49 U.S.C. 106(g), 40101, 40103, 40105, 40109, 40113, 44110, 44502, 44701-44702, 44711, and 46102.
Nomenclature changes to part 11 appear at 61 FR 18052, April 24, 1996.
This part applies to the issuance, amendment, and repeal of any regulation for which FAA (“we”) follows public rulemaking procedures under the Administrative Procedure Act (“APA”) (5 U.S.C. 553).
An advance notice of proposed rulemaking (ANPRM) tells the public that FAA is considering an area for rulemaking and requests written comments on the appropriate scope of the rulemaking or on specific topics. An advance notice of proposed rulemaking may or may not include the text of potential changes to a regulation.
A notice of proposed rulemaking (NPRM) proposes FAA's specific regulatory changes for public comment and contains supporting information. It includes proposed regulatory text.
On occasion, FAA may decide that it needs more information on an issue, or that we should take a different approach than we proposed. Also, we may want to follow a commenter's suggestion that goes beyond the scope of the original proposed rule. In these cases, FAA may issue a supplemental notice of proposed rulemaking (SNPRM) to give the public an opportunity to comment further or to give us more information.
A final rule sets out new or revised requirements and their effective date. It also may remove requirements. When preceded by an NPRM, a final rule will also identify significant substantive issues raised by commenters in response to the NPRM and will give the agency's response.
A final rule with request for comment is a rule that the FAA issues in final (with an effective date) that invites public comment on the rule. We usually do this when we have not first issued an ANPRM or NPRM, because we have found that doing so would be impracticable, unnecessary, or contrary to the public interest. We give our reasons for our determination in the preamble. The comment period often ends after the effective date of the rule. A final rule not preceded by an ANPRM or NPRM is commonly called an “immediately adopted final rule.” We invite comments on these rules only if we think that we will receive useful information. For example, we would not invite comments when we are just making an editorial clarification or correction.
A direct final rule is a type of final rule with request for comments. Our reason for issuing a direct final rule without an NPRM is that we would not expect to receive any adverse comments, and so an NPRM is unnecessary. However, to be certain that we are correct, we set the comment period to end before the effective date. If we receive an adverse comment or notice of intent to file an adverse comment, we then withdraw the final rule before it becomes effective and may issue an NPRM.
A petition for exemption is a request to FAA by an individual or entity asking for relief from the requirements of a current regulation.
A petition for rulemaking is a request to FAA by an individual or entity asking the FAA to adopt, amend, or repeal a regulation.
A special condition is a regulation that applies to a particular aircraft design. The FAA issues special conditions when we find that the airworthiness
FAA follows the Administrative Procedure Act (APA) procedures for these common types of rules:
(a) Rules found in the Code of Federal Regulations;
(b) Airworthiness directives issued under part 39 of this chapter; and
(c) Airspace Designations issued under various parts of this chapter.
Yes, in general, FAA follows the same procedures for all rule types. There are some differences as to which FAA official has authority to issue each type, and where you send petitions for FAA to adopt, amend, or repeal each type. Assume that the procedures in this subpart apply to all rules, except where we specify otherwise.
(a) The FAA uses APA rulemaking procedures to adopt, amend, or repeal regulations. To propose or adopt a new regulation, or to change a current regulation, FAA will issue one or more of the following documents. We publish these rulemaking documents in the
(1) An advance notice of proposed rulemaking (ANPRM).
(2) A notice of proposed rulemaking (NPRM).
(3) A supplemental notice of proposed rulemaking (SNPRM).
(4) A final rule.
(5) A final rule with request for comments.
(6) A direct final rule.
(b) Each of the rulemaking documents in paragraph (a) of this section generally contains the following information:
(1) The topic involved in the rulemaking document.
(2) FAA's legal authority for issuing the rulemaking document.
(3) How interested persons may participate in the rulemaking proceeding (for example, by filing written comments or making oral presentations at a public meeting).
(4) Whom to call if you have questions about the rulemaking document.
(5) The date, time, and place of any public meetings FAA will hold to discuss the rulemaking document.
(6) The docket number and regulation identifier number (RIN) for the rulemaking proceeding.
Yes, the FAA obtains advice and recommendations from rulemaking advisory committees. One of these committees is the Aviation Rulemaking Advisory Committee (ARAC), which is a formal standing committee comprised of representatives of aviation associations and industry, consumer groups, and interested individuals. In conducting its activities, ARAC complies with the Federal Advisory Committee Act and the direction of FAA. We task ARAC with providing us with recommended rulemaking actions dealing with specific areas and problems. If we accept an ARAC recommendation to change an FAA rule, we ordinarily publish an NPRM using the procedures in this part. The FAA may establish other rulemaking advisory committees as needed to focus on specific issues for a limited period of time.
The FAA normally adds or changes a regulation by issuing a final rule after an NPRM. However, FAA may adopt, amend, or repeal regulations without first issuing an ANPRM or NPRM in the following situations:
(a) We may issue a final rule without first requesting public comment if, for
(b) If an NPRM would be unnecessary because we do not expect to receive adverse comment, we may issue a direct final rule.
(a) A direct final rule will take effect on a specified date unless FAA receives an adverse comment or notice of intent to file an adverse comment within the comment period—generally 60 days after the direct final rule is published in the
(1) A comment recommending another rule change, in addition to the change in the direct final rule at issue. We consider the comment adverse, however, if the commenter states why the direct final rule would be ineffective without the change.
(2) A frivolous or insubstantial comment.
(b) If FAA has not received an adverse comment or notice of intent to file an adverse comment, we will publish a confirmation document in the
(c) If we receive an adverse comment or notice of intent to file an adverse comment, we will advise the public by publishing a document in the
The best ways to track FAA's rulemaking activities are with the docket number or the regulation identifier number.
(a)
(b)
(a)
(b)
The FAA includes most documents concerning Airworthiness Directives, airspace designations, or petitions handled in a region in the electronic docket. If the information isn't in the docket, contact the person listed under
Even though the Administrative Procedure Act does not require notice and comment for rules of particular applicability, FAA does publish proposed special conditions for comment. In the following circumstances we may not invite comment before we issue a special condition. If we don't, we will invite comment when we publish the final special condition.
(a) The FAA considers prior notice to be impracticable if issuing a design approval would significantly delay delivery of the affected aircraft. We consider such a delay to be contrary to the public interest.
(b) The FAA considers prior notice to be unnecessary if we have provided previous opportunities to comment on substantially identical proposed special conditions, and we are satisfied that new comments are unlikely.
You may participate in FAA's rulemaking process by doing any of the following:
(a) File written comments on any rulemaking document that asks for comments, including an ANPRM, NPRM, SNPRM, a final rule with request for comments, or a direct final rule. Follow the directions for commenting found in each rulemaking document.
(b) Ask that we hold a public meeting on any rulemaking, and participate in any public meeting that we hold.
(c) File a petition for rulemaking that asks us to adopt, amend, or repeal a regulation.
You can contact the person listed under
Anyone may file written comments about proposals and final rules that request public comments.
(a) Your written comments must be in English and must contain the following:
(1) The docket number of the rulemaking document you are commenting
(2) Your name and mailing address, and, if you wish, other contact information, such as a fax number, telephone number, or e-mail address.
(3) Your information, views, or arguments, following the instructions for participation in the rulemaking document on which you are commenting.
(b) You should also include all material relevant to any statement of fact or argument in your comments, to the extent that the material is available to you and reasonable for you to submit. Include a copy of the title page of the document. Whether or not you submit a copy of the material to which you refer, you should indicate specific places in the material that support your position.
(a) Send your comments to the location specified in the rulemaking document on which you are commenting. If you are asked to send your comments to the Docket Management System, you may send them in either of the following ways:
(1) By mail to: U.S. Department of Transportation, Docket Management System, 400 7th Street, SW., Plaza Level 401, Washington, DC 20591.
(2) Through the Internet to http://dms.dot.gov/.
(3) In any other manner designated by FAA.
(b) Make sure that your comments reach us by the deadline set out in the rulemaking document on which you are commenting. We will consider late-filed comments to the extent possible only if they do not significantly delay the rulemaking process.
(c) We may reject your paper or electronic comments if they are frivolous, abusive, or repetitious. We may reject comments you file electronically if you do not follow the electronic filing instructions at the Docket Management System web site.
Yes, if FAA grants your request for more time to file comments, we grant all persons the same amount of time. We will notify the public of the extension by a document in the
(a) Show the docket number of the rule at the top of the first page;
(b) State, at the beginning, that you are requesting an extension of the comment period;
(c) Show that you have good cause for the extension and that an extension is in the public interest;
(d) Be sent to the address specified for comments in the rulemaking document on which you are commenting.
Yes, you may request that we hold a public meeting. FAA holds a public meeting when we need more than written comments to make a fully informed decision. Submit your written request to the address specified in the rulemaking document on which you are commenting. Specify at the top of your letter or message that you are requesting that the agency hold a public meeting. Submit your request no later than 30 days after our rulemaking notice. If we find good cause for a meeting, we will notify you and publish a notice of the meeting in the
A public meeting is a non-adversarial, fact-finding proceeding conducted by an FAA representative. Public meetings are announced in the
(a) Using a petition for rulemaking, you may ask FAA to add a new regulation to title 14 of the Code of Federal Regulations (14 CFR) or ask FAA to amend or repeal a current regulation in 14 CFR.
(b) Using a petition for exemption, you may ask FAA to grant you relief from current regulations in 14 CFR.
(a) For a petition of rulemaking or exemption filed under part 139 of this chapter:
(1) To the appropriate FAA airport field office in whose area the petitioner proposes to establish or has established its airport; and
(2) To the U.S. Department of Transportation, Docket Management System, 400 7th Street, SW., Room PL 401, Washington, DC 20591-0001 or to this Internet address:
(b) For all other cases,
(1) By paper submissions, send the original signed copy of your petition for rulemaking or exemption to this address: U.S. Department of Transportation, Docket Management System, 400 7th Street, SW., Room PL 401, Washington, DC 20591-0001.
(2) By electronic submission, submit your petition for rulemaking or exemption to FAA through the Internet using the Docket Management System Web site at this Internet address:
(c) In the future, FAA may designate other means by which you can submit petitions.
(d) Submit your petition for exemption 120 days before you need the exemption to take effect.
After we have determined the disposition of your petition, we will contact you in writing about our decision. The FAA may respond to your petition for rulemaking in one of the following ways:
(a) If we determine that your petition justifies our taking the action you suggest, we may issue an NPRM or ANPRM. We will do so no later than 6 months after the date we receive your petition. In making our decision, we consider:
(1) The immediacy of the safety or security concerns you raise;
(2) The priority of other issues the FAA must deal with; and
(3) The resources we have available to address these issues.
(b) If we have issued an ANPRM or NPRM on the subject matter of your petition, we will consider your arguments for a rule change as a comment in connection with the rulemaking proceeding. We will not treat your petition as a separate action.
(c) If we have begun a rulemaking project in the subject area of your petition, we will consider your comments and arguments for a rule change as part of that project. We will not treat your petition as a separate action.
(d) If we have tasked ARAC to study the general subject area of your petition, we will ask ARAC to review and evaluate your proposed action. We will not treat your petition as a separate action.
(e) If we determine that the issues you identify in your petition may have merit, but do not address an immediate safety concern or cannot be addressed because of other priorities and resource constraints, we may dismiss your petition. Your comments and arguments for a rule change will be placed in a database, which we will examine when we consider future rulemaking.
Generally, FAA does not invite public comment on petitions for rulemaking.
In petitions asking FAA to establish, amend, or repeal a designation of airspace, including special use airspace,
(a) The location and a description of the airspace you want assigned or designated;
(b) A complete description of the activity or use to be made of that airspace, including a detailed description of the type, volume, duration, time, and place of the operations to be conducted in the area;
(c) A description of the air navigation, air traffic control, surveillance, and communication facilities available and to be provided if we grant the designation; and
(d) The name and location of the agency, office, facility, or person who would have authority to permit the use of the airspace when it was not in use for the purpose to which you want it assigned.
You must include the following information in your petition for an exemption and submit it to FAA as soon as you know you need an exemption.
(a) Your name and mailing address and, if you wish, other contact information such as a fax number, telephone number, or e-mail address;
(b) The specific section or sections of 14 CFR from which you seek an exemption;
(c) The extent of relief you seek, and the reason you seek the relief;
(d) The reasons why granting your request would be in the public interest; that is, how it would benefit the public as a whole;
(e) The reasons why granting the exemption would not adversely affect safety, or how the exemption would provide a level of safety at least equal to that provided by the rule from which you seek the exemption;
(f) A summary we can publish in the
(1) The rule from which you seek the exemption; and
(2) A brief description of the nature of the exemption you seek;
(g) Any additional information, views or arguments available to support your request; and
(h) If you want to exercise the privileges of your exemption outside the United States, the reason why you need to do so.
If you want to be able to operate under your exemption outside the United States, you must request this when you petition for relief and give us the reason for this use. If you do not provide your reason or we determine that it does not justify this relief, we will limit your exemption to use within the United States. Before we extend your exemption for use outside the United States, we will verify that the exemption would be in compliance with the Standards of the International Civil Aviation Organization (ICAO). If it would not, but we still believe it would be in the public interest to allow you to do so, we will file a difference with ICAO. However, a foreign country still may not allow you to operate in that country without meeting the ICAO standard.
Yes, FAA publishes information about petitions for exemption in the
(a) The docket number of the petition;
(b) The citation to the rule or rules from which the petitioner requested relief;
(c) The name of the petitioner;
(d) The petitioner's summary of the action requested and the reasons for requesting it; and
(e) A request for comments to assist FAA in evaluating the petition.
The FAA may not publish a summary of your petition for exemption and request comments if you present or we find good cause why we should not delay action on your petition. The factors we consider in deciding not to request comment include:
(a) Whether granting your petition would set a precedent.
(b) Whether the relief requested is identical to exemptions granted previously.
(c) Whether our delaying action on your petition would affect you adversely.
(d) Whether you filed your petition in a timely manner.
The FAA states the specific time allowed for comments in the
(a) The FAA will notify you in writing about its decision on your petition.
(b) The FAA publishes a summary in the
(1) The docket number of your petition;
(2) Your name;
(3) The citation to the rules from which you requested relief;
(4) A brief description of the general nature of the relief requested;
(5) Whether FAA granted or denied the request;
(6) The date of FAA's decision; and
(7) An exemption number.
Yes, you may petition FAA to reconsider your petition denial. You must submit your request to the address to which you sent your original petition, and FAA must receive it within 60 days after we issued the denial. For us to accept your petition, show the following:
(a) That you have a significant additional fact and why you did not present it in your original petition;
(b) That we made an important factual error in our denial of your original petition; or
(c) That we did not correctly interpret a law, regulation, or precedent.
The Federal Aviation Administration may grant a federal, state, or local government an exemption from part A of subtitle VII of title 49 United States Code, and any regulation issued under that authority that is applicable to an aircraft as a result of the Independent Safety Board Act Amendments of 1994, Public Law 103-411, if—
(a) The Administrator finds that granting the exemption is necessary to prevent an undue economic burden on the unit of government; and
(b) The Administrator certifies that the aviation safety program of the unit of government is effective and appropriate to ensure safe operations of the type of aircraft operated by the unit of government.
(a) The Paperwork Reduction Act of 1995 (44 U.S.C. 3501-3520) requires FAA to get approval from OMB for our information collection activities, and to list a record of those approvals in the
(b) The table listing OMB control numbers assigned to FAA's information collection activities follows:
“Ex parte” is a Latin term that means “one sided,” and indicates that not all parties to an issue were present when it was discussed. An ex parte contact involving rulemaking is any communication between FAA and someone outside the government regarding a specific rulemaking proceeding, before that proceeding closes. A rulemaking proceeding does not close until we publish the final rule or withdraw the NPRM. Because an ex parte contact excludes other interested persons, including the rest of the public, from the communication, it may give an unfair advantage to one party, or appear to do so.
Written comments submitted to the docket are not ex parte contacts because they are available for inspection by all members of the public.
It is DOT policy to provide for open development of rules and to encourage full public participation in rulemaking actions. In addition to providing opportunity to respond in writing to an NPRM and to appear and be heard at a hearing, DOT policy encourages agencies to contact the public directly when we need factual information to resolve questions of substance. It also encourages DOT agencies to be receptive to appropriate contacts from persons affected by or interested in a proposed action. But under some circumstances an ex parte contact could affect the basic openness and fairness of the rulemaking process. Even the appearance of impropriety can affect public confidence in the process. For this reason, DOT policy sets careful guidelines for these contacts. The kind of ex parte contacts permitted and the procedures we follow depend on when the contact occurs in the rulemaking process.
The DOT policy authorizes ex parte contacts that we need to obtain technical and economic information. We need this information to decide whether to issue a regulation and what it should say. Each contact that influences our development of the regulation is noted in the preamble. For multiple contacts that are similar, we may provide only a general discussion. For contacts not discussed in the preamble, we place a report discussing each contact or group of related contacts in the rulemaking docket when it is opened.
No, during the comment period, the public docket is available for written comments from any member of the public. These comments can be examined and responded to by any interested person. Because this public forum is available, DOT policy discourages ex parte contacts during the comment period. They are not necessary to collect the information the agency needs to make its decision.
If the FAA determines that it would be helpful to invite members of the public to make oral presentations to it regarding the proposal, we will announce a public meeting in the
If you contact the agency with questions regarding the proposal during the comment period, we can only provide you with information that has already been made available to the general public. If you contact the agency to discuss the proposal, you will be told that the proper avenue of communication during the comment period is a written communication to the docket.
While FAA tries to ensure that FAA personnel and the public are aware of DOT policy, substantive ex parte contacts do occasionally occur, for example, at meetings not intended for that purpose. In such a case, we place a summary of the contact and a copy of any materials provided at the meeting in the rulemaking docket. We encourage participants in such a meeting to file written comments in the docket.
DOT policy strongly discourages ex parte contacts initiated by commenters to discuss their position on the proposal once the comment period has closed. Such a contact at this time would be improper, since other interested persons would not have an opportunity to respond. If we need further information regarding a comment in the docket, we may request this from a commenter. A record of this contact and the information provided is placed in the docket. If we need to make other contacts to update factual information, such as economic data, we will disclose this information in the final rule docket or in the economic studies accompanying it, which are available in the docket.
If FAA determines that it would be helpful to meet with a person or group after the close of the comment period to discuss a course of action to be taken, we will announce the meeting in the
If we receive an ex parte communication after the comment period has closed that could substantially influence the rulemaking, we may reopen the comment period. DOT policy requires the agency to carefully consider whether the substance of the contact will give the commenter an unfair advantage, since the rest of the public may not see the record of the contact in the docket. When the substance of a proposed rule is significantly changed as a result of such an oral communication, DOT policy and practice requires that the comment period be reopened by issuing a supplemental NPRM in which the reasons for the change are discussed.
You may always provide FAA with written information after the close of the comment period and it will be considered if time permits. Because contacts after the close of the comment may not be seen by other interested persons, if they substantially and specifically influence the FAA's decision, we may need to reopen the comment period.
18 U.S.C. 6002; 28 U.S.C. 2461 (note); 49 U.S.C. 106(g), 5121-5124, 40113-40114, 44103-44106, 44702-44703, 44709-44710, 44713, 46101-46110, 46301-46316, 46318, 46501-46502, 46504-46507, 47106, 47111, 47122, 47306, 47531-47532; 49 CFR 1.47.
(a) Any person who knows of a violation of the Federal Aviation Act of 1958, as amended, the Hazardous Materials Transportation Act relating to the transportation or shipment by air of hazardous materials, the Airport and Airway Development Act of 1970, the Airport and Airway Improvement Act of 1982, the Airport and Airway Improvement Act of 1982 as amended by the Airport and Airway Safety and Capacity Expansion Act of 1987, or any rule, regulation, or order issued thereunder, should report it to appropriate personnel of any FAA regional or district office.
(b) Each report made under this section, together with any other information the FAA may have that is relevant to the matter reported, will be reviewed by FAA personnel to determine the nature and type of any additional investigation or enforcement action the FAA will take.
(a) Under the Federal Aviation Act of 1958, as amended, (49 U.S.C. 1301
(b) For the purpose of investigating alleged violations of the Federal Aviation Act of 1958, as amended the Hazardous Materials Transportation Act, the Airport and Airway Development Act of 1970, the Airport and Airway Improvement Act of 1982, the Airport and Airway Improvement Act of 1982 as amended by the Airport and Airway Safety and Capacity Expansion Act of 1987, or any rule, regulation, or order issued thereunder, the Administrator's authority has been delegated to the various services and or offices for matters within their respective areas for all routine investigations. When the compulsory processes of sections 313 and 1004 (49 U.S.C. 1354 and 1484) of the Federal Aviation Act, or section 109 of the Hazardous Materials Transportation Act (49 U.S.C. 1808) are invoked, the Administrator's authority has been delegated to the Chief Counsel, the Deputy Chief Counsel, each Assistant Chief Counsel, each Regional Counsel, the Aeronautical Center Counsel, and the Technical Center Counsel.
(c) In conducting formal investigations, the Chief Counsel, the Deputy Chief Counsel, each Assistant Chief Counsel, each Regional Counsel, the Aeronautical Center Counsel, and the Technical Center Counsel may issue an order of investigation in accordance with Subpart F of this part.
(d) A complaint against the sponsor, proprietor, or operator of a Federally-assisted airport involving violations of the legal authorities listed in § 16.1 of this chapter shall be filed in accordance with the provisions of part 16 of this chapter, except in the case of complaints, investigations, and proceedings
(a) Any person may file a complaint with the Administrator with respect to anything done or omitted to be done by any person in contravention of any provision of any Act or of any regulation or order issued under it, as to matters within the jurisdiction of the Administrator. This section does not apply to complaints against the Administrator or employees of the FAA acting within the scope of their employment.
(b) Complaints filed under this section must—
(1) Be submitted in writing and identified as a complaint filed for the purpose of seeking an appropriate order or other enforcement action;
(2) Be submitted to the Federal Aviation Administration, Office of the Chief Counsel, Attention: Enforcement Docket (AGC-10), 800 Independence Avenue, S.W., Washington, DC 20591;
(3) Set forth the name and address, if known, of each person who is the subject of the complaint and, with respect to each person, the specific provisions of the Act or regulation or order that the complainant believes were violated;
(4) Contain a concise but complete statement of the facts relied upon to substantiate each allegation;
(5) State the name, address and telephone number of the person filing the complaint; and
(6) Be signed by the person filing the complaint or a duly authorized representative.
