49 U.S.C. 5323(d): 3023(d), Pub. L. 109-59; 49 CFR 1.51.
(a) The purpose of this part is to implement 49 U.S.C. 5323(d), which protects private charter operators from unauthorized competition from recipients of Federal financial assistance under the Federal Transit Laws.
(b) This subpart specifies which entities shall comply with the charter service regulations; defines terms used in this part; explains procedures for an exemption from this part; and sets out the contents of a charter service agreement.
(a) The requirements of this part shall apply to recipients of Federal financial assistance under the Federal Transit Laws, except as otherwise provided in paragraphs (b) through (g) of this section.
(b) The requirements of this part shall not apply to a recipient transporting its employees, other transit system employees, transit management officials, transit contractors and bidders, government officials and their contractors and official guests, to or from transit facilities or projects within its geographic service area or proposed geographic service area for the purpose of conducting oversight functions such as inspection, evaluation, or review.
(c) The requirements of this part shall not apply to private charter operators that receive, directly or indirectly, Federal financial assistance under section 3038 of the Transportation Equity Act for the 21st Century, as amended, or to the non-FTA funded activities of private charter operators that receive, directly or indirectly, FTA financial assistance under any of the following programs: 49 U.S.C. 5307, 49 U.S.C. 5309, 49 U.S.C. 5310, 49 U.S.C. 5311, 49 U.S.C. 5316, or 49 U.S.C. 5317.
(d) The requirements of this part shall not apply to a recipient transporting its employees, other transit system employees, transit management officials, transit contractors and bidders, government officials and their contractors and official guests, for emergency preparedness planning and operations.
(e) The requirements of this part shall not apply to a recipient that uses Federal financial assistance from FTA, for program purposes only, under 49 U.S.C. 5310, 49 U.S.C. 5311, 49 U.S.C. 5316, or 49 U.S.C. 5317.
(f) The requirements of this part shall not apply to a recipient, for actions directly responding to an emergency declared by the President, governor, or mayor or in an emergency requiring immediate action prior to a formal declaration. If the emergency lasts more than 45 days, the recipient shall follow the procedures set out in subpart D of 49 CFR 601.
(g) The requirements of this part shall not apply to a recipient in a non-urbanized area transporting its employees, other transit system employees, transit management officials, and transit contractors and bidders to or from transit training outside its geographic service area.
All terms defined in 49 U.S.C. 5301
(a)
(b)
(c)
(1) Transportation provided by a recipient at the request of a third party for the exclusive use of a bus or van for a negotiated price. The following features may be characteristic of charter service:
(i) A third party pays the transit provider a negotiated price for the group;
(ii) Any fares charged to individual members of the group are collected by a third party;
(iii) The service is not part of the transit provider's regularly scheduled service, or is offered for a limited period of time; or
(iv) A third party determines the origin and destination of the trip as well as scheduling; or
(2) Transportation provided by a recipient to the public for events or functions that occur on an irregular basis or for a limited duration and:
(i) A premium fare is charged that is greater than the usual or customary fixed route fare; or
(ii) The service is paid for in whole or in part by a third party.
(d)
(1) Hours operated while carrying passengers for hire, plus
(2) Associated deadhead hours.
(e)
(f)
(g)
(h)
(i)
(j)
(k)
(l)
(m)
(n)
(o)
(p)
(q)
(r)
(s)
(t)
(u)
(v)
(a) A recipient seeking Federal assistance under the Federal Transit Laws to acquire or operate any public transportation equipment or facilities shall enter into a “Charter Service Agreement” as set out in paragraph (b) of this section.
(b) A recipient shall enter into a Charter Service Agreement if it receives Federal funds for equipment or facilities under the Federal Transit Laws. The terms of the Charter Service Agreement are as follows: “The recipient agrees that it, and each of its subrecipients, and third party contractors at any level who use FTA-funded vehicles, may provide charter service using equipment or facilities acquired with Federal assistance authorized under the Federal Transit Laws only in compliance with the regulations set out in 49 CFR 604, the terms and conditions of which are incorporated herein by reference.”
(c) The Charter Service Agreement is contained in the Certifications and Assurances published annually by FTA for applicants for Federal financial assistance. Once a recipient receives Federal funds, the Certifications and Assurances become part of its Grant Agreement or Cooperative Agreement for Federal financial assistance.
The purpose of this subpart is to identify the limited exceptions under which recipients may provide community-based charter services.
(a) A recipient may provide charter service to government officials (Federal, State, and local) for official government business, which can include non-transit related purposes, if the recipient:
(1) Provides the service in its geographic service area;
(2) Does not generate revenue from the charter service, except as required by law; and
(3) After providing such service, records the following:
(i) The government organization's name, address, phone number, and e-mail address;
(ii) The date and time of service;
(iii) The number of passengers (specifically noting the number of government officials on the trip);
(iv) The origin, destination, and trip length (miles and hours);
(v) The fee collected, if any; and
(vi) The vehicle number for the vehicle used to provide the service.
(b) A recipient that provides charter service under this section shall be limited annually to 80 charter service hours for providing trips to government officials for official government business.
(c) A recipient may petition the Administrator for additional charter service hours only if the petition contains the following information:
(1) Date and description of the official government event and the number of charter service hours requested;
(2) Explanation of why registered charter providers in the geographic service area cannot perform the service (e.g., equipment, time constraints, or other extenuating circumstances); and
(3) Evidence that the recipient has sent the request for additional hours to registered charter providers in its geographic service area.
(d) FTA shall post the request for additional charter service hours under this exception in the Government Officials Exception docket, docket number FTA-2007-0020 at
(a) A recipient may provide charter service to a qualified human service organization (QHSO) for the purpose of serving persons:
(1) With mobility limitations related to advanced age;
(2) With disabilities; or
(3) With low income.
(b) If an organization serving persons described in paragraph (a) of this section receives funding, directly or indirectly, from the programs listed in Appendix A of this part, the QHSO shall not be required to register on the FTA charter registration Web site.
(c) If a QHSO serving persons described in paragraph (a) of this section does not receive funding from any of the programs listed in Appendix A of this part, the QHSO shall register on the FTA charter registration Web site in accordance with § 604.15.
(d) A recipient providing charter service under this exception, whether or not the QHSO receives funding from Appendix A programs, and after providing such charter service, shall record:
(1) The QHSO's name, address, phone number, and e-mail address;
(2) The date and time of service;
(3) The number of passengers;
(4) The origin, destination, and trip length (miles and hours);
(5) The fee collected, if any; and
(6) The vehicle number for the vehicle used to provide the service.
(a) A recipient may lease its FTA-funded equipment and drivers to registered charter providers for charter service only if the following conditions exist:
(1) The private charter operator is registered on the FTA charter registration Web site;
(2) The registered charter provider owns and operates buses or vans in a charter service business;
(3) The registered charter provider received a request for charter service that exceeds its available capacity either of the number of vehicles operated by the registered charter provider or the number of accessible vehicles operated by the registered charter provider; and
(4) The registered charter provider has exhausted all of the available vehicles of all registered charter providers in the recipient's geographic service area.
(b) A recipient leasing vehicles and drivers to a registered charter provider under this provision shall record:
(1) The registered charter provider's name, address, telephone number, and e-mail address;
(2) The number of vehicles leased, types of vehicles leased, and vehicle identification numbers; and
(3) The documentation presented by the registered charter provider in support of paragraphs (a)(1) through (4) of this section.
(c) In accordance with § 604.26, if a registered charter provider seeking to lease vehicles has filed a complaint requesting that another registered charter provider be removed from the FTA charter registration Web site, then the registered charter provider seeking to lease vehicles is not required to exhaust the vehicles from that registered charter provider while the complaint is pending before leasing vehicles from a recipient.
(a) A recipient may provide charter service, on its own initiative or at the request of a third party, if no registered charter provider responds to the notice issued in § 604.14:
(1) Within 72 hours for charter service requested to be provided in less than 30 days; or
(2) Within 14 calendar days for charter service requested to be provided in 30 days or more.
(b) A recipient shall not provide charter service under this section if a registered charter provider indicates an interest in providing the charter service set out in the notice issued pursuant to § 604.14 and the registered charter provider has informed the recipient of its interest in providing the service.
(c) After providing the service, a recipient shall record:
(1) The group's name, address, phone number, and e-mail address;
(2) The date and time of service;
(3) The number of passengers;
(4) The origin, destination, and trip length (miles and hours);
(5) The fee collected, if any; and
(6) The vehicle number for the vehicle used to provide the service.
