continuation of specific exemptions and prohibitions for the substances listed in this ANPR. After the Secretary receives and reviews the NOSB's recommendations, the NOP will publish a proposed rule regarding the NOSB recommendations. This proposed rule will provide an additional opportunity for the public to submit written comments. Comments received on the proposed rule will be used to develop a final rule. Because the sunset review and renewal process involves rulemaking, the NOP believes it is appropriate to initiate the process now for substances scheduled to sunset in 2013.</P>
        <HD SOURCE="HD1">Guidance on Submitting Your Comments</HD>
        <P>Written comments responding to this ANPR should be identified with the docket number AMS-NOP-11-0003; NOP-10-13. You should clearly indicate your position on continuing the allowance or prohibition of the substances identified in this ANPR and the reasons for your position. You should include relevant information and data to support your position (e.g., scientific, environmental, manufacturing, industry impact information, etc.).</P>
        <P>Comments, regardless of whether they support or do not support the continued use of a substance(s) listed within this ANPR, should provide evidence concerning the viability of alternatives for the substance under sunset review. Viable alternatives include, but are not limited to, alternative management practices that would eliminate the need for the specific substance; other currently exempted substances that are on the National List, which could eliminate the need for this specific substance; and other organic or nonorganic agricultural substances. Such evidence should adequately address whether any alternatives have a function and effect equivalent to or better than the specific exempted substance, and whether you want the substance to be renewed or do not want its use to be continued. Assertions about alternative substances, except for those alternatives that already appear on the National List, should, if possible, include the name and address of the manufacturer of the alternative. Further, your comments should include a copy or the specific source of any supportive literature, which could include product or practice descriptions; performance and test data; reference standards; names and addresses of producers or handlers who have used the alternative under similar conditions and the date of use; and an itemized comparison of the function and effect of the proposed alternative(s) with the  substance under review. The information provided in Table 3 can help you describe recommended alternatives for different types of organic operations in place of a current exempted substance that you do not want to be continued.</P>
        <P>An Appendix to this ANPR contains worksheets to assist you in gathering relevant information concerning these issues. These worksheets are not required to submit a comment. These worksheets are used by the NOSB to develop their recommendations to the Secretary to include an exempted substance on the National List. You do not have to answer the questions on the worksheets; they are intended only to help you provide substantive comments to the NOSB when you provide comments on the specific substance.</P>
        <HD SOURCE="HD1">Comments That Support Existing Exemptions and Prohibitions</HD>
        <P>Comments in support of a continued exemption of a substance should demonstrate that the substance is: (1) Not harmful to human health or the environment, (2) necessary to the production of the agricultural products because of the unavailability of wholly nonsynthetic substitute products, and (3) consistent with organic production and handling. Comments in support of a continued prohibition should explain how the use of the substance would continue to be: (1) harmful to human health or the environment, or (2) inconsistent with organic farming and handling.</P>
        <HD SOURCE="HD1">Comments That DO NOT Support Continuing Existing Exemptions or Prohibitions</HD>
        <P>The current exemptions were originally recommended by the NOSB based on evidence available to the NOSB at the time of review which demonstrated that the substances were found to be: (1) Not harmful to human health or the environment, (2) necessary because of the unavailability of wholly nonsynthetic alternatives, and (3) consistent and compatible with organic practices.</P>
        <P>If you provide comments that do not support continuing an existing exemption or prohibition, you should provide reasons why the use of the substance should no longer be allowed or prohibited in organic agricultural production and handling. Specifically, comments that support the removal of a substance from the National List should provide information to demonstrate that the substance is: (1) Harmful to human health or the environment; (2) unnecessary because of the availability of alternatives; or (3) inconsistent with organic farming or handling. Comments that do not support a continued prohibition should explain how the use of the substance would not be: (1) harmful to human health or the environment, or (2) inconsistent with organic farming and handling.</P>
        <GPOTABLE CDEF="s60,r125,xs150" COLS="3" OPTS="L2,i1">
          <TTITLE>Table 3—Guidance on Submitting Comments for Alternatives to Substances on the National List.</TTITLE>
          <BOXHD>
            <CHED H="1" O="L">If the currently listed substance is used in . . .</CHED>
            <CHED H="1" O="L">And is a . . .</CHED>
            <CHED H="1" O="L">Then the recommended alternative should be a (an) . . .</CHED>
          </BOXHD>
          <ROW>
            <ENT I="01">Crop Production</ENT>
            <ENT>Synthetic substance</ENT>
            <ENT>—Another currently listed synthetic substance;<LI>—Nonsynthetic substance; or</LI>
              <LI>—Management practice.</LI>
            </ENT>
          </ROW>
          <ROW>
            <PRTPAGE P="31498"/>
            <ENT I="01">Crop Production</ENT>
            <ENT>Synthetic inert substance (pesticidal)</ENT>
            <ENT>—Another currently listed synthetic substance; or<LI>—Nonsynthetic substance.</LI>
            </ENT>
          </ROW>
          <ROW>
            <ENT I="01">Handling</ENT>
            <ENT>Nonsynthetic (non-agricultural) substance</ENT>
            <ENT>—Agricultural substance; or<LI>—Management practice.</LI>
            </ENT>
          </ROW>
          <ROW>
            <ENT I="01">Handling</ENT>
            <ENT>Synthetic substance</ENT>
            <ENT>—Another currently listed synthetic substance;<LI>—Nonsynthetic (non-agricultural) substance; or</LI>
              <LI>—Management practice.</LI>
            </ENT>
          </ROW>
        </GPOTABLE>
        <P>The NOP understands that supportive technical or scientific information for synthetic alternatives not currently on the National List may not be easily available to organic producers and handlers. Such information may, however, be available from the research community including universities, or other sources, including international organic programs.</P>
        <HD SOURCE="HD1">Request for Comments</HD>
        <P>The NOP requests that you comment whether the NOSB should continue to recommend the exemptions and prohibitions listed above on the National List of Allowed and Prohibited Substances for organic agricultural production and handling. All comments will be considered in the development of the NOSB's recommendations to the Secretary.</P>
        <AUTH>
          <HD SOURCE="HED">Authority:</HD>
          <P>7 U.S.C. 6501-6522 and 7 CFR part 205</P>
        </AUTH>
        <SIG>
          <DATED>Dated: May 24, 2011.</DATED>
          <NAME>Rayne Pegg,</NAME>
          <TITLE>Administrator, Agricultural Marketing Service.</TITLE>
        </SIG>
        <HD SOURCE="HD1">Appendix</HD>
        <P>This Appendix contains worksheets to assist you in gathering relevant information concerning the compatibility of substances with evaluation criteria of the OFPA. These worksheets are not required to submit a comment. These worksheets are used by the NOSB to develop their recommendations to the Secretary to include an exempted or prohibited substance on the National List. You do not have to answer the questions on the worksheets; they are intended only to help you provide substantive comments to the NOSB when you provide comments on the specific substance.</P>
        <GPOTABLE CDEF="s200,r25,r25,r25,xs125" COLS="5" OPTS="L2,i1">
          <TTITLE>NOSB Evaluation Criteria for Substances Added to the National List</TTITLE>
          <BOXHD>
            <CHED H="1">Question</CHED>
            <CHED H="1">Yes</CHED>
            <CHED H="1">No</CHED>
            <CHED H="1">N/A<SU>1</SU>
            </CHED>
            <CHED H="1">Documentation<LI>(TAP; petition; regulatory</LI>
              <LI>agency; other)</LI>
            </CHED>
          </BOXHD>
          <ROW EXPSTB="04" RUL="s">
            <ENT I="21">
              <E T="02">Category 1. Adverse impacts on humans or the environment?</E>
            </ENT>
          </ROW>
          <ROW EXPSTB="00">
            <ENT I="01">1. Are there adverse effects on environment from manufacture, use, or disposal? [§ 205.600 b.2]</ENT>
            <ENT O="xl"/>
            <ENT O="xl"/>
            <ENT O="xl"/>
            <ENT O="xl"/>
          </ROW>
          <ROW>
            <ENT I="01">2. Is there environmental contamination during manufacture, use, misuse, or disposal? [§ 6518 m.3]</ENT>
            <ENT O="xl"/>
            <ENT O="xl"/>
            <ENT O="xl"/>
            <ENT O="xl"/>
          </ROW>
          <ROW>
            <ENT I="01">3. Is the substance harmful to the environment? [§ 6517(c)(1)(A)(i);6517(c)(2)(A)(i)]</ENT>
            <ENT O="xl"/>
            <ENT O="xl"/>
            <ENT O="xl"/>
            <ENT O="xl"/>
          </ROW>
          <ROW>
            <ENT I="01">4. Does the substance contain List 1, 2, or 3 inerts? [§ 6517(c)(1)(B)(ii); § 205.601(m)(2)]</ENT>
            <ENT O="xl"/>
            <ENT O="xl"/>
            <ENT O="xl"/>
            <ENT O="xl"/>
          </ROW>
          <ROW>
            <ENT I="01">5. Is there potential for detrimental chemical interaction with other materials used? [§ 6518(m)(1)]</ENT>
            <ENT O="xl"/>
            <ENT O="xl"/>
            <ENT O="xl"/>
            <ENT O="xl"/>
          </ROW>
          <ROW>
            <ENT I="01">6. Are there adverse biological and chemical interactions in agro-ecosystem? [§ 6518(m)(5)]</ENT>
            <ENT O="xl"/>
            <ENT O="xl"/>
            <ENT O="xl"/>
            <ENT O="xl"/>
          </ROW>
          <ROW>
            <ENT I="01">7. Are there detrimental physiological effects on soil organisms, crops, or livestock? [§ 6518(m)(5)]</ENT>
            <ENT O="xl"/>
            <ENT O="xl"/>
            <ENT O="xl"/>
            <ENT O="xl"/>
          </ROW>
          <ROW>
            <ENT I="01">8. Is there a toxic or other adverse action of the material or its breakdown products? [§ 6518(m)(2)]</ENT>
            <ENT O="xl"/>
            <ENT O="xl"/>
            <ENT O="xl"/>
            <ENT O="xl"/>
          </ROW>
          <ROW>
            <ENT I="01">9. Is there undesirable persistence or concentration of the material or breakdown products in environment?[§ 6518(m)(2)]</ENT>
            <ENT O="xl"/>
            <ENT O="xl"/>
            <ENT O="xl"/>
            <ENT O="xl"/>
          </ROW>
          <ROW>
            <ENT I="01">10. Is there any harmful effect on human health? [§ 6517(c)(1)(A)(i); § 6517(c)(2)(A)(i); § 6518(m)(4)]</ENT>
            <ENT O="xl"/>
            <ENT O="xl"/>
            <ENT O="xl"/>
            <ENT O="xl"/>
          </ROW>
          <ROW>
            <ENT I="01">11. Is there an adverse effect on human health as defined by applicable Federal regulations? [§ 205.600(b)(3)]</ENT>
            <ENT O="xl"/>
            <ENT O="xl"/>
            <ENT O="xl"/>
            <ENT O="xl"/>
          </ROW>
          <ROW>
            <ENT I="01">12. Is the substance GRAS when used according to FDA's good manufacturing practices? [§ 205.600(b)(5)]</ENT>
            <ENT O="xl"/>
            <ENT O="xl"/>
            <ENT O="xl"/>
            <ENT O="xl"/>
          </ROW>
          <ROW>
            <ENT I="01">13. Does the substance contain residues of heavy metals or other contaminants in excess of FDA tolerances? [§ 205.600(b)(5)]</ENT>
            <ENT O="xl"/>
            <ENT O="xl"/>
            <ENT O="xl"/>
            <ENT O="xl"/>
          </ROW>
          <TNOTE>
            <SU>1</SU>If the substance under review is for crop or livestock production, all of the questions from § 205.600(b) are N/A—not applicable.</TNOTE>
        </GPOTABLE>
        <PRTPAGE P="31499"/>
        <GPOTABLE CDEF="s200,r25,r25,r25,xs125" COLS="5" OPTS="L2(0,,),ns,tp0,p0,8/9,i1">
          <TTITLE/>
          <BOXHD>
            <CHED H="1"/>
            <CHED H="1"/>
            <CHED H="1"/>
            <CHED H="1"/>
            <CHED H="1"/>
          </BOXHD>
          <ROW EXPSTB="04" RUL="s">
            <ENT I="21">
              <E T="02">Category 2. Is the substance essential for organic production?</E>
            </ENT>
          </ROW>
          <ROW EXPSTB="00">
            <ENT I="01">1. Is the substance formulated or manufactured by a chemical process? [§ 6502(21)]</ENT>
            <ENT O="xl"/>
            <ENT O="xl"/>
            <ENT O="xl"/>
            <ENT O="xl"/>
          </ROW>
          <ROW>
            <ENT I="01">2. Is the substance formulated or manufactured by a process that chemically changes a substance extracted from naturally occurring plant, animal, or mineral, sources? [§ 6502(21)]</ENT>
            <ENT O="xl"/>
            <ENT O="xl"/>
            <ENT O="xl"/>
            <ENT O="xl"/>
          </ROW>
          <ROW>
            <ENT I="01">3. Is the substance created by naturally occurring biological processes? [§ 6502(21)]</ENT>
            <ENT O="xl"/>
            <ENT O="xl"/>
            <ENT O="xl"/>
            <ENT O="xl"/>
          </ROW>
          <ROW>
            <ENT I="01">4. Is there a natural source of the substance? [§ 205.600(b)(1)]</ENT>
            <ENT O="xl"/>
            <ENT O="xl"/>
            <ENT O="xl"/>
            <ENT O="xl"/>
          </ROW>
          <ROW>
            <ENT I="01">5. Is there an organic substitute? [§ 205.600(b)(1)]</ENT>
            <ENT O="xl"/>
            <ENT O="xl"/>
            <ENT O="xl"/>
            <ENT O="xl"/>
          </ROW>
          <ROW>
            <ENT I="01">6. Is the substance essential for handling of organically produced agricultural products? [§ 205.600(b)(6)]</ENT>
            <ENT O="xl"/>
            <ENT O="xl"/>
            <ENT O="xl"/>
            <ENT O="xl"/>
          </ROW>
          <ROW>
            <ENT I="01">7. Is there a wholly natural substitute product? [§ 6517(c)(1)(A)(ii)]</ENT>
            <ENT O="xl"/>
            <ENT O="xl"/>
            <ENT O="xl"/>
            <ENT O="xl"/>
          </ROW>
          <ROW>
            <ENT I="01">8. Is the substance used in handling, not synthetic, but not organically produced? [§ 6517(c)(1)(B)(iii)]</ENT>
            <ENT O="xl"/>
            <ENT O="xl"/>
            <ENT O="xl"/>
            <ENT O="xl"/>
          </ROW>
          <ROW>
            <ENT I="01">9. Is there any alternative substances? [§ 6518(m)(6)]</ENT>
            <ENT O="xl"/>
            <ENT O="xl"/>
            <ENT O="xl"/>
            <ENT O="xl"/>
          </ROW>
          <ROW>
            <ENT I="01">10. Is there another practice that would make the substance unnecessary? [§ 6518(m)(6)]</ENT>
            <ENT O="xl"/>
            <ENT O="xl"/>
            <ENT O="xl"/>
            <ENT O="xl"/>
          </ROW>
          <TNOTE>
            <SU>1</SU>If the substance under review is for crop or livestock production, all of the questions from § 205.600(b) are N/A—not applicable.</TNOTE>
        </GPOTABLE>
        <GPOTABLE CDEF="s200,r25,r25,r25,xs125" COLS="5" OPTS="L2(0,,),ns,tp0,p0,8/9,i1">
          <BOXHD>
            <CHED H="1"/>
            <CHED H="1"/>
            <CHED H="1"/>
            <CHED H="1"/>
            <CHED H="1"/>
          </BOXHD>
          <ROW EXPSTB="04" RUL="s">
            <ENT I="21">
              <E T="02">Category 3. Is the substance compatible with organic production practices?</E>
            </ENT>
          </ROW>
          <ROW EXPSTB="00">
            <ENT I="01">1. Is the substance compatible with organic handling? [§ 205.600(b)(2)]</ENT>
            <ENT O="xl"/>
            <ENT O="xl"/>
            <ENT O="xl"/>
            <ENT O="xl"/>
          </ROW>
          <ROW>
            <ENT I="01">2. Is the substance consistent with organic farming and handling? [§ 6517(c)(1)(A)(iii); § 6517(c)(2)(A)(ii)]</ENT>
            <ENT O="xl"/>
            <ENT O="xl"/>
            <ENT O="xl"/>
            <ENT O="xl"/>
          </ROW>
          <ROW>
            <ENT I="01">3. Is the substance compatible with a system of sustainable agriculture? [§ 6518(m)(7)]</ENT>
            <ENT O="xl"/>
            <ENT O="xl"/>
            <ENT O="xl"/>
            <ENT O="xl"/>
          </ROW>
          <ROW>
            <ENT I="01">4. Is the nutritional quality of the food maintained with the substance? [§ 205.600(b)(3)]</ENT>
            <ENT O="xl"/>
            <ENT O="xl"/>
            <ENT O="xl"/>
            <ENT O="xl"/>
          </ROW>
          <ROW>
            <ENT I="01">5. Is the primary use as a preservative? [§ 205.600(b)(4)]</ENT>
            <ENT O="xl"/>
            <ENT O="xl"/>
            <ENT O="xl"/>
            <ENT O="xl"/>
          </ROW>
          <ROW>
            <ENT I="01">6. Is the primary use to recreate or improve flavors, colors, textures, or nutritive values lost in processing (except when required by law, e.g., vitamin D in milk)? [§ 205.600(b)(4)]</ENT>
            <ENT O="xl"/>
            <ENT O="xl"/>
            <ENT O="xl"/>
            <ENT O="xl"/>
          </ROW>
          <ROW>
            <ENT I="01">7. Is the substance used in production, and does it contain an active synthetic ingredient in the following categories:</ENT>
          </ROW>
          <ROW>
            <ENT I="03">a. copper and sulfur compounds;</ENT>
            <ENT O="xl"/>
            <ENT O="xl"/>
            <ENT O="xl"/>
            <ENT O="xl"/>
          </ROW>
          <ROW>
            <ENT I="03">b. toxins derived from bacteria;</ENT>
            <ENT O="xl"/>
            <ENT O="xl"/>
            <ENT O="xl"/>
            <ENT O="xl"/>
          </ROW>
          <ROW>
            <ENT I="03" O="xl">c. pheromones, soaps, horticultural oils, fish emulsions, treated seed, vitamins and minerals?</ENT>
            <ENT O="xl"/>
            <ENT O="xl"/>
            <ENT O="xl"/>
            <ENT O="xl"/>
          </ROW>
          <ROW>
            <ENT I="03">d. livestock parasiticides and medicines?</ENT>
            <ENT O="xl"/>
            <ENT O="xl"/>
            <ENT O="xl"/>
            <ENT O="xl"/>
          </ROW>
          <ROW>
            <ENT I="03" O="xl">e. production aids including netting, tree wraps and seals, insect traps, sticky barriers, row covers, and equipment cleaners?</ENT>
            <ENT O="xl"/>
            <ENT O="xl"/>
            <ENT O="xl"/>
            <ENT O="xl"/>
          </ROW>
          <TNOTE>
            <SU>1</SU>If the substance under review is for crop or livestock production, all of the questions from 205.600(b) are N/A—not applicable.</TNOTE>
        </GPOTABLE>
      </SUPLINF>
      <FRDOC>[FR Doc. 2011-13496 Filed 5-31-11; 8:45 am]</FRDOC>
      <BILCOD>BILLING CODE 3410-02-P</BILCOD>
    </PRORULE>
    <PRORULE>
      <PREAMB>
        <AGENCY TYPE="N">DEPARTMENT OF AGRICULTURE</AGENCY>
        <SUBAGY>Animal and Plant Health Inspection Service</SUBAGY>
        <CFR>9 CFR Parts 92, 93, 94, 96, and 98</CFR>
        <DEPDOC>[Docket No. APHIS-2009-0035]</DEPDOC>
        <RIN>RIN 0579-AD05</RIN>
        <SUBJECT>Lists of Regions Classified With Respect to Certain Animal Diseases and States Approved To Receive Certain Imported Horses</SUBJECT>
        <AGY>
          <HD SOURCE="HED">AGENCY:</HD>
          <P>Animal and Plant Health Inspection Service, USDA.</P>
        </AGY>
        <ACT>
          <HD SOURCE="HED">ACTION:</HD>
          <P>Proposed rule.</P>
        </ACT>
        <SUM>
          <HD SOURCE="HED">SUMMARY:</HD>
          <P>We are proposing to remove lists of regions classified with respect to certain animal diseases and pests from our animal and animal product import regulations and, instead, post them to the Animal and Plant Health Inspection Service's (APHIS') Web site. The regulations would provide the Web address and would explain APHIS' criteria and process for adding a region to, or removing a region from, each of the lists. The technical criteria APHIS uses to evaluate whether a region should be added to or removed from a list would not change. We are also proposing to remove lists of States approved to receive horses imported from foreign regions where we consider contagious equine metritis to exist and, instead, post approved States to our Web site. The criteria for approving a State would not change. We would continue to provide an opportunity for public comment on changes to the lists. This action would enable the Agency to respond more quickly to changes in the disease status of regions.</P>
        </SUM>
        <DATES>
          <HD SOURCE="HED">DATES:</HD>
          <P>We will consider all comments that we receive on or before August 1, 2011.</P>
        </DATES>
        <ADD>
          <HD SOURCE="HED">ADDRESSES:</HD>
          <P>You may submit comments by either of the following methods:</P>
          <P>•<E T="03">Federal eRulemaking Portal:</E>Go to<E T="03">http://www.regulations.gov/fdmspublic/component/main?main=DocketDetail&amp;d=APHIS-2009-0035</E>to submit or view comments and to view supporting and related materials available electronically.</P>
          <P>•<E T="03">Postal Mail/Commercial Delivery:</E>Please send one copy of your comment to Docket No. APHIS-2009-0035, Regulatory Analysis and Development, PPD, APHIS, Station 3A-03.8, 4700 River Road Unit 118, Riverdale, MD 20737-1238. Please state that your comment refers to Docket No. APHIS-2009-0035.</P>
          <P>
            <E T="03">Reading Room:</E>You may read any comments that we receive on this docket in our reading room. The reading room is located in room 1141 of the<PRTPAGE P="31500"/>USDA South Building, 14th Street and Independence Avenue, SW., Washington, DC. Normal reading room hours are 8 a.m. to 4:30 p.m., Monday through Friday, except holidays. To be sure someone is there to help you, please call (202) 690-2817 before coming.</P>
          <P>
            <E T="03">Other Information:</E>Additional information about APHIS and its programs is available on the Internet at<E T="03">http://www.aphis.usda.gov.</E>
          </P>
        </ADD>
        <FURINF>
          <HD SOURCE="HED">FOR FURTHER INFORMATION CONTACT:</HD>
          <P>Dr. Laurel Voelker, Regional Evaluation Services—Import, National Center for Import and Export, VS, APHIS, 920 Main Campus Drive, Suite 150, Raleigh, NC 27606; (919) 855-7736.</P>
        </FURINF>
      </PREAMB>
      <SUPLINF>
        <HD SOURCE="HED">SUPPLEMENTARY INFORMATION:</HD>
        <HD SOURCE="HD1">Background</HD>
        <P>The regulations in 9 CFR part 94 govern the importation into the United States of certain animals and animal products in order to prevent the introduction of specified livestock diseases into the United States. The regulations currently list regions affected with or free of various diseases of livestock. The regulations also list Member States of the European Union (EU) that are part of the APHIS-defined region of the European Union that we recognize as low risk for classical swine fever (CSF). The regulations in 9 CFR part 93 govern the importation of animals into the United States. Part 93 also contains lists of regions affected with certain diseases of livestock and lists of regions where screwworm is considered to exist. It also contains lists of States that are approved by APHIS to receive stallions or mares over 731 days of age that are imported under specified conditions from regions affected with contagious equine metritis (CEM). The regulations in 9 CFR part 98 govern the importation into the United States of animal embryos and semen. Part 98 also lists the Member States of the European Union (EU) that are part of the APHIS-defined region of the European Union that we recognize as low risk for CSF. Each time we add or remove a Member State or other region from a list in the regulations, we must do so through rulemaking in order to change the Code of Federal Regulations.</P>
        <P>We are proposing to remove the lists of States approved to receive stallions or mares from regions affected with CEM, the lists of Member States, and most of the other lists of regions from parts 93, 94, and 98 and instead post them to APHIS' Web site. The regulations would provide the Web address and a contact for requesting copies of the lists by mail, fax, or email. The regulations also would explain APHIS' process for adding or removing a Member State or other region to or from the lists. The technical criteria APHIS uses to evaluate whether a region should be added to or removed from a list would not change. With respect to States approved to receive stallions or mares from regions affected with CEM, the regulations currently set forth the conditions States must meet in order to be approved. These conditions would not change.</P>

        <P>The proposed action would allow more timely changes to the lists. This should be particularly useful when a region must be added to a list of regions affected with a disease. APHIS considers a disease to exist in a region when we receive reports of an outbreak of the disease in the region from veterinary officials of the national government of the region and/or the World Organization for Animal Health (the OIE), or from another source that the Administrator determines to be reliable;<E T="03">e.g.</E>, APHIS inspectors based in foreign countries.</P>

        <P>As now, when APHIS determines that a disease is present in a region and presents a potential threat to animal health in the United States, we would take immediate action to restrict imports from that region. We would no longer need to follow that action with an interim rule in the<E T="04">Federal Register</E>to change text in the regulations. Instead, we would immediately list the region on the APHIS Web site and announce the listing through a notice, rather than a rule, in the<E T="04">Federal Register</E>. The notice would provide an opportunity for public comment.</P>

        <P>We would add a region to a list of regions we recognize as free of a particular disease only after completing an evaluation and making it available for public comment. We would do this through a notice in the<E T="04">Federal Register</E>. Following the close of the comment period, we would publish another notice responding to comments and announcing APHIS' decision. The criteria for evaluating a region's disease status, as outlined in 9 CFR part 92, “Importation of Animals and Animal Products: Procedures for Requesting Recognition of Regions,” would not change. Additional details about the factors APHIS reviews to determine a region's status may be found on the APHIS Web site at<E T="03">http://www.aphis.usda.gov/import_export/animals/reg_request.shtml.</E>
        </P>
        <P>In conjunction with our proposed removal of lists of regions from the regulations, we are proposing to amend part 92 to remove language that states we will do rulemaking to add or remove a region from one of the lists. We are also proposing to amend references in 9 CFR parts 93, 96, and 98 to the lists of regions in part 94. Instead of referring to regions listed “in” the regulations, we would refer to regions listed “under” the regulations.</P>
        <P>We are also proposing to replace the term “infected” with the term “affected” in several places where the term is used to describe a region where a disease exists. We generally use the term “infected” when referring to an animal that has a disease, and “affected” when referring to a region in which the disease exists.</P>

        <P>We are not proposing in this document to remove the lists in §§ 94.6 and 94.26 of regions free of exotic Newcastle disease or regions where highly pathogenic avian influenza subtype H5N1 is considered to exist because we are addressing the process for amending these lists in a separate rulemaking (see APHIS Docket 2006-0074 at<E T="03">http://www.regulations.gov/fdmspublic/component/main?main=DocketDetail&amp;d=APHIS-2006-0074</E>). Similarly, this proposal will not address the lists in § 94.18 of regions from which imports are restricted because of bovine spongiform encephalopathy (BSE) because we are currently evaluating our BSE regulations.</P>
        <HD SOURCE="HD1">Executive Order 12866 and Regulatory Flexibility Act</HD>
        <P>This proposed rule has been determined to be not significant for the purposes of Executive Order 12866 and, therefore, has not been reviewed by the Office of Management and Budget.</P>

        <P>In accordance with the Regulatory Flexibility Act, we have analyzed the potential economic effects of this action on small entities. Currently, rulemaking is required to amend the Code of Federal Regulations to change the disease or pest status of a region. The basis for such a change is either an outbreak of a disease or pest in a foreign region that results in a downgrade in status or an evaluation by APHIS that provides a basis for an upgrade in status. The changes we are proposing would remove the need for rulemaking to change the disease or pest status of a foreign region, while still providing opportunity for public comment on the basis for the action. This action would enable APHIS to respond more quickly to changes in the disease or pest status of foreign regions. We are not proposing to change our criteria for recognizing a region as free of or affected with a disease or pest, or to add or remove any Member State or other region to or from the lists as part of this rulemaking.<PRTPAGE P="31501"/>Similarly, rulemaking is required whenever APHIS approves a State to receive stallions or mares over 731 days of age from regions affected with CEM. The changes we are proposing would remove the need for rulemaking while still providing opportunity for public comment on the basis for the action. We are not proposing to change our criteria for approving a State to receive stallions or mares from CEM-affected regions.</P>
        <P>Under these circumstances, the Administrator of the Animal and Plant Health Inspection Service has determined that this action would not have a significant economic impact on a substantial number of small entities.</P>
        <HD SOURCE="HD1">Executive Order 12988</HD>
        <P>This proposed rule has been reviewed under Executive Order 12988, Civil Justice Reform. If this proposed rule is adopted: (1) No retroactive effect will be given to this rule, and (2) administrative proceedings will not be required before parties may file suit in court challenging this rule.</P>
        <HD SOURCE="HD1">Paperwork Reduction Act</HD>

        <P>This proposed rule contains no information collection or recordkeeping requirements under the Paperwork Reduction Act of 1995 (44 U.S.C. 3501<E T="03">et seq.</E>).</P>
        <LSTSUB>
          <HD SOURCE="HED">List of Subjects</HD>
          <CFR>9 CFR Part 92</CFR>
          <P>Animal diseases, Imports, Livestock, Poultry and poultry products, Region, Reporting and recordkeeping requirements.</P>
          <CFR>9 CFR Part 93</CFR>
          <P>Animal diseases, Imports, Livestock, Poultry and poultry products, Quarantine, Reporting and recordkeeping requirements.</P>
          <CFR>9 CFR Part 94</CFR>
          <P>Animal diseases, Imports, Livestock, Meat and meat products, Milk, Poultry and poultry products, Reporting and recordkeeping requirements.</P>
          <CFR>9 CFR Part 96</CFR>
          <P>Imports, Livestock, Reporting and recordkeeping requirements.</P>
          <CFR>9 CFR Part 98</CFR>
          <P>Animal diseases, Imports.</P>
        </LSTSUB>
        
        <P>Accordingly, we propose to amend 9 CFR parts 92, 93, 94, 96, and 98 as follows:</P>
        <PART>
          <HD SOURCE="HED">PART 92—IMPORTATION OF ANIMALS AND ANIMAL PRODUCTS: PROCEDURES FOR REQUESTING RECOGNITION OF REGIONS</HD>
          <P>1. The authority citation for part 92 continues to read as follows:</P>
          <AUTH>
            <HD SOURCE="HED">Authority:</HD>
            <P>7 U.S.C. 1622 and 8301-8317; 21 U.S.C. 136 and 136a; 31 U.S.C. 9701; 7 CFR 2.22, 2.80, and 371.4.</P>
          </AUTH>
          
          <P>2. Section 92.2 is amended as follows:</P>
          <P>a. In paragraph (d), by removing the word “rulemaking”.</P>
          <P>b. By revising paragraphs (e) and (f) to read as set forth below.</P>
          <SECTION>
            <SECTNO>§ 92.2</SECTNO>
            <SUBJECT>Application for recognition of the animal health status of a region.</SUBJECT>
            <STARS/>

            <P>(e) If, after review and evaluation of the information submitted, APHIS believes the request can be safely granted, APHIS will indicate its intent and make its evaluation available for public comment through a document published in the<E T="04">Federal Register</E>.</P>

            <P>(f) APHIS will provide a period of time during which the public may comment on its evaluation. During the comment period, the public will have access to the information upon which APHIS based its evaluation, as well as the evaluation itself. Once APHIS has reviewed all comments received, it will make a final determination regarding the request and will publish that determination in the<E T="04">Federal Register</E>.</P>
            <STARS/>
            <P>3. Section 92.4 is revised to read as follows:</P>
          </SECTION>
          <SECTION>
            <SECTNO>§ 92.4</SECTNO>
            <SUBJECT>Reestablishment of a region's disease-free status.</SUBJECT>
            <P>This section applies to regions that are designated under this subchapter as free of a specific animal disease and then experience an outbreak of that disease.</P>
            <P>(a)<E T="03">Interim designation.</E>If a region recognized as free of a specified animal disease in this subchapter experiences an outbreak of that disease, APHIS will take immediate action to prohibit or restrict imports of animals and animal products from that region. The prohibitions or restrictions may be imposed on only a portion of the region previously recognized as free of a disease. In these cases, APHIS will inform the public as soon as possible through notice in the<E T="04">Federal Register</E>of the basis for its decision to prohibit or restrict imports from the smaller area of that region previously recognized as free.</P>
            <P>(b)<E T="03">Reassessment of the disease situation.</E>(1) Following removal of disease-free status from all or part of a region, APHIS may reassess the disease situation in that region to determine whether it is necessary to continue the interim prohibitions or restrictions. In reassessing a region's disease status, APHIS will take into consideration the standards of the World Organization for Animal Health Office (OIE) for reinstatement of disease-free status, as well as all relevant information obtained through public comments or collected by or submitted to APHIS through other means.</P>

            <P>(2) Prior to taking any action to relieve prohibitions or restrictions, APHIS will make information regarding its reassessment of the region's disease status available to the public for comment. APHIS will announce the availability of this information in the<E T="04">Federal Register</E>.</P>
            <P>(c)<E T="03">Determination.</E>Based on the reassessment conducted in accordance with paragraph (b) of this section, including comments regarding the reassessment information, APHIS will take one of the following actions:</P>
            <P>(1) Publish a notice of its decision to reinstate the disease-free status of the region, or a portion of the region;</P>
            <P>(2) Publish a notice of its decision to continue the prohibitions or restrictions on the imports of animals and animal products from that region; or</P>
            <P>(3) Publish another document in the<E T="04">Federal Register</E>for comment.</P>
          </SECTION>
        </PART>
        <PART>
          <HD SOURCE="HED">PART 93—IMPORTATION OF CERTAIN ANIMALS, BIRDS, FISH, AND POULTRY, AND CERTAIN ANIMAL, BIRD, AND POULTRY PRODUCTS; REQUIREMENTS FOR MEANS OF CONVEYANCE AND SHIPPING CONTAINERS</HD>
          <P>4. The authority citation for part 93 continues to read as follows:</P>
          <AUTH>
            <HD SOURCE="HED">Authority:</HD>
            <P>7 U.S.C. 1622 and 8301-8317; 21 U.S.C. 136 and 136a; 31 U.S.C. 9701; 7 CFR 2.22, 2.80, and 371.4.</P>
          </AUTH>
          
          <P>5. Section 93.301 is amended as follows:</P>
          <P>a. By revising paragraph (c)(1), paragraphs (h)(6) and (h)(7), and paragraph (j), introductory text, to read as set forth below.</P>
          <P>b. In paragraphs (c)(2)(ix), (d)(3), (e)(1) introductory text, (e)(2)(i), (f)(10)(i), (g) introductory text, and (h) introductory text, by removing the words “listed in” each time they appear and adding in their place the words “listed under”.</P>
          <SECTION>
            <SECTNO>§ 93.301</SECTNO>
            <SUBJECT>General prohibitions; exceptions.</SUBJECT>
            <STARS/>
            <P>(c) * * *</P>

            <P>(1) Importation prohibited. Except as provided in paragraph (c)(2) of this section, notwithstanding the other provisions of this part concerning the<PRTPAGE P="31502"/>importation of horses into the United States, the importation of all horses from any region that APHIS considers to be affected with contagious equine metritis (CEM) and the importation of all horses that have been in any such region within the 12 months immediately preceding their being offered for entry into the United States is prohibited.</P>

            <P>(i) A list of regions that APHIS considers to be affected with CEM is maintained on the APHIS Web site at<E T="03">http://www.aphis.usda.gov/import_export/animals/animal_disease_status.shtml.</E>Copies of the list will also be available via postal mail, fax, or email upon request to the Sanitary Trade Issue Team, National Center for Import and Export, Veterinary Services, Animal and Plant Health Inspection Service, 4700 River Road Unit 38, Riverdale, Maryland 20737.</P>
            <P>(ii) APHIS will add a region to the list upon determining that the disease exists in the region based on reports APHIS receives of outbreaks of the disease from veterinary officials of the exporting country, from the World Organization for Animal Health (OIE), or from other sources the Administrator determines to be reliable, or upon determining that the region trades horses freely with a region in which CEM exists without testing for CEM. In the case of a region formerly not on this list that is added due to an outbreak, the region may be removed from the list in accordance with the procedures for reestablishment of a region's disease-free status in § 92.4 of this subchapter.</P>
            <STARS/>
            <P>(h) * * *</P>

            <P>(6) A list of States approved by APHIS to receive stallions over 731 days of age imported under paragraph (e) of this section is maintained on the APHIS site at<E T="03">http://www.aphis.usda.gov/import_export/animals/downloads/states_app_conduct_cem_testing.pdf.</E>Copies of the list will also be available via postal mail, fax, or email upon request to the Sanitary Trade Issue Team, National Center for Import and Export, Veterinary Services, Animal and Plant Health Inspection Service, 4700 River Road Unit 38, Riverdale, Maryland 20737.</P>

            <P>(7) A list of States approved by APHIS to receive mares over 731 days of age imported under paragraph (e) of this section is maintained on the APHIS Web site at<E T="03">http://www.aphis.usda.gov/import_export/animals/downloads/states_app_conduct_cem_testing.pdf.</E>Copies of the list will also be available via postal mail, fax, or e-mail upon request to the Sanitary Trade Issue Team, National Center for Import and Export, Veterinary Services, Animal and Plant Health Inspection Service, 4700 River Road Unit 38, Riverdale, Maryland 20737.</P>
            <STARS/>
            <P>(j)<E T="03">Examination and treatment for screwworm.</E>Horses from regions where APHIS considers screwworm to exist may be imported into the United States only if they meet the requirements in paragraphs (j)(1) through (j)(7) of this section and all other applicable requirements of this part. APHIS will maintain a list of regions where screwworm is considered to exist on the APHIS Web site at<E T="03">http://www.aphis.usda.gov/import_export/animals/animal_disease_status.shtml.</E>Copies of the list will also be available via postal mail, fax, or email upon request to the Sanitary Trade Issue Team, National Center for Import and Export, Veterinary Services, Animal and Plant Health Inspection Service, 4700 River Road Unit 38, Riverdale, Maryland 20737. APHIS will add a region to the list upon determining that screwworm exists in the region based on reports APHIS receives of detections of the pest from veterinary officials of the exporting country, from the World Organization for Animal Health (OIE), or from other sources the Administrator determines to be reliable. APHIS will remove a region from the list after conducting an evaluation of the region in accordance with § 92.2 of this subchapter and finding that screwworm is not present in the region. In the case of a region formerly not on this list that is added due to a detection, the region may be removed from the list in accordance with the procedures for reestablishment of a region's disease-free status in § 92.4 of this subchapter.</P>
            <STARS/>
            <P>6. In § 93.308, paragraphs (a)(1) and (a)(2) are revised to read as follows:</P>
          </SECTION>
          <SECTION>
            <SECTNO>§ 93.308</SECTNO>
            <SUBJECT>Quarantine requirements.</SUBJECT>
            <P>(a) * * *</P>
            <P>(1) Except as provided in §§ 93.317 and 93.324 and in paragraph (a)(1)(i) of this section, horses intended for importation from the Western Hemisphere shall be quarantined at a port designated in § 93.303 for not less than 7 days to be evaluated for signs of Venezuelan equine encephalomyelitis.</P>

            <P>(i) Horses imported from regions of the Western Hemisphere that APHIS considers to be free of Venezuelan equine encephalomyelitis are exempt from the requirements of this paragraph. A list of regions that APHIS has declared free of Venezuelan equine encephalomyelitis is maintained on the APHIS Web site at<E T="03">http://www.aphis.usda.gov/import_export/animals/animal_import/equine/equine_import_quarantine.shtml.</E>Copies of the list will also be available via postal mail, fax, or email upon request to the Sanitary Trade Issue Team, National Center for Import and Export, Veterinary Services, Animal and Plant Health Inspection Service, 4700 River Road Unit 38, Riverdale, Maryland 20737.</P>
            <P>(ii) APHIS will add a region to the list of those it has declared free of Venezuelan equine encephalomyelitis after it conducts an evaluation of the region in accordance with § 92.2 of this subchapter and finds that the disease is not present. In the case of a region formerly on this list that is removed due to an outbreak, the region may be returned to the list in accordance with the procedures for reestablishment of a region's disease-free status in § 92.4 of this subchapter. APHIS will remove a region from the list of those it has declared free of Venezuelan equine encephalomyelitis upon determining that the disease exists in the region based on reports APHIS receives of outbreaks of the disease from veterinary officials of the exporting country, from the World Organization for Animal Health (OIE), or from other sources the Administrator determines to be reliable.</P>
            <P>(2) Horses intended for importation from regions APHIS considers to be affected with African horse sickness may enter the United States only at the port of New York, and must be quarantined at the New York Animal Import Center in Newburgh, New York, for at least 60 days. This restriction also applies to horses that have stopped in or transited a region considered affected with African horse sickness.</P>

            <P>(i) A list of regions that APHIS considers affected with African horse sickness is maintained on the APHIS Web site at<E T="03">http://www.aphis.usda.gov/import_export/animals/animal_disease_status.shtml.</E>Copies of the list will also be available via postal mail, fax, or email upon request to the Sanitary Trade Issue Team, National Center for Import and Export, Veterinary Services, Animal and Plant Health Inspection Service, 4700 River Road Unit 38, Riverdale, Maryland 20737.</P>

            <P>(ii) APHIS will add a region to the list upon determining that the disease exists in the region based on reports APHIS receives of outbreaks of the disease from veterinary officials of the exporting country, from the World Organization for Animal Health (OIE), or from other sources the Administrator determines to be reliable. In the case of a region formerly not on this list that is added<PRTPAGE P="31503"/>due to an outbreak, the region may be removed from the list in accordance with the procedures for reestablishment of a region's disease-free status in § 92.4 of this subchapter.</P>
            <STARS/>
            <P>7. In § 93.405, paragraph (a)(3) introductory text is revised to read as follows:</P>
          </SECTION>
          <SECTION>
            <SECTNO>§ 93.405</SECTNO>
            <SUBJECT>Health certificate for ruminants.</SUBJECT>
            <P>(a) * * *</P>

            <P>(3) If the ruminants are from any region where screwworm is considered to exist, the ruminants may be imported into the United States only if they meet the requirements of paragraphs (a)(3)(i) through (a)(3)(iv) of this section and all other applicable requirements of this part. APHIS will maintain a list of regions where screwworm is considered to exist on the APHIS Web site at<E T="03">http://www.aphis.usda.gov/import_export/animals/animal_disease_status.shtml.</E>Copies of the list will also be available via postal mail, fax, or email upon request to the Sanitary Trade Issue Team, National Center for Import and Export, Veterinary Services, Animal and Plant Health Inspection Service, 4700 River Road Unit 38, Riverdale, Maryland 20737. APHIS will add a region to the list upon determining that screwworm exists in the region based on reports APHIS receives of detections of the pest from veterinary officials of the exporting country, from the World Organization for Animal Health (OIE), or from other sources the Administrator determines to be reliable. APHIS will remove a region from the list after conducting an evaluation of the region in accordance with § 92.2 of this subchapter and finding that screwworm is not present in the region. In the case of a region formerly not on this list that is added due to a detection, the region may be removed from the list in accordance with the procedures for reestablishment of a region's disease-free status in § 92.4 of this subchapter.</P>
            <STARS/>
            <P>8. In § 93.505, paragraph (b) introductory text is revised to read as follows:</P>
          </SECTION>
          <SECTION>
            <SECTNO>§ 93.505</SECTNO>
            <SUBJECT>Certificate for swine.</SUBJECT>
            <STARS/>

            <P>(b) Swine from any region where screwworm is considered to exist may only be imported into the United States if they meet the requirements of paragraphs (b)(1) through (b)(4) of this section and all other applicable requirements of this part. APHIS will maintain a list of regions where screwworm is considered to exist on the APHIS Web site at<E T="03">http://www.aphis.usda.gov/import_export/animals/animal_disease_status.shtml.</E>Copies of the list will also be available via postal mail, fax, or email upon request to the Sanitary Trade Issue Team, National Center for Import and Export, Veterinary Services, Animal and Plant Health Inspection Service, 4700 River Road Unit 38, Riverdale, Maryland 20737. APHIS will add a region to the list upon determining that screwworm exists in the region based on reports APHIS receives of detections of the pest from veterinary officials of the exporting country, from the World Organization for Animal Health (OIE), or from other sources the Administrator determines to be reliable. APHIS will remove a region from the list after conducting an evaluation of the region in accordance with § 92.2 of this subchapter and finding that screwworm is not present in the region. In the case of a region formerly not on this list that is added due to a detection, the region may be removed from the list in accordance with the procedures for reestablishment of a region's disease-free status in § 92.4 of this subchapter.</P>
            <STARS/>
            <P>9. In § 93.600, paragraph (a) introductory text is revised to read as follows:</P>
          </SECTION>
          <SECTION>
            <SECTNO>§ 93.600</SECTNO>
            <SUBJECT>Importation of dogs.</SUBJECT>
            <P>(a)<E T="03">All dogs.</E>Dogs from any region of the world where screwworm is considered to exist may only be imported into the United States if they meet the requirements of paragraphs (a)(1) and (a)(2) of this section and all other applicable requirements of this part. APHIS will maintain a list of regions where screwworm is considered to exist on the APHIS Web site at<E T="03">http://www.aphis.usda.gov/import_export/animals/animal_disease_status.shtml.</E>Copies of the list will also be available via postal mail, fax, or email upon request to the Sanitary Trade Issue Team, National Center for Import and Export, Veterinary Services, Animal and Plant Health Inspection Service, 4700 River Road Unit 38, Riverdale, Maryland 20737. APHIS will add a region to the list upon determining that screwworm exists in the region based on reports APHIS receives of detections of the pest from veterinary officials of the exporting country, from the World Organization for Animal Health (OIE), or from other sources the Administrator determines to be reliable. APHIS will remove a region from the list after conducting an evaluation of the region in accordance with § 92.2 of this subchapter and finding that screwworm is not present in the region. In the case of a region formerly not on this list that is added due to a detection, the region may be removed from the list in accordance with the procedures for reestablishment of a region's disease-free status in § 92.4 of this subchapter.</P>
            <STARS/>
          </SECTION>
        </PART>
        <PART>
          <HD SOURCE="HED">PART 94—RINDERPEST, FOOT-AND-MOUTH DISEASE, EXOTIC NEWCASTLE DISEASE, AFRICAN SWINE FEVER, CLASSICAL SWINE FEVER, SWINE VESICULAR DISEASE, AND BOVINE SPONGIFORM ENCEPHALOPATHY: PROHIBITED AND RESTRICTED IMPORTATIONS</HD>
          <P>10. The authority citation for part 94 continues to read as follows:</P>
          <AUTH>
            <HD SOURCE="HED">Authority:</HD>
            <P>7 U.S.C. 450, 7701-7772, 7781-7786, and 8301-8317; 21 U.S.C. 136 and 136a; 31 U.S.C. 9701; 7 CFR 2.22, 2.80, and 371.4.</P>
          </AUTH>
          

          <P>11. Section § 94.0 is amended by revising the definition of<E T="03">APHIS-defined EU CSF region</E>to read as follows:</P>
          <SECTION>
            <SECTNO>§ 94.0</SECTNO>
            <SUBJECT>Definitions.</SUBJECT>
            <STARS/>
            <P>
              <E T="03">APHIS-defined EU CSF region.</E>A single region of the European Union recognized by APHIS as low risk for classical swine fever.</P>

            <P>(1) A list of Member States included in the region is maintained on the APHIS Web site at<E T="03">http://www.aphis.usda.gov/import_export/animals/animal_disease_status.shtml.</E>Copies of the list will also be available via postal mail, fax, or email upon request to the Sanitary Trade Issue Team, National Center for Import and Export, Veterinary Services, Animal and Plant Health Inspection Service, 4700 River Road Unit 38, Riverdale, Maryland 20737.</P>
            <P>(2) APHIS will add a Member State to the region after it conducts an evaluation of the area to be added in accordance with § 92.2 of this subchapter and finds that the risk profile for the Member State is equivalent with respect to classical swine fever to the risk profile for the region it is joining.</P>
            <STARS/>
            <P>12. In § 94.1, paragraph (a) is revised to read as follows:</P>
          </SECTION>
          <SECTION>
            <SECTNO>§ 94.1</SECTNO>
            <SUBJECT>Regions where rinderpest or foot-and-mouth disease exists; importations prohibited.</SUBJECT>
            <P>(a) APHIS considers rinderpest or foot-and-mouth disease to exist in all regions of the world except those declared free of one or both of these diseases by APHIS.</P>

            <P>(1) A list of regions that APHIS has declared free of rinderpest and a list of<PRTPAGE P="31504"/>regions APHIS has declared free of foot and mouth disease are maintained on the APHIS Web site at<E T="03">http://www.aphis.usda.gov/import_export/animals/animal_disease_status.shtml.</E>Copies of the list will also be available via postal mail, fax, or email upon request to the Sanitary Trade Issue Team, National Center for Import and Export, Veterinary Services, Animal and Plant Health Inspection Service, 4700 River Road Unit 38, Riverdale, Maryland 20737.</P>
            <P>(2) APHIS will add a region to the list of those it has declared free of rinderpest or foot-and-mouth disease, or both, after it conducts an evaluation of the region in accordance with § 92.2 of this subchapter and finds that the disease, or diseases, are not present. In the case of a region formerly on this list that is removed due to an outbreak, the region may be returned to the list in accordance with the procedures for reestablishment of a region's disease-free status in § 92.4 of this subchapter. APHIS will remove a region from the list of those it has declared free of rinderpest or foot-and-mouth disease upon determining that the disease exists in the region based on reports APHIS receives of outbreaks of the disease from veterinary officials of the exporting country, from the World Organization for Animal Health (OIE), or from other sources the Administrator determines to be reliable.</P>
            <STARS/>
          </SECTION>
          <SECTION>
            <SECTNO>§ 94.2</SECTNO>
            <SUBJECT>[Amended]</SUBJECT>
            <P>13. Section § 94.2 is amended by removing the word “infected” each time it appears and adding in its place the word “affected”.</P>
            <P>14. Section § 94.8 is amended as follows:</P>
            <P>a. By redesignating paragraphs (a), (b), and (c) as paragraphs (b), (c), and (d), respectively.</P>
            <P>b. By removing the introductory text, including footnote 8, and adding a new paragraph (a) to read as set forth below.</P>
            <P>c. In redesignated paragraphs (b)(3)(i) and (b)(4) introductory text, by removing the citation to “(a)(5)” and adding in its place a citation to “(b)(5)”.</P>
            <P>d. In redesignated paragraph (b)(5) introductory text, by redesignating footnote 9 as footnote 8.</P>
            <P>e. In redesignated paragraph (c), by removing the citation to '(a)(2)” and adding in its place a citation to “(b)(2)”.</P>
          </SECTION>
          <SECTION>
            <SECTNO>§ 94.8</SECTNO>
            <SUBJECT>Pork and pork products from regions where African swine fever exists or is reasonably believed to exist.</SUBJECT>
            <P>(a) African swine fever exists or the Administrator has reason to believe that African swine fever exists in the regions listed under paragraph (a)(2) of this section.</P>
            <P>(1) The Administrator bases the reason to believe African swine fever exists in a region on the following factors:</P>
            <P>(i) When a region allows the importation of host animals, pork or pork products, or vectors of African swine fever from a region in which African swine fever exists under conditions which the Administrator has determined are less stringent than those prescribed by this chapter for importing host animals, pork or pork products, or vectors of African swine fever into the United States from a region in which African swine fever exists; or</P>
            <P>(ii) When a region allows the importation or use of African swine fever virus or cultures under conditions which the Administrator has determined are less stringent than those prescribed by this chapter for the importation or use of African swine fever virus or cultures into or within the United States; or</P>
            <P>(iii) When a region has a contiguous border with, or is subject to commercial exchange or natural spread of African swine fever host animals, host materials, or vectors with, another region with known outbreaks of African swine fever; or</P>
            <P>(iv) A region's lack of a disease detection, control, or reporting system capable of detecting or controlling African swine fever and reporting it to the United States in time to allow the United States to take appropriate action to prevent the introduction of African swine fever into the United States; or</P>
            <P>(v) Any other fact or circumstance found to exist which constitutes a risk of introduction of African swine fever into the United States.</P>

            <P>(2) A list of regions where African swine fever exists or the Administrator has reason to believe that African swine fever exists is maintained on the APHIS Web site at<E T="03">http://www.aphis.usda.gov/import_export/animals/animal_disease_status.shtml.</E>Copies of the list will also be available via postal mail, fax, or email upon request to the Sanitary Trade Issue Team, National Center for Import and Export, Veterinary Services, Animal and Plant Health Inspection Service, 4700 River Road Unit 38, Riverdale, Maryland 20737.</P>
            <P>(3) APHIS will add a region to the list upon determining that the disease exists in the region based on reports APHIS receives of outbreaks of the disease from veterinary officials of the exporting country, from the World Organization for Animal Health (OIE), or from other sources the Administrator determines to be reliable, or upon determining that there is reason to believe the disease exists in the region. APHIS will remove a region from the list after conducting an evaluation of the region in accordance with § 92.2 of this subchapter and finding that the disease is not present and that there is no reason to believe the disease is present. In the case of a region formerly not on this list that is added due to an outbreak, the region may be removed from the list in accordance with the procedures for reestablishment of a region's disease-free status in § 92.4 of this subchapter.</P>
            <STARS/>
            <P>15. Section 94.9 is amended as follows:</P>
            <P>a. By removing footnote 10 in paragraph (a) and redesignating footnote 11 in paragraph (c)(3) and footnote 12 in paragraph (e)(2) introductory text as footnotes 10 and 11, respectively.</P>
            <P>b. By revising paragraph (a) to read as set forth below.</P>
            <P>c. By adding a new footnote 9 at the end of paragraph (c) introductory text to read as set forth below.</P>
            <P>d. In paragraphs (c)(1)(iii)(C)(<E T="03">1</E>) and (c)(1)(iii)(C)(<E T="03">2</E>), by removing the words “in paragraph (a)” and adding in their place the words “under paragraph (a)”.</P>
          </SECTION>
          <SECTION>
            <SECTNO>§ 94.9</SECTNO>
            <SUBJECT>Pork and pork products from regions where classical swine fever exists.</SUBJECT>
            <P>(a) APHIS considers classical swine fever to exist in all regions of the world except those declared free of the disease by APHIS.</P>

            <P>(1) A list of regions that APHIS has declared free of classical swine fever is maintained on the APHIS Web site at<E T="03">http://www.aphis.usda.gov/import_export/animals/animal_disease_status.shtml.</E>Copies of the list will also be available via postal mail, fax, or email upon request to the Sanitary Trade Issue Team, National Center for Import and Export, Veterinary Services, Animal and Plant Health Inspection Service, 4700 River Road Unit 38, Riverdale, Maryland 20737.</P>

            <P>(2) APHIS will add a region to the list of those it has declared free of classical swine fever after it conducts an evaluation of the region in accordance with § 92.2 of this subchapter and finds that the disease is not present. In the case of a region formerly on this list that is removed due to an outbreak, the region may be returned to the list in accordance with the procedures for reestablishment of a region's disease-free status in § 92.4 of this subchapter. APHIS will remove a region from the list of those it has declared free of classical swine fever upon determining that the disease exists in the region based on reports APHIS receives of outbreaks of the disease from veterinary<PRTPAGE P="31505"/>officials of the exporting country, from the World Organization for Animal Health (OIE), or from other sources the Administrator determines to be reliable.</P>
            <STARS/>
            <P>(c) * * *<SU>9</SU>
            </P>
            
            <EXTRACT>
              <P>
                <SU>9</SU>See also other provisions of this part and parts 93, 95, and 96 of this chapter, and part 327 of this title, for other prohibitions and restrictions upon the importation of swine and swine products.</P>
            </EXTRACT>
            <STARS/>
            <P>16. In § 94.10, paragraph (a) is revised to read as follows:</P>
          </SECTION>
          <SECTION>
            <SECTNO>§ 94.10</SECTNO>
            <SUBJECT>Swine from regions where classical swine fever exists.</SUBJECT>
            <P>(a) APHIS considers classical swine fever to exist in all regions of the world except those declared free of the disease by APHIS.</P>

            <P>(1) A list of regions that APHIS has declared free of classical swine fever is maintained on the APHIS Web site at<E T="03">http://www.aphis.usda.gov/import_export/animals/animal_disease_status.shtml.</E>Copies of the list will also be available via postal mail, fax, or email upon request to the Sanitary Trade Issue Team, National Center for Import and Export, Veterinary Services, Animal and Plant Health Inspection Service, 4700 River Road Unit 38, Riverdale, Maryland 20737.</P>
            <P>(2) APHIS will add a region to the list of those it has declared free of classical swine fever after it conducts an evaluation of the region in accordance with § 92.2 of this subchapter and finds that the disease is not present. In the case of a region formerly on this list that is removed due to an outbreak, the region may be returned to the list in accordance with the procedures for reestablishment of a region's disease-free status in § 92.4 of this subchapter. APHIS will remove a region from the list of those it has declared free of classical swine fever upon determining that the disease exists in the region based on reports APHIS receives of outbreaks of the disease from veterinary officials of the exporting country, from the World Organization for Animal Health (OIE), or from other sources the Administrator determines to be reliable.</P>
            <STARS/>
            <P>17. Section 94.11 is amended as follows:</P>
            <P>a. By revising paragraph (a) to read as set forth below.</P>
            <P>b. In paragraph (c) introductory text, by removing the words “regions designated in paragraph (a)” and adding in their place the words “any region listed under paragraph (a)(2)”.</P>
            <P>c. In paragraph (c)(1), by removing the words “listed in § 94.1(a) as a region infected with rinderpest or foot-and-mouth disease” and adding in their place the words “designated under § 94.1(a) as a region where rinderpest or foot-and-mouth disease exists”.</P>
            <P>d. In paragraph (c)(2), by removing the word “infected” each time it appears and adding in its place the word “affected”.</P>
            <P>e. In paragraph (c)(3), by removing the words “in § 94.1(a)(2)” and adding in their place the words “under § 94.1(a)”.</P>
          </SECTION>
          <SECTION>
            <SECTNO>§ 94.11</SECTNO>
            <SUBJECT>Restrictions on importation of meat and other animal products from specified regions.</SUBJECT>
            <P>(a) The meat of ruminants or swine, and other animal products, and ship stores, airplane meals, and baggage containing such meat or animal products originating in any region listed as provided in paragraph (a)(2) of this section may not be imported into the United States unless the requirements in this section, in addition to other applicable requirements of chapter III of this title, are met. However, meat and meat products that meet the requirements of § 94.4 do not have to comply with the requirements of this section. As used in this section, the term “other animal product” means all parts of the carcass of any ruminant or swine, other than meat and articles regulated under part 95 or part 96 of this chapter.</P>
            <P>(1) The regions listed under paragraph (a)(2) of this section have been declared free of rinderpest and foot-and-mouth disease by APHIS as provided in § 94.1(a) but supplement their national meat supply by the importation of fresh (chilled or frozen) meat of ruminants or swine from regions that APHIS considers to be affected with rinderpest or foot-and-mouth disease as provided in § 94.1(a); or have a common land border with regions considered to be affected with rinderpest or foot-and-mouth disease; or import ruminants or swine from regions considered to be affected with rinderpest or foot-and-mouth disease under conditions less restrictive than would be acceptable for importation into the United States. Thus, the meat may be commingled with the fresh (chilled or frozen) meat of animals from an affected region, resulting in an undue risk of introducing rinderpest or foot-and-mouth disease into the United States.</P>

            <P>(2) A list of regions whose products are regulated under this section is maintained on the APHIS Web site at<E T="03">http://www.aphis.usda.gov/import_export/animals/animal_disease_status.shtml.</E>Copies of the list will also be available via postal mail, fax, or email upon request to the Sanitary Trade Issue Team, National Center for Import and Export, Veterinary Services, Animal and Plant Health Inspection Service, 4700 River Road Unit 38, Riverdale, Maryland 20737.</P>
            <P>(3) APHIS will add a region to the list of those whose products are regulated under this section after conducting an evaluation of the region and determining that one or more of the circumstances described in paragraph (a)(1) of this section exists. APHIS will remove a region from the list upon conducting an evaluation of the region and determining that the circumstances in paragraph (a)(1) of this section no longer exist or upon determining that rinderpest or foot-and-mouth disease exists in the region.</P>
            <STARS/>
            <P>18. Section 94.12 is amended as follows:</P>
            <P>a. By revising paragraph (a) to read as set forth below.</P>
            <P>b. In paragraph (b)(1)(iii)(B), by redesignating footnote 13 as footnote 12.</P>
            <P>c. In paragraph (b)(1)(iv)(B)(<E T="03">1</E>), by removing the word “infected” and adding in its place the word “affected”; and by removing the words “in paragraph (a)” and adding in their place the words “under paragraph (a)(1)”.</P>
            <P>d. In paragraph (b)(1)(iv)(B)(<E T="03">2</E>)(<E T="03">i</E>), by removing the word “infected” and adding in its place the word “affected”.</P>
            <P>e. In paragraph (b)(1)(iv)(B)(<E T="03">2</E>)(<E T="03">ii</E>), by removing the words “in paragraph (a)” and adding in their place the words “under paragraph (a)(1)”.</P>
            <P>f. In paragraph (b)(3), by redesignating footnote 14 as footnote 13.</P>
            <P>g. By revising redesignated footnote 13 in paragraph (b)(3) to read “<SU>13</SU>See footnote 10.”</P>
          </SECTION>
          <SECTION>
            <SECTNO>§ 94.12</SECTNO>
            <SUBJECT>Pork and pork products from regions where swine vesicular disease exists.</SUBJECT>
            <P>(a) APHIS considers swine vesicular disease to exist in all regions of the world except those declared free of the disease by APHIS.</P>

            <P>(1) A list of regions that APHIS has declared free of swine vesicular disease is maintained on the APHIS Web site at<E T="03">http://www.aphis.usda.gov/import_export/animals/animal_disease_status.shtml.</E>Copies of the list will also be available via postal mail, fax, or e-mail upon request to the Sanitary Trade Issue Team, National Center for Import and Export, Veterinary Services, Animal and Plant Health Inspection Service, 4700 River Road Unit 38, Riverdale, Maryland 20737.</P>

            <P>(2) APHIS will add a region to the list of those it has declared free of swine vesicular disease after it conducts an evaluation of the region in accordance with § 92.2 of this subchapter and finds that the disease is not present. In the<PRTPAGE P="31506"/>case of a region formerly on this list that is removed due to an outbreak, the region may be returned to the list in accordance with the procedures for reestablishment of a region's disease-free status in § 92.4 of this subchapter. APHIS will remove a region from the list of those it has declared free of swine vesicular disease upon determining that the disease exists in the region based on reports APHIS receives of outbreaks of the disease from veterinary officials of the exporting country, from the World Organization for Animal Health (OIE), or from other sources the Administrator determines to be reliable.</P>
            <STARS/>
            <P>19. Section 94.13 is amended as follows:</P>
            <P>a. By redesignating paragraphs (a) and (b) as paragraphs (b) and (c), respectively.</P>
            <P>b. By designating the introductory text as paragraph (a) and revising newly designated paragraph (a) to read as set forth below.</P>
            <P>c. By revising redesignated paragraph (c)(1) to read as set forth below.</P>
            <P>d. In redesignated paragraph (c)(2), by removing the words “in § 94.12” and adding in their place the words “under § 94.12(a)”.</P>
          </SECTION>
          <SECTION>
            <SECTNO>§ 94.13</SECTNO>
            <SUBJECT>Restrictions on importation of pork or pork products from specified regions.</SUBJECT>
            <P>(a) The pork or pork products and ship's stores, airplane meals, and baggage containing pork or pork products, other than those articles regulated under part 95 or part 96 of this chapter, produced in any region listed under paragraph (a)(2) of this section may not be imported into the United States unless the requirements of this section, in addition to other applicable requirements of part 327 of this title, are met.</P>
            <P>(1) The regions listed under paragraph (a)(2) of this section have been declared free of swine vesicular disease as provided in § 94.12(a) but supplement their national pork supply by the importation of fresh (chilled or frozen) meat of animals from regions where swine vesicular disease is considered to exist, or have a common border with such regions, or have trade practices that are less restrictive than are acceptable to the United States. Thus, the pork or pork products may be commingled with fresh (chilled or frozen) meat of animals from a region where swine vesicular disease is considered to exist, resulting in an undue risk of swine vesicular disease introduction into the United States.</P>

            <P>(2) A list of regions whose products are regulated under this section is maintained on the APHIS Web site at<E T="03">http://www.aphis.usda.gov/import_export/animals/animal_disease_status.shtml.</E>Copies of the list will also be available via postal mail, fax, or e-mail upon request to the Sanitary Trade Issue Team, National Center for Import and Export, Veterinary Services, Animal and Plant Health Inspection Service, 4700 River Road Unit 38, Riverdale, Maryland 20737.</P>
            <P>(3) APHIS will add a region to the list of those whose products are regulated under this section after conducting an evaluation of the region and determining that one or more of the circumstances listed in paragraph (a)(1) of this section exists. APHIS will remove a region from the list upon conducting an evaluation of the region and determining that the circumstances in paragraph (a)(1) of this section no longer exist or upon determining that swine vesicular disease exists in the region.</P>
            <STARS/>
            <P>(c) * * *</P>
            <P>(1) The slaughtering establishment is not permitted to receive animals that originated in a region considered to have swine vesicular disease or that have ever been in a region in which swine vesicular disease existed.</P>
            <STARS/>
          </SECTION>
          <SECTION>
            <SECTNO>§ 94.14</SECTNO>
            <SUBJECT>[Amended]</SUBJECT>
            <P>20. In § 94.14, paragraph (a) is amended by removing the words “listed in” and adding in their place the words “listed under”.</P>
            <P>21. Section 94.16 is amended as follows:</P>
            <P>a. By revising paragraph (b) introductory text to read as set forth below.</P>
            <P>b. In paragraph (b)(2), by redesignating footnote 15 as footnote 14.</P>
            <P>c. By revising paragraph (c) introductory text and paragraph (d) to read as set forth below.</P>
          </SECTION>
          <SECTION>
            <SECTNO>§ 94.16</SECTNO>
            <SUBJECT>Milk and milk products.</SUBJECT>
            <STARS/>
            <P>(b) Milk and milk products originating in, or shipped from, any region where rinderpest or foot-and-mouth disease is considered to exist under § 94.1(a) may be imported into the United States if they meet the requirements of paragraphs (b)(1), (b)(2), or (b)(3) of this section:</P>
            <STARS/>
            <P>(c) Milk and milk products originating in and shipped from regions listed under § 94.1(a) as free of rinderpest and foot-and-mouth disease but which have entered a port or otherwise transited a region where APHIS considers either disease to exist may not be imported into the United States unless:</P>
            <STARS/>
            <P>(d) Except for milk and milk products imported from Canada, and except as provided in this paragraph, milk or milk products imported from a region listed under § 94.1(a) as free of rinderpest and foot-and-mouth disease must be accompanied by a certificate endorsed by a full-time, salaried veterinarian employed by the region of export. The certificate must state that the milk was produced and processed in a region listed under § 94.1(a) as free of rinderpest and foot-and-mouth disease, or that the milk product was processed in one such region from milk produced in another such region. The certificate must name the region in which the milk was produced and the region in which the milk or milk product was processed. Further, the certificate must state that, except for movement under seal as described in § 94.16(c), the milk or milk product has never been in a region in which rinderpest or foot-and-mouth disease exists. Milk or milk products from a region listed under § 94.1(a) as free of rinderpest and foot-and-mouth disease and that were processed in whole or in part from milk or milk products from a region not listed under § 94.1(a) as free of rinderpest and foot-and-mouth disease may be imported into the United States only in accordance with paragraph (b)(3) of this section.</P>
            <STARS/>
          </SECTION>
          <SECTION>
            <SECTNO>§ 94.17</SECTNO>
            <SUBJECT>[Amended]</SUBJECT>
            <P>22. Section 94.17 is amended as follows:</P>
            <P>a. Footnote 16 in paragraph (e) and footnote 17 in paragraph (p)(1) are redesignated as footnotes 15 and 16, respectively.</P>
            <P>b. Redesignated footnote 16 is revised to read “<SU>16</SU>See footnote 15.”</P>
          </SECTION>
          <SECTION>
            <SECTNO>§ 94.18</SECTNO>
            <SUBJECT>[Amended]</SUBJECT>
            <P>23. In § 94.18, footnote 18 in paragraph (c)(2) and footnote 19 in paragraph (d)(1) are redesignated as footnotes 17 and 18, respectively.</P>
          </SECTION>
          <SECTION>
            <SECTNO>§ 94.24</SECTNO>
            <SUBJECT>[Amended]</SUBJECT>
            <P>24. Section § 94.24 is amended as follows:</P>
            <P>a. In paragraphs (a)(1)(i) and (b)(2)(i), by removing the words “in §§ 94.9(a) and 94.10(a) as one” and adding in their place the words “under §§ 94.9(a) and 94.10(a) as a region”.</P>
            <P>b. In paragraph (a)(5), by redesignating footnote 20 as footnote 19.</P>