(c) Complaints which do not meet the requirements of paragraph (b) of this section will be considered reports under § 13.1.
(d) Complaints which meet the requirements of paragraph (b) of this section will be docketed and a copy mailed to each person named in the complaint.
(e) Any complaint filed against a member of the Armed Forces of the United States acting in the performance of official duties shall be referred to the Secretary of the Department concerned for action in accordance with the procedures set forth in § 13.21 of this part.
(f) The person named in the complaint shall file an answer within 20 days after service of a copy of the complaint.
(g) After the complaint has been answered or after the allotted time in which to file an answer has expired, the Administrator shall determine if there are reasonable grounds for investigating the complaint.
(h) If the Administrator determines that a complaint does not state facts which warrant an investigation or action, the complaint may be dismissed without a hearing and the reason for the dismissal shall be given, in writing, to the person who filed the complaint and the person named in the complaint.
(i) If the Administrator determines that reasonable grounds exist, an informal investigation may be initiated or an order of investigation may be issued in accordance with Subpart F of this part, or both. Each person named in the complaint shall be advised which official has been delegated the responsibility under § 13.3(b) or (c) for conducting the investigation.
(j) If the investigation substantiates the allegations set forth in the complaint, a notice of proposed order may be issued or other enforcement action taken in accordance with this part.
(k) The complaint and other pleadings and official FAA records relating to the disposition of the complaint are maintained in current docket form in the Enforcement Docket (AGC-10), Office of the Chief Counsel, Federal Aviation Administration, 800 Independence Avenue, S.W., Washington, D. C. 20591. Any interested person may examine any docketed material at that office, at any time after the docket is established, except material that is ordered
Each record, document and report that the Federal Aviation Regulations require to be maintained, exhibited or submitted to the Administrator may be used in any investigation conducted by the Administrator; and, except to the extent the use may be specifically limited or prohibited by the section which imposes the requirement, the records, documents and reports may be used in any civil penalty action, certificate action, or other legal proceeding.
(a) If it is determined that a violation or an alleged violation of the Federal Aviation Act of 1958, or an order or regulation issued under it, or of the Hazardous Materials Transportation Act, or an order or regulation issued under it, does not require legal enforcement action, an appropriate official of the FAA field office responsible for processing the enforcement case or other appropriate FAA official may take administrative action in disposition of the case.
(b) An administrative action under this section does not constitute a formal adjudication of the matter, and may be taken by issuing the alleged violator—
(1) A “Warning Notice” which recites available facts and information about the incident or condition and indicates that it may have been a violation; or
(2) A “Letter of Correction” which confirms the FAA decision in the matter and states the necessary corrective action the alleged violator has taken or agrees to take. If the agreed corrective action is not fully completed, legal enforcement action may be taken.
(a) At any time before the issuance of an order under this subpart, the official who issued the notice and the person subject to the notice may agree to dispose of the case by the issuance of a consent order by the official.
(b) A proposal for a consent order, submitted to the official who issued the notice, under this section must include—
(1) A proposed order;
(2) An admission of all jurisdictional facts;
(3) An express waiver of the right to further procedural steps and of all rights to judicial review; and
(4) An incorporation by reference of the notice and an acknowledgment that the notice may be used to construe the terms of the order.
(c) If the issuance of a consent order has been agreed upon after the filing of a request for hearing in accordance with Subpart D of this part, the proposal for a consent order shall include a request to be filed with the Hearing Officer withdrawing the request for a hearing and requesting that the case be dismissed.
(a) Any person who violates any of the following statutory provisions, or any rule, regulation, or order issued thereunder, is subject to a civil penalty of not more than the amount specified in 49 U.S.C. chapter 463 for each violation:
(1) Chapter 401 (except sections 40103(a) and (d), 40105, 40116, and 40117);
(2) Chapter 441 (except section 44109);
(3) Section 44502(b) or (c);
(4) Chapter 447 (except sections 44717 and 44719-44723);
(5) Chapter 451;
(6) Sections 46301(b), 46302, 46303, 46318, or 46319; or
(7) Sections 47528 through 47530.
(b) Any person who knowingly commits an act in violation of 49 U.S.C. chapter 51 or a regulation prescribed or
(c) The minimum and maximum amounts of civil penalties for violations of the statutory provisions specified in paragraphs (a) and (b) of this section, or rules, regulations, or orders issued thereunder, are periodically adjusted for inflation in accordance with the formula established in 28 U.S.C. 2461 note and implemented in 14 CFR part 13, subpart H.
(a) The FAA uses the procedures in this section when it seeks a civil penalty other than by the administrative assessment procedures in §§ 13.16 or 13.18.
(b) The authority of the Administrator, under 49 U.S.C. chapter 463, to seek a civil penalty for a violation cited in § 13.14(a), and the ability to refer cases to the United States Attorney General, or the delegate of the Attorney General, for prosecution of civil penalty actions sought by the Administrator is delegated to the Chief Counsel; the Deputy Chief Counsel for Operations; the Assistant Chief Counsel for Enforcement; the Assistant Chief Counsel, Europe, Africa, and Middle East Area Office; the Regional Counsel; the Aeronautical Center Counsel; and the Technical Center Counsel. This delegation applies to cases involving:
(1) An amount in controversy in excess of:
(i) $50,000, if the violation was committed by any person before December 12, 2003;
(ii) $400,000, if the violation was committed by a person other than an individual or small business concern on or after December 12, 2003;
(iii) $50,000, if the violation was committed by an individual or small business concern on or after December 12, 2003; or
(2) An in rem action, seizure of aircraft subject to lien, suit for injunctive relief, or for collection of an assessed civil penalty.
(c) The Administrator may compromise any civil penalty proposed under this section, before referral to the United States Attorney General, or the delegate of the Attorney General, for prosecution.
(1) The Administrator, through the Chief Counsel; the Deputy Chief Counsel for Operations; the Assistant Chief Counsel for Enforcement; the Assistant Chief Counsel, Europe, Africa, and Middle East Area Office; the Regional Counsel; the Aeronautical Center Counsel; or the Technical Center Counsel sends a civil penalty letter to the person charged with a violation cited in § 13.14(a). The civil penalty letter contains a statement of the charges, the applicable law, rule, regulation, or order, the amount of civil penalty that the Administrator will accept in full settlement of the action or an offer to compromise the civil penalty.
(2) Not later than 30 days after receipt of the civil penalty letter, the person charged with a violation may present any material or information in answer to the charges to the agency attorney, either orally or in writing, that may explain, mitigate, or deny the violation or that may show extenuating circumstances. The Administrator will consider any material or information submitted in accordance with this paragraph to determine whether the person is subject to a civil penalty or to determine the amount for which the Administrator will compromise the action.
(3) If the person charged with the violation offers to compromise for a specific amount, that person must send to the agency attorney a certified check or money order for that amount, payable to the Federal Aviation Administration. The Chief Counsel; the Deputy Chief Counsel for Operations; the Assistant Chief Counsel for Enforcement; the Assistant Chief Counsel, Europe, Africa, and Middle East Area Office; the Regional Counsel; Aeronautical Center Counsel; or the Technical Center Counsel may accept the certified check or money order or may refuse and return the certified check or money order.
(4) If the offer to compromise is accepted by the Administrator, the agency attorney will send a letter to the person charged with the violation stating that the certified check or money
(5) If the parties cannot agree to compromise the civil penalty action or the offer to compromise is rejected and the certified check or money order submitted in compromise is returned, the Administrator may refer the civil penalty action to the United States Attorney General, or the delegate of the Attorney General, to begin proceedings in a United States district court, pursuant to the authority in 49 U.S.C. 46305, to prosecute and collect the civil penalty.
(a) The FAA uses these procedures when it assesses a civil penalty against a person other than an individual acting as a pilot, flight engineer, mechanic, or repairman for a violation cited in 49 U.S.C. 46301(d)(2).
(b)
(1) The amount in controversy is more than $50,000 for a violation committed by any person before December 12, 2003;
(2) The amount in controversy is more than $400,000 for a violation committed by a person other than an individual or small business concern on or after December 12, 2003;
(3) The amount in controversy is more than $50,000 for a violation committed by an individual or a small business concern on or after December 12, 2003;
(4) The action is in rem or another action in rem based on the same violation has been brought;
(5) The action involves an aircraft subject to a lien that has been seized by the Government; or
(6) Another action has been brought for an injunction based on the same violation.
(c)
(1) The nature, circumstances, extent, and gravity of the violation;
(2) With respect to the violator, the degree of culpability, any history of prior violations, the ability to pay, and any effect on the ability to continue to do business; and
(3) Such other matters as justice may require.
(d)
(1) An order assessing civil penalty may be issued if a person charged with a violation submits or agrees to submit a civil penalty for a violation.
(2) An order assessing civil penalty may be issued if a person charged with a violation does not request a hearing under paragraph (g)(2)(ii) of this section within 15 days after receipt of a final notice of proposed civil penalty.
(3) Unless an appeal is filed with the FAA decisionmaker in a timely manner, an initial decision or order of an administrative law judge shall be considered an order assessing civil penalty if an administrative law judge finds that an alleged violation occurred and determines that a civil penalty, in an amount found appropriate by the administrative law judge, is warranted.
(4) Unless a petition for review is filed with a U.S. Court of Appeals in a timely manner, a final decision and
(e)
(2) The authority of the Administrator under 49 U.S.C. 5123, 49 CFR 1.47(k), 49 U.S.C. 46301(d), and 49 U.S.C. 46305 to refer cases to the Attorney General of the United States, or the delegate of the Attorney General, for collection of civil penalties is delegated to the Deputy Chief Counsel for Operations; the Assistant Chief Counsel for Enforcement; Assistant Chief Counsel, Europe, Africa, and Middle East Area Office; the Regional Counsel; the Aeronautical Center Counsel; and the Technical Center Counsel.
(3) The authority of the Administrator under 49 U.S.C. 46301(f) to compromise the amount of a civil penalty imposed is delegated to the Deputy Chief Counsel for Operations; the Assistant Chief Counsel for Enforcement; Assistant Chief Counsel, Europe, Africa, and Middle East Area Office; the Regional Counsel; the Aeronautical Center Counsel; and the Technical Center Counsel.
(4) The authority of the Administrator under 49 U.S.C. 5123 (e) and (f) and 49 CFR 1.47(k) to compromise the amount of a civil penalty imposed is delegated to the Deputy Chief Counsel for Operations; the Assistant Chief Counsel for Enforcement; Assistant Chief Counsel, Europe, Africa, and Middle East Area Office; the Regional Counsel; the Aeronautical Center Counsel; and the Technical Center Counsel.
(f)
(1) Submit the amount of the proposed civil penalty or an agreed-upon amount, in which case either an order assessing civil penalty or compromise order shall be issued in that amount;
(2) Submit to the agency attorney one of the following:
(i) Written information, including documents and witness statements, demonstrating that a violation of the regulations did not occur or that a penalty or the amount of the penalty is not warranted by the circumstances.
(ii) A written request to reduce the proposed civil penalty, the amount of reduction, and the reasons and any documents supporting a reduction of the proposed civil penalty, including records indicating a financial inability to pay or records showing that payment of the proposed civil penalty would prevent the person from continuing in business.
(iii) A written request for an informal conference to discuss the matter with the agency attorney and to submit relevant information or documents; or
(3) Request a hearing, in which case a complaint shall be filed with the hearing docket clerk.
(g)
(1) A final notice of proposed civil penalty may be issued—
(i) If the person charged with a violation fails to respond to the notice of proposed civil penalty within 30 days after receipt of that notice; or
(ii) If the parties participated in any informal procedures under paragraph (f)(2) of this section and the parties have not agreed to compromise the action or the agency attorney has not agreed to withdraw the notice of proposed civil penalty.
(2) Not later than 15 days after receipt of the final notice of proposed civil penalty, the person charged with a violation shall do one of the following—
(i) Submit the amount of the proposed civil penalty or an agreed-upon amount, in which case either an order assessing civil penalty or a compromise order shall be issued in that amount; or
(ii) Request a hearing, in which case a complaint shall be filed with the hearing docket clerk.
(h) Request for a hearing. Any person charged with a violation may request a hearing, pursuant to paragraph (f)(3) or paragraph (g)(2)(ii) of this section, to be conducted in accordance with the procedures in subpart G of this part. A person requesting a hearing shall file a written request for a hearing with the hearing docket clerk, using the appropriate address set forth in § 13.210(a) of this part, and shall mail a copy of the request to the agency attorney. The request for a hearing may be in the form of a letter but must be dated and signed by the person requesting a hearing. The request for a hearing may be typewritten or may be legibly handwritten.
(i)
(j)
(k)
(l)
(m)
(2)
(n)
(1) An agency attorney may compromise any civil penalty action where a person charged with a violation agrees to pay a civil penalty and the FAA agrees not to make a finding of violation. Under such agreement, a compromise order is issued following the payment of the agreed-on amount or the signing of a promissory note. The compromise order states the following:
(i) The person has paid a civil penalty or has signed a promissory note providing for installment payments.
(ii) The FAA makes no finding of a violation.
(iii) The compromise order shall not be used as evidence of a prior violation in any subsequent civil penalty proceeding or certificate action proceeding.
(2) An agency attorney may compromise the amount of a civil penalty proposed in a notice, assessed in an order, or imposed in a compromise order.
(a) Under section 903 of the Federal Aviation Act of 1958 (49 U.S.C. 1473), a State or Federal law enforcement officer, or a Federal Aviation Administration safety inspector, authorized in an order of seizure issued by the Regional Administrator of the region, or by the Chief Counsel, may summarily seize an aircraft that is involved in a violation for which a civil penalty may be imposed on its owner or operator.
(b) Each person seizing an aircraft under this section shall place it in the nearest available and adequate public storage facility in the judicial district in which it was seized.
(c) The Regional Administrator or Chief Counsel, without delay, sends a written notice and a copy of this section, to the registered owner of the seized aircraft, and to each other persons shown by FAA records to have an interest in it, stating the—
(1) Time, date, and place of seizure;
(2) Name and address of the custodian of the aircraft;
(3) Reasons for the seizure, including the violations believed, or judicially determined, to have been committed; and
(4) Amount that may be tendered as—
(i) A compromise of a civil penalty for the alleged violation; or
(ii) Payment for a civil penalty imposed by a Federal court for a proven violation.
(d) The Chief Counsel, or the Regional Counsel or Assistant Chief Counsel for the region or area in which an aircraft is seized under this section, immediately sends a report to the United States District Attorney for the judicial district in which it was seized, requesting the District Attorney to institute proceedings to enforce a lien against the aircraft.
(e) The Regional Administrator or Chief Counsel directs the release of a seized aircraft whenever—
(1) The alleged violator pays a civil penalty or an amount agreed upon in compromise, and the costs of seizing, storing, and maintaining the aircraft;
(2) The aircraft is seized under an order of a Federal Court in proceedings in rem to enforce a lien against the aircraft, or the United States District Attorney for the judicial district concerned notifies the FAA that the District Attorney refuses to institute those proceedings; or
(3) A bond in the amount and with the sureties prescribed by the Chief Counsel, the Regional Counsel, or the Assistant Chief Counsel is deposited, conditioned on payment of the penalty, or the compromise amount, and the costs of seizing, storing, and maintaining the aircraft.
(a)
(2)
(i) The amount in controversy is more than $50,000.
(ii) The action involves an aircraft subject to a lien that has been seized by the Government; or
(iii) Another action has been brought for an injunction based on the same violation.
(b)
(1)
(2)
(3)
(4)
(5)
(c)
(2) The authority of the Administrator to refer cases to the Attorney General of the United States, or the delegate of the Attorney General, for collection of civil penalties is delegated to the Chief Counsel; the Deputy Chief Counsel for Operations; the Assistant Chief Counsel for Enforcement; Assistant Chief Counsel, Europe, Africa, and Middle East Area Office; the Regional Counsel; the Aeronautical Center Counsel; and the Technical Center Counsel.
(3) The authority of the Administrator to compromise the amount of a civil penalty under 49 U.S.C. 46301(f) is delegated to the Chief Counsel; the Deputy Chief Counsel for Operations; the Assistant Chief Counsel for Enforcement; Assistant Chief Counsel, Europe, Africa, and Middle East Area Office; the Regional Counsel; the Aeronautical Center Counsel; and the Technical Center Counsel.
(d)
(1) Submit the amount of the proposed civil penalty or an agreed-on amount, in which case either an order of assessment or a compromise order will be issued in that amount.
(2) Answer the charges in writing.
(3) Submit a written request for an informal conference to discuss the matter with an agency attorney and submit relevant information or documents.
(4) Request that an order be issued in accordance with the notice of proposed assessment so that the individual charged may appeal to the National Transportation Safety Board.
(e)
(f)
(g)
(h)
(i)
(1) An agency attorney may compromise any civil penalty action where an individual charged with a violation agrees to pay a civil penalty and the FAA agrees to make no finding of violation. Under such agreement, a compromise order is issued following the payment of the agreed-on amount or the signing of a promissory note. The compromise order states the following:
(i) The individual has paid a civil penalty or has signed a promissory note providing for installment payments;
(ii) The FAA makes no finding of violation; and
(iii) The compromise order will not be used as evidence of a prior violation in any subsequent civil penalty proceeding or certificate action proceeding.
(2) An agency attorney may compromise the amount of any civil penalty proposed or assessed in an order.
(j)
(i) Sending a certified check or money order, payable to the Federal Aviation Administration, to the FAA office identified in the order of assessment, or
(ii) Making an electronic funds transfer according to the directions specified in the order of assessment.
(2) The civil penalty must be paid within 30 days after service of the order of assessment, unless an appeal is filed with the National Transportation Safety Board. The civil penalty must be paid within 30 days after a final order of the Board or the Court of Appeals affirms the order of assessment in whole or in part.
(k)
(a) Under section 609 of the Federal Aviation Act of 1958 (49 U.S.C. 1429), the Administrator may reinspect any civil aircraft, aircraft engine, propeller, appliance, air navigation facility, or air agency, and may re-examine any civil airman. Under section 501(e) of the FA Act, any Certificate of Aircraft Registration may be suspended or revoked by the Administrator for any cause that renders the aircraft ineligible for registration.
(b) If, as a result of such a reinspection re-examination, or other investigation made by the Administrator under section 609 of the FA Act, the Administrator determines that the public interest and safety in air commerce requires it, the Administrator may issue an order amending, suspending, or revoking, all or part of any type certificate, production certificate, airworthiness certificate, airman certificate, air carrier operating certificate, air navigation facility certificate, or air agency certificate. This authority may be exercised for remedial purposes in cases involving the Hazardous Materials Transportation Act (49 U.S.C. 1801 et seq.) or regulations issued under that Act. This authority is also exercised by the Chief Counsel, the Assistant Chief Counsel, Enforcement, the Assistant Chief Counsel, Regulations, the Assistant Chief Counsel, Europe, Africa, and Middle East Area Office, each Regional Counsel, and the Aeronautical Center Counsel. If the Administrator finds that any aircraft registered under Part 47 of this chapter is ineligible for registration or if the holder of a Certificate of Aircraft Registration has refused or failed to submit AC Form 8050-73, as required by § 47.51 of this chapter, the Administrator issues an order suspending or revoking that certificate. This authority as to aircraft found ineligible for registration is also exercised by each Regional Counsel, the Aeronautical Center Counsel, and the Assistant Chief Counsel, Europe, Africa, and Middle East Area Office.
(c) Before issuing an order under paragraph (b) of this section, the Chief Counsel, the Assistant Chief Counsel, Enforcement, the Assistant Chief Counsel, Regulations, the Assistant Chief Counsel, Europe, Africa, and Middle East Area Office, each Regional Counsel, or the Aeronautical Center Counsel advises the certificate holder of the charges or other reasons upon which the Administrator bases the proposed action and, except in an emergency, allows the holder to answer any charges and to be heard as to why the certificate should not be amended, suspended, or revoked. The holder may, by checking the appropriate box on the form that is sent to the holder with the notice of proposed certificate action, elect to—
(1) Admit the charges and surrender his or her certificate;
(2) Answer the charges in writing;
(3) Request that an order be issued in accordance with the notice of proposed certificate action so that the certificate holder may appeal to the National Transportation Safety Board, if the charges concerning a matter under Title VI of the FA Act;
(4) Request an opportunity to be heard in an informal conference with the FAA counsel; or
(5) Request a hearing in accordance with Subpart D of this part if the charges concern a matter under Title V of the FA Act.
(d) Any person whose certificate is affected by an order issued under this section may appeal to the National Transportation Safety Board. If the certificate holder files an appeal with the Board, the Administrator's order is stayed unless the Administrator advises the Board that an emergency exists and safety in air commerce requires that the order become effective immediately. If the Board is so advised, the order remains effective and the Board shall finally dispose of the appeal within 60 days after the date of the advice. This paragraph does not apply to any person whose Certificate of Aircraft Registration is affected by an order issued under this section.
(a) This section applies to orders of compliance, cease and desist orders, orders of denial, and other orders issued by the Administrator to carry out the provisions of the Federal Aviation Act of 1958, as amended, the Hazardous Materials Transportation Act, the Airport and Airway Development Act of 1970, and the Airport and Airway Improvement Act of 1982, or the Airport and Airway Improvement Act of 1982 as amended by the Airport and Airway Safety and Capacity Expansion Act of 1987. This section does not apply to orders issued pursuant to section 602 or section 609 of the Federal Aviation Act of 1958, as amended.
(b) Unless the Administrator determines that an emergency exists and safety in air commerce requires the immediate issuance of an order under this section, the person subject to the order shall be provided with notice prior to issuance.
(c) Within 30 days after service of the notice, the person subject to the order may reply in writing or request a hearing in accordance with Subpart D of this part.
(d) If a reply is filed, as to any charges not dismissed or not subject to a consent order, the person subject to the order may, within 10 days after receipt of notice that the remaining charges are not dismissed, request a hearing in accordance with Subpart D of this part.
(e) Failure to request a hearing within the period provided in paragraphs (c) or (d) of this section—
(1) Constitutes a waiver of the right to appeal and the right to a hearing, and
(2) Authorizes the official who issued the notice to find the facts to be as alleged in the notice, or as modified as the official may determine necessary based on any written response, and to issue an appropriate order, without further notice or proceedings.
(f) If a hearing is requested in accordance with paragraph (c) or (d) of this section, the procedure of Subpart D of this part applies. At the close of the hearing, the Hearing Officer, on the record or subsequently in writing, shall set forth findings and conclusions and the reasons therefor, and either—
(1) Dismiss the notice; or
(2) Issue an order.