(a) A recipient may provide charter service directly to a customer consistent with an agreement entered into with all registered charter providers in the recipient's geographic service area.
(b) If a new charter provider registers in the geographic service area subsequent to the initial agreement, the recipient may continue to provide charter service under the previous agreement with the other charter providers up to 90 days without an agreement with the newly registered charter provider.
(c) Any of the parties to an agreement may cancel the agreement at any time after providing the recipient a 90-day notice.
(a) A recipient may petition the Administrator for an exception to the charter service regulations to provide charter service directly to a customer for:
(1) Events of regional or national significance;
(2) Hardship (only for non-urbanized areas under 50,000 in population or small urbanized areas under 200,000 in population); or
(3) Unique and time sensitive events (e.g., funerals of local, regional, or national significance) that are in the public's interest.
(b) The petition to the Administrator shall include the following information:
(1) The date and description of the event;
(2) The type of service requested and the type of equipment;
(3) The anticipated number of charter service hours needed for the event;
(4) The anticipated number of vehicles and duration of the event; and
(i) For an event of regional or national significance, the petition shall include a description of how registered charter providers were consulted, how registered charter providers will be utilized in providing the charter service, a certification that the recipient has exhausted all of the registered charter providers in its geographic service area, and submit the petition at least 90 days before the first day of the event described in paragraph (b)(1) of this section;
(ii) For a hardship request, a petition is only available if the registered charter provider has deadhead time that exceeds total trip time from initial pick-up to final drop-off, including wait time. The petition shall describe how the registered charter provider's minimum duration would create a hardship on the group requesting the charter service; or
(iii) For unique and time sensitive events, the petition shall describe why the event is unique or time sensitive and how providing the charter service would be in the public's interest.
(c) Upon receipt of a petition that meets the requirements set forth in paragraph (b) of this section, the Administrator shall review the materials and issue a written decision denying or granting the request in whole or in part. In making this decision, the Administrator may seek such additional
(d) Any exception granted by the Administrator under this section shall be effective only for the event identified in paragraph (b)(1) of this section.
(e) A recipient shall send its petition to the Administrator by facsimile to (202) 366-3809 or by e-mail to
(f) A recipient shall retain a copy of the Administrator's approval for a period of at least three years and shall include it in the recipient's quarterly report posted on the charter registration Web site.
(a) A recipient that provides charter service in accordance with one or more of the exceptions contained in this subpart shall maintain the required notice and records in an electronic format for a period of at least three years from the date of the service or lease. A recipient may maintain the required records in other formats in addition to the electronic format.
(b) In addition to the requirements identified in paragraph (a) of this section, the records required under this subpart shall include a clear statement identifying which exception the recipient relied upon when it provided the charter service.
(c) Beginning on July 30, 2008, a recipient providing charter service under these exceptions shall post the records required under this subpart on the FTA charter registration Web site 30 days after the end of each calendar quarter (
(d) A recipient may exclude specific origin and destination information for safety and security reasons. If a recipient excludes such information, the record of the service shall describe the reason why such information was excluded and provide generalized information instead of providing specific origin and destination information.
(a) Private charter operators shall provide the following information at
(1) Company name, address, phone number, e-mail address, and facsimile number;
(2) Federal and, if available, state motor carrier identifying number;
(3) The geographic service areas of public transit agencies, as identified by the transit agency's zip code, in which the private charter operator intends to provide charter service;
(4) The number of buses or vans the private charter operator owns;
(5) A certification that the private charter operator has valid insurance; and
(6) Whether willing to provide free or reduced rate charter services to registered qualified human service organizations.
(b) A private charter operator that provides valid information in this subpart is a “registered charter provider” for purposes of this part and shall have standing to file a complaint consistent with subpart F.
(c) A recipient, a registered charter provider, or their duly authorized representative, may challenge a registered charter provider's registration and request removal of the private charter operator from FTA's charter registration Web site by filing a complaint consistent with subpart F.
(d) FTA may refuse to post a private charter operator's information if the private charter operator fails to provide all of the required information as indicated on the FTA charter registration Web site.
(e) A registered charter provider shall provide current and accurate information on FTA's charter registration Web site, and shall update that information no less frequently than every two years.
(a) Upon receiving a request for charter service, a recipient may:
(1) Decline to provide the service, with or without referring the requestor to FTA's charter registration Web site (
(2) Provide the service under an exception provided in subpart B of this part; or
(3) Provide notice to registered charter providers as provided in this section and provide the service pursuant to § 604.9.
(b) If a recipient is interested in providing charter service under the exception contained in § 604.9, then upon receipt of a request for charter service, the recipient shall provide e-mail notice to registered charter providers in the recipient's geographic service area in the following manner:
(1) E-mail notice of the request shall be sent by the close of business on the day the recipient receives the request unless the recipient received the request after 2 p.m., in which case the recipient shall send the notice by the close of business the next business day;
(2) E-mail notice sent to the list of registered charter providers shall include:
(i) Customer name, address, phone number, and e-mail address (if available);
(ii) Requested date of service;
(iii) Approximate number of passengers;
(iv) Whether the type of equipment requested is (are) bus(es) or van(s); and
(v) Trip itinerary and approximate duration; and
(3) If the recipient intends to provide service that meets the definition of charter service under § 604.3(c)(2), the e-mail notice must include the fare the recipient intends to charge for the service.
(c) A recipient shall retain an electronic copy of the e-mail notice and the list of registered charter providers that were sent e-mail notice of the requested charter service for a period of at least three years from the date the e-mail notice was sent.
(d) If a recipient receives an “undeliverable” notice in response to its e-mail notice, the recipient shall send the notice via facsimile. The recipient shall maintain the record of the undeliverable e-mail notice and the facsimile sent confirmation for a period of three years.
(a) Qualified human service organizations (QHSO) that seek free or reduced rate services from recipients, and do not receive funds from Federal programs listed in Appendix A, but serve individuals described in § 604.7 (
(1) Name of organization, address, phone number, e-mail address, and facsimile number;
(2) The geographic service area of the recipient in which the qualified human service organization resides;
(3) Basic financial information regarding the qualified human service organization and whether the qualified human service organization is exempt from taxation under sections 501(c) (1), (3), (4), or (19) of the Internal Revenue Code, and whether it is a unit of Federal, State or local government;
(4) Whether the qualified human service organization receives funds directly or indirectly from a State or local program, and if so, which program(s); and
(5) A narrative statement describing the types of charter service trips the qualified human service organization may request from a recipient and how that service is consistent with the mission of the qualified human service organization.
(b) A qualified human service organization is eligible to receive charter services from a recipient if it:
(1) Registers on the FTA Web site in accordance with paragraph (a) of this section at least 60 days before the date of the requested charter service; and
(2) Verifies FTA's receipt of its registration by viewing its information on the FTA charter registration Web site (
(c) A registered charter provider may challenge a QHSO's status to receive charter services from a recipient by requesting removal of the QHSO from FTA's charter registration Web site by filing a complaint consistent with subpart F.
(d) A QHSO shall provide current and accurate information on FTA's charter registration Web site, and shall update that information no less frequently than every two years.
Each recipient shall ensure that its affected employees and contractors have the necessary competency to effectively use the FTA charter registration Web site.
The purpose of this subpart is to set out the requirements for requesting an advisory opinion from the Chief Counsel's Office. An advisory opinion may also request that the Chief Counsel issue a cease and desist order, which would be an order to refrain from doing an act which, if done, would be a violation of this part.
(a) An interested party may request an advisory opinion from the Chief Counsel on a matter regarding specific factual events only.
(b) A request for an advisory opinion shall be submitted in the following form:
(c) The Chief Counsel may request additional information, as necessary, from the party submitting the request for an advisory opinion.
(d) A request for an advisory opinion may be denied if:
(1) The request contains incomplete information on which to base an informed advisory opinion;
(2) The Chief Counsel concludes that an advisory opinion cannot reasonably be given on the matter involved;
(3) The matter is adequately covered by a prior advisory opinion or a regulation;
(4) The Chief Counsel otherwise concludes that an advisory opinion would not be in the public interest.