            <P>c. In paragraph (b)(6) by redesignating footnote 21 as footnote 20.<PRTPAGE P="31507"/>
            </P>
            <P>25. Section 94.25 is amended as follows:</P>
            <P>a. By removing the introductory text.</P>
            <P>b. By revising paragraph (a) to read as set forth below.</P>
            <P>c. In paragraph (b) introductory text, paragraph (c) introductory text, and paragraphs (c)(1) and (c)(5), by removing the words “designated in” and by adding in their place the words “listed under”.</P>
            <P>d. In paragraphs (b)(1), (b)(2), (b)(3), (c)(2), (c)(3), and (c)(4), by removing the words “designated in §§ 94.9 and 94.10 as affected with CSF” and adding in their place the words “classified under §§ 94.9 and 94.10 as a region in which CSF is known to exist”.</P>
          </SECTION>
          <SECTION>
            <SECTNO>§ 94.25</SECTNO>
            <SUBJECT>Restrictions on the importation of live swine, pork, or pork products from certain regions free of classical swine fever.</SUBJECT>
            <P>(a) Live swine, pork, or pork products and ship stores, airplane meals, and baggage containing pork or pork products, other than those articles regulated under part 95 or part 96 of this chapter, may not be imported into the United States from a region listed under paragraph (a)(2) of this section unless the requirements in this section, in addition to other applicable requirements of part 93 of this chapter and part 327 of this title, are met.</P>
            <P>(1) The regions listed under paragraph (a)(2) of this section have been declared free of classical swine fever (CSF) by APHIS in accordance with §§ 94.9(a) and 94.10(a) but either supplement their pork supplies with fresh (chilled or frozen) pork imported from regions considered to be affected by CSF, or supplement their pork supplies with pork from CSF-affected regions that is not processed in accordance with the requirements of this part, or share a common land border with CSF-affected regions, or import live swine from CSF-affected regions under conditions less restrictive than would be acceptable for importation into the United States. Thus, the live swine, pork, or pork products from those regions may be commingled with live swine, pork, or pork products from CSF-affected regions, resulting in a risk of CSF introduction into the United States.</P>

            <P>(2) A list of regions whose live swine, pork, and pork products are regulated under this section is maintained on the APHIS Web site at<E T="03">http://www.aphis.usda.gov/import_export/animals/animal_disease_status.shtml.</E>Copies of the list will also be available via postal mail, fax, or email upon request to the Sanitary Trade Issue Team, National Center for Import and Export, Veterinary Services, Animal and Plant Health Inspection Service, 4700 River Road Unit 38, Riverdale, Maryland 20737.</P>
            <P>(3) APHIS will add a region to the list of those whose live swine, pork, and pork products are regulated under this section after conducting an evaluation of the region and determining that one or more of the circumstances described in paragraph (a)(1) of this section exists. APHIS will remove a region from the list upon conducting an evaluation of the region and determining that the circumstances in paragraph (a)(1) of this section no longer exist or upon determining that classical swine fever exists in the region.</P>
            <STARS/>
          </SECTION>
        </PART>
        <PART>
          <HD SOURCE="HED">PART 96—RESTRICTION OF IMPORTATIONS OF FOREIGN ANIMAL CASINGS OFFERED FOR ENTRY INTO THE UNITED STATES</HD>
          <P>26. The authority citation for part 96 continues to read as follows:</P>
          <AUTH>
            <HD SOURCE="HED">Authority:</HD>
            <P>7 U.S.C. 8301-8317; 21 U.S.C. 136 and 136a; 7 CFR 2.22, 2.80, and 371.4.</P>
          </AUTH>
          <SECTION>
            <SECTNO>§ 96.2</SECTNO>
            <SUBJECT>[Amended]</SUBJECT>
            <P>27. Section § 96.2 is amended as follows:</P>
            <P>a. In paragraph (a) introductory text, by removing the words “in § 94.8” and adding in their place the words “under § 94.8(a)”.</P>
            <P>b. In paragraph (a)(1), by removing the words “in § 94.8(a)” and adding in their place the words “under § 94.8(a)”.</P>
            <P>c. In paragraph (a)(2), by removing the words “in § 94.8” and adding in their place the words “under § 94.8(a)”.</P>
            <P>d. In paragraph (a)(5), by removing the words “in § 94.8” each time they appear and adding in their place the words “under § 94.8(a)”.</P>
          </SECTION>
        </PART>
        <PART>
          <HD SOURCE="HED">PART 98—IMPORTATION OF CERTAIN ANIMAL EMBRYOS AND ANIMAL SEMEN</HD>
          <P>28. The authority citation for part 98 continues to read as follows:</P>
          <AUTH>
            <HD SOURCE="HED">Authority:</HD>
            <P>7 U.S.C. 1622 and 8301-8317; 21 U.S.C. 136 and 136a; 31 U.S.C. 9701; 7 CFR 2.22, 2.80, and 371.4.</P>
          </AUTH>
          <SECTION>
            <SECTNO>§ 98.3</SECTNO>
            <SUBJECT>[Amended]</SUBJECT>
            <P>29. In § 98.3, the introductory text is amended by removing the words “listed in § 94.1(a)(2)” and adding in their place “listed under § 94.1(a)”.</P>
          </SECTION>
          <SECTION>
            <SECTNO>§ 98.30</SECTNO>
            <SUBJECT>[Amended]</SUBJECT>

            <P>30. Section 98.30 is amended by removing the definition of<E T="03">APHIS-defined EU CSF region.</E>
            </P>
          </SECTION>
          <SECTION>
            <SECTNO>§ 98.38</SECTNO>
            <SUBJECT>[Amended]</SUBJECT>
            <P>31. Section 98.38 is amended as follows:</P>
            <P>a. In the introductory text, by adding the words “, as defined in § 94.0 of this subchapter,” immediately after the words “APHIS-defined EU CSF region”.</P>
            <P>b. In paragraph (b)(1), by removing the words “in §§ 94.9(a) and 94.10(a) of this chapter as one” and adding in their place the words “under §§ 94.9(a) and 94.10(a) of this chapter as a region”.</P>
          </SECTION>
          <SIG>
            <DATED>Done in Washington, DC, this 25th day of May 2011.</DATED>
            <NAME>Kevin Shea,</NAME>
            <TITLE>Acting Administrator, Animal and Plant Health Inspection Service.</TITLE>
          </SIG>
        </PART>
      </SUPLINF>
      <FRDOC>[FR Doc. 2011-13504 Filed 5-31-11; 8:45 am]</FRDOC>
      <BILCOD>BILLING CODE 3410-34-P</BILCOD>
    </PRORULE>
    <PRORULE>
      <PREAMB>
        <AGENCY TYPE="N">NUCLEAR REGULATORY COMMISSION</AGENCY>
        <CFR>10 CFR Parts 40 and 150</CFR>
        <DEPDOC>[NRC-2009-0079]</DEPDOC>
        <RIN>RIN 3150-AI50</RIN>
        <SUBJECT>Domestic Licensing of Source Material—Amendments/Integrated Safety Analysis</SUBJECT>
        <AGY>
          <HD SOURCE="HED">AGENCY:</HD>
          <P>Nuclear Regulatory Commission.</P>
        </AGY>
        <ACT>
          <HD SOURCE="HED">ACTION:</HD>
          <P>Proposed rule; correction.</P>
        </ACT>
        <SUM>
          <HD SOURCE="HED">SUMMARY:</HD>

          <P>The U.S. Nuclear Regulatory Commission (NRC) is correcting a proposed rule that was published in the<E T="04">Federal Register</E>(FR) on May 17, 2011 (76 FR 28336). The proposed rule announced the availability of a draft regulatory analysis for public comment. This document corrects the NRC's Agencywide Documents Access and Management System (ADAMS) accession number that appeared in Section XI, “Regulatory Analysis.” The correct ADAMS accession number is ML102380243.</P>
        </SUM>
        <DATES>
          <HD SOURCE="HED">DATES:</HD>
          <P>The proposed rule published at 76 FR 28336 is corrected as of June 1, 2011.</P>
        </DATES>
        <FURINF>
          <HD SOURCE="HED">FOR FURTHER INFORMATION CONTACT:</HD>

          <P>Cindy Bladey, Chief, Rules, Announcements, and Directives Branch, Office of Administration, Nuclear Regulatory Commission, Washington, DC 20555-0001, telephone: 301-492-3667; e-mail:<E T="03">Cindy.Bladey@nrc.gov</E>.</P>
        </FURINF>
      </PREAMB>
      <SUPLINF>
        <HD SOURCE="HED">SUPPLEMENTARY INFORMATION:</HD>

        <P>The following correction is made to FR Doc. 2011-11927, published in the<E T="04">Federal Register</E>on May 17, 2011, on Page 28351, in the center column, under Section XI, “Regulatory Analysis,” third paragraph, seventh line; “ML102380248” is corrected to read “ML102380243.”</P>
        <SIG>
          <PRTPAGE P="31508"/>
          <DATED>Dated at Rockville, Maryland, this 25 day of May, 2011.</DATED>
          <P>For the Nuclear Regulatory Commission.</P>
          <NAME>Cindy Bladey,</NAME>
          <TITLE>Chief, Rules, Announcements, and Directives Branch, Division of Administrative Services, Office of Administration.</TITLE>
        </SIG>
      </SUPLINF>
      <FRDOC>[FR Doc. 2011-13403 Filed 5-31-11; 8:45 am]</FRDOC>
      <BILCOD>BILLING CODE 7590-01-P</BILCOD>
    </PRORULE>
    <PRORULE>
      <PREAMB>
        <AGENCY TYPE="N">DEPARTMENT OF TRANSPORTATION</AGENCY>
        <SUBAGY>Federal Aviation Administration</SUBAGY>
        <CFR>14 CFR Part 39</CFR>
        <DEPDOC>[Docket No. FAA-2011-0476; Directorate Identifier 2010-NM-247-AD]</DEPDOC>
        <RIN>RIN 2120-AA64</RIN>
        <SUBJECT>Airworthiness Directives; Saab AB, Saab Aerosystems Model SAAB 2000 Airplanes</SUBJECT>
        <AGY>
          <HD SOURCE="HED">AGENCY:</HD>
          <P>Federal Aviation Administration (FAA), DOT.</P>
        </AGY>
        <ACT>
          <HD SOURCE="HED">ACTION:</HD>
          <P>Notice of proposed rulemaking (NPRM).</P>
        </ACT>
        <SUM>
          <HD SOURCE="HED">SUMMARY:</HD>
          <P>We propose to adopt a new airworthiness directive (AD) for the products listed above. This proposed AD results from mandatory continuing airworthiness information (MCAI) originated by an aviation authority of another country to identify and correct an unsafe condition on an aviation product. The MCAI describes the unsafe condition as:</P>
          
          <EXTRACT>
            <P>Corrosion damage has been found on the aft pressure bulkhead of SAAB 2000 aeroplanes, located on the rear side of the bulkhead at the bottom outboard flange. Corrosion damage in this area can become the starting point for future crack initiation and propagation.</P>
            <P>This condition, if not detected and corrected, could affect the structural integrity of the aft pressure bulkhead, possibly resulting in in-flight decompression of the fuselage and injury to occupants.</P>
          </EXTRACT>
        </SUM>
        <STARS/>
        <P>The proposed AD would require actions that are intended to address the unsafe condition described in the MCAI.</P>
        <EFFDATE>
          <HD SOURCE="HED">DATES:</HD>
          <P>We must receive comments on this proposed AD by July 18, 2011.</P>
        </EFFDATE>
        <ADD>
          <HD SOURCE="HED">ADDRESSES:</HD>
          <P>You may send comments by any of the following methods:</P>
          <P>•<E T="03">Federal eRulemaking Portal:</E>Go to<E T="03">http://www.regulations.gov.</E>Follow the instructions for submitting comments.</P>
          <P>•<E T="03">Fax:</E>(202) 493-2251.</P>
          <P>•<E T="03">Mail:</E>U.S. Department of Transportation, Docket Operations, M-30, West Building Ground Floor, Room W12-140, 1200 New Jersey Avenue, SE., Washington, DC 20590.</P>
          <P>•<E T="03">Hand Delivery:</E>U.S. Department of Transportation, Docket Operations, M-30, West Building Ground Floor, Room W12-40, 1200 New Jersey Avenue, SE., Washington, DC, between 9 a.m. and 5 p.m., Monday through Friday, except Federal holidays.</P>

          <P>For service information identified in this proposed AD, contact Saab AB, Saab Aerosystems, SE-581 88, Linköping, Sweden; telephone +46 13 18 5591; fax +46 13 18 4874; e-mail<E T="03">saab2000.techsupport@saabgroup.com</E>; Internet<E T="03">http://www.saabgroup.com.</E>You may review copies of the referenced service information at the FAA, Transport Airplane Directorate, 1601 Lind Avenue SW., Renton, Washington. For information on the availability of this material at the FAA, call 425-227-1221.</P>
        </ADD>
        <HD SOURCE="HD1">Examining the AD Docket</HD>
        <P>You may examine the AD docket on the Internet at<E T="03">http://www.regulations.gov;</E>or in person at the Docket Operations office between 9 a.m. and 5 p.m., Monday through Friday, except Federal holidays. The AD docket contains this proposed AD, the regulatory evaluation, any comments received, and other information. The street address for the Docket Operations office (telephone (800) 647-5527) is in the<E T="02">ADDRESSES</E>section. Comments will be available in the AD docket shortly after receipt.</P>
        <FURINF>
          <HD SOURCE="HED">FOR FURTHER INFORMATION CONTACT:</HD>
          <P>Shahram Daneshmandi, Aerospace Engineer, International Branch, ANM-116, Transport Airplane Directorate, FAA, 1601 Lind Avenue SW., Renton, Washington 98057-3356; telephone (425) 227-1112; fax (425) 227-1149.</P>
        </FURINF>
      </PREAMB>
      <SUPLINF>
        <HD SOURCE="HED">SUPPLEMENTARY INFORMATION:</HD>
        <HD SOURCE="HD1">Comments Invited</HD>

        <P>We invite you to send any written relevant data, views, or arguments about this proposed AD. Send your comments to an address listed under the<E T="02">ADDRESSES</E>section. Include “Docket No. FAA-2011-0476; Directorate Identifier 2010-NM-247-AD” at the beginning of your comments. We specifically invite comments on the overall regulatory, economic, environmental, and energy aspects of this proposed AD. We will consider all comments received by the closing date and may amend this proposed AD based on those comments.</P>
        <P>We will post all comments we receive, without change, to<E T="03">http://www.regulations.gov,</E>including any personal information you provide. We will also post a report summarizing each substantive verbal contact we receive about this proposed AD.</P>
        <HD SOURCE="HD1">Discussion</HD>
        <P>The European Aviation Safety Agency (EASA), which is the Technical Agent for the Member States of the European Community, has issued EASA Airworthiness Directive 2010-0184, dated September 6, 2010 (referred to after this as “the MCAI”), to correct an unsafe condition for the specified products. The MCAI states:</P>
        
        <EXTRACT>
          <P>Corrosion damage has been found on the aft pressure bulkhead of SAAB 2000 aeroplanes, located on the rear side of the bulkhead at the bottom outboard flange. Corrosion damage in this area can become the starting point for future crack initiation and propagation.</P>
          <P>This condition, if not detected and corrected, could affect the structural integrity of the aft pressure bulkhead, possibly resulting in in-flight decompression of the fuselage and injury to occupants.</P>
          <P>For the reasons described above, this AD requires a detailed visual inspection of the aft pressure bulkhead at the bottom outboard flange [for corrosion and drain hole] and, depending on findings, corrective action.</P>
        </EXTRACT>
        
        <P>Corrective actions include contacting the FAA or EASA (or its delegated agent) for repair instructions if corrosion is found, and drilling a drain hole. You may obtain further information by examining the MCAI in the AD docket.</P>
        <HD SOURCE="HD1">Relevant Service Information</HD>
        <P>Saab AB, Saab Aerosystems has issued Service Bulletin 2000-53-048, Revision 01, dated September 3, 2009. The actions described in this service information are intended to correct the unsafe condition identified in the MCAI.</P>
        <HD SOURCE="HD1">FAA's Determination and Requirements of This Proposed AD</HD>
        <P>This product has been approved by the aviation authority of another country, and is approved for operation in the United States. Pursuant to our bilateral agreement with the State of Design Authority, we have been notified of the unsafe condition described in the MCAI and service information referenced above. We are proposing this AD because we evaluated all pertinent information and determined an unsafe condition exists and is likely to exist or develop on other products of the same type design.</P>
        <HD SOURCE="HD1">Differences Between This AD and the MCAI or Service Information</HD>

        <P>We have reviewed the MCAI and related service information and, in general, agree with their substance. But we might have found it necessary to use different words from those in the MCAI to ensure the AD is clear for U.S. operators and is enforceable. In making<PRTPAGE P="31509"/>these changes, we do not intend to differ substantively from the information provided in the MCAI and related service information.</P>
        <P>We might also have proposed different actions in this AD from those in the MCAI in order to follow FAA policies. Any such differences are highlighted in a Note within the proposed AD.</P>
        <HD SOURCE="HD1">Costs of Compliance</HD>
        <P>Based on the service information, we estimate that this proposed AD would affect 8 products of U.S. registry. We also estimate that it would take 12 work-hours per product to comply with the basic requirements of this proposed AD. The average labor rate is $85 per work-hour. Based on these figures, we estimate the cost of the proposed AD on U.S. operators to be $8,160, or $1,020 per product.</P>
        <P>We have received no definitive data that would enable us to provide a cost estimate for the on-condition actions specified in this proposed AD. We have no way of determining the number of products that may need these actions.</P>
        <HD SOURCE="HD1">Authority for This Rulemaking</HD>
        <P>Title 49 of the United States Code specifies the FAA's authority to issue rules on aviation safety. Subtitle I, section 106, describes the authority of the FAA Administrator. “Subtitle VII: Aviation Programs,” describes in more detail the scope of the Agency's authority.</P>
        <P>We are issuing this rulemaking under the authority described in “Subtitle VII, Part A, Subpart III, Section 44701: General requirements.” Under that section, Congress charges the FAA with promoting safe flight of civil aircraft in air commerce by prescribing regulations for practices, methods, and procedures the Administrator finds necessary for safety in air commerce. This regulation is within the scope of that authority because it addresses an unsafe condition that is likely to exist or develop on products identified in this rulemaking action.</P>
        <HD SOURCE="HD1">Regulatory Findings</HD>
        <P>We determined that this proposed AD would not have federalism implications under Executive Order 13132. This proposed AD would not have a substantial direct effect on the States, on the relationship between the national Government and the States, or on the distribution of power and responsibilities among the various levels of government.</P>
        <P>For the reasons discussed above, I certify this proposed regulation:</P>
        <P>1. Is not a “significant regulatory action” under Executive Order 12866;</P>
        <P>2. Is not a “significant rule” under the DOT Regulatory Policies and Procedures (44 FR 11034, February 26, 1979); and</P>
        <P>3. Will not have a significant economic impact, positive or negative, on a substantial number of small entities under the criteria of the Regulatory Flexibility Act.</P>
        <P>We prepared a regulatory evaluation of the estimated costs to comply with this proposed AD and placed it in the AD docket.</P>
        <LSTSUB>
          <HD SOURCE="HED">List of Subjects in 14 CFR Part 39</HD>
          <P>Air transportation, Aircraft, Aviation safety, Incorporation by reference, Safety.</P>
        </LSTSUB>
        <HD SOURCE="HD1">The Proposed Amendment</HD>
        <P>Accordingly, under the authority delegated to me by the Administrator, the FAA proposes to amend 14 CFR part 39 as follows:</P>
        <PART>
          <HD SOURCE="HED">PART 39—AIRWORTHINESS DIRECTIVES</HD>
          <P>1. The authority citation for part 39 continues to read as follows:</P>
          <AUTH>
            <HD SOURCE="HED">Authority:</HD>
            <P>49 U.S.C. 106(g), 40113, 44701.</P>
          </AUTH>
          <SECTION>
            <SECTNO>§ 39.13</SECTNO>
            <SUBJECT>[Amended]</SUBJECT>
            <P>2. The FAA amends § 39.13 by adding the following new AD:</P>
            
            <EXTRACT>
              <FP SOURCE="FP-2">
                <E T="04">Saab AB, Saab Aerosystems:</E>Docket No. FAA-2011-0476; Directorate Identifier 2010-NM-247-AD.</FP>
              <HD SOURCE="HD1">Comments Due Date</HD>
              <P>(a) We must receive comments by July 18, 2011.</P>
              <HD SOURCE="HD1">Affected ADs</HD>
              <P>(b) None.</P>
              <HD SOURCE="HD1">Applicability</HD>
              <P>(c) This AD applies to Saab AB, Saab Aerosystems Model SAAB 2000 airplanes, all serial numbers.</P>
              <HD SOURCE="HD1">Subject</HD>
              <P>(d) Air Transport Association (ATA) of America Code 53: Fuselage.</P>
              <HD SOURCE="HD1">Reason</HD>
              <P>(e) The mandatory continuing airworthiness information (MCAI) states:</P>
              <P>Corrosion damage has been found on the aft pressure bulkhead of SAAB 2000 aeroplanes, located on the rear side of the bulkhead at the bottom outboard flange. Corrosion damage in this area can become the starting point for future crack initiation and propagation.</P>
              <P>This condition, if not detected and corrected, could affect the structural integrity of the aft pressure bulkhead, possibly resulting in in-flight decompression of the fuselage and injury to occupants.</P>
              <STARS/>* *<HD SOURCE="HD1">Compliance</HD>
              <P>(f) You are responsible for having the actions required by this AD performed within the compliance times specified, unless the actions have already been done.</P>
              <HD SOURCE="HD1">Inspection and Corrective Actions</HD>
              <P>(g) Within 12 months after the effective date of this AD: Do a detailed inspection for corrosion of the aft pressure bulkhead at the bottom outboard flange, and to determine if there is a drain hole on the left-hand side inboard of the ventral fin, in accordance with the Accomplishment Instructions of Saab Service Bulletin 2000-53-048, Revision 01, dated September 3, 2009.</P>
              <P>(h) If any corrosion is found during the inspection required by paragraph (g) of this AD: Before further flight, repair the corrosion in accordance with a method approved by the Manager, International Branch, ANM 116, Transport Airplane Directorate, FAA; or the European Aviation Safety Agency (EASA); or its delegated agent.</P>
              <P>(i) If no drain hole is found during the inspection required by paragraph (g) of this AD, before further flight, drill a drain hole, in accordance with the Accomplishment Instructions of Saab Service Bulletin 2000-53-048, Revision 01, dated September 3, 2009.</P>

              <P>(j) Within 30 days after accomplishing the inspection required by paragraph (g) of this AD, or within 30 days after the effective date of this AD, whichever is later: Report findings of corrosion to Saab at Saab AB, Saab Aerosystems, SE-581 88, Linköping, Sweden; telephone +46 13 18 5591; fax +46 13 18 4874; e-mail<E T="03">saab2000.techsupport@saabgroup.com</E>. Under the provisions of the Paperwork Reduction Act (44 U.S.C. 3501<E T="03">et seq.),</E>the Office of Management and Budget (OMB) has approved the information collection requirements contained in this AD and has assigned OMB Control Number 2120 0056.</P>
              <HD SOURCE="HD1">Credit for Actions Accomplished in Accordance With Previous Service Information</HD>
              <P>(k) Actions done before the effective date of this AD in accordance with Saab Service Bulletin 2000-53-048, dated July 6, 2009, are considered acceptable for compliance with the corresponding actions required by paragraph (g) of this AD.</P>
              <HD SOURCE="HD1">FAA AD Differences</HD>
              <NOTE>
                <HD SOURCE="HED">Note 1:</HD>
                <P>This AD differs from the MCAI and/or service information as follows: No differences.</P>
              </NOTE>
              <HD SOURCE="HD1">Other FAA AD Provisions</HD>
              <P>(l) The following provisions also apply to this AD:</P>

              <P>(1) Alternative Methods of Compliance (AMOCs): The Manager, International Branch, FAA, has the authority to approve AMOCs for this AD, if requested using the procedures found in 14 CFR 39.19. In accordance with 14 CFR 39.19, send your request to your principal inspector or local Flight Standards District Office, as appropriate. If sending information directly to the International Branch, send it to ATTN: Shahram Daneshmandi, Aerospace Engineer,<PRTPAGE P="31510"/>International Branch, ANM-116, Transport Airplane Directorate, FAA, 1601 Lind Avenue, SW., Renton, Washington 98057-3356; telephone (425) 227-1112; fax (425) 227-1149. Information may be e-mailed to:<E T="03">9-ANM-116-AMOC-REQUESTS@faa.gov</E>. Before using any approved AMOC, notify your appropriate principal inspector, or lacking a principal inspector, the manager of the local flight standards district office/certificate holding district office. The AMOC approval letter must specifically reference this AD.</P>
              <P>(2) Airworthy Product: For any requirement in this AD to obtain corrective actions from a manufacturer or other source, use these actions if they are FAA-approved. Corrective actions are considered FAA-approved if they are approved by the State of Design Authority (or their delegated agent). You are required to assure the product is airworthy before it is returned to service.</P>
              <P>(3) Reporting Requirements: A federal agency may not conduct or sponsor, and a person is not required to respond to, nor shall a person be subject to a penalty for failure to comply with a collection of information subject to the requirements of the Paperwork Reduction Act unless that collection of information displays a current valid OMB Control Number. The OMB Control Number for this information collection is 2120-0056. Public reporting for this collection of information is estimated to be approximately 5 minutes per response, including the time for reviewing instructions, completing and reviewing the collection of information. All responses to this collection of information are mandatory. Comments concerning the accuracy of this burden and suggestions for reducing the burden should be directed to the FAA at: 800 Independence Ave., SW., Washington, DC 20591, Attn: Information Collection Clearance Officer, AES-200.</P>
              <HD SOURCE="HD1">Related Information</HD>
              <P>(m) Refer to MCAI EASA Airworthiness Directive 2010-0184, dated September 6, 2010; and Saab Service Bulletin 2000-53-048, Revision 01, dated September 3, 2009; for related information.</P>
            </EXTRACT>
          </SECTION>
          <SIG>
            <DATED>Issued in Renton, Washington, on May 20, 2011.</DATED>
            <NAME>Ali Bahrami,</NAME>
            <TITLE>Manager, Transport Airplane Directorate, Aircraft Certification Service.</TITLE>
          </SIG>
        </PART>
      </SUPLINF>
      <FRDOC>[FR Doc. 2011-13505 Filed 5-31-11; 8:45 am]</FRDOC>
      <BILCOD>BILLING CODE 4910-13-P</BILCOD>
    </PRORULE>
    <PRORULE>
      <PREAMB>
        <AGENCY TYPE="S">DEPARTMENT OF TRANSPORTATION</AGENCY>
        <SUBAGY>Federal Aviation Administration</SUBAGY>
        <CFR>14 CFR Part 71</CFR>
        <DEPDOC>[Docket No. FAA-2010-1330; Airspace Docket No. 10-ASO-41]</DEPDOC>
        <SUBJECT>Proposed Amendment of Class E Airspace; Rutherfordton, NC</SUBJECT>
        <AGY>
          <HD SOURCE="HED">AGENCY:</HD>
          <P>Federal Aviation Administration (FAA), DOT.</P>
        </AGY>
        <ACT>
          <HD SOURCE="HED">ACTION:</HD>
          <P>Notice of proposed rulemaking (NPRM).</P>
        </ACT>
        <SUM>
          <HD SOURCE="HED">SUMMARY:</HD>
          <P>This action proposes to amend Class E Airspace at Rutherfordton, NC, to accommodate the additional airspace needed for the Standard Instrument Approach Procedures (SIAPs) developed for Rutherford County Airport. This action would enhance the safety and airspace management of Instrument Flight Rules (IFR) operations at the airport.</P>
        </SUM>
        <DATES>
          <HD SOURCE="HED">DATES:</HD>
          <P>Comments must be received on or before July 18, 2011. The Director of the Federal Register approves this incorporation by reference action under title 1, Code of Federal Regulations, part 51, subject to the annual revision of FAA, Order 7400.9 and publication of conforming amendments.</P>
        </DATES>
        <ADD>
          <HD SOURCE="HED">ADDRESSES:</HD>

          <P>Send comments on this rule to: U.S. Department of Transportation, Docket Operations, West Building Ground Floor, Room W12-140, 1200 New Jersey Avenue, SE., Washington, DC 20590-0001; Telephone: 1-800-647-5527; Fax: 202-493-2251. You must identify the Docket Number FAA-2010-1330; Airspace Docket No. 10-ASO-41, at the beginning of your comments. You may also submit and review received comments through the Internet at<E T="03">http://www.regulations.gov.</E>
          </P>
        </ADD>
        <FURINF>
          <HD SOURCE="HED">FOR FURTHER INFORMATION CONTACT:</HD>
          <P>John Fornito, Operations Support Group, Eastern Service Center, Federal Aviation Administration, P.O. Box 20636, Atlanta, Georgia 30320; telephone (404) 305-6364.</P>
        </FURINF>
      </PREAMB>
      <SUPLINF>
        <HD SOURCE="HED">SUPPLEMENTARY INFORMATION:</HD>
        <HD SOURCE="HD1">Comments Invited</HD>
        <P>Interested persons are invited to comment on this rule by submitting such written data, views, or arguments, as they may desire. Comments that provide the factual basis supporting the views and suggestions presented are particularly helpful in developing reasoned regulatory decisions on the proposal. Comments are specifically invited on the overall regulatory, aeronautical, economic, environmental, and energy-related aspects of the proposal.</P>

        <P>Communications should identify both docket numbers (FAA Docket No. FAA-2010-1330; Airspace Docket No. 10-ASO-41) and be submitted in triplicate to the Docket Management System (see<E T="02">ADDRESSES</E>section for address and phone number). You may also submit comments through the Internet at<E T="03">http://www.regulations.gov.</E>
        </P>
        <P>Annotators wishing the FAA to acknowledge receipt of their comments on this action must submit with those comments a self-addressed stamped postcard on which the following statement is made: “Comments to Docket No. FAA-2010-1330; Airspace Docket No. 10-ASO-41.” The postcard will be date/time stamped and returned to the commenter.</P>
        <P>All communications received before the specified closing date for comments will be considered before taking action on the proposed rule. The proposal contained in this notice may be changed in light of the comments received. A report summarizing each substantive public contact with FAA personnel concerned with this rulemaking will be filed in the docket.</P>
        <HD SOURCE="HD1">Availability of NPRMs</HD>

        <P>An electronic copy of this document may be downloaded from and comments submitted through<E T="03">http://www.regulations.gov.</E>Recently published rulemaking documents can also be accessed through the FAA's web page at<E T="03">http://www.faa.gov/airports_airtraffic/air_traffic/publications/airspace_amendments/.</E>
        </P>

        <P>You may review the public docket containing the proposal, any comments received and any final disposition in person in the Dockets Office (see the<E T="02">ADDRESSES</E>section for address and phone number) between 9 a.m. and 5 p.m., Monday through Friday, except Federal Holidays. An informal docket may also be examined during normal business hours at the office of the Eastern Service Center, Federal Aviation Administration, room 210, 1701 Columbia Avenue, College Park, Georgia 30337.</P>
        <P>Persons interested in being placed on a mailing list for future NPRMs should contact the FAA's Office of Rulemaking, (202) 267-9677, to request a copy of Advisory circular No. 11-2A, Notice of Proposed Rulemaking distribution System, which describes the application procedure.</P>
        <HD SOURCE="HD1">The Proposal</HD>
        <P>The FAA is considering an amendment to Title 14, Code of Federal Regulations (14 CFR) part 71 to amend Class E airspace at Rutherfordton, NC to provide controlled airspace required to support new standard instrument approach procedures for Rutherford County Airport. The existing Class E airspace extending upward from 700 feet above the surface would be modified for the safety and management of IFR operations.</P>

        <P>Class E airspace designations are published in Paragraph 6005 of FAA order 7400.9U, dated August 18, 2010, and effective September 15, 2010, which is incorporated by reference in 14 CFR<PRTPAGE P="31511"/>71.1. The Class E airspace designation listed in this document will be published subsequently in the Order.</P>
        <P>The FAA has determined that this proposed regulation only involves an established body of technical regulations for which frequent and routine amendments are necessary to keep them operationally current. It, therefore, (1) Is not a “significant regulatory action” under Executive Order 12866; (2) is not a “significant rule” under DOT Regulatory Policies and Procedures (44 FR 11034; February 26, 1979); and (3) does not warrant preparation of a Regulatory Evaluation as the anticipated impact is so minimal. Since this is a routine matter that will only affect air traffic procedures and air navigation, it is certified that this proposed rule, when promulgated, would not have a significant economic impact on a substantial number of small entities under the criteria of the Regulatory Flexibility Act.</P>
        <P>The FAA's authority to issue rules regarding aviation safety is found in Title 49 of the United States Code. Subtitle I, section 106 describes the authority of the FAA Administrator. Subtitle VII, Aviation Programs, describes in more detail the scope of the agency's authority. This proposed rulemaking is promulgated under the authority described in subtitle VII, part A, subpart I, section 40103. Under that section, the FAA is charged with prescribing regulations to assign the use of airspace necessary to ensure the safety of aircraft and the efficient use of airspace. This proposed regulation is within the scope of that authority as it would amend Class E airspace at Rutherford County Airport, Rutherfordton, NC.</P>
        <LSTSUB>
          <HD SOURCE="HED">Lists of Subjects in 14 CFR Part 71</HD>
          <P>Airspace, Incorporation by reference, Navigation (Air).</P>
        </LSTSUB>
        <HD SOURCE="HD1">The Proposed Amendment</HD>
        <P>In consideration of the foregoing, the Federal Aviation Administration amends 14 CFR part 71 as follows:</P>
        <PART>
          <HD SOURCE="HED">PART 71—DESIGNATION OF CLASS A, B, C, D, AND E AIRSPACE AREAS; AIR TRAFFIC SERVICE ROUTES; AND REPORTING POINTS</HD>
          <P>1. The authority citation for part 71 continues to read as follows:</P>
          <AUTH>
            <HD SOURCE="HED">Authority:</HD>
            <P>49 U.S.C. 106(g); 40103, 40113, 40120; E.O. 10854, 24 FR 9565, 3 CFR, 1959-1963 Comp., p. 389.</P>
          </AUTH>
          <SECTION>
            <SECTNO>§ 71.1</SECTNO>
            <SUBJECT>[Amended]</SUBJECT>
            <P>2. The incorporation by reference in 14 CFR 71.1 of Federal Aviation Administration Order 7400.9U, Airspace Designations and Reporting Points, dated August 18, 2010, effective September 15, 2010, is amended as follows:</P>
            <EXTRACT>
              <HD SOURCE="HD2">Paragraph 6005Class E airspace areas extending upward from 700 feet or more above the surface of the earth.</HD>
              <STARS/>
              <HD SOURCE="HD1">ASO NC E5Rutherfordton, NC [Amended]</HD>
              <FP SOURCE="FP-2">Rutherford County Airport, NC</FP>
              <FP SOURCE="FP1-2">(Lat. 35°25′44″ N., Long. 81°56′06″ W.)</FP>
              
              <P>That airspace extending upward from 700 feet above the surface within an 11.6-mile radius of the Rutherford County Airport.</P>
            </EXTRACT>
          </SECTION>
          <SIG>
            <DATED>Issued in College Park, Georgia, on May 13, 2011.</DATED>
            <NAME>Barry A. Knight,</NAME>
            <TITLE>Acting Manager, Operations Support Group, Eastern Service Center, Air Traffic Organization.</TITLE>
          </SIG>
        </PART>
      </SUPLINF>
      <FRDOC>[FR Doc. 2011-13561 Filed 5-31-11; 8:45 am]</FRDOC>
      <BILCOD>BILLING CODE 4910-13-P</BILCOD>
    </PRORULE>
    <PRORULE>
      <PREAMB>
        <AGENCY TYPE="S">DEPARTMENT OF TRANSPORTATION</AGENCY>
        <SUBAGY>Office of the Secretary</SUBAGY>
        <CFR>14 CFR Parts 217, 241, 298</CFR>
        <DEPDOC>(Docket Nos OST-98-4043)</DEPDOC>
        <RIN>RIN 2105-AC71</RIN>
        <SUBJECT>Aviation Data Modernization</SUBJECT>
        <AGY>
          <HD SOURCE="HED">AGENCY:</HD>
          <P>Office of the Secretary, Department of Transportation.</P>
        </AGY>
        <ACT>
          <HD SOURCE="HED">ACTION:</HD>
          <P>Notice of withdrawal of proposed rulemaking.</P>
        </ACT>
        <SUM>
          <HD SOURCE="HED">SUMMARY:</HD>

          <P>The Department of Transportation (the Department) is withdrawing a Notice of Proposed Rulemaking (NPRM) issued on February 17, 2005 (70 FR 8140<E T="03">et seq.</E>) that proposed revisions to the rules governing the nature, scope, source of and means for collecting and processing aviation traffic data.</P>
          <P>We are withdrawing this NPRM because, after review of all comments, we have determined that the approach we proposed to solve the identified problems does not adequately address a number of aspects, including measures that could both enhance the utility, integrity and accuracy of the data and reduce the cost of reporting. This action is being taken to allow for later revision and refinement of a proposed methodology for aviation data modernization.</P>
        </SUM>
        <DATES>
          <HD SOURCE="HED">DATES:</HD>
          <P>June 1, 2011.</P>
        </DATES>
        <FURINF>
          <HD SOURCE="HED">FOR FURTHER INFORMATION CONTACT:</HD>
          <P>Richard Pittaway, Office of Aviation Analysis, 1200 New Jersey Ave., SE., Room W86-461, Washington, DC 20590, (202) 366-8856.</P>
          <P>
            <E T="03">Electronic Access:</E>You can view and download related documents and public comments by going to the Web site<E T="03">http://www.regulations.gov</E>. Enter the docket number DOT-OST-1998-4043 in the search field.</P>
        </FURINF>
      </PREAMB>
      <SUPLINF>
        <HD SOURCE="HED">SUPPLEMENTARY INFORMATION:</HD>
        <P/>
        <HD SOURCE="HD1">Background</HD>
        <P>On July 15, 1998, the Department published an Advance Notice of Proposed Rulemaking (ANPRM) (63 FR 28128) requesting comment on a variety of issues related to aviation economic data collection. The ANPRM noted that the Origin-Destination Survey of Airline Passenger Traffic (O&amp;D Survey) and Form 41, Schedule T-100—U.S. Air Carrier Traffic and Capacity Data by Nonstop Segment and On-flight Market and Form 41, and Schedule T-100(f)—Foreign Air Carrier Traffic and Capacity Data by Nonstop Segment and On-flight Market (the last two are known collectively as the T-100/T-100(f))O&amp;D Survey and the T-100/T-100(f)) may not provide sufficiently reliable data in some circumstances to ensure that the Department can meet its obligation to disseminate information that enables the transportation system to adapt to the present and future needs of the American public. At that time, we stated our concern that the aviation data systems should be reviewed and modernized in order to meet our statutory responsibilities.</P>
        <P>Also, because of difficulties private industry would have in assembling these data, the need for scheduled air traffic information cannot be satisfied other than through governmental means. However, while there are no other sources of comprehensive traffic data available in the aviation industry, a significant market exists in supplying services to supplement the Department's information offerings using the service provider's own statistical insight and experience. The public, academics, manufacturers, airports, air carriers, local, state and various branches of the Federal government all remain dependent on the reliability of this commercially enhanced data.</P>

        <P>Approximately 50 comments were filed in response to the ANPRM by airlines, airports, trade associations, unions, and private citizens who use this data. Commenters confirmed that these data are not only critical to the work of both private and public aviation stakeholders (including the reporting airlines themselves), but that there are universal concerns about the capability and accuracy of the existing data collection to satisfy the changing needs of the industry and its stakeholders. The respondents overwhelmingly agreed<PRTPAGE P="31512"/>that the O&amp;D Survey and the T100 segment data were essential. Commenters repeatedly mentioned that the current data elements collected were insufficient to meet the data needs of the public and the aviation industry now and in the future. There was near universal agreement that the data suffer from lack of quality and lack of consistency. Deficiencies in the O&amp;D Survey and in the T-100/T-100(f) further reduce the ability of the data to meet the needs of the aviation community.</P>

        <P>On February 17, 2005, OST published a notice of proposed rulemaking (NPRM) (70 FR 8140<E T="03">et seq.</E>) as part of the Department's effort to revise the requirements for aviation data to modernize the way we collect, process, and disseminate aviation data. The NPRM reflected analysis of the O&amp;D Survey and T-100/T-100(f) data, and it documented the use of that data by the government, the airline industry, consumers, and other stakeholders. We proposed revisions to the rules governing the nature, scope, source of and means for collecting and processing this aviation traffic data.</P>
        <P>At the time the notice was published, we noted that the Department has a statutory responsibility to collect and disseminate information about aviation transportation in the U.S. The Department must, at minimum, collect information on the origin and destination of passengers and information on the number of passengers traveling by air between any two points in air transportation, 49 U.S.C. sec. 329(b). Additionally, the Department is charged with maintaining a sound regulatory system that is responsive to the needs of the public, and must disseminate information to make it easier to adapt the air transportation system to the present and future needs of the commerce of the United States (49 U.S.C. 40101(a) (7)).</P>
        <P>We also acknowledged the Department's responsibility to maximize the quality, objectivity, utility, and integrity of influential statistical information it disseminates. Although the O&amp;D Survey collected quarterly and the T-100/T-100(f) collected monthly are the means by which the Department disseminates aviation traffic information, the NPRM identified various technical deficiencies and limitations in the data.</P>
        <P>In the 2005 NPRM, we also proposed a plan to create the O&amp;D Survey using a fundamentally different collection methodology and considered commensurate changes in the collection of the T-100/T-100(f). In addition to seeking comments on the change of methodology, we sought input into other key topics such as information about what kind of data should be withheld from release for reasons of competitive sensitivity.</P>
        <HD SOURCE="HD1">Discussion of Comments</HD>
        <P>In response to the 2005 NPRM, the Department received substantive comments from ten organizations or groups, and limited comments from twelve additional groups or organizations. Most of the commenters were airlines or aviation trade associations, but some of the other users of the data also provided comments. While there was opposition to certain aspects of the Department's proposed methodology for collecting data, no comments filed in response to the NPRM disputed the Department's authority to gather aviation information, the Department's review of the data's current deficiencies, the Department's assessment of the data's limitations, or the Department's assertion that the current traffic statistics had outlived the economic model for which it was designed. We, therefore, conclude that there is support for obtaining and disseminating accurate aviation traffic data by aligning it with modern airline business practices, but that the methodology we proposed may not have been the best solution to repair the deficiencies in the system.</P>
        <P>The Department's proposal for collecting aviation traffic data continued to rely on the airline passenger revenue accounting system as the principal source of data. However, we proposed changing the carrier designated to report the data, increasing the scope and volume of data collected, and reducing the number of reporting exemptions. The NPRM also sought comments on several specific issues to achieve greater uniformity in statistical reporting in light of the industry's divergent business models. We believed that changing the carrier responsible for reporting a ticket to the ticket issuing carrier would be a significant simplification in the airline's process of reporting and would, therefore, result in a reduction of reporting costs. While there was considerable support for these changes, the comments indicated that some believed that the burdens of reporting the data would still be disproportionately high.</P>
        <P>We proposed a specific set of data elements that we anticipated would be necessary in the new methodology to define one-way trips, and asked for comment on how to construct the one-way trips. However, no one-way trip methodology appeared in the record, leading a number of commenters to claim that the Department had not sufficiently articulated a rationale for collecting the newly proposed data elements.</P>
        <P>Similarly, the Department proposed that the public supply guidance regarding how the Department should safeguard competitively sensitive information, but no such safeguards were suggested in the comments. With no specific proposals for safeguards in the record, a number of commenters asserted that the Department had not made sufficient plans to safeguard competitively sensitive information.</P>
        <P>In addition, the Department pointed to evidence that the current ticket sample methodology produces a sample that could be impacted by decisions at travel agencies to assign ticket numbers at their own convenience for their own reasons. We have no authority to regulate such activities of travel agents, and so the Department proposed to either change the method of creating the sample or to do away with sampling and collect a census of data. Despite evidence presented in the NPRM that the current 10% sampling system produces a biased sample of inconsistent size and inadequate scope, and the Department's calculation indicating that to ensure reasonable accuracy the target sample size should be a minimum of 24.34% of the total enplaned passengers, several airlines commented that a 20% sample with no change in collection methodology would be easier to implement and therefore preferable to the Department's proposal.</P>
        <P>Although many stakeholders provided comments on the manner in which data could be collected, it is the airlines who must supply the data and are, therefore, in the best position to effectively comment on the difficulty of producing the data. Some airlines questioned certain aspects of the rulemaking's data collection proposal, characterizing the changes as potentially expensive and cumbersome. No airline, however, suggested an alternative, statistically defensible proposal for collection of data that would be less expensive and less cumbersome while simultaneously producing the desired improvements in the utility of the data.</P>
        <HD SOURCE="HD1">Reason for Withdrawal</HD>

        <P>The stated purposes of this rulemaking were to (1) Reduce the long-term reporting burden on the Participating Carriers, (2) make the O&amp;D Survey more relevant and useful, (3) reduce the time it takes to disseminate the information and (4) achieve 95% statistical correlation between the O&amp;D Survey and the T-100/T-100(f).<PRTPAGE P="31513"/>
        </P>
        <P>In light of the responses to the NPRM, we have determined that it will be in the public interest to significantly modify our proposal to modernize aviation data products. We have also determined that an additional request for public comment based on the current proposal would not provide us with the information we need in order to accomplish our purpose.</P>
        <P>We have engaged a contractor with expertise in the industry to identify necessary and useful system features, and to address how data collection can be aligned with modern airline information technology so as to minimize the data-reporting burden on air carriers. Further, the contractor will assist the Department in assessing alternatives to the Department's proposal as stated in the NPRM that will help all stakeholders realize a better value for the investment in the data modernization effort.</P>
        <P>Although this rulemaking is being withdrawn, the Department anticipates the issuance at a later date of a new NPRM and will continue to involve the public in its effort to increase efficiency, effectiveness, integrity, quality, and utility of the aviation traffic information available, in a way that is also sensitive to the information collection costs that would be imposed on the carriers.</P>
        <SIG>
          <DATED>Issued in Washington, DC on May 25, 2011.</DATED>
          <NAME>Susan L. Kurland,</NAME>
          <TITLE>Assistant Secretary.</TITLE>
        </SIG>
      </SUPLINF>
      <FRDOC>[FR Doc. 2011-13554 Filed 5-31-11; 8:45 am]</FRDOC>
      <BILCOD>BILLING CODE 4910-9X-P</BILCOD>
    </PRORULE>
    <PRORULE>
      <PREAMB>
        <AGENCY TYPE="N">FEDERAL TRADE COMMISSION</AGENCY>
        <CFR>16 CFR Part 309</CFR>
        <SUBJECT>Labeling Requirements for Alternative Fuels and Alternative Fueled Vehicles</SUBJECT>
        <AGY>
          <HD SOURCE="HED">AGENCY:</HD>
          <P>Federal Trade Commission (FTC or Commission).</P>
        </AGY>
        <ACT>
          <HD SOURCE="HED">ACTION:</HD>
          <P>Advance notice of proposed rulemaking.</P>
        </ACT>
        <SUM>
          <HD SOURCE="HED">SUMMARY:</HD>
          <P>The Commission seeks public comment on its Labeling Requirements for Alternative Fuels and Alternative Fueled Vehicles (``Alternative Fuels Rule'' or ``Rule''). As part of its systematic review of all FTC rules and guides, the Commission requests public comment on the overall costs, benefits, necessity, and regulatory and economic impact of the Alternative Fuels Rule. The Commission also seeks comment on whether to merge its alternative fueled vehicle (AFV) labels with fuel economy labels proposed by the Environmental Protection Agency (EPA) and the National Highway Traffic Safety Administration (NHTSA); add new definitions for AFVs contained in recent legislation; and change labeling requirements for used AFVs.</P>
        </SUM>
        <EFFDATE>
          <HD SOURCE="HED">DATES:</HD>
          <P>Written comments must be received on or before July 25, 2011.</P>
        </EFFDATE>
        <ADD>
          <HD SOURCE="HED">ADDRESSES:</HD>

          <P>Interested parties may file a comment online or on paper, by following the instructions in the Request for Comment part of the<E T="02">SUPPLEMENTARY INFORMATION</E>section below. Write ``Regulatory Review for Alternative Fuels Rule, (16 CFR part 309, Matter No. R311002, Program Code M04)'' on your comment, and file your comment online at<E T="03">https://ftcpublic.commentworks.com/ftc/altfuelsreviewanpr,</E>by following the instructions on the Web-based form. If you prefer to file your comment on paper, mail or deliver your comment to the following address: Federal Trade Commission, Office of the Secretary, Room H-113 (Annex N), 600 Pennsylvania Avenue, NW, Washington, DC 20580.</P>
        </ADD>
        <FURINF>
          <HD SOURCE="HED">FOR FURTHER INFORMATION CONTACT:</HD>
          <P>Hampton Newsome, Attorney, Division of Enforcement, Bureau of Consumer Protection, Federal Trade Commission, 600 Pennsylvania Avenue, NW., Washington, DC 20580, (202) 326-2889.</P>
        </FURINF>
      </PREAMB>
      <SUPLINF>
        <HD SOURCE="HED">SUPPLEMENTARY INFORMATION:</HD>
        <HD SOURCE="HD1">I. Background</HD>
        <P>The Energy Policy Act of 1992 (EPAct 92 or Act)<SU>1</SU>
          <FTREF/>established federal programs that encourage the development of alternative fuels and alternative fueled vehicles (AFVs). Section 406(a) of the Act directed the Commission to establish uniform labeling requirements for alternative fuels and AFVs. Under the Act, such labels should provide “appropriate information with respect to costs and benefits [of alternative fuels and AFVs], so as to reasonably enable the consumer to make choices and comparisons.”<SU>2</SU>
          <FTREF/>In addition, the required labels must be “simple and, where appropriate, consolidated with other labels providing information to the consumer.”<SU>3</SU>
          <FTREF/>
        </P>
        <FTNT>
          <P>
            <SU>1</SU>Public Law 102-486, 106 Stat. 2776 (1992).</P>
        </FTNT>
        <FTNT>
          <P>
            <SU>2</SU>42 U.S.C. 13232(a).</P>
        </FTNT>
        <FTNT>
          <P>
            <SU>3</SU>
            <E T="03">Id.</E>The provision also states that the Commission ``shall give consideration to the problems associated with developing and publishing useful and timely cost and benefit information, taking into account lead time, costs, the frequency of changes in costs and benefits that may occur, and other relevant factors.''</P>
        </FTNT>
        <P>In response to EPAct 92, the Commission published the Alternative Fuels Rule in 1995, addressing both alternative fuels and AFVs.<SU>4</SU>
          <FTREF/>The Rule requires labels on fuel dispensers for<E T="03">non-liquid</E>alternative fuels, such as electricity, compressed natural gas, and hydrogen.<SU>5</SU>
          <FTREF/>The labels for electricity provide the dispensing system's kilowatt capacity, voltage, and other related information. The labels for other non-liquid fuels disclose the fuel's commonly used name and principal component (expressed as a percentage).<SU>6</SU>
          <FTREF/>Examples of the fuel labels appear below.</P>
        <FTNT>
          <P>
            <SU>4</SU>60 FR 26926 (May 19, 1995).</P>
        </FTNT>
        <FTNT>
          <P>
            <SU>5</SU>The Commission's Fuel Labeling Rule, 16 CFR Part 306, addresses labeling for liquid alternative fuels, such as ethanol and liquefied natural gas.</P>
        </FTNT>
        <FTNT>
          <P>
            <SU>6</SU>The Rule requires fuel importers, producers, or distributors to have a reasonable basis for the information disclosed on the label, maintain records, and provide certifications when transferring fuel. 16 CFR 309.11-14.</P>
        </FTNT>
        <GPH DEEP="275" SPAN="3">
          <PRTPAGE P="31514"/>
          <GID>EP01JN11.018</GID>
        </GPH>

        <P>The Rule also requires labels on new and used AFVs that run on liquid and non-liquid fuels, such as ethanol and other alcohols including E85 ethanol-gasoline mixtures, natural gas, liquefied petroleum gas, hydrogen, coal-derived liquid fuels, fuels derived from biological materials (<E T="03">e.g.,</E>100% biodiesel), and electricity. The labels for new AFVs disclose the vehicle's estimated cruising range (<E T="03">i.e.,</E>the travel distance on a single charge or tank of fuel), general factors consumers should consider before buying an AFV, and toll free telephone numbers and Web sites for additional information from the Department of Energy (DOE) and NHTSA.<SU>7</SU>
          <FTREF/>An example of the label for new AFVs appears below. Labels for used AFVs contain only the general buying factors and DOE/NHTSA contact information.<SU>8</SU>
          <FTREF/>
        </P>
        <FTNT>
          <P>
            <SU>7</SU>The Rule requires manufacturers to have a reasonable basis for the vehicle cruising range, and, for certain AFVs, specifies the test method for calculating that range. 16 CFR 309.22.</P>
        </FTNT>
        <FTNT>
          <P>
            <SU>8</SU>The general factors listed on the current label are information concerning fuel type, operating costs, fuel availability, performance, convenience, energy security, energy renewability, and emissions. See 16 CFR Part 309, Appendix A.</P>
        </FTNT>
        <GPH DEEP="375" SPAN="3">
          <PRTPAGE P="31515"/>
          <GID>EP01JN11.019</GID>
        </GPH>
        <HD SOURCE="HD1">II. Regulatory Review</HD>
        <P>The Commission is accelerating its regularly scheduled review of the Alternative Fuels Rule, previously set for 2014, to ensure that FTC-required vehicle labels and EPA fuel economy labeling requirements are consistent. Regulatory reviews seek information about the costs and benefits of rules and guides as well as their regulatory and economic impact. The information obtained assists in identifying rules and guides that warrant modification or rescission. As part of this review, the Commission seeks comment on the current Alternative Fuels Rule. Among other things, commenters should address the economic impact of, and the continuing need for the Rule; the Rule's benefits to alternative fuel and AFV purchasers; and burdens the Rule places on firms subject to its requirements. In addition, the Commission seeks comment on three specific issues related to the Rule (Section III below) and response to general questions about the Rule (Section IV below).</P>
        <HD SOURCE="HD1">III. Specific Issues For Comment</HD>
        <P>In conducting this regulatory review, the Commission seeks comment on the following three specific issues: (1) Whether to consolidate its AFV labels with EPA/NHTSA fuel economy labels; (2) how to address new definitions for AFVs that are contained in recent legislation; and (3) whether to change labeling requirements for used AFVs.</P>
        <HD SOURCE="HD2">A. EPA and NHTSA Fuel Economy Labels</HD>
        <P>The Commission requests comment on whether it should consolidate its AFV labels with fuel economy labels recently proposed by EPA and NHTSA to ensure consistency between the two.<SU>9</SU>
          <FTREF/>The proposed new fuel economy labels apply to both conventional and alternative fuel vehicles, including most AFVs subject to the FTC's labeling requirements.<SU>10</SU>
          <FTREF/>The content of the proposed labels differs slightly depending on the type of AFV, as described below.</P>
        <FTNT>
          <P>
            <SU>9</SU>
            <E T="03">See</E>75 FR 58078 (Sept. 23, 2010).</P>
        </FTNT>
        <FTNT>
          <P>

            <SU>10</SU>Although EPA regulations (40 CFR Part 600) require labeling for all vehicles covered under the Alternative Fuels Rule, EPA did not propose a specific label for several vehicle types not generally available to individual consumers including those fueled by liquefied petroleum gas, hydrogen, coal-derived liquid fuels, or fuels (other than alcohol) derived from biological materials. See<E T="03">http://www.fueleconomy,gov</E>(availability of vehicle types).</P>
        </FTNT>
        <P>For various types of electric vehicles (including those operating solely on batteries and those operating on a combination of battery and conventional engine power) as well as compressed natural gas powered vehicles, EPA's proposed labels disclose the vehicle's fuel economy, CO2 and other emissions, cruising range, and estimated annual fuel cost.<SU>11</SU>
          <FTREF/>The proposed labels also reference<E T="03">http://www.fueleconomy.gov</E>, which provides comprehensive consumer information about fuel economy and alternative fuels.</P>
        <FTNT>
          <P>
            <SU>11</SU>EPA has requested comment on three different formats which vary in their presentation of information.</P>
        </FTNT>

        <P>For ethanol-fueled vehicles, including flexible fuel vehicles (FFVs) that operate on a combination of gasoline and ethanol, the EPA proposed three label<PRTPAGE P="31516"/>options: (1) Disclosing the fuel economy obtained using gasoline and a statement that alternative fuel use will yield different results;<SU>12</SU>

          <FTREF/>(2) disclosing fuel economy for both gasoline and alternative fuel use (<E T="03">e.g.</E>, E85); and (3) disclosing fuel economy for gasoline as well as miles per gallon equivalent information for the alternative fuel.<SU>13</SU>
          <FTREF/>
        </P>
        <FTNT>
          <P>
            <SU>12</SU>According to the EPA, 99% of FFV owners run their vehicles only on gasoline and never use alternative fuel. 75 FR at 58112.</P>
        </FTNT>
        <FTNT>
          <P>

            <SU>13</SU>According to EPA, miles per gallon of gasoline-equivalent information provides a way to communicate the fact that E85 provides greater miles per unit of energy than gasoline even though E85 provides lower miles per gallon. 75 FR at 58112. Although this information may help some consumers, the Commission is concerned it may mislead many others by implying that E85 will provide better fuel economy (<E T="03">i.e.</E>, miles per gallon) than gasoline.</P>
        </FTNT>

        <P>In light of these proposals, the Commission seeks comment on whether it is appropriate to consolidate its label with EPA's by allowing use of the EPA label in lieu of FTC's. Although there are some differences between the labels (<E T="03">e.g.</E>, the EPA label for ethanol FFVs would not disclose cruising range), all of the EPA's proposed labels provide vehicle-specific fuel economy information. The EPA's proposed labels also would not include the general buying tips that appear on the FTC's label, but would refer consumers to a website to obtain more information about fuel economy and alternative fuels. The Commission, therefore, requests comment on whether the EPA label accomplishes the EPAct 92's goal of providing appropriate information regarding the costs and benefits of AFVs and reasonably enabling consumers to make choices and comparisons. Consolidating the FTC and EPA labels would benefit consumers and industry by eliminating potential confusion caused by duplicative and possibly inconsistent labels,<SU>14</SU>
          <FTREF/>and reducing the burden on manufacturers to create and post two labels.</P>
        <FTNT>
          <P>

            <SU>14</SU>For example, proposed consolidation would eliminate current inconsistencies between cruising range values on FTC and EPA electric vehicle labels. To address new electric vehicles introduced before the completion of this rulemaking, the Commission has issued a policy stating that it will not enforce current FTC labeling requirements for any electric vehicle bearing an EPA-mandated fuel economy label and will encourage vehicle manufacturers to use the EPA label in lieu of the FTC label.<E T="03">See</E>
            <E T="03">http://www.ftc.gov/opa/2011/05/afr.shtm.</E>
          </P>
        </FTNT>
        <HD SOURCE="HD2">B. Definition of Alternative Fueled Vehicles</HD>
        <P>The National Defense Authorization Act for Fiscal Year 2008 extended coverage of the EPAct 92 to hydrogen fuel cell motor vehicles (as defined in 26 U.S.C. 30B (b)(3)), advanced lean burn technology motor vehicles (as defined in 26 U.S.C. 30B(c)(3)), and hybrid motor vehicles (as defined in 26 U.S.C. 30B(d)(3)). Specifically, it added these three types of vehicles to the statutory definition of “alternative fuel vehicle.”<SU>15</SU>
          <FTREF/>Therefore, the Commission is now considering how the Rule should address these vehicles. Because the Alternative Fuels Rule already covers hydrogen fuel cell vehicles, additional labeling requirements for them appear unnecessary. Similarly, lean burn and hybrid vehicles already bear the EPA fuel economy label because they qualify as conventional vehicles under that program. Thus, it appears unlikely that new FTC labels for those models would provide significant benefit. Accordingly, the Commission seeks comment on whether to issue new labels for lean burn and hybrid vehicles or, instead, to allow the EPA label on these vehicles in lieu of a new FTC label.</P>
        <FTNT>
          <P>
            <SU>15</SU>42 U.S.C. 13211(3)(B). According to the legislative history, the purpose of these amendments is to “allow additional types of vehicles to be used to meet minimum” requirements for vehicle and fuel use by Federal agencies (i.e., “Federal fleet requirements”). Congressional Record 153:147 (Oct. 1, 2007) p. S12355.</P>
        </FTNT>
        <HD SOURCE="HD2">C. Used AFV Labels</HD>
        <P>The Commission seeks comment on whether to change the Rule's labeling requirements for used AFVs.<SU>16</SU>

          <FTREF/>Currently, used AFVs must bear labels with general tips and references to telephone numbers and websites that provide additional information. However, these labels do not contain any vehicle-specific information, such as cruising range. Because these used vehicle labels provide limited information and are likely to impose increasing burdens on used car dealers as the AFV market expands, the Commission seeks comment on whether to retain the requirement and, if so, whether to change the label's current content. Commenters should address whether the used vehicle labels provide “appropriate information”; whether the benefits to consumers justify the burdens imposed on used vehicle dealers; and whether other resources, such as<E T="03">http://www.fueleconomy.gov</E>, provide used vehicle shoppers with adequate information. Comments should also address whether vehicle specific information (<E T="03">e.g.</E>, cruising range) is appropriate for used AFV labels. For example, will an electric vehicle's original cruising range estimate, as determined by the manufacturer, remain valid when the vehicle is later sold in the used market?</P>
        <FTNT>
          <P>

            <SU>16</SU>16 CFR 309.21. The Act contains no specific requirement for used AFV labels nor does it specifically exclude used vehicles from its coverage.<E T="03">See</E>42 U.S.C. 13211 and 13232(a). In promulgating the original Rule in 1994, the Commission determined that used AFV labeling was “appropriate” because “consumers would likely have the same need for information, and would consider the same factors, whether they were contemplating a new or used AFV acquisition.” 60 FR at 26941.</P>
        </FTNT>
        <HD SOURCE="HD1">IV. General Questions for Comment</HD>
        <P>In addition to the specific issues discussed in Section II, the Commission solicits comment on the following questions related to the Rule:</P>
        <P>(1) Is there a continuing need for the Rule as currently promulgated? Why or why not?</P>
        <P>(2) What benefits has the Rule provided to consumers? What evidence supports the asserted benefits?</P>
        <P>(3) What modifications, if any, should the Commission make to the Rule to increase its benefits to consumers?</P>
        <P>(a) What evidence supports your proposed modifications?</P>
        <P>(b) How would these modifications affect the costs and benefits of the Rule for consumers?</P>
        <P>(c) How would these modifications affect the costs and benefits of the Rule for businesses, particularly small businesses?</P>
        <P>(4) What impact, if any, has the Rule had on the flow of appropriate information to consumers about alternative fuels and AFVs?</P>
        <P>(5) What significant costs has the Rule imposed on consumers? What evidence supports the asserted costs?</P>
        <P>(6) What modifications, if any, should be made to the Rule to reduce the costs imposed on consumers?</P>
        <P>(a) What evidence supports your proposed modifications?</P>
        <P>(b) How would these modifications affect the costs and benefits of the Rule for consumers?</P>
        <P>(c) How would these modifications affect the costs and benefits of the Rule for businesses, particularly small businesses?</P>
        <P>(7) Please provide any evidence that has become available since 2005 concerning consumer perception of AFV and non-liquid alternative fuel labeling. Does this new information indicate that the Rule should be modified? If so, why, and how? If not, why not?</P>
        <P>(8) Please provide any evidence that has become available since 2005 concerning consumer interest in alternative fuel and AFV labeling. Does this new information indicate that the Rule should be modified? If so, why, and how? If not, why not?</P>

        <P>(9) What benefits, if any, has the Rule provided to businesses, and in particular to small businesses? What evidence supports the asserted benefits?<PRTPAGE P="31517"/>
        </P>
        <P>(10) What modifications, if any, should be made to the Rule to increase its benefits to businesses, and particularly to small businesses?</P>
        <P>(a) What evidence supports your proposed modifications?</P>
        <P>(b) How would these modifications affect the costs and benefits of the Rule for consumers?</P>
        <P>(c) How would these modifications affect the costs and benefits of the Rule for businesses?</P>
        <P>(11) What significant costs, including costs of compliance, has the Rule imposed on businesses, particularly small businesses? What evidence supports the asserted costs?</P>
        <P>(12) What modifications, if any, should be made to the Rule to reduce the costs imposed on businesses, particularly on small businesses?</P>
        <P>(a) What evidence supports your proposed modifications?</P>
        <P>(b) How would these modifications affect the costs and benefits of the Rule for consumers?</P>
        <P>(c) How would these modifications affect the costs and benefits of the Rule for businesses?</P>
        <P>(13) What evidence is available concerning the degree of industry compliance with the Rule? Does this evidence indicate that the Rule should be modified? If so, why, and how? If not, why not?</P>
        <P>(14) Are any of the Rule's requirements no longer needed? If so, explain. Please provide supporting evidence.</P>
        <P>(15) What modifications, if any, should be made to the Rule to account for changes in relevant technology, including development of new alternative fuels, or economic conditions?</P>
        <P>(a) What evidence supports the proposed modifications?</P>
        <P>(b) How would these modifications affect the costs and benefits of the Rule for consumers and businesses, particularly small businesses?</P>
        <P>(16) Does the Rule overlap or conflict with other federal, state, or local laws or regulations? If so, how?</P>
        <P>(a) What evidence supports the asserted conflicts?</P>
        <P>(b) With reference to the asserted conflicts, should the Rule be modified? If so, why, and how? If not, why not?</P>
        <P>(c) Is there evidence concerning whether the Rule has assisted in promoting national uniformity with respect to the rating, certifying, and posting the rating of non-liquid alternative fuels and AFV labeling? If so, please provide that evidence.</P>
        <P>(17) Are there foreign or international laws, regulations, or standards with respect to the rating, certifying, and posting the rating of non-liquid alternative fuels and AFV labeling that the Commission should consider as it reviews the Rule? If so, what are they?</P>
        <P>(a) Should the Rule be modified to harmonize with these foreign or international laws, regulations, or standards? If so, why, and how? If not, why not?</P>
        <P>(b) How would such harmonization affect the costs and benefits of the Rule for consumers and businesses, particularly small businesses?</P>
        <HD SOURCE="HD1">V. Instructions for Comment Submissions</HD>