(g) Any party to the hearing may appeal from the order of the Hearing Officer by filing a notice of appeal with the Administrator within 20 days after the date of issuance of the order.
(h) If a notice of appeal is not filed from the order issued by a Hearing Officer, such order is the final agency order.
(i) Any person filing an appeal authorized by paragraph (g) of this section shall file an appeal brief with the Administrator within 40 days after the date of issuance of the order, and serve a copy on the other party. A reply brief must be filed within 20 days after service of the appeal brief and a copy served on the appellant.
(j) On appeal the Administrator reviews the available record of the proceeding, and issues an order dismissing, reversing, modifying or affirming the order. The Administrator's order includes the reasons for the Administrator's action.
(k) For good cause shown, requests for extensions of time to file any document under this section may be granted by—
(1) The official who issued the order, if the request is filed prior to the designation of a Hearing Officer; or
(2) The Hearing Officer, if the request is filed prior to the filing of a notice of appeal; or
(3) The Administrator, if the request is filed after the filing of a notice of appeal.
(l) Except in the case of an appeal from the decision of a Hearing Officer, the authority of the Administrator under this section is also exercised by the Chief Counsel, Deputy Chief Counsel, each Assistant Chief Counsel, each Regional Counsel, and the Aeronautical Center Counsel (as to matters under Title V of the Federal Aviation Act of 1958).
(m) Filing and service of documents under this section shall be accomplished in accordance with § 13.43; and the periods of time specified in this section shall be computed in accordance with § 13.44.
If a report made under this part indicates that, while performing official duties, a member of the Armed Forces, or a civilian employee of the Department of Defense who is subject to the Uniform Code of Military Justice (10 U.S.C. Ch. 47), has violated the Federal Aviation Act of 1958, or a regulation or order issued under it, the Chief Counsel, the Assistant Chief Counsel, Enforcement, the Assistant Chief Counsel, Regulations, the Assistant Chief Counsel, Europe, Africa, and Middle East Area Office, each Regional Counsel, and the Aeronautical Center Counsel send a copy of the report to the appropriate military authority for such disciplinary action as that authority considers appropriate and a report to the Administrator thereon.
(a) Sections 902 and 1203 of the Federal Aviation Act of 1958 (49 U.S.C. 1472 and 1523), provide criminal penalties for any person who knowingly and willfully violates specified provisions of that Act, or any regulation or order issued under those provisions. Section 110(b) of the Hazardous Materials Transportation Act (49 U.S.C. 1809(b)) provides for a criminal penalty of a fine of not more than $25,000, imprisonment for not more than five years, or both, for any person who willfully violates a provision of that Act or a regulation or order issued under it.
(b) If an inspector or other employee of the FAA becomes aware of a possible violation of any criminal provision of the Federal Aviation Act of 1958 (except a violation of section 902 (i) through (m) which is reported directly to the Federal Bureau of Investigation), or of the Hazardous Materials Transportation Act, relating to the transportation or shipment by air of hazardous materials, he or she shall report it to the Office of the Chief Counsel or the Regional Counsel or Assistant Chief Counsel for the region or area concerned. If appropriate, that office refers the report to the Department of Justice for criminal prosecution of the offender. If such an inspector or other employee becomes aware of a possible violation of a Federal statute that is within the investigatory jurisdiction of another Federal agency, he or she shall immediately report it to that agency according to standard FAA practices.
(a) Whenever it is determined that a person has engaged, or is about to engage, in any act or practice constituting a violation of the Federal Aviation Act of 1958, or any regulation or order issued under it for which the FAA exercises enforcement responsibility, or, with respect to the transportation or shipment by air of any hazardous materials, in any act or practice constituting a violation of the Hazardous Materials Transportation Act, or any regulation or order issued
(b) Whenever it is determined that there is substantial likelihood that death, serious illness, or severe personal injury, will result from the transportation by air of a particular hazardous material before an order of compliance proceeding, or other administrative hearing or formal proceeding to abate the risk of the harm can be completed, the Chief Counsel, the Assistant Chief Counsel, Enforcement, the Assistant Chief Counsel, Regulations, the Assistant Chief Counsel, Europe, Africa, and Middle East Area Office, each Regional Counsel, and the Aeronautical Center Counsel may bring, or request the United States Attorney General to bring, an action in the appropriate United States District Court for an order suspending or restricting the transportation by air of the hazardous material or for such other order as is necessary to eliminate or ameliorate the imminent hazard, as provided by section 111(b) of the Hazardous Materials Transportation Act (49 U.S.C. 1810).
(a) If, in proceedings under section 501(b) of the Federal Aviation Act of 1958 (49 USC 1401), the Hearing Officer determines that the holder of the Certificate of Aircraft Registration has refused or failed to submit AC Form 8050-73, as required by § 47.51 of this chapter, or that the aircraft is ineligible for a Certificate of Aircraft Registration, the Hearing Officer shall suspend or revoke the respondent's certificate, as proposed in the notice of proposed certificate action.
(b) If the final order of the Hearing Officer makes a decision on the merits, it shall contain a statement of the findings and conclusions of law on all material issues of fact and law. If the Hearing Officer finds that the allegations of the notice have been proven, but that no sanction is required, the Hearing Officer shall make appropriate findings and issue an order terminating the notice. If the Hearing Officer finds that the allegations of the notice have not been proven, the Hearing Officer shall issue an order dismissing the notice. If the Hearing Officer finds it to be equitable and in the public interest, the Hearing Officer shall issue an order terminating the proceeding upon payment by the respondent of a civil penalty in an amount agreed upon by the parties.
(c) If the order is issued in writing, it shall be served upon the parties.
This section may be used, at the agency's discretion, in enforcement actions involving individuals presenting dangerous or deadly weapons for screening at airports or in checked baggage where the amount of the proposed civil penalty is less than $5,000. In these cases, sections 13.16(a), 13.16(c), and 13.16 (f) through (l) of this chapter are used, as well as paragraphs (a) through (d) of this section:
(a)
(b)
(1) Submit the amount of the proposed civil penalty or an agreed-upon amount, in which case either an order assessing a civil penalty or a compromise order shall be issued in that amount; or
(2) Submit to the agency attorney identified in the material accompanying the notice any of the following:
(i) Written information, including documents and witness statements, demonstrating that a violation of the regulations did not occur or that a penalty or the penalty amount is not warranted by the circumstances; or
(ii) A written request to reduce the proposed civil penalty, the amount of reduction, and the reasons and any documents supporting a reduction of the proposed civil penalty, including records indicating a financial inability to pay or records showing that payment of the proposed civil penalty would prevent the person from continuing in business; or
(iii) A written request for an informal conference to discuss the matter with an agency attorney and submit relevant information or documents; or
(3) Request a hearing in which case a complaint shall be filed with the hearing docket clerk.
(c)
A final notice and order may be issued—
(1) If the person charged with a violation fails to respond to the notice of violation within 30 days after receipt of that notice; or
(2) If the parties participated in any informal procedures under paragraph (b)(2) of this section and the parties have not agreed to compromise the action or the agency attorney has not agreed to withdraw the notice of violation.
(d)
(1) An order assessing civil penalty may be issued if a person charged with a violation submits, or agrees to submit, the amount of civil penalty proposed in the notice of violation.
(2) An order assessing civil penalty may be issued if a person charged with a violation submits, or agrees to submit, an agreed-upon amount of civil penalty that is not reflected in either the notice of violation or the final notice and order.
(3) The final notice and order becomes (and contains a statement so indicating) an order assessing a civil penalty when the person charged with a violation submits the amount of the proposed civil penalty that is reflected in the final notice and order.
(4) The final notice and order becomes (and contains a statement so indicating) an order assessing a civil penalty 16 days after receipt of the final notice and order,
(i) Submits an agreed-upon amount of civil penalty that is not reflected in the final notice and order, in which case an order assessing civil penalty or a compromise order shall be issued in that amount; or
(ii) Requests a hearing in which case a complaint shall be filed with the hearing docket clerk.
(5) Unless an appeal is filed with the FAA decisionmaker in a timely manner, an initial decision or order of an administrative law judge shall be considered an order assessing civil penalty if an administrative law judge finds that an alleged violation occurred and determines that a civil penalty, in an amount found to be appropriate by the administrative law judge, is warranted.
(6) Unless a petition for review is filed with a U.S. Court of Appeals in a timely manner, a final decision and order of the Administrator shall be considered an order assessing civil penalty if the FAA decisionmaker finds that an alleged violation occurred and a civil penalty is warranted.
This subpart applies to proceedings in which a hearing has been requested in accordance with §§ 13.19(c)(5), 13.20(c), 13.20(d), 13.75(a)(2), 13.75(b), or 13.81(e).
Any party to a proceeding under this subpart may appear and be heard in person or by attorney.
(a) A request for hearing must be made in writing to the Hearing Docket, Room 924A, Federal Aviation Administration, 800 Independence Avenue, S.W., Washington, D.C. 20591. It must describe briefly the action proposed by the FAA, and must contain a statement that a hearing is requested. A copy of the request for hearing and a copy of the answer required by paragraph (b) of this section must be served on the official who issued the notice of proposed action.
(b) An answer to the notice of proposed action must be filed with the request for hearing. All allegations in the notice not specifically denied in the answer are deemed admitted.
(c) Within 15 days after service of the copy of the request for hearing, the official who issued the notice of proposed action forwards a copy of that notice, which serves as the complaint, to the Hearing Docket.
Any Hearing Officer may—
(a) Give notice concerning, and hold, prehearing conferences and hearings;
(b) Administrator oaths and affirmations;
(c) Examine witnesses;
(d) Adopt procedures for the submission of evidence in written form;
(e) Issue subpoenas and take depositions or cause them to be taken;
(f) Rule on offers of proof;
(g) Receive evidence;
(h) Regulate the course of the hearing;
(i) Hold conferences, before and during the hearing, to settle and simplify issues by consent of the parties;
(j) Dispose of procedural requests and similar matters; and
(k) Issue decisions, make findings of fact, make assessments, and issue orders, as appropriate.
If disqualified for any reason, the Hearing Officer shall withdraw from the case.
(a) Copies of all pleadings, motions, and documents filed with the Hearing Docket must be served upon all parties to the proceedings by the person filing them.
(b) Service may be made by personal delivery or by mail.
(c) A certificate of service shall accompany all documents when they are tendered for filing and shall consist of a certificate of personal delivery or a certificate of mailing, executed by the person making the personal delivery or mailing the document.
(d) Whenever proof of service by mail is made, the date of mailing or the date as shown on the postmark shall be the date of service, and where personal service is made, the date of personal delivery shall be the date of service.
(e) The date of filing is the date the document is actually received.
(a) In computing any period of time prescribed or allowed by this subpart, the date of the act, event, default, notice or order after which the designated period of time begins to run is not to be included in the computation. The last day of the period so computed is to be included unless it is a Saturday, Sunday, or legal holiday for the FAA, in which event the period runs until the end of the next day which is neither a Saturday, Sunday nor a legal holiday.
(b) Upon written request filed with the Hearing Docket and served upon all parties, and for good cause shown, a Hearing Officer may grant an extension of time to file any documents specified in this subpart.
At any time more than 10 days before the date of hearing, any party may amend his or her notice, answer, or other pleading, by filing the amendment with the Hearing Officer and serving a copy of it on each other party. After that time, amendments may be allowed only in the discretion of the Hearing Officer. If an amendment to an initial pleading has been allowed, the Hearing Officer shall allow the other parties a reasonable opportunity to answer.
At any time before the hearing, the FAA counsel may withdraw the notice of proposed action, and the party requesting the hearing may withdraw the request for hearing.
(a)
(b) [Reserved]
(c)
(d)
(e)
(f)
(g)
(h)
Any person may move for leave to intervene in a proceeding and may become a party thereto, if the Hearing Officer, after the case is sent to the Hearing Officer for hearing, finds that the person may be bound by the order to be issued in the proceedings or has a property or financial interest that may not be adequately represented by existing parties, and that the intervention will not unduly broaden the issues or delay the proceedings. Except for good cause shown, a motion for leave to intervene may not be considered if it is filed less than 10 days before the hearing.
After the respondent has filed a request for hearing and an answer, either party may take testimony by deposition in accordance with section 1004 of the Federal Aviation Act of 1958 (49 U.S.C. 1484) or Rule 26, Federal Rules of Civil Procedure.
The Hearing Officer shall set a reasonable date, time, and place for the hearing, and shall give the parties adequate notice thereof and of the nature of the hearing. Due regard shall be given to the convenience of the parties with respect to the place of the hearing.
(a) The Hearing Officer to whom a case is assigned may, upon application by any party to the proceeding, issue subpoenas requiring the attendance of witnesses or the production of documentary or tangible evidence at a hearing or for the purpose of taking depositions. However, the application for producing evidence must show its general relevance and reasonable scope. This paragraph does not apply to the attendance of FAA employees or to the production of documentary evidence in the custody of such an employee at a hearing.
(b) A person who applies for the production of a document in the custody of an FAA employee must follow the procedure in § 13.49(f). A person who applies for the attendance of an FAA employee must send the application, in writing, to the Hearing Officer setting forth the need for that employee's attendance.
(c) A witness in a proceeding under this subpart is entitled to the same fees and mileage as is paid to a witness in a court of the United States under comparable circumstances. The party at whose instance the witness is subpoenaed or appears shall pay the witness fees.
(d) Notwithstanding the provisions of paragraph (c) of this section, the FAA pays the witness fees and mileage if the Hearing Officer who issued the subpoena determines, on the basis of a written request and good cause shown, that—
(1) The presence of the witness will materially advance the proceeding; and
(2) The party at whose instance the witness is subpoenaed would suffer a serious hardship if required to pay the witness fees and mileage.
(a) Each party to a hearing may present the party's case or defense by oral or documentary evidence, submit evidence in rebuttal, and conduct such cross-examination as may be needed for a full disclosure of the facts.
(b) Except with respect to affirmative defenses and orders of denial, the burden of proof is upon the FAA counsel.
(c) The Hearing Officer may order information contained in any report or document filed or in any testimony given pursuant to this subpart withheld from public disclosure when, in the judgment of the Hearing Officer, disclosure would adversely affect the interests of any person and is not required in the public interest or is not otherwise required by statute to be made available to the public. Any person may make written objection to the public disclosure of such information, stating the ground for such objection.
The Hearing Officer shall give the parties adequate opportunity to present arguments in support of motions, objections, and the final order.
The testimony and exhibits presented at a hearing, together with all papers, requests, and rulings filed in the proceedings are the exclusive basis for the issuance of an order. Either party may obtain a transcript from the official reporter upon payment of the fees fixed therefor.
Whenever the Chief Counsel, the Assistant Chief Counsel, Enforcement, the Assistant Chief Counsel, Europe, Africa, and Middle East Area Office, or a Regional Counsel has reason to believe that a person is engaging in the transportation or shipment by air of hazardous materials in violation of the Hazardous Materials Transportation Act, or any regulation or order issued under it for which the FAA exercises enforcement responsibility, and the circumstances do not require the issuance of an order of immediate compliance, he may conduct proceedings pursuant to section 109 of that Act (49 U.S.C. 1808) to determine the nature and extent of the violation, and may thereafter issue an order directing compliance.
A compliance order proceeding commences when the Chief Counsel, the Assistant Chief Counsel, Enforcement, the Assistant Chief Counsel, Europe, Africa, and Middle East Area Office, or a Regional Counsel sends the alleged violator a notice of proposed order of compliance advising the alleged violator of the charges and setting forth the remedial action sought in the form of a proposed order of compliance.
(a) Within 30 days after service upon the alleged violator of a notice of proposed order of compliance, the alleged violator may—
(1) File a reply in writing with the official who issued the notice; or
(2) Request a hearing in accordance with Subpart D of this part.
(b) If a reply is filed, as to any charges not dismissed or not subject to a consent order of compliance, the alleged violator may, within 10 days after receipt of notice that the remaining charges are not dismissed, request a hearing in accordance with Subpart D of this part.
(c) Failure of the alleged violator to file a reply or request a hearing within the period provided in paragraph (a) or (b) of this section—
(1) Constitutes a waiver of the right to a hearing and the right to an appeal, and
(2) Authorizes the official who issued the notice to find the facts to be as alleged in the notice and to issue an appropriate order directing compliance, without further notice or proceedings.
(a) At any time before the issuance of an order of compliance, the official who issued the notice and the alleged violator may agree to dispose of the case by the issuance of a consent order of compliance by the official.
(b) A proposal for a consent order submitted to the official who issued the notice under this section must include—
(1) A proposed order of compliance;
(2) An admission of all jurisdictional facts;
(3) An express waiver of right to further procedural steps and of all rights to judicial review;
(4) An incorporation by reference of the notice and an acknowledgement
(5) If the issuance of a consent order has been agreed upon after the filing of a request for hearing in accordance with Subpart D of this part, the proposal for a consent order shall include a request to be filed with the Hearing Officer withdrawing the request for a hearing and requesting that the case be dismissed.
If an alleged violator requests a hearing in accordance with § 13.75, the procedure of Subpart D of this part applies. At the close of the hearing, the Hearing Officer, on the record or subsequently in writing, sets forth the Hearing Officer's findings and conclusion and the reasons therefor, and either—
(a) Dismisses the notice of proposed order of compliance; or
(b) Issues an order of compliance.
(a) Notwithstanding §§ 13.73 through 13.79, the Chief Counsel, the Assistant Chief Counsel, Enforcement, the Assistant Chief Counsel, Europe, Africa, and Middle East Area Office, or a Regional Counsel may issue an order of immediate compliance, which is effective upon issuance, if the person who issues the order finds that—
(1) There is strong probability that a violation is occurring or is about to occur;
(2) The violation poses a substantial risk to health or to safety of life or property; and
(3) The public interest requires the avoidance or amelioration of that risk through immediate compliance and waiver of the procedures afforded under §§ 13.73 through 13.79.
(b) An order of immediate compliance is served promptly upon the person against whom the order is issued by telephone or telegram, and a written statement of the relevant facts and the legal basis for the order, including the findings required by paragraph (a) of this section, is served promptly by personal service or by mail.
(c) The official who issued the order of immediate compliance may rescind or suspend the order if it appears that the criteria set forth in paragraph (a) of this section are no longer satisfied, and, when appropriate, may issue a notice of proposed order of compliance under § 13.73 in lieu thereof.
(d) If at any time in the course of a proceeding commenced in accordance with § 13.73 the criteria set forth in paragraph (a) of this section are satisfied, the official who issued the notice may issue an order of immediate compliance, even if the period for filing a reply or requesting a hearing specified in § 13.75 has not expired.
(e) Within three days after receipt of service of an order of immediate compliance, the alleged violator may request a hearing in accordance with Subpart D of this part and the procedure in that subpart will apply except that—
(1) The case will be heard within fifteen days after the date of the order of immediate compliance unless the alleged violator requests a later date;
(2) The order will serve as the complaint; and
(3) The Hearing Officer shall issue his decision and order dismissing, reversing, modifying, or affirming the order of immediate compliance on the record at the close of the hearing.
(f) The filing of a request for hearing in accordance with paragraph (e) of this section does not stay the effectiveness of an order of immediate compliance.
(g) At any time after an order of immediate compliance has become effective, the official who issued the order may request the United States Attorney General, or the delegate of the Attorney General, to bring an action for appropriate relief in accordance with § 13.25.
(a) Any party to the hearing may appeal from the order of the Hearing Officer by filing a notice of appeal with the Administrator within 20 days after the date of issuance of the order.
(b) Any person against whom an order of immediate compliance has
(c) Unless the Administrator expressly so provides, the filing of a notice of appeal does not stay the effectiveness of an order of immediate compliance.
(d) If a notice of appeal is not filed from the order of compliance issued by a Hearing Officer, such order is the final agency order of compliance.
(e) Any person filing an appeal authorized by paragraph (a) of this section shall file an appeal brief with the Administrator within 40 days after the date of the issuance of the order, and serve a copy on the other party. Any reply brief must be filed within 20 days after service of the appeal brief. A copy of the reply brief must be served on the appellant.
(f) Any person filing an appeal authorized by paragraph (b) of this section shall file an appeal brief with the Administrator with the notice of appeal and serve a copy on the other party. Any reply brief must be filed within 3 days after receipt of the appeal brief. A copy of the reply brief must be served on the appellant.
(g) On appeal the Administrator reviews the available record of the proceeding, and issues an order dismissing, reversing, modifying or affirming the order of compliance or the order of immediate compliance. The Administrator's order includes the reasons for the action.
(h) In cases involving an order of immediate compliance, the Administrator's order on appeal is issued within ten days after the filing of the notice of appeal.
Filing and service of documents under this subpart shall be accomplished in accordance with § 13.43 except service of orders of immediate compliance under § 13.81(b); and the periods of time specified in this subpart shall be computed in accordance with § 13.44.
(a) The official who issued the notice of proposed order of compliance, for good cause shown, may grant an extension of time to file any document specified in this subpart, except documents to be filed with the Administrator.
(b) Extensions of time to file documents with the Administrator may be granted by the Administrator upon written request, served upon all parties, and for good cause shown.
(a) This subpart applies to fact-finding investigations in which an order of investigation has been issued under § 13.3(c) or § 13.5(i) of this part.
(b) This subpart does not limit the authority of duly designated persons to issue subpoenas, administer oaths, examine witnesses and receive evidence in any informal investigation as provided for in sections 313 and 1004(a) of the Federal Aviation Act (49 U.S.C. 1354 and 1484(a)) and section 109(a) of the Hazardous Materials Transportation Act (49 U.S.C. 1808(a)).
The order of investigation—
(a) Defines the scope of the investigation by describing the information sought in terms of its subject matter or its relevancy to specified FAA functions;
(b) Sets forth the form of the investigation which may be either by individual deposition or investigative proceeding or both; and
(c) Names the official who is authorized to conduct the investigation and serve as the Presiding Officer.
Any person under investigation and any person required to testify and produce documentary or physical evidence during the investigation will be
(a) The Presiding Officer may designate additional persons as parties to the investigation, if in the discretion of the Presiding Officer, it will aid in the conduct of the investigation.
(b) The Presiding Officer may designate any person as a party to the investigation if that person—
(1) Petitions the Presiding Officer to participate as a party; and
(2) Is so situated that the disposition of the investigation may as a practical matter impair the ability to protect that person's interest unless allowed to participate as a party, and
(3) Is not adequately represented by existing parties.
The investigation shall be conducted at such place or places designated by the Presiding Officer, and as convenient to the parties involved as expeditious and efficient handling of the investigation permits.