(a) A request for an advisory opinion shall be sent to the Chief Counsel at
(b) The Chief Counsel shall make every effort to respond to a request for an advisory opinion within ten days of receipt of a request that complies with
(a) An advisory opinion represents the formal position of FTA on a matter, and except as provided in § 604.25 of this subpart, obligates the agency to follow it until it is amended or revoked.
(b) An advisory opinion may be used in administrative or court proceedings to illustrate acceptable and unacceptable procedures or standards, but not as a legal requirement and is limited to the factual circumstances described in the request for an advisory opinion. The Chief Counsel's advisory opinion shall not be binding upon a Presiding Official conducting a proceeding under subpart I of this part.
(c) A statement made or advice provided by an FTA employee constitutes an advisory opinion only if it is issued in writing under this section. A statement or advice given by an FTA employee orally, or given in writing, but not under this section, is an informal communication that represents the best judgment of that employee at the time but does not constitute an advisory opinion, does not necessarily represent the formal position of FTA, and does not bind or otherwise obligate or commit the agency to the views expressed.
Based on new facts involving significant financial considerations, the Chief Counsel may take appropriate enforcement action contrary to an advisory opinion before amending or revoking the opinion. This action shall be taken only with the approval of the Administrator.
(a) An interested party may also request a cease and desist order as part of its request for an advisory opinion. A request for a cease and desist order shall contain the following information in addition to the information required for an advisory opinion:
(1) A description of the need for the cease and desist order, a detailed description of the lost business opportunity the interested party is likely to suffer if the recipient performs the charter service in question, and how the public interest will be served by avoiding or ameliorating the lost business opportunity. A registered charter provider must distinguish its loss from that of other registered charter providers in the geographic service area.
(2) A detailed description of the efforts made to notify the recipient of the potential violation of the charter service regulations. Include names, titles, phone numbers or e-mail addresses of persons contacted, date and times contact was made, and the response received, if any.
(b) A request for a cease and desist order may be denied if:
(1) The request contains incomplete information on which to base an informed a cease and desist order;
(2) The Chief Counsel concludes that a cease and desist order cannot reasonably be given on the matter involved;
(3) The matter is adequately covered by a prior a cease and desist order; or
(4) The Chief Counsel otherwise concludes that a cease and desist order would not be in the public interest.
(c) A recipient who is the subject of a request for a cease and desist order shall have three business days to respond to the request. The response shall include a point-by-point rebuttal to the information included in the request for a cease and desist order.
(d) The time period for a response by the recipient begins once a registered charter provider files a request in the Advisory Opinion/Cease and Desist Order docket (FTA-2007-0023 at
(a) Issuance of a cease and desist order against a recipient shall be considered as an aggravating factor in determining the remedy to impose against the recipient in future findings of noncompliance with this part, if the recipient provides the service described
(b) In determining whether to grant the request for a cease and desist order, the Chief Counsel shall consider the specific facts shown in the signed, sworn request for a cease and desist order, applicable statutes and regulations, and any other information that is relevant to the request.
(a) The Chief Counsel may grant a request for a cease and desist order if the interested party demonstrates, by a preponderance of the evidence, that the planned provision of charter service by a recipient would violate this part.
(b) In determining whether to grant the request for a cease and desist order, the Chief Counsel shall consider the specific facts shown in the signed, sworn request for a cease and desist order, applicable statutes, regulations, agreements, and any other information that is relevant to the request.
This subpart describes the requirements for filing a complaint challenging the registration of a private charter operator or qualified human service organization on the FTA charter registration Web site and filing a complaint regarding the provision of charter service by a recipient. Note: To save time and expense for all concerned, FTA expects all parties to attempt to resolve matters informally before beginning the official complaint process.
(a) A recipient, a registered charter provider, or its duly authorized representative, may challenge the listing of a registered charter provider or qualified human service organization on FTA's charter registration Web site by filing a complaint that meets the following:
(1) States the name and address of each entity who is the subject of the complaint;
(2) Provides a concise but complete statement of the facts relied upon to substantiate the reason why the private charter operator or qualified human service organization should not be listed on the FTA charter registration Web site;
(3) Files electronically by submitting it to the Charter Service Removal Complaint docket number FTA-2007-0024 at
(4) Serves by e-mail or facsimile if no e-mail address is available, or by overnight mail service with receipt confirmation, and attaches documents offered in support of the complaint upon all entities named in the complaint;
(5) Files within 90 days of discovering facts that merit removal of the registered charter provider or qualified human service organization from the FTA Charter Registration Web site; and
(6) Contains the following certification:
(b) The registered charter provider or qualified human service organization shall have 15 days to answer the complaint and shall file such answer, and all supporting documentation, in the Charter Service Removal Complaint docket number FTA-2007-0024 at
(c) A recipient, qualified human service organization, or a registered charter provider, or its duly authorized representative, shall not file a reply to the answer.
(d) FTA shall determine whether to remove the registered charter provider or qualified human service organization from the FTA charter registration Web site based on a preponderance of
(1) Bad faith;
(2) Fraud;
(3) Lapse of insurance;
(4) Lapse of other documentation; or
(5) The filing of more than one complaint, which on its face, does not state a claim that warrants an investigation or further action by FTA.
(e) FTA's determination whether or not to remove a registered charter provider or qualified human service organization from the registration list shall be sent to the parties within 30 days of the date of the response required in paragraph (b) of this section and shall state:
(1) Reasons for allowing the continued listing or removal of the registered charter provider or qualified human service organization from the registration list;
(2) If removal is ordered, the length of time (not to exceed three years) the private charter operator or qualified human service organization shall be barred from the registration list; and
(3) The date by which the private charter operator or qualified human service organization may re-apply for registration on the FTA charter registration Web site.
(a) A registered charter provider, or its duly authorized representative (“complainant”), affected by an alleged noncompliance of this part may file a complaint with the Office of the Chief Counsel.
(b) Complaints filed under this subpart shall:
(1) Be titled “Notice of Charter Service Complaint”;
(2) State the name and address of each recipient that is the subject of the complaint and, with respect to each recipient, the specific provisions of this part that the complainant believes were violated;
(2) Be served in accordance with § 604.31, along with all documents then available in the exercise of reasonable diligence, offered in support of the complaint, upon all recipients named in the complaint as being responsible for the alleged action(s) or omission(s) upon which the complaint is based;
(3) Provide a concise but complete statement of the facts relied upon to substantiate each allegation (complainant must show by a preponderance of the evidence that the recipient provided charter service and that such service did not fall within one of the exemptions or exceptions set out in this part);
(4) Describe how the complainant was directly and substantially affected by the things done or omitted by the recipients;
(5) Identify each registered charter provider associated with the complaint; and
(6) Be filed within 90 days after the alleged event giving rise to the complaint occurred.
(c) Unless the complaint is dismissed pursuant to § 604.28 or § 604.29, FTA shall notify the complainant, respondent, and state recipient, if applicable, within 30 days after the date FTA receives the complaint that the complaint has been docketed. Respondent shall have 30 days from the date of service of the FTA notification to file an answer.
(d) The complainant may file a reply within 20 days of the date of service of the respondent's answer.
(e) The respondent may file a rebuttal within 10 days of the date of service of the reply.
(f) The answer, reply, and rebuttal shall, like the complaint, be accompanied by the supporting documentation upon which the submitter relies.
(g) The answer shall deny or admit the allegations made in the complaint or state that the entity filing the document is without sufficient knowledge or information to admit or deny an allegation, and shall assert any affirmative defense.
(h) The answer, reply, and rebuttal shall each contain a concise but complete statement of the facts relied upon to substantiate the answers, admissions, denials, or averments made.
(i) The respondent's answer may include a motion to dismiss the complaint, or any portion thereof, with a supporting memorandum of points and authorities.
(j) The complainant may withdraw a complaint at any time after filing by serving a “Notification of Withdrawal” on the Chief Counsel and the respondent.
(a) Within 20 days after the receipt of a complaint described in § 604.27, the Office of the Chief Counsel shall provide reasons for dismissing a complaint, or any claim in the complaint, with prejudice, under this section if:
(1) It appears on its face to be outside the jurisdiction of FTA under the Federal Transit Laws;
(2) On its face it does not state a claim that warrants an investigation or further action by FTA; or
(3) The complainant lacks standing to file a complaint under subparts B, C, or D of this part.