        <P>You can file a comment online or on paper. For the Commission to consider your comment, we must receive it on or before July 25, 2011. Write  “Regulatory Review for Alternative Fuels Rule, (16 CFR part 309, Matter No. R311002, Program Code M04)” on your comment. Your comment—including your name and your state—will be placed on the public record of this proceeding, including, to the extent practicable, on the public Commission Web site, at<E T="03">http://www.ftc.gov/os/publiccomments.shtm.</E>As a matter of discretion, the Commission tries to remove individuals' home contact information from comments before placing them on the Commission Website.</P>
        <P>Because your comment will be made public, you are solely responsible for making sure that your comment does not include any sensitive personal information, like anyone's Social Security number, date of birth, driver's license number or other state identification number or foreign country equivalent, passport number, financial account number, or credit or debit card number. You are also solely responsible for making sure that your comment does not include any sensitive health information, like medical records or other individually identifiable health information. In addition, do not include any “[t]rade secret or any commercial or financial information which is obtained from any person and which is privileged or confidential,” as provided in Section 6(f) of the FTC Act, 15 U.S.C. 46(f), and FTC Rule 4.10(a)(2), 16 CFR 4.10(a)(2). In particular, do not include competitively sensitive information such as costs, sales statistics, inventories, formulas, patterns, devices, manufacturing processes, or customer names.</P>
        <P>If you want the Commission to give your comment confidential treatment, you must file it in paper form, with a request for confidential treatment, and you have to follow the procedure explained in FTC Rule 4.9(c), 16 CFR 4.9(c).<SU>17</SU>
          <FTREF/>Your comment will be kept confidential only if the FTC General Counsel, in his or her sole discretion, grants your request in accordance with the law and the public interest.</P>
        <FTNT>
          <P>

            <SU>17</SU>In particular, the written request for confidential treatment that accompanies the comment must include the factual and legal basis for the request, and must identify the specific portions of the comment to be withheld from the public record.<E T="03">See</E>FTC Rule 4.9(c), 16 CFR 4.9(c).</P>
        </FTNT>

        <P>Postal mail addressed to the Commission is subject to delay due to heightened security screening. As a result, we encourage you to submit your comments online. To make sure that the Commission considers your online comment, you must file it at<E T="03">https://ftcpublic.commentworks.com/ftc/altfuelsreviewanpr,</E>by following the instructions on the web-based form. If this Notice appears at<E T="03">http://www.regulations.gov/#!home,</E>you also may file a comment through that website.</P>
        <P>If you file your comment on paper, write “Regulatory Review for Alternative Fuels Rule, (16 CFR part 309, Matter No. R311002, Program Code M04)” on your comment and on the envelope, and mail or deliver it to the following address: Federal Trade Commission, Office of the Secretary, Room H-113 (Annex N), 600 Pennsylvania Avenue, NW., Washington, DC 20580. If possible, submit your paper comment to the Commission by courier or overnight service.</P>
        <P>Visit the Commission Website at<E T="03">http://www.ftc.gov</E>to read this Notice and the news release describing it. The FTC Act and other laws that the Commission administers permit the collection of public comments to consider and use in this proceeding as appropriate. The Commission will consider all timely and responsive public comments that it receives on or before July 25, 2011. You can find more information, including routine uses permitted by the Privacy Act, in the Commission's privacy policy, at<E T="03">http://www.ftc.gov/ftc/privacy.htm.</E>
        </P>
        <SIG>
          <P>By direction of the Commission.</P>
          <NAME>Donald S. Clark,</NAME>
          <TITLE>Secretary.</TITLE>
        </SIG>
      </SUPLINF>
      <FRDOC>[FR Doc. 2011-13520 Filed 5-31-11; 8:45 am]</FRDOC>
      <BILCOD>BILLING CODE 6750-01-P</BILCOD>
    </PRORULE>
    <PRORULE>
      <PREAMB>
        <PRTPAGE P="31518"/>
        <AGENCY TYPE="N">COMMODITY FUTURES TRADING COMMISSION</AGENCY>
        <CFR>17 CFR Parts 22 and 190</CFR>
        <SUBJECT>Public Roundtable on the Protection of Cleared Swaps Customer Collateral</SUBJECT>
        <AGY>
          <HD SOURCE="HED">AGENCY:</HD>
          <P>Commodity Futures Trading Commission (“CFTC”).</P>
        </AGY>
        <ACT>
          <HD SOURCE="HED">ACTION:</HD>
          <P>Notice of roundtable discussion; request for comment.</P>
        </ACT>
        <SUM>
          <HD SOURCE="HED">SUMMARY:</HD>

          <P>On June 3, 2011, commencing at 9:30 a.m. and ending at 5 p.m., staff of the CFTC will hold a public roundtable discussion at which invited participants will discuss certain issues related to the protection of cleared swaps customer collateral described in the CFTC's notice of proposed rulemaking regarding the Protection of Cleared Swaps Customer Contracts and Collateral and Conforming Amendments to the Commodity Broker Bankruptcy Provisions (the “NPRM”), a copy of which may be found on the CFTC's Web site at<E T="03">http://www.cftc.gov/ucm/groups/public/@newsroom/documents/file/federalregister042711b.pdf</E>. This is a preliminary version of the proposed rule; the version that will publish in the<E T="04">Federal Register</E>may not be identical to this preliminary version.</P>
          <P>The roundtable will include discussions of the issues surrounding the implementation of the complete legal segregation model proposed in the NPRM, the optional approach highlighted in the NPRM, with specific emphasis regarding the bankruptcy issues surrounding such approach, and the advantages and disadvantages of the models proposed in the NPRM.</P>
        </SUM>
        <DATES>
          <HD SOURCE="HED">DATES:</HD>
          <P>The roundtable discussion will be held on June 3, 2011.</P>
        </DATES>
        <ADD>
          <HD SOURCE="HED">ADDRESSES:</HD>
          <P>The roundtable discussion will be open to the public with seating on a first-come, first-served basis, and will take place in the Conference Center at the CFTC's headquarters at Three Lafayette Centre, 1155 21st Street, NW., Washington, DC. Members of the public may also listen by telephone. Call-in participants should be prepared to provide their first name, last name, and affiliation. The information for the conference call is set forth below.</P>
          <P>•<E T="03">US Toll-Free:</E>866-844-9416</P>
          <P>•<E T="03">International Toll:</E>203-369-5026</P>
          <P>•<E T="03">Passcode:</E>6066025</P>

          <P>A transcript of the public roundtable discussion will be published on the CFTC's website at<E T="03">http://www.cftc.gov/LawRegulation/DoddFrankAct/Rulemakings/DF_6_SegBankruptcy/index.htm.</E>
          </P>
        </ADD>
        <FURINF>
          <HD SOURCE="HED">FOR FURTHER INFORMATION CONTACT:</HD>
          <P>The CFTC's Office of Public Affairs at (202) 418-5080.</P>
        </FURINF>
      </PREAMB>
      <SUPLINF>
        <HD SOURCE="HED">SUPPLEMENTARY INFORMATION:</HD>
        <P>The roundtable discussion will take place on Friday, June 3, 2011, commencing at 9:30 a.m. and ending at 5 p.m. Members of the public who wish to comment on the topics addressed at the discussion, or on any other topics related to customer collateral protection in the context of the Act, may do so via:</P>
        <P>• Paper submission to David Stawick, Secretary, Commodity Futures Trading Commission, Three Lafayette Centre, 1155 21st Street, NW., Washington, DC 20581; or</P>
        <P>• Electronic submission by visiting<E T="03">http://comments.cftc.gov</E>and following the instructions for submitting comments through the CFTC's Web site.</P>
        <P>All comments must be in English or be accompanied by an English translation. All submissions provided to the CFTC in any electronic form or on paper may be published on the website of the CFTC, without review and without removal of personally identifying information. Please submit only information that you wish to make publicly available.</P>
        <SIG>
          <P>By the Commodity Futures Trading Commission.</P>
          <DATED>Dated: May 25, 2011.</DATED>
          <NAME>David A. Stawick,</NAME>
          <TITLE>Secretary.</TITLE>
        </SIG>
      </SUPLINF>
      <FRDOC>[FR Doc. 2011-13585 Filed 5-31-11; 8:45 am]</FRDOC>
      <BILCOD>BILLING CODE P</BILCOD>
    </PRORULE>
    <PRORULE>
      <PREAMB>
        <AGENCY TYPE="N">SECURITIES AND EXCHANGE COMMISSION</AGENCY>
        <CFR>17 CFR Parts 230 and 239</CFR>
        <DEPDOC>[Release No. 33-9211; File No. S7-21-11]</DEPDOC>
        <RIN>RIN 3235-AK97</RIN>
        <SUBJECT>Disqualification of Felons and Other “Bad Actors” From Rule 506 Offerings</SUBJECT>
        <AGY>
          <HD SOURCE="HED">AGENCY:</HD>
          <P>Securities and Exchange Commission.</P>
        </AGY>
        <ACT>
          <HD SOURCE="HED">ACTION:</HD>
          <P>Proposed rule.</P>
        </ACT>
        <SUM>
          <HD SOURCE="HED">SUMMARY:</HD>
          <P>We are proposing amendments to our rules to implement Section 926 of the Dodd-Frank Wall Street Reform and Consumer Protection Act. Section 926 requires us to adopt rules that disqualify securities offerings involving certain “felons and other `bad actors'” from reliance on the safe harbor from Securities Act registration provided by Rule 506 of Regulation D. The rules must be “substantially similar” to Rule 262, the disqualification provisions of Regulation A under the Securities Act, and must also cover matters enumerated in Section 926 (including certain state regulatory orders and bars).</P>
        </SUM>
        <DATES>
          <HD SOURCE="HED">DATES:</HD>
          <P>Comments should be received on or before July 14, 2011.</P>
        </DATES>
        <ADD>
          <HD SOURCE="HED">ADDRESSES:</HD>
          <P>Comments may be submitted by any of the following methods:</P>
        </ADD>
        <HD SOURCE="HD2">Electronic Comments</HD>
        <P>• Use the Commission's Internet comment form (<E T="03">http://www.sec.gov/rules/proposed.shtml</E>);</P>
        <P>• Send an e-mail to<E T="03">rule-comments@sec.gov</E>. Please include File Number S7-21-11 on the subject line; or</P>
        <P>• Use the Federal Rulemaking Portal (<E T="03">http://www.regulations.gov</E>). Follow the instructions for submitting comments.</P>
        <HD SOURCE="HD2">Paper Comments</HD>
        <P>• Send paper comments in triplicate to Elizabeth M. Murphy, Secretary, Securities and Exchange Commission, 100 F Street, NE., Washington, DC 20549-1090.</P>
        

        <FP>All submissions should refer to File Number S7-21-11. To help us process and review your comments more efficiently, please use only one method. The Commission will post all comments on the Commission's Web site (<E T="03">http://www.sec.gov/rules/proposed.shtml</E>). Comments also are available for Web site viewing and printing in the Commission's Public Reference Room, 100 F Street, NE., Room 1580, Washington, DC 20549, on official business days between the hours of 10 a.m. and 3 p.m. All comments received will be posted without change; we do not edit personal identifying information from submissions. You should submit only information that you wish to make available publicly.</FP>
        <FURINF>
          <HD SOURCE="HED">FOR FURTHER INFORMATION CONTACT:</HD>
          <P>Johanna Vega Losert, Special Counsel; Karen C. Wiedemann, Attorney-Fellow; or Gerald J. Laporte, Office Chief, Office of Small Business Policy, at (202) 551-3460, Division of Corporation Finance, U.S. Securities and Exchange Commission, 100 F Street, NE., Washington, DC 20549-3628.</P>
        </FURINF>
      </PREAMB>
      <SUPLINF>
        <HD SOURCE="HED">SUPPLEMENTARY INFORMATION:</HD>
        <P>We propose to amend Rules 501<SU>1</SU>
          <FTREF/>and 506<SU>2</SU>
          <FTREF/>of Regulation D<SU>3</SU>
          <FTREF/>and Form D<SU>4</SU>
          <FTREF/>under the Securities Act of 1933 (“Securities Act”).<SU>5</SU>
          <FTREF/>
        </P>
        <FTNT>
          <P>
            <SU>1</SU>17 CFR 230.501.</P>
        </FTNT>
        <FTNT>
          <P>
            <SU>2</SU>17 CFR 230.506.</P>
        </FTNT>
        <FTNT>
          <P>
            <SU>3</SU>17 CFR 230.501 through 230.508.</P>
        </FTNT>
        <FTNT>
          <P>
            <SU>4</SU>17 CFR 239.500.</P>
        </FTNT>
        <FTNT>
          <P>
            <SU>5</SU>15 U.S.C. 77a<E T="03">et seq.</E>
          </P>
        </FTNT>
        <PRTPAGE P="31519"/>
        <HD SOURCE="HD1">Table of Contents</HD>
        <EXTRACT>
          <FP SOURCE="FP-2">I. Background and Summary</FP>
          <FP SOURCE="FP-2">II. Discussion of the Proposed Amendments</FP>
          <FP SOURCE="FP1-2">A. Introduction</FP>
          <FP SOURCE="FP1-2">B. Covered Persons</FP>
          <FP SOURCE="FP1-2">C. Disqualifying Events</FP>
          <FP SOURCE="FP1-2">1. Criminal Convictions</FP>
          <FP SOURCE="FP1-2">2. Court Injunctions and Restraining Orders</FP>
          <FP SOURCE="FP1-2">3. Final Orders of Certain Regulators</FP>
          <FP SOURCE="FP1-2">4. Commission Disciplinary Orders</FP>
          <FP SOURCE="FP1-2">5. Suspension or Expulsion From SRO Membership or Association With an SRO Member</FP>
          <FP SOURCE="FP1-2">6. Stop Orders and Orders Suspending the Regulation A Exemption</FP>
          <FP SOURCE="FP1-2">7. U.S. Postal Service False Representation Orders</FP>
          <FP SOURCE="FP1-2">D. Reasonable Care Exception</FP>
          <FP SOURCE="FP1-2">E. Waivers</FP>
          <FP SOURCE="FP1-2">F. Transition Issues</FP>
          <FP SOURCE="FP1-2">1. Disqualifying Events That Pre-Date the Rule</FP>
          <FP SOURCE="FP1-2">2. Effect on Ongoing Offerings</FP>
          <FP SOURCE="FP1-2">3. Timing of Implementation</FP>
          <FP SOURCE="FP1-2">G. Amendment to Form D</FP>
          <FP SOURCE="FP-2">III. Possible Amendments To Increase Uniformity</FP>
          <FP SOURCE="FP1-2">A. Uniform Application of Bad Actor Disqualification to Regulations A, D and E</FP>
          <FP SOURCE="FP1-2">B. Uniform Look-Back Periods</FP>
          <FP SOURCE="FP-2">IV. General Request for Comment</FP>
          <FP SOURCE="FP-2">V. Chart—Comparison of Felon and Other Bad Actor Disqualification Under Current Rule 262, Dodd-Frank Act Section 926 and Proposed Rule 506(c)</FP>
          <FP SOURCE="FP-2">VI. Paperwork Reduction Act</FP>
          <FP SOURCE="FP-2">VII. Cost-Benefit Analysis</FP>
          <FP SOURCE="FP-2">VIII. Consideration of Burden on Competition and Promotion of Efficiency, Competition and Capital Formation</FP>
          <FP SOURCE="FP-2">IX. Initial Regulatory Flexibility Act Analysis</FP>
          <FP SOURCE="FP-2">X. Small Business Regulatory Enforcement Fairness Act</FP>
          <FP SOURCE="FP-2">XI. Statutory Authority and Text of Proposed Amendments</FP>
        </EXTRACT>
        <HD SOURCE="HD1">I. Background and Summary</HD>
        <P>Section 926 of the Dodd-Frank Wall Street Reform and Consumer Protection Act (the “Dodd-Frank Act”),<SU>6</SU>
          <FTREF/>entitled “Disqualifying felons and other `bad actors' from Regulation D offerings,” requires the Commission to adopt rules to disqualify certain securities offerings from reliance on the safe harbor provided by Rule 506 for exemption from registration under Section 4(2) of the Securities Act of 1933. This release proposes amendments to Rules 501 and 506 and Form D to implement Section 926 of the Dodd-Frank Act.</P>
        <FTNT>
          <P>
            <SU>6</SU>Public Law 111-203, § 926, 124 Stat. 1376, 1851 (July 21, 2010) (to be codified at 15 U.S.C. 77d note).</P>
        </FTNT>
        <P>Rule 506 is one of three exemptive rules for limited and private offerings under Regulation D.<SU>7</SU>
          <FTREF/>It is by far the most widely used Regulation D exemption, accounting for an estimated 90-95% of all Regulation D offerings<SU>8</SU>
          <FTREF/>and the overwhelming majority of capital raised in transactions under Regulation D. Rule 506 permits sales of an unlimited dollar amount of securities to be made, without registration, to an unlimited number of accredited investors<SU>9</SU>
          <FTREF/>and up to 35 non-accredited investors, so long as there is no general solicitation, appropriate resale limitations are imposed, any applicable information requirements are satisfied and the other conditions of the rule are met.<SU>10</SU>
          <FTREF/>
        </P>
        <FTNT>
          <P>
            <SU>7</SU>The others are Rule 504 and Rule 505, 17 CFR 230.504 and 230.505, which are discussed in notes 100 and 98 below.</P>
        </FTNT>
        <FTNT>
          <P>
            <SU>8</SU>For the twelve months ended September 30, 2010, the Commission received 17,292 initial filings for offerings under Regulation D, of which 16,027 (approximately 93%) claimed a Rule 506 exemption.</P>
        </FTNT>
        <FTNT>
          <P>

            <SU>9</SU>Rule 501 of Regulation D lists eight categories of “accredited investor,” including entities and natural persons that meet specified income or asset thresholds.<E T="03">See</E>17 CFR 230.501. In a separate rulemaking required by Section 413(a) of the Dodd-Frank Act, the Commission has proposed amendments to the accredited investor standards in our rules under the Securities Act of 1933 to exclude the value of a person's primary residence for purposes of the $1 million accredited investor net worth determination. See Release No. 33-9177 (Jan. 25, 2011) [76 FR 5307] (available at<E T="03">http://www.sec.gov/rules/proposed/2011/33-9177.pdf.</E>)</P>
        </FTNT>
        <FTNT>
          <P>

            <SU>10</SU>Offerings under Rule 506 are subject to all the terms and conditions of Rules 501 and 502, including limitations on the manner of offering (no general solicitation), limitations on resale and, if securities are sold to any non-accredited investors, specified information requirements. Where securities are sold only to accredited investors, the information requirements do not apply.<E T="03">See</E>17 CFR 230.502 and 230.506. In addition, any non-accredited investors must satisfy the investor sophistication requirements of Rule 506(b)(2)(ii). Offerings under Rule 506 must also comply with the notice of sale requirements of Rule 503.<E T="03">See</E>17 CFR 230.503.</P>
        </FTNT>
        <P>“Bad actor” disqualification requirements, sometimes called “bad boy” provisions, prohibit issuers and others (such as underwriters, placement agents and the directors, officers and significant shareholders of the issuer) from participating in exempt securities offerings if they have been convicted of, or are subject to court or administrative sanctions for, securities fraud or other violations of specified laws. Rule 506 in its current form does not impose any bad actor disqualification requirements.<SU>11</SU>
          <FTREF/>In addition, because securities sold under Rule 506 are “covered securities” under Section 18(b)(4)(D) of the Securities Act, state-level bad actor disqualification rules do not apply.<SU>12</SU>
          <FTREF/>
        </P>
        <FTNT>
          <P>
            <SU>11</SU>Rule 507 of Regulation D imposes a different kind of disqualification specific to Regulation D offerings. Under Rule 507, any person that is subject to a court order, judgment or decree enjoining such person for failure to file the notice of sale on Form D required under Rule 503 is disqualified from relying on Regulation D. 17 CFR 230.507(a). We are not proposing to amend Rule 507 at this time.</P>
        </FTNT>
        <FTNT>
          <P>
            <SU>12</SU>
            <E T="03">See</E>15 U.S.C. 77r(b)(4)(D). This provision of Section 18 was added by Section 102(a) of the National Securities Markets Improvement Act of 1996, Public Law 104-290,110 Stat. 3416 (Oct. 11, 1996) (“NSMIA”). NSMIA preempts state registration and review requirements for transactions involving “covered securities,” including securities offered or sold on a basis exempt from registration under Commission rules or regulations issued under Securities Act Section 4(2). Rule 506 is a safe harbor under Section 4(2).</P>
        </FTNT>
        <P>In 2007, we proposed a number of amendments to Regulation D, including bad actor disqualification rules that would have applied to all Regulation D offerings (the “2007 Proposal”).<SU>13</SU>
          <FTREF/>Although we did not take final action on the 2007 Proposal, we have considered the issues raised and the comments received in respect of the 2007 Proposal in developing the rules we propose today.<SU>14</SU>
          <FTREF/>We have also considered advance comments in letters we have received to date on this rulemaking project.<SU>15</SU>
          <FTREF/>
        </P>
        <FTNT>
          <P>
            <SU>13</SU>
            <E T="03">See</E>Release No. 33-8828 (Aug. 3, 2007) [72 FR 45116] (available at<E T="03">http://www.sec.gov/rules/proposed/2007/33-8828.pdf.</E>)</P>
        </FTNT>
        <FTNT>
          <P>

            <SU>14</SU>Comment letters received on the 2007 Proposal are available at<E T="03">http://www.sec.gov/comments/s7-18-07/s71807.shtml.</E>
          </P>
        </FTNT>
        <FTNT>
          <P>

            <SU>15</SU>To facilitate public input on its Dodd-Frank Act rulemaking before issuance of actual rule proposals, the Commission has provided a series of e-mail links, organized by topic, on its Web site at<E T="03">http://www.sec.gov/spotlight/regreformcomments.shtml.</E>In this release, we refer to comment letters we received on this rulemaking project in response to this invitation as “advance comment letters.” The advance comment letters we received in anticipation of this rule proposal appear under the heading “Adding Disqualification Requirements to Regulation D Offerings,” Title IX Provisions of the Dodd-Frank Wall Street Reform and Consumer Protection Act.</P>
        </FTNT>
        <P>Section 926 of the Dodd-Frank Act instructs the Commission to issue disqualification rules for Rule 506 offerings that are “substantially similar” to Rule 262,<SU>16</SU>
          <FTREF/>the bad actor disqualification provisions of Regulation A,<SU>17</SU>
          <FTREF/>and that are also triggered by an expanded list of disqualifying events, including certain actions by state regulators, enumerated in Section 926. The disqualifying events currently covered by Rule 262 include:</P>
        <FTNT>
          <P>
            <SU>16</SU>17 CFR 230.262.</P>
        </FTNT>
        <FTNT>
          <P>
            <SU>17</SU>17 CFR 230.251 through 230.263. Regulation A is a limited offering exemption that permits public offerings of securities not exceeding $5 million in any 12-month period by companies that are not required to file periodic reports with the Commission. Regulation A offerings are required to have an offering circular containing specific mandatory information, which is filed with the Commission and subject to review by the staff of the Division of Corporation Finance.</P>
        </FTNT>

        <P>• Felony and misdemeanor convictions in connection with the purchase or sale of a security or involving the making of a false filing with the Commission (the same criminal conviction standard as in Section 926 of the Dodd-Frank Act) within the last five years in the case of issuers and ten years in the case of other covered persons;<PRTPAGE P="31520"/>
        </P>
        <P>• Injunctions and court orders within the last five years against engaging in or continuing conduct or practices in connection with the purchase or sale of securities, or involving the making of any false filing with the Commission;</P>
        <P>• U.S. Postal Service false representation orders within the last five years;</P>
        <P>• Filing, or being or being named as an underwriter in, a registration statement or Regulation A offering statement that is the subject of a proceeding to determine whether a stop order should be issued, or as to which a stop order was issued within the last five years; and</P>
        <P>• For covered persons other than the issuer:</P>
        <P>○ Being subject to a Commission order:</P>
        <P>• Revoking or suspending their registration as a broker, dealer, municipal securities dealer, or investment adviser;</P>
        <P>• Placing limitations on their activities as such;</P>
        <P>• Barring them from association with any entity; or</P>
        <P>• Barring them from participating in an offering of penny stock; or</P>
        <P>○ Being suspended or expelled from membership in, or suspended or barred from association with a member of, a registered national securities exchange or national securities association for conduct inconsistent with just and equitable principles of trade.</P>
        <P>The disqualifying events specifically required by Section 926 are:</P>
        <P>• Final orders issued by state securities, banking, credit union, and insurance regulators, Federal banking regulators, and the National Credit Union Administration that either</P>
        <P>○ Bar a person from association with an entity regulated by the regulator issuing the order, or from engaging in the business of securities, insurance or banking, or from savings association or credit union activities; or</P>
        <P>○ Are based on a violation of any law or regulation that prohibits fraudulent, manipulative, or deceptive conduct within a ten-year period; and</P>
        <P>• Felony and misdemeanor convictions in connection with the purchase or sale of a security or involving the making of a false filing with the Commission.</P>
        <P>We are proposing revisions to Rule 506 of Regulation D to implement these requirements. The substance of our proposal is derived from Section 926 of the Dodd-Frank Act and Rule 262. However, the proposed rule has been formatted in a way that is designed to make it easier to understand and apply than current Rule 262. Rule 262 currently provides three different categories of offering participants and related persons, with different disqualification triggers for each category. The amendments we propose would incorporate the substance of Rule 262, but simplify the framework to include one list of potentially disqualified persons and one list of disqualifying events. We propose to codify this in a new paragraph (c) of Rule 506.</P>
        <P>To clarify the issuer's obligations under the new rules, we are also proposing a “reasonable care” exception, under which an issuer would not lose the benefit of the Rule 506 safe harbor, despite the existence of a disqualifying event, if it can show that it did not know and, in the exercise of reasonable care, could not have known of the disqualification. To establish reasonable care, the issuer would be expected to conduct a factual inquiry, the nature and extent of which would depend on the facts and circumstances of the situation.</P>
        <P>In Part III of this Release, we discuss other possible amendments to our rules to make bad actor disqualification more uniform across other exemptive rules. We are soliciting public comment on these possible amendments, which would go beyond the specific mandates of Section 926. The possible amendments we are considering and on which we are soliciting comment include:</P>
        <P>• Applying the new bad actor disqualification provisions proposed for Rule 506 offerings uniformly to offerings under Regulation A, Rule 505 of Regulation D and Regulation E (all of which are currently subject to bad actor disqualification under existing Rule 262 or under similar provisions based on that rule) and offerings under Rule 504 of Regulation D (which currently are not subject to Federal disqualification provisions); and</P>

        <P>• For all disqualifying events that are subject to an express look-back period under current law (<E T="03">e.g.,</E>criminal convictions within the last five or ten years, court orders within the last five years), providing a uniform ten-year look back period, to align with the ten-year look-back period required under the Dodd-Frank Act for specified regulatory orders and bars.</P>
        <P>Part V of this Release is a chart that compares the provisions of Rule 262, Section 926 of the Dodd-Frank Act and proposed Rule 506(c).</P>
        <HD SOURCE="HD1">II. Discussion of the Proposed Amendments</HD>
        <HD SOURCE="HD2">A. Introduction</HD>
        <P>Section 926(1) of the Dodd-Frank Act requires the Commission to adopt disqualification rules that are substantially similar to Rule 262, the bad actor disqualification provisions applicable to offerings under Regulation A, and that also cover the triggering events specified in Section 926. Accordingly, the rules we are proposing reflect the persons covered by and triggering events specified in those two sources.</P>
        <HD SOURCE="HD2">B. Covered Persons</HD>
        <P>We propose that the disqualification provisions of Rule 506(c) would cover the following, which we sometimes refer to in this release as “covered persons”:</P>
        <P>• The issuer and any predecessor of the issuer or affiliated issuer;</P>
        <P>• Any director, officer, general partner or managing member of the issuer;</P>
        <P>• Any beneficial owner of 10% or more of any class of the issuer's equity securities;</P>
        <P>• Any promoter connected with the issuer in any capacity at the time of the sale;</P>
        <P>• Any person that has been or will be paid (directly or indirectly) remuneration for solicitation of purchasers in connection with sales of securities in the offering; and</P>
        <P>• Any director, officer, general partner, or managing member of any such compensated solicitor.<SU>18</SU>
          <FTREF/>
        </P>
        <FTNT>
          <P>
            <SU>18</SU>
            <E T="03">See</E>Proposed Rule 506(c)(1).</P>
        </FTNT>
        <P>This generally corresponds to the persons covered by Rule 262, with the changes discussed below.</P>
        <P>To clarify the treatment of entities organized as limited liability companies, we propose to cover managing members expressly, just as general partners of partnerships are covered.</P>

        <P>To address the types of financial intermediaries likely to be involved in private placements under Rule 506, we are proposing to look to the current standards under Rule 505 of Regulation D rather than to Rule 262 directly. The disqualification provisions of Rule 505 are substantially identical to Rule 262 (and in effect incorporate it by reference), but adapt it to the private placement context. In particular, because Rule 505 transactions do not involve traditional underwritten public offerings but may involve the use of compensated placement agents and finders, Rule 505 substitutes “any<PRTPAGE P="31521"/>person that has been or will be paid (directly or indirectly) remuneration for solicitation of purchasers” for the “underwriters” that are covered by Rule 262.<SU>19</SU>
          <FTREF/>Since Rule 506 transactions, like transactions under Rule 505, would not involve traditional underwritten public offerings but may involve the use of compensated placement agents and finders, we propose to include the current Rule 505 standard described above in the proposed new rule.<SU>20</SU>
          <FTREF/>
        </P>
        <FTNT>
          <P>

            <SU>19</SU>This is achieved by applying the Rule 262 disqualification standards but redefining the term “underwriter,” for purposes of Rule 505, to mean “any person that has been or will be paid (directly or indirectly) remuneration for the solicitation of purchasers.” Rule 505(b)(iii)(B), 17 CFR 230.505(b)(iii)(B).<E T="03">See</E>Proposed Rule 506(c)(1).</P>
        </FTNT>
        <FTNT>
          <P>
            <SU>20</SU>The current disqualification provisions of Rule 505 apply to any “partner, director or officer” of a compensated solicitor. We propose to incorporate the references to directors and officers, add a reference to managing members and modify the reference to include only general partners. When the current rules were adopted, financial intermediaries were often structured as general partnerships and the possibility of their having limited partners may not have been considered. We see no policy basis for imposing disqualification on a partnership based on violations of law by its limited partners, and accordingly propose to clarify that only general partners would be covered.</P>
        </FTNT>
        <P>We also propose to incorporate and clarify the applicability of the second sentence of current Rule 262(a)(5), under which events relating to certain affiliated issuers are not disqualifying if they pre-date the affiliate relationship.<SU>21</SU>
          <FTREF/>Under the existing rule, orders, judgments and decrees entered against affiliated issuers before the affiliation arose do not disqualify an offering if the affiliated issuer is not (i) in control of the issuer or (ii) under common control, together with the issuer, by a third party that controlled the affiliated issuer at the time such order, judgment or decree was entered. The proposed rule would clarify that this exclusion applies to all potentially disqualifying events that pre-date the affiliation.<SU>22</SU>
          <FTREF/>We believe this is appropriate because the current placement of this language within paragraph (5) of Rule 262 may incorrectly suggest that it applies only to Postal Service false representation orders.</P>
        <FTNT>
          <P>
            <SU>21</SU>The sentence provides: “The entry of an order, judgment or decree against any affiliated entity before the affiliation with the issuer arose, if the affiliated entity is not in control of the issuer and if the affiliated entity and the issuer are not under common control of a third party who was in control of the affiliated entity at the time of such entry does not come within the purview of this paragraph (a) of this section.” 17 CFR 230.262(a)(5).</P>
        </FTNT>
        <FTNT>
          <P>
            <SU>22</SU>
            <E T="03">See</E>Proposed Rule 506(c)(3).</P>
        </FTNT>
        <P>Given the legislative mandate to develop rules “substantially similar” to current Rule 262, however, we are not proposing to make other changes in the classes of persons that would be covered by the new disqualification rules. For example, we are proposing that beneficial owners of 10% of any class of an issuer's equity securities would be covered,<SU>23</SU>
          <FTREF/>as they are under current Rule 262, rather than 20% holders, as in the 2007 Proposal.<SU>24</SU>
          <FTREF/>For the same reason, we are proposing that all the officers of issuers and compensated solicitors of investors be covered, as provided in current rules, rather than only executive officers, as provided in the 2007 Proposal.<SU>25</SU>
          <FTREF/>
        </P>
        <FTNT>
          <P>
            <SU>23</SU>
            <E T="03">See</E>Proposed Rule 506(c)(1)<E T="03">and</E>17 CFR 230.262(b).</P>
        </FTNT>
        <FTNT>
          <P>
            <SU>24</SU>
            <E T="03">See</E>2007 Proposal.</P>
        </FTNT>
        <FTNT>
          <P>
            <SU>25</SU>
            <E T="03">See</E>2007 Proposal, Proposed Rule 506(c)(1).</P>
        </FTNT>
        <P>With the extension of bad actor disqualifications to Rule 506 offerings, we are, however, concerned that continued use of the term “officer” may present significant challenges, particularly as applied to financial intermediaries. The term “officer” is defined under Securities Act Rule 405 to include “a president, vice president, secretary, treasurer or principal financial officer, comptroller or principal accounting officer, and any person routinely performing corresponding functions with respect to any organization.”<SU>26</SU>
          <FTREF/>Financial institutions that are acting as placement agents may have large numbers of employees that would come within this definition, many of whom would not have any involvement with any particular offering, but all of whom would be covered persons for purposes of disqualification. Issuers could potentially devote substantial amounts of time and incur significant costs in making factual inquiries.<SU>27</SU>
          <FTREF/>Accordingly, we are requesting comment on whether disqualification should be reserved for executive officers<SU>28</SU>
          <FTREF/>—those performing policy-making functions for a covered person—whether disqualification should apply only to officers actually involved with the offering or limited in some other way, or whether using the same broad category employed in the existing rules would be justified because it would provide a greater degree of investor protection.</P>
        <FTNT>
          <P>
            <SU>26</SU>17 CFR 230.405.</P>
        </FTNT>
        <FTNT>
          <P>

            <SU>27</SU>While some types of disqualifying events are readily ascertainable from public records, others are not.<E T="03">See</E>note 81 and accompanying text.</P>
        </FTNT>
        <FTNT>
          <P>
            <SU>28</SU>The term “executive officer” is defined in Rule 501(f) of Regulation D (and in Rule 405) to mean a company's “president, any vice president * * * in charge of a principal business unit, division or function (such as sales, administration or finance), any other officer who performs a policy making function or any other person who performs similar policy making functions.” 17 CFR 230.501(f), 230.405.</P>
        </FTNT>
        <P>We are also not proposing to cover the investment advisers of issuers, or the directors, officers, general partners, or managing members of such investment advisers. These persons are not currently covered under Rule 262 of Regulation A. However, a significant percentage of issuers in Rule 506 offerings are funds,<SU>29</SU>
          <FTREF/>and in many fund structures, the investment adviser and the individuals that control it are the real decision-makers for the fund. For that reason, it may be appropriate for investment advisers and their directors, officers, general partners and managing members to be covered by the bad actor disqualification provisions of Rule 506, at least for issuers that identify themselves as “pooled investment funds” in Item 4 of Form D, or that are registered as investment companies under the Investment Company Act of 1940,<SU>30</SU>
          <FTREF/>are “private funds” as defined in Section 202(a)(29) of the Investment Advisers Act of 1940<SU>31</SU>
          <FTREF/>or that elect to be regulated as “business development companies” (or “BDCs”),<SU>32</SU>
          <FTREF/>and perhaps for other types of issuers.</P>
        <FTNT>
          <P>
            <SU>29</SU>For the twelve months ended September 30, 2010, approximately 24% of issuers in transactions claiming a Rule 506 exemption described themselves as “pooled investment funds.”</P>
        </FTNT>
        <FTNT>
          <P>
            <SU>30</SU>15 U.S.C. 80a-1 through 80a-52.</P>
        </FTNT>
        <FTNT>
          <P>
            <SU>31</SU>A “private fund” is defined as “an issuer that would be an investment company, as defined in Section 3 of the Investment Company Act of 1940 (15 U.S.C. 80a-3), but for section 3(c)(1) or 3(c)(7) of that Act.”</P>
        </FTNT>
        <FTNT>
          <P>

            <SU>32</SU>A BDC is a closed-end investment company that has elected to be subject to Sections 55 through 65 of the Investment Company Act and that is operated for the purpose of investing in and making significant managerial assistance available to certain types of companies.<E T="03">See</E>Investment Company Act § 2(a)(48), 15 U.S.C. 80a-2(48)<E T="03">and</E>note 99.</P>
        </FTNT>
        <HD SOURCE="HD3">Request for Comment</HD>
        <P>(1) Is it appropriate to apply the provisions of Section 926 of the Dodd-Frank Act to all of the persons covered under existing Rule 262, as proposed? Should other categories of persons be included?</P>
        <P>(2) Should we exclude any of the proposed covered persons for purposes of disqualification? If so, please explain why such persons should not subject an offering to disqualification, providing as much factual support for your views as possible.</P>
        <P>(3) Is it appropriate to include the managing members of limited liability companies for purposes of disqualification in Rule 506(c), as proposed?</P>

        <P>(4) Is the proposed coverage of 10% shareholders (which mirrors current rules) appropriate? Or should our disqualification provisions cover only persons that actually control the issuer (or that hold a larger percentage of its equity)? Should we increase the<PRTPAGE P="31522"/>threshold share ownership for covered persons to 20%, or to some other threshold of ownership (<E T="03">e.g.,</E>25% or a majority)? If we adopted a requirement based on actual control, would issuers be able to easily determine which shareholders were within the scope of the rule?<SU>33</SU>
          <FTREF/>Should the requirements be different for privately-held companies as opposed to companies whose stock trades in the public markets? If so, should the ownership thresholds be higher or lower for private companies as compared to public companies?</P>
        <FTNT>
          <P>

            <SU>33</SU>We would look to the definition of “control” contained in Securities Act Rule 405,<E T="03">id.</E>
          </P>
        </FTNT>
        <P>(5) We intend that the terms used in the proposed rules would have the meanings provided in Rule 405. Would it be helpful to incorporate the relevant definitions as part of the rules?</P>
        <P>(6) Is it appropriate, as proposed, to provide an exception from disqualification for events relating to certain affiliates that occurred before the affiliation arose, based on the current standard set forth in Rule 262(a)(5)?</P>
        <P>(7) Should we replace the reference to “officers,” which is based on current Rule 262, with a reference to “executive officers” (using the definition provided in Rule 501(f)<SU>34</SU>
          <FTREF/>), at least as it applies to covered persons other than the issuer? In many organizations, titular officers such as vice presidents may not play an executive or policy-making role. Would it be more appropriate to limit coverage to individuals with policy-making responsibilities, as would result from using the term “executive officer”?</P>
        <FTNT>
          <P>
            <SU>34</SU>17 CFR 230.501(f). The same definition appears in Rule 405.</P>
        </FTNT>
        <P>(8) Alternatively, with respect to officers of covered persons other than the issuer, should we limit coverage to those who are actually involved with or devote time to the relevant offering, or to some other specified subgroup of officers—perhaps together with executive officers?</P>
        <P>(9) Would it be appropriate to expand the coverage of our rule to include investment advisers and their directors, officers, general partners, and managing members? If we were to do so, should such an extension apply only for particular types of issuers, such as those that identify themselves as “pooled investment funds” on Form D, or for registered “investment companies,” “private funds” and BDCs? Or should it apply for all issuers?</P>
        <HD SOURCE="HD2">C. Disqualifying Events</HD>
        <P>After covered persons, the other critical element of bad actor disqualification is the list of events and circumstances that give rise to disqualification. In this regard, our proposal would implement the Dodd-Frank Act requirement that our rules be substantially similar to existing Regulation A and also include the specific events listed in Section 926(2) of the Dodd-Frank Act.</P>
        <P>The proposed rule would include the following types of disqualifying events:</P>
        <P>• Criminal convictions;</P>
        <P>• Court injunctions and restraining orders;</P>
        <P>• Final orders of certain state regulators (such as state securities, banking and insurance regulators) and Federal regulators;</P>
        <P>• Commission disciplinary orders relating to brokers, dealers, municipal securities dealers, investment advisers and investment companies and their associated persons;</P>
        <P>• Suspension or expulsion from membership in, or suspension or bar from associating with a member of, a securities self-regulatory organization;</P>
        <P>• Commission stop orders and orders suspending a Regulation A exemption; and</P>
        <P>• U.S. Postal Service false representation orders.</P>
        <P>We discuss each of these in turn below.</P>
        <P>1.<E T="03">Criminal convictions.</E>Section 926(2)(B) of the Dodd-Frank Act provides for disqualification if any covered person “has been convicted of any felony or misdemeanor in connection with the purchase or sale of any security or involving the making of any false filing with the Commission.” This essentially mirrors the language of current Rule 262(a)(3), covering criminal convictions of issuers, and Rule 262(b)(1), covering criminal convictions of other covered persons. Section 926(2)(B) differs from Rule 262, however, in two ways.</P>
        <P>First, unlike Rule 262(b)(1), Section 926(2)(B) does not address criminal convictions “arising out of the conduct of the business of an underwriter, broker, dealer, municipal securities dealer or investment adviser.” We are not aware of any legislative history that explains why this type of conviction was not mentioned in Section 926(2)(B). However, because such convictions are covered in existing Rule 262, we believe that rules “substantially similar” to the existing rules should cover them. Accordingly, the proposed revision to Rule 506 would cover such convictions, and would add a reference to convictions arising out of the conduct of the business of a person compensated for soliciting purchasers, as provided in current Rule 505(b)(2)(iii).<SU>35</SU>
          <FTREF/>
        </P>
        <FTNT>
          <P>
            <SU>35</SU>
            <E T="03">See</E>Proposed Rule 506(c)(1)(i).</P>
        </FTNT>

        <P>Second, Section 926(2)(B) does not include any express time limit on convictions that trigger disqualification. By contrast, Rule 262 provides a five-year look-back for criminal convictions of issuers and a ten-year look-back for criminal convictions of other covered persons (<E T="03">i.e.,</E>only convictions handed down within the preceding five or ten years count, and older convictions are no longer disqualifying).<SU>36</SU>
          <FTREF/>There currently are time limits on criminal convictions, as with other disqualifications, and we are therefore proposing the same five-year and ten-year look-back periods that apply under current Rule 262. We are soliciting comment on whether a longer, or permanent, look-back period would be appropriate for either issuers or other covered persons.</P>
        <FTNT>
          <P>
            <SU>36</SU>The look-back period is to the date of the conviction, not to the date of the conduct that led to the conviction. This is similarly the case with the other look-back periods discussed below; the measurement date is the date of the relevant order or other sanction, not the date of the conduct that was the subject of the sanction.</P>
        </FTNT>
        <P>We are also soliciting comment on whether there are circumstances in which the rules for disqualification of entities should focus on the beneficial owners and management of such entities at the time of the disqualifying event, rather than the legal entities themselves, and provide for different treatment of entities that have undergone a change of control since the occurrence of the disqualifying event. This would be a broader application of the principle underlying existing Rule 262(a)(5) (reflected in the proposal in Rule 506(c)(3), discussed above), under which events relating to certain affiliates are not disqualifying if they pre-date the affiliate relationship.</P>
        <P>For purposes of establishing the relevant look-back periods, we propose to measure from the date of the sale for which exemption is sought. Rule 262 of Regulation A currently measures from the date of the requisite filing with the Commission, which occurs before any offer of securities can be made under that exemption. This approach is not appropriate for Rule 506 offerings because no filing is required to be made with the Commission before an offer or sale is made in reliance on Regulation D.<SU>37</SU>

          <FTREF/>Current Rule 505, which effectively applies Rule 262 in a Regulation D context, addresses this issue by substituting “the first sale of securities under this section” for the Rule 262 reference to filing a document with the<PRTPAGE P="31523"/>Commission.<SU>38</SU>
          <FTREF/>For purposes of Rule 506, we are proposing to refer to the date of the relevant sale, rather than the date of first sale, because we believe it creates a more appropriate look-back period for offerings that may continue for more than one year. Multiyear offerings are not uncommon under Rule 506.<SU>39</SU>
          <FTREF/>
        </P>
        <FTNT>
          <P>
            <SU>37</SU>Under Rule 503, a notice on Form D is not required to be filed until 15 days after the first sale. 17 CFR 230.503.</P>
        </FTNT>
        <FTNT>
          <P>
            <SU>38</SU>
            <E T="03">See</E>17 CFR 230.505(b)(2)(iii)(A)<E T="03">and</E>17 CFR 230.602(b)(2).</P>
        </FTNT>
        <FTNT>
          <P>
            <SU>39</SU>Of the 16,027 initial Form D filings claiming a Rule 506 exemption in the twelve months ended September 30, 2010, 3,812 (or 24%) indicated that the offering was expected to last more than a year.</P>
        </FTNT>
        <HD SOURCE="HD3">Request for Comment</HD>
        <P>(10) Are the proposed look-back periods for criminal convictions (five years for issuers, their predecessors and affiliated issuers; ten years for all other covered persons) appropriate? Or should we provide for a longer period? Should the look-back period for convictions be aligned with the ten-year look-back period required in some instances under Section 926 of the Dodd-Frank Act?</P>
        <P>(11) Are there circumstances where a longer period of disqualification, even lifetime disqualification for individuals or permanent disqualification for entities, would be appropriate?</P>

        <P>(12) Should our rules provide different disqualification periods for individuals and entities? In particular, should we provide different treatment under our rules (<E T="03">e.g.,</E>a shorter look-back period or an exception from disqualification) for entities that have undergone a change of control since the occurrence of a disqualifying event? If so, how should change of control be defined for these purposes?</P>
        <P>(13) Is the scope of the proposed provisions on criminal convictions sufficiently broad? In connection with the 2007 Proposal<SU>40</SU>
          <FTREF/>and in an advance comment letter on this rulemaking,<SU>41</SU>
          <FTREF/>the North American Securities Administrators Association (“NASAA”) has urged that, in the interest of investor protection and uniformity with state laws, disqualification should apply to a broader range of criminal convictions. NASAA suggested that disqualification should arise from any criminal conviction involving fraud or deceit, as provided in the Model Accredited Investor Exemption and the Uniform Securities Act of 2002 adopted by many states, as well as “the making of a false filing with a state, or involving a commodity future or option contract, or any aspect of a business involving securities, commodities, investments, franchises, insurance, banking or finance.”<SU>42</SU>
          <FTREF/>Would it be appropriate for the new rules to impose disqualification for some or all of these other offenses, even though Section 926 of the Dodd-Frank Act does not require it?</P>
        <FTNT>
          <P>
            <SU>40</SU>
            <E T="03">See</E>NASAA Comment Letter (Oct. 26, 2007) (available at<E T="03">http://www.sec.gov/comments/s7-18-07/s71807-57.pdf</E>).</P>
        </FTNT>
        <FTNT>
          <P>
            <SU>41</SU>
            <E T="03">See</E>NASAA Advance Comment Letter (Nov. 4, 2010) (available at<E T="03">http://www.sec.gov/comments/df-title-ix/regulation-d-disqualification/regulationddisqualification-1.pdf</E>).</P>
        </FTNT>
        <FTNT>
          <P>
            <SU>42</SU>
            <E T="03">See</E>Unif. Sec. Act § 508 (amended 2002) (available at<E T="03">http://www.abanet.org/buslaw/newsletter/0009/materials/uniformsecure.pdf</E>).</P>
        </FTNT>
        <P>(14) Under current rules and under our proposal, disqualification arises only from actions taken by U.S.-based courts and regulators. From the standpoint of disqualification, is conduct outside the United States as relevant as conduct within the United States? Should corresponding convictions in foreign courts trigger disqualification on the same basis as U.S. criminal convictions? Or are there reasons not to treat foreign criminal convictions on a par with U.S. Federal or state criminal convictions? What would be the impact on issuers and covered persons if the Commission included foreign court convictions as a disqualifying event under the proposed disqualification provision?</P>
        <P>2.<E T="03">Court injunctions and restraining orders.</E>Under current Rule 262(a)(4), an issuer is disqualified from reliance on Regulation A if it, or any predecessor or affiliated issuer, is subject to a court injunction or restraining order against engaging in or continuing any conduct or practice in connection with the purchase or sale of securities or involving the making of a false filing with the Commission.<SU>43</SU>
          <FTREF/>Similarly, under current Rule 262(b)(2), an offering is disqualified if any other covered person is subject to such a court injunction or restraining order, or to one “arising out of the conduct of the business of an underwriter, broker, dealer, municipal securities dealer or investment adviser.”<SU>44</SU>
          <FTREF/>Disqualification is triggered by temporary or preliminary injunctions and restraining orders that are currently in effect, and by permanent injunctions and restraining orders entered within the last five years.<SU>45</SU>
          <FTREF/>
        </P>
        <FTNT>
          <P>
            <SU>43</SU>
            <E T="03">See</E>17 CFR 230.262(a)(4).</P>
        </FTNT>
        <FTNT>
          <P>
            <SU>44</SU>17 CFR 230.262(b)(2).</P>
        </FTNT>
        <FTNT>
          <P>
            <SU>45</SU>The look-back period means that disqualification no longer arises from an injunction or restraining order after the requisite amount of time has passed, even though the injunction or order is still in effect. Because disqualification is triggered only when a person “is subject to” a relevant injunction or order, injunctions and orders that have expired or are otherwise no longer in effect are not disqualifying, even if they were issued within the relevant look-back period.</P>
        </FTNT>
        <P>The proposed provision would reflect the substance of these two provisions in a slightly simplified format.<SU>46</SU>
          <FTREF/>To align with current Rule 505, the proposed rule would cover orders arising out of the conduct of business of paid solicitors of purchasers of securities.</P>
        <FTNT>
          <P>
            <SU>46</SU>
            <E T="03">See</E>Proposed Rule 506(c)(1)(ii).</P>
        </FTNT>
        <HD SOURCE="HD3">Request for Comment</HD>
        <P>(15) We note that certain regulatory orders and bars are required to have a ten-year look-back period under Section 926(2)(a)(ii) of the Dodd-Frank Act (discussed below). Is it appropriate to limit the look-back period for court injunctions and restraining orders to five years, as proposed, based on current Rule 262? Or should we adopt a ten-year look-back period for injunctions and restraining orders? Should any disqualifying events, criminal and otherwise, result in permanent disqualification from participating in Rule 506 offerings?</P>
        <P>(16) Alternatively, should we establish different look-back periods for different types of court orders and injunctions and restraining orders? For example, should we provide for a ten-year look-back for court injunctions and restraining orders involving fraudulent, manipulative or deceptive conduct, and a five-year look-back period for other court injunctions and restraining orders? If we did this, would it be easy to determine which category applied to a given court injunction or order? Should we provide different look-back periods for Federal and state court injunctions and restraining orders?</P>
        <P>(17) Under current rules and under our proposal, a court injunction or restraining order issued more than five years before the relevant sale is no longer disqualifying, even if it is still in effect. Is it appropriate that court injunctions and restraining orders should cease to be disqualifying after a stated time, as proposed, or should disqualification continue for as long as the triggering injunction or order continues in effect (even if it is permanent)?</P>
        <P>(18) Under our proposal, disqualification for court injunctions and restraining orders would be narrower in scope and would have a shorter look-back period than disqualification for regulatory orders (discussed in C.3 below).<SU>47</SU>
          <FTREF/>The<PRTPAGE P="31524"/>treatment of court injunctions and restraining orders would reflect the position under current rules, while the treatment of regulatory orders is mandated by Section 926 of the Dodd-Frank Act. Should the two provisions be conformed? Or are there policy or other reasons that support differentiating between them?</P>
        <FTNT>
          <P>

            <SU>47</SU>For example, under the proposal and current Rule 262, court injunctions and restraining orders are disqualifying only if they relate to conduct or practices (i) in connection with the purchase or sale of a security, (ii) involving making a false filing with the Commission or (iii) arising out of the conduct of certain businesses. The proposed provisions for regulatory orders, discussed below, are broader, and would impose disqualification for any final order based on a violation of law that<PRTPAGE/>prohibits fraudulent, manipulative or deceptive conduct. As a result, under the proposal certain types of orders (<E T="03">e.g.,</E>a ban on serving as an officer or director of a public company) would be disqualifying if issued by a regulator but may not be disqualifying if issued by a court.</P>
        </FTNT>
        <P>(19) Should injunctions and orders of foreign courts have no consequences for disqualification, as proposed? Or should they trigger disqualification on the same basis as U.S. Federal and state court injunctions and orders, or on some other basis? Why? Should foreign court injunctions and orders have to meet additional criteria to be considered for disqualification purposes? If so, what should those criteria be?</P>
        <P>3.<E T="03">Final orders of certain regulators.</E>Section 926(2)(A) of the Dodd-Frank Act provides that Commission rules for Rule 506 offerings must disqualify any covered person thatA) is subject to a final order of a State securities commission (or an agency or officer of a State performing like functions), a State authority that supervises or examines banks, savings associations, or credit unions, a State insurance commission (or an agency or officer of a State performing like functions), an appropriate Federal banking agency, or the National Credit Union Administration, that—</P>
        <P>(i) Bars the person from—</P>
        <P>(I) Association with an entity regulated by such commission, authority, agency, or officer;</P>
        <P>(II) Engaging in the business of securities, insurance, or banking; or</P>
        <P>(III) Engaging in savings association or credit union activities; or</P>
        <P>(ii) Constitutes a final order based on a violation of any law or regulation that prohibits fraudulent, manipulative, or deceptive conduct within the 10-year period ending on the date of filing of the offer or sale.</P>
        <P>Section 926(2)(A) is identical to Section 15(b)(4)(H) of the Securities Exchange Act of 1934 (the “Exchange Act”)<SU>48</SU>
          <FTREF/>and Section 203(e)(9) of the Investment Advisers Act of 1940 (the “Advisers Act),<SU>49</SU>
          <FTREF/>except that Section 926(2)(A)(ii) contains a ten-year look-back period for final orders based on violations of statutes that prohibit fraudulent, manipulative and deceptive conduct, and the Exchange Act and Advisers Act provisions have no express time limit for such orders. These existing provisions form a basis on which the Commission may censure, suspend or revoke the registration of brokers, dealers and investment advisers based on financial industry bars and final regulatory orders issued against them by specified regulators, in the context of statutory provisions that provide for such sanctions based on a wide variety of other events.<SU>50</SU>
          <FTREF/>
        </P>
        <FTNT>
          <P>
            <SU>48</SU>15 U.S.C. 78<E T="03">o</E>(b)(4)(H).</P>
        </FTNT>
        <FTNT>
          <P>
            <SU>49</SU>15 U.S.C. 80b(e)(9).</P>
        </FTNT>
        <FTNT>
          <P>

            <SU>50</SU>For example, Section 15(b)(4) authorizes the Commission to sanction registered brokers and dealers for such matters as false statements in Commission filings; certain U.S. or foreign criminal convictions; certain court injunctions, willful violations of the securities laws or the Commodity Exchange Act, or the rules and regulations issued thereunder; aiding, abetting, counseling or procuring such a violation or failing adequately to supervise someone who committed such a violation; and professional bars issued by the Commission or non-U.S. financial regulatory authorities.<E T="03">See</E>15 U.S.C. 78<E T="03">o</E>(b)(4). Section 203(f) authorizes the Commission to sanction registered investment advisers for similar matters.<E T="03">See</E>15 U.S.C. 80b-3(f).</P>
        </FTNT>
        <P>We propose to codify Section 926(2)(A) almost verbatim as new paragraph (c)(1)(iii) of Rule 506, with clarifying changes intended to eliminate potential ambiguities and make the new rule easier to apply.</P>
        <P>With respect to bars, the proposed rule would provide that the order must bar the person “at the time of [the] sale” from one or more of the specified activities. This would clarify that a bar is disqualifying only for as long as it has continuing effect.<SU>51</SU>
          <FTREF/>Thus, for example, a person who was barred by a state regulator from association with a broker-dealer for three years would be disqualified for three years. A person who was barred indefinitely, with the right to apply to reassociate after three years, would be disqualified until such time as he or she successfully applied to reassociate, assuming that the bar had no continuing effect after reassociation. (This would be true even if the bar order were also a “final order based on a violation of any law or regulation that prohibits fraudulent, manipulative, or deceptive conduct,” as contemplated by Dodd-Frank Section 926(2)(A)(ii), because the person would not be considered to be “subject to” an order that had no continuing effect.)</P>
        <FTNT>
          <P>

            <SU>51</SU>This accords with the Commission's current interpretive position on Rule 262.<E T="03">See</E>Release No. 33-6289 (Feb. 13, 1981) [46 FR 13505, 13506 (Feb. 23, 1981)] (Commission consistently has taken the position that a person is “subject to” an order under section 15(b), 15B(a) or (c) of the Exchange Act or section 203(e) or (f) of the Investment Advisers Act only so long as some act is being performed (or not performed) pursuant to the order).</P>
        </FTNT>
        <P>Also, recognizing that no Commission filing is required in a Regulation D offering before an offer or sale, we propose to measure the ten-year period required under 926(2)(A)(ii) from the date of the relevant sale, as would be the case for other look-back periods in the proposed rule. Finally, we propose to clarify that the orders described in Section 926(2)(A)(ii) must have been “entered” within the relevant ten-year period, so it is clear that we are measuring from the date of the order and not the date of the underlying conduct.</P>
        <HD SOURCE="HD3">Request for Comment</HD>
        <P>(20) Should the rules clarify what constitutes a “bar”? For example, should the rule state that all orders that have the practical effect of a bar (prohibiting a person from engaging in a particular activity) be treated as bars, even if the relevant order is not called a bar?</P>
        <P>(21) Under current interpretations of Rule 262, bars are disqualifying for as long as they have continuing effect, which means that permanent bars (for example, an “unqualified” bar, which does not contain any proviso for re-application after a specified period) are permanently disqualifying. By contrast, most other disqualifying events operate only for a specified period (for example, criminal convictions give rise to a disqualification period of five or ten years). Would it be appropriate to provide a cut-off date (for example, ten years), for permanent bars?<SU>52</SU>
          <FTREF/>
        </P>
        <FTNT>
          <P>
            <SU>52</SU>If we established such a cut-off date, persons subject to a permanent bar would still be prevented from engaging in the barred conduct. (Someone permanently barred from the securities industry would still not be permitted to act as a placement agent, for example.) The difference would be that their presence or participation in an offering in some otherwise permissible capacity—as, for example, a 10% shareholder of the issuer—would not be disqualifying.</P>
        </FTNT>
        <P>
          <E T="03">Final Orders.</E>The Dodd-Frank Act does not specify what should be deemed to constitute a “final order” that triggers disqualification. The term “final” suggests that only orders issued at the conclusion of a matter should be considered, but beyond that, it is not clear whether other procedural or substantive criteria should be applied.</P>
        <P>As noted above, Section 15(b)(4)(H) of the Exchange Act and Section 203(e)(9) of the Advisers Act contain language identical to Section 926(2)(A), including the use of the term “final order.” The Commission has not provided a definitive interpretation of “final order” in those contexts either, although it has approved forms for broker-dealers and their associated persons that include such a definition.<SU>53</SU>
          <FTREF/>For purposes of<PRTPAGE P="31525"/>registration of broker-dealers and associated persons, the Financial Industry Regulatory Authority (“FINRA”) collects data regarding disciplinary actions, including relevant final orders, through its uniform registration Forms BD, U4, U5 and U6.<SU>54</SU>
          <FTREF/>In that context, FINRA has defined “final order” to mean “a written directive or declaratory statement issued by an appropriate federal or state agency * * * pursuant to applicable statutory authority and procedures, that constitutes a final disposition or action by that federal or state agency.”<SU>55</SU>
          <FTREF/>
        </P>
        <FTNT>
          <P>
            <SU>53</SU>
            <E T="03">See</E>Release Nos. 34-48161 (Jul. 10, 2003) [68 FR 42444] (available at<E T="03">http://www.sec.gov/rules/sro/nasd/34-48161.pdf</E>) and 34-49779 (May 27, 2004) [69 FR 32084] (available at<E T="03">http://www.sec.gov/rules/sro/nyse/34-49779.pdf</E>).</P>
        </FTNT>
        <FTNT>
          <P>

            <SU>54</SU>Form BD is the Uniform Application for Broker-Dealer Registration, used by entities to register as broker-dealers. Form U4 is the Uniform Application for Securities Industry Registration or Transfer, used by broker-dealers to register associated persons. Form U5 is the Uniform Termination Notice for Securities Industry Registration, used by broker-dealers to report the termination of an associated person relationship. Form U6 is the Uniform Disciplinary Action Reporting Form, used by SROs and state and federal regulators to report disciplinary actions against broker-dealers and associated persons. Information on disciplinary history collected via these forms (as well as other information) can be reviewed through BrokerCheck.<E T="03">See</E>note 81 for more information about BrokerCheck.</P>
        </FTNT>
        <FTNT>
          <P>
            <SU>55</SU>
            <E T="03">See</E>“Explanation of Terms” applicable to FINRA Forms U4, U5 and U6 (available at<E T="03">http://www.finra.org/web/groups/industry/@ip/@comp/@regis/documents/appsupportdocs/p116979.pdf</E>).</P>
        </FTNT>
        <P>We also understand that at least some state securities laws may provide that orders do not become “final” unless the state securities administrator makes findings of fact and conclusions of law on a record in accordance with the state administrative procedure act and files a certified copy of the findings with a clerk of a court of competent jurisdiction, as provided in the Uniform Securities Act of 2002.<SU>56</SU>
          <FTREF/>We are not aware that the laws covering orders of Federal and state banking, insurance, and credit union regulators, which are required to be covered in our Rule 506 disqualification rules by the Dodd-Frank Act, provide guidance on which of their orders should be regarded as “final orders.”</P>
        <FTNT>
          <P>
            <SU>56</SU>
            <E T="03">See</E>Unif. Sec. Act § 604 (2002).</P>
        </FTNT>
        <P>Our preliminary view is that including a definition of “final order” in the rule would help issuers and other market participants determine whether any given regulatory action is disqualifying (and conversely, not including a definition could give rise to uncertainty in that regard). We are therefore proposing to amend Rule 501 of Regulation D to add a definition of “final order” for purposes of bad actor disqualification.<SU>57</SU>
          <FTREF/>The proposed definition is based on the FINRA definition, and therefore is consistent with current practices implementing statutory language in the Exchange Act that is identical to Section 926. We believe that this definition is sufficiently broad to cover the different types of regulatory orders that might be relevant, but we are soliciting comment on that question.</P>
        <FTNT>
          <P>
            <SU>57</SU>
            <E T="03">See</E>Proposed Rule 501.</P>
        </FTNT>
        <P>The proposal defines “final order” to mean the final steps taken by a regulator. In at least some cases, however, judicial appeal of a regulatory order will be available. It may be appropriate for us to define “final order” to mean an order for which all rights of appeal have terminated or been exhausted. Given that the appeals process could take several years, however, we are concerned that such an approach could compromise investor protection. We are soliciting comment on whether and how to address rights of judicial appeal. We are also soliciting comment more generally on whether it is appropriate to include a definition of “final order” in the rule.</P>
        <HD SOURCE="HD3">Request for Comment</HD>
        <P>(22) Is it appropriate, as proposed, to define the term “final order” for purposes of our disqualification rules? What general effects would a defined term or lack of a defined term impose on issuers and other covered persons?</P>
        <P>(23) Is the proposed definition of “final order” (which is based on the FINRA definition) appropriate?</P>
        <P>(24) Should we use a definition based on the Uniform Securities Act interpretation of final order instead? Alternatively, should we add concepts from that definition (for example, the requirement that the regulator have made findings of fact) to the proposed definition?</P>
        <P>(25) Should an order be considered final only if it is a “final order” within the meaning of the law that governed its issuance? What if the law lacks clear guidance on what constitutes a final order?</P>
        <P>(26) Should we consider an order final if it is the conclusion of an action by the relevant regulator? Or should only non-appealable orders be considered final, so that disqualification would not apply until all appeals, including potential judicial appeals, are exhausted? Would investor protection be compromised if judicial appeals are taken into account?</P>
        <P>(27) Should specified minimum criteria apply in determining what constitutes a final order? For example, should we include only orders issued after a proceeding that affords the respondent certain due process rights, such as notice, a right to be heard, and a requirement for a record with written findings of fact and conclusions of law? Should settled matters be treated the same as non-settled matters in this respect?</P>
        <P>(28) Should the authority that issues the relevant order be asked to express a view about whether the particular action is a final order for purposes of our disqualification rules? Would such authorities be authorized or be willing to express such a view? Should the Commission defer to the interpretation of the regulator that issued the order to determine whether an order is final?</P>
        <P>
          <E T="03">Fraudulent, manipulative or deceptive conduct.</E>Section 926(2)(A)(ii) of the Dodd-Frank Act provides that disqualification must result from final orders of the relevant regulators that are “based on a violation of any law or regulation that prohibits fraudulent, manipulative, or deceptive conduct.” We have received advance comment urging us to “differentiate between technical violations and intentional or other more egregious conduct,”<SU>58</SU>
          <FTREF/>and to impose disqualification only with respect to the latter.</P>
        <FTNT>
          <P>

            <SU>58</SU>Advance Comment Letter of Managed Funds Ass'n (Sept. 22, 2010) (available at<E T="03">http://www.sec.gov/comments/df-title-iv/exemptions/exemptions-16.pdf</E>).</P>
        </FTNT>
        <P>In light of the specificity of the language of Section 926, we are not proposing to include standards or guidance with respect to this requirement. We are aware, however, that any rule we adopt would apply to orders issued by regulators under a wide variety of different state and Federal laws and regulations. We understand that there may be concerns that this language could be interpreted or applied very broadly, and in particular that under some state laws and regulations, conduct that some may consider to be a “technical” violation might be defined as fraudulent, manipulative or deceptive.<SU>59</SU>
          <FTREF/>We are, therefore, requesting comment on whether we should set forth minimum standards for this provision.</P>
        <FTNT>
          <P>
            <SU>59</SU>
            <E T="03">See</E>Advance Comment Letter of Investment Program Ass'n (Mar. 2, 2011) (available at<E T="03">http://www.sec.gov/comments/df-title-ix/regulation-d-disqualification/regulationddisqualification-3.pdf</E>).<E T="03">See also</E>Record of Proceedings of 29th Annual SEC Government-Business Forum on Small Business Capital Formation, at 18 (Nov. 18, 2010) (remarks of Deborah Froling) (available at<E T="03">http://www.sec.gov/info/smallbus/sbforumtrans-111810.pdf</E>).</P>
        </FTNT>
        <HD SOURCE="HD3">Request for Comment</HD>

        <P>(29) Should we provide guidance on what constitutes “fraudulent, manipulative or deceptive conduct” for purposes of bad actor disqualification under Rule 506? If so, should we provide such guidance by rule, and what should the rule say?<PRTPAGE P="31526"/>
        </P>
        <P>(30) Should disqualifying conduct be required to be fraudulent, manipulative or deceptive at common law or under some other standard? Should scienter be required?</P>
        <P>(31) Should the Commission defer to the regulator that issued the order with respect to the determination of whether conduct is fraudulent, manipulative or deceptive?</P>
        <P>(32) Should the authority that issues the relevant order be asked to express a view about whether the particular violation is the sort of violation that should give rise to disqualification under Rule 506? Should the Commission defer to the interpretation of the regulator on that issue? In that connection, should we provide greater scope for a regulator to determine that disqualification should not arise (in effect, a waiver of disqualification)?</P>
        <HD SOURCE="HD2">Orders of Other Regulators</HD>
        <P>As mandated by Section 926 of the Dodd-Frank Act, bad actor disqualification would result under our proposed rule from final orders issued within a ten-year period by the state and Federal regulators identified in Section 926(2)(A) of the Dodd-Frank Act, a list that does not include the Commission or the Commodity Futures Trading Commission (“CFTC”). We are considering and soliciting comment on whether orders of the Commission and the CFTC should have the same effect for disqualification purposes as the orders of these other regulators.</P>
        <P>Some types of orders issued by the Commission are covered by current bad actor disqualification rules, and some are not.<SU>60</SU>
          <FTREF/>Most significantly, orders issued in stand-alone Commission cease-and-desist proceedings<SU>61</SU>
          <FTREF/>are not disqualifying under current rules.<SU>62</SU>
          <FTREF/>The reason for this omission appears to be largely historical: The Commission did not have authority to bring cease-and-desist proceedings when Rule 262 was originally adopted, and the rule has not been amended to take account of that authority.<SU>63</SU>
          <FTREF/>Unless our disqualification rules cover Commission cease-and-desist orders, entities and individuals outside the securities industry would be subject to bad actor disqualification for Commission actions only if those persons are subject to a court order. In the 2007 Proposal, we proposed to include Commission and certain other cease-and-desist orders as disqualifying events in the Regulation D bad actor provisions.<SU>64</SU>
          <FTREF/>Some commenters opposed this proposal on the basis that it would be overinclusive and could result in disqualification being imposed for minor technical violations.<SU>65</SU>
          <FTREF/>We are soliciting comment as to whether Commission cease-and-desist orders may be an appropriate basis for disqualification and, if so, whether the rules should differentiate among different types of orders.</P>
        <FTNT>
          <P>