(a) Upon motion of the Presiding Officer, or upon the request of a party to the investigation, the Presiding Officer may issue a subpoena directing any person to appear at a designated time and place to testify or to produce documentary or physical evidence relating to any matter under investigation.
(b) Subpoenas shall be served by personal service, or upon an agent designated in writing for the purpose, or by registered or certified mail addressed to such person or agent. Whenever service is made by registered or certified mail, the date of mailing shall be considered as the time when service is made.
(c) Subpoenas shall extend in jurisdiction throughout the United States or any territory or possession thereof.
If any person fails to comply with the provisions of this subpart or with any subpoena or order issued by the Presiding Officer or the designee of the Presiding Officer, judicial enforcement may be initiated against that person under applicable statutes.
(a) All investigative proceedings and depositions shall be public unless the Presiding Officer determines that the public interest requires otherwise.
(b) The Presiding Officer may order information contained in any report or document filed or in any testimony given pursuant to this subpart withheld from public disclosure when, in the judgment of the Presiding Officer, disclosure would adversely affect the interests of any person and is not required in the public interest or is not otherwise required by statute to be made available to the public. Any person may make written objection to the public disclosure of such information, stating the grounds for such objection.
(a) The Presiding Officer or the designee of the Presiding Officer may question witnesses.
(b) Any witness may be accompanied by counsel.
(c) Any party may be accompanied by counsel and either the party or counsel may—
(1) Question witnesses, provided the questions are relevant and material to the matters under investigation and would not unduly impede the progress of the investigation; and
(2) Make objections on the record and argue the basis for such objections.
(d) Copies of all notices or written communications sent to a party or witness shall upon request be sent to that person's attorney of record.
(a) Whenever a person refuses, on the basis of a privilege against self-incrimination, to testify or provide other information during the course of any
(b) The Presiding Officer may issue an order under this section if—
(1) The testimony or other information from the witness may be necessary to the public interest; and
(2) The witness has refused or is likely to refuse to testify or provide other information on the basis of a privilege against self-incrimination.
(c) Immunity provided by this section will not become effective until the person has refused to testify or provide other information on the basis of a privilege against self-incrimination, and an order under this section has been issued. An order, however, may be issued prospectively to become effective in the event of a claim of the privilege.
All witnesses appearing shall be compensated at the same rate as a witness appearing before a United States District Court.
(a) During an investigation conducted under this subpart, a party may submit to the Presiding Officer—
(1) A list of witnesses to be called, specifying the subject matter of the expected testimony of each witness, and
(2) A list of exhibits to be considered for inclusion in the record.
(b) If the Presiding Officer determines that the testimony of a witness or the receipt of an exhibit in accordance with paragraph (a) of this section will be relevant, competent and material to the investigation, the Presiding Officer may subpoena the witness or use the exhibit during the investigation.
Depositions for investigative purposes may be taken at the discretion of the Presiding Officer with reasonable notice to the party under investigation. Such depositions shall be taken before the Presiding Officer or other person authorized to administer oaths and designated by the Presiding Officer. The testimony shall be reduced to writing by the person taking the deposition, or under the direction of that person, and where possible shall then be subscribed by the deponent. Any person may be compelled to appear and testify and to produce physical and documentary evidence.
The Presiding Officer shall issue a written report based on the record developed during the formal investigation, including a summary of principal conclusions. A summary of principal conclusions shall be prepared by the official who issued the order of investigation in every case which results in no action, or no action as to a particular party to the investigation. All such reports shall be furnished to the parties to the investigation and filed in the public docket. Insertion of the report in the Public Docket shall constitute “entering of record” and publication as prescribed by section 313(b) of the Federal Aviation Act.
A decision on whether to initiate subsequent action shall be made on the basis of the record developed during the formal investigation and any other information in the possession of the Administrator.
Any question concerning the scope or conduct of a formal investigation not covered in this subpart may be ruled on by the Presiding Officer on motion of the Presiding Officer, or on the motion of a party or a person testifying or producing evidence.
(a) This subpart applies to all civil penalty actions initiated under § 13.16 of this part in which a hearing has been requested.
(b) This subpart applies only to proceedings initiated after September 7, 1988. All other cases, hearings, or other proceedings pending or in progress before September 7, 1988, are not affected by the rules in this subpart.
(1) The Chief Counsel, the Deputy Chief Counsel for Policy and Adjudication, or the Assistant Chief Counsel for Litigation;
(2) Any attorney on the staff of the Assistant Chief Counsel for Litigation;
(3) Any attorney who is supervised in a civil penalty action by a person who provides such advice to the FAA decisionmaker in that action or a factually-related action.
(a) Civil penalty proceedings, including hearings, shall be prosecuted by an agency attorney.
(b) An agency employee engaged in the performance of investigative or prosecutorial functions in a civil penalty action shall not, in that case or a factually-related case, participate or give advice in a decision by the administrative law judge or by the FAA decisionmaker on appeal, except as counsel or a witness in the public proceedings.
(c) The Chief Counsel, the Deputy Chief Counsel for Policy and Adjudication, and the Assistant Chief Counsel for Litigation, or an attorney on the staff of the Assistant Chief Counsel for Litigation will advise the FAA decisionmaker regarding an initial decision or any appeal of a civil penalty action to the FAA decisionmaker.
(a) Any party may appear and be heard in person.
(b) Any party may be accompanied, represented, or advised by an attorney or representative designated by the party and may be examined by that attorney or representative in any proceeding governed by this subpart. An attorney or representative who represents a party may file a notice of appearance in the action, in the manner provided in § 13.210 of this subpart, and shall serve a copy of the notice of appearance on each party, in the manner provided in § 13.211 of this subpart, before participating in any proceeding governed by this subpart. The attorney or representative shall include the name, address, and telephone number of the attorney or representative in the notice of appearance.
(c) Any person may request a copy of a document upon payment of reasonable costs. A person may keep an original document, data, or evidence, with the consent of the administrative law judge, by substituting a legible copy of the document for the record.
(a)
(1) Give notice of, and hold, prehearing conferences and hearings;
(2) Administer oaths and affirmations;
(3) Issue subpoenas authorized by law and issue notices of deposition requested by the parties;
(4) Rule on offers of proof;
(5) Receive relevant and material evidence;
(6) Regulate the course of the hearing in accordance with the rules of this subpart;
(7) Hold conferences to settle or to simplify the issues by consent of the parties;
(8) Dispose of procedural motions and requests; and
(9) Make findings of fact and conclusions of law, and issue an initial decision.
(b)
(c)
(a) A person may submit a motion for leave to intervene as a party in a civil penalty action. Except for good cause shown, a motion for leave to intervene shall be submitted not later than 10 days before the hearing.
(b) If the administrative law judge finds that intervention will not unduly broaden the issues or delay the proceedings, the administrative law judge may grant a motion for leave to intervene if the person will be bound by any order or decision entered in the action or the person has a property, financial, or other legitimate interest that may not be addressed adequately by the parties. The administrative law judge may determine the extent to which an intervenor may participate in the proceedings.
(a)
(b)
(1) Consistent with these rules;
(2) Warranted by existing law or that a good faith argument exists for extension, modification, or reversal of existing law; and
(3) Not unreasonable or unduly burdensome or expensive, not made to harass any person, not made to cause unnecessary delay, not made to cause needless increase in the cost of the proceedings, or for any other improper purpose.
(c)
(1) Strike the pleading signed in violation of this section;
(2) Strike the request for discovery or the discovery response signed in violation of this section and preclude further discovery by the party;
(3) Deny the motion or request signed in violation of this section;
(4) Exclude the document signed in violation of this section from the record;
(5) Dismiss the interlocutory appeal and preclude further appeal on that issue by the party who filed the appeal until an initial decision has been entered on the record; or
(6) Dismiss the appeal of the administrative law judge's initial decision to the FAA decisionmaker.
(a)
(b)
(c)
(d)
(1) An administrative law judge may not grant the motion and dismiss the complaint or part of the complaint if the administrative law judge finds that the agency has shown good cause for any delay in issuing the notice of proposed civil penalty.
(2) If the agency fails to show good cause for any delay, an administrative law judge may dismiss the complaint, or that part of the complaint, alleging a violation that occurred more than 2 years before an agency attorney issued the notice of proposed civil penalty to the respondent.
(3) A party may appeal the administrative law judge's ruling on the motion to dismiss the complaint or any part of the complaint in accordance with § 13.219(b) of this subpart.
(a)
(b)
(c)
(d)
(e)
(f)
(a)
(1)
(2)
(b)
(c)
(d)
(e)
(2) Decisions and orders issued by the Administrator in civil penalty cases, as well as indexes of decisions and other pertinent information are available through the FAA civil penalty adjudication Web site at
(a)
(b)
(c)
(d)
(e)
(f)
(g)
(h)
(a) This section applies to any period of time prescribed or allowed by this subpart, by notice or order of the administrative law judge, or by any applicable statute.
(b) The date of an act, event, or default, after which a designated time period begins to run, is not included in a computation of time under this subpart.
(c) The last day of a time period is included in a computation of time unless it is a Saturday, Sunday, or a legal holiday. If the last day of the time period is a Saturday, Sunday, or legal holiday, the time period runs until the end of the next day that is not a Saturday, Sunday, or legal holiday.
(a)
(b)
(c)
(a)
(b)
(1) Not later than 15 days before the scheduled date of a hearing, a party may amend a complaint or an answer without the consent of the administrative law judge.
(2) Less than 15 days before the scheduled date of a hearing, the administrative law judge may allow amendment of a complaint or an answer only for good cause shown in a motion to amend.
(c)
At any time before or during a hearing, an agency attorney may withdraw a complaint or a party may withdraw a request for a hearing without the consent of the administrative law judge. If an agency attorney withdraws the complaint or a party withdraws the request for a hearing and the answer, the administrative law judge shall dismiss the proceedings under this subpart with prejudice.
Waivers of any rights provided by statute or regulation shall be in writing or by stipulation made at a hearing and entered into the record. The parties shall set forth the precise terms of the waiver and any conditions.
(a)
(b)
(1) The joint schedule may include, but need not be limited to, requests for discovery, any objections to discovery requests, responses to discovery requests to which there are no objections, submission of prehearing motions, responses to prehearing motions, exchange of exhibits to be introduced at the hearing, and a list of witnesses that may be called at the hearing.
(2) Each party shall sign the original joint schedule to be filed with the administrative law judge.
(c)
(d)
(e)
(f)
(1) Strike that portion of a party's pleadings;
(2) Preclude prehearing or discovery motions by that party;
(3) Preclude admission of that portion of a party's evidence at the hearing, or
(4) Preclude that portion of the testimony of that party's witnesses at the hearing.
(a)
(b)
(c)
(d)
(e)
(1)
(2)
(3)
(f)
(1)
(2)
(i)
(ii)
(3)
(i)
(ii)
(4)
(5)
(6)
(i)
(ii)
(iii)
(iv)
(a)
(b)
(c)
(1) A ruling or order by the administrative law judge barring a person from the proceedings.
(2) Failure of the administrative law judge to dismiss the proceedings in accordance with § 13.215 of this subpart.
(3) A ruling or order by the administrative law judge in violation of § 13.205(b) of this subpart.
(d)
(e) The FAA decisionmaker may reject frivolous, repetitive, or dilatory appeals, and may issue an order precluding one or more parties from making further interlocutory appeals in a proceeding in which there have been frivolous, repetitive, or dilatory interlocutory appeals.
(a)
(b)
(c)
(d)
(e)
(f)
(1) The information requested is cumulative or repetitious;
(2) The information requested can be obtained from another less burdensome and more convenient source;
(3) The party requesting the information has had ample opportunity to obtain the information through other discovery methods permitted under this section; or
(4) The method or scope of discovery requested by the party is unduly burdensome or expensive.
(g)
(1) The party or person making the motion must show that the confidential order is necessary to protect the information from disclosure to the public.
(2) If the administrative law judge determines that the requested material is not necessary to decide the case, the administrative law judge shall preclude any inquiry into the matter by any party.
(3) If the administrative law judge determines that the requested material may be disclosed during discovery, the administrative law judge may order that the material may be discovered and disclosed under limited conditions or may be used only under certain terms and conditions.
(4) If the administrative law judge determines that the requested material is necessary to decide the case and that a confidential order is warranted, the administrative law judge shall provide:
(i) An opportunity for review of the document by the parties off the record;
(ii) Procedures for excluding the information from the record; and
(iii) Order that the parties shall not disclose the information in any manner and the parties shall not use the information in any other proceeding.
(h)
(1) Deny the discovery request;
(2) Order that discovery be conducted only on specified terms and conditions, including a designation of the time or place for discovery or a determination of the method of discovery; or
(3) Limit the scope of discovery or preclude any inquiry into certain matters during discovery.
(i)
(1) A party shall supplement or amend any response to a question requesting the identity and location of any person having knowledge of discoverable matters.
(2) A party shall supplement or amend any response to a question requesting the identity of each person who will be called to testify at the hearing as an expert witness and the subject matter and substance of that witness' testimony.
(3) A party shall supplement or amend any response that was incorrect when made or any response that was correct when made but is no longer correct, accurate, or complete.
(j)
(1)
(2)
(3)
(4)
(k)
(1) A party shall not serve more than 30 interrogatories to each other party. Each subpart of an interrogatory shall be counted as a separate interrogatory.
(2) A party shall file a motion for leave to serve additional interrogatories on a party with the administrative law judge before serving additional interrogatories on a party. The administrative law judge shall grant the motion only if the party shows good cause for the party's failure to inquire about the information previously and that the information cannot reasonably be obtained using less burdensome discovery methods or be obtained from other sources.
(l)
(1)
(2)
(3)
(m)
(n)
(1) Strike that portion of a party's pleadings;
(2) Preclude prehearing or discovery motions by that party;
(3) Preclude admission of that portion of a party's evidence at the hearing; or
(4) Preclude that portion of the testimony of that party's witnesses at the hearing.
(a)
(b)
(c)
(a)
(b)
(c)
The administrative law judge shall issue an initial decision or shall rule in a party's favor only if the decision or ruling is supported by, and in accordance with, the reliable, probative, and substantial evidence contained in the record. In order to prevail, the party with the burden of proof shall prove the party's case or defense by a preponderance of reliable, probative, and substantial evidence.
(a) Except in the case of an affirmative defense, the burden of proof is on the agency.
(b) Except as otherwise provided by statute or rule, the proponent of a motion, request, or order has the burden of proof.
(c) A party who has asserted an affirmative defense has the burden of proving the affirmative defense.
A party whose evidence has been excluded by a ruling of the administrative law judge may offer the evidence for the record on appeal.
(a) The administrative law judge may order that any information contained in the record be withheld from public disclosure. Any person may object to disclosure of information in the record by filing a written motion to withhold specific information with the administrative law judge and serving a copy of the motion on each party. The party shall state the specific grounds for nondisclosure in the motion.
(b) The administrative law judge shall grant the motion to withhold information in the record if, based on the
An employee of the agency may not be called as an expert or opinion witness, for any party other than the FAA, in any proceeding governed by this subpart. An employee of a respondent may not be called by an agency attorney as an expert or opinion witness for the FAA in any proceeding governed by this subpart to which the respondent is a party.
(a)
(b)
(c)
(a)
(b)
(a)
(b)
(a)
(b)
(c)
(a)
(b)
(c)
(d)
(a)
(b)
(1) Whether each finding of fact is supported by a preponderance of reliable, probative, and substantial evidence;
(2) Whether each conclusion of law is made in accordance with applicable law, precedent, and public policy; and
(3) Whether the administrative law judge committed any prejudicial errors that support the appeal.
(c)
(1)
(2)
(d)
(1) A party shall set forth, in detail, the party's specific objections to the initial decision or rulings in the appeal brief. A party also shall set forth, in detail, the basis for the appeal, the reasons supporting the appeal, and the relief requested in the appeal. If the party relies on evidence contained in the record for the appeal, the party shall specifically refer to the pertinent evidence contained in the transcript in the appeal brief.
(2) The FAA decisionmaker may dismiss an appeal, on the FAA decisionmaker's own initiative or upon motion of any other party, where a party has filed a notice of appeal but fails to perfect the appeal by timely filing an appeal brief with the FAA decisionmaker.
(e)
(1)
(2)
(f)
(g)
(h)
(i)
(j)
(1) The FAA decisionmaker may raise any issue, on the FAA decisionmaker's own initiative, that is required for proper disposition of the proceedings. The FAA decisionmaker will give the parties a reasonable opportunity to submit arguments on the new issues before making a decision on appeal. If an issue raised by the FAA decisionmaker requires the consideration of additional testimony or evidence, the FAA decisionmaker will remand the case to the administrative law judge for further proceedings and an initial decision related to that issue. If an issue raised by the FAA decisionmaker is solely an issue of law or the issue was addressed at the hearing but was not raised by a party in the briefs on appeal, a remand of the case to the administrative law judge for further proceedings is not required but may be provided in the discretion of the FAA decisionmaker.
(2) The FAA decisionmaker will issue the final decision and order of the Administrator on appeal in writing and will serve a copy of the decision and order on each party. Unless a petition for review is filed pursuant to § 13.235, a final decision and order of the Administrator shall be considered an order assessing civil penalty if the FAA decisionmaker finds that an alleged violation occurred and a civil penalty is warranted.
(3) A final decision and order of the Administrator after appeal is precedent in any other civil penalty action. Any issue, finding or conclusion, order, ruling, or initial decision of an administrative law judge that has not been appealed to the FAA decisionmaker is not precedent in any other civil penalty action.
(a)
(b)
(c)
(1) If the petition is based, in whole or in part, on allegations regarding the
(2) If the petition is based, in whole or in part, on new material not previously raised in the proceedings, the party shall set forth the new material and include affidavits of prospective witnesses and authenticated documents that would be introduced in support of the new material. The party shall explain, in detail, why the new material was not discovered through due diligence prior to the hearing.
(d)
(e)
(f)
(g)
A person may seek judicial review of a final decision and order of the Administrator as provided in section 1006 of the Federal Aviation Act of 1958, as amended. A party seeking judicial review of a final decision and order shall file a petition for review not later than 60 days after the final decision and order has been served on the party.
(a) This subpart provides a mechanism for the regular adjustment for inflation of civil monetary penalties in conformity with the Federal Civil Penalties Inflation Adjustment Act of 1990, 28 U.S.C. 2461 (note), as amended by the Debt Collection Improvement Act of 1996, Public Law 104-134, April 26, 1996, in order to maintain the deterrent effect of civil monetary penalties and to promote compliance with the law. This subpart also sets out the current adjusted maximum civil monetary penalties or range of minimum and maximum civil monetary penalties for each statutory civil penalty subject to the FAA's jurisdiction.
(b) Each adjustment to the maximum civil monetary penalty or the range of minimum and maximum civil monetary penalties, as applicable, made in accordance with this subpart applies prospectively from the date it becomes effective to actions initiated under this part, notwithstanding references to a specific maximum civil monetary penalty or range of minimum and maximum civil monetary penalties contained elsewhere in this part.
(a)
(1) Is for a specific monetary amount as provided by Federal law or has a maximum amount provided by Federal law;
(2) Is assessed or enforced by the FAA pursuant to Federal law; and
(3) Is assessed or enforced pursuant to an administrative proceeding or a civil action in the Federal courts.
(b)
(a) Except for the limitation to the initial adjustment to statutory maximum civil monetary penalties or range of minimum and maximum civil monetary penalties set forth in paragraph (c) of this section, the inflation adjustment under this subpart is determined by increasing the maximum civil monetary penalty or range of minimum and maximum civil monetary penalty for each civil monetary penalty by the cost-of-living adjustment. Any increase determined under paragraph (a) of this section is rounded to the nearest:
(1) Multiple of $10 in the case of penalties less than or equal to $100;
(2) Multiple of $100 in the case of penalties greater than $100 but less than or equal to $1,000;
(3) Multiple of $1,000 in the case of penalties greater than $1,000 but less than or equal to $10,000;
(4) Multiple of $5,000 in the case of penalties greater than $10,000 but less than or equal to $100,000;
(5) Multiple of $10,000 in the case of penalties greater than $100,000 but less than or equal to $200,000; and
(6) Multiple of $25,000 in the case of penalties greater than $200,000.
(b) For purposes of paragraph (a) of this section, the term “cost-of-living adjustment” means the percentage (if any) for each civil monetary penalty by which the Consumer Price Index for the month of June of the calendar year preceding the adjustment exceeds the Consumer Price Index for the month of June of the calendar year in which the amount of such civil monetary penalty was last set or adjusted pursuant to law.
(c) Limitation on initial adjustment. The initial adjustment of maximum civil penalty or range of minimum and maximum civil monetary penalties made pursuant to this subpart does not exceed 10 percent of the statutory maximum civil penalty before an adjustment under this subpart is made. This limitation applies only to the initial adjustment, effective on January 21, 1997.
(d)
(a)
(b)
(1)
(2)
(3)
(c)
(1) A description of the operator's plan for collecting and analyzing flight
(2) Procedures for taking corrective action that analysis of the data indicates is necessary in the interest of safety;
(3) Procedures for providing the FAA with aggregate FOQA data;
(4) Procedures for informing the FAA as to any corrective action being undertaken pursuant to paragraph (c)(2) of this section.
(d)
(e)
(f)
(g)
(1) Failure to implement corrective action that analysis of available FOQA data indicates is necessary in the interest of safety; or
(2) Failure to correct a continuing pattern of violations following notice by the agency; or also
(3) Willful misconduct or willful violation of the FAA regulations in this chapter.
5 U.S.C. 504; 49 U.S.C. 106(f), 40113, 46104 and 47122.
The Equal Access to Justice Act, 5 U.S.C. 504 (the Act), provides for the award of attorney fees and other expenses to eligible individuals and entities who are parties to certain administrative proceedings (adversary adjudications) before the Federal Aviation Administration (FAA). An eligible party may receive an award when it prevails over the FAA, unless the agency's position in the proceeding was substantially justified or special circumstances make an award unjust. The rules in this part describe the parties eligible for awards and the proceedings that are covered. They also explain how to apply for awards, and the procedures and standards that the FAA Decisionmaker will use to make them. As
(a) The Act applies to certain adversary adjudications conducted by the FAA under 49 CFR part 17 and the Acquisition Management System (AMS). These are adjudications under 5 U.S.C. 554, in which the position of the FAA is represented by an attorney or other representative who enters an appearance and participates in the proceeding. This subpart applies to proceedings under 49 U.S.C. 46301, 46302, and 46303 and to the Default Adjudicative Process under part 17 of this chapter and the AMS.