(b) [Reserved]
If a complaint is not dismissed under § 604.28, but is deficient as to one or more of the requirements set forth in § 604.27, the Office of the Chief Counsel may dismiss the complaint within 20 days after receiving it. Dismissal shall be without prejudice and the complainant may re-file after amendment to correct the deficiency. The Chief Counsel's dismissal shall include the reasons for the dismissal without prejudice.
(a)
(b)
(1) The date of personal delivery;
(2) The mailing date shown on the certificate of service;
(3) The date shown on the postmark if there is no certificate of service; or
(4) The mailing date shown by other evidence if there is no certificate of service and no postmark.
(c)
(d)
(e)
(f)
(1) Consistent with this part;
(2) Warranted by existing law or that a good faith argument exists for extension, modification, or reversal of existing law; and
(3) Not interposed for any improper purpose, such as to harass or to cause unnecessary delay or needless increase in the cost of the administrative process.
(a)
(1) The title of the document;
(2) The name, post office address, telephone number; and
(3) The facsimile number, if any, and e-mail address(es), if any.
If any of the above items change during the proceeding, the person shall promptly file notice of the change with
(b)
(c)
(d)
(e)
(1) When acknowledgment of receipt is by a person who customarily or in the ordinary course of business receives mail at the address of the party or of the person designated under this section; or
(2) When a properly addressed envelope, sent to the last known address has been returned as undeliverable, unclaimed, or refused.
(a) If, based on the pleadings, there appears to be a reasonable basis for investigation, FTA shall investigate the subject matter of the complaint.
(b) The investigation may include a review of written submissions or pleadings of the parties, as supplemented by any informal investigation FTA considers necessary and by additional information furnished by the parties at FTA request. Each party shall file documents that it considers sufficient to present all relevant facts and argument necessary for FTA to determine whether the recipient is in compliance.
(c) The Chief Counsel shall send a notice to complainant(s) and respondent(s) once an investigation is complete, but not later than 90 days after receipt of the last pleading specified in § 604.27 was due to FTA.
(a) Notwithstanding any other provision under these regulations, FTA may initiate its own investigation of any matter within the applicability of this Part without having received a complaint. The investigation may include, without limitation, any of the actions described in § 604.32.
(b) Following the initiation of an investigation under this section, FTA sends a notice to the entities subject to investigation. The notice will set forth the areas of FTA's concern and the reasons; request a response to the notice within 30 days of the date of service; and inform the respondent that FTA will, in its discretion, invite good faith efforts to resolve the matter.
(c) If the matters addressed in the FTA notice are not resolved informally, the Chief Counsel may refer the matter to a Presiding Official.
(a) After receiving a complaint consistent with § 604.27, and conducting an investigation, the Chief Counsel may:
(1) Issue a decision based on the pleadings filed to date;
(2) Appoint a PO to review the matter; or
(3) Dismiss the complaint pursuant to § 604.28.
(b) If the Chief Counsel appoints a PO to review the matter, the Chief Counsel shall send out a hearing order that sets forth the following:
(1) The allegations in the complaint, or notice of investigation, and the
(2) The relevant statutory, judicial, regulatory, and other authorities;
(3) The issues to be decided;
(4) Such rules of procedure as may be necessary to supplement the provisions of this Part;
(5) The name and address of the PO, and the assignment of authority to the PO to conduct the hearing in accordance with the procedures set forth in this Part; and
(6) The date by which the PO is directed to issue a recommended decision.
(a) Proceedings under this part shall be handled by an FTA attorney, except that the Chief Counsel may appoint a PO, who may not be an FTA attorney.
(b) After issuance of an initial decision by the Chief Counsel, the FTA employee or contractor engaged in the performance of investigative or prosecutorial functions in a proceeding under this part shall not, in that case or a factually related case, participate or give advice in a final decision by the Administrator or his or her designee on written appeal, and shall not, except as counsel or as witness in the public proceedings, engage in any substantive communication regarding that case or a related case with the Administrator on written appeal.
A PO may:
(a) Give notice of, and hold, pre-hearing conferences and hearings;
(b) Administer oaths and affirmations;
(c) Issue notices of deposition requested by the parties;
(d) Limit the frequency and extent of discovery;
(e) Rule on offers of proof;
(f) Receive relevant and material evidence;
(g) Regulate the course of the hearing in accordance with the rules of this part to avoid unnecessary and duplicative proceedings in the interest of prompt and fair resolution of the matters at issue;
(h) Hold conferences to settle or to simplify the issues by consent of the parties;
(i) Dispose of procedural motions and requests;
(j) Examine witnesses; and
(k) Make findings of fact and conclusions of law and issue a recommended decision.
(a) Any party to the hearing may appear and be heard in person and any party to the hearing may be accompanied, represented, or advised by an attorney licensed by a State, the District of Columbia, or a territory of the United States to practice law or appear before the courts of that State or territory, or by another duly authorized representative. An attorney, or other duly authorized representative, who represents a party shall file according to the filing and service procedures contained in § 604.30 and § 604.31.
(b) The parties to the hearing are the respondent(s) named in the hearing order, the complainant(s), and FTA, as represented by the PO.
(c) The parties to the hearing may agree to extend for a reasonable period of time the time for filing a document under this part. If the parties agree, the PO shall grant one extension of time to each party. The party seeking the extension of time shall submit a draft order to the PO to be signed by the PO and filed with the hearing docket. The PO may grant additional oral requests for an extension of time where the parties agree to the extension.
(d) An extension of time granted by the PO for any reason extends the due date for the PO's recommended decision and for the final agency decision by the length of time in the PO's extension.
(a) Permissible forms of discovery shall be within the discretion of the PO.
(b) The PO shall limit the frequency and extent of discovery permitted by this section if a party shows that:
(1) The information requested is cumulative or repetitious;
(2) The information requested may be obtained from another less burdensome and more convenient source;
(3) The party requesting the information has had ample opportunity to obtain the information through other discovery methods permitted under this section; or
(4) The method or scope of discovery requested by the party is unduly burdensome or expensive.
(a) For good cause shown, the PO may order that the testimony of a witness may be taken by deposition and that the witness produce documentary evidence in connection with such testimony. Generally, an order to take the deposition of a witness is entered only if:
(1) The person whose deposition is to be taken would be unavailable at the hearing;
(2) The deposition is deemed necessary to perpetuate the testimony of the witness; or
(3) The taking of the deposition is necessary to prevent undue and excessive expense to a party and will not result in undue burden to other parties or in undue delay.
(b) Any party to the hearing desiring to take the deposition of a witness according to the terms set out in this subpart, shall file a motion with the PO, with a copy of the motion served on each party. The motion shall include:
(1) The name and residence of the witness;
(2) The time and place for the taking of the proposed deposition;
(3) The reasons why such deposition should be taken; and
(4) A general description of the matters concerning which the witness will be asked to testify.
(c) If good cause is shown in the motion, the PO in his or her discretion, issues an order authorizing the deposition and specifying the name of the witness to be deposed, the location and time of the deposition and the general scope and subject matter of the testimony to be taken.
(d) Witnesses whose testimony is taken by deposition shall be sworn or shall affirm before any questions are put to them. Each question propounded shall be recorded and the answers of the witness transcribed verbatim. The written transcript shall be subscribed by the witness, unless the parties by stipulation waive the signing, or the witness is ill, cannot be found, or refuses to sign. The reporter shall note the reason for failure to sign.
(a) Except as provided in this section, the hearing shall be open to the public.
(b) The PO may order that any information contained in the record be withheld from public disclosure. Any person may object to disclosure of information in the record by filing a written motion to withhold specific information with the PO. The person shall state specific grounds for nondisclosure in the motion.
(c) The PO shall grant the motion to withhold information from public disclosure if the PO determines that disclosure would be in violation of the Privacy Act, would reveal trade secrets or privileged or confidential commercial or financial information, or is otherwise prohibited by law.
The PO shall issue a recommended decision or shall rule in a party's favor only if the decision or ruling is supported by a preponderance of the evidence.
(a) The burden of proof of noncompliance with this part, determination, or agreement issued under the authority of the Federal Transit Laws is on the registered charter provider.
(b) Except as otherwise provided by statute or rule, the proponent of a motion, request, or order has the burden of proof.
A party whose evidence has been excluded by a ruling of the PO, during a hearing in which the respondent had an opportunity to respond to the offer of proof, may offer the evidence on the record when filing an appeal.
(a) The transcript of all testimony in the hearing, all exhibits received into evidence, all motions, applications requests and rulings, and all documents included in the hearing record shall constitute the exclusive record for decision in the proceedings and the basis for the issuance of any orders.