            <SU>60</SU>Certain Commission orders involving regulated entities in the securities industry (<E T="03">e.g.,</E>broker-dealers and investment advisers) and their associated persons already give rise to disqualification under Regulation A, Rule 505 and Regulation E as currently in effect.<E T="03">See</E>Rule 262(b)(3) and Rule 602(b)(5) and (c)(3), 17 CFR 230.262(b)(5) and 230.602(c)(3).</P>
        </FTNT>
        <FTNT>
          <P>
            <SU>61</SU>In cease-and-desist proceedings, the Commission can issue orders against “any person,” including entities and individuals outside the securities industry, imposing sanctions such as penalties, accounting and disgorgement or officer and director bars. In contrast, administrative proceedings are generally limited to regulated entities and their associated persons.</P>
        </FTNT>
        <FTNT>
          <P>
            <SU>62</SU>Current rules also exclude other types of Commission actions. For example, the Commission has authority under Section 9(b) of the Investment Company Act to bring proceedings against “any person” and may impose investment company bars, civil penalties and disgorgement under Sections 9(d) and (e) of the Investment Company Act. 15 U.S.C. 80a-9(b), (d) and (e). The Commission also has authority under Rule 102(e) of its Rules of Practice to censure persons (such as accountants and attorneys) who appear or practice before it, or to deny them the privilege of appearing before the Commission temporarily or permanently. 17 CFR 201.102(e). Orders under these sections are not currently disqualifying.</P>
        </FTNT>
        <FTNT>
          <P>
            <SU>63</SU>The disqualification provisions of Rule 505 and Regulation E are derived from Rule 262 and reflect the same omission.</P>
        </FTNT>
        <FTNT>
          <P>

            <SU>64</SU>Under the 2007 Proposal, disqualification would have arisen if a covered person “is currently subject to a cease and desist order, entered within the last 5 years, issued under federal or state securities, commodities, investment, insurance, banking or finance laws.”<E T="03">See</E>Release 33-8828, note 13 above.</P>
        </FTNT>
        <FTNT>
          <P>
            <SU>65</SU>
            <E T="03">See, e.g,</E>Comment Letter of Managed Funds Association (Oct. 19, 2007) (available at<E T="03">http://www.sec.gov/comments/s7-18-07/s71807-56.pdf</E>); Comment Letter of G. Philip Rutledge (Oct. 5, 2007) (available at<E T="03">http://www.sec.gov/comments/s7-18-07/s71807-26.pdf</E>).</P>
        </FTNT>
        <P>We are also considering whether orders of the CFTC are relevant for disqualification purposes. The CFTC is the only regulator in the financial services area whose orders are not directly addressed by the proposed rules, and the conduct that would typically give rise to CFTC sanctions is similar to the type of conduct that would trigger disqualification if it were the subject of action by a regulator in the securities, insurance, banking or credit union sectors. On that basis, we are soliciting comment as to whether CFTC orders may be an appropriate basis for disqualification.</P>
        <P>Our preliminary view is that, if we were to include Commission and CFTC orders in our bad actor disqualification rules, we would do so by adding references to the Commission, the CFTC and the commodities business in the paragraph of the rules that addresses “final orders” of certain regulators.<SU>66</SU>
          <FTREF/>In that way, any requirements the rule may impose on such orders and any interpretive positions that may apply (for example, on what constitutes a final order and what constitutes fraudulent, manipulative and deceptive conduct) would apply to orders of the Commission and the CFTC on the same basis as it did to orders of state and other Federal regulators covered by the rule. We would exclude from this provision Commission disciplinary orders that are already covered under current rules, and continue to treat them separately.<SU>67</SU>
          <FTREF/>
        </P>
        <FTNT>
          <P>
            <SU>66</SU>
            <E T="03">See</E>Proposed Rule 506(c)(1)(iii).</P>
        </FTNT>
        <FTNT>
          <P>
            <SU>67</SU>
            <E T="03">See</E>Part II.C.4 of this Release and Proposed Rule 506(c)(1)(iv).</P>
        </FTNT>
        <P>If we were to adopt bad actor disqualification provisions that included orders of the Commission and the CFTC, we would also have to consider the impact on competition, efficiency and capital formation and the impact on small businesses. Our preliminary view is that adding new disqualifying events for Commission and CFTC orders would probably increase the number of offerings that would be disqualified, may enable the disqualification rules to more effectively screen out felons and other bad actors, and would contribute to creating an internally consistent set of rules that would treat relevant sanctions similarly for disqualification purposes. It may result in increased compliance costs for companies and funds that are seeking to raise capital. However, adding Commission and CFTC orders to the new rules could improve investor protection and reduce the risks of investment in private placements and limited offerings, and thereby help to reduce the cost or increase the availability of capital. We do not expect that it would affect small businesses differently than the rules we are proposing.</P>
        <HD SOURCE="HD3">Request for Comment</HD>
        <P>(33) Would it be appropriate to include the Commission in the list of regulators whose final orders are potentially disqualifying?</P>

        <P>(34) If so, should the rules specify that certain types of Commission cease-and-desist orders would always give rise to disqualification? For example, we could treat cease-and-desist orders related to violations of the anti-fraud provisions of our statutes and rules in this way (or perhaps those that require an element of scienter), by analogy to the Section 926 standard of “fraudulent, manipulative or deceptive conduct.” Similarly, we could treat cease-and-desist orders related to<PRTPAGE P="31527"/>violations of Section 5 of the Securities Act in this way, on the basis that persons who violate Section 5 should lose the benefit of exemptive relief from Section 5 for some period of time afterward. Should other categories of orders be expressly covered in this way?</P>
        <P>(35) Conversely, should some categories of cease-and-desist orders (for example, those relating to recordkeeping violations) be expressly excluded from coverage by the rule, so they could never give rise to disqualification? If so, what types of orders should be excluded?</P>
        <P>(36) Would it be appropriate to include the CFTC in the list of regulators whose final orders are potentially disqualifying? If so, should the rules specify that certain types of CFTC orders would always give rise to disqualification, or that certain types would never give rise to disqualification? If so, what types of orders should be included or excluded?</P>
        <P>(37) If we were to cover Commission and CFTC orders in our bad actor disqualification rules, should we do that by simply including references to them in the paragraph that addresses “final orders” of certain regulators? Or should we treat orders of the Commission and/or the CFTC separately? If so, why?</P>
        <P>(38) What would the costs and benefits be of covering Commission and CFTC orders? Would the benefits justify the costs? How would extending our disqualification rules in that way affect competition, efficiency and capital raising? Would small businesses be affected differently than they would be under the rules as proposed and, if so, how?</P>
        <P>(39) Are there any other regulators whose final orders should be taken into account for disqualification purposes?</P>
        <P>(40) Under the proposal, corresponding orders of foreign securities regulators would not trigger disqualification. Should such orders be disqualifying on the same basis as U.S. Federal and state regulatory orders? If so, should the rules refer to any securities regulator or a country's principal securities regulator?</P>
        <P>4.<E T="03">Commission disciplinary orders.</E>Rule 262(b)(3) of Regulation A imposes disqualification on an issuer if any covered person is subject to an order of the Commission “entered pursuant to section 15(b), 15B(a), or 15B(c) of the Exchange Act, or section 203(e) or (f) of the Investment Advisers Act.”<SU>68</SU>
          <FTREF/>Under the cited provisions, the Commission has authority to order a variety of sanctions against registered brokers, dealers, municipal securities dealers and investment advisers and their associated persons, including suspension or revocation of registration, censure, placing limitations on their activities, imposing civil money penalties and barring individuals from being associated with specified entities and from participating in the offering of any penny stock. The Commission has historically interpreted Rule 262(b)(3) to require disqualification only for as long as some act is prohibited or required to be performed pursuant to the order, with the consequence that censures are not disqualifying, and a disqualification based on a suspension or limitation of activities expires when the suspension or limitation expires.<SU>69</SU>
          <FTREF/>We are seeking comment on whether this, as well as certain interpretive positions of the staff of the Division of Corporation Finance, should be codified in the new rule.<SU>70</SU>
          <FTREF/>
        </P>
        <FTNT>
          <P>
            <SU>68</SU>17 CFR 230.262(b)(3) (citing 15 U.S.C. 78o(f), 78o(4)(a), 78o(4)(c), 80b-3(e) and 80b-3(f)). Section 21B(a) of the Exchange Act, 15 U.S.C. 78u-2(a), and Section 203(i) of the Investment Advisers Act, 15 U.S.C. 80b-3(i), give the Commission authority to impose civil money penalties in these disciplinary proceedings.</P>
        </FTNT>
        <FTNT>
          <P>
            <SU>69</SU>
            <E T="03">See</E>Release No. 33-6289 (Feb. 13, 1981) [46 FR 13505, 13506 (Feb. 23, 1981)] (in adopting amendments to Rule 252 of Regulation A (the predecessor to Rule 262), the Commission noted “In those instances where persons are subject to orders containing no definite time limitations, the Commission has consistently taken the position that a person is subject to an order only so long as some act is being performed pursuant to such order, [such as] establishing procedures to assure appropriate supervision of salesmen and reporting on such procedures.”) The staff of the Division of Corporation Finance has taken the same view.<E T="03">See</E>Release No. 33-6455, Question 66 (Mar. 3, 1983) [48 FR 10045, 10053 (Mar. 10, 1983)] (in interpretive release on Regulation D, the staff advised that censure has no continuing force and thus censured person is not “subject to an order of the Commission entered pursuant to section 15(b)” within the meaning of Rule 505); Howard, Prim, Rice, Nemerovski, Canady &amp; Pollak, SEC No-Action Letter, 1975 WL 11300 (Jan. 8, 1975, publicly available Feb. 11, 1975) (Rule 252 does not comprehend a situation where an underwriter of a Regulation A offering has stipulated to a consent order in a Commission administrative proceeding providing only for a censure, with no suspension or other sanction); Samuel Beck, SEC No-Action Letter, 1975 WL 11471 (May 15, 1975, publicly available June 24, 1975).</P>
        </FTNT>
        <FTNT>
          <P>
            <SU>70</SU>Based on similar reasoning as has been applied to censures, the staff of the Division of Corporation Finance has informally interpreted orders to pay civil money penalties as not disqualifying. We seek comment on whether we should formally codify that position, and also on whether orders to pay money penalties should be disqualifying if the fines are not paid as ordered.</P>
        </FTNT>
        <P>We are not proposing substantial changes to the substance of the current rule or its interpretation.<SU>71</SU>
          <FTREF/>In particular, we do not believe that any look-back period is appropriate or should be added, on the basis that the duration of the suspension or limitation on activities imposed by the Commission should be sufficient from an investor protection standpoint.</P>
        <FTNT>
          <P>
            <SU>71</SU>Because of our approach of having one list of covered persons and one list of disqualifying events, this provision would have slightly broader reach under the proposal than under current rules. Under current Rule 262(b)(3), disqualification for Commission disciplinary orders applies to covered persons other than issuers and their predecessors and affiliated issuers Under the proposal, all covered persons would be subject to it. For issuers that are (or whose predecessors or affiliated issuers are or were) registered brokers, dealers, municipal securities dealers or investment advisers, the proposal would therefore create a new triggering event for disqualification.</P>
        </FTNT>
        <P>To make the new provisions easier to understand and use, however, we are proposing to simplify the presentation and codify the current interpretation.<SU>72</SU>
          <FTREF/>We are also proposing to eliminate an apparent anomaly in the current rule, whereby orders issued under Section 15B(a) of the Exchange Act (the basic registration requirements for municipal securities dealers) are treated as disqualifying. Section 15B(a) is not generally a source of sanctioning authority and we do not believe it is appropriate to refer to it in the context of bad actor disqualification. Disciplinary orders against municipal securities dealers are issued under Section 15B(c), a reference to which we propose to include in the new disqualification provisions.</P>
        <FTNT>
          <P>
            <SU>72</SU>
            <E T="03">See</E>Proposed Rule 506(c)(1)(iv).</P>
        </FTNT>
        <HD SOURCE="HD3">Request for Comment</HD>
        <P>(41) Is it appropriate for the new rule to largely codify the current rule, as proposed?</P>
        <P>(42) Should we impose any look-back period for Commission disciplinary sanctions?</P>
        <P>(43) Should the rules provide that censure is disqualifying? If so, how long should disqualification last?</P>
        <P>(44) For orders limiting activities and financial industry bars, should we impose a longer period of disqualification than the period that the order or bar remains in effect? For example, should we impose a look-back period so that anyone who was subject to such an order or bar within the prior five or ten years would be disqualified?</P>
        <P>(45) Should the rules provide that orders to pay civil money penalties are disqualifying if the penalties are not paid as ordered? Should such orders be disqualifying in other circumstances?</P>
        <P>(46) Should the reference to Section 15B(a) in the current rule be eliminated, as proposed, or included? If we include it, should coverage be limited to orders denying registration because of prior misconduct?</P>
        <P>5.<E T="03">Suspension or expulsion from SRO membership or association with an SRO member.</E>Rule 262(b)(4) imposes disqualification on an offering if any<PRTPAGE P="31528"/>covered person is suspended or expelled from membership in, or suspended or barred from association with a member of, a securities self-regulatory organization or “SRO” (a registered national securities exchange or national securities association) for any act or omission to act constituting conduct inconsistent with just and equitable principles of trade.<SU>73</SU>
          <FTREF/>Again, we are not proposing to change the substance of the current rule (and in particular, are not proposing to add any look-back period).<SU>74</SU>
          <FTREF/>The proposal would update the rule by adding a reference to a registered affiliated securities association.<SU>75</SU>
          <FTREF/>
        </P>
        <FTNT>
          <P>
            <SU>73</SU>
            <E T="03">See</E>17 CFR 230.262(b)(4).</P>
        </FTNT>
        <FTNT>
          <P>

            <SU>74</SU>The application of this provision is slightly broader under the proposal than under Rule 262(b)(4), in that it would apply to all covered persons, including issuers and their predecessors and affiliated issuers (which are excluded under Rule 262(b)(4)).<E T="03">See</E>Proposed Rule 506(c)(1)(v).</P>
        </FTNT>
        <FTNT>
          <P>

            <SU>75</SU>In 2007, the SEC approved the formation of FINRA, a consolidation of the enforcement arm of the New York Stock Exchange, NYSE Regulation, Inc. and the NASD. Once formed, FINRA became responsible for regulatory oversight of all securities firms that do business with the public.<E T="03">See</E>SR-NASD-2007-023, Release No. 34-56145, Order Approving Proposed Rule Change to Amend the By-Laws of NASD to Implement Governance and Related Changes to Accommodate the Consolidation of the Member Firm Regulatory Functions of NASD and NYSE Regulation, Inc. (available at<E T="03">http://www.sec.gov/rules/sro/nasd/2007/34-56145.pdf.</E>) Registered national securities exchanges maintain the right to enforce their own rules.</P>
        </FTNT>
        <HD SOURCE="HD3">Request for Comment</HD>
        <P>(47) Should the rule also cover suspension or expulsion from membership or participation in any commodities exchange or commodities self-regulatory organization, or from any other organization?</P>
        <P>(48) Should a look-back period be applied?</P>
        <P>(49) Should suspension or expulsion from participation in foreign securities exchanges be covered?</P>
        <P>6.<E T="03">Stop orders and orders suspending the Regulation A exemption.</E>Paragraphs (a)(1) and (2) of Rule 262 impose disqualification on an offering if the issuer, or any predecessor or affiliated issuer, has filed a registration statement or Regulation A offering statement that was the subject of a Commission refusal order, stop order or order suspending the Regulation A exemption within the last five years, or is the subject of a pending proceeding to determine whether such an order should be issued.<SU>76</SU>
          <FTREF/>In a similar vein, paragraphs (c)(1) and (2) impose disqualification if any underwriter of the securities proposed to be issued was, or was named as, an underwriter of securities under a registration statement or Regulation A offering statement that was the subject of a Commission refusal order, stop order or order suspending the Regulation A exemption within the last five years, or is the subject of a pending proceeding to determine whether such an order should be issued.<SU>77</SU>
          <FTREF/>We propose to incorporate the substance of these four paragraphs into the rule but simplify the presentation and combine them into a single paragraph that would apply to all covered persons.<SU>78</SU>
          <FTREF/>
        </P>
        <FTNT>
          <P>
            <SU>76</SU>17 CFR 230.262(a)(1) and (2).</P>
        </FTNT>
        <FTNT>
          <P>
            <SU>77</SU>17 CFR 230.262(c)(1) and (2).</P>
        </FTNT>
        <FTNT>
          <P>
            <SU>78</SU>
            <E T="03">See</E>Proposed Rule 506(c)(1)(vi).</P>
        </FTNT>
        <HD SOURCE="HD3">Request for Comment</HD>
        <P>(50) Is it appropriate to include the current Regulation A five-year look-back period for these actions? Or should we impose a longer period, such as, for example, ten years?</P>
        <P>(51) Should this provision cover comparable actions by commodities regulators or other regulators? If so, what actions, by which regulators, should be covered?</P>
        <P>(52) Should this provision cover comparable actions by foreign securities regulators?</P>
        <P>7.<E T="03">U.S. Postal Service false representation orders.</E>Paragraphs (a)(5) and (b)(5) of Rule 262 impose disqualification on an offering if the issuer or another covered person is subject to a U.S. Postal Service false representation order entered within the preceding five years, or to a temporary restraining order or preliminary injunction with respect to conduct alleged to have violated the false representation statute that applies to U.S. mail.<SU>79</SU>
          <FTREF/>We propose to incorporate the substance of these paragraphs but combine them into a single paragraph and simplify the presentation to eliminate unnecessary statutory citations. We are proposing to mirror the current five-year look-back period for U.S. Postal Service false representation orders.<SU>80</SU>
          <FTREF/>
        </P>
        <FTNT>
          <P>
            <SU>79</SU>Paragraph (a)(5) relates to issuers and their predecessors and affiliated issuers, and paragraph (b)(5) relates to other covered persons. Disqualification results if any covered person “is subject to a United States Postal Service false representation order entered under 39 U.S.C. § 3005 within 5 years prior to the filing of the offering statement, or is subject to a temporary restraining order or preliminary injunction entered under 39 U.S.C. § 3007 with respect to conduct alleged to have violated 39 U.S.C. § 3005.” 17 CFR 230.262(a)(5) and (b)(5).</P>
        </FTNT>
        <FTNT>
          <P>
            <SU>80</SU>
            <E T="03">See</E>Proposed Rule 506(c)(1)(vii).</P>
        </FTNT>
        <P>(53) Is it appropriate to mirror the current five-year look-back period for U.S. Postal Service false representation orders? Or should we extend the look-back period to ten years to correspond with the ten-year look-back period for regulatory orders under the Dodd-Frank Act?</P>
        <HD SOURCE="HD2">D. Reasonable Care Exception</HD>
        <P>Under Section 926 of the Dodd-Frank Act, the events that generally give rise to bad actor disqualification under current rules, plus specified orders issued by a variety of state regulators (including securities, banking, credit union, savings association and insurance regulators) and Federal banking and credit union regulators, are required to result in disqualification under Rule 506. Once Section 926 is implemented, a substantially greater number of exempt securities offerings than before will be subject to bad actor disqualification requirements, effectively imposing a new burden of inquiry on many issuers with respect to potential disqualifying events.</P>
        <P>Although some disqualifying events will be a matter of public record,<SU>81</SU>
          <FTREF/>there is no central repository that aggregates information from all the Federal and state courts and regulatory authorities that would be relevant in determining whether a covered person has a disqualifying event in his or her past. In addition, the number of covered persons whose presence or participation could be disqualifying may be quite large, particularly if, as proposed, the rules cover all “officers” of persons compensated for soliciting investors. As noted above, broker-dealers may have large numbers of officers, many of whom would not have any involvement with the offering in question, but all of whom would be covered persons for purposes of disqualification.</P>
        <FTNT>
          <P>

            <SU>81</SU>For example, FINRA maintains BrokerCheck, an online tool that enables the public to check the licensing and securities industry disciplinary history of registered broker-dealers and their associated persons. The information included in BrokerCheck is derived from the Central Registration Depository, the securities industry online registration and licensing database. The staff of the Office of Investor Education and Advocacy has prepared a study, including recommendations, required by Section 919B of the Dodd-Frank Act on ways to improve investors' access to registration information (including disciplinary actions; regulatory, judicial and administrative proceedings; and other information) about broker-dealers, investment advisers and their associated persons.<E T="03">See</E>Staff of the Office of Investor Education and Advocacy, Study and Recommendations on Improved Investor Access to Registration Information about Investment Advisers and Broker-Dealers (Jan. 2011) (available at<E T="03">http://www.sec.gov/news/studies/2011/919bstudy.pdf</E>). In addition, FINRA has recently launched its new Disciplinary Actions Online database, which provides access to FINRA complaints against firms and individual brokers, settlement agreements, decisions by FINRA hearing panels and National Adjudicatory Council decisions. BrokerCheck reports will provide links to this new database.</P>
        </FTNT>

        <P>Our proposal attempts to address the potential difficulty of ascertaining<PRTPAGE P="31529"/>whether disqualifications apply by including an exception from disqualification for offerings where the issuer establishes that it did not know and, in the exercise of reasonable care, could not have known that a disqualification existed because of the presence or participation of another covered person.<SU>82</SU>
          <FTREF/>We are proposing a reasonable care exception out of a concern that the benefits of Rule 506—which, among other things, is intended to create a cost-effective method of raising capital, particularly for small businesses—may otherwise be substantially reduced. Issuers may be reluctant to offer or sell securities in reliance on an exemptive rule if the exemption could later be found, despite the issuer's exercise of reasonable care, not to have been available; the risk of a potential Section 5 violation or blue sky law violation may outweigh the potential benefits of relying on the exemption. On the other hand, issuers must have a responsibility to screen bad actors out of their Rule 506 offerings. We believe that providing a reasonable care exception would help to preserve the intended benefits of Rule 506 and avoid creating an undue burden on capital-raising activities, while giving effect to the legislative intent to screen out felons and bad actors.<SU>83</SU>
          <FTREF/>
        </P>
        <FTNT>
          <P>
            <SU>82</SU>
            <E T="03">See</E>Proposed Rule 506(c)(2)(ii).</P>
        </FTNT>
        <FTNT>
          <P>
            <SU>83</SU>Regulation D already has a provision, Rule 508, under which “insignificant deviations” from the terms, conditions and requirements of Regulation D will not necessarily result in loss of the exemption from Securities Act registration requirements. Rule 508 provides that the exemption will not be lost with respect to any offer or sale to a particular individual or entity as a result of a failure to comply with a term, condition or requirement of Regulation D if the person relying on the exemption shows that: (i) the failure to comply did not pertain to a term, condition or requirement directly intended to protect that particular individual or entity; (ii) the failure to comply was insignificant with respect to the offering as a whole (provided that certain Regulation D requirements, including limitations on general solicitation and any applicable limits on the amount of securities offered and the number of investors, are always deemed significant); and (iii) a good faith and reasonable attempt was made to comply. 17 CFR 230.508. We do not believe that Rule 508 would cover circumstances in which an offering was disqualified based on Proposed Rule 506(c).</P>
        </FTNT>
        <P>The language of the proposed exception is based on the standard of the Model Accredited Investor Exemption (“MAIE”), which was approved by NASAA in 1997.<SU>84</SU>
          <FTREF/>We included a similar exception in the 2007 Proposal. Under both the MAIE and our proposed exception, the burden would be on the issuer to establish that it had exercised reasonable care (most likely in the context of an enforcement proceeding brought by a regulator or a private action brought by investors). The MAIE incorporates as part of the standard that reasonable care must be “after factual inquiry.” In the 2007 Proposal, we did not include an express reference to “factual inquiry,” but requested comment on whether the rule should require that reasonable care be based on a factual inquiry, as provided in the MAIE. The commenters who responded to this point were generally supportive of a requirement that issuers make an effort to assure themselves that no bad actors are involved with their offerings, but differed on whether an express reference to factual inquiry must be included in the rule itself.<SU>85</SU>
          <FTREF/>
        </P>
        <FTNT>
          <P>

            <SU>84</SU>As of the date of this Release, 31 states plus the District of Columbia had adopted some form of the MAIE.<E T="03">See</E>CCH SmartCharts<SU>TM</SU>, Blue Sky Topics, “Did the State Adopt the NASAA Model Accredited Investor Exemption?.”</P>
        </FTNT>
        <FTNT>
          <P>
            <SU>85</SU>
            <E T="03">See</E>NASAA Comment Letter, note 40.<E T="03">See also</E>Comment Letter from Carol Bavousett Mattick, P.C. Chair of the Securities Law Committee, Business Law Section of the State of Texas (Oct. 9, 2007) (available at<E T="03">http://www.sec.gov/comments/s7-18-07/s71807-36.pdf</E>) (using questionnaires similar to the current practices for establishing a reasonable basis for determining accredited investor status would seem to be appropriate).</P>
        </FTNT>
        <P>We believe the concept of reasonable care necessarily includes inquiry by the issuer into the relevant facts. Our proposed reasonable care exception, therefore, would include an instruction specifying that reasonable care would entail a factual inquiry, the nature of which would depend on the facts and circumstances.<SU>86</SU>
          <FTREF/>
        </P>
        <FTNT>
          <P>
            <SU>86</SU>
            <E T="03">See</E>Proposed Rule 506(c)(2)(ii), where the instruction states: “<E T="03">Instruction to paragraph (c)(2)(ii)</E>An issuer will not be able to establish that it has exercised reasonable care unless it has made factual inquiry into whether any disqualifications exist. The nature and scope of the requisite inquiry will vary based on the circumstances of the issuer and the other offering participants.”</P>
        </FTNT>
        <P>The steps an issuer should take to exercise reasonable care would vary according to the circumstances of the covered persons and the offering, taking into account such factors as the risk that bad actors could be present, the presence of other screening and compliance mechanisms and the cost and burden of the inquiry. In some circumstances, factual inquiry of the covered persons themselves (for example, by including additional questions in questionnaires issuers may already be using to support disclosures regarding directors, officers and significant shareholders of the issuer) may be adequate. Issuers should also consider whether investigating publicly available databases is reasonable. In some circumstances, further steps may be necessary.</P>
        <HD SOURCE="HD3">Request for Comment</HD>
        <P>(54) Is it appropriate and consistent with investor protection to include a reasonable care exception in our disqualification rules?</P>
        <P>(55) What would be the practical effect on issuers and other market participants of not including such an exception?</P>
        <P>(56) What steps do issuers typically take to confirm the absence of a disqualification for offerings under current Regulation A and Rule 505 of Regulation D? How would practice norms under the proposed rules applicable to Rule 506 offerings be expected to compare to current norms if a reasonable care exception were introduced?</P>
        <P>(57) Is it appropriate to condition the reasonable care exception on factual inquiry? Are there any circumstances in which factual inquiry should not be required? Should the rule specify what factual inquiry is required or provide examples of specific factual inquiries that might be undertaken by the issuer?</P>
        <P>(58) With respect to officers of compensated solicitors of investors, in light of the potentially significant volume of inquiries required to determine whether there are disqualifying covered persons associated with a broker-dealer, should the rules provide specific steps to establish reasonable care? If so, what should those steps be?</P>
        <HD SOURCE="HD2">E. Waivers</HD>
        <P>Currently, issuers may seek waivers from disqualification from the Commission under Regulation A.<SU>87</SU>
          <FTREF/>The Commission may grant a waiver if it determines that the issuer has shown good cause “that it is not necessary under the circumstances that the [registration] exemption * * * be denied.”<SU>88</SU>
          <FTREF/>Consistent with Section 926 and its mandate to the Commission to promulgate disqualification rules “substantially similar” to Regulation A, we propose to carry over the current waiver provisions of Rule 262 to our new disqualification provisions.<SU>89</SU>
          <FTREF/>
        </P>
        <FTNT>
          <P>
            <SU>87</SU>17 CFR 230.262.</P>
        </FTNT>
        <FTNT>
          <P>
            <SU>88</SU>
            <E T="03">Id.</E>
          </P>
        </FTNT>
        <FTNT>
          <P>
            <SU>89</SU>
            <E T="03">See</E>Proposed Rule 506(c)(2)(i). Under current rules, the Commission has delegated authority to the Director of the Division of Corporation Finance to grant disqualification waivers under Regulation A.<E T="03">See</E>17 CFR 200.30-1(b). Under the proposal, there would be no delegation of authority for waivers of bad actor disqualification under new Rule 506(c), and all such waivers would have to be issued by a direct order of the Commission itself.</P>
        </FTNT>
        <HD SOURCE="HD3">Request for Comment</HD>
        <P>(59) Is it appropriate for our bad actor disqualification rules to provide for Commission authority to waive disqualification, as proposed?</P>

        <P>(60) Should the Commission exercise waiver authority under its<PRTPAGE P="31530"/>disqualification rules for cases involving final orders of state regulators? Under what circumstances should the Commission exercise that authority? With regard to state regulatory matters, should there be additional requirements (such as concurrence by the relevant regulator or lack of objection after notice) before the Commission should consider issuing a waiver?</P>
        <P>(61) Should we provide guidance on circumstances that are likely to give rise to the grant or denial of a waiver?</P>
        <P>(62) Should our rules include a provision (such as currently included in the MAIE)<SU>90</SU>
          <FTREF/>that provides an exception from disqualification if the relevant authority of the state to which the disqualification relates waives the disqualification?</P>
        <FTNT>
          <P>
            <SU>90</SU>
            <E T="03">See</E>NASAA, Model Accredited Investor Exemption (D)(2)(b) (available at<E T="03">http://www.nasaa.org/content/Files/Model_Accredited_Investor_Exemption.pdf</E>).</P>
        </FTNT>
        <HD SOURCE="HD2">F. Transition Issues</HD>
        <P>1.<E T="03">Disqualifying events that pre-date the rule.</E>Under the proposal, the new disqualification provisions would apply to all sales made under Rule 506 after the effective date of the new provisions. (The provisions would not affect any transaction that was completed before the effective date.) Offerings made after the effective date would be subject to disqualification for all disqualifying events that had occurred within the relevant look-back periods, regardless of whether the events occurred before enactment of the Dodd-Frank Act, or the proposal or effectiveness of the amendments to Rule 506. We believe that giving full effect to the bad actor provisions upon adoption carries out Congress' mandate.<SU>91</SU>
          <FTREF/>We nevertheless recognize that application of the new disqualification provisions could affect a number of market participants. We are, therefore, seeking comment on potential approaches to alleviate any concerns about possible unfairness, as explained more fully below.</P>
        <FTNT>
          <P>
            <SU>91</SU>Statement of Senator Christopher Dodd, CR S3813 (May 17, 2010).</P>
        </FTNT>
        <P>We believe that, under the text of Section 926 as enacted by Congress, past disqualifying events should be taken into account under our new disqualification rules.<SU>92</SU>
          <FTREF/>Dodd-Frank Act Section 926(2)(A)(i), for example, states that these rules shall disqualify any offering or sale by a person who “is subject” to a final order of a State securities commission or other regulator that bars the person from certain activities. Section 926(2)(A)(ii) similarly requires disqualification of any offering or sale by a person subject to a final State order “that constitutes a final order based on a violation of any law or regulation that prohibits fraudulent, manipulative, or deceptive conduct within the 10-year period ending on the date of the filing of the offer or sale”. Section 926(2)(B) requires disqualification of any person who “has been convicted” of any felony or misdemeanor in connection with the purchase or sale of any security or involving the making of any false filing with the Commission. In each case, the statutory directive states that our rules shall provide for disqualification based on a past event. In addition, Section 926(1) requires the new disqualification rules to be “substantially similar” to the existing disqualification provisions in Rule 262 of Regulation A. That rule currently disqualifies offerings based on past disqualifying events affecting issuers and other covered persons.<SU>93</SU>
          <FTREF/>
        </P>
        <FTNT>
          <P>
            <SU>92</SU>In<E T="03">Landgraf</E>v.<E T="03">USI Film Products,</E>511 U.S. 244 (1994), the Supreme Court set forth a general framework for determining the temporal reach of a statute. The first step in that analysis is determining whether Congress has expressed a clear intent on the statute's proper reach.<E T="03">See also Fernandez-Vargas</E>v.<E T="03">Gonzales,</E>548 U.S. 30, 37 (2006) (in the absence of express language regarding retroactive intent, “we try to draw a comparably firm conclusion about the temporal reach specifically intended by applying `our normal rules of construction'”). If Congress has done so, that intention controls. If Congress has not expressed a clear intention on how the statute applies to past events, the second step of the<E T="03">Landgraf</E>analysis is to determine whether the statute impairs rights a party possessed when he acted, increases liability for past conduct or imposes new duties with respect to transactions already completed. 511 U.S. at 280. However, the fact that a statute's operation draws on antecedent facts or may upset expectations based on prior law does not make it impermissibly retroactive.<E T="03">Id.</E>at 269 and n.24.<E T="03">See also Nat'l Cable &amp; Telecommunications Assn.</E>v.<E T="03">FCC,</E>567 F.3d 659, 670 (DC Cir. 2009);<E T="03">Boniface</E>v.<E T="03">U. S. Dept. of Homeland Security,</E>613 F.3d 282 (DC Cir. 2010);<E T="03">Empresa Cubana Exportadora de Alimentos y Productos Varios</E>v.<E T="03">U.S. Dept. of the Treasury,</E>___ F 3d ___, 2011 WL 1120271 (DC Cir. 2011).</P>
        </FTNT>
        <FTNT>
          <P>
            <SU>93</SU>Senator Dodd's statement on the Senate floor, when he proposed adding this language, provides further support. “New section 926 would disqualify felons and other “bad actors” who have violated Federal and State securities laws from continuing to take advantage of the rule 506 private placement process. This will reduce the danger of fraud in private placements.” Statement of Sen Dodd, CR S3813 (May 17, 2010)]. It suggests an intention to prevent previous violators from continuing to rely on our exemptions, which can only be accomplished if pre-existing disqualifying events are taken into account.</P>
        </FTNT>
        <P>In addition, we are mindful that Section 926 replaced a provision in an earlier bill that would have eliminated Federal pre-emption of Rule 506 offerings, thus subjecting such offerings to state “blue sky” regulation. Without pre-emption, existing convictions, disciplinary orders and other disqualifying events would have operated to disqualify offerings in the states that have bad actor disqualification rules. Replacing this provision with Section 926 was not seen as decreasing investor protection in this regard,<SU>94</SU>
          <FTREF/>suggesting that Section 926 was intended to take into account pre-existing disqualifying events.</P>
        <FTNT>
          <P>
            <SU>94</SU>
            <E T="03">See</E>NASAA letter, dated April 27, 2010, quoted at CR S3813;<E T="03">see also</E>letter of the Angel Capital Association, dated April 21, 2010, quoted at CR S3813).</P>
        </FTNT>
        <P>Rule 506 is an exemptive rule that establishes a safe harbor from statutory registration requirements for securities offerings. It does not create rights, so disqualification from participation in that type of exempt offering cannot inappropriately prejudice any person. Moreover, offerings that would be disqualified from reliance on Rule 506 under the new provisions could potentially still be effected on a registered basis, pursuant to an available statutory exemption such as Section 4(2) or Section 4(5) of the Securities Act, or pursuant to another exemptive rule. Alternatively, issuers may regain eligibility to rely on Rule 506 if they are able to terminate their relationship with the bad actor whose involvement triggers disqualification.</P>

        <P>We are therefore not proposing to exempt, “grandfather,” or otherwise make special provision for events that occurred before enactment of the Dodd-Frank Act or the effective date of the proposed amendments. We are soliciting comment, however, about whether the new disqualification provisions required under the Dodd-Frank Act would operate in an unfair manner in particular respects and, if so, how we should address that. For example, should the rules provide a different treatment for persons who entered into negotiated settlements prior to the enactment of the Dodd-Frank Act, the date of this Release or the effective date of our rules, on the basis that they might not have settled on the same terms (or at all) if they had known it would result in disqualification from future Rule 506 offerings? We are soliciting comment on whether we should provide grandfathering or other accommodation for some or all events that predate enactment of the Dodd-Frank Act, this Release or the effective date of our rules, provided such grandfathering or other accommodation would be consistent with the requirements of Section 926. We are also seeking comment on whether we should extend the benefit of waivers previously granted in respect of disqualification from Regulation A, Rule 505 of Regulation D or Regulation E, so that such waivers would cover the new<PRTPAGE P="31531"/>disqualification provisions applicable to Rule 506.</P>
        <HD SOURCE="HD3">Request for Comment</HD>
        <P>(63) Should the Commission provide for grandfathering of pre-existing disqualifying events, or other phase-in procedures for the new disqualification provisions? What would be the effect on issuers, other covered persons and investors of implementing the new bad actor disqualification provisions without grandfathering, as proposed? Would providing for grandfathering be consistent with the requirements of Section 926 of the Dodd-Frank Act?</P>
        <P>(64) If we provide for grandfathering, should we grandfather disqualifying events that occurred before enactment of the Dodd-Frank Act, before the date of this Release or before adoption or effectiveness of the amendments to Rule 506? What impact would that have on investor protection? Would the impact on investor protection be reduced if we required disclosure of grandfathered events?</P>
        <P>(65) Alternatively, should we grandfather only certain disqualifying events? For example, we could grandfather orders arising out of negotiated settlements agreed to before enactment of the Dodd-Frank Act, or before the rules were proposed, adopted or became effective, in light of the possibility that the party would not have agreed to the relevant order if it had known that a collateral consequence of the agreement would be disqualification from all Rule 506 offerings. This would be similar to the approach taken with respect to eligibility for being a “well-known seasoned issuer” when that category was created.<SU>95</SU>
          <FTREF/>Would providing a different treatment for pre-existing negotiated settlements limit the effectiveness of the bad actor disqualification rules?</P>
        <FTNT>
          <P>
            <SU>95</SU>For purposes of defining “ineligible issuer” (<E T="03">i.e.,</E>an issuer that is not eligible to be a “well known seasoned issuer”), we provided that ineligibility based on settlements would apply only to judicial or administrative decrees or orders entered into after the effective date of the new rules.<E T="03">See</E>Release No. 33-8591 (Jul. 19, 2005) [70 FR 44722, 44747]; (available at<E T="03">http://www.sec.gov/rules/final/33-8591.pdf</E>).</P>
        </FTNT>
        <P>(66) Rather than, or in addition to, providing for grandfathering, should we extend waivers previously granted with respect to bad actor disqualification under Regulation A, Rule 505 or Regulation E to cover Rule 506 as well? If we were to consider that approach, are there any categories of such waivers that particularly should or should not be so extended?</P>
        <P>2.<E T="03">Effect on ongoing offerings.</E>As proposed, our bad actor disqualification provisions would apply to each sale of securities made in reliance on Rule 506 after the rule amendments go into effect. Sales of securities made before the effective date would not be affected by any disqualification that arises as a result of the adoption of the amendments, even if such sales were part of an offering that was intended to continue after the effective date. Only sales made after the effective date of the amendments would be subject to disqualification.</P>
        <P>Under the proposal, disqualifying events that occur while an offering is underway would be analyzed in a similar fashion. Sales made before the occurrence of the disqualification would not be affected by it, but sales thereafter would be disqualified unless and until the disqualification is waived or removed.<SU>96</SU>
          <FTREF/>
        </P>
        <FTNT>
          <P>
            <SU>96</SU>Disqualifying events that exist at the time the offering is commenced but are only discovered later would be treated the same way if the reasonable care exception applies; otherwise, the sales would not be eligible for reliance on Rule 506.</P>
        </FTNT>
        <P>We believe this approach is consistent with our other rules and provides appropriate incentives to issuers and other covered persons, but are soliciting comment on other possible approaches. If we were to provide that disqualification would be measured only at the time of commencement of an offering, then disqualifying events that arise after commencement would be disregarded. Such an approach could make the rules easier to apply, but would be problematic in light of the statutory language and may compromise investor protection in the context of offerings that continue for extended periods. Conversely, we could provide that all sales in a continuous offering lose the benefit of the exemption if a disqualification arises during the offering. Such an approach could encourage issuers to avoid involving potentially problematic parties in their offerings, but may be too unpredictable and therefore undermine the benefits of the exemptions.</P>
        <HD SOURCE="HD3">Request for Comment</HD>
        <P>(67) Is it appropriate for disqualification to apply to sales made after the effective date of the new rules in offerings that are underway at the time the new rules become effective, as proposed?</P>
        <P>(68) Is it appropriate for disqualification requirements to apply to each sale of securities, as proposed? Or should we measure disqualifying events only at time of the commencement of an offering? Conversely, should we disqualify all sales in a continuous offering if a disqualification occurs during the offering, including sales that have already been made?</P>
        <P>3.<E T="03">Timing of implementation.</E>The proposal does not contemplate any phase-in period or delay before issuers would be required to comply with the new disqualification rules. However, given that the new rules may require issuers to take a number of actions before they could confirm that they were not disqualified from relying on Rule 506 (such as, for example, undertaking an inquiry of covered persons, modifying existing due diligence questionnaires, taking steps to remove any existing disqualifications and seeking waivers of disqualification if necessary), it may be appropriate to provide additional time after the rules are adopted but before compliance is required.</P>
        <HD SOURCE="HD3">Request for Comment</HD>
        <P>(69) Is a relatively shorter implementation period (such as 60 days) appropriate for the new disqualification rules, or should we provide for delayed implementation? If so, how much time would be appropriate? (90 days? 120 days? Longer?) Please provide support for your views by reference to the actions that issuers would be required to take and an estimate of the time periods involved.</P>
        <HD SOURCE="HD2">G. Amendment to Form D</HD>
        <P>We are proposing a conforming amendment to Form D to reflect that, under our proposal, bad actor disqualification would apply to Rule 506 transactions as well as Rule 505 transactions under Regulation D. The signature block of the current Form D contains a certification that applies only to transactions under Rule 505, confirming that the offering is not disqualified from reliance on Rule 505 for one of the reasons stated in current Rule 505(b)(2)(iii). Under the proposal, this certification would be broadened, so that issuers claiming a Rule 506 exemption would also confirm that the offering is not disqualified from reliance on Rule 506 for one of the reasons stated in Rule 506(c).</P>
        <HD SOURCE="HD1">III. Possible Amendments To Increase Uniformity</HD>

        <P>In addition to the matters on which we solicit comment above, we are also soliciting public comment on additional changes to our rules that are not explicitly addressed in Section 926 of the Dodd-Frank Act. We are seeking input on whether any or all of these would enhance our rules by better protecting investors from recidivist bad<PRTPAGE P="31532"/>actors in exempt offerings, avoiding potential sources of confusion and making the rules easier to administer. Although we have not proposed rule text to implement these changes, we are considering them and may adopt them as part of this rulemaking.</P>
        <HD SOURCE="HD2">A. Uniform Application of Bad Actor Disqualification to Regulations A, D and E</HD>
        <P>We are considering and requesting public comment on whether the new bad actor disqualification standards required by the Dodd-Frank Act for Rule 506 offerings should be applied on a more uniform basis. Under our proposal, Rule 506 of Regulation D would be the only exemption subject to the disqualification rules mandated by Section 926 of the Dodd-Frank Act. The other Securities Act exemptions that currently provide for “bad actor” disqualification (Regulation A,<SU>97</SU>
          <FTREF/>Rule 505 of Regulation D,<SU>98</SU>
          <FTREF/>and Regulation E<SU>99</SU>
          <FTREF/>) would continue to follow the disqualification schemes that are currently in effect. Offerings under Rule 504,<SU>100</SU>
          <FTREF/>the remaining Regulation D exemption, would be the only Regulation D exemption not subject to any Federal disqualification requirements. We are concerned that there may be confusion, and that compliance costs could be increased, if different disqualification standards apply to these exemptions.<SU>101</SU>
          <FTREF/>We are also concerned that new disqualification standards applicable only to Rule 506 offerings could negatively affect the market for offerings under our other exemptive rules. We are therefore soliciting comment on whether the proposed new disqualification provisions of Rule 506 should be extended to cover these other exempt offerings.<SU>102</SU>
          <FTREF/>
        </P>
        <FTNT>
          <P>
            <SU>97</SU>
            <E T="03">See</E>note 17.</P>
        </FTNT>
        <FTNT>
          <P>

            <SU>98</SU>17 CFR 230.505. Rule 505 permits offerings of up to $5 million of securities annually, without general solicitation, to an unlimited number of accredited investors and up to 35 non-accredited investors. Rule 505 offerings are subject to the same conditions as apply to Rule 506 offerings (<E T="03">see</E>note 10 above), except that non-accredited investors are not required to be sophisticated.</P>
        </FTNT>
        <FTNT>
          <P>

            <SU>99</SU>17 CFR 230.601 through 230.610. Regulation E is an exemption for offerings up to $5 million by small business investment companies (“SBICs”) and business development companies (“BDCs”). SBICs are investment funds licensed and regulated by the Small Business Administration that use their own capital plus funds borrowed with an SBA guarantee to make equity and debt investments in qualifying small businesses.<E T="03">See</E>Investment Company Act § 2(a)(46), 15 U.S.C. 80a-2(46). A BDC is a closed-end investment company that has elected to be subject to Sections 55 through 65 of the Investment Company Act and that is operated for the purpose of investing in and making significant managerial assistance available to certain types of companies.<E T="03">See</E>Investment Company Act § 2(a)(48), 15 U.S.C. 80a-2(48). Regulation E offerings are required to have an offering circular containing specific mandatory information, which is filed with the Commission and subject to review by the staff of the Division of Investment Management.</P>
        </FTNT>
        <FTNT>
          <P>
            <SU>100</SU>17 CFR 230.504. Rule 504 permits offerings of up to $1 million of securities by issuers that are not (i) reporting companies under the Securities Exchange Act, (ii) investment companies or (iii) development stage companies with no specific business plan or purpose, or whose business plan is to engage in a merger or acquisition with an unidentified entity or entities. Offerings under Rule 504 must generally comply with Regulation D requirements regarding limitations on manner of sale (no general solicitation) and limitations on resale. The manner of sale and resale limitations do not apply, however, to offerings that are subject to state-level registration or that rely on state law exemptions permitting general solicitation so long as sales are made only to accredited investors.</P>
        </FTNT>
        <FTNT>
          <P>
            <SU>101</SU>Regulation A, Rules 504 and 505 of Regulation D and Regulation E are used much less frequently than Rule 506. For the year ended September 30, 2010, we received 17,292 initial filings for offerings under Regulation D, of which 16,027 claimed a Rule 506 exemption, 254 claimed a Rule 505 exemption, 713 claimed a Rule 504 exemption and 151 claimed both Rule 504 and 506 exemptions. Transactions relying on Regulation A or Regulation E are rare; for the year ended September 30, 2010, seven Regulation A offerings and one Regulation E offering were completed. Note that the staff of the Division of Corporation Finance does not routinely review Form D filings to confirm that claimed exemptions are actually available. The figures presented above are based on exemptions claimed in Form Ds that were filed during the relevant period.</P>
        </FTNT>
        <FTNT>
          <P>
            <SU>102</SU>If we were to adopt a uniform approach, the rules applied to all exempt transactions would give effect to any changes from our proposal that were ultimately adopted (including, for example, the possible inclusion of final orders of the Commission and the CFTC as disqualifying events, on which we have requested comment in Part II.C.3 of this Release).</P>
        </FTNT>
        <P>All bad actor disqualification provisions in our current Securities Act exemptive rules are substantially similar: Rule 505 effectively incorporates by reference Rule 262, with some changes in defined terms,<SU>103</SU>
          <FTREF/>and Rule 602 is substantially similar in its language and effect, although it does not explicitly refer to Rule 262. We are considering whether to preserve this basic uniformity by conforming all existing bad actor disqualification requirements for exempt offerings to the standards proposed to be applied to Rule 506 offerings, and are requesting public comment on that approach.</P>
        <FTNT>
          <P>
            <SU>103</SU>
            <E T="03">See</E>17 CFR 230.505(b)(2)(iii).</P>
        </FTNT>
        <P>In the 2007 Proposal, the Commission suggested a uniform approach to disqualification for all offerings under Regulation D.<SU>104</SU>
          <FTREF/>Both in response to the 2007 Proposal<SU>105</SU>
          <FTREF/>and in advance comments on this rulemaking,<SU>106</SU>
          <FTREF/>NASAA voiced support for such a uniform approach. Most comment letters did not support the 2007 Proposal to subject all Regulation D offerings to bad actor disqualification, and particularly objected to applying bad actor disqualification requirements to Rule 506.<SU>107</SU>
          <FTREF/>Given that the Dodd-Frank Act now requires bad actor disqualification for Rule 506 offerings, and that these constitute a significant majority of transactions under Regulation D, we are considering whether many of the same policy reasons for disqualifying bad actors could be applicable to each of the Regulation D exemptions, as well as to the exemptions under Regulation A and Regulation E, and that uniform disqualification may further investor protection. We are also considering whether imposing uniform disqualification standards across the remainder of Regulation D might promote clarity and simplicity in applying our exemptive rules, and reduce costs imposed by an inconsistent regulatory structure. We also have a concern that adding new disqualification provisions that apply only to offerings under Rule 506 may negatively affect the market for offerings under our other exemptive rules. Bad actors may be encouraged to migrate to offerings under these other exemptions, which would raise investor protection concerns. In addition, investors may perceive a higher risk of fraud in such offerings, which would potentially affect the marketability and issuance costs of all offerings under the exemptions without the new standards, whether or not bad actors are involved.</P>
        <FTNT>
          <P>
            <SU>104</SU>
            <E T="03">See</E>note 13.</P>
        </FTNT>
        <FTNT>
          <P>
            <SU>105</SU>
            <E T="03">See</E>NASAA Comment Letter, note 40.</P>
        </FTNT>
        <FTNT>
          <P>
            <SU>106</SU>
            <E T="03">See</E>NASAA Advance Comment Letter, note 41.</P>
        </FTNT>
        <FTNT>
          <P>
            <SU>107</SU>
            <E T="03">See,</E>
            <E T="03">e.g.,</E>Comment Letters of the American Bar Association (Oct. 12, 2007) (available at<E T="03">http://www.sec.gov/comments/s7-18-07/s71807-52.pdf</E>); Tenant-in-Common Association (Oct. 17, 2007) (available at<E T="03">http://www.sec.gov/comments/s7-18-07/s71807-55.pdf</E>); and Davis, Polk &amp; Wardwell (Oct. 9, 2007) (available at<E T="03">http://www.sec.gov/comments/s7-18-07/s71807-39.pdf</E>).</P>
        </FTNT>
        <P>In order to adopt such a uniform approach, we would have to amend our rules and our proposal in a number of ways, including the following:</P>
        <P>• If we applied bad actor disqualification to all Regulation D offerings, we would need to codify the provision as a new paragraph (e) of Rule 502 (the “General Conditions to be Met” for Regulation D offerings) rather than in Rule 506, and would need to delete the current disqualification provisions of Rule 505(b)(2)(iii). The disqualification provisions of Rule 262 of Regulation A and Rule 602 of Regulation E would need to be amended to conform to new Rule 502(e).</P>

        <P>• We would add underwriters and their directors, officers, general partners and managing members to the categories of covered persons described in the proposal. This would generally<PRTPAGE P="31533"/>harmonize with Rule 262.<SU>108</SU>
          <FTREF/>Underwriters may participate in offerings under Regulation A and Regulation E and in certain transactions under Rule 504 of Regulation D, and so would have to be included if our disqualification rules were to cover such transactions.</P>
        <FTNT>
          <P>
            <SU>108</SU>All of these are covered persons under current Rule 262 except for the managing members of underwriters.</P>
        </FTNT>
        <P>• We would need to make a number of changes to harmonize with existing Rule 602 of Regulation E. For example, we would need to add as covered persons, for issuers that are registered investment companies, “private funds” as defined in Section 202(a)(29) of the Investment Advisers Act of 1940 or that elect to be regulated as “business development companies,”<SU>109</SU>
          <FTREF/>their investment advisers and the general partners, managing members, directors and officers of such investment advisers.<SU>110</SU>
          <FTREF/>We would need to add a reference in the paragraph addressing Commission disciplinary orders to orders suspending or revoking registration as an investment company issued under Section 8(e) of the Investment Company Act of 1940, and we would need to add references, in the paragraph addressing stop orders and orders denying an exemption, to similar proceedings and orders in relation to Regulation E offering circulars.<SU>111</SU>
          <FTREF/>
        </P>
        <FTNT>
          <P>
            <SU>109</SU>See note 99.</P>
        </FTNT>
        <FTNT>
          <P>
            <SU>110</SU>This is one area where the approach under Regulation D, Regulation A and Regulation E would not be completely uniform because of differences in the types of issuers eligible to rely on those regulations. As applied to Regulation D offerings, the rule would cover investment advisers of all entities that describe themselves as “pooled investment funds” on Form D, or that are registered investment company, private fund or BDC issuers, as described in the request for comment in Part II.B above. Regulation A Rule 262 would cover investment advisers of private fund issuers only, because registered investment companies and BDCs are not eligible to rely on Regulation A. Regulation E Rule 602 would cover every issuer's investment advisers; only BDCs and SBICs are eligible to rely on Regulation E (this is also consistent with the approach under current Regulation E Rule 602).</P>
        </FTNT>
        <FTNT>
          <P>
            <SU>111</SU>To the extent that current bad actor disqualification rules in Rule 602 of Regulation E differ from those in Rule 262 of Regulation A, the uniform approach would result in changes to Rule 602 in addition to those described in Part II of this Release. These would include changes in covered persons (referring to “any beneficial owner of 10% or more of any class of the issuer's equity securities” rather than to any “principal securities holders” and referring to issuer predecessors, affiliated issuers rather than any “affiliate” of the issuer) and the addition of a provision similar to proposed Rule 506(c)(3) with regard to events that predate an affiliate relationship.</P>
        </FTNT>
        <P>• A uniform approach would result in a slightly broader universe of disqualifying events, in that events that are disqualifying under only one or two current exemptive rules would apply across the board to Regulation A, Regulation D and Regulation E transactions. Because the existing rules are so similar, the impact of this would be limited to a few matters.<SU>112</SU>
          <FTREF/>
        </P>
        <FTNT>
          <P>
            <SU>112</SU>Specifically, under current rules, an issuer that is disqualified from doing a Regulation E offering because it was the subject of a proceeding to revoke its registered investment company status, or had filed a Regulation E offering circular that was subject to an order suspending the Regulation E exemption, is not disqualified from doing an offering in reliance on Regulation A or D. Similarly, an issuer that is disqualified from doing a Regulation A or Rule 505 offering because it had filed a Regulation A offering circular that was subject to an order suspending the Regulation A exemption, is not disqualified from doing an offering in reliance on Regulation E. Finally, certain convictions and disciplinary orders against covered persons that are municipal securities dealers are currently disqualifying under Regulation A and Rule 505, but not Regulation E. If we were to adopt a uniform approach, any disqualifying event in relation to any covered person would disqualify an issuer from using any of these exemptions.</P>
        </FTNT>
        <P>• Under a uniform approach, for the events that are subject to an express look-back period we are considering whether to use the date of the relevant sale, as proposed for Rule 506, rather than to the date of filing of an offering circular, as provided currently under Regulation A and Regulation E, as the measurement date.</P>
        <P>• The certification in the signature line of Form D would need to be amended to apply to all Regulation D offerings, not only those under Rule 505 and Rule 506; every issuer claiming a Regulation D exemption would be required to confirm that the offering was not disqualified for any of the reasons stated in the bad actor disqualification rules applicable to Regulation D.</P>
        <P>We seek comment on whether incremental changes such as these would unduly restrict reliance upon the exemptions under Regulation A, Rule 505 of Regulation D, and Regulation E, and whether uniform rules would provide clarity and simplicity that may be an overall benefit to investors and other market participants.</P>
        <P>We are soliciting comment on a variety of possible approaches to uniformity. For example, we could choose not to pursue a uniform approach, and add new disqualification provisions applicable to Rule 506 transactions only, as proposed. This would leave the existing bad actor provisions applicable to other exemptive rules as they are, and would not subject Rule 504 transactions to bad actor disqualification. We could adopt rules that differentiate between offerings under Regulation A, Rules 505 and 506 of Regulation D and Regulation E, on the one hand (all of which would be subject to the same bad actor disqualification provisions), and Rule 504 offerings on the other hand (which could continue to be conducted without bad actor provisions, or could be subject to some alternative to disqualification, such as mandatory disclosure of the events and circumstances that give rise to disqualification under other exemptive rules). Alternatively, for purposes of Regulation A, Rules 504 and 505 of Regulation D, and Regulation E, we could require disclosure of events that would be disqualifying under Rule 506, without imposing a new disqualification regime.</P>
        <P>We are also soliciting comment on whether broadening the impact of the rule changes by uniform application should affect our proposal to not provide for grandfathering of existing disqualifying events. For example, it may be appropriate in that context to differentiate between disqualification provisions that are explicitly addressed in Section 926 of the Dodd-Frank Act and those that are not.</P>
        <P>Finally, in considering whether to adopt uniform rules we would also have to consider the relative costs and benefits of such rules and their impact on competition, efficiency and capital formation. We would give particular consideration to their impact on issuers and other market participants (such as placement agents) that are small businesses. Because Regulation A, Rule 505 of Regulation D and Regulation E are relatively little-used, we do not expect the impact in those areas to be significant.</P>
        <P>Preliminarily, we believe that uniform application of disqualification standards could have the following effects:</P>
        <P>• It may improve investor protection by more effectively excluding bad actors from the private placement and small offering markets.</P>
        <P>• It may avoid any confusion that might otherwise arise in applying different disqualification standards to different exemptions and simplify implementation of the new rules.</P>
        <P>• It would avoid the creation of actual or perceived loopholes in our rules, which might encourage felons and bad actors disqualified from Rule 506 offerings to migrate to less-regulated kinds of transactions, or create a perception that investors in Rule 506 offerings are more deserving of protection than other investors.</P>
        <P>• It may increase investor trust in the integrity of the private placement and small offering markets (which could contribute to a lower cost of capital for issuers).</P>

        <P>• On the other hand, it may result in increased costs for issuers, including costs associated with registration if exemptive rules are no longer available,<PRTPAGE P="31534"/>costs associated with terminating relationships with covered persons, or costs associated with executing exempt transactions that are outside the safe harbors and exemptions provided by our rules. It may also increase compliance costs for issuers, particularly in Rule 504 offerings, which are not currently subject to bad actor disqualification; such issuers could be required to bear additional costs associated with, for example, circulating questionnaires to covered persons, revising questionnaires based on state disqualification rules to cover the new Federal disqualification rules, checking publicly available databases and undertaking other factual inquiries.</P>
        <P>• Uniform bad actor disqualification rules may increase investor protections and investor trust in the integrity of the private placement and limited offering markets generally, thereby increasing efficiency, potentially decreasing costs for issuers in those markets and providing other benefits to the public. On the other hand, they could impair efficiency if our rules are considered overbroad, or if increased compliance costs are not justified by the direct and indirect benefits of screening a larger universe of disqualified persons out of the market.</P>
        <P>• We do not expect that uniform rules would have significant effects on competition, due to the ability of many issuers to avoid disqualification by eliminating bad actors, the availability of other statutory exemptions such as Section 4(2) and Section 4(5) of the Securities Act, and the ability to register offerings for which an exemption is no longer available. For the same reasons, we do not expect that such expanded rules would have a significant impact on costs of capital raising (although, as discussed above, we expect that issuers will incur some incremental costs).</P>
        <P>• We expect that the impact on small businesses of uniform rules would be substantially the same as the impact of the amendments we are proposing. See Part IX of this Release for our preliminary analysis of such effects.</P>
        <HD SOURCE="HD3">Request for Comment</HD>

        <P>(70) Would it be appropriate to apply the proposed disqualification standards uniformly to offerings under Regulation A, Regulation D and Regulation E? Or should we limit the disqualification provisions in the new rule only to those expressly required by the Dodd-Frank Act (<E T="03">i.e.,</E>only to Rule 506 transactions), as proposed?</P>

        <P>(71) If we were to expand the application of the rules beyond Rule 506 transactions, should we distinguish between conforming the provisions of the exemptive rules that currently have bad actor disqualification requirements (<E T="03">i.e.,</E>Regulation A, Rule 505 of Regulation D and Regulation E), on the one hand, and imposing the same requirement on Rule 504 offerings, on the other, given that they are currently not subject to bad actor disqualification at the Federal level? Should we adopt disclosure or other rules for Rule 504 offerings as an alternative means of addressing investor protection concerns regarding bad actors in these offerings? What would be the costs and benefits of such a disclosure alternative?</P>
        <P>(72) Should we conform the disqualification provisions of Regulation A and Regulation E to the standards proposed in Rule 506(c), or should these provisions continue to reflect current regulatory standards? Since offering documents for both Regulation A and Regulation E offerings are subject to both Commission and state “Blue Sky” review and regulation, would it be appropriate to subject them also to the new Federal disqualification provisions required by the Dodd-Frank Act for Rule 506 offerings?</P>
        <P>(73) Should we make any additional changes to the proposed covered persons or disqualification events that are specific to Regulation A or Regulation E, reflecting the particular nature of those offerings?</P>
        <P>(74) If we were to include investment advisers as covered persons, is it appropriate to limit coverage to the investment advisers of private fund issuers and BDCs? Or should investment advisers to other issuers also be covered?</P>
        <P>(75) If we conformed the bad actor disqualification rules of Regulation A and Regulation E to the new rule we are proposing, should we nevertheless continue to measure look-back periods under Rule 262 of Regulation A and Rule 602 of Regulation E based on the date of filing of the relevant offering circular? Or should we consider a uniform measurement date based on the date of the relevant sale of a security?</P>
        <P>(76) If we were to pursue a uniform approach to bad actor disqualification, should this affect our proposal to not provide for grandfathering of disqualifying events that predate adoption of the Dodd-Frank Act or the proposal or adoption of new rules? Would any of the possible changes to each of the current disqualifications have particular effects on those offerings or participants in those offerings that we should take into account? If so, how could we address those effects? Should grandfathering, if any, be limited to disqualification provisions other than those imposed on Rule 506 offerings?</P>
        <P>(77) What would the costs and benefits of uniform rules be? Would the benefits justify the costs? How would uniform rules affect competition, efficiency and capital formation?</P>
        <P>(78) What would the impact on small businesses be if we imposed uniform rules? Would that be different from the impact of the rule amendments we are proposing, which are limited to Rule 506 offerings? If so, how?</P>
        <HD SOURCE="HD2">B. Uniform Look-Back Periods</HD>
        <P>We are also considering making uniform all of the look-back periods that apply to disqualifying events that have an express look-back period. Rather than using a ten-year period for the final orders of certain state and Federal regulators (as required under the Dodd-Frank Act), and for criminal convictions of covered persons other than the issuer, its predecessors and affiliated issuers (as provided under current Rule 262), and a five-year period for all other events subject to an express look-back period, we are considering applying a uniform ten-year look-back to all such events. We request public comment on whether a uniform look-back period would make the rules clearer and easier to apply or would otherwise better promote our regulatory objectives.</P>

        <P>(79) Would it be appropriate for us to apply a uniform ten-year period to all disqualifying events that are subject to an express look-back period? Are there any disqualifying events for which the look-back period should be shorter (<E T="03">e.g.,</E>five years)? Are there any events for which the look-back period should be longer than ten years? Are there events that should be permanently disqualifying?</P>
        <P>(80) If look-back periods were extended, should events that are no longer disqualifying under current rules become disqualifying again? For example, under current rules a court order that is more than five years old is no longer disqualifying under Rule 262. If we extended the look-back period to ten years, a court order issued six years prior, which is no longer disqualifying, would again create a basis for disqualification. Is that appropriate?</P>

        <P>(81) What would the costs and benefits be of applying a uniform ten-year look-back period? Would the benefits justify the costs? How would a uniform look-back period affect competition, efficiency and capital formation? Would small businesses be affected differently than they would be under the rules as proposed and, if so, how?<PRTPAGE P="31535"/>
        </P>
        <HD SOURCE="HD1">IV. General Request for Comment</HD>
        <P>We request comment, both specific and general, on each component of the proposals. We request and encourage any interested person to submit comments regarding the proposals that are the subject of this release and other matters that may have an effect on the proposals contained in this release.</P>
        <P>Comment is solicited from the point of view of both investors and issuers, as well as of capital formation facilitators, such as investment banks, and other regulatory bodies, such as state securities regulators. Any interested person wishing to submit written comments on any aspect of the proposal is requested to do so.</P>
        <HD SOURCE="HD1">V. Chart—Comparison of Felon and Other Bad Actor Disqualification Under Current Rule 262, Dodd-Frank Act Section 926 and Proposed Rule 506(c)</HD>
        <P>The following chart compares the terms of current Rule 262 (the bad actor disqualification provisions of Regulation A), Section 926 of the Dodd-Frank Act and proposed Rule 506(c). The chart is a convenience summary only and should be read together with (and is qualified in its entirety by) the current rules, any applicable interpretations and the full text of the proposed rules included in this release.</P>
        <HD SOURCE="HD2">A. Covered Persons</HD>
        <GPOTABLE CDEF="xl50,xl50,xl50" COLS="3" OPTS="L2,tp0,i1">
          <TTITLE/>
          <BOXHD>
            <CHED H="1">Rule 262</CHED>
            <CHED H="1">Dodd-Frank Section 926</CHED>
            <CHED H="1">Proposed Rule 506(c)</CHED>
          </BOXHD>
          <ROW>
            <ENT I="22">
              <E T="03">262(a):</E>
            </ENT>
            <ENT>
              <E T="03">926(1):</E>
            </ENT>
          </ROW>
          <ROW>
            <ENT I="03">Issuer<LI O="oi3">Issuer predecessors</LI>
              <LI O="oi3">Affiliated issuers</LI>
            </ENT>
            <ENT>Regulations that are “substantially similar to the provisions of” Rule 262</ENT>
            <ENT>Issuer.<LI>Issuer predecessors.</LI>
              <LI>Affiliated issuers.</LI>
            </ENT>
          </ROW>
          <ROW>
            <ENT I="22">
              <E T="03">262(b):</E>
            </ENT>
          </ROW>
          <ROW>
            <ENT I="03">Directors</ENT>
            <ENT/>
            <ENT>Directors.</ENT>
          </ROW>
          <ROW>
            <ENT I="03">Officers</ENT>
            <ENT/>
            <ENT>Officers.</ENT>
          </ROW>
          <ROW>
            <ENT I="03">General partners</ENT>
            <ENT/>
            <ENT>General partners.</ENT>
          </ROW>
          <ROW>
            <ENT I="03">10% beneficial owners</ENT>
            <ENT/>
            <ENT>Managing members.</ENT>
          </ROW>
          <ROW>
            <ENT I="03">Promoters presently connected with the issuer</ENT>
            <ENT/>
            <ENT>10% beneficial owners.<LI>Promoters connected with the issuer at the time of such sale.</LI>
            </ENT>
          </ROW>
          <ROW>
            <ENT I="22">
              <E T="03">262(c):</E>
            </ENT>
          </ROW>
          <ROW>
            <ENT I="03">Underwriters<LI O="oi3">Partners, directors and officers of underwriters</LI>
            </ENT>
            <ENT/>
            <ENT>Persons compensated for soliciting purchasers.<SU>113</SU>
              <LI>General partners, directors, officers and managing members of compensated solicitors.</LI>
            </ENT>
          </ROW>
        </GPOTABLE>
        <FP>
          <E T="03">B. Disqualifying Events</E>
        </FP>
        