(b) If a proceeding includes both matters covered by the Act and matters specifically excluded from coverage, any award made will include only fees and expenses related to covered issues.
(c) Fees and other expenses may not be awarded to a party for any portion of the adversary adjudication in which such party has unreasonably protracted the proceedings.
(a) To be eligible for an award of attorney fees and other expenses under the Act, the applicant must be a party to the adversary adjudication for which it seeks an award. The term “party” is defined in 5 U.S.C. 504(b)(1)(B) and 5 U.S.C. 551(3). The applicant must show that it meets all conditions or eligibility set out in this subpart.
(b) The types of eligible applicants are as follows:
(1) An individual with a net worth of not more than $2 million at the time the adversary adjudication was initiated;
(2) The sole owner of an unincorporated business who has a net worth of not more than $7 million, including both personal and business interests, and not more than 500 employees at the time the adversary adjudication was initiated;
(3) A charitable or other tax-exempt organization described in section 501(c)(3) of the Internal Revenue Code (26 U.S.C. 501(c)(3)) with not more than 500 employees at the time the adversary adjudication was initiated; and
(4) A cooperative association as defined in section 15(a) of the Agricultural Marketing Act (12 U.S.C. 1141j(a)) with not more than 500 employees at the time the adversary adjudication was initiated; and
(5) Any other partnership, corporation, association, or public or private organization with a net worth of not more than $7 million and not more than 500 employees at the time the adversary adjudication was initiated.
(c) For the purpose of eligibility, the net worth and number of employees of an applicant shall be determined as of the date the proceeding was initiated.
(d) An applicant who owns an unincorporated business will be considered an “individual” rather than a “sole owner of an unincorporated business” if the issues on which the applicant prevails are related primarily to personal interests rather than to business interest.
(e) The employees of an applicant include all persons who regularly perform services for remuneration for the applicant, under the applicant's direction and control. Part-time employees shall be included on a proportional basis.
(f) The net worth and number of employees of the applicant and all of its affiliates shall be aggregated to determine eligibility. Any individual, corporation, or other entity that directly or indirectly controls or owns a majority of the voting shares or other interest of the applicant, or any corporation or other entity of which the applicant directly or indirectly owns or controls a majority of the voting shares or other interest, will be considered an affiliate for purposes of this part, unless the ALJ or adjudicative officer determines that such treatment would be unjust and contrary to the purposes of the Act in light of the actual relationship between the affiliated entities. In addition, the ALJ or adjudicative officer may determine that financial relationships of the applicant, other than those described in this paragraph, constitute special circumstances that would make an award unjust.
(g) An applicant that participates in a proceeding primarily on behalf of one
(a) A prevailing applicant may receive an award for attorney fees and other expenses incurred in connection with a proceeding, or in a significant and discrete substantive portion of the proceeding, unless the position of the agency over which the applicant has prevailed was substantially justified. Whether or not the position of the FAA was substantially justified shall be determined on the basis of the record (including the record with respect to the action or failure to act by the agency upon which the civil action is based) which was made in the civil action for which fees and other expenses are sought. The burden of proof that an award should not be made to an eligible prevailing applicant is on the agency counsel, who may avoid an award by showing that the agency's position was reasonable in law and fact.
(b) An award will be reduced or denied if the applicant has unduly or unreasonably protracted the proceeding or if special circumstances make the award sought unjust.
(a) Awards will be based on rates customarily charged by persons engaged in the business of acting as attorneys, agents, and expert witnesses, even if the services were made available without charge or at a reduced rate to the applicant.
(b) No award for the fee of an attorney or agent under this part may exceed $125 per hour, or such rate as prescribed by 5 U.S.C. 504. No award to compensate an expert witness may exceed the highest rate at which the agency pays expert witnesses. However, an award may also include the reasonable expenses of the attorney, agent, or witness as a separate item, if the attorney, agent, or witness ordinarily charges clients separately for such expenses.
(c) In determining the reasonableness of the fee sought for an attorney, agent, or expert witness, the ALJ or adjudicative officer shall consider the following:
(1) If the attorney, agent, or witness is in private practice, his or her customary fee for similar services, or if an employee of the applicant, the fully allocated cost of the services;
(2) The prevailing rate for similar services in the community in which the attorney, agent, or witness ordinarily performs services;
(3) The time actually spent in the representation of the applicant;
(4) The time reasonably spent in light of the difficulty or complexity of the issues in the proceeding; and
(5) Such other factors as may bear on the value of the services provided.
(d) The reasonable cost of any study, analysis, engineering report, test, project, or similar matter prepared on behalf of a party may be awarded, to the extent that the charge for the service does not exceed the prevailing rate for similar services, and the study or other matter was necessary for preparation of the applicant's case.
(e) Fees may be awarded only for work performed after the issuance of a complaint, or in the Default Adjudicative Process for a protest or contract dispute under part 17 of this chapter and the AMS.
(a) An application for an award of fees and expenses under the Act shall identify the applicant and the proceeding for which an award is sought. The application shall show that the applicant has prevailed and identify the position of the agency in the proceeding that the applicant alleges was not substantially justified. Unless the applicant is an individual, the application shall also state the number of employees of the applicant and describe briefly the type and purpose of its organization or business.
(b) The application shall also include a statement that the applicant's net worth does not exceed $2 million (if an individual) or $7 million (for all other
(1) It attaches a copy of a ruling by the Internal Revenue Service that it qualifies as an organization described in section 501(c)(3) of the Internal Revenue Code (26 U.S.C. 501(c)(3)), or in the case of a tax-exempt organization not required to obtain a ruling from the Internal Revenue Service on its exempt status, a statement that describes the basis for the applicant's belief that it qualifies under such section; or
(2) It states that it is a cooperative association as defined in section 15(a) of the Agricultural Marketing Act (12 U.S.C. 1141j(a)).
(c) The application shall state the amount of fees and expenses for which an award is sought.
(d) The application may also include any other matters that the applicant wishes this agency to consider in determining whether and in what amount an award should be made.
(e) The application shall be signed by the applicant or an authorized officer or attorney for the applicant. It shall also contain or be accompanied by a written verification under oath or under penalty of perjury that the information provided in the application is true and correct.
(f) If the applicant is a partnership, corporation, association, organization, or sole owner of an unincorporated business, the application shall state that the applicant did not have more than 500 employees at the time the adversary adjudication was initiated, giving the number of its employees and describing briefly the type and purpose of its organization or business.
(a) Each applicant except a qualified tax-exempt organization or cooperative association must provide with its application a detailed exhibit showing the net worth of the applicant and any affiliates when the proceeding was initiated. If any individual, corporation, or other entity directly or indirectly controls or owns a majority of the voting shares or other interest of the applicant, or if the applicant directly or indirectly owns or controls a majority of the voting shares or other interest of any corporation or other entity, the exhibit must include a showing of the net worth of all such affiliates or of the applicant including the affiliates. The exhibit may be in any form convenient to the applicant that provides full disclosure of the applicant's and its affiliates' assets and liabilities and is sufficient to determine whether the applicant qualifies under the standards in this part. The administrative law judge may require an applicant to file additional information to determine the eligibility for an award.
(b) The net worth exhibit shall describe any transfers of assets from, or obligations incurred by, the applicant or any affiliate, occurring in the one-year period prior to the date on which the proceeding was initiated, that reduced the net worth of the applicant and its affiliates below the applicable net worth ceiling. If there were no such transactions, the applicant shall so state.
(c) Ordinarily, the net worth exhibit will be included in the public record of the proceeding. However, an applicant that objects to public disclosure of the net worth exhibit, or any part of it, may submit that portion of the exhibit directly to the ALJ or adjudicative officer in a sealed envelope labeled “Confidential Financial Information,” accompanied by a motion to withhold the information.
(1) The motion shall describe the information sought to be withheld and explain, in detail, why it should be exempt under applicable law or regulation, why public disclosure would adversely affect the applicant, and why disclosure is not required in the public interest.
(2) The net worth exhibit shall be served on the FAA counsel, but need not be served on any other party to the proceeding.
(3) If the ALJ or adjudicative officer finds that the net worth exhibit, or any part of it, should not be withheld from disclosure, it shall be placed in the public record of the proceeding. Otherwise, any request to inspect or copy
The application shall be accompanied by full documentation of the fees and expenses, including the cost of any study, analysis, engineering report, test, project or similar matter, for which an award is sought. A separate itemized statement shall be submitted for each professional firm or individual whose services are covered by the application, showing the hours spent in connection with the proceedings by each individual, a description of the specific services performed, the rate at which each fee has been computed, any expenses for which reimbursement is sought, the total amount claimed, and the total amount paid or payable by the applicant or by any other person or entity for the services provided. The administrative law judge may require the applicant to provide vouchers, receipts, or other substantiation for any expenses claimed.
(a) An application may be filed whenever the applicant has prevailed in the proceeding, but in no case later than 30 days after the FAA Decisionmaker's final disposition of the proceeding, or service of the order of the Administrator in a proceeding under the AMS.
(b) If review or reconsideration is sought or taken of a decision to which an applicant believes it has prevailed, proceedings for the award of fees shall be stayed pending final disposition of the underlying controversy.
(c) For purposes of this part, final disposition means the later of:
(1) Under part 17 of this chapter and the AMS, the date on which the order of the Administrator is served;
(2) The date on which an unappealed initial decision becomes administratively final;
(3) Issuance of an order disposing of any petitions for reconsideration of the FAA Decisionmaker's final order in the proceeding;
(4) If no petition for reconsideration is filed, the last date on which such a petition could have been filed; or
(5) Issuance of a final order or any other final resolution of a proceeding, such as a settlement or voluntary dismissal, which is not subject to a petition for reconsideration.
Any application for an award or other pleading or document related to an application shall be filed and served on all parties to the proceeding in the same manner as other pleadings in the proceeding, except as provided in § 14.11(b) for confidential financial information. Where the proceeding was held under part 17 of this chapter and the AMS, the application shall be filed with the FAA's attorney and with the Office of Dispute Resolution for Acquisition.
(a) Within 30 days after service of an application, counsel representing the agency against which an award is sought may file an answer to the application. Unless agency counsel requests an extension of time for filing or files a statement of intent to negotiate under paragraph (b) of the section, failure to file an answer within the 30-day period may be treated as a consent to the award requested.
(b) If the FAA's counsel and the applicant believe that the issues in the fee application can be settled, they may jointly file a statement of their intent to negotiate a settlement. The filing of this statement shall extend the time for filing an answer for an additional 30 days, and further extensions may be granted by the ALJ or adjudicative officer upon request by the FAA's counsel and the applicant.
(c) The answer shall explain in detail any objections to the award requested
Within 15 days after service of an answer, the applicant may file a reply. If the reply is based on any alleged facts not already in the record of the proceeding, the applicant shall include with the reply either supporting affidavits or a request for further proceedings under § 14.26.
Any party to a proceeding other than the applicant and the FAA's counsel may file comments on an application within 30 days after it is served, or on an answer within 15 days after it is served. A commenting party may not participate further in proceedings on the application unless the ALJ or adjudicative officer determines that the public interest requires such participation in order to permit full exploration of matters raised in the comments.
The applicant and agency counsel may agree on a proposed settlement of the award before final action on the application, either in connection with a settlement of the underlying proceeding, or after the underlying proceeding has been concluded. If a prevailing party and agency counsel agree on a proposed settlement of an award before an application has been filed, the application shall be filed with the proposed settlement.
(a) Ordinarily the determination of an award will be made on the basis of the written record; however, on request of either the applicant or agency counsel, or on his or her own initiative, the ALJ or adjudicative officer assigned to the matter may order further proceedings, such as an informal conference, oral argument, additional written submissions, or an evidentiary hearing. Such further proceedings shall be held only when necessary for full and fair resolution of the issues arising from the application and shall be conducted as promptly as possible.
(b) A request that the administrative law judge order further proceedings under this section shall specifically identify the information sought or the disputed issues and shall explain why the additional proceedings are necessary to resolve the issues.
(a) The ALJ shall issue an initial decision on the application within 60 days after completion of proceedings on the application.
(b) An adjudicative officer in a proceeding under part 17 of this chapter and the AMS shall prepare a findings and recommendations for the Office of Dispute Resolution for Acquisition.
(c) A decision under paragraph (a) or (b) of this section shall include written findings and conclusions on the applicant's eligibility and status as prevailing party and an explanation of the reasons for any difference between the amount requested and the amount awarded. The decision shall also include, if at issue, findings on whether the FAA's position was substantially justified, or whether special circumstances make an award unjust.
(a) In proceedings other than those under part 17 of this chapter and the AMS, either the applicant or the FAA counsel may seek review of the initial decision on the fee application in accordance with subpart G of part 13 of this chapter, specifically § 13.233. Additionally, the FAA Decisionmaker may decide to review the decision on his/her own initiative. If neither the applicant nor the FAA's counsel seeks review within 30 days after the decision is issued, it shall become final. Whether
(b) In proceedings under part 17 of this chapter and the AMS, the adjudicative officer shall prepare findings and recommendations for the Office of Dispute Resolution for Acquisition with recommendations as to whether or not an award should be made, the amount of the award, and the reasons therefor. The Office of Dispute Resolution for Acquisition shall submit a recommended order to the Administrator after the completion of all submissions related to the EAJA application. Upon the Administrator's action, the order shall become final, and may be reviewed under 49 U.S.C. 46110.
If an applicant is dissatisfied with the determination of fees and other expenses made under this subsection, pursuant 5 U.S.C. 504(c)(2), that applicant may, within thirty (30) days after the determination is made, appeal the determination to the court of the United States having jurisdiction to review the merits of the underlying decision of the FAA adversary adjudication. The court's determination on any appeal heard under this paragraph shall be based solely on the factual record made before the FAA. The court may modify the determination of fees and other expenses only if the court finds that the failure to make an award of fees and other expenses, or the calculation of the amount of the award, was unsupported by substantial evidence.
An applicant seeking payment of an award shall submit to the disbursing official of the FAA a copy of the FAA Decisionmaker's final decision granting the award, accompanied by a statement that the applicant will not seek review of the decision in the United States courts. Applications for award grants in cases involving the FAA shall be sent to: The Office of Accounting and Audit, AAA-1, Federal Aviation Administration, 800 Independence Avenue, SW., Washington, DC 20591. The agency will pay the amount awarded to the applicant within 60 days, unless judicial review of the award or of the underlying decision of the adversary adjudication has been sought by the applicant or any other party to the proceeding.
5 U.S.C. 301; 28 U.S.C. 2672, 2675; 49 U.S.C. 106(g), 40113, 44721.
(a) These regulations apply to claims asserted under the Federal Tort Claims Act, as amended, for money damages against the United States for injury to, or loss of property, or for personal injury or death, caused by the negligent or wrongful act or omission of an employee of the FAA acting within the scope of office or employment. The regulations in this part supplement the Attorney General's regulations in 28 CFR Part 14, as amended. The regulations in 28 CFR Part 14, as amended,
(a) A claim is deemed to have been presented when the FAA receives, at a place designated in paragraph (b) of this section, an executed Standard Form 95 or other written notification of an incident, accompanied by a claim for money damages in a sum certain for injury to, or loss of, property or for personal injury or death, alleged to have occurred by reason of the incident. A claim which should have been presented to the FAA but which was mistakenly filed with another Federal agency, is deemed presented to the FAA on the date the claim is received by the FAA at a place designated in paragraph (b) of this section. A claim addressed to, or filed with, the FAA by mistake will be transferred to the appropriate Federal agency, if that agency can be determined, or returned to the claimant.
(b) Claims shall be delivered or mailed to the Assistant Chief Counsel, Litigation Division, AGC-400, Federal Aviation Administration, 800 Independence Avenue, SW., Washington, DC 20591, or alternatively, may be mailed or delivered to the Regional Counsel in any of the FAA Regional Offices or the Assistant Chief Counsel, Europe, Africa, and Middle East Area Office.
(c) Claim forms are available at each location listed in paragraph (b) of this section.
(d) A claim presented in accordance with this section may be amended by the claimant at any time prior to final FAA action or prior to the exercise of the claimant's option, under 28 U.S.C. 2675(a), to deem the agency's failure to make a final disposition of his or her claim within 6 months after it was filed as a final denial. Each amendment to a claim shall be submitted in writing and signed by the claimant or the claimant's duly authorized agent or legal representative. Upon the timely filing of an amendment to a pending claim, the FAA has 6 months thereafter in which to make a final disposition of the claim as amended, and the claimant's option under 28 U.S.C. 2675(a) does not accrue until 6 months after the filing of the amendment.
(a) A claim for injury to, or loss of, property may be presented by the owner of the property interest which is the subject of the claim or by the owner's duly authorized agent or legal representative.
(b) A claim for personal injury may be presented by the injured person or that person's duly authorized agent or legal representative.
(c) A claim based on death may be presented by the executor or administrator of the decedent's estate or by any other person legally entitled to assert such a claim under applicable State law.
(d) A claim for loss wholly compensated by an insurer with the rights of a subrogee may be presented by the insurer. A claim for loss partially compensated by an insurer with the rights of a subrogee may be presented by the insurer or the insured individually, as their respective interest appear, or jointly. Whenever an insurer presents a claim asserting the rights of a subrogee, it shall present with its claim appropriate evidence that it has the rights of a subrogee.
(e) A claim presented by an agent or legal representative shall be presented in the name of the claimant, be signed by the agent or legal representative, show the title or legal capacity of the person signing, and be accompanied by evidence of authority to present a claim on behalf of the claimant as agent, executor, administrator, parent, guardian, or other representative.
(a)
(1) An authenticated death certificate or other competent evidence showing cause of death, date of death, and age of the decedent.
(2) The decedent's employment or occupation at time of death, including monthly or yearly salary or earnings (if any), and the duration of last employment or occupation.
(3) Full names, addresses, birth dates, kinship, and marital status of the decedent's survivors, including identification of those survivors who were dependent for support upon the decedent at the time of death.
(4) Degree of support afforded by the decedent to each survivor dependent upon decedent for support at the time of death.
(5) Decedent's general, physical, and mental conditions before death.
(6) Itemized bills for medical and burial expenses incurred by reason of the incident causing death or itemized receipts of payment for such expenses.
(7) If damages for pain and suffering prior to death are claimed, a physician's detailed statement specifying the injuries suffered, duration of pain and suffering, any drugs administered for pain, and the decedent's physical condition in the interval between injury and death.
(8) Any other evidence or information which may have a bearing on either the responsibility of the United States for the death or the amount of damages claimed.
(b)
(1) A written report by the attending physician or dentist setting forth the nature and extent of the injuries, nature and extent of treatment, any degree of temporary or permanent disability, the prognosis, period of hospitalization, and any diminished earning capacity.
(2) In addition to the report required by paragraph (b)(1) of this section, the claimant may be required to submit to a physical or mental examination by a physician employed by the FAA or another Federal agency. A copy of the report of the examining physician is made available to the claimant upon the claimant's written request if the claimant has, upon request, furnished the report required by paragraph (b)(1), and has made or agrees to make available to the FAA any other physician's reports previously or thereafter made on the physical or mental condition which is the subject matter of the claim.
(3) Itemized bills for medical, dental, and hospital expenses incurred or itemized receipts of payment for such expenses.
(4) If the prognosis reveals the necessity for future treatment, a statement of expected expenses for such treatment.
(5) If a claim is made for loss of time from employment, a written statement from the claimant's employer showing actual time lost from employment, whether the claimant is a full or part-time employee, and wages or salary actually lost.
(6) If a claim is made for loss of income and the claimant is self-employed, documentary evidence showing the amount of earnings actually lost.
(7) Any other evidence or information which may have a bearing on the responsibility of the United States for the personal injury or the damages claimed.
(c)
(1) Proof of ownership of the property interest which is the subject of the claim.
(2) A detailed statement of the amount claimed with respect to each item of property.
(3) An itemized receipt of payment for necessary repairs or itemized written estimates of the cost of such repairs.
(4) A statement listing date of purchase, purchase price, and salvage value, where repair is not economical.
(5) Any other evidence or information which may have a bearing on either the responsibility of the United States for the injury to or loss of property or the damages claimed.
The FAA may investigate a claim or conduct a physical examination of a claimant. The FAA may request any other Federal agency to investigate a
This subpart prescribes procedural requirements for the indemnification of a publisher of aeronautical charts or maps under section 1118 of the Federal Aviation Act of 1958, as amended, when the publisher incurs liability as a result of publishing—
(a) A chart or map accurately depicting a defective or deficient flight procedure or airway that was promulgated by the FAA; or
(b) Aeronautical data that—
(1) Is visually displayed in the cockpit of an aircraft; and
(2) When visually displayed, accurately depicts a defective or deficient flight procedure or airway promulgated by the FAA.
A publisher that requests indemnification under this part will not be indemnified if—
(a) The complaint filed against the publisher, or demand for payment against the publisher, first occurred before December 19, 1985;
(b) The publisher does not negotiate a good faith settlement;
(c) The publisher does not conduct a good faith defense;
(d) The defective or deficient flight procedure or airway—
(1) Was not promulgated by the FAA;
(2) Was not accurately depicted on the publisher's chart or map;
(3) Was not accurately displayed on a visual display in the cockpit, or
(4) Was obviously defective or deficient;
(e) The publisher does not give notice as required by § 15.107 of this part and that failure is prejudicial to the Government; or
(f) The publisher does not appeal a lower court's decision pursuant to a request by the Administrator under § 15.111(d)(2) of this part.
A request for indemnification under this part—
(a) May be filed by—
(1) A publisher described in § 15.101 of this part; or
(2) The publisher's duly authorized agent or legal representative;
(b) Shall be filed with the Chief Counsel, Federal Aviation Administration, 800 Independence Avenue SW., Washington, DC 20591; and
(c) Shall state the basis for the publisher's assertion that indemnification under this part is required.
A request for indemnification will not be considered by the FAA unless the following conditions are met:
(a) The publisher must notify the Chief Counsel of the FAA, within the time limits prescribed in paragraph (b) or (c) of this section, of the publisher's first receipt of a demand for payment, or service of a complaint in any proceeding, federal or state, in which it appears that indemnification under this part may be required.
(b) For each complaint filed, or demand for payment made, on or after December 19, 1985, and before June 4, 1990, the notice required by paragraph (a) of this section must be received by the FAA on or before July 2, 1990.
(c) For each complaint filed, or demand for payment made, on or after June 4, 1990, the notice required by paragraph (a) of this section must be received by the FAA within 60 days after the day the publisher first receives the demand for payment or service of the complaint.