(b) Any interested person may examine the record by entering the docket number at
(a) The PO shall waive such procedural steps as all parties to the hearing agree to waive before issuance of an initial decision.
(b) Consent to a waiver of any procedural step bars the raising of this issue on appeal.
(c) The parties may not by consent waive the obligation of the PO to enter a recommended decision on the record.
(a) The PO shall issue a recommended decision based on the record developed during the proceeding and shall send the recommended decision to the Chief Counsel for ratification or modification not later than 110 days after the referral from the Chief Counsel.
(b) The Chief Counsel shall ratify or modify the PO's recommended decision within 30 days of receiving the recommended decision. The Chief Counsel shall serve his or her decision, which is capable of being appealed to the Administrator, on all parties to the proceeding.
(a) If the Chief Counsel determines that a violation of this part occurred, he or she may take one or more of the following actions:
(1) Bar the recipient from receiving future Federal financial assistance from FTA;
(2) Order the withholding of a reasonable percentage of available Federal financial assistance; or
(3) Pursue suspension and debarment of the recipient, its employees, or its contractors.
(b) In determining the type and amount of remedy, the Chief Counsel shall consider the following factors:
(1) The nature and circumstances of the violation;
(2) The extent and gravity of the violation (“extent of deviation from regulatory requirements”);
(3) The revenue earned (“economic benefit”) by providing the charter service;
(4) The operating budget of the recipient;
(5) Such other matters as justice may require; and
(6) Whether a recipient provided service described in a cease and desist order after issuance of such order by the Chief Counsel.
(c) The Chief Counsel office may mitigate the remedy when the recipient can document corrective action of alleged violation. The Chief Counsel's decision to mitigate a remedy shall be determined on the basis of how much corrective action was taken by the recipient and when it was taken. Systemic action to prevent future violations will be given greater consideration than action simply to remedy violations identified during FTA's inspection or identified in a complaint.
(d) In the event the Chief Counsel finds a pattern of violations, the remedy ordered shall bar a recipient from receiving Federal transit assistance in an amount that the Chief Counsel considers appropriate.
(e) The Chief Counsel may make a decision to withhold Federal financial assistance in a lump sum or over a period of time not to exceed five years.
(a) Each party adversely affected by the Chief Counsel's office decision may file an appeal with the Administrator within 21 days of the date of the Chief Counsel's issued his or her decision. Each party may file a reply to an appeal within 21 days after it is served on
(b) If an appeal is filed, the Administrator reviews the entire record and issues a final agency decision based on the record that either accepts, rejects, or modifies the Chief Counsel's decision within 30 days of the due date of the reply. If no appeal is filed, the Administrator may take review of the case on his or her own motion. If the Administrator finds that the respondent is not in compliance with this part, the final agency order shall include a statement of corrective action, if appropriate, and identify remedies.
(c) If no appeal is filed, and the Administrator does not take review of the decision by the office on the Administrator's own motion, the Chief Counsel's decision shall take effect as the final agency decision and order on the twenty-first day after the actual date the Chief Counsel's decision was issued.
(d) The failure to file an appeal is deemed a waiver of any rights to seek judicial review of the Chief Counsel's decision that becomes a final agency decision by operation of paragraph (c) of this section.
(a) If the Administrator takes review on the Administrator's own motion, the Administrator shall issue a notice of review by the twenty-first day after the actual date of the Chief Counsel's decision that contains the following information:
(1) The notice sets forth the specific findings of fact and conclusions of law in the decision subject to review by the Administrator.
(2) Parties may file one brief on review to the Administrator or rely on their post-hearing briefs to the Chief Counsel's office. Briefs on review shall be filed not later than 10 days after service of the notice of review. Filing and service of briefs on review shall be by personal delivery consistent with § 604.30 and § 604.31.
(3) The Administrator issues a final agency decision and order within 30 days of the due date of the briefs on review. If the Administrator finds that the respondent is not in compliance with this part, the final agency order shall include a statement of corrective action, if appropriate, and identify remedies.
(b) If the Administrator takes review on the Administrator's own motion, the decision of the Chief Counsel is stayed pending a final decision by the Administrator.
(a) A person may seek judicial review in an appropriate United States District Court of a final decision and order of the Administrator as provided in 5 U.S.C. 701-706. A party seeking judicial review of a final decision and order shall file a petition for review with the Court not later than 60 days after a final decision and order is effective.
(b) The following do not constitute final decisions and orders subject to judicial review:
(1) FTA's decision to dismiss a complaint as set forth in § 604.29;
(2) A recommended decision issued by a PO at the conclusion of a hearing; or
(3) A Chief Counsel decision that becomes the final decision of the Administrator because it was not appealed within the stated timeframes.
The following is guidance on the terms contained in section 604.26(d) concerning reasons for which FTA may remove a registered charter provider or a qualified human service organization from the FTA charter registration Web site.
Bad faith is the actual or constructive fraud or a design to mislead or deceive another or a neglect or refusal to fulfill a duty or contractual obligation. It is not an honest mistake. Black's Law Dictionary, Revised Fourth Edition, West Publishing Company, St. Paul, Minn., 1968.
For example, it would be bad faith for a registered charter provider to respond to a recipient's notification to registered charter providers of a charter service opportunity stating that it would provide the service with no actual intent to perform the charter service. It would also be bad faith if the registered charter provider fails to contact the customer or provide a quote for charter service within a reasonable time. Typically, if a registered charter provider fails to contact a customer or fails to provide a price quote to the customer at least 14 business days before an event, then FTA may remove the registered charter provider from the registration Web site, which would allow a transit agency to step back in to provide the service because the registered charter provider's response to the email would no longer be effective because it is not registered.
Further, it would be bad faith for a registered charter provider to submit a quote for charter services knowing that the price is three to four times higher because of the distance the registered charter provider must travel (deadhead time). In those situations, FTA may interpret such quotes as bad faith because they appear to be designed to prevent the local transit agency from providing the service.
On the other hand, FTA would not interpret an honest mistake of fact as bad faith. For example, if a registered charter provider fails to provide charter service in response to a recipient's notification when it honestly mistook the date, place or time the service was to be provided. It would not be bad faith if the registered charter provider responded affirmatively to the email notification sent by the public transit agency, but then later
Fraud is the suggestion or assertion of a fact that is not true, by one who has no reasonable ground for believing it to be true; the suppression of a fact by one who is bound to disclose it; one who gives information of other facts which are likely to mislead; or a promise made without any intention of performing it. Black's Law Dictionary, Revised Fourth Edition, West Publishing Company, St. Paul, Minn., 1968.
Examples of fraud include but are not limited to: (1) A registered charter provider indicates that it has a current state or Federal safety certification when it knows that it does not in fact have one; (2) a broker that owns no charter vehicles registers as a registered charter provider; or (3) a qualified human service organization represents that its serves the needs of the elderly, persons with disabilities, or lower-income individuals, but, in fact, only serves those populations tangentially.
A lapse of insurance occurs when there is no policy of insurance is in place. This may occur when there has been default in payment of premiums on an insurance policy and the policy is no longer in force. In addition, no other policy of insurance has taken its place. Black's Law Dictionary, Revised Fourth Edition, West Publishing Company, St. Paul, Minn., 1968.
A lapse of other documentation means for example, but is not limited to, failure to have or loss or revocation of business license, operating authority, failure to notify of current company name, address, phone number, email address and facsimile number, failure to have a current state or Federal safety certification, or failure to provide accurate Federal or state motor carrier identifying number. Black's Law Dictionary, Revised Fourth Edition, West Publishing Company, St. Paul, Minn., 1968.
A complaint is a document describing a specific instance that allegedly constitutes a violation of the charter service regulations set forth in 49 CFR 604.28. More than one complaint may be contained in the same document. A complaint does not state a claim that warrants investigation when the allegations made in the complaint, without considering any extraneous material or matter, do not raise a genuine issue as to any material question of fact, and based on the undisputed facts stated in the complaint, there is no violation of the charter service statute or regulation as a matter of law. Based on Federal Rules of Civil Procedure, Rule 56(c).
Examples of complaints that would not warrant an investigation or further action by FTA include but are not limited to: (1) A complaint against a public transit agency that does not receive FTA funding; (2) a complaint brought against a public transit agency by a private charter operator that is neither a registered charter provider nor its duly authorized representative; (3) a complaint that gives no information as to when or where the alleged prohibited charter service took place; or (4) a complaint filed solely for the purpose of harassing the public transit agency.