        <FP>1. Criminal Convictions<FTREF/>
        </FP>
        <FTNT>
          <P>
            <SU>113</SU>As used in Regulation D Rule 505, the term “underwriter” is defined to mean “a person that has been or will be paid directly or indirectly remuneration for solicitation of purchasers in connection with sales of securities” under the rule. 17 CFR 230.505(b)(2)(iii)(B).</P>
        </FTNT>.<GPOTABLE CDEF="xl50,xl50,xl50" COLS="3" OPTS="L2,tp0,i1">
          <TTITLE/>
          <BOXHD>
            <CHED H="1">Rule 262</CHED>
            <CHED H="1">Dodd-Frank Section 926</CHED>
            <CHED H="1">Proposed Rule 506(c)</CHED>
          </BOXHD>
          <ROW>
            <ENT I="22">
              <E T="03">262(a)(3):</E>
            </ENT>
            <ENT>
              <E T="03">926(2)(B):</E>
            </ENT>
          </ROW>
          <ROW>
            <ENT I="01">The issuer, any of its predecessors or any affiliated issuer:<LI>“has been convicted within 5 years * * * of any felony or misdemeanor in connection with the purchase or sale of any security or involving the making of any false filing with the Commission”</LI>
              <LI>
                <E T="03">262(b)(1):</E>
              </LI>
              <LI>Any other covered person:</LI>
              <LI>“has been convicted within 10 years * * * of any felony or misdemeanor in connection with the purchase or sale of any security, involving the making of any false filing with the Commission, or arising out of the conduct of the business of an underwriter, broker, dealer, municipal securities dealer, or investment adviser”</LI>
            </ENT>
            <ENT>Rules must disqualify any offering or sale of securities by a person that:<LI>“has been convicted of any felony or misdemeanor in connection with the purchase or sale of any security or involving the making of any false filing with the Commission”</LI>
            </ENT>
            <ENT>Any covered person:<LI>“has been convicted, within ten years before such sale (or five years, in the case of issuers, their predecessors and affiliated issuers), of any felony or misdemeanor:</LI>
              <LI>(A) in connection with the purchase or sale of any security;</LI>
              <LI>(B) involving the making of any false filing with the Commission; or</LI>
              <LI>(C) arising out of the conduct of the business of an underwriter, broker, dealer, municipal securities dealer, investment adviser or paid solicitor of purchasers of securities;”</LI>
            </ENT>
          </ROW>
        </GPOTABLE>
        <HD SOURCE="HD3">2. Injunctions and Court Orders</HD>
        <GPOTABLE CDEF="xl50,xl50,xl50" COLS="3" OPTS="L2,tp0,i1">
          <TTITLE/>
          <BOXHD>
            <CHED H="1">Rule 262</CHED>
            <CHED H="1">Dodd-Frank Section 926</CHED>
            <CHED H="1">Proposed Rule 506(c)</CHED>
          </BOXHD>
          <ROW>
            <ENT I="22">
              <E T="03">262(a)(4):</E>
            </ENT>
          </ROW>
          <ROW>
            <PRTPAGE P="31536"/>
            <ENT I="03">The issuer, any of its predecessors or any affiliated issuer:<LI O="oi3">is subject to any order, judgment, or decree of any court of competent jurisdiction temporarily or preliminarily restraining or enjoining, or is subject to any order, judgment or decree of any court of competent jurisdiction, entered within 5 years prior to filing, permanently restraining or enjoining, such person from engaging in or continuing any conduct or practice in connection with the purchase or sale of any security or involving the making of any false filing with the Commission”</LI>
            </ENT>
            <ENT>No specific provision; regulations must be “substantially similar to the provisions of” Rule 262</ENT>
            <ENT>Any covered person:<LI O="oi3">is subject to any order, judgment, or decree of any court of competent jurisdiction, entered within five years before such sale, that, at the time of such sale, restrains or enjoins such person from engaging or continuing to engage in any conduct or practice:</LI>
              <LI O="oi3">(A) in connection with the purchase or sale of any security;</LI>
              <LI O="oi3">(B) involving the making of any false filing with the Commission; or</LI>
              <LI O="oi3">(C) arising out of the conduct of the business of an underwriter, broker, dealer, municipal securities dealer, investment adviser or paid solicitor of purchasers of securities”</LI>
            </ENT>
          </ROW>
          <ROW>
            <ENT I="22">
              <E T="03">262(b)(2):</E>
              <LI O="oi3">Any other covered person:</LI>
              <LI O="oi3">Identical to (a)(4), but adds “or arising out of the conduct of the business of an underwriter, broker, dealer, municipal securities dealer or investment adviser.”</LI>
            </ENT>
          </ROW>
        </GPOTABLE>
        <HD SOURCE="HD3">3. Final Orders of Certain Regulators</HD>
        <GPOTABLE CDEF="xl50,xl50,xl50" COLS="3" OPTS="L2,tp0,i1">
          <TTITLE/>
          <BOXHD>
            <CHED H="1">Rule 262</CHED>
            <CHED H="1">Dodd-Frank Section 926</CHED>
            <CHED H="1">Proposed Rule 506(c)</CHED>
          </BOXHD>
          <ROW>
            <ENT I="01">No general provision on administrative enforcement actions</ENT>

            <ENT>Rules must disqualify any offering or sale of securities by a personthat:<LI O="oi3">“is subject to a final order of a State securities commission (or an agency or officer of a State performing like functions), a State authority that supervises or examines banks, savings associations, or credit unions, a State insurance commission (or an agency or officer of a State performing like functions), an appropriate Federal banking agency, or the National Credit Union Administration, that—</LI>
              <LI O="oi3">(i) bars the person from—</LI>
              <LI O="oi3">(I) association with an entity regulated by such commission, authority, agency or officer;</LI>
              <LI O="oi3">(II) engaging in the business of securities, insurance or banking; or</LI>
              <LI O="oi3">(III) engaging in savings association or credit union activities; or</LI>
              <LI O="oi3">(ii) constitutes a final order based on a violation of any law or regulation that prohibits fraudulent, manipulative, or deceptive conduct within the ten-year period ending on the date of the filing of the offer or sale.”</LI>
            </ENT>
            <ENT>Any covered person:<LI O="oi3">“is subject to a final order of a State securities commission (or an agency or officer of a State performing like functions); a State authority that supervises or examines banks, savings associations, or credit unions; a State insurance commission (or an agency or officer of a State performing like functions); an appropriate Federal banking agency; or the National Credit Union Administration, that—</LI>
              <LI O="oi3">(<E T="03">2</E>) engaging in the business of securities, insurance or banking; or</LI>
              <LI O="oi3">(A) at the time of such sale, bars the person from:</LI>
              <LI O="oi3">(<E T="03">1</E>) association with an entity regulated by such commission, authority, agency or officer;</LI>
              <LI O="oi3">(<E T="03">2</E>) engaging in the business of securities, insurance or banking; or</LI>
              <LI O="oi3">(<E T="03">3</E>) engaging in savings association or credit union activities; or</LI>
              <LI O="oi3">(B) constitutes a final order based on a violation of any law or regulation that prohibits fraudulent, manipulative, or deceptive conduct entered within ten years before such sale.”</LI>
            </ENT>
          </ROW>
        </GPOTABLE>
        
        <PRTPAGE P="31537"/>
        <HD SOURCE="HD3">4. Commission<FTREF/>Disciplinary Orders</HD>
        <FTNT>
          <P>
            <SU>114</SU>The cited sections cover suspension or revocation of registration and certain other sanctions against brokers, dealers and municipal securities dealers.</P>
          <P>
            <SU>115</SU>The cited sections cover suspension or revocation of registration and other sanctions against investment advisers.</P>
        </FTNT>
        <GPOTABLE CDEF="xl50,xl50,xl50" COLS="3" OPTS="L2,tp0,i1">
          <TTITLE/>
          <BOXHD>
            <CHED H="1">Rule 262</CHED>
            <CHED H="1">Dodd-Frank Section 926</CHED>
            <CHED H="1">Proposed Rule 506(c)</CHED>
          </BOXHD>
          <ROW>
            <ENT I="22">
              <E T="03">262(b)(3):</E>
            </ENT>
          </ROW>
          <ROW>
            <ENT I="03">Any covered person other than the issuer, its predecessors and affiliated issuers:<LI O="oi3">“is subject to an order of the Commission entered pursuant to section 15(b), 15B(a) or 15B(c) of the Exchange Act,<SU>114</SU>or section 203(e) or (f) of the Investment Advisers Act”<SU>115</SU>
              </LI>
            </ENT>
            <ENT>No specific provision; regulations must be “substantially similar to the provisions of” Rule 262</ENT>
            <ENT>Any covered person:<LI>“is subject to an order of the Commission entered pursuant to section 15(b) or 15B(c) of the Exchange Act * * * or section 203(e) or (f) of the Investment Advisers Act of 1940 * * * that, at the time of such sale:</LI>
              <LI O="oi3">(A) suspends or revokes such person's registration as a broker, dealer, municipal securities dealer or investment adviser;</LI>
              <LI O="oi3">(B) places limitations on the activities, functions or operations of such person; or</LI>
              <LI O="oi3">(C) bars such person from being associated with any entity or from participating in the offering of any penny stock;</LI>
            </ENT>
          </ROW>
        </GPOTABLE>
        <HD SOURCE="HD3">5. Suspension or Expulsion From SRO Membership or Association With an SRO Member</HD>
        <GPOTABLE CDEF="xl50,xl50,xl50" COLS="3" OPTS="L2,tp0,i1">
          <TTITLE/>
          <BOXHD>
            <CHED H="1">Rule 262</CHED>
            <CHED H="1">Dodd-Frank Section 926</CHED>
            <CHED H="1">Proposed Rule 506(c)</CHED>
          </BOXHD>
          <ROW>
            <ENT I="22">
              <E T="03">262(b)(4):</E>
            </ENT>
          </ROW>
          <ROW>
            <ENT I="03">Any covered person other than the issuer, its predecessors and affiliated issuers:<LI O="oi3">“is suspended or expelled from membership in, or suspended or barred from association with a member of, a national securities exchange registered under section 6 of the Exchange Act or a national securities association registered under section 15A of the Exchange Act for any act or omission to act constituting conduct inconsistent with just and equitable principles of trade.”</LI>
            </ENT>
            <ENT>No specific provision; regulations must be “substantially similar to the provisions of” Rule 262</ENT>
            <ENT>Any covered person:<LI O="oi3">“is suspended or expelled from membership in, or suspended or barred from association with a member of, a registered national securities exchange or a registered national or affiliated securities association for any act or omission to act constituting conduct inconsistent with just and equitable principles of trade;</LI>
            </ENT>
          </ROW>
        </GPOTABLE>
        <HD SOURCE="HD3">6. Stop<FTREF/>Orders and Orders Suspending Exemptions</HD>
        <FTNT>
          <P>
            <SU>116</SU>The provision under which stop orders are issued for Securities Act registration statements.</P>
        </FTNT>X<GPOTABLE CDEF="xl50,xl50,xl50" COLS="3" OPTS="L2,tp0,i1">
          <TTITLE/>
          <BOXHD>
            <CHED H="1">Rule 262</CHED>
            <CHED H="1">Dodd-Frank Section 926</CHED>
            <CHED H="1">Proposed Rule 506(c)</CHED>
          </BOXHD>
          <ROW>
            <ENT I="22">
              <E T="03">262(a)(1):</E>
              <LI O="oi3">The issuer, any of its predecessors or any affiliated issuer:</LI>
              <LI O="oi5">“has filed a registration statement which is the subject of any pending proceeding or examination under Section 8 of the Act,<SU>116</SU>or has been the subject of any refusal order or stop order thereunder within 5 years prior to the filing of the offering statement required by § 230.252.”</LI>
            </ENT>
            <ENT>No specific provision; regulations must be “substantially similar to the provisions of” Rule 262</ENT>
            <ENT>Any covered person:<LI O="oi3">“has filed (as a registrant or issuer), or was or was named as an underwriter in, any registration statement or Regulation A offering statement filed with the Commission that, within five years before such sale, was the subject of a refusal order, stop order, or order suspending the Regulation A exemption, or is at the time of such sale the subject of an investigation or proceeding to determine whether a stop order or suspension order should be issued.”</LI>
            </ENT>
          </ROW>
          <ROW>
            <ENT I="22">
              <E T="03">262(c)(1):</E>
            </ENT>
          </ROW>
          <ROW>
            <ENT I="03">Any underwriter was or was named as an underwriter of any securities:</ENT>
            <ENT O="xl"/>
          </ROW>
          <ROW>
            <PRTPAGE P="31538"/>
            <ENT I="03">“covered by a registration statement which is the subject of any pending proceeding or examination under Section 8 of the Act, or has been the subject of any refusal order or stop order thereunder within 5 years prior to the filing of the offering statement required by § 230.252.”</ENT>
          </ROW>
          <ROW>
            <ENT I="22">
              <E T="03">262(a)(2):</E>
            </ENT>
          </ROW>
          <ROW>
            <ENT I="03">The issuer, any of its predecessors or any affiliated issuer:<LI O="oi3">“is subject to a pending proceeding under § 230.258<SU>117</SU>or any similar rule adopted under section 3(b) of the Securities Act, or to any order entered thereunder within 5 years prior to the filing of such offering statement.”</LI>
            </ENT>
            <ENT>No specific provision; regulations must be “substantially similar to the provisions of” Rule 262</ENT>
            <ENT>See above (one paragraph of 506(c) covers the substance of 262(a)(1), (a)(2), (c)(1) and (c)(2))</ENT>
          </ROW>
          <ROW>
            <ENT I="22">
              <E T="03">262(c)(2):</E>
            </ENT>
          </ROW>
          <ROW>
            <ENT I="03">Any underwriter was or was named as an underwriter of any securities:</ENT>
          </ROW>
          <ROW>
            <ENT I="03">“covered by any filing which is subject to any pending proceeding under § 230.258 or any similar rule adopted under section 3(b) of the Securities Act, or to any order entered thereunder within 5 years prior to the filing of such offering statement.”</ENT>
          </ROW>
        </GPOTABLE>
        <FP>7. U.S. Postal Service False Representation Orders<FTREF/>
        </FP>
        <FTNT>
          <P>
            <SU>117</SU>The provision under which the Regulation A exemption would be suspended.</P>
        </FTNT>
        <GPOTABLE CDEF="xl50,xl50,xl50" COLS="3" OPTS="L2,tp0,i1">
          <TTITLE/>
          <BOXHD>
            <CHED H="1">Rule 262</CHED>
            <CHED H="1">Dodd-Frank Section 926</CHED>
            <CHED H="1">Proposed Rule 506(c)</CHED>
          </BOXHD>
          <ROW>
            <ENT I="22">
              <E T="03">262(a)(5) and (b)(5):</E>
            </ENT>
          </ROW>
          <ROW>
            <ENT I="03">Any covered person:<LI O="oi3">“is subject to a United States Postal Service false representation order entered under 39 U.S.C. § 3005 within 5 years prior to filing, or is subject to a temporary restraining order or preliminary injunction entered under 39 U.S.C. § 3007 with respect to conduct alleged to have violated 39 U.S.C. § 3005.”</LI>
            </ENT>
            <ENT>No specific provision; regulations must be “substantially similar to the provisions of” Rule 262</ENT>
            <ENT>Any covered person:<LI O="oi3">“is subject to a United States Postal Service false representation order entered within 5 years before such sales or is at the time of such sale subject to a temporary restraining order or preliminary injunction with respect to conduct alleged by the United States Postal Service to constitute a scheme or device for obtaining money or property through the mail by means of false representations.”</LI>
            </ENT>
          </ROW>
        </GPOTABLE>
        <HD SOURCE="HD2">C. Waivers/Exclusions</HD>
        <GPOTABLE CDEF="s50,r50,r50" COLS="3" OPTS="L2,tp0,i1">
          <TTITLE/>
          <BOXHD>
            <CHED H="1">Rule 262</CHED>
            <CHED H="1">Dodd-Frank Section 926</CHED>
            <CHED H="1">Proposed Rule 506(c)</CHED>
          </BOXHD>
          <ROW EXPSTB="02" RUL="s">
            <ENT I="21">
              <E T="02">Waivers</E>
            </ENT>
          </ROW>
          <ROW EXPSTB="00" RUL="s">
            <ENT I="22">
              <E T="03">262 (first unnumbered paragraph):</E>
              <LI O="oi3">Waiver by the Commission</LI>
              <LI O="oi3">“upon showing of good cause and without prejudice to any other action by the Commission, [if] the Commission determines that it is not necessary under the circumstances that the exemption provided by this Regulation A be denied.”</LI>
            </ENT>
            <ENT>No specific provision; regulations must be “substantially similar to the provisions of” Rule 262</ENT>
            <ENT>Paragraph (c)(1) of this section shall not apply:<LI>(i) upon a showing of good cause and without prejudice to any other action by the Commission, if the Commission determines that it is not necessary under the circumstances that the exemption be denied.</LI>
            </ENT>
          </ROW>
          <ROW EXPSTB="02" RUL="s">
            <PRTPAGE P="31539"/>
            <ENT I="21">
              <E T="02">Reasonable Care Exception</E>
            </ENT>
          </ROW>
          <ROW EXPSTB="00">
            <ENT I="22"/>
            <ENT O="xl"/>
            <ENT>(ii) if the issuer establishes that it did not know, and in the exercise of reasonable care could not have known, that a disqualification existed under paragraph (c)(1) of this section.</ENT>
          </ROW>
          <ROW RUL="s">
            <ENT I="22"/>
            <ENT O="xl"/>
            <ENT>
              <E T="03">Instruction to paragraph (c)(2)(ii).</E>An issuer will not be able to establish that it has exercised reasonable care unless it has made factual inquiry into whether any disqualifications exist. The nature and scope of the requisite inquiry will vary based on the circumstances of the issuer and the other offering participants.</ENT>
          </ROW>
          <ROW EXPSTB="02" RUL="s">
            <ENT I="21">
              <E T="02">Events Pre-dating Affiliation</E>
            </ENT>
          </ROW>
          <ROW EXPSTB="00">
            <ENT I="22">
              <E T="03">262(a)(5):</E>
            </ENT>
          </ROW>
          <ROW>
            <ENT I="03">“The entry of an order, judgment or decree against any affiliated entity before the affiliation arose, if the affiliate is not in control of the issuer and if the affiliated entity and the issuer are not under the common control of a third party who was in control of the affiliated entity at the time of such entry does not come within the purview of this paragraph (a) of this section.”</ENT>
            <ENT>No specific provision; regulations must be “substantially similar to the provisions of” Rule 262</ENT>
            <ENT>For purposes of paragraph (c)(1) of this section, events relating to any affiliated issuer that occurred before the affiliation arose will be not considered disqualifying if the affiliated entity is not:<LI>(i) in control of the issuer or (ii) under common control with the issuer by a third party that was in control of the affiliated entity at the time of such events;</LI>
            </ENT>
          </ROW>
        </GPOTABLE>
        <HD SOURCE="HD1">VI. Paperwork Reduction Act</HD>
        <P>The proposed amendments do not contain a “collection of information” requirement within the meaning of the Paperwork Reduction Act of 1995.<SU>118</SU>
          <FTREF/>Accordingly, the Paperwork Reduction Act is not applicable and no Paperwork Reduction Act analysis is required.</P>
        <FTNT>
          <P>
            <SU>118</SU>44 U.S.C. 3501 through 3521.</P>
        </FTNT>
        <HD SOURCE="HD1">VII. Cost-Benefit Analysis</HD>
        <HD SOURCE="HD2">A. Background and Summary of Proposals</HD>
        <P>As discussed above, we are proposing amendments to implement the requirements of Section 926 of the Dodd-Frank Act, relating to the disqualification of “felons and other `bad actors'” from participation in Rule 506 offerings.</P>
        <P>Section 926 of the Dodd-Frank Act requires the Commission to issue rules that disqualify securities offerings involving felons and other bad actors from reliance on the safe harbor provided by Rule 506 of Regulation D. These rules are required to be “substantially similar” to the disqualification rules in Rule 262 (which apply to Regulation A offerings as well as offerings under Rule 505 of Regulation D) and also to cover the matters enumerated in Section 926 (including certain state law orders and bars). The proposal includes a “reasonable care” exception that is not mandated by Section 926. This “reasonable care” exception would prevent an exemption from being lost, despite the existence of a disqualification with respect to a covered person, if the issuer can show that it did not know and, in the exercise of reasonable care, could not have known that the disqualification existed. The proposal also provides the Commission with authority to waive disqualification for good cause shown, similar to its waiver authority under Regulation A.</P>
        <P>Section 926 of the Dodd-Frank Act is intended to exclude felons and bad actors from participating in Rule 506 offerings, thereby protecting investors in those offerings.<SU>119</SU>
          <FTREF/>Our rules implementing Section 926 are designed to secure the benefits Congress intended. Our analysis focuses on the costs and benefits of the additional matters that we are proposing that are not specifically mandated by Section 926. Specifically, we have identified certain costs and benefits that may result from the proposal to include a “reasonable care” exception and to provide waiver authority for the Commission. These costs and benefits are analyzed below. We encourage the public to identify, discuss, analyze and supply relevant data regarding these or any additional costs and benefits in comment letters on these proposed rules.</P>
        <FTNT>
          <P>
            <SU>119</SU>
            <E T="03">See</E>Statement of Senator Dodd, note 93.</P>
        </FTNT>
        <HD SOURCE="HD2">B. Benefits</HD>

        <P>We anticipate that the “reasonable care” exception for issuers would provide a benefit by assuring that issuers would not lose the Rule 506 safe harbor from Securities Act registration because of a disqualification relating to another covered person, so long as they can show that they did not know and in the exercise of reasonable care could not have known of the disqualification. If we did not adopt such an exception, issuers would be at risk of liability for a violation of Section 5 of the Securities Act or of applicable state “blue sky” law if they conducted an offering in reliance on Rule 506 and later learned that a disqualification existed, even if they had exercised reasonable care in determining that there was no disqualification. Without a reasonable care exception, issuers might therefore choose not to undertake offerings in reliance on Rule 506, because the downside (a potential Section 5 or blue sky law violation under circumstances that the issuer cannot reasonably predict or control) may outweigh the intended upside (a relatively speedy and cost-effective means of raising capital). In that scenario, alternative approaches to capital raising may be more costly to the issuer or not available at all. Because Rule 506 is our most frequently relied-upon Securities Act exemptive rule, the<PRTPAGE P="31540"/>impact of issuers shifting away from it could be significant. We believe that the proposed reasonable care exception would help to preserve the intended benefits of Rule 506, which might otherwise be impaired because of issuer concerns about strict liability for unknown disqualifications.</P>
        <P>Similarly, we believe that providing waiver authority for the Commission would provide a benefit to issuers and other covered persons by giving them the opportunity to explain why disqualification should not arise as a consequence of a particular event or the participation of a particular covered person. The Commission's ability to grant waivers could allow more offerings to remain within the Rule 506 safe harbor than would otherwise be the case, which could result in cost savings for issuers relative to the cost of raising capital in a registered offering or in reliance on other exemptions.</P>
        <HD SOURCE="HD2">C. Costs</HD>
        <P>The inclusion of a reasonable care exception for issuers may impose costs by increasing the likelihood that recidivists will participate in Rule 506 offerings and decreasing the deterrent effect of the bad actor disqualification rules mandated by Section 926 of the Dodd-Frank Act. Participation in Rule 506 offerings by bad actors could result in substantial harm. To the extent that inclusion of a reasonable care exception results in greater involvement of recidivist bad actors in Rule 506 offerings than would otherwise be the case, it would also reduce or eliminate benefits associated with increased investor trust and market integrity.</P>
        <P>Issuers may also incur costs associated with conducting and documenting their factual inquiry into possible disqualifications, so they can demonstrate the exercise of reasonable care.</P>
        <P>Providing for waiver authority may impose costs by decreasing the deterrent effect of the bad actor disqualification rules, and (to the extent the Commission may grant waivers) by enabling offerings involving bad actors to be conducted under Rule 506 that would otherwise be disqualified. In addition, persons seeking waivers would incur costs in doing so.</P>
        <P>Our rules may impose costs on issuers and other market participants in terms of transactions foregone or effected by other means at higher cost. For example, imposing a new disqualification standard only on offerings under Rule 506 may result in higher costs for issuers relying on other exemptive rules, if investors lose trust in offerings under such other rules. We seek comment on any changes that could be made to the proposal, such as modifying the list of covered persons, the nature of disqualifying events, the time periods applicable to disqualifying events or the process for obtaining waivers of disqualification, that could reduce the burden on capital-raising activities without compromising investor protection.</P>
        <HD SOURCE="HD3">Request for Comment</HD>
        <P>We solicit comments on the costs and benefits of the proposed amendment and on all aspects of this cost-benefit analysis. We request your views on the costs and benefits described above, as well as on any other costs and benefits not already identified that could result from the adoption of our proposal. We encourage the public to identify, discuss, and analyze these or any additional costs and benefits in comment letters. We request that comment letters responding to these requests provide empirical data and other factual support to the extent possible.</P>
        <HD SOURCE="HD1">VIII. Consideration of Burden on Competition and Promotion of Efficiency, Competition and Capital Formation</HD>
        <P>Section 2(b) of the Securities Act<SU>120</SU>
          <FTREF/>requires us, when engaging in rulemaking where we are required to consider or determine whether an action is necessary or appropriate in the public interest, to consider, in addition to the protection of investors, whether the action will promote efficiency, competition, and capital formation.</P>
        <FTNT>
          <P>
            <SU>120</SU>15 U.S.C. 77b(b).</P>
        </FTNT>
        <P>Section 926 of the Dodd-Frank Act requires the Commission to adopt provisions to disqualify certain offerings from reliance on the Rule 506 exemption of Regulation D. To the extent our proposed amendments may go beyond the statutory mandate of Section 926 by providing a “reasonable care” exception for issuers and providing waiver authority for the Commission, we believe this would enable issuers to use Rule 506 more effectively and therefore would benefit efficiency and promote capital formation. In particular, the proposed rules are expected to reduce the risk of fraud and other potential securities law violations and increase investor trust in Rule 506 offerings, thereby lowering costs for issuers. We do not anticipate any significant effect on competition.</P>
        <P>We request comment on whether the proposal, if adopted, would promote or burden efficiency, competition and capital formation. Finally, we request those who submit comment letters to provide empirical data and other factual support for their views, if possible.</P>
        <HD SOURCE="HD1">IX. Initial Regulatory Flexibility Act Analysis</HD>
        <P>This initial regulatory flexibility analysis has been prepared in accordance with 5 U.S.C. 603. It relates to proposed amendments to Rule 506 of Regulation D under the Securities Act which would disqualify certain offerings where “felons and other `bad actors' ” are participating or present from the safe harbor from Securities Act registration provided by Rule 506.</P>
        <HD SOURCE="HD2">A. Reasons for the Proposed Action</HD>
        <P>The primary reason for the proposed amendments is to implement the requirements of Section 926 of the Dodd-Frank Act. Section 926 requires the Commission to issue rules under which certain offerings where “felons and other `bad actors' ” are participating or present will be disqualified from reliance on the safe harbor from registration provided by Rule 506 of Regulation D.</P>
        <HD SOURCE="HD2">B. Objectives</HD>
        <P>Our primary objective is to implement the requirements of Section 926 of the Dodd-Frank Act. In general the rule we are proposing is a straightforward implementation of the statutory requirements. We have included a “reasonable care” exception in the proposed rule, which we believe will make the rule more useful to issuers and should encourage continued use of Rule 506 over exempt transactions outside the Rule 506 safe harbor.</P>
        <HD SOURCE="HD2">C. Legal Basis</HD>
        <P>The amendment is being proposed under the authority set forth in Sections 4(2), 19, and 28 of the Securities Act and in Section 926 of the Dodd-Frank Act.</P>
        <HD SOURCE="HD2">D. Small Entities Subject to the Proposed Rules</HD>
        <P>The proposal would affect issuers (including both operating businesses and investment funds that raise capital under Rule 506) and other covered persons, such as financial intermediaries, that are small entities. For purposes of the Regulatory Flexibility Act under our rules, an entity is a “small business” or “small organization” if it has total assets of $5 million or less as of the end of its most recent fiscal year.<SU>121</SU>

          <FTREF/>For purposes of the Regulatory Flexibility Act, an investment company is a small entity if<PRTPAGE P="31541"/>it, together with other investment companies in the same group of related investment companies, has net assets of $50 million or less as of the end of its most recent fiscal year.</P>
        <FTNT>
          <P>
            <SU>121</SU>17 CFR 230.157.</P>
        </FTNT>
        <P>The proposed amendment would apply to small issuers relying on Rule 506 of Regulation D to qualify for a safe harbor from Securities Act registration. All issuers that sell securities in reliance on Regulation D are required to file a Form D with the Commission reporting the transaction. For the fiscal year ended September 30, 2010, 17,292 issuers filed an initial notice on Form D. The vast majority of companies and funds filing notices on Form D are not required to provide information to the Commission that would enable us to establish their size. However, a significant portion of Rule 506 offerings (approximately 40% for the twelve month period ended September 30, 2010), were for amounts of $5,000,000 or less. We believe that many of the issuers in these offerings are small entities, but we currently do not collect information on total assets of companies and net assets of funds to determine if they are small entities for purposes of this analysis.</P>
        <HD SOURCE="HD2">E. Reporting, Recordkeeping and Other Compliance Requirements</HD>
        <P>The proposed rule would not impose any reporting, recordkeeping or disclosure requirements.<SU>122</SU>
          <FTREF/>We anticipate, however, that issuers would generally exercise reasonable care to ascertain whether a disqualification exists with respect to any covered person, and may document their exercise of reasonable care. The steps required would vary with the circumstances, but we anticipate may include such steps as making appropriate inquiry of covered persons and reviewing information on publicly available databases. We expect that the costs of compliance would generally be lower for small entities than for larger ones because of the relative simplicity of their organizational structures and securities offerings and the generally smaller numbers of individuals and entities involved.</P>
        <FTNT>
          <P>
            <SU>122</SU>As discussed in Part II.G of this Release, we are proposing to change the form of the signature block of Form D.</P>
        </FTNT>
        <HD SOURCE="HD2">F. Duplicative, Overlapping or Conflicting Federal Rules</HD>
        <P>We believe there are no Federal rules that conflict with or duplicate the proposed amendments.</P>
        <HD SOURCE="HD2">G. Significant Alternatives</HD>
        <P>The Regulatory Flexibility Act directs us to consider significant alternatives that would accomplish the stated objectives of our proposals, while minimizing any significant adverse impact on small entities. In connection with the proposed amendments, we considered the following alternatives:</P>
        <P>• The establishment of different compliance or reporting requirements or timetables that take into account the resources available to small entities;</P>
        <P>• The clarification, consolidation, or simplification of the rule's compliance and reporting requirements for small entities;</P>
        <P>• The use of performance rather than design standards; and</P>
        <P>• An exemption from coverage of the proposed amendments, or any part thereof, for small entities.</P>
        <P>With respect to the establishment of different compliance requirements or timetables under our proposed amendment for small entities, we do not think this is feasible or appropriate. Moreover, the proposal is designed to exclude “felons and other `bad actors' ” from involvement in Rule 506 securities offerings, which could benefit small issuers by protecting them and their investors from bad actors and increasing investor trust in such offerings. Increased investor trust could reduce the cost of capital and create greater opportunities for small businesses to raise capital. Nevertheless, we request comment on the feasibility and appropriateness for small entities to have different compliance requirements or timetables for compliance with our proposal.</P>
        <P>Likewise, with respect to potentially clarifying, consolidating, or simplifying compliance and reporting requirements, the proposed rule does not impose any new reporting requirements. To the extent it may be considered to create a new compliance requirement to exercise reasonable care to ascertain whether a disqualification exists with respect to any offering, the precise steps necessary to meet that requirement will vary according to the circumstances. In general, we believe the requirement will more easily be met by small entities than by larger ones because we believe that their structures and securities offerings are generally less complex and involve fewer participants. We request comment on whether there are ways to clarify, consolidate, or simplify this requirement for small entities.</P>
        <P>With respect to using performance rather than design standards, we note that the “reasonable care” exception is a performance standard.</P>
        <P>With respect to exempting small entities from coverage of these proposed amendments, we believe such a proposal would be impracticable and contrary to the legislative intent of Section 926. Regulation D was largely designed to provide exemptive relief for small entities. Exempting small entities from bad actor provisions could result in a decrease in investor protection and trust in the private placement and small offerings markets, which would be contrary to the legislative intent of Section 926. We have endeavored to minimize the regulatory burden on all issuers, including small entities, while meeting our regulatory objectives and have included a “reasonable care” exception and waiver authority for the Commission, to give issuers and other covered persons additional flexibility with respect to the application of these proposed amendments. Nevertheless, we request comment on ways in which we could exempt small entities from coverage of any unduly onerous aspects of the proposed amendments.</P>
        <HD SOURCE="HD2">H. Request for Comment</HD>
        <P>We encourage comments with respect to any aspect of this initial regulatory flexibility analysis. In particular, we request comments regarding:</P>
        <P>• The number of small entities that may be affected by the proposal or the uniformity and updating alternatives;</P>
        <P>• The existence or nature of the potential impact of the proposal and the alternatives on small entities discussed in this analysis; and</P>
        <P>• How to quantify the impact of the proposed amendments, or amendments that would implement the alternatives.</P>
        <P>We request members of the public to submit comments and ask them to describe the nature of any impact on small entities they identify and provide empirical data supporting the extent of the impact. Such comments will be considered in the preparation of the final regulatory flexibility analysis, if the proposals are adopted, and will be placed in the same public file as comments on the proposed amendments themselves.</P>
        <HD SOURCE="HD1">X. Small Business Regulatory Enforcement Fairness Act</HD>
        <P>For purposes of the Small Business Regulatory Enforcement Fairness Act of 1996 (“SBREFA”),<SU>123</SU>
          <FTREF/>a rule is “major” if it has resulted, or is likely to result in:</P>
        <FTNT>
          <P>
            <SU>123</SU>Public Law 104-121, Tit. II, 110 Stat. 857.</P>
        </FTNT>
        <P>• An annual effect on the economy of $100 million or more;</P>
        <P>• A major increase in costs or prices for consumers or individual industries; or</P>
        <P>• Significant adverse effects on competition, investment or innovation.</P>

        <P>We request comment on whether our proposals would be a “major rule” for<PRTPAGE P="31542"/>purposes of SBREFA. We solicit comment and empirical data on:</P>
        <P>• The potential effect on the U.S. economy on an annual basis;</P>
        <P>• Any potential increase in costs or prices for consumers or individual industries; and</P>
        <P>• Any potential effect on competition, investment or innovation.</P>
        <P>We request those submitting comments to provide empirical data and other factual support for their views if possible.</P>
        <HD SOURCE="HD1">XI. Statutory Authority and Text of Proposed Amendments</HD>
        <P>We are proposing the amendments contained in this document under the authority set forth in Sections 4(2), 19 and 28 of the Securities Act, as amended,<SU>124</SU>
          <FTREF/>and Section 926 of the Dodd-Frank Act.<SU>125</SU>
          <FTREF/>
        </P>
        <FTNT>
          <P>
            <SU>124</SU>15 U.S.C. 77c(b), 77c(c), 77d(2), 77r, 77s and 77z-3.</P>
        </FTNT>
        <FTNT>
          <P>
            <SU>125</SU>Public Law 111-203, § 926, 124 Stat. 1376 (July 21, 2010)(to be codified at 15 USC 77d note).</P>
        </FTNT>
        <LSTSUB>
          <HD SOURCE="HED">List of Subjects in 17 CFR Parts 230 and 239</HD>
          <P>Reporting and recordkeeping requirements, Securities.</P>
        </LSTSUB>
        
        <P>For the reasons set out above, Title 17, Chapter II of the Code of Federal Regulations is proposed to be amended as follows:</P>
        <PART>
          <HD SOURCE="HED">PART 230—GENERAL RULES AND REGULATIONS, SECURITIES ACT OF 1933</HD>
          <P>1. The general authority citation for Part 230 is revised to read as follows:</P>
          <AUTH>
            <HD SOURCE="HED">Authority:</HD>

            <P>15 U.S.C. 77b, 77c, 77d, 77f, 77g, 77h, 77j, 77r, 77s, 77z-3, 77sss, 78c, 78d, 78j, 78<E T="03">l,</E>78m, 78n, 78o, 78t, 78w, 78<E T="03">ll</E>(d), 78mm, 80a-8, 80a-24, 80a-28, 80a-29, 80a-30, and 80a-37, and Pub. L. 111-203, § 413(a) and § 926, 124 Stat. 1577 (2010)(15 U.S.C. 77d note), unless otherwise noted.</P>
          </AUTH>
          <STARS/>
          <P>2. Amend § 230.501 by redesignating paragraphs (g) and (h) as paragraphs (h) and (i), respectively, and adding new paragraph (g) to read as follows:</P>
          <SECTION>
            <SECTNO>§ 230.501</SECTNO>
            <SUBJECT>Definitions and terms used in Regulation D.</SUBJECT>
            <STARS/>
            <P>(g)<E T="03">Final order. Final order</E>shall mean a written directive or declaratory statement issued pursuant to applicable statutory authority and procedures by a Federal or state agency described in § 230.506(c)(1)(iii), which constitutes a final disposition or action by that Federal or state agency.</P>
            <STARS/>
            <P>3. Amend § 230.506 by redesignating the Note following paragraph (b)(2)(i) as “Note to paragraph (b)(2)(i)” and adding paragraph (c) to read as follows:</P>
          </SECTION>
          <SECTION>
            <SECTNO>§ 230.506</SECTNO>
            <SUBJECT>Exemption for limited offers and sales without regard to dollar amount of offering.</SUBJECT>
            <STARS/>
            <P>(c)<E T="03">“Bad Actor”disqualification.</E>(1) No exemption under this section shall be available for a sale of securities if the issuer; any predecessor of the issuer; any affiliated issuer; any director, officer, general partner or managing member of the issuer; any beneficial owner of 10% or more of any class of the issuer's equity securities; any promoter connected with the issuer in any capacity at the time of such sale; any person that has been or will be paid (directly or indirectly) remuneration for solicitation of purchasers in connection with such sale of securities; or any general partner, director, officer or managing member of any such solicitor:</P>
            <P>(i) Has been convicted, within ten years before such sale (or five years, in the case of issuers, their predecessors and affiliated issuers), of any felony or misdemeanor:</P>
            <P>(A) In connection with the purchase or sale of any security;</P>
            <P>(B) Involving the making of any false filing with the Commission; or</P>
            <P>(C) Arising out of the conduct of the business of an underwriter, broker, dealer, municipal securities dealer, investment adviser or paid solicitor of purchasers of securities;</P>
            <P>(ii) Is subject to any order, judgment or decree of any court of competent jurisdiction, entered within five years before such sale, that, at the time of such sale, restrains or enjoins such person from engaging or continuing to engage in any conduct or practice:</P>
            <P>(A) In connection with the purchase or sale of any security;</P>
            <P>(B) Involving the making of any false filing with the Commission; or</P>
            <P>(C) Arising out of the conduct of the business of an underwriter, broker, dealer, municipal securities dealer, investment adviser or paid solicitor of purchasers of securities;</P>
            <P>(iii) Is subject to a final order of a state securities commission (or an agency or officer of a state performing like functions); a state authority that supervises or examines banks, savings associations, or credit unions; a state insurance commission (or an agency or officer of a state performing like functions); an appropriate Federal banking agency; or the National Credit Union Administration that:</P>
            <P>(A) At the time of such sale, bars the person from:</P>
            <P>(<E T="03">1</E>) Association with an entity regulated by such commission, authority, agency, or officer;</P>
            <P>(<E T="03">2</E>) Engaging in the business of securities, insurance or banking; or</P>
            <P>(<E T="03">3</E>) Engaging in savings association or credit union activities; or</P>
            <P>(B) Constitutes a final order based on a violation of any law or regulation that prohibits fraudulent, manipulative, or deceptive conduct entered within ten years before such sale;</P>
            <P>(iv) Is subject to an order of the Commission entered pursuant to section 15(b) or 15B(c) of the Securities Exchange Act of 1934 (15 U.S.C. 78o(b) or 78o-4(c)) or section 203(e) or (f) of the Investment Advisers Act of 1940 (15 U.S.C. 80b-3(e) or (f)) that, at the time of such sale:</P>
            <P>(A) Suspends or revokes such person's registration as a broker, dealer, municipal securities dealer or investment adviser;</P>
            <P>(B) Places limitations on the activities, functions or operations of such person; or</P>
            <P>(C) Bars such person from being associated with any entity or from participating in the offering of any penny stock;</P>
            <P>(v) Is suspended or expelled from membership in, or suspended or barred from association with a member of, a registered national securities exchange or a registered national or affiliated securities association for any act or omission to act constituting conduct inconsistent with just and equitable principles of trade;</P>
            <P>(vi) Has filed (as a registrant or issuer), or was or was named as an underwriter in, any registration statement or Regulation A offering statement filed with the Commission that, within five years before such sale, was the subject of a refusal order, stop order, or order suspending the Regulation A exemption, or is, at the time of such sale, the subject of an investigation or proceeding to determine whether a stop order or suspension order should be issued; or</P>
            <P>(vii) Is subject to a United States Postal Service false representation order entered within five years before such sale, or is, at the time of such sale, subject to a temporary restraining order or preliminary injunction with respect to conduct alleged by the United States Postal Service to constitute a scheme or device for obtaining money or property through the mail by means of false representations.</P>
            <P>(2) Paragraph (c)(1) of this section shall not apply:</P>

            <P>(i) Upon a showing of good cause and without prejudice to any other action by the Commission, if the Commission determines that it is not necessary under the circumstances that an exemption be denied; or<PRTPAGE P="31543"/>
            </P>
            <P>(ii) If the issuer establishes that it did not know, and in the exercise of reasonable care could not have known, that a disqualification existed under paragraph (c)(1) of this section.</P>
            <P>
              <E T="03">Instruction to paragraph (c)(2)(ii).</E>An issuer will not be able to establish that it has exercised reasonable care unless it has made factual inquiry into whether any disqualifications exist. The nature and scope of the requisite inquiry will vary based on the circumstances of the issuer and the other offering participants.</P>
            <P>(3) For purposes of paragraph (c)(1) of this section, events relating to any affiliated issuer that occurred before the affiliation arose will be not considered disqualifying if the affiliated entity is not:</P>
            <P>(i) In control of the issuer; or</P>
            <P>(ii) Under common control with the issuer by a third party that was in control of the affiliated entity at the time of such events.</P>
          </SECTION>
        </PART>
        <PART>
          <HD SOURCE="HED">PART 239—FORMS PRESCRIBED UNDER THE SECURITIES ACT OF 1933</HD>
          <P>4. The general authority citation for Part 239 continues to read in part as follows:</P>
          <AUTH>
            <HD SOURCE="HED">Authority:</HD>

            <P>15 U.S.C. 77f, 77g, 77h, 77j, 77s, 77z-2, 77z-3, 77sss, 78c, 78<E T="03">l,</E>78m, 78n, 78o(d), 78u-5, 78w(a), 78<E T="03">ll,</E>78mm, 80a-2(a), 80a-3, 80a-8, 80a-9, 80a-10, 80a-13, 80a-24, 80a-26, 80a-29, 80a-30, and 80a-37, unless otherwise noted.</P>
          </AUTH>
          <STARS/>
          <P>5. Amend Form D (referenced in § 239.500) by revising the third paragraph under the heading “Terms of Submission” in the “Signature and Submission” section following Item 16 to read as follows:</P>
          <NOTE>
            <HD SOURCE="HED">Note:</HD>
            <P>The text of Form D does not, and the amendments will not, appear in the Code of Federal Regulations.</P>
          </NOTE>
          <HD SOURCE="HD1">Form D</HD>
          <STARS/>
          <P>• Certifying that, if the issuer is claiming an exemption under Rule 505 or Rule 506, the issuer is not disqualified from relying on such rule for one of the reasons stated in paragraph (b)(2)(iii) of Rule 505 or paragraph (c)(1) of Rule 506 (as the case may be).</P>
          <STARS/>
          <SIG>
            <P>By the Commission.</P>
            
            <DATED>Dated: May 25, 2011.</DATED>
            <NAME>Elizabeth M. Murphy,</NAME>
            <TITLE>Secretary.</TITLE>
          </SIG>
        </PART>
      </SUPLINF>
      <FRDOC>[FR Doc. 2011-13370 Filed 5-31-11; 8:45 am]</FRDOC>
      <BILCOD>BILLING CODE 8011-01-P</BILCOD>
    </PRORULE>
    <PRORULE>
      <PREAMB>
        <AGENCY TYPE="N">DEPARTMENT OF THE TREASURY</AGENCY>
        <SUBAGY>Internal Revenue Service</SUBAGY>
        <CFR>26 CFR Part 1</CFR>
        <DEPDOC>[REG-118761-09]</DEPDOC>
        <RIN>RIN 1545-BI92</RIN>
        <SUBJECT>Controlled Groups; Deferral of Losses; Hearing</SUBJECT>
        <AGY>
          <HD SOURCE="HED">AGENCY:</HD>
          <P>Internal Revenue Service (IRS), Treasury.</P>
        </AGY>
        <ACT>
          <HD SOURCE="HED">ACTION:</HD>
          <P>Notice of public hearing on proposed rulemaking.</P>
        </ACT>
        <SUM>
          <HD SOURCE="HED">SUMMARY:</HD>
          <P>This document provides notice of public hearing on a notice of proposed rulemaking providing guidance concerning the time for taking into account deferred losses on the sale or exchange of property between members of a controlled group.</P>
        </SUM>
        <DATES>
          <HD SOURCE="HED">DATES:</HD>
          <P>The public hearing is being held on Wednesday, August 3, 2011, at 10 a.m. The IRS must receive outlines of the topics to be discussed at the hearing by Thursday, July 21, 2011.</P>
        </DATES>
        <ADD>
          <HD SOURCE="HED">ADDRESSES:</HD>

          <P>The public hearing is being held in the auditorium, Internal Revenue Building, 1111 Constitution Avenue, NW., Washington, DC. Send submissions to: CC: PA: LPD: PR (REG-118761-09), room 5203, Internal Revenue Service, P.O. Box 7604, Ben Franklin Station, Washington, DC 20044. Submissions may be hand-delivered Monday through Friday between the hours of 8 a.m. and 4 p.m. to CC: PA: LPD: PR (REG-118761-09), Courier's Desk, Internal Revenue Service, 1111 Constitution Avenue, NW., Washington, DC. Alternatively, taxpayers may submit electronic outlines of oral comments via the Federal eRulemaking Portal at<E T="03">http://www.regulations.gov.</E>
          </P>
        </ADD>
        <FURINF>
          <HD SOURCE="HED">FOR FURTHER INFORMATION CONTACT:</HD>

          <P>Concerning the proposed regulations, Bruce A. Decker at (202) 622-7790; concerning submissions of comments, the hearing, and/or to be placed on the building access list to attend the hearing, Richard A. Hurst at<E T="03">Richard.A.Hurst@irscounsel.treas.gov</E>or (202) 622-7180 (not toll-free numbers).</P>
        </FURINF>
      </PREAMB>
      <SUPLINF>
        <HD SOURCE="HED">SUPPLEMENTARY INFORMATION:</HD>

        <P>The subject of the public hearing is the notice of proposed rulemaking (REG-118761-09) that was published in the<E T="04">Federal Register</E>on Thursday, April 21, 2011 (76 FR 22336).</P>
        <P>Persons who wish to present oral comments at the hearing that submitted written comments, must submit an outline of the topics to be discussed and the amount of time to be devoted to each topic (signed original and eight (8) copies) by Thursday, July 21, 2011.</P>
        <P>A period of 10 minutes is allotted to each person for presenting oral comments. After the deadline for receiving outlines has passed, the IRS will prepare an agenda containing the schedule of speakers. Copies of the agenda will be made available, free of charge, at the hearing or in the Freedom of Information Reading Room (FOIA RR) (Room 1621) which is located at the 11th and Pennsylvania Avenue, NW. entrance, 1111 Constitution Avenue, NW., Washington, DC.</P>

        <P>Because of access restrictions, the IRS will not admit visitors beyond the immediate entrance area more than 30 minutes before the hearing starts. For information about having your name placed on the building access list to attend the hearing, see the<E T="02">FOR FURTHER INFORMATION CONTACT</E>section of this document.</P>
        <SIG>
          <NAME>LaNita Van Dyke,</NAME>
          <TITLE>Chief, Publications and Regulations Branch, Legal Processing Division, Associate Chief Counsel, Procedure and Administration.</TITLE>
        </SIG>
      </SUPLINF>
      <FRDOC>[FR Doc. 2011-13407 Filed 5-31-11; 8:45 am]</FRDOC>
      <BILCOD>BILLING CODE 4830-01-P</BILCOD>
    </PRORULE>
    <PRORULE>
      <PREAMB>
        <AGENCY TYPE="S">DEPARTMENT OF THE TREASURY</AGENCY>
        <SUBAGY>Internal Revenue Service</SUBAGY>
        <CFR>26 CFR Part 301</CFR>
        <DEPDOC>[REG-153338-09]</DEPDOC>
        <RIN>RIN 1545-BJ19</RIN>
        <SUBJECT>Disclosure of Returns and Return Information to Designee of Taxpayer; Hearing Cancellation</SUBJECT>
        <AGY>
          <HD SOURCE="HED">AGENCY:</HD>
          <P>Internal Revenue Service (IRS), Treasury.</P>
        </AGY>
        <ACT>
          <HD SOURCE="HED">ACTION:</HD>
          <P>Cancellation of a notice of public hearing on a proposed rulemaking.</P>
        </ACT>
        <SUM>
          <HD SOURCE="HED">SUMMARY:</HD>
          <P>This document cancels a public hearing on a proposed rulemaking pertaining to the period for submission to the IRS of taxpayer authorizations permitting disclosure of returns and return information.</P>
        </SUM>
        <DATES>
          <HD SOURCE="HED">DATES:</HD>
          <P>The public hearing, originally scheduled for June 9, 2011 at 10 a.m. is cancelled.</P>
        </DATES>
        <FURINF>
          <HD SOURCE="HED">FOR FURTHER INFORMATION CONTACT:</HD>
          <P>Funmi Taylor of the Publications and Regulations Branch, Legal Processing Division, Associate Chief Counsel (Procedure and Administration) at (202) 622-7180 (not a toll-free number).</P>
        </FURINF>
      </PREAMB>
      <SUPLINF>
        <HD SOURCE="HED">SUPPLEMENTARY INFORMATION:</HD>
        <P>A notice of proposed rulemaking and a notice of<PRTPAGE P="31544"/>public hearing that appeared in the<E T="04">Federal Register</E>on Friday, March 18, 2011 (76 FR 14827) announced that a public hearing was scheduled for June 9, 2011, at 10 a.m. in the IRS Auditorium, Internal Revenue Building, 1111 Constitution Avenue, NW., Washington, DC. The subject of the public hearing is under section 6103 of the Internal Revenue Code.</P>
        <P>The public comment period for the proposed rulemaking expired on May 17, 2011. The notice of proposed rulemaking and notice of public hearing instructed those interested in testifying at the public hearing to submit an outline of the topics to be addressed. As of May 23, 2011, no one has requested to speak. Therefore, the public hearing scheduled for June 9, 2011, is cancelled.</P>
        <SIG>
          <NAME>LaNita VanDyke,</NAME>
          <TITLE>Chief, Publications and Regulations Branch, Legal Processing Division, Associate Chief Counsel, Procedure and Administration.</TITLE>
        </SIG>
      </SUPLINF>
      <FRDOC>[FR Doc. 2011-13408 Filed 5-31-11; 8:45 am]</FRDOC>
      <BILCOD>BILLING CODE 4830-01-P</BILCOD>
    </PRORULE>
    <PRORULE>
      <PREAMB>
        <AGENCY TYPE="N">DEPARTMENT OF LABOR</AGENCY>
        <SUBAGY>Employee Benefits Security Administration</SUBAGY>
        <CFR>29 CFR Part 2550</CFR>
        <RIN>RIN 1210-AB08</RIN>
        <SUBJECT>Requirements for Fee Disclosure to Plan Fiduciaries and Participants—Applicability Dates</SUBJECT>
        <AGY>
          <HD SOURCE="HED">AGENCY:</HD>
          <P>Employee Benefits Security Administration, Labor.</P>
        </AGY>
        <ACT>
          <HD SOURCE="HED">ACTION:</HD>
          <P>Notice of proposed extension of applicability dates.</P>
        </ACT>
        <SUM>
          <HD SOURCE="HED">SUMMARY:</HD>

          <P>This document proposes to extend specified applicability dates of the Department's interim final rule concerning fiduciary-level fee disclosure (29 CFR 2550.408b-2(c), RIN 1210-AB08) and final rule concerning participant-level fee disclosure (29 CFR 2550.404a-5, RIN 1210-AB07). These rules were published in the<E T="04">Federal Register</E>on July 16, 2010 and October 20, 2010, respectively. Extending these dates will more closely align the application of the two rules and ensure that parties have sufficient time to comply with the requirements of the rules.</P>
        </SUM>
        <EFFDATE>
          <HD SOURCE="HED">DATES:</HD>
          <P>Comments on the proposal to extend the applicability dates for the Department's fee disclosure rules should be submitted to the Department on or before June 15, 2011.</P>
        </EFFDATE>
        <FURINF>
          <HD SOURCE="HED">FOR FURTHER INFORMATION CONTACT:</HD>
          <P>Michael Del Conte, Office of Regulations and Interpretations, Employee Benefits Security Administration, (202) 693-8500. This is not a toll-free number.</P>
        </FURINF>
        <ADD>
          <HD SOURCE="HED">ADDRESSES:</HD>

          <P>To facilitate the receipt and processing of comments, EBSA encourages interested persons to submit their comments electronically to<E T="03">e-ORI@dol.gov,</E>or by using the Federal eRulemaking portal<E T="03">http://www.regulations.gov</E>(following instructions for submission of comments). Persons submitting comments electronically are encouraged not to submit paper copies. Persons interested in submitting comments on paper should send or deliver their comments (preferably three copies) to: Office of Regulations and Interpretations, Employee Benefits Security Administration, Room N-5655, U.S. Department of Labor, 200 Constitution Avenue, NW., Washington, DC 20210, Attention: Fee Disclosure Applicability. All comments will be available to the public, without charge, online at<E T="03">http://www.regulations.gov</E>and<E T="03">http://www.dol.gov/ebsa,</E>and at the Public Disclosure Room, Employee Benefits Security Administration, U.S. Department of Labor, Room N-1513, 200 Constitution Avenue, NW., Washington, DC 20210.</P>
        </ADD>
      </PREAMB>
      <SUPLINF>
        <HD SOURCE="HED">SUPPLEMENTARY INFORMATION:</HD>
        <P>On July 16, 2010, the Department published in the<E T="04">Federal Register</E>an interim final rule enhancing required disclosure from certain pension plan service providers to plan fiduciaries as part of a “reasonable” contract or arrangement for services under ERISA section 408(b)(2) (75 FR 41600) (the “408(b)(2) regulation”). 29 CFR 2550.408b-2(c). The Department subsequently published in the<E T="04">Federal Register</E>, on October 20, 2010, a final rule concerning the disclosure of plan fee and expense information by plan administrators to plan participants and beneficiaries (75 FR 64910) (the “participant-level disclosure regulation”). 29 CFR 2550.404a-5. The participant-level disclosure regulation includes modifications to the disclosure requirements in the Department's regulation under ERISA section 404(c), at 29 CFR 2550.404c-1 (the “404(c) regulation”), in order to avoid duplication and integrate its requirements with those of the new participant-level disclosure regulation.<SU>1</SU>
          <FTREF/>
        </P>
        <FTNT>
          <P>
            <SU>1</SU>The amendments to the Department's 404(c) regulation apply for plan years beginning on or after November 1, 2011. The proposals contained in this document would have no effect on the applicability of these amendments.</P>
        </FTNT>
        <P>Unless extended, the effective date for the interim final 408(b)(2) regulation will be on July 16, 2011 as to both new, and pre-existing, contracts or arrangements between covered plans and covered service providers. The Department has received many requests that this effective date be extended. A significant number of parties have argued that more time is essential to update systems and procedures for information collection and disclosure. Pointing out that the Department has not yet published a final rule, parties have explained that, if the Department modifies the current interim final rule, service providers will need additional time to make further changes. Based on these concerns, the Department believes that an extension of the rule's effective date would lead to fuller and timelier compliance by plans and service providers, and thus would be in the interests of participants and beneficiaries. Moreover, as discussed below, an extension will enable the Department to align the effective date for this regulation with the applicability date of the participant-level disclosure regulation. Accordingly, in February 2011, the Department announced its intention to extend the 408(b)(2) regulation's effective date until January 1, 2012.<SU>2</SU>
          <FTREF/>The Department has not received any negative comments on this announcement. The amendments proposed in this notice, if finalized, would effectuate this announcement.</P>
        <FTNT>
          <P>
            <SU>2</SU>
            <E T="03">See http://www.dol.gov/ebsa/newsroom/2011/ebsa021111.html.</E>
          </P>
        </FTNT>

        <P>Although the final participant-level disclosure regulation was effective on December 20, 2010, its requirements only begin to apply for plan years beginning on or after November 1, 2011. The regulation also includes a transitional rule, in paragraph (j)(3)(i), for furnishing disclosures required on or before the date on which a participant or beneficiary can first direct his or her investment. For participants or beneficiaries who, as of their plan's applicability date, had the right to direct the investment of their individual accounts, the plan must furnish these initial disclosures no later than 60 days after the applicability date. As with the 408(b)(2) regulation, the Department has continued to receive requests that additional time be provided in order for parties to comply. Further, because the Department announced its intention to extend the 408(b)(2) regulation's effective date to January 1, 2012, parties argue that it would be preferable to extend application of the participant-level disclosure regulation until after the effective date of the 408(b)(2) regulation. Specifically, these parties point to the provision in the 408(b)(2) interim final regulation which requires<PRTPAGE P="31545"/>covered service providers to furnish information requested by a responsible plan fiduciary or plan administrator in order to comply with ERISA's reporting and disclosure requirements,<SU>3</SU>
          <FTREF/>which would include relevant information required to comply with the participant-level disclosure regulation. It would facilitate compliance with the participant-level disclosure regulation, they argue, if contracts and arrangements were brought into compliance with the 408(b)(2) regulation, so that this reporting and disclosure provision is in effect, prior to the applicability of the participant-level disclosure regulation.</P>
        <FTNT>
          <P>
            <SU>3</SU>29 CFR 2550.408b-2(c)(1)(vi).</P>
        </FTNT>

        <P>The Department agrees that aligning the application of these two regulations would assist plan fiduciaries and plan administrators in obtaining information required to comply with the participant-level disclosure regulation. Further, the Department believes that, similar to the 408(b)(2) regulation, a limited extension is in the best interests of covered individual account plans and their participants and beneficiaries. Delayed application will better afford plans sufficient time to ensure an efficient and effective implementation of the participant-level disclosure regulation. To accomplish this end, the Department does not believe it is necessary to extend the regulation's effective date or its general application to plan years beginning on or after November 1, 2011. However, the Department proposes to extend the transition rule in paragraph (j)(3)(i), which specifies the date by which initial disclosures must actually be provided. Under this proposal, a plan would have 120 days (rather than 60) after its applicability date to furnish the initial disclosures that are otherwise required to be furnished before the date on which a participant or beneficiary can first direct his or her investments. Thus, a calendar year plan would have to furnish the initial disclosures no later than April 30, 2012, and the disclosures required by paragraphs (c)(2)(ii) and (c)(3)(ii) (<E T="03">e.g.,</E>quarterly statement of fees/expenses actually deducted) would have to be furnished no later than May 15, 2012. Under the proposed transition rule, the initial disclosures must be provided to all participants and beneficiaries who have the right to direct their investments when such disclosures are furnished, not just to those individuals who had the right to direct their investments on the applicability date. This is to ensure that individuals who become plan participants in between the applicability date and the end of the 120-day period receive the important information required under the regulation. To the extent the plan also has contracts or arrangements with covered service providers, as defined by the 408(b)(2) regulation, those contracts or arrangements must be in compliance with the 408(b)(2) regulation as of January 1, 2012, in advance of the required initial disclosures under the participant-level disclosure regulation.</P>
        <P>The Department has not been persuaded to extend the application of the participant-level disclosure regulation, or the 408(b)(2) regulation, beyond these dates. Although the Department believes it is appropriate to provide some relief to help ensure a timely, efficient, and coordinated implementation of the two rules, the Department also believes that it is critical for responsible plan fiduciaries, plan administrators, and plan participants and beneficiaries to benefit from the increased transparency provided by the rules as soon as possible.</P>
        <P>At this time, the Department solicits comments on this proposal to formally extend the effective date of the 408(b)(2) regulation and the transitional rule for application of the participant-level disclosure regulation.</P>
        <LSTSUB>
          <HD SOURCE="HED">List of Subjects in 29 CFR Part 2550</HD>
          <P>Employee benefit plans, Exemptions, Fiduciaries, Investments, Pensions, Prohibited transactions, Real estate, Securities, Surety bonds, Trusts and Trustees.</P>
        </LSTSUB>
        
        <P>For the reasons set forth in the preamble, the Department of Labor proposes to amend 29 CFR part 2550 as follows:</P>
        <PART>
          <HD SOURCE="HED">PART 2550—RULES AND REGULATIONS FOR FIDUCIARY RESPONSIBILITY</HD>
          <P>1. The authority citation for part 2550 continues to read as follows:</P>
          <AUTH>
            <HD SOURCE="HED">Authority:</HD>
            <P>29 U.S.C. 1135, sec. 102, Reorganization Plan No. 4 of 1978, 5 U.S.C. App. 1 and Secretary of Labor's Order No. 6-2009, 74 FR 21524 (May 7, 2009). Sec. 2550.401c-1 also issued under 29 U.S.C. 1101. Sec. 2550.404a-2 also issued under sec. 657, Pub. L. 107-16, 115 Stat. 38. Sections 2550.404c-1 and 2550.404c-5 also issued under 29 U.S.C. 1104. Sec. 2550.408b-1 also issued under 29 U.S.C. 1108(b)(1). Sec. 2550.408b-19 also issued under sec. 611, Pub. L. 109-280, 120 Stat. 780, 972. Sec. 2550.412-1 also issued under 29 U.S.C. 1112.</P>
          </AUTH>
          
          <P>2. Section 2550.404a-5 is amended by revising paragraph (j)(3)(i) to read as follows:</P>
          <SECTION>
            <SECTNO>§ 2550.404a-5</SECTNO>
            <SUBJECT>Fiduciary requirements for disclosure in participant-directed individual account plans.</SUBJECT>
            <STARS/>
            <P>(j) * * *</P>
            <P>(3)<E T="03">Transitional rules.</E>
            </P>
            <P>(i) Notwithstanding paragraphs (b), (c) and (d) of this section, the initial disclosures required on or before the date on which a participant or beneficiary can first direct his or her investments must be furnished no later than 120 days after such applicability date.</P>
            <STARS/>
            <P>3. Section 2550.408b-2 is amended, in paragraph (c)(1)(xii), by removing the date “July 16, 2011” and adding in its place “January 1, 2012”.</P>
          </SECTION>
          <SIG>
            <DATED>Signed at Washington, DC, this 26th day of May, 2011.</DATED>
            <NAME>Phyllis C. Borzi,</NAME>
            <TITLE>Assistant Secretary, Employee Benefits Security Administration, Department of Labor.</TITLE>
          </SIG>
        </PART>
      </SUPLINF>
      <FRDOC>[FR Doc. 2011-13516 Filed 5-31-11; 8:45 am]</FRDOC>
      <BILCOD>BILLING CODE 4510-29-P</BILCOD>
    </PRORULE>
    <PRORULE>
      <PREAMB>
        <AGENCY TYPE="N">GENERAL SERVICES ADMINISTRATION</AGENCY>
        <CFR>41 CFR Part 102-34</CFR>
        <DEPDOC>[FMR Case 2011-102-2; Docket 2011-0011; Sequence 1]</DEPDOC>
        <RIN>RIN 3090-AJ14</RIN>
        <SUBJECT>Federal Management Regulation; Motor Vehicle Management</SUBJECT>
        <AGY>
          <HD SOURCE="HED">AGENCY:</HD>
          <P>Office of Governmentwide Policy, General Services Administration (GSA).</P>
        </AGY>
        <ACT>
          <HD SOURCE="HED">ACTION:</HD>
          <P>Proposed rule.</P>
        </ACT>
        <SUM>
          <HD SOURCE="HED">SUMMARY:</HD>
          <P>The General Services Administration is proposing to amend the Federal Management Regulation (FMR) by revising current policy on the definitions relating to the rental versus the lease of motor vehicles. The proposed rule would increase the less than 60 continuous day rental timeframe to less than 120 continuous days and adjust the definition of the term “commercial lease or lease commercially” accordingly to allow for the instances when agencies have a valid temporary mission requirement for a motor vehicle of 60 continuous days or more in duration but of significantly fewer days in duration than is typically available under commercial leases, which commonly require a minimum lease period of one year.</P>
        </SUM>
        <EFFDATE>
          <HD SOURCE="HED">DATES:</HD>

          <P>Interested parties should submit comments in writing on or before<PRTPAGE P="31546"/>August 1, 2011 to be considered in the formulation of a final rule.</P>
        </EFFDATE>
        <ADD>
          <HD SOURCE="HED">ADDRESSES:</HD>
          <P>Submit comments identified by FMR Case 2011-102-2 by any of the following methods:</P>
          <P>•<E T="03">Regulations.gov: http://www.regulations.gov.</E>Submit comments via the Federal eRulemaking portal by inputting “FMR Case 2011-102-2” under the heading “Enter Keyword or ID” and selecting “Search.” Select the link “Submit a Comment” that corresponds with “FMR Case 2011-102-2.” Follow the instructions provided at the “Submit a Comment” screen. Please include your name, company name (if any), and “FMR Case 2011-102-2” on your attached document.</P>
          <P>•<E T="03">Fax:</E>202-501-4067.</P>
          <P>•<E T="03">Mail:</E>General Services Administration, Regulatory Secretariat (MVCB), 1275 First Street, NE., Rm. 783E, ATTN: Hada Flowers, Washington, DC 20417.</P>
          <P>
            <E T="03">Instructions:</E>Please submit comments only and cite FMR Case 2011-102-2, in all correspondence related to this case. All comments received will be posted without change to<E T="03">http://www.regulations.gov,</E>including any personal and/or business confidential information provided.</P>
        </ADD>
        <FURINF>
          <HD SOURCE="HED">FOR FURTHER INFORMATION CONTACT:</HD>