(d) Within 5 days after the day a judgment is rendered against the publisher in any proceeding, or within 30 days of the denial of an appeal, whichever is later, the publisher must notify the FAA Chief Counsel that—
(1) There is an adverse judgment against the publisher; and
(2) The publisher has a claim for indemnification against the FAA arising out of that judgment.
(a) A publisher may not settle a claim with another party, for which the publisher has sought, or intends to seek, indemnification under this part, unless—
(1) The publisher submits a copy of the proposed settlement, and a statement justifying the settlement, to the Chief Counsel of the FAA; and
(2) The Administrator and where necessary, the appropriate official of the Department of Justice, approves the proposed settlement.
(3) The publisher submits a signed release that clearly releases the United States from any further liability to the publisher and the claimant.
(b) If the Administrator does not approve the proposed settlement, the Administrator will—
(1) So notify the publisher by registered mail within 60 days of receipt of the proposed settlement; and
(2) Explain why the request for indemnification was not approved.
(c) If the Administrator approves the proposed settlement, the Administrator will so notify the publisher by registered mail within 60 days after the FAA's receipt of the proposed settlement.
(d) If the Administrator does not have sufficient information to approve or disapprove the proposed settlement, the Administrator will request, within 60 days after receipt of the proposed settlement, the additional information needed to make a determination.
(a) If a lawsuit is filed against the publisher and the publisher has sought, or intends to seek, indemnification under this part, the publisher shall—
(1) Give notice as required by § 15.107 of this part;
(2) If requested by the United States—
(i) Implead the United States as a third-party defendant in the action; and
(ii) Arrange for the removal of the action to Federal Court;
(3) Promptly provide any additional information requested by the United States; and
(4) Cooperate with the United States in the defense of the lawsuit.
(b) If the lawsuit filed against the publisher results in a proposed settlement, the publisher shall submit that proposed settlement to the FAA for approval in accordance with § 15.109 of this part.
(c) If the lawsuit filed against the publisher results in a judgment against the publisher and the publisher has sought, or intends to seek, indemnification under this part as a result of the adverse judgment, the publisher shall—
(1) Give notice to the FAA as required by § 15.107(d) of this part;
(2) Submit a copy of the trial court's decision to the FAA Chief Counsel not more than 5 business days after the adverse judgment is rendered; and
(3) If an appeal is taken from the adverse judgment, submit a copy of the appellate decision to the FAA Chief Counsel not more than 30 days after that decision is rendered.
(d) Within 60 days after receipt of the trial court's decision, the Administrator by registered mail will—
(1) Notify the publisher that indemnification is required under this part;
(2) Request that the publisher appeal the trial court's adverse decision; or
(3) Notify the publisher that it is not entitled to indemnification under this part and briefly state the basis for the denial.
(a) Upon a finding of the Administrator that indemnification is required under this part, and after obtaining the concurrence of the United States Department of Justice, the FAA will promptly enter into an indemnification agreement providing for the payment of the costs specified in paragraph (c) of this section.
(b) The indemnification agreement will be signed by the Chief Counsel and the publisher.
(c) The FAA will indemnify the publisher for—
(1) Compensatory damages awarded by the court against the publisher;
(2) Reasonable costs and fees, including reasonable attorney fees at a rate not to exceed that permitted under the Equal Access to Justice Act (5 U.S.C. 504), and any postjudgment interest, if
(d) Except as otherwise provided in this section, the FAA will not indemnify the publisher for—
(1) Punitive or exemplary damages;
(2) Civil or criminal fines or any other litigation sanctions;
(3) Postjudgment interest;
(4) Costs;
(5) Attorney fees; or
(6) Other incidental expenses.
(e) The indemnification agreement must provide that the Government will be subrogated to all claims or rights of the publisher, including third-party claims, cross-claims, and counterclaims.
After execution of the indemnification agreement, the FAA will submit the agreement to the United States Department of Justice and request payment, in accordance with the agreement, from the Judgment Fund.
49 U.S.C. 106(g), 322, 1110, 1111, 1115, 1116, 1718 (a) and (b), 1719, 1723, 1726, 1727, 40103(e), 40113, 40116, 44502(b), 46101, 46104, 46110, 47104, 47106(e), 47107, 47108, 47111(d), 47122, 47123-47125, 47151-47153, 48103.
(a)
(1) 49 U.S.C. 40103(e), prohibiting the grant of exclusive rights for the use of any landing area or air navigation facility on which Federal funds have been expended (formerly section 308 of the Federal Aviation Act of 1958, as amended).
(2) Requirements of the Anti-Head Tax Act, 49 U.S.C. 40116.
(3) The assurances contained in grant-in-aid agreements issued under the Federal Airport Act of 1946, 49 U.S.C. 1101
(4) The assurances contained in grant-in-aid agreements issued under the Airport and Airway Development Act of 1970, as amended, 49 U.S.C. 1701
(5) The assurances contained in grant-in-aid agreements issued under the Airport and Airway Improvement Act of 1982 (AAIA), as amended, 49 U.S.C. 47101
(6) Section 505(d) of the Airport and Airway Improvement Act of 1982, as amended, 49 U.S.C. 47113.
(7) Obligations contained in property deeds for property transferred pursuant to section 16 of the Federal Airport Act (49 U.S.C. 1115), section 23 of the Airport and Airway Development Act (49 U.S.C. 1723), or section 516 of the Airport and Airway Improvement Act (49 U.S.C. 47125).
(8) Obligations contained in property deeds for property transferred under the Surplus Property Act (49 U.S.C. 47151-47153).
(b)
(c)
(d)
Terms defined in the Acts are used as so defined. As used in this part:
(1) Any public agency which, either individually or jointly with one or more other public agencies, has received Federal financial assistance for airport development or planning under the Federal Airport Act, Airport and Airway Development Act or Airport and Airway Improvement Act;
(2) Any private owner of a public-use airport that has received financial assistance from the FAA for such airport; and
(3) Any person to whom the Federal Government has conveyed property for airport purposes under section 13(g) of the Surplus Property Act of 1944, as amended.
(a) Proceedings under this part, including hearings under subpart F of this part, will be prosecuted by an agency attorney.
(b) After issuance of an initial determination in which the FAA provides the opportunity for a hearing, an agency employee engaged in the performance of investigative or prosecutorial functions in a proceeding under this part will not, in that case or a factually related case, participate or give advice in an initial decision by the hearing officer, or a final decision by the Associate Administrator or designee on written appeal, and will not, except as counsel or as witness in the public proceedings, engage in any substantive communication regarding that case or a related case with the hearing officer, the Associate Administrator on written appeal, or agency employees
(c) The Chief Counsel, the Assistant Chief Counsel for Litigation, or an attorney on the staff of the Assistant Chief Counsel for Litigation advises the Associate Administrator regarding an initial decision, an appeal, or a final decision regarding any case brought under this part.
(a) Under the authority of 49 U.S.C. 40113 and 47121, the Director may conduct investigations, issue orders, and take such other actions as are necessary to fulfill the purposes of this part, including the extension of any time period prescribed where necessary or appropriate for a fair and complete hearing of matters before the agency.
(b) Notwithstanding any other provision of this part, upon finding that circumstances require expedited handling of a particular case or controversy, the Director may issue an order directing any of the following prior to the issuance of the Director's determination:
(1) Shortening the time period for any action under this part consistent with due process;
(2) If other adequate opportunity to respond to pleadings is available, eliminating the reply, rebuttal, or other actions prescribed by this part;
(3) Designating alternative methods of service; or
(4) Directing such other measures as may be required.
Except as otherwise provided in this part, documents shall be filed with the FAA during a proceeding under this part as follows:
(a)
(b)
(c)
(d)
(e)
(1) Consistent with this part;
(2) Warranted by existing law or that a good faith argument exists for extension, modification, or reversal of existing law; and
(3) Not interposed for any improper purpose, such as to harass or to cause unnecessary delay or needless increase
(f)
(g)
Except as otherwise provided in this part, documents shall be served as follows:
(a)
I hereby certify that I have this day served the foregoing [name of document] on the following persons at the following addresses and facsimile numbers (if also served by facsimile) by [specify method of service]:
Dated this ___ day of ___, 19__.
(b)
(c)
(d)
(1) When acknowledgment of receipt is by a person who customarily or in the ordinary course of business receives mail at the address of the party or of the person designated under § 16.13(f); or
(2) When a properly addressed envelope, sent to the most current address submitted under § 16.13(f), has been returned as undeliverable, unclaimed, or refused.
(e)
This section applies to any period of time prescribed or allowed by this part, by notice or order of the hearing officer, or by an applicable statute.
(a) The date of an act, event, or default, after which a designated time period begins to run, is not included in a computation of time under this part.
(b) The last day of a time period is included in a computation of time unless it is a Saturday, Sunday, or legal holiday for the FAA, in which case, the time period runs until the end of the next day that is not a Saturday, Sunday, or legal holiday.
(c) Whenever a party has the right or is required to do some act within a prescribed period after service of a document upon the party, and the document is served on the party by mail, 3 days shall be added to the prescribed period.
(a)
(b)
(c)
(a) Prior to filing a complaint under this part, a person directly and substantially affected by the alleged noncompliance shall initiate and engage in good faith efforts to resolve the disputed matter informally with those individuals or entities believed responsible for the noncompliance. These efforts at informal resolution may include, without limitation, at the parties' expense, mediation, arbitration, or the use of a dispute resolution board, or other form of third party assistance. The FAA Airports District Office, FAA Airports Field Office, or FAA Regional Airports Division responsible for administrating financial assistance to the respondent airport proprietor, will be available upon request to assist the parties with informal resolution.
(b) A complaint under this part will not be considered unless the person or authorized representative filing the complaint certifies that substantial and reasonable good faith efforts to resolve the disputed matter informally prior to filing the complaint have been made and that there appears no reasonable prospect for timely resolution of the dispute. This certification shall include a brief description of the party's efforts to obtain informal resolution but shall not include information on monetary or other settlement offers made but not agreed upon in writing by all parties.
(a) A person directly and substantially affected by any alleged noncompliance may file a complaint with the Administrator. A person doing business with an airport and paying fees or rentals to the airport shall be considered directly and substantially affected by alleged revenue diversion as defined in 49 U.S.C. 47107(b).
(b) Complaints filed under this part shall—
(1) State the name and address of each person who is the subject of the complaint and, with respect to each person, the specific provisions of each Act that the complainant believes were violated;
(2) Be served, in accordance with § 16.15, along with all documents then available in the exercise of reasonable diligence, offered in support of the complaint, upon all persons named in the complaint as persons responsible for the alleged action(s) or omission(s) upon which the complaint is based;
(3) Provide a concise but complete statement of the facts relied upon to substantiate each allegation; and
(4) Describe how the complainant was directly and substantially affected by the things done or omitted to be done by the respondents.
(c) Unless the complaint is dismissed pursuant to § 16.25 or § 16.27, the FAA notifies the complainant and respondents in writing within 20 days after the date the FAA receives the complaint that the complaint has been docketed and that respondents are required to file an answer within 20 days of the date of service of the notification.
(d) The respondent shall file an answer within 20 days of the date of service of the FAA notification.
(e) The complainant may file a reply within 10 days of the date of service of the answer.
(f) The respondent may file a rebuttal within 10 days of the date of service of the complainant's reply.
(g) The answer, reply, and rebuttal shall, like the complaint, be accompanied by supporting documentation upon which the parties rely.
(h) The answer shall deny or admit the allegations made in the complaint or state that the person filing the document is without sufficient knowledge or information to admit or deny an allegation, and shall assert any affirmative defense.
(i) The answer, reply, and rebuttal shall each contain a concise but complete statement of the facts relied upon to substantiate the answers, admissions, denials, or averments made.
(j) The respondent's answer may include a motion to dismiss the complaint, or any portion thereof, with a supporting memorandum of points and authorities. If a motion to dismiss is filed, the complainant may respond as part of its reply notwithstanding the 10-day time limit for answers to motions in § 16.19(c).
Within 20 days after the receipt of the complaint, the Director will dismiss a complaint, or any claim made in a complaint, with prejudice if:
(a) It appears on its face to be outside the jurisdiction of the Administrator under the Acts listed in § 16.1;
(b) On its face it does not state a claim that warrants an investigation or further action by the FAA; or
(c) The complainant lacks standing to file a complaint under §§ 16.3 and 16.23. The Director's dismissal will include the reasons for the dismissal.
If a complaint is not dismissed pursuant to § 16.25 of this part, but is deficient as to one or more of the requirements set forth in § 16.21 or § 16.23(b), the Director will dismiss the complaint within 20 days after receiving it. Dismissal will be without prejudice to the refiling of the complaint after amendment to correct the deficiency. The Director's dismissal will include the reasons for the dismissal.
(a) If, based on the pleadings, there appears to be a reasonable basis for further investigation, the FAA investigates the subject matter of the complaint.
(b) The investigation may include one or more of the following, at the sole discretion of the FAA:
(1) A review of the written submissions or pleadings of the parties, as supplemented by any informal investigation the FAA considers necessary and by additional information furnished by the parties at FAA request. In rendering its initial determination, the FAA may rely entirely on the complaint and the responsive pleadings provided under this subpart. Each party shall file documents that it considers sufficient to present all relevant facts and argument necessary for the FAA to determine whether the sponsor is in compliance.
(2) Obtaining additional oral and documentary evidence by use of the agency's authority to compel production of such evidence under section 313 Aviation Act, 49 U.S.C. 40113 and 46104, and section 519 of the Airport and Airway Improvement Act, 49 U.S.C. 47122. The Administrator's statutory authority to issue compulsory process has been delegated to the Chief Counsel, the Deputy Chief Counsel, the Assistant Chief Counsel for Airports and Environmental Law, and each Assistant Chief Counsel for a region or center.
(3) Conducting or requiring that a sponsor conduct an audit of airport financial records and transactions as provided in 49 U.S.C. 47107 and 47121.
(a) After consideration of the pleadings and other information obtained by the FAA after investigation, the Director will render an initial determination and provide it to each party by certified mail within 120 days of the date the last pleading specified in § 16.23 was due.
(b) The Director's determination will set forth a concise explanation of the factual and legal basis for the Director's determination on each claim made by the complainant.
(c) A party adversely affected by the Director's determination may appeal the initial determination to the Associate Administrator as provided in § 16.33.
(d) If the Director's determination finds the respondent in noncompliance and proposes the issuance of a compliance order, the initial determination will include notice of opportunity for a hearing under subpart F of this part, if such an opportunity is provided by the FAA. The respondent may elect or waive a hearing as provided in subpart E of this part.
(a) The Associate Administrator will issue a final decision on appeal from the Director's determination, without a hearing, where—
(1) The complaint is dismissed after investigation;
(2) A hearing is not required by statute and is not otherwise made available by the FAA; or
(3) The FAA provides opportunity for a hearing to the respondent and the respondent waives the opportunity for a hearing as provided in subpart E of this part.
(b) In the cases described in paragraph (a) of this section, a party adversely affected by the Director's determination may file an appeal with the Associate Administrator within 30 days after the date of service of the initial determination.
(c) A reply to an appeal may be filed with the Associate Administrator within 20 days after the date of service of the appeal.
(d) The Associate Administrator will issue a final decision and order within 60 days after the due date of the reply.
(e) If no appeal is filed within the time period specified in paragraph (b) of this section, the Director's determination becomes the final decision and order of the FAA without further action. A Director's determination that becomes final because there is no administrative appeal is not judicially reviewable.
The FAA may initiate its own investigation of any matter within the applicability of this part without having received a complaint. The investigation may include, without limitation, any of the actions described in § 16.29(b).
Following the initiation of an investigation under § 16.101, the FAA sends a notice to the person(s) subject to investigation. The notice will set forth the areas of the agency's concern and the reasons therefor; request a response to the notice within 30 days of the date of service; and inform the respondent that the FAA will, in its discretion, invite good faith efforts to resolve the matter.
If the matters addressed in the FAA notices are not resolved informally, the FAA may issue a Director's determination under § 16.31.
This section applies to initial determinations issued under § 16.31 that provide the opportunity for a hearing.
(a) The agency will provide the opportunity for a hearing if, in the Director's determination, the agency proposes to issue an order terminating eligibility for grants pursuant to 49 U.S.C. 47106(e) and 47111(d), an order suspending the payment of grant funds, an order withholding approval of any new application to impose a passenger facility charge pursuant to section 112 of the Federal Aviation Administration Act of 1994, 49 U.S.C. 47111(e), a cease and desist order, an order directing the refund of fees unlawfully collected, or any other compliance order issued by the Administrator to carry out the provisions of the Acts, and required to be issued after notice and opportunity for a hearing. In cases in which a hearing is not required by statute, the FAA may provide opportunity for a hearing at its discretion.
(b) In a case in which the agency provides the opportunity for a hearing, the Director's determination issued under § 16.31 will include a statement of the availability of a hearing under subpart F of this part.
(c) Within 20 days after service of a Director's determination under § 16.31 and paragraph (b) of this section, a person subject to the proposed compliance order may—
(1) Request a hearing under subpart F of this part;
(2) Waive hearing and appeal the Director's determination in writing to the Associate Administrator, as provided in § 16.33;
(3) File, jointly with a complainant, a motion to withdraw the complaint and to dismiss the proposed compliance action; or
(4) Submit, jointly with the agency attorney, a proposed consent order under § 16.243(e).
(d) If the respondent fails to request a hearing or to file an appeal in writing within the time periods provided in paragraph (c) of this section, the Director's determination becomes final.
(a) If a respondent is provided the opportunity for hearing in an initial determination and does not waive hearing, the Deputy Chief Counsel within 10 days after the respondent elects a hearing will issue and serve on the respondent and complainant a hearing order. The hearing order will set forth:
(1) The allegations in the complaint, or notice of investigation, and the chronology and results of the investigation preliminary to the hearing;
(2) The relevant statutory, judicial, regulatory, and other authorities;
(3) The issues to be decided;
(4) Such rules of procedure as may be necessary to supplement the provisions of this part;
(5) The name and address of the person designated as hearing officer, and the assignment of authority to the hearing officer to conduct the hearing in accordance with the procedures set forth in this part; and
(6) The date by which the hearing officer is directed to issue an initial decision.
(b) Where there are no genuine issues of material fact requiring oral examination of witnesses, the hearing order may contain a direction to the hearing officer to conduct a hearing by submission of briefs and oral argument without the presentation of testimony or other evidence.
In accordance with the rules of this subpart, a hearing officer may:
(a) Give notice of, and hold, prehearing conferences and hearings;
(b) Administer oaths and affirmations;
(c) Issue subpoenas authorized by law and issue notices of deposition requested by the parties;
(d) Limit the frequency and extent of discovery;
(e) Rule on offers of proof;
(f) Receive relevant and material evidence;
(g) Regulate the course of the hearing in accordance with the rules of this part to avoid unnecessary and duplicative proceedings in the interest of prompt and fair resolution of the matters at issue;
(h) Hold conferences to settle or to simplify the issues by consent of the parties;
(i) Dispose of procedural motions and requests;
(j) Examine witnesses; and
(k) Make findings of fact and conclusions of law, and issue an initial decision.
(a)
(1) Any party may be accompanied, represented, or advised by an attorney licensed by a State, the District of Columbia, or a territory of the United States to practice law or appear before the courts of that State or territory, or by another duly authorized representative.
(2) An attorney, or other duly authorized representative, who represents a party shall file a notice of appearance in accordance with § 16.13.
(b)
(2) Unless otherwise specified in the hearing order, the agency attorney will serve as prosecutor for the agency from the date of issuance of the Director's determination providing an opportunity for hearing.
(a) A person may submit a motion for leave to intervene as a party. Except for good cause shown, a motion for leave to intervene shall be submitted not later than 10 days after the notice of hearing and hearing order.
(b) If the hearing officer finds that intervention will not unduly broaden the issues or delay the proceedings and, if the person has a property or financial interest that may not be addressed adequately by the parties, the hearing officer may grant a motion for leave to intervene. The hearing officer may determine the extent to which an intervenor may participate in the proceedings.
(c) Other persons may petition the hearing officer for leave to participate in the hearing. Participation is limited to the filing of post-hearing briefs and reply to the hearing officer and the Associate Administrator. Such briefs shall be filed and served on all parties in the same manner as the parties' post hearing briefs are filed.
(d) Participation under this section is at the discretion of the FAA, and no decision permitting participation shall be deemed to constitute an expression by the FAA that the participant has such a substantial interest in the proceeding as would entitle it to judicial review of such decision.
(a)
(b)
(c)
(d)
(a)
(1) The prehearing conference notice specifies the date, time, place, and manner (in person or by telephone) of the prehearing conference.
(2) The prehearing conference notice may direct the parties to exchange proposed witness lists, requests for evidence and the production of documents in the possession of another party, responses to interrogatories, admissions, proposed procedural schedules, and proposed stipulations before the date of the prehearing conference.
(b)
(c)
(a) Discovery is limited to requests for admissions, requests for production of documents, interrogatories, and depositions as authorized by § 16.215.
(b) The hearing officer shall limit the frequency and extent of discovery permitted by this section if a party shows that—
(1) The information requested is cumulative or repetitious;
(2) The information requested may be obtained from another less burdensome and more convenient source;
(3) The party requesting the information has had ample opportunity to obtain the information through other discovery methods permitted under this section; or
(4) The method or scope of discovery requested by the party is unduly burdensome or expensive.
(a)
(1) The person whose deposition is to be taken would be unavailable at the hearing;
(2) The deposition is deemed necessary to perpetuate the testimony of the witness; or
(3) The taking of the deposition is necessary to prevent undue and excessive expense to a party and will not result in undue burden to other parties or in undue delay.
(b)
(1) The name and residence of the witness;
(2) The time and place for the taking of the proposed deposition;
(3) The reasons why such deposition should be taken; and
(4) A general description of the matters concerning which the witness will be asked to testify.
(c)
(d)
(2) Objections to questions or evidence shall be recorded in the transcript of the deposition. The interposing of an objection shall not relieve the witness of the obligation to answer questions, except where the answer would violate a privilege.
(3) The written transcript shall be subscribed by the witness, unless the parties by stipulation waive the signing, or the witness is ill, cannot be found, or refuses to sign. The reporter shall note the reason for failure to sign.
(a) Each party may designate as a witness any person who is able and willing to give testimony that is relevant and material to the issues in the hearing case, subject to the limitation set forth in paragraph (b) of this section.
(b) The hearing officer may exclude testimony of witnesses that would be
(c) Any witness may be accompanied by counsel. Counsel representing a nonparty witness has no right to examine the witness or otherwise participate in the development of testimony.