(1) Q: If the requirements of the charter rule are not applicable to me for a particular service I provide, do I have to report that service in my quarterly report?
A: No. If the service you propose to provide meets one of the exemptions contained in this section, you do not have to report the service in your quarterly report.
(2) Q: If I receive funds under 49 U.S.C. Sections 5310, 5311, 5316, or 5317, may I provide charter service for any purpose?
A: No. You may only provide charter service for “program purposes,” which is defined in this regulation as “transportation that serves the needs of either human service agencies or targeted populations (elderly, individuals with disabilities, and/or low income individuals) * * *” 49 CFR Section 604.2(e). Thus, your service only qualifies for the exemption contained in this section if the service is designed to serve the needs of targeted populations. Charter service provided to a group, however, that includes individuals who are only incidentally members of those targeted populations, is not “for program purposes” and must meet the requirements of the rule (for example, an individual chartering a vehicle to take his relatives including elderly aunts and a cousin who is a disabled veteran to a family reunion).
(3) Q: If I am providing service for program purposes under one of the FTA programs listed in 604.2.(e), do the human service organizations have to register on the FTA Charter Registration Web site?
A: No. Because the service is exempt from the charter regulations, the organization does not have to register on the FTA Charter Registration Web site.
(4) Q: What if there is an emergency such as an apartment fire or tanker truck spill that requires an immediate evacuation, but the President, Governor, or Mayor never declares it as an emergency? Can a transit agency still assist in the evacuation efforts?
A: Yes. One part of the emergency exemption is designed to allow transit agencies to participate in emergency situations without worrying about complying with the charter regulations. Since transit agencies are often uniquely positioned to respond to such emergencies, the charter regulations do not apply. This is true whether or not the emergency is officially declared.
(5) Q: Do emergency situations involve requests from the Secret Service or the police department to transport its employees?
A. Generally no. Transporting the Secret Service or police officers for non-emergency preparedness or planning exercises does not qualify for the exemption under this section. In addition, if the Secret Service or the police department requests that a transit agency provide service when there is no immediate emergency, then the transit agency must comply with the charter service regulations.
(6) Q: Can a transit agency provide transportation to transit employees for an event such as the funeral of a transit employee or the transit agency's annual picnic?
A: Yes. These events do not fall within the definition of charter, because while the service is exclusive, it is not provided at the request of a third party and it is not at a negotiated price. Furthermore, a transit agency transporting its own employees to events sponsored by the transit agency for employee morale purposes or to events directly related to internal employee relations such as a funeral of an employee, or to the transit agency's picnic, is paying for these services as part of the transit agency's own administrative overhead.
(7) Q: Is sightseeing service considered to be charter?
A: “Sightseeing” is a different type of service than charter service. “Sightseeing” service is regularly scheduled round trip service to see the sights, which is often accompanied by a narrative guide and is open to the public for a set price. Public transit agencies may not provide sightseeing service with federally funded assets or assistance because it falls outside the definition of “public transportation” under 49 U.S.C. Section 5302(a) (10), unless FTA provides written concurrence for that service as an approved incidental use. While, in general, “sightseeing” service does not constitute charter service, “sightseeing” service that also meets the definition of charter service would be prohibited, even as an incidental use.
(8) Q: If a private provider receives Federal funds from one of the listed programs in this section, does that mean the private provider cannot use its privately owned equipment to provide charter service?
A: No. A private provider may still provide charter services even though it receives Federal funds under one of the programs listed in this section. The charter regulations only apply to a private provider during the time period when it is providing public transportation services under contract with a public transit agency.
(9) Q: What does FTA mean by the phrase “non-FTA funded activities”?
A: Non-FTA funded activities are those activities that are not provided under contract or other arrangement with a public transit agency using FTA funds.
(10) Q: How does a private provider know whether an activity is FTA-funded or not?
A: The private provider should refer to the contract with the public transit agency to understand the services that are funded with Federal dollars.
(11) Q: What if the service is being provided under a capital cost of contracting scenario?
A: When a private operator receives FTA funds through capital cost of contracting, the only expenses attributed to FTA are those related to the transit service provided. The principle of capital cost of contracting is to pay for the capital portion of the privately owned assets used in public transportation (including a share of preventive maintenance costs attributable to the use of the vehicle in the contracted transit service). When a private operator uses that same privately owed vehicle in non-FTA funded service, such as charter service, the preventive maintenance and capital depreciation are not paid by FTA, so the charter rule does not apply.
(12) Q: What if the service is provided under a turn-key scenario?
A: To the extent the private charter provider is standing in the shoes of the public transit agency, the charter rules apply. Under a turn-key contract, where the private operator provides and operates a dedicated transit fleet, then the private provider must abide by the charter regulations for the transit part of its business. The charter rule would not apply, however, to other aspects of that private provider's business. FTA also recognizes that a private operator may use vehicles in its fleet interchangeably. So long as the operator is providing the number, type, and quality of vehicles contractually required to be provided exclusively for transit use and is not using FTA funds to cross-subsidize private charter service, the private operator may manage its fleet according to best business practice.
(13) Q: Does FTA's rule prohibit a private provider from providing charter service when its privately owned vehicles are not engaged in providing public transportation?
A: No. The charter rule is only applicable to the actual public transit service provided
(14) Q: May a private provider use vehicles whose acquisition was federally funded to provide private charter services?
A: It depends. A private provider, who is a sub-recipient or sub-grantee, when not engaged in providing public transit using federally funded vehicles, may provide charter services using federally funded vehicles only in conformance with the charter regulations. Vehicles, whose only federal funding was for accessibility equipment, are not considered to be federally funded vehicles in this context. In other words, vehicles, whose lifts are only funded under FTA programs, may be used in charter service.
(15) Q: May a public transit agency provide “seasonal service” (e.g., service May through September for the summer beach season)?
A: “Seasonal service” that is regular and continuing, available to the public, and controlled by the public transit agency meets the definition of public transportation and is not charter service. The service should have a regular schedule and be planned in the same manner as all the other routes, except that it is run only during the periods when there is sufficient demand to justify public transit service; for example, the winter ski season or summer beach season. “Seasonal service” is distinguishable from charter service provided for a special event or function that occurs on an irregular basis or for a limited duration, because the seasonal transit service is regular and continuing and the demand for service is not triggered by an event or function. In addition, “seasonal service” is generally more than a month or two, and the schedule is consistent from year to year, based on calendar or climate, rather than being scheduled around a specific event.
(16) Q: The definition of charter service does not include demand response services, but what happens if a group of individuals request demand response service?
A: Demand response trips provide service from multiple origins to a single destination, a single origin to multiple destinations, or even multiple origins to multiple destinations. These types of trips are considered demand response transit service, not charter service, because even though a human service agency pays for the transportation of its clients, trips are scheduled and routed for the individuals in the group. Service to individuals can be identified by vehicle routing that includes multiple origins, multiple destinations, or both, based on the needs of individual members of the group, rather than the group as a whole. For example, demand response service that takes all of the members of a group home on an annual excursion to a baseball game. Some sponsored trips carried out as part of a Coordinated Human Services Transportation Plan, such as trips for Head Start, assisted living centers, or sheltered workshops may even be provided on an exclusive basis where clients of a particular agency cannot be mixed with members of the general public or clients of other agencies for safety or other reasons specific to the needs of the human service clients.
(17) Q: Is it charter if a demand response transit service carries a group of individuals with disabilities from a single origin to a single destination on a regular basis?
A: No. Daily subscription trips between a group living facility for persons with developmental disabilities to a sheltered workshop where the individuals work, or weekly trips from the group home to a recreation center is “special transportation” and not considered charter service. These trips are regular and continuous and do not meet the definition of charter.
(18) Q: If a third party requests charter service for the exclusive use of a bus or van, but the transit agency provides the service free of charge, is it charter?
A: No. The definition of charter service under 49 CFR Section 604.3(c) (1), requires a negotiated price, which implies an exchange of money. Thus, free service does not meet the negotiated price requirement. Transit agencies should note, however, that a negotiated price could be the regular fixed route fare or when a third party indirectly pays for the regular fare.
(19) Q: If a transit agency accepts a subsidy for providing shuttle service for an entire baseball season, is that charter?