          <P>For clarification of content, contact Mr. James Vogelsinger at (202) 501-1764 or e-mail at<E T="03">james.vogelsinger@gsa.gov.</E>For information pertaining to status or publication schedules, contact the Regulatory Secretariat at (202) 501-4755. Please cite FMR Case 2011-102-2.</P>
        </FURINF>
      </PREAMB>
      <SUPLINF>
        <HD SOURCE="HED">SUPPLEMENTARY INFORMATION:</HD>
        <P/>
        <HD SOURCE="HD1">A. Background</HD>
        <P>Currently, as provided in 41 CFR 102-34.35, a motor vehicle rental is limited to less than 60 continuous days. If an agency obtains a motor vehicle for 60 continuous days or more, then it is a commercial lease under current regulations. Agencies, however, often have a valid temporary mission requirement for a motor vehicle of 60 continuous days or more in duration but of significantly fewer days in duration than is typically available under commercial leases, which commonly require a minimum lease period of one year. Also, some agencies have requirements from time to time for additional vehicles for relatively short periods of time. As a result, agencies are turning to short-term rentals to meet these motor vehicle needs but have encountered impediments when those needs meet or exceed 60 continuous days but are less than a year (for which commercial leases are commonly available). In order to address these issues, GSA is proposing to amend section 102-34.35 of the FMR (41 CFR 102-34.35) to redefine the term “motor vehicle rental” to increase the less than 60 continuous day rental timeframe to less than 120 continuous days and adjust the definition of the term “commercial lease or lease commercially” accordingly. GSA is cognizant of the impact of such a proposed policy change on motor vehicle identification in that the identification requirements attach to Government motor vehicles only, a term that does not encompass motor vehicle rentals.</P>
        <P>This proposed regulatory amendment would provide greater flexibility to Federal agencies in meeting their motor vehicle needs.</P>
        <HD SOURCE="HD1">B. Executive Order 12866 and Executive Order 13563</HD>
        <P>Executive Orders 12866 and 13563 direct agencies to assess all costs and benefits of available regulatory alternatives and, if regulation is necessary, to select regulatory approaches that maximize net benefits (including potential economic, environmental, public health and safety effects, distributive impacts, and equity). Executive Order 13563 emphasizes the importance of quantifying both costs and benefits, of reducing costs, of harmonizing rules, and of promoting flexibility. This is not a significant regulatory action and, therefore, was not subject to review under Section 6(b) of Executive Order 12866, Regulatory Planning and Review, dated September 30, 1993. This rule is not a major rule under 5 U.S.C. 804.</P>
        <HD SOURCE="HD1">C. Regulatory Flexibility Act</HD>
        <P>This proposed rule would not have a significant economic impact on a substantial number of small entities within the meaning of the Regulatory Flexibility Act, 5 U.S.C. 601, et seq. This proposed rule is also exempt from the Regulatory Flexibility Act per 5 U.S.C. 553(a)(2) because it applies to agency management. However, this proposed rule is being published to provide transparency in the promulgation of Federal policies.</P>
        <HD SOURCE="HD1">D. Paperwork Reduction Act</HD>

        <P>The Paperwork Reduction Act does not apply because the proposed changes to the FMR do not impose information collection requirements that require the approval of the Office of Management and Budget under 44 U.S.C. 3501,<E T="03">et seq.</E>
        </P>
        <HD SOURCE="HD1">E. Small Business Regulatory Enforcement Fairness Act</HD>
        <P>This proposed rule is exempt from Congressional review under 5 U.S.C. 801 since it relates solely to agency management and personnel.</P>
        <LSTSUB>
          <HD SOURCE="HED">List of Subjects in 41 CFR Part 102-34</HD>
          <P>Energy conservation, Government property management, Motor Vehicle Management, Reporting and recordkeeping requirements.</P>
        </LSTSUB>
        <SIG>
          <DATED>Dated: March 14, 2011.</DATED>
          <NAME>Kathleen M. Turco,</NAME>
          <TITLE>Associate Administrator.</TITLE>
        </SIG>
        
        <P>For the reasons set forth in the preamble, GSA proposes to amend 41 CFR part 102-34 as set forth below:</P>
        <PART>
          <HD SOURCE="HED">PART 102-34—MOTOR VEHICLE MANAGEMENT</HD>
          <P>1. The authority citation for 41 CFR part 102-34 continues to read as follows:</P>
          <AUTH>
            <HD SOURCE="HED">Authority:</HD>
            <P>40 U.S.C. 121(c); 40 U.S.C. 17503; 31 U.S.C. 1344; 49 U.S.C. 32917; E.O. 12375.</P>
          </AUTH>
          
          <P>2. In § 102-34.35, revise the definitions of the terms “Commercial lease or lease commercially” and “Motor vehicle rental” to read as follows:</P>
          <SECTION>
            <SECTNO>§ 102-34.35</SECTNO>
            <SUBJECT>What definitions apply to this part?</SUBJECT>
            <STARS/>
            <P>
              <E T="03">Commercial lease or lease commercially</E>means obtaining a motor vehicle by contract or other arrangement from a commercial source for 120 continuous days or more. (Procedures for purchasing and leasing motor vehicles through GSA can be found in 41 CFR subpart 101-26.5).</P>
            <STARS/>
            <P>
              <E T="03">Motor vehicle rental</E>means obtaining a motor vehicle by contract or other arrangement from a commercial source for less than 120 continuous days.</P>
            <STARS/>
          </SECTION>
        </PART>
      </SUPLINF>
      <FRDOC>[FR Doc. 2011-13215 Filed 5-31-11; 8:45 am]</FRDOC>
      <BILCOD>BILLING CODE 6820-14-P</BILCOD>
    </PRORULE>
    <PRORULE>
      <PREAMB>
        <AGENCY TYPE="N">DEPARTMENT OF HEALTH AND HUMAN SERVICES</AGENCY>
        <CFR>42 CFR Part 5</CFR>
        <SUBJECT>Negotiated Rulemaking Committee on Designation of Medically Underserved Populations and Health Professional Shortage Areas; Notice of Meeting</SUBJECT>
        <AGY>
          <HD SOURCE="HED">AGENCY:</HD>
          <P>Health Resources and Services Administration, HHS.</P>
        </AGY>
        <ACT>
          <HD SOURCE="HED">ACTION:</HD>
          <P>Negotiated Rulemaking Committee meeting.</P>
        </ACT>
        <SUM>
          <PRTPAGE P="31547"/>
          <HD SOURCE="HED">SUMMARY:</HD>
          <P>In accordance with section 10(a)(2) of the Federal Advisory Committee Act (Public Law 92-463), notice is hereby given of the following meeting of the Negotiated Rulemaking Committee on Designation of Medically Underserved Populations and Health Professional Shortage Areas.</P>
        </SUM>
        <DATES>
          <HD SOURCE="HED">DATES:</HD>
          <P>Meetings will be held on June 22, 2011, 9:30 a.m. to 6 p.m.; June 23, 2011, 9 a.m. to 6 p.m.; and June 24, 2011, 9 a.m. to 3 p.m.</P>
        </DATES>
        <ADD>
          <HD SOURCE="HED">ADDRESSES:</HD>
          <P>Meetings will be held at the Legacy Hotel and Meeting Centre, 1775 Rockville Pike, Rockville, Maryland 20852, (301) 881-2300.</P>
        </ADD>
        <FURINF>
          <HD SOURCE="HED">FOR FURTHER INFORMATION CONTACT:</HD>

          <P>For more information, please contact Nicole Patterson, Office of Shortage Designation, Bureau of Health Professions, Health Resources and Services Administration, Room 9A-18, Parklawn Building, 5600 Fishers Lane, Rockville, Maryland 20857, Telephone (301) 443-9027, E-mail:<E T="03">npatterson@hrsa.gov</E>or visit<E T="03">http://www.hrsa.gov/advisorycommittees/shortage/.</E>
          </P>
        </FURINF>
      </PREAMB>
      <SUPLINF>
        <HD SOURCE="HED">SUPPLEMENTARY INFORMATION:</HD>
        <P SOURCE="NPAR">
          <E T="03">Status:</E>The meeting will be open to the public.</P>
        <P>
          <E T="03">Purpose:</E>The purpose of the Negotiated Rulemaking Committee on Designation of Medically Underserved Populations and Health Professional Shortage Areas is to establish a criteria and a comprehensive methodology for Designation of Medically Underserved Populations and Primary Care Health Professional Shortage Areas, using a Negotiated Rulemaking (NR) process. It is hoped that use of the NR process will yield a consensus among technical experts and stakeholders on a new rule for designation of medically underserved populations and primary care health professions shortage areas, which would be published as an Interim Final Rule in accordance with Section 5602 of the Affordable Care Act, Public Law 111-148.</P>
        <P>
          <E T="03">Agenda:</E>The meeting will be held on Wednesday, June 22; Thursday, June 23; and Friday, June 24. It will include a discussion of various components of a possible methodology for identifying areas of shortage and underservice, based on the recommendations of the Committee in the previous meeting. Members of the public will have the opportunity to provide comments during the meeting on Friday afternoon.</P>
        <P>Requests from the public to make oral comments or to provide written comments to the Committee should be sent to Nicole Patterson at the contact address above at least 10 days prior to the first day of the meeting, Wednesday, June 22. The meetings will be open to the public as indicated above, with attendance limited to space available. Individuals who plan to attend and need special assistance, such as sign language interpretation or other reasonable accommodations, should notify the contact person listed above at least 10 days prior to the meeting.</P>
        <SIG>
          <DATED>Dated: May 24, 2011.</DATED>
          <NAME>Wendy Ponton,</NAME>
          <TITLE>Director, Office of Management.</TITLE>
        </SIG>
      </SUPLINF>
      <FRDOC>[FR Doc. 2011-13480 Filed 5-31-11; 8:45 am]</FRDOC>
      <BILCOD>BILLING CODE 4165-15-P</BILCOD>
    </PRORULE>
    <PRORULE>
      <PREAMB>
        <AGENCY TYPE="S">DEPARTMENT OF HEALTH AND HUMAN SERVICES</AGENCY>
        <SUBAGY>Centers for Medicare &amp; Medicaid Services</SUBAGY>
        <CFR>42 CFR Part 414</CFR>
        <DEPDOC>[CMS-3248-P]</DEPDOC>
        <RIN>RIN 0938-AR00</RIN>
        <SUBJECT>Medicare Program; Proposed Changes to the Electronic Prescribing (eRx) Incentive Program</SUBJECT>
        <AGY>
          <HD SOURCE="HED">AGENCY:</HD>
          <P>Centers for Medicare &amp; Medicaid Services (CMS), HHS.</P>
        </AGY>
        <ACT>
          <HD SOURCE="HED">ACTION:</HD>
          <P>Proposed rule.</P>
        </ACT>
        <SUM>
          <HD SOURCE="HED">SUMMARY:</HD>
          <P>This proposed rule would modify the 2011 electronic prescribing (eRx) quality measure (that is, the eRx quality measure used for certain reporting periods in calendar year (CY) 2011), provide additional significant hardship exemption categories for eligible professionals and group practices to request an exemption during 2011 for the 2012 eRx payment adjustment due to a significant hardship, and extend the deadline for submitting requests for consideration for the two significant hardship exemption categories for the 2012 eRx payment adjustment that were finalized in the CY 2011 Medicare Physician Fee Schedule (PFS) final rule with comment period.</P>
        </SUM>
        <DATES>
          <HD SOURCE="HED">DATES:</HD>
          <P>To be assured consideration, comments must be received at one of the addresses provided below, no later than 5 p.m. on July 25, 2011.</P>
        </DATES>
        <ADD>
          <HD SOURCE="HED">ADDRESSES:</HD>
          <P>In commenting, please refer to file code CMS-3248-P. Because of staff and resource limitations, we cannot accept comments by facsimile (FAX) transmission.</P>
          <P>You may submit comments in one of four ways (please choose only one of the ways listed):</P>
          <P>1.<E T="03">Electronically.</E>You may submit electronic comments on this regulation to<E T="03">http://www.regulations.gov.</E>Follow the “Submit a comment” instructions.</P>
          <P>2.<E T="03">By regular mail.</E>You may mail written comments to the following address ONLY: Centers for Medicare &amp; Medicaid Services, Department of Health and Human Services, Attention: CMS-3248-P, P.O. Box 8013, Baltimore, MD 21244-8013.</P>
          <P>Please allow sufficient time for mailed comments to be received before the close of the comment period.</P>
          <P>3.<E T="03">By express or overnight mail.</E>You may send written comments to the following address ONLY: Centers for Medicare &amp; Medicaid Services, Department of Health and Human Services, Attention: CMS-3248-P, Mail Stop C4-26-05, 7500 Security Boulevard, Baltimore, MD 21244-1850.</P>
          <P>4.<E T="03">By hand or courier.</E>Alternatively, you may deliver (by hand or courier) your written comments ONLY to the following addresses prior to the close of the comment period:</P>
          <P>a. For delivery in Washington, DC—Centers for Medicare &amp; Medicaid Services, Department of Health and Human Services, Room 445-G, Hubert H. Humphrey Building, 200 Independence Avenue, SW., Washington, DC 20201.</P>
          <P>(Because access to the interior of the Hubert H. Humphrey Building is not readily available to persons without Federal government identification, commenters are encouraged to leave their comments in the CMS drop slots located in the main lobby of the building. A stamp-in clock is available for persons wishing to retain a proof of filing by stamping in and retaining an extra copy of the comments being filed.)</P>
          <P>b. For delivery in Baltimore, MD—Centers for Medicare &amp; Medicaid Services, Department of Health and Human Services, 7500 Security Boulevard, Baltimore, MD 21244-1850.</P>
          <P>If you intend to deliver your comments to the Baltimore address, call telephone number (410) 786-1066 in advance to schedule your arrival with one of our staff members.</P>
          <P>Comments erroneously mailed to the addresses indicated as appropriate for hand or courier delivery may be delayed and received after the comment period.</P>

          <P>For information on viewing public comments, see the beginning of the<E T="02">SUPPLEMENTARY INFORMATION</E>section.</P>
        </ADD>
        <FURINF>
          <HD SOURCE="HED">FOR FURTHER INFORMATION CONTACT:</HD>
          <P>Christine Estella, (410) 786-0485.</P>
        </FURINF>
      </PREAMB>
      <SUPLINF>
        <HD SOURCE="HED">SUPPLEMENTARY INFORMATION:</HD>
        <P>
          <E T="03">Inspection of Public Comments:</E>All comments received before the close of the comment period are available for viewing by the public, including any personally identifiable or confidential business information that is included in a comment. We post all comments<PRTPAGE P="31548"/>received before the close of the comment period on the following Web site as soon as possible after they have been received:<E T="03">http://www.regulations.gov.</E>Follow the search instructions on that Web site to view public comments.</P>
        <P>Comments received timely will also be available for public inspection as they are received, generally beginning approximately 3 weeks after publication of a document, at the headquarters of the Centers for Medicare &amp; Medicaid Services, 7500 Security Boulevard, Baltimore, Maryland 21244, Monday through Friday of each week from 8:30 a.m. to 4 p.m. To schedule an appointment to view public comments, phone 1-800-743-3951.</P>
        <HD SOURCE="HD1">I. Background</HD>

        <P>Section 132 of the Medicare Improvements for Patients and Providers Act of 2008 (MIPPA), Public Law 110-275, authorized the Secretary to establish a program to encourage the adoption and use of eRx technology. Implemented in 2009, the program offers a combination of financial incentives and payment adjustments to eligible professionals, which are defined under section 1848(k)(3)(B) of the Social Security Act (the Act). We understand that the term “eligible professional” is used in multiple CMS programs. However, for the purpose of this proposed rule, the eligible professionals to whom we refer are only those professionals eligible to participate in the eRx Incentive Program unless we specify otherwise. For more information on which professionals are eligible to participate in the eRx Incentive Program, we refer readers to the Eligible Professionals page of the eRx Incentive Program section of the CMS Web site at:<E T="03">http://www.cms.gov/ERxIncentive/05_Eligible%20Professionals.asp#TopOfPage.</E>Under section 1848(m)(2)(C) of the Act, an eligible professional (or group practice participating in the eRx group practice reporting option (GPRO)) who is a successful electronic prescriber during 2011 can qualify for an incentive payment equal to 1.0 percent of its total estimated Medicare Part B Physician Fee Schedule (PFS) allowed charges for covered professional services furnished during the 2011 reporting period.</P>

        <P>In accordance with section 1848(a)(5)(A) of the Act, a PFS payment adjustment will begin in 2012 for those eligible professionals and group practices who are not successful electronic prescribers and will increase each year through 2014. Specifically, under 42 CFR 414.92(c)(2), for covered professional services furnished by an eligible professional during 2012, 2013, and 2014, if an eligible professional (or in the case of a group practice, the group practice) is not a successful electronic prescriber (as specified by CMS for purposes of the payment adjustment) for an applicable reporting period (as specified by CMS), then the PFS amount for such services furnished by such professional (or group practice) during the year shall be equal to the applicable percent (99 percent for 2012, 98.5 percent for 2013, and 98 percent for 2014) of the PFS amount that would otherwise apply. For each year of the program thus far, we have established program requirements for the eRx Incentive Program in the annual Medicare PFS rulemaking, including the applicable reporting period(s) for the year and how an eligible professional can become a successful electronic prescriber for the year. For example, we finalized the program requirements for qualifying for 2009 and 2010 eRx incentive payments in the CY 2009 and 2010 PFS final rules with comment period (73 FR 69847 through 69852 and 74 FR 61849 through 61861), respectively. In the November 29, 2010<E T="04">Federal Register</E>(75 FR 73551 through 73556), we published the CY 2011 PFS final rule with comment period, which set forth the requirements for qualifying for a CY 2011 incentive payment, as well as the requirements for the 2012 and 2013 eRx payment adjustments.</P>

        <P>Since publication of the CY 2011 PFS final rule with comment period, we have received a number of inquiries from stakeholders regarding the eRx Incentive Program. Many stakeholders voiced concerns about differences between the requirements under the eRx Incentive Program and the Medicare Electronic Health Record (EHR) Incentive Program, which also requires, among other things, eligible professionals to satisfy an eRx objective and measure to be considered a meaningful user of certified EHR technology (“eligible professional” is defined at 42 CFR 495.100 for purposes of the Medicare EHR Incentive Program). (For more information regarding the EHR Incentive Program see the published<E T="04">Federal Register</E>on July 28, 2010; 75 FR 44314 through 44588.) While Medicare eligible professionals and group practices cannot earn an incentive under both the eRx Incentive Program and the EHR Incentive Program for the same year, eligible professionals will be subject to an eRx payment adjustment if they do not meet the requirements under the eRx Incentive Program, regardless of whether the eligible professional participates in and earns an incentive under the Medicare EHR Incentive Program.</P>

        <P>Stakeholders claim that the requirements under both programs are administratively confusing, cumbersome, and unnecessarily duplicative. On February 17, 2011, the Government Accountability Office (GAO) also published a report which indicated that CMS should address the inconsistencies between the eRx Incentive Program and the EHR Incentive Program (GAO-11-159, “Electronic Prescribing: CMS Should Address Inconsistencies in Its Two Incentive Programs That Encourage the Use of Health Information Technology,” available at<E T="03">http://www.gao.gov/products/GAO-11-159</E>).</P>
        <P>As a result of the above concerns and in accordance with Executive Order 13563, which directs government agencies to identify and reduce redundant, inconsistent, or overlapping regulatory requirements and, among other things, identify and consider regulatory approaches that reduce burden and maintain flexibility of choice when possible, we are proposing to make changes to the eRx Incentive Program. As described further in section II.A. of the proposed rule, we are specifically proposing to modify the 2011 eRx quality measure (that is, the eRx quality measure used for certain reporting periods in CY 2011) and to create additional significant hardship exemption categories for the 2012 eRx payment adjustment.</P>
        <HD SOURCE="HD1">II. Provisions of the Proposed Regulations</HD>
        <HD SOURCE="HD2">A. Modification of the CY 2011 Electronic Prescribing Quality Measure</HD>
        <P>In the CY 2011 PFS final rule with comment period (75 FR 73553 through 76566), we finalized an eRx quality measure that would be used during the reporting periods in 2011 used to determine whether an eligible professional is a successful electronic prescriber under the eRx Incentive Program for the 2011 eRx incentive, as well as for the 2012 and 2013 eRx payment adjustments. The measure that we adopted for reporting in 2011 (which is the same measure that was adopted for the 2010 eRx Incentive Program) is described as a measure that documents whether an eligible professional or group practice has adopted a “qualified” eRx system.</P>
        <P>A qualified eRx system is a system that is capable of performing the following four specific functionalities:</P>

        <P>• Generate a complete active medication list incorporating electronic<PRTPAGE P="31549"/>data received from applicable pharmacies and pharmacy benefit managers (PBMs), if available.</P>
        <P>• Allow eligible professionals to select medications, print prescriptions, electronically transmit prescriptions, and conduct alerts (that is, written or acoustic signals to warn the prescriber of possible undesirable or unsafe situations including potentially inappropriate doses or routes of administration of a drug, drug-drug interactions, allergy concerns, or warnings and cautions) and this functionality must be enabled,</P>
        <P>• Provide information related to lower cost therapeutically appropriate alternatives (if any) (that is, the ability of an eRx system to receive tiered formulary information, if available, would again suffice for this requirement for 2011 and until this function is more widely available in the marketplace)</P>
        <P>• Provide information on formulary or tiered formulary medications, patient eligibility, and authorization requirements received electronically from the patient's drug plan (if available).</P>

        <P>In addition, to be a qualified eRx system under the eRx Incentive Program, electronic systems must convey the information above using the standards currently in effect for the Part D eRx program, including certain National Council for Prescription Drug Programs' (NCPDP) standards. (To view the current eRx quality measure specifications, we refer readers to the “2011 eRx Measure Specifications, Release Notes, and Claims-Based Reporting Principles” download found on the E-Prescribing Measure page of the eRx Incentive Program section of the CMS Web site at:<E T="03">http://www.cms.gov/ERxIncentive/06_E-Prescribing_Measure.asp#TopOfPage.</E>)</P>
        <P>The technological requirements for eRx in the EHR Incentive Program are similar to the technological requirements for the eRx Incentive Program. Under the EHR Incentive Program, eligible professionals are required to adopt certified EHR technology, which must include the capability to perform certain eRx functions that are similar to those required for the eRx Incentive Program. Certified EHR technology must be tested and certified by a certification body authorized by the National Coordinator for Health Information Technology (at the present time, these bodies are Office of the National Coordinator for Health Information Technology (ONC)-Authorized Testing and Certification Bodies (ONC-ATCBs)). This means that eligible professionals participating in the EHR Incentive Program can rely on a third party certification body to ensure that the vendor's EHR technology includes certain technical capabilities. EHR technology is certified as a “Complete EHR” or an “EHR module,” as those terms are defined at 45 CFR 170.102. A Complete EHR is EHR technology that has been developed to meet, at a minimum, all applicable certification criteria adopted by the Secretary. An EHR Module is any service, component, or combination thereof that can meet the requirements of at least one certification criterion adopted by the Secretary.</P>
        <P>In contrast, the eRx Incentive Program does not require certification of the system used for eRx. Thus, eligible professionals or group practices are generally required to rely on information that they obtain from the vendors of the systems and demonstration of the functionalities of the system, to determine if the system meets the required standard. We believe that the eRx capabilities of certified EHR technology are sufficiently similar in nature (and in fact, would more than likely be capable of performing all of the required functionalities) and would be appropriate for purposes of the eRx Incentive Program. Among other requirements, certified EHR technology must be able to electronically generate and transmit prescriptions and prescription-related information in accordance with certain standards, some of which have been adopted for purposes of electronic prescribing under Part D. Similar to the required functionalities of a qualified eRx system, certified EHR technology also must be able to check for drug-drug interactions and check whether drugs are in a formulary or a preferred drug list, although the certification criteria do not specify any standards for the performance of those functions. We believe that it is acceptable that not all of the Part D eRx standards are required for certified EHR technology in light of our desire to better align the requirements of the eRx and the Medicare EHR Incentive Program and potentially reduce unnecessary investment in multiple technologies for purposes of meeting the requirements for each program. Furthermore, to the extent that an eligible professional uses certified EHR technology to electronically prescribe under Part D, he or she would still be required to comply with the Part D standards to do so.</P>
        <P>In addition, we believe it is important to provide more certainty to eligible professionals (including those in group practices) that may be participating in both the EHR Incentive Program and the eRx Incentive Program with regard to purchasing systems for use under these programs, and to encourage adoption of certified EHR technology. Accordingly, we are proposing changes to the eRx measure reported in 2011 for purposes of reporting for the 2011 eRx incentive and the 2013 eRx payment adjustment (the “2011 eRx quality measure”) in accordance with section 1848(k)(2)(C) of the Act. This section of the Act requires the eRx measure to be endorsed by the entity with a contract with the Secretary under section 1890(a) of the Act (currently, that entity is the National Quality Forum (NQF)) except for in the case of a specified area or medical topic determined appropriate by the Secretary for which a feasible and practical measure has not been endorsed by the NQF. While the electronic prescribing measure, as originally implemented in the 2009 eRx Incentive Program is an NQF-endorsed measure, subsequent modifications made to the measure for implementation purposes (for example, to reduce eligible professionals' reporting burden and to increase applicability of the measure to a broader range of eligible professionals) have not yet been reviewed by the NQF. In light of this, we are not aware of any other NQF-endorsed measure related to electronic prescribing by eligible professionals that would be appropriate for use in the eRx Incentive Program. Therefore, we believe that the use of this eRx measure falls within the exception under section 1848(k)(2)(C)(ii) of the Act.</P>

        <P>Specifically, we are proposing to revise the description statement for the 2011 eRx measure that we adopted for reporting in 2011 for purposes of the 2011 eRx incentive and the 2013 eRx payment adjustment. Currently, the description statement indicates that the measure documents whether an eligible professional or group practice has adopted a “qualified” eRx system that performs the four functionalities discussed above. We propose to revise this description statement to indicate that the measure documents whether an eligible professional or group practice has adopted a “qualified” eRx system that performs the four functionalities previously discussed<E T="03">or</E>is certified EHR technology as defined at 42 CFR 495.4 and 45 CFR 170.102. We believe that this proposed change merely expands on the definition of a “qualified” eRx system without altering the original intent of the measure, which was to evaluate the extent to which eligible professionals generate and transmit prescriptions and prescription-related information electronically. Both eRx systems that perform the four<PRTPAGE P="31550"/>functionalities previously discussed and certified EHR technology are able to generate and transmit prescriptions and prescription-related information electronically. An eligible professional or group practice that has already purchased an eRx system that meets the definition of a “qualified” eRx system would be able to continue using that system (that is, even with the proposed changes to the measure, systems that meet the four functionalities would continue to constitute “qualified” eRx systems). In accordance with section 1848(m)(3)(B)(v) of the Act, which requires the Secretary, to the extent practicable, to ensure that eligible professionals utilize electronic prescribing systems in compliance with standards established for such systems pursuant to the Part D eRx Program under section 1860D-4(e) of the Act, we also propose that for purposes of the 2011 eRx measure certified EHR technology must comply with the Part D standards for the electronic transmission of prescriptions at 42 CFR 423.160(b)(2)(ii). This proposed requirement is consistent with the ONC certification requirements at 45 CFR 170.304(b) and 170.205(b)(1) and (2). With this proposed change to the 2011 eRx measure, eligible professionals (including those in group practices) that are participating in the eRx Incentive Program would have the option of adopting either a qualified eRx system that performs the four functionalities previously discussed or certified EHR technology as defined at 42 CFR 495.4 and 45 CFR 170.102. Thus, under this proposal, certified EHR technology would be recognized as a qualified system under the revised eRx quality measure regardless of whether the certified EHR technology has all four of the functionalities previously described. Because the proposed change to the 2011 eRx measure, if finalized, would not be effective until the effective date of a subsequent final rule, this change would only be effective for the remainder of the reporting periods in CY 2011 for the 2011 eRx incentive and the 2013 eRx payment adjustment. The proposed change to the 2011 eRx quality measure, if finalized, would not apply retrospectively to any part of the CY 2011 reporting periods for the 2011 eRx incentive or the 2013 eRx payment adjustments that occurred prior to the effective date of a subsequent final rule. The proposed change to the eRx measure does not change any of the regulations for the eRx Incentive Program payment adjustment, which are codified at 42 CFR 414.92(c)(2). In addition, because this proposed change would not be finalized prior to the end of the 2012 eRx payment adjustment reporting period (that is, June 30, 2011), such a change would not apply for purposes of reporting the eRx measure for the 2012 eRx payment adjustment. However, as we noted previously, we believe that most certified EHR technology meet the requirements for “qualified” eRx systems under the current 2011 eRx quality measure. Therefore, for purposes of reporting the current eRx quality measure during 2011 (including reporting for purposes of the 2012 eRx payment adjustment), nothing precludes eligible professionals (or a group practice) that already have certified EHR technology that meet the four functionalities from using the certified EHR technology for purposes of the eRx Incentive Program (that is, the technology would constitute a “qualified” system under the current 2011 eRx quality measure because such system meets the four specified functionalities). For future program years, we anticipate using the revised eRx quality measure, which we would adopt through future notice and comment rulemaking. We invite public comment on the proposed modification to the 2011 eRx quality measure.</P>
        <HD SOURCE="HD2">B. Significant Hardship Exemption Categories for the 2012 Payment Adjustment</HD>
        <HD SOURCE="HD3">1. Overview of the 2012 Payment Adjustment</HD>
        <P>As required by section 1848(a)(5) of the Act, and in accordance with our regulations at 42 CFR 414.92(c)(2), eligible professionals or group practices who are not successful electronic prescribers (as specified by CMS for purposes of the payment adjustment) are subject to the eRx payment adjustment in 2012. In the CY 2011 PFS final rule with comment period (75 FR 73560 through 73565), we finalized the program requirements for the 2012 eRx payment adjustment. Specifically, the 2012 eRx payment adjustment does not apply to the following: (1) An eligible professional who is not a physician (includes doctors of medicine, doctors of osteopathy, and podiatrists), nurse practitioner, or physician assistant as of June 30, 2011; (2) an eligible professional who does not have at least 100 cases (that is, claims for patient services) containing an encounter code that falls within the denominator of the eRx measure for dates of service between January 1, 2011 and June 30, 2011; or (3) an eligible professional who is a successful electronic prescriber for the January 1, 2011 through June 30, 2011 reporting period (that is, reports the eRx measure 10 times via claims between January 1, 2011 and June 30, 2011).</P>

        <P>We also finalized the requirement that the 2012 eRx payment adjustment does not apply to an individual eligible professional or group practice if less than 10 percent of an eligible professional's or group practice's estimated total allowed charges for the January 1, 2011 through June 30, 2011 reporting period are comprised of services that appear in the denominator of the 2011 eRx measure. Information and other details about the eRx Incentive Program, including the requirements for group practices participating in the eRx GPRO in 2011 with regard to the 2012 eRx payment adjustment can be found on the eRx Incentive Program section of the CMS Web site at:<E T="03">http://www.cms.gov/erxincentive</E>.</P>
        <HD SOURCE="HD3">2. Current Significant Hardship Exemptions for the 2012 eRx Payment Adjustment</HD>
        <P>In addition to the requirements for the 2012 eRx payment adjustment, 42 CFR 414.92(c)(2)(ii) provides that we may, on a case-by-case basis, exempt an eligible professional (or group practice) from the application of the payment adjustment, if we determine, subject to annual renewal, that compliance with the requirement for being a successful electronic prescriber would result in a significant hardship. In the CY 2011 PFS final rule with comment period (75 FR 73564 through 75 FR 73565), we finalized two circumstances under which an eligible professional or group practice can request consideration for a significant hardship exemption for the 2012 eRx payment adjustment—</P>
        <P>• The eligible professional or group practice practices in a rural area with limited high speed Internet access; or</P>
        <P>• The eligible professional or group practice practices in an area with limited available pharmacies for eRx.</P>

        <P>In order for eligible professionals and group practices to identify these categories for purposes of requesting a hardship exemption, we created a G-code for each of the above situations. Thus, to request consideration for a significant hardship exemption for the 2012 eRx payment adjustment, individual eligible professionals must report the appropriate G-code at least once on claims for services rendered between January 1, 2011 and June 30, 2011. Group practices that wished to participate in the 2011 eRx GPRO and be considered for exemption under one of the significant hardship categories were required to request a hardship exemption at the time they self-<PRTPAGE P="31551"/>nominated to participate in the 2011 eRx GPRO earlier this year.</P>
        <HD SOURCE="HD3">3. Proposed Additional Significant Hardship Exemption Categories for the 2012 eRx Payment Adjustment</HD>
        <P>Since publication of the CY 2011 PFS final rule with comment period, we have received numerous requests to expand the categories under the significant hardship exemption for the 2012 eRx payment adjustment. Some stakeholders have recommended specific circumstances of significant hardship for our consideration (for example, eligible professionals who have prescribing privileges but do not prescribe under their NPI, eligible professionals who prescribe a high volume of narcotics, and eligible professionals who electronically prescribe but typically do not do so for any of the services included in the eRx measure's denominator), while others strongly suggested we consider increasing the number of specific hardship exemption categories. We believe that many of the circumstances raised by stakeholders may pose a significant hardship and limit eligible professionals and group practices in their ability to meet the requirements for being successful electronic prescribers either because of the nature of their practice or because of the limitations of the eRx measure itself, and as a result, such professionals might be unfairly penalized. Therefore, we are proposing to revise the significant hardship regulation at 42 CFR 414.92(c)(2)(ii) to add paragraphs that—(1) codify the two hardship exemption categories for the 2012 eRx payment adjustment that we finalized in the CY 2011 PFS final rule; and (2) codify the additional significant hardship categories for the 2012 eRx payment adjustment that we are proposing in this proposed rule. We also are proposing to allow some additional time for submitting significant hardship exemption requests to CMS.</P>
        <P>Specifically, we are proposing the following additional significant hardship exemption categories for the 2012 eRx payment adjustment with regard to the reporting period of January 1, 2011 through June 30, 2011:</P>
        <HD SOURCE="HD3">a. Eligible Professionals Who Register To Participate in the Medicare or Medicaid EHR Incentive Programs and Adopt Certified EHR Technology</HD>

        <P>We are proposing this exemption category at proposed 42 CFR 414.92(c)(2)(ii)(C) because eligible professionals (including those in group practices) that intended to participate in the EHR Incentive Program may have delayed adopting eRx technology for purposes of the eRx Incentive Program until the list of certified EHR technology became available so that the same technology could be used to satisfy both programs' requirements. The ONC final rule establishing a temporary certification program for health information technology (75 FR 36158) was not published in the<E T="04">Federal Register</E>until June 24, 2010. The certification and listing of EHR technologies (certified Complete EHRs and certified EHR Modules) on the ONC Certified HIT Products List (CHPL) did not begin until September 2010. Until then, eligible professionals and group practices had no way of knowing which EHR technologies would be certified. At the same time, we did not propose to use the first half of 2011 as the reporting period for the 2012 eRx payment adjustment until the CY 2011 PFS proposed rule went on public display at the Office of the Federal Register on June 25, 2010. As such, we believe it may be a significant hardship for eligible professionals in this situation to have both adopted certified EHR technology and fully integrated the technology into their practice's clinical workflows and processes so that they would be able to successfully report the eRx measure prior to June 30, 2011, especially given that an eligible professional under the Medicare EHR Incentive Program has until October 1, 2011, to begin a 90-day EHR reporting period for the 2011 payment year. Similarly, this extended time period provides Medicare eligible professionals under the eRx Incentive Program but who are eligible for incentives under the Medicaid EHR Incentive Program with a majority of 2011 to adopt, implement, or upgrade to certified EHR technology. We believe this hardship exemption category is necessary and appropriate in order to fully support and encourage eligible professionals to actively take steps to become meaningful users of certified EHR technology. Also, in the absence of this significant hardship exemption category, eligible professionals may potentially have to adopt two systems (for example, a standalone eRx system for purposes of participation in the eRx Incentive Program, followed by certified EHR technology), which could potentially be financially burdensome. To be considered for a significant hardship exemption under this category, we are proposing that the eligible professional, at a minimum, must: (1) Have registered for either the Medicare or Medicaid EHR Incentive Program (for instructions on how to register for one of the EHR Incentive Programs, we refer readers to the Registration and Attestation page of the EHR Incentive Programs section of the CMS Web site at<E T="03">http://www.cms.gov/EHRIncentivePrograms/20_RegistrationandAttestation.asp#TopOfPage</E>); and (2) provide identifying information as to the certified EHR technology (as defined at 45 CFR 170.102) that has been adopted for use no later than October 1, 2011, for a hardship exemption to be submitted, which then would be reviewed on a case-by-case basis. We propose that for purposes of this proposed significant hardship exemption category, the identifying information would consist of the certification number that is assigned to the EHR technology for purposes of ONC's CHPL. In addition, we are considering requiring eligible professionals to provide a serial number for their specific product but have concerns about whether such information would be readily accessible by eligible professionals. We invite comments on the feasibility of requiring eligible professionals to provide a serial number in addition to the certification number for the certified EHR technology, or other information identifying and verifying the specific product. In requesting a significant hardship exemption under this proposed category, an eligible professional would be attesting that he or she either has purchased the specified certified EHR technology (as identified by the certification number and/or serial number) or has the specified certified EHR technology available for immediate use and that the professional intends to use that technology to qualify for a Medicare or Medicaid EHR incentive for payment year 2011.</P>
        <HD SOURCE="HD3">b. Inability To Electronically Prescribe Due to Local, State, or Federal Law or Regulation</HD>

        <P>We are proposing at 42 CFR 414.92(c)(2)(ii)(D) that, to the extent that local, State, or Federal law or regulation limits or prevents an eligible professional or group practice that otherwise has general prescribing authority from electronically prescribing (for example, eligible professionals who prescribe a large volume of narcotics, which may not be electronically prescribed in some states, or eligible professionals who practice in a State that prohibits or limits the transmission of electronic prescriptions via a third party network such as Surescripts), the eligible professional or group practice would be able to request consideration for an exemption from application of the 2012 eRx payment adjustment, which would be reviewed on a case-by-case<PRTPAGE P="31552"/>basis. We believe eligible professionals in this situation face a significant hardship with regard to the requirements for being successful electronic prescribers because while they may meet the 10-percent threshold for applicability of the payment adjustment, they may not have sufficient opportunities to meet the requirements for being a successful electronic prescriber because Federal, State, or local law or regulation may limit the number of opportunities that an eligible professional or group practice has to electronically prescribe (that is, having at least 100 denominator-eligible visits prior to June 30, 2011, but being unable to electronically prescribe for at least 10 of these denominator-eligible visits due to Federal, State, or local law or regulation).</P>
        <HD SOURCE="HD3">c. Limited Prescribing Activity</HD>
        <P>We are proposing at 42 CFR 414.92(c)(2)(ii)(E) that an eligible professional who has prescribing privileges but does not prescribe or very infrequently prescribes in his or her practice (for example, a nurse practitioner who may not write prescriptions under his or her own NPI, a physician who decides to let his Drug Enforcement Administration registration expire during the reporting period without renewing it, or an eligible professional who prescribed fewer than 10 prescriptions between January 1, 2011 and June 30, 2011 regardless of whether the prescriptions were electronically prescribed or not), yet still meets the 10-percent threshold for applicability of the payment adjustment, would be able to request consideration for a significant hardship exemption from application of the 2012 eRx payment adjustment, which would be reviewed on a case-by-case basis. We believe that it is a significant hardship for eligible professionals who have prescribing privileges, but infrequently prescribe, to become successful electronic prescribers because the nature of their practice may limit the number of opportunities an eligible professional or group practice to prescribe, much less electronically prescribe.</P>
        <HD SOURCE="HD3">d. Insufficient Opportunities To Report the Electronic Prescribing Measure Due to Limitations of the Measure's Denominator</HD>
        <P>To the extent an eligible professional or group practice has an eRx system, electronically prescribes, and has denominator-eligible visits, but does not normally write prescriptions associated with any of the types of visits included in the eRx measure's denominator (for example, certain types of physicians such as surgeons), we are proposing at 42 CFR 414.92(c)(2)(ii)(F) that the eligible professional or group practice would be able to request consideration for a significant hardship exemption from application of the 2012 eRx payment adjustment, which would be reviewed on a case-by-case basis. Similar to the proposed hardship category for lack of prescribing activity, we believe it would be a significant hardship for eligible professionals who do not have a sufficient opportunity to report the eRx measure because of the limitations of the eRx measure's denominator to meet the criteria for being a successful electronic prescriber. While such eligible professionals may meet the 10-percent threshold for applicability of the payment adjustment and have at least 100 denominator-eligible visits prior to June 30, 2011, they may not be able to report their eRx activity at least 10 times because the bulk of their prescribing activity occurs in other circumstances that are not accounted for by the measure's denominator.</P>
        <P>We invite public comments on the additional hardship exemption categories proposed in this proposed rule. In addition, we also invite input on other categories of significant hardship that were not specifically proposed so that we may consider them for purposes of the 2013 or 2014 eRx payment adjustment.</P>
        <P>To request a hardship exemption for any of the categories proposed and previously described, we are proposing that an eligible professional or group practice participating in the 2011 eRx GPRO provide to us by the date specified below, the following:</P>
        <P>• Identifying information such as the TIN, NPI, name, mailing address, and e-mail address of all affected eligible professionals.</P>
        <P>• The significant hardship exemption category(ies) above that apply.</P>
        <P>• A justification statement describing how compliance with the requirement for being a successful electronic prescriber for the 2012 eRx payment adjustment during the reporting period would result in a significant hardship to the eligible professional or group practice.</P>
        <P>• An attestation of the accuracy of the information provided.</P>
        <P>The justification statement should be specific to the category under which the eligible professional or group practice is submitting its request and must explain how the exemption applies to the professional or group practice. For example, if the eligible professional is requesting a significant hardship exemption due to Federal, State, or local law or regulation, he or she must cite the applicable law and how the law restricts the eligible professional's ability to electronically prescribe. Similarly, if the eligible professional is requesting a significant hardship due to lack of prescribing activity, the eligible professional must provide the number of prescriptions generated during the 2012 eRx payment adjustment reporting period. We would review the information submitted by each eligible professional and group practice on a case-by-case basis. In addition, we are proposing that an eligible professional or group practice must, upon request, provide additional supporting documentation if there is insufficient information (such as, but not limited to, a TIN or NPI that we cannot match to the Medicare claims, a certification number for the certified EHR technology that does not appear on the list of certified EHR technology, or an incomplete justification for the significant hardship exemption request) to justify the request or make the determination of whether a significant hardship exists.</P>
        <P>We also are proposing that eligible professionals or group practices would be able to submit significant hardship exemption requests using a Web-based tool or interface. However, our ability to receive the significant hardship requests in this manner would be dependent on the development of such a Web site being completed prior to the publication of the final rule. In the event that such a Web site is not available, an eligible professional or group practice would be required to send us an application for a hardship exemption with such information by mail. We are not proposing to allow an eligible professional or group practice to submit significant hardship exemption requests via e-mail or fax because additional security precautions would need to be put into place. In some cases, a TIN may consist of an eligible professional's social security number, which is considered to be personally identifiable information.</P>

        <P>We are proposing that the eligible professional or group practice must submit the hardship request by no later than October 1, 2011, which, if submitted by mail, means postmarked no later than October 1, 2011. We also propose to extend the deadline for submitting requests for consideration for the two significant hardship exemption categories (that is, eligible professional or group practice practices in rural areas with limited high speed Internet access and eligible professional or group<PRTPAGE P="31553"/>practice practices in an area with limited available pharmacies for eRx) for the 2012 eRx payment adjustment that were finalized in the CY 2011 PFS final rule (75 FR 73564 through 73565) to October 1, 2011. Since this rule is not expected to be finalized prior to the current deadline of June 30, 2011, for submitting the G-codes that were created for these two significant hardship exemption categories via claims (or, for group practices, at the time group practices self-nominate), we propose that the Web-based tool or interface, if available, would be used to submit all significant hardship exemption requests (including those for the current significant hardship exemption categories). Eligible professionals who wish to request a significant hardship exemption for one of the current significant hardship exemption categories via claims-based submission of a G-code would still have to do so prior to the current deadline of June 30, 2011. If the Web-based tool is not developed prior to the publication of the final rule, then we would default to mail submission of all significant hardship exemption requests (including those for the current hardship exemption categories).</P>
        <P>We are proposing October 1, 2011, because we seek to complete our review of the requests in time to instruct the carriers/MACs as to those eligible professionals or group practices that are not subject to the 2012 eRx payment adjustments based on the proposed additional significant hardship exemption categories. We would like to be able to process all such requests before we begin making the claims processing systems changes later this year to adjust eligible professionals' or group practices' payments starting on January 1, 2012. However, we anticipate that, in some cases, we may not be able to complete our review of the requests before the claims processing systems updates are made to begin reducing eligible professionals' and group practices' PFS amounts in 2012. In such cases, if we ultimately approve the eligible professional's or group practice's request for a significant hardship exemption, we would need to reprocess all claims for services furnished up to that point in 2012 that were paid at the reduced PFS amount. We also believe that this date allows sufficient time for eligible professionals (including those in group practices) that intend to use certified EHR technology and to qualify for the 2011 EHR Incentive Program in 2011 to have adopted the technology.</P>
        <P>While we considered providing eligible professionals and group practices with additional time to submit requests for a significant hardship exemption under the proposed additional categories, we believe that doing so might result in the need to reprocess claims for 2012 services for eligible professionals. We invite public comment on the proposed process for submitting these requests for significant hardship exemptions to us (including comments on the type of information we are proposing eligible professionals and group practices must submit, the proposed options for how the information could be submitted, and the proposed timeframes for submission). We also invite comment on our proposal to extend the timeframe for submitting hardship exemption requests for the two categories we finalized in the CY 2011 PFS final rule and the proposed process for submitting these requests under the extended timeframe.</P>
        <P>To the extent the final rule is not effective by October 1, 2011, then we propose that the eligible professional or group practice must submit the hardship request by no later than 5 business days after the effective date of the final rule. Eligible professionals and group practices may begin submitting significant hardship exemption requests at any time after the final rule is made available for public inspection by the Office of the Federal Register. In the event that the final rule is not made available for public inspection by the Office of the Federal Register by October 1, 2011, we seek comment on whether 5 business days after the effective date of the final rule would be an adequate amount of time for eligible professionals and group practices to submit a significant hardship exemption request.</P>
        <P>We also are proposing that once we have completed our review of the eligible professional's or group practice's request and made a decision, we will notify the eligible professional or group practice of our decision and all such decisions would be final. Eligible professionals and group practices would not have the opportunity to request reconsiderations of their requests for significant hardship exemption.</P>
        <HD SOURCE="HD1">III. Collection of Information Requirements</HD>

        <P>Under the Paperwork Reduction Act of 1995, we are required to provide 60-day notice in the<E T="04">Federal Register</E>and solicit public comment before a collection of information requirement is submitted to the Office of Management and Budget (OMB) for review and approval. In order to fairly evaluate whether an information collection should be approved by OMB, section 3506(c)(2)(A) of the Paperwork Reduction Act of 1995 requires that we solicit comment on the following issues:</P>
        <P>• The need for the information collection and its usefulness in carrying out the proper functions of our agency.</P>
        <P>• The accuracy of our estimate of the information collection burden.</P>
        <P>• The quality, utility, and clarity of the information to be collected.</P>
        <P>• Recommendations to minimize the information collection burden on the affected public, including automated collection techniques.</P>
        <P>We are soliciting public comment on each of these issues for the following sections of this document that contain information collection requirements (ICRs):</P>
        <HD SOURCE="HD2">A. ICRs Related to Proposed Changes to the 2011 Electronic Prescribing Measure</HD>
        <P>We do not believe there is any burden associated with the proposed changes to the 2011 eRx measure as the changes solely clarify whether we consider certified EHR technology to meet the technological requirements of the eRx measure and do not change the reporting requirements for purposes of reporting the eRx quality measure for the 2011 eRx incentive and 2013 eRx payment adjustment.</P>
        <HD SOURCE="HD2">B. ICRs Regarding Proposed Additional Significant Hardship Exemption Categories for the 2012 eRx Payment Adjustment</HD>
        <P>We believe that any burden associated with submitting the hardship exemption requests for the additional categories we are proposing would be minimal and would be limited to the time and effort associated with gathering the requested information and submitting the information to CMS in the specified form and manner. Whether the application can be submitted online or through other means, we do not anticipate it taking more than a 2 hours per eligible professional to review the hardship exemption codes available, determine which code(s) applies to their particular situation, gather the information needed for the justification, and then complete and submit the information to CMS.</P>

        <P>To provide an estimate of the burden associated with submitting a hardship exemption request, we need to determine the approximate number of physicians and eligible professionals that could be subject to the eRx payment adjustment in 2012 as well as the number of eligible professionals that could submit a hardship exemption request. Based on Medicare Part B claims data, it is estimated that approximately 209,000 eligible professionals could potentially be<PRTPAGE P="31554"/>subject to the 2012 payment adjustment unless they become a successful electronic prescriber (that is, report the electronic prescribing measure at least 10 times during the 6-month reporting period) or request a significant hardship exemption. Thus, the maximum total number of eligible professionals that could potentially need to request a significant hardship exemption is believed to be approximately 209,000. However based on participation numbers from previous eRx Incentive Program years, we predict that the number of eligible professionals impacted will in fact be lower. In 2009, 92,132 eligible professionals participated in the eRx program and preliminary data for 2010 indicates that 100,444 professionals have participated in the eRx Incentive Program. Based on this data, we have determined that it is more accurate to estimate that approximately 109,000 eligible professionals could potentially submit a significant hardship exemption request as over 100,000 eligible professionals are already participating in the program. While we do not have a precise estimate of how many of the eligible professionals that are not able to be successful electronic prescribers will request a significant hardship, we do know that since the proposed hardship exemption categories will not apply to all eligible professionals since they represent specific circumstances. Therefore, for purposes of this burden estimate, we will assume that, at a minimum, approximately 10 percent of the 109,000 eligible professionals that could potentially request a significant hardship exemption will do so. This brings our minimum estimated number of eligible professionals impacted to approximately 10,900. Based on our estimate that the time needed to collect and report the information requested will be 2 hours, we believe that the total burden associated with requesting a significant hardship exemption will range from approximately 21,800 hours (10,900 eligible professionals × 2 hours per eligible professional) to 418,000 hours (209,000 eligible professionals × 2 hours per eligible professional). Based on an average group practice labor cost of $58 per hour, we predict the annual burden cost to be between approximately $1,264,400 ($58 per hour × 21,800 hours) and $24,244,000 ($58 per hour × 418,000 hours). We welcome comments on the above estimates.</P>
        <P>If you comment on these information collection and recordkeeping requirements, please do either of the following:</P>
        <P>1. Submit your comments electronically as specified in the<E T="02">ADDRESSES</E>section of this proposed rule; or</P>

        <P>2. Submit your comments to the Office of Information and Regulatory Affairs, Office of Management and Budget,<E T="03">Attention:</E>CMS Desk Officer, CMS-3248-P.<E T="03">Fax:</E>(202) 395-7245; or<E T="03">E-mail: OIRA_submission@omb.eop.gov.</E>
        </P>
        <HD SOURCE="HD1">IV. Response to Comments</HD>

        <P>Because of the large number of public comments we normally receive on<E T="04">Federal Register</E>documents, we are not able to acknowledge or respond to them individually. We will consider all comments we receive by the date and time specified in the<E T="02">DATES</E>section of this preamble, and, when we proceed with a subsequent document, we will respond to the comments in the preamble to that document.</P>
        <HD SOURCE="HD1">V. Regulatory Impact Statement</HD>
        <P>This proposed rule includes changes to the eRx Incentive Program. The first proposed change involves modifying the eRx quality measure used for certain reporting periods in CY 2011 to address uncertainties related to the technological requirements of the Medicare eRx Incentive Program. The eRx measure would be revised to indicate whether an eligible professional has adopted a qualified electronic prescribing system or certified EHR technology as defined at 45 CFR 170.102. The second proposed change involves proposing additions to the significant hardship exemption categories for the 2012 eRx payment adjustment. The proposed additional exemption categories for the 2012 e Rx payment adjustment include—(1) Eligible professionals who register to participate in the Medicare or Medicaid EHR Incentive Program and Adopt Certified EHR Technology; (2) the inability to electronically prescribe due to local, State, or Federal law; (3) limited prescribing activity; and (4) insufficient opportunities to report the electronic prescribing measure due to limitations of the measure's denominator. Finally, this rule proposes an extension of the deadline for the 2012 eRx payment adjustment, thereby allowing eligible professionals and group practices to submit the existing two significant hardship codes established in the 2011 PFS final rule with comment period. These hardship exemption categories are: (1) The eligible professional practices in a rural area without sufficient high speed Internet access; and (2) the eligible professional practices in an area without sufficient available pharmacies for electronic prescribing.</P>
        <P>We have examined the impact of this rule as required by Executive Order 12866 on Regulatory Planning and Review (September 30, 1993), Executive Order 13563 on Improving Regulation and Regulatory Review (January18, 2011), the Regulatory Flexibility Act (RFA) (September 19, 1980, Pub. L. 96-354), section 1102(b) of the Social Security Act, section 202 of the Unfunded Mandates Reform Act of 1995 (March 22, 1995; Pub. L. 104-4), Executive Order 13132 on Federalism (August 4, 1999) and the Congressional Review Act (5 U.S.C. 804(2)).</P>
        <P>Executive Orders 12866 and 13563 direct agencies to assess all costs and benefits of available regulatory alternatives and, if regulation is necessary, to select regulatory approaches that maximize net benefits (including potential economic, environmental, public health and safety effects, distributive impacts, and equity). A regulatory impact analysis (RIA) must be prepared for major rules with economically significant effects ($100 million or more in any 1 year). We estimate that the impact of the proposed changes would be $30 million for fiscal year (FY) 2012, net of premium offset based on the FY 2012 President's budget baseline and $20 million for FY 2013. Therefore, this proposed rule does not reach the economic threshold and thus is not considered a major rule.</P>

        <P>The RFA requires agencies to analyze options for regulatory relief of small entities if a rule has a significant economic impact on a substantial number of small entities. For purposes of the RFA, small entities include small businesses, nonprofit organizations, and small governmental jurisdictions. Individuals and States are not included in the definition of a small entity. A majority of the physicians and other eligible professionals affected by this proposed rule are small entities either by being nonprofit organizations or by meeting the Small Business Administration size thresholds for a small healthcare business (having revenues of less than $7.0 million to $34.5 million in any 1 year). While we do not have precise estimates, we believe this proposed rule would affect a substantial number of small entities (that is, several thousand or more). We welcome detailed information on the number of physicians and other professionals who would be affected by these proposals (that is, the number of physicians and other professionals who currently believe they are not able to meet the requirements for the 2012 eRx payment adjustment on the grounds that it would pose a significant hardship and for whom one or more of the proposed<PRTPAGE P="31555"/>significant hardship exemption categories could apply).</P>
        <P>We interpret the requirement for preparation of an Initial Regulatory Flexibility Analysis as applying to proposed rules that impose significant economic burden. The Office of the Chief Council for Advocacy within the Small Business Administration believes that the requirement applies whether the economic impact is positive or negative. Regardless, we normally prepare a voluntary analysis when proposed rules would have a significant positive impact. In this case, the proposed change to the eRx measure under the eRx Incentive Program for purpose of reporting for the 2011 eRx incentive and the 2013 eRx payment adjustment and the proposed additional significant hardship exemption categories, if applicable, for purposes of the 2012 eRx payment adjustment would reduce burden for eligible professionals. The proposed modification to the eRx measure would eliminate any uncertainty as to whether eligible professionals who are participating in both the eRx Incentive Program and the EHR Incentive Program can use the certified EHR technology that they adopted for the EHR Incentive Program to electronically prescribe under the eRx Incentive Program. Therefore, there would no longer be any ambiguity as to whether eligible professionals can use the same technology for both programs and less time and effort spent by eligible professionals to determine whether the certified EHR technology they have adopted for purposes of the EHR Incentive Program could be used to meet the eRx quality measure under the eRx Incentive Program. It is difficult to estimate the precise economic impacts of these changes on the affected entities.</P>
        <P>We believe that the proposed additional significant hardship exemption categories for the 2012 eRx payment adjustment would reduce the number of eligible professionals that would otherwise be subject to a 1.0 percent adjustment in the PFS amount for covered professional services furnished in 2012. Also, the proposed changes would continue to encourage adoption of electronic prescribing in the interest of improving the medication prescription process while acknowledging circumstances that may prevent physicians and other professionals from successfully participating in the eRx Incentive Program. Based on 2010 Medicare Part B claims data, we believe approximately 209,000 eligible professionals would need to either be a successful electronic prescriber or request a hardship exemption to avoid the 2012 payment adjustment. However, we are unable to provide a precise estimate as to the number of eligible professionals, out of the total 209,000, that would potentially request a significant hardship exemption for one of the proposed hardship exemption categories. While we are aware, from public comments received in response to the 2011 PFS proposed and final rules with comment period, correspondence, inquiries received by our help desk, and comments made by eligible professionals on our national provider calls, open door forums, and a February 9, 2011 Town Hall Meeting, that there are eligible professionals who have expressed their inability to meet the successful electronic prescriber requirements for the 2012 eRx payment adjustment for one or more of the circumstances addressed by the proposed additional significant hardship exemption categories, we are not able to quantify in detail how many eligible professionals these proposed additional significant hardship exemptions could apply to since each eligible professional's individual circumstances are unique. We believe that any cost associated with requesting the significant hardship exemptions would be minimal since it would be limited to the time and effort associated with submitting a significant hardship exemption from the 2012 eRx payment adjustment either via the proposed Web tool or by mail. We believe that any cost associated with requesting a significant hardship exemption would, if applicable to the eligible professional, be offset by the eligible professional avoiding the payment adjustment in 2012.</P>
        <P>Overall, we estimate that the impact of the proposed changes would be $30 million for FY 2012, net of premium offset based on the FY 2012 President's budget baseline and $20 million for FY 2013. We also welcome comments and information on the likely magnitudes of savings, and the likely numbers of affected physicians and other professionals who would achieve savings of various sizes, under the specific alternatives we propose. We note that each of the regulatory relief options discussed previously in this preamble constitutes a distinct alternative that we have considered. We welcome comments on whether there are any additional alternatives that are both reasonable and achievable under the time constraints imposed by the existing rule.</P>
        <P>In addition, section 1102(b) of the Act requires us to prepare a regulatory impact analysis if a rule may have a significant impact on the operations of a substantial number of small rural hospitals. This analysis must conform to the provisions of section 603 of the RFA. For purposes of section 1102(b) of the Act, we define a small rural hospital as a hospital that is located outside of a Metropolitan Statistical Area for Medicare payment regulations and has fewer than 100 beds. We are not preparing an analysis for section 1102(b) of the Act because we have determined, and the Secretary certifies, that this proposed rule would not have a significant impact on the operations of a substantial number of small rural hospitals. The eRx Incentive Program does not apply to small rural hospitals.</P>
        <P>Section 202 of the Unfunded Mandates Reform Act of 1995 also requires that agencies assess anticipated costs and benefits before issuing any rule whose mandates require spending in any 1 year of $100 million in 1995 dollars, updated annually for inflation. In 2011, that threshold is approximately $136 million. This rule would have no consequential effect on State, local, or Tribal governments or on the private sector.</P>
        <P>Executive Order 13132 establishes certain requirements that an agency must meet when it promulgates a proposed rule (and subsequent final rule) that imposes substantial direct requirement costs on State and local governments, preempts State law, or otherwise has Federalism implications. Since this regulation does not impose any costs on State or local governments, the requirements of Executive Order 13132 are not applicable.</P>
        <P>In accordance with the provisions of Executive Order 12866, this regulation was reviewed by the Office of Management and Budget.</P>
        <LSTSUB>
          <HD SOURCE="HED">List of Subjects in 42 CFR Part 414</HD>
          <P>Administrative practice and procedure, Health facilities, Health professions, Kidney diseases, Medicare, Reporting and recordkeeping.</P>
        </LSTSUB>
        
        <P>For the reasons set forth in the preamble of this proposed rule, the Centers for Medicare &amp; Medicaid Services proposes to amend 42 CFR part 414 as set forth below:</P>
        <PART>
          <HD SOURCE="HED">PART 414—PAYMENT FOR PART B MEDICAL AND OTHER HEALTH SERVICES</HD>
          <P>1. The authority citation for part 414 continues to read as follows:</P>
          <AUTH>
            <HD SOURCE="HED">Authority:</HD>
            <P>Secs. 1102, 1871, and 1881(b)(l) of the Social Security Act (42 U.S.C. 1302, 1395hh, and 1395rr(b)(l)).</P>
          </AUTH>
          <SUBPART>
            <PRTPAGE P="31556"/>
            <HD SOURCE="HED">Subpart B—Physicians and Other Practitioners</HD>
          </SUBPART>
          <P>2. Section 414.92 is amended by revising paragraph (c)(2)(ii) to read as follows:</P>
          <SECTION>
            <SECTNO>§ 414.92</SECTNO>
            <SUBJECT>Electronic Prescribing Incentive Program.</SUBJECT>
            <STARS/>
            <P>(c) * * *</P>
            <P>(2) * * *</P>
            <P>(ii)<E T="03">Significant hardship exception.</E>CMS may, on a case-by-case basis, exempt an eligible professional (or in the case of a group practice under paragraph (e) of this section, a group practice) from the application of the payment adjustment under paragraph (c)(2) of this section if, CMS determines, subject to annual renewal, that compliance with the requirement for being a successful electronic prescriber would result in a significant hardship. Eligible professionals (or, in the case of a group practice under paragraph (e) of this section, a group practice) may request consideration for a significant hardship exemption from the 2012 eRx payment adjustment if one of the following circumstances apply:</P>
            <P>(A) The practice is located in a rural area without high speed Internet access.</P>
            <P>(B) The practice is located in an area without sufficient available pharmacies for electronic prescribing.</P>
            <P>(C) Registration to participate in the Medicare or Medicaid EHR Incentive Program and adoption of certified EHR technology.</P>
            <P>(D) Inability to electronically prescribe due to local, State or Federal law or regulation.</P>
            <P>(E) Limited prescribing activity.</P>
            <P>(F) Insufficient opportunities to report the electronic prescribing measure due to limitation's of the measure's denominator.</P>
            <STARS/>
            <EXTRACT>
              <FP>(Catalog of Federal Domestic Assistance Program No. 93.773, Medicare—Hospital Insurance; and Program No. 93.774, Medicare—Supplementary Medical Insurance Program)</FP>
            </EXTRACT>
          </SECTION>
          <SIG>
            <DATED>Dated: April 28, 2011.</DATED>
            <NAME>Donald M. Berwick,</NAME>
            <TITLE>Administrator, Centers for Medicare &amp; Medicaid Services.</TITLE>
            <DATED>Approved: May 4, 2011.</DATED>
            <NAME>Kathleen Sebelius,</NAME>
            <TITLE>Secretary, Department of Health and Human Services.</TITLE>
          </SIG>
        </PART>
      </SUPLINF>
      <FRDOC>[FR Doc. 2011-13463 Filed 5-26-11; 11:15 am]</FRDOC>
      <BILCOD>BILLING CODE 4120-01-P</BILCOD>
    </PRORULE>
    <PRORULE>
      <PREAMB>
        <AGENCY TYPE="N">DEPARTMENT OF COMMERCE</AGENCY>
        <SUBAGY>National Oceanic and Atmospheric Administration</SUBAGY>
        <CFR>50 CFR Parts 223 and 224</CFR>
        <DEPDOC>[Docket No. 100903415-1286-02]</DEPDOC>
        <RIN>RIN 0648-XW96</RIN>
        <SUBJECT>Endangered and Threatened Wildlife and Plants; Endangered Species Act Listing Determination for Atlantic Bluefin Tuna</SUBJECT>
        <AGY>
          <HD SOURCE="HED">AGENCY:</HD>
          <P>National Marine Fisheries Service (NMFS), National Oceanic and Atmospheric Administration (NOAA), Commerce.</P>
        </AGY>
        <ACT>
          <HD SOURCE="HED">ACTION:</HD>
          <P>Notice of a listing determination and availability of a status review document.</P>
        </ACT>
        <SUM>
          <HD SOURCE="HED">SUMMARY:</HD>

          <P>After we, NMFS, received a petition to list Atlantic bluefin tuna (<E T="03">Thunnus thynnus</E>) as threatened or endangered under the Endangered Species Act (ESA), we established a status review team (SRT) to conduct a review of the status of Atlantic bluefin tuna. We have reviewed the SRT's status review report (SRR) and other available scientific and commercial information and have determined that listing Atlantic bluefin tuna as threatened or endangered under the ESA is not warranted at this time. We also announce the availability of the SRR.</P>
        </SUM>
        <DATES>
          <HD SOURCE="HED">DATES:</HD>
          <P>This finding is made as of May 27, 2011.</P>
        </DATES>
        <ADD>
          <HD SOURCE="HED">ADDRESSES:</HD>

          <P>The Atlantic bluefin tuna status review report and list of references are available by submitting a request to the Assistant Regional Administrator, Protected Resources Division, Northeast Region, NMFS, 55 Great Republic Way, Gloucester, MA 01930. The status review report and other reference materials regarding this determination can also be obtained via the Internet at:<E T="03">http://www.nero.noaa.gov/prot_res/CandidateSpeciesProgram/cs.htm.</E>
          </P>
        </ADD>
        <FURINF>
          <HD SOURCE="HED">FOR FURTHER INFORMATION CONTACT:</HD>
          <P>Kim Damon-Randall, NMFS Northeast Regional Office, (978) 282-8485; or Marta Nammack, NMFS, Office of Protected Resources (301) 713-1401.</P>
        </FURINF>
      </PREAMB>
      <SUPLINF>
        <HD SOURCE="HED">SUPPLEMENTARY INFORMATION:</HD>
        <P/>
        <HD SOURCE="HD1">Background</HD>

        <P>On May 24, 2010, the National Marine Fisheries Service (NMFS) received a petition from the Center for Biological Diversity (CBD) (hereafter referred to as the Petitioner), requesting that we list the entire species of Atlantic bluefin tuna (<E T="03">Thunnus thynnus</E>) or in the alternative, an Atlantic bluefin tuna distinct population segment (DPS) consisting of one or more subpopulations in United States waters, as endangered or threatened under the ESA, and designate critical habitat for the species. The petition contains information on the species, including the taxonomy; historical and current distribution; physical and biological characteristics of its habitat and ecosystem relationships; population status and trends; and factors contributing to the species' decline. The Petitioners also included information regarding possible DPSs of Atlantic bluefin tuna. The petition addresses the five factors identified in section 4(a)(1) of the ESA as they pertain to Atlantic bluefin tuna: (A) Current or threatened habitat destruction or modification or curtailment of habitat or range; (B) overutilization for commercial purposes; (C) disease or predation; (D) inadequacy of existing regulatory mechanisms; and (E) other natural or man-made factors affecting the species' continued existence.</P>

        <P>On September 21, 2010, we determined that the petition presented substantial information indicating that the petitioned action may be warranted and published a positive 90-day finding in the<E T="04">Federal Register</E>(FR) (75 FR 57431). Following our positive 90-day finding, we convened an Atlantic bluefin tuna status review team (SRT) to review the status of the species.</P>
        <P>In order to conduct a comprehensive review, we asked the SRT to assess the species' status and degree of threat to the species with regard to the factors provided in Section 4(a)(1) of the ESA without making a recommendation regarding listing. The SRT was provided a copy of the petition and all information submitted in response to the data request in the FR notice announcing the 90-day finding. In order to provide the SRT with all available information, we invited several Atlantic bluefin tuna experts to present information on the life history, genetics, and habitat used by Atlantic bluefin tuna to the SRT.</P>

        <P>We also hosted five listening sessions with Atlantic bluefin tuna fishermen. These sessions were held in Maine, Massachusetts, New Jersey, North Carolina, and Mississippi. Those with information relevant to the discussion topics for the sessions were also encouraged to submit information via mail or electronic mail. The SRT reviewed all this information during its consideration and analysis of potential threats to the species. The SRR is a summary of the information assembled by the SRT and incorporates the best scientific and commercial data available<PRTPAGE P="31557"/>(<E T="03">e.g.,</E>fisheries data that are available to assist in assessing the status of the species). In addition, the SRT summarized current conservation and research efforts that may yield protection, and drew scientific conclusions about the status of Atlantic bluefin tuna throughout its range.</P>
        <P>The SRT completed a draft SRR in March 2011. As part of the full evaluation of the status of Atlantic bluefin tuna under the ESA, we requested that the Center for Independent Experts (CIE) select three independent experts to peer review the SRR. The reviewers were asked to provide written summaries of their comments to ensure that the content of the SRR is factually supported and based on the best available data, and the methodology and conclusions are scientifically valid. Prior to finalizing the SRR, the SRT considered and incorporated, as appropriate, the peer reviewers' comments. The final SRR was submitted to us on May 20, 2011.</P>
        <HD SOURCE="HD1">Range</HD>