(a)
(1) Another party;
(2) An officer, employee, or agent of another party;
(3) Any other person named in the complaint as participating in or benefiting from the actions of the respondent alleged to have violated any Act;
(4) An officer, employee, or agent of any other person named in the complaint as participating in or benefiting from the actions of the respondent alleged to have violated any Act.
(b)
(2) Subpoenas shall be served by personal service, or upon an agent designated in writing for the purpose, or by certified mail, return receipt addressed to such person or agent. Whenever service is made by registered or certified mail, the date of mailing shall be considered as the time when service is made.
(3) A subpoena issued under this part is effective throughout the United States or any territory or possession thereof.
(c)
(2) A motion to quash or modify the subpoena stays the effect of the subpoena pending a decision by the hearing officer on the motion.
(a) The party on whose behalf a witness appears is responsible for paying any witness fees and mileage expenses.
(b) Except for employees of the United States summoned to testify as to matters related to their public employment, witnesses summoned by subpoena shall be paid the same fees and mileage expenses as are paid to a witness in a court of the United States in comparable circumstances.
(a)
(b)
(c)
(d)
(e)
(f)
(g)
(a) Except as provided in this section, the hearing shall be open to the public.
(b) The hearing officer may order that any information contained in the record be withheld from public disclosure. Any person may object to disclosure of information in the record by filing a written motion to withhold specific information with the hearing officer. The person shall state specific grounds for nondisclosure in the motion.
(c) The hearing officer shall grant the motion to withhold information from public disclosure if the hearing officer determines that disclosure would be in violation of the Privacy Act, would reveal trade secrets or privileged or confidential commercial or financial information, or is otherwise prohibited by law.
The hearing officer shall issue an initial decision or shall rule in a party's favor only if the decision or ruling is supported by, and in accordance with, reliable, probative, and substantial evidence contained in the record and is in accordance with law.
(a) The burden of proof of noncompliance with an Act or any regulation, order, agreement or document of conveyance issued under the authority of an Act is on the agency.
(b) Except as otherwise provided by statute or rule, the proponent of a motion, request, or order has the burden of proof.
(c) A party who has asserted an affirmative defense has the burden of proving the affirmative defense.
A party whose evidence has been excluded by a ruling of the hearing officer may offer the evidence on the record when filing an appeal.
(a)
(b)
(a)
(b)
(a) The hearing officer shall waive such procedural steps as all parties to the hearing agree to waive before issuance of an initial decision.
(b) Consent to a waiver of any procedural step bars the raising of this issue on appeal.
(c) The parties may not by consent waive the obligation of the hearing officer to enter an initial decision on the record.
(a) The hearing officer shall issue an initial decision based on the record developed during the proceeding and shall send the initial decision to the parties not later than 110 days after the Director's determination unless otherwise provided in the hearing order.
(b) Each party adversely affected by the hearing officer's initial decision may file an appeal with the Associate Administrator within 15 days of the date the initial decision is issued. Each party may file a reply to an appeal within 10 days after it is served on the party. Filing and service of appeals and replies shall be by personal delivery.
(c) If an appeal is filed, the Associate Administrator reviews the entire record and issues a final agency decision and order within 30 days of the due date of the reply. If no appeal is filed, the Associate Administrator may take review of the case on his or her own motion. If the Associate Administrator finds that the respondent is not in compliance with any Act or any regulation, agreement, or document of conveyance issued or made under such Act, the final agency order includes a statement of corrective action, if appropriate, and identifies sanctions for continued noncompliance.
(d) If no appeal is filed, and the Associate Administrator does not take review of the initial decision on the Associate Administrator's own motion, the initial decision shall take effect as the final agency decision and order on the sixteenth day after the actual date the initial decision is issued.
(e) The failure to file an appeal is deemed a waiver of any rights to seek judicial review of an initial decision that becomes a final agency decision by operation of paragraph (d) of this section.
(f) If the Associate Administrator takes review on the Associate Administrator's own motion, the Associate Administrator issues a notice of review by the sixteenth day after the actual date the initial decision is issued.
(1) The notice sets forth the specific findings of fact and conclusions of law in the initial decision that are subject to review by the Associate Administrator.
(2) Parties may file one brief on review to the Associate Administrator or rely on their posthearing briefs to the hearing officer. Briefs on review shall be filed not later than 10 days after service of the notice of review. Filing and service of briefs on review shall be by personal delivery.
(3) The Associate Administrator issues a final agency decision and order within 30 days of the due date of the briefs on review. If the Associate Administrator finds that the respondent is not in compliance with any Act or any regulation, agreement or document of conveyance issued under such Act, the final agency order includes a statement of corrective action, if appropriate, and identifies sanctions for continued noncompliance.
(a) The agency attorney and the respondents may agree at any time before the issuance of a final decision and order to dispose of the case by issuance of a consent order. Good faith efforts to resolve a complaint through issuance of a consent order may continue throughout the administrative process. Except as provided in § 16.209, such efforts may not serve as the basis for extensions of the times set forth in this part.
(b) A proposal for a consent order, specified in paragraph (a) of this section, shall include:
(1) A proposed consent order;
(2) An admission of all jurisdictional facts;
(3) An express waiver of the right to further procedural steps and of all rights of judicial review; and
(4) The hearing order, if issued, and an acknowledgment that the hearing order may be used to construe the terms of the consent order.
(c) If the issuance of a consent order has been agreed upon by all parties to the hearing, the proposed consent order shall be filed with the hearing officer, along with a draft order adopting the consent decree and dismissing the case, for the hearing officer's adoption.
(d) The deadline for the hearing officer's initial decision and the final agency decision is extended by the amount of days elapsed between the filing of the proposed consent order with the hearing officer and the issuance of the hearing officer's order continuing the hearing.
(e) If the agency attorney and sponsor agree to dispose of a case by issuance of a consent order before the FAA issues a hearing order, the proposal for a consent order is submitted jointly to the official authorized to issue a hearing order, together with a request to adopt the consent order and dismiss the case. The official authorized to issue the hearing order issues the consent order as an order of the FAA and terminates the proceeding.
(a) A person may seek judicial review, in a United States Court of Appeals, of a final decision and order of the Associate Administrator as provided in 49 U.S.C. 46110 or section 519(b)(4) of the Airport and Airway Improvement Act of 1982, as amended, (AAIA), 49 U.S.C. 47106(d) and 47111(d). A party seeking judicial review of a final decision and order shall file a petition for review with the Court not later than 60 days after a final decision and order under the AAIA has been served on the party or within 60 days after the entry of an order under 49 U.S.C. 40101
(b) The following do not constitute final decisions and orders subject to judicial review:
(1) An FAA decision to dismiss a complaint without prejudice, as set forth in § 16.27;
(2) A Director's determination;
(3) An initial decision issued by a hearing officer at the conclusion of a hearing;
(4) A Director's determination or an initial decision of a hearing officer that becomes the final decision of the Associate Administrator because it was not appealed within the applicable time periods provided under §§ 16.33(b) and 16.241(b).
As used in this subpart:
(a) The prohibitions of this section shall apply from the time a proceeding is noticed for hearing unless the person responsible for the communication has knowledge that it will be noticed, in which case the prohibitions shall apply at the time of the acquisition of such knowledge.
(b) Except to the extent required for the disposition of ex parte matters as authorized by law:
(1) No interested person outside the FAA and no FAA employee participating as a party shall make or knowingly cause to be made to any
(2) No FAA employee shall make or knowingly cause to be made to any interested person outside the FAA an ex parte communication relevant to the merits of the proceeding; or
(3) Ex parte communications regarding solely matters of agency procedure or practice are not prohibited by this section.
A decisional employee who receives or who makes or knowingly causes to be made a communication prohibited by § 16.303 shall place in the public record of the proceeding:
(a) All such written communications;
(b) Memoranda stating the substance of all such oral communications; and
(c) All written responses, and memoranda stating the substance of all oral responses, to the materials described in paragraphs (a) and (b) of this section.
(a) Upon receipt of a communication knowingly made or knowingly caused to be made by a party in violation of § 16.303, the Associate Administrator or his designee or the hearing officer may, to the extent consistent with the interests of justice and the policy of the underlying statutes, require the party to show cause why his or her claim or interest in the proceeding should not be dismissed, denied, disregarded, or otherwise adversely affected on account of such violation.
(b) The Associate Administrator may, to the extent consistent with the interests of justice and the policy of the underlying statutes administered by the FAA, consider a violation of this subpart sufficient grounds for a decision adverse to a party who has knowingly committed such violation or knowingly caused such violation to occur.
5 U.S.C. 570-581, 49 U.S.C. 106(f)(2), 40110, 40111, 40112, 46102, 46014, 46105, 46109, and 46110.
This part applies to all protests or contract disputes against the FAA that are brought on or after June 28, 1999, with the exception of those contract disputes arising under or related to FAA contracts entered into prior to April 1, 1996.
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(a) The authority of the Administrator to conduct dispute resolution proceedings concerning acquisition matters, is delegated to the Director of the Office of Dispute Resolution for Acquisition.
(b) The Director of the Office of Dispute Resolution for Acquisition may redelegate to Special Masters and DROs such delegated authority in paragraph (a) of this section as is deemed necessary by the Director for efficient resolution of an assigned protest or contract dispute, including the imposition of sanctions or other disciplinary actions.
(a) Filing of a protest or contract dispute may be accomplished by mail, overnight delivery, hand delivery, or by facsimile. A protest or contract dispute is considered to be filed on the date it is received by the Office of Dispute Resolution for Acquisition during normal business hours. The Office of Dispute Resolution for Acquisition's normal business hours are from 8:30 a.m. to 5 p.m. est or edt, whichever is in use. A protest or contract dispute received via mail, after the time period prescribed for filing, shall not be considered timely filed even though it may be postmarked within the time period prescribed for filing.
(b) Submissions to the Office of Dispute Resolution for Acquisition after the initial filing of a contract dispute may be accomplished by any means available in paragraph (a) of this section. Submissions to the Office of Dispute Resolution for Acquisition after the initial filing of a protest may only be accomplished by overnight delivery, hand delivery or facsimile.
(c) The time limits stated in this part are calculated in business days, which exclude weekends and Federal holidays. In computing time, the day of the event beginning a period of time shall
(a) The Office of Dispute Resolution for Acquisition may issue protective orders addressing the treatment of protected information, either at the request of a party or upon its own initiative. Such information may include proprietary, confidential, or source-selection-sensitive material, or other information the release of which could result in a competitive advantage to one or more firms.
(b) The terms of the Office of Dispute Resolution for Acquisition's standard protective order may be altered to suit particular circumstances, by negotiation of the parties, subject to the approval of the Office of Dispute Resolution for Acquisition. The protective order establishes procedures for application for access to protected information, identification and safeguarding of that information, and submission of redacted copies of documents omitting protected information.
(c) After a protective order has been issued, counsel or consultants retained by counsel appearing on behalf of a party may apply for access to the material under the order by submitting an application to the Office of Dispute Resolution for Acquisition, with copies furnished simultaneously to all parties. The application shall establish that the applicant is not involved in competitive decisionmaking for any firm that could gain a competitive advantage from access to the protected information and that the applicant will diligently protect any protected information received from inadvertent disclosure. Objections to an applicant's admission shall be raised within two (2) days of the application, although the Office of Dispute Resolution for Acquisition may consider objections raised after that time for good cause.
(d) Any violation of the terms of a protective order may result in the imposition of sanctions or the taking of the actions as the Office of Dispute Resolution for Acquisition deems appropriate.
(e) The parties are permitted to agree upon what material is to be covered by a protective order, subject to approval by the Office of Dispute Resolution for Acquisition.
The following matters may not be protested before the Office of Dispute Resolution for Acquisition:
(a) FAA purchases from or through, state, local, and tribal governments and public authorities;
(b) FAA purchases from or through other federal agencies;
(c) Grants;
(d) Cooperative agreements;
(e) Other transactions which do not fall into the category of procurement contracts subject to the AMS.
(a) Protests concerning FAA SIRs or contract awards shall be resolved pursuant to this part.
(b) The offeror initially should attempt to resolve any issues concerning potential protests with the CO. The CO, in coordination with FAA legal counsel, will make reasonable efforts to answer questions promptly and completely, and, where possible, to resolve concerns or controversies.
(c) Offerors or prospective offerors shall file a protest with the Office of Dispute Resolution for Acquisition in accordance with § 17.15. The protest time limitations set forth in § 17.15 will not be extended by attempts to resolve a potential protest with the CO. Other than the time limitations specified in § 17.15 for the filing of protests, the Office of Dispute Resolution for Acquisition retains the discretion to modify any time constraints imposed in connection with protests.
(d) In accordance with § 17.17, the Office of Dispute Resolution for Acquisition shall convene a status conference for the protest. Under the procedures set forth in that section, the parties generally will either decide to utilize Alternative Dispute Resolution (ADR) techniques to resolve the protest, pursuant to subpart D of this part, or they
(e) The Office of Dispute Resolution for Acquisition Director shall designate Dispute Resolution Officers (DROs) or Special Masters for protests.
(f) Multiple protests concerning the same SIR, solicitation, or contract award may be consolidated at the discretion of the Office of Dispute Resolution for Acquisition, and assigned to a single DRO or Special Master for adjudication.
(g) Procurement activities, and, where applicable, contractor performance pending resolution of a protest shall continue during the pendency of a protest, unless there is a compelling reason to suspend or delay all or part of the procurement activities. Pursuant to §§ 17.15(d) and 17.17(b), the Office of Dispute Resolution for Acquisition may recommend suspension of award or delay of contract performance, in whole or in part, for a compelling reason. A decision to suspend or delay procurement activities or contractor performance would be made in writing by the FAA Administrator or the Administrator's delegee.
(a) Only an interested party may file a protest, and shall initiate a protest by filing a written protest with the Office of Dispute Resolution for Acquisition within the times set forth below, or the protest shall be dismissed as untimely:
(1) Protests based upon alleged improprieties in a solicitation or a SIR that are apparent prior to bid opening or the time set for receipt of initial proposals shall be filed prior to bid opening or the time set for the receipt of initial proposals.
(2) In procurements where proposals are requested, alleged improprieties that do not exist in the initial solicitation, but which are subsequently incorporated into the solicitation, must be protested not later than the next closing time for receipt of proposals following the incorporation;
(3) For protests other than those related to alleged solicitation improprieties, the protest must be filed on the later of the following two dates:
(i) Not later than seven (7) business days after the date the protester knew or should have known of the grounds for the protest; or
(ii) If the protester has requested a post-award debriefing from the FAA Product Team, not later than five (5) business days after the date on which the Product Team holds that debriefing.
(b) Protest shall be filed at:
(1) Office of Dispute Resolution for Acquisition, AGC-70, Federal Aviation Administration, 400 7th Street, SW., Room 8332, Washington, DC 20590, Telephone: (202) 366-6400, Facsimile: (202) 366-7400; or
(2) Other address as shall be published from time to time in the
(c) A Protest shall be in writing, and set forth:
(1) The protester's name, address, telephone number, and facsimile (FAX) number;
(2) The name, address, telephone number, and FAX number of a person designated by the protester (Protester Designee), and who shall be duly authorized to represent the protester, to be the point of contact;
(3) The SIR number or, if available, the contract number and the name of the CO;
(4) The basis for the protester's status as an interested party;
(5) The facts supporting the timeliness of the protest;
(6) Whether the protester requests a protective order, the material to be protected, and attach a redacted copy of that material;
(7) A detailed statement of both the legal and factual grounds of the protest, and attach one (1) copy of each relevant document;
(8) The remedy or remedies sought by the protester, as set forth in § 17.21;
(9) The signature of the Protester Designee, or another person duly authorized to represent the protester.
(d) If the protester wishes to request a suspension or delay of the procurement, in whole or in part, and believes there are compelling reasons that, if
(1) Set forth each such compelling reason, supply all facts supporting the protester's position, identify each person with knowledge of the facts supporting each compelling reason, and identify all documents that support each compelling reason.
(2) Clearly identify any adverse consequences to the protester, the FAA, or any interested party, should the FAA not suspend or delay the procurement.
(e) At the same time as filing the protest with the Office of Dispute Resolution for Acquisition, the protester shall serve a copy of the protest on the CO and any other official designated in the SIR for receipt of protests by means reasonably calculated to be received by the CO on the same day as it is to be received by the Office of Dispute Resolution for Acquisition. The protest shall include a signed statement from the protester, certifying to the Office of Dispute Resolution for Acquisition the manner of service, date, and time when a copy of the protest was served on the CO and other designated official(s).
(f) Upon receipt of the protest, the CO shall inform the Office of Dispute Resolution for Acquisition of the names, addresses, and telephone and facsimile numbers of the awardee and/or other interested parties, if known, and shall, in such notice, designate a person as the point of contact for the Office of Dispute Resolution for Acquisition by facsimile. The CO shall also notify the awardee and/or interested parties in writing of the existence of the protest the same day as the CO provides the foregoing information to the Office of Dispute Resolution for Acquisition. The awardee and/or interested parties shall notify the ODRA in writing, of their interest in participating in the protest as intervenors within two (2) business days of receipt of the CO's notification, and shall, in such notice, designate a person as the point of contact for the ODRA. Such notice may be submitted to the ODRA by facsimile.
(g) The Office of Dispute Resolution for Acquisition has discretion to designate the parties who shall participate in the protest as intervenors. For awarded contracts, only the awardee may participate as an intervenor.
(a) If, as part of a protest, the protester requests a suspension or delay of procurement, in whole or in part, pursuant to § 17.15(d), the Product Team shall submit a response to the request to the Office of Dispute Resolution for Acquisition within two (2) business days of receipt of the protest. Copies of the response shall be furnished to the protester and any intervenor(s) so as to be received within the same two (2) business days. The protester and any intervenor(s) shall have the opportunity of providing additional comments on the response within an additional period of two (2) business days. Based on its review of such submissions, the Office of Dispute Resolution for Acquisition, in its discretion, may recommend such suspension or delay to the Administrator or the Administrator's designee.
(b) Within five (5) business days of the filing of a protest, or as soon thereafter as practicable, the Office of Dispute Resolution for Acquisition shall convene a status conference to—
(1) Review procedures;
(2) Identify and develop issues related to summary dismissal and suspension recommendations;
(3) Handle issues related to protected information and the issuance of any needed protective order;
(4) Encourage the parties to use ADR;
(5) Conduct or arrange for early neutral evaluation of the protest by a DRO or Neutral or Compensated Neutral, at the discretion of the Office of Dispute Resolution for Acquisition and/or based upon the agreement or request of any party(ies) seeking such evaluation; and
(6) For any other reason deemed appropriate by the DRO or by the Office of Dispute Resolution for Acquisition.
(c) On the fifth business day following the status conference, the Product Team and protester will file with the Office of Dispute Resolution for Acquisition—
(1) A joint statement that they have decided to pursue ADR proceedings in
(2) Joint or separate written explanations as to why ADR proceedings will not be used and why the Default Adjudicative Process will be needed.
(d) Should the Product Team and protester elect to utilize ADR proceedings to resolve the protest, they will agree upon the neutral to conduct the ADR proceedings (either an Office of Dispute Resolution for Acquisition-designated Neutral or a Compensated Neutral of their own choosing) pursuant to § 17.33(c), and shall execute and file with the Office of Dispute Resolution for Acquisition a written ADR agreement within five (5) business days after the status conference. Agreement of any intervenor(s) to the use of ADR or the resolution of a dispute through ADR shall not be required.
(e) Should the Product Team or protester indicate at the status conference that ADR proceedings will not be used, then within ten (10) business days following the status conference, the Product Team will file with the Office of Dispute Resolution for Acquisition a Product Team Response to the protest. The Office of Dispute Resolution for Acquisition may alter the schedule for filing of the Product Team Response to accommodate the requirements of a particular protest.
(f) The Product Team Response shall consist of a written chronological statement of pertinent facts, and a written presentation of applicable legal or other defenses. The Product Team Response shall cite to and be accompanied by all relevant documents, which shall be chronologically indexed and tabbed. A copy of the response shall be furnished so as to be received by the protester and any intervenor(s) on the same date it is filed with the Office of Dispute Resolution for Acquisition, if practicable, but in any event no later than one (1) business day after the date if it is filed with the Office of Dispute Resolution for Acquisition. In all cases, the Product Team shall indicate the method of service used.
(g) Should the parties pursue ADR proceedings under subpart D of this part and fail to achieve a complete resolution of the protest via ADR, the Office of Dispute Resolution for Acquisition, upon notification of that fact by any of the parties, shall designate a DRO or Special Master for purposes of adjudication under subpart E of this part, and the DRO or Special Master shall convene a status conference, wherein he/she shall establish a schedule for the filing of the Product Team Response and further submissions.
(h) Upon submission of the Product Team Response, the protest will proceed under the Default Adjudicative Process pursuant to § 17.37.
(i) The time limitations of this section maybe extended by the Office of Dispute Resolution for Acquisition for good cause.
(a) At any time during the protest, any party may request, by motion to the Office of Dispute Resolution for Acquisition, that—
(1) The protest, or any count or portion of a protest, be dismissed for lack of jurisdiction, if the protester fails to establish that the protest is timely, or that the protester has no standing to pursue the protest;
(2) The protest, or any count or portion of a protest, be dismissed, if frivolous or without basis in fact or law, or for failure to state a claim upon which relief may be had;
(3) A summary decision be issued with respect to the protest, or any count or portion of a protest, if:
(i) The undisputed material facts demonstrate a rational basis for the Product Team action or inaction in question, and there are no other material facts in dispute that would overcome a finding of such a rational basis; or
(ii) The undisputed material facts demonstrate, that no rational basis exists for the Product Team action or inaction in question, and there are no material facts in dispute that would overcome a finding of the lack of such a rational basis.
(b) In connection with any request for dismissal or summary decision, the Office of Dispute Resolution for Acquisition shall consider any material facts in dispute, in a light most favorable to the party against whom the request is made.
(c) Either upon motion by a party or on its own initiative, the Office of Dispute Resolution for Acquisition may, at any time, exercise its discretion to:
(1) Recommend to the Administrator dismissal or the issuance of a summary decision with respect to the entire protest;
(2) Dismiss the entire protest or issue a summary decision with respect to the entire protest, if delegated that authority by the Administrator; or
(3) Dismiss or issue a summary decision with respect to any count or portion of a protest.