A: Yes. Even though there are many baseball games over several months, the service is still to an event or function on an irregular basis or for a limited duration for which a third party pays in whole or in part. In order to provide the service, a transit agency must first provide notice to registered charter providers.
(20) Q: If a transit agency contracts with a third party to provide free shuttle service during football games for persons with disabilities, is that charter?
A: Yes. Even though the service is for persons with disabilities, the transit agency receives payment from a third party for an event or function that occurs on an irregular basis or for a limited duration. In order for a transit agency to provide the service, it must provide notice to the list of registered charter providers first.
(21) Q: What if a business park pays the transit agency to add an additional stop on its fixed route to include the business park, is that charter?
A: No. The service is not to an event or function and it does not occur on an irregular basis or for a limited duration.
(22) Q: What if a university pays the transit agency to expand its regular fixed route to include stops on the campus, is that charter?
A: No. The service is not to an event or function and it does not occur on an irregular basis or for a limited duration.
(23) Q: What if a university pays the transit agency to provide shuttle service that does not connect to the transit agency's regular routes, is that charter?
A: Yes. The service is provided at the request of a third party, the university, for the exclusive use of a bus or van by the university students and faculty for a negotiated price.
(24) Q: What if the university pays the transit agency to provide shuttle service to football games and graduation, is that charter?
A: Yes. The service is to an event or function that occurs on an irregular basis or for a limited duration. As such, in order to provide the service, a transit agency must provide notice to the list of registered charter providers.
(25) Q: What happens if a transit agency does not have fixed route service to determine whether the fare charged is a premium fare?
A: A transit agency should compare the proposed fare to what it might charge for a similar trip under a demand response scenario.
(26) Q: How can a transit agency tell if the fare is “premium”?
A: The transit agency should analyze its regular fares to determine whether the fare charged is higher than its regular fare for comparable services. For example, if the transit agency proposes to provide an express shuttle service to football games, it should look at the regular fares charged for express shuttles of similar distance elsewhere in the transit system. In addition, the service may be charter if the transit agency charges a lower fare or no fare because of a third party subsidy.
(27) Q: What if a transit agency charges a customer an up front special event fare that includes the outbound and inbound trips, is that a premium fare?
A: It depends. If the transit agency charges the outbound and inbound fares up front, but many customers don't travel both directions, then the fare may be premium. This would not be true generally for park and ride lots, where the customer parks his or her car, and, would most likely use transit to return to the same lot. Under that scenario, the transit agency may collect the regular outbound and inbound fare up front.
(28) Q: What if a transit agency wishes to create a special pass for an event or function on an irregular basis or for a limited duration that allows a customer to ride the transit system several times for the duration of the event, is that charter?
A: It depends. If the special pass costs more than the fare for a reasonable number of expected individual trips during the event, then the special pass represents a premium fare. FTA will also consider whether a third party provides a subsidy for the service.
(29) Q: Is it a third party subsidy if a third party collects the regular fixed route fare for the transit agency?
A. Generally no. If the service provided is not at the request of a third party for the exclusive use of a bus or van, then a third party collecting the fare would not qualify the service as charter. But, a transit agency has to consider carefully whether the service is at the request of an event planner. For example, a group offers to make “passes” for its organization and then later work out the payment to the transit agency. The transit agency can only collect the regular fare for each passenger.
(30) Q: If the transit agency is part of the local government and an agency within the local government pays for service to an event or function of limited duration or that occurs on an irregular basis, is that charter?
A: Yes. Since the agency pays for the charter service, whether by direct payment or transfer of funds through internal local government accounts, it represents a third party payment for charter service. Thus, the service would meet the definition of charter service under 49 CFR Section 604.3(c) (1).
(31) Q: What if an organization requests and pays for service through an in-kind payment such as paying for a new bus shelter or providing advertising, is that charter?
A: Yes. The service is provided at the request of a third party for a negotiated price, which would be the cost of a new bus shelter or advertising. The key here is the direct payment for service to an event or function. For instance, advertising that appears on buses for regular service does not make it charter.
(32) Q: Under the definition of “Government Officials,” does the government official have to currently hold an office in government?
A: Yes. In order to take advantage of the Government Official exception, the individual must hold currently a government position that is elected or appointed through a political process.
(33) Q: Does a university qualify as a QHSO?
A: No. Most universities do not have a mission of serving the needs of the elderly, persons with disabilities, or low income individuals.
(34) Q: Do the Boy Scouts of America qualify as a QHSO?
A: No. The Boy Scouts of America's mission is not to serve the needs of the elderly,
(35) Q: What qualifies as indirect financial assistance?
A: The inclusion of “indirect” financial assistance as part of the definition of “recipient” covers “subrecipients.” In other words, “subrecipients” are subject to the charter regulation. FTA modified the definition of recipient in the final rule to clarify this point.
(36) Q: In order to take advantage of the Government Officials exception, does a transit agency have to transport only elected or appointed government officials?
A: No, but there has to be at least one elected or appointed government official on the trip.
(37) Q: If a transit agency provides notice regarding a season's worth of service and some of the service will occur in less than 30 days, does a registered charter provider have to respond within 72 hours or 14 days?
A: A transit agency should provide as much notice as possible for service that occurs over several months. Thus, a transit agency should provide notice to registered charter providers more than 30 days in advance of the service, which would give registered charter provider 14 days to respond to the notice. Under pressure to begin the service sooner, the transit agency could provide a separate notice for only that portion of the service occurring in less than 30 days.
(38) Q: Does a transit agency have to contact registered charter providers in order to petition the Administrator for an event of regional or national significance?
A: Yes. A petition for an event of regional or national significance must demonstrate that not only has the public transit agency contacted registered charter providers, but also demonstrate how the transit agency will include registered charter providers in providing the service to the event of regional or national significance.
(39) Q: Where does a transit agency have to file its petition?
A: A transit agency must file the petition with the ombudsman at
(40) Q: What qualifies as a unique and time sensitive event?
A: In order to petition the Administrator for a discretionary exception, a public transit agency must demonstrate that the event is unique or that circumstances are such that there is not enough time to check with registered charter providers. Events that occur on an annual basis are generally not considered unique or time sensitive.
(41) Q: Is there any particular format for quarterly reports for exceptions?
A: No. The report must contain the information required by the regulations and clearly identify the exception under which the transit agency performed the service.
(42) Q: May a transit agency lease its vehicles to one registered charter provider if there is another registered charter provider that can perform all of the requested service with private charter vehicles?
A: No. A transit agency may not lease its vehicles to one registered charter provider when there is another registered charter provider that can perform all of the requested service. In that case, the transit vehicles would enable the first registered charter provider to charge less for the service than the second registered charter provider that uses all private charter vehicles.
(43) Q: Where do I submit my reports?
A: FTA has adapted its electronic grants making system, TEAM, to include charter rule reporting. Grantees should file the required reports through TEAM. These reports will be available to the public through FTA's charter bus service Web page at:
(44) Q: May a private provider register to receive notice of charter service requests from all 50 States?
A: Yes. A private provider may register to receive notice from all 50 States; however, a private provider should only register for those states for which it can realistically originate service.
(45) Q: May a registered charter provider select which portions of the service it would like to provide?
A: No. A registered charter provider may not “cherry pick” the service described in the notice. In other words, if the e-mail notification describes service for an entire football season, then a registered charter provider that responds to the notice indicating it can provide only a couple of weekends of service would be non-responsive to the e-mail notice. Public transit agencies may, however, include several individual charter events in the e-mail notification. Under those circumstances, a registered charter provider may select from those individual events to provide service.
(46) Q: May a transit agency include information on “special requests” from the customer in the notice to registered charter providers?
A: No. A transit agency must strictly follow the requirements of 49 CFR Section
(47) Q: What happens if a transit agency sends out a notice regarding charter service, but later decides to perform the service free of charge and without a third party subsidy?
A: If a transit agency believes it may receive the authority to provide the service free of charge, with no third party subsidy, then it should send out a new e-mail notice stating that it intends to provide the service free of charge.
(48) Q: What happens if a registered charter provider initially indicates interest in providing the service described in a notice, but then later is unable to perform the service?
A: If the registered charter provider acts in good faith by providing reasonable notice to the transit agency of its changed circumstances, and that registered charter provider was the only one to respond to the notice, then the transit agency may step back in and provide the service.