        <P>Atlantic bluefin tuna are highly migratory pelagic fish that range across most of the North Atlantic and its adjacent seas, particularly the Mediterranean Sea. They are the only large pelagic fish living permanently in temperate Atlantic waters (Bard<E T="03">et al.,</E>1998, as cited in Fromentin and Fonteneau, 2001). In the Atlantic Ocean and adjacent seas, they can range from Newfoundland south to Brazil in the western Atlantic, and in the eastern Atlantic from Norway south to western Africa (Wilson<E T="03">et al.,</E>2005).</P>
        <HD SOURCE="HD1">Habitat and Migration</HD>

        <P>Atlantic bluefin tuna are epipelagic and typically oceanic; however, they do come close to shore seasonally (Collette and Nauen, 1983). They often occur over the continental shelf and in embayments, especially during the summer months when they feed actively on herring, mackerel, and squids in the North Atlantic. Larger individuals move into higher latitudes than smaller fish. Surface temperatures where large Atlantic bluefin tuna have been found offshore in the northwest Atlantic range between 6.4 and 28.8 °C, whereas smaller Atlantic bluefin tuna are generally found in warmer surface water ranging from 15 to 17 °C (Collette and Klein-MacPhee, 2002). In general, Atlantic bluefin tuna occupy surface waters around 24 °C in the Western Atlantic (Block<E T="03">et al.,</E>2005; Teo<E T="03">et al.,</E>2007) and in the Eastern Atlantic/Mediterranean, generally around 20.5 to 21.5 °C (Royer<E T="03">et al.,</E>2004) and above 24 °C for spawning (Mather<E T="03">et al.,</E>1995; Schaefer, 2001; Garcia<E T="03">et al.,</E>2005).</P>

        <P>Archival tagging and tracking information have confirmed that Atlantic bluefin tuna are endothermic (<E T="03">i.e.,</E>able to endure cold as well as warm temperatures while maintaining a stable internal body temperature). It was once thought that Atlantic bluefin tuna preferentially occupy surface and subsurface waters of the coastal and open-sea areas; however, data from archival tagging and ultrasonic telemetry indicate that they frequently dive to depths of 500 m to 1,000 m (Lutcavage<E T="03">et al.,</E>2000). While they do dive frequently to deeper depths, they generally spend most of their time in waters less than 500 m, and often much shallower.</P>
        <P>As stated previously, Atlantic bluefin tuna are highly migratory; however, they do display homing behavior and spawning site fidelity in both the Gulf of Mexico and the Mediterranean Sea, and these two areas constitute the two primary spawning areas identified to date. Larvae have, however, been documented outside of the Gulf of Mexico in the western Atlantic, and the possibility of additional spawning areas cannot be discounted (McGowan and Richards, 1989).</P>

        <P>It appears that larvae are generally retained in the Gulf of Mexico until June, and schools of young-of-the-year (YOY) begin migrating to juvenile habitats (McGowan and Richards, 1989) thought to be located over the continental shelf around 34°N and 41°W in the summer, and further offshore in the winter. They have also been identified from the Dry Tortugas area in June and July (McGowan and Richards, 1989; ICCAT, 1997). Juveniles migrate to nursery areas located between Cape Hatteras, North Carolina and Cape Cod, Massachusetts (Mather<E T="03">et al.,</E>1995).</P>

        <P>Atlantic bluefin tuna have not been observed spawning (Richards, 1991); however, recent work has identified putative breeding behaviors by Atlantic bluefin tuna while in the Gulf of Mexico (Teo<E T="03">et al.,</E>2007). Presumed Atlantic bluefin tuna breeding behaviors were associated with bathymetry (continental slope waters), sea surface temperature (moderate), eddy kinetic energy (moderate), surface chlorophyll (low concentrations), and surface wind speed (moderate) (Teo<E T="03">et al.,</E>2007).</P>
        <HD SOURCE="HD2">Western Atlantic</HD>
        <P>Essential fish habitat (EFH) is defined under the Magnuson-Stevens Act as waters, aquatic areas and their associated physical, chemical, and biological properties that are used by fish and may include aquatic areas historically used by fish where appropriate; and the substrate, sediment, hard bottom, structures underlying the waters, and associated biological communities that are necessary to fish for spawning, breeding, feeding, or growth to maturity, representing the species full life cycle.</P>
        <P>For western Atlantic bluefin tuna, EFH was defined in the Final Amendment 1 to the Consolidated Highly Migratory Species Fishery Management Plan (NMFS Amendment 1, 2009). Atlantic bluefin tuna EFH for spawning, eggs, and larvae was defined as following the 100 m depth contour in the Gulf of Mexico to the Exclusive Economic Zone (EEZ), and continuing to the mid-east coast of Florida. For juveniles sized less than 231 cm fork length (FL), EFH was defined as waters off North Carolina, south of Cape Hatteras to Cape Cod. For adult sizes equal to or greater than 231 cm FL, it was defined as pelagic waters of the central Gulf of Mexico and the mid-east coast of Florida, North Carolina from Cape Lookout to Cape Hatteras, and New England from Connecticut to the mid-coast of Maine.</P>
        <P>It is believed that there are certain features of the Atlantic bluefin tuna larval habitat in the Gulf of Mexico which determine growth and survival rates and that these features show variability from year to year, perhaps accounting for a significant portion of the fluctuation in yearly recruitment success (McGowan and Richards, 1989). The habitat requirements for larval success are not known, but larvae are collected within narrow ranges of temperature and salinity; approximately 26 °C and salinities of 36 parts per thousand (ppt). Along the coast of the southeastern United States, onshore meanders of the Gulf Stream can produce upwelling of nutrient rich water along the shelf edge. In addition, compression of the isotherms on the edge of the Gulf Stream can form a stable region which, together with upwelling nutrients, provides an area favorable to maximum growth and retention of food for the larvae (McGowan and Richards, 1989).</P>

        <P>Additionally, NMFS Amendment 1 designated a Habitat Area of Particular Concern (HAPC) for bluefin tuna. The bluefin tuna HAPC is located west of 86 ° W and seaward of the 100 m isobath, extending from the 100 m isobath to the EEZ. The area includes a majority of the locations where Atlantic bluefin tuna larval collections have been documented, overlaps with adult and larval Atlantic bluefin tuna EFH, and incorporates portions of an area identified as a primary spawning<PRTPAGE P="31558"/>location by Teo<E T="03">et al.</E>(2007). The Gulf of Mexico is believed to be the primary spawning area for western Atlantic bluefin tuna, and the HAPC designation highlights the importance of the area for Atlantic bluefin tuna spawning. It may also provide added conservation benefits if steps are taken to reduce impacts from development activities through the consultation process.</P>
        <HD SOURCE="HD2">Eastern Atlantic</HD>
        <P>The best known spawning areas for the eastern Atlantic bluefin tuna are southwest of the Balearic Sea, the central and southern Tyrrhenian Sea, the central Mediterranean Sea southwest of Malta, and the eastern Mediterranean Sea in the south Aegean to the area north of Cyprus, particularly the area between Anamur and Mersin in the Levantine Sea. Important spatial changes in some of the most relevant spawning areas have been noticed in the last 10 years, particularly in the south Tyrrhenian and central Mediterranean. Most of the available information reports a major presence of bluefin tuna along the coasts of Croatia, south Adriatic Sea, western Ionian Sea, Tyrrhenian Sea, all the northwestern Mediterranean coast, in some areas of Morocco and Tunisia, in a few Aegean areas, and in the Levantine Sea (between Anamur and Mersin).</P>
        <P>Areas where juveniles concentrate have been noticed to change from year to year. Juveniles are mostly present in feeding aggregations or schools during fall, from September to December. Mature specimens have been reported from most of the Mediterranean areas, with the only exceptions being the Gulf of Lions and the northern Adriatic Sea. Larvae have also been found in most of the Mediterranean surface waters, with a major concentration in areas where gyres and fronts are present, particularly in the second part of summer.</P>

        <P>Young-of-the-year (YOY) Atlantic bluefin tuna have been found mostly in coastal areas over the continental shelf, whenever preferred prey is present. Tagging data showed that Atlantic bluefin tuna movement within the Mediterranean Sea is often limited, particularly for individuals tagged in the eastern regions of the basin. Movements of Atlantic bluefin tuna tagged in the central and western Mediterranean Sea were more pronounced than those tagged in the eastern portion. Seasonal prey abundance drives the concentration of both young and adult specimens in those Mediterranean Sea areas not used for reproduction (<E T="03">e.g.</E>Ligurian Sea, north-central Adriatic Sea). Many larger individuals (&gt; 150 kg) move out of the Mediterranean, and their movement patterns and displacement distance seem to be related to size and the exploitation of feeding grounds outside the Mediterranean Sea (Wurtz, 2010), while some are resident year round.</P>
        <HD SOURCE="HD1">Consideration as a Species Under the ESA</HD>
        <P>According to Section 3 of the ESA, the term “species” includes “any subspecies of fish or wildlife or plants, and any distinct population segment of any species of vertebrate fish or wildlife that interbreeds when mature.” Congress included the term “distinct population segment” in the 1978 amendments to the ESA. On February 7, 1996, the U.S. Fish and Wildlife Service and NMFS (jointly referred to as the Services) adopted a policy to clarify their interpretation of the phrase “distinct population segment” for the purpose of listing, delisting, and reclassifying species (61 FR 4721). The policy described two criteria a population segment must meet in order to be considered a DPS (61 FR 4721):</P>
        <P>1. It must be discrete in relation to the remainder of the species to which it belongs; and</P>
        <P>2. It must be significant to the species to which it belongs.</P>
        <P>Determining if a population is discrete requires either one of the following conditions:</P>
        <P>1. It is markedly separated from other populations of the same taxon as a consequence of physical, physiological, ecological, or behavioral factors. Quantitative measures of genetic or morphological discontinuity may provide evidence of this separation; or</P>
        <P>2. It is delimited by international governmental boundaries within which differences in control of exploitation, management of habitat, conservation status, or regulatory mechanisms exist that are significant in light of section 4(a)(1)(D) of the ESA.</P>
        <P>If a population is deemed discrete, then the population segment is evaluated in terms of significance, which may include, but is not limited to, the following:</P>
        <P>1. Persistence of the discrete population segment in an ecological setting unusual or unique for the taxon.</P>
        <P>2. Evidence that loss of the discrete population segment would result in a significant gap in the range of the taxon.</P>
        <P>3. Evidence that the discrete population segment represents the only surviving natural occurrence of a taxon that may be more abundant elsewhere as an introduced population outside its historic range; or</P>
        <P>4. Evidence that the discrete population segment differs markedly from other populations of the species in its genetic characteristics.</P>
        <P>If a population segment is deemed discrete and significant, then it qualifies as a DPS.</P>
        <HD SOURCE="HD2">Discreteness</HD>
        <P>Rooker<E T="03">et al.</E>(2008) analyzed the chemical composition of otoliths (<E T="03">e.g.,</E>fish ear bones) from Atlantic bluefin tuna that were 12 to 18 months of age and that were caught between 1999 and 2004 in both the eastern (Mediterranean Sea/eastern Atlantic Ocean) and western (Gulf of Mexico/eastern coast of the United States) nurseries. These authors found that otolith composition was distinct between yearlings from the two different nursery areas, and that the chemical signature was significantly different for yearlings from the eastern nursery in five of the years (all except 2001) (Rooker<E T="03">et al.,</E>2008).</P>
        <P>Dickhut<E T="03">et al.</E>(2009) used organochlorine and polychlorinated biphenyl (PCB) tracers from Atlantic bluefin tuna foraging grounds to determine the rate of mixing of different size classes between the eastern and western stocks. Their results indicated that mixing of juvenile Atlantic bluefin tuna from the eastern to the western foraging grounds could be as high as 80 percent for certain age classes and that juveniles from the Mediterranean Sea may migrate to western Atlantic foraging grounds as early as age 1 (Dickhut<E T="03">et al.,</E>2009). However, this study also indicated that medium to giant sized Atlantic bluefin tuna entering the Gulf of Mexico breeding grounds showed PCB ratios similar to that of the western Atlantic young-of-the-year (YOY), which suggests little or no mixing on the spawning grounds in the Gulf of Mexico, as these fish have been foraging in the western Atlantic rather than foraging grounds used by Mediterranean bluefin tuna (Dickhut<E T="03">et al.,</E>2009).</P>
        <P>Carlsson<E T="03">et al.</E>(2006) conducted analyses of 320 YOY Atlantic bluefin tuna to evaluate the hypothesis that 2 separate spawning grounds exist for the western and eastern stocks—Gulf of Mexico and Mediterranean Sea, respectively. In this study, Carlsson<E T="03">et al.</E>(2006) conducted a microsatellite analysis of 8 loci and examined the mitochondrial DNA control region and found significant genetic differentiation among YOY fish captured in the Gulf of Mexico spawning grounds versus those captured in the Mediterranean spawning area. Their results support a high degree of spawning site fidelity, and thus, they noted that the recognition of genetically distinct populations requires independent<PRTPAGE P="31559"/>management of the stocks of this species (Carlsson<E T="03">et al.,</E>2006).</P>
        <P>Riccioni<E T="03">et al.</E>(2010) indicated that genetic analyses and microchemical signatures from otoliths strongly support the existence of two distinct primary spawning areas for Atlantic bluefin tuna (the Mediterranean and Gulf of Mexico). These authors noted that significant genetic divergence was found between these two spawning stocks using microsatellite (Carlsson<E T="03">et al.,</E>2007) and mitochondrial DNA analyses (Boustany<E T="03">et al.,</E>2008), and they also indicated that there are high rates of spawning site fidelity of 95.8 percent and 99.3 percent for the Mediterranean Sea and Gulf of Mexico, respectively (Rooker<E T="03">et al.,</E>2008; Block<E T="03">et al.,</E>2005).</P>

        <P>The best available information indicates that fish from the Mediterranean stock, while making some trans-Atlantic migrations, return to the Mediterranean to spawn while fish from the Gulf of Mexico stock return to the Gulf of Mexico to spawn. This separation between the stocks is supported by the aforementioned genetic analyses which indicate significant genetic differentiation between the two stocks as described above. In addition, the results of the otolith microchemistry analyses indicate that natal homing or spawning site fidelity does occur, and the study by Dickhut<E T="03">et al.</E>(2009) using organochlorine and PCB tracers also indicate that there is little to no mixing on the spawning grounds. Furthermore, according to Rooker<E T="03">et al.</E>(2008), the rates of spawning site fidelity are 95.8 percent and 99.3 percent for the Mediterranean Sea and Gulf of Mexico, respectively. Thus, the two populations in the North Atlantic are discrete.</P>

        <P>The available data further suggest that the eastern Atlantic stock exhibits genetic differentiation, spatial separation during spawning as a result of spawning site fidelity/natal homing, and differences in behavior (<E T="03">e.g.,</E>some resident fish in the eastern Mediterranean versus non-resident/migratory fish in the western Mediterranean) with different spawning areas in the western and eastern Mediterranean. According to Reeb (2010), the eastern and western basins of the Mediterranean exhibit differences in temperature, circulation patterns, and salinity, and the basins are considered oceanographically to be separated by the straits of Sicily and Messina. Thus, even though Atlantic bluefin tuna are highly migratory, the areas that they home to in order to spawn may possess unique characteristics. All of this evidence combined with the recent evidence suggesting a separate spawning area in the eastern Mediterranean and genetic analyses which demonstrate significant genetic differences between western and eastern Mediterranean fish and between the Mediterranean and Gulf of Mexico spawning areas led Fromentin (2009) to hypothesize that Atlantic bluefin tuna are comprised of at least three sub-populations: (1) A highly migratory stock over all of the North Atlantic that spawns in western and central Mediterranean areas; (2) a more resident stock in the Mediterranean which spawns in the central and eastern Mediterranean; and (3) a more resident stock in the West Atlantic which spawns in the Gulf of Mexico. As such, two discrete populations may exist within the larger eastern Mediterranean population. While there is some evidence which indicates that there may be other, discrete spawning areas outside of the Gulf of Mexico, the locations of these areas have not been confirmed or fully described at this time.</P>
        <P>Using the best available information, the SRT concluded that the western Atlantic and the eastern Atlantic populations are discrete from each other. Within the eastern Atlantic, the available information suggests that there may be two discrete populations of Atlantic bluefin tuna; however, the data are inconclusive regarding the Mediterranean at this time.</P>
        <HD SOURCE="HD2">Significance</HD>
        <P>If a population is deemed discrete, then the population segment is evaluated in terms of significance. The western Atlantic population has been determined to be a discrete population from the two possible Mediterranean populations as described above. Consequently, it is necessary to assess the biological and ecological significance of each discrete population as described in the Services' DPS policy.</P>

        <P>Several studies have documented that Atlantic bluefin tuna in the Mediterranean appear to prefer sea surface temperatures above 24 °C for spawning (Mather<E T="03">et al.,</E>1995; Schaefer, 2001; Garcia<E T="03">et al.,</E>2005), and in the Gulf of Mexico, Teo<E T="03">et al.</E>(2007) noted that they prefer areas with surface temperatures between 24 and 27 °C. Since adult Atlantic bluefin tuna are present in the Gulf of Mexico as early as winter but are not usually in spawning condition until mid-April (Block<E T="03">et al.,</E>2001), an environmental cue such as temperature or photoperiod may trigger spawning (Muhling<E T="03">et al.,</E>2010).</P>
        <P>Muhling<E T="03">et al.</E>(2010) also indicated that Atlantic bluefin tuna larvae are generally absent from continental shelf areas with low surface temperatures and salinities at the beginning of the spawning period. They theorized that Atlantic bluefin tuna may avoid spawning in these areas as they are typically high in chlorophyll concentrations and, therefore, contain dense phytoplankton blooms which support high concentrations of zooplankton. While the high concentrations of zooplankton provide a source of larval prey, they attract other planktonic predators (Bakun, 2006). According to Muhling<E T="03">et al.</E>(2010), larval tuna have specialized diets, often feeding on pelagic tunicates found in oligotrophic open ocean areas (Sommer and Stibor, 2002, as cited in Muhling<E T="03">et al.,</E>2010). Thus, these authors concluded that larval tuna in the Gulf of Mexico may be adapted to survive in nutrient poor waters. Muhling<E T="03">et al.</E>(2010) concluded that favorable habitat for Atlantic bluefin tuna larvae in the Gulf of Mexico consists of areas of moderately warm water temperatures outside of the loop current, loop current eddies, and outside of continental shelf waters that contain cooler water with higher chlorophyll concentrations (Muhling<E T="03">et al.,</E>2010).</P>
        <P>Oray and Karakulak (2005) described the spawning area surveyed in the northern Levantine Sea as containing waters with sea surface temperatures between 21.8 to 29.3 °C, salinity from 34.9 to 38.8 ppt, and depths between 63 to 2,448 m. Oray and Karakulak (2005) indicate that larval Atlantic bluefin tuna were found in areas with physical oceanographic features such as cyclonic eddies, which may indicate that the main larval populations are within these cyclonic eddies and that the tuna spawning site is within close proximity to the area in which the larvae were observed. According to Oray and Karakulak (2005), the optimal seawater temperatures in the Atlantic bluefin tuna spawning area in the northern Levantine Sea are between 23 to 25 °C, which generally occur early in June, whereas optimum temperatures for spawning in the western Mediterranean generally occur later, toward the end of June.</P>
        <P>Garcia<E T="03">et al.</E>(2005) characterized the Atlantic bluefin tuna spawning habitat off the Balearic Archipelago. These authors noted that Atlantic bluefin tuna larval abundance is associated with surface water temperatures between 24 and 25 °C in areas of inflowing Atlantic waters or transitional areas with Atlantic waters mixing with Mediterranean waters and that generally possess hydrographic features such as fronts and gyres (Garcia<E T="03">et al.,</E>2005).<PRTPAGE P="31560"/>According to Garcia<E T="03">et al.</E>(2005), significant concentrations of Atlantic bluefin tuna larvae were found off the Mallorca channel in an area with frontal formations and south of Minorca where an anticyclonic gyre was observed. Garcia<E T="03">et al.</E>(2005) note that these frontal structures and gyres may play an important role in providing concentrated prey resources for larval fish, which may in turn constitute an important part of the diet of larval Atlantic bluefin tuna. Low and isolated larval concentrations were observed in Mediterranean water masses north of the islands (Garcia<E T="03">et al.,</E>2005). The strong eastward current that flows from Ibiza towards Minorca may act as a transport mechanism for larvae (Garcia<E T="03">et al.,</E>2005). The area near Mallorca and the Ibiza channels is generally characterized by low concentrations of chlorophyll<E T="03">a,</E>which is primarily due to the major influence of the nutrient poor water masses originating from the Atlantic (Garcia<E T="03">et al.,</E>2005).</P>

        <P>While spawning areas for Atlantic bluefin tuna may at times be stressful environments, Atlantic bluefin tuna migrate long distances to reach the particular areas in which they spawn (Block<E T="03">et al.,</E>2001), and homing fidelity to these sites is high. Muhling<E T="03">et al.</E>(2010) concluded that adults are targeting specific areas and oceanographic features in order to maximize larval survival. Consequently, the spawning areas in the Gulf of Mexico and Mediterranean are unique ecologically and possess the features (<E T="03">e.g.,</E>appropriate water conditions such as temperatures, depths, salinities, and chlorophyll concentrations, hydrography) that are necessary for maximizing bluefin tuna spawning success for each population.</P>
        <P>As noted previously, Atlantic bluefin tuna exhibit strong natal homing or spawning site fidelity. Therefore, it is unlikely individuals from the Mediterranean would spawn in the Gulf of Mexico, or that individuals from the Gulf of Mexico population would spawn in the Mediterranean. Thus, if one of the discrete populations was to be extirpated, it would represent a significant gap in the range of the taxon, in that either the Gulf of Mexico or the Mediterranean Sea would no longer support Atlantic bluefin tuna.</P>
        <P>As presented above and as noted in the discreteness discussion, Atlantic bluefin tuna that spawn in the Gulf of Mexico and in the Mediterranean utilize unique ecological areas for spawning. There is information presented above that indicates that these areas possess unique features or characteristics to which larval tuna may be adapted. Also, some authors indicated that natal homing may be the result of behavior learned from older fish in the population and thus, the loss of a spawning group or of the mature fish could result in the permanent loss of a spawning area, and this area would most likely not be re-colonized by fish from another spawning group. This would represent a significant gap in the range of the taxon.</P>
        <P>There is some evidence suggesting that there may be two discrete populations within the Mediterranean, but the SRT is unable to determine the significance of these populations to the species as a whole. While the two Mediterranean populations may be discrete, the SRT does not have enough information to conclude that they are significant, by themselves, to Atlantic bluefin tuna.</P>
        <P>Based on the best available information, the SRT concluded that the western Atlantic and eastern Atlantic/Mediterranean populations represent two DPSs of Atlantic bluefin tuna. We agree with the SRT's DPS delineation, and refer to these DPSs as the western Atlantic DPS and eastern Atlantic/Mediterranean DPS of Atlantic bluefin tuna. The information presented in the remainder of this finding, therefore, pertains to the status of the western Atlantic and eastern Atlantic/Mediterranean DPSs of Atlantic bluefin tuna.</P>
        <HD SOURCE="HD1">ICCAT Stock Assessment Summary for Atlantic Bluefin Tuna</HD>
        <P>Atlantic bluefin tuna are managed domestically by NMFS' Highly Migratory Species (HMS) Management Division and internationally by the International Commission for the Conservation of Atlantic Tunas (ICCAT). ICCAT manages the western Atlantic and eastern Atlantic/Mediterranean DPSs as two separate stocks (eastern and western stocks), separated by the 45 ° W meridian. In recent years, stock assessments for Atlantic bluefin tuna have been conducted approximately every 2 years by the Standing Committee on Research and Statistics (SCRS). The most recent ICCAT stock assessment was conducted by SCRS in 2010. Models and methodologies employed by ICCAT during the stock assessments were used by the SRT to develop an extinction risk analysis; therefore, a description of the models, methods, and results is provided in the SRR, and significant conclusions are summarized below.</P>
        <HD SOURCE="HD1">Abundance of the Western Atlantic DPS of Atlantic Bluefin Tuna</HD>
        <P>According to the ICCAT SCRS stock assessment in 2010, the total catch for the western Atlantic peaked at 18,671 t (16,938.05 mt) in 1964, with catches dropping sharply thereafter with the collapse of the Atlantic bluefin tuna longline fishery off Brazil in 1967 and the decline in purse seine catches. Catch increased again to average over 5,000 t (4,535.92 mt) in the 1970s due to the expansion of the Japanese longline fleet into the northwest Atlantic and Gulf of Mexico, and an increase in purse seine effort targeting larger fish for the sashimi market.</P>
        <P>Since 1982, the total catch for the western Atlantic including discards has generally been relatively stable due to the imposition of quotas by ICCAT. However, following a total catch level of 3,319 t (3,010.95 mt) in 2002 (the highest since 1981), total catch in the western Atlantic declined steadily to a level of 1,638 t (1,485.97 mt) in 2007 (the lowest level since 1982), before rising to 1,935 t (1,755.4 mt) in 2009, which was near the total allowable catch (TAC). The decline prior to 2007 was primarily due to considerable reductions in catch levels for U.S. fisheries. The major harvesters of western Atlantic bluefin tuna are Canada, Japan, and the United States.</P>

        <P>Safina and Klinger (2008) summarized ICCAT management regulations and catch history for the western Atlantic stock; however, it was not a quantitative assessment of the stock. Due to the timing of publication, the authors were only able to consider catch data through 2006, and there have been changes to the western Atlantic bluefin tuna fishery since then. MacKenzie<E T="03">et al.</E>(2009) projected a similar collapse; however due to timing of publication, they were also only considering catch data through 2006. The 2006 U.S. catches of Atlantic bluefin tuna were the lowest in recent history; however, since then, the U.S. fishery has seen increasing catches, and the U.S. base quota was fully realized in 2009 and 2010. MacKenzie<E T="03">et al.</E>(2009) projected that by 2011, the adult population of Atlantic bluefin tuna would be 75 percent lower than the population in 2005. Furthermore, Safina and Klinger (2008) stated that “these trends [in U.S. catches] suggest U.S. bluefin may approach widespread commercial unavailability as early as 2008”; however, the results of the ICCAT 2010 bluefin tuna stock assessment (as described in more detail below) and the catch statistics submitted to ICCAT clearly refute these assertions.<PRTPAGE P="31561"/>
        </P>
        <P>The base case assessment is consistent with previous analyses in that spawning stock biomass (SSB) declined dramatically between the early 1970s and early 1990s. Since then, SSB was estimated to have fluctuated between 21 and 29 percent of the 1970 level, but with a gradual increase in recent years from the low of 21 percent in 2003 to 29 percent in 2009. Thus, the stock has undergone substantial declines since historic highs were reported in the 1970s. The stock has experienced different levels of fishing mortality over time, depending on the size of fish targeted by various fleets. Fishing mortality on spawners (ages 9 and older) declined markedly after 2003. The estimates of recruitment (age 1) are very high for the early 1970s, but are much lower for the years since, with the exception of a strong year-class documented in 2003.</P>

        <P>There are two alternative spawner-recruit hypotheses for the western stock: the two-line (low recruitment potential scenario) and the Beverton and Holt spawner-recruit formulation (high recruitment potential scenario). Under the low recruitment scenario, average levels of observed recruitment are based on levels from 1976-2006 (85,000 recruits) while in the high recruitment scenario, recruitment levels increase as the stock rebuilds (MSY level of 270,000 recruits). SCRS has indicated that it does not have strong evidence to favor either scenario over the other and notes that both are reasonable (but not extreme) lower and upper bounds on rebuilding potential. Both of these models take into account multiple variables affecting abundance, including fishing mortality, recruitment and vulnerabilities, and terminal ages. During the 2010 stock assessment, the SCRS re-examined the two alternative spawner-recruit hypotheses explored in several prior assessments. Stock status was determined under both scenarios for the base model from 1970 to 2009. The results under the two-line (low recruitment potential) scenario suggested that the stock has not been overfished since 1970, and that overfishing has not occurred since 1983. The results under the Beverton-Holt (high recruitment potential) scenario suggested that the stock has been overfished since 1970, and the fishing mortality rates (F) have been above fishing at maximum sustainable yield (F<E T="52">MSY</E>), except for the years 1985, 1986, and 2007 to 2009. The low recruitment scenario is the more optimistic scenario because the result is that the stock biomass is above the rebuilding goal. Under the high recruitment scenario, rebuilding cannot be met by the end of ICCAT's 20-year rebuilding period. However, it is important to note that this change in the perception of current stock status (to not overfished, no overfishing occurring) under the low recruitment scenario is largely the result of applying a new growth curve rather than the result of management measures under the rebuilding plan.</P>
        <P>ICCAT estimated the status of the western Atlantic stock in 2009 as well as status trajectories for the two recruitment levels. Using MSY-related benchmarks, ICCAT determined that the western Atlantic stock is not overfished and is not undergoing overfishing under the low recruitment potential scenario. However, under the Beverton-Holt recruitment hypothesis (high recruitment potential scenario), the stock remains overfished and overfishing is occurring. It was noted, however, that the assessment did not capture the full degree of uncertainty in the assessments and projections. Based on earlier work, the estimates of stock status can be expected to vary considerably depending on the type of data used to estimate mixing (conventional tagging or isotope signature samples) and modeling assumptions made. Improved knowledge of maturity at age will also affect the perception of changes in stock size. Finally, the lack of representative samples of otoliths requires determining the catch at age from length samples, which is imprecise for larger Atlantic bluefin tuna.</P>

        <P>The results of the 2010 stock assessment for western Atlantic bluefin tuna were strongly influenced by a new growth curve (Restrepo<E T="03">et al.,</E>2010). The new growth curve assigns older ages to fish larger than 120 cm. As a result, the age structure of the catch included a higher proportion of older fish, which implied that the stock was subjected to a lower fishing mortality than previously estimated. Under the low recruitment potential scenario, therefore, SSB was now estimated to have greater than a 60 percent chance of being above the level that will support MSY, and overfishing is not occurring. SSB remained low relative to the level at MSY under the high recruitment potential scenario. The fishing mortality rate under the high recruitment potential scenario indicated overfishing was still occurring.</P>
        <P>Under both scenarios, the SSB trend shows an increase in the last few years of the time series considered. The SCRS also noted the strength of the 2003 year class, the largest since 1974, although it also acknowledged that the recruitment estimated by the model for subsequent year classes appears to be the lowest on record and, therefore, these subsequent year classes may be a cause of concern. However, anecdotal information from U.S. recreational and commercial fishermen pointed to a perceived high abundance of small Atlantic bluefin tuna in U.S. waters in 2010.</P>

        <P>The SCRS noted that the productivity of both the western Atlantic bluefin tuna and western Atlantic bluefin tuna fisheries is linked to the eastern Atlantic/Mediterranean stock. There is very strong evidence that eastern DPS fish contribute to the catches that occur along the eastern seaboard of North America, particularly in the Mid-Atlantic Bight. Consequently, improvements to the stock status in the eastern DPS, which result in increases to the number of eastern fish in the Mid-Atlantic Bight fishery, could reduce the proportion of the TAC that comes from western DPS fish. Therefore, management actions taken in the eastern Atlantic and Mediterranean are likely to influence the recovery in the western Atlantic, because even small rates of mixing from the eastern Atlantic/Mediterranean to the western Atlantic can have significant effects on the western Atlantic due to the fact that the eastern Atlantic/Mediterranean resource is much larger than that of the western Atlantic (<E T="03">i.e.,</E>approximately 10 times the size).</P>
        <HD SOURCE="HD1">Abundance of the Eastern Atlantic/Mediterranean DPS of Atlantic Bluefin Tuna</HD>

        <P>Reported catches in the eastern Atlantic/Mediterranean peaked at over 50,000 t (45,359.24 mt) in 1996 and then decreased substantially, stabilizing around TAC levels established by ICCAT. Both the increase and the subsequent decrease in declared production occurred mainly for the Mediterranean. Available information showed that catches of Atlantic bluefin tuna from the eastern Atlantic/Mediterranean were seriously under-reported from 1998 to 2007. In addition, farming activities in the Mediterranean since 1997 significantly changed the fishing strategy of purse seiners and resulted in a deterioration of Atlantic bluefin tuna catch at size (CAS) data reported to ICCAT. This is because Atlantic bluefin tuna size samples were obtained only at the time of harvest from the farms and not at the time of capture. The 2008 and 2009 reported catch was reviewed by the SCRS during the Atlantic bluefin tuna data preparatory meeting. The SCRS indicated that the reporting of catches significantly improved in those 2 years. However, the SCRS also indicated that<PRTPAGE P="31562"/>some misreporting could still have been taking place. The assessment for the eastern stock used data for the period 1950-2009. Historically, illegal, unreported and unregulated fishing resulted in catch levels far exceeding the TAC levels mandated by ICCAT in the east. The United States has been looking closely at eastern bluefin tuna compliance and IUU issues over the years. Indications over the last two years are that progress has been made to address non-compliance and IUU issues, and catches over the last two years appear to be in line with agreed limits based on the monthly catch reports and SCRS information. Recruitment at the start of the time series varied between 2 and 3 million fish, dropped to around 1 million fish during the 1960s, followed by a steady increase toward maximum values in the 1990s and early 2000s while recruits dropped steeply in the last years. However, the recent levels are known to be less reliable because of the lack of data to estimate them. SCRS also notes that the potential decline in the recruitment in the most recent years is not in agreement with scientific information from aerial surveys carried out in the Mediterranean Sea (Bonhommeau<E T="03">et al.,</E>2009).</P>
        <P>Final SSB estimates differed slightly between the model runs that were used. The SSB peaked over 300,000 t (272,155.42 mt) in the late 1950s and early 1970s, followed by a decline. One model run indicated that the SSB continued to decline slightly to about 150,000 t (136,077.71 mt), while the other indicated that biomass increased slightly during the late 2000s to about 200,000 t (181,436.95 mt). Considering both runs, the analyses indicated that recent (2007-2009) SSB is about 57 percent of the highest estimated SSB levels (1957-1959).</P>
        <HD SOURCE="HD1">Significant Portion of Its Range and Foreseeable Future</HD>
        <P>The ESA defines an “endangered species” as “any species which is in danger of extinction throughout all or a significant portion of its range,” while a “threatened species” is defined as “any species which is likely to become an endangered species within the foreseeable future throughout all or a significant portion of its range.” The phrase “throughout all or a significant portion of its range” is neither defined nor explained in the ESA, and a final policy on how to interpret this language has not been developed by NMFS.</P>
        <P>As previously noted, Atlantic bluefin tuna are highly migratory pelagic fish that range across most of the North Atlantic and its adjacent seas, particularly the Mediterranean Sea. Although the Atlantic bluefin tuna DPSs are described or defined by the location of their spawning grounds, they use the Atlantic Ocean and adjacent seas for various life stages and migrations for foraging, nursery grounds, and spawning. If a DPS was threatened or endangered in a spawning area, it would be threatened or endangered throughout its range (and not only in the spawning area) because a species cannot survive if individuals cannot spawn. Therefore, any determination we would make on the status of the DPSs would be based on the status of the DPSs throughout their ranges.</P>
        <P>During a meeting to discuss the SRR, the SRT also considered the foreseeable future for Atlantic bluefin tuna and estimated the mean generation time for both the eastern Atlantic/Mediterranean DPS and western Atlantic DPS. For the purpose of the SRR, the mean generation time was determined to be 17 years for the western Atlantic DPS and 19 years for the eastern Atlantic/Mediterranean DPS. Mean generation time was computed as the fecundity-weighted average age of the spawning population at equilibrium in the absence of fishing, where the values for the age at maturity and natural mortality rate associated with the eastern and western DPSs were set to those used by the SCRS (and average weight was used as a proxy for fecundity). The mean generation time was similar for the two stocks because the younger age of maturity assumed for the eastern stock (which would imply a younger generation time) is mitigated by the lower natural mortality rate assumed for spawning age fish (which implies an  older generation time). The SRT also reasoned that it will take a generation time to fully realize the impacts of various management measures, and thus, determined that approximately 17 to 19 years is a reasonable timeframe to define the foreseeable future for Atlantic bluefin tuna. Further support for this timeframe is provided in the 1998 rebuilding plan, as this was based on a mean generation time of 20 years (K. Blankenbeker, 2010, Pers. comm.). Additionally, projections through ICCAT have been estimated for 20 years for the western Atlantic. Because of ICCAT negotiations that can result in changes to annual quotas, we cannot estimate abundance beyond 20 years with any degree of confidence.</P>
        <P>As described above, section 4(a)(1) of the ESA and NMFS implementing regulations (50 CFR 424) state that we must determine whether a species is endangered or threatened because of any one or a combination of the following factors: (A) Current or threatened habitat destruction or modification or curtailment of habitat or range; (B) overutilization for commercial, recreational, scientific, or educational purposes; (C) disease or predation; (D) inadequacy of existing regulatory mechanisms; and (E) other natural or man-made factors affecting the species' continued existence. This section briefly summarizes the findings regarding these factors. Additional details can be found in the SRR.</P>
        <HD SOURCE="HD1">A. The Present or Threatened Destruction, Modification, or Curtailment of Its Habitat or Range</HD>
        <P>The Gulf of Mexico is believed to possess certain features for Atlantic bluefin tuna larval habitat which determine growth and survival rates of Atlantic bluefin tuna and can be variable from year to year (McGowan and Richards, 1989). The Gulf Stream can produce upwelling of nutrient rich waters along the shelf edge, which may provide an area favorable to maximum growth and retention of food for the larvae (McGowan and Richards, 1989).</P>
        <P>The Mediterranean Sea is a basin with unique characteristics, being a semi-enclosed sea connected to the Atlantic Ocean through the narrow Strait of Gibraltar, to the Red Sea by the man-made Suez Canal and to the smaller enclosed Black Sea via the narrow Bosphorus Strait. The Mediterranean Sea exchanges water, salt, heat, and other properties with the North Atlantic Ocean, and is thus an important factor affecting global water formation processes and variability, and subsequently, the stability of the global thermohaline state of equilibrium (Wurtz, 2010).</P>

        <P>There are a variety of past, present, and reasonably foreseeable future actions that have the potential to affect Atlantic bluefin tuna habitat. They range, among other things, from coastal development and associated coastal runoff and non-point source pollution in coastal areas to outer continental shelf (OCS) oil and gas development, and global climate change. Since most Atlantic bluefin tuna habitat is comprised of open ocean environments occurring over broad geographic ranges, large-scale impacts such as global climate change that affect ocean temperatures, currents, and potentially food chain dynamics, likely pose the greatest threat to Atlantic bluefin tuna habitat. Anecdotal information suggests that such changes may be occurring and influencing the distribution and habitat usage patterns of Atlantic bluefin tuna as well as other highly migratory species (HMS) and non-HMS fish stocks. Ocean<PRTPAGE P="31563"/>temperature changes of a few degrees can disrupt upwelling currents that reduce or eliminate the nutrients necessary for phytoplankton and thereby, could have potential repercussions throughout the food chain. As a result, changes in migratory patterns may be the first indication that large scale shifts in oceanic habitats may be occurring. Some have pointed to the shift in availability of Atlantic bluefin tuna from fishing grounds off North Carolina to waters off Canada during the winter months as evidence of changes in oceanographic conditions that may be affecting historical distribution patterns. Although the evidence is still lacking, causative factors in the shift include preferences for cooler water temperatures and prey availability. A recent report by the Conservation Law Foundation indicated that low food availability had reduced growth rates in larval cod and haddock and that rising sea surface temperatures had the potential to further reduce productivity for these and other fish stocks off the New England coast (Bandura and Vucson, 2006).</P>
        <P>Wetland loss is a cumulative impact that results from activities related to coastal development: Residential and industrial construction, dredging and dredge spoil placement, port development, marinas and recreational boating, sewage treatment and disposal, industrial wastewater and solid waste disposal, ocean disposal, marine mining, and aquaculture. In the late 1970s and early 1980s, the United States was losing wetlands at an estimated rate of 300,000 acres (1,214 sq km) per year. The Clean Water Act and state wetland protection programs helped decrease wetland losses to 117,000 acres (473 sq km) per year between 1985 and 1995. Estimates of wetlands loss vary according to the different agencies. The U.S. Department of Agriculture attributes 57 percent of wetland loss to development, 20 percent to agriculture, 13 percent to deepwater habitat, and 10 percent to forest land, rangeland, and other uses. Of the wetlands lost to uplands between 1985 and 1995, the FWS estimates that 79 percent of wetlands were lost to upland agriculture. Urban development and other types of land use activities were responsible for 6 percent and 15 percent of wetland loss, respectively.</P>
        <P>Nutrient enrichment has become a major cumulative problem for many coastal waters. Nutrient loading results from the individual activities of coastal development, non-point source pollution, marinas and recreational boating, sewage treatment and disposal, industrial wastewater and solid waste disposal, ocean disposal, agriculture, and aquaculture. Excess nutrients from land based activities accumulate in the soil, pollute the atmosphere, pollute ground water, or move into streams and coastal waters. Nutrient inputs are known to have a direct effect on water quality. For example, in extreme conditions, excess nutrients can stimulate excessive algal blooms or dinoflagellate growth that can lead to increased turbidity, decreased dissolved oxygen, and changes in community structure, a condition known as eutrophication.</P>
        <P>In addition to the direct cumulative effects incurred by development activities, inshore and coastal habitats are also jeopardized by persistent increases in certain chemical discharges. The combination of incremental losses of wetland habitat, changes in hydrology, and nutrient and chemical inputs produced over time can be extremely harmful to marine and estuarine biota, resulting in diseases and declines in the abundance and quality of the affected resources.</P>
        <P>One of the major activities with the potential to impact Atlantic bluefin tuna habitat is oil and gas development on the OCS. Anecdotal information suggests that some recreational fishermen may target various fish species, including HMS, in the vicinity of oil platforms due to increased abundance and availability near platforms. The apparent increase in abundance of several species may be due to increased prey availability resulting from various fish and invertebrate communities that are attracted or attach directly to the structures and submerged pilings. While the apparent increase in abundance of fish near oil platforms may appear to be beneficial, little is known about the long-term environmental impacts of changes caused by these structures to fish communities, including potential changes to migratory patterns, spawning behavior, and development of early life stages. Currently, there is debate about whether the positive effects of the structures in attracting fish communities would be reduced by removal of the platforms when they are decommissioned.</P>
        <P>As of 2009, there were approximately 4,000 oil and gas platforms in the Gulf of Mexico and fewer than 100 in the Atlantic. Most of the platforms were in waters shallower than 1,000 feet (305 m); however, there are ongoing efforts to expand oil drilling to deeper areas of the Gulf. Approximately 72 percent of the Gulf of Mexico's oil production comes from wells drilled in 1,000 feet (305 m) of water or greater (MMS, 2008(b)). Eight new deepwater discoveries were announced by oil and gas operators in 2007, with the deepest in 7,400 ft (2,256 m) of water (MMS, 2008(a)). Many of the shallower sites and most of the deepwater sites fall within habitats used by HMS, particularly by Atlantic bluefin tuna. Many of the deeper sites are also located within the HAPC for Atlantic bluefin tuna.</P>
        <P>In the Atlantic, ten oil and gas lease sales were held between 1976 and 1983. Fifty-one wells were drilled in the Atlantic OCS; five Continental Offshore Stratigraphic Test wells between 1975 and 1979, and 46 industry wells between 1977 and 1984. Five wells off New Jersey had successful drillstem tests of natural gas and/or condensate. These five wells were abandoned as non-commercial.</P>
        <P>In addition to the oil and gas wells, several liquefied natural gas (LNG) facilities have been proposed in the Gulf of Mexico. For LNG facilities, a major environmental concern is the saltwater intake system used to heat LNG and regasify it before piping it to shore. LNG facilities sometimes have open loop, once through heating systems known as open rack vaporizers, which require large amounts of sea water to heat LNG. As described in a draft environmental impact statement (DEIS) for an LNG project in the Gulf of Mexico, the use of the sea water intake system would subject early life stages of marine species to entrainment, impingement, thermal shock, and water chemistry changes, potentially causing the annual mortality of hundreds of billions of zooplankton, including fish and shellfish eggs and larvae. Depending on the location of the facility, this could have an adverse effect on habitat for Atlantic bluefin tuna or other HMS species. Closed loop systems are currently being used in the United States to regasify LNG and are proposed for multiple onshore and offshore LNG terminals throughout the nation, with the notable exception of the offshore waters of the Gulf of Mexico. These systems, which do not rely on an external saltwater intake source, and thus, do not require large amounts of seawater, have considerably lower impacts on fish eggs, larvae, and zooplankton than open loop systems.</P>

        <P>For oil platforms, there are direct and indirect impacts to the environment such as disturbance created by the activity of drilling, associated pollution from drilling activities, discharge of wastes associated with offshore exploration and development, operational wastes from drilling muds and cuttings, potential for oil spills, and potential for catastrophic spills caused<PRTPAGE P="31564"/>by accidents, such as the Deepwater Horizon (DWH) oil spill in 2010 (described below), or hurricanes and alteration of food webs created by the submerged portions of the oil platform, which attract various invertebrate and fish communities.</P>
        <P>The potential effect of the DWH oil spill on the future abundance of western Atlantic bluefin tuna was evaluated by comparing the projections made by the SCRS (SCRS, 2010) to similar projections that assume the number of yearlings (1-year-old-fish) in 2011 will be reduced by 20 percent. The 20 percent value was based on the recent report by the European Space Agency that suggested 20% of the surface was oiled. However, this value does not reflect subsurface oil investigations and are ongoing on its potential distribution and impacts.</P>
        <P>The SRT noted that another study (SEFSC, 2011, pers. comm.) suggested that considerably less than 20 percent of the spawning habitat for the western Atlantic DPS was affected by the spill. Moreover, if some larvae survived their encounter with oil and associated toxicants, or if density dependent processes are involved in the mortality of Atlantic bluefin tuna after the larval phase, then a 20 percent loss of spawning habitat might result in something less than a 20 percent reduction in the expected number of yearlings. However, factors such as the distribution of oil below the surface and the advection of larvae into the spill area after spawning are not well known. Accordingly, the SRT regarded 20 percent as a reasonable upper bound for the mortality rate of Atlantic bluefin tuna larvae owing to the spill event.</P>

        <P>The effect of the DWH spill on bluefin tuna is an area of focus of NOAA's Natural Resources Damage Assessment (NRDA) team. That team is conducting targeted analyses on the effects of the spill on tuna, but most of those analyses are not yet available. The SRT coordinated with the NRDA team, and we have incorporated its information into the decision making process. The NRDA scientists provided plots of the paths of 12 satellite-tagged bluefin tuna that entered the Gulf of Mexico between 2008 and 2010. The NRDA scientists also reported on the progress of other work (<E T="03">e.g.,</E>physiological effect of toxicants), but the work was not yet at a stage that could be considered by the SRT.</P>
        <P>In summary, independent projections with two different types of models show that a 20 percent reduction in the 2010 year-class will likely result in less than a 4 percent reduction in future spawning biomass. However, if a significant fraction of adult Atlantic bluefin tuna were killed or rendered impotent by the spill, then subsequent year-classes might also be reduced, leading to greater reductions in SSB than estimated above. For example, if 20 percent of the adults were also killed in 2010, then the SSB would be immediately reduced by 20 percent, which might lead to additional reductions in the 2011 and subsequent year-classes (relative to what they would have been in the absence of the spill). The reduction in the 2010, 2011, and subsequent year classes would, in turn, lead to reductions in future SSB levels (9 years later as they begin to mature). To date, however, there is no evidence to suggest that any portion of adults were immediately affected although studies are ongoing that may give more information on possible long term impacts. The results from several electronic tagging studies confirm that some Atlantic bluefin tuna have historically spent at least a portion of their time in the waters in the vicinity of the spill area, but the exact fraction is difficult to quantify because of the uncertainties associated with inferring tracks and the rather low number of samples. All of the electronically-tagged bluefin tuna that were known to have spent time in the Gulf of Mexico during the actual spill event (8 fish) survived long after leaving the Gulf of Mexico.</P>

        <P>Given that it is not possible to determine the level of impact on adults from the DWH oil spill at this time, scientists at the SEFSC re-ran the extinction risk models assuming spill-induced mortality rates of 20 percent for larvae and from 5 to 50 percent for adults. The short-term (10 year) risk of extinction was negligible for all levels of mortality examined. The long-term risk (<E T="03">e.g.,</E>projected to 2100) did not exceed 5 percent except under the high recruitment scenario when adult mortality rates exceeded 15 percent. Using the latest information, including the 2010 larval survey, SEFSC scientists developed a worst-case scenario for larval mortality of 15 percent (their best estimate was about 7 percent). Accordingly, adult mortality rates of 15 percent also represent a worst-case scenario because it implies the same proportion of adults encountered oil as the larvae and that all of those “oiled” adults subsequently died. Thus, it appears that adult mortality rates would have to be extremely high in order to incur a substantial risk of extinction.</P>
        <P>Because the information on larval and adult mortality from the DWH oil spill is not certain, NOAA used the best available science to model “worst case scenarios.” From these model projections, we were able to determine that although it is not possible to accurately determine the level of effect at this time, even if the oil spill had the highest level of effect currently viewed as scientifically plausible, the species would not warrant listing at this time. While we cannot wait for the targeted analyses being conducted in the NRDA process, we intend to revisit this decision no later than 2013 once the NRDA analyses have been concluded to determine whether the DWH oil spill altered the condition of the species. Additionally, new stock assessments will be conducted for bluefin tuna in 2012 and will be available in the fall, and new compliance reports will be available from ICCAT. Thus, this information will be considered as well.</P>
        <HD SOURCE="HD2">Summary and Evaluation of Factor A</HD>

        <P>Currently, there are numerous potential coastal habitat threats as identified above (<E T="03">e.g.,</E>dredging, mining, navigation); however, the ones of most significance for Atlantic bluefin tuna are offshore (<E T="03">e.g.,</E>petroleum, LNG). While these could represent potential future threats to the species, at this time, these activities are not negatively affecting Atlantic bluefin tuna, and the SRT concluded, and we concur that they do not represent a substantial risk to the long-term persistence of the species. In the future, should offshore effects such as petroleum and LNG be proposed, the EFH and HAPC process would provide a mechanism by which those impacts could be addressed.</P>
        <HD SOURCE="HD1">B. Overutilization for Commercial, Recreational, Scientific, or Educational Purposes</HD>

        <P>Fishing for Atlantic bluefin tuna has occurred in the Mediterranean since the 7th millennium BC (Desse and Desse-Berset, 1994, in Fromentin and Powers, 2005). According to Fromentin and Ravier (2005) and Porch (2005), the development of the sushi-sashimi market during the 1980s made fishing for Atlantic bluefin tuna significantly more profitable than it was in earlier times, and this resulted in a considerable increase in the efficiency and capacity of fisheries during this time. The increased profitability associated with these new technologies resulted in the rapid development of new and powerful fleets in the Mediterranean countries, and the expansion of effort which exploited fish in the Mediterranean and North Atlantic Japanese longline fisheries also expanded in the Central North Atlantic, adding pressure on Atlantic bluefin tuna stocks (Fromentin and Powers, 2005).<PRTPAGE P="31565"/>
        </P>
        <P>The development and redistribution of all the fisheries resulted in rapid increases in yields since the 1980s, especially in the Mediterranean Sea. Eastern Atlantic and Mediterranean catches reached an historical peak of over 50,000 mt during the mid-1990s. Catches in the West Atlantic, including discards, have been relatively stable since the imposition of quotas in 1982. However, total western Atlantic catch declined steadily from the high of 2002 until 2007, primarily due to considerable reductions in catches by U.S. fisheries. Two plausible explanations for this situation were considered by the SCRS: (1) Availability of fish to the U.S. fishery was abnormally low, and/or (2) the overall size of the population in the western Atlantic declined substantially from the levels of recent years. SCRS noted in its 2010 stock assessment report that there is no overwhelming evidence to favor one explanation over the other but that the base case assessment implicitly favors the idea of changes in regional availability by virtue of the estimated increase in SSB. The decrease indicated by the U.S. catch rate of large fish was matched by the increase in several other large fish indices. In 2009, the United States harvested its national base quota.</P>
        <P>In U.S. fisheries, bluefin tuna are caught with purse seines, handgear (rod and reel, handline, and harpoon), and pelagic longlines. As of October 2010, there were over 32,000 permitted vessels that may participate in the Atlantic tuna fisheries (NMFS, 2010). All owners/operators of vessels (commercial, charter/headboat, or recreational) fishing for regulated Atlantic tunas (Atlantic bluefin, bigeye, albacore, yellowfin and skipjack tunas) in the management area must obtain an Atlantic tunas permit or an Atlantic HMS vessel permit. Commercial categories are monitored by a census of landing cards, whereas the recreational catch is monitored primarily by a survey, although the states of Maryland and North Carolina have implemented recreational census bluefin tuna tagging programs as well. Commercial fisheries are focused on `large medium' (73 in (185 cm) to less than 81 in (206 cm) curved fork length (CFL)) and `giant' (81 in (206 cm) CFL or greater) Atlantic bluefin tuna, while recreational fisheries are focused on `large school/small medium' Atlantic bluefin tuna (47 in (119 cm) to less than 73 in (185 cm) CFL), with allowances for `school' (27 in (68 cm) to less than 47 in (119 cm) CFL), `large medium', and `giant' Atlantic bluefin tuna. Recreational fisheries are carried out by private vessels fishing in the Angling category, and vessels for hire fishing under the Charter/Headboat category.</P>

        <P>There are numerous scientific studies on Atlantic bluefin tuna, the largest of which is being coordinated by ICCAT's SCRS—the Atlantic wide Grande Bluefin Tuna Year Program (GBYP). It has multiple objectives, including improving the understanding of key biological and ecological processes, basic data collection (including information from farms, observers, and VMS), provision of scientific advice on stock status through improved modeling of key biological processes (including growth and stock-recruitment and mixing between various areas), and developing and using biologically realistic operating models for more rigorous management option testing. Research undertaken to date through the ICCAT program, or in coordination with it by scientists from ICCAT's membership, has been either non-lethal (<E T="03">i.e.,</E>aerial surveys) or has been intended to be non-lethal (<E T="03">i.e.,</E>tagging programs), although mortalities, while minimal, do sometimes occur after a tagging event.</P>
        <P>Other types of research (<E T="03">i.e.,</E>microconstituent analysis, organochlorine tracer analysis, genetic analysis) primarily rely on samples taken from fish harvested in commercial fishing operations or from historical collections. Larval surveys, such as those conducted by the United States, and activities to monitor YOY do harvest Atlantic bluefin tuna specifically for research purposes, but the mortality caused by these activities is low. With respect to collections for education, this activity is minor and relies largely on products obtained from other activities, such as commercial fishing. Where it does cause Atlantic bluefin tuna mortalities directly, such as the collection of YOY, it is minor. Furthermore, there was no information to suggest that a substantial live aquarium trade in Atlantic bluefin tuna exists.</P>
        <HD SOURCE="HD2">Summary and Evaluation of Factor B</HD>
        <P>Current impacts from commercial, recreational, scientific or educational purposes do not represent a substantial risk to the long-term persistence of the species. Atlantic bluefin tuna fisheries are closely managed by various regulatory mechanisms, and current TAC levels are projected to result in increased population levels of the DPSs as long as there is a high degree of compliance. In addition, scientific collections or collections for educational purposes described above do not seem to be significantly affecting the status of Atlantic bluefin tuna, and are not likely to significantly affect the long-term persistence of Atlantic bluefin tuna now or into the future.</P>
        <HD SOURCE="HD1">C. Predation and Disease</HD>

        <P>As large apex predators, Atlantic bluefin tuna are not heavily preyed upon. However, predators such as killer whales (<E T="03">Orcinus orca</E>) and pilot whales (<E T="03">Globicephala</E>spp.), and several shark species such as white sharks (<E T="03">Carcharodon carcharias</E>), shortfin mako (<E T="03">Isurus oxyrinchus</E>), and longfin mako (<E T="03">Isurus paucus</E>) (Nortarbartolo di Sciara, 1987; Collette and Klein-MacPhee, 2002; de Stephanis, 2004; Fromentin and Powers, 2005) may prey on Atlantic bluefin tuna. Juvenile Atlantic bluefin tuna may also be preyed upon by bluefish (<E T="03">Pomatomus saltatrix</E>) and seabirds (Fishwatch, NMFS, 2010).</P>

        <P>Little information exists on diseases in Atlantic bluefin tuna. Most of the available disease information for this species, Pacific bluefin tuna (<E T="03">Thunnus orientalis</E>), and southern bluefin tuna (<E T="03">Thunnus maccoyii</E>) comes from studies on fish reared in net pens prior to harvesting for the market (Munday<E T="03">et al.,</E>2003; Bullard<E T="03">et al.,</E>2004; Oraic and Zrncic, 2005; Mladineo<E T="03">et al.,</E>2006; Hayward<E T="03">et al.,</E>2007).</P>

        <P>Peric (2002) reported lesions consistent with pasteurellosis (<E T="03">Photobacterium damsel piscicida</E>) after examining carcasses of 25 harvested Atlantic bluefin tuna. Lesions were similar to those seen in sparids with chronic pasteurellosis. As the causative organism, pasteurellosis does not survive for long outside the host, and prevalence is reported to be very low in Atlantic bluefin tuna (Munday<E T="03">et al.,</E>2003). However, high mortalities of Atlantic bluefin tuna reared in Adriatic Sea cages occurred during winter 2003 and spring 2004. Based on the results of bacteriological, serological, and histological analysis, Mladineo<E T="03">et al.</E>(2006) concluded that pasteurellosis was the causative agent of the mortalities, which was the first outbreak of this kind in reared tuna. Putative tuberculosis was reported in a single specimen of Atlantic bluefin tuna (Biavati and Manera, 1991, as reported by Munday<E T="03">et al.,</E>2003), but the cause is unknown.</P>
        <HD SOURCE="HD2">Summary and Evaluation for Factor C</HD>

        <P>Adult Atlantic bluefin tuna are not likely affected to any large degree by predation by large whales and other large predators, nor are they likely to be affected to any large degree by diseases caused by viruses, bacteria, protozoans, metazoans, or microalgae. Most of the<PRTPAGE P="31566"/>information on diseases in tunas comes from studies on cultured tuna, and the culture environment introduces stresses to the fish; therefore, even if studies indicated that cultured Atlantic bluefin tuna were highly susceptible to diseases and suffered high mortality rates, it is not possible to infer from these data that wild Atlantic bluefin tuna experience the same diseases and mortality rates. The best available scientific and commercial information indicates that threats to Atlantic bluefin tuna from predation and disease do not significantly affect the long-term persistence of Atlantic bluefin tuna now or into the future.</P>
        <HD SOURCE="HD1">D. Existing Regulatory Authorities, Laws and Policies</HD>
        <P>Since 1982, Atlantic bluefin tuna have been separated into two management units or stocks (western Atlantic and eastern Atlantic/Mediterranean), which coincide with the two DPSs identified in the SRR. ICCAT has established various conservation and management measures for both stocks over the years, most often in those years where new stock assessments have been completed by SCRS, as these inform management decisions. ICCAT, however, is free to adopt or alter conservation and management measures even in years where no new stock assessment has been conducted, and it has occasionally done so. In addition to the stock assessment meetings (which have been held recently about every 2 years), the SCRS reports on fishery trends each year. These metrics can include catch, effort and size trends, as well as updated abundance indices (such as standardized catch rate trends by age category and larval survey results), and trends can provide information on threats to the stock even during non-assessment years.</P>
        <P>In light of the connection between the two stocks and fisheries, SCRS has advised that robust management is needed for both stocks to ensure effective conservation. Recognizing that management could potentially benefit from an improved understanding of bluefin tuna stock structure and mixing, ICCAT and its members have taken a number of steps to improve information in this area. Pending the outcome of ongoing research on stock structure and mixing, ICCAT has actively looked at management strategies that can take better account of mixing. In that regard, ICCAT has had a measure in place intended to limit catches in the central North Atlantic, an area with high mixing rates, since 2003. Catches from this area are now significantly reduced from previous levels. In addition, ICCAT has adopted the requirement that parties cannot shift effort across the 45 degree management boundary separating the two stocks of bluefin tuna.</P>
        <P>The western Atlantic bluefin tuna fishery in the United States is managed under the dual authority of the Magnuson-Stevens Fishery Conservation and Management Act (Magnuson-Stevens Act) and the Atlantic Tunas Convention Act (ATCA). ATCA authorizes the Secretary of Commerce to implement the binding recommendations of ICCAT. As the United States implements legislation for ICCAT, ATCA also requires that the United States implement binding recommendations adopted by that organization, as necessary and appropriate; stipulates that the United States may not promulgate a regulation that has the effect of increasing or decreasing any allocation or quota of fish or fishing mortality allocated by ICCAT; and establishes a number of procedural requirements.</P>

        <P>At the 2010 ICCAT meeting, a measure was adopted for the western Atlantic stock that, among other things, reduced the TAC from 1,800 t (1,632.93 mt) to 1,750 t (1,587.57 mt) for both the 2011 and 2012 fishing seasons—a 2.8-percent reduction overall. Under the low recruitment potential scenario, the new TAC has a 99-percent probability of maintaining the fishing mortality of western Atlantic bluefin tuna below the fishing mortality associated with MSY and a 95-percent probability of maintaining the stock above the biomass that will support MSY through the end of the rebuilding period. Combining the results of the high and low recruitment potential scenarios, the TAC has a 54-percent probability of ending overfishing within 2 years and a 48-percent probability of rebuilding the stock to the B<E T="52">msy</E>level by the end of the rebuilding period. Under the high recruitment potential scenario, the TAC has an 8-percent probability of ending overfishing within 2 years and a zero-percent chance of rebuilding the stock to the B<E T="52">msy</E>level by the end of the rebuilding period. It is important to note that, under any scenario, the agreed TAC is expected to support continued stock growth if compliance with agreed rules remains strong. For the western Atlantic bluefin tuna fishery, compliance with ICCAT measures has typically been high.</P>
        <P>In addition to a new TAC, the measure includes an emergency clause similar to the one added in 2009 to the eastern Atlantic/Mediterranean bluefin tuna recommendation. It specified that if SCRS detects a serious threat of stock collapse, ICCAT shall suspend all Atlantic bluefin tuna fisheries in the western Atlantic for the following year. The recommendation further calls on ICCAT members to contribute to ICCAT's Atlantic-wide Bluefin Tuna Research Program, including the enhancement of biological sampling. Consistent with past practice, the provisions contained in previous conservation and management recommendations were retained, including the prohibition on directed fishing for Atlantic bluefin tuna in the Gulf of Mexico and minimum size requirements.</P>
        <P>Finally, the measure includes a request to SCRS to provide additional information in the future that might be helpful to management—including with respect to spawning grounds and the size selectivity of the fishery. The next western Atlantic bluefin tuna stock assessment is scheduled for 2012, and management measures will be reconsidered at that time, taking into consideration the scientific advice provided by SCRS.</P>
        <P>During its 2010 annual meeting, ICCAT adopted a new recommendation for eastern and Mediterranean Atlantic bluefin tuna. The TAC for 2011 and beyond (until changed) was set at 12,900 t (11,702.68 mt), 4.4-percent reduction from the 2010 level of 13,500 t (12,246.99 mt). This reduction is in addition to existing quota paybacks for previous overharvests by the European Union and Tunisia. Thus, the adjusted allowable catch for 2011 and 2012 is approximately 11,500 t (10,432.62 mt). Before taking into account these required reductions, the new TAC has at least a 95-percent probability that the condition of the stock will improve in the coming years and a 67-percent probability of rebuilding the stock by 2023, the end of the rebuilding period.</P>
        <HD SOURCE="HD2">Summary and Evaluation for Factor D</HD>

        <P>Western Atlantic bluefin tuna are highly regulated with TAC limits generally set within the range recommended by SCRS. Greater reductions in TAC for the eastern stock were discussed to account more fully for the assessment uncertainties and to increase the probability and rate of stock growth and recovery. For both eastern and western bluefin tuna DPSs, catch levels agreed to in 2010 are expected to support continued growth and recovery of the stocks if compliance with agreed rules continues. Given the mixing between the stocks, improved stock conservation in the east can be expected to benefit the western stock as well. Based on the information above, the SRT concluded that the existing<PRTPAGE P="31567"/>regulatory mechanisms if adequately enforced are sufficiently protective of Atlantic bluefin tuna now and into the future, and we concur with this conclusion.</P>
        <HD SOURCE="HD1">E. Other Natural or Manmade Factors Affecting the Continued Existence of the Species</HD>

        <P>The SRT examined other natural or manmade factors affecting the continued existence of Atlantic bluefin tuna. Spatial distribution and movement of Atlantic bluefin tuna were previously hypothesized to be controlled by preferential ranges of temperature (ICCAT, 2006-2009); but more recently, scientists hypothesized that juveniles and adults are associated with ocean fronts, likely for purposes of foraging for prey (Humston<E T="03">et al.,</E>2001; ICCAT, 2006-2009). However, the complexity of Atlantic bluefin tuna distribution and behavior is unlikely to be explained by association with these fronts alone (Shick<E T="03">et al.,</E>2004; Royer<E T="03">et al.,</E>2004). Because of the relationship of Atlantic bluefin tuna to sea surface temperature, the SRT considered the impact of climate change to Atlantic bluefin tuna.</P>

        <P>Research studies have shown that migration and movement patterns vary considerably between individuals, years, and areas (Lutcavage<E T="03">et al.,</E>1999; Block<E T="03">et al.,</E>2001; De Metrio<E T="03">et al.,</E>2004; ICCAT, 2006-2009). The appearance and disappearance of past fisheries (<E T="03">e.g.,</E>Brazil during the 1960s) could be a result of changes in spatial distribution and/or migration (Fromentin and Powers, 2005; Fromentin, 2009). Rijnsdorp<E T="03">et al.</E>(2009) hypothesized a shift in distribution in response to increased temperature associated with climate change, and similar distribution shifts for other species have also been observed (Nye<E T="03">et al.,</E>2009). However, without a better understanding of the processes that determine Atlantic bluefin tuna distribution, it is difficult to project a response of the species to climate change.</P>
        <P>Rijnsdorp<E T="03">et al.</E>(2009) further hypothesized that if the habitat for a certain life-history stage is spatially restricted (<E T="03">e.g.,</E>spawning), the species may be more sensitive to climate change. We designated an HAPC for bluefin tuna spawning in the Gulf of Mexico in Amendment 1 to the U.S. Consolidated HMS Fishery Management Plan (NMFS, 2009). This area is the primary spawning habitat for the western stock of Atlantic bluefin tuna, although the potential for other spawning locations has also been suggested (Galuardi<E T="03">et al.,</E>2010). Climate-induced temperature increases could increase stress for Atlantic bluefin tuna during spawning in the Gulf of Mexico. Average ambient temperatures measured during bluefin spawning activity ranged from 23.5 to 27.3 °C (Teo<E T="03">et al.,</E>2007). Atlantic bluefin tuna have been found to withstand temperatures ranging from 3 to 30 °C (Block<E T="03">et al.,</E>2001).</P>

        <P>Although Atlantic bluefin tuna are believed to use deep diving to thermoregulate, spawning behavior may preclude thermoregulation behavior (Teo<E T="03">et al.,</E>2007). Block<E T="03">et al.</E>(2005) indicated that thermal stress appeared to be contributing to mortality of pelagic longline-caught Atlantic bluefin tuna on the Gulf of Mexico spawning grounds. If increases in ocean temperature will mirror those forecasted for air temperature by the Intergovernmental Panel on Climate Change (IPCC) (2007) (<E T="03">i.e.,</E>+ 0.20 °C per decade), and add ten decade's worth of temperature increase (<E T="03">i.e.,</E>a total of 2.0 °C) to the temperatures reported by Teo<E T="03">et al.</E>(2007), then Gulf of Mexico temperatures during Atlantic bluefin tuna spawning season could be estimated to reach 25.5 to 29.3 °C by the turn of the century. Muhling<E T="03">et al.</E>(2011) modeled a variety of climate change simulations in the Gulf of Mexico to quantify potential effects of warming on the suitability of the Gulf of Mexico as a spawning ground for Atlantic bluefin tuna. Model results showed that Atlantic bluefin tuna were indeed vulnerable to climate change impacts, with increasing water temperature affecting both spawning times and locations, as well as larval growth, feeding and survival (Muhling<E T="03">et al.,</E>2011). Furthermore, if ambient values of abiotic factors such as salinity or pH exceed the tolerance limits for planktonic Atlantic bluefin tuna eggs and larvae, these life stages could be negatively affected physiologically.</P>
        <P>Fabry<E T="03">et al.</E>(2008) reviewed the potential impacts of ocean acidification on marine fauna and ecosystem processes. The information reviewed indicated that marine fish were physiologically highly tolerant of carbon dioxide. Ishimatsu<E T="03">et al.</E>(2004) found that hatchling stages of some species appeared fairly sensitive to pH decreases on the order of 0.5 or more, but high carbon dioxide tolerance developed within a few days of hatching.</P>