(d) A dismissal or summary decision regarding the entire protest by either the Administrator, or the Office of Dispute Resolution for Acquisition by delegation, shall be construed as a final agency order. A dismissal or summary decision that does not resolve all counts or portions of a protest shall not constitute a final agency order, unless and until such dismissal or decision is incorporated or otherwise adopted in a decision by the Administrator (or the Office of Dispute Resolution for Acquisition, by delegation) regarding the entire protest.
(e) Prior to recommending or entering either a dismissal or a summary decision, either in whole or in part, the Office of Dispute Resolution for Acquisition shall afford all parties against whom the dismissal or summary decision is to be entered the opportunity to respond to the proposed dismissal or summary decision.
(a) The Office of Dispute Resolution for Acquisition has broad discretion to recommend remedies for a successful protest that are consistent with the AMS and applicable statutes. Such remedies may include, but are not limited to one or more, or a combination of, the following—
(1) Amend the SIR;
(2) Refrain from exercising options under the contract;
(3) Issue a new SIR;
(4) Require recompetition;
(5) Terminate an existing contract for the FAA's convenience;
(6) Direct an award to the protester;
(7) Award bid and proposal costs; or
(8) Any combination of the above remedies, or any other action consistent with the AMS that is appropriate under the circumstances.
(b) In determining the appropriate recommendation, the Office of Dispute Resolution for Acquisition should consider the circumstances surrounding the procurement or proposed procurement including, but not limited to: the nature of the procurement deficiency; the degree of prejudice to other parties or to the integrity of the acquisition system; the good faith of the parties; the extent of performance completed; the cost of any proposed remedy to the FAA; the urgency of the procurement; and the impact of the recommendation on the FAA.
(c) Attorney's fees of a prevailing protester are allowable to the extent permitted by the Equal Access to Justice Act, 5 U.S.C. 504(a)(1)(EAJA).
(a) All contract disputes arising under contracts subject to the AMS shall be resolved under this subpart.
(b) Contractors shall file contract disputes with the Office of Dispute Resolution for Acquisition and the CO pursuant to § 17.25.
(c) After filing the contract dispute, the contractor should seek informal resolution with the CO:
(1) The CO, with the advice of FAA legal counsel, has full discretion to settle contract disputes, except where the matter involves fraud;
(2) The parties shall have up to twenty (20) business days within which to resolve the dispute informally, and may contact the Office of Dispute Resolution for Acquisition for assistance in facilitating such a resolution; and
(3) If no informal resolution is achieved during the twenty (20) business day period, the parties shall file joint or separate statements with the Office of Dispute Resolution for Acquisition pursuant to § 17.27.
(d) If informal resolution of the contract dispute appears probable, the Office of Dispute Resolution for Acquisition shall extend the time for the filing of the joint statement under § 17.27 for
(e) The Office of Dispute Resolution for Acquisition shall hold a status conference with the parties within ten (10) business days after receipt of the joint statement required by § 17.27, or as soon thereafter as is practicable, in order to establish the procedures to be utilized to resolve the contract dispute.
(f) The Office of Dispute Resolution for Acquisition has broad discretion to recommend remedies for a successful contract dispute, that are consistent with the AMS and applicable law.
(a) Contract disputes are to be in writing and shall contain:
(1) The contractor's name, address, telephone and fax numbers and the name, address, telephone and fax numbers of the contractor's legal representative(s) (if any) for the contract dispute;
(2) The contract number and the name of the Contracting Officer;
(3) A detailed chronological statement of the facts and of the legal grounds for the contractor's positions regarding each element or count of the contract dispute (i.e., broken down by individual claim item), citing to relevant contract provisions and documents and attaching copies of those provisions and documents;
(4) All information establishing that the contract dispute was timely filed;
(5) A request for a specific remedy, and if a monetary remedy is requested, a sum certain must be specified and pertinent cost information and documentation (e.g., invoices and cancelled checks) attached, broken down by individual claim item and summarized; and
(6) The signature of a duly authorized representative of the initiating party.
(b) Contract disputes shall be filed by mail, in person, by overnight delivery or by facsimile at the following address:
(1) Office of Dispute Resolution for Acquisition, AGC-70, Federal Aviation Administration, 400 7th Street, SW., Room 8332, Washington, DC 20590, Telephone: (202) 366-6400, Facsimile: (202) 366-7400; or
(2) Other address as shall be published from time to time in the
(c) A contract dispute against the FAA shall be filed with the Office of Dispute Resolution for Acquisition within two (2) years of the accrual of the contract claim involved. A contract dispute by the FAA against a contractor (excluding contract disputes alleging warranty issues, fraud or latent defects) likewise shall be filed within two (2) years after the accrual of the contract claim. If an underlying contract entered into prior to the effective date of this part provides for time limitations for filing of contract disputes with The Office of Dispute Resolution for Acquisition which differ from the aforesaid two (2) year period, the limitation periods in the contract shall control over the limitation period of this section. In no event will either party be permitted to file with the Office of Dispute Resolution for Acquisition a contract dispute seeking an equitable adjustment or other damages after the contractor has accepted final contract payment, with the exception of FAA claims related to warranty issues, gross mistakes amounting to fraud or latent defects. FAA claims against the contractor based on warranty issues must be filed within the time specified under applicable contract warranty provisions. Any FAA claims against the contractor based on gross mistakes amounting to fraud or latent defects shall be filed with the Office of Dispute Resolution for Acquisition within two (2) years of the date on which the FAA knew or should have known of the presence of the fraud or latent defect.
(d) A party shall serve a copy of the contract dispute upon the other party, by means reasonably calculated to be received on the same day as the filing is to be received by the Office of Dispute Resolution for Acquisition.
(a) If the matter has not been resolved informally, the parties shall file joint or separate statements with the
(b) The statement(s) shall include either—
(1) A joint request for ADR, and an executed ADR agreement, pursuant to § 17.33(d), specifying which ADR techniques will be employed; or
(2) Written explanation(s) as to why ADR proceedings will not be used and why the Default Adjudicative Process will be needed.
(c) Such statements shall be directed to the following address:
(1) Office of Dispute Resolution for Acquisition, AGC-70, Federal Aviation Administration, 400 7th Street, SW., Room 8332, Washington, DC 20590, Telephone: (202) 366-6400, Facsimile: (202) 366-7400; or
(2) Other address as shall be published from time to time in the
(d) The submission of a statement which indicates that ADR will not be utilized will not in any way preclude the parties from engaging in informal ADR techniques with the Office of Dispute Resolution for Acquisition (neutral evaluation and/or informal mediation) concurrently with ongoing adjudication under the Default Adjudicative Process, pursuant to § 17.31(c).
(a) Any party may request, by motion to the Office of Dispute Resolution for Acquisition, that a contract dispute be dismissed, or that a count or portion of a contract dispute be stricken, if:
(1) It was not timely filed with the Office of Dispute Resolution for Acquisition;
(2) It was filed by a subcontractor;
(3) It fails to state a matter upon which relief may be had; or
(4) It involves a matter not subject to the jurisdiction of the Office of Dispute Resolution for Acquisition.
(b) In connection with any request for dismissal of a contract dispute, or to strike a count or portion thereof, the Office of Dispute Resolution for Acquisition should consider any material facts in dispute in a light most favorable to the party against whom the request for dismissal is made.
(c) At any time, whether pursuant to a motion or request or on its own initiative and at its discretion, the Office of Dispute Resolution for Acquisition may—
(1) Dismiss or strike a count or portion of a contract dispute;
(2) Recommend to the Administrator that the entire contract dispute be dismissed; or
(3) With delegation from the Administrator, dismiss the entire contract dispute.
(d) An order of dismissal of the entire contract dispute, issued either by the Administrator or by the Office of Dispute Resolution for Acquisition where delegation exists, on the grounds set forth in this section, shall constitute a final agency order. An Office of Dispute Resolution for Acquisition order dismissing or striking a count or portion of a contract dispute shall not constitute a final agency order, unless and until such Office of Dispute Resolution for Acquisition order is incorporated or otherwise adopted in a decision of the Administrator or the Administrator's delegee.
(e) Prior to recommending or entering either a dismissal or a summary decision, either in whole or in part, the Office of Dispute Resolution for Acquisition shall afford all parties against whom the dismissal or summary decision is to be entered the opportunity to respond to a proposed dismissal or summary decision.
(a) The Office of Dispute Resolution for Acquisition shall encourage the parties to utilize ADR as their primary means to resolve protests and contract disputes.
(b) The parties shall make a good faith effort to explore ADR possibilities in all cases and to employ ADR in every appropriate case. The Office of Dispute Resolution for Acquisition will encourage use of ADR techniques such as mediation, neutral evaluation, or
(c) The Default Adjudicative Process will be used where the parties cannot achieve agreement on the use of ADR; or where ADR has been employed but has not resolved all pending issues in dispute; or where the Office of Dispute Resolution for Acquisition concludes that ADR will not provide an expeditious means of resolving a particular dispute. Even where the Default Adjudicative Process is to be used, the Office of Dispute Resolution for Acquisition, with the parties consent, may employ informal ADR techniques concurrently with and in parallel to adjudication.
(a) The Office of Dispute Resolution for Acquisition will make its personnel available to serve as Neutrals in ADR proceedings and, upon request by the parties, will attempt to make qualified non-FAA personnel available to serve as Neutrals through neutral-sharing programs and other similar arrangements. The parties may elect to employ a mutually Compensated Neutral, if the parties agree as to how the costs of any such Compensated Neutral are to be shared.
(b) The parties using an ADR process to resolve a protest shall submit an executed ADR agreement containing the information outlined in paragraph (d) of this section to the Office of Dispute Resolution for Acquisition within five (5) business days after the Office of Dispute Resolution for Acquisition conducts a status conference pursuant to § 17.17(c). The Office of Dispute Resolution for Acquisition may extend this time for good cause.
(c) The parties using an ADR process to resolve a contract dispute shall submit an executed ADR agreement containing the information outlined in paragraph (d) of this section to the Office of Dispute Resolution for Acquisition as part of the joint statement specified under § 17.27.
(d) The parties to a protest or contract dispute who elect to use ADR must submit to the Office of Dispute Resolution for Acquisition an ADR agreement setting forth:
(1) The type of ADR technique(s) to be used;
(2) The agreed-upon manner of using the ADR process; and
(3) Whether the parties agree to use a Neutral through The Office of Dispute Resolution for Acquisition or to use a Compensated Neutral of their choosing, and, if a Compensated Neutral is to be used, how the cost of the Compensated Neutral's services will be shared.
(e) Non-binding ADR techniques are not mutually exclusive, and may be used in combination if the parties agree that a combination is most appropriate to the dispute. The techniques to be employed must be determined in advance by the parties and shall be expressly described in their ADR agreement. The agreement may provide for the use of any fair and reasonable ADR technique that is designed to achieve a prompt resolution of the matter. An ADR agreement for non-binding ADR shall provide for a termination of ADR proceedings and the commencement of adjudication under the Default Adjudicative Process, upon the election of any party. Notwithstanding such termination, the parties may still engage with the Office of Dispute Resolution for Acquisition in informal ADR techniques (neutral evaluation and/or informal mediation) concurrently with adjudication, pursuant to § 17.31(c).
(f) Binding arbitration may be permitted by the Office of Dispute Resolution for Acquisition on a case-by-case basis; and shall be subject to the provisions of 5 U.S.C. 575(a), (b), and (c), and any other applicable law. Arbitration that is binding on the parties, subject to the Administrator's right to approve or disapprove the arbitrator's decision, may also be permitted.
(g) For protests, the ADR process shall be completed within twenty (20) business days from the filing of an executed ADR agreement with the Office of Dispute Resolution for Acquisition unless the parties request, and are
(h) For contract disputes, the ADR process shall be completed within forty (40) business days from the filing of an executed ADR agreement with the Office of Dispute Resolution for Acquisition, unless the parties request, and are granted an extension of time from the Office of Dispute Resolution for Acquisition.
(i) The parties shall submit to the Office of Dispute Resolution for Acquisition an agreed-upon protective order, if necessary, in accordance with the requirements of § 17.9.
(a) In connection with the ADR process, the parties may select a Compensated Neutral acceptable to both, or may request the Office of Dispute Resolution for Acquisition to provide the services of a DRO or other Neutral.
(b) In cases where the parties select a Compensated Neutral who is not familiar with Office of Dispute Resolution for Acquisition procedural matters, the parties or Compensated Neutral may request the Office of Dispute Resolution for Acquisition for the services of a DRO to advise on such matters.
(a) Other than for the resolution of preliminary or dispositive matters, the Default Adjudicative Process for protests will commence upon the submission of the Product Team Response to the Office of Dispute Resolution for Acquisition, pursuant to § 17.17.
(b) The Director of the Office of Dispute Resolution for Acquisition shall select a DRO or a Special Master to conduct fact-finding proceedings and to provide findings and recommendations concerning some or all of the matters in controversy.
(c) The DRO or Special Master may prepare procedural orders for the proceedings as deemed appropriate; and may require additional submissions from the parties. As a minimum, the protester and any intervenor(s) must submit to the Office of Dispute Resolution for Acquisition written comments with respect to the Product Team Response within five (5) business days of the Response having been filed with the Office of Dispute Resolution for Acquisition or within five (5) business days of their receipt of the Response, whichever is later. Copies of such comments shall be provided to the other participating parties by the same means and on the same date as they are furnished to the Office of Dispute Resolution for Acquisition.
(d) The DRO or Special Master may convene the parties and/or their representatives, as needed, to pursue the Default Adjudicative Process.
(e) If, in the sole judgment of the DRO or Special Master, the parties have presented written material sufficient to allow the protest to be decided on the record presented, the DRO or Special Master shall have the discretion to decide the protest on that basis.
(f) The parties may engage in voluntary discovery with one another and, if justified, with non-parties, so as to obtain information relevant to the allegations of the protest. The DRO or Special Master may also direct the parties to exchange, in an expedited manner, relevant, non-privileged documents. Where justified, the DRO or Special Master may direct the taking of deposition testimony, however, the FAA dispute resolution process does not contemplate extensive discovery. The DRO or Special Master shall manage the discovery process, including limiting its length and availability, and shall establish schedules and deadlines for discovery, which are consistent with time frames established in this part and with the FAA policy of providing fair and expeditious dispute resolution.
(g) The DRO or Special Master may conduct hearings, and may limit the hearings to the testimony of specific witnesses and/or presentations regarding specific issues. The DRO or Special Master shall control the nature and conduct of all hearings, including the sequence and extent of any testimony. Hearings will be conducted:
(1) Where the DRO or Special Master determines that there are complex factual issues in dispute that cannot adequately or efficiently be developed solely by means of written presentations and/or that resolution of the controversy will be dependent on his/her assessment of the credibility of statements provided by individuals with first-hand knowledge of the facts; or
(2) Upon request of any party to the protest, unless the DRO or Special Master finds specifically that a hearing is unnecessary and that no party will be prejudiced by limiting the record in the adjudication to the parties' written submissions. All witnesses at any such hearing shall be subject to cross-examination by the opposing party and to questioning by the DRO or Special Master.
(h) The Director of the Office of Dispute Resolution for Acquisition may review the status of any protest in the Default Adjudicative Process with the DRO or Special Master during the pendency of the process.
(i) Within thirty (30) business days of the commencement of the Default Adjudicative Process, or at the discretion of the Office of Dispute Resolution for Acquisition, the DRO or Special Master will submit findings and recommendations to the Office of Dispute Resolution for Acquisition that shall contain the following:
(1) Findings of fact;
(2) Application of the principles of the AMS, and any applicable law or authority to the findings of fact;
(3) A recommendation for a final FAA order; and
(4) If appropriate, suggestions for future FAA action.
(j) In arriving at findings and recommendations relating to protests, the DRO or Special Master shall consider whether or not the Product Team actions in question had a rational basis, and whether or not the Product Team decision under question was arbitrary, capricious or an abuse of discretion. Findings of fact underlying the recommendations must be supported by substantial evidence.
(k) The DRO or Special Master has broad discretion to recommend a remedy that is consistent with § 17.21.
(l) A DRO or Special Master shall submit findings and recommendations only to the Director of the Office of Dispute Resolution for Acquisition. The findings and recommendations will be released to the parties and to the public, only upon issuance of the final FAA order in the case. Should an Office of Dispute Resolution for Acquisition protective order be issued in connection with the protest, a redacted version of the findings and recommendations, omitting any protected information, shall be prepared wherever possible and released to the public along with a copy of the final FAA order. Only persons admitted by the Office of Dispute Resolution for Acquisition under the protective order and Government personnel shall be provided copies of the unredacted findings and recommendations.
(m) The time limitations set forth in this section may be extended by the Office of Dispute Resolution for Acquisition for good cause.
(a) The Default Adjudicative Process for contract disputes will commence on the latter of:
(1) The parties' submission to the Office of Dispute Resolution for Acquisition of a joint statement pursuant to § 17.27 which indicates that ADR will not be utilized; or
(2) The parties' submission to the Office of Dispute Resolution for Acquisition of notification by any party that the parties have not settled some or all of the dispute issues via ADR, and it is unlikely that they can do so within the time period allotted and/or any reasonable extension.
(b) Within twenty (2) business days of the commencement of the Default Adjudicative Process, the Product Team shall prepare and submit to the Office of Dispute Resolution for Acquisition, with a copy to the contractor, a chronologically arranged and indexed Dispute File, containing all documents which are relevant to the facts and issues in dispute. The contractor will be entitled to supplement such a Dispute File with additional documents.
(c) The Director of the Office of Dispute Resolution for Acquisition shall
(d) The Director of the Office of Dispute Resolution for Acquisition may delegate authority to the DRO or Special Master to conduct a Status Conference within ten (10) business days of the commencement of the Default Adjudicative Process, and, may further delegate to the DRO or Special Master the authority to issue such orders or decisions to promote the efficient resolution of the contract dispute.
(e) At any such Status Conference, or as necessary during the Default Adjudicative Process, the DRO or Special Master will:
(1) Determine the appropriate amount of discovery required to resolve the dispute;
(2) Review the need for a protective order, and if one is needed, prepare a protective order pursuant to § 17.9;
(3) Determine whether any issue can be stricken; and
(4) Prepare necessary procedural orders for the proceedings.
(f) At a time or at times determined by the DRO or Special Master, and in advance of the decision of the case, the parties shall make final submissions to the Office of Dispute Resolution for Acquisition and to the DRO or Special Master, which submissions shall include the following:
(1) A joint statement of the issues;
(2) A joint statement of undisputed facts related to each issue;
(3) Separate statements of disputed facts related to each issue, with appropriate citations to documents in the Dispute File, to pages of transcripts of any hearing or deposition, or to any affidavit or exhibit which a party may wish to submit with its statement;
(4) Separate legal analyses in support of the parties' respective positions on disputed issues.
(g) Each party shall serve a copy of its final submission on the other party by means reasonable calculated so that the other party receives such submissions on the same day it is received by the Office of Dispute Resolution for Acquisition.
(h) The DRO or Special Master may decide the contract dispute on the basis of the record and the submissions referenced in this section, or may, in the DRO or Special Master's discretion, allow the parties to make additional presentations in writing. The DRO or Special Master may conduct hearings, and may limit the hearings to the testimony of specific witnesses and/or presentations regarding specific issues. The DRO or Special Master shall control the nature and conduct of all hearings, including the sequence and extent of any testimony. Hearings on the record shall be conducted by the ODRA:
(1) Where the DRO or Special Master determines that there are complex factual issues in dispute that cannot adequately or efficiently be developed solely by means of written presentations and/or that resolution of the controversy will be dependent on his/her assessment of the credibility of statements provided by individuals with first-hand knowledge of the facts; or
(2) Upon request of any party to the contract dispute, unless the DRO or Special Master finds specifically that a hearing is unnecessary and that no party will be prejudiced by limiting the record in the adjudication to the parties written submissions. All witnesses at any such hearing shall be subject to cross-examination by the opposing party and to questioning by the DRO or Special Master.
(i) The DRO or Special Master shall prepare findings and recommendations within thirty (30) business days from receipt of the final submissions of the parties, unless that time is extended by the Officer of Dispute Resolution for Acquisition for good cause. The findings and recommendations shall contain findings of fact, application of the principles of the AMS and other law or authority applicable to the findings of fact, a recommendation for a final FAA order, and, if appropriate, suggestions for future FAA action.
(j) As a party of the findings and recommendations, the DRO or Special Master shall review the disputed issue or issues in the context of the contract, any applicable law and the AMS. Any finding of fact set forth in the fundings and recommendation must be supported by substantial evidence.
(k) The Director of the Office of Dispute Resolution for Acquisition may review the status of any contract dispute in the Default Adjudicative Process with the DRO or Special Master during the pendency of the process.
(l) A DRO or Special Master shall submit findings and recommendations only to the Director of the Office of Dispute Resolution for Acquisition. The findings and recommendations will be released to the parties and to the public, upon issuance of the final FAA order in the case. Should an Office of Dispute Resolution for Acquisition protective order be issued in connection with the contract dispute, a redacted version of the findings and recommendations omitting any protected information, shall be prepared wherever possible and released to the public along with a copy of the final FAA order. Only persons admitted by the Office of Dispute Resolution for Acquisition under the protective order and Government personal shall be provided copies of the unredacted findings and recommendation.
(m) The time limitations set forth in this section may be extended by the Office of Dispute Resolution for Acquisition for good cause.
(n) Attorneys fees of a qualified prevailing contractor are allowable to the extent permitted by the EAJA, 5 U.S.C. 504 (a)(1).
All final FAA orders regarding protests or connect disputes under this part are to be issued by the FAA Administrator or by a delegee of the Administrator.
(a) A protestor or contractor may seek of a final FAA order, pursuant to 49 U.S.C. 46110, only after the administrative remedies of this part have been exhausted.
(b) A copy of the petition for review shall be filed with the Office of Dispute Resolution for Acquisition and the FAA Chief Counsel on the date that the petition for review is filed with the appropriate circuit court of appeals.
The FAA shall amend pertinent provisions of the AMS, standard contract forms and clauses, and any guidance to contracting officials, so as to conform to the provisions of this part.
A. The FAA dispute resolution procedures encourage the parties to protests and contract disputes to use ADR as the primary means to resolve protests and contract disputes, pursuant to the Administrative Dispute Resolution Act of 1996, Pub. L. 104-320, 5 U.S.C. 570-579, and Department of Transportation and FAA policies to utilize ADR to the maximum extent practicable. Under the procedures presented in this part, the Office of Dispute Resolution for Acquisition would encourage parties to consider ADR techniques such as case evaluation, mediation, or arbitration.
B. ADR encompasses a number of processes and techniques for resolving protests or contract disputes. The most commonly used types include:
(1)
(2)
(3)