(49) Q: What happens if a registered charter provider indicates interest in providing the service, but then does not contact the customer?
A: A transit agency may step back in and provide the service if the registered charter provider was the only one to respond affirmatively to the notice.
(50) Q: What happens if a registered charter provider indicates interest in providing the service, contacts the customer, and then fails to provide a price quote to the customer?
A: If the requested service is 14 days or less away, a transit agency may step back in and provide the service if the registered charter provider was the only one to respond affirmatively to the notice upon filing a complaint with FTA to remove the registered charter provider from the FTA Charter Registration Web site. If the complaint of “bad faith” negotiations is not sustained by FTA, the transit agency may face a penalty, as determined by FTA. If the requested service is more than 14 days away, and the transit agency desires to step back in, then upon filing a complaint alleging “bad faith” negotiations that is sustained by FTA, the transit agency may step back in.
(51) Q: What happens if a transit agency entered into a contract to perform charter service before the effective date of the final rule?
A: If the service described in the contract occurs after the effective date of the final rule, the service must be in conformance with the new charter regulation.
(52) Q: What if the service described in the notice requires the use of park and ride lots owned by the transit agency?
A: If the transit agency received Federal funds for those park and ride lots, then the transit agency should allow a registered charter provider to use those lots upon a showing of an acceptable incidental use (the transit agency retains satisfactory continuing control over the park and ride lot and the use does not interfere with the provision of public transportation) and if the registered charter provider signs an appropriate use and indemnification agreement.
(53) Q: What if the registered charter provider does not provide quality charter service to the customer?
A: If a registered charter provider does not provide service to the satisfaction of the customer, the customer may pursue a civil action against the registered charter provider in a court of law. If the registered charter provider also demonstrated bad faith or fraud, it can be removed from the FTA Charter Registration Web site.
(54) Q: May a trade association or other operators that are unable to provide requested charter service have the right to file a complaint against the transit agency?
A: Yes. A registered charter operator or its duly authorized representative, which can include a trade association, may file a complaint under section 604.26(a). Under the new rule, a private charter operator that is not registered with FTA's charter registration Web site may not file a complaint.
(55) Q: Is there a time limit for making complaints?
A: Yes. Complaints must be filed within 90 days of the alleged unauthorized charter service.
(56) Q: Are there examples of the likely remedies FTA may impose for a violation of the charter service regulations?
A: Yes. Appendix D contains a matrix of likely remedies that FTA may impose for a violation of the charter service regulations.
(57) Q: When a complaint is filed, who is responsible for arbitration or litigation costs?
A: FTA will pay for the presiding official and the facility for the hearing, if necessary. Each party involved in the litigation is responsible for its own litigation costs.
(58) Q: What affirmative defenses might be available in the complaint process?
A: An affirmative defense to a complaint could state the applicability of one of the exceptions such as 49 CFR Section 604.6, which states that the service that was provided was within the allowable 80 hours of government official service.
(59) Q: What can a transit agency do if it believes that a registered charter provider is not bargaining in good faith with a customer?
A: If a transit agency believes that a registered charter provider is not bargaining in good faith with the customer, the transit
(60) Q: Does a registered charter provider have to charge the same fare or rate as a public transit agency?
A: No. A registered charter provider is not under an obligation to charge the same fare or rate as public transit agency. A registered charter provider, however, must charge commercially reasonable rates.
(61) Q: What actions can a private charter operator take when it becomes aware of a transit agency's plan to engage in charter service just before the date of the charter?
A: As soon as a registered charter provider becomes aware of an upcoming charter event that it was not contacted about, then it should request an advisory opinion and cease and desist order. If the service has already occurred, then the registered charter provider may file a complaint.
(62) Q: When a registered charter provider indicates that there are no privately owned vehicles available for lease, must the public transit agency investigate independently whether the representation by the registered charter provider is accurate?
A: No. The public transit agency is not required to investigate independently whether the registered charter provider's representation is accurate unless there is reason to suspect that the registered charter provider is committing fraud. Rather, the public transit agency need only confirm that the number of vehicles owned by all registered charter providers in the geographic service area is consistent with the registered charter provider's representation.
(63) Q: How will FTA determine the remedy for a violation of the charter regulations?
A: Remedies will be based upon the facts of the situation, including but not limited to, the extent of deviation from the regulations and the economic benefit from providing the charter service. See section 604.47 and Appendix D for more details.
(64) Q: Can multiple violations in a single finding stemming from a single complaint constitute a pattern of violations?
A: Yes. A pattern of violations is defined as more than one finding of unauthorized charter service under this part by FTA beginning with the most recent finding of unauthorized charter service and looking back over a period not to exceed 72 months. While a single complaint may contain several allegations, the complaint must allege more than a single event that included unauthorized charter service in order to establish a pattern of violations.
(65) Q: If a grantee operates assets that are locally funded are such assets subject to the charter regulations?
A: It depends. If a recipient receives FTA funds for operating assistance or stores its vehicles in a FTA-funded facility or receives indirect FTA assistance, then the charter regulations apply. The fact that the vehicle was locally funded does not make the recipient exempt from the charter regulations. If both operating and capital funds are locally supplied, then the vehicle is not subject to the charter service regulations.
(66) Q: What can a public transit agency do if there is a time sensitive event, such as a presidential inauguration, for which the transit agency does not have time to consult with all the private charter operators in its area?
A: 49 Section 604.11 provides a process to petition the FTA Administrator for permission to provide service for a unique and time sensitive event. A presidential inauguration, however, is not a good example of a unique and time sensitive event. A presidential inauguration is an event with substantial advance planning and a transit agency should have time to contact private operators. If the inauguration also includes ancillary events, the public transit agency should refer the customer to the registration list.
(67) Q: Are body-on-van-chassis vehicles classified as buses or vans under the charter regulation?
A: Body-on-van-chassis vehicles are treated as vans under the charter regulation.
(68) Q: When a new operator registers, may recipients continue under existing contractual agreements for charter service?
A: Yes. If the contract was signed before the new private operator registered, the arrangement can continue for up to 90 days. During that 90 day period, however, the public transit agency must enter into an agreement with the new registrant. If not, the transit agency must terminate the existing agreement for all registered charter providers.
(69) Q: Must a public transit agency continue to serve as the lead for events of regional or national significance, if after consultation with all registered charter providers, registered charter providers have enough vehicles to provide all of the service to the event?
A. No. If after consultation with registered charter providers, there is no need for the public transit vehicles, then the public transit agency may decline to serve as the lead and allow the registered charter providers to work directly with event organizers. Alternatively, the public transit entity may retain the lead and continue to coordinate with event organizers and registered charter providers.
(70) Q: What happens if a customer specifically requests a trolley from a transit agency and there are no registered charter providers that have a trolley?
A: FTA views trolleys as buses. Thus, all the privately owned buses must be engaged in service and unavailable before a transit agency may lease its trolley. Alternatively, the transit agency could enter into an agreement with all registered charter providers in its geographic service area to allow it to provide trolley charter services.
(71) Q: How does a transit agency enter into an agreement with all registered charter providers in its geographic service area?
A: A public transit agency should send an email notice to all registered charter providers of its intent to provide charter service. A registered charter provider must respond to the email notice either affirmatively or negatively. The transit agency should also indicate in the email notification that failure to respond to the email notice results in concurrence with the notification.
(72) Q: Can a registered charter provider rescind its affirmative response to an email notification?
A: Yes. If after further consideration or a change in circumstances for the registered charter provider, a registered charter provider may notify the customer and the transit agency that it is no longer interested in providing the requested charter service. At that point, the transit agency may make the decision to step back in to provide the service.
(73) Q: What happens after a registered charter provider submits a quote for charter services to a customer? Does the transit agency have to review the quote?
A: Once a registered charter provider responds affirmatively to an email notification and provides the customer a commercially reasonable quote, then the transit agency may not step back in to perform the service. A transit agency is not responsible for reviewing the quote submitted by a registered charter provider. FTA recommends that a registered charter provider include in the quote an expiration date for the offer.
Remedy Assessment Matrix:
(1) The nature and circumstances of the violation;
(2) The extent and gravity of the violation (“extent of deviation from regulatory requirements”);
(3) The revenue earned (“economic benefit”) by providing the charter service;
(4) The operating budget of the recipient;
(5) Such other matters as justice may require; and
(6) Whether a recipient provided service described in a cease and desist order after issuance of such order by the Chief Counsel.