        <P>Indirect trophic level dynamics may have some impact to Atlantic bluefin tuna as a result of climate change and ocean acidification. Acidification could lead to dissolution of shallow-water carbonate sediments and could affect marine calcifying organisms, including pteropods, an important component of the plankton in many marine ecosystems (Orr<E T="03">et al.,</E>2005). In their review article, Walther<E T="03">et al.</E>(2002) stated that indirect impacts on marine systems appear to be the most widespread effects of climate change. For example, the persistence of a positive vector for the North Atlantic Oscillation (NAO) modifies marine primary and secondary production (Fromentin and Planque, 1996), which could in turn affect the availability of planktonic food for fish larvae and recruitment success (Cushing, 1990). However, ICCAT scientists analyzed the association of the NAO with eastern Atlantic bluefin tuna recruitment and found no relationship (ICCAT, 2002).</P>

        <P>Availability of nutrients could also be affected by changes in carbon dioxide, which could affect primary production, changes in species composition, and higher trophic levels (Fabry<E T="03">et al.,</E>2008). Kimura (2010) modeled a combination of environmental factors when considering the impact to the recruitment of juvenile Pacific bluefin tuna. For example, an increase in ocean temperature would speed the transport of larvae in the Kuroshio current, causing the larvae to arrive too quickly to cold coastal waters. When coupled with high temperatures exceeding the optimal range on the spawning grounds, larval recruitment was predicted in 2010 to decline to 36 percent of present recruitment levels (Kimura<E T="03">et al.,</E>2010). In addition, a long-lived species such as Atlantic bluefin tuna could have less evolutionary ability to adapt to climate change than shorter-lived species.</P>

        <P>Chase (2002) identified squid as one of several important food sources for Atlantic bluefin tuna caught off New England. Epipelagic squid (<E T="03">e.g., Illex</E>and<E T="03">Loligo</E>sp.) have been found to be highly sensitive to carbon dioxide because of their unique physiology (Portner<E T="03">et al.,</E>2004; Seibel, 2007). Yamada and Ikeda (1999) found increased mortality for certain arthropod plankton (krill and certain copepods) with increasing exposure time and decreasing pH. Larval<E T="03">Thunnus</E>sp. have been found to feed primarily on copepods (Catalan<E T="03">et al.,</E>2007; Llopiz and Cowen, 2009). As pelagic predators, Atlantic bluefin tuna are considered opportunistic, and loss of one food source may not have negative consequences. However, in the Florida straits, larval<E T="03">Thunnus</E>sp. appeared to exhibit selective feeding behavior (Llopiz and Cowen, 2009) and thus, larvae may not be as opportunistic in feeding as adult Atlantic bluefin tuna are.</P>

        <P>Offshore aquaculture was identified as a potential threat to Atlantic bluefin<PRTPAGE P="31568"/>tuna by the SRT. Potential impacts resulting from offshore aquaculture could include increased nutrient loading, habitat degradation, fish escapement, competition with wild stocks, entanglement of endangered or threatened species and migratory birds, spread of pathogens, user conflicts, economic and social impacts on domestic fisheries, and navigational hazards (GMFMC, 2009); however, there is no information to indicate that offshore aquaculture is impacting Atlantic bluefin tuna.</P>
        <P>The most recent available information indicated that there are no finfish offshore aquaculture operations in U.S. Federal waters. According to the Gulf of Mexico Fishery Management Council (GMFMC) FMP for offshore aquaculture in the Gulf of Mexico, marine aquaculture would be prohibited in Gulf of Mexico EEZ HAPCs, marine reserves, marine protected areas, Special Management Zones, permitted artificial reef areas, and coral reef areas as defined and specified in 50 CFR 622 (GMFMC, 2009). In addition, areas where marine aquaculture is prohibited in the Gulf of Mexico overlap with the spawning areas of the western Atlantic DPS, and thus, the SRT did not expect any impacts to the spawning habitat of the DPS from offshore aquaculture. The SRT was not aware of specific information pertaining to the effects of offshore aquaculture on the habitat in the eastern Atlantic/Mediterranean; however, impacts to the DPS may be similar to the potential impact resulting from offshore aquaculture as noted above.</P>
        <HD SOURCE="HD2">Summary and Evaluation of Factor E</HD>
        <P>The SRT considered all other natural or manmade factors that may affect the DPSs, including climate change impacts, ocean acidification, and aquaculture/enhancement. The SRT identified several potential natural or manmade threats to Atlantic bluefin tuna, and while these could represent potential future threats to the species, at this time, the SRT determined that current and future impacts are not likely and do not represent a substantial risk to the long-term persistence of either DPS. We concur with this conclusion.</P>
        <HD SOURCE="HD1">Current and Future Protective Efforts</HD>
        <P>In February 2011, a special meeting of ICCAT's Compliance Committee (COC) was held. The purpose was to reinforce the commitment of all parties to implement the eastern Atlantic bluefin tuna recommendation from the start of the 2011 season and, toward that end, to review the implementation plans (which included fishery management, inspection, and capacity reduction aspects) of eastern Atlantic bluefin tuna harvesters with a view to endorsing those plans in advance of the season.</P>
        <P>In addition to taking action on the implementation plans, the COC adopted an allocation table specifying the allowable harvest limits by ICCAT members, which included all adjustments, and a fleet capacity table reflecting required reductions for 2011. Given input from those present at the COC intersessional, the adjusted TAC of 11,502.89 t (10,435.25 mt) should be the upper bound of realized catches. Factoring in that a few countries have indicated they will not be fishing and their combined quota level is 364.33 t (330.51 mt), actual catches may be more on the order of 11,138.56 t (10,104.73 mt)—notwithstanding any action by ICCAT to suspend one or more fisheries in 2011 due to lack of implementation plan endorsement. Any additional reductions in catch will increase the probability of rebuilding the stock by 2023.</P>

        <P>In addition, the 2010 eastern Atlantic bluefin tuna recommendation also strengthened the monitoring and control scheme, including enhanced monitoring of farming operations, further restrictions on joint fishing operations (<E T="03">e.g.,</E>generally prohibiting joint operations between contracting parties and clarifying that each party is responsible and accountable for catches made under such operations), and requiring fishing capacity issues to be fully addressed by 2013.</P>
        <P>Western Atlantic bluefin tuna harvesters are expected to fully implement Recommendation 10-03 by mid-June 2011. This will involve reduced quotas for the United States, Canada, and Japan for 2011 and 2012. In addition, NMFS has published a proposed rule to implement the ICCAT recommended U.S. base quota, distributing the quota among domestic quota categories consistent with the 2006 Consolidated HMS Fishery Management Plan, and to adjust the 2011 U.S. quota and subquotas to account for Atlantic bluefin tuna dead discards and unharvested 2010 quota allowed by ICCAT to be carried forward to 2011 (76 FR 13583). Furthermore, NMFS monitors the Atlantic bluefin tuna fishery and has the authority to take in-season actions such as fishery closures and retention limit adjustments to ensure available quotas are not exceeded or to enhance scientific data collection from, and fishing opportunities in, all geographic areas.</P>

        <P>Effective May 5, 2011, NMFS requires the use of “weak hooks” by pelagic longline vessels fishing in the Gulf of Mexico. A weak hook is a circle hook that meets NMFS' current size and offset restrictions but is constructed of round wire stock that is thinner-gauge (<E T="03">i.e.,</E>no larger than 3.65 mm in diameter) than the 16/0 circle hooks currently used in the Gulf of Mexico pelagic longline fishery. The purpose of the proposed action is to reduce pelagic longline incidental catch of bluefin tuna in the Gulf of Mexico, which is the known spawning area for the western Atlantic DPS of bluefin tuna (as described above). The action is intended to increase Atlantic bluefin tuna spawning potential and subsequent recruitment into the fishery, and could also potentially reduce negative ecological and fishing impacts on non-target or protected species.</P>
        <HD SOURCE="HD1">Listing Determination</HD>
        <P>Long-term (2010-2100) projections of abundance of the two Atlantic bluefin tuna DPSs (western Atlantic and eastern Atlantic/Mediterranean) were conducted by the SRT using the protocols adopted by the ICCAT SCRS (SCRS, 2010). We have determined that a 5-percent probability of extinction in 20 years is a reasonable threshold for endangered status. The probability of extinction was projected by the SRT to be near zero for both DPSs over the 5 to 10-year horizon normally examined by the SCRS, even for catch quotas that are much larger than allowed under the current ICCAT management regulations. Even after 20 years, the probability of extinction does not exceed 5 percent unless the level of sustained catch after 2010 is 3,000 mt or more for the western Atlantic DPS, and 40,000 mt or more for the eastern Atlantic/Mediterranean DPS (the 2011 TACs for the western Atlantic and eastern Atlantic/Mediterranean DPSs are 1,750 t (1,587.57 mt) and 12,900 t (11,702.68 mt) respectively, with the adjusted quota for the eastern fishery being below 11,599 t (10,522.44 mt) in 2011 and 2012.</P>

        <P>Several authors have suggested that populations with fewer than 500 individuals are doomed to eventual extinction due to the loss of genetic diversity (Franklin, 1980; Soule, 1980). Matsuda<E T="03">et al.</E>(1998) used 500 mature animals as the threshold for their extinction risk assessment of southern bluefin tuna. In order to address the potential for quasi-extinction, the SRT performed a second set of analyses with the extinction threshold set at 500 spawners, rather than 2 spawners (see Tables 1 and 2 below for the results with 500 spawners and section 9.1.3 of the status review report for the tables with the results for 2 spawners).<PRTPAGE P="31569"/>
        </P>
        <GPOTABLE CDEF="s25,10,10,10,10,10,10,10,10" COLS="9" OPTS="L2,i1">
          <TTITLE>Table 1—Forecasted Probability That Fewer Than 500 Adult Bluefin Tuna Will Survive in the East Atlantic and Mediterranean Sea by Year and Catch Level (All 24 Scenarios Combined). Current Management Recommendations Under ICCAT Specify a Total Allowable Catch of 12,900 mt</TTITLE>
          <TDESC>[In percent]</TDESC>
          <BOXHD>
            <CHED H="1">Catch<LI>(mt)</LI>
            </CHED>
            <CHED H="1">2010</CHED>
            <CHED H="1">2011</CHED>
            <CHED H="1">2020</CHED>
            <CHED H="1">2030</CHED>
            <CHED H="1">2040</CHED>
            <CHED H="1">2050</CHED>
            <CHED H="1">2060</CHED>
            <CHED H="1">2100</CHED>
          </BOXHD>
          <ROW>
            <ENT I="01">0</ENT>
            <ENT>0.0</ENT>
            <ENT>0.0</ENT>
            <ENT>0.0</ENT>
            <ENT>0.0</ENT>
            <ENT>0.0</ENT>
            <ENT>0.0</ENT>
            <ENT>0.0</ENT>
            <ENT>0.0</ENT>
          </ROW>
          <ROW>
            <ENT I="01">5,000</ENT>
            <ENT>0.0</ENT>
            <ENT>0.0</ENT>
            <ENT>0.0</ENT>
            <ENT>0.0</ENT>
            <ENT>0.0</ENT>
            <ENT>0.0</ENT>
            <ENT>0.0</ENT>
            <ENT>0.0</ENT>
          </ROW>
          <ROW>
            <ENT I="01">10,000</ENT>
            <ENT>0.0</ENT>
            <ENT>0.0</ENT>
            <ENT>0.0</ENT>
            <ENT>0.0</ENT>
            <ENT>0.0</ENT>
            <ENT>0.0</ENT>
            <ENT>0.0</ENT>
            <ENT>0.0</ENT>
          </ROW>
          <ROW>
            <ENT I="01">12,900</ENT>
            <ENT>0.0</ENT>
            <ENT>0.0</ENT>
            <ENT>0.0</ENT>
            <ENT>0.0</ENT>
            <ENT>0.1</ENT>
            <ENT>0.1</ENT>
            <ENT>0.2</ENT>
            <ENT>0.2</ENT>
          </ROW>
          <ROW>
            <ENT I="01">17,000</ENT>
            <ENT>0.0</ENT>
            <ENT>0.0</ENT>
            <ENT>0.0</ENT>
            <ENT>0.2</ENT>
            <ENT>0.7</ENT>
            <ENT>1.2</ENT>
            <ENT>1.4</ENT>
            <ENT>1.5</ENT>
          </ROW>
          <ROW>
            <ENT I="01">20,000</ENT>
            <ENT>0.0</ENT>
            <ENT>0.0</ENT>
            <ENT>0.0</ENT>
            <ENT>0.6</ENT>
            <ENT>2.6</ENT>
            <ENT>3.5</ENT>
            <ENT>3.9</ENT>
            <ENT>4.2</ENT>
          </ROW>
          <ROW>
            <ENT I="01">25,000</ENT>
            <ENT>0.0</ENT>
            <ENT>0.0</ENT>
            <ENT>0.0</ENT>
            <ENT>3.4</ENT>
            <ENT>8.7</ENT>
            <ENT>11.2</ENT>
            <ENT>12.3</ENT>
            <ENT>13.2</ENT>
          </ROW>
          <ROW>
            <ENT I="01">30,000</ENT>
            <ENT>0.0</ENT>
            <ENT>0.0</ENT>
            <ENT>0.0</ENT>
            <ENT>8.5</ENT>
            <ENT>19.0</ENT>
            <ENT>25.1</ENT>
            <ENT>28.8</ENT>
            <ENT>34.8</ENT>
          </ROW>
          <ROW>
            <ENT I="01">40,000</ENT>
            <ENT>0.0</ENT>
            <ENT>0.0</ENT>
            <ENT>0.2</ENT>
            <ENT>25.9</ENT>
            <ENT>45.9</ENT>
            <ENT>51.5</ENT>
            <ENT>54.0</ENT>
            <ENT>57.6</ENT>
          </ROW>
          <ROW>
            <ENT I="01">50,000</ENT>
            <ENT>0.0</ENT>
            <ENT>0.0</ENT>
            <ENT>0.9</ENT>
            <ENT>46.1</ENT>
            <ENT>63.0</ENT>
            <ENT>66.4</ENT>
            <ENT>67.2</ENT>
            <ENT>67.8</ENT>
          </ROW>
          <ROW>
            <ENT I="01">60,000</ENT>
            <ENT>0.0</ENT>
            <ENT>0.0</ENT>
            <ENT>2.1</ENT>
            <ENT>59.9</ENT>
            <ENT>70.6</ENT>
            <ENT>72.0</ENT>
            <ENT>72.5</ENT>
            <ENT>72.8</ENT>
          </ROW>
          <ROW>
            <ENT I="01">70,000</ENT>
            <ENT>0.0</ENT>
            <ENT>0.0</ENT>
            <ENT>3.7</ENT>
            <ENT>67.9</ENT>
            <ENT>77.7</ENT>
            <ENT>81.5</ENT>
            <ENT>83.1</ENT>
            <ENT>85.2</ENT>
          </ROW>
        </GPOTABLE>
        <GPOTABLE CDEF="s25,10,10,10,10,10,10,10,10,10" COLS="9" OPTS="L2,i1">
          <TTITLE>Table 2—Forecasted Probability That Fewer Than 500 Adult Bluefin Tuna Will Survive in the West Atlantic by Year and Catch Level (Assuming the High and Low Recruitment Scenarios Are Equally Plausible). Current Management Recommendations Under ICCAT Specify a Total Allowable Catch of 1,750 mt</TTITLE>
          <TDESC>[In Percent]</TDESC>
          <BOXHD>
            <CHED H="1">Catch<LI>(mt)</LI>
            </CHED>
            <CHED H="1">2010</CHED>
            <CHED H="1">2011</CHED>
            <CHED H="1">2020</CHED>
            <CHED H="1">2030</CHED>
            <CHED H="1">2040</CHED>
            <CHED H="1">2050</CHED>
            <CHED H="1">2060</CHED>
            <CHED H="1">2100</CHED>
          </BOXHD>
          <ROW>
            <ENT I="01">0</ENT>
            <ENT>0.0%</ENT>
            <ENT>0.0%</ENT>
            <ENT>0.0%</ENT>
            <ENT>0.0%</ENT>
            <ENT>0.0%</ENT>
            <ENT>0.0%</ENT>
            <ENT>0.0%</ENT>
            <ENT>0.0%</ENT>
          </ROW>
          <ROW>
            <ENT I="01">1,000</ENT>
            <ENT>0.0</ENT>
            <ENT>0.0</ENT>
            <ENT>0.0</ENT>
            <ENT>0.0</ENT>
            <ENT>0.0</ENT>
            <ENT>0.0</ENT>
            <ENT>0.0</ENT>
            <ENT>0.0</ENT>
          </ROW>
          <ROW>
            <ENT I="01">1,250</ENT>
            <ENT>0.0</ENT>
            <ENT>0.0</ENT>
            <ENT>0.0</ENT>
            <ENT>0.0</ENT>
            <ENT>0.0</ENT>
            <ENT>0.0</ENT>
            <ENT>0.1</ENT>
            <ENT>0.1</ENT>
          </ROW>
          <ROW>
            <ENT I="01">1,500</ENT>
            <ENT>0.0</ENT>
            <ENT>0.0</ENT>
            <ENT>0.0</ENT>
            <ENT>0.0</ENT>
            <ENT>0.2</ENT>
            <ENT>0.5</ENT>
            <ENT>0.6</ENT>
            <ENT>0.7</ENT>
          </ROW>
          <ROW>
            <ENT I="01">1,750</ENT>
            <ENT>0.0</ENT>
            <ENT>0.0</ENT>
            <ENT>0.0</ENT>
            <ENT>0.3</ENT>
            <ENT>0.8</ENT>
            <ENT>1.5</ENT>
            <ENT>1.9</ENT>
            <ENT>2.3</ENT>
          </ROW>
          <ROW>
            <ENT I="01">2,000</ENT>
            <ENT>0.0</ENT>
            <ENT>0.0</ENT>
            <ENT>0.0</ENT>
            <ENT>1.0</ENT>
            <ENT>3.1</ENT>
            <ENT>3.9</ENT>
            <ENT>5.0</ENT>
            <ENT>5.4</ENT>
          </ROW>
          <ROW>
            <ENT I="01">2,250</ENT>
            <ENT>0.0</ENT>
            <ENT>0.0</ENT>
            <ENT>0.0</ENT>
            <ENT>2.9</ENT>
            <ENT>7.4</ENT>
            <ENT>10.5</ENT>
            <ENT>12.8</ENT>
            <ENT>14.9</ENT>
          </ROW>
          <ROW>
            <ENT I="01">2,500</ENT>
            <ENT>0.0</ENT>
            <ENT>0.0</ENT>
            <ENT>0.3</ENT>
            <ENT>5.9</ENT>
            <ENT>16.7</ENT>
            <ENT>23.0</ENT>
            <ENT>26.2</ENT>
            <ENT>29.8</ENT>
          </ROW>
          <ROW>
            <ENT I="01">2,750</ENT>
            <ENT>0.0</ENT>
            <ENT>0.0</ENT>
            <ENT>0.5</ENT>
            <ENT>11.8</ENT>
            <ENT>30.3</ENT>
            <ENT>39.4</ENT>
            <ENT>45.2</ENT>
            <ENT>55.1</ENT>
          </ROW>
          <ROW>
            <ENT I="01">3,000</ENT>
            <ENT>0.0</ENT>
            <ENT>0.0</ENT>
            <ENT>1.1</ENT>
            <ENT>21.9</ENT>
            <ENT>46.2</ENT>
            <ENT>58.9</ENT>
            <ENT>67.4</ENT>
            <ENT>79.3</ENT>
          </ROW>
          <ROW>
            <ENT I="01">3,500</ENT>
            <ENT>0.0</ENT>
            <ENT>0.0</ENT>
            <ENT>3.1</ENT>
            <ENT>49.8</ENT>
            <ENT>78.6</ENT>
            <ENT>88.8</ENT>
            <ENT>93.4</ENT>
            <ENT>95.4</ENT>
          </ROW>
          <ROW>
            <ENT I="01">4,000</ENT>
            <ENT>0.0</ENT>
            <ENT>0.0</ENT>
            <ENT>8.7</ENT>
            <ENT>76.7</ENT>
            <ENT>95.9</ENT>
            <ENT>97.6</ENT>
            <ENT>98.6</ENT>
            <ENT>98.9</ENT>
          </ROW>
          <ROW>
            <ENT I="01">5,000</ENT>
            <ENT>0.0</ENT>
            <ENT>0.0</ENT>
            <ENT>35.4</ENT>
            <ENT>97.7</ENT>
            <ENT>99.7</ENT>
            <ENT>99.9</ENT>
            <ENT>99.9</ENT>
            <ENT>99.9</ENT>
          </ROW>
        </GPOTABLE>
        <P>The SRT determined that the probability of extinction increases substantially over the long term, due to inherent uncertainties in the assumptions made for long-term projections; however, even with these uncertainties, the risk still remains quite low for the catch levels permitted under current management even when projected out to 2100 (about 2-percent probability for the western DPS and less than 1 percent for the eastern DPS). The level of extinction risk was found to be only slightly higher when the threshold for extinction was set to 500 spawners rather than 2 spawners and projected out to 2100 (2.3-percent probability for the western DPS, and 0.2-percent probability for the eastern DPS). However, given the high inherent uncertainties in long-term projections, projections made out to 2100 cannot reliably estimate a probable risk of extinction.</P>
        <P>One important source of uncertainty not considered in the above projections was the nature of intermixing between the eastern and western DPSs. Two-stock virtual population analyses used by SCRS (2008) to estimate the level of mixing from stock composition (otolith microcontituent) data produced estimates of spawning biomass that were similar to the levels estimated without mixing. However, similar models that estimated mixing from tagging data produced estimates of spawning biomass that were generally higher than the models without mixing, particularly for recent years. If spawning biomass is higher than estimated by the base (no-mixing) models, then the short-term extinction risk may be lower than suggested in the analyses above by virtue of the fact that any given catch level will amount to a lower percentage of the adult population. This is especially true for the western DPS where the effect of estimating mixing is most profound as discussed above. The long-term implications for extinction risk are less clear as they would involve changes in the estimated productivity of the two stocks, which have not yet been evaluated. It should be noted, however, that ICCAT (2008) considered their analyses of mixing as not reliable enough to be used as the basis for management advice because both the tagging and stock composition data were regarded as incomplete in the sense that they did not represent random samples of the overall Atlantic bluefin tuna population.</P>

        <P>Another important source of uncertainty not addressed in the extinction risk analysis is the possible effect of adult mortality from the DWH oil spill. As noted previously, there is no evidence of adult mortality; however, it is still possible some adult mortality or impact to reproductive capacity occurred. Because the information on larval and adult mortality from the<PRTPAGE P="31570"/>DWH oil spill is not certain, NOAA used the best available science to model “worst case scenarios.” From these model projections, it was possible to determine that if the oil spill had the highest level of effect currently viewed as scientifically plausible (<E T="03">e.g.,</E>15 percent mortality), the species would not warrant listing at this time.</P>
        <P>In summary, the projections presented in the SRR suggest that the probability of extinction of either DPS is negligible within the generation time of both DPSs (generation time is equivalent to 17 to 19 years) unless the catches were nearly doubled over those allowed by current regulations. The long-term projections out to 2100 indicate that if rigorously enforced, current regulations are sufficient to avoid a significant probability of extinction (greater than 5 percent), but suggest a risk of extinction if management were to abandon the existing rebuilding plans in favor of substantially higher catches or if compliance is insufficient.</P>

        <P>As mentioned above, the ESA defines an endangered species as any species in danger of extinction throughout all or a significant portion of its range, and a threatened species as any species likely to become an endangered species within the foreseeable future throughout all or a significant portion of its range. Section 4(b)(1) of the ESA requires that the listing determination be based solely on the best scientific and commercial data available, after conducting a review of the status of the species and after taking into account those efforts, if any, that are being made to protect such species.As stated previously, we have concluded that there are two DPSs of Atlantic bluefin tuna. We have considered the available information on the abundance of Atlantic bluefin tuna from both DPSs, and whether any one or a combination of the five ESA section 4(a)(1) factors significantly affect the long-term persistence of Atlantic bluefin tuna now or into the foreseeable future. We have reviewed the SRR, the high and low recruitment potential projections, the CIE reviewers' comments, and other available literature, and consulted with scientists, fishermen, and fishery resource managers familiar with Atlantic bluefin tuna and related research areas. After reviewing this information, we have determined that listing the eastern Atlantic/Mediterranean and western Atlantic bluefin tuna DPSs as either endangered or threatened throughout all or a significant portion of its range is not warranted at this time. Because of the remaining uncertainties regarding the effects of the DWH oil spill, we will add the bluefin tuna to our Species of Concern list (<E T="03">http://www.nmfs.noaa.gov/pr/species/concern/#list</E>; See 69 FR 19975, April 15, 2004 for description of program). This will serve to (1) increase public awareness about the species; (2) further identify data deficiencies and uncertainties in the species' status and the threats it faces; (3) and stimulate cooperative research efforts to obtain the information necessary to evaluate the species' status and threats.</P>
        <P>As stated previously, we also intend to revisit this decision no later than 2013 once the NRDA analyses have been concluded to determine whether the DWH oil spill altered the condition of the species.</P>
        <AUTH>
          <HD SOURCE="HED">Authority:</HD>
          <P>16 U.S.C. 1531<E T="03">et seq.</E>
          </P>
        </AUTH>
        <SIG>
          <DATED>Dated: May 26, 2011.</DATED>
          <NAME>Samuel D. Rauch III,</NAME>
          <TITLE>Deputy Assistant Administrator for Regulatory Programs, National Marine Fisheries Service.</TITLE>
        </SIG>
      </SUPLINF>
      <FRDOC>[FR Doc. 2011-13627 Filed 5-27-11; 11:15 am]</FRDOC>
      <BILCOD>BILLING CODE 3510-22-P</BILCOD>
    </PRORULE>
  </PRORULES>
  <VOL>76</VOL>
  <NO>105</NO>
  <DATE>Wednesday, June 1, 2011</DATE>
  <UNITNAME>Notices</UNITNAME>
  <NOTICES>
    <NOTICE>
      <PREAMB>
        <PRTPAGE P="31571"/>
        <AGENCY TYPE="F">DEPARTMENT OF AGRICULTURE</AGENCY>
        <SUBJECT>Submission for OMB Review; Comment Request</SUBJECT>
        

        <P>The Department of Agriculture has submitted the following information collection requirement(s) to OMB for review and clearance under the Paperwork Reduction Act of 1995, Public Law 104-13. Comments regarding (a) Whether the collection of information is necessary for the proper performance of the functions of the agency, including whether the information will have practical utility; (b) the accuracy of the agency's estimate of burden including the validity of the methodology and assumptions used; (c) ways to enhance the quality, utility and clarity of the information to be collected; (d) ways to minimize the burden of the collection of information on those who are to respond, including through the use of appropriate automated, electronic, mechanical, or other technological collection techniques or other forms of information technology should be addressed to: Desk Officer for Agriculture, Office of Information and Regulatory Affairs, Office of Management and Budget (OMB),<E T="03">OIRA_Submission@OMB.EOP.GOV</E>or fax (202) 395-5806 and to Departmental Clearance Office, USDA, OCIO, Mail Stop 7602, Washington, DC 20250-7602. Comments regarding these information collections are best assured of having their full effect if received within 30 days of this notification. Copies of the submission(s) may be obtained by calling (202) 720-8958.</P>
        <P>An agency may not conduct or sponsor a collection of information unless the collection of information displays a currently valid OMB control number and the agency informs potential persons who are to respond to the collection of information that such persons are not required to respond to the collection of information unless it displays a currently valid OMB control number.</P>
        <HD SOURCE="HD1">Food and Nutrition Service</HD>
        <P>
          <E T="03">Title:</E>Healthy Incentives Pilot Evaluation.</P>
        <P>
          <E T="03">OMB Control Number:</E>0584-NEW.</P>
        <P>
          <E T="03">Summary of Collection:</E>The Food, Conservation, and Energy Act of 2008, also known as the 2008 Farm Bill (Pub. L. 110-246), Section 4141 (K) (3) (E) authorizes funds for pilot projects to evaluate health and nutrition promotion in the Supplemental Nutrition Assistance Program (SNAP) to determine if nutrition education and incentives provided to SNAP recipients at the point-of-sale increase the consumption of fruits, vegetables, or other healthful foods. The legislation also provided for an evaluation of the funded pilot project. On the bases of this legislative authority, the Food and Nutrition Service (FNS) designed the Healthy Incentives Pilot (HIP) and its evaluation.</P>
        <P>
          <E T="03">Need and Use of the Information:</E>FNS will use the collected information from the pilot to determine if SNAP recipients participating in HIP have higher fruit and vegetable consumption than recipients who did not receive the incentive. The data will also permit analysis of how impacts vary by recipients characteristics. The data collection is also essential for allowing FNS to determine the potential implications of a nationwide HIP-like program.</P>
        <P>
          <E T="03">Description of Respondents:</E>Individuals or household; State, Local or Tribal Government; Not-for-profit institutions; Business or other for-profit.</P>
        <P>
          <E T="03">Number of Respondents:</E>4,383.</P>
        <P>
          <E T="03">Frequency of Responses:</E>Reporting: On occasion.</P>
        <P>
          <E T="03">Total Burden Hours:</E>4,831.</P>
        <HD SOURCE="HD1">Food and Nutrition Service</HD>
        <P>
          <E T="03">Title:</E>Child Nutrition Database.</P>
        <P>
          <E T="03">OMB Control Number:</E>0584-0494.</P>
        <P>
          <E T="03">Summary of Collection:</E>The Child Nutrition (CN) Database is a necessary component in implementation of USDA's Food and Nutrition Service (FNS) National School Lunch Program (NSLP) and School Breakfast (SBP): School Meals Initiative for Healthy Children final rule published in the June 13, 1995<E T="04">Federal Register,</E>Volume 60, No. 113. The regulations (7 CFR 210.10) require school food authorities (SFAs) following the Nutrient Standard Menu Planning option to conduct a nutrient analysis which require nutrient data contained in a wide range of foods. The CN Database provides the SFAs with the necessary nutrient information for this purpose.</P>
        <P>
          <E T="03">Need and Use of the Information:</E>FNS will collect information on (1) USDA commodities; (2) USDA Nutrient Database for Standard Reference food items which are used in the SBP and NSLP; (3) quantity recipes for school food service developed by USDA; and (4) brand name commercially processed foods. Implementation of Nutrient Standard Menu Planning is dependent upon the school or school food authority's ability to analyze the nutrient content of foods. The information gathered for the CN Database is required to be used in software programs approved by USDA for use in meeting the nutrient standards and nutrition goals of the Child Nutrition Programs. Both the State agencies and program operators use the information for auditing and menu planning purposes. If the information is not collected or updated regularly for the CN Database, the nutrient data will become less useful to program operators, causing them to rely on their vendor for required nutritional information.</P>
        <P>
          <E T="03">Description of Respondents:</E>Business or other for-profit.</P>
        <P>
          <E T="03">Number of Respondents:</E>32.</P>
        <P>
          <E T="03">Frequency of Responses:</E>Report: Other (as needed).</P>
        <P>
          <E T="03">Total Burden Hours:</E>2,240.</P>
        <SIG>
          <DATED>Dated: May 26, 2011.</DATED>
          <NAME>Ruth Brown,</NAME>
          <TITLE>Departmental Information Collection Clearance Officer.</TITLE>
        </SIG>
      </PREAMB>
      <FRDOC>[FR Doc. 2011-13506 Filed 5-31-11; 8:45 am]</FRDOC>
      <BILCOD>BILLING CODE 3410-30-P</BILCOD>
    </NOTICE>
    <NOTICE>
      <PREAMB>
        <AGENCY TYPE="S">DEPARTMENT OF AGRICULTURE</AGENCY>
        <SUBAGY>Agricultural Marketing Service</SUBAGY>
        <DEPDOC>[Document Number AMS-TM-11-0008; TM-11-01]</DEPDOC>
        <SUBJECT>Notice of Funds Availability (NOFA) Inviting Applications for the 2011 Farmers' Market Promotion Program (FMPP)</SUBJECT>
        <AGY>
          <HD SOURCE="HED">AGENCY:</HD>
          <P>Agricultural Marketing Service, USDA.</P>
        </AGY>
        <ACT>
          <HD SOURCE="HED">ACTION:</HD>
          <P>Notice.</P>
        </ACT>
        <SUM>
          <PRTPAGE P="31572"/>
          <HD SOURCE="HED">SUMMARY:</HD>
          <P>The Agricultural Marketing Service (AMS) announces the availability of approximately $10 million in competitive grant funds for fiscal year (FY) 2011 to increase domestic consumption of agricultural commodities by expanding direct producer-to-consumer market opportunities. Examples of direct producer-to-consumer market opportunities include new farmers markets, roadside stands, community-supported agriculture (CSA) programs, agri-tourism activities, and other direct producer-to-consumer infrastructure. AMS hereby requests proposals from eligible entities within the following categories: agricultural cooperatives, producer networks, producer associations, local governments, nonprofit corporations, public benefit corporations, economic development corporations, regional farmers market authorities, and Tribal governments. The minimum award per grant is $5,000 and the maximum award per grant is $100,000. No matching funds are required.</P>
        </SUM>
        <DATES>
          <HD SOURCE="HED">DATES:</HD>
          <P>Applications should be received at the address below and must be delivered not later than July 1, 2011. Applications received after the deadline will not be considered.</P>
        </DATES>
        <ADD>
          <HD SOURCE="HED">ADDRESSES:</HD>
          <P>Submit proposals and other required materials to the 2011 Farmers' Market Promotion Program (FMPP) Grant Program, Agricultural Marketing Service, USDA, Room 4004-South Building, 1400 Independence Avenue, SW., Washington, DC, 20250-0269, phone 202-720-8317.</P>

          <P>For hard-copy (paper) submissions, all forms, narratives, letters of support, and other required materials must be forwarded in one application package. AMS will not accept application packages by e-mail; electronic applications will be accepted only if submitted via<E T="03">http://www.Grants.gov.</E>AMS strongly recommends that each applicant visit the AMS Web site at<E T="03">http://www.ams.usda.gov/FMPP</E>to review a copy of the 2011 FMPP Guidelines and application instructions to assist in preparing the proposal narrative and application.</P>
        </ADD>
        <FURINF>
          <HD SOURCE="HED">FOR FURTHER INFORMATION CONTACT:</HD>
          <P>Ms. Carmen Humphrey, Branch Chief, Marketing Grants and Technical Services Branch, Marketing Services Division, Transportation and Marketing Programs, AMS, USDA, on 202-720-8317, or via facsimile on 202-690-0031. State that your request for information refers to Document No. AMS-TM-11-0008.</P>
        </FURINF>
      </PREAMB>
      <SUPLINF>
        <HD SOURCE="HED">SUPPLEMENTARY INFORMATION:</HD>
        <P>This solicitation is issued pursuant to Section 6 of the Farmer-to-Consumer Direct Marketing Act of 1976 (7 U.S.C. 3001-3006) as amended by Section 10605 of the Farm Security and Rural Investment Act of 2002 (Pub. L. 107-171) authorizing the establishment of the Farmers' Market Promotion Program (7 U.S.C. 3005) (FMPP) and as amended by section 10106 of the Food, Conservation and Energy Act of 2008 (Pub. L. 110-246). The amended act states that the purposes of the FMPP are “(A) to increase domestic consumption of agricultural commodities by improving and expanding, or assisting in the improvement and expansion of domestic farmers markets, roadside stands, community-supported agriculture programs, agri-tourism activities and other direct producer-to-consumer market opportunities; and (B) to develop, or aid in the development of new farmers markets, roadside stands, community-supported agriculture programs, agri-tourism activities, and other direct producer-to-consumer marketing opportunities.”</P>
        <P>Detailed program guidelines may be obtained at<E T="03">http://www.ams.usda.gov/FMPP</E>or from the contact listed above. In accordance with the Secretary's Statement of Policy (36 FR 13804), it is found and determined upon good cause that it is impracticable, unnecessary, and contrary to the public's interest to engage in further public participation under 5 U.S.C 553 because the applications for the FMPP need to be made available as soon as possible as the program season approaches.</P>
        <HD SOURCE="HD1">Background</HD>
        <P>AMS will grant awards for projects that continue developing, promoting, and expanding direct marketing of agricultural commodities from farmers to consumers. Eligible FMPP proposals should support marketing entities where agricultural farmers or vendors sell their own products directly to consumers, and the sales of these farm products should represent the core business of the entity.</P>
        <P>All eligible entities shall be domestic entities;<E T="03">i.e.,</E>those owned, operated, and located within one or more of the 50 United States and the District of Columbia only. Entities located within U.S. territories are not eligible.</P>
        <P>Additionally, under this program eligible entities must apply for FMPP funds on behalf of direct marketing operators that include two or more agricultural farmers/vendors that produce and sell their own products through a common distribution channel. Individual agricultural producers and sole proprietors, including farmers and farmers market vendors, roadside stand operators, community-supported agriculture participants, and other individual direct marketers are not eligible for FMPP funds.</P>
        <P>FMPP grant funds must be applied to the specific programs and objectives identified in the application. Proprietary projects and projects that benefit one agricultural producer or individual will not be considered.</P>
        <P>In a coordinated effort to eliminate food deserts in urban and rural areas in the United States with limited access to affordable, nutritious, and healthy food, AMS in coordination with other USDA, Treasury, and Health and Human Services grantors will give funding priority to the development of healthy food retail outlets in food deserts (areas with limited access to affordable and nutritious food, particularly areas composed of predominantly lower-income neighborhoods and communities). USDA, Treasury and Health and Human Services seek to increase access to “healthy foods” which include whole foods such as fruits, vegetables, whole grains, fat free or low-fat dairy, and lean meats that are perishable (fresh, refrigerated, or frozen) or canned as well as nutrient-dense foods and beverages encouraged by the 2010 Dietary Guidelines for Americans.</P>
        <P>Under FMPP, healthy food retail outlets will include producer-to-consumer marketing outlets that sell healthy foods including, but not limited to, farmers markets, CSAs, and road-side stands. A healthy food retail outlet might also be an existing producer-to-consumer market that upgrades to offer a full range of healthy food choices, particularly fresh fruits and vegetables in underserved areas.</P>
        <P>AMS will give FMPP funding priority to measurable, outcome-based, and output-based projects that focus on developing healthy food direct-marketing outlets in food deserts. These projects must improve food access by developing new marketing outlets that sell healthy foods in food desert communities; or improving infrastructure and distribution (transportation, processing, storage, and other equipment) for healthy foods in food desert communities.</P>

        <P>These projects will receive additional points under FMPP if in addition to meeting all the other established criteria for FMPP projects, the project is located in one of the USDA-identified food desert census tracts or a low-income area (with at least a 20 percent poverty rate). For additional information, see the 2011 FMPP Guidelines at<E T="03">http://www.ams.usda.gov/FMPP.</E>
        </P>

        <P>Not less than 10 percent of the total available funds will be used to support<PRTPAGE P="31573"/>the use of new electronic benefits transfer (EBT) for Federal nutrition programs at farmers markets. To be considered within the 10 percent allotment of funds for EBT, the application narrative must clearly designate the applicant's intent to compete for FMPP funds as a new EBT project. FMPP funds shall be provided to successful proposals that demonstrate a plan to continue to provide EBT card access at one or more farmers markets following the receipt of the grant.</P>

        <P>When an applicant has multiple project ideas, AMS requires that similar proposals be submitted in the application package. Due to the legislative mandate, the Agency differentiates projects as EBT-related or non EBT-related submissions. As such, all non-EBT project ideas must be submitted in one application and all new or existing EBT-related projects submitted in a second, distinctly separate application. Failure to comply with this requirement will result in the rejection of the application. See the 2011 FMPP Guidelines at<E T="03">http://www.ams.usda.gov/FMPP</E>for instructions for multiple application submissions.</P>
        <P>While there is no limit to the number of applications that may be submitted, AMS will only award an organization one grant in a funding year. Awardees from the FY 2010 grant program will not be considered for FMPP funding in FY 2011.</P>
        <P>FMPP reserves the right to reject an application that is incomplete or does not follow the application requirements; i.e., hand-written or in excess of the required page limitation. Application packages without required information will not be considered. FMPP's award decisions are final.</P>
        <HD SOURCE="HD1">Paperwork Reduction Act</HD>
        <P>In accordance with the Paperwork Reduction Act of 1995, (44 U.S.C. Chapter 35), the FMPP information collection was previously approved by OMB and was assigned OMB control number 0581-0235.</P>
        <P>AMS is committed to compliance with the Government Paperwork Elimination Act (GPEA) that requires Government agencies in general to provide the public the option of submitting information or transacting business electronically to the maximum extent possible.</P>
        <HD SOURCE="HD1">How To Submit Proposals and Applications</HD>

        <P>Each applicant must follow the application preparation and submission instructions provided within the 2011 FMPP Guidelines at<E T="03">http://www.ams.usda.gov/FMPP.</E>Electronic forms, proposals, letters of support, or any other application materials e-mailed directly to AMS-FMPP or USDA-AMS staff will not be accepted.</P>
        <P>Following are the options available for submitting proposals and applications to AMS:</P>
        <P>
          <E T="03">Paper Submissions</E>—An original and one copy of the proposal, required forms, narrative, letters of support, and all required materials must be submitted in one package, preferably via express mail.</P>
        <P>
          <E T="03">Electronic Submissions via Grants.gov</E>—Applicants may apply electronically for grants through Grants.gov at<E T="03">http://www.Grants.gov</E>(insert 10.168 in grant search field) and are strongly encouraged to initiate the electronic submission process at least two weeks prior to the application deadline. Grants.gov applicants who submit their FMPP proposals via this Federal grants web site are not required to submit any paper documents to FMPP.</P>
        <P>FMPP is listed in the “Catalog of Federal Domestic Assistance” under number 10.168. Subject agencies, including FMPP, must adhere to Title VI of the Civil Rights Act of 1964, which bars discrimination in all federally assisted programs.</P>
        <SIG>
          <DATED>Dated: May 24, 2011.</DATED>
          <NAME>Rayne Pegg,</NAME>
          <TITLE>Administrator.</TITLE>
        </SIG>
      </SUPLINF>
      <FRDOC>[FR Doc. 2011-13483 Filed 5-31-11; 8:45 am]</FRDOC>
      <BILCOD>BILLING CODE 3410-02-P</BILCOD>
    </NOTICE>
    <NOTICE>
      <PREAMB>
        <AGENCY TYPE="S">DEPARTMENT OF AGRICULTURE</AGENCY>
        <SUBAGY>Agricultural Marketing Service</SUBAGY>
        <DEPDOC>[AMS-CN-11-0036; CN-11-003]</DEPDOC>
        <SUBJECT>Cotton Research and Promotion Program: Request for Comments To Be Used in a Review of 1990 Amendments to the Cotton Research and Promotion Act</SUBJECT>
        <AGY>
          <HD SOURCE="HED">AGENCY:</HD>
          <P>Agricultural Marketing Service, USDA.</P>
        </AGY>
        <ACT>
          <HD SOURCE="HED">ACTION:</HD>
          <P>Notice.</P>
        </ACT>
        <SUM>
          <HD SOURCE="HED">SUMMARY:</HD>
          <P>As provided for by the Cotton Research and Promotion Act Amendments of 1990, the Agricultural Marketing Service (AMS) is announcing its intention to conduct a review to ascertain whether a referendum is needed to determine whether producers and importers favor continuation of amendments to the Cotton Research and Promotion Order. This notice invites all interested parties to submit written comments to the Department of Agriculture (USDA). USDA will consider these comments in determining whether a referendum is warranted. USDA should announce review results sometime during the latter part of 2011.</P>
        </SUM>
        <DATES>
          <HD SOURCE="HED">DATES:</HD>
          <P>Comments must be received on or before August 1, 2011.</P>
        </DATES>
        <ADD>
          <HD SOURCE="HED">ADDRESSES:</HD>

          <P>Interested persons are invited to submit written comments on the Internet at<E T="03">http://www.regulations.gov</E>or to Shethir M. Riva, Chief, Research and Promotion Staff, Cotton and Tobacco Programs, AMS, USDA, Stop 0224, 1400 Independence Ave., SW., Room 2635-S, Washington, DC 20250-0224; fax: (202) 690-1718. All comments should reference the docket number and the date and page number of this issue of the<E T="04">Federal Register</E>and will be made available for public inspection in the above office during regular business hours or can be viewed at<E T="03">http://www.regulations.gov.</E>All comments submitted in response to this notice will be included in the record and will be made available to the public. Please be advised that the identity of the individuals or entities submitting comments will be made public on the Internet at the address provided above.</P>
        </ADD>
        <FURINF>
          <HD SOURCE="HED">FOR FURTHER INFORMATION CONTACT:</HD>

          <P>Shethir M. Riva, Chief, Research and Promotion Staff, Cotton and Tobacco Programs, AMS, USDA, Stop 0224, 1400 Independence Ave., SW., Room 2635-S, Washington, DC 20250-0224, telephone (540) 361-2726, facsimile (202) 690-1718, or e-mail at<E T="03">Shethir.Riva@ams.usda.gov.</E>
          </P>
        </FURINF>
      </PREAMB>
      <SUPLINF>
        <HD SOURCE="HED">SUPPLEMENTARY INFORMATION:</HD>
        <P>The Cotton Research and Promotion Act of 1966 (7 U.S.C. 2101-2118) authorized a national Cotton Research and Promotion Program which is industry operated and funded, with oversight by USDA. The program's objective is to enable cotton growers and importers to establish, finance, and carry out a coordinated program of research and promotion to improve the competitive position of, and to expand markets for cotton.</P>
        <P>The program became effective on December 31, 1966, when the Cotton Research and Promotion Order (7 CFR part 1205) was issued. Assessments began with the 1967 cotton crop. The Order was amended and a supplemental assessment initiated, not to exceed one percent of the value of each bale, effective January 26, 1977.</P>

        <P>The program is currently financed through assessments levied on domestic and imported cotton and cotton-containing products. Assessments under this program are used to fund promotional campaigns and to conduct<PRTPAGE P="31574"/>research in the areas of U.S. marketing, international marketing, cotton production and processing, and textile research and implementation.</P>
        <P>The program is administered by the Cotton Board, which has 41 members, 41 alternate members and one consumer advisor. The Cotton Board is composed of representatives of cotton producers and cotton importers, each of whom has an alternate selected by the Secretary of Agriculture from nominations submitted by eligible producer and importer organizations. All members and their alternates serve terms of 3 years. The Cotton Board's responsibility is to administer the provisions of the Cotton Research and Promotion Order issued pursuant to the Act. These responsibilities include collecting, holding and safeguarding funds; making refunds when refunds are a provision of the Order; contracting with an organization for the development and implementation of programs of research and promotion; reviewing and making recommendations to the Secretary of Agriculture on proposed programs and budgets; and making funds available for such programs when approved. The objective of the Cotton Research and Promotion Program is to strengthen cotton's competitive position and to maintain and expand domestic and foreign markets and uses for cotton. The Cotton Board is prohibited from participating in any matters influencing governmental policies or action except recommendations for amendments to the Order.</P>
        <P>Amendments to the Act were enacted under subtitle G of title XIX of the Food, Agriculture, Conservation, and Trade Act of 1990 (Pub. L. 101-624, 104 stat. 3909, November 28, 1990). These amendments provided for: (1) Importer representation on the Cotton Board; (2) the assessment of imported cotton and cotton products; (3) increasing the amount the Secretary of Agriculture can be reimbursed for conduct of a referendum from $200,000 to $300,000; (4) reimbursing government agencies who assist in administering the collection of assessments on imported cotton and cotton products; and (5) terminating the right of a producer to demand a refund of assessments. The Act Amendments of 1990 were approved by a majority (60 percent) of importers and producers of cotton voting in a referendum conducted July 17-26, 1991, as required by the Act. Results of this referendum were announced in a nationally distributed press release dated August 2, 1991.</P>

        <P>The Cotton Research and Promotion Act Amendment of 1990, Section 8(c) provides that once every 5 years after the July 1991 referendum, the Secretary of Agriculture is to conduct a review to ascertain whether a referendum is needed. In such a referendum, producers and importers would determine whether they favor continuation of the amendments to the Order provided for in the Cotton Research and Promotion Act Amendments of 1990. These amendments to the Order were promulgated in final rules published in the<E T="04">Federal Register</E>on December 10, 1991 (56 FR 64470), corrected at (56 FR 66670).</P>
        <P>The results of the most recent review report of the Cotton Research and Promotion Program were issued on March 6, 2007. USDA announced its view (72 FR 9918) not to conduct a referendum regarding the 1991 amendments to the Order. In accordance with Section 8(c)(2) of the Act, USDA provided an opportunity for all eligible persons to request a continuance referendum on the 1991 amendments by making such a request during a sign-up period. During the period of September 3-November 30, 2007, the Department conducted a sign-up period for all eligible persons to request a continuance referendum on the 1990 Act amendments. The results of the sign-up period did not meet the criteria established for a continuance referendum by the Cotton Research and Promotion Act and therefore, a referendum was not conducted.</P>
        <P>In 2011, in accordance with the provisions of the Act, the Secretary of Agriculture will conduct its review of the Cotton Research and Promotion Program Act amendments to ascertain whether a referendum is needed to determine whether producers and importers support continuation of the amendments to the Order, as provided for by the 1990 Act amendments. The Secretary of Agriculture should make a public announcement of the results of the review on September 24, 2011 (60 days after each fifth anniversary date of the referendum). If the Secretary of Agriculture determines that a referendum is needed, the Secretary of Agriculture should conduct the referendum by September 24, 2012 (within 12 months after a public announcement of the determination to conduct the referendum).</P>

        <P>If the Secretary determines that a referendum is not warranted, a sign-up period to request such a referendum will be made available to cotton producers and importers. A referendum will be held if requested by 10 percent or more of those voting in the most recent referendum as long as not more than 20 percent are from any one State or importers of cotton. This sign-up period would be announced in the<E T="04">Federal Register</E>. A 60-day comment period is provided for interested persons to provide comments to be used by USDA in its review. All interested persons are invited to submit written comments.</P>
        <AUTH>
          <HD SOURCE="HED">Authority:</HD>
          <P>7 U.S.C. 2101-2118.</P>
        </AUTH>
        <SIG>
          <DATED>Dated: May 24, 2011.</DATED>
          <NAME>Rayne Pegg,</NAME>
          <TITLE>Administrator, Agricultural Marketing Service.</TITLE>
        </SIG>
      </SUPLINF>
      <FRDOC>[FR Doc. 2011-13500 Filed 5-31-11; 8:45 am]</FRDOC>
      <BILCOD>BILLING CODE 3410-02-P</BILCOD>
    </NOTICE>
    <NOTICE>
      <PREAMB>
        <AGENCY TYPE="S">DEPARTMENT OF AGRICULTURE</AGENCY>
        <SUBAGY>Agricultural Marketing Service</SUBAGY>
        <DEPDOC>[Doc. No. AMS-FV-11-0044; FV11-996-1]</DEPDOC>
        <SUBJECT>Peanut Standards Board</SUBJECT>
        <AGY>
          <HD SOURCE="HED">AGENCY:</HD>
          <P>Agricultural Marketing Service, USDA.</P>
        </AGY>
        <ACT>
          <HD SOURCE="HED">ACTION:</HD>
          <P>Notice; request for nominations.</P>
        </ACT>
        <SUM>
          <HD SOURCE="HED">SUMMARY:</HD>
          <P>The Farm Security and Rural Investment Act of 2002 (2002 Farm Bill) requires the Secretary of Agriculture to establish a Peanut Standards Board (Board) for the purpose of advising the Secretary on quality and handling standards for domestically produced and imported peanuts. The initial Board was appointed by the Secretary and announced on December 5, 2002. USDA seeks nominations for individuals to be considered for selection as Board members for terms of office ending June 30, 2014. Selected nominees would replace three producer and two industry representatives who currently serve on the Board and have terms of office that end June 30, 2011. Also, one individual would fill a currently vacant industry position. The Board consists of 18 members representing producers and the industry.</P>
        </SUM>
        <DATES>
          <HD SOURCE="HED">DATES:</HD>
          <P>Written nominations must be received on or before June 13, 2011.</P>
        </DATES>
        <ADD>
          <HD SOURCE="HED">ADDRESSES:</HD>

          <P>Nominations should be sent to Dawana J. Clark, Marketing Order Administration Branch, Fruit and Vegetable Programs, AMS, USDA, Unit 155, 4700 River Road, Riverdale, MD 20737: Telephone: (301) 734-5247; Fax: (301) 734-5275; E-mail:<E T="03">Dawana.Clark@ams.usda.gov.</E>
          </P>
        </ADD>
      </PREAMB>
      <SUPLINF>
        <HD SOURCE="HED">SUPPLEMENTARY INFORMATION:</HD>

        <P>Section 1308 of the 2002 Farm Bill requires the Secretary of Agriculture to establish and consult with the Board for the purpose of advising the Secretary regarding the establishment of quality and handling standards for all domestic and imported peanuts marketed in the United States.<PRTPAGE P="31575"/>
        </P>
        <P>The 2002 Farm Bill provides that the Board's makeup will include three producers and three peanut industry representatives from States specified in each of the following producing regions: Southeast (Alabama, Georgia, and Florida); Southwest (Texas, Oklahoma, and New Mexico); and Virginia/Carolina (Virginia and North Carolina).</P>
        <P>The term “peanut industry representatives” includes, but is not limited to, representatives of shellers, manufacturers, buying points, and marketing associations and marketing cooperatives. The 2002 Farm Bill exempted the appointment of the Board from the requirements of the Federal Advisory Committee Act.</P>
        <P>USDA invites individuals, organizations, and groups affiliated with the categories listed above to nominate individuals for membership on the Board. Nominees sought by this action would fill two positions in the Southeast region; two positions in the Southwest region; and two positions in the Virginia/North Carolina region, one of which is currently vacant.</P>

        <P>Nominees should complete a Peanut Standards Board Background Information form and submit it to Mrs. Clark at the address provided in the “Addresses” section above. Copies of this form may be obtained at the Internet site<E T="03">http://www.ams.usda.gov/PeanutStandardsBoard,</E>or from Mrs. Clark. USDA seeks a diverse group of members representing the peanut industry.</P>
        <P>Equal opportunity practices will be followed in all appointments to the Board in accordance with USDA policies. To ensure that the recommendations of the Board have taken into account the needs of the diverse groups within the peanut industry, membership shall include, to the extent practicable, individuals with demonstrated abilities to represent minorities, women, persons with disabilities, and limited resource agriculture producers.</P>
        <AUTH>
          <HD SOURCE="HED">Authority:</HD>
          <P>7 U.S.C. 7958.</P>
        </AUTH>
        <SIG>
          <DATED>Dated: May 24, 2011.</DATED>
          <NAME>Rayne Pegg,</NAME>
          <TITLE>Administrator, Agricultural Marketing Service.</TITLE>
        </SIG>
      </SUPLINF>
      <FRDOC>[FR Doc. 2011-13499 Filed 5-31-11; 8:45 am]</FRDOC>
      <BILCOD>BILLING CODE 3410-02-P</BILCOD>
    </NOTICE>
    <NOTICE>
      <PREAMB>
        <AGENCY TYPE="S">DEPARTMENT OF AGRICULTURE</AGENCY>
        <SUBAGY>Agricultural Marketing Service</SUBAGY>
        <DEPDOC>[Document Number AMS: AMS-FV-08-0076]</DEPDOC>
        <SUBJECT>United States Standards for Grades of Frozen Onions</SUBJECT>
        <AGY>
          <HD SOURCE="HED">AGENCY:</HD>
          <P>Agricultural Marketing Service, USDA.</P>
        </AGY>
        <ACT>
          <HD SOURCE="HED">ACTION:</HD>
          <P>Notice and request for comments.</P>
        </ACT>
        <SUM>
          <HD SOURCE="HED">SUMMARY:</HD>
          <P>The Agricultural Marketing Service (AMS) of the Department of Agriculture (USDA) is soliciting comments on its proposal to create new United States Standards for Grades of Frozen Onions. USDA has received additional industry comments from several discussion drafts. The grade standards would provide a common language for trade, a means of measuring value in the marketing of frozen onions, and provide guidance in the effective utilization of frozen onions.</P>
        </SUM>
        <DATES>
          <HD SOURCE="HED">DATES:</HD>
          <P>Comments must be submitted on or before August 1, 2011.</P>
        </DATES>
        <ADD>
          <HD SOURCE="HED">ADDRESSES:</HD>

          <P>Written comments may be submitted to: Myron Betts, Processed Products Branch, Fruit and Vegetable Programs, Agricultural Marketing Service, U.S. Department of Agriculture, 1400 Independence Avenue, SW., Washington, DC 20250; or by fax (202) 690-1527; or via Internet at<E T="03">http://www.regulations.gov.</E>Comments should reference the date and page of this issue of the<E T="04">Federal Register</E>.</P>

          <P>Please be advised that the identity of the individual or entities submitting the comments will be made public on the Internet via http://www.regulations.gov or<E T="03">http://www.ams.usda.gov/processedinspection</E>. Any comments received, regarding these proposed standards also will be posted on these sites.</P>
        </ADD>
        <FURINF>
          <HD SOURCE="HED">FOR FURTHER INFORMATION CONTACT:</HD>

          <P>Contact Myron Betts, Processed Products Branch, Fruit and Vegetable Programs, Agricultural Marketing Service, U.S. Department of Agriculture, 1400 Independence Avenue, SW., Room 0709, So. Building; STOP 0247, Washington, DC 20250. Phone (202) 720-5021; Fax: (202) 690-1527. Copies of the proposed U.S. Standards for Grades of Frozen Onions are available on the Internet at<E T="03">http://www.ams.usda.gov/processedinspection</E>or<E T="03">http://www.regulations.gov</E>.</P>
        </FURINF>
      </PREAMB>
      <SUPLINF>
        <HD SOURCE="HED">SUPPLEMENTARY INFORMATION:</HD>
        <P>Section 203(c) of the Agricultural Marketing Act of 1946 (7 U.S.C. 1621-1627), as amended, directs and authorizes the Secretary of Agriculture “to develop and improve standards of quality, condition, quantity, grade and packaging and recommend and demonstrate such standards in order to encourage uniformity and consistency in commercial practices.”</P>

        <P>AMS is committed to carrying out this authority in a manner that facilitates the marketing of agricultural commodities and makes copies of official standards available upon request. Those United States standards for grades of processed fruits and vegetables no longer appear in the Code of Federal Regulations but are maintained by USDA/AMS/Fruit and Vegetable Programs at<E T="03">http://www.ams.usda.gov/processedinspection</E>.</P>
        <P>AMS is proposing to establish the U.S. Standards for Grades of Frozen Onions using the procedures that appear in part 36, Title 7 of the Code of Federal Regulations (7 CFR part 36).</P>
        <HD SOURCE="HD1">Background</HD>
        <P>AMS received a petition from American Frozen Food Institute (AFFI), requesting the development of new standards for frozen onions. The petitioners represent almost all of the processors of frozen onions in the United States. The petition provided information on style, sample size, and product description to develop the standards.</P>
        <P>AMS developed the grade standards for frozen onions to incorporate comments from AFFI members, published notices on the proposed grade standards in order to receive comments from interested parties (see 66 FR 21116, 68 FR 11801, 68 FR 27010) as appropriate and circulated several discussion drafts between April 2007 and June 2010. AMS received and evaluated samples of various styles of frozen onions to collect information on how to ascertain the grade of frozen onions. Comments from the trade association's members were used to further develop the proposed standards. The comments referenced the style of whole onions and questioned the specific size ranges for whole peeled onions and the total allowance for peel in whole onions. Also the comments suggested that stem material, sprout material, and root material be included as major defects in the “core material” defect category.</P>
        <P>In addition, AMS met with members of AFFI at their annual meeting in February 2007 to discuss the comments. AFFI suggested that dark green units with dark green stripes across 50 percent or more of the onion units would be considered a defect and under the style of whole onion units greater than<FR>3/8</FR>inch (10mm) or less than<FR>3/4</FR>
          <PRTPAGE P="31576"/>inch (20mm) be addressed. AFFI requested a change in the style designations for minced style, and a correction to the text. The members agreed with the proposed section concerning requirements for Styles, Type I, Whole onions and Type II, Pearl onions. The members did not agree with the proposed descriptions in requirements for whole onions and pearl onions for Styles: Type I, whole onions of<FR>3/4</FR>inch to 1-7/8 inches in diameter and Type II, pearl onions of<FR>1/4</FR>inch to<FR>7/8</FR>inch in diameter. Also, the members did not agree with the proposed section concerning Acceptable Quality Levels (AQLs) for quality defects and submitted examples of specifications from buyers. The members expressed concern because defects were defined by weight, not by count. Larger units would be allowed a smaller number of defects and smaller units would be allowed a large number of defects. The members stated that the definitions of “good appearance” and “reasonably good appearance” were too similar.</P>
        <P>AFFI recommended that the product description include a heat treatment and suggested that AMS consider a requirement that onions be blanched.</P>
        <P>AFFI members requested that the product description be limited to individually quick frozen onions. There were also concerns that microbiological requirements, storage temperatures, shelf life requirements, and limits for chemical and pesticide residues were not addressed in the proposed frozen onion grade standards.</P>
        <P>AMS incorporated these comments to make further changes to the proposed grade standards in the discussion draft. However, in June 2010 AMS received additional feedback from AFFI members. These AFFI members indicated that this and other frozen vegetable grade standards did not include requirements for shelf-life, storage temperature, microbiological, or chemical pesticide residue.</P>
        <P>Nonetheless, commodities covered by U.S. grade standards must comply with all of the regulatory food safety requirements of the Food and Drug Administration, the Environmental Protection Agency, and applicable state and local regulations.</P>
        <P>The proposed standards for frozen onions would continue to use the standard format for U.S. standards for grades using “individual attributes.” Specifically, the standards would provide for the “individual attribute” procedure for product grading with sample sizes, tolerances, and acceptance numbers of allowable defects with single letter grade designation. Also, the standards would define the term “frozen onions” and establish “strips,” “diced,” “whole,” “chopped,” and “other” as the style designations. The proposal also would define quality factors, AQLs, and tolerances for defects that affect frozen onions and determine sample unit sizes for this commodity. These grade standards would establish the grade levels “A,” “B,” and “Substandard.” The AQLs, tolerances, and acceptance numbers for each quality factor as defined for each grade level would also be established.</P>
        <P>The grade of a sample unit of frozen onions would be ascertained considering the factors of varietal characteristics, flavor and odor, appearance, color, defects, absence of grit or dirt, and character.</P>
        <P>These grade standards would provide a common language for trade, a means of measuring value in the marketing of frozen onions, and provide guidance in the effective utilization of frozen onions.</P>
        <P>The official grade of a lot of frozen onions covered by these standards would be determined by the procedures set forth in the Regulations Governing Inspection and Certification of Processed Products Thereof, and Certain Other Processed Foods Products (§ 52.1 to 52.83).</P>
        <P>AMS is publishing this notice with a sixty-day comment period that will provide a sufficient amount of time for interested persons to comments on the proposed new standards for frozen onions.</P>
        <AUTH>
          <HD SOURCE="HED">Authority:</HD>
          <P>7 U.S.C. 1621-1627.</P>
        </AUTH>
        <SIG>
          <DATED>Dated: May 24, 2011.</DATED>
          <NAME>Rayne Pegg,</NAME>
          <TITLE>Administrator, Agricultural Marketing Service.</TITLE>
        </SIG>
      </SUPLINF>
      <FRDOC>[FR Doc. 2011-13501 Filed 5-31-11; 8:45 am]</FRDOC>
      <BILCOD>BILLING CODE 3410-02-P</BILCOD>
    </NOTICE>
    <NOTICE>
      <PREAMB>
        <AGENCY TYPE="S">DEPARTMENT OF AGRICULTURE</AGENCY>
        <SUBAGY>Animal and Plant Health Inspection Service</SUBAGY>
        <DEPDOC>[Docket No. APHIS-2011-0035]</DEPDOC>
        <SUBJECT>Notice of Request for Extension of Approval of an Information Collection; Importation of Clementines From Spain</SUBJECT>
        <AGY>
          <HD SOURCE="HED">AGENCY:</HD>
          <P>Animal and Plant Health Inspection Service, USDA.</P>
        </AGY>
        <ACT>
          <HD SOURCE="HED">ACTION:</HD>
          <P>Extension of approval of an information collection; comment request.</P>
        </ACT>
        <SUM>
          <HD SOURCE="HED">SUMMARY:</HD>
          <P>In accordance with the Paperwork Reduction Act of 1995, this notice announces the Animal and Plant Health Inspection Service's intention to request an extension of approval of an information collection associated with regulations for the importation of clementines from Spain.</P>
        </SUM>
        <DATES>
          <HD SOURCE="HED">DATES:</HD>
          <P>We will consider all comments that we receive on or before August 1, 2011.</P>
        </DATES>
        <ADD>
          <HD SOURCE="HED">ADDRESSES:</HD>
          <P>You may submit comments by either of the following methods:</P>
          <P>•<E T="03">Federal eRulemaking Portal:</E>Go to<E T="03">http://www.regulations.gov/fdmspublic/component/main?main=DocketDetail&amp;d=APHIS-2011-0035</E>to submit or view comments and to view supporting and related materials available electronically.</P>
          <P>•<E T="03">Postal Mail/Commercial Delivery:</E>Please send one copy of your comment to Docket No. APHIS-2011-0035, Regulatory Analysis and Development, PPD, APHIS, Station 3A-03.8, 4700 River Road Unit 118, Riverdale, MD 20737-1238. Please state that your comment refers to Docket No. APHIS-2011-0035.</P>
          <P>
            <E T="03">Reading Room:</E>You may read any comments that we receive on this docket in our reading room. The reading room is located in room 1141 of the USDA South Building, 14th Street and Independence Avenue, SW., Washington, DC. Normal reading room hours are 8 a.m. to 4:30 p.m., Monday through Friday, except holidays. To be sure someone is there to help you, please call (202) 690-2817 before coming.</P>
          <P>
            <E T="03">Other Information:</E>Additional information about APHIS and its programs is available on the Internet at<E T="03">http://www.aphis.usda.gov.</E>
          </P>
        </ADD>
        <FURINF>
          <HD SOURCE="HED">FOR FURTHER INFORMATION CONTACT:</HD>
          <P>For information on regulations for the importation of clementines from Spain, contact Mr. William Wesela, Staff Officer, Preclearance, PPQ, APHIS, 4700 River Road Unit 60, Riverdale, MD 20737-1236; (301) 734-5718. For copies of more detailed information on the information collection, contact Mrs. Celeste Sickles, APHIS' Information Collection Coordinator, at (301) 851-2908.</P>
        </FURINF>
      </PREAMB>
      <SUPLINF>
        <HD SOURCE="HED">SUPPLEMENTARY INFORMATION:</HD>
        <P>
          <E T="03">Title:</E>Importation of Clementines From Spain.</P>
        <P>
          <E T="03">OMB Number:</E>0579-0203.</P>
        <P>
          <E T="03">Type of Request:</E>Extension of an approval of an information collection.</P>
        <P>
          <E T="03">Abstract:</E>The Plant Protection Act (PPA, 7 U.S.C. 7701<E T="03">et seq.</E>) authorizes the Secretary of Agriculture to restrict the importation, entry, or interstate movement of plants, plant products, and other articles to prevent the introduction of plant pests, including fruit flies, into the United States or their dissemination within the United States.<PRTPAGE P="31577"/>Regulations authorized by the PPA concerning the importation of fruits and vegetables into the United States from certain parts of th